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A
QUESTION BANK N
CS-301: Software Engineering S

(New- 2017 Pattern)


1) Which is NOT a software characteristic? D
A) Software does not wear out B) Software is flexible
C) Software is not manufactured C) Software is always correct
2) Product is
A) Deliverables B) User expectations
C) Organization's effort in development D) none of the above
3) Which of the following is not a defect metric? D

A) Location B) Cause
C Time to fix D) All the above
4) System Test Plan will not include Approach A
A) Pass/Fail criteria B) Risks
C) Suspension and Resumption criteria D) None of the above
5) Which is not a product metric? C
A) Size B) Reliability
C) Productivity D) Functionality
6) Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software? A
A) System software B) Application software
C) Scientific software D) None of the above
7) Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software A
processes?
A)Software dependence B)Software development
C)Software validation D)Software specification
8) What are the characteristics of software? D
A) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical
sense.
B) Software doesn’t “wear out”.
C) Software can be custom built or custom build.
D) All mentioned above

1 P.T.O.
9) Why is Requirements Management Important? It is due to the changes D
A) to the environment B) in technology
C) in customer’s expectations C) in all of the mentioned
10) Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC? C
A) Waterfall Model B) Prototyping Model
C) RAD Model D) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
11) UML stands for B
A) Uniform modeling language B) Unified modeling language
C) Unit modeling language C) Universal modeling language
12) During software development, which factor is most crucial? A
A) People B) Product
C) Process D) Project
13) CASE Tool is A
A) Computer Aided Software Engineering
B) Component Aided Software Engineering
C) Constructive Aided Software Engineering
D)Computer Analysis Software Engineering
14) Software testing is: D
A) The process of demonstrating that errors are not present
B) The process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is
supposed to do
C) The process of executing a program to show it is working as per specifications
D) The process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors
15) Software Quality is D
A) Conformance to requirements B) Fitness for the purpose
C) Level of satisfaction D) All of the above
16) What are attributes of good software? B
A) Software maintainability B) Software maintainability & functionality
C) Software functionality D) Software development

2
17) The incremental model of software development is B
A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
B) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
C) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
D) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.
18) Risk analysis of a project is done in B
A) System Analysis phase B) Feasibility Study
C) Implementation phase D) Maintenance phase
19) After implementation of the system, system maintenance could be done for D
A) Minor changes in the processing logic
B) Errors detected during the processing
C) Revision of the formats of the reports
D) All of the above
20) Which one is not a step of requirement engineering? C
A) Requirements elicitation B) Requirements analysis
C) Requirements design D) Requirements documentation
21) How many product quality factors have been proposed in McCall quality model? D
A) 2 B) 3
C) 11 D) 6
22) ) Which one is not a software quality model? C
A) McCall model B) Boehm model
C) ISO 9000 D) ISO 9126
23) In McCall quality model; product revision quality factor consist of D
A) Maintainability B) Flexibility
C) Testability D) None of the above
24) During validation D
A) Process is checked B) Product is checked
C) Developer’s performance is evaluated D) The customer checks the product

3 P.T.O.
25) Acceptance testing is done by B
A) Developers B) Customers
C) Testers D) All of the
26) Software Maintenance includes D
A) Error corrections B) Enhancements of capabilities
C) Deletion of obsolete capabilities D) All of the mentioned
27) Choose the correct combination of good coded program: C
A) Usability, Reliability, Robustness, Flexibility
B) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Usability
C) readability, robustness, Usability, Accuracy
D) Accuracy, robustness, Testability, Usability
28) If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a C
project / product within a stipulated time-frame but within cost barriers, which model
would you select?
A) Waterfall B) Spiral
C) RAD D) Incremental
29) What is legacy system? B
A) A legacy system refers to newer version of software.
B) A legacy system refers to outdated application software that is used instead of
available upgraded versions.
C) A legacy system always devolved by advance technology.
D) None of the above.
30) What is the main aim of Software engineering? C
A) Reliable software B) Cost effective software
C) Reliable and cost effective software D) None of the above
31) Test suite is A
A) Set of test cases B) Set of inputs
C) Set of outputs D) None of the above
32) Testing the software is basically C
A) Verification B) Validation
C) Verification and validation D) None of the above

4
33) Temporal cohesion means C
A)cohesion between temporal variables B) cohesion between local variables
C) cohesion with respect to time D)coincidental cohesion.
34) The most desirable form of coupling is B
A)control coupling B) data coupling
C)common coupling D) content coupling
35) Which one is not a strategy for design C
A)bottom-up design B) top-down design
C)embedded design D) hybrid design
36) In software maintenance removing errors spotted by users is known as _______. B
A) Adaptive B) Corrective
C) Perfective D) Preventive
37) The concurrent development model is C
A) Another name for concurrent engineering.
B) Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions.
C) Both a and b
D) None of these
38) Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project. A
A) True B) False
C) Depends upon the size of project D) None of the mentioned
39) Design Phase consists of ……………………. D
1. Identity the functions to be performed
2. Design the input/output and file design
3. Defining basic parameters for system design
A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3 D) 1, 2 & 3
40) Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis? D
A)Use Cases B) Entity Relationship Diagram
C) State Transition Diagram D) Activity Diagram

5 P.T.O.
41) Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These A
include
A) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B) A separate configuration management team for each project
C) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
D) All of the mentioned
42) Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools? D
A) Tracking of change proposals
B) Storing versions of system components
C) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
D) None of the mentioned
43) Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity? B
A) Configuration item identification B) Risk management
C) Release management D) Branch management
44) Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits A
of proposed changes?
A) Change management B) Version management
C) System building D) Release management
45) Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried A
out with automated testing to discover software problems?
A) Agile method B) Parallel compilation method
C) Large systems method D) All of the mentioned
46) What is the first step of requirement elicitation? D
A) Identifying Stakeholder B) Listing out Requirements
C) Requirements Gathering D) All of the mentioned
47) Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis? D
A) Use Cases B) Entity Relationship Diagram
C) State Transition Diagram D) Activity Diagram
48) The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification. A
A) Black-box B) White-box
C) Grey-box D) None of the mentioned

6
49) Which of the following are areas of concern in the design model? D
A) architecture B) data
C) interfaces D) All of these
50) Which of the following can be used to represent the architectural design of a piece D
of software?
A) Dynamic models B) Functional models
C) Structural models D) All of the above
51) Which of the following is a configuration item? D
A) Design & Test specification B) Source code
C) Log information D) All of the mentioned
52) _______ is a Software Configuration Management concept that helps us to A
control change.
A) Baseline B) Procedure
C) Audit D) None of the above
53) What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM)? D
A) Identify change
B) Control change
C) Ensure that change is being properly implemented
D) All of the above
54) Which of the following tasks is not part of Software Configuration Management
(SCM)?
A) Change control B) Version control
C) Configuration status reporting D) None of the above
55) Table review process is followed mostly for reviewing documents. What is the C
other name of Table Review Process?

A) PEST Analysis B) SWOT Analysis

C) Fagan’s Review Process D) Brainstorming

7 P.T.O.
56) Which design model elements are used to depict a model of information C
represented from the user's view?
A) Architectural design elements
B) Component-level design elements
C) Data design elements
D) Interface design elements
57) Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module B
A) can be written more compactly
B) focuses on just one thing.
C) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.
D) is connected to other modules and the outside world.
58) Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module A
A) is connected to other modules and the outside world.
B) can be written more compactly
C) focuses on just one thing.
D) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
59) Software quality assurance consists of which function of management. C
A) reporting functions B) auditing functions
C)both A and B D)all of the above
60) Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find during the B
process so that after the release of the software they do not become the defect
A) failure B) errors
C) faults D) none of these

61) Which of the following interface design principles does not allow the user to D
remain in control of the interaction with a computer?

A) allow interaction to interruptible

B) allow interaction to be undoable

C) hide technical internals from casual users

D) Only Provide One Rigidly Defined Method For Accomplishing A Task

8
62) Which of the following interface design principles reduce the user's memory load? D

A) define intuitive shortcuts

B) disclose information in a progressive fashion

C) establish meaningful defaults

D) All of these

63) Which of these framework activities is not normally associated with the user A
interface design processes?
A) Cost Estimation B) interface construction
C) interface validation D) user and task analysis
64) The computer's display capabilities are the primary determinant of the order in B
which user interface design activities are completed.

A) True

B) False

65) Which model depicts the profile of the end users of a computer system? C

A) design model B) implementation model

C) User Model D) user's model

66) Select the people who identify the document and verifies the correctness of the B
software
A) Project manager B) SQA team
C) Project team D) All of the mentioned

67) Select which option is not true about SQA…? C


A) Audits and reviews to be performed by the team
B) Amount of technical work to be performed
C) Evaluations to be performed
D) Documents that are produced by the SQA team.

9 P.T.O.
68) SCM stands for________ D
A) Software Cognizance Maintenance B) Software Clearance Measurement
C)Software Configuration Measurement D) Software Configuration Management
69) Which requirement is the foundation from which quality is measured? B
A) Hardware B) Software
C) Programmers D) None of the mentioned

70) ISO stands for _____________ A

A)International Organization for Standardization

B) International Standard Organization

C) International Standard in Organisation

D) International Specification in Organization

71) People who perform software quality assurance must look at the software from A
the customer's perspective.
A) True
B) False
72) Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps. C

A) analyze, improve, control B) analyze, design, verify

C) Define, Measure, Analyze D) define, measure, control

73) Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to D

A) errors in accuracy B) errors in design

C) errors in implementation D) B And C

74) Which of the following is not a section in the standard for A

SQA plans recommended by IEEE?

A) Budget B) documentation

C) reviews and audits D) test

10
75) The cleanroom strategy is based on the ________ software process model. B

A) evolutionary B) Incremental

C) revolutionary D) spiral

76) Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on C


A) Employee B) Customer
C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of the above
77) Which design is equivalent to floor plan of the house? A

A)Architectural design B) component level design

C) data design D) interface design

78) The Objective of ISO 9000 family of Quality management is_________ A

A)Customer Satisfaction B) Employee Satisfaction

C) Skill Enhancement D) Environmental Issues

79) What types of abstraction are used in software design? D

A) Control B) data

C) procedural D) all of these

80) White Box techniques are also classified as B


A) Design based testing B) Structural testing
C) Error guessing technique D) None of the mentioned

81) Which of the following are areas of concern in design model? D

A) Architecture B) Data

C) Interface D) All

11 P.T.O.
82) Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design, A
1. Place the user in control.
2. Reduce the user’s memory load.
3. Make the interface consistent.
These rules are called as _________.
A)Golden Rule B)Silver Rule
C)User Rule D)Interface rule
83) Which of the following is non-functional testing? B
A) Black box testing B) Performance testing
C) Unit testing D) None of the mentioned

84) What are the Types of Integration Testing? D

A) Big Bang Testing B)Bottom Up Testing

C) Top Down Testing D) All the above

85) Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on C


A) Employee B) Customer
C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of the above
86) What is Cyclomatic complexity? B
A) Black box testing B) White box testing
C) Yellow box testing D) Green box testing

87) Which of these characteristics of good design? C

A) Strong coupling between modules

B) implements all requirements in analysis model

C) B and D

D) provides a complete picture of software

88) Quality Management in software engineering is also known as A


A) SQA B) SQM
C) SQI D) SQA and SQM

12
89) Select the people who identify the document and verify the correctness of the A
software…

A) SQA team B) Project team

C ) Project manager D) All of the mentioned

90) What are the various Testing Levels? D


A) Unit Testing B) System Testing
C) Integration Testing D) All of the mentioned

91) Which one is not a size measure for software C

A) LOC B) Function Count

C) Cyclomatic Complexity D) Halstead’s program length

92) Test cases should uncover errors like A


A) Non-existent loop termination
B) Comparison of different data types
C) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
D) All of the mentioned

93) In which testing level the focus is on customer usage? D


A) Alpha Testing B) Beta Testing
C) Validation Testing D) Both Alpha and Beta

94) Software testing is: D

A) The process of demonstrating that errors are not present

B) The process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is


supposed to do

C) The process of executing a program to show it is working as per specifications

D) The process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors

13 P.T.O.
95) Functional testing is known as: B

A) Structural testing B) Behavior testing

C) Regression testing D) None of the above

96) Which of the following is a form of functional testing? A

A)Boundary value analysis B)Usability testing

C) Performance testing D)Security testing

97) Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the C
software?
A) Project manager B) Project team
C) SQA group D) All of the mentioned

98) The main focus of acceptance testing is: D

A) finding faults in the system

B) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users

C) testing the system with other systems

D) testing for a business perspective

99) What is not included in prevention costs? D


A) quality planning B) formal technical reviews
C) test equipment D) equipment calibration and maintenance

100)Alpha and Beta testing techniques are related to C

A) System testing B) Unit testing

C) Acceptance testing D) Integration testing

**********

14
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All Course MCQ

आमचा हे तू फक्त तु मच्या ज्ञानात भर दे ण्याचा आहे . तु म्हाला Exam मधी


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M.Sc.-Information Technology A
N
IT-401: Software Engineering
S
1) What are the characteristics of software? D
(A) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical
sense.
(B) Software doesn’t “wear out”.
(C) Software can be custom built or custom build.
(D) All mentioned above
2) FAST stands for ________ . C

(A). Functional Application Specification Technique


(B). Fast Application Specification Technique
(C). Facilitated Application Specification Technique
(D). None of the above

3) Which is not a step of Requirement Engineering? C

(A). Requirements elicitation


(B). Requirements analysis
(C). Requirements design
(D). Requirements documentation

4) Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software A


processes?
(A)Software dependence (B)Software development
(C)Software validation (D)Software specification
5) Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ? D
(A)Use Cases (B) Entity Relationship Diagram
(C) State Transition Diagram (D) Activity Diagram

1 P.T.O.
6) Why is Requirements Management Important? It is due to the changes D
(A) to the environment (B) in technology
(C) in customer’s expectations (C) in all of the mentioned
7) Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC? C
(A) Waterfall Model (B) Prototyping Model
(C) RAD Model (D) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
8) If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has A
only one interpretation, SRS is said to be correct _____ .

(A). Unambiguous
(B). Consistent
(C). Verifiable
(D). None of the above

9) What are attributes of good software? B


(A) Software maintainability (B) Software maintainability & functionality
(C) Software functionality (D) Software development
10) SDLC stands for A
(A) Software Development Life Cycle (B) System Development Life cycle
(C) Software Design Life Cycle (D) System Design Life Cycle
11) Risk analysis of a project is done in B
(A) System Analysis phase (B) Feasibility Study
(C) Implementation phase (D) Maintenance phase
12) Which is the most important feature of spiral model? B

(A). Quality management


(B). Risk management
(C). Performance management
(D). Efficiency management

2
13) Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project. A
(A) True (B) False
(C) Depends upon the size of project (D) None of the mentioned
14) Beta Testing is done by C
(A) Developers (B) Testers
(C) Users (D) All of the mentioned
15) Software Maintenance includes D
(A) Error corrections (B) Enhancements of capabilities
(C) Deletion of obsolete capabilities (D) All of the mentioned
16) Software consists of ______. B

(A) . Set of instructions + operating procedures


(B) . Programs + documentation + operating procedures
(C) . Programs + hardware manuals
(D) . Set of programs

17) Choose the correct combination of good coded program: C


(A) Usability, Reliability, Robustness, Flexibility
(B) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Usability
(C) readability, robustness, Usability, Accuracy
(D) Accuracy, robustness, Testability, Usability
18) The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are A
called _______ .

(A) CASE Tools


(B) CAME tools
(C) CAQE tools
(D) CARE tools

3 P.T.O.
19) SRD stands for _______ . B

(A). Software Requirements Definition


(B). Structured Requirements Definition
(C). Software Requirements Diagram
(D). Structured Requirements Diagram

20) A COCOMO model is ________ . B

(A) Common Cost Estimation Model.


(B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model
(C) Complete Cost Estimation Model
(D) Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
21) The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is ______ . A

(A) Evolutionary Development Model


(B) Waterfall Model
(C) Prototyping
(D) Iterative Enhancement Model

22) 31) Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of _______ . A

(A) Acceptance testing


(B) Integration testing
(C) System Testing
(D) Unit testing

23) If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a C
project / product within a stipulated time-frame but within cost barriers, which
model would you select?
(A) Waterfall (B) Spiral
(C) RAD (D) Incremental

4
24) What is legacy system? B
(A) A legacy system refers to newer version of software.
(B) A legacy system refers to out-dated application software that is used instead of
available upgraded versions.
(C) A legacy system always devolved by advance technology.
(D) None of the above.
25) What is the main aim of Software engineering? C
(A) Reliable software (B) Cost effective software
(C) Reliable and cost effective software (D) None of the above
26) In software maintenance removing errors spotted by users is known as _______. B
(A) Adaptive (B) Corrective
(C) Perfective (D) Preventive
27) Which plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members D
will be developed?

(A). HR Plan
(B). Manager Plan
(C).Team Plan
(D).Staff Development Plan

28) What can static analysis NOT find? C

(A).The use of a variable before it has been defined.


(B). Unreachable (“dead”) code.
(C). Memory leaks.
(D). Array bound violations.

5 P.T.O.
29) The Test Cases Derived from use cases _______ . A

(A) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real
world use of the system.

(B) . Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the
testing use of the system.

(C) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real
world use of the system.

(D) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level.
30) Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution D
Phase?
(A).Creating test suites from the test cases
(B). Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
(C).Comparing actual results
(D). Designing the Tests

31) Which chart is a tool that depicts project as network diagram that is capable of A
graphically representing main events of project in both parallel and consecutive
way?

(A) PERT chart


(B) Gantt chart
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above

32) The first step in the systems development life cycle(SDLC) is ... C
(A) analysis (B) design
(C) problem/opportunity identification (D) development and documentation

6
33) After implementation of the system, system maintenance could be done for D
A. Minor changes in the processing logic
B. Errors detected during the processing
C. Revision of the formats of the reports
D. All of the above
34) Design Phase consists of ……………………. D
1. Identity the functions to be performed
2. Design the input/output and file design
3. Defining basic parameters for system design
(A) 1 & 2 (B) 2 & 3
(C) 1 & 3 (D) 1, 2 & 3
35) Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software? A
(A) System software
(B) Application software
(C) Scientific software
(D) None of the above
36) Select which option is not true about SQA…? C
A) Audits and reviews to be performed by the team
B) Amount of technical work to be performed
C) Evaluations to be performed
D) Documents that are produced by the SQA team.
37) Software quality assurance consists of which function of management. C
A) reporting functions B) auditing functions C)both A and B D)all of the above

38) Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find during the B
process so that after the release of the software they do not become the defect
A) failure
B) errors
C) faults
D) none of these

7 P.T.O.
39) Select the people who identify the document and verifies the correctness of the B
software
A) Project manager
B) SQA team
C) Project team
D) All of the mentioned
40) Which requirement is the foundation from which quality is measured? B
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) Programmers
D) None of the mentioned
41) From the following methods which size of the software product can be calculated? C

(A).Counting the lines of delivered code


(B). Counting delivered function points
(C). Both A and B
(D). None of the above

42) A software project manager is a person who undertakes the responsibility of A


carrying out the software project.

(A) True
(B) False
43) Which aspect is important when the software is moved from one platform to C
another?

(A) Maintenance
(B) Operational
(C) Transitional
(D) All of the above

8
44) Which class gives a content or function change that corrects an error or enhances A
local content or functionality in change management?

(A) Class 1
(B) Class 2
(C) Class 3
(D) Class 4

45) Which model gives the overall reliability of the system that is projected and C
certified?

(A) Sampling model


(B) Component model
(C) Certification model
(D) Both A & B

46) SCM stands for________ D


A) Software Cognizance Maintenance B) Software Clearance Measurement
C)Software Configuration Measurement D) Software Configuration Management
47) ISO stands for _____________ A
A)International Organization for Standardization B) International Standard
Organization C) International Standard in Organisation D) International
Specification in Organization
48) The Objective of ISO 9000 family of Quality management is_________ A
A)Customer Satisfaction B) Employee Satisfaction C) Skill Enhancement
D) Environmental Issues
49) Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on C
a) Employee b)Customer c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

50) Which of the following are areas of concern in design model? D


a) Architecture b) Data c) Interface d) All

9 P.T.O.
51) Hazard analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards A
that can cause the _______ .

(A) External problems


(B) Internal problems
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above

52) The total number of distinct operator and operand occurrences measures are used B
in ______ .

(A) Lawrence theory


(B) Halstead's theory
(C) Kyburg, H. E.
(D) Jech, T.

53) Abbreviate the term HIPO. A

(A) Hierarchical Input Process Output


(B) High-level Input Process Output
(C) Huge Input Process Output
(D) None of the above

54) Which depicts flow of control in program modules? A

(A) Flowchart
(B) DFD
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above

10
55) Which tool consist of programming environments like IDE, in-built modules C
library and simulation tools?

(A) Web development tools


(B) Prototyping tools
(C) Programming tools
(D) Design tools

56) Which of these characteristics of good design? C


A)Strong coupling between modules B)implements all requirements in
analysis model C) B and D D) provides a complete picture of software
57) What types of abstraction are used in software design? D
A) Control B) data C) procedural D) all
58) Which design is equivalent to floor plan of the house? A
A)Architectural design B) component level design C) data design D)
interface design
59) Cohesion is qualitative indication of degree to which module B
A)Can be written more compactly B) focuses on just one thing C)is able
to complete its function in timely manner D)is connected to other modules
and outside world
60) Coupling is qualitative indication of degree to which module D
A)Can be written more compactly B) focuses on just one thing C)is able
to complete its function in timely manner D)is connected to other modules
and outside world
61) CASE tools cannot be grouped together if they have similar functionality, process B
activities and capability of getting integrated with other tools.

(A) True

(B) False

11 P.T.O.
62) The spell check feature in word processor is a module of software. A

(A) True

(B) False
63) When elements of module are grouped because the output of one element serves as C
input to another element and so on, it is called ________ .

(A) Functional Cohesion


(B) Communicational cohesion
(C) Sequential cohesion
(D) Procedural cohesion

64) Which of these primary objectives have to be achieved for the requirement D
model?

(A) To describe what the customer requires


(B) To establish a basis for the creation of a software design
(C) To define a set of requirements that can be validated once the software
(D) All mentioned above
65) The interviews, which are held between two persons across the table is ______. D

(A) Written
(B) Non-structured
(C) Group
(D) One-to-one

66) Which of the following can be used to represent the architectural design of piece of D
software?
A)Dynamic models B) Functional Models C)Structural Models D) All
67) Which of the following is / are the type of Cohesion? D
A) Functional
B)Layer
C)Communicational
D)All of the above.

12
68) Which is the worst type of coupling? C
A)Control coupling
B)Data coupling
C)Content coupling
D)Stamp coupling

69) Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design, A
1. Place the user in control.
2. Reduce the user’s memory load.
3. Make the interface consistent.

These rules are called as _________.

A)Golden Rule
B)Silver Rule
C)User Rule
D)Interface rule
70) ________ is an indication of the relative interdependence among modules. B
A)Cohesion
B)Coupling
C)Modularity
D)Cohesion and coupling.

71) What is Cyclomatic complexity? B


A) Black box testing
B) White box testing
C) Yellow box testing
D) Green box testing
72) White Box techniques are also classified as B
A) Design based testing
B) Structural testing
C) Error guessing technique
D) None of the mentioned
73) What are the various Testing Levels? D
A) Unit Testing
B) System Testing
C) Integration Testing
D) All of the mentioned

13 P.T.O.
74) Which of the following is non-functional testing? B
A) Black box testing
B) Performance testing
C) Unit testing
D) None of the mentioned
75) Test cases should uncover errors like A
A) Non-existent loop termination
B) Comparison of different data types
C) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
D) All of the mentioned
76) 8) Which quality deals with the maintaining the quality of the software product? B

(A).Quality assurance
(B). Quality control
(C). Quality Efficiency
(D). None of the above

77) Burst force, backtracking, cause elimination are strategies used in art of A
debugging.

(A).Yes
(B). No

78) Software is not considered to be collection of executable programming code, B


associated libraries and documentations.

(A) True
(B) False

14
79) Classes communicate with one another via ______ . C

(A) Read sensors


(B) Dial phones
(C) Messages
(D) None of the above

80) Software project manager is engaged with software management activities. He is D


responsible for ______ .

(A) Project planning.


(B) Monitoring the progress
(C) Communication among stakeholders
(D) All mentioned above

81) In which testing level the focus is on customer usage? D


A) Alpha Testing
B) Beta Testing
C) Validation Testing
D) Both Alpha and Beta
82) What are the Types of Integration Testing? D
A) Big Bang Testing
B)Bottom Up Testing
C) Top Down Testing
D) All the above
83) Which is non-functional software testing? C
A)Unit Testing
B) Block box testing
C) Performance Testing
D) Regression testing

15 P.T.O.
84) The main focus of acceptance testing is: D
A) finding faults in the system
B) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
C) testing the system with other systems
D) testing for a business perspective
85) Which of the following is a form of functional testing? A
A)Boundary value analysis
B)Usability testing
C) Performance testing
D)Security testing
86) Which requirements is the foundation from which quality is measured? B
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) Programmers
D) None of the mentioned
87) Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the C
software?
A) Project manager
B) Project team
C) SQA group
D) All of the mentioned
88) What is not included in prevention costs? D
A) quality planning
B) formal technical reviews
C) test equipment
D) equipment calibration and maintenance
89) Quality Management in software engineering is also known as A
A) SQA
B) SQM
C) SQI
D) SQA and SQM

16
90) Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes D
A) A compliant product
B) Good quality output
C) Delivery within budget and schedule
D) All of the mentioned
91) State if the followings are true or false. A

For scheduling a project, it is necessary to:


1) Break down the project tasks into smaller, manageable form.
2) Find out various tasks and correlate them.
3) Estimate time frame required for each task.
4) Divide time into work-units.

(A) True
(B) False

92) Function-oriented design is comprised of many smaller sub-systems is known as, A

Functions.

(A) Yes
(B) No
93) From the following which quality deals with maintaining the quality of the B
software product?

(A) Quality assurance


(B) Quality control
(C) Quality efficiency
(D) None of the above

17 P.T.O.
94) Choose the correct option according to given below statement. B

Statement 1: Umbrella activities are independent of any one framework activity


and occur throughout the process.
Statement 2: software quality assurance, software configuration management are
umbrella activity.
Statement 3: software quality assurance, software configuration management are
not umbrella activity.

(A). Only statement 1 is correct.


(B). Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
(C). Only statement 3 is correct.
(D). Statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.

95) Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma? B


A) Define
B) Control
C) Measure
D) Analyse
96) Which of the following is an example of QA? C
A) Validation
B )Software testing
C )Verification
D )Documentation
97) Select the people who identify the document and verify the correctness of the A
software…
A) SQA team
B )Project team
C )Project manager
D )All of the mentioned

18
98) Select which option is not true about SQA…? C
A) Audits and reviews to be performed by the team
B) Amount of technical work to be performed
C) Evaluations to be performed
D) Documents that are produced by the SQA team.
99) The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is A
A)Customer satisfaction
B)Employee satisfaction
C)Skill enhancement
D)Environmental issues
100 In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to: B

i. Determine the test technique to be employed


ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

(A). ii is True; i, iii, iv and v are False


(B). i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
(C). ii and iii are True; i, iv are False
(D). ii, iii and iv are True; i is false

**********

19 P.T.O.
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Software Engineering

1. The process of evaluating a system to determine whether the product of a given


development phase satisfy the conditions imposed at the start of that phase is called as
(A) Validation (B) Verification
(C) Analysis (D) Testing

2. The process of evaluating a system during or at the end of the development process to
determine whether it satisfied requirements
(A) Validation (B) Verification
(C) Analysis (D) Testing

3. The following testing is carried out to test the software which is developed for specific
customer.
(A) Alpha Testing (B) Beta Testing
(C) Acceptance Testing (D) Testing Plan

4. The following test are carried out at the developers site by the customer.
(A) Plan to Test (B) Beta Testing
(C) Acceptance Testing (D) Alpha Testing

5. The following test are carried out by the customer at their sites.
(A) Navigation testing (B) Beta Testing
(C) Acceptance Testing (D) Alpha Testing

6. The following testing is also called as black box testing in which content of black box
are not known
(A) Acceptance Testing (B) Beta Testing
(C) Functional Testing (D) Alpha Testing

7. The extended form of boundary value analysis is called as_________________


(A) Robustness Testing (B) Beta Testing
(C) Functional Testing (D) Alpha Testing

282
8. The _____________ describes an input description and an expected output description.
(A) Test (B) Test Case
(C) Tests Suit (D) Plan for testing

9. The set of test cases is called as.


(A) Test (B) Test Case
(C) Tests Suit (D) Plan for testing

10. The software mistakes during coding are known a.


(A) Failures (B) Bugs
(C) Defects (D) Error

11. The Functional testing is also known as.


(A) Behavior testing (B) Structural testing
(C) Regression testing (D) Path testing

12. The problem that could cause some loss or affect the success of the project, but which
has not happened yet is called as
(A) Poor Planning (B) Risk
(C) Mistake (D) Cost estimation problem

13. The process of identifying, addressing and eliminating these problems before they can
damage the project is called as
(A) Risk management (B) Project Management
(C) Scheduling (D) Configuration Management

14. A COCOMO model is.


(A) Common cost estimation model (B) Complete cost estimation model
(C) Constructive cost estimation (D) Comprehensive cost estimation
model model

15. Function count method was developed by.


(A) B.Beizer (B) A. Albrecht
(C) M. Halstead (D) B.Boehm

283 P.T.O.
16. The Critical Path Method (CPM) is applied for the process of.
(A) Cost Estimation (B) Project Scheduling
(C) Software Quality Assurance (D) Configuration Management

17. The set of activities that have been developed to manage change throughout the life
cycle of computer software is called as Critical Path Method (CPM) is applied for the
process of.
(A) Project Planning (B) Project Scheduling
(C) Software Quality Assurance (D) Configuration Management

18. The CCA stands for.


(A) Change Control Authority (B) Change Control Authority
(C) Change Can Accepted (D) Configuration Management

19. The ECO stands for.


(A) Engineering Control Order (B) Environment Climate Order
(C) Engineering Change Order (D) Efficiently Changed Order

20. The probability of failure free operation of a computer program in a specified


environment for a specified time is called as
(A) Software availability (B) Software Maintainability
(C) Software Reliability (D) Software Flexibility

21. The Formal Technical Review (FTR) is important activity of.


(A) Quality Assurance (B) Software Maintenance
(C) Configuration Management (D) Software Project Scheduling

22. Which of the following is the example of system software?


(A) Data processing applications (B) Editors
(C) Stand alone programs (D) Point of sale transaction
processing

23. Which of the following is the example of embedded software?


(A) Editors (B) Operating system components
(C) Word processing (D) Key pad control for a microwave
oven

284
24. Which of the following is not a basic activities involved in the testing phase.
(A) Checking the individual programs, (B) Designing test cases for checking
its logic and interface between the interfaces
various programs
(C) Checking the quality of the code (D) Checking the each developer’s
and it’s to the established performance
standards

25. The spiral model couples the iterative nature of the___________________ and the
controlled, systematic nature of the___________________ .
(A) Waterfall model , prototyping (B) Prototyping model, waterfall
model model
(C) Waterfall model, waterfall model (D) Prototyping model, prototyping
model

26. Direct measures of the software engineering process include__________________


applied.
(A) Lines of code produced, execution (B) Cost and effort
speed
(C) Functionality, quality (D) Complexity, maintainability

27. The aim of structured design is to transform the results of the structured analysis into a.
(A) Flow chart (B) Structure chart
(C) Bubble char (D) Data execution chart

28. DFD stands for.


(A) Data file diagram (B) Data file define
(C) Data flow diagram (D) Data flow define

29. In system design the context diagram of a DFD is also known as.
(A) Level 3 DFD (B) Level 2 DFD
(C) Level 1 DFD (D) Level 0 DFD

30. A structure chart represents the__________________ , i.e. the various modules


making up the system, the dependency , and the parameters that are passed among the
different modules.
(A) Requirements define (B) Design architecture
(C) Program architecture (D) Software architecture

285 P.T.O.
31. Good software development organizations normally require their programmers to
adhere to some well-defined and standard style of coding called
(A) Coding instructions (B) Coding standards
(C) Coding direction (D) Program guidelines

32. Code walk through is an.


(A) Formal code correction technique (B) Formal code analysis technique
(C) Informal code analysis technique (D) Informal code testing technique

33. The aim of code inspection is to.


(A) Discover some common types of (B) Discover some common types of
errors caused due to oversight and defects caused due to oversight
improper programming and proper programming
(C) discover some specific types of (D) Discover only specific types of
errors caused due to oversight and faults caused due to oversight and
proper programming improper programming

34. White-box testing approach, designing test cases requires thorough knowledge about
the internal structure of software, and therefore the white-box testing is called.
(A) Structural testing (B) Functional testing
(C) Acceptance Testing (D) Internal testing

35. Users’ manual is the example of.


(A) Internal documentation (B) External documentation
(C) Behavior documentation (D) Information documentation

36. ____________are extremely cost-effective strategies for reduction in coding errors and
to produce high quality code.
(A) Code reviews (B) Code views
(C) Code correction (D) Code checking

37. The main objectives of the walk through are.


(A) To discover the algorithmic and (B) To discover the programming and
logical errors in the code physical errors in the code
(C) To discover the coding and (D) To correct the coding and
designing errors in the code designing errors in the software

286
38. A___________________ is also called process model.
(A) Software life cycle model (B) Executing model
(C) Phases model (D) Prototyping model

39. The final output of the ______________phase is the SRS document.


(A) Feasibility Study (B) Requirements Gathering
(C) Requirements analysis and (D) Software design
specification

40. During the feasibility analysis of the project the details such as.
(A) Software design, coding and (B) Economical, technical and
testing feasibility operational feasibility
(C) Cost, effort and time (D) Project team, project requirements

41. After the analyst has collected all the required information regarding the system to be
developed and has removed all inconsistencies from the specification, he starts to
systematically organize the requirements into a.
(A) Internal documentation (B) External documentation
(C) SRS document (D) Requirement document

42. Which of the following is not basic activities of coding phases in software
development.
(A) Checking of the program (B) Breaking the system modules into
specifications received from the smaller programs and allocating
system development stage these programs to the members of
expanding their specifications the system development team
(C) Writing programmer code in the (D) Programmer writing a code as per
selected computer programming the stakeholder’s direction
language

43. Which of the following statement is not a system maintenance.


(A) Minor changes in the processing (B) Errors detected during the
logic processing
(C) Revisions of the formats for data (D) Software next version
inputs

287 P.T.O.
44. ___________ sometimes called the classic life cycle.
(A) Waterfall model (B) Prototyping model
(C) Spiral model (D) RAD model

45. Which of the following is the advantage of prototype model.


(A) Inexpensive (B) Time saving
(C) Scope for accommodating new (D) The controlled and systematic
requirements and less technical aspects of the prototype model
risks

46. The __________________originally proposed by Barry Boehm.


(A) Waterfall model (B) Prototyping model
(C) Spiral Model (D) RAD model

47. Which of the following is the disadvantage of spiral model.


(A) Expensive (B) Time Consuming
(C) Iterative and realistic (D) Requires good expertise in risk
management

48. As per___________________ definition of “Software engineering is the applications


of systematic, disciplined, quantifiable approach to the development operation and
maintenance of software .“ i.e. the application of engineering to software”.
(A) Fritz Bauer (B) IEEE
(C) Barry Boehm (D) Bell Boehm

49. In software engineering, if every requirement stated in the SRS has only one
interpretation then SRS is said to be.
(A) Unambiguous (B) Correct
(C) Verification (D) Validation

50. In software development life cycle requirements can be refined using.


(A) Waterfall model (B) Prototyping model
(C) Spiral model (D) Data define model

288
51. The main purpose of integration testing is to find.
(A) Logical error (B) Physical error
(C) Interface error (D) Design error

52. Which phase is not available in software life cycle?


(A) Design (B) Coding
(C) Data abstraction (D) Maintenance

53. Which of the following is the attribute of good software.


(A) Good software is not use any of (B) Good software should deliver to
the SDLC model the customers within time and
should not be maintainable,
dependable and usable
(C) Good software should deliver the (D) Good software should deliver the
Non-functions required required functionality and
functionality and should be performance to the user and
maintainable should be maintainable,
dependable and usable

54. Unit testing, also known as.


(A) Integration testing (B) Component testing
(C) System testing (D) Acceptance testing

55. A test specification is called.


(A) Test plan (B) Tests Suit
(C) Test verification data (D) Test validation data

56. _____________ is the probability that software will provide failure-free operation in a
fixed environment for a fixed interval of time.
(A) Projects reliability (B) Program reliability
(C) Software reliability (D) Hardware reliability

57. Which of the following is the important parts of SRS document are.
(A) Requirements gathering and (B) Verification and validation
budget
(C) Functional requirements of the (D) Stakeholders requirements and
system and Non-functional project duration time
requirements of the system

289 P.T.O.
58. In software engineering a software_______________ provides the framework from
which a complete plan for software development can be established.
(A) People (B) Project
(C) Process (D) Product

59. Which of the following is not a step of requirement engineering.


(A) Requirements analysis (B) Requirements design
(C) Requirements elicitation (D) Requirements gathering

60. Which of the following is not a size metric.


(A) Program length (B) Lines of code
(C) Cyclomatic complexity (D) Function count

290
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. A

291 P.T.O.
22. C
23. D
24. D
25. B
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. B
36. A
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. B
41. C
42. D

292
43. D
44. A
45. C
46. C
47. D
48. B
49. A
50. B
51. C
52. C
53. D
54. B
55. A
56. C
57. C
58. C
59. B
60. C

293 P.T.O.
SUBJECT CODE : 210253

As per Revised Syllabus of


Savitribai Phule Pune University
Choice Based Credit System (CBCS)
S.E. (Computer) Semester - IV

Software Engineering

Anuradha A. Puntambekar
M.E. (Computer)
Formerly Assistant Professor in
P.E.S. Modern College of Engineering, Pune

Dr. Jayashree R. Prasad


Ph.D. (Computer Engineering)
M.E. (Computer Engineering)
Professor (Dept. of Computer Engineering)
Sinhgad College of Engineering, Pune

® ®
TECHNICAL
PUBLICATIONS
SINCE 1993 An Up-Thrust for Knowledge

(i)
Software Engineering

Subject Code : 210253

S.E. (Computer) Semester - IV

ã Copyright with A. A. Puntambekar


All publishing rights (printed and ebook version) reserved with Technical Publications. No part of this book
should be reproduced in any form, Electronic, Mechanical, Photocopy or any information storage and
retrieval system without prior permission in writing, from Technical Publications, Pune.

Published by :
® ®
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TECHNICAL Pune - 411030, M.S. INDIA, Ph.: +91-020-24495496/97
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ISBN 978-93-90450-41-1

9 789390 450411 SPPU 19

9789390450411[1] (ii)
preface
The importance of Software Engineering is well known in various engineering fields.
Overwhelming response to our books on various subjects inspired us to write this book. The
book is structured to cover the key aspects of the subject Software Engineering.
The book uses plain, lucid language to explain fundamentals of this subject. The book
provides logical method of explaining various complicated concepts and stepwise methods
to explain the important topics. Each chapter is well supported with necessary illustrations,
practical examples and solved problems. All chapters in this book are arranged in a proper
sequence that permits each topic to build upon earlier studies. All care has been taken to
make students comfortable in understanding the basic concepts of this subject.
Representative questions have been added at the end of each section to help the
students in picking important points from that section.
The book not only covers the entire scope of the subject but explains the philosophy of
the subject. This makes the understanding of this subject more clear and makes it more
interesting. The book will be very useful not only to the students but also to the subject
teachers. The students have to omit nothing and possibly have to cover nothing more.
We wish to express our profound thanks to all those who helped in making this book a
reality. Much needed moral support and encouragement is provided on numerous
occasions by our whole family. We wish to thank the Publisher and the entire team of
Technical Publications who have taken immense pain to get this book in time with quality
printing.
Any suggestion for the improvement of the book will be acknowledged and well
appreciated.
Authors
A. A. Puntambekar
Dr. Jayashree R. Prasad

Dedicated to God

(iii)
Syllabus
Software Engineering - 210253
Credit Scheme Examination Scheme and Marks

03 Mid _Semester (TH) : 30 Marks

End _ Semester (TH) : 70 Marks

Unit I Introduction to Software Engineering and Software Process Models


Software Engineering Fundamentals : Introduction to software engineering, The Nature
of Software, Defining Software, Software Engineering Practice. Software Process : A
Generic Process Model, defining a Framework Activity, Identifying a Task Set, Process
Patterns, Process Assessment and Improvement, Prescriptive Process Models, The Waterfall
Model, Incremental Process Models, Evolutionary Process Models, Concurrent Models, A
Final Word on Evolutionary Processes. Unified Process, Agile software development: Agile
methods, plan driven and agile development. (Chapter 1)

Unit II Software Requirements Engineering and Analysis


Modeling : Requirements Engineering, EstabIishing the Groundwork, Identifying
Stakeholders, Recognizing Multiple Viewpoints, working toward Collaboration, Asking the
First Questions, Eliciting Requirements, Collaborative Requirements Gathering, Usage
Scenarios, Elicitation Work Products, Developing Use Cases, Building the Requirements
Model, Elements of the Requirements Model, Negotiating Requirements, Validating
Requirements. Suggested Free Open Source tools : StarUML, Modelio, SmartDraw.
(Chapter 2)

Unit III Estimation and Scheduling


Estimation for Software Projects : The Project Planning Process, Defining Software
Scope and Checking Feasibility, Resources management, Reusable Software Resources,
Environmental Resources, Software Project Estimation, Decomposition Techniques,
Software Sizing, Problem-Based Estimation, LOC-Based Estimation, FP-Based Estimation,
Object Point (OP)-based estimation, Process-Based Estimation, Estimation with Use Cases,
Use- Case - Based Estimation, Reconciling Estimates, Empirical Estimation Models, The

(iv)
Structure of Estimation Models, The COCOMO II Mode, Preparing Requirement
Traceability Matrix Project Scheduling : Project Scheduling, Defining a Task for the
Software Project, Scheduling. Suggested Free Open Source Tools : Gantt Project,
Agantty, Project Libre. (Chapter 3)

Unit IV Design Engineering


Design Concepts : Design within the Context of Software Engineering, The Design Process,
Software Quality Guidelines and Attributes, Design Concepts - Abstraction, Architecture,
design Patterns, Separation of Concerns, Modularity, Information Hiding, Functional
Independence, Refinement, Aspects, Refactoring, Object-Oriented Design Concept, Design
Classes, The Design Model , Data Design Elements, Architectural Design Elements, Interface
Design Elements, Component-Level Design Elements, Component Level Design for Web
Apps, Content Design at the Component Level, Functional Design at the Component Level,
Deployment-Level Design Elements. Architectural Design : Software Architecture, What is
Architecture, Why is Architecture Important, Architectural Styles, A brief Taxonomy of
Architectural Styles. Suggested Free Open Source Tool : Smart Draw (Chapter 4)

Unit V Risks and Configuration Management


Risk Management : Software Risks, Risk Identification, Risk Projection, Risk Refinement,
Risk Mitigation, Monitoring, and Management, The RMMM Plan. Software Configuration
Management : Software Configuration Management, The SCM Repository The SCM
Process, Configuration Management for any suitable software system. Suggested Free
Open Source Tools : CF Engine Configuration Tool, Puppet Configuration Tool.
(Chapter 5)

Unit VI Software Testing


A Strategic Approach to Software Testing, Verification and Validation, Organizing for
Software Testing, Software Testing Strategy - The Big Picture, Criteria for Completion of
Testing, Strategic Issues, Test Strategies for Conventional Software, Unit Tesing, Integration
Testing, Test Strategies for Object-Oriented Software, Unit Testing in the OO Context,
Integration Testing in the OO Context, Test Strategies for WebApps, Validation Testing,
Validation -Test Criteria, Configuration Review. Suggested Free Open Source Tools :
Selenium, JUnit. (Chapter 6)

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Table of Contents
Unit - I

Chapter - 1 Introduction to Software Engineering


and Process Models (1 - 1) to (1 - 48)
Part I : Software Engineering Fundamentals
1.1 Introduction to Software Engineering ......................................................... 1 - 2
1.2 The Nature of Software ................................................................................ 1 - 2
1.3 Defining Software......................................................................................... 1 - 3
1.4 Software Engineering Practice ..................................................................... 1 - 3
1.5 Software Characteristics .............................................................................. 1 - 3
1.6 Software Engineering Myths ........................................................................ 1 - 6
Part II : Software Process
1.7 Generic Process Model ................................................................................ 1 - 7
1.7.1 Layered Technology ...................................................................................... 1 - 7
1.8 Defining Framework Activity ........................................................................ 1 - 8
1.9 Identifying a Task Set ................................................................................... 1 - 9
1.10 Process Pattern .......................................................................................... 1 - 10
1.11 Process Assessment and Improvement ..................................................... 1 - 12
1.12 Prescriptive Process Model ........................................................................ 1 - 13
1.12.1 Need for Process Model ............................................................................. 1 - 14
1.13 The Waterfall Model .................................................................................. 1 - 14
1.14 Increment Process Model .......................................................................... 1 - 17
1.14.1 Incremental Model ..................................................................................... 1 - 17
1.14.2 RAD Model .................................................................................................. 1 - 19
1.15 Evolutionary Process Model....................................................................... 1 - 20
1.15.1 Prototyping ................................................................................................. 1 - 21
1.15.2 Spiral Model ................................................................................................ 1 - 22
1.16 Comparison between Various Process Models.......................................... 1 - 26

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1.17 Concurrent Models .................................................................................... 1 - 28
1.18 Unified Process ........................................................................................... 1 - 29
1.19 Agile Software Development ..................................................................... 1 - 32
1.19.1 Agility Principles .......................................................................................... 1 - 33
1.19.2 Concept of Agile Process............................................................................. 1 - 34
1.19.3 Software Evolution and Merits and Demerits of Agile Methods ................ 1 - 34
1.20 Agile Methods ............................................................................................ 1 - 35
1.20.1 Adaptive Software Development (ASD) ...................................................... 1 - 35
1.20.2 Dynamic System Development Method (DSDM)........................................ 1 - 36
1.20.3 Scrum .......................................................................................................... 1 - 37
1.20.4 Feature Driven Development (FDD) ........................................................... 1 - 39
1.20.5 Crystal ......................................................................................................... 1 - 41
1.20.6 Agile Modeling (AM) ................................................................................... 1 - 41
1.21 Plan Driven and Agile Development .......................................................... 1 - 42
1.22 Multiple Choice Questions with Answers .................................................. 1 - 43

Unit - II

Chapter - 2 Software Requirement Engineering and


Analysis Modeling (2 - 1) to (2 - 82)
2.1 Requirements Engineering ........................................................................... 2 - 2
2.1.1 Need for Requirements to be Stable and Correct ........................................ 2 - 2
2.2 Requirements Engineering Tasks ................................................................. 2 - 3
2.2.1 Inception ....................................................................................................... 2 - 4
2.2.2 Elicitation ...................................................................................................... 2 - 4
2.2.3 Elaboration.................................................................................................... 2 - 5
2.2.4 Negotiation ................................................................................................... 2 - 5
2.2.5 Specification.................................................................................................. 2 - 5
2.2.6 Validation ...................................................................................................... 2 - 6
2.2.7 Requirement Management .......................................................................... 2 - 6
2.3 Establishing the Groundwork ....................................................................... 2 - 7
2.3.1 Identifying the Stakeholders ......................................................................... 2 - 7
2.3.2 Recognizing Multiple Viewpoints.................................................................. 2 - 8

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2.3.3 Working Towards Collaboration ................................................................... 2 - 9
2.3.4 Asking the First Questions ............................................................................ 2 - 9
2.4 Eliciting the Requirements ......................................................................... 2 - 10
2.4.1 Collaborative Requirements Gathering ...................................................... 2 - 10
2.4.2 Quality Function Development ................................................................... 2 - 12
2.4.3 Usage Scenario............................................................................................ 2 - 13
2.4.4 Elicitation Work Products ........................................................................... 2 - 13
2.5 Developing Use Cases ................................................................................ 2 - 14
2.6 Building Requirements Models .................................................................. 2 - 17
2.6.1 Overall Objectives ....................................................................................... 2 - 18
2.6.2 Analysis Rules of Thumb ............................................................................. 2 - 19
2.6.3 Domain Analysis.......................................................................................... 2 - 19
2.7 Elements of the Requirements Model ....................................................... 2 - 20
2.8 Scenario Based Modeling ........................................................................... 2 - 20
2.8.1 Writing Use Cases ....................................................................................... 2 - 21
2.8.2 Activity Diagram.......................................................................................... 2 - 26
2.8.3 Swimlane Diagram ...................................................................................... 2 - 27
2.9 Class Based Modeling ................................................................................. 2 - 29
2.9.1 Objects and Object Classes ......................................................................... 2 - 29
2.9.2 Generalization and Inheritance Relationship ............................................. 2 - 30
2.9.2.1 Association Relationship ........................................................................ 2 - 33

2.9.3 Object Identification ................................................................................... 2 - 35


2.9.4 Class-Responsibility-Collaborator(CRC) Modelling ..................................... 2 - 37
2.9.5 Object Relationship Model ......................................................................... 2 - 40
2.10 Data Modeling ............................................................................................ 2 - 42
2.10.1 Data Object, Attributes and Relationships ................................................. 2 - 43
2.10.2 Cardinality and Modality............................................................................. 2 - 44
2.10.3 Entity Relationship Diagram ....................................................................... 2 - 45
2.10.3.1 Design Guideline and Examples ........................................................... 2 - 47

2.11 Flow Modeling ............................................................................................ 2 - 50


2.11.1 Data Flow Diagram...................................................................................... 2 - 50

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2.11.1.1 Designing Data Flow Diagrams ................................................................ 2 - 51
2.11.2 Control Flow Diagram ................................................................................. 2 - 54
2.11.2.1 Designing Control Flow Diagrams .......................................................... 2 - 55
2.11.3 Examples ..................................................................................................... 2 - 56
2.12 Behavioral Modeling .................................................................................. 2 - 73
2.12.1 Identifying Events with Use Cases .............................................................. 2 - 73
2.12.2 State Representation .................................................................................. 2 - 73
2.12.3 Sequence Diagram ...................................................................................... 2 - 74
2.13 Negotiating the Requirements ................................................................... 2 - 76
2.14 Validating Requirements ............................................................................ 2 - 76
2.15 Preparing Requirements Traceability Matrix ............................................. 2 - 77
2.16 Multiple Choice Questions with Answers .................................................. 2 - 78

Unit - III

Chapter - 3 Estimation and Scheduling (3 - 1) to (3 - 28)

3.1 The Project Planning Process ....................................................................... 3 - 2


3.2 Defining Software Scope and Checking Feasibility ...................................... 3 - 2
3.3 Resource Management ................................................................................ 3 - 4
3.3.1 Human Resources ......................................................................................... 3 - 4
3.3.2 Reusable Software Resources ....................................................................... 3 - 5
3.3.3 Environmental Resources ............................................................................. 3 - 5
3.4 Software Project Estimation ........................................................................ 3 - 6
3.5 Decomposition Techniques .......................................................................... 3 - 6
3.5.1 Software Sizing.............................................................................................. 3 - 6
3.5.2 Problem Based Estimation ............................................................................ 3 - 7
3.5.3 Example of LOC Based Estimation ................................................................ 3 - 8
3.5.4 Example of FP Based Estimation ................................................................... 3 - 9
3.5.5 Process Based Estimation ........................................................................... 3 - 10
3.5.6 Example of Process Based Estimation ........................................................ 3 - 11
3.5.7 Estimation with Use Case ........................................................................... 3 - 12
3.5.8 Reconciling Estimation ................................................................................ 3 - 13
3.6 Empirical Estimation Model ....................................................................... 3 - 14

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3.6.1 The Structure of Estimation Model ............................................................ 3 - 14
3.6.2 The COCOMO II Model................................................................................ 3 - 15
3.7 Object Point(OP) Based Estimation............................................................ 3 - 19
3.8 Project Scheduling ...................................................................................... 3 - 19
3.9 Defining a Task Set for the Software Project ............................................. 3 - 21
3.10 Task Network.............................................................................................. 3 - 22
3.11 Scheduling with Time Line Chart ................................................................ 3 - 23
3.12 Schedule Tracking Tools ............................................................................. 3 - 24
3.12.1 Microsoft Project ........................................................................................ 3 - 24
3.12.2 Daily Activity Reporting & Tracking (DART) ................................................ 3 - 25
3.13 Multiple Choice Questions with Answers .................................................. 3 - 25

Unit - IV

Chapter - 4 Design Engineering (4 - 1) to (4 - 36)


Part I : Introduction to Design Concepts
4.1 Concept of Design ........................................................................................ 4 - 2
4.1.1 Design within the Context of Software Engineering ..................................... 4 - 2
4.2 The Design Process....................................................................................... 4 - 3
4.3 Software Quality Guidelines and Attributes ................................................ 4 - 4
4.4 Design Concepts ........................................................................................... 4 - 5
4.4.1 Abstraction.................................................................................................... 4 - 6
4.4.2 Modularity .................................................................................................... 4 - 6
4.4.3 Architecture .................................................................................................. 4 - 8
4.4.4 Refinement ................................................................................................... 4 - 8
4.4.5 Pattern .......................................................................................................... 4 - 9
4.4.6 Information Hiding........................................................................................ 4 - 9
4.4.7 Functional Independence ............................................................................. 4 - 9
4.4.7.1 Cohesion ................................................................................................... 4 - 10
4.4.7.2 Coupling.................................................................................................... 4 - 10
4.4.8 Refactoring.................................................................................................. 4 - 12
4.5 Object Oriented Design Concepts .............................................................. 4 - 15
4.6 Design Classes ............................................................................................ 4 - 16
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4.7 The Design Model and Elements................................................................ 4 - 17
4.7.1 Data Design Elements ................................................................................. 4 - 18
4.7.2 Architectural Design Elements.................................................................... 4 - 19
4.7.3 Interface Design Elements .......................................................................... 4 - 19
4.7.4 Component Level Design Elements ............................................................ 4 - 19
4.7.5 Deployment Level Design Elements............................................................ 4 - 20
4.8 Component Level Design............................................................................ 4 - 20
4.9 Class Based Design ..................................................................................... 4 - 21
4.9.1 Basic Design Principle ................................................................................. 4 - 21
4.9.2 Component Level Design Guideline ............................................................ 4 - 22
4.9.3 Cohesion ..................................................................................................... 4 - 22
4.9.4 Coupling ...................................................................................................... 4 - 23
4.10 Conducting Component Level Design ........................................................ 4 - 23
4.11 Component Level Design for Web Apps .................................................... 4 - 24
4.11.1 Content Design at the Component Level .................................................... 4 - 24
4.11.2 Functional Design at the Component Level ................................................ 4 - 24
Part II : Architectural Design
4.12 Software Architecture ................................................................................ 4 - 25
4.12.1 What is Architecture ? ................................................................................ 4 - 25
4.12.2 Why is Architecture Important ? ................................................................ 4 - 25
4.12.3 Structural Partitioning................................................................................. 4 - 25
4.12.4 Difference between Horizontal and Vertical Partition ............................... 4 - 27
4.13 Architectural Styles .................................................................................... 4 - 27
4.13.1 Architectural Styles ..................................................................................... 4 - 27
4.13.1.1 Data Centered Architectures .................................................................... 4 - 28
4.13.1.2 Data Flow Architectures ........................................................................... 4 - 28
4.13.1.3 Call and Return Architecture .................................................................... 4 - 29
4.13.1.4 Object Oriented Architecture ................................................................... 4 - 30
4.13.1.5 Layered Architecture ................................................................................ 4 - 31
4.13.2 Architectural Patterns ................................................................................. 4 - 31
4.14 Multiple Choice Questions with Answers .................................................. 4 - 32

(xi)
Unit – V

Chapter - 5 Risk and Configuration Management (5 - 1) to (5 - 28)


Part I : Risk Management
5.1 Introduction to Concept of Risk management............................................. 5 - 2
5.2 Reactive Vs. Proactive Risk Strategies.......................................................... 5 - 2
5.3 Software Risks .............................................................................................. 5 - 3
5.4 Risk Identification ......................................................................................... 5 - 4
5.4.1 Risk Components and Drivers ....................................................................... 5 - 5
5.4.2 How to Asses Overall Project Risk ? .............................................................. 5 - 6
5.5 Risk Projection .............................................................................................. 5 - 7
5.5.1 Building Risk Table ........................................................................................ 5 - 8
5.5.2 Assessing Risk Impact ................................................................................... 5 - 9
5.6 Risk Refinement ......................................................................................... 5 - 10
5.7 Risk Mitigation, Monitoring and Management.......................................... 5 - 10
5.8 The RMMM Plan ........................................................................................ 5 - 12
Part II : Software Configuration Management
5.9 Concept of Software Configuration Management ..................................... 5 - 14
5.9.1 Goals in Change Management .................................................................... 5 - 14
5.9.2 Elements of Configuration Management System ....................................... 5 - 15
5.9.3 Baselines ..................................................................................................... 5 - 15
5.9.4 Software Configuration Items ..................................................................... 5 - 16
5.10 The SCM Repository ................................................................................... 5 - 17
5.10.1 Role of Project Repository .......................................................................... 5 - 17
5.10.2 Features ...................................................................................................... 5 - 18
5.11 The SCM Process ........................................................................................ 5 - 18
5.11.1 Identification of Objects in Software Configuration ................................... 5 - 19
5.11.2 Change Control ........................................................................................... 5 - 20
5.11.3 Version Control ........................................................................................... 5 - 21
5.11.4 Configuration Audit..................................................................................... 5 - 22
5.11.5 Status Reporting ......................................................................................... 5 - 23
5.12 Configuration Management for Any Suitable Software System ................ 5 - 23
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5.12.1 Dominant Issues.......................................................................................... 5 - 23
5.12.2 Content Management................................................................................. 5 - 24
5.12.3 Change Management.................................................................................. 5 - 25
5.12.4 Version Control ........................................................................................... 5 - 26
5.12.5 Auditing and Reporting ............................................................................... 5 - 26
5.13 Multiple Choice Questions with Answers .................................................. 5 - 26

Unit – VI

Chapter - 6 Software Testing (6 - 1) to (6 - 40)


6.1 Fundamental Concepts of Testing ............................................................... 6 - 2
6.1.1 Testing Objectives ......................................................................................... 6 - 2
6.1.2 Testing Principles .......................................................................................... 6 - 2
6.1.3 Why Testing is Important ? ........................................................................... 6 - 2
6.2 A Strategic Approach to Software Testing ................................................... 6 - 3
6.2.1 Verification and Validation ........................................................................... 6 - 4
6.3 Organizing for Software Testing................................................................... 6 - 6
6.4 Criteria for Completion of Testing ............................................................... 6 - 6
6.5 Strategic Issues ............................................................................................. 6 - 7
6.6 Testing Strategies for Conventional Software ............................................. 6 - 8
6.6.1 Unit Testing ................................................................................................... 6 - 9
6.6.1.1 Errors Identified during Unit Testing ........................................................ 6 - 10
6.6.1.2 Driver and Stub ......................................................................................... 6 - 11
6.6.2 Integration Testing ...................................................................................... 6 - 11
6.6.2.1 Top Down Integration Testing .................................................................. 6 - 13
6.6.2.2 Bottom Up Integration Testing ................................................................. 6 - 13
6.6.2.3 Regression Testing .................................................................................... 6 - 14
6.6.2.4 Smoke Testing .......................................................................................... 6 - 15
6.6.3 System Testing ............................................................................................ 6 - 15
6.6.3.1 Recovery Testing ...................................................................................... 6 - 16
6.6.3.2 Security Testing ........................................................................................ 6 - 16
6.6.3.3 Stress Testing ............................................................................................ 6 - 16

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6.6.3.4 Performance Testing ................................................................................ 6 - 16
6.7 Testing Strategies for Object Oriented Software ....................................... 6 - 17
6.7.1 Unit Testing in OO Context ......................................................................... 6 - 18
6.7.2 Integration Testing in OO Context .............................................................. 6 - 18
6.7.3 Difference between OO Testing Strategy and Conventional
Testing Strategy .......................................................................................... 6 - 19
6.8 Test Strategies for Web Apps ..................................................................... 6 - 19
6.9 Validation Testing....................................................................................... 6 - 20
6.9.1 Acceptance Testing ..................................................................................... 6 - 20
6.9.2 Validation Test Criteria ............................................................................... 6 - 21
6.9.3 Configuration Review.................................................................................. 6 - 22
6.10 Types of Testing ......................................................................................... 6 - 22
6.11 White Box Testing ...................................................................................... 6 - 22
6.11.1 Basis Path Testing ....................................................................................... 6 - 22
6.11.1.1 Flow Graph Notation ................................................................................ 6 - 22
6.11.1.2 Graph Matrices ......................................................................................... 6 - 27
6.11.2 Control Structure Testing............................................................................ 6 - 28
6.11.2.1 Condition Testing...................................................................................... 6 - 29
6.11.2.2 Loop Testing ............................................................................................. 6 - 29
6.12 Black Box Testing........................................................................................ 6 - 31
6.12.1 Equivalence Partitioning ............................................................................. 6 - 32
6.12.2 Boundary Value Analysis (BVA)................................................................... 6 - 33
6.12.3 Graph based Testing ................................................................................... 6 - 34
6.12.4 Orthogonal Array Testing............................................................................ 6 - 34
6.13 Comparison between Black Box and White Box Testing ........................... 6 - 36
6.14 Multiple Choice Questions with Answers .................................................. 6 - 38
Solved Model Question Papers M - 1 to M - 4

(xiv)
UNIT - I

1 Introduction to Software
Engineering and Process Models

Syllabus

Software Engineering Fundamentals : Introduction to software engineering, The Nature of


Software, Defining Software, Software Engineering Practice.
Software Process : A Generic Process Model, defining a Framework Activity, Identifying a Task
Set, Process Patterns, Process Assessment and Improvement, Prescriptive Process Models, The
Waterfall Model, Incremental Process Models, Evolutionary Process Models, Concurrent Models,
A Final Word on Evolutionary Processes. Unified Process, Agile software development: Agile
methods, plan driven and agile development.

Contents
1.1 Introduction to Software Engineering
1.2 The Nature of Software
1.3 Defining Software
1.4 Software Engineering Practice
1.5 Software Characteristics .................... May-11,14,19, Aug.-17,
........................................................... Oct.-18, Dec.-16, ................................ Marks 10
1.6 Software Engineering Myths ........... April-16, Aug. 17, Dec.-17, 18, 19,
........... Oct.-19 ................................................. Marks 5
1.7 Generic Process Model ..................... Dec.-19, May-13 ...................................... Marks 7
1.8 Defining Framework Activity .............. May-16 .................................................. Marks 7
1.9 Identifying a Task Set ........................ Dec.-11, April-15, 16, Aug.-17
.......................................................... May-18,Oct.-19 ........................................ Marks 8
1.10 Process Pattern
1.11 Process Assessment and Improvement
1.12 Prescriptive Process Model
1.13 The Waterfall Model .......................... April-16, Dec.-18, Oct.-19 ..................... Marks 6
1.14 Increment Process Model ................. May-18, May-19, Dec.-19 ........................ Marks 6
1.15 Evolutionary Process Model
1.16 Comparison between Various Process Models ..... May-11,12,13,14,
.......................................................... ..................... Dec.-12,13 ....................... Marks 8
1.17 Concurrent Models
1.18 Unified Process
1.19 Agile Software Development ............. Aug.-17, Dec.-17, 18, Oct.-19, May-19... Marks 5
1.20 Agile Methods
1.21 Plan Driven and Agile Development
1.22 Multiple Choice Questions

(1 - 1)
Software Engineering 1-2 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Part I : Software Engineering Fundamentals

1.1 Introduction to Software Engineering

“Software engineering is a discipline in which theories, methods and tools are applied to
develop professional software product.”
In software engineering the systematic and organized approach is adopted. Based on the
nature of the problem and development constraints various tools and techniques are applied in
order to develop quality software.
The definition of software engineering is based on two terms :
 Discipline : For finding the solution to the problem an Engineer applies appropriate
theories, methods and tools. While finding the solutions, Engineers must think of the
organizational and financial constraints. Within these constraints only, he/she has to find
the solution.
 Product : The software product gets developed after following systematic theories,
methods and tools along with the appropriate management activities.
1.2 The Nature of Software
Software can be applied in a situation for which a predefined set of procedural steps
(algorithm) exists. Based on a complex growth of software it can be classified into following
categories.
 System software : It is collection of programs written to service other programs. Typical
programs in this category are compiler, editors, and assemblers. The purpose of the system
software is to establish a communication with the hardware.
 Application software : It consists of standalone programs that are developed for specific
business need. This software may be supported by database systems.
 Engineering/scientific software : This software category has a wide range of programs
from astronomy to volcanology, from automative stress analysis to space shuttle orbital
dynamics and from molecular biology to automated manufacturing. This software is based
on complex numeric computations.
 Embedded software : This category consists of program that can reside within a product
or system. Such software can be used to implement and control features and functions for
the end-user and for the system itself.
 Web applications : Web application software consists of various web pages that can be
retrieved by a browser. The web pages can be developed using programming languages like
JAVA, PERL, CGI, HTML, DHTML.

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Software Engineering 1-3 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Artificial intelligence software : This kind of software is based on knowledge based


expert systems. Typically, this software is useful in robotics, expert systems, image and
voice recognition, artificial neural networks, theorem proving and game playing.
1.3 Defining Software
Software is nothing but a collection of computer programs and related documents that are
intended to provide desired features, functionalities and better performance.
Software products may be :
1. Generic : That means developed to be sold to a range of different customers.
2. Custom : That means developed for a single customer according to their specification.
1.4 Software Engineering Practice
Following are some principles that focus on software engineering practice. These are the
principles that are suggested by David Hooker
1. Reason for Existence : The intention of software system is to provide value to its users.
2. Keep It Simple Stupid(KISS) : Software design must be simple to implement and the
resultant software system must be more maintainable and less error-prone.
3. Vision : The goal and objective of the software must be defined.
4. The produce is getting consumed : While developing the software system, the
documentation must be maintained so that the maintenances of the system becomes easy.
5. Be Open to future : If some changes need to be incorporated in the system, then those
must be accommodated easily.
6. Plan for Reuse : The software system components can be made reusable so that the time
and efforts can be saved. The programming techniques like Object oriented programming
can be used for it.
7. Think : Before performing every software engineering activity think and understand it.
SPPU : May-11,14,19, Aug.-17,
1.5 Software Characteristics Oct.-18, Dec.-16, Marks 10

Software development is a logical activity and therefore it is important to understand basic


characteristics of software. Some important characteristics of software are :
 Software is engineered, not manufactured
1) Software development and hardware development are two different activities.
2) A good design is a backbone for both the activities.
3) Quality problems that occur in hardware manufacturing phase can not be removed
easily. On the other hand, during software development process such problems can be
rectified.
4) In both the activities, developers are responsible for producing qualitative product.

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Software Engineering 1-4 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Software does not ware out


1) In early stage of hardware development process the failure rate is very high because of
manufacturing defects. But after correcting such defects the failure rate gets reduced.
2) The failure rate remains constant for some period of time and again it starts increasing
because of environmental maladies (extreme temperature, dusts, and vibrations).
3) On the other hand software does not get affected from such environmental maladies. Hence
ideally it should have an “idealized curve”. But due to some undiscovered errors the
failure rate is high and drops down as soon as the errors get corrected. Hence in failure
rating of software the “actual curve” is as shown below :

Fig. 1.5.1 Failure curves for hardware and software

4) During the life of software if any change is made, some defects may get introduced. This
causes failure rate to be high.
5) Before the curve can return to original steady state another change is requested and again
the failure rate becomes high.
6) Thus the failure curve looks like a spike. Thus frequent changes in software cause it to
deteriorate.
7) Another issue with software is that there are no spare parts for software. If hardware
component wears out it can be replaced by another component but it is not possible in case
of software.
8) Therefore software maintenance is more difficult than the hardware maintenance.
 Most software is custom built rather than being assembled from components
1) While developing any hardware product firstly the circuit design with desired functioning
properties is created. Then required hardware components such as ICs, capacitors and
registers are assembled according to the design, but this is not done while developing
software product.
2) Most of the software is custom built.

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Software Engineering 1-5 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

3) However, now the software development approach is getting changed and we look for
reusability of software components.
4) It is practiced to reuse algorithms and data structures.
5) Today software industry is trying to make library of reusable components.
For example : In today’s software, GUI is built using the reusable components such as
message windows, pull down menus and many more such components.
6) The approach is getting developed to use in-built components in the software. This stream
of software is popularly known as component engineering.
Difference between Hardware Engineering and Software Engineering

Sr. Hardware Engineering Software Engineering


No.
1. Hardware products are manufactured. Software is engineered and not
The quality problems that occur in manufactured. During software
hardware manufacturing phase can not development process, various problems can
be removed easily. be identified and rectified.
2. In early stage of hardware development On the other hand, software does not get
process, the failure rate is very high affected from the environmental maladies.
because of manufacturing defects. But But due to some undiscovered errors the
after correcting such defects the failure failure rate is high and drops down as soon
rate gets reduced. The failure rate as the errors get corrected.
remains constant for some period of time
and again it starts increasing because of
environmental maladies.
3. There are spare parts available for the There are no spare parts for software
hardware components. components to replace.
4. The hardware unit is assembled from Most software is custom built rather than
components. being assembled from components.

 Review Questions
1. Define software engineering. What are the software characteristics ? What are the various
categories of software ? SPPU : May-14, Marks 10
2. Define software engineering. How software engineering is different from hardware
engineering ? Justify. SPPU : May-11, Marks 8
3. What is software engineering ? What are the characteristics of software ?
SPPU : Dec.-16, End Sem, Marks 5
4. Define terms ‘Software’ and ‘Software engineering’. “Software does not wear out” State
whether this statement is true or false. Justify your answer.
SPPU : Aug.-17, Oct.-18, In Sem, Marks 3, May -19, End Sem, Marks 6

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Software Engineering 1-6 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

1.6 Software Engineering Myths


SPPU : April-16, Aug. 17, Dec.-17, 18,19, Oct.-19, Marks 5

There are some misbelieves in the software industry about the software and process of
building software. For any software developer it is a must to know such beliefs and reality
about them. Here are some typical myths -
 Myth : Using a collection of standards and procedures one can build software.
(Management Myth)
 Reality : Even though we have all standards and procedures with us for helping the
developer to build software, it is not possible for software professionals to build desired
product. This is because - the collection which we have should be complete, it should
reflect modern techniques and more importantly it should be adaptable. It should also help
the software professional to bring quality in the product.
 Myth : Add more people to meet deadline of the project. (Management Myth)
Reality : Adding more people in order to catch the schedule will cause the reverse effect on
the software project i.e. software project will get delayed. Because, we have to spend more
time on educating people or informing them about the project.
 Myth : If a project is outsourced to a third party then all the worries of software building
are over. (Management Myth)
 Reality : When a company needs to outsource the project then it simply indicates that the
company does not know how to manage the projects. Sometimes, the outsourced projects
require proper support for development.
 Myth : Even if the software requirements are changing continuously it is possible to
accommodate these changes in the software. (Customer Myth)
 Reality : It is true that software is a flexible entity but if continuous changes in the
requirements have to be incorporated then there are chances of introducing more and more
errors in the software. Similarly, the additional resources and more design modifications
may be demanded by the software.
 Myth : We can start writing the program by using general problem statements only. Later
on using problem description we can add up the required functionalities in the program.
(Customer Myth)
 Reality : It is not possible each time to have comprehensive problem statement. We have to
start with general problem statements; however by proper communication with customer
the software professionals can gather useful information. The most important thing is that
the problem statement should be unambiguous to begin with.
 Myth : Once the program is running then its over! (Practitioner's Myth)

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Software Engineering 1-7 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Reality : Even though we obtain that the program is running major part of work is after
delivering it to customer.
 Myth : Working program is the only work product for the software project. (Practitioner's
Myth)
 Reality : The working program/software is the major component of any software project
but along with it there are many other elements that should be present in the software
project such as documentation of software, guideline for software support.
 Myth : There is no need of documenting the software project; it unnecessarily slows down
the development process. (Practitioner's Myth)
 Reality : Documenting the software project helps in establishing ease in use of software. It
helps in creating better quality and maintaining the software system. Hence documentation
is not wastage of time but it is a must for any software project.

 Review Questions
1. What are customer myths ? Discuss the reality of these myths.
SPPU : Aug-17, In Sem, Marks 3
2. What are the practitioner’s myths ? Discuss the reality of these myths.
SPPU : April-16, In Sem, Marks 4, Dec.-17, Dec.-18, End Sem, Marks 5
3. List and explain practitioner’s myth and its realities SPPU : Oct.-19, In Sem, Marks 5

Part II : Software Process

1.7 Generic Process Model SPPU : Dec.-19, Marks 7

Software process can be defined as the structured set of activities that are required to
develop the software system.
The fundamental activities are :
 Specification  Design and implementation
 Validation  Evolution
A software process model is an abstract representation of a process. It presents a
description of a process from some particular perspective.

1.7.1 Layered Technology SPPU : May-13, Marks 8

 Software engineering is a layered technology. Any software can be developed using these
layered approaches. Various layers on which the technology is based are quality
management layer, process layer, methods layer, tools layer.

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Software Engineering 1-8 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Fig. 1.7.1 Software engineering : A layered approach

 A disciplined quality management is a backbone of software engineering technology.

 Process layer is a foundation of software engineering. Basically, process defines the


framework for timely delivery of software.
 In method layer the actual method of implementation is carried out with the help of
requirement analysis, designing, coding using desired programming constructs and testing.
 Software tools are used to bring automation in software development process.

 Thus software engineering is a combination of process, methods, and tools for


development of quality software.

 Review Question
1. Elaborate how software engineering is a layered technology.
SPPU : Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 7

1.8 Defining Framework Activity SPPU : May-16, Marks 7

The process framework is required for representing the common process activities.
As shown in Fig. 1.8.1, the software process is characterized by process framework
activities, task sets and umbrella activities.

Process framework activities


 Communication
 By communicating customer requirement gathering is done.
 Planning - Establishes engineering work plan, describes technical risks, lists resource
requirements, work products produced and defines work schedule.

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Software Engineering 1-9 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Modeling - The software model is prepared by :


 Analysis of requirements
 Design
 Construction - The software design is mapped into a code by :
 Code generation
 Testing
 Deployment - The software delivered for customer evaluation and feedback is obtained.

Fig. 1.8.1 Software process framework

 Review Question
1. What are the various umbrella activities applied throughout a software project ?
SPPU : May-16, End Sem, Marks 7

1.9 Identifying a Task Set


SPPU : Dec.-11, April-15, 16, Aug.-17, May-18, Oct.-19, Marks 8

Task sets : The task set defines the actual work done in order to achieve the software
objective. The task set is used to adopt the framework activities and project team requirements
using :
 Collection of software engineering work tasks

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Software Engineering 1 - 10 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Project milestones
 Software quality assurance points
Umbrella activities : The umbrella activities occur throughout the process. They focus
on project management, tracking and control. The umbrella activities are
1. Software project tracking and control : This is an activity in which software team can
assess progress and take corrective action to maintain schedule.
2. Risk management : The risks that may affect project outcomes or quality can be
analyzed.
3. Software quality assurance : These are activities required to maintain software quality.
4. Formal technical reviews : It is required to assess engineering work products to
uncover and remove errors before they propagate to next activity.
5. Software configuration management : Managing of configuration process when any
change in the software occurs.
6. Work product preparation and production : The activities to create models, documents,
logs, forms and lists are carried out.
7. Reusability management : It defines criteria for work product reuse.
8. Measurement : In this activity, the process can be defined and collected. Also project
and product measures are used to assist the software team in delivering the required
software.

 Review Questions
1. Explain the generic framework activities in a software engineering process and also
mention the umbrella activities. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8
2. What are various umbrella activities applied throughout a software project ?
SPPU : April-15, In Sem, Marks 6, April-16, In Sem, Marks 7, Aug.-17, In Sem, Marks 4
3. What is software process framework ? Explain in detail
4. What are the reasons to have a software process ? What are the issues addressed by
umbrella activities in layered model of software engineering.
SPPU : May-18, End Sem, Oct.-19, In Sem, Marks 5
5. What are the issues addressed by umbrella activities in layered model of software
engineering. SPPU : Oct.-19, In Sem, Marks 5

1.10 Process Pattern


 Process is defined as a series of activities in which one or more inputs are used to produce
one or more outputs.
 The process pattern is a template which appears as a general solution to a common
problem.

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Software Engineering 1 - 11 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Process pattern acts as a consistent method for describing an important characteristic of


software process.
 Using process pattern we can easily build the process that satisfies all the requirements.
 Process pattern describes -
 Complete process
 Important framework activity
 Task within the framework activity
 Scott Ambler - an object oriented consultant has proposed a template for process pattern as
follows :
 Pattern name  Intent
 Type  Initial context
 Problem  Solution
 Resulting context  Known uses
The description of process pattern is as follows -
Pattern name
The pattern name should be a meaningful name given to the pattern. From pattern name
one can guess its functionality.

Intent
The objective or the purpose of the pattern should be described here.
Type
The type of pattern should be specified here.
Ambler has suggested three types of patterns
1) Task Pattern - It represents the software engineering action or work task which is a part of
process. For example, Formal Technical review is a task pattern.
2) Stage Pattern - It defines the process framework activity. A framework activity has
multiple work tasks; hence stage pattern consists of multiple task patterns. For example,
Coding phase is a stage pattern.
3) Phase Patterns - It defines the sequence of framework activities. For example the phrase
pattern can be spiral model or rapid prototype model.
Initial context
In this section the conditions under which the pattern applies are described.
Sometimes the entry conditions must be true before the process begins.

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Software Engineering 1 - 12 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

In this section following issues need to described :


1. The set of organisational or team related activities that have already occurred.
2. The list of entry state processed.
3. Already existing software engineering or project related information.
Problem
Under this section the problem is mentioned for which the pattern is to be described. For
example : insufficient requirements is a problem. That means customers are not sure about
what they want exactly. They could not specify the requirements in proper manner.

Solution
Every problem for which pattern has to be described should be accompanied with some
solution. For example: The problem of insufficient requirements has solution. That is -
Establish effective communication with the customer. Ask questions in order to obtain
meaningful requirements. Conduct timely reviews to modify/redefine the requirements. This
solution will help the software developer to get useful information before the actual work
starts.
Resulting context
It describes the results after successful implementation of pattern. The resulting context
should have following type of information on successful completion of pattern -
1. The team-related or organizational activities that must have occurred.
2. Exit state for the process.
3. The software engineering information or project information that has been developed.

Known uses/Examples
The specific instances or applications in which the described pattern is useful should be
mentioned under this section. In other words we describe applicability of the pattern. For
example : spiral model is useful for the large scale projects in which work products must be
examined in several iterations.
1.11 Process Assessment and Improvement
Normally process is suffered by following problems -
1. The software has to be delivered on time.
2. The software should satisfy customer needs and requirements.
3. The software should posses the long term quality characteristics.

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Software Engineering 1 - 13 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Fig. 1.11.1 Software process assessment

Process assessment is an activity in which it is ensured whether the software meets the
basic criteria for successful software engineering project.
Following approaches are used for software assessment -

Standard CMMI assessment method for process improvement


It is a five step process assessment model. These five steps are initiating, diagnosing,
establishing, acting and learning. This model makes use of SEI CMM as the base model.

CMM-based appraisal for internal process improvement


This method provides the diagnostic technique for internal process assessment.
SPICE
Using this standard all the requirements are analyzed for software process assessment. This
standard helps in doing an objective evaluation on efficiency of any process.
ISO 9001:2000
This is a popularly used standard for improving the overall quality of the organization. The
International Organization for Standardization i.e. ISO has developed this standard.
1.12 Prescriptive Process Model
 Definition of Process Model : The process model can be defined as the abstract
representation of process. The appropriate process model can be chosen based on abstract
representation of process.
 The software process model is also known as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
Model or software paradigm.
 These models are called prescriptive process models because they are following some
rules for correct usage.
 In this model various activities are carried out in some specific sequence to make the
desired software product.

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Software Engineering 1 - 14 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Various prescriptive process models are as shown in Fig. 1.12.1.

Fig. 1.12.1 Prescriptive process model

1.12.1 Need for Process Model

 The software development team must decide the process model that is to be used for
software product development and then the entire team must adhere to it. This is necessary
because the software product development can then be done systematically.
 Each team member will understand - what is the next activity and how to do it. Thus
process model will bring the definiteness and discipline in overall development process.
 Every process model consists of definite entry and exit criteria for each phase. Hence
the transition of the product through various phases is definite.
 If the process model is not followed for software development then any team member can
perform any software development activity, this will ultimately cause a chaos and software
project will definitely fail without using process model, it is difficult to monitor the
progress of software product. Thus process model plays an important rule in software
engineering.

1.13 The Waterfall Model SPPU : April-16, Dec.-18, Oct.-19, Marks 6

 The waterfall model is also called as 'linear-sequential model' or 'classic life cycle model'.
It is the oldest software paradigm. This model suggests a systematic, sequential approach
to software development.
 The software development starts with requirements gathering phase. Then progresses
through analysis, design, coding, testing and maintenance. Following figure illustrates
waterfall model.

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Software Engineering 1 - 15 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Fig. 1.13.1 Waterfall model

 In requirement gathering and analysis phase the basic requirements of the system must
be understood by software engineer, who is also called Analyst. The information domain,
function, behavioural requirements of the system are understood. All these requirements
are then well documented and discussed further with the customer, for reviewing.
 The design is an intermediate step between requirements analysis and coding.
Design focuses on program attributes such as -
 Data structure
 Software architecture
 Interface representation
 Algorithmic details
The requirements are translated in some easy to represent form using which coding can be
done effectively and efficiently. The design needs to be documented for further use.
 Coding is a step in which design is translated into machine-readable form. If design is
done in sufficient detail then coding can be done effectively. Programs are created in this
phase.
 Testing begins when coding is done. While performing testing the major focus is on logical
internals of the software. The testing ensures execution of all the paths, functional
behaviours. The purpose of testing is to uncover errors, fix the bugs and meet the
customer requirements.
 Maintenance is the longest life cycle phase. When the system is installed and put in
practical use then error may get introduced, correcting such errors and putting it in use is
the major purpose of maintenance activity. Similarly, enhancing system's services as
new requirements are discovered is again maintenance of the system.
This model is widely used model, although it has many drawbacks. Let us discuss benefits
and drawbacks.

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Software Engineering 1 - 16 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Benefits of waterfall model


1. The waterfall model is simple to implement.
2. For implementation of small systems waterfall model is useful.
Drawbacks of waterfall model
There are some problems that are encountered if we apply the waterfall model and those
are :
1. It is difficult to follow the sequential flow in software development process. If some
changes are made at some phases then it may cause some confusion.
2. The requirement analysis is done initially and sometimes it is not possible to state all the
requirements explicitly in the beginning. This causes difficulty in the project.
3. The customer can see the working model of the project only at the end. After reviewing
of the working model; if the customer gets dissatisfied then it causes serious problems.
4. Linear nature of waterfall model induces blocking states, because certain tasks may be
dependant on some previous tasks. Hence it is necessary to accomplish all the dependant
tasks first. It may cause long waiting time.

Example 1.13.1 Explain how water-fall model is applicable for the development of the following
systems :
a) University accounting system
b) Interactive system that allows railway passengers to find time and other information from the
terminals installed in the station.
Solution :

a) University accounting system : If the software developers who have the experience in
developing the account systems then building university account system based on existing
design could be easily managed with water-fall model.
b) Interactive system that allows railway passengers to find time and other information
from the terminals installed in the station.
 For developing such interactive system, all the requirements must be correctly identified
and analyzed before the designing of the project.
 The requirements of end-users must be correctly and un-ambiguously understood by the
developers prior to design phase.
 Once the requirements are well defined then using disciplined design, coding and testing
phases the required system can be built using water-fall model.

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Software Engineering 1 - 17 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Example 1.13.2 What is meant by ‘blocking states’ in linear sequential model ?

Solution :

 The linear nature of linear sequential model brings a situation in the project that some
project team members have to wait for other members of the team to complete the
dependent tasks. This situation is called “blocking state” in linear sequential model.
 For example, after performing the requirement gathering and analysis step the design
process can be started.
 Hence the team working on design stage has to wait for gathering of all the necessary
requirements.
 Similarly the programmers can not start coding step unless and until the design of the
project is completed.

 Review Questions
1. What are the elements of waterfall model ? State its merits and demerits.
SPPU : April-16, In Sem, Marks 6
2. Explain classic life cycle paradigm for software engineering and problems encountered
when it is applied. SPPU : Dec.-18, End Sem, Marks 5
3. Why waterfall model of software engineering is not accurate reflection of software
development activities? Justify. SPPU : Dec.-18, End Sem, Oct.-19, In Sem, Marks 5

1.14 Increment Process Model SPPU : May-18, May-19,


Dec.-19, Marks 6

In this model, the initial model with limited functionality is created for user's
understanding about the software product and then this model is refined and expanded in later
releases.

1.14.1 Incremental Model

 The incremental model has same phases that are in waterfall model. But it is iterative in
nature. The incremental model has following phases.
1. Analysis 2. Design
3. Code 4. Test
 The incremental model delivers series of releases to the customer. These releases are called
increments. More and more functionality is associated with each increment.
 The first increment is called core product. In this release the basic requirements are
implemented and then in subsequent increments new requirements are added.

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Software Engineering 1 - 18 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 The word processing software package can be considered as an example of incremental


model. In the first increment only the document processing facilities are available. In the
second increment, more sophisticated document producing and processing facilities, file
management functionalities are given. In the next increment spelling and grammar
checking facilities can be given. Thus in incremental model progressive functionalities are
obtained with each release.

When to choose it ?
1. When requirements are reasonably well-defined.
2. When overall scope of the development effort suggests a purely linear effort.
3. When limited set of software functionality needed quickly.

Merits of incremental model


1. The incremental model can be adopted when there are less number of people involved in
the project.
2. Technical risks can be managed with each increment.
3. For a very small time span, atleast core product can be delivered to the customer.

Fig. 1.14.1 The incremental model

Demerits
1) System structure tends to degrade when new increment is getting added to the existing
system. This actually spends time and money on refactoring to improve the software.
2) It is not cost effective to produce document for every version of the system, hence many
times the complete process is not getting documented.

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Software Engineering 1 - 19 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

1.14.2 RAD Model

 The RAD model is a type of incremental process model in which there is extremely short
development cycle.
 When the requirements are fully understood and the component based construction
approach is adopted then the RAD model is used.
 Using the RAD model the fully functional system can be developed within 60 to 90 days.
 Various phases in RAD are Requirements Gathering, Analysis and Planning, Design, Build
or Construction and finally Deployment.
 Multiple teams work on developing the software system using RAD model parallely.
 In the requirements gathering phase the developers communicate with the users of the
system and understand the business process and requirements of the software system.
 During analysis and planning phase, the analysis on the gathered requirements is made
and a planning for various software development activities is done.

Fig. 1.14.2 Rapid application development

 During the design phase various models are created. Those models are Business model,
data model and process model.

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Software Engineering 1 - 20 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 The build is an activity in which using the existing software components and automatic
code generation tool the implementation code is created for the software system. This code
is well tested by its team. The functionalities developed by all the teams are integrated to
form a whole.
 Finally the deployment of all the software components (created by various teams working
on the project) is carried out.

Drawbacks of rapid application development


1. It requires multiple teams or large number of people to work on the scalable projects.
2. This model requires heavily committed developer and customers. If commitment is
lacking then RAD projects will fail.
3. The projects using RAD model requires heavy resources.
4. If there is no appropriate modularization then RAD projects fail. Performance can be
problem to such projects.
5. The projects using RAD model find it difficult to adopt new technologies.
Example 1.14.1 Which type of applications suit RAD model ? Justify your answer.

Solution : The RAD model is suitable for information system applications, business
applications and the for systems that can be modularized because of following reasons -
1. This model is similar to waterfall model but it uses very short development cycle.
2. It uses component-based construction and emphasises reuse and code generation.
3. This model uses multiple teams on scaleable projects.
4. The RAD model is suitable for the projects where technical risks are not high.
5. The RAD model requires heavy resources.

 Review Questions
1. Explain with neat diagram incremental model and state its advantages and disadvantages
May-18, End Sem, Marks 6
2. What are the conditions in which rapid application development model is preferred?
May-19, End Sem, Marks 5
3. Explain RAD model with the help of diagram Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 6

1.15 Evolutionary Process Model


While developing the software systems, it is often needed to make modifications in earlier
development phases or the tasks sets. If the development process is linear or in a straight line
(from requirements gathering to deployment) then the end product will be unrealistic. In such
cases, the iterative approach needs to be adopted. The evolutionary process model is
iterative model.

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Software Engineering 1 - 21 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

1.15.1 Prototyping

 In prototyping model initially the requirement gathering is done.


 Developer and customer define overall objectives; identify areas needing more requirement
gathering.
 Then a quick design is prepared. This design represents what will be visible to user in input
and output format.
 From the quick design a prototype is prepared. Customer or user evaluates the prototype in
order to refine the requirements. Iteratively prototype is tuned for satisfying customer
requirements. Thus prototype is important to identify the software requirements.
 When working prototype is built, developer use existing program fragments or program
generators to throw away the prototype and rebuild the system to high quality.
 Certain classes of mathematical algorithms, subset of command driven systems and other
applications where results can be easily examined without real time interaction can be
developed using prototyping paradigm.

Fig. 1.15.1 Prototyping

When to choose it ?
 Software applications that are relatively easy to prototype almost always involve Human-
machine Interaction (HCI) the prototyping model is suggested.
 A general objective of software is defined but not detailed input, processing or output
requirements. Then in such a case prototyping model is useful.
 When the developer is unsure of the efficiency of an algorithm or the adaptability of an
operating system then prototype serves as a better choice.

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Software Engineering 1 - 22 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Merits
1. The development team has adequate domain knowledge.
2. All the end users are involved in all phases of development.
3. There is use of reusable components.

Drawbacks of prototyping
1. In the first version itself, customer often wants “few fixes” rather than rebuilding of the
system whereas rebuilding of new system maintains high level of quality.
2. The first version may have some compromises.
3. Sometimes developer may make implementation compromises to get prototype working
quickly. Later on developer may become comfortable with compromises and forget why
they are inappropriate.

Comparison between prototyping and incremental process model

Sr. No. Prototyping Incremental process model

1. Some requirements are gathered The requirements are precisely defined and there
initially, but there may be change in is no confusion about the final product of the
requirements when the working software.
prototype is shown to the customer.

2. The development team has adequate The development team with less domain
domain knowledge. Similarly they knowledge can be accommodated due to iterative
can adopt the new technologies if nature of this model. The change in technology in
product demands. the later phase can not be tolerated.

3. All the end-users are involved in all All the end-users need not be involved in all the
phases of development. phases of development.

4. There can be use of some reusable There is no use of reusable components in


software components in project development process.
development process.

1.15.2 Spiral Model

 This model possess the iterative nature of prototyping model and controlled and
systematic approaches of the linear sequential model.
 This model gives efficient development of incremental versions of software. In this model,
the software is developed in series of increments.

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Software Engineering 1 - 23 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 The spiral model is divided into a number of framework activities. These framework
activities are denoted by task regions.
 Usually there are six tasks regions. The spiral model is as shown in Fig. 1.15.2.
 Spiral model is realistic approach to development of large-scale systems and software.
Because customer and developer better understand the problem statement at each
evolutionary level. Also risks can be identified or rectified at each such level.
 In the initial pass, product specification is built and in subsequent passes around the spiral
the prototype gets developed and then more improved versions of software gets developed.

Fig. 1.15.2 Spiral model

 During planning phase, the cost and schedule of software can be planned and adjusted
based on feedback obtained from customer evaluation.
 In spiral model, project entry point axis is defined. This axis represents starting point for
different types of projects.
For instance, concept development project will start at core of spiral and will continue
along the spiral path. If the concept has to be developed into actual project then at entry point 2
the product development process starts. Hence entry point 2 is called product development
project entry point. The development of the project can be carried out in iterations.

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Software Engineering 1 - 24 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 The task regions can be described as :


i) Customer communication : In this region, it is suggested to establish customer
communication.
ii) Planning : All planning activities are carried out in order to define resources time line and
other project related activities.
iii) Risk analysis : The tasks required to calculate technical and management risks are carried
out.
iv) Engineering : In this task region, tasks required to build one or more representations of
applications are carried out.
v) Construct and release : All the necessary tasks required to construct, test, install the
application are conducted. Some tasks that are required to provide user support are also
carried out in this task region.
vi) Customer evaluation : Customer’s feedback is obtained and based on customer
evaluation required tasks are performed and implemented at installation stage.
 In each region, number of work tasks are carried out depending upon the characteristics of
project. For a small project relatively small number of work tasks are adopted but for a
complex project large number of work tasks can be carried out.
 In spiral model, the software engineering team moves around the spiral in a clockwise
direction beginning at the core.
Advantages of spiral model
 Requirement changes can be made at every stage.
 Risks can be identified and rectified before they get problematic.
Drawbacks of spiral model
 It is based on customer communication. If the communication is not proper then the
software product that gets developed will not be up to the mark.
 It demands considerable risk assessment. If the risk assessment is done properly then only
the successful product can be obtained.
When to choose it ?
1. When the prototypes for the software functionality are needed.
2. When requirements are not very clearly defined or complex.
3. When the large or high budget projects need to be developed.
4. When the risk assessment is very critical and essential
5. When project is not expected within a specific limited time span.

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Software Engineering 1 - 25 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Comparison between Spiral model and Prototyping model

Sr. No. Spiral model Prototyping model


1. The development team with less domain The development team has adequate
knowledge can be accommodated due to domain knowledge. Similarly they can
iterative nature of this model. The change in adopt the new technologies if product
technology in the later phase can not be demands.
tolerated.

2. All the end-users need not be involved in all All the end-users are involved in all phases
the phases of development. of development.

3. Funding are not stable for the projects that Funding are stable for these type of
can be developed using spiral model. projects.

4. The requirements that are gathered and Some requirements are gathered initially,
analyzed are high reliability requirements. but there may be change in requirements
when the working prototype is shown to
the customer.

Example 1.15.1 As you move outward along with process flow path of the spiral model, what can
we say about the software that is being developed or maintained ?
Solution : When software engineering team moves around the spiral, the first circuit around
the spiral results in development of product specification. The subsequent passes around the
spiral might be used to develop prototype in more subsequent manner. In each pass, through
planning region, some adjustments to project plan are made. Cost and schedule adjustments
can also be made according to customer feedback.
Example 1.15.2 How does “Project Risk” factor affect the spiral model of software development ?

Solution : The spiral model demands considerable risk assessment because if a major risk is
not uncovered and managed, problems will occur in the project and then it will not be
acceptable by end user.
Example 1.15.3 How does a spiral model represent a process suitable to represent a real time
problem ?
Solution : Spiral model represents a process suitable to represent a real time problem because
of following reasons -
1. Software evolves as the project progresses. And at every evolutionary level the risks are
identified and managed and risks are reduced at every stage.

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Software Engineering 1 - 26 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

2. It enables the developer to apply the prototype approach at any stage in the evolution of the
product. It helps in adopting the approach systematic stepwise development of the product.
3. The iterative frameworks help in analyzing the product at every evolutionary stage.
4. The spiral model demands a direct consideration of technical risks at all stages of project.
The risks are reduced before they get problematic.
1.16 Comparison between Various Process Models
SPPU : May-11,12,13,14, Dec.-12,13, Marks 8
1. Evolutionary and Incremental Process Model

Sr. No. Evolutionary process model Incremental process model


1. Some requirements are gathered The requirements are precisely defined and there
initially, but there may be change in is no confusion about the final product of the
requirements when the working software.
prototype is shown to the customer.
2. The development team has adequate The development team with less domain
domain knowledge. Similarly they can knowledge can be accommodated due to
adopt the new technologies if product iterative nature of this model. The change in
demands technology in the later phase cannot be tolerated.
3. All the end-users are involved in all All the end-users need not be involved in all the
phases of development phases of development.
4. There can be use of some reusable There is no use of reusable components in
software components in project development process.
development process
2. Waterfall Model and Spiral Model

Sr. No. Waterfall model Spiral model


1. It requires well understanding of It is developed in iterations. Hence the
requirements and familiar requirements can be identified at new iterations.
technology.
2. Difficult to accommodate changes The required changes can be made at every
after the process has started. stage of new version.
3. Can accommodate iteration but It is iterative model.
indirectly.
4. Risks can be identified at the end Risks can be identified and reduced before they
which may cause failure to the get problematic.
product.

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Software Engineering 1 - 27 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

5. The customer can see the working The customer can see the working product at
model of the project only at the end. certain stages of iterations.
After reviewing of the working model;
if the customer gets dissatisfied then it
causes serious problems.

6. Customers prefer this model. Developers prefer this model.

7. This model is good for small systems. This model is good for large systems.

8. It has sequential nature. It has evolutionary nature.

3. Waterfall, Spiral, Prototype and Incremental Model

Waterfall model Spiral model Prototyping model Incremental model

Requirements must The requirements Requirements The requirements


be clearly understood analysis and gathering analysis can be made analysis can be made in
and defined at the can be done in in the later stages of the later stages of the
beginning only. iterations because the development development cycle.
requirements get cycle, because
changed quite often. requirements get
changed quite often.

The development The development The development The development team


team having the team having less team having less having the adequate
adequate experience experience of working experience of experience of working
of working on the on the similar projects working on the on the similar project is
similar project is is allowed in this similar projects is chosen to work on this
chosen to work on process model allowed in this type of process model.
this type of process process model.
model

There is no user There is no user There is user There is user


involvement in all involvement in all the involvement in all involvement in all the
the phases of phases of development the phases of phases of development
development process. process. development process. process.

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Software Engineering 1 - 28 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

When the Due to iterative nature When developer is When the requirements
requirements are of this model, the risk unsure about the are reasonably well
reasonably well identification and efficiency of an defined, the development
defined and the rectification is done algorithm or the effort suggests a purely
development effort before they get adaptability of an linear effort and when
suggests a purely problematic. Hence for operating system then limited set of software
linear effort then the handling real time the prototyping functionality is needed
waterfall model is problems the spiral model is chosen. quickly then the
chosen. model is chosen. incremental model is
chosen.

 Review Questions
1. What is software process model ? Explain the incremental process model.
SPPU : May-14, Marks 8

2. Explain evolutionary process models mentioning the types of projects for which they are
suitable. SPPU : May-12, Marks 6

3. Explain the waterfall model with its advantages and disadvantages.


SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 6

4. Explain the waterfall model with work products of each activity. SPPU : May-13, Marks 8
5. Explain the prototyping model with its advantages and disadvantages.
SPPU : Dec.-13, Marks 6

6. Give the need of different process models in software development.


SPPU : Dec.-13, Marks 4

7. What do you mean by evolutionary process models ? Explain spiral model as an


evolutionary process model. SPPU : May-11, Marks 8

1.17 Concurrent Models


 The concurrent development model is also called as concurrent engineering.
 In this model, the framework activities or software development tasks are represented as
states.
 The modeling or designing phase of software development can be in one of the states like
under development, waiting for modification, under revision or under review and so on.
 Fig. 1.17.1 represents these states. (Refer Fig. 1.17.1)

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Software Engineering 1 - 29 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Fig. 1.17.1 Concurrent development model

 All the software development activities exist concurrently in this model but these activities
can be in various states.
 These states make transitions. That is during modeling, the transition from under
development state to waiting for modification state occurs.
 This model basically defines the series of events due to which the transition from one state
to another state occurs. This is called triggering. These series of events occur for every
software development activity, action or task.
 This model defines various activities that occur concurrently and a network of activities is
defined.

Advantages
1. All types of software development can be done using concurrent development model.
2. This model provides accurate picture of current state of project.
3. Each activity or task can be carried out concurrently. Hence this model is an efficient
process model.
1.18 Unified Process
The unified process is a framework for object oriented models. This model is also called as
Rational Unified Process model (RUP). It is proposed by Ivar Jacobson, Grady Bootch and
James Rumbaugh. This model is iterative and incremental by nature. Let us discuss various
phases of unified process.

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Software Engineering 1 - 30 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

There are 5 phases of unified process model and those are -


 Inception  Elaboration  Construction
 Transition  Production
Let us understand each of these phases in detail.
Inception
 In this phase there are two major activities that are conducted : Communication and
planning.
 By having customer communication business requirements can be identified.
 Then a rough architecture of the system is proposed. Using this rough architecture it then
becomes easy to make a plan for the project.
 Use cases are created which elaborates the user scenario.
 Using use cases the sequence of actions can be identified.
 Thus use cases help to identify the scope of the project which ultimately proves to be the
basis for the plan.

Fig. 1.18.1 Unified process model

Elaboration
 Elaboration can be done using two activities : Planning and Modelling.
 In this phase the use cases are redefined. And an architectural representation is created
using five models such as use-case model, analysis model, design model, implementation
model and deployment model.

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Software Engineering 1 - 31 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Thus executable baseline gets created.


 Then a plan is created carefully to check whether scope, risks and delivery dates are
reasonable.

Construction
 The main activity in this phase is to make the use cases operational.
 The analysis and design activities that are started in elaboration phase are completed in this
phase and a source code is developed which implements all desired functionalities.
 Then unit testing is conducted and acceptance testing is carried out on the use cases.

Transition
 In the transition phase all the activities that are required at the time of deployment of the
software product are carried out.
 Beta testing is conducted when software is delivered to the end user.
 User feedback report is used to remove defects from the created system.
 Finally software team prepares user manuals, installation guides and trouble shooting
procedures. This makes the software more usable at the time of release.
Production
 This is the final phase of this model. In this phase mainly the maintenance activities are
conducted in order to support the user in operational environment.
 Various work products that may get generated in every phase are as given below -

Inception phase Elaboration phase Construction phase Transition phase


 Initial use case  Use case model.  Design model  Delivered software
model.  Requirements  Software increments
 Initial risk analysismodel components  Beta test report
assessment.  Architecture model  Test plan  User feedback
 Project plan.  Preliminary design model  Test cases report.
 Risk list  User manual
 Iterative project plan  Installation manual
 Preliminary user manual

 Thus the generic software process models are applied for many years in software
development process in order to reduce chaos in the process of development.
 Each of these models suggest different process flow but they insist on performing the same
set of generic framework activities.

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Software Engineering 1 - 32 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

1.19 Agile Software Development


SPPU : Aug.-17, Dec.-17, 18, Oct.-19, May-19, Marks 5

 In 1980’s the heavy weight, plan based software development approach was used to
develop any software product.
 In this approach too many things are done which were not directly related to software
product being produced.
 This approach was rigid. That means if requirements get changed, then rework was
essential.
 Hence new methods were proposed in 1990’s which are known as agile processes.
 The agile processes are the light-weight methods are people-based rather than plan-based
methods.
 The agile process forces the development team to focus on software itself rather than
design and documentation.
 The agile process believes in iterative method. The aim of agile process is to deliver the
working model of software quickly to the customer.
 For example : Extreme programming is the best known of agile process.
Conventional Software Development Methodology

 As the software project makes the progress, the cost of the changes increases non linearly.
 It is easy to accommodate changes during the requirement gathering stage. At this stage to
accommodate the changes - usage scenarios are modified, list of functions can be extended,
or written specification be edited.
 As the progresses and if the customer suggest the changes during the testing phase of the
software development life cycle then to accommodate these changes the architectural
design needs to be modified and ultimately these changes will affect other phases of
software development cycle. These changes are actually costly to execute.
Agile Methodology

 The agile method proponents claim that if the software development is carried out using the
agile approach then it will allow the software team to accommodate changes late in a
software project without dramatic cost and time impact.
 In other words, if the incremental delivery is combined with agile practices such as
continuous unit testing and pair programming then the cost of changes can be controlled.
 The following graph represents how the software development approach has a strong
influence on the development cost.

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Software Engineering 1 - 33 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Fig. 1.19.1 Influence of software development approach on agile process

1.19.1 Agility Principles

There are famous 12 principles used as agility principles -


1. Satisfy the customer by early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
2. The changes in the requirements must be accommodated. Even though the changes occur
late in the software development process, the agile process should help to accommodate
them.
3. Deliver working software quite often. Within the shorter time span deliver the working
unit.
4. Business people and developers must work together throughput the project.
5. Motivate the people who are building the projects. Provide the environment and support
to the development team and trust them for the job to be done.
6. The working software is the primary measure of the progress of the software
development.
7. The agile software development approach promote the constant project development. The
constant speed for the development of the product must be maintained.
8. To enhance the agility there should be continuous technical excellence.
9. The proper attention to be given to technical excellence and good design.
10. The simplicity must be maintained while developing the project using this approach.
11. The teams must be the self-organizing team for getting best architecture, requirements
and design.
12. At regular intervals the team thinks over the issue of becoming effective. After the careful
review the team members adjusts their behavior accordingly.

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Software Engineering 1 - 34 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

1.19.2 Concept of Agile Process

Agile process is based on following assumptions about software projects


1. It is difficult to predict the software requirements in advance. Similarly the customer
priority often get changed.
2. It is difficult to predict how much design is necessary before the implementation.
3. All the software development activities such as analysis, design, construction and testing
are just difficult to predict.
Characteristics of Agile process are -
1. Agile processes must be adaptable to technical and environmental changes. That means if
any technological changes occur, then the agile process must accommodate it.
2. The development of agile processes must be incremental. That means, in each
development the increment should contain some functionality that can be tested and
verified by customer.
3. The customer feedback must be used to create the next increment of the process.
4. The software increment must be delivered in short span of time.
5. It must be iterative, so that each increment can be evaluated regularly.

1.19.3 Software Evolution and Merits and Demerits of Agile Methods

Software evolution : Software evolution is a process of developing a software initially and


repeatedly updating it for various reasons. Software change occurs because of following
reasons.
1. New requirements emerge when the software is used.
2. The business environment changes.
3. Errors needs to be repaired.
4. New equipment must be accommodated.
5. The performance or reliability may have to be improved.

Agile process model


Merits :
1) Customer satisfaction can be attained by rapid and continuous delivery of useful software.
2) Customer, developer and tester interact with each other during software development
process.
3) Continuous attention can be given for excellent technical design and software quality.
4) Even late changes in requirements can be accommodated.

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Software Engineering 1 - 35 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Demerits :
1) There is lack of emphasis on necessary designing and documentation during software
development process.
2) The project can easily get off the track if customer is not clear about his requirements.

 Review Questions
1. Describe agile manifesto. SPPU : Aug.-17, In Sem, Marks 04
2. What is agility? Explain about process model. SPPU : Dec.-17, 18, End Sem, Marks 5
3. What is the importance of agile/XP methodology for project development?
SPPU : Oct.-19, In Sem, Dec.-18, May-19, End Sem, Marks 5

1.20 Agile Methods


There are various agile process models -
1. Extreme Programming 2. Adaptive Software Development
3. Dynamic System Development Method 4. Scrum
5. Feature Driven Development 6. Agile Modeling
Let us discuss them in detail.

1.20.1 Adaptive Software Development (ASD)

 The adaptive software development approach was proposed by Jim Highsmith. This
approach is useful in building the complex software systems using iterative approach
 The focus of this method is on working in collaboration and team self organization.
 The life cycle of ASD consists of three phases of software development and those are -
1. Speculation 2. Collaboration 3. Learning.

Fig. 1.20.1 Adaptive software development life cycle

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Software Engineering 1 - 36 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

1. Speculation : This is an initial phase of the adaptive software development process. In this
phase the adaptive cycle planning is conducted. In this cycle planning mainly three types
of information is used such as - Customer's mission statement, project constraints (delivery
date, user description, budgets and so on) and basic requirements of the project.
2. Collaboration : The motivated people work in collaboration to develop the desired
software product. In this phase collaboration among the members of development team
is a key factor. For successful collaboration and coordination it is necessary to have
following qualities in every individual -
 Assist each other without resentment
 Work hard.
 Posses the required skill set.

 Communicate problems and help each other to accomplish the given task.
 Criticize without any hate.

3. Learning : As the team members go on developing the components, the emphasize is on


learning new skills and techniques. There are three ways by which the team members
learn-
 Focus groups : The feedback from the end-users is obtained about the software
component being developed. Thus direct feedback about the developed component can
be obtained.
 Formal technical review : This review for software components is conducted for
better quality.
 Postmortems : The team analyses its own performance and makes appropriate
improvements.

1.20.2 Dynamic System Development Method (DSDM)

In this agile method, the project deadline is met using the incremental prototyping
approach. This is an iterative development process.
The Dynamic System Development Method (DSDM) consortium has defined an agile
process model called DSDM life cycle.
Various phases in this life cycle model are as follows -
1. Feasibility study : By analyzing the business requirements and constraints the viability of
the application is determined in this phase.
2. Business study : The functional and informational requirements are identified and then the
business value of the application is determined. The basic application architecture is
decided in this phase.

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Software Engineering 1 - 37 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

3. Functional model iteration : The incremental approach is adopted for development. The
basic functionalities are demonstrated to the customer by building the suitable increments.
The intention of iterative cycle is to gather additional requirements by eliciting the
requirements from the customer as each prototype is being developed.
4. Design and build iteration : Each prototype is revisited during the functional model
iteration to ensure that the business requirements are satisfied by each software component.
Sometimes if possible, the design and build activities can be carried out in parallel.
5. Implementation : In this phase, the software increment is placed in the working
environment. If changes are suggested or if the end-user feels it incomplete then the
increment is placed in iteration for further improvement.
The DSDM can be combined with XP method or ASD concepts to create a combination
model.

1.20.3 Scrum

 SCRUM is an agile process model which is used for developing the complex software
systems.
 It is a lightweight process framework that can be used to manage and control the software
development using iterative and incremental approach. Here the term lightweight means
the overhead of the process is kept as small as possible in order to maximize productive
time.
 This model is developed by Jeff Sutherland and Ken Schwaber in 1995.

Principles
 Various principles using which the SCRUM works are as given below -
1. There are small working teams on the software development projects. Due to this
there is maximum communication and minimum overhead.
2. The tasks of people must be partitioned into small and clean packets or partitions.
3. The process must accommodate the technical or business changes if they occur.
4. The process should produce software increments. These increments must be
inspected, tested, documented and built on.
5. During the product building the constant testing and documentation must be
conducted.
6. The SCRUM process must produce the working model of the product whenever
demanded or required.
 Various development activities (requirements analysis, design, evolution and delivery) are
guided by SCRUM principles.

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Software Engineering 1 - 38 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Development Activities
In SCRUM emphasize is on software process pattern. The software process pattern
defines a set of development activities. Refer Fig. 1.20.2.

Fig. 1.20.2 SCRUM workflow activities

Various development activities in SCRUM are -


1. Backlog : It is basically a list of project requirements or features that must be provided to
the customer. The items can be included in the backlog list at any time. The product
manager analyses this list and updates the priorities as per the requirements.
2. Sprint : These are the work units that are needed to achieve the requirements mentioned
in the backlogs. Typically the sprints have fixed duration or time-box (typically of
2 to 4 weeks). Thus sprints allow the team members to work in stable and short-term
environment.
3. Meetings : These are 15 minutes daily meetings to report the completed activities,
obstacles and plan for next activities. Following are three questions that are mainly
discussed during the meetings
i) What are the tasks done since last meeting ?
ii) What are the issues (obstacles) that team is facing ?
iii) What are the next activities that are planned ?
4. Demo : During this phase, the software increment is delivered to the customer. The
implemented functionality which is demonstrated to the customer. Note that demo focuses
on only implemented functionalities and not all the planned functionalities (and yet to get
implemented) of the software product.

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Software Engineering 1 - 39 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Roles :
1. Scrum Master - The Scrum master leads the meeting and analyses the response of each
team member. The potential problems are discussed and solved in the meeting with the
help of master.
2. Team Members - These are the persons working in a team to develop the software
solutions.

Advantages and Disadvantages :


Advantages :
1. SCRUM model brings transparency in project development status.
2. It provides flexibility towards the changes.
3. There is improved communication, minimum overhead in development process.
4. The productivity can be improved.
Disadvantages :
1. Some decisions are hard to track in fixed time span.
2. There are problems to deal with non-functional requirements of the system.

1.20.4 Feature Driven Development (FDD)

 Originally Peter Coad suggested this approach for object oriented software engineering.
 Stephen Palmer and John Flesing has extended and enhanced Coad's work.
 In FDD, the feature means client valued function. It is an iterative and incremental
software development process
In FDD, the collaborative activities are carried out. These activities are called as process as
shown in Fig. 1.20.3.

Fig. 1.20.3 Feature driven development life cycle

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Software Engineering 1 - 40 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

 Various phases in the FDD life cycle are


1. Develop overall model : In this phase the high-level walkthrough of scope and detailed
domain walkthroughs are conducted. Later on peer reviews and discussions are carried out
on these walkthroughs and domain area models are created. These domain area models are
then merged into the overall models.
2. Build features list : Initially the list of features is created. The domain is functionally
decomposed into various subject areas. These subject areas contain the business
activities. The steps within business activity forms the categorized feature list. Features are
basically the client valued functions and can be expressed in the form.
<action><result><by|for|of|to><object>

For example
“Display product-specifications of the product”

<Action> <result> <of> <object>


3. Plan by feature : After completing the building of feature list the development plan is
created. The features are assigned as classes and are chief programmer or the class owner
is assigned with appropriate classes.
4. Design by feature : A design package was produced for each feature. A chief
programmer selects a small group of features and these features are to be developed within
two weeks. For each feature the sequence diagram is created.
5. Build by feature : Finally a complete client valued function is developed for each feature.
The class owners develop the actual code for their classes and this code is promoted to the
main build.
 Following are some benefits of the features -
1. Features represent small block of deliverable functionalities hence user can better
describe, understand and review them.
2. The features can be arranged into hierarchical business related grouping.
3. The team can develop every feature within the two weeks.
4. The features are typically smaller in size and therefore can be analyzed effectively.
5. Project planning, scheduling and tracking can be driven by features.
The FDD can be used to develop complex projects or bigger projects. It can also be used
for the developing the projects having more novice developers.

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1.20.5 Crystal

 Cockburn and Highsmith suggested the crystal family of agile methods.


 The primary goal of this method is to deliver useful and working software.
 In this model, a set of methodologies are defined which contains the core elements that are
common to all. These methodologies also contain roles, process patterns, work products
and practice that are unique to each.
 Thus the crystal family is actually a set of agile processes that are useful for different
types of projects. The agile team has to select the memebers of the crustal family that is
most approapriate for their ongoing project and environment.

1.20.6 Agile Modeling (AM)

 The agile modeling can be used for large and complex projects. By adopting agile
modeling techniques the scope and complexity of the project can be understood. The
problems can be partitioned effectively among the group of people. And the quality of the
working model can be assessed at every step of development.
 Scott Ambler described the Agile modeling as - “Agile modeling is a collection of values,
principles and practices for modeling the software. Agile Modeling (AM) is a practice-
based methodology for effective modeling and documentation of software-based systems.
This modeling technique is more effective and light weight than the traditional modeling
technique.”
 Various features suggested by Scott Ambler for agile modeling are as follows -
1. Specify the purpose for the model : Prior to development of the software model the
goals and objective of the model must be known to the developer.
2. Make use of multiple models : Various models can be used to gain the insight in the
software product. Each model can have different perspective. A small amount of set of
models can be useful for building the desired software product.
3. Follow a definite path : Use only those models that give long term value so that the
work can proceed in definite direction. Every work product must be maintained as
changes occur.
4. Give importance to contents and not the presentation : The correct information in
the model is more important than the flawed representation.
5. Understand the models and supporting tools : It is necessary to understand the
strengths and weaknesses of the model that are used and the tools that are used in
development process.

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Software Engineering 1 - 42 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

6. Adapt locally : The needs of modeling team must be satisfied by adopting appropriate
modeling approach.
1.21 Plan Driven and Agile Development

 Normally there are two approaches of software development-plan driven development and
agile development.
 Agile Development :
 In agile approach, the design and implementation are the central activities and other
activities such as requirement elicitation and analysis, testing and so on are integrated
with design and implementation.
 The agile approach is not completely code focused, some necessary documents such as
design specification can be produced in this approach.
 Plan Driven Development :
 On the hand, in plan driven development approach each activity is performed in
separated stage and output of each stage is used for planning the next stage activity.
 In plan driven approach the iterations occur within the activities.
 The formal documents used to communicate between stages of software development
process.
The incremental delivery is possible in plan driven development.

Fig. 1.21.1 Plan driven development and Agile development

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Software Engineering 1 - 43 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Technical, Human and Organizational Issues


Software development is possible by using the elements of both the plan driven and agile
approach. However following are the issues that are considered while deciding whether to use
agile development approach or to use plan driven development
1. If the project requires, the detailed specification and implementation before going into next
state then plan driven approach should be used.
2. If the rapid software development is required and incremental approach of development is
adopted then go for agile approach of development.
3. For developing large system, then using small interacting team, the agile approach can be
used.
4. For the complex systems like real time systems the lot of analysis is required before
implementation, then the plan-driven approach is required.
5. For long-life systems in which the original documentation is used by the team members to
support the software development. In this situation the plan driven approach is the most
suitable one.
6. If the new tools and techniques are available for software development then agile approach
is used.
7. If the development team is distributed and part of software development need to be
outsourced then the plan-driven approach is adopted, because in plan driven development
the detailed documents are created to communicate the development to other team
members.
8. If traditional culture is preferred in organization then plan driven approach is used.
9. It is considered than the highly skilled developers are required for agile approach. If such
team members are available then the agile approach is used.
10. If the system needs the approval from external regulators then it requires to produce
detailed system documentation and in such case, the plan driven approach is used.
1.22 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1 _______ software is a collection of programs written to service other.


a Application b System
c Engineering d Embedded
Q.2 Software is a process and _______.
a program b design
c product d none of the above

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Q.3 Robotics, expert system and pattern recognition are the applications of ______
a system software b web programming
c artificial intelligence d game programming
Q.4 Software engineering is a layered technology. It consists of ___ layers.
a two b three
c four d five
Q.5 Quality focus layer, process layer, methods layer and____ layer is a known as software
engineering as layered technology.
a presentation b business logic
c implementation d tools
Q.6 _____ process framework activity is responsible for feedback.
a Communication b Modeling
c Construction d Deployment
Q.7 ___ is a collection of software engineering work task, milestones and deliverable that must
be accomplished to complete particular project.
a Program b Document
c Design d Task
Q.8 The _______ model is a realistic approach to the development of large-scale systems and
software.
a spiral b RAD
c prototype d incremental
Q.9 SDLC Stands for _______.
a Software Document Listing Collection
b Software Development Life Cycle
c Software Deployment Life Cycle
d System Development Life Cycle
Q.10 Which of the following is evolutionary process model ?
a Incremental model b Spiral model
c Concurrent development model d All of the above
Q.11 Which two models doesn't allow defining requirements early in the life cycle ?
a Waterfall and RAD b Prototyping and Spiral
c Prototyping and RAD d Waterfall and Spiral

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Q.12 If XYZ company wants to enhance the current software product, then which process
model will you prefer to perform this job ?
a Spiral b Iterative enhancement model
c RAD model d both b and c
Q.13 If the project is to be completed within the tight schedule then we choose waterfall model
a True b False
Q.14 Which of the following is not a software process model ?
a Waterfall model b Incremental model
c Capability maturity model d Spiral model
Q.15 Choose the type of project where the prototyping model of software development is well
suited.
a For the projects with large development teams
b When the customer cannot define the requirements clearly
c When the requirements are well defined.
d none of these
Q.16 Which model is popular for students small projects ?
a Waterfall model b RAD model
c Spiral model d WIN WIN model
Q.17 If the requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best
suited ?
a Spiral model b Prototyping model
c Waterfall model d Incremental model
Q.18 Spiral Model has high reliability requirement _______.
a True b False
Q.19 The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is _______.
a evolutionary development model b waterfall model
c prototyping model d iterative enhancement model
Q.20 RAD model has reliability requirement
a True b False

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Software Engineering 1 - 46 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Q.21 The most important feature of spiral model is _____.


a requirement analysis b risk management
c quality management d configuration management
Q.22 What is the main difference between the spiral model and other models ?
a Each loop is considered as a phase
b Describe the process as a spiral
c Does not include planning activities
d Explicit recognition of risk
Q.23 ______________ is not an agile method.
a Extreme programming b Scrum
c Waterfall d Crystal
Q.24 _____________________ three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software
Development(ASD)
a Analysis, Design, Coding
b Requirements gathering, Adaptive cycle planning, Iterative development
c Speculation, Collaboration, Learning
d All of the mentioned
Q.25 ________________ four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming(XP).
a Analysis, Design, Coding, Testing b Planning, Analysis, Design, Coding
c Planning, Design, Coding, Testing d Planning, Analysis, Coding, Testing
Q.26 In Scrum, when is a Sprint Over ?
a After completing all the Sprint Backlog Items
b After completing all the Sprint Backlog tasks
c After completing the final testing
d When the time box expires

Answer Keys for Multiple Choice Questions :

Q.1 b Q.2 c Q.3 c Q.4 c

Q.5 d Q.6 d Q.7 d Q.8 a

Q.9 b Q.10 d Q.11 b Q.12 d

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Software Engineering 1 - 47 Introduction to Software Engineering and Process Models

Q.13 b Q.14 c Q.15 b Q.16 a

Q.17 c Q.18 a Q.19 a Q.20 b

Q.21 b Q.22 d Q.23 c Q.24 c

Q.25 c Q.26 d



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Notes

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UNIT - II

2
Software Requirement
Engineering and
Analysis Modeling

Syllabus

Modeling : Requirements Engineering, Establishing the Groundwork, Identifying


Stakeholders, Recognizing Multiple Viewpoints, working toward Collaboration, Asking
the First Questions, Eliciting Requirements, Collaborative Requirements Gathering,
Usage Scenarios, Elicitation Work Products, Developing Use Cases, Building the
Requirements Model, Elements of the Requirements Model, Negotiating Requirements,
Validating Requirements.

Contents
2.1 Requirements Engineering ...................... May-19 ................................. Marks 5
2.2 Requirements Engineering Tasks .................... Dec.-14, 17, 19, April-16 ....... Marks 5
2.3 Establishing the Groundwork ...................... Dec.-07, May-14 .................... Marks 4
2.4 Eliciting the Requirements ...................... Dec.-14, 18, ........................... Marks 5
2.5 Developing Use Cases ...................... May-11, Dec.-14 ..................... Marks 5
2.6 Building Requirements Models
2.7 Elements of the Requirements Model ............... Dec.-14 .................................. Marks 5
2.8 Scenario Based Modeling ...................... May-13, Dec.-13 ..................... Marks 8
2.9 Class Based Modeling ...................... May-13.................................... Marks 4
2.10 Data Modeling ...................... Dec.-11, 14, May-12, Oct.-19. Marks 5
2.11 Flow Modeling
2.12 Behavioral Modeling
2.13 Negotiating the Requirements
2.14 Validating Requirements ...................... Dec.-14 ................................... Marks 5
2.15 Preparing Requirements Traceability Matrix
2.16 Multiple Choice Questions

(2 - 1)
Software Engineering 2-2 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

2.1 Requirements Engineering SPPU : May-19, Marks 5

Requirement engineering is the process of


 Establishing the services that the customer requires from a system.
 And the constraints under which it operates and is developed.
The requirements themselves are the descriptions of the system services and constraints
that are generated during the requirements engineering process.

What is a requirement ?
A requirement can range from a high-level abstract statement of a service or of a system
constraint to a detailed mathematical functional specification.
The requirement must be open to interpretation and it must be defined in detail.

Types of requirements
The requirements can be classified as

Fig. 2.1.1 Types of requirements

 User requirements
It is a collection of statements in natural language plus description of the services the
system provides and its operational constraints. It is written for customers.
 System requirements
It is a structured document that gives the detailed description of the system services. It is
written as a contract between client and contractor.
 Software specification
It is a detailed software description that can serve as a basis for design or implementation.
Typically it is written for software developers.

2.1.1 Need for Requirements to be Stable and Correct

Following are those reasons which specify that there is a need for the requirements to be
stable and correct -
As requirements are identified and analysis model is created the software team and other

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Software Engineering 2-3 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

stakeholders negotiate the priority, availability and relative cost of the requirement. During this
negotiation there are chances that the requirements may get changed. During requirement
analysis, each requirement is validated against the needs of the customer. If the requirements
are stable, correct and unambiguous then they remain unchanged throughout the requirement
analysis process. And finally the working model that satisfied customers need can be created
effectively.

 Review Question

1. Explain the importance of requirement engineering. SPPU : May-19, End Sem, Marks 5

2.2 Requirements Engineering SPPU : Dec.-14, 17, 19, April-16, Marks 5


Tasks
 Requirement engineering is the process characterized for achieving following goals -
 Understanding customer requirements and their needs
 Analyzing the feasibility of the requirement
 Negotiating the reasonable solutions
 Specification of an unambiguous solution.
 Managing all the requirements of the project
 Finally transforming the requirements into the operational systems
 Requirement engineering process performs following seven distinct functions –

Fig. 2.2.1 Requirement engineering tasks

Let us now discuss these tasks in detail -

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2.2.1 Inception

The inception means specifying the beginning of the software project. Most of the
software projects get started due to business requirements. There may be potential demand
from the market for a particular product and then the specific software project needs to be
developed.
There exist several stakeholders who define the business ideas. Stakeholders mean an
entity that takes active participation in project development. In software project development,
the stakeholders that are responsible for defining the ideas are business managers, marketing
people, product managers and so on. Their role is to do rough feasibility study and to identify
the scope of the project.
During the inception a set of context free questions is discussed. The purpose of
inception is to -
1. Establish the basic understanding of the project.
2. Find out all possible solutions and to identify the nature of the solution.
3. Establish an effective communication between developer and the customer.

2.2.2 Elicitation

Before the requirements can be analyzed and modelled they must undergo through the
process of elicitation process. Requirements elicitation means requirements discovery.
Requirements elicitation is very difficult task.
Following are the reasons for : why it is difficult to understand customer wants? -
1. Customer sometimes is unable to specify the scope of the project. Sometimes customers
specify too many technical details and this may increase the confusion.
2. There is difficulty in understanding the problem. Sometimes customer could not decide
what are their needs and wants. Sometimes they have got poor understanding of
capabilities and limitations the existing computing environment.
Sometimes customers find it difficult to communicate with the system engineer about
their needs. Sometimes customers may have got some conflicting requirements. This
ultimately results in specifying ambiguous requirements.
3. As project progresses the needs or requirements of the customers changes. This creates a
problem of volatility.
To overcome these problems the requirements gathering must be done very systematically.

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Software Engineering 2-5 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

2.2.3 Elaboration

 Elaboration is an activity in which the information about the requirements is expanded and
refined. This information is gained during inception and elicitation.
 The goal of elaboration activity is to prepare a technical model of software functions,
features and constraints.
 The elaboration consists of several modelling and refinement tasks. In this process
several user scenarios are created and refined. Basically these scenarios describe how end-
user will interact with the system.
 During elaboration, each user scenario is parsed and various classes are identified. These
classes are nothing but the business entities that are visible to end user. Then the attributes
and services (functions) of these classes are defined. Then the relationship among these
classes is identified. Thus various UML (Unified Modelling Diagrams) are developed
during this task.
 Finally the analysis model gets developed during the elaboration phase.

2.2.4 Negotiation

Sometimes customer may demand for more than that is achieved or there are certain
situations in which customer demands for something which cannot be achieved in limited
business resources. To handle such situations requirement engineers must convince the
customers or end users by solving various conflicts. For that purpose, requirement engineers
must ask the customers and stakeholders to rank their requirements and then priority of these
requirements is decided. Using iterative approach some requirements are eliminated,
combined or modified. This process continues until the users’ satisfaction is achieved.

2.2.5 Specification

 A specification can be a written document, mathematical or graphical model, collection of


use case scenarios or may be the prototypes.
 There is a need to develop a standard specification in which requirements are presented in
consistent and understandable manner.
 For a large system it is always better to develop the specification using natural language
and in a written document form. The use of graphical models is more useful for specifying
the requirements.
 Specification is the final work product of requirement engineering process. It describes the
functions, constraints and performance of computer based systems.

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2.2.6 Validation

 Requirement Validation is an activity in which requirement specification is analyzed in


order to ensure that the requirements are specified unambiguously. If any inconsistencies,
omissions and errors are identified then those are corrected or modified during the
validation.
 The most commonly used requirement validation mechanism is formal technical review
(FTR). In FTR, the review team validates the software requirements. The review team
consists of requirement engineers, customers, end users, marketing person and so on. This
review team basically identifies conflicting requirements, inconstancies or unrealistic
requirements.

2.2.7 Requirement Management

Definition : Requirements management is the process of managing changing requirements


during the requirements engineering process and system development.
Why requirements get change ?
 Requirements are always incomplete and inconsistent. New requirements occur during the
process as business needs change and a better understanding of the system is developed.
 System customers may specify the requirements from business perspective that can conflict
with end user requirements.
 During the development of the system, its business and the technical environment may get
changed.
Requirement management process
Following things should be planned during requirement process.

Fig. 2.2.2 Planning in requirement management process

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Software Engineering 2-7 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

 Traceability is concerned with relationship between requirements, their sources and


the system design.

 Review Questions
1. Why requirement elicitation is difficult? What is meant by requirements negotiation ? Why
requirements need to be stable and correct? SPPU : Dec.-14, Marks 5

2. What do you mean by requirements inception, elicitation and validation ?

SPPU : April-16, In Sem, Marks 4

3. What are requirements engineering tasks? Explain in detail.

SPPU : Dec.-17, 19, End Sem, Marks 5

2.3 Establishing the Groundwork SPPU : Dec.-07, May-14, Marks 4

To initiate requirement engineering process meaningful conversation between customer


and software engineers must be held. There are various steps that are required to initiate the
requirements engineering. These steps are -
 Identification of stakeholders
 Recognizing multiple viewpoints
 Working towards the collaboration
 Questioning.

2.3.1 Identifying the Stakeholders

Definition of stakeholder : Stakeholder means anyone who gets benefited from the
system in a direct or indirect way when a system is getting developed.
For example : Consultant, product engineers, software developer, customer, marketing
people, end user, support and maintenance engineer and others.
Every stakeholder has different view for the system and everyone gets benefited differently
when the system gets developed successfully.
During the requirement inception phase, the requirement engineers must create a list of
stakeholders who will participate in project development process and their contribution
towards requirement elicitation. This list may get increased as the project progresses.

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2.3.2 Recognizing Multiple Viewpoints

In the project development process there are variety of stakeholders that get involved in.
Hence a project has multiple viewpoint. Normally the viewpoint is influenced by the kind of
stakeholder who is participating in the project.
Stakeholder Viewpoint
End user The end users expect that the developed system should be easy to learn and the
features included in the project should be familiar to them.
Marketing These stakeholders expect that the project should posses some exciting feature so
people that market can be attracted towards the product and then selling of the product
should become easy.
Business The system getting developed should be with in the specified budget and it should
managers satisfy the demands of the market.
Software These stakeholders expect that the requirements which they get should be realistic
developers and unambiguous so that systematic infrastructure of the project can be built.
Support The support engineers expect that the project should get developed in such a
engineers manner that it can be easily maintained.

All these stakeholders contribute a lot in requirement engineering process. The information
gathered using different view points can be conflicting or may be inconsistent. Hence the
requirement engineers categorize all stakeholders' information in a systematic manner so that
decision makers can choose proper set of requirements.
Example 2.3.1 Describe two real life situations in which the customer and the end-user is the
same. Describe two situations in which they are different.
SPPU : Dec.-07, May-14, Marks 4, I.T.

Solution : Two situations in which the customer and the end user is the same person
1. For an anti-virus product the customer and the end-user might be the same person.
According to his needs (such as single user, with internet security, anti-spam and so on) the
customer develop the antivirus software product and the same person makes use of it.
2. The Management Information System(MIS) product can be developed by the customer
according to his needs and requirements and can be used by the same person.
Two situations in which the customer and the end user is different
1. An on-line shopping application can be purchased by some customer and it can be used by
different group of people.
2. An on-line Banking system is purchased by the bank and is used by its account holders. In
this case the customer and the end-user is not the same person.

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2.3.3 Working Towards Collaboration

For building a successful system, the collaboration among the stakeholders and software
engineers is must.
The job of requirement engineers is to identify the areas of commonality, inconsistencies
and conflicts. The commonality denotes the requirements on which all the stakeholders agree.
These identified requirements are then categorized. During collaboration process different
stakeholders can present their own viewpoint, but business manager or senior technical
person makes the final decision about the requirements which should be eliminated.

2.3.4 Asking the First Questions

During the project inception phase variety of context free questions are asked. For
example
Set of questions for identifying the stakeholders
1. Who will use the system getting developed?
2. Who is requesting for this system?
3. Is there another way/source of getting the solution?
4. What will be the economical benefit from the system after its successful completion?
These questions will help to identify the stakeholders that are interested in getting the
system developed.
Set of questions used to gain preliminary understanding of the system
1. What are the characteristics of good output that would be generated by successful
solution ?
2. What kind of problems will be projected by the solution ?
3. Can anybody describe the business domain in which the solution will be used ?
4. Is there any special performance issue or constraint that affects the success of the
system getting developed ?
These questions will help to gain clear understanding of the system and associated
problems.
Set of questions for performing effective communication
1. Are you an authentic person to answer the questions ?
2. Are your answers official ?

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3. Am I asking too many questions ?


4. Is there any alternative source of getting answers of my questions ?
5. Are my questions relevant to the problems ?
6. Am I asking anything else ?
This questions are useful to initiate the communication and are essential for successful
elicitation.

2.4 Eliciting the Requirements SPPU : Dec.-14, 18, Marks 5

Questioning is useful only at inception of the project but for detailed requirement
elicitation it is not sufficient. During requirement elicitation certain activities such as problem
solving, elaboration, negotiation and specification must be carried out. Various ways by which
the requirement elicitation can be done are -
1. Collaborative requirement gathering
2. Quality function deployment
3. Use scenarios
4. Elicitation work product
Let us discuss these aspects of requirement elicitation in detail -

2.4.1 Collaborative Requirements Gathering

Collaborative requirement gathering is done using collaborative, team-oriented approach.


Facility Application Specification Technique (FAST) is an approach in which joint team
of customers and developers work together to identify the problem, propose elements of
solution, negotiate different approaches and prepare a specification for preliminary set of
solution requirements.

Guideline for FAST approach -


1. A meeting should be conducted and attended by both software engineers and customers.
The place of meeting should be a neutral site.
2. Rules for preparation and participation must be prepared.
3. An agenda should be prepared in such a way that it covers all the important point as well as
it allows all the new innovative ideas.
4. A facilitator controls the meeting. He could be customer, developer or outsider.
5. A definition mechanism is used. The mechanism can be work sheets, flip charts, wall
stickers, electronic bulletin board, chart room, virtual forum.

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6. The goal is to identify the problem, decide the elements of solution, negotiate different
approaches and specify the preliminary set of solution requirements.
 In FAST meeting each FAST attendee is asked to prepare - a list of objects, list of
services and a list of constraints.
 The list of objects consists of all the objects used in the system, the objects that are
produced by the system and the objects that surround the system.
 The list of services contain all the required functionalities that manipulate or interact
with the objects.
 The list of constraints consists of all the constraints of the system such as cost, rules,
memory requirement, speed accuracy etc.
 As the FAST meeting begins, the very first issue of discussion is the need and
justification for the new product. Once everyone agrees upon the fact that the product
is justified, each participant has to present his lists.
 These lists are then discussed, manipulated and these modified or refined lists are
combined by a group.
 The combined list eliminates redundant entries adds new ideas that come up during the
discussion. The combined list is refined in such a way that it helps in building the
system.
 The combined list should be prepared in such a way that a “consensus lists” can be
prepared, for object, services and constraints.
 A team is divided into subteams. Each subteam develops a minispecification from each
consensus list.
 Finally a complete draft specification is developed.
For example -
A FAST team is working on a commerical product. A following product description is
given as below -
“Nowadays the market for video game is growing rapidly. We would like to enter this
market with more features, like attractive GUI, multiple sound setting, realistic (3D)
animations. This product is tentatively called ‘Gamefun’. At the end of game, scores of each
player should be displayed”.
The FAST attendee prepare following lists -
1) List of objects - Display, menu, a sound, an event (moving from one level to another) and
so on.
2) List of services - Setting sounds, setting colors in GUI, HELP, instructions for players,
score card etc.

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Software Engineering 2 - 12 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

3) List of constraints - Must be user friendly, must have high speed, must accommodate less
size, should have less cost.
The for Menu (object) can be as given below -
 Contains ‘Start game’ and ‘exit’ options.
 List of all functional keys with corresponding functionality.
 Software provides interaction guidance, quick tour, sound controls.
 All players will play or interact through keys.
 Software provides facility for change in the look of GUI.
 Software displays scores of each player.

2.4.2 Quality Function Development

Quality function deployment is a quality management technique which translates the


customer needs and wants into technical requirements. This technique was introduced in
Japan.
Under quality function deployment three types of requirements can be defined -
Normal requirements -
The requirements as per goals
and objectives of the system are
called normal requirements. These
requirements can be easily
identified during the meeting with
the customer.
For example : Handling mouse and keyboard events for any GUI based system.
Expected requirements -
These types of requirements are such requirements which system must be having even if
customer did not mention about them. These are such requirements that if they are not present
then the system will be meaningless.
For example : A software package for presentation (like Microsoft Power Point) must
have option of 'new slide insert', so that user will be able to insert a new slide at any position
during his presentation.
Exciting requirements -
When certain requirements are satisfied by the software beyond customer's expectations
then such requirements are called exciting requirements.

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Software Engineering 2 - 13 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

For example : Spell check facility in Microsoft Word is an exciting requirement. Various
types of deployments that can be conducted during software development process are -
Function deployment : For determining the value of each function this deployment can be
done.
Information deployment : After identifying various functionalities events and data
objects must be identified.
Task deployment : The task associated with each function must be identified.
Value analysis : Identify the priorities of requirements. The technique of QFD requires
proper interaction with customer.

2.4.3 Usage Scenario

 During requirement gathering overall vision for systems functions and features get
developed.
 In order to understand how these functions and features are used by different classes of end
users, developers and users create a set of scenarios. This set identifies the usefulness of the
system to be constructed. This set is normally called as use-cases.
 The use-cases provide a description of how the system will be used.

2.4.4 Elicitation Work Products

Following are some work products that get produced during requirement elicitation -
 A statement of feasibility study performed in order to find the need of the project.
 Statement for the scope of the system.
 A list of various stakeholders such as customer, end-users, technical persons, and many
others who participate during requirement elicitation.
 A technical description of system environment
 A list of requirements and constraints.
 A set of usage scenarios along with operating conditions.
 The prototype that may get developed for defining the requirements in better manner.
These work products are then reviewed by all the people who participate in requirement
elicitation.

 Review Question
1. Explain the tasks done during elicitation and requirement management.
SPPU : May-18, End Sem, Marks 5

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Software Engineering 2 - 14 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

2.5 Developing Use Cases SPPU : May-11, Dec.-14, Marks 5

 Use cases are fundamental units of modelling


language in which functionalities are distinctly
represented.
 Use-case depicts the software or system from
end-user's point of view.
 The first step in writing use cases is to identify
Fig. 2.5.1 Use case notation
actors. Actors are entities that use the system or
product within the context of function and behaviour of the system. Actors represent the
role of the people as the system gets operated. Actor is anything that communicates with
the system or product. It is external to the system. Every actor has one or more goals when
using the system.
 Requirement elicitation is an evolutionary activity. It is not possible to identify all the
actors in the first iteration itself. Hence primary actors are identified in the first iteration.
These actors interact with the system to achieve required function. In next subsequent
iterations, the secondary actors can be identified. The secondary actors support the system
in such a way that the primary actors can perform their task.
 After identifying actors next step is to develop the use cases. Jacobson has suggested
following set of questions that should be answered by the use cases -
 What are the goals of the system ?
 Who are the primary and secondary actors ?
 What are the preconditions that should exist before the development of the system ?
 What are the mains functions that must be performed by the actor ?
 What are those exceptions that must be considered by the system ?
 What are the changes in the behavior of the actor ?
 What kind of system information to be produced by the actor ?
 What kind of information is gained by the actor from the system ?
 Will actor inform any change in the system to the external environment ?
The basic use case represents the high level scenario that describes the interaction between
the actor and the system.
Example 2.5.1 Develop use case for Bank system.

Solution : Following is the template suggested by Cockburn

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Use Case template

Use Case ATM system

Primary Actor Customer

Goal in Context To monitor all the functionalities required to establish the session

Preconditions ATM system has to be programmed and as to recognise and validate the PIN.

Trigger On completion of every activity a beep has to be generated by the system.

Scenario 1. Customer observes the control panel.

2. Customer enters the ATM card

3. Customer enters the PIN.

4. Customer selects the operation(withdrawal, deposit, inquiry)

5. Customer collects the cash, statement, card etc.

Exceptions 1. The control panel is not ready.

2. PIN is incorrect.

3. Card is not recognised.

4. Insufficient balance

5. Limit for the transaction exceeds.

6. Total number of allowed transactions per day.

Priority Essential and must be implemented in banking system.

Secondary Actor Administrator

Open Issues 1. Is there a need to display any additional information by the control panel?

2. For how many time the PIN is allowed to enter on incorrect supplement.

3. How much time is allotted to the customer to pick the items like cash or
card after completion of operation?

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The high-level use case for the ATM system can be as shown below –

Fig. 2.5.2 Use cases for ATM system

Example 2.5.2 Write an use case for ‘login’ with a template and diagram.
SPPU : May-11, Marks 4

Solution :

Use case template for login

Use case Course registration system.

Primary Actor Student.

Goal in Context To monitor all the functionalities required to register for the course.

Preconditions None

Scenario / Basic Flow 1. The system requests student to enter his name and password.
2. The student enters his/her name and password.
3. The system validates the entered name and password and logs the
student into the system.

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Software Engineering 2 - 17 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

Exceptions 1. The control panel is not ready.


2. User name is invalid.
3. Password is incorrect.
Priority Essential and must be implemented in course registration system.
Postcondition If user logs in successfully then course information must be displayed to
him / her.
Secondary Actor Administrator.

Fig. 2.5.3 Use case diagram

 Review Question
1. What do you need to know in order to develop an effective use case ? Describe a
standard use case documentation template. SPPU : Dec.-14, Marks 5

2.6 Building Requirements Models

Requirement analysis is an
intermediate phase between system
engineering and software design.
Requirement analysis produces a
software specification.

How is requirement analysis helpful ?


Analyst - The requirement analysis
helps the 'analyst' to refine software
allocation. Using requirement analysis
various models such as data model,
functional model and behavioral model
can be defined. Fig. 2.6.1 Requirement analysis : An
intermediate step

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Software Engineering 2 - 18 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

Designer - After requirement analysis, the designer can design for data, architectural
interface and component level designs.
Developer - Using requirements specification and design the software can be developed.

What are requirement analysis efforts ?


1. Problem recognition
The requirement analysis is done for understanding the need of the system. The scope of
the software in context of a system must be understood.
2. Evaluation and synthesis
Following are the tasks that must be done in evaluation and synthesis phase.
i) Define all externally observable data objects evaluate data flow.
ii) Define software functions.
iii) Understand the behaviour of the system.
iv) Establish system interface characteristics.
v) Uncover the design constraints.
3. Modelling
After evaluation and synthesis, using data, functional and behavioral domains the data
model, functional model and behavioral model can be built.
4. Specification
The requirement specification (SRS) must be built.
5. Review
The must be reviewed by project manager and must be refined.

2.6.1 Overall Objectives

 Following are three objectives of analysis model -


1. Describe customer requirement.
2. Create a basis for software design.
3. Prepare valid requirements list.
 Analysis model bridges the gap between system description and design model. The
system description describes overall system functionality and design model describes the
software architecture, user interface and component level structure.
 There is no clear division of analysis and design tasks. Some design can be carried out
during analysis and some analysis might be conducted during the design of the software.

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Software Engineering 2 - 19 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

2.6.2 Analysis Rules of Thumb

Arlow and Neustadt suggested some rules that should be followed during the creation of
analysis model. These rules are called analysis rules of thumb. They are as follows -
 The analysis model should focus only on requirements that are visible within the business
domain. That means there is no need to focus on detailed requirements.
 Each element of analysis model should help in building overall understanding of software.
These elements should provide insight into information domain, function and behaviour of
the system.
 Minimize coupling within the system. Coupling is basically used to represent the
relationship between the two objects by means of functionalities.
 Delay use of infrastructure and other non functional models until detailed software design is
obtained.
 Some analysis models should provide the values to the stakeholders. For example, the
business stakeholder should focus on the functionalities that are basic demands of the
market; software designer must focus on basic design of the product.
 The analysis model should be very simple so that it could be understood easily.

2.6.3 Domain Analysis

It is observed that there are varieties of patterns that occur in many applications with in
the same business domain. If these patterns are categorized systematically then that allows
software engineer to reuse them. Analysis model helps in identifying such patterns.

Definition of domain analysis - The domain analysis can be defined as identification of


common requirements from a specific application domain, for reusing them on multiple
projects within that specific application domain.

How to do domain analysis ?


The domain analysis can be done by finding or creating those analysis classes that are
having common functions and features that can be reused.
It is the responsibility of domain analyst to discover and define reusable analysis patterns,
analysis classes and related information.

What are the advantages of domain analysis ?


1. The domain analysis done for finding the reusable design patterns and executable software
components helps in building the system or product very efficiently.
2. It reduces the cost of development of design patterns.

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Software Engineering 2 - 20 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

2.7 Elements of the Requirements Model SPPU : Dec.-14, Marks 5

Analysis modelling approach

Structured approach Object oriented approach


The analysis is made on data and processes in The analysis is made on the classes and
which data is transformed as separate entities. interaction among them in order to meet the
customer requirements.
Data objects are modelled in such a way that Unified Modelling Language(UML) and
data attributes and their relationship is defined unified processes are used in object oriented
in structured approach modelling approach.

But the commonly used analysis


model combines features of both these
approaches because the best suitable
analysis model bridges the software
requirements and software design.
Following are the elements of
analysis model -
 Scenario based elements
 Flow-oriented elements
 Behavioural elements
 Class based elements
Following Fig. 2.7.1 illustrates the
elements of analysis model. Fig. 2.7.1 Analysis model

 Review Question
1. What are different approaches or elements of a requirement analysis model ?
SPPU : Dec.-14, Marks 5

2.8 Scenario Based Modeling SPPU : May-13, Dec.-13, Marks 8

When user of the computer-based system gets satisfied completely then that system or a
product is said to be successful product. The software engineers try to understand how an user
will interact with the system by properly characterising the requirements and by building the

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Software Engineering 2 - 21 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

analysis models. In analysis modelling, at the beginning, creation of scenarios in the form of
use cases, activity diagrams and swimlane diagram occurs.

2.8.1 Writing Use Cases

Use case diagrams represent the overall scenario of the system. A scenario is nothing but a
sequence of steps describing an interaction between a user and a system.
For example : In library, student searches the book in catalog, finds book, reserves the
book. He returns a book or pays fine for a book-all these activities constitute a scenario.
Thus use case is a set of scenarios tied together by some goal. The use case diagrams are
drawn for exposing the functionalities of the system.

Actor
An actor is an entity which interacts with the system. Actors carry out use cases.
For example : In above use case diagram student is an actor.
A single actor may perform many use cases; conversely, a use case may have several
actors. It is not necessary that the user should be an actor. The external system that gets some
value or produces some value can be an actor. For example, Account system can be actor.
Actor is nothing but a role played by a person, system, device or even an enterprise, that
has a stake in the successful operation of the system.

Use cases
The use cases represent the
behavior of the system. Typically
various functions are represented
as use cases. For example, in the
above use case diagram Reserve a
book, Borrow book, Return book, Payment of fine are the use cases. Use cases can be
represented as follows.

Relationships
Association : It identifies an interaction between actors and use cases. Each association
represents a dialog.
Include relationship : Identifies a reusable use case that is unconditionally required for
the execution of another use case. The decision about when and why to use the included use
case is taken by the calling use case.
Extend relationship : Identifies a reusable use case that conditionally interrupts the

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execution of another use case by using its functionality. The decision of when the extending
use case should be used is taken by the extending use case itself.
Generalization : Identifies an inheritance relationship between actors or between use
cases.
Fig. 2.8.1 shows the association, include relationship, generalization and Extended use case
for Clinical system.

Fig. 2.8.1 Use case diagram with various relationship

Patient cancels appointment is shown by simple association relationship. To make an


appointment check patient record is a include relationship. Payment of Bill use case is
supported by an extended use case "payment delay".
For a generalization of "Payment of Bill" the child use case is "Bill insurance."
Example 2.8.1 Design use case diagram for user interaction with ATM system.

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Solution : For an ATM system following are the scenarios with the user.
1. User enters the card, types user name and PIN.
2. User makes enquiry for balance. He may demand for getting the mini statement.
3. User withdraws the desired amount of money.
4. User may deposit some money.
5. Finally user closes the session.

Fig. 2.8.2

Example 2.8.2 Draw a use case diagram for library management system.

Solution :
Use case : For library management system
1. For library system user can be a staff or a student who initially registers himself as a new
user.
a) For registering as a new user registration form is filled up.
b) Then librarian issues a library card on which some ID is assigned to the card holder.
2. The user requests for a new book.
3. The user then reserves a desired book.
4. The user may renew a book.
5. User pays fine if the book is returned late.

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6. User can also submit his feedback by returning the feedback form.
7. There is another important actor in this system and that is "Librarian". The librarian adds
the record in the library database.
8. Librarian deletes a record, if the book is not existing in the library or if student leaves the
college.
9. Librarian updates the database.

Fig. 2.8.3 Use case diagram for library management system

Example 2.8.3 Give the actors, use cases and use case diagram for "online mobile order and
purchase system". Write the scope of the system. SPPU : Dec.-13, Marks 8

Solution : The basic idea is that customers can buy products using online. It consists of
product details, security system, status and exits. The administrator can enter the name and
password and generate the report and can perform operations like add, search, delete the

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products in the database. The online mobile shopping system enables vendors to set up online
shops, customers to browse through the shops and a system administrator to approve and reject
requests for new shops and maintain lists of shop categories. Also on the agenda is designing
an online shopping site to manage the items in the shop and also help customers purchase them
online without having to visit the shop physically. Web customer actor uses some web site to
make purchases online. Top level use cases are View Items, Make Purchase and Client
Register.
Administrator : Person responsible for the system. The administrator is the person in
charge of managing and administering the system. He also assumes the role of supervisor in
the sense that he enforces the "Terms of use" of the site, and has the right to revoke client's
privileges by deleting their account.
Bank : The supplier's bank. The bank gets involved to debit the client's account and credit
the supplier's account during a purchase.

Fig. 2.8.4 Use case diagram for online mobile purchase

System : Dummy actor representing the system. This actor is a dummy actor used to
represent the system in interactions diagrams for the use cases.

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Client : Person purchasing products online. The client, also known as customer, is the
person that logs onto the shopping cart online system to purchase products of his/her choice.

2.8.2 Activity Diagram

The activity diagram is a graphical representation for representing the flow of interaction
within specific scenarios. It is similar to a flowchart in which various activities that can be
performed in the system are represented. This diagram must be read from top to bottom. It
consists of forks and branches. The fork is used to represent that many activities can be
parallely carried out. This diagram also consists of merge, where multiple branches get
combined. Before transitioning into final activity state there comes a join. A typical structure
of activity diagram is -
Below is the railway reservation system. The activity diagram for reserving a ticket is
shown below. (Also refer Fig. 2.8.6 on next page)

Fig. 2.8.5 Components of activity diagram

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Fig. 2.8.6 Activity diagram for reservation

2.8.3 Swimlane Diagram

The activity diagram shows various activities performed, but it does not tell you who is
responsible for these activities. In swimlane diagram the activity diagram is partitioned
according to the class who is responsible for carrying out these activities.
Example 2.8.4 Draw swimlane diagram for railway reservation activity.

Solution : Refer Fig. 2.8.7 on next page.

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Fig. 2.8.7 Swimlane diagram for reservation

Example 2.8.5 Create the swimlane diagram for, monitoring of sensor in a 'Safehome
security system’ from control panel. SPPU : May-13, Marks 8

Solution : Refer Fig. 2.8.8 on next.

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Fig. 2.8.8

2.9 Class Based Modeling SPPU : May-13, Marks 4

Class diagrams in UML are used to capture the static view of the system. Basically class
diagram represents how to put various objects together. The class diagram gives an overview
of a system, in which various classes and relationship among these classes is represented. In
UML class is a kind of classifier. For example, in class diagram manager, executive,
salesperson can be represented by a class Employee. Thus each specific type of class is an
instance of a class.

2.9.1 Objects and Object Classes

There are many definitions of an object, According to Booch -


“An object has state, behavior and identity the structure and behavior of similar objects are
defined in their common class the terms instance and object are interchangeable”.

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Thus an object represents an individual,


identifiable item, unit or entity, either real or
abstract, with a well-defined role in the problem
domain. Object are the entities which represent the
instances of real world. And object class are
templates for objects. Using object classes objects
can be created.
In UML an object class is represented by Fig. 2.9.1 Car object
rectangle which consists of three sections. It is as
shown below.
The above object Car consists of various attributes or data members such as Color, Model,
Engine and Brakes. The object can communicate with other object by message passing. The
message passing can be done by using various operations or methods.
Hence any operation of the object consists of -
Name = Procedure name
Information = Parameter list.
The example of message is :
Circle.set_radius(10);
The object Circle has an operation set_radius() in which the radius is set by passing the
value of radius.

2.9.2 Generalization and Inheritance Relationship

Generalization is one of the important features of object oriented systems. A class


hierarchy can be formed where one class is generalisation of one or more other classes. That
means there can be one super class whose attributes and operations can be inherited by the

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one or more sub classes. The sub classes may add its own attributes and methods. The
example of generalization hierarchy is as shown below.

Fig. 2.9.2 Inheritance

In UML generalization is implemented as inheritance.


In this example the super class is a shape class from which two classes can be derived
namely triangle and rectangle. The triangle and rectangle classes make use of some properties
of base class shape and at the same time these classes have their own attributes and operations.
Note that the inheritance relationship is shown by,

The arrowhead points to base class or super class and the other end of arrow is connected
to derived classes. These classes inherit the properties of super class. Such classes are
sometimes called as child classes.
The generalization indicates type of relationship. If the child classes are derived from more
than one parent then it shows multiple inheritance. Fig. 2.9.3 shows the multiple inheritance.

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Fig. 2.9.3 Multiple inheritance

Advantages of inheritance

1. Inheritance brings reusability at design as well as at programming level.


2. The inheritance gives the complete knowledge about the domains and the systems used.
3. Inheritance specifies different types of classes that can be derived from one or more
classes. Thus it brings abstraction mechanism in the design of the system.

Drawbacks of inheritance

1. Derived classes are not self contained. In order to understand the derived classes the super
class must be known.
2. The inheritance graph created during analysis phase is not sufficient and cannot be directly
used for implementation purpose. If it is directly used as it is then it leads to inefficient
code generation.
3. The design of inheritance graph may vary during analysis, design and at implementation
levels. Hence at each of these phases these graphs need to be maintained. And appropriate
design must be selected for final implementation.

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2.9.2.1 Association Relationship

Associations represent conceptual relationship between two classes. Associations carry


information about the relationship among the
objects of the system. Sometimes it is simply a
link between two classes. The association may
be unidirectional as well as bidirectional.
Associations are general but may indicate that
an attribute of an object is an associated object
or that a method relies on an associated object.
For example.
Associations have explicit notation to
express navigability. If you can navigate from
one class to another, you show an arrow in the
direction of the class you can navigate to. If you
can navigate in both directions, it is common Fig. 2.9.4 Associations
practice to not show any arrows at all.
Associations typically represent “has a …” relationship.
Example 2.9.1 Draw a class diagram for library management system.

Solution : Aggregation : In the class diagram we can has 'part-of' relationship which
represents the aggregation. The aggregation can be represented by an edge with diamond end
pointing to the super class. In above class diagram, 'Library management system' is a super
class which consists of various classes such as User, Book and Librarian. Similarly, 'User' is a
super class which has 'Account' class. They share aggregate relationship.
Multiplicity : One or more instances of particular class can be associated with one or more
instances of another class. For denoting one instance we write 1 and to denote many instances
is used. For example, in above given class diagram, many users can be associated with many
books. On the other hand, every single user will have only one account. (See Fig. 2.9.5 on next
page).

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Fig. 2.9.5 Class diagram for library management system

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2.9.3 Object Identification

An object identification is an important activity. It is the most crucial activity in object


oriented designing. There are various approaches used for object identification.
1. Using natural language description the objects can be identified. The simple rule is that the
nouns in the problem description correspond to objects and the verbs correspond to
operations or behaviour. This is known as HOOD method.
2. The roles such as student, customer; the tangible entities such as course, book; the events
such as schedule; the locations such as library, office support the objects. This is Coad and
Yourdon approach.
3. By understanding the behaviour of the system objects can be obtained. The entities which
initiate and participates the behaviour of the system are the objects.
4. Using system scenario the objects can be identified.
For example : "Consider an ATM System in which the customer with an ATM card can
establish session with the system. First of all he inserts the card into the system and enters the
PIN. The console of the system reads the card and authenticates the customer. The system has
console containing display and keyboard.
The session with the system can be accomplished by the transaction. Using the withdrawl
transaction the customer can get the requested amount through cash dispenser.
In above problem statement underlined words denote objects of the system. Hence -
1) ATM system is controller object.
2) Individual components can be
 Card reader
 Console
 Cash dispenser
3) The initiating object is customer.
4) The controlling objects are
 Session
 Transaction

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Various objects can then be as shown below.

ATM System
int id
Char Bankname[20]
Char BankAdd[20]
int State
int Switch_ON
int Switch_OFF
int Customer_State
run ( )
Switchon ( )
Switchoff ( )
getID ( )
getplace ( )
Startup_system ( )
Shutdown_system ( )

Card reader Console


Char mesage
readCard ( ) display ( )
ejectCard ( ) readPIN ( )
keepCard ( ) readMenu ( )
readAmt ( )

Cash dispenser Customer


int money name
PIN
ACC_ID
Address

Check_initial_amt ( ) enter_PIN( )
dispense_amp ( ) select_choice ( )

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2.9.4 Class-Responsibility-Collaborator(CRC) Modelling

 The Class-Responsibility-Collaborator modelling is a technique which helps in identifying


and organizing the classes that are relevant to the system requirements. Using this
technique the classes required by the system are identified their responsibilities are defined
and their collaborations are identified.
 Ambler has described the CRC modelling as : “The CRC model is a collection of standard
index cards. This card is divided into three sections.
The first section contains name of the class, type of
the class and characteristics of the class. Then the
second section is described at the left side and third
section is described at the right side of CRC card.
The second section describes the responsibilities and
the third section describes the Collaborations.
 The typical structure of CRC card is as shown by
Fig. 2.9.6. Fig. 2.9.6 Structure of CRC card
 Class - For selecting particular entity as a class
following guideline can be used -
1. Information retaining : There are some objects that have potential of retaining the
information. This information can be used by the system for defining the functionalities.
Hence chosen object must contain some useful information.
2. Services : The set of identified objects specify the required services. These services are
provided by the various functionalities of the system. Hence the objects must be chosen in
such a way that they provide some services to the system.
3. Common attributes : Every object defines some set of attributes. These attributes can be
member variables or member functions. Some member variables are common to all the
objects. The selection of object can be done based on such common characteristics of the
system.
4. Common operations : Every object defines some set of attributes. These attributes can be
member variables or member functions. Some member functions are common to all the
objects. The selection of object can be done based on such common characteristics of the
system.
5. Multiple attributes : The object that contains multiple attributes can retain more
information about the system. Such object can provide some useful service to the system.
While selecting particular entity as an object it is necessary to ensure that the chosen object
has multiple attributes. This will lead to focus on major information.

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6. Essential requirements : The external entities are responsible for producing or consuming
some kind of information. These entities can act as an object. Selection of such entities as
an object helps to perform various operations that are required for getting the solution of
the problem defined by the system.
Fishersmith has suggested following types of classes.
1. Device classes : The external devices can be declared as the classes such as keyboard,
mouse, display, control panel
2. Interaction classes : The interaction among various objects can be represented by the
classes. For example : Account or a purchase
3. Property classes : When particular property of the problem environment has to be
represented then it can be represented by a class.
Various characteristics of objects are :
1. Tangibility : Does the class represent the tangible thing or represent an abstract
information?
2. Sequentiality : Whether the class is concurrent or sequentially defined?
3. Inclusiveness : Does the class include other class or it is independent of other class? This
represents atomic or aggregate property.
4. Persistence : Is the class permanent or temporary ? Sometimes the class created at the
design time are removed during the implementation. Such classes are temporary classes
and there are some classes that remain in the database. Such classes are called permanent
classes.
5. Integrity do the class allow other resources to access it or does it protect itself from other
resources ? If the class does not allow other resources to access itself then such classes are
called guarded and if the classes allow other resources to access itself then such classes
are called corruptible.
 Responsibilities : The responsibilities of a class can be determined by its attributes and
responsibilities. Wirfs-Brock has suggested following guidelines for allocating the
responsibilities to the classes -
1. System intelligence should be evenly distributed
System intelligence means the ability of the system. In simple words, “what system can
do” and “what system knows” means system intelligence. Regarding distribution of
responsibility, one approach was adopted earlier, that is : there will be two types of classes
smart class and dumb class. The class who carries out more responsibilities is supposed to be
the smart class and the class who carries out few responsibilities or who acts as the ‘servant’ of
smart class is called the dumb class. But this approach has some drawbacks. Firstly, the major
responsibilities get concentrated among few classes, secondly making changes in such system

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becomes more complicated and lastly by adopting such approach system may require more
number of classes.
Hence system intelligence must be evenly distributed among several classes. That means
cohesiveness of the system must be improved.
We can check whether the system intelligence is evenly distributed or not by using CRC
model index card. In this case, a list of responsibilities is made. If a particular class has more
number of responsibilities than expected then that means intelligence is centred on that
corresponding class.
2. Each responsibility should be mentioned in generalised way.
The responsibilities mean attributes and operations should be stated in most general way.
Similarly polymorphism should be adopted wherever possible.
3. Information and the behaviour related to particular class should remain in that class
only.
The data and related operations should be packaged in a single entity called class. This
indicates the encapsulation property.
4. Information about particular class should be for that class only and it should not be
distributed among several classes.
If the related information is not localized and if it is distributed among several classes then
such systems become more difficult to manage.
5. Appropriate responsibilities can be shared among multiple classes.
All the related objects must exhibit the same behaviour at the same time in order to
maintain the consistency in the system operation.
 Collaborations
The class can fulfill its responsibilities by
Using its own set of operations and attributes.
By collaborating with other classes.
Collaborations can be defined as is nothing but the identification of relationships between
classes. When a set of classes collaborate with some other classes for fulfilling some
requirements then they actually form a subsystem.
When a complete CRC model has been developed the customer and a software engineer
must review this model. While reviewing such model following approach must be adopted -
1. All members of review must be given CRC index cards. Cards that indicate the
collaborations must be separated out.
2. Appropriate classification of all the scenarios of the use cases must be done.

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3. A token is maintained. There is review leader who reads out the use-cases. When a
particular phrase occurs then the review leader passes the token to the person who is
holding the CRC index card of that particular phrase (in fact it is a class name). It is then
examined whether all possible responsibilities of that class are mentioned in the CRC card
or not.
4. The review then determines whether or not the responsibilities of corresponding class are
properly noted on the CRC card.
5. If the responsibilities and collaborations noted on the index card can not fulfil the scenarios
of use cases then some modifications can be made in the CRC card.
Example 2.9.2 Write a CRC for the class ‘Email system user’. SPPU : May-13, Marks 4
Solution :
Class: Email System User
Attributes:user_id, password
Responsibilities Collaborator
Enters the user id and password for logging in. Authentication sub-system
Reads the mail Mailing sub-system
Sends the mail
View/delete address-book entries. Address book sub-system
Chatting Messenger subsystem

2.9.5 Object Relationship Model

 Using CRC modelling we can identify the classes and objects. Then following steps are
adopted
Step 1 : The relationship among the several classes must be established.
Step 2 : Identify the responsibilities of each class.
Step 3 : Define the collaborator classes so that the responsibilities can be achieved.
When two classes are connected then the relationship exists between the two. The most
common type of relationship is a binary relationship. For example a client server relationship
is a kind of binary relationship.
 According to Rambaugh relationship can be derived by examining the problem statement.
According to him the verb or verb phrases represent the relationships. Hence it is
expected to do the grammatical parsing and isolate the verbs from the problem statement.
Typically communication, locations, ownerships and satisfaction conditions indicate the
relationships.

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 Following are the 3 steps used to derive the object relationship model -
1. Using CRC index cards the Collaborator objects can be identified.
Following Fig. 2.9.7 represents the various CRC index cards that can be connected
together. Note that these objects are simply connected together no named relationship exists at
this stage.

Fig. 2.9.7 CRC index cards

2. Evaluate the responsibilities and collaborators of CRC index cards and label each
connected lines.
Now each relationship of the object must be named appropriately. Thus relationship gets
established among the multiple objects.

Fig. 2.9.8 Cardinality of relationship

3. Determine the cardinality.


Once the named relationship gets established then cardinality can be determined. There are
four types of cardinalities exists : 0 to 1, 1 to 1, 0 to many and 1 to many.

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For example :

Fig. 2.9.9 Cardinality of relationship

2.10 Data Modeling SPPU : Dec.-11, 14, May-12, Oct.-19, Marks 5

 Data modelling is the basic step in the analysis modelling. In data modelling the data
objects are examined independently of processing.
 The data domain is focused. And a model is created at the customer’s level of abstraction.
 The data model represents how data objects are related with one another.

Fig. 2.10.1 Elements of data model

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2.10.1 Data Object, Attributes and Relationships

What is data object ?


 Data object is a set of attributes (data items) that will be manipulated within the
software(system).
 Each instance of data object can be identified with the help of unique identifier. For
example : A student can be identified by using his roll number.
 The system cannot perform without accessing to the instances of object.
 Each data object is described by the attributes which themselves are data items.
Data object is a collection of attributes that act as an aspect, characteristic, quality or
descriptor of the object.

Object : Vehicle
Attributes:
Make
Model
Color
Owner
Price

Fig. 2.10.2 Object

The vehicle is a data object which can be defined or viewed with the help of set of
attributes.
Typical data objects are
 External entities such as printer, user, speakers.
 Things such as reports, displays, signals.
 Occurrences or events such as interrupts, alarm, telephone call.
 Roles such as manager, engineer, customer.
 Organizational units such as division, departments.
 Places such as manufacturing floor, workshops.
 Structures such as student records, accounts, file.
What are attributes ?
Attributes define properties of data object

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Typically there are three types of attributes -


1. Naming attributes : These attributes are used to name an instance of data object. For
example : In a vehicle data object make and model are naming attributes.
2. Descriptive attributes : These attributes are used to describe the characteristics or features
of the data object. For example : In a vehicle data object color is a descriptive attribute.
3. Referential attribute : These are the attributes that are used in making the reference to
another instance in another table. For example : In a vehicle data object owner is a
referential attribute.

What is relationship ?
Relationship represents the connection between the data objects. For example
The relationship between a shopkeeper and a toy is as shown below
Here the toy and shopkeeper are two objects that share following relationships -
 Shopkeeper orders toys.
 Shopkeeper sells toys.
 Shopkeeper shows toys.
 Shopkeeper stocks toys.

2.10.2 Cardinality and Modality

Cardinality in data modeling, cardinality specifies how the number of occurrences of


one object is related to the number of occurrences of another object.
 One to one (1:1) - One object can relate to only one other object.
 One to many (1:N) - One object can relate to many objects.
 Many to many (M:N) - Some number of occurrences of an object can relate to some other
number of occurrences of another object.
Modality indicates whether or not a particular data object must participate in the
relationship.
Modality of a relationship is 0 (zero) if there is no explicit need for the relationship to
occur or the relationship is optional. The modality is 1 (one) if an occurrence of the
relationship is mandatory.

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Example

Fig. 2.10.3 Cardinality and modality

2.10.3 Entity Relationship Diagram

 The object relationship pair can be graphically represented by a diagram called Entity
Relationship Diagram(ERD).
 The ERD is mainly used in database applications but now it is more commonly used in data
design.
 The ERD was originally proposed by Peter Chen for design of relational database systems.
 The primary purpose of ERD is to represent the relationship between data objects.
 Various components of ERD are -
Entity
 Drawn as a rectangle.
 An entity is an object that exists and is distinguishable.
 Similar to a record in a programming language with attributes.
Relationship
 Drawn as a diamond.
 An association among several entities.
 Relationships may have attributes.
 Relationships have cardinality (e.g., one-to-many).
Attribute
 Drawn as ellipses.
 Similar to record fields in a programming language.

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Fig. 2.10.4 ER diagram

 Each attribute has a set of permitted values, called the domain.


 Primary key attributes may be underlined.
 The typical structure of ER-diagram is illustrated as follows.
Notations used in ER diagram
Entity
It is an object and is distinguishable it is similar to record.
Weak entity

When this entity is dependant upon some another entity then it is called
weak entity.

Attribute

The attributes are properties or characteristics of an entity.


Derived attribute
It is a kind of attribute which is based on another attribute.

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Key attribute
A key attribute is an unique attribute representing distinguishing
characteristic of entity. Typically primary key of record is a key attribute.
Multivalued attribute
A multivalued attribute have more than one value.

Relationship
When two entities share some information then it is denoted by
relationship.
Notations to show cardinality

Fig. 2.10.5 Cardinality

2.10.3.1 Design Guideline and Examples

The entity relationship diagram is used to represent the data objects their attributes and the
relationship among these data objects. The ERD is constructed in iterative manner. Following
guideline is used while drawing the ERD.
1. During the requirement elicitation process, the requirements should be collected in such a
way that we can evolve input, output data objects and external entities for system
modeling.
2. The analysis and customer should be in a position to define the relationship between the
data objects.
3. Whenever a connection between data objects is identified the object relationship pair must
be established. Thus iteratively relationship between all the objects must be established.
4. For each object relationship pair the cardinality and modality is set.
5. The attributes of each entity must be defined.
6. The entity relationship diagram is formalized and reviewed.
7. All the above steps are repeated until data modeling is complete.

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Example 2.10.1 Draw an ER diagram for the relationship of teacher and courses. Also
specify the association, cardinality and modality.
Solution :

Fig. 2.10.6

Association
In the above ER diagram, a relatiohship conducts is introduced. “Teacher” is associated
with “Course” by conducting it.

Cardinality
Many Teachers can conduct the single course.

Modality
For conduction of a course, there must be a Teacher.
There may a situation that a Teacher is not conducting any course.

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Example 2.10.2 Draw an ER diagram for the relationship between customer and banking
system.
Solution :

Fig. 2.10.7 ERD

Example 2.10.3 Technical Publication (A well known publishing company) publishes


Engineering books on various subjects. The books are written by authors who specialize in
his/her subject. The publication employs editors who take sole responsibility of editing one
or more manuscripts. While writing a particular book, each author interacts with editor.
But the author is supposed to submit his work to publisher always. In order improve
competitiveness, the publication tries to employ a variety of authors who are specialist in
more than one subject.
Draw the E-R diagram for above described scenario.
Solution : The data modelling and entity relationship diagram helps the analyst to observe the
data within the context of software application.

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Fig. 2.10.8

 Review Question
1. Explain data flow architecture style with neat diagram.
SPPU : Dec.-11, May-12, Dec.-14, Oct.-19, In Sem, Marks 5

2.11 Flow Modeling

The flow oriented modelling is down by designing special kind of diagrams called data
flow diagrams and control flow diagrams.

2.11.1 Data Flow Diagram

 The data flow diagrams depict the


information flow and the transforms that
are applied on the data as it moves from
input to output.
 The symbols that are used in data flow
diagrams are -
 The data flow diagrams are used to
represent the system at any level of
abstraction.
 The DFD can be partitioned into levels
that represent increase in information
flow and detailed functionality.

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 A level 0 DFD is called as ‘fundamental system model’ or ‘context model’. In the context
model the entire software system is represented by a bubble with input and output indicated
by incoming and outgoing arrows.
 Each process shown in level 1 represents the sub functions of overall system.
 The number of levels in DFD can be increased until every process represents the basic
functionality.
 As the number of levels gets increased in the DFD, each bubble gets refined. The following
figure shows the leveling in DFD. Note that the information flow continuity must be
maintained.

2.11.1.1 Designing Data Flow Diagrams

 The data flow diagrams are used to model the information and function domain.
Refinement of DFD into greater levels helps the analyst to perform functional
decomposition.
 The guideline for creating a DFD is as given below -
1. Level 0 DFD i.e. Context level DFD should depict the system as a single bubble.
2. Primary input and primary output should be carefully identified.
3. While doing the refinement isolate processes, data objects and data stores to represent
the next level.
4. All the bubbles (processes) and arrows should be appropriately named.
5. One bubble at a time should be refined.
6. Information flow continuity must be maintained from level to level.
 A simple and effective approach to expand the level 0 DFD to level 1 is to perform
“grammatical parse” on the problem description. Identify nouns and verbs from it.
Typically nouns represent the external entities, data objects or data stores and verbs
represent the processes. Although grammatical parsing is not a foolproof but we can gather
much useful information to create the data flow diagrams.

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Fig. 2.11.1 Levels of DFD

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Rules for designing DFD


1. No process can have only outputs or only inputs. The process must have both outputs and
inputs.

Fig. 2.11.2

2. The verb phrases in the problem description can be identified as processes in the system.

Fig. 2.11.3

3. There should not be a direct flow between data stores and external entity. This flow should
go through a process.

Fig. 2.11.4 Rules for DFD

4. Data store labels should be noun phrases from problem description.


5. No data should move directly between external entities. The data flow should go through a
process.

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Fig. 2.11.5 Rule for DFD

6. Generally source and sink labels are noun phrases.


7. Interactions between external entities is outside scope of the system and therefore not
represented in DFD.
8. Data flow from process to a data store is for updation/insertion/deletion.
9. Data flow from data store to process is for retrieving or using the information.
10. Data flow labels are noun phrases from problem description.

2.11.2 Control Flow Diagram

 The control flow diagrams show the same processes as in data flow diagrams but rather
than showing data flow they show control flows.
 The control flow diagrams show how events flow among processes. It also shows how
external events activate the processes.
 The dashed arrow is used to represent the control flow or event.
 A solid bar is used to represent the window. This window is used to control the processes
used in the DFD based on the event that is passed through the window.
 Instead of representing control processes directly in the model the specifications are used to
represent how the processes are controlled.
 There are two commonly used representations of specifications : Control Specification
(CSPEC) and Process Specification (PSPEC).
 The CSPEC is used to indicate -
1. How the software behaves when an event or signal is sensed ?
2. Which processes are invoked as a consequence of the occurrence of event ?
 The PSPEC is used to describe the inner workings of the process represented in a flow
diagram.
When a data input is given to the process a data condition should occur to get the control
output. For Example.

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Fig. 2.11.6 Occurrence of data condition

2.11.2.1 Designing Control Flow Diagrams

 There are certain applications which are event driven rather than being data driven. They
produce control information rather than producing data(may be report, displays). Such
applications can be modeled with the control information along with data flow modeling.
 A graphical model used to represent the control information along with the data flow model
is called control flow model.
 The following guideline is used while drawing the control flow diagrams.
1. List all the sensors that can be read.
2. List all the interrupt conditions.
3. List all the data conditions.
4. List all the switches actuated by the operator.
5. Use noun/verb parsing technique to identify the control information.

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6. Describe behavior of the system by identifying the states. Define the transition
between the states.
7. Avoid common errors while specifying the control.

2.11.3 Examples

Example 2.11.1 DFD for library information system. A student comes to a library for
borrowing book. The student makes the book request by giving book title and author name.
The student has to submit his library card to the library. Sometimes student may simply
give topic and demand for a book (For example “just give me book on data structure”).
The library information system maintains list of authors, list of titles, list of topics. This
system also keeps record of topics on which books are available with the system. This
system maintains information about shelf number on which books are located. Finally the
list of demanded book should be displayed, on the console for ease of selection. Draw first
level of DFD.
Solution : In this DFD the whole system is represented with the help of input, processing and
output. The input can be -
i) Student requests for a book hence Book request.
ii) To show identity of the student he/she has to submit his/her Library card, hence Library
card. The processing unit can be globally given as

Library information system


The system will produce following outputs -
i) The demanded book will be given to student. Hence Book will be the output.

Fig. 2.11.7 Level 0 DFD (Context level DFD)

ii) The library information system should display demanded book information which can be
used by customer while selecting the book.

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Level 1 DFD

Fig. 2.11.8 Level 1 DFD

In this level, the system is exposed with more processing details. The processes that need
to carried out are -

i) Delivery of Book.
ii) Search by Topic.
These processes require certain information such as List of Authors, List of Titles, List of
Topics, the book selves from which books can be located. This kind of information is
represented by data store.

Level 2 DFD

Out of scope :
The purchasing of new books/replacement of old books or charging a fine all these
maintenance activities are not considered in this system.

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Fig. 2.11.9

Example 2.11.2 Draw DFD for food ordering system. A customer goes to a restaurant and
orders for the food. The food order is noted down carefully and this order is sent to kitchen
for preparing the required food.
This restaurant has to manage one housekeeping department which maintains sold items
and inventory data. The daily information about sold items and inventory deplition amount
is used to generate a management report. Finally this management report is given to
restaurant manager.
Solution :
Level 0 DFD
In this level, the system is designed globally with input and output. The input to food
ordering system are -
1. As customer orders for the food. Hence food order is an input.
The output to food ordering system are -
1) Receipt.

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Fig. 2.11.10 Level 0 DFD (Context level DFD)

2) The food order should be further given to kitchen for processing the order.

3) Bill and management report is given to restaurant manager.

Level 1 DFD

In this level, the bubble 0.0 is shown in more detail by various processes. The process 1.0
is for processing an order. And processes 2.0, 3.0 and 4.0 are for housekeeping activities
involved in food ordering system. To create a management report there should be some
information of daily sold items. At the same time inventory data has to be maintained for keep
track of ‘instock’ items. Hence we have used two data stores in this DFD -

1. Database of sold items

2. Inventory database.

Finally management report can be prepared using daily sold details and daily inventory
deplition amount. This management report is given to restaurant manager.

Level 2 DFD : “Processing of an order” is shown in detail.

Level 3 DFD : In this DFD we will elaborate “Generate management report” activity in more
detail. For generating management report we have to access sold items data and inventory
data. Then aggregate both solid items data and inventory data. Total price of each item has to
be computed. Then from these calculation a management report has to be prepared and given
to the restaurant manager. These details can be shown in this DFD –

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Fig. 2.11.11 Level 1 DFD

Fig. 2.11.12 Level 2 DFD

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Fig. 5.11.13 Level 3 DFD

Example 2.11.3 Prepare a CFD for a Books order processing system. The customers in this
system are book sellers who do not make a stock of books. As the orders come the books are
demanded from publishers directly.
As per the problem description it is clear that the input to this system is ‘customer’ who
places an order and output will be purchase order given to publisher.
Solution :

Fig. 2.11.14 Level 0 CFD

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Now, we will do more detailing for order processing when an order is received by the
system, it will be first verified using the books database. Credit rating will be decided by
checking customer details (i.e. whether the customer is regular customer or whether he is
new). For submitting a batch of orders we have to maintain pending orders list as well. There
may be the order for books which are published by different publishers, in such a case database
for different publishers need to be maintained by the system. This list of purchase orders is
maintained by the system and then after verifying the shipment a shipping note will be given to
the customer. The level 1 decomposition is as shown below –

Fig. 2.11.15 Level 1 CFD

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We can further decompose the system by elaborating the process Assemble order. In
assemble order we
 First get details of total copies per title.
 Then prepare purchase order accordingly for corresponding publishers.
 Send these purchase orders to publishers.
 These purchase order details should be stored in the system. Let us draw level 2 CFD for
these details.

Fig. 2.11.16

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Example 2.11.4 In a hotel reservation system, a customer can make online booking for a
hotel, by specifying the accomodation requirements such as type of room (AC/Non AC/One
bed/Two bed), total number of rooms, duration of stay. The system then selects a suitable
hotel as per customer’s requirements. If such a hotel is found then the availability of rooms
in that hotel is checked. The charges are calculated for the selected requirement and these
are acknowledged to the customer. If the customer is satisfactory about the selection made
by the system then he confirms the reservation. Draw Level 0, Level 1, Level 2 DFDs.
Solution : The system then gives these booking details to the corresponding hotel. Design
DFD for this system.

Fig. 2.11.17 Level 0 DFD

Fig. 2.11.18 Level 1 DFD

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Fig. 2.11.19 Level 2 DFD

Example 2.11.5 Based on your experience with a bank ATM draw a DFD modelling the
processing involved when customer withdraws cash from the machine.
Solution : The DFD for ATM system can be drawn with level 0 DFD and level 1 DFD. The
level 0 DFD is the context level DFD in which only inputs and outputs that are interacting with
the system are given.

Fig. 2.11.20 Level 0 DFD

More detailing is done in level 1.

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Fig. 2.11.21

Example 2.11.6 Draw level 0 DFD and level 1 DFD for railway reservation system. Also
write the data dictionary for the same.
Solution :

Problem description : For an online railway reservation system, passenger can make online
booking for the seats, by specifying the requirements. These requirements are - type of
reservation A/C coach, non A/C coach, two tier or three tier number of seats, name of the train,
start and destination of journey. The system then checks for availability of such requirements.
If such a reservation is possible then system generates availability of reservation. The
passengers checks for availability and the charges are then calculated for the selected
requirement, and these are acknowledged to the passenger. If the passenger is satisfied then he
confirms the reservation.

The required DFD can be drawn in levels as follows –

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Fig. 2.11.22 Level 0 DFD

Fig. 2.11.23 Level 1 DFD

Data Dictionary
Name : Reservation Details or Ticket
Aliases : None
Where used/how used : For reserving seat details of passenger are used as input.
Reservation details of reserved seat is output.
Description :
Passenger name = First name + Middle name + Surname.
Age = In number of years.
Sex = Male/Female.
Reservation number = Boggue number + Coach number
Starting location = Name of city
Destination location = Name of city
Train details = Train number + Name of the train + Up or down
+ Date and time of departure + Time of arrival
Fare = Total amount of fare for entire journey.

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Example 2.11.7 Consider a photocopying machine operated by software. Draw level 0, 1 and
2 DFD for this software.
Solution : Assumptions made for software of photocopy machine : The photocopy
machine will be controlled by some commands such as START, STOP or PAUSE. If user
gives START command then required number of photocopies can be made by reloading
papers. If paper gets jammed then diagnostic activities must be carried out and then reload the
paper and then make the copies. The input to this system will be user commands and output
will be photocopies.
The DFD for such a software will be –

Fig. 2.11.24 Level 0 DFD

Fig. 2.11.25 Level 1 DFD

Now in level 1 DFD, we will elabrorate the process 'making copies'.

Fig. 2.11.26 Level 2 DFD

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The State Transition Diagram (STD) can be drawn as follows -

Fig. 2.11.27 STD

Example 2.11.8 Draw the data flow diagram upto level 1, for a 'temperature monitoring
system' in an intensive care unit of a hospital. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8

Solution : DFD Level 0

Fig. 2.11.28 DFD Level 0


DFD Level 1

Fig. 2.11.29 DFD Level 1

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Example 2.11.9 Draw and explain context level, level 1 and level 2 DFD for college
gathering. SPPU : May-12, Marks 8
Solution : In this system whole system is represented with the help of input processing and
output. The input can be
1. Students 2. This system should show output as gathering.

Fig. 2.11.30 Level 0 DFD

Fig. 2.11.31 Level 1 DFD

Fig. 2.11.32 Level 1 DFD

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Example 2.11.10 Draw a DFD for a vehicle renting system. SPPU : May-12, Marks 5

Solution : A context diagram and A Level 1 diagram for the Car Rental System, is as given
below -
DFD Level 0 :

Fig. 2.11.33

DFD Level 1 : See Fig. 2.11.34 on next page.

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Fig. 2.11.34

 Review Question

1. Explain the data flow model with example and diagram. SPPU : Dec.-14, Marks 5

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2.12 Behavioral Modeling


The dynamic behaviour of the system can be represented by creating the behavioural
model of the system. Basically the behavioural model represents how software will respond to
external events or stimuli. Following steps need to be followed while creating behavioural
model -
1. Evaluate use-case diagrams for understanding the sequence of interactions between the
system.
2. Identify the events for interactions and co-relate the classes with these events.
3. Create a sequence for each use-case.
4. Create a state diagram for the system.
5. Finally review behavioural model.
2.12.1 Identifying Events with Use Cases
Use case represents the sequence of activities using the actors and the system. When an
event occurs, then actor and system generally exchange information. For example -
For an ATM system, a customer, first of all insert the card and then uses a keypad to enter
the PIN. If the PIN is invalid then the control panel will beep and eject the card. He then
performs various operations such as checking of balance, withdrawal of money or deposition
of money. While checking the balance the customer can request the banking system for issuing
the mini statement of balance.
The underlined portions of the use case scenario indicate events. An actor for each event
must be identified and the kind of information being exchanged between the user and the
system must be noted. Any condition or constraints should be listed.
2.12.2 State Representation

The state transition diagram is basically a collection of states and events. The events cause
the system to change its state. The state transition diagram also represents what actions are to
be taken on occurrence of particular event.
Initial state It indicates the starting state of the system.

Final state This is a special state indicating end of the


activity.
Simple state A state with no substructure.

Composite state A state which occurs with two or more


concurrent states with one active state at a
time is a composite state.

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For example : Following state chart is for ATM system when the customer performs
transaction using ATM card.

Fig. 2.12.1

2.12.3 Sequence Diagram

In the sequence diagram how the object interacts with the other object is shown. There are
sequences of events that are represented by a sequence diagram.
It is a time-oriented view of the interaction between objects to accomplish a behavioural
goal of the system.
Various notations used in sequence diagram are
User - who is responsible for activating various events.

An active object who takes part in various operations.

It represents the life line i.e. a time span of the object.

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Active procedure on which object is active.

To interact two objects this kind of association is shown. Along with


this association the message is given
Destruction of object.

Example 2.12.1 Draw a sequence diagram for ATM system.

Solution : (See Fig. 2.12.2 on next page.)

Fig. 2.12.2 Sequence diagram

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2.13 Negotiating the Requirements

During requirements engineering, the inception, elicitation and elaboration determine the
customer requirements. But the requirements obtained by these tasks are not in sufficient
details. There is an important requirement engineering task named negotiation in which the
developer communicates with the customer so that some requirements specified by the
customer can be negotiated or modified in order to meet the budget and deadline of the project.
Negotiations are carried out for following two reasons -
1. In order to develop the project plan.
2. By negotiations the real-world constraints are understood by both the developer and
the customer.
If WIN_WIN situation is achieved after the negotiation then it is called as best negotiation.
The WIN-WIN situation means customer gets satisfied because his major needs are going to
get fulfilled and developer gets satisfied because the project development will be based on
realistic goals and achievable budgets and deadlines.
The communication with the customer is the most important activity for the negotiation.
Apart from this following are some important activities suggested by Bohm for
negotiations -
1. Identify the important stakeholders of the system
2. Determine the requirements that are most important for the customer.
3. Negotiate with the customer in order to achieve the WIN-WIN condition.

2.14 Validating Requirements SPPU : Dec.-14, Marks 5

The analysis model is reviewed for consistency and unambiguity. Various requirements are
prioritised and grouped in the software packages.
Following are some important questions that are considered while validating the
requirements. This is also known as requirements validation checklist -
1. Does each requirement consistent ?
2. Are the requirements abstract ? That means - does the technical details of requirements are
appropriate ?
3. Does particular requirement really necessary ?
4. Does each requirement bounded and unambiguous ?
5. Does the requirement have its reflection on information, function and behavior of the
system ?

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6. Does each requirement achievable by the software system ?


7. Does the requirement have some source ?
8. Does particular requirement conflict with some other requirement ?
9. Does each requirement tested after its implementation ?
10. Are the requirements used to simplify the requirements model ?
The requirements of the system have accurate reflection of the customer needs and they
serve as the foundation for the software design.

 Review Question
1. What do you think happens when requirement validation uncovers an error ? Who is
involved in correcting error ? SPPU : Dec.-14, Marks 5

2.15 Preparing Requirements Traceability Matrix

 Requirements are tracked by Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM).


 RTM traces all the requirements from design, development, and testing.
 The traceability matrix is typically a worksheet that contains the requirements with its all
possible test scenarios and cases and their current state, i.e. if they have been passed or
failed. This would help the testing team to understand the level of testing activities done for
the specific product.

Parameters to be included in requirement Traceability matrix


(1) Requirement ID
(2) Requirement type and description
(3) Test cases
(4) Test case status

Example

Test case ID Test case description


TC#001 Login with invalid username but valid password
TC#002 Login with valid username but invalid password
TC#003 Login with valid user name and valid password

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Software Engineering 2 - 78 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

Requirement ID Requirement Testcase ID Status


Description
101 Login the website TC#001 Pass
TC#002 Pass
TC#003 Pass

Advantages of requirements traceability matrix


1. It confirms 100% test coverage.
2. It highlights any requirements missing or document inconsistencies.
3. It shows the overall defects or execution status with a focus on business requirements.
4. It helps in analysing or estimating the impact on the QA team's work with respect to
revisiting or re-working on the test cases.

2.16 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1 Various tasks that are carried out during requirement engineering process are ___.
a feasibility study
b requirements gathering
c software requirements specification
d all of these
Q.2 _____ requirements describe the functionality or system services.
a System b Functional
c Non functional d User
Q.3 ____ requirements describe the system properties and constraints.
a System b Functional
c Non functional d User
Q.4 The goal of requirements analysis and specification is _____.
a to analyze the cost of the project
b to analyze the schedule of the project
c to understand the customer requirements and document them
d to determine the scope of the project

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Software Engineering 2 - 79 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

Q.5 The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyse and document them
is known as _______ .
a requirement engineering b requirement elicitation
c user interface requirements d software system analyst
Q.6 _________ and _________ are the two issues of requirement analysis.
a Performance, design b Stakeholder, developer
c Functional, non-functional
Q.7 The term _________ is used to refer to any person or group who will be affected by the
system, directly or indirectly.
a user b customer
c administrator d stakeholder
Q.8 DFD stands for _______ .
a Data Flow Deployment b Data Flow Design
c Data Flow Diagram d Data Flow Drawing
Q.9 Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer's module ?
a Availability b Testability
c Usability d Flexibility
Q.10 In the requirement analysis which model depicts the information domain for the
problem ?
a Data models b Class-oriented models
c Scenario-based models d Flow-oriented models
Q.11 "Consider a system where a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company ". What kind of requirement the system is providing ?
a Functional b Non functional
c None of the above
Q.12 What DFD notation is represented by the rectangle ?
a Data flow b Data store
c Process d None of the mentioned
Q.13 In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by _____.
a circle b arrow
c rectangle d triangle

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Software Engineering 2 - 80 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

Q.14 Behavioral model provides ____ view of the system.


a dynamic b static
c cost effective d none of these
Q.15 While dealing with the system requirements ___ and ___ factors are considered.
a coding and design b coding and maintenance
c behavioral and operational d none of these
Q.16 Inheritance is a ___ relationship.
a has a b type of
c uses d none of these
Q.17 ____ is more specifically called as generalization.
a Inheritance b Aggregation
c Composition d Association
Q.18 Sequence diagram are generally drawn for representing _______ .
a inheritance model b object aggregation
c object behavioral model d none of these
Q.19 __________ requirements constraint the system being developed and the development
process that should be used.
a Functional b Nonfunctional
c User d System
Q.20 ________ model shows the principal sub-systems that make up a system.
a Architectural b Classification
c Composition d Data-flow
Q.21 Which of the following is not a check for requirements validation process ?
a Validity b Consistency
c Realism d Parallel
Q.22 What form does the requirements traceability matrix take ?
a Table or grid b Bulleted list
c Numbered list d Bar chart

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Software Engineering 2 - 81 Software Requirement Engineering and Analysis Modeling

Answer Keys for Multiple Choice Questions :

Q.1 d Q.2 b Q.3 c Q.4 c

Q.5 a Q.6 b Q.7 d Q.8 c

Q.9 b Q.10 a Q.11 a Q.12 b

Q.13 a Q.14 a Q.15 c Q.16 b

Q.17 a Q.18 c Q.19 b Q.20 d

Q.21 d Q.22 a



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Notes

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UNIT - III

3 Estimation and Scheduling

Syllabus

Estimation for Software Projects : The Project Planning Process, Defining Software
Scope and Checking Feasibility, Resources management, Reusable Software Resources,
Environmental Resources, Software Project Estimation, Decomposition Techniques,
Software Sizing, Problem-Based Estimation, LOC-Based Estimation, FP-Based
Estimation, Object Point (OP)-based estimation, Process- Based Estimation, Estimation
with Use Cases, Use-Case–Based Estimation, Reconciling Estimates, Empirical
Estimation Models, The Structure of Estimation Models, The COCOMO II Mode,
Preparing Requirement Traceability Matrix
Project Scheduling : Project Scheduling, Defining a Task for the Software Project,
Scheduling.

Contents
3.1 The Project Planning Process
3.2 Defining Software Scope and Checking Feasibility ...... Dec.-17,May-18 .......... Marks 7
3.3 Resource Management
3.4 Software Project Estimation .................. May-19, Dec.-19 ...................... Marks 8
3.5 Decomposition Techniques .................. May-11, 18, 19,
.................. Dec.-11, 12, 15, 19 ................... Marks 9
3.6 Empirical Estimation Model .................. Dec.-11, 16, 17, 18, May-16 ..... Marks 8
3.7 Object Point(OP) Based Estimation
3.8 Project Scheduling .................. Dec.-16, 19 ............................... Marks 6
3.9 Defining a Task Set for the Software Project
3.10 Task Network .................. May-11, 18, 19, Dec.-13, 17 ..... Marks 8
3.11 Scheduling with Time Line Chart .................. Dec.-12,16, May-18 .................. Marks 8
3.12 Schedule Tracking Tools
3.13 Multiple Choice Questions

(3 - 1)
Software Engineering 3-2 Estimation and Scheduling

3.1 The Project Planning Process


 Project planning is an activity in which the project manager makes reasonable estimates of
resources, cost and Schedule.
 In order to make these estimates, it is necessary to prepare a project plan and the beginning
of the project and as the project proceeds this plan can be updated appropriately.
 Following figure represents various task sets that are associated with project planning
process.

Fig. 3.1.1 Project planning process

Step 1 : This is an initial stage in which the scope and feasibility of the project is determined.
This stage helps to identify the functions and features that can be delivered to the
end user.
Step 2 : Risks are identified and analyzed.
Step 3 : The required resources such as human resources, environmental resources, and
reusable software resources can be determined.
Step 4 : The estimation for cost and efforts is made. In this stage the problem is first
decomposed, then using the size, function point or use cases the estimates are made.
Step 5 : Using the scheduling tools or task networks the schedule for the project is prepared.
3.2 Defining Software Scope and Checking Feasibility
SPPU : Dec.-17, May-18, Marks 7

Software scope describes four things -


 The function and features that are to be delivered to end-users.
 The data which can be input and output.
 The content of the software that is presented to user.
 Performance, constraints, reliability and interfaces that bounds the System.
 There are two ways by which the scope can be defined -
1. A scope can be defined using the narrative description of the software obtained after
communication with all stakeholders.

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Software Engineering 3-3 Estimation and Scheduling

2. Scope can be defined as a set of use cases developed by the end users.
 In the scope description, various functions are described. These functions are evaluated
and refined to provide more details before the estimation of the project.
 For performance consideration, processing and response time requirements are analyzed.
 The constraints identify the limitations placed on the software by external hardware or any
other existing system.
 After identifying the scope following questions must be asked -
 Can we build the software to meet this scope ?
 Is this software project feasible ?
That means after identifying the scope of the project its feasibility must be ensured.
 Following are the four dimensions of software feasibility. To ensure the feasibility of the
software project the set of questions based on these dimension has to be answered. Those
are as given below -
1. Technology
 Is a project technically feasible ?
 Is it within the state of art ?
 Are the defects to be reduced to a level that satisfies the application's need ?
2. Finance
 Is it financially feasible ?
 Is the development cost completed at a cost of software organization, its client, or
market affordable ?
 Are the defects to be reduced to a level that satisfies the application's need ?
3. Time
 Will the project's time to market beat the competition ?
4. Resource
 Does the organization have the resources needed to succeed ?
 Putnam and Meyers suggests that scoping is not enough. Once scope is understood,
and and feasibility have been identified the next task is estimation of the Resources
required to accomplish the software development effort.

 Review Question
1. What is the need for defining a software scope ? What are the categories of software
engineering resources ? SPPU : Dec.-17,May-18, End Sem, Marks 7

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Software Engineering 3-4 Estimation and Scheduling

3.3 Resource Management


 The first task in project planning is to identify the scope and feasibility of the project and
the second task is to estimate the resources required to accomplish the software
development efforts.
 There are three major categories of software engineering resources -
1. Peoples
2. Reusable software components
3. Development environment i.e. hardware and software tools.

Fig. 3.3.1 Project resources

 There are four characteristics of above mentioned resources -


1. Description of resource
2. A statement of availability
3. Time when resources will be required.
4. Duration of the time that resource will be applied.
The last two characteristics can be viewed as the time window.

3.3.1 Human Resources

 The Project Planner begins by evaluating software scope and selecting the ''skills''
required to complete development.
 Both organizational position (such as manager, senior software engineer and so on) and
the specialty (database telecommunication, client/server etc) are specified for a relatively
small project. A single individual may perform all software engineering tasks, by
consulting with the specialist whenever needed.

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Software Engineering 3-5 Estimation and Scheduling

 For larger projects, software team may be geographically at different locations. Hence, the
location of each human resource is specified. The number of people required for a software
project can be determined only after an estimate of development effort
(e.g. person-months) is made. The techniques for estimating development effort can be
LOC (Lines Of Code) based or based on FP (Function Point).

3.3.2 Reusable Software Resources

Component-Based Software Engineering (CBE) emphasizes one important characteristic


and that is Reusability. That means by creating and reusing some building blocks the software
development is done. Such building blocks are called components
There are four reusable software resource categories that should be considered at
planning-

1. Off-the-shelf components (OTS Components)


Existing software acquired from a third party or has been developed internally for a past
project.
2. Full experience components
The software to be built for the current project resembles the existing specification, design,
code or test data developed for past projects. Members of the current software team that
have had full experience in the application area represented by these components.
3. Partial experience component
In this category, existing specifications as for full experience components but it requires
extensive modification. The members of the software project team have only limited
experience in the application area. Fair degree of risk involvement is there while using the
components belonging to this category.
4. New components
According to need and specification of the current project the software components can be
built by the software team.

3.3.3 Environmental Resources

The Software Engineering Environment (SEE) incorporates hardware and software.


Hardware provides a platform for using the tools required to produce work products. These
work products are the outcome of good software Engineering practice.

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3.4 Software Project Estimation SPPU : May-19, Dec.-19, Marks 8

Software project estimation can be performed in systematic steps with acceptable risks.
In order to obtain reliable cost and effort estimations various alternatives can be used –
1. Delay the estimation activity as far as possible.
2. The base estimates can be made using the similar projects.
3. Using simple decomposition techniques the project cost and effort estimates can be made.
4. Empirical models can be used for project cost and effort estimation.
For the first and second alternatives are simple. The third and fourth alternative suggests
use of specific approach of project estimation techniques. Let us discuss these approaches of
software project estimation in detail.

 Review Question
1. What is need of project estimation? What are the steps while estimation of software?
SPPU : May-19, Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 8

3.5 Decomposition Techniques


SPPU : May-11, 18, 19, Dec.-11, 12, 15, 19, Marks 9

Software project estimation is just similar to problem solving. Many times the problem to
be solved is too complex in software engineering. Hence for solving such problems, we
decompose the given problem into a set of smaller problems.
The decomposition can be done using two approached decomposition of problem or
decomposition of process. Estimation uses one or both forms of decomposition (partitioning).
3.5.1 Software Sizing

 Following are certain issues based on which accuracy of software project estimate is
predicated -
1. The degree to which planner has properly estimated the size of the product to be built.
2. The ability to translate the size estimate into human-effort, calendar time and money
3. The degree to which the project plan reflects the abilities of software team.
4. The stability of product requirements and the environment that supports the software
engineering effort.
 Sizing represents the project planner's first major challenge. In the context of project
planning, size refers to a quantifiable outcome of the software project.
 The sizing can be estimated using two approaches - a direct approach in which lines of
code is considered and an indirect approach in which computation of function point is
done.

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 Putnam and Myers suggested four different approaches for sizing the problem -
1. Fuzzy logic sizing
In this approach planner must identify -
 The type of application
 Establish its magnitude on a qualitative scale and then refine the magnitude within
the original range.
 Planner should also have access to historical database of the project so that estimates
can be composed to actual experience.
2. Function point sizing
Planner develops estimates of the information domain.
3. Standard component sizing
 There are various standard components used in software. These components are
subsystems, modules, screens, reports, interactive, programs, batch program, files,
LOC (Lines Of Code) and Object-level instruction.
 The project planner estimates the number of time these standard components are used.
He then uses historical project data to determine the delivered size per standard
component.
4. Change sizing
 This approach is used when existing software has to be modified as per the
requirement of the project.
 The size of the software is then estimated by the number and type of reuse, addition of
code, change made in the code, deletion of code.
 The result of each sizing approaches must be combined statistically to create three-
point estimate which is also known as expected-value estimate.

3.5.2 Problem Based Estimation

 The problem based estimation is conducted using LOC based estimation,


FP (Function Point) based estimation, process based estimation and use cased based
estimation.
 LOC and FP based data are used in two ways during software estimation -
1. These are useful to estimate the size each element of software.
2. The baseline metrics are collected from past project and LOC and FP data is used in
conjunction with estimation variable to develop cost and effort values for the project.
(LOC) and (FP) estimation are different estimation techniques. Yet, both have number
of characteristics in common.

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 With a bounded statement of software scope a project planning process begins and by using
the statement of scope the software problem is decomposed into the functions that can be
estimated individually.
 (LOC) or (FP) is then estimated for each function.
 Baseline productively metrics are then applied to the appropriate estimation variable and
cost or effort for the function is derived.
 Function estimates are combined to obtain an overall estimate for the entire project.
 Using historical data the project planner expected value by considering following
variables -
1. Optimistic 2. Most likely 3. Pessimistic
For example, following formula
S = [Sopt + 4  Sm + Spress] / 6

considers for "most likely" estimate where S is the estimation size variable, Sopt represents
the optimistic estimate, Sm represents the most likely estimate and Spress represents the
pessimistic estimate values.

3.5.3 Example of LOC Based Estimation

Consider an ABC project with some important modules such as


1. User interface and control facilities 2. 2D graphics analysis
3. 3D graphics analysis 4. Database management
5. Computer graphics display facility 6. Peripheral control function
7. Design analysis models
Estimate the project in based on LOC
For estimating the given application we consider each module as separate function and
corresponding lines of code can be estimated in the following table as
Function Estimated LOC
User Interface and Control Facilities(UICF) 2500
2D graphics analysis(2DGA) 5600
3D Geometric Analysis function(3DGA) 6450
Database Management(DBM) 3100
Computer Graphics Display Facility(CGDF) 4740
Peripheral Control Function(PCF) 2250
Design Analysis Modules (DAM) 7980
Total Estimation in LOC 32620

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 Expected LOC for 3D Geometric analysis function based on three point estimation is -
 Optimistic estimation 4700
 Most likely estimation 6000
 Pessimistic estimation 10000
S = [Sopt + (4  Sm) + Spress] / 6
Expected value = [4700 + (4 * 6000) + 10000] / 6  6450
 A review of historical data indicates -
1. Average productivity is 500 LOC per month
2. Average labor cost is $6000 per month
Then cost for lines of code can be estimated as
cost / LOC = (6000 / 500) = $12
By considering total estimated LOC as 32620
 Total estimated project cost = (32620 * 12) = $391440
 Total estimated project effort = (32620 / 500) = 65 Person-months
3.5.4 Example of FP Based Estimation

FP focuses on information domain values rather than software functions. Thus we create a
function point calculation table for ABC project, discussed in section 3.3.3.
INFO DOMAIN Opt. most likely pessimistic esti. value weight factor FP
VALUE
NO.OF INPUTS 25 28 32 28.1 4 112
NO. OF OUTPUTS 14 17 20 17 5 85
NO. OF INQURIES 17 23 30 23.1 5 116
NO. OF FILES 5 5 7 5.33 10 53
NO.OF EXTERNAL 2 2 3 2 7 15
INTERFACES
COUNT TOTAL 381

 For this example we assume average complexity weighting factor.


 Each of the complexity weighting factor is estimated and the complexity adjustment factor
is computed using the complexity factor table below. (Based on the 14 questions)
Sr. No. FACTOR VALUE (Fi).
1. Back-up and recovery ? 4
2. Data communication ? 2
3. Distributed processing ? 0
4. Performance critical ? 4

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Software Engineering 3 - 10 Estimation and Scheduling

5. Existing operational environment ? 3


6. On-line data entry ? 4
7. Input transactions over multiple screens ? 5
8. Online updates ? 3
9. Information domain values complex ? 5
10 Internal processing complex ? 5
11. Code designed for reuse ? 4
12. Conversion / installation in design ? 3
13. Multiple installations ? 5
14. Application designed for change ? 5

 (Fi)  52
The estimated number of adjusted FP is derived using the following formula :
FP ESTIMATED = (FP COUNT TOTAL  [COMPLEXITY ADJUSTMENT FACTOR]
FP ESTIMATED = COUNT TOTAL  [0.65 + (0.01  ?  (Fi))]
Complexity adjustment factor = [0.65 + (0.01  52)] = 1.17
 FP ESTIMATED = (381  1.17) = 446 (Function point count adjusted with
complexity adjustment factor)
 A review of historical data indicates -
1. Average productivity is 6.5 FP/Person month
2. Average labor cost is $6000 per month
Calculations for cost per function point, total estimated project cost and total effort
1. The cost per function point = (6000 / 6.5) = $923
2. Total estimated project cost = (446 * 923) = $411658
3. Total estimated effort = (446 / 6.5) = 69 Person-month.

 Review Questions
1. Explain the FP based estimation technique. SPPU : May-18, End Sem, Marks 6
2. Compare the Lines of Code(LOC) and Function Point(FP) based estimation techniques
with suitable example. SPPU : May-19, End Sem, Marks 8
3. How to calculate FP and how it is used in estimation of software project ?
SPPU : Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 5

3.5.5 Process Based Estimation

 This is the most commonly used estimation technique for estimating the project based on
the processes used.
 In this technique, the process is decomposed into relatively size set of tasks and the effort
required to accomplish each task is estimated.

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Software Engineering 3 - 11 Estimation and Scheduling

 The estimation begins with identification of software functions obtained from the project
scope. Then a series of software process activities must be performed for each function.
The function and software process activities are presented in a tabular form. Then planner
estimates the efforts for each software function.

3.5.6 Example of Process Based Estimation

Consider the same project described in section 3.5.3. We can estimate it using process
based estimation technique by creating a table as shown below. In this technique for each of
the business function software engineering tasks such as analysis, design, coding and testing is
carried out. The estimated efforts for each of these functions are identified and their sum is
obtained. In the following table, the sum of all the rows and columns is taken and the effort for
each business function is estimated in percentage.
ACTIVITY CC Planning Risk Engineering Construction CE TOTAL
analysis release
TASK Analysis Design Code Test

BUSINESS
FUNCTION
User interface and 0.50 2.75 0.50 4.50 NA 8.25
control
facilities(UICF)
2D graphics 0.75 4.50 0.75 2.00 NA 8.00
analysis(2DGA)
3D Geometric 0.50 4.50 1.00 3.50 NA 9.5
analysis
function(3DGA)
Database 0.50 3.25 1.00 1.00 NA 5.75
Management
(DBM)
Computer graphics 0.50 3.25 0.70 1.50 NA 5.95
display
Facility(CGDF)
Peripheral control 0.25 2.00 0.50 1.50 NA 4.25
function(PCF)
Design Analysis 0.50 2.00 0.50 2.00 NA 5.00
Modules (DAM)
Total 0.25 0.25 0.25 3.50 22.25 4.95 16.00 48
Percentage effort 1% 1% 1% 7% 46 % 11 % 33 %

CC means customer communication CE means customer evaluation

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Software Engineering 3 - 12 Estimation and Scheduling

The percentage effort is calculated based on the total 48.


For instance we get the total for the task Design as 22.25
22.25  100 / 48 = 46 % approximately
Thus the percentage efforts for all the software engineering tasks are computed.
Based on average labor cost of $6000 per month
1. Total estimated project Effort = 48 persons-month
2. Total estimated project cost = (6000  48) = $288000

3.5.7 Estimation with Use Case

 Use-cases also provide a software team with insight into software scope and
requirements. But there are some difficulties in developing estimations using use cases
due to the following reasons
 There are varieties of ways by which use cases can be described. There is no unique
format for them.
 Use-cases represent an external view (User's view) of the software. These are also
written at different levels of abstraction. That means some use cases may be written
to expose only primary functions where as some other use cases may describe each
function in more detail.
 The complexity of the functions and features cannot be described by use cases.
 The complex behaviour involved in many functions and features is also not described
in use cases.
 In spite of these difficulties the use cases can be used for estimation, but only if they are
considered within the context of structured hierarchy that use cases describe.
Smith argues that any level of structured hierarchy -
1 Can be described by at the most 10 Use-cases.
2. Each use-case would not contain more than 30 distinct scenarios.
 Therefore before using the use cases for the estimation -
 The level within the structured hierarchy must be established.
 The average length of each use case must be determined.
 The type of software application for which estimation is calculated must be defined.
 The rough system architecture is defined.
 After establishing these characteristics, empirical data can be used to estimate LOC or
FP for each use case. Then the structured hierarchical data can be used to compute
the efforts required to develop the system.

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Software Engineering 3 - 13 Estimation and Scheduling

 Following formula is useful to compute this estimation -


LOC estimates = N  LOCavg + [(Sa / Sh – 1) + (Pa / Ph – 1)] * LOCadjust

where N = Actual number of Use-cases


LOCavg = Historical average LOC/Use-case for this type subsystem
LOCadjust = Adjustment based on 'n %' of LOCavg

n = Defined locally and represents the difference between this


project and 'Average' project
Sa = Actual scenarios per use-case
Sh = Average scenarios per use-case for this type subsystem
Pa = Actual pages per use-case
Ph = Average pages per use-case for this type of subsystem
The above expression is used to develop a rough estimation of the number of LOC, based
on the actual number of use-cases adjusted, by the number of scenarios and page length of the
use-cases.

3.5.8 Reconciling Estimation

As we have discussed that estimation can be obtained using LOC, FP, process based and
use-case based techniques. We obtain the estimated efforts for
LOC = 68 person-month
FP = 69 person-month
Process based = 48 person-month
That means the ABC project can be completed with range from a low of 48 Person-months
to high of 69 Person-months. The Average Estimates is 61 Person-months.

 Review Questions
1. What is software project estimation ? How use cases are used in estimation ?
SPPU : May-11, Marks 6
2. What is LOC-based estimation ? Explain with a suitable example.
SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8
3. What do you mean by software project estimation ? Explain the process based estimation
with an example. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 8
4. What is project decomposition ? What are the work tasks for communication process
using process decomposition. SPPU : Dec.-15, End Sem, Marks 9

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Software Engineering 3 - 14 Estimation and Scheduling

3.6 Empirical Estimation Model SPPU : Dec.-11, 16, 17, 18, May-16, Marks 8

Empirical estimation technique involves an educated guess of project parameters. Hence


empirical estimation model is based on common sense.
Values for LOC on FP (Estimated Values) using Three-Points on Expected Value
Estimate, are used into the Estimation model.
The empirical data are derived from a limited sample of projects. Hence this estimation
model is appropriate for all classes of software product. Therefore, the results obtained from
such models must be used judiciously.

3.6.1 The Structure of Estimation Model

This is a typical Estimation Model. It is derived using regression analysis on data


collected from past software projects. The estimated efforts can be denoted by following
formula -
C
E = A + B  (ev)
where
A, B and C are the constants derived empirically.
E is the effort in persons-months
ev is the estimation variable derived from either LOC or FP.
There are many other estimation models that have some form of project adjustment
components that enables the value of E to be adjusted by other projects characteristic.
 Various LOC based estimation models are -
Name of the model Estimation
0.91
Walston-Felix model E = 5.2  (KLOC)
1.16
Bailey-Basili model E = 5.5 + 0.73  (KLOC)
1.05
Boehm simple model E = 3.2  (KLOC)
1.047
Doty model E = 5.288  (KLOC)

 Various FP oriented estimation models are -


Name of the model Estimation
Albrecht and Gaffney model E = – 91.4 + 0.355 FP
Kemerer model E = – 37 + 0.96 FP
Small project regression model E = – 12.88 + 0.405 FP

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Software Engineering 3 - 15 Estimation and Scheduling

Each of these Models shows different result for the same value of LOC an FP. Therefore
estimation model must be calibrated for local models.

3.6.2 The COCOMO II Model

COCOMO II is applied for modern software development practices addressed for the
projects in 1990’s and 2000’s.
The sub-models of COCOMO II model are -

1. Application composition model


 For estimating the efforts required for the prototyping projects and the projects in
which the existing software components are used application-composition model is
introduced.
 The estimation in this model is based on the number of application points. The
application points are similar to the object points.
 This estimation is based on the level of difficulty of object points. Boehm has
suggested the object point productivity in the following manner.
Developers experience and Very low Low Nominal High Very high
capability

CASE maturity Very low Low Nominal High Very high

Productivity (NOP/Month) 4 7 13 25 50

 Effort computation in application-composition model can be done as follows -


PM = (NAP(1–%reuse/100)) / PROD
where
PM means effort required in terms of person-months.
NAP means number of application points required.
% reuse indicates the amount of reused components in the project. These
reusable components can be screens, reports or the modules used in previous
projects.
PROD is the object point productivity. These values are given in the above
table.

2. An early design model


 This model is used in the early stage of the project development. That is after
gathering the user requirements and before the project development actually starts, this
model is used. Hence approximate cost estimation can be made in this model.

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Software Engineering 3 - 16 Estimation and Scheduling

 The estimation can be made based on the functional points.


 In early stage of development different ways of implementing user requirements can
be estimated.
 The effort estimation (in terms of person month) in this model can be made using the
following formula :
B
Effort = A  size  M
where
Boehm has proposed the value of coefficient A = 2.94.
Size should be in terms of Kilo source lines of code i.e. KSLOC.
The lines of code can be computed with the help of function point.
The value of B is varying from 1.1 to 1.24 and depends upon the project.
M is based on the characteristics such as
1. Product reliability and complexity (RCPX)
2. Reuse required (RUSE)
3. Platform difficulty (PDIF)
4. Personnel capability (PERS)
5. Personnel experience (PREX)
6. Schedule (SCED)
7. Support facilities (FCIL)
These characteristics values can be computed on the following scale -

 Hence the effort estimation can be given as


B
PM = 2.94  size  M
M = RUSE  PDIF  PERS  PREX  SCED  FCIL
3. A reuse model
 This model considers the systems that have significant amount of code which is reused
from the earlier software systems. The estimation made in reuse model is nothing but
the efforts required to integrated the reused models into the new systems.
 There are two types of reusable codes : black box code and white box code. The black
box code is a kind of code which is simply integrated with the new system without
modifying it. The white box code is a kind of code that has to be modified to some
extent before integrating it with the new system, and then only it can work correctly.

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Software Engineering 3 - 17 Estimation and Scheduling

 There is third category of code which is used in reuse model and it is the code which
can be generated automatically. In this form of reuse the standard templates are
integrated in the generator. To these generators, the system model is given as input
from which some additional information about the system is taken and the code can be
generated using the templates.
 The efforts required for automatically the generated code is
PM = (ASLOC  AT / 100) / ATPROD
where
AT is percentage of automatically generated code.
ATPROD is the productivity of engineers in estimating such code
 Sometimes in the reuse model some white box code is used along with the newly developed
code. The size estimate of newly developed code is equivalent to the reused code.
Following formula is used to calculate the effort in such a case -
ESLOC = ASLOC  (1 – AT / 100)  AAM
where
ESLOC means equivalent number of lines of new source code.
ASLOC means the source lines of code in the component that has to be adapted.
AAM is adaptation Adjustment multiplier. This factor is used to take into the efforts
required to reuse the code.

4. Post architecture model


 This model is a detailed model used to compute the efforts. The basic formula used in
this model is
B
Effort = A  Size  M
 In this model efforts should be estimated more accurately. In the above formula A is
the amount of code. This code size estimate is made with the help of three
components -
1. The estimate about new lines of code that is added in the program.
2. Equivalent number of Source Lines Of Code (ESLOC) used in reuse model.
3. Due to changes in requirements the lines of code get modified. The estimate of
amount of code being modified.
The exponent term B has three possible values that are related to the levels of project
complexity. The values of B are continuous rather than discrete. It depends upon the five
scale factors. These scale factors vary from very low to extra high (i.e. from 5 to 0).

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Software Engineering 3 - 18 Estimation and Scheduling

 These factors are -


Scale factor for component B Description
Precedentedness This factor is for previous experience of organisation. Very low
means no previous experience and high means the organisation
knows the application domain.
Development flexibility Flexibility in development process. Very low means the typical
process is used. Extra high means client is responsible for
defining the process goals.
Architecture/risk resolution Amount of risk that is allowed to carry out. Very low means little
risk analysis is permitted and extra high means high risk analysis
is made.
Team cohesion Represents the working environment of the team. Very low
cohesion means poor communication or interaction between the
team members and extra high means there is no communication
problem and team can work in a good spirit.
Process maturity This factor affects the process maturity of the organisation. This
value can be computed using Capacity Maturity Model (CMM)
questionnaire, for computing the estimates CMM maturity level
can be subtracted from 5.

 Add up all these rating and then whatever value you get, divide it by 100. Then add the
resultant value to 1.01 to get the exponent value.
 This model makes use of 17 cost attributes instead of seven. These attributes are used to
adjust initial estimate.
Cost attribute Type of attribute Purpose
RELY Product System reliability that is required.
CPLX Product Complexity of system modules
DATA Product Size of the data used from database
DOCU Product Some amount of documentation used
RUSE Product Percentage of reusable components
TIME Computer Amount of time required for execution
PVOL Computer Volatility of development platform.
STOR Computer Memory constraint
ACAP Personnel Project analyst’s capability to analyse the project.
PCAP Personnel Programmer capability

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Software Engineering 3 - 19 Estimation and Scheduling

PCON Personnel Personnel continuity


PEXP Personnel Programmer’s experience in project domain.
LTEX Personnel Experience of languages and tools that are used.
AEXP Personal Analyst’s experience in project domain.
TOOL Project Use of software tools
SCED Project Project schedule compression.
SITE Project Quality of inter-site and multi-site working.

 Review Questions
1. Explain COCOMO II model. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8, Dec.-16, End. Sem, Marks 5
2. Explain COCOMO model for project estimation with suitable example
SPPU : May-16, Dec.-17, 18, End Sem, Marks 7

3.7 Object Point(OP) Based Estimation


Lorenz and Kidd suggested the estimation technique for object oriented project. The steps
for this estimation technique are as follows -
1. Using requirement model, develop use cases and determine the count. As the project
proceeds, the number of use cases may get changed.
2. Using the requirement model, determine the number of key classes.
3. Categorize the type of interface and develop the multiplier. For example
Interface Type Multiplier
No GUI 2.0
Text based interface 2.25
Graphical User Interface 2.5
Complex GUI 3.0

Multiply the key classes by these multipliers to obtain the number of support classes.
4. Now multiply the key and support classes by average number of work units per class.
Approximately there are 15-20 person-days per class.

3.8 Project Scheduling SPPU : Dec.-16, 19, Marks 6

 While scheduling the project, the manager has to estimate the time and resource of the
project.
 All the activities in the project must be arranged in coherent sequence.

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Software Engineering 3 - 20 Estimation and Scheduling

 The schedules must be continually updated because some uncertain problems may occur
during the project life cycle.
 For new projects initial estimates can be made optimistically.

Fig. 3.8.1 Project scheduling process

 During the project scheduling the total work is separated into various small activities. And
time required for each activity must be determined by the project manager.
 For efficient performance some activities are conducted in parallel.
 The project manager should be aware of the fact that : Every stage of the project may not be
problem-free.
 Some of the typical problems in project development stage are :
 People may leave or remain absent.
 Hardware may get failed.
 Software resource may not be available.
 To accomplish the project within given schedule the required resources must be available
when needed.
 Various resources required for the project are -
 Human effort
 Sufficient disk space on server
 Specialized hardware
 Software technology
 Travel allowance required by the project staff.
 Project schedules are represented as the set of chart in which the work-breakdown structure
and dependencies within various activities is represented.

 Review Question
1. What is project scheduling ? What are the basic principles of project scheduling ?
SPPU : Dec.-16, End Sem. Marks 6, Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 5

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Software Engineering 3 - 21 Estimation and Scheduling

3.9 Defining a Task Set for the Software Project


 Definition of task set : The task set is a collection of software engineering work tasks,
milestones, and work products that must be accomplished to complete particular project.
 Every process model consists of various tasks sets. Using these tasks sets the software team
define, develop or ultimately support computer software.
 There is no single task that is appropriate for all the projects but for developing large,
complex projects the set of tasks are required. Hence every effective software process
should define a collection of task sets depending upon the type of the project.
 Using tasks sets the high quality software can be developed and any unnecessary work can
be avoided during software development.
 The number of tasks sets will vary depending upon the type of the project. Various types of
projects are enlisted below -
1. Concept Development project : These are the projects in which new business ideas
or the applications based on new technologies are to be developed.
2. New application development project : These projects are developed for satisfying a
specific customer need.
3. Application upgradation project : These are kind of projects in which existing
software application needs a major change. This change can be for performance
improvement, or modifications within the modules and interfaces.
4. Application maintenance project : These are kind of projects that correct, adapt or
extend the existing software applications.
5. Reengineering projects : These are the projects in which the legacy systems are
rebuilt partly or completely.
 Various factors that influence the tasks sets are -
1. Size of project 2. Project development staff
3. Number of user of that project 4. Application longetivity
5. Complexity of application 6. Performance constraints
7. Use of technologies
 Task set example : Consider the concept development type of the project. Various tasks
sets in this type of project are -
 Defining scope : This task is for defining the scope, goal or objective of the project.
 Planning : It includes the estimate for schedule, cost and people for completing the
desired concept.

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Software Engineering 3 - 22 Estimation and Scheduling

 Evaluation of technology risks : It evaluates the risk associated with the technology
used in the project.
 Concept implementation : It includes the concept representation in the same manner
as expected by the end user.

3.10 Task Network SPPU : May-11, 18, 19, Dec.-13, 17, Marks 8

 The task is a small unit of work.


 The task network or an activity network is a graphical representation, with :
(1) Nodes corresponding to activities.
(2) Tasks or activities are linked if there is a dependency between them.
(3) The task network for the product development is as shown in Fig. 3.10.1.

Fig. 3.10.1 Task network

 The task network definition helps project manager to understand the project work
breakdown structure.
 The project manager should be aware of interdependencies among various tasks. It should
be aware of all those tasks which lie on the critical path.

 Review Questions
1. What is a task network in project scheduling ? Explain with an example.
SPPU : May -11, 18, 19, End Sem, Marks 6, Dec.-17, End Sem, Marks 8
2. What is a task network ? How it is used in scheduling of software project ?
SPPU : May -11, Dec.-13, Marks 8

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Software Engineering 3 - 23 Estimation and Scheduling

3.11 Scheduling with Time Line Chart SPPU : Dec.-12,16, May-18, Marks 8

 In software project scheduling the timeline chart is created. The purpose of timeline chart
is to emphasize the scope of individual task. Hence set of tasks are given as input to the
time line chart.

 The time line chart is also called as Gantt chart.


 The time line chart can be developed for entire project or it can be developed for individual
functions.
 In time line chart

1) All the tasks are listed at the leftmost column.


2) The horizontal bars indicate the time required by the corresponding task.
3) When multiple horizontal bars occur at the same time on the calendar, then that means
concurrency can be applied for performing the tasks.
4) The diamonds indicate the milestones.
 In most of the projects, after generation of time line chart the project tables are prepared. In
project tables all the tasks are listed along with actual start and end dates and related
information.

Example

Fig. 3.11.1 Time line chart

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Software Engineering 3 - 24 Estimation and Scheduling

Project table

Tasks Planned start Actual start Planned end Actual end Effort assignment

Requirement analysis 6th Sept’05 6th Sept’05 20th Sept’05 22nd Sept’05 Jayashree, Padma, Lucky

Architectural design 27th Sept’05 27th Sept’05 3rd Oct’05 7th Oct’05 Trupti, Varsha

Procedural design 10th Oct’05 12th Oct’05 24th Oct’05 25th Oct’05 Varsha, Sachin, Devendra

∶ ∶ ∶ ∶ ∶ ∶

Customer training 1st Jan’06 4th Jan’06 22nd Jan’06 25th Jan’06 Smita, Yogita

Table 3.11.1 Project table

 Review Questions
1. What is time line chart ? How it is used in scheduling of software project ?
SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 8
2. What is timeline chart ? Explain with suitable examples.
SPPU : Dec.-16, End Sem, Marks 5, May -18, End Sem, Marks 6

3.12 Schedule Tracking Tools


 The schedule tracking tools help the project manager to define work tasks and their
interdependencies.
 It is possible to assign human resources to these tasks and develop graphs, charts and tables
that are required for tracking the schedule.
 The Microsoft project and Daily Activity Reporting and Tracking are commonly used
scheduling tools. Let us discuss them briefly.

3.12.1 Microsoft Project

 Microsoft has offered a project management tool named Microsoft Project for project
planning activities.
 It helps the project manager in
i) Developing the project plan ii) Assigning the resources to the tasks
iii) Tracking the progress iv) Managing budgets
v) Analysis of workload

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Software Engineering 3 - 25 Estimation and Scheduling

Features
Various features of MS planning tool are
1. It generates variety of reports and templates with industry standard.
2. Themes can be customized and some elements can be removed.
3. The date can be set for the tasks to accomplish.
4. It has got the compatibility with other programs such as Microsoft Word, Excel, Visio and
so on.
5. It can support for the cloud services to share the work among the geographically distant
developers.

3.12.2 Daily Activity Reporting & Tracking (DART)

 This tool enables you to track the changes to record being made by users.
 Many organizations deploy the Daily activity reporting and tracking tool that monitors the
progress of the software project.
 DART collects the activity data and keep track of the work flow.
 DART can compute the set of business queries which are also called as indicators that can
be used to keep track of the performance.
 The aim of DART is to empower software project stakeholders in their daily discussion
regarding the performance of the project.
3.13 Multiple Choice Questions
Q.1 ____ is an activity in which project manager makes reasonable estimates of resources, cost
and schedule
a Project scheduling b Risk analysis
c Project planning d None of these
Q.2 The objective of software project planning is _______.
a to convince customer that the project is feasible
b to make use of already conducted projects
c to determine probable profit margin before the actual project starts
d enable a manager to make estimation of cost and schedule
Q.3 Which of the following is activity is not the part of project planning ?
a Project estimation b Project monitoring
c Project scheduling d Risk management

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Software Engineering 3 - 26 Estimation and Scheduling

Q.4 Which of the following is an important factor that affects the accuracy and efficacy of
estimates ?
a Complexity of project b Size of project
c Planning of project d Degree of uncertainty
Q.5 Resources refers to _______.
a manpower b machinery
c materials d all of the above
Q.6 Following are the phases of project management life cycle. Arrange them in correct order
1. Design 2. Marketing
3. Analysis and evaluation 4. Inspection
testing and delivery
a 3-2-1-4 b 1-2-3-4
c 2-3-1-4 d 4-3-2-1
Q.7 Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase
of a project management ?
a Initiation b Planning
c Execution d Closure
Q.8 Component based software engineering emphasizes on ____ characteristic
a reliability b availability
c security d reusability
Q.9 Decomposition technique is used during ______.
a project planning b project scheduling
c project estimation d none of these
Q.10 Following is a basic parameter based on which all other estimations can be made during
project planning.
a Efforts b Duration
c Schedule d Project size
Q.11 LOC stands for
a Log On Code b Login On Code
c Least Object Code d Lines Of Code

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Software Engineering 3 - 27 Estimation and Scheduling

Q.12 Which of the following can be used for project size estimation ?
a Lines of code b Function point
c Duration for the project d Both a and b
Q.13 If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as
a LOC b FP
c Fuzzy logic d LOC and FP
Q.14 Which of the following is an activity that is conducted before requirements analysis and
specification phase ?
a Project planning b Project monitoring
c Project scheduling d project control
Q.15 The Software Engineering Environment(SEE) consists of ________.
a hardware b software
c people d both a and b
Q.16 The size estimate for the software product build on LOC is considered as a direct measure
a True b False
Q.17 Process based estimation requires problem decomposition based on _______.
a project schedule b software functions
c process activities d both b and c
Q.18 Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain
characteristics ?
a Function point sizing b Change sizing
c Standard component sizing d Fuzzy logic sizing
Q.19 Empirical estimation models are based on ________.
a Expert judgement b Common sense
c Trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients
d None of these
Q.20 Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II ?
a Early design estimation model
b Application composition estimation model
c Comprehensive cost estimation model
d Post architecture estimation model

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Software Engineering 3 - 28 Estimation and Scheduling

Answer Keys for Multiple Choice Questions :

Q.1 c Q.2 d Q.3 b Q.4 b

Q.5 d Q.6 a Q.7 a Q.8 a

Q.9 c Q.10 d Q.11 d Q.12 d

Q.13 b Q.14 a Q.15 d Q.16 a

Q.17 d Q.18 a Q.19 b Q.20 a



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UNIT - IV

4 Design Engineering

Syllabus

Design Concepts : Design within the Context of Software Engineering, The Design
Process, Software Quality Guidelines and Attributes, Design Concepts - Abstraction,
Architecture, design Patterns, Separation of Concerns, Modularity, Information Hiding,
Functional Independence, Refinement, Aspects, Refactoring, Object-Oriented Design
Concept, Design Classes, The Design Model, Data Design Elements, Architectural
Design Elements, Interface Design Elements, Component-Level Design Elements,
Component Level Design for Web Apps, Content Design at the Component Level,
Functional Design at the Component Level, Deployment-Level Design Elements.
Architectural Design : Software Architecture, What is Architecture, Why is
Architecture Important, Architectural Styles, A brief Taxonomy of Architectural Styles.

Contents
4.1 Concept of Design ............. Dec.-12,16, May-14 ....................................... Marks 8
4.2 The Design Process
4.3 Software Quality Guidelines and Attributes ......... Dec.-12, 16, 19, May-14 ......Marks 8
4.4 Design Concepts ............. April-15, May-11, 13, 15, Dec.-12, 16 .......... Marks 8
4.5 Object Oriented Design Concepts
4.6 Design Classes ............. Dec.-13........................................................... Marks 6
4.7 The Design Model and Elements ..............Dec.-11, May-13, 14 ...................... Marks 8
4.8 Component Level Design
4.9 Class Based Design
4.10 Conducting Component Level Design
4.11 Component Level Design for Web Apps
4.12 Software Architecture
4.13 Architectural Styles ............. Dec.-11,12, May-12 ....................................... Marks 8
4.14 Multiple Choice Quesions

(4 - 1)
Software Engineering 4-2 Design Engineering

Part I : Introduction to Design Concepts

4.1 Concept of Design SPPU : Dec.-12,16, May-14, Marks 8

Definition : Software design is model of software which translates the requirements into
finished software product in which the details about the software data structures,
architecture, interfaces and components that are necessary to implement the system are
given.
 Software design is an iterative process using which the user requirements can be translated
into the software product.
 At the initial stage of the software is represented as an abstract view. During the sub-
sequent iterations data, functional and behavioral requirements are traced in detail. That
means at each iteration the refinement is made to obtain lower level details of the software
product.
Characteristics of Good Design
1. The good design should implement all the requirements specified by the customer. Even
if there are some implicit requirements of the software product then those requirements
should also be implemented by the software design.
2. The design should be simple enough so that the software can be understood easily by the
developers, testers and customers.
3. The design should be comprehensive. That means it should provide complete picture of
the software.
4.1.1 Design within the Context of Software Engineering

 Software design is at the core of software engineering and it is applied irrespective of any
process model.
 After analysing and modelling the requirements, software design is done which serves as
the basis for code generation and testing.
 Software designing is a process of translating analysis model into the design model.
 The analysis model is manifested by scenario based, class based, flow oriented and
behavioural elements and feed the design task.
 The classes and relationships defined by CRC index cards and other useful class based
elements provide the basis for the data or class design.
 The architectural design defines the relationship between major structural elements of the
software. The architectural styles and design patterns can be used to achieve the
requirements defined for the system.

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Software Engineering 4-3 Design Engineering

Fig. 4.1.1 Translating analysis model into the design model

 The interface design describes how software communicates with systems. These systems
are interacting with each other as well as with the humans who operate them. Thus interface
design represents the flow of information and specific type of behaviour. The usage
scenarios and behavioural models of analysis modelling provide the information needed by
the interface design.
 The component-level design transforms structural elements of software architecture into
procedural description of software module. The information used by the component design
is obtained from class based model, flow based model and behavioural model.
 Software design is important to assess the quality of software. Because design is the only
way that we can accurately translate the user requirements into the finished software
product.
 Without design unstable system may get developed. Even if some small changes are made
then those changes will go fail .It will become difficult to test the product. The quality of
the software product can not be assessed until late in the software process.

4.2 The Design Process


 Software design is an iterative process in which the requirements are translated into the
blueprint of the software. Initially the software is represented at high level of abstraction,
but during the subsequent iterations data, functional and behavioural requirements are
traced in more detail.
 Thus refinement made during each iteration leads to design representations at much lower
level of abstraction. Throughout the software design process the quality of the software is
assessed by considering certain characteristics of the software design.

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Software Engineering 4-4 Design Engineering

4.3 Software Quality Guidelines and Attributes


SPPU : Dec.-12, 16, 19, May-14, Marks 8

 The goal of any software design is to produce high quality software.


 In order to evaluate quality of software there should be some predefined rules or criteria
that need to be used to assess the software product. Such criteria serve as characteristics for
good design.
 The quality guidelines are as follows -
1. The design architecture should be created using following issues -
 The design should be created using architectural styles and patterns.
 Each component of design should posses good design characteristics.
 The implementation of design should be evolutionary, so that testing can be
performed at each phase of implementation.
2. In the design the data, architecture, interfaces and components should be clearly
represented.
3. The design should be modular. That means the subsystems in the design should be
logically partitioned.
4. The data structure should be appropriately chosen for the design of specific problem.
5. The components should be used in the design so that functional independency can be
achieved in the design.
6. Using the information obtained in software requirement analysis the design should
be created.
7. The interfaces in the design should be such that the complexity between the
connected components of the system gets reduced. Similarly interface of the system
with external interface should be simplified one.
8. Every design of the software system should convey its meaning appropriately and
effectively.

Quality Attributes
 The design quality attributes popularly known as FURPS (Functionality, Usability,
Reliability, Performance and Supportability) is a set of criteria developed by Hewlett and
Packard.
 Following table represents meaning of each quality attribute

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Software Engineering 4-5 Design Engineering

Quality Attribute Meaning


Functionality Functionality can be checked by assessing the set of features and capabilities
of the functions. The functions should be general and should not work only for
particular set of inputs. Similarly the security aspect should be considered
while designing the function.

Usability The usability can be assessed by knowing the usefulness of the system.

Reliability Reliability is a measure of frequency and severity of failure. Repeatability


refers to the consistency and repeatability of the measures. The Mean Time to
Failure (MTTF) is a metric that is widely used to measure the product’s
performance and reliability.

Performance It is a measure that represents the response of the system.


Measuring the performance means measuring the processing speed, memory
usage, response time and efficiency.

Supportability It is also called maintainability. It is the ability to adopt the enhancement or


changes made in the software. It also means the ability to withstand in a given
environment.

 Review Questions
1. Explain the quality attributes, considered in software design. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 8
2. What are the design quality guidelines ? SPPU : May-14, Marks 8

3. Explain the quality attributes, considered in software design .


SPPU : Dec.-16, End Sem, Marks 5
4. What are the software design quality attribute and guidelines?
SPPU : Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 7

4.4 Design Concepts SPPU : April-15, May-11, 13, 15, Dec.-12, 16, Marks 8

The software design concept provides a framework for implementing the right software.
Following are certain issues that are considered while designing the software -
 Abstraction  Information hiding
 Modularity  Functional independence
 Architecture  Refactoring
 Refinement  Design classes
 Pattern

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4.4.1 Abstraction

 The abstraction means an ability to cope up with the complexity.


 Software design occurs at different levels of abstraction. At each stage of software design
process levels of abstractions should be applied to refine the software solution.
 At the higher level of abstraction, the solution should be stated in broad terms and in the
lower level more detailed description of the solution is given.
 While moving through different levels of abstraction the procedural abstraction and data
abstraction are created.
 The procedural abstraction gives the named sequence of instructions in the specific
function. That means the functionality of procedure is hidden. For example : Search the
record is a procedural abstraction in which implementation details are hidden (i.e. Enter the
name, compare each name of the record against the entered one, if a match is found then
declare success !! Otherwise declare 'name not found').
 In data abstraction the collection of data objects is represented. For example for the
procedure search the data abstraction will be record. The record consists of various
attributes such as record ID, name, address and designation.

4.4.2 Modularity

 The software is divided into separately named and addressable components that called as
modules.
 Monolithic software is hard to grasp for the software engineer, hence it has now become a
trend to divide the software into number of products. But there is a co-relation between the
number of modules and overall cost of the software product.
 Following argument supports this idea -
“Suppose there are two problems A and B with varying complexity. If the complexity of
problem A is greater than the complexity of the problem B then obviously the efforts
required for solving the problem A is greater than that of problem B. That also means the
time required by the problem A to get solved is more than that of problem B.”
 The overall complexity of two problems when they are combined is greater than the sum of
complexity of the problems when considered individually. This leads to divide and
conquer strategy (according to divide and conquer strategy the problem is divided into
smaller subproblems and then the solution to these subproblems is obtained).
 Thus dividing the software problem into manageable number of pieces leads to the concept
of modularity.

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 It is possible to conclude that if we subdivide the software indefinitely then effort required
to develop each software component will become very small. But this conclusion is invalid
because the total number of modules get increased the efforts required for developing each
module also gets increased.
 That means the cost associated with each effort gets increased.
 The effort (cost) required for integration these modules will also get increased.
 The total cost required to develop such software product is shown by Fig. 4.4.1.
 The Fig. 4.4.1 provides useful guideline for the modularity and that is - overmodularity or
the undermodularity while developing the software product must be avoided. We
should modularize the software but the modularity must remain near the region denoted by
M.

Fig. 4.4.1 Modularity and software cost

 Modularization should be such that the development can be planned easily, software
increments can be defined and delivered, changes can be more easily accommodated and
long term maintenance can be carried out effectively.
 Meyer defines five criteria that enable us to evaluate a design method with respect to its
ability to define an effective modular system :
1. Modular decomposability : A design method provides a systematic mechanism for
decomposing the problem into sub-problems. This reduces the complexity of the
problem and the modularity can be achieved.
2. Modular composability : A design method enables existing design components to be
assembled into a new system.
3. Modular understandability : A module can be understood as a standalone unit. It
will be easier to build and easier to change.

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4. Modular continuity : Small changes to the system requirements result in changes to


individual modules, rather than system-wide changes.
5. Modular protection : An aberrant condition occurs within a module and its effects
are constrained within the module.

4.4.3 Architecture

Architecture means representation of overall structure of an integrated system. In


architecture various components interact and the data of the structure is used by various
components. These components are called system elements. Architecture provides the basic
framework for the software system so that important framework activities can be conducted in
systematic manner.
In architectural design various system models can be used and these are
Model Functioning
Structural model Overall architecture of the system can be represented using
this model.
Framework model This model shows the architectural framework and
corresponding applicability.
Dynamic model This model shows the reflection of changes on the system
due to external events.
Process model The sequence of processes and their functioning is
represented in this model.
Functional model The functional hierarchy occurring in the system is
represented by this model.

4.4.4 Refinement

 Refinement is actually a process of elaboration.


 Stepwise refinement is a top-down design strategy proposed by Niklaus WIRTH.
 The architecture of a program is developed by successively refining levels of procedural
detail.
 The process of program refinement is analogous to the process of refinement and
partitioning that is used during requirements analysis.
 Abstraction and refinement are complementary concepts. The major difference is that - In
the abstraction low-level details are suppressed. Refinement helps the designer to elaborate
low-level details.

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4.4.5 Pattern

According to Brad Appleton the design pattern can be defined as - It is a named nugget
(something valuable) of insight which conveys the essence of proven solution to a recurring
problem within a certain context.
In other words, design pattern acts as a design solution for a particular problem occurring
in specific domain. Using design pattern designer can determine whether-
 Pattern can be reusable.
 Pattern can be used for current work.
 Pattern can be used to solve similar kind of problem with different functionality.

4.4.6 Information Hiding

 Information hiding is one of the important property of effective modular design.


 The term information hiding means the modules are designed in such a way that
information contained in one module cannot be accessible to the other module (the module
which does not require this information).
 Due to information hiding only limited amount of information can be passed to other
module or to any local data structure used by other module.
 The advantage of information hiding is basically in testing and maintenance.
 Due to information hiding some data and procedures of one module can be hidden from
another module. This ultimately avoids introduction of errors module from one module to
another. Similarly one can make changes in the desired module without affecting the other
module.

4.4.7 Functional Independence

 The functional independence can be achieved by developing the functional modules with
single-minded approach.
 By using functional independence functions may be compartmentalized and interfaces are
simplified.
 Independent modules are easier to maintain with reduced error propagation.
 Functional independence is a key to good design and design is the key to software quality.
 The major benefit of functional independence is in achieving effective modularity.
 The functional independence is assessed using two qualitative criteria - Cohesion and
coupling.

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4.4.7.1 Cohesion

 With the help of cohesion the information hiding can be done.


 A cohesive module performs only “one task” in software procedure with little interaction
with other modules. In other words cohesive module performs only one thing.
 Different types of cohesion are :
1. Coincidentally cohesive : The modules in which the set of tasks are related with each
other loosely then such modules are called coincidentally cohesive.
2. Logically cohesive : A module that performs the tasks that are logically related with
each other is called logically cohesive.
3. Temporal cohesion : The module in which the tasks need to be executed in some
specific time span is called temporal cohesive.
4. Procedural cohesion : When processing elements of a module are related with one
another and must be executed in some specific order then such module is called
procedural cohesive.
5. Communicational cohesion : When the processing elements of a module share the
data then such module is communicational cohesive.
 The goal is to achieve high cohesion for modules in the system.

4.4.7.2 Coupling

 Coupling effectively represents how the modules can be “connected” with other module or
with the outside world.
 Coupling is a measure of interconnection among modules in a program structure.
 Coupling depends on the interface complexity between modules.
 The goal is to strive for lowest possible coupling among modules in software design.
 The property of good coupling is that it should reduce or avoid change impact and ripple
effects. It should also reduce the cost in program changes, testing and maintenance.
 Various types of coupling are :
i) Data coupling : The data coupling is possible by parameter passing or data
interaction.
ii) Control coupling : The modules share related control data in control coupling.
iii) Common coupling : In common coupling common data or a global data is shared
among the modules.
iv) Content coupling : Content coupling occurs when one module makes use of data or
control information maintained in another module.

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Sr. No. Content coupling Common coupling


1. Content coupling occurs between two Common coupling occurs when modules
modules when one module refers to the communicate using global data areas.
internals of the other module.
2. Content coupling is also known as Common coupling is also known as global
pathological coupling. coupling.
3. This type of coupling does not require any This type of coupling is based on the
global data or global variable for communication using global data areas.
communication.
4. The major drawback of content coupling The major drawback of common coupling
is that - if we want to reuse one is that - modules in the common coupling are
component we need to import all the tightly coupled. A fault in one module using
components that are coupled with the global data may show up in another module
component being reused. because global data may be updated by any
module at any time. This greatly affects the
reusability of modules.
5. The access to internal structure is of main The access to global data is of main concern
concern in this kind of communication. in this kind of communication.
6. In this coupling, component directly In common coupling, it is difficult to
modifies another's data. determine all the components that affect a
data element.
7. Example - Part of Program that searches Example - A process control component that
for the entry of particular employee. when maintains the status of operations in a global
the module does not find the entry for the data store. This control block gets data from
employee, it directly adds employee multiple sources or supplies data to multiple
modifying the contents of data structure sinks. Each source process writes the status
containing employee data. of its operation directly to the global data
store.

Sr. No. Coupling Cohesion


1. Coupling represents how the modules In cohesion, the cohesive module performs
are connected with other modules or only one thing.
with the outside world.
2. With coupling interface complexity is With cohesion, data hiding can be done.
decided.
3. The goal of coupling is to achieve lowest The goal of cohesion is to achieve high
coupling. cohesion.
4. Various types of couplings are - Various types of cohesion are -
Data coupling, Control coupling, Coincidental cohesion, Logical cohesion,
Common coupling and Content coupling. Temporal cohesion, Procedural cohesion
and Communicational cohesion.

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4.4.8 Refactoring

Refactoring is necessary for simplifying the design without changing the function or
behaviour. Fowler has defined refactoring as “The process of changing a software system in
such a way that the external behavior of the design do not get changed, however the internal
structure gets improved”.
Benefits of refactoring are -
 The redundancy can be achieved.
 Inefficient algorithms can be eliminated or can be replaced by efficient one.
 Poorly constructed or inaccurate data structures can be removed or replaced.
 Other design failures can be rectified.
The decision of refactoring particular component is taken by the designer of the software
system.
Exercise 4.4.1 Justify the term : “Design is not coding and coding is not design”.

Solution : This is one of the design principles that are to be applied while designing the
software systems. This means that level of abstraction of design model should be higher than
the source code. At the time of coding, whatever design decisions are made can be
implemented. Hence design should be such that it can be transformed into source code.
Similarly, during coding it is not desired to do the design to fulfill the requirements.
Exercise 4.4.2 Discuss the statement, “Abstraction and refinement are complementary concepts.

Solution : Abstraction and refinement are complementary concepts. The major difference is
that - in the abstraction low-level details are suppressed.
Refinement helps the designer to elaborate low-level details.
Exercise 4.4.3 “Modularity is the single attribute of the software that allows a program to be
intellectually manageable” - How this is true ?
Solution : This is quoted by Glenford Mayers. Consider that there is a large program
composed of single module. Such a program cannot be grasped by reader. The control paths,
span of reference, number of variables and overall complexity of such a program is beyond
understanding. On the other hand if the program is divided into certain number of modules
then overall complexity of the program gets reduced. The error detection and handling can be
done effectively. Also changes made during testing and maintenance become manageable.
Hence it is true that “Modularity is the single attribute of the software that allows a program to
be intellectually manageable”.

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Exercise 4.4.4 Why modularity is important in software projects ?

Solution : Modularity is important in software projects because of following reasons


(1) Modularity reduces complexity and helps in easier implementation. (2) The parallel
development of different parts of the system is possible due to modular design. (3) Changes
made during testing and maintenance become manageable and they do not affect the other
modules.
Exercise 4.4.5 Differentiate between : abstraction and modularization.

Solution : Abstraction is a software design concept which is applied to refine software


solution. In the process of abstraction only necessary information is abstracted form
requirement analysis to create the software solution in broad terms. While moving through
different levels of abstraction the procedural and data abstraction are prepared. During
abstraction the procedural and data objects are prepared.
Modularity is a design concept in which requirements are divided into separately named
and addresable components called as modules. Modularity in design reduces complexity and
helps in easier implementation.
Exercise 4.4.6 Discuss the relationship between the concept of information hiding as an attribute
of effective modularity and the concept of module independence ?
Solution :
 Information hiding can be related to both coupling and cohesion concepts.
 For reducing the coupling only those modules are linked together that are absolutely
needed. This reduces the coupling between modules.
 Similarly information is isolated so that the functionalities can be isolated. This improves
the cohesion of individual modules.
 Information hiding implies that effective modularity can be achieved by defining a set
of independent modules that communicate with one another only that information necessary
to achieve software function.
 Using abstractions the procedural entities are defined. This is helpful for testing and
maintenance.
 The concept of module independence helps in achieving modularity, abstraction and
information hiding. Independent modules are easier to maintain and test. Reusability of
such modules is also possible.
Example 4.4.7 Justify “ A cohesive design should have high cohesiveness and low coupling”.
SPPU : April-15, In Sem, Marks 4

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Solution :
 Low coupling is an approach to interconnecting the components in a system or network so
that those components, are less dependant upon each other.
 High cohesiveness indicate that module perform only one task.
 Ideally the components in the system must be least dependent on each other and every
component must perform only one task at particular instance.
 Hence it is said that the system must have high cohesiveness and low coupling.

 Review Questions
1. Explain the following design concepts. i) Modularity ii) Architecture
SPPU : May-11, Marks 6

2. What are the characteristics of a well formed design class ? SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 6

3. Differentiate between abstraction and refinement. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 4

4. Explain the following design concepts. i) Refinement ii) Modularity iii) Architecture
SPPU : May-13, Marks 8
5. Explain about various design concepts considered during design.
SPPU : April-15, In Sem, Marks 6
6. What do you understand by refactoring ? Give the importance of refactoring in improving
quality of software. SPPU : May-15, End Sem, Marks 6
7. What do you mean by the term cohesion and coupling in context of software design ?
How are these concepts useful in arriving at a good design of a system ?
SPPU : Dec.-16, End Sem, Marks 5
8. Define following design concepts -
i) Pattern ii) Information Hiding
iii) Architecture iv) Refinement SPPU : Aug.-17, In Sem, Marks 4
9. Explain different Design concepts. SPPU : Aug.-17, In Sem, Marks 3
10. What do you mean by the term cohesion and coupling in the context of software design ?
How are these concepts useful in arriving at a good design of a system ?
SPPU : Aug.-17, In Sem, Marks 3
11. What is the relationship between modularity and functional dependence ?
SPPU : Dec.-18, End Sem, Marks 5
12. A Design should have high cohesive and low coupling. Justify.
SPPU : Dec.-18, Oct.-19, In Sem, Marks 5
13. What do you understand by refactoring ? Give importance of refactoring in improving the
quality of software. SPPU : Dec.-18, End Sem, Oct.-19, In Sem, Marks 5

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4.5 Object Oriented Design Concepts


Object is an important element of an Object Oriented Design (OOD). Various objects and
their interaction with each other objects is graphically represented in object oriented design.
An object is an entity which can be obtained from its belonging class and it posses attributes
and operations. The typical presentation of object oriented system is depicted by following
Fig. 4.5.1.

In object oriented system three strategies are mainly applied -

Fig. 4.5.1

Advantages of object oriented system


1. Reusability of objects reduces programming efforts.
2. The system design is more manageable if it is done using object oriented approach.
3. Error detection and handling is easy.
4. Changes can be incorporated very easily in the software system.

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Disadvantages of object oriented system


1. These systems are very slow.
2. These systems require more memory.
The Unified Modelling Language (UML) was developed by Grady Booch, Jim Rumbaugh
and Ivar Jacobson for modelling the object oriented systems.
Under this package various diagrams can be created to represent the system from different
perspectives.
1) Activity - The actions taken by an operation.
2) Class diagram - The static relationships, methods, and fields of an object.
3) Collaboration - The relationship between components.
4) Sequence - Flow of events over time (oddly enough contains the same info as
Collaboration).
5) Component - The physical components.
6) Deployment - How to push the software to hardware.
7) Object - Objects and their relationships.
8) State chart - Operation of system shown through states.
9) Use Case - The functions of a system from the user’s perspective.

4.6 Design Classes SPPU : Dec.-13, Marks 6

Design classes are defined as the classes that describe some elements of problem domain,
focus on various aspects of problem from user's point of view.
The goals of design classes is :
1. To refine the analysis classes by providing the detail design, so that further implementation
can be done easily.
2. To create new set of classes for implementing the infrastructure of the software.
There are five different types of design classes

Fig. 4.6.1 Types of design classes


1. User Interface Class : The user interface class defines all the abstractions that are
necessary for Human Computer Interface(HCI). The user interface classes is basically a
visual representation of the HCI.
2. Business Domain Class : Business domain classes are the refinement of analysis
classes. These classes identify the attributes and services that are needed to implement
some elements of business domain.

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3. Process Class : Process class implement lower level business abstractions used by the
business domain.
4. Persistent Class : These classes represent the data store such as databases which will be
retained as it is even after the execution of the software.
5. System Class : These classes are responsible for software management and control
functions that are used for system operation.
Each class must be well formed design class. Following are some characteristics of well
formed design classes -
 Complete and Efficient
A design class must be properly encapsulated with corresponding attributes and methods.
Design class must contain all those methods that are sufficient to achieve the intent of the
class.
 Primitiveness
Methods associated with one particular class must perform unique service and the class
should not provide another way to implement the same service.
 High Cohesion
A cohesive designed class must posses small, focused set of responsibilities and these
responsibilities must be associated with all the attributes of that class.
 Low Coupling
Design classes must be collaborated with manageable number of classes. If one design
class is collaborated with all other design classes then the implementation, testing and
maintenance of the system becomes complicated. The law of Demeter suggests that the
one particular design class should send messages to the methods of neighbouring design
classes only.

 Review Question
1. Explain the types of design classes. SPPU : Dec.-13, Marks 6

4.7 The Design Model and Elements SPPU : Dec.-11, May-13, 14, Marks 8

 The process dimension denotes that the design model evolutes due to various software
tasks that get executed as the part of software process.
 The abstract dimension represents level of details as each element of analysis model is
transformed into design equivalent.
 In following Fig. 4.7.1 the dashed line shows the boundary between analysis and design
model.

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Fig. 4.7.1 Dimension of design model

 In both the analysis and design models the same UML diagrams are used but in analysis
model the UML diagrams are abstract and in design model these diagrams are refined and
elaborated. Moreover in design model the implementation specific details are provided.
 Along the horizontal axis various elements such as architecture element, interface element,
component level elements and deployment level elements are given. It is not necessary that
these elements have to be developed in sequential manner. First of all the preliminary
architecture design occurs then interface design and component level design occur in
parallel. The deployment level design ends up after the completions of complete design
model.
4.7.1 Data Design Elements

The data design represents the high level of abstraction. This data represented at data
design level is refined gradually for implementing the computer based system. The data has
great impact on the architecture of software systems. Hence structure of data is very important
factor in software design. Data appears in the form of data structures and algorithms at the
program component level. At the application level it appears as the database and at the
business level it appears as data warehouse and data mining. Thus data plays an important
role in software design.

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4.7.2 Architectural Design Elements

The architectural design gives the layout for overall view of the software. Architectural
model can be built using following sources -
 Data flow models or class diagrams
 Information obtained from application domain
 Architectural patterns and styles.

4.7.3 Interface Design Elements

Interface Design represents the detailed design of the software system. In interface design
how information flows from one component to other component of the system is depicted.
Typically there are three types of interfaces -

Fig. 4.7.2

4.7.4 Component Level Design Elements

 The component level design is more detailed design of the software system along with the
specifications. The component level design elements describe the internal details of the
component. In component level design all the local data objects, required data structures
and algorithmic details and
procedural details are exposed.
 Fig. 4.7.3 represents that component
order makes use of another
component form.
 The order is dependent upon the
component form. These two objects
can be interfaced with each other. Fig. 4.7.3 Components

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4.7.5 Deployment Level Design Elements

The deployment level design elements indicate how software functions and software
subsystems are assigned to the physical computing environment of the software product.

Fig. 4.7.4 Deployment diagram

For example web browsers may work in mobile phoned or they may run on client PC or
can execute on server machines.

 Review Questions
1. Describe the design model with a neat diagram and give the traceability of each layer of
design model to analysis model. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8
2. What are the deployment level design elements ? SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 4
3. Explain the elements of design model. SPPU : May-13, Marks 8
4. What are the elements in data design ? What are the guidelines for the data design ?
SPPU : May-14, Marks 8

4.8 Component Level Design


What is Component ?
 Component is nothing but a model for computer software.
 The OMG Unified Modeling Language specification defines the concept of component
more formally and it is -
 “Component is a modular, deployable and replaceable part of system that encapsulates the
implementation and exposes the set of interfaces”.

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 Components are the part of software architecture and hence they are important factors in
achieving the objectives and requirements of system to be built.
 Components can communicate and collaborate with other components.
 Design models can be prepared using object oriented views and conventional views.
4.9 Class Based Design
 Component is represented as a part of architectural model. It collects the information about
the system as a part of analysis model.
 If object oriented software engineering approach is adopted then the component level
design will emphasize on elaboration of analysis classes and refinement of infrastructure
classes.
 The detailed description of attributes, operations and interfaces of these infrastructure
classes is required during the system building.
4.9.1 Basic Design Principle

There are four design principles that are used during the component level design. These
principles are -
1. The Open-closed Principle
This principle states that - A module or a component should be open for extension and
should be closed for modification. A designer should design a component in such a manner
that some functionalities can added to it if required but in doing so there should not be any
change in the internal design of the component itself.
2. The Liskov Substitution Principle
This principle states that - subclasses should be substitutable for their base classes. This
principle is proposed by Barbara Liskov. A component that contains the base class and if
that component works properly then the same component should work properly even if the
derived class of that base class is used by the component as a substitute.
3. Dependency Inversion Principle
The components should be dependant on the other abstract components and not on the
concrete component. This is because if some component has to be extended then it
becomes easy to enhance it using other abstract component instead of concrete component.
4. The interface Segregation Principle
Many client specific interfaces are better than one general purpose interface. According to
this principle, designer should create specialized interfaces for each major category. So that
the clients can access the interfaces based on the category. If a general purpose interface is
created then multiple clients may try to access it for different operations at the same time.

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4.9.2 Component Level Design Guideline

 Ambler suggested following guideline for conducting component level design -


 Components : Components are the part of architectural model. The naming conventions
should be established for components. The component names should be specified from the
problem domain. These names should be meaningful.
 Interfaces : Interfaces serve important role in communication and collaboration. The
interface should be drawn as a circle with a solid line connecting it to another element. This
indicates that the element to which it is connected offers the interface. The interface should
flow from left side of component. Only important interfaces must be drawn.
 Dependencies and interfaces : The dependencies must be shown from left to right. The
inheritance should be shown from bottom to top i.e. from derived to base class. The
component interdependencies should be represented via interfaces.
4.9.3 Cohesion

In component level design for object oriented systems, the cohesion means a class or a
component that consists of data and operations that are closely related to each other and related
to the class itself. Various types of cohesions are -
 Functional : In this type of cohesion the each module performs only one component.
 Layer : This type of cohesion is used in packages, components and classes. In this type of
cohesion the higher level layer access the functionalities of the lower levels but the lower
level layers do not access the functionalities of the higher level layers.
 Communicational : When all the operations of the class access the same set of data then
this type of cohesion occurs.
 Sequential : In this type of cohesion, the components are grouped together in such a
manner that the output of one operation is provided as input to another operation. So that
all the operations execute in some specific sequence.
 Procedural : In this cohesion the procedures are invoked immediately one after the
another.
 Temporal : The cohesion in which the operations specify specific behaviour is called
temporal cohesion.
 Utility : The components, classes or operations are grouped together if they perform some
specific operation otherwise they are not related with each other.

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4.9.4 Coupling

Coupling is a mechanism of degree to which the classes are connected to one another.
Various types of coupling are :
 Content coupling  Common coupling
 Control coupling  Stamp coupling
 Data coupling  External coupling

 Review Question
1. Explain class based modeling with suitable example
SPPU : April-16, In Sem, Marks 4, May-16, End Sem, Marks 7

4.10 Conducting Component Level Design


Following is a set of steps that are applied for component level design -
1. Identify all the design classes from the problem domain.
2. Identify all the design classes from the infrastructure domain.
3. Detail out all the design classes which are not the reusable components.
a. When components communicate or collaborate then represent their communication
using messages.
b. Identify interfaces for each component.
c. Define the attributes of the classes by specifying the data types and deciding the data
structures.
d. Specify all the operations by describing the processing flow within each operation.
4. Specify the databases and files and identify the classes that are involved in handling them
5. Describe the behavioural representation for the class.
6. Design the deployment diagram fro providing additional implementation.
7. Factor the component level design.

8. Find out alternative design solutions as well.

 Review Question
1. Explain the guidelines of component level design.
SPPU : Dec.-17, End Sem, Dec.-18, End Sem, Marks 5

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4.11 Component Level Design for Web Apps


Following are some tasks of modern web application -
1. Carry out various processing activities for generating the web contents.
2. Improve navigation capability in dynamic order.
3. Establish data interfaces with external corporate system.
4. Provide computation or data processing capability.
5. Provide the mechanism for database query processing and handling.
These tasks can be accomplished by designing and constructing the program components
that are identical in the form to software component for conventional software.

4.11.1 Content Design at the Component Level

 During the content design at the component level, the focus is on two things - i) Content
objects and ii) The way the content objects are packaged for presentation to the end user.
 At the component level, the content design need to focus on the characteristics of the
WebApps.
 It is necessary to organize the contents in such a way that the design manipulation and
reference could be easier.
 If the contents are highly dynamic, it becomes important to establish a clear structural
model that incorporates content components.

4.11.2 Functional Design at the Component Level

 Modern web applications provide various useful functionalities such as :


i) Processing of contents and navigation in dynamic fashion.
ii) Performing computations or data processing operations dynamically.
iii) Efficient query processing and access to database.
iv) Establishing data interfaces with external corporate systems.
 To achieve these functionalities, it is necessary to design and construct the functional
components of web applications.
 The Web contents and above mentioned functionalities are combined to create functional
architecture.
 A functional architecture is a representation of the functional domain of the
WebApplications and describes the key functional components in the WebApplications and
how these components interact with each other.

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Part II : Architectural Design

4.12 Software Architecture


4.12.1 What is Architecture ? SPPU : May-12, Marks 4

 The architectural design is the design process for identifying the subsystems making up the
system and framework for subsystem control and communication.
 The goal of architectural design is to establish the overall structure of software system.
Architectural design represents the link between design specification and actual design
process.
Software Architecture is a structure of systems which consists of various components,
externally visible properties of these components and the inter-relationship among these
components.

4.12.2 Why is Architecture Important ?

There are three reasons why the software architecture is so important ?


1. Software architecture gives the representation of the computer based system that is to be
built. Using this system model even the stakeholders can take active part in the software
development process. This helps in clear specification/understanding of requirements.
2. Some early design decisions can be taken using software architecture and hence system
performance and operations remain under control.
3. The software architecture gives a clear cut idea about the computer based system which is
to be built.

4.12.3 Structural Partitioning

The program structure can be partitioned horizontally or vertically.

Horizontal partitioning
 Horizontal partitioning defines separate branches of the modular hierarchy for each major
program function.
 Horizontal partitioning can be done by partitioning system into : Input, data transformation
(processing) and output.
 In horizontal partitioning the design making modules are at the top of the architecture.

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Fig. 4.12.1 Horizontal partitioning

Advantages of horizontal partition


1. These are easy to test, maintain and extend.
2. They have fewer side effects in change propagation or error propagation.
Disadvantage of horizontal partition
More data has to be passed across module interfaces which complicate the overall control
of program flow.
Vertical partitioning
Vertical partitioning suggests the control and work should be distributed top-down in
program structure. (Refer Fig. 4.12.2).

Fig. 4.12.2 Vertical partitioning

In vertical partitioning
 Define separate branches of the module hierarchy for each major function.
 Use control modules to co-ordinate communication between functions.

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Advantages of vertical partition


1. These are easy to maintain the changes.
2. They reduce the change impact and error propagation.
4.12.4 Difference between Horizontal and Vertical Partition

Horizontal partitioning Vertical partitioning


Horizontal partitioning can be done by Vertical partitioning suggests the control and work
partitioning system into: input, data should be distributed top-down in program
transformation (processing), and output. structure.
This kind of partitioning have fewer side Vertical partitioning define separate branches of
effects in change propagation or error the module hierarchy for each major function.
propagation. Hence these are easy to maintain the changes.

 Review Questions
1. Explain software architecture as a concept of software design. SPPU : May-12, Marks 4
2. What do you mean by software architecture? Explain with suitable example.
SPPU : April-16, In Sem, Marks 4

4.13 Architectural Styles SPPU : Dec.-11,12, May-12, Marks 8

4.13.1 Architectural Styles

 The architectural model or style is a pattern for creating the system architecture for given
problem. However, most of the large systems are heterogeneous and do not follow single
architectural style.
 System categories define the architectural style
1. Components : They perform a function.
For example : Database, simple computational modules, clients, servers and filters.
2. Connectors : Enable communications. They define how the components
communicate, co-ordinate and co-operate.
For example : Call, event broadcasting, pipes
3. Constraints : Define how the system can be integrated.
4. Semantic models : Specify how to determine a system’s overall properties from the
properties of its parts.
 The commonly used architectural styles are
1. Data centered architectures. 2. Data flow architectures.
3. Call and return architectures. 4. Object oriented architectures.
5. Layered architectures.

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4.13.1.1 Data Centered Architectures


In this architecture the data
store lies at the centre of the
architecture and other
components frequently access it
by performing add, delete and
modify operations. The client
software requests for the data to
central repository. Sometime the
client software accesses the data
from the central repository
without any change in data or
without any change in actions of Fig. 4.13.1 Data centered architecture
software actions.
Data centered architecture posses the property of interchangeability. Interchangeability
means any component from the architecture can be replaced by a new component without
affecting the working of other components.
In data centered architecture the data can be passed among the components.
In data centered architecture,
Components are : Database elements such as tables, queries.
Communication are : By relationships
Constraints are : Client software has to request central data store for information.
4.13.1.2 Data Flow Architectures
In this architecture series of transformations are applied to produce the output data. The set
of components called filters are connected by pipes to transform the data from one component
to another. These filters work independently without a bothering about the working of
neighbouring filter.

Fig. 4.13.2 Pipes and filters

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If the data flow degenerates into a single line of transforms, it is termed as batch
sequential.

Fig. 4.13.3 Batch sequential

In this pattern the transformation is applied on the batch of data.


Comparison between Data Flow and Data Center Architecture

Data flow architecture Data centered architecture


In this architecture series of transformations are In this architecture the data store lies at the
applied to produce output data. center of the architecture and other components
frequently access it by performing add, delete,
and modify operations.
In this architecture the set of components are In data centered architecture the components
called filters and are connected by pipes to are the database elements such as tables and
transform data from one component to another. queries. And the communication among these
components takes place with the help of
relationship.
The filters normally work independently The components of this architecture perform
without bothering about working of with the central repository without affecting the
neighboring filter. working of other components.

4.13.1.3 Call and Return Architecture

 The program structure can be easily modified or scaled. The program structure is organized
into modules within the program. In this architecture how modules call each other. The
program structure decomposes the function into control hierarchy where a main program
invokes number of program components.
 In this architecture the hierarchical control for call and return is represented.

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Fig. 4.13.4 Call and return architecture

4.13.1.4 Object Oriented Architecture

 In this architecture the system is decomposed into number of interacting objects.


 These objects encapsulate data and the corresponding operations that must be applied to
manipulate the data.
 The object oriented decomposition is concerned with identifying objects classes, their
attributes and the corresponding operations. There is some control models used to co-
ordinate the object operations.

Fig. 4.13.5 Object oriented architecture

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4.13.1.5 Layered Architecture

 The layered architecture is composed of different layers. Each layer is intended to perform
specific operations so machine instruction set can be generated. Various components in
each layer perform specific operations.
 The outer layer is responsible for performing the user interface operations while the
components in the inner layer perform operating system interfaces.
 The components in intermediate layer perform utility services and application software
functions.

Fig. 4.13.6 Layer architecture of component

4.13.2 Architectural Patterns

In this section we will understand what are architectural patterns ? The architectural
pattern is basically an approach for handling behavioural characteristics of software systems.
Following are the architectural pattern domains
1. Concurrency
Concurrency means handling multiple tasks in parallel. For example in operating system,
multiple tasks are executed in parallel. Hence concurrency is a pattern which represents
that the system components can interact with each other in parallel. The benefit of this
pattern is that system efficiency can be achieved.

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2. Persistence
Continuity in the data can be maintained by the persistence pattern. In other words the data
used in earlier execution can be made available further by storing it in files or in
databases. These files/databases can be modified in the software system as per the need. In
object oriented system the values of all attributes various operations that are to be
executed are persistent for further use. Thus broadly there are two patterns.
i) Database management pattern ii) Application level pattern.

3. Distribution
Distribution pattern refers to the way in which the system components communicate with
each other in distributed systems. There are two major problems that occur in distribution
pattern
 The nature of interconnection of the components
 The nature of communication
These problems can be solved by other pattern called broker pattern. The broker pattern
lies between server and client components so that the client server communication can be
established properly. When client want some service from server, it first sends message to
broker. The broker then conveys this message to server and completes the connection.
Typical example is CORBA. The CORBA is a distributed architecture in which broker
pattern is used.

 Review Questions
1. Explain data centered and layered architectures with neat diagrams.
SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8
2. Explain any 3 architecture styles. SPPU : May-12, Marks 6
3. Explain in brief call and return architecture. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 4
4. What are different architectural styles exist for software ? Explain any one software
architecture in detail. SPPU : April-16, In Sem, Marks 4
5. Explain in detail data-centered architectural style. SPPU : May-18, End Sem, Marks 5
6. Explain layered architecture style with neat diagrams. SPPU : Dec.-18, End Sem, Marks 5
7. Explain in detail call and return architectural style. SPPU : May-19, End Sem, Marks 5

4.14 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1 ____ is a process of translating analysis model into design model.


a Software designing b Coding
c Requirements gathering d All of the above

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Q.2 A _______ is a named collection of data that describes a data object.


a Data encapsulation b Data abstraction
c Data hiding d None of these
Q.3 In ____ coupling the global variables are used.
a stamp b data
c common d content
Q.4 ____ and ___ are two qualitative criteria used for functional independence.
a Cohesion, coupling b Abstraction, refinement
c Data hiding and encapsulation d None of these
Q.5 The goal of good design is ____ cohesion and ___ coupling
a low high b high, low
c low, low d high, high
Q.6 Which of the following is a tool in design phase ?
a Abstraction b Refinement
c Information hiding d All of the above
Q.7 Information hiding is to hide information from user ____.
a that is relevant to him
b that is irrelevant to him
c that can be maliciously handled by him
d none of these
Q.8 Design phase includes _____.
a data, architectural and procedural designs only
b architectural, procedural and interface design only
c data, architectural and interface design only
d data, architectural interface and procedural design only
Q.9 _____ incorporates data, architectural, interface and procedural representations of the
software.
a Design model b User's model
c System image d All of these

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Q.10 What is the meaning of functional cohesion ?


a Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in same procedures.
b All operations that access the same data are defined within one class.
c All operations that access the data from outside the module.
d None of the above.
Q.11 Which is the worst type of coupling ?
a Control coupling b Data coupling
c Content coupling d Stamp coupling
Q.12 Stepwise refinement is _____ strategy suggested by Niklaus WIRTH.
a top down b bottom up
c either top down or bottom up
Q.13 Commonly used architectural styles are ________.
a data centered architecture b data flow architecture
c call and return architecture d all of these
Q.14 During architectural design at the initial stage ___ is prepared.
a use case diagram b context model
c component diagram d none of these
Q.15 Control systems may make use of the environmental control pattern, which is a general
control pattern that includes _________processes.
a sensor b actuator
c pipeline d both sensor and actuator
Q.16 A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.
a physical b logical
c process d all of the mentioned
Q.17 Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or
object classes ?
a Physical b Development
c Logical d Process

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Q.18 _________ is an indication of the relative functional strength of a module.


a Coupling b Cohesion
c Coordination d Quality
Q.19 Coupling is a measure of _____.
a relative functional strength b interdependence among module
c both of the above d none of the above
Q.20 ________ classes represent data stores.
a Process b User interface
c System d Persistent
Q.21 UML is mainly used for ___ design.
a functional design b web design
c structural design d object oriented design

Answer Keys for Multiple Choice Questions :

Q.1 a Q.2 b Q.3 c Q.4 a

Q.5 b Q.6 d Q.7 c Q.8 d

Q.9 a Q.10 a Q.11 c Q.12 a

Q.13 d Q.14 b Q.15 d Q.16 a

Q.17 c Q.18 b Q.19 b Q.20 d

Q.21 d



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Notes

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UNIT - V

5 Risk and Configuration


Management

Syllabus

Risk Management : Software Risks, Risk Identification, Risk Projection, Risk


Refinement, Risk Mitigation, Monitoring, and Management, The RMMM Plan.
Software Configuration Management : Software Configuration Management, The
SCM Repository The SCM Process, Configuration Management for any suitable
software system.

Contents
5.1 Introduction to Concept of Risk management
5.2 Reactive Vs. Proactive Risk Strategies .................... May-14 ............................. Marks 6

5.3 Software Risks ........................... Dec.-17 ................................................. Marks 6


5.4 Risk Identification ........................... May-13, 18, Dec.-13, 16, 18, 19 ........... Marks 8

5.5 Risk Projection ........................... May-11, 19............................................. Marks 8

5.6 Risk Refinement


5.7 Risk Mitigation, Monitoring and Management ........ May-12, 14, Dec.-19 ...... Marks 10

5.8 The RMMM Plan ............................................... May-18, Dec.-17,18, ........... Marks 6

5.9 Concept of Software Configuration Management Dec.-17, May-19 .............. Marks 8

5.10 The SCM Repository .......................... Dec.-17, 18, May-18 ............................... Marks 6

5.11 The SCM Process ........................... May-16, 18, 19, Dec.-18, 19 ................... Marks 8

5.12 Configuration Management for Any Suitable Software System

5.13 Multiple Choice Questions

(5 - 1)
Software Engineering 5-2 Risk and Configuration Management

Part I : Risk Management

5.1 Introduction to Concept of Risk management


 Definition of risk : The risk denotes the uncertainty that may occur in the choices due to
past actions and risk is something which causes heavy losses.
 Definition of risk management : Risk management refers to the process of making
decisions based on an evaluation of the factors that threats to the business.
 Various activities that are carried out for risk management are -
1. Risk identification
2. Risk projection
3. Risk refinement
4. Risk mitigation, monitoring and management.
5.2 Reactive Vs. Proactive Risk Strategies SPPU : May-14, Marks 6

Reactive and proactive risk strategies are the approaches used for managing the risks.

Reactive risk strategy


 Reactive risk management is a risk management strategy in which when project gets into
trouble then only corrective action is taken. But when such risks can not be managed and
new risks come up one after the other, the software team flies into action in an attempt to
correct problems rapidly. These activities are called “firefighting” activities.
 Resources are utilized to manage such risks. And if still the risks do not get managed then
project is in danger.
 In this strategy no preventive care is taken about the risks. They are handled only on their
occurrences.
 This is an older approach of risk management.

Proactive risk strategy


 Proactive risk management strategy begins before the technical activity by considering the
probable risk.
 In this strategy potential risks are identified first then their probability and impact is
analyzed. Such risks are then specified according to their priorities (i.e. high priority risks
should be managed first!). Finally the software team prepares a plan for managing these
risks.
 The objective of this strategy is to avoid the risks(prevention is better than cure!!!). But it

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Software Engineering 5-3 Risk and Configuration Management

is not possible to avoid all the risks, hence team prepares the risk management plan in such
a manner that risk controlling can done efficiently.
 This is an intelligent strategy for risk management and now a day it is used by most of the
IT industries.

 Review Question
1. What are the types of risks ? Explain in brief. SPPU : May-14, Marks 6

5.3 Software Risks SPPU : Dec.-17, Marks 6

There are two characteristics of the risks


1. The risk may or may not happen. It shows the uncertainty of the risks.
2. When risks occur, unwanted consequences or losses will occur.

Different types of risk


1. Project risk
Project risks arise in the software development process then they basically affect budget,
schedule, staffing, resources, and requirements. When project risks become severe then the
total cost of project gets increased.
2. Technical risk
These risks affect quality and timeliness of the project. If technical risks become reality
then potential design implementation, interface, verification and maintenance problems
gets created. Technical risks occur when problem becomes harder to solve.
3. Business risk
When feasibility of software product is in suspect then business risks occur. Business risks
can be further categorized as
i) Market risk - When a quality software product is built but if there is no customer for
this product then it is called market risk (i.e. no market for the product).
ii) Strategic risk - When a product is built and if it is not following the company’s
business policies then such a product brings strategic risks.
iii) Sales risk - When a product is built but how to sell is not clear then such a situation
brings sales risk.
iv) Management risk - When senior management or the responsible staff leaves the
organization then management risk occurs.
v) Budget risk - Losing the overall budget of the project is called budget risk.

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Software Engineering 5-4 Risk and Configuration Management

 Another categorization of risk proposed by Charette is -

Fig. 5.3.1 Categorization of risk

 Known risks are those risk that are identified after evaluating the project plan. These risks
can also be identified from other sources such as environment in which the product gets
developed, unrealistic dead lines, poor requirement specification and software scope. There
are two types of known risks - predictable and unpredictable risks.
 Predictable risks are those risks that can be identified in advance based on past project
experience. For example : Experienced and skilled staff leaving in between or
improper communication with customer resulting in poor requirement specification.
 Unpredictable risks are those risks that can not be guessed earlier.
For example certain changes in Government policies may affect the business project.

 Review Question
1. Explain various risk associated with software project. How they are managed ?
SPPU : Dec.-17, End Sem, Marks 6

5.4 Risk Identification SPPU : May-13, 18, Dec.-13, 16, 18, 19, Marks 8

Risk identification can be defined as the efforts taken to specify threats to the project
plan. Risks identification can be done by identifying the known and predictable risks.

The risk identification is based on two approaches


1. Generic risk identification - It includes potential threat identification to software project.
2. Product-specific risk identification - It includes product specific threat identification by
understanding people, technology and working environment in which the product gets
built.

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Software Engineering 5-5 Risk and Configuration Management

Normally the risk identification is done by the project manager who follows following
steps -

Step 1 : Preparation of risk item check list


The risk items can be identified using following known and predictable components
i) Product size - The risk items based on overall size of the software product is identified.
ii) Business impact - Risk items related to the marketplace or management can be predicted.
iii) Customer characteristics - Risks associated with customer-developer communication can
be identified.
iv) Process definition - Risks that get raised with the definition of software process. This
category exposes important risks items because whichever is the process definition made,
is then followed by the whole team.
v) Development environment - The risks associated with the technology and tool being used
for developing the product.
vi) Staff size and experience - Once the technology and tool related risks items are identified
it is essential to identify the risk associated with sufficient highly experienced and skilled
staff who will do the development.
vii) Technology to be built - complexity of the system should be understood and related risk
items needs to be identified.
After preparing a risk item checklist a questionnaire is prepared. These set of questions
should be answered and based on these answers the impact or seriousness of particular risk
item can be judged.

Step 2 : Creating risk components and drivers list.


The set of risk components and drivers list is prepared along with their probability of
occurrence. Then their impact on the project can be analysed.
Let us understand which are the risk components and drivers.

5.4.1 Risk Components and Drivers

U.S. Air force has written a guideline for risk identification which is based on
identification of risk component and risks drivers. It has suggested following types of risk
components -
1. Performance risk - It is the degree of uncertainty that the product will satisfy the
requirements
2. Cost risk - It is the degree of uncertainty that the project will maintain the budget.

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Software Engineering 5-6 Risk and Configuration Management

3. Support risk - It is the degree of uncertainty that the software project being developed will
be easy to correct, modify or adapt.
4. Schedule risk - It is the degree of uncertainty that the software project will maintain the
schedule and the project will be delivered in time.

Fig. 5.4.1 Components of risk

Associated with these components are the risk drivers that are used to analyse the impact
of risk. These four risk drivers are listed below
For the risk impact assessment a table is built in which impact of each risk driver on each
software component can be specified.

Fig. 5.4.2

5.4.2 How to Asses Overall Project Risk ?

The best approach is to prepare a set of questions that can be answered by project
managers in order to asses the overall project risks. These questions can be
1. Will the project get proper support by the customer manager ?
2. Are the end-users committed to the software that has been produced ?
3. Is there a clear understanding of requirements ?
4. Is there an active involvement of the customer in requirement definition ?
5. Is that the expectations set for the product are realistic ?
6. Is project scope stable ?
7. Are there team members with required skills ?
8. Are project requirements stable ?
9. Does the technology used for the software is known to the developers ?

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Software Engineering 5-7 Risk and Configuration Management

10. Is the size of team sufficient to develop the required product ?


11. Is that all the customers know the importance of the product/ requirements of the system to
be built ?
Thus the number of negative answers to these questions represents the severity of the
impact of the risk on overall project.

 Review Questions
1. Explain the risk identification and assessment process for a software project
SPPU : May-13, Dec.-13, Marks 8

2. What is risk identification? What are different categories of risk ?


SPPU : Dec.-16, End Sem, Marks 7

3. What is risk identification? What are various categories of risks ?


SPPU : May-18, Dec.-18, 19, End Sem, Marks 6

4. Explain risk identification and assessment process for software project.


SPPU : Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 6

5.5 Risk Projection SPPU : May-11, 19, Marks 8

The risk projection is also called risk estimation.

Fig. 5.5.1

The project planner, technical staff, project manager performs following steps to perform
following steps for risk projection -
 Establish a scale that indicates the probability of risk being real.
 Enlist the consequences of the risk.
 Estimate the impact of the risk on the project and product.
 Maintain the overall accuracy of the risk projection in order to have clear understanding of
the software that is to be built.
These steps help to prioritize the risks. Once the risks are prioritized then it becomes easy
to allocate the resources for handling them.

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Software Engineering 5-8 Risk and Configuration Management

5.5.1 Building Risk Table

1. Building the risk table is the simplest and most commonly used technique adopted by
project managers in order to project the risks. The sample risk table is as given below -

Risk table
Risk Category Probability Impact RMMM

Is the skilled staff available Staff 50 % Catastrophic

Is that the team size sufficient Staff 62 % Critical

Have the staff received sufficient training Staff 25 % Marginal

Will technology meet the expectations Technology 30 % Critical

Is the software management tool available Environment 40 % Negligible

How much amount of reused software is Project size 60 % Marginal


required?

Will customer change the requirement ? Customer 20 % Critical

While building the risk table


 The project team first of all enlists all probable risks with the help of risk item checklist.
 Each risk is then categorized. As we know various categories of risk can be a) Project size
b) Technology c) Customer d) Staff e) Business f) Developing environment.
 Probability of occurrence of each risk is then estimated by each team member individually.
 Then impact of each risk is assessed. While calculating the impact of each risk, each using
the cost drivers each component of risk (performance, cost, support, and schedule) is
assessed and it then averaged to quote the overall impact of particular risk.
2. After building this table it is then sorted by probability and impact. The high probability
and high impact risks will be at the top of the table. And low probability and low impact
risk will be at the bottom of the table. This arrangement of the table is called first-order
prioritization.
3. Then the project manager goes through this first-order prioritized risk table and draws a
horizontal line at some point in the table. This line is called cut off line. The risks table
above the cut off line is now considered for further risk analysis.
4. The risk table below the cut off line is again sorted and a second-order prioritization is
applied on this table.

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Software Engineering 5-9 Risk and Configuration Management

5. The risk table above the cut-off line is having the risks with high probability and high
impact and such risks should occupy the significant amount of management time.
6. All the risks that lie above the cut off line should be managed. Using Risk mitigation,
monitoring and management plan the last column of the risk table is filled up.

5.5.2 Assessing Risk Impact

 While assessing the risks impact three factors are considered


1) Nature of risk
2) Scope of the risk
3) Timing at which risk occurs.
 Nature of risk denotes the type or kind of risk. For example if software requirement is
poorly understood, the software processes gets poorly designed and ultimately it will create
a problem in unit testing.
 Scope of the risk means severity of the risk.
 And timing of risk means determining at which phase of software development life cycle
the risk will occur and how long it will persist.
U.S. Air Force has suggested following steps in order to determine the impact of risk -
1. The probability of all the components of risk (performance, cost, support and
schedule) is calculated and averaged.
2. Using risk drivers (catastrophic, critical, marginal, negligible) the impact of risk on
each components is determined.
3. Build the risk table and analyse the high impact, high probability risks.

Risk exposure
The risk exposure can be calculated by following formula
Risk Exposure = Probability of occurrence of risk × Cost
For example : Consider a software project with 77 percent of risk probability in which 15
components were developed from the scratch. Each component have on an average 500 LOC
and each LOC have an average cost of $10. Then the risk exposure can be calculated as ,
First of all we will compute
cost = Number of components*LOC*cost of each LOC
= 15*500*10=$75000
Then Risk Exposure = Probability of occurrence of risk × Cost
= 77 / 100 *75000
= $57750

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Software Engineering 5 - 10 Risk and Configuration Management

Thus risk exposure for each risk from risk table is calculated. The total risk exposure of all
risks helps in determining the final cost of the project.

 Review Questions
1. How risk projection is carried out risk table ? SPPU : May-11, Marks 8

2. How risk projection is carried out using risk table? SPPU : May-19, End Sem, Marks 5

5.6 Risk Refinement

Risk refinement is a process of specifying the risk in more detail. The risk refinement can
be represented using CTC format suggested by D.P.Gluch.
The CTC stands for condition-transition-consequence. The condition is first stated and
then based on this condition sub conditions can be derived. Then determine the effects of these
sub conditions in order to refine the risk. This refinement helps in exposing the underlying
risks. This approach makes it easier for the project manager to analyze the risk in greater
detail.
5.7 Risk Mitigation, Monitoring and SPPU : May-12, 14, Dec.-19, Marks 10
Management
RMMM stands for risk mitigation, monitoring and management. There are three issues
in strategy for handling the risk is
1. Risk avoidance
2. Risk monitoring
3. Risk management.

Risk mitigation
Risk mitigation means preventing the risks to occur(risk avoidance). Following are the
steps to be taken for mitigating the risks.
1. Communicate with the concerned staff to find of probable risk.
2. Find out and eliminate all those causes that can create risk before the project starts.
3. Develop a policy in an organization which will help to continue the project even though
some staff leaves the organization.
4. Everybody in the project team should be acquainted with the current development activity.
5. Maintain the corresponding documents in timely manner. This documentation should be
strictly as per the standards set by the organization.
6. Conduct timely reviews in order to speed up the work.

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Software Engineering 5 - 11 Risk and Configuration Management

7. For conducting every critical activity during software development, provide the additional
staff if required.

Risk monitoring

In risk monitoring process following things must be monitored by the project manager,
1. The approach or the behaviour of the team members as pressure of project varies.
2. The degree in which the team performs with the spirit of “team-work”.
3. The type of co-operation among the team members.
4. The types of problems that are occurring.
5. Availability of jobs within and outside the organization.
The project manager should monitor certain mitigation steps. For example.
If the current development activity is monitored continuously then everybody in the team
will get acquainted with current development activity.
The objective of risk monitoring is
1. To check whether the predicted risks really occur or not.
2. To ensure the steps defined to avoid the risk are applied properly or not.
3. To gather the information which can be useful for analyzing the risk.

Risk management
 Project manager performs this task when risk becomes a reality.
 If project manager is successful in applying the project mitigation effectively then it
becomes very much easy to manage the risks.
 For example, consider a scenario that many people are leaving the organization then if
sufficient additional staff is available, if current development activity is known to
everybody in the team, if latest and systematic documentation is available then any ‘new
comer’ can easily understand current development activity. This will ultimately help in
continuing the work without any interval.

 Review Questions
1. What is risk mitigation, monitoring and management (RMMM) ? Write a note on it.
SPPU : May-12, Marks 10
2. Write short note on : RMMM. SPPU : May-14, Marks 5
3. What is risk mitigation, monitoring, and management (RMMM)
SPPU : Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 5

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Software Engineering 5 - 12 Risk and Configuration Management

5.8 The RMMM Plan SPPU : May-18, Dec.-17,18, Marks 6

 The RMMM plan is a document in which all the risk analysis activities are described.
 Sometimes project manager includes this document as a part of overall project plan.
 Sometimes specific RMMM plan is not created, however each risk can be described
individually using risk information sheet.
 Typical template for RMMM plan or Risk information sheet can be,

Risk information sheet


Project name <enter name of the project for which risks can be identified>
Risk id <#> Date Probability Impact
<date at which <risk probability> <low/medium/high>
risk is identified >
Origin Assigned to
<the person who has identified the risk> <who is responsible for mitigating the risk>

Description
<Description of risk identified>

Refinement/Context
<associated information for risk refinement>

Mitigation/Monitoring
<enter the mitigation/monitoring steps taken>

Trigger/Contingency plan
<if risk mitigation fails then the plan for handling the risk>
Status
<Running status that provides a history of what is being done for the risk and changes in the risk.
Include the date the status entry was made>
Approval Closing date
<name and signature of person approving closure>. <date>

 The risk information sheet can be maintained by database systems.


 After documenting the risks using either RMMM plan or Risk information sheet the risk
mitigation, monitoring and analysis activities are stopped.

Example 5.8.1 In recent year, university has computerized its examination system by using
various software applications. Find out Risk involved in implementation and administration
you as software expert. Prepare RMMM Plan for the same. SPPU : Dec.-17, Marks 6

Solution : Refer section 5.8

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Software Engineering 5 - 13 Risk and Configuration Management

Risk Involved in Computerized examination system

Risks Probability Impact

Computer crash 70 % Catastrophic

Late delivery 30 % Critical

Technology will not meet expectations 20 % Catastrophic

Change in requirement 25 % Critical

Deviation from software engineering standards 10 % Marginal

Poor comments in code 20 % Negligible

Following is RMMM information for sample two risks mentioned above -


Risk : Computer Crash

Mitigation : The computer crash result in loss of data. Due to loss of data the online
examination system can not be delivered properly. Such a system will not be acceptable by the
customer.
Monitoring : While working on building of online examination system, the staff member
should always be aware of the stability of computing environment. Any changes in stability of
environment should be recognized and taken seriously.
Management : The lack of stable system is extremely hazardous to software development
team. If such unstable system is found then development team should cease work on the
system until the environment is made stable again.

Risk : Late Delivery

Mitigation : The cost associated with late delivery of online examination system is critical.
This result in rescheduling of online examination system.
Monitoring : Realistic schedule must be established for monitoring the project status.

Management : If the project cannot be delivered on time then the university can not conduct
the examination system properly. If it becomes apparent that the project will not be completed
on time, the only course of action available would be to request an extension to the deadline.

 Review Question
1. Explain RMMM plan with suitable example. SPPU : May-18, Dec.-18, End Sem, Marks 6

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Software Engineering 5 - 14 Risk and Configuration Management

Part II : Software Configuration Management

5.9 Concept of Software Configuration Management


SPPU : Dec.-17, May-19, Marks 8

Definition : Software configuration management is a set of activities carried out for


identifying, organizing and controlling changes throughout the lifecycle of computer
software.
 During the development of software change must be managed and controlled in order to
improve quality and reduce error.
 Hence Software Configuration Management is a quality assurance activity that is applied
throughout the software process.
 The origins of changes that are requested for software are -
1. New business or market positions cause the changes in the requirements. Due to which
the changes need to occur.
2. New stakeholders may require some changes in the existing requirements.
3. Due to business growth or project extension, it is essential to makes changes in the
project.
4. Sometimes due to schedule or budge constraints, changes are must in project.
 The software configuration management is concerned with managing evolving software
systems.
 Software configuration management is a set of tracking and control activities that begin
when a software development project begins and terminates when the software is taken out
of operation.

5.9.1 Goals in Change Management

 During software development process, various roles and tasks are involved.
 The goal of project manager is to ensure that the project is getting completed within given
schedule and budget. Hence project managers continuously track the progress of the
project.
 The configuration managers ensures that the changes in the projects is appropriately taking
place and the testing is conducted thoroughly after the modification in the project.
 The goal of software engineer is to work on the assigned module to produce efficient code
and error free code.
 Finally the customer uses the product, analyze it and may request for the change or find out
the bugs.

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Software Engineering 5 - 15 Risk and Configuration Management

5.9.2 Elements of Configuration Management System

Susan Dart identified four important elements for software configuration management
system. These elements are -

Fig. 5.9.1 Elements of SCM


1. Component Elements : It consists of collection of tools that are used for file management
system. For example - databases.
2. Process Elements : It consists of actions and tasks used during change management and
use of software.
3. Construction Elements : It is a collection of tools that automate the construction of
software.
4. Human Elements : It consists of set of tools that are used by software team to implement
software configuration management.

5.9.3 Baselines

 The IEEE (IEEE Std. No. 610.12-1990) defines a baseline as :


 A specification or product that has been formally reviewed and agreed upon, that
thereafter serves as the basis for further development, and that can be changed only
through formal change control procedures.
 A baseline is a milestone in the development of software that is marked by the delivery of
one or more software configuration items and the approval of them is obtained through
formal technical review.
 The baseline is the shared project database. It is an SCM task to maintain the integrity of
the set of artifacts.
 The elements of a design model have been first documented and reviewed. From this design
model errors are identified and corrected. Once all parts of the model have been reviewed,
corrected and then approved, the design model becomes a baseline.

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Software Engineering 5 - 16 Risk and Configuration Management

 Following figure represents the common software baseline.


Step 1 : The Software engineering task produce one or more SCIs.

Fig. 5.9.2 Software baseline

Step 2 : These SCIs are then reviewed and approved.


Step 3 : These are then placed in project database or project library.
Step 4 : When software engineer wants to make changes to baselined SCI, it is copied to
software engineers private workspace.
Step 5 : The extracted SCI is modified only if SCM controls are followed.

5.9.4 Software Configuration Items

 Software configuration item is basically the information that is created as a part of


software engineering process.
 Examples of Software Configuration Items are
 Computer programs
- Source programs
- Executable programs
 Documents describing the programs
- Technical manual
- Users manual

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Software Engineering 5 - 17 Risk and Configuration Management

 Data
- Program components or functions
- External data
- File structure
 For each type of item, there may be a large number of different individual items produced.
For instance there may be many documents for a software specification such as project
plan, quality plan, test plan, design documents, programs, test reports, review reports.
 These SCI or items will be produced during the project, stored, retrieved, changed, stored
again, and so on.
 Each configuration item must have a unique name, and a description or specification which
distinguishes it from other items of the same type.

 Review Questions
1. What are the elements that exist when an effective SCM system is implemented? Discuss
each briefly. SPPU : Dec.-17, End Sem, Marks 6

2. What do you understand by Software Configuration management(SCM)? Discuss the


importance of SCM. SPPU : May-19, End Sem, Marks 8

5.10 The SCM Repository SPPU : Dec.-17, 18, May-18, Marks 6

 Software configuration Items (SCI) are maintained in project repository or project library.
 The software repository is basically a database that acts as a center for both accumulation
and storage for software engineering information.
 The software engineer interacts with repository using tools that are integrated within it.

5.10.1 Role of Project Repository

 Software repository is a collection of information accessed by software engineers to make


appropriate changes in it.
 This repository is handled using all the modern database management functions.
 It must maintain important properties such as data integrity, sharing and integration.
 The repository must maintain uniform structure and format for software engineering work
products.
 To achieve these capabilities, the repository is defined in terms of meta-model. The meta
model determines -
i) How information is stored in repository ?

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Software Engineering 5 - 18 Risk and Configuration Management

ii) How data can be accessed by using the tool ?


iii) How the security and integrity of the data is maintained ?
iv) How the existing model can be extended to accommodate new requirements ?

5.10.2 Features

The Software Configuration Management can be performed by interacting with repository.


The repository must have toolset that provides support for following features –
1. Versioning : As project progresses various versions of individual work products may get
created. The repository must be able to maintain all these versions and permit the
developer to go back to previous versions during testing and debugging.
2. Dependency Tracking and Change Management : The data elements stored in the
repository are related to each other. The repository must have an ability to keep track of
these relationship and to maintain data integrity.
3. Requirements Tracing : If the constructed components, its designed is tracked, then
particular requirement can be traced out. The repository must have this ability to trace the
requirement from constructed components.
4. Configuration Management : The repository must be able to keep track of series of
configurations representing project milestones and production releases.
5. Audit Trails : The audit trail

 Review Questions
1. What is software SCM repository? Explain the features of tool set supporting SCM
repository. SPPU : Dec.-17, 18, End Sem, Marks 6

2. Explain the SCM repository in detail. What are the advantages of SCM repository ?
SPPU : May-18, End Sem, Marks 6

5.11 The SCM Process SPPU : May-16, 18, 19, Dec.-18, 19, Marks 8

The primary objectives of Software Configuration Management process (SCM) are -


1. Configuration Identification : Identify the items that define the software configuration.
2. Change Control : Manage changes to one or more items.
3. Version Control : Facilitate to create different versions of the application.
4. Configuration Authentication : To ensure that the quality of the software is maintained
as the configuration evolves over the time.

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Software Engineering 5 - 19 Risk and Configuration Management

The SCM process must be developed in such a way that the software team must answer the
following set of questions -
1. How does the software team identify the software configuration items ?
2. How does the software team control the changes in the software before and after delivering
it to the customer ?
3. How does the software team manage the versions of the programs in the software
package ?
4. How does team get ensured that the changes are made properly ?
5. Who is responsible for approving the changes in the software ?
The answers to these questions lead the definition of five tasks of SCM and those are -
Identification, change control, version control and configuration audit and status reporting.

5.11.1 Identification of Objects in Software Configuration

The software configuration items must be separately named and identified as object.
 These objects must be arranged using object oriented approach.
 There are two categories of objects - basic objects and aggregate objects.
 The basic object is unit of information created during requirements analysis, design,
coding or testing. For example basic object can be part of source code.
 Aggregate object is a collection of basic objects and other aggregate objects. For example
SRS or data model can be aggregate object.
 Each object can be uniquely identified because it has got -
1. Name : The name of the object is nothing but the collection of characters (string) or
some text. It is unique.
2. Description : For describing the object, the object description can be given. This
description contains document, program or some other description such as project
identifier or version information.
3. List of resources : The resources are the entities that are used for accessing,
referencing and processing of objects. The data types and functionalities can serve as a
resource.
4. Realization or identification : It is pointer to object.
 The configuration object identification can also consider relationships that exist between
the named objects.
 If a change is made to one configuration object it is possible to determine which other
configuration objects in the repository are affected by the change.

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Software Engineering 5 - 20 Risk and Configuration Management

 Basically object evolve throughout the software process. During the process of object
identification the evolution of objects along with its process must be identified.
 Major modifications in the object must be noted.

5.11.2 Change Control

 Changes in any software projects are vital. Sometimes, introducing small changes in the
system may lead to big problems in product.
 Similarly, introducing some changes may enhance the capabilities of the system.
 According to James Bach too little changes may create some problems and too big changes
may create another problems.
 For a large software engineering project, uncontrolled change creates lot of chaos. For
managing such changes, human procedures or automated tools can be used.
 The change control process is shown by following Fig. 5.11.1 (See Fig. 5.11.1 on Next
page)
Step 1 : First of all there arises a need for the change.
Step 2 : The change request is then submitted by the user.
Step 3 : Developers evaluate this request to assess technical merits, potential side effects, and
overall impact on system functions and cost of the project.
Step 4 : A change report is then generated and presented to the Change Control Authority
(CCA).
Step 5 : The change control authority is a person or a group of people who makes a final
decision on status or priority of the change.
Step 6 : An Engineering Change Order (ECO) is generated when the change gets approved.
In ECO the change is described, the restrictions and criteria for review and audit are
mentioned.
Step 7 : The object that needs to be changed is checked out of the project database.
Step 8 : The changes are then made on the corresponding object and appropriate SQA
activities are then applied.
Step 9 : The changed object is then checked in to the database and appropriate version control
is made to create new version.
The checked in and checked out mechanisms require two important elements -
 Access control
 Synchronization control
The access control mechanism gives the authority to the software engineer to access and
modify the specific configuring object. The synchronization control mechanism allows to

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Software Engineering 5 - 21 Risk and Configuration Management

make parallel changes or the changes made by two different people without overwriting each
other's work.

5.11.3 Version Control

 Version is an instance of a system which is functionally distinct in some way from other
system instances.
 Version control works to help manage different versions of configuration items during the
development process.

Fig. 5.11.1 Change control process

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Software Engineering 5 - 22 Risk and Configuration Management

 The configuration management allows a user to specify the alternative configurations of the
software system by selecting appropriate version.
 Certain attributes are associated with each software version. These attributes are useful in
identifying the version. For example : The attribute can be ‘date’, ’creator’, ’customer’,
‘status’.
 In practice the version needs an associated name for easy reference.
 Different versions of a system can be shown by an evolution graph as shown in
Fig. 5.11.2.
 Each version of software system is a collection of software configuration items.

Fig. 5.11.2 Version numbering in evolution graph

5.11.4 Configuration Audit

 In order to ensure that the change has been properly implemented or not two activities are
carried out.
1. Formal Technical Review (FTR)
2. Software Configuration Audit
 In Formal Technical Review, the correctness of configuration object is identified and
corrected. It is conducted by technical reviewer.
 The software configuration audit assess the configuration object for the characteristics that
are not reviewed in formal technical review. It is conducted by software quality assurance
group.
 Following are some primary questions that are asked during configuration audit -
1. Whether FTR is conducted to assess the technical correctness ?
2. Whether or not the change specified by ECO has been made ?
3. If additional changes need to be made or not ?
4. Whether the software engineering standards are properly followed ?
5. Do the attributes of configuration objects reflect the change ?
6. Whether all the SCI are updated properly ?

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Software Engineering 5 - 23 Risk and Configuration Management

7. Whether the SCM process (object identification, change and version control,
configuration audit and status reporting) are properly followed ?
 The above questions can be asked as a part of formal technical review.

5.11.5 Status Reporting

The status reporting focuses on communication of changes to all people in an


organization that involve with changes.
During status reporting following type of questions were asked.
1. What happened ? : What are the changes that are required ?
2. Who did it ? : Who will be handling these changes ?
3. When did it happen ? : The time at which these changes are arised.
4. What else will be affected ? : The objects or part of the software that might be reflected
due to these changes.

 Review Questions
1. What is Software Configuration Management (SCM)? Explain the change control
mechanism in SCM. SPPU : May-16, End Sem, Marks 8

2. What are the layers of SCM process? Explain each in detail.


SPPU : May-18, 19, Dec.19, End Sem, Marks 6

3. What is software configuration management? Explain the change control mechanism in


software configuration management SPPU : May-16, Dec.-18, End Sem, Marks 6

4. Explain change control mechanism in SCM. SPPU : Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 5

5.12 Configuration Management for Any Suitable Software System

We will discuss the configuration management for web based applications.


5.12.1 Dominant Issues

The webapps get developed in a short span of time using customer driven approach. Hence
there are four major issues that need to be handled during configuration management for web
applications. These issues are -
1. Content :
 The typical web application contains text, graphics, scripts, audio/video files, forms,
active web pages and so on.
 There is a challenge to organize these contents into configurable objects and
establish control mechanism for these objects.

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Software Engineering 5 - 24 Risk and Configuration Management

2. People :
 Many times the contents for web apps are developed by the people having no software
engineering background. Such people are completely unaware of need for
configuration management.
 As a result changes are accommodated in the web app in an uncontrolled manner.

3. Scalability :
 The web app grow significantly with interconnections with information subsystems.
 As size and complexity grows the small changes are difficult to incorporate or these
changes may lead to problematic situations.
 Hence as the scalability of web apps grows, the configuration control mechanism need
to be rigorously applied.

4. Politics :
 There can be issues related to -
1. Responsibility for quality control of the web site before publishing the web site.
2. Responsibility about making changes.
3. Responsibility for accuracy of information on web page.
4. Responsibility for cost changes.
People who handle the above mentioned responsibilities adopt configuration management
process for web apps.

5.12.2 Content Management

 Content management is a process in which contents are organized, presented to the end user
and then displayed in client server
environment.
 The content management system is more useful
for handling dynamic web application.
 The content management is carried out with the
help of three subsystems - Fig. 5.12.1
1. Collection subsystem : Content
management system is responsible for
i) Converting the contents into the form represented by markup languages such as
HTML, XML and so on.
ii) Organized contents for client side display.

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Software Engineering 5 - 25 Risk and Configuration Management

Fig. 5.12.2 Content management system


2. Management Subsystem :
 The contents prepared in content management are stored in repository.
 The management subsystem implements the repository that contains following
elements -
1. Content database : It contains the information structure used for storing the data.
2. Database capabilities : It contains functionalities used for storing and retrieving
the data objects.
3. Configuration management functions : It includes functions related to version
control, change management, change auditing and reporting.
3. Publishing subsystem :
 The publishing subsystem comes in a picture when contents are ready to present on
client browsers.
 Various elements of publishing subsystem are -
i) static elements such as text, graphics, scripts.
ii) publication services that include the functionalities related to retrieval and
formatting of the contents.
iii) external services for accessing external infrastructure.

5.12.3 Change Management

 Each change in the change management is categorized into four classes -


o Class 1 : This type of content change while correcting the error enhances local
functions.
o Class 2 : This type of content change creates influence on other functional
component.

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Software Engineering 5 - 26 Risk and Configuration Management

o Class 3 : This type of content change causes major influence across the web
applications.
o Class 4 : This type of content change demand for major design change.
 The class 1 and class 2 changes are informally handled using agile method. For the class 2
changes the impact study is done.
 The class 3 changes are reviewed by developers.
 The class 4 changes are reviewed by developers and stakeholders.

5.12.4 Version Control

As the web app gets developed different versions exist at the same time. Version control is
a mechanism to manage these versions in appropriate manner.
The version control process is as follows -
Step 1 : There should be some central repository for the web app project. This repository
contains current versions of all web app configurable objects.
Step 2 : Each developer creates a working folder. This folder contains current object being
created or changed.
Step 3 : The clocks on all the workstations should be synchronized.
Step 4 : The new objects are developed or existing objects are changed.
Step 5 : When objects are imported or exported from the repository, an automatic log
messages can be generated.

5.12.5 Auditing and Reporting

 All objects that are checked into or out of the repository are recorded into log. This log can
be viewed at any time.
 In addition to that, automatic e-mail notification can be sent to developers when the objects
that are checked into or out of the repository.

5.13 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1 What is risk ?


a Negative consequence that could occur
b Negative consequence that will occur
c Negative consequence that must occur
d Negative consequence that shall occur

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Software Engineering 5 - 27 Risk and Configuration Management

Q.2 Risk management is a responsibility of the _________.


a customer b investor
c developer d project team
Q.3 The goal of quality assurance is to provide management with the data needed to
determine which software engineers are producing the most defects.
a True b False
Q.4 The problem that threatens the success of a project but which has not yet happened is a
____.
a bug b error
c risk d failure
Q.5 _____________risks threaten the quality and timeliness of the software to be built.
a Business risk b Project risk
c Technical risks d Management risk
Q.6 Firefighting activities are associated with _____.
a reactive risk strategy b proactive risk strategy
c both a and b d none of these
Q.7 If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as _____.
a RE = P/L b RE = P + L
c RE = P*L d RE = 2* P *L
Q.8 Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics ?
a Uncertainty and Loss b Certainty and Profit
c Staff size and Budget d Project deadline and Budget
Q.9 When senior management or responsible staff leaves the organization then following type
of risk occurs ______.
a management risk b technical risk
c project risk d all of these
Q.10 When risk is associated with hardware or software technology then following type of risk
occurs ______.
a management risk b technical risk
c project risk d all of these

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Software Engineering 5 - 28 Risk and Configuration Management

Q.11 RE represents ______ .


a Risk Expense b Related Expense
c Risk Exposure d Risk Evaluation
Q.12 Non-conformance to software requirements is known as ______.
a software availability b software reliability
c software failure d all of the above
Q.13 ________ is the process, which controls the changes made to a system and manages the
different versions of the software project.
a Software maintenance b Configuration management
c Software re-engineering d Software refactoring
Q.14 _____ process involve technical change analysis, cost benefit analysis and change
tracking.
a Release management b Version management
c Change management d Configuration management
Q.15 _______ is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change.
a Baseline b Procedure
c Audit d None of the above
Q.16 Which of the following task is not part of software configuration management ?
a Change control b Reporting
c Statistical quality control d Version control
Q.17 What is the main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM) ?
a Identify change b Control change
c Ensure that change is being properly implemented
d All of the above

Answer Keys for Multiple Choice Questions :

Q.1 a Q.2 d Q.3 b Q.4 c


Q.5 c Q.6 a Q.7 c Q.8 a
Q.9 a Q.10 b Q.11 c Q.12 c
Q.13 b Q.14 c Q.15 a Q.16 c
Q.17 d


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UNIT - VI

6 Software Testing

Syllabus

A Strategic Approach to Software Testing, Verification and Validation, Organizing for


Software Testing, Software Testing Strategy - The Big Picture, Criteria for Completion
of Testing, Strategic Issues, Test Strategies for Conventional Software, Unit Testing,
Integration Testing, Test Strategies for Object-Oriented Software, Unit Testing in the OO
Context, Integration Testing in the OO Context, Test Strategies for WebApps, Validation
Testing, Validation-Test Criteria, Configuration Review.

Contents
6.1 Fundamental Concepts of Testing .................. May-14, 16, Dec.-19 ................ Marks 9
6.2 A Strategic Approach to Software Testing ...... Dec.-12, 13, 18,
..................................... May-16, 18, 19......................... Marks 8
6.3 Organizing for Software Testing
6.4 Criteria for Completion of Testing
6.5 Strategic Issues
6.6 Testing Strategies for Conventional Software May-11, 13, 14, 16, 18
.............................. Dec.-11, 12, 13, 17, 19 .................... Marks 8
6.7 Testing Strategies for Object Oriented Software .......... May-12, 13 .................. Marks 6
6.8 Test Strategies for Web Apps
6.9 Validation Testing ..................................... May-19, Dec.-19 ........................ Marks 4
6.10 Types of Testing
6.11 White Box Testing ................ Dec.-11,12, 16, May-11,12,13,14,16 ............. Marks 8
6.12 Black Box Testing ..................................... Dec.-11 ..................................... Marks 6
6.13 Comparison between Black Box and White Box Testing ........Dec.-12 .............. Marks 4
6.14 Multiple Choice Questions

(6 - 1)
Software Engineering 6-2 Software Testing

6.1 Fundamental Concepts of Testing SPPU : May-14, 16, Dec.-19 Marks 9

Definition : Software testing is a critical element of software quality assurance and


represents the ultimate review of specification, design and coding.
The purpose of software testing is to ensure whether the software functions appear to be
working according to specifications and performance requirements.

6.1.1 Testing Objectives

According to Glen Myers the testing objectives are


1. Testing is a process of executing a program with the intend of finding an error.
2. A good test case is one that has high probability of finding an undiscovered error.
3. A successful test is one that uncovers an as-yet undiscovered error.
The major testing objective is to design tests that systematically uncover types of errors
with minimum time and effort.

6.1.2 Testing Principles

Every software engineer must apply following testing principles while performing the
software testing.
1. All tests should be traceable to customer requirements.
2. Tests should be planned long before testing begins.
3. The Pareto principle can be applied to software testing - 80 % of all errors uncovered
during testing will likely be traceable to 20 % of all program modules.
4. Testing should begin “in the small” and progress toward testing “in the large”.
5. Exhaustive testing is not possible.
6. To be most effective, testing should be conducted by an independent third party.

6.1.3 Why Testing is Important ?

 Generally, testing is a process that requires more efforts than any other software
engineering activity.
 Testing is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
 If it is conducted haphazardly, then only time will be wasted and more even worse errors
may get introduced.

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Software Engineering 6-3 Software Testing

 This may lead to have many undetected errors in the system being developed. Hence
performing testing by adopting systematic strategies is very much essential in during
development of software.

 Review Questions
1. What is importance of testing practices ? What are the principles of testing practices ?
SPPU : May-14, Marks 8

2. What are the main objectives of software testing and what are the principles of software
testing ? SPPU : May-16, End Sem, Marks 9,Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 5

6.2 A Strategic Approach to Software Testing


SPPU : Dec.-12, 13, 18, May-16, 18, 19 Marks 8

 A testing strategy provides a process that describes for the developer, quality analysts and
the customer the steps conducted as part of testing. The testing strategy includes
 Test planning
 Test case design
 Test execution
 Data collection
 Effectiveness evaluation.
 The strategic approach for software testing can be -
1. Just before starting the testing process the formal technical reviews must be
conducted. This will eliminate many errors before the actual testing process.
2. At the beginning, various components of the system are tested, then gradually each
interface is tested and thus the entire computer based system is tested.
3. Different testing techniques can be applied at different point of time.
4. The developer of the software conducts testing. For the large projects the
Independent Test Groups (ITG) also assist the developers.
5. Testing and debugging are different activities that must be carried out in software
testing.
6. Debugging also lies within any testing strategy.
 There are two levels specified in the testing strategy and those are low level and high level.
The low level tests that are necessary to verify that small source code segment has been
correctly implemented. Similarly the high level tests should be conducted that validate
major system functions against customer requirements.

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Software Engineering 6-4 Software Testing

 Who are involving software testing ?


 Software developers
 Testers (test engineers) in Independent Test Group (ITG)
 SQA group i.e. Software Quality Assurance group.

6.2.1 Verification and Validation

 Verification refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a
specific function.
 Validation refers to a different set of activities that ensure that the software that has been
built is traceable to customer requirements.
 According to Boehm
Verification : "Are we building the product right ?"
Validation : "Are we building the right product ?"
 Software testing is only one element of Software Quality Assurance (SQA).
 Quality must be built into the development process, you can't use testing to add quality after
the fact.
 Verification and validation involve large number of software quality assurance activities
such as -
 Formal technical reviews
 Quality and configuration audits
 Performance monitoring
 Feasibility study
 Documentation review
 Database review
 Algorithmic analysis
 Development testing
 Installation testing

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Software Engineering 6-5 Software Testing

Difference between Verification and Validation

Sr. No. Verification Validation


1. Verification refers to the set of activities Validation refers to the set of activities
that ensure software correctly implements that ensure that the software that has been
the specific function. built is traceable to customer
requirements.
2. After a valid and complete specification Validation begins as soon as project starts.
the verification starts.
3. Verification is for prevention of errors. Validation is for detection of errors.
4. Verification is conducted using reviews, Validation is conducted using system
walkthroughs, inspections and audits. testing, user interface testing and stress
testing.
5. Verification is also termed as white box Validation can be termed as black box
testing or static testing as work product testing or dynamic testing as work product
goes through reviews. is executed.
6. Verification finds about 50 to 60 % of the Validation finds about 20 to 30 % of the
defects. defects.
7. Verification is based on the opinion of Validation is based on the fact and is often
reviewer and may change from person to stable.
person.
8. The verification verifies the problem The validation validates the requirements,
statements, decisions taken during the functionalities and features of the product.
development and execution paths.
9. Verification is about process, standard and Validation is about the product.
guideline.

 Review Questions
1. Explain the strategic approach to software testing. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 6

2. What is software testing ? Explain the software testing strategy for software development.
SPPU : Dec.-13,18, May-19, Marks 8

3. Differentiate between verification and validation.


SPPU : Dec.-13, May-16, 18, End Sem, Marks 4

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Software Engineering 6-6 Software Testing

6.3 Organizing for Software Testing

 Testing needs to be conducted from the beginning of the software development process.
 It is desired that the software developer should test the individual unit of software system
for its proper functioning. This is called unit testing. That means, there must be an
involvement of software developers for unit testing activities.
 In many cases, the software developers also perform the integration testing. Thus the
complete software architecture is been tested by the software developers during
development phases.
 Then the independent test group(ITG) gets involved in the software testing activity.
 The role of ITG is to remove other inherent problems and conflicts associated with the
software system.
 The software developers and the ITG work together to remove all possible errors from the
software system and a thorough testing must be performed.
 While testing is conducted, the developer must be available to correct errors that are
uncovered.
 The ITG is part of the software development project team in the sense that it becomes
involvedduring analysis and design and stays involved throughout a large project.
 In many cases, the ITG reports to software quality assurance organization so that the
independent testing can be performed.

6.4 Criteria for Completion of Testing

Entry criteria

 Software testing should start early in the Software Development Life Cycle. This helps to
capture and eliminate defects in the early stages of SDLC i.e requirement gathering and
design phases.
 An early start to testing helps to reduce the number of defects and ultimately the rework
cost in the end.
 Definition : Entry criteria for testing can be defined as “Specific conditions or on-going
activities that must be present before a process can begin.” The Software Testing Life Cycle
(STLC) specifies the entry criteria required during each testing phase.

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Software Engineering 6-7 Software Testing

 It also defines the time interval or the expected amount of lead-time to make the entry
criteria item available to the process.
 Following are the inputs necessary for the entry criteria –
o The requirements documents
o Complete understanding of the application flow
o Test plan

Exit criteria

 Definition : It can be defined as “The specific conditions or on-going activities that should
be fulfilled before completing the software testing life cycle.”
 The exit criteria can identify the intermediate deliverables.
 The following exit criteria should be considered for completion of a testing phase:
o Ensuring all critical Test Cases are passed
o Achieving complete Functional Coverage
o Identifying and fixing all the high-priority defects
 The output achieved through exit criteria are –
o Test summary report
o Test logs

6.5 Strategic Issues

 Before the testing starts, Specify product requirements appropriately - Certain quality
characteristics of the software such as maintainability, portability and usability should be
specified in order to obtain the unambiguous test results.
 Specify testing objectives clearly - Testing objectives such as effectiveness, mean time to
failure and cost of defects should be stated clearly in the test plan.
 Identify categories of users for the software and their role with reference to software
system - Use cases describe the interactions among different class of users and thereby
testing can focus on the actual use of the product.
 Develop a test plan that emphasizes rapid cycle testing - Test plan is an important
document which helps the tester to perform rapid cycle testing (2 percent of project effort).

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Software Engineering 6-8 Software Testing

 Build robust software which can be useful for testing - The software should be capable of
detecting certain classes of errors. Moreover, the software design should allow automated
testing and regression testing.
 Use effective formal reviews before actual testing process begins - Formal technical
reviews need to be conducted to uncover errors. The effective technical reviews conducted
before testing, reduce significant amount of testing efforts.
 Conduct formal technical reviews to assess the test strategy and test cases - The formal
technical review helps to detect any the lacuna in testing approach. Hence it is necessary to
assess the test strategy and test cases by technical reviewers to improve the quality of
software.
 Throughout the testing process adopt the continuous development strategy - The
measured test strategy should be used as part of statistical process control approach for
software testing.

6.6 Testing Strategies for Conventional Software


SPPU : May-11, 13, 14, 16, 18 Dec.-11, 12, 13, 17, 19 Marks 8

We begin by ‘testing-in-the-small’ and move toward ‘testing-in-the-large’.


Various testing strategies for conventional software are
1. Unit testing
2. Integration testing
3. Validation testing
4. System testing

1. Unit testing - In this type of testing techniques are applied to detect the errors from
each software component individually.
2. Integration testing - It focuses on issues associated with verification and program
construction as components begin interacting with one another.
3. Validation testing - It provides assurance that the software validation criteria
(established during requirements analysis) meets all functional, behavioural and
performance requirements.
4. System testing - In system testing all system elements forming the system is tested as
a whole.

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Software Engineering 6-9 Software Testing

Fig. 6.6.1 Testing strategy

6.6.1 Unit Testing

 In unit testing the individual components are tested independently to ensure their quality.
 The focus is to uncover the errors in design and implementation.
 The various tests that are conducted during the unit test are described as below.
1. Module interfaces are tested for proper information flow in and out of the program.
2. Local data are examined to ensure that integrity is maintained.
3. Boundary conditions are tested to ensure that the module operates properly at
boundaries established to limit or restrict processing.
4. All the basis (independent) paths are tested for ensuring that all statements in the
module have been executed only once.
5. All error handling paths should be tested.

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Software Engineering 6 - 10 Software Testing

Fig. 6.6.2 Unit testing

6. Drivers and stub software need to be developed to test incomplete software. The
“driver” is a program that accepts the test data and prints the relevant results. And the
“stub” is a subprogram that uses the module interfaces and performs the minimal data
manipulation if required. This is illustrated by following Fig. 6.6.3.

Fig. 6.6.3 Unit testing environment

7. The unit testing is simplified when a component with high cohesion (with one
function) is designed. In such a design the number of test cases are less and one can
easily predict or uncover errors.

6.6.1.1 Errors Identified during Unit Testing


Various data structure errors that can be identified during the unit testing are -
1. Incorrect arithmetic precedence.
2. Mixed mode operations.
3. Precision inaccuracy.
4. Comparison of different data types.

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Software Engineering 6 - 11 Software Testing

6.6.1.2 Driver and Stub

 Stubs and drivers are two such elements used in software testing process, which act as a
temporary replacement for a module.
 The driver and stubs are generally dummy
codes or fake codes that help to simulate the
behavior of existing code.
 The stubs and drives are specifically
developed to meet the necessary
requirements of the unavailable modules and
are useful in getting expected results.
 Generally driver and stubs are used in unit
Fig. 6.6.4 Driver and stub
testing or during integration testing.
 Stub
o These are dummy code.
o These are used in testing when lower level of code are not developed.
o To test the upper level of code the stubs are used.
o It just accepts the value from calling module and returns null value.
 Driver
o These are dummy code.
o These are used in testing when upper level of code is not developed.
o To test the lower level code the drivers are used.
o Basically we call the driver as main function which calls other modules to form
complete applications.

6.6.2 Integration Testing

 A group of dependent components are tested together to ensure their quality of their
integration unit.
 The objective is to take unit tested components and build a program structure that has been
dictated by software design.
 The focus of integration testing is to uncover errors in :
 Design and construction of software architecture.
 Integrated functions or operations at subsystem level.
 Interfaces and interactions between them.
 Resource integration and/or environment integration.

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Software Engineering 6 - 12 Software Testing

 The integration testing can be carried out using two approaches.


1. The non-incremental integration
2. Incremental integration

Fig. 6.6.5 Integration testing approach

 The non-incremental integration is given by the “big bang” approach. All components are
combined in advance. The entire program is tested as a whole. And chaos usually results. A
set of errors is tested as a whole. Correction is difficult because isolation of causes is
complicated by the size of the entire program. Once these errors are corrected new ones
appear. This process continues infinitely.
Advantage of big-bang : This approach is simple.
Disadvantages : 1. It is hard to debug.
2. It is not easy to isolate errors while testing.
3. In this approach it is not easy to validate test results.
4. After performing testing, it is impossible to form an integrated
system.
 An incremental construction strategy includes :
1. Top down integration
2. Bottom up integration
3. Regression testing
4. Smoke testing

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Software Engineering 6 - 13 Software Testing

6.6.2.1 Top Down Integration Testing


 Top down testing is an incremental approach in which modules are integrated by moving
down through the control structure.
 Modules subordinate to the main control module are incorporated into the system in either a
depth first or breadth first manner.
 Integration process can be performed using following steps.
1. The main control module is used as a test driver and the stubs are substituted for all
modules directly subordinate to the main control module.
2. Subordinate stubs are replaced one at a time with actual modules using either depth
first or breadth first method.
3. Tests are conducted as each module is integrated.
4. On completion of each set of tests, another stub is replaced with the real module.
5. Regression testing is conducted to prevent the introduction of new errors.
For example :
In top down integration if the depth first approach is adopted then we will start integration
from module M1 then we will integrate M2 then M3, M4, M5, M6 and then M7.
If breadth first approach is adopted then we will integrate module M1 first then M2, M6.
Then we will integrate module M3, M4, M5 and finally M7.

6.6.2.2 Bottom Up Integration Testing

In bottom up integration the modules at the lowest levels are integrated at first, then
integration is done by moving upward through the control structure.
The bottom up integration process can be carried out using following steps.
1. Low-level modules are combined into
clusters that perform a specific software
subfunction.
2. A driver program is written to co-ordinate test
case input and output.
3. The whole cluster is tested.
4. Drivers are removed and clusters are
combined moving upward in the program
structure.

Fig. 6.6.6 Program structure

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Software Engineering 6 - 14 Software Testing

For example :

Fig. 6.6.7 Bottom up integration testing

First components are collected together to form cluster 1 and cluster 2. Then each cluster is
tested using a driver program. The clusters subordinate the driver module. After testing the
driver is removed and clusters are directly interfaced to the modules.

6.6.2.3 Regression Testing

 Regression testing is used to check for defects propagated to other modules by changes
made to existing program. Thus regression testing is used to reduce the side effects of the
changes.
 There are three different classes of test cases involved in regression testing -
 Representative sample of existing test cases is used to exercise all software functions.
 Additional test cases focusing software functions likely to be affected by the change.
 Tests cases that focus on the changed software components.
 After product had been deployed, regression testing would be necessary because after a
change has been made to the product an error that can be discovered and it should be
corrected. Similarly for deployed product addition of new feature may be requested and
implemented. For that reason regression testing is essential.

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Software Engineering 6 - 15 Software Testing

6.6.2.4 Smoke Testing

 The smoke testing is a kind of integration testing technique used for time critical projects
wherein the project needs to be assessed on frequent basis.
 Following activities need to be carried out in smoke testing -
1. Software components already translated into code are integrated into a “build”. The
“build” can be data files, libraries, reusable modules or program components.
2. A series of tests are designed to expose errors from build so that the “build” performs
its functioning correctly.
3. The “build” is integrated with the other builds and the entire product is smoke tested
daily.

Smoke testing benefits


1. Integration risk is minimized.
2. The quality of the end product is improved.
3. Error diagnosis and correction are simplified.
4. Assessment of progress is easy.

6.6.3 System Testing

The system test is a series of tests conducted to fully the computer based system.
Various types of system tests are :
1. Recovery testing
2. Security testing
3. Stress testing
4. Performance testing
The main focus of such testing is to test
 System functions and performance.
 System reliability and recoverability (recovery test).
 System installation (installation test).
 System behaviour in the special conditions (stress test).
 System user operations (acceptance test/alpha test).
 Hardware and software integration and collaboration.
 Integration of external software and the system.

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Software Engineering 6 - 16 Software Testing

6.6.3.1 Recovery Testing

 Recovery testing is intended to check the system’s ability to recover from failures.
 In this type of testing the software is forced to fail and then it is verified whether the system
recovers properly or not.
 For automated recovery then reinitialization, checkpoint mechanisms, data recovery and
restart are verified.

6.6.3.2 Security Testing

 Security testing verifies that system protection mechanism prevent improper penetration or
data alteration.
 It also verifies that protection mechanisms built into the system prevent intrusion such as
unauthorized internal or external access or willful damage.
 System design goal is to make the penetration attempt more costly than the value of the
information that will be obtained.

6.6.3.3 Stress Testing

 Determines breakpoint of a system to establish maximum service level.


 In stress testing the system is executed in a manner that demands resources in abnormal
quantity, frequency or volume.
 A variation of stress testing is a technique called sensitivity testing.
 The sensitive testing is a testing in which it is tried to uncover data from a large class of
valid data that may cause instability or improper processing.

6.6.3.4 Performance Testing

 Performance testing evaluates the run time performance of the software, especially real
time software.
 In performance testing resource utilization such as CPU load, throughput, response time,
memory usage can be measured.
 For big systems (e.g. banking systems) involving many users connecting to servers (e.g.
using internet) performance testing is very difficult.
 Beta testing is useful for performance testing.

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Software Engineering 6 - 17 Software Testing

 Review Questions
1. What is system testing ? Explain any two system testing strategies.
SPPU : May-11, Marks 8

2. Explain the approaches in integration testing. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8

3. Differentiate between alpha and beta testing. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 4

4. What is unit testing ? Explain the unit testing process. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 8

5. Explain any two systems testing methods. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 6

6. What do you mean by acceptance testing ? SPPU : May-13, Marks 4

7. What is the need of stubs and drivers in software testing ? SPPU : Dec.-13, Marks 4

8. Explain the integration testing approaches. SPPU : Dec.-13, Marks 8

9. Explain in detail :
1) Top-down integration testing 2) Bottom-up testing. SPPU : May-14, Marks 8

10. Explain following testing types SPPU : May-14, Marks 8

1) Validation testing 2) Acceptance testing 3) Smoke testing process.


11. What do you understand by system testing ? What are the different kinds of system testing
that are usually performed on large software testing. SPPU : Dec.-17, End Sem, Marks 8
12. What is software testing ? Explain the software testing strategies for software development.
SPPU : May-18, End Sem, Marks 7

13. What is the need of stubs and drivers in software testing ?


SPPU : Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 5

14. What do you understand by integration testing ? Explain the objectives of integration
testing SPPU : May-16, Dec.-19, End Sem, Marks 6

6.7 Testing Strategies for Object Oriented Software


SPPU : May-12, 13, Marks 6

 The primary objective of testing for object oriented software is to uncover as much errors
as possible with manageable amount of efforts in realistic time span.
 The object oriented testing strategy is identical to conventional testing strategy. The
strategy is start testing in small and work outward to testing in large. The basic unit of
testing is class that contains attributes and operations. These classes integrate to form
object oriented architecture. These are called collaborating classes.

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Software Engineering 6 - 18 Software Testing

6.7.1 Unit Testing in OO Context

 Class is an encapsulation of data attributes and corresponding set of operations.


 The object is an instance of a class. Hence objects also specify some data attributes and
operations.
 In object oriented software the focus of unit testing is considered as classes or objects.
 However, operations within the classes are also the testable units. In fact in OO context the
operation can not be tested as single isolated unit because one operation can be defined in
one particular class and can be used in multiple classes at the same time. For example
consider the operation display(). This operation is defined as super class an at the same
time it can be used by the can be multiple derived classes. Hence it is not possible to test
the operation as single module.
 Thus class testing for OO software is equivalent to unit testing for conventional software. In
conventional software system, the algorithmic details and data that flow are units of testing
but in OO software the encapsulated classes and operations (that are encapsulated within
the class and state behavior of class) are the unit of testing.

6.7.2 Integration Testing in OO Context

 There are two strategies used for integration testing and those are -
1. Thread based testing 2. Use-based testing.
 The thread based testing integrates all the classes that respond to one input or event for
the system. Each thread is then tested individually.
 In use-based testing the
independent classes and
dependent classes are tested. The
independent classes are those
classes that uses the server
classes and dependant classes
are those classes that use the
independent classes. In use based
testing the independent classes
are tested at the beginning and
the testing proceeds towards Fig. 6.7.1 Integration testing in OO context
testing of dependent classes.
 Drivers and stub : In OO context the driver can be used to test operations at lowest level

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Software Engineering 6 - 19 Software Testing

and for testing whole group of classes. The stub can be used in the situations in which
collaborations of the classes is required and one collaborating class is not fully
implemented.
 The cluster testing is one step in integration testing in OO context. In this step all the
collaborating classes are tested in order to uncover the errors.
6.7.3 Difference between OO Testing Strategy and Conventional
Testing Strategy

 The testing strategies applied to conventional software are based on unit testing,
integration testing, validation testing and system testing. But in object oriented testing,
the unit testing loses some of its meaning and integration testing changes significantly.
 The object oriented testing strategy is also based on the principle - "test in small" and then
work "in the large".
1. Testing in the small involves class attributes and operations; the main focus is on
communication and collaboration within the class.
2. Testing in the large involves a series of regression tests to uncover errors due to
communication and collaboration among classes
Finally, the system as a whole is tested to detect errors in fulfilling requirements

 Review Questions
1. Explain object oriented testing. SPPU : May-12, Marks 3

2. How object oriented testing differs from conventional testing strategies ?


SPPU : May-13, Marks 6

6.8 Test Strategies for Web Apps

Testing strategy suggests to use following basic principles of software testing -


1. The content model must be reviewed in order to uncover the errors.
2. The interfaces model is reviewed to ensure all the use cases.
3. The design model is reviewed to uncover navigation errors.
4. User interface must be tested to remove the navigation errors.
5. For selected function components unit testing is done.
6. Navigation must be tested for the complete web architecture.
7. The web application is tested in different environmental configuration.
8. Security tests must be conducted to exploit vulnerabilities of the web application.

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Software Engineering 6 - 20 Software Testing

9. Performance of the web application must be tested using performance testing.


10. Finally controlled and monitored group of users must test the web application.
The web application evolves continuously and hence it is an on-going activity.

6.9 Validation Testing SPPU : May-19, Dec.-19, Marks 4

 The integrated software is tested based on requirements to ensure that the desired product is
obtained.
 In validation testing the main focus is to uncover errors in
- System input/output
- System functions and information data
- System interfaces with external parts
- User interfaces
- System behaviour and performance
 Software validation can be performed through a series of black box tests.
 After performing the validation tests there exists two conditions.
1. The function or performance characteristics are according to the specifications and
are accepted.
2. The requirement specifications are derived and the deficiency list is created. The
deficiencies then can be resolved by establishing the proper communication with the
customer.
 Finally in validation testing a review is taken to ensure that all the elements of software
configuration are developed as per requirements. This review is called configuration review
or audit.

6.9.1 Acceptance Testing

The acceptance testing is a kind of testing conducted to ensure that the software works
correctly in the user work environment.
The acceptance testing can be conducted over a period of weeks or months.
The types of acceptance testing are :
1. Alpha test - The alpha testing is a testing in which the version of complete software is
tested by the customer under the supervision of developer. This testing is performed at
developer’s site. The software is used in natural setting in presence of developer. This test
is conducted in controlled environment.

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Software Engineering 6 - 21 Software Testing

2. Beta test - The beta testing is a testing in which the version of software is tested by the
customer without the developer being present. This testing is performed at customer’s site.
As there is no presence of developer during testing, it is not controlled by developer. The
end user records the problems and report them to developer. The developer then makes
appropriate modification.

Difference between Alpha Testing and Beta Testing


Sr. No. Alpha testing Beta testing

1 Performed at developer‘s site Performed at end user‘s site

2 Performed in controlled environment Performed in uncontrolled environment as


as developer is present developer is not present

3 Less probability of finding of error as it High probability of finding of error as end


is driven by developers. user can use it the way he wants.

4 It is not considered as live application It is considered as live application

5 It is done during implementation phase It is done as pre-release of software


of software

6 Less time consuming as developer can More time consuming. As user has to
make necessary changes in given time. report bugs if any via appropriate channel.

6.9.2 Validation Test Criteria

 Validation is a technique, to evaluate whether the final built software product fulfils the
customer requirements.
 A test plan is created that contains the classes of tests to be conducted and test procedure
defines the specific tests to be conducted.
 After each validation testing one of the two possible conditions exists:
1) The function or performance characteristics conforms to specification and is accepted.
or
2) A deviation from specification is represented. In other words the list of requirements
that does not get fulfilled by the system is represented.

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Software Engineering 6 - 22 Software Testing

6.9.3 Configuration Review

 Configuration review is an important element of the validation process.


 The main purpose of this review is to ensure that all the elements of the software
configuration have been properly developed and catalogued.
 The configuration review is also called as audit.

 Review Question
1. Differentiate between alpha testing and beta testing.
SPPU : May-19, Dec.-19, End Sem,Marks 4

6.10 Types of Testing

There are two general approaches for the software testing.

1. Black box testing


The black box testing is used to demonstrate that the software functions are operational. As
the name suggests in black box testing it is tested whether the input is accepted properly and
output is correctly produced.
The major focus of black box testing is on functions, operations, external interfaces,
external data and information.

2. White box testing


In white box testing the procedural details are closely examined. In this testing the
internals of software are tested to make sure that they operate according to specifications and
designs. Thus major focus of white box testing is on internal structures, logic paths, control
flows, data flows, internal data structures, conditions, loops, etc.

6.11 White Box Testing SPPU : Dec.-11,12, 16, May-11,12,13,14,16, Marks 8

6.11.1 Basis Path Testing

In this method the procedural design using basis set of execution path is tested. This basis
set ensures that every execution path will be tested at least once.

6.11.1.1 Flow Graph Notation

Path testing is a structural testing strategy. This method is intended to exercise every
independent execution path of a program atleast once.

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Software Engineering 6 - 23 Software Testing

Following are the steps that are carried out while performing path testing.
Step 1 : Design the flow graph for the program or a component.
Step 2 : Calculate the cyclomatic complexity.
Step 3 : Select a basis set of path.
Step 4 : Generate test cases for these paths.
Let us discuss each in detail.

Step 1 : Design the flow graph for the program or a component.


Flow graph is a graphical representation of logical control flow of the program. Such a
graph consists of circle called a flow graph node which basically represents one or more
procedural statements and arrow called as edges or links which basically represent control
flow. In this flow graph the areas bounded by nodes and edges are called regions. Various
notations used in flow graph are (See Fig. 6.11.1 on next page) –

Fig. 6.11.1

For example : Following program is for searching a number using binary search method.
Draw a flow graph for the same.

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Software Engineering 6 - 24 Software Testing

void search (int key, int n, int a [ ])


{
int mid;
1) int bottom = 0;
2) int top = n – 1;
3) while (bottom <=top)
4) { mid = (top + bottom) / 2;
5) if (a [mid] = = key)
{
6) printf ("Element is present");
7) return;
} // end of if
else
{
8) if (a [mid] < key)
9) bottom = mid + 1;
else
10) top = mid – 1;
} // end of else
} // end of while
11) } // end of search
The flow graph will be

Fig. 6.11.2

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Software Engineering 6 - 25 Software Testing

Step 2 : Calculate the cyclomatic complexity.


The cyclomatic complexity can be computed by three ways.
1) Cyclomatic complexity = Total number of regions in the flow graph = 4 (note that in
above flow graph regions are given by shaded roman letters).
2) Cyclomatic complexity = E – N + 2 = 13 edges – 11 nodes + 2
=2+2=4
3) Cyclomatic complexity = P + 1 = 3 + 1 = 4. There are 3 predicate (decision making)
nodes : Nodes 3, 5 and 8.

Step 3 : Select a basis set of path


The basis paths are
Path 1 : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 11
Path 2 : 1, 2, 3, 11
Path 3 : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9, 3 …
Path 4 : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 10, 3 …

Step 4 : Generate test cases for these paths.


After computing cyclomatic complexity and finding independent basis paths, the test cases
has to be executed for these paths. The format for test case is -

Preconditions :

Test Test case Test case Test steps Test case status Test Defect
case id name description (Pass /Fail) priority severity
Step Expected Actual
1
2

The test case for binary search can be written as -


Precondition : There should be list of elements arranged in ascending order. The element
to be searched from the list, its value should be entered and will be stored in variable 'key'.

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Software Engineering 6 - 26 Software Testing

Test Test case Test case Test steps Test Test Test Defect
case id name description case status priority severity
status (P / F)
Step Expected Actu
al
1. Validating Checking Set bottom Initially
the list the = 0 top = n bottom Design
boundary bottom – 1 check < = top
and top if bottom < will be
values for = top by true. But
the list of while loop. during
elements This iterations
condition list's
defines the length
length of will be
the list reduced
from and if
which the entire list
key is gets
searched. scanned
at one
point
(bottom >
= top)
will be
reached
then
return to
main.
2. Checking Checking Set mid = If a[mid]
list if middle (top + = key Design
element element bottom) / 2 value then
with key. of array is Then print
equal to compare if message
key value a[mid] is "Element
equal to is
key. present"
and return
to main.
if a[mid] Set bottom The right
is < key = mid + 1 sublist Design
value if and then will be
a[mid] is goto searched.
> key "while" set The left
value top = mid sublist
+1 and go will be
back to searched
"while" for key
loop element

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Software Engineering 6 - 27 Software Testing

Example 6.11.1 Draw the flow graph for finding maximum of three numbers and derive the
testcases using cyclomatic complexity. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 8

Solution :
The flow graph for given program is - (From Fig. 6.11.3)

Fig. 6.11.3 Flow graph for finding maximum of three numbers

Cyclomatic complexity = E – N + 2 = 7 – 6 + 2 = 3
Cyclomatic complexity = P + 1 = 2 + 1 = 3
Cyclomatic complexity = Regions encountered = 3
Hence cyclomatic complexity of given program is 3.

6.11.1.2 Graph Matrices

Definition : Graph matrix is a square matrix whose size is equal to number of nodes of the
flow graph.
For example consider a flow graph -
The graph matrix will be
For computing the cyclomatic complexity. Following steps are adopted -
Step 1 : Create a graph matrix. Mark the corresponding entry as 1 if node A is connected to
node B.
Step 2 : Count total number of 1's from each row and subtract 1 from each corresponding row.

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Software Engineering 6 - 28 Software Testing

Fig. 6.11.4 Flow graph

Step 3 : Add cyclometic complexity.

the results of each row and add 1 to it. The resultant value is the cyclomatic complexity.

How to extend graph matrix for use in testing ?


Following properties indicate how to extend graph matrix for use in testing.
i) The number of times of link between the nodes get executed.
ii) The processing time spent in traversal of a link.
iii) The number of resources required.
iv) The amount of memory required to traverse the link.

6.11.2 Control Structure Testing

 The structural testing is sometime called as white box testing.


 In structural testing derivation of test cases is according to program structure. Hence
knowledge of the program is used to identify additional test cases.
 Objective of structural testing is to exercise all program statements.

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6.11.2.1 Condition Testing

 To test the logical conditions in the program module the condition testing is used. This
condition can be a Boolean condition or a relational expression.
 The condition is incorrect in following situations.
i) Boolean operator is incorrect, missing or extra.
ii) Boolean variable is incorrect.
iii) Boolean parenthesis may be missing, incorrect or extra.
iv) Error in relational operator.
v) Error in arithmetic expression.
 The condition testing focuses on each testing condition in the program.
 The branch testing is a condition testing strategy in which for a compound condition each
and every true or false branches are tested.
 The domain testing is a testing strategy in which relational expression can be tested using
three or four tests.

6.11.2.2 Loop Testing

Loop testing is a white box testing technique which is used to test the loop constructs.
Basically there are four types of loops.

1. Simple loops :
The tests can be performed for n number of classes.

Fig. 6.11.5 Simple loop

where
i) n = 0 that means skip the loop completely.
ii) n = 1 that means one pass through the loop is tested.
iii) n = 2 that means two passes through the loop is tested.

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Software Engineering 6 - 30 Software Testing

iv) n = m that means testing is done when there are m passes where m < n.
v) Perform the testing when number of passes are n – 1, n, n + 1.

2. Nested loops :
The nested loop can be tested as follows.
i) Testing begins from the innermost loop first. At the same
time set all the other loops to minimum values.
ii) The simple loop test for innermost loop is done.
iii) Conduct the loop testing for the next loop by keeping the
outer loops at minimum values and other nested loops at
some specified value.
iv) This testing process is continued until all the loops have
been tested.

3. Concatenated loops : Fig. 6.11.6 Nested loops

The concatenated loops can be tested in the same manner as simple loop tests. (Refer
Fig. 6.11.7)

Fig. 6.11.7 Concatenated loops

4. Unstructured loops :
The testing cannot be effectively conducted for unstructured loops. Hence these types of
loops needs to be redesigned. (Refer Fig. 6.11.8)

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Software Engineering 6 - 31 Software Testing

Fig. 6.11.8 Unstructured loops

 Review Questions
1. Explain the following : i) Condition testing ii) Loop testing. SPPU : May-11, Marks 8

2. What is basis path testing ? What is cyclomatic complexity ? How is it determined for a
flow graph ? Illustrate with an example. SPPU : May-12, Marks 8

3. Basis path testing covers all statements in a program module. Justify with example.
SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 8

4. Explain the graph matrix and loop testing methods. SPPU : May-13, Marks 8

5. What is cyclomatic complexity ? How is it determined for a flow graph ? Illustrate with
example.
SPPU : May-14, Marks 8

6. What do you mean by white box testing ? SPPU : Dec.-16, End Sem, Marks 7

6.12 Black Box Testing SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 6

 The black box testing is also called as behavioural testing.


 Black box testing methods focus on the functional requirements of the software. Test sets
are derived that fully exercise all functional requirements.
 The black box testing is not an alternative to white box testing and it uncovers different
class of errors than white box testing.

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Software Engineering 6 - 32 Software Testing

Why to perform black box testing ?


Black box testing uncovers following types of errors.
1. Incorrect or missing functions
2. Interface errors
3. Errors in data structures
4. Performance errors
5. Initialization or termination errors

6.12.1 Equivalence Partitioning

 It is a black box technique that divides the input domain into classes of data. From this data
test cases can be derived.
 An ideal test case uncovers a class of errors that might require many arbitrary test cases to
be executed before a general error is observed.
 In equivalence partitioning the equivalence classes are evaluated for given input condition.
Equivalence class represents a set of valid or invalid states for input conditions.
 Equivalence class guidelines can be as given below :
 If input condition specifies a range, one valid and two invalid equivalence classes are
defined.

Fig. 6.12.1

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Software Engineering 6 - 33 Software Testing

 If an input condition requires a specific value, one valid and two invalid equivalence
classes are defined.
 If an input condition specifies a member of a set, one valid and one invalid
equivalence class is defined.
 If an input condition is Boolean, one valid and one invalid equivalence class is
defined.

For example :
Area code : Input condition, Boolean - The area code may or may not be present.
Input condition, range - Value defined between 200 and 700.
Password : Input condition, Boolean - A password may or may not be present.
Input condition, value - Seven character string.
Command : Input condition, set - Containing commands noted before.

6.12.2 Boundary Value Analysis (BVA)

 Boundary value analysis is done to check boundary conditions.


 A boundary value analysis is a testing technique in which the elements at the edge of the
domain are selected and tested.
 Using boundary value analysis, instead of focusing on input conditions only, the test cases
from output domain are also derived.
 Boundary value analysis is a test case design technique that complements equivalence
partitioning technique.
 Guidelines for boundary value analysis technique are
1. If the input condition specified the range bounded by values x and y, then test cases
should be designed with values x and y. Also test cases should be with the values
above and below x and y.
2. If input condition specifies the number of values then the test cases should be designed
with minimum and maximum values as well as with the values that are just above and
below the maximum and minimum should be tested.
3. If the output condition specified the range bounded by values x and y, then test cases
should be designed with values x and y. Also test cases should be with the values
above and below x and y.
4. If output condition specifies the number of values then the test cases should be
designed with minimum and maximum values as well as with the values that are just
above and below the maximum and minimum should be tested.

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Software Engineering 6 - 34 Software Testing

5. If the internal program data structures specify such boundaries then the test cases must
be designed such that the values at the boundaries of data structure can be tested.

For example :
Integer D with input condition [– 2, 10],
Test values : – 2, 10, 11, – 1, 0
If input condition specifies a number values, test cases should developed to exercise the
minimum and maximum numbers. Values just above and below this min and max should be
tested.
Enumerate data E with input condition : {2, 7, 100, 102}
Test values : 2, 102, – 1, 200, 7

6.12.3 Graph based Testing

 In the graph based testing, a graph of objects present in the system is created.
 The graph is basically a collection of nodes and links. Each node represents the object that
is participating in the software system and links represent the relationship among these
objects.
 The node weight represents the properties of object and link weight represents the
properties or characteristics of the relationship of the objects.
 After creating the graph, important objects and their relationships are tested.]

Fig. 6.12.2 Graph notations

6.12.4 Orthogonal Array Testing

 There are many applications for which very small number of input is needed and values
that each input requires might be bounded.
 In such a situation the number of test cases is relatively small and can be manageable. But
if the number of input gets increased then it will increase there will be large number of test
cases. And testing may become impractical or impossible.

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Software Engineering 6 - 35 Software Testing

 Orthogonal array testing is a kind of testing method which can be applied to the
applications in which input domain is relatively small but there could be large number of
test cases.
 Using orthogonal array testing method, only faulty regions can be tested and thus the
number of test cases can be reduced.
 Orthogonal arrays are two dimensional arrays of numbers which possess the interesting
quality that by choosing any two columns in the array you receive an even distribution of
all the pair-wise combinations of values in the array.
 Following are some important terminologies used in orthogonal testing methods -

Runs
It denotes the number of rows in the array. These can be directly translated to the test
cases.

Factors
It denotes the number of columns in the array. These can be directly translated to
maximum number of variables that can be handled by the array.

Level
This number denotes the maximum number of values that a single factor(column) can take.

L9 orthogonal array
This array is used to generate the test cases. This array has a balancing property. That
means the testing can be done uniformly by executing the test cases generated by the L9
orthogonal array.

Example
Consider that we want to develop an application which has three sections - top, bottom
and middle.
 Associated with each section we will consider one variable. That means now we have to
analyse only three variables.
 These variables can be assigned with Boolean values and hence the values can be true or
false.
 If we decide to test it completely then there would be 23 = 8 test cases
 By orthogonal array testing method, mapping the values to L9 orthogonal array would be -

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Software Engineering 6 - 36 Software Testing

 Thus the values are left to all the levels.


 Now the test cases would be
1. Display the application without any section.
2. Display the application with top section only.
3. Display the application with the middle section only.
4. Display the application with the bottom section only.
Thus there are only four test cases in all and no need to test all the combinations. In fact we
have considered this test cases by considering the single parameter. This kind of testing is
called single mode fault detection. By considering these test case the faults can be fixed.
Double mode fault detection - In this method, two parameters can be considered at a time
for determining the number of test cases.

Advantage
The orthogonal array testing approach enable the developer to provide good test coverage
with very few test cases.

 Review Question
1. Explain equivalent partioning testing. SPPU : Dec.-11, Marks 6

6.13 Comparison between Black Box and White Box Testing


SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 4

Sr. No. Black box testing White box testing


1. Black box testing is called behavioural White box testing is called glass box testing.
testing.
2. Black box testing examines some In white box testing the procedural details, all
fundamental aspect of the system with the logical paths, all the internal data structures
little regard for internal logical are closely examined.
structure of the software.

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Software Engineering 6 - 37 Software Testing

3. During black box testing the program White box testing lead to test the program
cannot be tested 100 percent. thoroughly.
4. This type of testing is suitable for large This type of testing is suitable for small projects.
projects.

Advantages and Disadvantages of Black box Testing

Advantages :
1. The black box testing focuses on fundamental aspect of system without being concerned
for internal logical structure of the software.
2. The advantage of conducting black box testing is to uncover following types of errors.
i. Incorrect or missing functions
ii. Interface errors
iii. Errors in external data structures
iv. Performance errors
v. Initialization or termination errors

Disadvantages :
1. All the independent paths within a module cannot be tested.
2. Logical decisions along with their true and false sides cannot be tested.
3. All the loops and the boundaries of these loops cannot be exercised with black box testing.
4. Internal data structure cannot be validated.

Advantages and Disadvantages of White box Testing


Advantages :
1. Each procedure can be tested thoroughly. The internal structures, data flows, logical paths,
conditions and loops can be tested in detail.
2. It helps in optimizing the code.
3. White box testing can be easily automated.
4. Due to knowledge of internal coding structure it is easy to find out which type of input data
can help in testing the application efficiently.
Disadvantages :
1. The knowledge of internal structure and coding is desired for the tested. Thus the skilled
tester is required for whitebox testing. Due to this the testing cost is increased.

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Software Engineering 6 - 38 Software Testing

2. Sometimes it is difficult to test each and every path of the software and hence many paths
may go untested.
3. Maintaining the white box testing is very difficult because it may use specialized tools like
code analyzer and debugging tools are required.
4. The missing functionality can not be identified.

 Review Question
1. Differentiate between white box and black box testing. SPPU : Dec.-12, Marks 4

6.14 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1 Which one of the following term describes testing ?


a Evaluating deliverable to find errors
b A stage of all projects
c Finding broken code
d None of the these
Q.2 Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under ________________ .
a integration testing b validation testing
c unit testing d none of mentioned
Q.3 Unit testing is done by ________.
a users b developers
c customers d none of the mentioned
Q.4 The testing have been stopped when ____________ .
a the faults have been fixed b all the tests run
c the time completed d the risk are resolved
Q.5 Software mistakes during coding are known as _________ .
a errors b bugs
c failures d defects
Q.6 Test cases are designed during which of the following stages ?
a Test recording b Test configuration
c Test planning d Test specification

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Software Engineering 6 - 39 Software Testing

Q.7 Which is not the other name for structural testing ?


a Behavioral testing b Glass box testing
c White box testing d None of the above
Q.8 Which is not a type of incremental testing approach ?
a Bottom up b Top down
c Big-bang d Functional incrimination
Q.9 Which one is the main focus of acceptance testing ?
a Testing The System With Other Systems
b Testing For A Business Perspective
c Finding Faults In The System
d Testing the system with other systems
Q.10 Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as _______.
a regression testing b beta testing
c alpha testing d none of the above
Q.11 Beta Testing is done at _______.
a developer’s end b user’s end
c user’s & developer’s end d none of the mentioned
Q.12 Black box testing is only functional testing.
a True b False

Answer Keys for Multiple Choice Questions :

Q.1 a Q.2 c Q.3 b Q.4 d

Q.5 b Q.6 d Q.7 a Q.8 c

Q.9 b Q.10 b Q.11 b Q.12 b


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Software Engineering 6 - 40 Software Testing

Notes

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SOLVED MODEL QUESTION PAPER (In Sem)
Software Engineering
S.E.(Computer) Semester - IV (As per 2019 Pattern)

Time : 1 Hour] [Maximum Marks : 30


Instructions :
1. Attempt Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4.
2. Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary.
3. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4. Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
Q.1 (a) What is software engineering ? What are the characteristics of software ?
(Refer section 1.5) [4]
(b) What is meant by ‘blocking states’ in linear sequential model ?
(Refer example 1.13.2) [3]

(c) Explain with neat diagram incremental model and state its advantages and
disadvantages. (Refer section 1.14.2) [8]
OR
Q.2 (a) Elaborate how software engineering is a layered technology.
(Refer section 1.7) [6]
(b) Explain Feature Driven Development (FDD). (Refer section 1.20.4) [4]
(c) What is agility ? Explain about process model.
(Refer section 1.19) [5]

Q.3 (a) What is requirement ? What are the types of requirements ? (Refer section 2.1) [3]
(b) Write an use case for ‘login’ with a template and diagram. (Refer example 2.5.2) [4]
(c) What are requirements engineering tasks ? Explain in detail. (Refer section 2.2) [8]
OR
Q.4 (a) Explain the tasks done during elicitation and requirement management.

(Refer section 2.4) [5]


(b) Explain the concept of traceability matrix. (Refer section 2.15) [3]

(c) Create the swimlane diagram for, monitoring of sensor in a 'Safehome security
system’ from control panel. (Refer example 2.8.5) [7]

(M - 1)
SOLVED MODEL QUESTION PAPER (End Sem)
Software Engineering
S.E.(Computer) Semester - IV (As per 2019 Pattern)

1
Time : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 70
2
Instructions :
1. Attempt Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8.
2. Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary.
3. Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4. Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.

Q.1 (a) What is the need for defining a software scope ? What are the categories of software
engineering resources. (Refer section 3.2) [8]
(b) Explain the FP based estimation technique. (Refer section 3.5) [10]
OR
Q.2 (a) Explain COCOMO model for project estimation with suitable example.
(Refer section 3.6) [10]
(b) What is project scheduling ? What are the basic principles of project scheduling.
(Refer section 3.8) [8]
Q.3 (a) Explain design within the context of software engineering. (Refer section 4.1.1) [5]
(b) Explain different design concepts. (Refer section 4.4) [12]

OR

Q.4 (a) What are the deployment level design elements ? (Refer section 4.7) [3]

(b) Explain data centered and layered architectures with neat diagrams.
(Refer section 4.13) [8]

(c) Explain the types of design classes. (Refer section 4.6) [6]

Q.5 (a) Write short note on - RMMM. (Refer section 5.7) [4]

(b) Explain the risk identification and assessment process for a software project.
(Refer section 5.4) [8]

(c) What are the types of risks ? Explain in brief. (Refer section 5.2) [6]

(M - 2)
Software Engineering M-3 Solved Model Question Papers

OR

Q.6 (a) What do you understand by Software Configuration Management (SCM) ? Discuss
the importance of SCM. (Refer section 5.9) [8]

(b) Explain change control mechanism in SCM. (Refer section 5.11) [6]

(c) How risk projection is carried out using risk table ? (Refer section 5.5) [4]

Q.7 (a) What is importance of testing practices ? What are the principles of testing practices.
(Refer section 6.1) [6]

(b) Explain in detail : 1) Top-down integration testing 2) Bottom-up testing.


(Refer section 6.6) [6]

(c) Differentiate between verification and validation. (Refer section 6.2) [5]
OR
Q.8 (a) Differentiate between alpha testing and beta testing. (Refer section 6.9) [6]

(b) Explain testing strategies for object oriented software. (Refer section 6.7) [8]

(c) What is entry and exit criteria for completion of testing. (Refer section 6.4) [3]



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Software Engineering M-4 Solved Model Question Papers

Notes

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12/25/2020 https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/allqusdownloadhtml.ils?testNo=1213&code=1052000&showTest=319&actForm=edit&set=30

Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 2. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan
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B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 4. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 5. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 6. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 7. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 8. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()
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C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 9. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 10. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 11. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 12. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 13. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

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C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 14. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 16. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 17. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

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C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 19. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 20. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 21. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 22. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 23. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

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C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 24. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 25. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 27. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control
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D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 29. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 30. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

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C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 35. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 36. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 37. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

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C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined


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D : Array bound violations

Q.no 44. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 45. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 46. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 47. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 48. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

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B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 49. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 50. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

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A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

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A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 1. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 2. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 3. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

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A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 4. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 5. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 6. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 8. What is architectural style?

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A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 9. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before moving on to the
next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

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Q.no 13. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 14. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 15. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 16. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 17. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

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D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 18. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 19. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 20. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 21. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 22. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

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D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 25. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 26. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 27. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

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C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 29. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 30. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 32. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

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C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 33. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 34. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 35. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 36. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

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C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 38. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 39. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 40. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 41. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 42. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process
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D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 43. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 46. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 47. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

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C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 49. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 50. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 51. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

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B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 57. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

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A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 60. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 1. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

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Q.no 2. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 3. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 5. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 6. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

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Q.no 7. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 8. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 9. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 10. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 11. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

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Q.no 12. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 13. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 15. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 16. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

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D : deselectAll()

Q.no 17. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 18. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 19. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to change
management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 20. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 21. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

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D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 22. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 23. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 24. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 25. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 26. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation
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Q.no 27. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 28. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 32. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 33. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 34. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 35. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 36. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

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Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 39. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 41. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

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Q.no 42. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 43. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

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D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 48. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 50. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

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B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

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B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Q.no 1. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 2. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 3. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 4. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

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Q.no 6. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 7. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 8. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 9. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 10. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

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Q.no 11. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 12. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 15. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

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Q.no 16. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 17. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 18. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 19. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 20. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

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Q.no 21. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 22. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 23. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 24. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?


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A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 28. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 29. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Which of the following statement is true?

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A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 32. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 35. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 36. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

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A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

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A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 45. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 46. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

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A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 47. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

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A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 53. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

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A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 57. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

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D : Destructive impact

Q.no 1. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 2. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 3. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 4. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 5. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only


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Q.no 6. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 7. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 8. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 9. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 10. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

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Q.no 11. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 13. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 14. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 15. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

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Q.no 16. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 17. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 19. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 20. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 21. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?
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A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 22. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 23. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 24. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 25. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 26. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based
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B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 27. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 28. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 29. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 30. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 31. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

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A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 33. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

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A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 41. What is Fault Masking?

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A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 46. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are

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called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 48. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 49. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 50. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

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Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

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Q.no 56. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

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Q.no 1. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 2. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 3. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 4. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 5. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

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Q.no 6. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is usually
the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 7. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 9. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

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D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 12. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 13. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 15. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

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C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 16. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 18. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 20. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance


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D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 21. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 22. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 23. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 25. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

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D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 27. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 29. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


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Q.no 31. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

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Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 37. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 38. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

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Q.no 41. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 42. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 43. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

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D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 46. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 47. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 48. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 49. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 50. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

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D : User requirement documents

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 55. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

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C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 58. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.
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A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 2. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 4. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

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Q.no 5. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 6. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 7. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 9. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

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Q.no 10. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 11. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 13. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 14. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 15. The selenium can


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A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 16. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 17. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 18. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 19. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 20. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory
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B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 22. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 23. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 24. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 25. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

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B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

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B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 32. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 33. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 34. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 35. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

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B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 36. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 37. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 38. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

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A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 44. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 45. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

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A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 46. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 47. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 50. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

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A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

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Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 57. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

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Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 2. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 3. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 4. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 5. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?


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A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 6. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

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A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 11. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 12. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 14. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

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A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 16. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 17. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 18. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 20. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable
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B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 21. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 22. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 24. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 25. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered

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vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 26. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 28. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 29. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

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Q.no 30. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 34. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

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Q.no 35. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 36. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 39. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

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Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 42. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

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D : human elements

Q.no 45. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 46. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 47. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 49. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

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D : SCI

Q.no 50. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

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D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 57. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

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C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 2. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 3. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 4. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

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C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 5. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 6. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 7. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 8. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 9. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

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C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 10. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 11. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 12. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 13. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users


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D : Interface validation

Q.no 15. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 16. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 17. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 18. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk
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Q.no 20. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 21. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web browser should be
used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of the following types of
requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 22. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 24. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

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D : Regression testing

Q.no 25. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 28. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 29. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

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C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 33. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 34. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

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B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 35. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

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B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 41. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 42. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 43. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 44. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

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B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 49. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

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A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 50. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 53. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

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Q.no 54. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

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D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 1. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 2. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 3. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

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C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 4. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 5. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 6. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 7. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 8. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

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C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 9. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 10. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 11. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 12. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 13. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

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C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 14. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 15. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 16. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 17. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 18. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

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B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 19. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 20. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 22. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 23. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()
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C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 24. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 25. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 26. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 27. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 28. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

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C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 31. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 32. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

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C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 36. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 37. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 38. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

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C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 39. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 40. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 41. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 42. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 43. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

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C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 46. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 48. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

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C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 49. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

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C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

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B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 3. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

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B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 4. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 5. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 8. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

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B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 9. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 10. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 11. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 12. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 13. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

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B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 15. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 16. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 17. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 18. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing


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C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 19. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 20. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 21. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 22. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 23. Selenium IDE stands for

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A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 24. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 26. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 27. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

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A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

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Q.no 33. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

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C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 41. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

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C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 46. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 47. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

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C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 48. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

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C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

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B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 59. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 2. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

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B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 3. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 4. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is usually
the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 5. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 6. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 7. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

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B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 8. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 9. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 10. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 11. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web browser should be
used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of the following types of
requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 12. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

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B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 15. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 16. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 17. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible
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C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 18. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 19. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 20. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 21. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

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C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 23. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 24. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 26. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 27. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

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C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 30. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

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C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 35. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 36. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

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C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 39. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 40. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 41. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 42. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

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C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 43. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

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C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 48. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 49. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

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B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 53. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

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B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 1. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

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A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 3. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 4. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 5. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 7. A software process model represents which one of the following?

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A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 9. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 10. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 11. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 12. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

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A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 13. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 14. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 15. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 16. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 17. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

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A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 20. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral


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B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 23. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 24. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 25. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 27. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

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A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 28. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

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A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 33. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 34. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 35. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

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A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 39. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 40. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

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D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

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D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 48. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 49. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 50. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

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D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 56. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

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C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

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B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 2. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 3. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 4. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 5. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 6. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

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A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 9. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

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D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 11. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 12. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 15. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

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D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 16. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 17. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 19. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 20. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

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D : Regression testing

Q.no 21. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 22. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 24. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 25. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management


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Q.no 26. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 27. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 28. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 30. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

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Q.no 31. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 32. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 33. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

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Q.no 36. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 37. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 38. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 40. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

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Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 42. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 45. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

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Q.no 46. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 47. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 48. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

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Q.no 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 52. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

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C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 59. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 60. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1
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D : IEEE 610

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 3. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 4. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 5. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control
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Q.no 6. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 7. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 8. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 9. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 10. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

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Q.no 11. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 12. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 13. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 14. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 15. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 16. Software Design consists of _____________


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A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 17. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 18. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to change
management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 19. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 20. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 21. Error guessing is a:

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A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 22. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 23. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 24. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique


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B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

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A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 33. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 34. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

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A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 40. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

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Q.no 41. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 42. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 44. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 45. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

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Q.no 46. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 47. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 48. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 49. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 50. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

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Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 52. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 53. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 54. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

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D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

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B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 1. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 2. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 3. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able


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C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 6. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 7. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 8. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 9. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis
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D : prototyping

Q.no 11. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 12. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 13. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 15. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
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Q.no 16. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 17. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 18. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 20. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

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Q.no 21. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 22. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 23. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 24. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 25. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

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C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

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C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 34. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 35. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting


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D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 36. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 39. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 40. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

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C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 42. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 43. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

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C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 47. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 48. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 50. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

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B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

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A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance
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D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 3. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 4. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing
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Q.no 5. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 6. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 7. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

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D : Data flow testing

Q.no 10. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 11. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 12. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 13. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 14. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing


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Q.no 15. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 18. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 19. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

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Q.no 20. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 21. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 22. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 24. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 25. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE
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A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 26. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 29. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 30. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

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A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 31. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 34. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 35. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 38. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

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Q.no 40. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 41. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 42. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

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Q.no 45. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 46. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 47. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 48. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

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Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

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Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

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Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 1. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 3. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 4. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

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Q.no 5. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 7. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 8. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 9. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

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C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 11. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 12. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 13. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 14. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

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C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 15. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that
you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 16. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 17. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

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A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 20. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 21. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 22. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 23. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 24. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

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A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 27. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

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A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 31. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 33. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution


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B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 39. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing
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C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 40. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 41. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 43. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

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C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 45. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 46. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 48. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 49. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

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B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

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B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 58. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

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A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 1. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 2. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 3. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 4. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

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A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 5. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 6. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 7. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

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Q.no 9. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 10. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 11. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 12. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 13. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 14. Design phase will usually be.


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A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 15. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 17. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 18. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

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Q.no 19. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 20. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 21. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 22. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 23. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

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Q.no 24. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 25. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 26. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 27. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 28. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

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Q.no 29. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 30. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

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Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 37. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 38. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

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D : implementation engineering

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 41. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 43. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

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D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 44. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 45. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 46. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 48. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

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D : different operating system

Q.no 49. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 50. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 51. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

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C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 54. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 55. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 58. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

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A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 1. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

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D : Installation test

Q.no 3. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 4. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 5. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 6. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 7. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

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D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 8. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 10. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 11. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 12. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart


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Q.no 13. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 14. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 15. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 16. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 17. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 18. Acceptance testing is also known as


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A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 19. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 20. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 22. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 23. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users
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B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 24. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that
you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

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A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 29. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 30. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a module type

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A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 34. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 35. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 36. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 37. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

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Q.no 38. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:


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A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 44. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 45. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 46. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 48. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

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A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 50. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

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Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

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Q.no 58. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 59. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 60. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 1. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 2. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

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D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 3. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 4. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 5. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 6. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 7. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

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D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 8. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 10. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 11. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 12. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

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C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 13. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 14. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 15. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

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C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 18. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 19. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 20. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 21. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 22. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

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C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 23. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 24. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 25. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 26. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 27. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

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B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 28. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 29. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 30. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 31. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 32. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

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B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 33. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 34. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 35. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships


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C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 38. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 42. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

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C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 43. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 44. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 45. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 46. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

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C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

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B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 54. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 56. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 57. Which of the following is the component test standard?

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A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

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Q.no 2. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 3. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 4. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 5. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 6. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

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Q.no 7. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 8. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 9. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 10. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 11. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

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Q.no 12. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 13. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 14. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 15. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique
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A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 18. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 19. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 20. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 21. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 22. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

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A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 23. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 24. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 25. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

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A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 28. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

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Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 33. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 35. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

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Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 39. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 40. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 42. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 43. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 46. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

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Q.no 47. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 48. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 49. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 50. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 51. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

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D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

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C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 1. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

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C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 2. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 3. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 4. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 5. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 6. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

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B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 7. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 9. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 10. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 11. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

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A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 12. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 13. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 14. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

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Q.no 16. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 17. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 18. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 19. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 20. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

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Q.no 21. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 22. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 24. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

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D : OpenTable

Q.no 26. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 27. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 28. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 29. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 30. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

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C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 31. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 32. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 33. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 34. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 35. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

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B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 40. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

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B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 42. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

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B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 46. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 47. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 48. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 49. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

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B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

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A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Q.no 60. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 1. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 2. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 3. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 4. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

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D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 5. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 7. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 9. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

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C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 10. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 11. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 12. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 13. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 14. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977
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D : 1967

Q.no 15. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 16. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 17. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 18. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 19. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

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D : Testing

Q.no 20. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 21. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 22. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 23. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 24. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

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D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 25. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

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D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 30. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 31. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 32. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 33. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

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C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 35. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 39. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

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C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 40. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 41. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 43. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

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C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 46. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 47. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

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C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 51. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

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B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

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Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 2. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 3. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

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Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

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Q.no 9. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before moving on to the
next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 10. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 11. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 12. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is
usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 13. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

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Q.no 14. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 15. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 16. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 17. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 18. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

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Q.no 19. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 20. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 21. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 22. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 23. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

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Q.no 24. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 25. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 28. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

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Q.no 29. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 30. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 31. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 32. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 33. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 34. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process
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A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 37. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

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A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 40. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 41. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 42. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 43. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 44. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

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A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 45. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 46. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 48. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans


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B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 53. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

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B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

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B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 1. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 3. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

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Q.no 4. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 6. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 7. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web browser should be
used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of the following types of
requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 8. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

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D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 10. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 11. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 12. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 13. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta
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Q.no 14. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 15. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 16. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 17. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 19. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?


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A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 20. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 22. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 23. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 24. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

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A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 25. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 26. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 27. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 28. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 29. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 32. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 33. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

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B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

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Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 41. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 44. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 46. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 48. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

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Q.no 49. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

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D : During testing

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 56. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

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C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 1. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 2. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 3. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

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C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 4. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 5. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 6. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 7. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design
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D : Testing

Q.no 9. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 12. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is
usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 13. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

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D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 15. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 16. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 17. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 18. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

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C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 19. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 20. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 21. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 22. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

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B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

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B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 29. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 30. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 32. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 33. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

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A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 34. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 35. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. which of the following is not a software risk

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A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 39. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 41. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 42. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 43. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

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A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 44. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 45. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 46. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 47. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 48. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

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A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 49. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

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A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

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Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 1. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 2. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

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Q.no 3. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 4. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 5. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 6. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 7. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 8. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?


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A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 9. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 10. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 11. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 12. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

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Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 16. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 17. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

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Q.no 18. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 20. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 21. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 22. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

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Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 24. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 25. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 26. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 27. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

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Q.no 28. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 30. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

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Q.no 33. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 34. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 35. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

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Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

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Q.no 43. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 44. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 46. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

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Q.no 48. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 49. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 51. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 52. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

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Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

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D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 1. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 2. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

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B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 3. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 4. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 5. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 6. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis
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C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 8. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 9. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 10. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 11. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 12. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

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B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 13. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 15. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 16. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 17. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users
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C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 18. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 19. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 21. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 22. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

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B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 23. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 24. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

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B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 28. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 29. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

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A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 33. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 34. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 37. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team

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3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 38. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 39. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 40. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

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Q.no 42. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 43. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 44. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 45. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

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Q.no 47. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 48. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 49. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

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Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 1. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

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D : system image

Q.no 2. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 3. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 6. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
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Q.no 7. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 8. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 9. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?
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A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 13. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 15. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 16. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 17. Which of the following are correct statements?

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A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 18. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 19. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 21. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

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Q.no 22. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 23. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 24. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 25. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 26. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

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D : Functional testing

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 29. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 30. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 31. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

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D : Agile model

Q.no 32. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 33. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 34. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 36. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

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D : Unit testing

Q.no 37. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 39. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 40. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 41. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

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D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 42. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 45. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

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D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

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D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

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C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

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a engineering (S.¥.B.S
c. Comp. Science)
eat
. I “Mroduction to Software Engineering and Process Models
pRacTice QUESTIONS
' Multiple Choice Questions:
"+ what is software?
ga) Set_ of computer programs,
instructions that enable the us
(b) A set of compiler instructions
(c) A mathematical formula
(d) Things which we can touch
2. Asoftware consists of
(a) Programs + hardware manuals
(b) Set of instructions + operatin
& procedures
(c) Set of programs
_d) Programs + documentation + 9
perating procedures
3. Which of the following is not the Cc hara
cteristic of a software?
(a) Software does not wear out
(b) Software is not manufactured
Ac) Software is always correct
(d) Software is flexible
4. Select the most appropriate statement about
software engineering.
(a) Has been around asa discipline since
the early 50’s
(b) Is a set of rules about developing software
products
(c) Started as a response to the so-called ‘Software Crisi
s’ of the late 90’s
_-‘*@) is an engineering discipline concerned with all the aspe
cts of software
production
5. Which is the layered technology in bedrock that supports software engineering?
(a) Methods (b) Tools
(c) Process 48) Quality Focus
6. The process of developing a software product using software engineering
principles and methods is referred to as, -
(a) Software myths (b) Scientific Product
“eT Software Evolution
: (d) None of the above .
7. Which of the following provides semi-automatic and automatic support to methods
in a layered technology?
(a) Methods tb) Tools
(c) Process (d) Quality Focus
8. What is the main aim of software engineering:
' « 9

(a) Reliable software


(b) Cost effective software
{J Reliable and cost effective software
(d) None of the above
1.33
Pro :
Introduction to Software Engineering a, d
. Science) Ces,

evaluated by __—_ Tester


9, Firi st level of prottotypeotyp is

(a) Developer (d) System Analyst


toy User _
; re engi
8 p ses five
neering encompas .
fj g tig
ss fram ewor k for softw a
10. A generic proce
ment, production, d
What are those activities? on, eployment
So net ; e ’p
(a) Communication, risk management, measur
struction, deployment.
#0) Communication, Planning, Modeling, con
ing, maintenance
(c) Analysis, designing, programming, debugg
(d) None of the above.
11. Which model is also call ed as the
classic life cycle or the Waterfall model?
bh) Linear Sequential Development
(a) Iterative Development
(d) Incremental Development
(c) RAD Model.
which type of software?
12. Compilers, editors software come under
\_ 4) System software (b) Application software
(c) Scientific software (d) None of the above.
13. RAD Software process model stands for
._@) Rapid Application Development (b) Relative Application Development
(c) Rapid Application Design. (d) Recent Application Development.
14. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
(a) Build and Fix Model (b) Prototyping Model
(c) RAD Model .-(d) Waterfall Model
15. The spiral model of software development __.
(a) Ends with the delivery of the software product.
(b) Is more chaotic than the incremental model.
9 Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
(d) All of the above
16. The prototyping model of software development is a
(a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
__-) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
(c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
(d) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
17. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of spl’
er Waterfall Model (b) Prototyping Model
RAD Model | (d) both (a) and (c)
18. he incremental model is a result of combination 0
of elements of which m
models? |
(a) Build & Fix model and Waterfall mode
l
(b) Linear model and RAD model

1.34
+e Engineer
ware Ee ingi
(S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)
ae Introduction to Software Engineering
and Process Models
cc) Linear model and Prototyping model
(d) Waterfall model and RAD model
_ The spiral model has two dimensions namely —and_
(a) diagonal, angular (b) radial, perpendicular
(c) radial, angular (d) diagonal, perpendicular

a) 2.(dq) 3. (c) 4.(dq) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7.(b) 8. (¢) 9. (c) 10. (b)
0) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(d) 15. (ce) 16.(b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c)
I: Fill in the Blanks:
1. Software is a set of that when executed Provide desired function and
performance.
Softwareisaprocessand _.
Software engineeringisa__,
The definition phase of software engineering includes t asks such
engineering, software project planningand as system
analysis.
___ Maintenance results in modification
to the software to accommodate
changes to its external environment.
In waterfall model, the phases invo
lved in th € software development
organizedin_ are
The development approach followed in
prototype modelis_.
The method is also known as the iterative enh
ancement model.
In software engineering both ___ and ____
_ are important for software quality.
. The application of systematic, discipline
d, approach to development,
operation, and maintenance of software;
that is application of engineering to
software
11. Software Engineering is about designing
and developing quality software
Oz The view of software quality is conformance to specification.
13. Agile process promote development
14. —__ emphasizes on a conceptual solutio
n that fulfill the requirements rather than
its implementation.
15. —_ emphasizes on the investigation of
the problem and requirements rather
than solution.

1. Instructions 2. Product 3. Discipline


4. Requirements S. Adaptive 6. Linear Order
7. Quick and Dirty 8. Incremental 9. Product and Process
10. quantifiable 11, high 12. manufacturing
13. sustainable 14. Design 13. Analysis
es 1.35
Software Engineering (S..B.Sc. Comp. Science) Introduction to Software Engineering and model
Q.II: State True or False:
\—1._ Spiral model is a combination of both Iterative model and one of the SDLC model.
\~ 2, Computer software is a complete package, which includes software program, jt;
documentation and user guide on how to use the software.
\_-~3._ In the Unified Process model requirements are determined iteratively and may
pan more than one phase of the process.
.
7\ 4. WebApps are a mixture of print publishing and software development, making
their development outside the realm of software engineering practice.
5S. There are no real differences between creating Web Apps and Mobile Apps.
>< 6. Software engineering umbrella activities are only applied during the initial phases
of software development projects.
\_-7. Planning ahead for software reuse reduce the cost and increases the
value of the
Systems into which they are incorporated.
, 8. _A most software development projects are initi
ated to try to meet some business
need.
Y< 9. Process technology took allow software organizations to compress
schedules by
skipping unimportant activities.
10. It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak
software processes and create
high quality end products.
11. Company has latest computers and state-of
the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t
Tt

worry about the quality of the product.


Answers
1. (T) 2.(T) 3.(1) 4.(F) 5.) 6.(F) 7.(T) 8.(T) 9.(6) 10. (T)
11. (F)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Q. I: Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Agile software developmentisbasedon__.
(a) Incremental Development
(b) Iterative Development
(c) Linear Development
fd) Both Incremental and Iterative Develo
pment
2. Which of the following is not an agile
method?
(a) XP 4b
_ } AGT
(c) aus | (d) All of these
3. How is plan driven development
different from agile development?
development process
gh a process of negotiar; ing
gotiation during the softwar
(b) Specification, design, im
plement ation and testing
\—©) Iteration oc are interleaved
curs within activities
(d) All of these
4. How many phases are th
ere in Scrum?
(a) Two
re
.
2.26 aan
_ engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)
50 i
Scr
ne
Agile Development
Three
ness eT YT Oe

5. which three fram ans it does not have


ework activities phases
are present in ASD?
(a) analysis, design, coding
(b) requirements gathering, adapt
ive cy cle planning,
AS speculation, collaboration, iterative development
learning
(d) all of the mentioned
6, User requirements are expressed as
—__ in Extreme Programming.
(a) implementation tasks
(b) functionalities
9 scenarios
(d) none of the mentioned
7. Which four framework activi
ties are found in the Xp?
(a) analysis, design, coding, testing
(b) planning, analysis, design, coding
_) planning, design, coding, testing
(d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
8. Identify list of Agile Methods?
(a) ASD, Scrum and RUP
(b) DSDM, RUP, Crystal Clear and XP
©) DSDM, FDD, XP and Scrum
(d) All of these
9. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
(a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
(b) Only essential work products are produced
Ay Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
(d) All of the mentioned
7
10. The scrum approach originated with agile software development as practitioners
looked for waysto__.
(a) improve communication (b) increase throughput
(c) increase risk .-@) Both (a) and (b) -
11. In scrum the team activity is monitored and coordinated on ______ basis.
(a) hourly 6) daily
(C) weekly (d) monthly
12. Scrum is iterative. The iteration is called ____-

ft) sprint (d) sprinte ee


-

ar
saea
Software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science) Agile Deve
pA
(RON) by identi,
13. Which is responsible for maximizing Return On Investment afeature list, deciding
product features, translating these into a prioritized
and continually Te-priottig.
should be at the top of the list for the next Sprint, \g
and refining the list.
hh) ProductOwner
(a) ScrumMaster
(c) Manager (d) Team
to articulate the product Visi
14. The first step in Scrum is for the Product Owner
Eventually, this evolves into a refined and prioritized list of features Called hy

(a) Sprint Backlog (b) Whiteboard


\_4eF Product Backlog (d) All of above
15. The team meets daily for ____ minutes, where each member of the team
discusses the work they've completed since the last meeting
(a) 10 (b) 12
ty 15 (d) 20
16. ___ are of scrum principles.
(a) Time-boxes (b) Cross-functional teams
(c) Open communications team fd) All of these
17. Scrum was formalized over a decade ago by ......... and it’s now being used by
companies large and small.
(a) Ken Schwaber (b) Dr. Jeff Sutherland
__ © Both (a) and (b) (d) Jeff Schwaber

1.(d) 2.(o) 3.(c) 40) 5.) 6.(¢) 7.(c) 8.(. 9.(c) 10.0
11.(b) 12.(c) 13.00) 14(c) 15.(c) 16.(d) § 17.(c)

Q. I: Fill in the Blanks:


1, In Agile development, and implementation are considered to be the cen
activities in the software process.
In XP increments are delivered to customers every weeks.
. ____ Is based on the frequent iteration through which the developers impleme"
User Stories.
is developed to meet the needs of larger organization as an evolution of XP
: : : ive;
is an agile software development methodology which is af rere
incremental approach that is largely based on th e Rapid Application
icati Dev elope!
(RAD) methodology. ene
6. The main roles in Scrum are —____. Product Owner, Team.

2.28
_
orEne gineereeinrigng (S.Y.B.Sc. Co
mp. Science)
softs ww)
is a simplified ne,

—_____ Agile Development


version of the
"by Sc_ott teAmbler. Rational Unified Process (RUP) developed
a framework
problems, whil Within Which
e productively People
can
ang ‘reatively
possible value. delive
4 is a design prin
ciple for buildi
10. The _____ ad
opts a “serial
building in the la
computer-based
systems.
11. ASD “life cycle” incorporates three
Learning. phases namely, Collaboration and
Answers
1. Design
2. two
4, IXP 3. XP
5. DSDM
7. AUP 6. ScrumMaster
8. Scrum
9. ASD
10. AUP 11. Speculation
Q. HI: State True or False:
X11. Agility is defined as, “the
ability of a project team
2. Agile methods seem to wo to respond rapidly to a
rk best when team me change”.
level. mbers have a relatively
high skill
3. In agile development it is more important
to build software that mee
customers’ needs today than ts the
worry about features that mig
future. ht be needed in the
Incremental development in
Extreme Pr ogramming (XP) is sup
system release once every ported through a
month.
- In XP, as soon as the work on a task
is co mplete, it is integrated into the whole
System,
Tests are automated in Extreme Progra
mming. |
In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write test
s for a new piece of
functionality before that functionality itself is implement
ed. | r
' Developers work individually on a release
and they compare their results wit
, other developers before forwarding that release to customers
XQ. .
Users anq Stakeholders in scrum are Interested in results
but not responsible for
deliverables,
“To.
The us or minus two peop le.
“ «um in Scrum is seven Pe 7
‘1. The Scrum Master and the Pr oduct Owwnner can be the same individual,

eg sce eeeeessmnighinene
bores Tae ie ists bean ireitnntmamipe erage apenatiece
2.29
Software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)

management of software development


crum was intended for ‘nten
12. Although S
ance teams, or as a general Project, Tee,
it can be used to run software mal
Ogr
management approach. an
_43. Scrum eliminates many of the tasks required of a lead because teams become, et
- .
organizing :
r or lesspring
er degree to the
or m to a gr ea te
_~ 14. All agile process models co nf IDleg
the "M an if es to for Agi le So ft wa re Development".
stated in
The DS DM sug ges ts a philosophy that i s based on the Pareto principle (80% o¢
_15. the comp
the|
can be delivered in 20% 0 f the time required to build
application lete
application).
\716. AUP uses the classic UP phased activities (inception, elaboration Construction,
to help the team visualize the overall process flow.
transition)
_-17. Agile teams are allowed to self-organize and make their own technical decisions,
among
738. In XP a metaphor is used as a device to facilitate communications
customers, team members, and managers?
Answers

1. (F) 2.(T) 3.(T) 4.(F) 5.(T) 6.(T) 7.(T) 8. (F) 9, (F) 10, (T)
11. (F) 12.(T) 13.(T) 14.(T) 15.(T) 16.(T) 17.(T) 18. (T)
[eae ee P .

Q.1:Multiple Choice Questions: neering?


1. Which is nota step of Require (b) Requirements analysis
(a) Requirements cine icitation
(d) Requirements documentation
He Requiremen ts design
; .
2. SRD stands for
ts Definition
(a) Software Requiremen
Definition
structured Requirements
Diagram
(c) Software Requirements
Diagram
(d) Structured Requirements
3. Abbreviate the term SRS.
n
AS Software Requirements Specificatio
(b) Software Refining Solution
(c) Software Resource Source
(d) None of the above
4. In the requirement analysis which model depicts the information domain for t
problem?
woe Data models (b) Class-Oriented models
(c) Scenario-based models (d) Flow-oriented models
5. In the requirement analysis which model depicts how the software behaves a3:
consequence of external events?
(a) Class-Oriented models (b) Scenario-based models
(c) Flow-oriented models th, Behavioral models
6, Which document is created by system analyst after the requirements are collect#!
from various stakeholders?
_ A Software requirements specification
(b) Software requirement validation
(c) Feasibility study
(d) Requirement Gathering
7. The process together

the softw
Document is known as are requirements from Client, Analyze 2” i ,|
4)iO Req
Garkuirae
ement engigin
neereer
inging process (b) Requirement elicitation process .
— ace requirements
ee (d) Softwar t Ivst
ees,
a
e system analys
3.28
- gopware Engineering (
S.Y.B.Sc. Comp.
Simp. Science) Requirements Analysis
3, In which elicitation process the developers discus
and know their expectations from S with the client and end users
the software?
Requirement gathering
(b) Organizing requirements
(c) Negotiation & discussion
7 (d) Documentation
g, Requirement engineering process includ
es which of these steps?
(a) Feasibility study (b) Requirement Gathering
(c) Software Requirement specification and Validation
_‘dy All mentioned above
10. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software
Requirements Specification (SRS)?
(a) Verifiable \-b) Ambiguous
(c) Complete (d) Traceable
11, Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement: “Conformity
to a standard is maintained”?
(a) Correct tb) Complete
(c) Consistent (d) Modifiable
12. The SRS is said to be consistent ifandonlyif__.
(a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be
made easily while retaining the style and structure
(b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
(c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
td) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other
13. The SRS document is also known as__ specification.
J black-box (b) white-box
(c)_grey-box (d) none of the mentioned
14. Which of the following is included in SRS?
(a) Cost tb) _ Design Constraints
(c) Staffing (d) Delivery Schedule
have a good human
'S. Consider the following Statement: “The product should
interface”. What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here?
(@) Consistent ei Non-Veriflable
(©) Correct (d) Ambiguous
16 n within 10 secs of
Consider the Statement: “The output of a program shall be or
of SRS is being cep! cted here?
event X 10% of the time.” What characteristic
(a) Consistent ty Verifiable

() N On-verifiable (d) Correct


3.29
Software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science) ae
Requir \

17. Which of the following is not included in SRS? hy


(a) Performance or Func tionali ty
(c) Design solutions (d) External Interfaces
18. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline ag ber ey
Standard. i
(i) General description
(ii) Introduction
(iii) Index
(iv) Appendices
(v) Specific Requirements |
(a) iii, i, ii,v, iv (b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
4 ii, i, V, iv, iti (d) iii, i, ii
19. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis?
(a) Two for Three
(c) Four (d) None of the mentioned
20. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in
Requirement Analysis?
(a) Use Cases _-{b)_ Entity Relationship Diagram
(c) State Transition Diagram - (d) Activity Diagram
21. The result of the requirements eng
ineering task is an analysis model
which of the following problem domain that define
(s)?
(a) information
(b) functional
(c) behavioral —@) all of the above
22. In collaborative requireme
nts gathering the facilitator
(a) arranges the meeting pla .
ce (b) can not be a customer
\_eF controls the meeting
(d) must be an outsider
23. Three things that make requir
ements elicitation difficult are
(a) volatility problems of __-
(b) scope
(c) understanding
24. Which of following
—€@) All of these
is not a UML diagram use
d creating a system analys
(a) activity diagram is mode!’
AP (b) class diagram
dataflow diagram
(d) state diagram

L.(c) 2b) 3.(a) 4 (a) 5.) ¢ (a) 74.(a) = 8.(a)


11.(b) 12.(d) 9.) 10.00
13. (a) 14, (b)
21.(d) 15.(b) 16.(b) 17,() 18. () 19.(b) 20!
b)
22.(c) 23. (d) 24. (¢)

er
e engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Scien
ce)
a
Requirements Analysis
yi; Fill in the Blanks:
Q. .

1 —— analysis y is . cond ucted iteratively


: . with functional analvsi —
performance requirements for identified fy alysis to optimize
solutions can satisfy
. customer requirements Nction 8, and to verify that
synthesized
stakeholder and
3, Requirement

do without describing how software will do it.


6, Scenarios and are effective techniques for eliciting requirements from
stakeholders who interact directly with the system.
7. Requirements is the process of checking that requirements
actually define
the system that the customer really wants.
8. Use cases are a popular approach for specifying __ requirements.

1. Requirements 2. Developer 3. elicitation


4, Quality 5. SRS 6. use cases
7. validation 8. functional

QUI: State True or False:


wT. Requirements can be gathered from users via interviews, surveys, task analysis,
brainstorming, domain analysis, prototyping, studying existing usable version of
software, and by observation.
va. Modeling is a representation of the object-oriented classes and the resultant
collaborations will allow a system to function.
collected
SRS is a document created by system analyst after the requirements are
a

from various stakeholders.


' Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification docum ent.
=<
nk

' Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.


ada CT
,

Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.


Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not -_ ‘ve
eholder informationall stak
The job of the requirements engineer is to categorize a verpalty consistent set of
in a Way that allows decision makers to choose an in
Te

3.31
Software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)_ Requirements Analysi

+<9. The nature of collaboration is such that all system requirements are defined by
consensus of a committee of customers and developers.
\-40. Requirements engineering is a generic process that does not vary from on,
software project to another.
11, A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under
development.
. 12. It is relatively common for different customers to propose conflicting
requirements, each arguing that his or her version is the right one.
\, 13. User stories are complete descriptions the user needs and include the non-
functional requirements for a software increment.
4, Developers and customers create use-cases to help the software team understand
how different classes of end-users will use functions.
\_ 15. Analysis patterns facilitate the transformation of the analysis model into a design
model by suggesting reliable solutions to common problems.
\,16. In agile process models requirements engineering and design activities are
interleaved.
>< 17. Use-case actors are always people, never system devices.
a 18. In requirements
q validation the requirements model is reviewed to ensure its
technical feasibility.
Answers

1.7) 2) 3) 4) ST) 7M) 8 (T)so987. (CF) 10.)


11.(F) 12.(T) 13.(1) 14.(1) 15.(1) 16.(T) 17.(F) 18. (F)
— </

Software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)


Requirements Modeling

PRACTICE QUESTIONS”
AWOL
YY 7
MUM MMe “ing

Q. I: Multiple Choice Questions:


1. Which modeling in software engineering is essentially the planning stage of a
software application or system?
_—fa) Requirements (b) Design
(c) Analysis (d) All of these
2. Which is a standard language for specifying, visualizing, constructing, ang
documenting the artifacts of software systems?
(a) OOA (b) OOD
\—) UML (d) All of these
3. Which is a simplification of reality which provides the blueprints of a system?
(a) Class \_—-b) Model
(c) Class (d) All of these
4. Which models are models of the dynamic behavior of the system as it is executing?
__
‘ay Behavioral (b) Structural
(c) Architectural (d) All ofthese
5. Which are model elements that represent the physical entities in a software
system?
4) artifacts (b) class
(c) object (d) All ofthese
6. Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the
that make up that system and their relationships.
(a) association ,_-(b)_ components
(c) artifacts (d) Allof these
7. Which shows the interaction of things outside the system with the system itself.
(a) actor (b) node
4) use case (d) All of these
8. Which modeling represents the overall framework of the system?
\—{a) Architectural (b) Structural
(c) Behavioral (d) All of these
9. Which diagram represents the class model?
(a) Sequence (b) Use case
©) Class (d) All of these
10. Which of the following UML diagram is a static diagram?
(a) Collaboration diagram tb) Class diagram
(c) State chart diagram (d) Activity diagram ee
4.58
software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)
—____ Requirements Modeling
11, Which diagram in UM
L shows a comple
modeled system ata sp
te or partial view of
ecific time? the structure of a
(a) Sequence Diagram
(c) Class Diagram (b) Collaboration Diagram
fd) Object Diagram
12. Which of the following di
agram is time oriented?
(a) Collaboration
tb) Sequence
(c) Activity
(d) None of the ment
13. Which model in syst ioned
em modelling depicts the
dynamic behaviour of
(a) Context Model the system?
\—b) Behavioral Mode}
(c) Data Model
(d) Object Model
14, and diagrams of UML represen
t Interaction modeling.
. 8 Use Case, Sequence
(b) Class, Object
(c) Activity, State Chart
(d) Allofthe mentioned
15. The UML was designed for
describing |.
(a) object-oriented systems
(b) architectural design
(c) SRS
\-4r Both object-oriented sy
stems and Ar chitectural design
16. Grady Booch, James Rumbau
gh

design known as _.
(a) HTML
(b) XML
AG UML (d) SGML

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8. (a) 9.(c) 10.(b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15. (d) 16. (c)
Q. U1: Fill in the Blanks:
1. In software engineering, modeling is essentially the planning stage of
a
software application or system.
2, A___ may be structural, emphasizing the organization of the system, or it may be
behavioral, emphasizing the dynamics of the system.
models show what happens or what is supposed to happen when a system
responds to a stimulus from its environment.
4. represent physical implementation units, such as executable files , libraries,
software components, documents, and databases.
Requirements Modeling
Software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)

oN _____ models may be static models, which show the structure of the system design
show the organization of the system when it is
or dynamic models, which
executing.
A use case model is represented by using ____ diagram.
The _____ is a graphical language for visualizing, specifying, constructing, ang
system.
documenting the artifacts of a software-intensive
Deployment diagrams are a set of __ and their relationships.
the system.
Behavioral modeling describes the ____ within
10. _____ model shows an interaction, consisting of set of objects and their
among them.
relationships, including the message that may flow
11, An activity diagram represents the ___ model which contains
simple and
composite states, branches, fork, and joins.
. Graphically a model is collaboration diagram.
Answers

1. requirements 2. model 3. Behavioral


4. Artifacts 5. Structural 6. Use case

7. UML 8. nodes 9. interaction

10. Sequence 11. Activity 12. collaboration

Q. III: State True or False:


x 1. In software engineering, design modeling is essentially the planning stage of a
software application or system.
\p?. Requirements convey the expectations of users from the software product while
requirements modelingis the process of identifying the requirements this
software solution must meet in order to be successful.
5. Behavioural models are used to describe the overall behaviour of a system.
A use case model consists of a different of model elements like use cases, actors
and the relationships between them.
Object is an instance of a use case which rendered on use case diagrams as
instance specifications.
Architectural model represents the overall framework of the system and it
contains both structural and behavioral elements of the system.
Object diagrams are a set of use case, actors and their relationship is just like class
diagrams.
Sequence model emphasize on how message flow control by time ordering.
An activity diagram represents the activity model which contains simple and
composite states, branches, fork, and joins.

4.60

ena ptt
frware Engineering (S.Y.B.
Requirements Modeling

0. Object diagrams can be descri

C ollaborati 10n dia


i gram represents the structural
organization of a sys| tem and the
messages sent/received. Structural organi
zation consists of objects and links.
133. Structural models of software display the organization
of a system in terms of the
components that make up that system
and their relationships.
Component diagrams are a set of use Cases, actors,
and their relationships.
Answers

1. (F) 2(T) 3.7 4( 3. (F) 6.(T) 7.(0F) 8 (TF) 9.(T) 10.(1F)


11.(T) 12.(7T) 13.(T) 14.
° Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)

ppACTICE
soft
ar
QUESTIONS ong cna
ie Multiple Choice Questions:
1, Which is a process through
which requirements are translated
constructing the software? ed ; into a blueprint for
(a) Software analysis “—TD) Software
(c) Software development design
2. (d) None of these
Software design encomp
asses the set of_
development of a high-quali » and th
ty system or product.
—— mat lead to the
(a) principles
(b) concepts
(c) practices
Td) All of these
3. Which design describes how the sof
interoperate with it and with humans thattwause
re communicates with systems that
it? a
interface (b) data
6 component (d) None of these
4. Which model provides details about software
d ata structures, architecture
interfaces and components which are requ ,
ired to im plement the system?
<a) analysis (b) modeling
© design (d) All of these
5. Software is referred to as the process of developing, maintaining and
updating software for various reasons.
a) evolution (b) versions
(c) revision (d) All ofthese
6. Which allows software designers to consider components at an abstract level,
while neglecting the implementation details of the components?
(a) refinement _—(6) Abstraction
(c) architecture (d) pattern
7. The overall structure of the software is called as
(a) refinement (b) Abstraction
\—(c) architecture (d) pattern
8. Types of pattern includes _.
(a) Architectural (b) Design
(c) Idioms \_(d) All of these am?
9. Which is a set of information that affects the code of a computer prog
a) Concern (b) architecture
(c) pattern (d) All of these verns?
10. Which is the most common manifestation of separation of con
(a) Architecture (b) Abstraction
_ _
<-9) Modularity (d) All of these —
- ~e
Design Cone
°pts
Software Engineering (S.Y.B.Sc. Comp. Science)
the concepts Modulariy
improvement OF enhancement to
11. Which isa direct
abstraction and information hiding?
__@) Functional independence
(b) Functional dependence
(c) Non-functional independence
None of these
(d)
refinement 1n small steps of a Program
12. a refers to the progressive
specification into a program? ,
(b) Abstraction
refinement
(d) pattern pes t
architecture detail of each
fully describes he internal
* (c)
e of level des ign for sof twa re
13. Which typ
software component?
(bh) component
(a) architectural |
(d) interface
(c) deployment
rface, and procedural representations
14. What incorporates data, architectural, inte
of the software?
(b) user’s model
a) design model
(d) system image
(c) mental image
all view of the system?
15. Which design elements provide us over
(b) component
architecture
(d) deployment
(c) interface
Answers

2. (d) 3. (a) 4.(c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(a) — 10.(c)


1. (b)
11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15. (a)

Q. II: Fill in the Blanks:


1. A design should be ;
2. The elements for software represents the information flow within it and out
of the system
3. Three widely used abstraction mechanisms in software design are _—
abstraction, abstraction,and___ abstraction.
4. _____ can be defined as a process of modifying a software system to improve the
internal structure of design without changing its external behavior.
5. _____ patterns are low-level patterns, which are programming-language specific.
6. ____ isthe process of elaboration.
and subsystems will be
7, _____ design elements indicate how software functionality
allocated within the physical computing environment that will suppo the
software.
8. Software allows us to model the software system or product that is © be
built.
nl
5.24
4/21/2021 Agile Software Development - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Agile Software Development
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Agile
Software Development”.

1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

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2. Agile Software Development is based on


a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the
requirements to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the
customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software. They are iterative
because they work on one iteration followed by improvements in next iteration

3. Which on of the following is not an agile method?


a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous
feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.

4. Agility is de ned as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to
be able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.

5. How is plan driven development di erent from agile development ?


a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development

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process
b) Speci cation, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate
development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in
advance.

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6. How many phases are there in Scrum ?


a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning phase
followed by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.

7. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True

b) False

View Answer

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Answer:a
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?


a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which can’t be
avoided.

9. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?


a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: None.

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10. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs
today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True

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b) False

View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Analysis Modelling - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Analysis Modelling
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Analysis Modelling”.

1. Which of the following is not the primary objectives in the analysis model?
a) describing the customer complaints
b) establishing a basis for the creation of a software design
c) de ning a set of requirements that can be validated once the software is built
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are covered in analysis model.

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2. A description of each function presented in the DFD is contained in a ________


a) data ow
b) process speci cation
c) control speci cation
d) data store

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Which diagram indicates the behaviour of the system as a consequence of external events?
a) data ow diagram
b) state transition diagram
c) control speci cation diagram
d) work ow diagram

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The state transition diagram represents the various modes of behavior (called
states) of the system and the manner in which transitions are made from state to state.

4. A data model contains


a) data object
b) attributes
c) relationships
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The data model consists of three interrelated pieces of information: the data
object,

the attributes that describe the data object, and the relationships that connect data objects to
one another.

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5. _________ de nes the properties of a data object and take on one of the three di erent
characteristics.
a) data object
b) attributes
c) relationships
d) data object and attributes

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: They can be used to name an instance of the data object, describe the instance,
or make reference to another instance in another table.

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6. The __________ of a relationship is 0 if there is no explicit need for the relationship to occur or
the relationship is optional.
a) modality
b) cardinality
c) entity
d) structured analysis

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The modality is 1 if an occurrence of the relationship is mandatory, else 0 for
optional relationship.


7. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information ow and the transforms that
are applied as data moves from input to output.
a) data ow diagram
b) state transition diagram

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c) control speci cation


d) work ow diagram

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The basic form of a data ow diagram, also known as a data ow graph or a
bubble chart.

8. A data condition occurs whenever a data is passed to an input element followed by a


processing element and the result in control output.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Standard ow of condition check.

9. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information domain
and functional domain at the same time
a) data ow diagram
b) state transition diagram
c) control speci cation
d) activity diagram

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As the DFD is re ned into greater levels of detail, the analyst performs an implicit
functional decomposition of the system, thereby accomplishing the fourth operational analysis
principle for function.

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10. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential speci cation of
behavior.
a) data ow diagram
b) state transition diagram
c) control speci cation
d) work ow diagram

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The control speci cation(CSPEC) describes the behavior of the system, but it gives
us no information about the inner working of the processes that are activated as a result of
this behavior .

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4/21/2021 Architectural Design - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Architectural Design
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Architectural Design”.

1. Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional-requirements of a system.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In architectural design you design a system organization satisfying the functional
and non-functional requirements of a system.

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2. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed
across the processors in the system.
a) physical
b) logical
c) process
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A physical view is implemented by system engineers implementing the system
hardware.

3. The UML was designed for describing _________


a) object-oriented systems
b) architectural design
c) SRS
d) Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The UML was designed for describing object-oriented systems and, at the
architectural design stage, you often want to describe systems at a higher level of abstraction.

4. Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting processes at run
time?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: This view is useful for making judgments about non-functional system
characteristics such as performance and availability.

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5. Which of the following is an architectural con ict?


a) Using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability
b) Introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more di cult
c) Localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded
performance
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: High availability architecture can be a ected by several design factors that are
required to be maintained to ensure that no single points of failure exist in such design.

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6. Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?


a) type of application
b) distribution of the system
c) architectural styles
d) testing the system

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Architectural design decisions include decisions on the type of application, the
distribution of the system, the architectural styles to be used, and the ways in which the
architecture should be documented and evaluated.


7. Architecture once established can be applied to other products as well.
a) True
b) False

View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: Systems in the same domain often have similar architectures that re ect domain
concepts.

8. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based
systems?
a) architecture
b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
d) di erent operating system

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Model-View-Controller pattern is the basis of interaction management in many
web-based systems.

9. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?


a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern
c) repository pattern
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The majority of systems that use large amounts of data are organized around a
shared database or repository.

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10. Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or
object classes?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is possible to relate the system requirements to entities in a logical view.

11. Which of the following is a type of Architectural Model?


a) Static structural model
b) Dynamic process model
c) Distribution model
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All these models re ects the basic strategy that is used to structure a system.

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4/21/2021 Basic Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Function Oriented Software Design
This set of Basic Software Engineering Questions and Answers focuses on “Function Oriented
Software Design”.

1. Choose the option that does not de ne Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module de nitions
b) Modules represent data abstraction
c) Modules support functional abstraction
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: Option b de nes an Object Oriented Design.

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2. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?


a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
c) Structured approach
d) Both Object oriented analysis and design

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

3. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements speci ed in


a) SDD
b) SRS
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: None.

4. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of


a) Top-down decomposition approach
b) Divide and conquer principle
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

5. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ? 


a) A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
b) Functions represent some activity
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD

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d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: All the options are correct with respect to Function Oriented Software Design.

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6. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?


a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintains the data dictionary
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) It complies with the available system

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: It takes long time to establish the system in order to comply with the available
system.

7. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?


a) Transform
b) Data Store
c) Function
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: None.

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8. Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: Structural decomposition is concerned with developing a model of the design
which shows the dynamic structure.

9. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data
processing activities.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design which focus on entities.

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10. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by


a) Circle
b) Arrow
c) Rectangle
d) Triangle

View Answer 

Answer:a
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Component Level Design - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Component Level Design
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Component Level Design”.

1. Which of the following is not a construct?


a) sequence
b) condition
c) repetition
d) selection

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Sequence implements processing steps that are essential in the speci cation of
any algorithm. Condition provides the facility for selected processing based on some logical
occurrence, and repetition allows for looping.

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2.Which of the following steps is applied to develop a decision table?


a) List all actions that can be associated with a speci c procedure
b) List all conditions during execution of the procedure
c) De ne rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a set of conditions
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A decision table includes action stub and a condition stub with a set of rules.

3. _________ is a pidgin(simpli ed version of a language that develops as a means of


communication between two or more groups that do not have a language in common)
a) program design language
b) structured English
c) pseudocode
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The di erence between PDL and a real programming language lies in the use of
narrative text embedded directly within PDL statements.

4. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement:”The ability to represent local and
global data is an essential element of component-level design.”?
a) Data representation
b) Logic veri cation
c) “Code-to” ability
d) Automatic processing

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Component Level Design - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

5. A software component
a) Implements some functionality
b) Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces
c) Communicates through its interfaces only
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options identify with features of a software component.

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6. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that
would not allow violation of the structured constructs?
a) State transition diagram
b) Box diagram
c) ER diagram
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. A __________ executes the loop task rst, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the
condition fails.
a) repeat until

b) condition
c) do while tests
d) if then-else

View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following is not a characteristics of box diagram?


a) functional domain
b) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible
c) recursion is easy to represent
d) providing a notation that translates actions and conditions

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: This functionality is covered by UML diagrams.

9. The________ is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control.


a) Repetition
b) Sequence
c) Condition
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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10. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement “Notation that can be input
directly into a computer-based development system o ers signi cant bene ts.”?
a) Machine readability
b) Maintainability
c) Structure enforcement
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d) Overall simplicity

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Readability is processing input.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

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To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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networks below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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4/21/2021 Dependability & Security - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Dependability and Security
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dependability and Security”.

1. A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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2. An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system
users is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as
expected by its users is called _____________
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these
pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the
example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The system is designed so that hazards are detected and removed before they
result in an accident.

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5. An aircraft engine normally includes automatic re extinguishers.What kind of dependability


and security issue the example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The system may include protection features that minimize the damage that may
result from an accident.

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6. An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is
known as
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability
c) Hazard severity
d) Mishap

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hazard severity can range from catastrophic, where many people are killed, to
minor, where only minor damage results. When an individual death is a possibility, a
reasonable assessment of hazard severity is ‘very high’.

7. which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an
accident?
a) Risk

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b) Hazard probability
c) Accident
d) Damage

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The risk is assessed by considering the hazard probability, the hazard severity,
and the probability that the hazard will lead to an accident.

8. A weakness in a computer-based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm is known
as?
a) Vulnerability
b) Attack
c) Threat
d) Exposure

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words
that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of ___________ with respect to security
systems.
a) risk
b) control
c) attack
b) asset

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A control protective measure that reduces a system’s vulnerability.

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10. The safety of a system is a system attribute that re ects the system’s ability to operate,
normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Dependability and Security Assurance
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dependability and Security Assurance”.

1. Static Analysis involves executing a program.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Static analysis techniques are system veri cation techniques that don’t involve
executing a program.

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2. Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ?


a) Formal veri cation
b) Model checking
c) Automated program analysis
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods


a) Concurrent systems can be analysed to discover race conditions that might lead to deadlock
b) Producing a mathematical speci cation requires a detailed analysis of the requirements
c) They require the use of specialised notations that cannot be understood by domain experts
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Formal methods are the ultimate static veri cation technique that may be used at
di erent stages in the development process.

4. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking?


a) Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems
b) Model checking is computationally very inexpensive
c) The model checker explores all possible paths through the model
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Model checking is very expensive.It is only practical to use it in the veri cation of
small to medium sized critical systems.


5. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would
fall:”Variables declared but never used”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults

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c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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6. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:
“Unreachable code”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Non-
usage of the results of functions”.
a) Storage management faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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8. Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security critical
systems.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The static analyzer can discover areas of vulnerability such as bu er over ows or
unchecked inputs

9. Which level of Static Analysis allows speci c rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
a) Characteristic error checking
b) User-de ned error checking
c) Assertion checking
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Users of a programming language de ne error patterns, thus extending the types
of error that can be detected.

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10. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would
fall:”Pointer Arithmetic”.
a) Storage management faults

b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Dependability and Security Speci cation
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dependability and Security Speci cation”.

1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements speci cation?


a) three
b) four
c) ve
d) six

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: These include Risk identi cation, Risk analysis, Risk reduction and Risk
decomposition

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2. Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What
type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: One may separate this into loss of critical services and loss of non-critical
services, where the consequences of a failure in non-critical services are less than the
consequences of critical service failure.

3. Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data.
What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. POFOD stands for


a) Possibility of failure of data
b) Probability of failure of data
c) Possibility of failure on demand
d) Probability of failure on demand

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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5. Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be
observed relative to a certain time period?
a) POFOD
b) ROCOF
c) AVAIL
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Rate of occurrence of failures (ROCOF) sets out the probable number of system
failures that are likely to be observed relative to the number of system executions.

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6. Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system?


a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are correct except option d.

7. To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with.
a) True

b) False

View Answer

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Answer: b
Explanation: To specify security requirements, one should identify the assets that are to be
dealt with.

8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and assessment process is to derive security requirements
for the system as a whole.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In preliminary risk analysis stage, decisions on the detailed system requirements,
the system design, or the implementation technology have not been made.

9. At which stage of risk analysis speci cation, the additional security requirements take account
of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation
decisions?
a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
c) Operational risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This risk assessment takes place during the system development life cycle after
design choices have been made..

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10. Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: These requirements are geared to helping the system recover after a failure has
occurred.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Dependability Engineering
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Dependability Engineering”.

1. Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ?


a) Medical Systems
b) Power Systems
c) Library Management
d) Telecommunications

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Software customers expect all software to be dependable. However, for non-
critical applications such as certain management systems, they may be willing to accept some
system failures.

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2. What is the term for development process organised such that faults in the system are
detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In Fault Avoidance, the system is developed in such a way that human error is
avoided and thus system faults are minimised.

3. What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do
not result in system failure ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the


statement: “The process should be understandable by people apart from process participants”?
a) Diverse
b) Documentable
c) Auditable
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer 

Answer: c
Explanation: It means that process standards are being followed and make suggestions for
process improvement.
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5. Which of the following is not a Protection system ?


a) System to stop a train if it passes a red light
b) System to indicate not returning of the library book
c) System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure are too high
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A Protection system is a specialized system that is associated with some other
control system, which can take emergency action if a failure occurs.

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6. The use of a well-de ned, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be
minimized.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

7. Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ?


a) Di erent programming languages
b) Di erent design methods and tools
c) Explicit speci cation of di erent algorithms

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: Diversity means to provide the same functionality in di erent ways so that critical
components of a dependable system will not fail in the same way.

8. Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault tolerance.

9. Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ?


a) Limit the visibility of information in a program
b) Check array bounds
c) Check all inputs for validity
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are good practices to achieve Dependability Engineering.

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10. What is a Range check?


a) Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name 
b) Check that the input falls within a known range
c) Use information about the input to check if it is reasonable rather than an extreme value

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d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Emperical Estimation Models - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Empirical Estimation Models
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Empirical Estimation Models”.

1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict e ort as a function of LOC
or FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
b) Process-Based Estimation
c) COCOMO
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Function points and COCOMO are used to evaluate e ort.

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2. The empirical data that support most estimation models are derived from a vast sample of
projects.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Empirical data is derived from a limited sample of projects. For this reason,
no estimation model is appropriate for all classes of software and in all development
environments.

3. COCOMO stands for


a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic
software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of
user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance,

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and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.


a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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6. Which one is not a size measure for software product?


a) LOC
b) Halstead’s program length
c) Function Count
d) Cyclomatic Complexity

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is the part of white box testing.

7.COCOMO was developed initially by


a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem

d) Gregg Rothermal

View Answer

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Answer: c
Explanation: Barry Boehm introduced a hierarchy of software estimation models bearing the
name COCOMO, for COnstructive COst MOdel.

8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on


a) Cost
b) Time
c) Schedule
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation depends on factors such as Function points and LOC.

9. COCOMO-II was developed at


a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California
c) MIT
d) IIT-Kanpur

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
a) Early design estimation model
b) Application Composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
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d) Post architecture estimation model

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It was a part of COCOMO.

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4/21/2021 Extreme Programming - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Extreme Programming
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Extreme Programming”.

1. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system


release once every month.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases.

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2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration approach.After any such integration, all the
unit tests in the system must pass.

3. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative
development.New versions may be built several times per day, hence delivering the increment
for approval every 2nd week after testing the new version.

4. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.


a) implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: User requirements are expressed as scenarios or user stories.These are written
on cards and the development team break them down into implementation tasks. These tasks
are the basis of schedule and cost estimates.

5. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No

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c) It may vary from Customer to Customer


d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance
tests for the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system.However,
people adopting the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work full-time
with the development team. They may feel that providing the requirements was enough of a
contribution and so may be reluctant to get involved in the testing process.

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6. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing
tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions
that may occur.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very di cult to write incrementally.For example, in a
complex user interface, it is often di cult to write unit tests for the code that implements the
‘display logic’ and work ow between screens.

7. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.



a) True
b) False

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a
new release is built.

8. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality
before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows Test- rst development approach.

9. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other
developers before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in
pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job.

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10. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ? 
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing

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d) planning, analysis, coding, testing

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order.

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Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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4/21/2021 Fourth Generation Techniques - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Fourth Generation Techniques
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Fourth Generation Techniques”.

1. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.


a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Rest all are third generation languages(3GL).

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2. Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.
i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product
iii. Implementation
iv. Requirement gathering
a) 1, 4, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2
d) 1, 3, 4, 2

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth
Generation Techniques(4GT)Model.

3. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.


a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both Black Box & Functional

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Functional processing/testing is also referred to as black box testing in which
contents of the black box are not known.Almost anything might be referred to as a black
box:an algorithm or the human mind.Functionality of the black box is understood in terms of
its inputs and outputs.

4. The 4GT Model is a package of ______________


a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs 
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

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Answer: b
Explanation: 4GT encompasses a broad array of software tools enabling the software engineer
to specify the characteristics at a high level leading to an automatically generated source code
based on these speci cations.

5. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating ______________


a) on Lisp machine
b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fifth-generation programming language are built on LISP.

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6. In 4GT, we can specify the user requirements in graphic notation or small abbreviated
language form.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.


7. Productivity of software engineers is reduced in using a 4GT.
a) True

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b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 4GLs are more programmer-friendly and enhance programming e ciency with
usage of English-like words and phrases, thereby increasing the productivity of professionals
able to engage in software development.

8. Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as
the standard language for managing structured data?
a) SQL
b) PROLOG
c) C
d) JAVA

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: C & JAVA are third generation languages(3GLs) whereas PROLOG is a 5GL.

9. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers
b) Reduction in software development time
c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators o ers a credible solution to many software
problems
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators proponents
claim a dramatic reduction in software development time.

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10. Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a
software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
d) 4GT Model

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since coding phase is eliminated in 4GT Model,more expertise is required for
analysis,design and testing activities.

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4/21/2021 Functional & Non-Functional Requirements Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Functional and Non-Functional
Requirements
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Functional and Non-Functional Requirements”.

1. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?


a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All are non-functional requirements representing quality of the system.
Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.

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2. Which one of the following is a requirement that ts in a developer’s module ?


a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A developer needs to test his product before launching it into the market.

3. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
a) Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.

4. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?


a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on
another platform
b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating
within the environment for which the system was intended
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and option e refers to e ciency.
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5. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The behavior of functional requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or
functions the system is required to perform.

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6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).


a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are used to nd measurable scales for the
quality attributes like e ciency, exibility, integrity, usability etc.

7. How many classi cation schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four

d) Five

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-
Product-External considerations [Sommerville 1992], Mc Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of
Quality–Components of FURPS+ are the ve classi cation schemes for NFRs.
.

8. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?


a) Testability
b) Speed E ciency
c) Serviceability
d) Installability

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Speed E ciency belong to Performance (P) in FURPS+ .

9. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?


a) Yes
b) No

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.

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10. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
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d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with dependability.

11. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Uni ed Process ?
a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the
environment
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the
environment
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 seconds on average.

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4/21/2021 ISO 9001 & CMM - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– ISO 9001 and CMM
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ISO
9001 and CMM”.

1. CMM stands for


a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Capability Maturity Model for Software describes the principles and practices
underlying software process maturity and is intended to help software organizations improve
the maturity of their software processes in terms of an evolutionary path from ad hoc, chaotic
processes to mature, disciplined software processes.


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2. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance
purposes.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The ISO 9000 series of standards is a set of documents.

3. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be


a) deleted
b) eliminated
c) identi ed
d) eliminated and identi ed

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ISO 9001 requires that the causes of nonconforming product to be identi ed.
Potential causes of nonconforming product are eliminated.

4. .CO policy in CMM means


a) The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
d) The planning practices in Commitment to Perform

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: CMM have certain policy practices covered under .CO policy.

5. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.


a) collection

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b) maintenance
c) veri cation
d) dis-positioning

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The practices de ning the quality records to be maintained in the CMM are
distributed throughout the key process areas in the various Activities Performed practices.

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6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?


a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The CMM is organized into ve maturity levels as namely: Initial, Repeatable,
De ned, Managed and Optimizing.

7. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described
in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance

c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: In CMM planning these activities is described in Software Project Planning,
however the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described
in Software Product Engineering.

8. Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording
design reviews and quali cation tests?
a) CMM
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9000-3
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ISO 9000-3 states that the supplier should carry out reviews to ensure the
requirements are met and design methods are correctly carried out.

9. The CMM emphasizes


a) continuous process improvement
b) the need to record information
c) the need to accept quality system
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: CMM emphasizes the need to record information for later use in the process and
for improvement of the process.

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10. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identi ed and
used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9000-4
c) CMM
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ISO 9001 states that, where, appropriate adequate statistical techniques are
identi ed and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.

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4/21/2021 Life Cycle Model Selection - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Selection of a Life Cycle Model
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Selection of a Life Cycle Model”.

1. Selection of a model is based on


a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Each model has to have some requirements, a team of developers, users and the
risk involved in developing a project.

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2. Which two models doesn’t allow de ning requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping Model starts with a requirements analysis phase including
techniques like FAST, QFD, Brainstorming.In case of Spiral model the rst phase involves
activities related to customer communication like determining objectives.

3. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Relying on risk assessment/analysis provides more exibility than required for
many applications which overcomes the criteria of less experienced developers.

4. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you
select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental 
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: RAD model is inapplicable to develop cheaper products/software/projects as the
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cost of modeling, hiring highly skilled developers/designers and automated code generation is
very high.But here the cost is not an issue, so one can select this model as it reduces
development time.

5. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s
participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Active Participation of user is involved in all the four phases of RAD model and in
case of the Prototyping model we need user’s presence/involvement every time a new
prototype is build or designed.

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6. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market,
what model approach would they prefer ?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
d) Spiral

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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7. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential ow and iterations in this model are
handled indirectly. This changes can cause confusion as the project proceeds thereby delaying
the delivery date.

8. Choose the correct option from given below:


a) Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
b) RAD Model Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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4/21/2021 Managing Software Projects Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Managing Software Projects – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Managing Software Projects – 1”.

1. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process,
and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational
implementation.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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2. Which of the following is not an e ective software project management focus?


a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: E ective software project management focuses on the four P’s: people, product,
process, and project.

3. PM-CMM stands for


a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The people management maturity model de nes the following key practice areas
for software people: recruiting, selection, performance management, training, compensation,
career development, organization and work design, and team/culture development.

4. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?


a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The design part of any project management is done by the project team.

5. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software
development can be established.

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a) people
b) product
c) process
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A small number of framework activities are applicable to all software projects,
regardless of their size or complexity.

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6. Who de nes the business issues that often have signi cant in uence on the project?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some
of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs
when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as e ciently as other teams.

9. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?


a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
d) Project management

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: For this reason, competent practitioners often make poor team leaders.

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10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team
members?
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a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

11. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?


a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Critical is no such standard approach of cost estimation.

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Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.

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4/21/2021 Metrics Analysis - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Metrics Analysis
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Metrics Analysis”.

1. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?


a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code.

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2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of


a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage.

3. Function Points in software engineering was rst proposed by


a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been
written on functions points since then.

4. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) ve
d) six

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The ve values are: External Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal
Logical Files and External Interface Files.

5. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].

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c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)


d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for Function Point Computation.

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6. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.


a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do not require any knowledge of the inner
workings of a particular software component.

7. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
a) “fan check-out” of module i
b) “fan check-in” of module i
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i

View Answer 

Answer: d
Explanation: Fan out is number of modules directly invoked by module i.

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8. SMI stands for


a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index
c) Software Mature Index
d) Software Maturity Indicator

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product begins to stabilize.

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10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules


a) in the current release
b) in the current release that have been changed
c) from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer 

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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11. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) E ciency
d) Functionality

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

12. Usability in metric analysis is de ned as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

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To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
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4/21/2021 Object Oriented Software Design Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Object Oriented Software Design – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Object Oriented Software Design – 1”.

1. Choose the incorrect statement in terms of Objects.


a) Objects are abstractions of real-world
b) Objects can’t manage themselves
c) Objects encapsulate state and representation information
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Objects are independent.

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2. What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ?


a) Object
b) Class
c) Super Class
d) Sub Class

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have
di erent methods with the same name?
a) Aggregation
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In polymorphism instances of each subclass will be free to respond to messages
by calling their own version of the method.

4. Inherited object classes are self-contained.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Inherited object classes are not self-contained. They cannot be understood
without reference to their super-classes.


5. Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD) is true?
a) OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain
b) OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement
requirements

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c) All of the mentioned


d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is in support with the OOD.

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6. How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages?


a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation
d) Abstract Classes

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?


a) Easier maintenance
b) Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities
c) Objects are potentially reusable components
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options de ne the characteristics of OOD.

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8. Which of the following describes”Is-a-Relationship” ?


a) Aggregation
b) Inheritance
c) Dependency
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. Object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as


a) Active Object
b) Passive Object
c) Multiple instance
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A passive object holds data, but does not initiate control.

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10. Objects are executed


a) sequentially
b) in Parallel
c) sequentially & Parallel

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

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Answer: c
Explanation: Objects may be distributed and may execute sequentially or in parallel.

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4/21/2021 Process Improvement - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Process Improvement
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Process Improvement”.

1. “Robustness” answers which of the following description?


a) CASE tools be used to support the process activities
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) De ned process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the
software
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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2. Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers
use to develop and maintain information systems.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The de nition is of a system development process.

3. “Understandability” answers which of the following description?


a) The extent to which the process is explicitly de ned
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) De ned process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the
software product
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. How many stages are there in process improvement?


a) three
b) four
c) ve
d) six

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Process measurement, analysis and change are the three stages.


5. In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identi ed?
a) Process measurement
b) Process analysis
c) Process change

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d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In Process analysis the current process is assessed and bottlenecks and
weaknesses are identi ed.

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6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?
a) Informal
b) Managed
c) Methodical
d) Supported

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Here the development team chose their own way of working.

7. The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is
called
a) Process metric
b) Process analysis
c) Process modelling
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer 

Answer: c
Explanation: Process models may be presented from di erent perspectives.

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8. It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: It is always best to start process analysis with an existing model. People then may
extend and change this.

9. What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?


a) Deliverable
b) Activity
c) Condition
d) Process

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. What is often unde ned and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers?
a) Role
b) Exception
c) Activity
d) Process

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Exceptions are often unde ned and it is left to the ingenuity of the project
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managers and engineers to handle the exception.

11. Which of the following is not a part of process change?


a) Introducing new practices, methods or processes
b) Introducing new team members to existing project
c) Introducing or removing deliverable
d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Adding more developers aid to process completion rather than changing it.

12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The CMM is discrete rather than continuous.

13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x?
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Not performed, performed, managed, de ned, quantitatively managed, and
optimizing are the six points.

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4/21/2021 Project Management - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Project Management
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Project Management”.

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?


a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is
always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

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2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may a ect a project.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might a ect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these
risks.

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?


a) Speci cation delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Sta turnover

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage
projects successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low

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c) moderate
d) high

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%),
moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).

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6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs
of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) e ort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much e ort is required to complete each
activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for


a) team
b) project
c) customers

d) project manager

View Answer

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Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how
these are to be assessed.

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the con guration management of a software
system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Con guration management policies and processes de ne how to record and
process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to
manage di erent versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes
to customers.

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement


a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processi cation
d) Process distribution

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identi ed.

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10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the
external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of
the attribute than can be measured.

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4/21/2021 Project Planning - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Project Planning
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Project Planning”.

1. Which of the following is an important factor that can a ect the accuracy and e cacy of
estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software
grows rapidly.

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2. What describes the data and control to be processed?


a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases
re ned to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.

3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to


requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application speci cation techniques
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers
and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements
of the solution, negotiate di erent approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.

4. CLSS stands for


a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed 
d) conveyor line sorting speci cation

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor
line. Each box is identi ed by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of
six bins at the end of the line.

5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software
functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None

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6. The environment that supports the software project is called


a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.

7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and e ort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
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b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and e ort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and e ort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human e ort, calendar time, and dollars

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and o er a potentially valuable


estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to
predict e ort as a function of LOC or FP.

9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?


a) Predicting sta ng levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.

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10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good
historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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4/21/2021 Project Scheduling & Tracking - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Project Scheduling and Tracking
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Project Scheduling and Tracking”.

1. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?


a) Changing customer requirements that are not re ected in schedule changes
b) Technical di culties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human di culties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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2. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated e ort across the planned
project duration by allocating the e ort to speci c software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a speci c team member is termed as
a) Compartmentalization
b) De ned milestones
c) De ned responsibilities
d) De ned outcomes

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: These responsibilities are domain speci c.

4. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must
be accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation

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b) E ort Validation
c) De ned Milestone
d) E ort Distribution

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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6. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process
should be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Four di erent degrees of rigor are: casual, structured, strict, and quick reaction.

7. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project
scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment

d) Customer reaction to the concept

View Answer

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Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?


a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project sta
d) Mission criticality

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: These can vary from client to client.

9. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software
development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM)
are two project scheduling methods that can be applied to software development.

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10. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as


a) BCWS
b) EVA
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c) BAC
d) CBSE

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The earned value system provides a common value scale for every task,
regardless of the type of work being performed. The total hours to do the whole project are
estimated, and every task is given an earned value based on its estimated percentage of the
total.

11. What is the recommended distribution of e ort for a project?


a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A recommended distribution of e ort across the software process is 40%
(analysis and design), 20% (coding), and 40% (testing).

12. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by


a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Timeline chart, also called a Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an
industrial engineer in 1917 .

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4/21/2021 Quality Control Metrics - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Metrics for Quality Control
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Metrics for Quality Control”.

1. Size and Complexity are a part of


a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Product Metrics describe the characteristics of product.

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2. Cost and schedule are a part of


a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Project Metrics describe the project characteristics and execution.

3. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a


a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or
process possesses a given attribute.

4. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality
Factors?
a) Flexibility
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Integrity

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Flexibility is a part of Product revision as per McCall’s Software Quality Factors.

5. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
a) maximum number of nodes at any level
b) longest path from the root to a leaf

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c) number of modules
d) lines of control

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the arcs or the lines of control.

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6. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?


a) Complexity Metrics
b) Cohesion Metrics
c) Morphology Metrics
d) Coupling Metrics

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Morphology metrics are a part of High level design metrics.

7. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of


a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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8. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Measurement is the act of obtaining a measure.

9. MTTC falls the the category of


a) correctness
b) integrity
c) maintainability
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Mean time to change (MTTC) is the time it takes to analyze the change request,
design an appropriate modi cation, implement the change, test it, and distribute the change
to all users.

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10. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)].

d) Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)].

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

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To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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4/21/2021 Requirement Analysis - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Requirement Analysis
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Requirement Analysis”.

1. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?


a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the design phase of SDLC.

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2. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?


a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/bene t analysis), Technical feasibility
(hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal feasibility studies are done in Requirement
Analysis.

3. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?


a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how),
Modeling, Speci cation and Review are the ve phases.

4. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a
requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated
requirements, hence requirements must be traceable.

5. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.


a) True

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b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identi ed
business needs or opportunities, and de ned to a level of detail su cient for system design.

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6. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.


a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement
analysis..

7. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of
three perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User

c) Non-Functional
d) Physical

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional,
and Physical views.All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the
customers’ needs and objectives.

8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to
optimize performance requirements for identi ed functions, and to verify that synthesized
solutions can satisfy customer requirements.

9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an
analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Retained information, Needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes,
Common operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by Coad and
Yourdon.

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10. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and
behavior.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Requirement Elicitation
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Requirement Elicitation”.

1. What is the rst step of requirement elicitation ?


a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will invest in and use the product, so its essential
to chalk out stakeholders rst.

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2. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.


i. Managers
ii. Entry level Personnel
iii. Users
iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) i, ii, iv, iii
b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, i, iii
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be using your product, thus making them
most important of all.

3. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.


i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
a) iii, i, ii, iv
b) iii, iv, ii, i
c) iii, ii, iv, i
d) ii, iii, iv, i

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements gathering captures viewpoint from di erent users followed by
evaluation of those view points.Now comes the task of checking the relative importance of the
requirements and nally to consolidate or bind together the information collected.


4. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional

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d) Normal, Expected, Exciting

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes
customer satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.

5. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of
the system ?
a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with the system, for what purpose, without
dealing with system internals.

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6. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?


a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Ternary
d) Both Primary and Secondary

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal requiring the assistance of the system
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whereas, a secondary actor is one from which system needs assistance.There is no such thing
as ternary actor in Software Engineering.

7. Why is Requirements Elicitation a di cult task ?


a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify
overall system objectives.Also, the customers/users are not completely sure of what is needed,
have a poor understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment
and they do not understand that the requirements change over time.

8. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing
requirement elicitation ?
a) JAD
b) Traceability
c) FAST
d) Both JAD and Traceability

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a process used to collect business requirements
while developing new information systems for a company. Requirements traceability is
concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability
between various associated requirements.

9. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi-directional traceability between various
associated requirements.

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10. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are
the four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Requirement Elicitation Techniques -1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Requirement Elicitation Techniques -1”.

1. Which of the following elicitation techniques is a viewpoint based method?


a) FODA
b) QFD
c) CORE
d) IBIS

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Controlled Requirements Expression(CORE) says that any system can be viewed
from a number of view points and that a complete picture of system requirements can only
emerge by putting together the various viewpoints.

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2. ___________ and ____________ are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements
Expression (CORE).
a) Functional, Non-Functional
b) User, Developer
c) Known, Unknown
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The CORE sessions includes the discussion of functional and non-functional
requirements.

3. What is the major drawback of CORE ?


a) Requirements are comprehensive
b) NFRs are not given enough importance
c) Role of analyst is passive
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In CORE the requirement speci cation are put together by all users, customers
and analysts, so a passive analyst will not get the requirements properly.

4. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue Based Information System (IBIS).


a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
c) Issue -> Position -> Justi cation
d) Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justi cation

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non-intrusive method that provides a framework for resolving
issues and gathering requirements.

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5. How is CORE di erent from IBIS ?


a) Iterative in nature
b) Redundancies are removed
c) It is simple and an easier method to use
d) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Preliminary data collection is done in CORE to get some broad level data on each
view point to structure the view point and to check consistency from within and outside the
viewpoints.

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6. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of
application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ?
a) FODA
b) CORE
c) IBIS
d) Prototyping

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) is de ned as the process of identifying,
collecting, organizing and representing relevant information in a domain .


7. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four

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d) Five

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Context Analysis, Domain Modeling and Architecture Modeling are the three
steps involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA).

8. IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: IBIS is a more structured approach as it captures information which is consistent
and important.On the other hand CORE gives importance to every view point even if it is
obsolete.

9. Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ?


a) User
b) Tester
c) Scribe
d) Sponsor

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A Tester’s role is seen in after coding phase rather than in elicitation phase.

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10. What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ?


a) Context Diagrams
b) DFDs
c) ER model
d) UML diagrams

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Uni ed Modeling Language (UML) diagrams are constructed during the design
phase of the SDLC.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Requirement Engineering
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Requirement Engineering”.

1. What are the types of requirements ?


a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are bene cial for an e ective product to be developed.

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2. Select the developer-speci c requirement ?


a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user speci c requirement.

3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?


a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and
Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering.Design is in
itself a di erent phase of Software Engineering.

4. FAST stands for


a) Functional Application Speci cation Technique
b) Fast Application Speci cation Technique
c) Facilitated Application Speci cation Technique
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development

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c) quality function deployment


d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that di erent people may play.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person
or another (external) system.

7. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?


a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD

View Answer

Answer: b 
Explanation: Software requirements speci cation (SRS), is a complete description of the
behaviour of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe
interactions the users will have with the software.

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8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under
development.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders
are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests
may be a ected as a result of project execution or project completion.

9. Con icting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing
his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every eld of work as each professional has his/her way
of looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.

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10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder

c) Managers
d) Users of the software

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders.After all, without users or
customers, what’s the point of being in business?.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Requirement Management
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Requirement Management”.

1. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core requirements & are related to main activity of
the organization while volatile requirements are likely to change during software development
life cycle or after delivery of the product.

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2. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library


management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
c) Both Enduring & Volatile
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For library management system issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core
activities and are stable for any system.

3. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes


a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the advancement of new products being
launched in the market and so does the market changes, the technology and in turn
customer’s expectation.

4. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Quality makes no sense without reference to requirements, which means quality-
oriented development is requirements-driven development, thus requirements management
is a prerequisite for quality-oriented development.

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5. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may
also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the ability to describe and follow the life of a
requirement in both forwards and backwards direction. Requirements can be traced from its
origins, through its development and speci cation, to its subsequent deployment and use, and
through periods of ongoing re nement and iteration in any of these phases.

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6. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding
throughout a project.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs continued funding throughout a
project.Project funding is often limited at the onset of a project, restricted to those aspects of
the project which are tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a phase-by-phase
manner.


7. Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite

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d) RDD 100

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool for requirement management.

8. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?


a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are the activities of requirement management.

9. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the
tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information
retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports Automatic Link Detection.

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10. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before
completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the
reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned in the statistical report is poor
requirements management. Option a and c are its sub parts.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Risk Management
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Risk
Management”.

1. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a


a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might a ect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these
risks.

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2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that a ect the quality or performance of the software being developed.

3. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with di erent priorities.”?
a) Sta turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement: “The underlying technology on
which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software
engineering.

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5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identi cation

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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6. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the
software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management level.

7. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are
used to develop the system?

a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks

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d) Organizational risks

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with technology might a ect the product development.

8. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement: “Derive traceability information
to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.

9. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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10. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management
tasks.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Security Engineering
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Security Engineering”.

1. Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ?


a) Platform-level protection
b) Application-level protection
c) Record-level protection
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Security Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

2. Security engineering is only concerned with maintenance of systems such that they can resist
malicious attacks.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: Security engineering is concerned with maintenance as well as development of
such systems.

3. What are security controls ?


a) Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful
b) Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks
c) Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:d
Explanation: All the options de ne a security control property.

4. Controls that are intended to repel attacks is analogous to ____________ in dependability


engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: Here the system is designed so that faults in the delivered software do not result
in system failure.

5. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to ____________
in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance

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b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) Fault Recovery

View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: In Fault avoidance the system is developed in such a way that human error is
avoided and thus system faults are minimised.

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6. What is Life cycle risk assessment ?


a) Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
b) Risk assessment while the system is being developed
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: None.

7. A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as


a) Asset
b) Control
c) Vulnerability
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
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8. An impersonation of an authorised user is an example of a security threat.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: It is a security attack.

9. The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resembles which
security concept ?
a) Asset
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control

View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: Asset is a system resource that has a value and has to be protected.

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10. Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or harm is known as


a) Attack
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control

View Answer

Answer:b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
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4/21/2021 Security Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

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4/21/2021 Size & Cost Estimation of Software Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Size and Cost Estimation of Software
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Size
and Cost Estimation of Software”.

1. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) E ort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.

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2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total e ort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting o ce space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support sta

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.

3. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?


a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced
in some given time. Function points and object points
are the best-known metrics of this type.

4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to
the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived
from historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.

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5. It is often di cult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a speci cation is
available
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates
of code size but are often still inaccurate.

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6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain
have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects.

7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or
database programming?
a) An application-composition model

b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.

8. Which of the following states that work expands to ll the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective
assessment. If the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the
e ort required is estimated to be 60 person-months.

9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have
been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of
lines of source code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simpli ed
set of seven multipliers.

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10. Which model is used to compute the e ort required to integrate reusable components or
program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. The COCOMO model takes into account di erent approaches to software development,
reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-models that
produce increasingly detailed software estimates.

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To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.

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4/21/2021 Sociotechnical Systems - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Sociotechnical Systems
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Sociotechnical Systems”.

1. A sociotechnical system is a system that includes


a) people
b) software
c) hardware
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A sociotechnical system is a system that includes people, software, and hardware
to show that you need to take a systems perspective on security and dependability.

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2. Which layer is missing in the sociotechnical system stack as shown below:

a) organizational layer
b) application layer
c) physical layer
d) transport layer

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The application layer This layer delivers the application-speci c functionality
that is required.

3. Consider an example of a system which has a police command and control system that may
include a geographical information system to provide details of the location of incidents. What
kind of system the example represents?
a) Complex System
b) Technical computer-based system 
c) Sociotechnical System
d) Both Complex and Sociotechnical System

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Answer: d
Explanation: Complex systems are usually hierarchical and so include other systems.

4. Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component


assemblies are arranged and connected?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The volume of a system (the total space occupied) varies depending on how the
component assemblies are arranged and connected.

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5. Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its
operators, and its operating environment?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Usability re ects how easy it is to use the system.

6. In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely:


a) only software reliability
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b) only hardware reliability


c) hardware and software reliability
d) hardware, software and operator reliability

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from all three
perspectives.

7. There are ________ overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical
systems.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) ve

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The stages are Procurement, Development and Operation.

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8. Sociotechnical systems are deterministic.


a) True
b) False

View Answer 

Answer: b
Explanation: Sociotechnical systems are non-deterministic partly because they include people

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and partly because changes to the hardware, software, and data in these systems are so
frequent

9. What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system?
a) hardware and software approach
b) management and users approach
c) person and systems approach
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

10. Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a
signi cant e ect on the operation of sociotechnical systems.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As people are a part of the system, hence they a ect the sociotechnical system.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Certi cation
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Certi cation”.

1. Which of the following is a eld related to certi cation ?


a) Person
b) Process
c) Product
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: During software certi cation all given options are targeted.

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2. Which of the following is a software process certi cation ?


a) JAVA Certi ed
b) IBM Certi ed
c) ISO-9000
d) Microsoft Certi ed

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. Which standard is followed in aviation industry ?


a) CTRADO-172B
b) RTCADO-178B
c) RTRADO-178B
d) CTCADO-178B

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: RTCADO-178B is a popular aviation standard that has become a defacto
standard.

4. How many levels, does the DO-178B certi cation targeted by RTCADO-178B has ?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) ve

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The levels are A, B, C, D, E.


5. Third Party Certi cation for software standards is based on
a) Ul 1998, Second Edition
b) UT 1998, Second Edition
c) Ul 1992, Second Edition

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d) Ul 1996, Second Edition

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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6. What are the goals to gain Laboratory Accreditation ?


a) Increase availability of testing services through third-party laboratories
b) Increase availability of testing market to encourage development of software testing industry
c) Reduce cost by increasing supply of testing services
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The goal is to promote development of competitive market, hence option d.

7. National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program approve accreditation in


a) Environmental standards
b) Computers and electronics
c) Product testing
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d 
Explanation: National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program Works with other national
metrology institutes to establish criteria for mutual recognition of test results.

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8. CSTE stands for


a) Certi ed Software Technology
b) Certi ed Software Tester
c) Certi ed Software Trainee
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. CSQA stands for


a) Certi ed Software Quality Analyst
b) Certi ed Software Quality Approved
c) Certi ed Software Quality Acclaimed
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. Which of the following companies provide certi cations for their own products?
a) CISCO
b) ORACLE
c) Microsoft

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Software Configuration Management Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Con guration Management – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Con guration Management – 1”.

1. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?


a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None

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2. Which is a software con guration management concept that helps us to control change
without seriously impeding justi able change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a software
con guration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.

3. Software Con guration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software con guration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate con guration management team for each project
c) Software Con guration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None

4. What combines procedures and tools to manage di erent versions of con guration objects
that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Con guration management allows a user to specify alternative con gurations of
the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.

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5. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a con guration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software con guration audit
b) Software con guration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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6. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries,
and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following option is not tracked by con guration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals

b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned

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Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are tracked.

8. Which of the following is not a Software Con guration Management Activity?


a) Con guration item identi cation
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely di erent domain.

9. The de nition and use of con guration management standards is essential for quality
certi cation in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is de ned in all the mentioned options.

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10. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system
versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
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c) Change management
d) Version management

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Software Design Modularity Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Modularity in Software Design
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Modularity in Software Design”.

1. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________


a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A modular system consist of well de ned manageable units with well de ned
interfaces among the units.

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2. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to bene ts software
modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Modularity cannot bring bene ts unless the modules are autonomous or
independent.

3. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.


a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the degree to which each program module relies on
each one of the other modules.

4. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?


a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The dependency between module A and B is said to be data coupled if their
dependency is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data.

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5. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?


a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when module A changes data of module B or when
control is passed from one module to the middle of another.

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6. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?


a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in modules that contain instructions that have little
or no relationship to one another.

7. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?


a) Functional Cohesion

b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion

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Answer: a
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type of cohesion in which the tasks performed by a
software module all contribute to the performance of a single function.

8. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low
coupling.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If the software is not properly modularized, a host of seemingly trivial
enhancement or changes will result into death of the project.

9. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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10. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
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d) Sequential Cohesion

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal cohesion when it contains tasks that are related by
the fact that all tasks must be executed in the same time-span.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Design
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Design”.

1. Which is the rst step in the software development life cycle ?


a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identi cation
d) Development and Documentation

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?


a) Program owchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data- ow diagram
d) Module

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a
chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.

3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as


a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of
the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) owchart
c) program speci cation
d) design

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Program speci cation is the de nition of what a computer program is expected
to do.

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5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation

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b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The developer has to nd in the technical documentation enough information to
start coding.

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6. Who designs and implement database structures.


a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of
database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity,
and planning for future expansion requirements.

7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will
use to perform that task.
a) Project design

b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
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Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) nding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of nding and reducing the number of bugs,
or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as
expected.

9. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?


a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the
system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.

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10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) E ciency
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b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Software functional quality re ects how well it complies with or conforms to a
given design, based on functional requirements or speci cations.

11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module


a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities
form a meaningful unit.

12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module


a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual
interdependence.

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Software Engineering Questions & Answers –


Software Engineering Ethics – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Engineering Ethics – 1”.

1. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility


a) Con dentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Con dentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the con dentiality of their employers or
clients irrespective of whether or not a formal con dentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as patents,
copyright, etc.


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2. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modi cation of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the
ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modi cations meet the
highest professional standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modi cations satisfy the client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:


a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without nishing the testing of the system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer 

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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5. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall


a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client
and employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products and
related modi cations meet the highest professional standards possible.Thus options a & c are
ruled out.

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6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should


a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation:None.

7. E ciency in a software product does not include ________



a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization

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d) processing time

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software
company.

8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53%
overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94
restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a
covers them both.

9. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to


a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing working
atmosphere for the software development, so in turn these companies become a part of
software development process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. Thus option c
answers the question.

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10. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
about the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the quality of
the product.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Engineering Ethics – 2
This set of Software Engineering Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Software
Engineering Ethics – 2”.

1. Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of
Ethics and Professional Practice ?
a) PUBLIC
b) PROFESSION
c) PRODUCT
d) ENVIRONMENT

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software ethics, environment does not focus on speci c
clause nor its of importace related to question.

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2. What is a Software ?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and con guration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & con guration of data
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Software is not just set of program but it is also associated documentation and
con guration of data to make program run.

3. Which of these does not account for software failure ?


a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more production and not failure.

4. What are attributes of good software ?


a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality
c) Software development
d) Software maintainability & functionality

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Good software should deliver the required functinality, maintainability. Software
development is not an attribute but a fundamental.

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5. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
a) Software dependence
b) Software development
c) Software validation
d) Software speci cation

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute and not an engineering activity for process.

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6. Which of these is incorrect ?


a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering useful
software

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub domain which comes under computer science
which is main domain.

7. Which of these is true ?


a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products

b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
d) All of the mentioned

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Answer: d
Explanation: All of them are true.

8. Which of these does not a ect di erent types of software as a whole?


a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility
c) Business and social change
d) Security

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a
covers them both.

9. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?


a) Software processes
b) Software Security
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Software validation is an activity for software process and not the fundamental
for engineering.

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10. Which of these is not true ?


a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly distributed
service based systems
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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Object Oriented Software Design – 2
This set of Software Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people
focuses on “Object Oriented Software Design – 2”.

1. How many layers are present in the OO design pyramid?


a) three
b) four
c) ve
d) one

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The four layers are: Subsystem layer, class and object layer, message layer and
responsibilities layer

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2. Which of the following early OOD methods incorporates both a “micro development process”
and a “macro development process.” ?
a) Booch method
b) Rumbaugh method
c) Wirfs-Brock method
d) Coad and Yourdon method

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The macro development process includes the architectural planning and micro
developments process de nes rules that govern the use of operations and attributes and the
domain-speci c
policies for memory management, error handling, and other infrastructure
functions.

3. Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their
individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object oriented design known as
a) HTML
b) XML
c) UML
d) SGML

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Uni ed Modeling Language (UML) has become
widely used throughout the industry as the standard approach to OOD.

4. A design description of an object is known as a class


a) instance
b) object
c) case 
d) both instance and object

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Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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5. Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects?


a) PACKAGE
b) PROC
c) PRIVATE
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A package is a namespace that organizes a set of related classes and interfaces.

6. A design description in OOD includes


a) Protocol Description
b) Implementation Description
c) Type Description
d) both Protocol and Implementation Description

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following is not an operation as per OOD algorithms and data structures? 
a) operations that manipulate data in some way
b) operations that perform a computation
c) operations that check for syntax errors

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d) operations that monitor an object for the occurrence of a controlling event

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Operations that check for syntax errors is concerned with the programming
language used, so it will be handled by the compiler.

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8. Throughout the OOD process, a software engineer should look for every opportunity for
creating new design process.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A software engineer should look for every opportunity to reuse existing design
patterns whenever they meet the needs of the design rather than creating new ones.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Requirement Elicitation Techniques – 2
This set of Software Engineering Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on
“Requirement Elicitation Techniques – 2”.

1. How is brainstorming di erent from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions


a) last for about 2-3 hours
b) last for about 2-3 days
c) cover the technology used for the development
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual creativity technique by which e orts are
made to nd a conclusion for a speci c problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously
contributed by its member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an approved solution ASAP.

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2. How is throwaway prototype di erent from evolutionary prototype ?


a) It involves successive steps
b) It involves just one task
c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into nal system
d) It has a shorter development time

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Except option b all other options represent the characteristics of an evolutionary
prototype.

3. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an
Expected Requirement ?
a) Ease of software installation
b) Overall operational correctness and reliability
c) Speci c system functions
d) Quality graphical display

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Expected requirements are so fundamental that a customer does not explicitly
state them.System functions comes under the category of Normal requirements in QFD which
is compulsory to be de ned,hence is not an expected requirement.

4. QFD works best if it has management commitment.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in initial stages, thus bounding the management
to provide appropriate funding for the development process .

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5. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing


and ill-de ned problem situations ?
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
b) Prototyping
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)
d) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling real-world
problematic situations.It is a common misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for
dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which involve psychological, social, and cultural
elements). SSM does not di erentiate between ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a
di erent way of dealing with situations perceived as problematic.

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6. To ensure that a given root de nition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team
proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems
Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely di erent meaning
to SSM ?
a) C – Customer
b) A – Actor
c) T – Transformation
d) E – ER Model

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for Environmental constraints.

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7. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique.


a) It incorporates human element into design
b) SSM is in its infant stage
c) SSM is suitable for new systems
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support
SSM

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is evolving and its industrial usage is low.

8. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?


a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up are the three phases to be achieved for a
successful brainstorming session.

9. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Speci cation Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
b) Scribe
c) Facilitator
d) Manager

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an outsider) controls the FAST meeting.His
role is to ensure that the meeting is productive.

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10. Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wideband Delphi Technique.
i. Conduct a group discussion
ii. Conduct another group discussion
iii. Present experts with a problem
iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
v. Iterate until consensus is reached
vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
b) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The sequence represents the working steps of a Wideband Delphi technique .

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Maintenance – 2
This set of Software Engineering MCQs focuses on “Software Maintenance – 2”.

1. The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as


a) Software engineering
b) Software re-engineering
c) Reverse engineering
d) Re-engineering

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Reverse engineering is the process followed in order to nd di cult, unknown
and hidden information about a software system..

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2. What is a software patch?


a) Required or Critical Fix
b) Emergency Fix
c) Daily or routine Fix
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A software patch is an emergency x which is worked upon the obsolete version
whenever a vulnerability is encountered.

3. Which one of the following is not a maintenance model?


a) Waterfall model
b) Reuse-oriented model
c) Iterative enhancement model
d) Quick x model

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Waterfall model is a software development model.

4. What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for software maintenance?
a) Actual change track
b) Annual change track
c) Annual change tra c
d) Actual change tra c

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.


5. Choose the suitable options with respect to regression testing.
a) It helps in development of software
b) It helps in maintenance of software
c) It helps in development & maintenance of software

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d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Regression testing preserves the quality and reliability of software and ensures
the software’s continued operation.

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6. What are legacy systems?


a) new systems
b) old systems
c) under-developed systems
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Legacy systems are the existing systems which may require some modi cation or
maintenance.

7. Which of the following manuals is not a user documentation?


a) Beginner’s Guide
b) Installation guide
c) Reference Guide
d) SRS

View Answer 

Answer: d
Explanation: SRS provides information on exact requirements of system as agreed between
user and developers.
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8. Which of the following manuals is a user documentation?


a) SRS -Software Requirement Speci cation
b) SDD -Software Design Document
c) System Overview
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: System overview provides general description of the system’s functions.

9. The process of transforming a model into source code is known as


a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse engineering
c) Re-engineering
d) Reconstructing

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement model used during software
maintenance?
a) two
b) three

c) four
d) ve

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Answer: b
Explanation: The stages include: analysis of existing system, characterize proposed
modi cations, redesign and implement current version.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Decomposition Techniques in Software
Project Planning
This set of Software Engineering Question Bank focuses on “Decomposition Techniques in
Software Project Planning”.

1. Why is decomposition technique required?


a) Software project estimation is a form of problem solving
b) Developing a cost and e ort estimate for a software project is too complex
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For these reasons, we decompose the problem, re-characterizing it as a set of
smaller problems.

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2. Cost and e ort estimation of a software uses only one forms of decomposition, either
decomposition of the problem or decomposition of the process.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Estimation uses one or both forms of partitioning.

3. If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in


a) LOC
b) FP
c) LOC and FP
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: LOC or Line of Code is a direct measure to estimate project size.

4. Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain
characteristics?
a) Function point sizing
b) Change sizing
c) Standard component sizing
d) Fuzzy logic sizing

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None. 

5. The expected value for the estimation variable (size), S, can be computed as a weighted
average of the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess) estimates given as
a) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4
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b) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6


c) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6
d) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This assumes that there is a very small probability that the actual size result will
fall outside the optimistic or pessimistic values.

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6. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model?


a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) No form exists

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The three forms include the basic, intermediate and advanced COCOMO model.

7. Who suggested the four di erent approaches to the sizing problem?


a) Putnam
b) Myers
c) Boehm
d) Putnam and Myers

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
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8. In many cases, it is often more cost-e ective to acquire, rather than develop, computer
software.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Managers are faced with a make-buy decision in such situations.

9. A make-buy decision is based on whether


a) The software may be purchased o -the-shelf
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” software components should be used
c) Customer-built software should be developed
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None..

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10. Which of the following is not one of the ve information domain characteristics of Function
Point (FP) decomposition?
a) External inputs
b) External outputs
c) External process

d) External inquiries

View Answer

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Answer: c
Explanation: External inputs, external outputs, external inquiries, internal logical les, external
interface les are the ve domains.

11. The project planner must reconcile the estimates based on decomposition techniques to
produce a single estimate of e ort.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The planner must determine the cause of divergence and then reconcile the
estimates.

12. Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers?
a) Personnel Factor
b) Product Factor
c) Platform Factor
d) Project Factor

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

13. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as


a) LOC
b) FP
c) Fuzzy Logic
d) LOC and FP

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A function point (FP) is a unit of measurement to express the amount of business
functionality an information system provides to a user.

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4/21/2021 Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Architectural Patterns - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Architectural Patterns
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Architectural Patterns”.

1. Which of these following sensor is a useful as part of a burglar alarm system for commercial
buildings?
a) Movement detector
b) Door sensor
c) Window sensor
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A burglar alarm system for commercial buildings include movement detectors in
individual rooms, door sensors that detect corridor doors opening, and window sensors on
ground- oor windows that can detect when a window has been opened.


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2. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?
a) Asynchronous communication
b) Observe and React
c) Environmental Control
d) Process Pipeline

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: These patterns can be combined and you will often see more than one of them in
a single system.

3. A monitoring system examines its environment through


a) operating system
b) communication
c) set of sensors
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: If some exceptional event or sensor state is detected by the system, the
monitoring system takes some action. Often, this involves raising an alarm to draw an
operator’s attention to the event.

4. Which of the following is applicable on software radio?


a) Environmental Control
b) Process Pipeline
c) Distributed system
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer 

Answer: b
Explanation: A software radio accepts incoming packets of digital data representing the radio
transmission and transforms these into a sound signal that people can listen to.
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5. An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a high-speed


a) data distributing system
b) data acquisition system
c) data collector system
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Data acquisition systems collect data from sensors for subsequent processing
and analysis.

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6. Monitoring systems are an important class of embedded real-time systems.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A monitoring system examines its environment through a set of sensors and,
usually, displays the state of the environment in some way.

7. Which of the following is an example of a controller for a car braking system?


a) Observe and React
b) Process Pipeline
c) Environmental Control

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: An anti-skid braking system in a car monitors the car’s wheels and brake system .

8. ETL stands for


a) Data Extraction Transformation & Loading
b) Data Execution Transformation & Loading
c) Extraction Transformation & Loading
d) Execution Transformation & Loading

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Control systems may make use of the Environmental Control pattern, which is a general
control pattern that includes _________processes.
a) sensor
b) actuator
c) pipeline
d) both sensor and actuator

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Such patterns are quite common in Environmental Control Systems.

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10. ________ can be associated with a separate processor or core, so that the processing steps can
be carried out in parallel.
a) Process Pipeline
b) Environmental Control
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c) Observe and React


d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Process Pipeline pattern makes this rapid processing possible by breaking
down the required data processing into a sequence of separate transformations, with each
transformation carried out by an independent process.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– System Modelling – 2
This set of Software Engineering Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“System Modelling – 2”.

1. Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
c) State Chart
d) Component

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and do not recognize system objects.

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2. _________________ allows us to infer that di erent members of classes have some common
characteristics.
a) Realization
b) Aggregation
c) Generalization
d) dependency

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday technique that we use to manage complexity.This
means that common information will be maintained in one place only.

3. One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system
architecture.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the
components that make up that system and their relationships.

4. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling.


a) Use Case, Sequence
b) Class, Object
c) Activity, State Chart
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to model interactions between a system and
external actors.Sequence diagrams are used to model interactions between system

components, although external agents may also be included.

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5. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects (entities) and their “connections” to one
another while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships, and the attributes that provide
further depth. Thus option b is correct.

6. ___________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the
software is used.
a) Controller
b) Entity
c) Boundary
d) Business

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.

7. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator


(CRC) modeling ?

a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in
CRC modelling
b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index
cards
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d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: All participants in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC
model index cards.

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8. A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. There is no reference within a data object
to operations that act on the data.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Process and Product – 2
This set of Software Engineering Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Software
Process and Product – 2”.

1. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: As new people are added, people who were working must spend time educating
the newcomers, thereby reducing the amount of time spent on productive development
e ort.

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2. Choose an internal software quality from given below:


a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are external qualities which are visible to the user.

3. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________


a) Rational Uni ed Program, IBM
b) Rational Uni ed Process, Infosys
c) Rational Uni ed Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Uni ed Process, IBM

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What does
static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process
c) It shows the phases of the model over time
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.


5. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True
b) False

View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: A working program is only one part of a software con guration that includes
many elements. Documentation provides a foundation for successful engineering and, more
important, guidance for software support.

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6. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software
engineering ?
a) Software Veri cation
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Software Veri cation is accounted for in implementation & testing activity.

8. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software e orts.


a) True
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b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A formal and detailed description of the information domain, function, behavior,
performance, interfaces, design constraints and validation criteria is essential which can be
determined only after thorough communication between customer and developer.

9. The longer a fault exists in software


a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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10. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a 
Explanation: Due to using previously tested components they produce more reliable system at
a faster rate.

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11. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Speci cation
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Evolutionary Software Process Models
This set of Software Engineering Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on
“Evolutionary Software Process Models”.

1. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?


a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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2. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?


a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software and
particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.

3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?


a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of
software development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and
is popular particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.However,
option “a” can be seen in other models as well like RAD model,hence option “d” answers the
question.

4. The spiral model was originally proposed by


a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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5. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the
angular dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the
spiral from X-axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase.

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6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model di erent from Spiral Model?


a) It de nes tasks required to de ne resources, timelines, and other project related information
b) It de nes a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
c) It de nes tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
d) It de nes tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Except option “b” all other tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well.

7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.


a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects

b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of Spiral Model.

8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. How is Incremental Model di erent from Spiral Model?


a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model 
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model

View Answer

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Answer: c
Explanation: When applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model de nes
activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.Thus
Concurrency is achieved by system and component activities occurring simultaneously and
can be modeled using the state-oriented approach.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Con guration Management – 2
This set of Software Engineering Quiz focuses on “Software Con guration Management – 2”.

1. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are
recorded and maintained?
a) Codeline
b) Con guration control
c) Version
d) Workspace

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In con guration control changes are managed and all versions of components
are identi ed and stored for the lifetime.

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2. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and bene ts of proposed
changes?
a) Change management
b) Version management
c) System building
d) Release management

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It involves approving those changes that are worthwhile, and tracking which
components in the system have been changed.

3. Which of the following is not a Version management feature?


a) Version and release identi cation
b) Build script generation
c) Project support
d) Change history recording

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: All other options are a part of version management.

4. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with
automated testing to discover software problems?
a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes,
continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source code
changes have been made.

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5. Which of the following is not a build system feature?


a) Minimal recompilation
b) Documentation generation
c) Storage management
d) Reporting

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: To reduce the storage space required by multiple versions of components that
di er only slightly, version management systems usually provide storage management
facilities.

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6. Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system?


a) Version
b) Codeline
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which means that the versions of the components
making up the system cannot be changed.

7. Which of the following is a con guration item?



a) Design & Test speci cation
b) Source code
c) Log information

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d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A con guration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes have to be
made through formal procedure.

8. Which of the following is a part of system release?


a) electronic and paper documentation describing the system
b) packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
c) an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Release creation is the process of creating the collection of les and
documentation that includes all of the components of the system release.

9. A sequence of baselines representing di erent versions of a system is known as


a) System building
b) Mainline
c) Software Con guration Item(SCI)
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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10. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement “The creation of a new codeline
from a version in an existing codeline”?
a) Branching
b) Merging
c) Codeline
d) Mainline

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The code may then be developed independently.

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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Function Oriented Design using Structured
Analysis Structured Design
This set of Software Engineering online quiz focuses on “Function Oriented Design using
Structured Analysis Structured Design”.

1. SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies?


a) Constantine and Yourdon methodology
b) DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c) Gane and Sarson methodology
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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2. Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA) ?


a) Functional decomposition
b) Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The module structure is the software architecture.

3. To arrive at a form which is suitable for implementation in some programming language is the
purpose of
a) Structured Analysis (SA)
b) Structured Design (SD)
c) Detailed Design (DD)
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The results of structured analysis can be easily understood by ordinary customers.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The results of structured analysis directly represents customer’s perception of the
problem and uses customer’s terminology for naming di erent functions and data.

5. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of Bottom-Up Approach.
a) True

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b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Structured Analysis follows uses decomposition approach.

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6. The context diagram is also known as


a) Level-0 DFD
b) Level-1 DFD
c) Level-2 DFD
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Context diagram captures the various entities external to the system interacting
with it and data ow occurring between the system and the external entities.

7. A directed arc or line in DFD represents


a) Data Store
b) Data Process
c) Data Flow
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It resembles data ow in the direction of the arrow.

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8. A DFD is always accompanied by a data dictionary.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A data dictionary lists all data items appearing in a DFD including de nition and
data names.

9. Which of the following is a function of CASE Tool?


a) Supporting Structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintaining the data dictionary
c) Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a


a) Physical le
b) Data Structure
c) Logical le
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A logical le can be a data structure or a physical le on disk.
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Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Managing Software Projects – 2
This set of Software Engineering test focuses on “Managing Software Projects – 2”.

1. Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team
members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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2. Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use?
a) End-users
b) Client
c) Project (technical) managers
d) Senior managers

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A product is always built to satisfy an end-user.

3. Which of the following is not an e ective project manager trait?


a) Problem solving
b) Managerial identity
c) In uence and team building
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All are key traits of an e ective project manager.

4. Which type of software engineering team has a de ned leader who coordinates speci c tasks
and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks?
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
c) Controlled centralized (CC)
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Problem solving remains a group activity, but implementation of solutions is
partitioned among subgroups by the team leader.

5. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
a) project delay
b) poor quality work

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c) project failure
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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6. Which software engineering team has no permanent leader?


a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
c) Controlled Centralized (CC)
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Here Communication among team members is horizontal.

7. Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the
structure of software engineering teams?
a) The di culty of the problem to be solved
b) High frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction
among team members
c) The degree of sociability required for the project
d) The rigidity of the delivery date

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Development is irrelevant of social quotient.
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8. Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique?


a) Formal approaches
b) Formal, interpersonal procedures
c) Informal, interpersonal procedures
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis?


a) Problem decomposition
b) Partitioning
c) Problem elaboration
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: During the scoping activity decomposition is applied in two major areas: the
functionality that must be delivered and the process that will be used to deliver it.

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10. Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in
jeopardy?
a) Software people don’t understand their customers needs

b) Changes are managed poorly
c) Sponsorship is gained
d) Users are resistant

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Answer: c
Explanation: Other options are contradictory to the question.

11. SPMP stands for


a) Software Project Manager’s Plan
b) Software Project Management Plan
c) Software Product Management Plan
d) Software Product Manager’s Plan

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: After planning is complete, documenting of the plans is done in a Software
Project Management Plan(SPMP) document.

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4/21/2021 Software Evolution Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Evolution
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Evolution”.

1. The two dimensions of spiral model are


a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension depicts the cumulative costs and the angular dimension
depicts the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral model represents
a phase.

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2. The Incremental Model is combination of elements of


a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software system,
particularly needed in case of quick delivery of a limited functionality system..

3. Model preferred to create client/server applications is


a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In case of client/server applications, the concurrent process model speci es
activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension. Hence
Concurrency is achieved by these two activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled
using the state-oriented approach.

4. Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development:


a) Evolutionary development usually has two avors; exploratory development, and throw-away
prototyping
b) Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach
c) It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it
generates 
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re-
implementation of the software system using a more structured approach

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: Evolutionary development usually has two avors; exploratory development, and
throw-away prototyping.

5. Spiral model was developed by


a) Victor Bisili
b) Berry Boehm
c) Bev Littlewood
d) Roger Pressman

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Berry Boehm in 1986 in his Article “A spiral model of software development and
enhancement”.

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6. Software evolution does not comprises:


a) Development activities
b) Negotiating with client
c) Maintenance activities
d) Re-engineering activities

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Software evolution refers to the study and management of the process of making

changes to software over time. Thus it comprises rest three options.

7. Processes for evolving a software product depend on:


a) Type of software to be maintained
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b) Development processes used


c) Skills and experience of the people involved
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution depend on all these factors.

8. Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ?


a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution depend rely on these two techniques.

9. Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of_____________
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Reengineering is the examination and alteration of a subject system to
reconstitute it in a new form and the subsequent implementation of the new form.

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10. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a reengineering project.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is often the initial activity in a reengineering project.

11. The cost of re-engineering is often signi cantly less than the costs of developing new
software.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There is a high risk in new software development. There may be development
problems, sta ng problems and speci cation problems, thereby increasing the cost.

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4/21/2021 Software Life Cycle Models Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Life Cycle Models
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Life Cycle Models”.

1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100
or 200 lines.

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2. RAD stands for


a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential ow that the Waterfall Model proposes.

4. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?


a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their
respective de nitions.

5. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding

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c) Prototype Re nement
d) Engineer Product

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.

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6. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes un xable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100-200 LOC

7. RAD Model has


a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of ve phases namely:Business modeling,Data
modeling,Process modeling,Application generation and Testing & Turnover.

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8. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?


a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are
required

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or
under-develop functionality.Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

9. SDLC stands for


a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model

b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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4/21/2021 Software Maintenance Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Maintenance – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Maintenance – 1”.

1. Software Maintenance includes


a) Error corrections
b) Enhancements of capabilities
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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2. Maintenance is classi ed into how many categories ?


a) two
b) three
c) four
d) ve

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective and preventive are the four types of software
maintenance.

3. The modi cation of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls
under which category of software maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model?


a) six
b) seven
c) eight
d) nine

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
b) System Testing

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c) Integration Testing
d) Unit Testing

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: All other options are known as levels of software testing which further have types
of software testing.

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6. Regression testing is a very expensive activity.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: As regression testing is performed many times over the life of the software
product, it becomes a costly a air.

7. Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all”technique.How many
selective retest techniques are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) ve

View Answer 

Answer: b
Explanation: The three categories include: Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.

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8. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modi ed program to
produce a di erent output than its original version?
a) Coverage
b) Minimization
c) Safe
d) Maximization

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus on coverage criteria, instead they select every test
case that cause a modi ed program to produce di erent output than its original version.

9. ______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic
applications.
a) E ciency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Generality measures the ability of a technique to handle realistic and diverse
language constructs, arbitrarily complex modi cations, and realistic testing applications.

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10. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modi cations?
a) E ciency
b) Precision
c) Generality

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d) Inclusiveness

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the extent to which a technique chooses test cases that
will cause the modi ed program to produce di erent output than the original program, and
thereby expose faults caused by modi cations.

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4/21/2021 Software Metrics Types Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Types of Software Metrics
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types
of Software Metrics”.

1. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:


a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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2. Which of the following does not a ect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
b) Product
c) Technology
d) People

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Market is a collection of competitors, stakeholders, users each having di erent
views on the product. So it does not a ect the software quality.

3. The intent of project metrics is:


a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A project metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system,
component or process possesses an attribute.

4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?


a) E ciency
b) Cost
c) E ort Applied
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: E ciency is an indirect measure.

5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a) Quality
b) Complexity

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c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are indirect measures of a product.

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6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________


a) number of Functions
b) number of user inputs
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point
in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors

View Answer 

Answer: d
Explanation: FPA includes ve domains namely input, output, inquiries, interface and logical
les.
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8. Usability can be measured in terms of:


a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately e cient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. A graphical technique for nding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is
known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal E ciency)
b) Function points analysis
c) Control Chart
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Others options are formulas.

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10. Defects removal e ciency (DRE)depends on:


a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user

c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project

View Answer

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Answer: c
Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).

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Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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4/21/2021 Software Process & Product Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Process and Product – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Process and Product – 1”.

1. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?


a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality which means software can run on
di erent hardware platforms or software environments.

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2. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.


a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customised
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are sub categories/applications of option c.

3. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: For systems with a long life, maintenance costs may be several times
development costs.

4. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?


a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Arti cial Intelligence (AI) software.

5. Purpose of process is to deliver software 


a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
c) that is cost e cient

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d) both in time & with acceptable quality

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of a software is a management issue & is not related to process activities.

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6. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic
phases,regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase
which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which
focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. de nition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication

b) Planning
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment

View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered to the customer who evaluates the
product and provides feedback based on the evaluation.

8. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: the overall ow of activities, actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to the
software team and the inter dependencies among two process can never be the same.

9. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the ve process
framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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10. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following
is not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
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c) Adaptation
d) Prevention

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development phase.

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4/21/2021 Software Quality Assurance Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Quality Assurance
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Quality Assurance”.

1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?


a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Failure costs are those that would disappear if no defects appeared before
shipping a product to customers.

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2. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?


a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of conformance to requirements is lack of quality.

3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?


a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: All other options support a SQA plan.

4. Degree to which design speci cations are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.


5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work

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d) complaint resolution

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: External failure costs are associated with defects found after the product has
been shipped to the customer.

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6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?


a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is associated prevention cost.

7. Who identi es, documents, and veri es that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to nd _________ during the process so that
they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Errors lead to faults

9. What is not included in prevention costs?


a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of quality includes all costs incurred in the pursuit of quality or in
performing quality-related activities.

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10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True

b) False

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 Software Risks & Identification Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Software Risks and Identi cation
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Software Risks and Identi cation”.

1. What all has to be identi ed as per risk identi cation?


a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identi cation states what could cause a potential loss.

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2. Which one is not a risk management activity?


a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.

3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential
magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?


a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, veri cation,
and maintenance problems.

5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks

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c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.

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6. Which of the following is not a business risk?


a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.

7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identi cation
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a rst step
toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.

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8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modi ed?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process de nition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process de nition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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10. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that
the product will meet its requirements and be t for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk

c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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4/21/2021 System Modelling - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– System Modelling – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“System Modelling – 1”.

1. The Uni ed Modeling Language (UML) has become an e ective standard for software
modelling.How many di erent notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The di erent notations of UML includes the nine UML diagrams namely class,
object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, component, deployment and use case
diagrams.


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2. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe the dynamic behavior of an executing
system. This can be modeled from the perspective of the data processed by the system or by
the events that stimulate responses from a system.

3. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Structural models show the organization and architecture of a system. These are
used to de ne the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.

4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.


a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer 

Answer: a
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to de ne the static structure of classes in a system
and their associations.
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5. Which system model is being depicted by the ATM operations shown below:

a) Structural model
b) Context model
c) Behavioral model
d) Interaction model

View Answer 

Answer: b
Explanation: Context models are used to illustrate the operational context of a system.They
show what lies outside the system boundaries.

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6. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and each activity represents one process step.

7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a


working/executable code.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an approach to software development in which a
system is represented as a set of models that can be automatically transformed to executable
code.

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8. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.


a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and events that cause transitions from one
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state to another.

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networks below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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4/21/2021 Test Case Design - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Test Case Design
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Test
Case Design”.

1. What do you understand by V&V in software testing?


a) Veri ed Version
b) Version Validation
c) Veri cation and Validation
d) Version Veri cation

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: V&V generally refers to any activity that attempts to ensure that the software will
function as required.

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2. In static test techniques, behavioral and performance properties of the program are observed.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Static Analysis Techniques are based solely on the (manual or automated)
examination of project documentation of software models and code.

3. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?


a) Unit Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) Acceptance Testing
d) Regression Testing

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Integration testing is the phase in software testing in which individual software
modules are combined and tested as a group.

4. Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration and system after modi cation, in order
to ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults?
a) Regression Test
b) Smoke Test
c) Alpha Test
d) Beta Test

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Regression test seeks to uncover new software bugs in existing functional and
non-functional areas of a system after changes have been made to them.

5. Which of the following is a black box testing strategy?


a) All Statements Coverage

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b) Control Structure Coverage


c) Cause-E ect Graphs
d) All Paths Coverage

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Rest are test strategies of white box testing.

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6. A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a


a) Test plan
b) Test case
c) Test document
d) Test Suite

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its
valid range?
a) Boundary value testing
b) Equivalence class partitioning
c) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class partitioning
d) Decision tables

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is a software testing technique in which tests are
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designed to include representatives of boundary values.

8. A white box test scales up well at di erent granularity levels of testing.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A white box test is mostly applicable at unit and integration testing level.

9. When does the testing process stops?


a) When resources (time and budget) are over
b) When some coverage is reached
c) When quality criterion is reached
d) Testing never ends

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As software testing is an exhaustive process, when the quality assurance is
established and the product is ready to be delivered, testing is stopped.

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10. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?


a) Test Plan
b) Test Design Speci cation 
c) Test Case Speci cation
d) Test Log

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: Test log is a part of testing result document.

11. Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level is known as
a) Test case generation
b) Test case design
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

12. Acceptance & system test planning are a part of architectural design.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: They are a part of requirements engineering, while integration & unit test
planning come under architectural design.

13. PRD stands for


a) Product Requirement Document
b) Project Requirement Document
c) Product Restrictions Document
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A product requirements document (PRD) is a document written by a company
that de nes a product they are making, or the requirements for one or more new features for
an existing product.

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4/21/2021 UML Building Blocks - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Building Blocks of UML
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Building Blocks of UML”.

1. Which of the following is a building block of UML?


a) Things
b) Relationships
c) Diagrams
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All are the building blocks of UML which are further sub-categorized.

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2. Classes and interfaces are a part of


a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Structural things are mostly static parts of a model, representing elements that
are either conceptual or physical.

3.What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component?


a) Use Case
b) Actor
c) Interface
d) Relationship

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. What is a physical element that exists at runtime in UML?


a) A node
b) An interface
c) An activity
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A node represents a computational resource.


5. What can be requested from any object of the class to a ect behavior?
a) object
b) attribute
c) operation

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d) instance

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An operation is the implementation of a service that can be requested from any
object of the class to a ect behavior.

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6. Which things are dynamic parts of UML models?


a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: These are the verbs of a model, representing behavior over time and space.

7. Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages?


a) Activity
b) Sequence
c) Collaboration
d) Class

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: This diagram is a model describing how groups of objects collaborate in some
behavior over time.

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8. Object diagram captures the behavior of a single use case.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Sequence Diagram is responsible for this.

9. If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve concurrent
processing, you would use a
a) Activity diagram
b) Sequence diagram
c) Statechart diagram
d) Object diagram

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A statechart diagram shows a state machine, consisting of states, transitions,
events, and activities.

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10. Which diagram shows the con guration of run-time processing elements?
a) Deployment diagram
b) Component diagram
c) Node diagram

d) ER-diagram

View Answer

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Answer: a
Explanation: A Deployment diagram shows the con guration of run-time processing elements
and the software components, processes, and objects.

11. Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of UML models?
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It include a note which is simply a symbol for rendering constraints and
comments attached to an element or a collection of elements.

12. Which of the following term is best de ned by the statement:”a structural relationship that
speci es that objects of one thing are connected to objects of another”?
a) Association
b) Aggregation
c) Realization
d) Generalization

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

13. What refers to the value associated with a speci c attribute of an object and to any actions or
side?
a) Object
b) State
c) Interface
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In a state chart diagram, e ects occur when the attribute’s value changes.

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4/21/2021 UML Diagrams - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Diagrams in UML – 1
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Diagrams in UML – 1”.

1. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?


a) Collaboration
b) Use case
c) State chart
d) Activity

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A use case diagrams captures only the functionality of the system whereas a
dynamic model/view captures the functions as well as the action.

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2. What type of core-relationship is represented by the symbol in the gure below?

a) Aggregation
b) Dependency
c) Generalization
d) Association

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Which core element of UML is being shown in the gure?

a) Node
b) Interface
c) Class
d) Component

View Answer

Answer: d 
Explanation: The gure is self explanatory. A component is a modular, signi cant and
replaceable part of the system that packages implementation and exposes a set of interfaces.

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4. What type of relationship is represented by Shape class and Square ?

a) Realization
b) Generalization
c) Aggregation
d) Dependency

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The generalization relationship is also known as the inheritance relationship. In
the gure Square is the subclass of superclass shape.

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5. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system
at a speci c time?
a) Sequence Diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram 
c) Class Diagram
d) Object Diagram

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: An object diagram focuses on some particular set of object instances and
attributes, and the links between the instances. It is a static snapshot of a dynamic view of the
system.

6. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for


a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Interaction diagram are used to formalize the dynamic behavior of the system.

7. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must be present in the system being modeled.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since structure diagrams represent the structure they are used extensively in
documenting the architecture of software systems

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8. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?
a) Collaboration
b) Sequence
c) Activity
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d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A sequence diagrams timeline along which tasks are completed.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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networks below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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4/21/2021 UML Object Oriented Design - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers –


Object Oriented Design using UML
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Object Oriented
Design using UML”.

1. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed object-oriented
design?
a) Designing system architecture
b) Developing design models
c) Specifying interfaces
d) Developing a debugging system

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The debugging system is a part of testing phase.

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2. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with its environment as it is
used?
a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
d) both system context and interaction

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Which of the following is a structural model that demonstrates the other systems in the environment of the
system being developed?
a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
d) both system context and interaction

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The context model of a system may be represented using associations. Associations simply
show that there are some relationships between the entities involved in the association.

4. Which of the following come under system control?


a) Recon gure
b) Shutdown
c) Powersave
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Functionalities are governed by the system.

5. We use _________ where various parts of system use are identi ed and analyzed in turn.
a) tangible entities
b) scenario-based analysis
c) design-based analysis
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Use a scenario-based analysis where various scenarios of system use are identi ed and
analyzed in turn. 

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6. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their relationships?
a) Sequence model
b) Subsystem model
c) Dynamic model
d) Structural model

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Important relationships that may be documented at this stage are generalization (inheritance)
relationships, uses/used-by relationships, and composition relationships.

7. Which model shows the ow of object interactions?


a) Sequence model
b) Subsystem model
c) Dynamic model
d) Both Sequence and Dynamic model

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sequence model are represented using a UML sequence or a collaboration diagram and are
dynamic models.

8. If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to which of the following message?
a) restart()
b) recon gure()
c) powerSave()
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A restart() message causes a transition to normal operation. Both the powerSave() and

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recon gure() messages cause a transition to a state in which the system recon gures itself.

9. Which message is received so that the system moves to the Testing state, then the Transmitting state, before
returning to the Running state?
a) signalStatus()
b) remoteControl()
c) recon gure()
d) reportStatus()

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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10. Open source development involves making the source code of a system publicly available.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: This means that many people can propose changes and improvements to the software.

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4/21/2021 Unified Modelling Language - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Uni ed Modelling Language
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Uni ed Modelling Language”.

1. Object oriented analysis and design can be handled by the one who knows UML.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Uni ed Modeling Language includes a set of graphic notation techniques to
create visual models of object-oriented software-intensive systems.

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2. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include


a) operations only
b) attributes only
c) both operations and attributes
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In software engineering, a class diagram in the Uni ed Modeling Language (UML)
is a type of static structure diagram that describes the structure of a system by showing the
system’s classes, their attributes, operations, and the relationships among objects.

3. Select the statement true for activity diagrams.


a) They can be used to discover parallel activities
b) They are used to depict work ow for a particular business activity
c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and are di cult to trace back to object models
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Activity diagrams are graphical representations of work ows of step wise
activities and actions with support for choice, iteration and concurrency.

4. Constraints can be represented in UML by


a) {text}
b) [text].
c) Constraint
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Constraints are represented by {text string}.

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5. What is an object?
a) An object is an instance of a class
b) An object includes encapsulation of data
c) An object is not an instance of a class
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An object is an instance of a class.

6. What is an abstract class?


a) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
b) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances
c) A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An abstract type is a type in a nominative type system which cannot be
instantiated directly.

7. Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams
a) Generalization
b) Include
c) Extend
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Generalization, include, extend all of these are valid relationships in use case
diagrams.

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8. Which of the following statement(s) is true about interaction diagrams?


a) Interaction diagrams are at their best when they deal with one main design ow and not
multiple variants that can happen
b) Interaction diagrams are good at designing part or all of one use case’s functionality across
multiple objects
c) Interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show iteration and conditional execution for
messaging between objects
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Interaction diagram is used to describe some type of interactions among the
di erent elements in the model. So this interaction is a part of dynamic behaviour of the
system.

9. UML interfaces are used to:


a) specify required services for types of objects
b) program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk
c) de ne executable logic to reuse across classes
d) de ne an API for all classes

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An interface is like a template design for a class that contains no data or
implementation; only de nitions for methods, properties etc. 

10. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow indicates:


a) Navigability

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b) Dependency
c) Association
d) Refers to

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The arrows describe the ways you can navigate.

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4/21/2021 User Interface Design - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– User Interface Design
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “User
Interface Design”.

1. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?


a) Place the user in control
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) Make the interface consistent
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: These golden rules actually form the basis for a set of user interface design
principles that guide this important software design activity.

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2. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?
a) Provide for exible interaction
b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
c) Show technical internals from the casual user
d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The user interface should move the user into the virtual world of the application.

3. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?


a) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
b) Interface design
c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
d) Interface validation

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: These are the end user for whom the product is being built.

4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be signi cant.
a) short-term memory
b) shortcuts
c) objects that appear on the screen
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The interface should be designed to reduce the requirement to remember past
actions and results.

5. Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?
a) the design of interfaces between software components
b) the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of

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information
c) the design of the interface between two computers
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None

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6. A software might allow a user to interact via


a) keyboard commands
b) mouse movement
c) voice recognition commands
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned input mediums are available today.

7. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that draws on
prede ned design principles.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true.

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4/21/2021 User Interface Design - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

8. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the


software?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The requirements speci cation may establish certain constraints that help to
de ne the user of the system, but the interface design is often only incidental to the design
model.

9. What establishes the pro le of end-users of the system?


a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: To build an e ective user interface, all design should begin with an
understanding of the intended users, including their pro les of their age, physical abilities,
education, etc.

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10. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all
supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?
a) mental image

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b) interface design
c) system image
d) interface validation

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: When the system image and the system perception are coincident, users
generally feel comfortable with the software and use it e ectively.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

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To practice all areas of Software Engineering, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers on Software Engineering.
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networks below and stay updated with latest contests, videos, internships and jobs!

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4/21/2021 Web Engineering Project Metrics - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

Software Engineering Questions and Answers


– Web Engineering Project Metrics
This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Web
Engineering Project Metrics”.

1. The user has no control over the contents of a static web page.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Static web pages are just for information purposes.

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4/21/2021 Web Engineering Project Metrics - Software Engineering Questions and Answers - Sanfoundry

2. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
a) Word Token
b) Word Count
c) Word Size
d) Word Length

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The word count metric gives the total number of words on a web page.

3. How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?


a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) No relation
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: If link count is more, complexity will be more.

4. It is expected to have less number of connections for a good web application.


a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: More the link count, more the complexity and the web page dependence factor
will increase.

5. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is to be
built.
a) size
b) complexity 
c) e ort
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

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Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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6. Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between
two or more web pages ?
a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Web Page Similarity
d) Number of Internal Page Links

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Which of the following is not a classi cation of the web engineering metric, Web Page
Similarity ?
a) Content based
b) Link based
c) Usage based
d) Tra c based

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Similarity between two web pages is not judged upon its tra c activity.

8. The static content objects are dependent on the actions of the user.
a) True

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b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic Objects are user dependent

9. Link based measures rely on ___________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages.
a) Embedded
b) Hyperlink
c) Dynamic
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Only option b answers the blank, rest are not in accordance to the question.

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10. Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?


a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Number of Inherited Objects
d) Word Count

View Answer

Answer: c 
Explanation: There is no such metric as an inherited object’s count.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Software Engineering.

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a.Bi
gBangmodel

b.Spi
ral
model

c.I
ter
ati
vemodel

d.Wat
erf
all
model

ANSWER:
BigBangmodel

14) Whi
chmodel
isal
soknownasVer
if
icat
ionandv
ali
dat
ionmodel
?

a.Wat
erf
all
model

b.Bi
gBangmodel

c.V-
model

d.Spi
ral
model

ANSWER:
V-model

15) Theal
waysgr
owi
ngandadapt
ingnatureofsof
twar
ehugel
ydependsupont
he
env
ironmenti
nwhi
chuserwor
ksi
n_ _
___
__ _
____.

a.Cost

b.Dy
nami
cNat
ure

c.Qual
i
tyManagement

d.Scal
abi
l
ity
ANSWER:
Dynami
cNat
ure

16) SDLCModelsareadoptedasperrequi
rement
sofdevel
opmentpr
ocess.I
tmayv
ary
Sof
tware-
to-
sof
twaretoensuri
ngwhichmodel i
ssuit
abl
e.

a.Tr
ue

b.Fal
se

ANSWER:
True

17) Whi
chofthefol
lowi
ngistheunder
standi
ngofsoftwareproductl
i
mit
ati
ons,l
earni
ng
syst
em r
elat
edprobl
emsorchangestobedonei nexi
sti
ngsy st
emsbefor
ehand,
identi
fyi
ngand
addr
essi
ngtheimpactofpr
ojectonor
ganizat
ionandpersonnelet
c?

a.Sof
twar
eDesi
gn

b.Feasi
bil
i
tySt
udy

c.Requi
rementGat
her
ing

d.Sy
stem Anal
ysi
s

ANSWER:
Syst
em Anal
ysi
s

18) Whati
sthesi
mpl
estmodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmentpar
adi
gm?

a.Spi
ral
model

b.Bi
gBangmodel

c.V-
model

d.Wat
erf
all
model

ANSWER:
Wat
erf
all
model
1.Ther
api
dappl
i
cat
iondev
elopmentmodel
is

Anot
hernamef
orcomponent
-baseddev
elopment

Ausef
ulappr
oachwhenacust
omercannotdef
iner
equi
rement
scl
ear
ly.

Ahi
ghspeedadapt
ati
onoft
hel
i
nearsequent
ial
model
.

Al
loft
heabov
e.

Cor
rectAnswer:

Ahi
ghspeedadapt
ati
onoft
hel
i
nearsequent
ial
model
.

2.Int
heUnifi
edProcessmodel r
equi
rement
sar
edet
ermi
nedi
ter
ati
vel
yandmayspanmor
e
thanonephaseoftheprocess.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

3.Thewat
erf
all
model
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

Ar
easonabl
eappr
oachwhenr
equi
rement
sar
ewel
ldef
ined.

Agoodappr
oachwhenawor
kingpr
ogr
am i
srequi
redqui
ckl
y.

Thebestappr
oacht
ousef
orpr
oject
swi
thl
argedev
elopmentt
eams

Anol
dfashi
onedmodel
thati
srar
elyusedanymor
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Ar
easonabl
eappr
oachwhenr
equi
rement
sar
ewel
ldef
ined.

4.Thei
ncr
ement
almodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

Ar
easonabl
eappr
oachwhenr
equi
rement
sar
ewel
ldef
ined.

Agoodappr
oachwhenawor
kingcor
epr
oducti
srequi
redqui
ckl
y.
Thebestappr
oacht
ousef
orpr
oject
swi
thl
argedev
elopmentt
eams

Ar
evol
uti
onar
ymodel
thati
snotusedf
orcommer
cial
product
s.

Cor
rectAnswer:

Agoodappr
oachwhenawor
kingcor
epr
oducti
srequi
redqui
ckl
y.

5.Ev
olut
ionar
ysof
twar
epr
ocessmodel
s

Ar
eit
erat
ivei
nnat
ure

Caneasi
l
yaccommodat
epr
oductr
equi
rement
schanges

Donotgener
all
ypr
oducet
hrowawaysy
stems

Al
loft
heabov
e.

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e.

6.Thepr
otot
ypi
ngmodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

Ar
easonabl
eappr
oachwhenr
equi
rement
sar
ewel
ldef
ined.

Ausef
ulappr
oachwhenacust
omercannotdef
iner
equi
rement
scl
ear
ly.

Thebestappr
oacht
ousef
orpr
oject
swi
thl
argedev
elopmentt
eams.

Ar
iskymodel
thatr
arel
ypr
oducesameani
ngf
ulpr
oduct
.

Cor
rectAnswer:

Ausef
ulappr
oachwhenacust
omercannotdef
iner
equi
rement
scl
ear
ly.

7.Thespi
ral
model
ofsof
twar
edev
elopment

Endswi
tht
hedel
i
ver
yoft
hesof
twar
epr
oduct
.

I
smor
echaot
ict
hant
hei
ncr
ement
almodel
.

I
ncl
udespr
ojectr
isksev
aluat
iondur
ingeachi
ter
ati
on

Al
loft
heabov
e
Cor
rectAnswer:

I
ncl
udespr
ojectr
isksev
aluat
iondur
ingeachi
ter
ati
on

8.Theconcur
rentdev
elopmentmodel
is

Anot
hernamef
orconcur
rentengi
neer
ing.

Def
inesev
ent
sthatt
ri
ggerengi
neer
ingact
ivi
tyst
atet
ransi
ti
ons.

Onl
yusedf
ordev
elopmentofpar
all
elordi
str
ibut
edsy
stems.

Usedwhenev
eral
argenumberofchanger
equest
sar
eant
ici
pat
ed.

Bot
haandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

Bot
haandb

9.Thecomponent
-baseddev
elopmentmodel
is

Onl
yappr
opr
iat
eforcomput
erhar
dwar
edesi
gn

Notabl
etosuppor
tthedev
elopmentofr
eusabl
ecomponent
s.

Dependentonobj
ectt
echnol
ogi
esf
orsuppor
t.

Notcostef
fect
ivebyknownquant
if
iabl
esof
twar
emet
ri
cs

Cor
rectAnswer:

Dependentonobj
ectt
echnol
ogi
esf
orsuppor
t.

10.Thef
ormal
met
hodsmodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmentmakesuseofmat
hemat
ical
met
hods
to

Def
inet
hespeci
fi
cat
ionf
orcomput
er-
basedsy
stems

Dev
elopdef
ectf
reecomput
er-
basedsy
stems.

Ver
if
ythecor
rect
nessofcomput
er-
basedsy
stems.

Al
loft
heabov
e.
Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e.

11.Whi
chofthesei
snotoneoft
hephasenamesdef
inedbyt
heUni
fi
edPr
ocessmodel
for
soft
war
edevelopment
?

I
ncept
ionphase

El
abor
ati
onphase

Const
ruct
ionphase

Val
i
dat
ionphase

Cor
rectAnswer:

Val
i
dat
ionphase

12.Whi
choft
hesei
snotachar
act
eri
sti
cofPer
sonal
Sof
twar
ePr
ocess?

Emphasi
zesper
sonal
measur
ementofwor
kpr
oduct
.

Pr
act
it
ionerr
equi
rescar
eful
super
visi
onbyt
hepr
ojectmanager
.

I
ndi
vi
dual
pract
it
ioneri
sresponsi
blef
orest
imat
ingandschedul
i
ng.

Pr
act
it
ioneri
sempower
edt
ocont
rol
qual
i
tyofsof
twar
ewor
kpr
oduct
s.

Cor
rectAnswer:

Pr
act
it
ionerr
equi
rescar
eful
super
visi
onbyt
hepr
ojectmanager
.

13.Whi
choft
hesear
eobj
ect
ivesofTeam Sof
twar
ePr
ocess?

Accel
erat
esof
twar
epr
ocessi
mpr
ovement

Al
l
owbet
tert
imemanagementbyhi
ghl
ytr
ainedpr
ofessi
onal
s

Bui
l
dsel
f-
dir
ect
edsof
twar
eteams

Showmanager
showt
oreducecost
sandsust
ainqual
i
ty

Bot
hbandc

Cor
rectAnswer:
Bot
hbandc

14.Pr
ocesstechnologyt
ool
sal
l
owsof
twar
eor
gani
zat
ionst
ocompr
essschedul
esbyski
ppi
ng
uni
mportantact
ivi
ti
es.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

15.I
tisgener
all
yaccept
edt
hatonecannothav
eweaksof
twar
epr
ocessesandcr
eat
ehi
gh
qual
it
yendproduct
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Pr
ocessmodel
sar
edescr
ibedasagi
l
ebecauset
hey

El
i
minat
etheneedf
orcumber
somedocument
ati
on

Emphasi
zemaneuv
erabi
l
ityandadapt
abi
l
ity

Donotwast
edev
elopmentt
imeonpl
anni
ngact
ivi
ti
es

Makeext
ensi
veuseofpr
otot
ypecr
eat
ion

Cor
rectAnswer:

Emphasi
zemaneuv
erabi
l
ityandadapt
abi
l
ity

2.Whi
choft
heset
ermsar
elev
elnamesi
ntheCapabi
l
ityMat
uri
tyModel
?

Per
for
med
Repeat
ed

Reused

Opt
imi
zed

bot
haandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandd

3.Thebestsof
twarepr
ocessmodel
isonet
hathasbeencr
eat
edbyt
hepeopl
ewhowi
l
lact
ual
l
y
bedoingthework.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

4.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
erecogni
zedpr
ocessf
lowt
ypes?

Concur
rentpr
ocessf
low

I
ter
ati
vepr
ocessf
low

Li
nearpr
ocessf
low

Spi
ral
processf
low

bot
hbandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
hbandc

5.Thecommuni cati
onactiv
ityisbesthandl
edforsmal
lproj
ectsusingsixdi
sti
nctact
ions
(i
ncept
ion,
eli
cit
ation,el
aborati
on,negoti
ati
on,
speci
fi
cat
ion,val
idat
ion)
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

6.Agoodsof
twar
edev el
opmentt
eam al
way
susest
hesamet
asksetf
orev
erypr
ojectt
oinsur
e
hi
ghqual
it
yworkproduct
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

7.Soft
wareprocessescanbeconst
ruct
edoutofpr
e-exi
sti
ngsof
twar
epat
ter
nst
obestmeet
theneedsofasoftwareproj
ect

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

8.Whi
choft
hesear
est
andar
dsf
orassessi
ngsof
twar
epr
ocesses?

SEI

SPI
CE

I
SO9000

I
SO9001

bot
hbandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
hbanddl
q
PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Pr
ocessmodel
sar
edescr
ibedasagi
l
ebecauset
hey

El
i
minat
etheneedf
orcumber
somedocument
ati
on

Emphasi
zemaneuv
erabi
l
ityandadapt
abi
l
ity

Donotwast
edev
elopmentt
imeonpl
anni
ngact
ivi
ti
es

Makeext
ensi
veuseofpr
otot
ypecr
eat
ion

Cor
rectAnswer:

Emphasi
zemaneuv
erabi
l
ityandadapt
abi
l
ity

2.Whi
choft
heset
ermsar
elev
elnamesi
ntheCapabi
l
ityMat
uri
tyModel
?

Per
for
med

Repeat
ed

Reused

Opt
imi
zed

bot
haandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandd

3.Thebestsof
twarepr
ocessmodel
isonet
hathasbeencr
eat
edbyt
hepeopl
ewhowi
l
lact
ual
l
y
bedoingthework.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

4.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
erecogni
zedpr
ocessf
lowt
ypes?
Concur
rentpr
ocessf
low

I
ter
ati
vepr
ocessf
low

Li
nearpr
ocessf
low

Spi
ral
processf
low

bot
hbandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
hbandc

5.Thecommuni cati
onactiv
ityisbesthandl
edforsmal
lproj
ectsusingsixdi
sti
nctact
ions
(i
ncept
ion,
eli
cit
ation,el
aborati
on,negoti
ati
on,
speci
fi
cat
ion,val
idat
ion)
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

6.Agoodsof
twar
edev el
opmentt
eam al
way
susest
hesamet
asksetf
orev
erypr
ojectt
oinsur
e
hi
ghqual
it
yworkproduct
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

7.Soft
wareprocessescanbeconst
ruct
edoutofpr
e-exi
sti
ngsof
twar
epat
ter
nst
obestmeet
theneedsofasoftwareproj
ect

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Tr
ue

8.Whi
choft
hesear
est
andar
dsf
orassessi
ngsof
twar
epr
ocesses?

SEI

SPI
CE

I
SO9000

I
SO9001

bot
hbandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
hbandd

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.I
tisnotpossi
blet
obuil
dsoft
warethatmeetst
hecust
omer
s'needst
odayandexhi
bit
sthe
qual
it
ycharact
eri
sti
cst
hatwil
lenabl
eittobeext
endedt
omor
row.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

2.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngt
rai
tsneedt
oexi
stamongt
hemember
sofanagi
l
esof
twar
eteam?

Compet
ence

Deci
sion-
maki
ngabi
l
ity

Mut
ual
trustandr
espect

Al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e

3.Whatar
ethet
hreef
ramewor
kact
ivi
ti
esf
ort
heAdapt
iveSof
twar
eDev
elopment(
ASD)
pr
ocessmodel
?

Anal
ysi
s,desi
gn,
codi
ng

Feasi
bil
i
tyst
udy
,funct
ional
model
iter
ati
on,
impl
ement
ati
on

Requi
rement
sgat
her
ing,
adapt
ivecy
clepl
anni
ng,
iter
ati
vedev
elopment

Specul
ati
on,
col
l
abor
ati
on,
lear
ning

Cor
rectAnswer:

Specul
ati
on,
col
l
abor
ati
on,
lear
ning

4.Agi
l
ityi
snot
hingmor
ethant
heabi
l
ityofapr
ojectt
eam t
orespondr
api
dlyt
ochange

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

5.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotnecessar
ytoappl
yagi
l
ityt
oasof
twar
epr
ocess?

El
i
minat
etheuseofpr
ojectpl
anni
ngandt
est
ing

Onl
yessent
ial
wor
kpr
oduct
sar
epr
oduced

Pr
ocessal
l
owst
eam t
ost
reaml
i
net
asks

Usesi
ncr
ement
alpr
oductdel
i
ver
yst
rat
egy

Cor
rectAnswer:

El
i
minat
etheuseofpr
ojectpl
anni
ngandt
est
ing

6.Howdoy
oucr
eat
eagi
l
epr
ocessest
omanageunpr
edi
ctabi
l
ity
?

Requi
rement
sgat
her
ingmustbeconduct
edv
erycar
eful
l
y

Ri
skanal
ysi
smustbeconduct
edbef
orepl
anni
ngt
akespl
ace

Sof
twar
eincr
ement
smustbedel
i
ver
edi
nshor
tti
meper
iods
Sof
twar
epr
ocessesmustadaptt
ochangesi
ncr
ement
all
y

Bot
hcandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

Bot
hcandd

7.I
nagilesof
twarepr
ocessesthehi
ghestpr
ior
it
iesi
stosat
isf
ythecust
omert
hroughear
lyand
cont
inuousdel
iv
eryofval
uablesof
twar
e.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

8.Inagil
edevel
opmenti
tismoreimpor
tantt
obuil
dsof
twarethatmeet
sthecust
omer
s’needs
todaythanworr
yaboutf
eatur
esthatmi
ghtbeneededi
nthefutur
e.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

9.Whatar
ethef
ourf
ramewor
kact
ivi
ti
esf
oundi
ntheExt
remePr
ogr
ammi
ng(
XP)pr
ocess
model?

anal
ysi
s,desi
gn,
codi
ng,
test
ing

pl
anni
ng,
anal
ysi
s,desi
gn,
codi
ng

pl
anni
ng,
anal
ysi
s,codi
ng,
test
ing

pl
anni
ng,
desi
gn,
codi
ng,
test
ing

Cor
rectAnswer:

pl
anni
ng,
desi
gn,
codi
ng,
test
ing
10.Al
lagi
lepr
ocessmodelsconf
ormtoagreat
erorl
esserdegr
eet
othepr
inci
plesst
atedi
nthe
“Mani
fest
oforAgi
leSof
twareDevel
opment
”.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

11.Whichisnotoneoft
hekeyquest
ionst
hati
sanswer
edbyeacht
eam memberateachdai
l
y
Scrum meeti
ng?

Whatdi
dyoudosi
ncet
hel
astmeet
ing?

Whatobst
acl
esar
eyoucr
eat
ing?

Whati
sthecauseoft
hepr
obl
em y
ouar
eencount
eri
ng?

Whatdoy
oupl
ant
oaccompl
i
shbet
henextt
eam meet
ing?

Cor
rectAnswer:

Whatobst
acl
esar
eyoucr
eat
ing?

12.TheDynamicSystemsDevel
opmentMethod(
DSDM)suggest
saphil
osophythatisbasedon
thePar
etopri
ncipl
e(80%oftheappl
i
cati
oncanbedel
i
ver
edin20%oftheti
mer equir
edtobuil
d
thecompl
eteappli
cati
on)
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

13.Agi
l
eModel
i
ng(
AM)pr
ovi
desgui
dancet
opr
act
it
ionerdur
ingwhi
choft
hesesof
twar
etasks?

Anal
ysi
s
Desi
gn

Codi
ng

Test
ing

Bot
haandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

Bot
haandb

14.Agi
leUnif
iedProcessusest
hecl
assi
cUPphasedacti
vi
ti
es(i
ncept
ion,el
abor
ati
on,
const
ruct
ion,
transi
ti
on)tohel
pthet
eam vi
sual
i
zetheov
eral
lpr
ocessflow

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Humanaspect
sofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingar
enotr
elev
anti
ntoday
’sagi
l
epr
ocessmodel
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

2.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotani
mpor
tantt
rai
tofanef
fect
ivesof
twar
eengi
neer
?

At
tent
ivet
odet
ail

Br
utal
l
yhonest

Fol
l
owspr
ocessr
uledogmat
ical
l
y

Resi
l
ientunderpr
essur
e

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fol
l
owspr
ocessr
uledogmat
ical
l
y

3.Groupcommunicat
ionandcol
laborat
ionar
easi
mpor
tantast
het
echni
cal
ski
l
lsofan
i
ndiv
idualt
eam membertothesuccessofateam.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

4.Teamswit
hdiver
sit
yinthei
ndi
vi
dual
team memberski
l
lset
stendt
obemor
eef
fect
ivet
han
teamswit
houtt
hisdi
versi
ty

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcancont
ri
but
etot
eam t
oxi
cit
y?

Fr
enzi
edwor
kat
mospher
e

I
nadequat
ebudget

Poor
lycoor
dinat
edsof
twar
epr
ocess

Uncl
eardef
ini
ti
onoft
eam r
oles

a,
b,d

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,d

Vi
ewAnswer
6.Soft
war
eengineer
ingteam st
ruct
urei
sindependentofpr
obl
em compl
exi
tyandsi
zeoft
he
expect
edsof
twareproducts.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Agi
l
eteamsar
eal
l
owedt
osel
f-
organi
zeandmaket
hei
rownt
echni
cal
deci
sions.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

8.I
nXPamet aphori
susedasadev
icet
ofaci
l
itat
ecommuni
cat
ionsamongcust
omer
s,t
eam
member
s,andmanagers?

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Usinganest
abl
i
shedsoci
almedi
apl
atf
orm negat
est
heneedt
obeconcer
nedaboutpr
ivacy
orsecuri
ty.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se
Vi
ewAnswer

10.Useofcl
oudser
vicescanspeedupi
nfor
mat
ionshar
ingamongsof
twar
eteam member
s?

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

11.I
ncoll
abor
ati
vedev
elopmentenv
ironment
s,met
ri
csar
eusedt
orewar
dandpuni
sht
eam
members.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Whi
choft
hesef
act
orscompl
i
cat
edeci
sion-
maki
ngbygl
obal
sof
twar
eteams

Compl
exi
tyofpr
obl
em

Di
ff
erentv
iewsoft
hepr
obl
em

Lawofuni
ntendedconsequences

Ri
skassoci
atedwi
thdeci
sion

Al
loft
heabov
e.

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e.

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Sof
twar
eengi
neer
scol
l
abor
atewi
thcust
omer
stodef
inewhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ng?

Cust
omerv
isi
bleusagescenar
ios

I
mpor
tantsof
twar
efeat
ures
Sy
stem i
nput
sandout
put
s

Al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Ev
ery
oneont
hesof
twar
eteam shoul
dbei
nvol
vedi
nthepl
anni
ngact
ivi
tysot
hatwecan

r
educet
hegr
anul
ari
tyoft
hepl
an

anal
yzer
equi
rement
sindept
h

getal
lteam member
sto"
signup"t
othepl
an

begi
ndesi
gn

Cor
rectAnswer:

getal
lteam member
sto"
signup"t
othepl
an

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Whatr
ole(
s)douserst
ori
espl
ayi
nagi
l
epl
anni
ng?

Def
ineusef
ulsof
twar
efeat
uresandf
unct
ionsdel
i
ver
edt
oend-
user
s

Det
ermi
neaschedul
eusedt
odel
i
vereachsof
twar
eincr
ement

Pr
ovi
deasubst
it
utet
oper
for
mingdet
ail
edschedul
i
ngofact
ivi
ti
es

Usedt
oest
imat
etheef
for
trequi
redbui
l
dthecur
renti
ncr
ement

bot
haandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

Usedt
oest
imat
etheef
for
trequi
redbui
l
dthecur
renti
ncr
ement

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Whichofthefol
lowingact
ivi
ti
esi
snotoneoft
hef
ourt
hingst
hatneedt
obeaccompl
i
shedby
thegener
icplanni
ngtaskset
?

Dev
elopov
eral
lpr
ojectst
rat
egy

I
dent
if
ythef
unct
ional
i
tyt
odel
i
veri
neachsof
twar
eincr
ement
Cr
eat
eadet
ail
edschedul
efort
hecompl
etesof
twar
epr
oject

Dev
iseameansoft
racki
ngpr
ogr
essonar
egul
arbasi
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

Cr
eat
eadet
ail
edschedul
efort
hecompl
etesof
twar
epr
oject

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Anal
ysi
smodel
sdepi
ctsof
twar
einwhi
cht
hreer
epr
esent
ati
ons?

ar
chi
tect
ure,
int
erf
ace,
component

cost
,ri
sk,
schedul
e

i
nfor
mat
ion,
funct
ion,
behav
ior

Noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
nfor
mat
ion,
funct
ion,
behav
ior

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Thecust
omercandirect
lyobser
vebot
hthedi
ff
erencebet
weent
hei
nter
nal
qual
i
tyofa
desi
gnanditsext
ernal
quali
ty?

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Teamsusi
ngagi
l
esof
twar
epr
act
icesnev
ercr
eat
emodel
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Manyoft
hetasksfr
om thegeneri
ctaskset
sforanal
ysi
smodel
i
nganddesi
gncanbe
conduct
edi
nparal
lel
withoneanother.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Asuccessf
ult
esti
sonet
hatdi
scov
ersatl
eastoneas-
yetundi
scov
ereder
ror
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
etasksi
nthegener
ict
asksetf
orconst
ruct
ion?

Bui
l
dasof
twar
ecomponent

Cr
eat
eauseri
nter
face

Uni
ttestt
hecomponent

Assesst
hequal
i
tyoft
hecomponent

bot
haandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandc

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Sof
twar
eengi
neer
ingpr
inci
pleshav
eaboutat
hreey
earhal
f-
li
fe

Tr
ue
Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneofcor
epr
inci
plesofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingpr
act
ice?

Al
ldesi
gnshoul
dbeassi
mpl
easpossi
ble,
butnosi
mpl
er

Asof
twar
esy
stem exi
stsonl
ytopr
ovi
dev
aluet
oit
suser
s.

Par
etopr
inci
ple(
20%ofanypr
oductr
equi
res80%oft
heef
for
t).

Remembert
haty
oupr
oduceot
her
swi
l
lconsume

Cor
rectAnswer:

Par
etopr
inci
ple(
20%ofanypr
oductr
equi
res80%oft
heef
for
t).

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Ever
ycommuni
cat
ionacti
vit
yshoul
dhav
eaf
aci
l
itat
ort
omakesur
ethatt
hecust
omeri
snot
al
lowedtodomi
nat
etheproceedi
ngs

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Theagi
levi
ewofiterat
ivecust
omercommuni
cat
ionandcol
l
abor
ati
oni
sappl
i
cabl
etoal
l
soft
wareengi
neer
ingpracti
ce.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
15.Oner
easont
oinv
olv
eev
ery
oneont
hesof
twar
eteam i
nthepl
anni
ngact
ivi
tyi
sto

adj
ustt
hegr
anul
ari
tyoft
hepl
an

cont
rol
feat
urecr
eep

getal
lteam member
sto“
signup”t
othepl
an

under
standt
hepr
obl
em scope

Cor
rectAnswer:

getal
lteam member
sto“
signup”t
othepl
an

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Pr
ojectpl
ansshoul
dnotbechangedoncet
heyar
eadopt
edbyat
eam

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Requi
rement
smodel
sdepi
ctsof
twar
einwhi
cht
hreedomai
ns?

ar
chi
tect
ure,
int
erf
ace,
component

cost
,ri
sk,
schedul
e

i
nfor
mat
ion,
funct
ion,
behav
ior

Noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
nfor
mat
ion,
funct
ion,
behav
ior

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Thedesi
gnmodel
shoul
dbet
raceabl
etot
her
equi
rement
smodel
?
Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Teamsusi
ngagi
l
esof
twar
epr
act
icesdonotgener
all
ycr
eat
emodel
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

20.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hepr
inci
plesofgoodcodi
ng?

Cr
eat
euni
ttest
sbef
orey
oubegi
ncodi
ng

Cr
eat
euni
ttest
sbef
orey
oubegi
ncodi
ng

Ref
ract
ort
hecodeaf
tery
oucompl
etet
hef
ir
stcodi
ngpass

Wr
it
esel
f-
document
ingcode,
notpr
ogr
am document
ati
on

Cor
rectAnswer:

Ref
ract
ort
hecodeaf
tery
oucompl
etet
hef
ir
stcodi
ngpass

Vi
ewAnswer

21.Asuccessf
ult
estIonest
hatdi
scov
ersatl
eastoneas-
yetundi
scov
ereder
ror

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
22.Whichoft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
eval
i
dreasonsf
orcol
l
ect
ingcust
omerf
eedbackconcer
ning
del
iv
eredsoft
war
e?

Al
l
owsdev
eloper
stomakechangest
othedel
i
ver
edi
ncr
ement

Del
i
ver
yschedul
ecanber
evi
sedt
oref
lectchanges

Dev
eloper
scani
dent
if
ychangest
oincor
por
atei
ntonexti
ncr
ement

Al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

23.Lar
gerpr
ogr
ammi
ngt
eamsar
eal
way
smor
epr
oduct
ivet
hansmal
l
ert
eams

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Iti
srel
ati
vel
ycommonf ordi
ff
erentcustomerst
opr
oposeconf
li
cti
ngr
equi
rement
s,each
argui
ngthathi
sorherv
ersioni
stherightone.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Thesy
stem speci
fi
cat
iondescr
ibest
he

Funct
ion,
per
for
manceandconst
rai
ntsofacomput
er-
basedsy
stem

i
mpl
ement
ati
onofeachal
l
ocat
edsy
stem

el
ementsof
twar
ear
chi
tect
ure
t
imer
equi
redf
orsy
stem si
mul
ati
on

Cor
rectAnswer:

Funct
ion,
per
for
manceandconst
rai
ntsofacomput
er-
basedsy
stem

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Thebestwayt
oconductar
equi
rement
sval
i
dat
ionr
evi
ewi
sto

exami
net
hesy
stem model
forer
ror
s

hav
ethecust
omerl
ookov
ert
her
equi
rement
s

sendt
hem t
othedesi
gnt
eam andseei
ftheyhav
eanyconcer
ns

useacheckl
i
stofquest
ionst
oexami
neeachr
equi
rement

Cor
rectAnswer:

useacheckl
i
stofquest
ionst
oexami
neeachr
equi
rement

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Theuseoft
raceabi
l
ityt
abl
eshel
pst
o

debugpr
ogr
amsf
oll
owi
ngt
hedet
ect
ionofr
un-
ti
meer
ror
s

det
ermi
net
heper
for
manceofal
gor
it
hm i
mpl
ement
ati
ons

i
dent
if
y,cont
rol
,andt
rackr
equi
rement
schanges

noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
dent
if
y,cont
rol
,andt
rackr
equi
rement
schanges

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Thej
oboft her
equi
rementsengi
neeri
st ocategor
izeal
lstakeholderinf
ormati
oni
nawayt
hat
al
lowsdeci
sionmaker
st ochooseanint
ernal
lyconsi
stentsetofrequirements.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue
Vi
ewAnswer

6.Thenatur
eofcoll
abor
ati
onissuchthatal
lsy
stem r
equi
rement
sar
edef
inedbyconsensusof
acommi t
teeofcust
omersanddevel
opers.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Whi
choff
oll
owi
ngi
snotaUMLdi
agr
am usedcr
eat
ingasy
stem anal
ysi
smodel
?

act
ivi
tydi
agr
am

cl
assdi
agr
am

dat
afl
owdi
agr
am

st
atedi
agr
am

Cor
rectAnswer:

dat
afl
owdi
agr
am

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Requir
ement
sengi
neer
ingi
sagener
icpr
ocesst
hatdoesnotv
aryf
rom onesof
twar
epr
oject
toanother
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Dur
ingpr
ojecti
ncept
iont
hei
ntentoft
heoft
het
asksar
etodet
ermi
ne
basi
cpr
obl
em under
standi
ng

nat
ureoft
hesol
uti
onneeded

peopl
ewhowantasol
uti
on

noneoft
heabov
e

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Thr
eet
hingst
hatmaker
equi
rement
sel
i
cit
ati
ondi
ff
icul
tar
epr
obl
emsof

budget
ing

scope

under
standi
ng

v
olat
il
it
y

b,
c,d

Cor
rectAnswer:

b,
c,d

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Astakehol
deri
sany
onewhowi
l
lpur
chaset
hecompl
etedsof
twar
esy
stem under
devel
opment

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Itisr
elat
ivel
ycommonfordif
ferentcustomer
stopr
oposeconf
li
cti
ngr
equi
rement
s,each
arguingt
hathisorherv
ersi
onistherightone.
Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Whichofthefoll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hecont
ext
-f
reequest
ionst
hatwoul
dbeuseddur
ing
proj
ectincept
ion?

Whatwi
l
lbet
heeconomi
cbenef
itf
rom agoodsol
uti
on?

Whoi
sbehi
ndt
her
equestf
orwor
k?

Whowi
l
lpayf
ort
hewor
k?

Whowi
l
luset
hesol
uti
on?

Cor
rectAnswer:

Whowi
l
lpayf
ort
hewor
k?

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Non-
funct
ional
requi
rement
scanbesaf
elyi
gnor
edi
nmoder
nsof
twar
edev
elopment
proj
ect
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

15.I
ncol
l
abor
ati
ver
equi
rement
sgat
her
ingt
hef
aci
l
itat
or

ar
rangest
hemeet
ingpl
ace

cannotbeacust
omer

cont
rol
sthemeet
ing

mustbeanout
sider
Cor
rectAnswer:

cont
rol
sthemeet
ing

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Whi
chofthef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
her
equi
rementcl
assi
fi
cat
ionsusedi
nQual
i
tyFunct
ion
Depl
oyment(
QFD)?

exci
ti
ng

expect
ed

mandat
ory

nor
mal

Cor
rectAnswer:

mandat
ory

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Thewor
kpr
oduct
spr
oduceddur
ingr
equi
rementel
i
cit
ati
onwi
l
lvar
ydependi
ngont
he

si
zeoft
hebudget

si
zeoft
hepr
oductbei
ngbui
l
t.

sof
twar
epr
ocessbei
ngused.

st
akehol
der
sneeds.

bot
haandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandb

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Userst
ori
esarecompl
etedescr
ipt
ionst
heuserneedsandi
ncl
udet
henon-
funct
ional
requi
rement
sforasoft
war
eincrement.

Tr
ue
Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Devel
oper
sandcustomerscr
eateuse-
casestohel
pthesof
twar
eteam under
standhow
di
ffer
entcl
assesofend-
user
swil
lusefunct
ions.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

20.Use-
caseact
orsar
eal
way
speopl
e,nev
ersy
stem dev
ices.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

21.Theresul
toftherequi
rementsengi
neer
ingt
aski
sananal
ysi
smodel
thatdef
ineswhi
chof
thefol
l
owingproblem domain(
s)?

i
nfor
mat
ion

f
unct
ional

behav
ior
al

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer
22.Anal
ysispatter
nsfaci
li
tat
ethet
ransf
ormat
ionoft
heanal
ysi
smodel
int
oadesi
gnmodel
by
suggest
ingrel
iablesol
uti
onstocommonprobl
ems.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

23.I
nagi
l
epr
ocessmodel
srequi
rement
sengi
neer
inganddesi
gnact
ivi
ti
esar
eint
erl
eav
ed.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

24.I
nwin-
winnegot
iat
ion,
thecust
omer
’sneedsar
emetev
ent
hought
hedev
eloper
’sneedmay
notbe.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

25.Inrequi
rement
sval
i
dat
iont
her
equi
rement
smodel
isr
evi
ewedt
oensur
eit
stechni
cal
feasi
bil
it
y

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer
26.Themostcommonr
easonf
orsof
twar
epr
ojectf
ail
urei
slackoff
unct
ional
i
ty

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Thedat
adi
cti
onar
ycont
ainsdescr
ipt
ionsofeachsof
twar
e

cont
rol
item

dat
aobj
ect

di
agr
am

not
ati
on

bot
haandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandb

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Whi
choft
hesei
snotanel
ementofanobj
ect
-or
ient
edanal
ysi
smodel
?

Behav
ior
alel
ement
s

Cl
ass-
basedel
ement
s

Dat
ael
ement
s

Scenar
io-
basedel
ement
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

Dat
ael
ement
s

Vi
ewAnswer
3.I
nanal
ysismodel
stheonlydataobject
sthatneedr
epr
esent
ati
onar
ethoset
hatwi
l
lbe
i
mplementedusi
ngsoft
wareclasses.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Thev
aluest
hatar
eassi
gnedt
oanobj
ect
'sat
tri
but
esmaket
hatobj
ectuni
que.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Ther
elat
ionshi
psshowni
nadat
amodel
mustbecl
assi
fi
edt
oshowt
hei
r

car
dinal
i
ty

di
rect
ional
i
ty

modal
i
ty

pr
obabi
l
ity

bot
haandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandc

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Theent
it
yrel
ati
onshi
pdi
agr
am

depi
ctsr
elat
ionshi
psbet
weendat
aobj
ect
s
depi
ctsf
unct
ionst
hatt
ransf
ormt
hedat
afl
ow

i
ndi
cat
eshowdat
aar
etr
ansf
ormedbyt
hesy
stem

i
ndi
cat
essy
stem r
eact
ionst
oext
ernal
event
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

depi
ctsr
elat
ionshi
psbet
weendat
aobj
ect
s

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Agener
ali
zeddescr
ipt
ionofacol
l
ect
ionofsi
mil
arobj
ect
sisa

cl
ass

i
nst
ance

subcl
ass

supercl
ass

Cor
rectAnswer:

cl
ass

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Oper
ati
onsar
eobj
ectpr
ocedur
est
hatar
einv
okedwhenanobj
ectr
ecei
vesamessage

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Thedat
afl
owdi
agr
am

depi
ctsr
elat
ionshi
psbet
weendat
aobj
ect
s

depi
ctsf
unct
ionst
hatt
ransf
ormt
hedat
afl
ow

i
ndi
cat
eshowdat
aar
etr
ansf
ormedbyt
hesy
stem

i
ndi
cat
essy
stem r
eact
ionst
oext
ernal
event
s
bot
hbandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
hbandc

Vi
ewAnswer

10.At
tri
but
escannotbedef
inedf
oracl
assunt
ildesi
gnhasbeencompl
eted.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Ev
ent
soccurwhenev
era(
n)

act
orandt
heOOsy
stem exchangei
nfor
mat
ion

cl
assoper
ati
oni
sinv
oked

messagesar
epassedbet
weenobj
ect
s

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

act
orandt
heOOsy
stem exchangei
nfor
mat
ion

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Thest
atedi
agr
am

depi
ctsr
elat
ionshi
psbet
weendat
aobj
ect
s

depi
ctsf
unct
ionst
hatt
ransf
ormt
hedat
afl
ow

i
ndi
cat
eshowdat
aar
etr
ansf
ormedbyt
hesy
stem

i
ndi
cat
essy
stem r
eact
ionst
oext
ernal
event
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
ndi
cat
essy
stem r
eact
ionst
oext
ernal
event
s
PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngshoul
dbeconsi
der
edascandi
dat
eobj
ect
sinapr
obl
em space?

ev
ent
s

peopl
e

st
ruct
ures

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Int
hegrammati
cal
par
seofapr
ocessi
ngnar
rat
ivet
henounsbecomeobj
ectcandi
dat
esi
n
theanal
ysi
smodel
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Att
ri
butesarechosenf
oranobjectbyexami
ningt
hepr
obl
em st
atementandi
dent
if
yingt
he
enti
ti
esthatappeart
oberel
ated.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hebr
oadcat
egor
iesusedt
ocl
assi
fyoper
ati
ons?

comput
ati
on

dat
amani
pul
ati
on
ev
entmoni
tor
s

t
ransf
ormer
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

t
ransf
ormer
s

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Coll
abor
ator
sinCRCmodel
i
ngar
ethosecl
assesneededt
oful
fi
ll
aresponsi
bil
i
tyonanot
her
card.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
temsdoesnotappearonaCRCcar
d?

cl
asscol
l
abor
ator
s

cl
assname

cl
assr
eli
abi
l
ity

cl
assr
esponsi
bil
i
ties

Cor
rectAnswer:

cl
assr
eli
abi
l
ity

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Cl
assr
esponsi
bil
i
tiesar
edef
inedby

i
tsat
tri
but
esonl
y

i
tscol
l
abor
ator
s

i
tsoper
ati
onsonl
y
bot
hit
sat
tri
but
esandoper
ati
ons

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
hit
sat
tri
but
esandoper
ati
ons

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Ast
ereot
ypei
sthebasi
sforcl
assr
eusei
nUMLmodel
i
ng.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Ananaly
sispackagei
nvol
vest
hecat
egor
izat
ionofanal
ysi
smodel
element
sint
ousef
ul
groupi
ngs.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Thedat
afl
owdi
agr
am

Depi
ctsr
elat
ionshi
psbet
weendat
aobj
ect
s

Depi
ctsf
unct
ionst
hatt
ransf
ormt
hedat
afl
ow

I
ndi
cat
eshowdat
aar
etr
ansf
ormedbyt
hesy
stem

I
ndi
cat
essy
stem r
eact
ionst
oext
ernal
event
s

Bot
hbandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

Bot
hbandc

Vi
ewAnswer
2.Cont
rol
flowdi
agr
amsar
e

Neededt
omodel
eventdr
ivensy
stems

Requi
redf
oral
lsy
stems

Usedi
npl
aceofdat
afl
owdi
agr
ams.

Usedt
orepr
esentsy
stem behav
ior
.

Cor
rectAnswer:

Neededt
omodel
eventdr
ivensy
stems

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Thecont
rol
speci
fi
cat
ionr
epr
esent
sthesy
stem behav
iorusi
ngUMLsequenceandst
ate
di
agrams

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Thedataf
lowdiagr
am mustbeaugmentedbymin-
specthatcanser
veasagui
det
hedesi
gn
ofthesof
twarecomponentt
hatwi
lli
mplementthepr
ocess

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Thebehav
iormodel
i
ngi
sonl
yusedi
ntheanal
ysi
sofr
eal
-t
imesy
stems.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Forpur
posesofbehav
iormodel
i
nganev
entoccur
swhenev
er

ast
ateandpr
ocessexchangei
nfor
mat
ion.

t
hesy
stem anact
orexchangei
nfor
mat
ion.

t
woact
orsexchangei
nfor
mat
ion.

t
woobj
ect
sexchangei
nfor
mat
ion.

Cor
rectAnswer:

t
hesy
stem anact
orexchangei
nfor
mat
ion.

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Forpur
posesofbehav
iormodel
i
ngast
atei
sany

consumerorpr
oducerofdat
a

dat
aobj
ecthi
erar
chy

obser
vabl
emodeofbehav
ior
.

wel
ldef
inedpr
ocess.

Cor
rectAnswer:

obser
vabl
emodeofbehav
ior
.

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Thest
atet
ransi
ti
ondi
agr
am

depi
ctsr
elat
ionshi
psbet
weendat
aobj
ect
s

depi
ctsf
unct
ionst
hatt
ransf
ormt
hedat
afl
ow

i
ndi
cat
eshowdat
aar
etr
ansf
ormedbyt
hesy
stem

i
ndi
cat
essy
stem r
eact
ionst
oext
ernal
event
s
Cor
rectAnswer:

i
ndi
cat
essy
stem r
eact
ionst
oext
ernal
event
s

Vi
ewAnswer

9.TheUMLsequencedi
agr
am showst
heor
deri
nwhi
chsy
stem ev
ent
sar
epr
ocessed.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Anal
ysi
spat
ter
nsar
edi
scov
ered,
theyar
enotexpl
i
cit
lycr
eat
ed.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

11.I
tisnotpossi
blet
ojust
if
ythet
imer
equi
redf
ormobi
l
eappr
equi
rement
sanal
ysi
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Whi
chi
snotoneoft
heanal
ysi
sact
ivi
ti
est
hati
susedt
ocr
eat
eacompl
eteanal
ysi
smodel
?

Conf
igur
ati
onanal
ysi
s

Cont
entanal
ysi
s

Funct
ional
anal
ysi
s
Mar
ketanal
ysi
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

Mar
ketanal
ysi
s

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Contentobject
sareextr
actedfr
om usecasesbyexami
ningt
hescenar
iodescr
ipt
ionf
or
di
rectorindi
rectcont
entref
erences

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Whatar
etheel
ement
sofaWebAppi
nter
act
ionmodel
?

act
ivi
tydi
agr
ams,
sequencedi
agr
ams,
stat
edi
agr
ams,
int
erf
acepr
otot
ype

act
ivi
tydi
agr
ams,
col
l
abor
ati
ondi
agr
ams,
sequencedi
agr
ams,
stat
edi
agr
ams

use-
cases,
sequencedi
agr
ams,
stat
edi
agr
ams,
int
erf
acepr
otot
ype

use-
cases,
sequencedi
agr
ams,
stat
edi
agr
ams,
sequencedi
agr
ams

Cor
rectAnswer:

use-
cases,
sequencedi
agr
ams,
stat
edi
agr
ams,
int
erf
acepr
otot
ype

Vi
ewAnswer

15.UMLacti
vi
tydi
agr
amscanbeusedtorepr
esentt
heuserobser
vabl
ef unct
ional
i
tydel
i
ver
ed
bytheWebAppaswellast
heoper
ati
onscont
ainedi
neachanal
ysi
sclass.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
16.Conf
igur
ati
onanal
ysi
sfocusesont
hear
chi
tect
ureoft
heuser
’swebbr
owsi
ngenv
ironment
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
ear
easofconcer
nint
hedesi
gnmodel
?

ar
chi
tect
ure

dat
a

i
nter
faces

pr
ojectscope

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Thei
mpor
tanceofsof
twar
edesi
gncanbesummar
izedi
nasi
ngl
ewor
d

accur
acy

compl
exi
ty

ef
fi
ciency

qual
i
ty

Cor
rectAnswer:

qual
i
ty

Vi
ewAnswer
3.Whi
choft
hesear
echar
act
eri
sti
csofagooddesi
gn?

exhi
bit
sst
rongcoupl
i
ngbet
weeni
tsmodul
es

i
mpl
ement
sal
lrequi
rement
sint
heanal
ysi
smodel

i
ncl
udest
estcasesf
oral
lcomponent
s

pr
ovi
desacompl
etepi
ctur
eoft
hesof
twar
e

bandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandd

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotachar
act
eri
sti
ccommont
oal
ldesi
gnmet
hods?

conf
igur
ati
onmanagement

f
unct
ional
componentr
epr
esent
ati
on

qual
i
tyassessmentgui
del
i
nes

r
efi
nementheur
ist
ics

Cor
rectAnswer:

conf
igur
ati
onmanagement

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Whatt
ypesofabst
ract
ionar
eusedi
nsof
twar
edesi
gn?

cont
rol

dat
a

env
ironment
al

pr
ocedur
al

a,
b,d

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,d
Vi
ewAnswer

6.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcanbeusedt
orepr
esentt
hear
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnofapi
eceof
sof
twar
e?

Dy
nami
cmodel
s

Funct
ional
model
s

St
ruct
ural
model
s

Al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Desi
gnpat
ter
nsar
enotappl
i
cabl
etot
hedesi
gnofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
e?

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Sincemodul
ari
tyi
sani
mpor
tantdesi
gngoal
iti
snotpossi
blet
ohav
etoomanymodul
esi
na
proposeddesi
gn.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

9.I
nformati
onhidi
ngmakesprogr
am mai
ntenanceeasi
erbyhi
dingdat
aandpr
ocedur
efr
om
unaf
fectedpar
tsofthepr
ogr
am
Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Cohesi
oni
saqual
i
tat
ivei
ndi
cat
ionoft
hedegr
eet
owhi
chamodul
e

canbewr
it
tenmor
ecompact
ly

f
ocusesonj
ustonet
hing.

i
sabl
etocompl
etei
tsf
unct
ioni
nat
imel
ymanner
.

i
sconnect
edt
oot
hermodul
esandt
heout
sidewor
ld.

Cor
rectAnswer:

f
ocusesonj
ustonet
hing.

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Coupl
i
ngi
saqual
i
tat
ivei
ndi
cat
ionoft
hedegr
eet
owhi
chamodul
e

canbewr
it
tenmor
ecompact
ly

f
ocusesonj
ustonet
hing.

i
sabl
etocompl
etei
tsf
unct
ioni
nat
imel
ymanner

i
sconnect
edt
oot
hermodul
esandt
heout
sidewor
ld.

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
sconnect
edt
oot
hermodul
esandt
heout
sidewor
ld.

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Whenusingst
ruct
ureddesi
gnmet
hodol
ogi
est
hepr
ocessofst
epwi
ser
efi
nementi
s
unnecessar
y.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Sof
twar
edesi
gnsareref
act
oredtoal
l
owt
hecr
eat
ionofsof
twar
ethati
seasi
ert
oint
egr
ate,
easi
ert
otest,
andeasi
ert
omaintai
n.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hef
ivedesi
gncl
asst
ypes

Busi
nessdomai
ncl
asses

Ent
it
ycl
asses

Pr
ocesscl
asses

Useri
nter
facecl
asses

Cor
rectAnswer:

Ent
it
ycl
asses

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Whichdesi
gnmodel
element
sar
eusedt
odepi
ctamodel
ofi
nfor
mat
ionr
epr
esent
edf
rom
theuser’
svi
ew?

Ar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnel
ement
s

Component
-l
evel
desi
gnel
ement
s

Dat
adesi
gnel
ement
s

I
nter
facedesi
gnel
ement
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

Dat
adesi
gnel
ement
s

Vi
ewAnswer
16.Whi
chdesi
gni
sequi
val
entt
othef
loorpl
anofahouse?

Ar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gn

Component
-l
evel
desi
gn

Dat
adesi
gn

I
nter
facedesi
gn

Cor
rectAnswer:

Ar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gn

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Whichdesi
gnmodel
isequi
val
entt
othedet
ail
eddr
awi
ngsoft
heaccesspoi
ntsandex
ter
nal
uti
l
iti
esforahouse?

Ar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gn

Component
-l
evel
desi
gn

Dat
adesi
gn

I
nter
facedesi
gn

Cor
rectAnswer:

I
nter
facedesi
gn

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Whi
chdesi
gnmodel
isequi
val
entt
oasetofdet
ail
eddr
awi
ngsf
oreachr
oom i
nahouse?

Ar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gn

Component
-l
evel
desi
gn

Dat
adesi
gn

I
nter
facedesi
gn

Cor
rectAnswer:

Component
-l
evel
desi
gn
Vi
ewAnswer

19.Thedepl
oymentdesi
gnel
ement
sspeci
fyt
hebui
l
dor
derf
ort
hesof
twar
ecomponent
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Thebestr
epr
esent
ati
onofsy
stem ar
chi
tect
urei
sanoper
ati
onal
sof
twar
epr
otot
ype

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Thearchi
tect
ural
repr
esent
ati
onscanbeanenabl
erf
orcommuni
cat
ionamongpr
oject
stakehol
der
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Anar
chi
tect
ural
descr
ipt
ioni
sof
tendocument
edusi
nganar
chi
tect
uret
empl
ate.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer
4.Anarchi
tect
ural
deci
sioni
sof
tendocument
edusi
nganar
chi
tect
uredeci
siondescr
ipt
ion
templ
ate.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Anarchi
tect
ural
genr
ewi
l
lof
tendi
ctat
ethear
chi
tect
ural
appr
oacht
hatmayusedf
ort
he
str
uct
uretobebuil
t.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Anar
chi
tect
ural
sty
leencompasseswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ement
s?

const
rai
nts

setofcomponent
s

semant
icmodel
s

sy
ntact
icmodel
s

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Todet
ermi
nethearchi
tectur
alst
yleorcombinat
ionofst
ylest
hatbestf
it
sthepr
oposed
syst
em,r
equi
rement
sengi neer
ingi
susedt ouncov
er
al
gor
it
hmi
ccompl
exi
ty

char
act
eri
sti
csandconst
rai
nts

cont
rol
anddat
a

desi
gnpat
ter
ns

Cor
rectAnswer:

char
act
eri
sti
csandconst
rai
nts

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Bef
oreanar
chit
ectural
patt
erncanbechosenf
orusei
naspeci
fi
csy
stem i
tmusthav
ea
codei
mplementat
iontofaci
l
itat
eit
sreuse.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Thecr
it
eri
ausedt
oassesst
hequal
i
tyofanar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnshoul
dbebasedonsy
stem

accessi
bil
i
ty

cont
rol

dat
a

i
mpl
ement
ati
on

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Soft
war
ear
chi
tect
ural
consi
der
ati
onsof
teni
nter
actwi
theachot
herandmoder
ateeach
other
.

Tr
ue
Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Dev
elopernot
esar
enotar
eli
abl
emeansofdocument
ingar
chi
tect
ural
deci
sions

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Dur
ingprocessofmodel
i
ngt
hesy
stem i
ncont
ext
,sy
stemst
hati
nter
actwi
tht
het
arget
syst
em arer
epresent
edas

Peer
-l
evel
syst
ems

Subor
dinat
esy
stems

Super
ordi
nat
esy
stems

Wor
kingsy
stems

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Onceselect
ed,
archet
ypesal
way
sneedt
ober
efi
nedf
urt
herasar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gn
proceeds.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue
Vi
ewAnswer

14.Whichofthef
oll
owingi
snotanexampleofi
nfr
ast
ruct
urecomponent
sthatmayneedt
obe
i
ntegr
atedint
othesoft
warear
chi
tect
ure?

Communi
cat
ionscomponent
s

Dat
abasecomponent
s

I
nter
facecomponent
s

Memor
ymanagementcomponent
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

I
nter
facecomponent
s

Vi
ewAnswer

15.I
nthear
chi
tect
uret
rade-
offanal
ysi
smet
hodt
hear
chi
tect
ural
sty
leshoul
dbedescr
ibed
usi
ngthe

dat
afl
owv
iew

modul
evi
ew

pr
ocessv
iew

userv
iew

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Auseful
techni
quef
orev
aluat
ingt
heov
eral
lcompl
exi
tyofapr
oposedar
chi
tect
urei
stol
ook
atthecomponent

cohesi
on

f
lowdependenci
es

shar
ingdependenci
es
si
ze

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Softwar
earchi
tect
sneedt
ocr
eat
econsensusamongsof
twar
eteam member
sandot
her
stakehol
der
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Patt
ern-basedarchi
tect
ural
rev
iewscanbeusef
ulf
orpr
ojectwi
thshor
tbui
l
dcy
clesand
vol
ati
lerequirement
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Stat
icar
chit
ect
uralconfor
mancechecki
ngassesseswhet
herornott
hesour
cecode
matchestheuserv
isi
blerequi
rement
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

20.Ar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnhasnor
olei
nagi
l
esof
twar
epr
ocessmodel
s.
Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.I
nthecont
extofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingacomponentcont
ains

at
tri
but
esandoper
ati
ons

i
nst
ancesofeachcl
ass

r
olesf
oreachact
or(
dev
iceoruser
)

setofcol
l
abor
ati
ngcl
asses

Cor
rectAnswer:

setofcol
l
abor
ati
ngcl
asses

Vi
ewAnswer

2.I
ntr
adi
ti
onal
sof
twar
eengi
neer
ingmodul
esmustser
vei
nwhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngr
oles?

Cont
rol
component

I
nfr
ast
ruct
urecomponent

Pr
obl
em domai
ncomponent

Al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Sof
twar
eengineersal
waysneedt
ocer
atecomponent
sfr
om scr
atchi
nor
dert
omeet
cust
omerexpect
ationsf
ull
y.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hef
ourpr
inci
plesusedt
ogui
decomponent
-l
evel
desi
gn?

DependencyI
nver
sionPr
inci
ple

I
nter
faceSegr
egat
ionPr
inci
ple

Open-
ClosedPr
inci
ple

Par
simoni
ousCompl
exi
tyPr
inci
ple

Cor
rectAnswer:

Par
simoni
ousCompl
exi
tyPr
inci
ple

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Theuseofst
ereot
ypescanhel
pident
if
ythenat
ureofcomponent
satt
hedet
ail
eddesi
gnl
evel
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Classesandcomponentsthatexhi
bitf
unct
ional
,l
ayer
,orcommuni
cat
ional
cohesi
onar
e
rel
ati
velyeasyt
oimplement,
test,andmaint
ain.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Sof
twar
ecoupl
i
ngi
sasi
gnofpoorar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnandcanal
way
sbeav
oidedi
nev
ery
sy
stem.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

8.I
ncomponentdesi
gnel
abor
ati
onr
equi
reswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ement
stobedescr
ibei
n
det
ail
?

Al
gor
it
hms

At
tri
but
es

I
nter
faces

Oper
ati
ons

b,
c,d

Cor
rectAnswer:

b,
c,d

Vi
ewAnswer

9.I
ncomponent
-l
evel
desi
gnper
sist
entdat
asour
cesr
efert
o

Componentl
i
brar
ies

Dat
abases

Fi
l
es

Al
loft
heabov
e

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

10.WebAppcont
entdesi
gnatt
hecomponentl
evel
focusesoncont
entobj
ect
sandt
hemanner
i
nwhi
cht
heyi
nter
act
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

11.AWebAppfunct
ionalar
chi
tect
uredescr
ibest
hekeyf
unct
ional
component
sandhowt
hey
i
nter
actwi
theachother
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Component
-l
evel
desi
gnf
ormobi
l
eappsi
snotanydi
ff
erentf
rom component
-baseddesi
gn
forWebapps.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Whi
choft
heseconst
ruct
sisusedi
nst
ruct
uredpr
ogr
ammi
ng?

br
anchi
ng

condi
ti
on

r
epet
it
ion

sequence

b,
c,d
Cor
rectAnswer:

b,
c,d

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Incomponent-basedsoftwar
eengineer
ing,
thedev
elopmentteam examinesthe
requir
ementstoseewhi chareamenabletocomposi
ti
on,rat
hert
hanconst r
ucti
on,bef
ore
beginningdet
ail
eddesigntasks.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hemaj
oract
ivi
ti
esofdomai
nengi
neer
ing?

anal
ysi
s

const
ruct
ion

di
ssemi
nat
ion

v
ali
dat
ion

Cor
rectAnswer:

v
ali
dat
ion

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngf
act
orswoul
dnotbeconsi
der
eddur
ingcomponentqual
i
ficat
ion?

appl
i
cat
ionpr
ogr
ammi
ngi
nter
face(
API
)

dev
elopmentandi
ntegr
ati
ont
ool
srequi
red

except
ionhandl
i
ng

t
est
ingequi
pmentr
equi
red
Cor
rectAnswer:

t
est
ingequi
pmentr
equi
red

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Whi
chi
sthef
oll
owi
ngi
sat
echni
queusedf
orcomponentwr
appi
ng?

bl
ack-
boxwr
appi
ng

cl
ear
-boxwr
appi
ng

gr
ay-
boxwr
appi
ng

whi
te-
boxwr
appi
ng

Cor
rectAnswer:

cl
ear
-boxwr
appi
ng

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hei
ssuest
hatf
orm abasi
sfordesi
gnf
orr
euse?

obj
ect
-or
ient
edpr
ogr
ammi
ng

pr
ogr
am t
empl
ates

st
andar
ddat
a

st
andar
dint
erf
acepr
otocol
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

obj
ect
-or
ient
edpr
ogr
ammi
ng

Vi
ewAnswer

19.I
nareuseenv
ironment
,li
brar
yquer
iesar
eof
tenchar
act
eri
zedusi
ngt
he_
___
___
_el
ementof
the3CModel.

concept

cont
ent

cont
ext

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:
al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

20.Whi
choft
hesei
sagr
aphi
cal
not
ati
onf
ordepi
cti
ngpr
ocedur
aldet
ail
?

Boxdi
agr
am

Deci
siont
abl
e

ERdi
agr
am

Fl
owchar
t

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fl
owchar
t

Vi
ewAnswer

21.Adeci
siont
abl
eshoul
dbeused

Todocumental
lcondi
ti
onal
stat
ement
s

Togui
det
hedev
elopmentoft
hepr
ojectmanagementpl
an

Onl
ywhenbui
l
dinganexper
tsy
stem

Whenacompl
exsetofcondi
ti
onsandact
ionsappear
sinacomponent

Cor
rectAnswer:

Whenacompl
exsetofcondi
ti
onsandact
ionsappear
sinacomponent

Vi
ewAnswer

22.Apr
ogr
am desi
gnl
anguage(
PDL)i
sof
tena

Combi
nat
ionofpr
ogr
ammi
ngconst
ruct
sandnar
rat
ivet
ext

Legi
ti
mat
epr
ogr
ammi
ngl
anguagei
nit
sownr
ight

Machi
ner
eadabl
esof
twar
edev
elopmentl
anguage

Usef
ulwayt
orepr
esentsof
twar
ear
chi
tect
ure

Cor
rectAnswer:

Combi
nat
ionofpr
ogr
ammi
ngconst
ruct
sandnar
rat
ivet
ext
Vi
ewAnswer

23.I
nthemostgener
alsenseacomponenti
samodul
arbui
l
dingbl
ockf
orcomput
ersof
twar
e.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Whi
chofthefol
lowingi
nter
facedesi
gnpr
inci
plesdoesnotal
l
owt
heusert
oremai
nincont
rol
oft
heint
eract
ionwit
hacomput er?

al
l
owi
nter
act
iont
oint
err
upt
ibl
e

al
l
owi
nter
act
iont
obeundoabl
e

hi
det
echni
cal
int
ernal
sfr
om casual
user
s

onl
ypr
ovi
deoner
igi
dlydef
inedmet
hodf
oraccompl
i
shi
ngat
ask

Cor
rectAnswer:

onl
ypr
ovi
deoner
igi
dlydef
inedmet
hodf
oraccompl
i
shi
ngat
ask

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
nter
facedesi
gnpr
inci
plesr
educet
heuser
'smemor
yload?

def
inei
ntui
ti
veshor
tcut
s

di
scl
osei
nfor
mat
ioni
napr
ogr
essi
vef
ashi
on

est
abl
i
shmeani
ngf
uldef
aul
ts

pr
ovi
deanon-
li
net
utor
ial

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Ther
easonf
orr
educi
ngt
heuser
'smemor
yloadi
smakehi
sorheri
nter
act
ionwi
tht
he
comput
erqui
ckert
ocompl
ete.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.I
nter
faceconsi
stencyi
mpl
i
est
hat

eachappl
i
cat
ionshoul
dhav
eit
sowndi
sti
nct
ivel
ookandf
eel

i
nputmechani
smsr
emai
nthesamet
hroughoutt
heappl
i
cat
ion

nav
igat
ional
met
hodsar
econt
extsensi
ti
ve

v
isual
inf
ormat
ioni
sor
gani
zedaccor
dingt
oadesi
gnst
andar
d

bandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandd

Vi
ewAnswer

5.I
fpasti
nter
acti
vemodel
shav
ecr
eat
edcer
tai
nuserexpect
ati
onsi
tisnotgener
all
ygoodt
o
makechangestothemodel
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Whi
chmodel
depi
ctst
hepr
ofi
l
eoft
heenduser
sofacomput
ersy
stem?

desi
gnmodel
i
mpl
ement
ati
onmodel

usermodel

user
'smodel

Cor
rectAnswer:

usermodel

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Whi
chmodel
depi
ctst
hei
mageofasy
stem t
hatanendusercr
eat
esi
nhi
sorherhead?

desi
gnmodel

usermodel

sy
stem model

sy
stem per
cept
ion

Cor
rectAnswer:

sy
stem per
cept
ion

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Whichmodel
depi
ctst
hel
ookandf
eel
oft
heuseri
nter
faceal
ongwi
thal
lsuppor
ti
ng
i
nfor
mat i
on?

i
mpl
ement
ati
onmodel

usermodel

user
'smodel

sy
stem per
cept
ion

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
mpl
ement
ati
onmodel

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Whichofthesef
ramewor
kact
ivi
ti
esi
snotnor
mal
l
yassoci
atedwi
tht
heuseri
nter
facedesi
gn
processes?

costest
imat
ion
i
nter
faceconst
ruct
ion

i
nter
facev
ali
dat
ion

userandt
askanal
ysi
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

costest
imat
ion

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Whi
chappr
oach(
es)t
ousert
askanal
ysi
scanbeusef
uli
nuseri
nter
facedesi
gn?

hav
euser
sindi
cat
ethei
rpr
efer
encesonquest
ionnai
res

r
elyont
hej
udgementofex
per
iencedpr
ogr
ammer
s

st
udyexi
sti
ngcomput
er-
basedsol
uti
ons

obser
veuser
sper
for
mingt
asksmanual
l
y

candd

Cor
rectAnswer:

candd

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Obj
ect
-ori
ent
edanalysi
stechni
quescanbeusedtoi
dent
if
yandr
efi
neusert
askobj
ect
sand
acti
onswi
thoutanyneedtorefert
otheuserv
oice.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Thecomputer
'sdi
spl
aycapabi
l
iti
esar
ethepr
imar
ydet
ermi
nantoft
heor
deri
nwhi
chuser
i
nterf
acedesi
gnacti
vi
ti
esarecomplet
ed.

Tr
ue

Fal
se
Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Iti
ssometi
mespossibl
ethatt
hei
nter
facedesi
gneri
sconst
rai
nedbyenv
ironment
alf
act
ors
thatmit
igat
eagai
nsteaseofusef
ormanyusers

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Onemeansofdef i
ninguseri
nter
faceobj
ect
sandact
ionsi
stoconductagr
ammat
ical
par
se
oftheuserscenar
io.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

15.I
nter
facedesi
gnpatter
nsty
pical
l
yi ncludeacompl
etecomponent
-l
evel
desi
gn(
desi
gn
cl
asses,at
tri
but
es,oper
ati
ons,
andinterfaces)
.

Tr
ue

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se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

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16.Sev
eral
commondesi
gni
ssuessur
facef
oral
mostev
eryuseri
nter
facei
ncl
udi
ng
adapt
iveuserpr
ofi
l
es

er
rorhandl
i
ng

r
esol
uti
onofgr
aphi
csdi
spl
ays

sy
stem r
esponset
ime

bandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandd

Vi
ewAnswer

17.I
tismorei
mport
antt
ocapt
uretheuser
’sat
tent
ionwi
thf
lashyf
eat
urest
haner
gonomi
cal
l
y
soundscr
eenl
ayout
swhenbui
ldi
ngaWebApp.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Sev
eralusabi
l
itymeasur
escanbecol
l
ect
edwhi
l
eobser
vinguser
sint
eract
ingwi
tha
computersyst
em i
ncludi
ng

downt
imef
ort
heappl
i
cat
ion

numberofuserer
ror
s

sof
twar
erel
i
abi
l
ity

t
imespentl
ooki
ngathel
pmat
eri
als

bandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandd

1.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
heel
ement
sofadesi
gnpat
ter
n?

cont
ext
env
ironment

pr
obl
em

sol
uti
on

Cor
rectAnswer:

env
ironment

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Rubber
Necki
ngi
sanexampl
eofacl
assi
cgener
ati
vepat
ter
n.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Afr
ameworkisareusabl
emi
ni-
archi
tect
uret
hatser
vesasaf
oundat
ionwhi
chot
herdesi
gn
pat
ter
nscanbeappl
i
ed?

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Findi
ngpatter
nsbuil
tbyot
herst
hataddr
essdesi
gnpr
obl
emsi
sof
tenmor
edi
ff
icul
tthat
recogni
zingpatt
ernsi
ntheappl
i
cati
ontobebui
lt
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
5.Apat
ter
nlanguage

encompassesacol
l
ect
ionofpat
ter
ns

i
simpl
ement
edusi
nghy
per
text

r
esembl
est
hest
ruct
ureofnat
ural
languages

Noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

encompassesacol
l
ect
ionofpat
ter
ns

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Theconcept
sandtechni
quesdi
scussedf
or_
___
___
___
_canbeusedi
ntheconj
unct
ionwi
tha
patt
ern-
basedappr
oach.

Ar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gn

Component
-l
evel
desi
gn

Useri
nter
facedesi
gn

Al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

7.I
tisi
mpor t
anttoreducet
hecoupl
i
ngamongdesi
gnpat
ter
nssot
hatt
heycanbet
reat
edas
i
ndependentent
it
ies

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer
8.Real
li
fedesi
gnsol
uti
onsmaynotal
way
slendt
hemsel
vest
oat
op-
downappr
oach.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngpr
obl
em t
ypesar
eusedt
olabel
col
umnsi
napat
ter
nor
gani
zi
ngt
abl
e?

Busi
ness

Cont
ext

Dat
abase

I
nfr
ast
ruct
ure

candd

Cor
rectAnswer:

candd

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Mostmistakesi
npat
ter
n-baseddesi
gncanbeav
oidedbyj
udi
cioususeofr
evi
ew
techni
ques.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Befor
echoosinganarchi
tectur
aldesignpatt
erni
tmustbeassessedf
ori
tsappr
opr
iat
eness
totheappli
cat
ionandoveral
larchi
tect
uralst
yle.

Tr
ue

Fal
se
Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Unl
ikear
chi
tecturalpat
ter
ns,
component-
lev
eldesi
gnpat
ter
nsmaybeappl
i
edt
osol
ve
subpr
oblemswithoutregar
dtosyst
em cont
ext.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Mostuseri
nter
facedesi
gnpat
ter
nsf
all
wit
hinoneof_
___cat
egor
iesofpat
ter
ns.

10

25

100

Cor
rectAnswer:

10

Vi
ewAnswer

14.WebAppdesi
gnpat
ter
nscanbecl
assi
fi
edbyconsi
der
ingwhi
choft
hedi
mensi
onsl
i
sted
bel
ow?

Aest
het
ics

Desi
gnf
ocus

Gr
anul
ari
ty

Usabi
l
ity

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:
bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Whichoft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
elev
elsofdesi
gnf
ocust
hatcanbeusedt
ocat
egor
izeWebApp
patt
erns?

Behav
ior
alpat
ter
ns

Funct
ional
pat
ter
ns

Lay
outpat
ter
ns

Nav
igat
ionpat
ter
ns

bandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandd

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Whi
choft
hel
evel
sofgr
anul
ari
tyt
hatcanbeusedt
odescr
ibeWebApppat
ter
ns?

Ar
chi
tect
ural
pat
ter
ns

Componentpat
ter
ns

Desi
gnpat
ter
ns

I
nter
act
ionspat
ter
ns

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Mobil
eappuseri
nter
facepat
ter
nscanber
epr
esent
edasacol
l
ect
ionofbestofbr
eed
screeni
mages.

Tr
ue
Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

.Var
iat
ioncont
rol
int
hecont
extofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingi
nvol
vescont
rol
l
ingv
ari
ati
oni
nthe

pr
ocessappl
i
ed

r
esour
cesexpended

pr
oductqual
i
tyat
tri
but
es

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Ther
eisnoneedtoassesscust
omersat
isf
act
ionwhent
ryi
ngt
odet
ermi
net
hequal
i
tyofa
pi
eceofsoft
ware.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Akeyconceptofqual
i
tycont
rol
ist
hatal
lwor
kpr
oduct
s

ar
edel
i
ver
edont
imeandunderbudget

hav
ecompl
etedocument
ati
on

hav
emeasur
abl
especi
fi
cat
ionsf
orpr
ocessout
put
s

ar
ethor
oughl
ytest
edbef
oredel
i
ver
ytot
hecust
omer

Cor
rectAnswer:

hav
emeasur
abl
especi
fi
cat
ionsf
orpr
ocessout
put
s

Vi
ewAnswer
4.Qual
i
tycost
smaybedi
vi
dedi
ntocost
sassoci
atedwi
th

pr
event
ion,
appr
aisal
,andf
ail
ure

peopl
e,pr
ocess,
andpr
oduct

cust
omer
s,dev
eloper
s,andmai
ntenance

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

pr
event
ion,
appr
aisal
,andf
ail
ure

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Poka-
yokedev
icesar
emechani
smst
hatl
eadt
othe

cr
eat
ionofqual
i
typr
ocesseswi
thmi
nimal
resour
ces

det
ermi
ningcausesofsof
twar
edef
ect
s

pr
event
ionofpot
ent
ial
qual
i
typr
obl
ems

r
api
ddet
ect
ionofqual
i
typr
obl
emsi
ntr
oduced

bot
hcandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
hcandd

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Qual
i
tyofconfor
mancefocusesont
hedegr
eet
owhi
cht
hei
mpl
ement
ati
onofadesi
gn
meetsi
tsrequi
rement
sandperfor
mancegoal
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
7.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
heat
tri
but
esofsof
twar
equal
i
ty?

Addsv
aluef
ordev
eloper
sanduser
s

Ef
fect
ivesof
twar
epr
ocesscr
eat
esi
nfr
ast
ruct
ure

Remov
esneedt
oconsi
derper
for
mancei
ssues

Usef
ulpr
oduct
ssat
isf
yst
akehol
derr
equi
rement
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

Remov
esneedt
oconsi
derper
for
mancei
ssues

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Pr
oductqual
i
tycanonl
ybeassessedbymeasur
inghar
dqual
i
tyf
act
ors.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Manysof
twar
emet
ri
cscanonl
ybemeasur
edi
ndi
rect
ly.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
eISO9126sof
twar
equal
i
tyf
act
ors?

Funct
ional
i
ty

Por
tabi
l
ity

Rel
i
abi
l
ity

Vi
sual
appeal
a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Dev
eloper
sneedt
ocr
eat
eacol
l
ect
ionoft
arget
edquest
ionst
oasseseachqual
i
tyf
act
or.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Sof
twar
emet
ri
csr
epr
esentdi
rectmeasur
esofsomemani
fest
ati
onofqual
i
ty.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Thequal
it
ydi
lemmami ghtbesummar
izedaschoosi
ngbet
weenbui
l
dingt
hingsqui
ckl
yor
bui
ldi
ngthi
ngscorr
ect
ly.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Goodenoughsoftwar
edel
iver
shighqual
i
tysof
twar
efunct
ionsal
ongwi
thspeci
ali
zed
funct
ionst
hatcont
ainknownbugs.

Tr
ue
Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sli
kel
ytobet
hemostexpensi
vecostofqual
i
ty?

Appr
aisal
cost
s

Ext
ernal
fai
l
urecost
s

I
nter
nal
fai
l
urecost
s

Pr
event
ioncost
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

Ext
ernal
fai
l
urecost
s

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Poorqual
i
tyl
eadst
osof
twar
eri
skst
hatcanbecomeser
ious?

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Whenasy st
em f
ail
stodel
i
verr
equi
redf
unct
ionsi
tisbecauset
hecust
omerchanges
requi
rement
s?

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se
Vi
ewAnswer

18.Dev
eloper
smustst
artf
ocusi
ngonqual
i
tydur
ingt
hedesi
gnphasei
nor
dert
obui
l
dsecur
e
syst
ems.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmanagementdeci
sionshav
ethepot
ent
ial
toi
mpactsof
twar
equal
i
ty?

Est
imat
iondeci
sions

Ri
sk-
ori
ent
eddeci
sions

Schedul
i
ngdeci
sions

Al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

Al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

20.Thepr
ojectpl
anshoul
dincl
udeex
pli
citt
echni
quesf
or_
___
___and_
___
___management
?

change

cost

er
ror

qual
i
ty

aandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

aandd

Vi
ewAnswer

21.Qual
i
tycont
rol
encompassesasetofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingact
ionst
hathel
ptoensur
ethat
eachwor
kpr
oductmeet
sit
squal
i
tygoal
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

22.Thegoal
ofqual
i
tyassur
ancet
oinsur
ethatasof
twar
epr
ojecti
ser
rorf
ree.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Thepur
poseofsoft
war
erevi
ewsistouncoverer
ror
sanddefect
sinwor
kpr
oduct
ssot
hey
canberemovedbef
oremovi
ngontothenextphaseofdev
elopment.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Ingeneralt
heearl
ierasof
twar
edef
ecti
sdi
scov
eredandcor
rect
edt
hel
esscost
lyt
othe
overal
lproj
ectbudget.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
3.Defectampl
if
icati
onmodelscanbeusedt
oill
ust
rat
ethecost
sassoci
atedwi
thusi
ng
soft
war efr
om i
tsini
ti
aldepl
oymentt
oit
sret
ir
ement

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Rev
iewmet
ri
cscanbeusedt
oassesst
heef
fi
cacyofeachr
evi
ewact
ivi
ty.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Def
ectdensi
tycanbeest
imat
edf
oranysof
twar
eengi
neer
ingwor
kpr
oduct
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Agi
lesof
twar
edev
eloper
sar
eawar
ethatsof
twar
erev
iewsal
way
staket
imewi
thoutsav
ing
any.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Thel
evel
ofr
evi
ewf
ormal
i
tyi
sdet
ermi
nedbywhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ng?

amountofpr
epar
ati
on

r
evi
ewerf
oll
ow-
up

si
zeofpr
ojectbudget

st
ruct
ureofr
evi
ew

a,
b,d

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,d

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Ani
nfor
mal
rev
iewmayconsi
stofwhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ng?

casual
meet
ing

deskcheck

i
nspect
ion

pai
rpr
ogr
ammi
ng

aandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

aandb

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
eobj
ect
ivesf
orf
ormal
techni
cal
rev
iews?

al
l
owseni
orst
affmember
stocor
recter
ror
s

assesspr
ogr
ammerpr
oduct
ivi
ty

det
ermi
ningwhoi
ntr
oducedaner
rori
ntoapr
ogr
am

uncov
erer
ror
sinsof
twar
ewor
kpr
oduct
s
Cor
rectAnswer:

uncov
erer
ror
sinsof
twar
ewor
kpr
oduct
s

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Att
heendofaf
ormal
techni
cal
rev
iewal
lat
tendeescandeci
det
o

acceptt
hewor
kpr
oductwi
thoutmodi
fi
cat
ion

modi
fyt
hewor
kpr
oductandcont
inuet
her
evi
ew

r
ejectt
hepr
oductduet
ost
yli
sti
cdi
scr
epanci
es

r
ejectt
hepr
oductduet
osev
ereer
ror
s

aandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

aandd

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Ar
evi
ewsummar
yrepor
tanswer
swhi
cht
hreequest
ions?

t
ermi
nat
epr
oject
,repl
acepr
oducer
,requestat
imeext
ensi
on

whatdef
ect
swer
efound,
whatcauseddef
ect
s,whowasr
esponsi
ble

whatwasr
evi
ewed,
whor
evi
ewedi
t,whatwer
ethef
indi
ngs

noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

whatwasr
evi
ewed,
whor
evi
ewedi
t,whatwer
ethef
indi
ngs

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Inanyty
peoft
echni
cal
rev
iew,
thef
ocusoft
her
evi
ewi
sont
hepr
oductandnott
he
producer

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue
Vi
ewAnswer

13.Sampl
edr
ivenr
evi
ewsonl
ymakesensef
orv
erysmal
lsof
twar
edev
elopmentpr
oject
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Softwarequal
it
ymi
ghtbedef
inedasconfor
mancet
oexpl
i
cit
lyst
atedr
equi
rement
sand
standards,
nothi
ngmor
eandnothingl
ess.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Peopl
ewhoperfor
m soft
war
equal
i
tyassur
ancemustl
ookatt
hesof
twar
efr
om t
he
cust
omer'sper
spect
ive.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Theel
ement
sofsof
twar
equal
i
tyassur
anceconsi
stofr
evi
ews,
audi
ts,
andt
est
ing.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se
Vi
ewAnswer

4.Whichoftheseacti
vit
iesi
snotoneoft
heact
ivi
ti
esr
ecommendedt
obeper
for
medbyan
i
ndependentSQAgr oup?

pr
epar
eSQApl
anf
ort
hepr
oject

r
evi
ewsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingact
ivi
ti
est
over
if
ypr
ocesscompl
i
ance

r
epor
tanyev
idenceofnoncompl
i
ancet
oseni
ormanagement

ser
veast
hesol
etestt
eam f
oranysof
twar
epr
oduced

Cor
rectAnswer:

ser
veast
hesol
etestt
eam f
oranysof
twar
epr
oduced

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Met
ri
cscanbeusedt
oindi
cat
ether
elat
ivest
rengt
hofasof
twar
equal
i
tyat
tri
but
e.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Att
emptstoappl
ymat
hemat
icalpr
ooft
odemonst
rat
ethatapr
ogr
am conf
ormst
oit
s
speci
fi
cat
ionsar
edoomedt
ofail
ure.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

7.St
ati
sti
cal
qual
i
tyassur
ancei
nvol
ves
usi
ngsampl
i
ngi
npl
aceofexhaust
ivet
est
ingofsof
twar
e

sur
vey
ingcust
omer
stof
indoutt
hei
ropi
nionsaboutpr
oductqual
i
ty

tr
acingeachdef
ectt
oit
sunder
lyi
ngcause,
isol
ati
ngt
he"
vit
alf
ew"causes,
andmov
ingt
o
corr
ectthem

tr
acingeachdefectt
oit
sunder
lyi
ngcausesandusi
ngt
hePar
etopr
inci
plet
ocor
recteach
problem f
ound

Cor
rectAnswer:

tr
acingeachdef
ectt
oit
sunder
lyi
ngcause,
isol
ati
ngt
he"
vit
alf
ew"causes,
andmov
ingt
o
corr
ectthem

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Si
xSi
gmamet
hodol
ogydef
inest
hreecor
est
eps.

anal
yze,
impr
ove,
cont
rol

anal
yze,
desi
gn,
ver
if
y

def
ine,
measur
e,anal
yze

def
ine,
measur
e,cont
rol

Cor
rectAnswer:

def
ine,
measur
e,anal
yze

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Sof
twar
erel
i
abi
l
itypr
obl
emscanal
mostal
way
sbet
racedt
o

er
ror
sinaccur
acy

er
ror
sindesi
gn

er
ror
sini
mpl
ement
ati
on

er
ror
sinoper
ati
on

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer
10.Sof
twar
esaf
etyi
saqual
i
tyassur
anceact
ivi
tyt
hatf
ocusesonhazar
dst
hat

af
fectt
her
eli
abi
l
ityofasof
twar
ecomponent

maycauseanent
ir
esy
stem t
ofai
l

mayr
esul
tfr
om useri
nputer
ror
s

pr
eventpr
ofi
tabl
emar
ket
ingoft
hef
inal
product

Cor
rectAnswer:

maycauseanent
ir
esy
stem t
ofai
l

Vi
ewAnswer

11.TheI
SOqual
i
tyassur
ancest
andar
dthatappl
i
est
osof
twar
eengi
neer
ingi
s

I
SO9000

I
SO9001

I
SO9002

I
SO9003

Cor
rectAnswer:

I
SO9001

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotasect
ioni
nthest
andar
dforSQApl
ansr
ecommendedbyI
EEE?

budget

document
ati
on

r
evi
ewsandaudi
ts

t
est

Cor
rectAnswer:

budget

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Comparisontest
ingist
ypical
lydonetot
estt
wocompet
ingpr
oduct
saspar
tofcust
omer
marketanalysi
spri
ortoproductrel
ease
Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Testcasedesi
gn"i
nthesmal
l
"forOOsof
twar
eisdr
ivenbyt
heal
gor
it
hmi
cdet
ail
oft
he
i
ndivi
dualoper
ati
ons.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Deepst
ruct
uret
est
ingi
snotdesi
gnedt
o

exami
neobj
ectbehav
ior
s

exer
cisecommuni
cat
ionmechani
sms

exer
ciseobj
ectdependenci
es

exer
cisest
ruct
ureobser
vabl
ebyt
heuser

Cor
rectAnswer:

exer
cisest
ruct
ureobser
vabl
ebyt
heuser

Vi
ewAnswer

4.I
nsoft
warequali
tyassur
ancewor
kther
eisnodi
ff
erencebet
weensof
twar
ever
if
icat
ionand
sof
twar
ev al
i
dat
ion.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se
Vi
ewAnswer

5.Thebestr
easonf
orusi
ngI
ndependentsof
twar
etestt
eamsi
sthat

sof
twar
edev
eloper
sdonotneedt
odoanyt
est
ing

st
ranger
swi
l
ltestt
hesof
twar
emer
cil
essl
y

t
est
ersdonotgeti
nvol
vedwi
tht
hepr
ojectunt
ilt
est
ingbegi
ns

t
heconf
li
ctsofi
nter
estbet
weendev
eloper
sandt
est
ersi
sreduced

Cor
rectAnswer:

t
heconf
li
ctsofi
nter
estbet
weendev
eloper
sandt
est
ersi
sreduced

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Whati
sthenor
mal
orderofact
ivi
ti
esi
nwhi
cht
radi
ti
onal
sof
twar
etest
ingi
sor
gani
zed?

i
ntegr
ati
ont
est
ing,
syst
em t
est
ing,
uni
ttest
ing,
val
i
dat
iont
est
ing.

uni
ttest
ing,
val
i
dat
iont
est
ing,
syst
em t
est
ing,
int
egr
ati
ont
est
ing

uni
ttest
ing,
int
egr
ati
ont
est
ing,
val
i
dat
iont
est
ing,
syst
em t
est
ing

v
ali
dat
iont
est
ing,
syst
em t
est
ing,
int
egr
ati
ont
est
ing,
uni
ttest
ing

Cor
rectAnswer:

uni
ttest
ing,
int
egr
ati
ont
est
ing,
val
i
dat
iont
est
ing,
syst
em t
est
ing

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Bycoll
ect
ingsoft
war
emetri
csandmaki
nguseofexi
stingsof
twar
erel
iabi
li
tymodel
siti
s
possi
bletodevel
opmeani
ngf
ulgui
del
i
nesfordet
ermi
ningwhensoft
waretest
ingi
sdone.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
8.Whichofthef
oll
owi
ngst
rat
egi
cissuesneedst
obeaddr
essedi
nasuccessf
ulsof
twar
e
test
ingpr
ocess?

conductf
ormal
techni
cal
rev
iewspr
iort
otest
ing

speci
fyr
equi
rement
sinaquant
if
iabl
emanner

usei
ndependentt
estt
eams

wai
tti
l
lcodei
swr
it
tenpr
iort
owr
it
ingt
het
estpl
an

aandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

aandb

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngneedt
obeassesseddur
inguni
ttest
ing?

al
gor
it
hmi
cper
for
mance

codest
abi
l
ity

er
rorhandl
i
ng

execut
ionpat
hs

candd

Cor
rectAnswer:

candd

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Uni
tsandstubsar
enotneededf
oruni
ttest
ingbecauset
hemodul
esar
etest
ed
i
ndependent
lyofoneanot
her
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer
11.Top-
downi
ntegr
ati
ont
est
inghasasi
t'
smaj
oradv
ant
age(
s)t
hat

l
owl
evel
modul
esnev
erneedt
est
ing

maj
ordeci
sionpoi
ntsar
etest
edear
ly

nodr
iver
sneedt
obewr
it
ten

nost
ubsneedt
obewr
it
ten

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Bot
tom-
upi
ntegr
ati
ont
est
inghasasi
t'
smaj
oradv
ant
age(
s)t
hat

maj
ordeci
sionpoi
ntsar
etest
edear
ly

nodr
iver
sneedt
obewr
it
ten

nost
ubsneedt
obewr
it
ten

r
egr
essi
ont
est
ingi
snotr
equi
red

Cor
rectAnswer:

nost
ubsneedt
obewr
it
ten

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Regr
essi
ontest
ingshoul
dbeanor
mal
par
tofi
ntegr
ati
ont
est
ingbecauseasanewmodul
e
i
saddedt ot
hesyst
em new

cont
rol
logi
cisi
nvoked

dat
afl
owpat
hsar
eest
abl
i
shed

dr
iver
srequi
ret
est
ing

al
loft
heabov
e

aandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

aandb
Vi
ewAnswer

14.Smoket
est
ingmi
ghtbestbedescr
ibedas

bul
l
etpr
oof
ingshr
ink-
wrappedsof
twar
e

r
oll
i
ngi
ntegr
ati
ont
est
ing

t
est
ingt
hathi
desi
mpl
ement
ati
oner
ror
s

uni
ttest
ingf
orsmal
lpr
ogr
ams

Cor
rectAnswer:

r
oll
i
ngi
ntegr
ati
ont
est
ing

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Whent
est
ingobject-
ori
entedsof
twar
eiti
simpor
tantt
otesteachcl
assoper
ati
onsepar
atel
y
aspar
toft
heunitt
estingprocess

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

16.TheOOt
est
ingi
ntegr
ati
onst
rat
egyi
nvol
vest
est
ing

gr
oupsofcl
assest
hatcol
l
abor
ateorcommuni
cat
einsomeway

si
ngl
eoper
ati
onsast
heyar
eaddedt
otheev
olv
ingcl
assi
mpl
ement
ati
on

oper
atorpr
ogr
amsder
ivedf
rom use-
casescenar
ios

noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

gr
oupsofcl
assest
hatcol
l
abor
ateorcommuni
cat
einsomeway

Vi
ewAnswer
17.Si
ncemanyWebAppsev
olv
econt
inuousl
y,t
het
est
ingpr
ocessmustbeongoi
ngaswel
l
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Test
ingMobi
l
eAppsi
snotdi
ff
erentt
hant
est
ingWebApps.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Thefocusofval
idat
iont
est
ingistouncov
erpl
acest
hatsuserwi
l
lbeabl
etoobser
vef
ail
ure
ofthesoft
waretoconformt
oitsrequi
rement
s.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

20.Sof
twar
eval
idat
ioni
sachi
evedthr
oughaseriesoft
est
sper
for
medbyt
heuseroncet
he
soft
warei
sdepl
oyedinhi
sorherworkenv
ironment.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer
21.Conf
igur
ati
onrevi
ewsarenotneededi
fregr
essi
ont
est
inghasbeenr
igor
ousl
yappl
i
ed
duri
ngsoft
wareint
egrat
ion.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

22.Accept
ancet
est
sar
enor
mal
l
yconduct
edbyt
he

dev
eloper

enduser
s

t
estt
eam

sy
stemsengi
neer
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

enduser
s

Vi
ewAnswer

23.Recoveryt
esti
ngisasystem t
estt
hatfor
cesthesoft
war
et ofai
li
nav ar
iet
yofway
sand
ver
ifi
esthatsof
twareisabl
etoconti
nueexecut
ionwit
houti
nter
rupt
ion.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

24.Secur
ityt
esti
ngattemptst
over
if
ythatpr
otect
ionmechani
smsbui
l
tint
oasy
stem pr
otecti
t
fr
om improperpenet
rati
on.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

25.Str
esstest
ingexami
nest
hepr
essur
espl
acedont
heuserdur
ingsy
stem usei
next
reme
envi
ronments.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

26.Per
for
mancet
est
ingi
sonl
yimpor
tantf
orr
eal
-t
imeorembeddedsy
stems.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

27.Debuggi
ngi
snott
est
ing,
butal
way
soccur
sasaconsequenceoft
est
ing.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

28.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sanappr
oacht
odebuggi
ng?

backt
racki
ng

br
utef
orce
causeel
i
minat
ion

coder
est
ruct
uri
ng

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Witht
hor
ought
est
ingi
tispossi
blet
oremov
eal
ldef
ect
sfr
om apr
ogr
am pr
iort
odel
i
ver
yto
thecust
omer

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
echar
act
eri
sti
csoft
est
abl
esof
twar
e?

obser
vabi
l
ity

si
mpl
i
cit
y

st
abi
l
ity

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Thetesti
ngtechniquethatrequi
resdev
isi
ngt
estcasest
odemonst
rat
ethateachpr
ogr
am
funct
ionisoperat
ionali
scalled

bl
ack-
boxt
est
ing

gl
ass-
boxt
est
ing

gr
ey-
boxt
est
ing
whi
te-
boxt
est
ing

Cor
rectAnswer:

bl
ack-
boxt
est
ing

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Thet
est
ingt
echniquethatr
equi
resdev
isi
ngt
estcasest
oexer
ciset
hei
nter
nal
logi
cofa
soft
war
emoduleiscall
ed

behav
ior
alt
est
ing

bl
ack-
boxt
est
ing

gr
ey-
boxt
est
ing

whi
te-
boxt
est
ing

Cor
rectAnswer:

whi
te-
boxt
est
ing

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Whattypesofer
ror
sar
emi
ssedbybl
ack-
boxt
est
ingandcanbeuncov
eredbywhi
te-
box
test
ing?

behav
ior
aler
ror
s

l
ogi
cer
ror
s

per
for
manceer
ror
s

t
ypogr
aphi
cal
err
ors

bandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandd

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Pr
ogr
am f
lowgr
aphsar
eident
ical
topr
ogr
am f
lowchar
ts.
Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Thecycl
omat
iccompl
exi
tymet
ri
cpr
ovi
dest
hedesi
gnerwi
thi
nfor
mat
ionr
egar
dingt
he
numberof

cy
clesi
nthepr
ogr
am

er
ror
sint
hepr
ogr
am

i
ndependentl
ogi
cpat
hsi
nthepr
ogr
am

st
atement
sint
hepr
ogr
am

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
ndependentl
ogi
cpat
hsi
nthepr
ogr
am

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Thecycl
omati
ccomplexi
tyofapr
ogr
am canbecomput
eddi
rect
lyf
rom aPDLr
epr
esent
ati
on
ofanalgor
it
hm wi
thoutdr
awingapr
ogr
am fl
owgraph.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Conditi
ontesti
ngisacont
rol
str
uct
uret
est
ingt
echni
quewher
ethecr
it
eri
ausedt
odesi
gn
testcasesisthatt
hey

r
elyonbasi
spat
htest
ing

exer
ciset
hel
ogi
cal
condi
ti
onsi
napr
ogr
am modul
e

sel
ectt
estpat
hsbasedont
hel
ocat
ionsandusesofv
ari
abl
es

f
ocusont
est
ingt
hev
ali
dit
yofl
oopconst
ruct
s
Cor
rectAnswer:

exer
ciset
hel
ogi
cal
condi
ti
onsi
napr
ogr
am modul
e

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Dataflowtest
ingi
sacont
rol
str
uct
uret
est
ingt
echni
quewher
ethecr
it
eri
ausedt
odesi
gn
testcasesist
hatthey

r
elyonbasi
spat
htest
ing

exer
ciset
hel
ogi
cal
condi
ti
onsi
napr
ogr
am modul
e

sel
ectt
estpat
hsbasedont
hel
ocat
ionsandusesofv
ari
abl
es

f
ocusont
est
ingt
hev
ali
dit
yofl
oopconst
ruct
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

sel
ectt
estpat
hsbasedont
hel
ocat
ionsandusesofv
ari
abl
es

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Looptest
ingi
sacont
rol
str
uct
uret
est
ingt
echni
quewher
ethecr
it
eri
ausedt
odesi
gnt
est
casesist
hatthey

r
elybasi
spat
htest
ing

exer
ciset
hel
ogi
cal
condi
ti
onsi
napr
ogr
am modul
e

sel
ectt
estpat
hsbasedont
hel
ocat
ionsandusesofv
ari
abl
es

f
ocusont
est
ingt
hev
ali
dit
yofl
oopconst
ruct
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

f
ocusont
est
ingt
hev
ali
dit
yofl
oopconst
ruct
s

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Bl
ack-
boxt
est
ingat
tempt
stof
inder
ror
sinwhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcat
egor
ies

i
ncor
rectormi
ssi
ngf
unct
ions

i
nter
faceer
ror
s

per
for
manceer
ror
s

noneoft
heabov
e
a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Gr
aph-
basedt
est
ingmet
hodscanonl
ybeusedf
orobj
ect
-or
ient
edsy
stems

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Equi
val
encetesti
ngdi
videsthei
nputdomai nint
oclassesofdat
afr
om whicht
estcasescan
bederi
vedtoreducethet
otalnumberoftestcasesthatmustbedevel
oped.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Boundar
yval
ueanal
ysi
scanonl
ybeusedt
odowhi
te-
boxt
est
ing.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Or
thogonal
arr
ayt
est
ingenabl
est
het
estdesi
gnert
omaxi
mizet
hecov
erageoft
het
est
casesdev
isedf
orr
elat
ivel
ysmal
li
nputdomai
ns.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Testder
ivedf
rom behav
ior
alcl
assmodel
sshoul
dbebasedont
he

dat
afl
owdi
agr
am

obj
ect
-r
elat
iondi
agr
am

st
atet
ransi
ti
ondi
agr
am

use-
casedi
agr
am

Cor
rectAnswer:

st
atet
ransi
ti
ondi
agr
am

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Document
ati
ondoesnotneedt
obet
est
ed.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Real
-t
imeappl
i
cat
ionsaddanewandpot
ent
ial
l
ydi
ff
icul
tel
ementt
othet
est
ingmi
x

per
for
mance

r
eli
abi
l
ity

secur
it
y

t
ime
Cor
rectAnswer:

t
ime

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Test
ingOOcl
assoper
ati
onsi
smademor
edi
ff
icul
tby

Encapsul
ati
on

I
nher
it
ance

Pol
ymor
phi
sm

Bot
hbandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

Bot
hbandc

Vi
ewAnswer

2.I
tisnotpossi
blet
otestobj
ect
-or
ient
edsoft
war
ewi
thouti
ncl
udi
nger
rordi
scov
eryt
echni
ques
appl
iedtothesy
stem OOAandOODmodel s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Thecor
rect
nessoftheOOAandOODmodel
isaccompl
i
shedusi
ngf
ormal
techni
cal
rev
iews
bythesof
twarequal
i
tyassur
ancet
eam.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Theconsi
stencyofobj
ect
-or
ient
edmodel
smaybej
udgedbyr
evi
ewi
ngt
heCRCcar
dmodel
.
Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Testcasedesi
gnf
orOOsof
twar
eisdr
ivenbyt
heal
gor
it
hmi
cdet
ail
oft
hei
ndi
vi
dual
operat
ions.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Integr
ati
ontest
ingofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
ecanbeaccompl
i
shedbywhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ng
testi
ngstrat
egi
es?

Cl
ust
ert
est
ing

Gl
ass-
boxt
est
ing

Thr
ead-
basedt
est
ing

Use-
basedt
est
ing

a,
c,d

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
c,d

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Val
idat
ionofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
efocusesonuserv
isi
bleact
ionsandout
put
sfr
om t
he
syst
em.

Tr
ue
Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Encapsul
ati
onofatt
ri
butesandoper
ati
onsi
nsi
deobj
ect
smakesi
teasyt
oobt
ainobj
ectst
ate
i
nformati
onduringt
esti
ng

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Use-
casescanpr
ovi
deusef
uli
nputi
ntot
hedesi
gnofbl
ack-
boxandst
ate-
basedt
est
sofOO
soft
ware.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Faul
t-
basedt
est
ingi
sbestr
eser
vedf
or

conv
ent
ional
sof
twar
etest
ing

oper
ati
onsandcl
assest
hatar
ecr
it
ical
orsuspect

use-
casev
ali
dat
ion

whi
te-
boxt
est
ingofoper
atoral
gor
it
hms

Cor
rectAnswer:

oper
ati
onsandcl
assest
hatar
ecr
it
ical
orsuspect

Vi
ewAnswer
11.Scenar
io-
basedt
est
ing

concent
rat
esonact
orandsof
twar
eint
eract
ion

mi
sseser
ror
sinspeci
fi
cat
ions

mi
sseser
ror
sinsubsy
stem i
nter
act
ions

bot
haandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

concent
rat
esonact
orandsof
twar
eint
eract
ion

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Random or
dert
est
sar
econduct
edt
oexer
cisedi
ff
erentcl
assi
nst
ancel
i
fehi
stor
ies.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Whi
choft
heset
echni
quesi
snotusef
ulf
orpar
ti
ti
ont
est
ingatt
hecl
assl
evel

at
tri
but
e-basedpar
ti
ti
oni
ng

cat
egor
y-basedpar
ti
ti
oni
ng

equi
val
encecl
asspar
ti
ti
oni
ng

st
ate-
basedpar
ti
ti
oni
ng

Cor
rectAnswer:

equi
val
encecl
asspar
ti
ti
oni
ng

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Mul
ti
plecl
asst
est
ingi
stoocompl
ext
obet
est
edusi
ngr
andom t
estcases.

Tr
ue

Fal
se
Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Thest
atemodelcanbeusedt
oder
ivet
estcasesbasedont
hedy
nami
cbehav
iorofan
obj
ect-
ori
ent
edsyst
em.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.St
ati
sti
cal
uset
est
ingr
eli
esonpr
obabi
l
itydi
str
ibut
ionsbasedon

mi
xtur
eofcont
rol
str
uct
uresusedi
nthepr
ogr
am

or
deri
nwhi
cht
hemodul
eexecut
e

t
hewaysof
twar
ewi
l
lact
ual
l
ybeused

useri
nter
facedesi
gnst
andar
ds

Cor
rectAnswer:

t
hewaysof
twar
ewi
l
lact
ual
l
ybeused

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Cer
ti
fi
cat
ionofani
ncr
ementi
scompl
eteoncei
thaspassedt
hef
ormal
ver
if
icat
ionpr
ocess.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngmodel
sispar
toft
hecl
eanr
oom cer
ti
fi
cat
ionpr
ocess?

componentmodel
sampl
i
ngmodel

bot
haandb

noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandb

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Adat
ainv
ari
anti
sasetofcondi
ti
onst
hatar
etr
uedur
ingt
heexecut
ionofanyf
unct
ion.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

5.I
nsomef
ormal
languages,
stor
eddat
athatt
hesy
stem accessesandal
ter
siscal
l
eda(
n)

at
tri
but
e

dat
ast
ruct
ure

st
ate

v
ari
ant

Cor
rectAnswer:

st
ate

Vi
ewAnswer

6.I
nfor
mal
met
hodswor
k,anact
iont
hatr
eadsorwr
it
esdat
atoast
atei
scal
l
eda(
n)

act
or

ev
ent
i
nvar
iant

oper
ati
on

Cor
rectAnswer:

oper
ati
on

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Whatdef
inest
heci
rcumst
ancesi
nwhi
chapar
ti
cul
aroper
ati
oni
sval
i
d?

dat
ainv
ari
ant

pr
econdi
ti
on

post
condi
ti
on

st
ate

Cor
rectAnswer:

pr
econdi
ti
on

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Usi
ngformalmethodsel
i
minat
est
heneedt
owr
it
enat
ural
languagecomment
aryi
nthe
speci
fi
cat
iondocument.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Acommonnot
ati
onalconv
enti
oninmanyf
ormal
met
hodsi
stowr
it
ethev
ari
abl
ewi
tha
pri
meint
hepost
condi
ti
onforanoperat
or

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue
Vi
ewAnswer

10.Whi
choft
hesear
ecomponent
sofaf
ormal
speci
fi
cat
ionl
anguage?

Semant
icst
hatdef
inest
heobj
ect
susedt
odescr
ibesy
stem

Setofr
elat
ionsdef
ini
ngt
heobj
ectr
ules

Sy
ntaxt
hatdef
ini
ngt
henot
ati
on

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

11.OCLmakesuseofsev
eral
speci
ali
zedmat
hemat
ical
char
act
ers

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.TheZl
anguagemakesuseofschemast
odescr
ibesy
stem st
atesi
nter
msoft
hev
alues
assi
gnedt
osystem v
ari
abl
es.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Thecl
eanr
oom st
rat
egyi
sbasedont
he_
___
___
_sof
twar
epr
ocessmodel
.

ev
olut
ionar
y

i
ncr
ement
al

r
evol
uti
onar
y
spi
ral

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
ncr
ement
al

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Thecl
eanr
oom st
rat
egyr
eli
eson

exhaust
ivet
est
ing

ext
ensi
veuni
ttest
ingofal
lmodul
es

t
est
sthatexer
ciset
hesof
twar
easi
tisr
eal
l
yused

whi
teboxt
est
ingst
rat
egi
es

Cor
rectAnswer:

t
est
sthatexer
ciset
hesof
twar
easi
tisr
eal
l
yused

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Useoff
ormal pr
ogram cor
rect
nessproof
saspar
toft
hecl
eanr
oom pr
ocessel
i
minat
est
he
needdoanytest
ingforsof
twaredefect
s

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

16.I
ncleanroom sof
twar
eengi
neer
inga“
box”encapsul
atessomesy
stem aspectatapar
ti
cul
ar
l
evelofdetai
l.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Thi
sboxspeci
fi
cat
iondescr
ibesanabst
ract
ion,
sti
mul
i
,andr
esponse

bl
ackbox

cl
earbox

st
atebox

whi
tebox

Cor
rectAnswer:

bl
ackbox

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Thi
sboxspeci
fi
cat
iondescr
ibest
hear
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnf
orsomesy
stem component

bl
ackbox

cl
earbox

st
atebox

whi
tebox

Cor
rectAnswer:

st
atebox

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Thi
sboxspeci
fi
cat
ioni
scl
osel
yal
i
gnedwi
thpr
ocedur
aldesi
gnandst
ruct
uredpr
ogr
ammi
ng.

bl
ackbox

cl
earbox

st
atebox

whi
tebox

Cor
rectAnswer:

cl
earbox
Vi
ewAnswer

20.I
ncl
eanr
oom sof
twar
eengi
neer
ingt
hest
ruct
uredpr
ogr
ammi
ngappr
oachi
susedt
o

r
efi
nedat
adesi
gn

r
efi
nef
unct
iondesi
gn

r
efi
neusaget
estcases

bot
haandb

Cor
rectAnswer:

bot
haandb

Vi
ewAnswer

21.Byusi
ngonl
ystr
uct
uredpr
ogr
ammi ngconst
ruct
sasy oucr
eat
eapr
ocedur
aldesi
gn,
you
maketheworkofpr
ovi
ngdesi
gncor
rectnessmucheasi
er.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

22.Whichofthefol
l
owingisnotanadv
ant
ageofusi
ngr
igor
ouscor
rect
nessv
eri
fi
cat
ionofeach
ref
inementofthecl
earboxdesi
gn?

i
mpr
ovesper
for
manceofcode

pr
oducesbet
tercodet
hanuni
ttest
ing

r
educesv
eri
fi
cat
ionef
for
t

r
esul
tsi
nnearzer
odef
ectl
evel
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
mpr
ovesper
for
manceofcode

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Ef
fect
ivesof
twar
epr
ojectmanagementf
ocuseson
peopl
e,per
for
mance,
pay
off
,pr
oduct

peopl
e,pr
oduct
,per
for
mance,
process

peopl
e,pr
oduct
,pr
ocess,
proj
ect

peopl
e,pr
ocess,
pay
off
,pr
oduct

Cor
rectAnswer:

peopl
e,pr
oduct
,pr
ocess,
proj
ect

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Organi
zat
ionst
hatachi
evehighl
evel
sofmat
uri
tyi
npeopl
emanagementhav
eahi
gher
l
ikel
i
hoodofi mpl
ementi
ngeff
ecti
vesoft
war
eengi
neer
ingpr
ocesses

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Thef
ir
stst
epi
npr
ojectpl
anni
ngi
sto

det
ermi
net
hebudget
.

sel
ectat
eam or
gani
zat
ional
model
.

det
ermi
net
hepr
ojectconst
rai
nts

est
abl
i
sht
heobj
ect
ivesandscope

Cor
rectAnswer:

est
abl
i
sht
heobj
ect
ivesandscope

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Pr
ocessf
ramewor
kact
ivi
ti
esar
epopul
atedwi
th

mi
l
est
ones

wor
kpr
oduct
s

QApoi
nts
al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Proj
ectmanagementi
slessimpor
tantf
ormoder
nsof
twar
edev
elopmentsi
ncemostpr
oject
s
aresuccessf
ulandcompl
etedonti
me

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotconsi
der
edast
akehol
deri
nthesof
twar
epr
ocess?

cust
omer
s

end-
user
s

pr
ojectmanager
s

sal
espeopl
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

sal
espeopl
e

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Thebestpersont
ohi
reasapr
ojectt
eam l
eaderi
sthemostcompet
entsof
twar
eengi
neer
ing
pract
it
ionerav
ail
abl
e

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Thebestproj
ectt
eam or
gani
zat
ional
model
tousewhent
ackl
i
ngext
remel
ycompl
ex
probl
emsisthe

cl
osedpar
adi
gm

openpar
adi
gm

r
andom par
adi
gm

sy
nchr
onouspar
adi
gm

Cor
rectAnswer:

openpar
adi
gm

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Whi
chf
act
orsshoul
dbeconsi
der
edi
nchoosi
ngt
heor
gani
zat
ional
str
uct
uref
orasof
twar
e
team?

degr
eeofcommuni
cat
iondesi
red

pr
edi
ctedsi
zeoft
her
esul
ti
ngpr
ogr
am

r
igi
dit
yoft
hedel
i
ver
ydat
e

si
zeoft
hepr
ojectbudget

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Oneoft
hebestway
stoav
oidf
rust
rat
iondur
ingt
hesof
twar
edev
elopmentpr
ocessi
sto

gi
vet
eam member
smor
econt
rol
overpr
ocessandt
echni
cal
deci
sions

gi
vet
eam member
slesscont
rol
overpr
ocessandt
echni
cal
deci
sions.

hi
debadnewsf
rom t
hepr
ojectt
eam member
sunt
ilt
hingsi
mpr
ove.

r
ewar
dpr
ogr
ammer
sbasedont
hei
rpr
oduct
ivi
ty.
Cor
rectAnswer:

gi
vet
eam member
smor
econt
rol
overpr
ocessandt
echni
cal
deci
sions

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Smal
lagi
l
eteamshav
enopl
acei
nmoder
nsof
twar
edev
elopment
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Whichofthesesof
twar
echar
act
eri
sti
csi
snotaf
act
orcont
ri
but
ingt
opr
ojectcoor
dinat
ion
di
ffi
cul
ties?

i
nter
oper
abi
l
ity

per
for
mance

scal
e

uncer
tai
nty

Cor
rectAnswer:

per
for
mance

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Whichoft
hesesof
twar
echar
act
eri
sti
csar
eusedt
odet
ermi
net
hescopeofasof
twar
e
proj
ect
?

cont
ext
,li
nesofcode,
funct
ion

cont
ext
,funct
ion,
communi
cat
ionr
equi
rement
s

i
nfor
mat
ionobj
ect
ives,
funct
ion,
per
for
mance

communi
cat
ionsr
equi
rement
s,per
for
mance,
inf
ormat
ionobj
ect
ives

Cor
rectAnswer:

i
nfor
mat
ionobj
ect
ives,
funct
ion,
per
for
mance
Vi
ewAnswer

14.Themaj
orar
easofpr
obl
em decomposi
ti
ondur
ingt
hepr
ojectscopi
ngact
ivi
tyar
ethe

cust
omerwor
kfl
ow

f
unct
ional
i
tyt
obedel
i
ver
ed

pr
ocessusedt
odel
i
verf
unct
ional
i
ty

sof
twar
epr
ocessmodel

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Pr
oductandpr
ocessdecomposi
ti
onoccur
ssi
mul
taneousl
yast
hepr
ojectpl
anev
olv
es.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Whencansel
ect
edcommonpr
ocessf
ramewor
kact
ivi
ti
esbeomi
tt
eddur
ingpr
ocess
decomposi
ti
on?

whent
hepr
ojecti
sext
remel
ysmal
li
nsi
ze

anyt
imet
hesof
twar
eismi
ssi
oncr
it
ical

r
api
dpr
otot
ypi
ngdoesnotr
equi
ret
hei
ruse

nev
ert
heact
ivi
ti
esar
einv
ari
ant

Cor
rectAnswer:

nev
ert
heact
ivi
ti
esar
einv
ari
ant
Vi
ewAnswer

17.Howdoesasof
twar
epr
ojectmanagerneedt
oactt
omi
nimi
zet
her
iskofsof
twar
efai
l
ure?

doubl
ethepr
ojectt
eam si
ze

r
equestal
argebudget

st
artont
her
ightf
oot

t
rackpr
ogr
ess

candd

Cor
rectAnswer:

candd

Vi
ewAnswer

18.TheW5HHpr
inci
plecont
ainswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngquest
ions?

Whyi
sthesy
stem bei
ngdev
eloped?

Whatwi
l
lbedonebywhom?

Wher
ear
etheyor
gani
zat
ional
l
ylocat
ed?

Howmuchofeachr
esour
cei
srequi
red?

a,
cd

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
cd

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Whi
choft
hesear
ecr
it
ical
pract
icesf
orper
for
mance-
basedpr
ojectmanagement
?

assessi
ngpr
oductusabi
l
ity

def
ectt
racki
ngagai
nstqual
i
tyt
arget
s

empi
ri
cal
costest
imat
ion

f
ormal
riskmanagement

b,
c,d
Cor
rectAnswer:

b,
c,d

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Thet
ermsmeasur
e,measurement,
andmet r
ical
lshar
ethesamedef
ini
ti
onaccor
dingt
othe
I
EEEStandar
dGl
ossaryofSof
twareEngi
neer
ingTerms.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Whi
choft
hesear
eval
i
dreasonsf
ormeasur
ingsof
twar
epr
ocesses,
product
s,andr
esour
ces?

t
ochar
act
eri
zet
hem

t
oev
aluat
ethem

t
opr
icet
hem

t
oimpr
ovet
hem

a,
b,d

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,d

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Pr
ocessi
ndi
cat
orsenabl
easof
twar
epr
ojectmanagert
o

assesst
hest
atusofanon-
goi
ngpr
oject

t
rackpot
ent
ial
risks

adj
ustwor
kfl
owort
asks

noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

noneoft
heabov
e
Vi
ewAnswer

4.Publ
i
cmet
ri
csar
eused

t
oev
aluat
etheper
for
manceofsof
twar
edev
elopmentt
eams.

t
oappr
aiset
heper
for
manceofi
ndi
vi
dual
team member
s.

t
omakest
rat
egi
cchangest
othesof
twar
epr
ocess.

t
omaket
act
ical
changesdur
ingasof
twar
epr
oject
.

candd

Cor
rectAnswer:

candd

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
temsar
enotmeasur
edbysof
twar
epr
ojectmet
ri
cs?

i
nput
s

mar
ket
s

out
put
s

r
esul
ts

Cor
rectAnswer:

mar
ket
s

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Sof
twar
equal
i
tyandf
unct
ional
i
tymustbemeasur
edi
ndi
rect
ly.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue
Vi
ewAnswer

7.Whi
choff
oll
owi
ngar
eadv
ant
agesofusi
ngLOC(
li
nesofcode)asasi
ze-
ori
ent
edmet
ri
c?

LOCi
seasi
l
ycomput
ed.

LOCi
sal
anguagedependentmeasur
e.

LOCi
sal
anguagei
ndependentmeasur
e.

LOCcanbecomput
edbef
oreadesi
gni
scompl
eted.

Cor
rectAnswer:

LOCi
seasi
l
ycomput
ed.

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Whichofthef
oll
owingar
eadvantagesofusi
ngfunct
ionpoi
nts(
FP)asameasur
eoft
he
funct
ional
i
tydel
i
veredbyasof
twareappli
cati
on?

FPi
seasi
l
ycomput
ed

FPi
sal
anguagedependentmeasur
e.

FPi
sal
anguagei
ndependentmeasur
e

FPcanbecomput
edbef
oreadesi
gni
scompl
eted

candd

Cor
rectAnswer:

candd

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Ther
ei snoneedtor
econci
l
eLOCandFPmeasur
essi
nceeachi
nmeani
ngf
uli
nit
sownr
ight
asaprojectmeasur
e.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer
10.Object-Or
ient
edproj
ectmeasuresmaybecombi
nedwi
thhi
stor
ical
proj
ectdat
atopr
ovi
de
metri
cst hataidi
nproj
ectest
imati
on

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Use-
Caseori
entedmetri
csar
ecomput
eddi
rect
lyf
rom UMLdi
agr
amst
heyar
eof
tenusedas
normali
zat
ionmeasures.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotameasur
ethatcanbecol
l
ect
edf
rom aWebappl
i
cat
ionpr
oject
?

Cust
omi
zat
ioni
ndex

Numberofdy
nami
cobj
ect
s

Numberofi
nter
nal
pagel
i
nks

Numberofst
ati
cwebpages

Cor
rectAnswer:

Cust
omi
zat
ioni
ndex

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Whichofthef
oll
owi
ngsoftwarequal
i
tyf
act
orsi
smostl
i
kel
ytobeaf
fect
edbyr
adi
cal
changestocomputi
ngar
chi
tectur
es?

oper
ati
on

t
ransi
ti
on

r
evi
sion
noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

noneoft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngpr
ovi
deusef
ulmeasur
esofsof
twar
equal
i
ty?

cor
rect
ness,
per
for
mance,
int
egr
it
y,usabi
l
ity

r
eli
abi
l
ity
,mai
ntai
nabi
l
ity
,int
egr
it
y,sal
es

cor
rect
ness,
mai
ntai
nabi
l
ity
,si
ze,
sat
isf
act
ion

cor
rect
ness,
mai
ntai
nabi
l
ity
,int
egr
it
y,usabi
l
ity

Cor
rectAnswer:

cor
rect
ness,
mai
ntai
nabi
l
ity
,int
egr
it
y,usabi
l
ity

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Asoft
warequali
tymetr
ict
hatcanbeusedatbot
hthepr
ocessandpr
ojectl
evel
sisdef
ect
removal
effi
ciency(
DRE)
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Whyi si
timpor
tantt
omeasur
ethepr
ocessofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingandsof
twar
eit
produces?

I
tisr
eal
l
ynotnecessar
yunl
esst
hepr
ojecti
sext
remel
ycompl
ex.

Todet
ermi
necost
sandal
l
owapr
ofi
tmar
gint
obeset
.

Todet
ermi
newhet
herasof
twar
egr
oupi
simpr
ovi
ngornot
.
Tomakesof
twar
eengi
neer
ingmor
eli
keot
herengi
neer
ingpr
ocesses

Cor
rectAnswer:

Todet
ermi
newhet
herasof
twar
egr
oupi
simpr
ovi
ngornot
.

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Tobeanef
fect
iveai
dinpr
ocessi
mpr
ovementt
hebasel
i
nedat
ausedmustbe:

basedonr
easonabl
eguest
imat
esf
rom pastpr
oject
s

measur
edconsi
stent
lyacr
osspr
oject
s

dr
awnf
rom si
mil
arpr
oject
s

basedonal
lpr
evi
ousl
ycompl
etedpr
oject
s

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Basel
inedatamustbecol
lect
edi
nanon-
goi
ngmannerandcannotbecomput
edbyf
ormal
studyofhist
ori
cal
proj
ectdat
a

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

19.Small
sof
twareorgani
zat
ionsar
enotl
i
kel
ytoseeanyeconomi
cret
urnf
rom est
abl
i
shi
ng
soft
waremet
ricspr
ogram

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se
Vi
ewAnswer

20.Thesof
twar
emet r
icschosenbyanor
gani
zat
ionar
edr
ivenbyt
hebusi
nessort
echni
cal
goal
sanorgani
zat
ionwishestoaccompl
i
sh.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

3PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Forpur
posesofdeter
mini
ngthemajorengi
neer
ingt
asksanddist
ri
buti
ngthem ont
hepr
oject
ti
meline,
theproj
ectmangershoul
dassumethatt
heprocessmodelusedis

l
i
near

sequent
ial

i
ter
ati
veev
olut
ionar
y

anyoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

anyoft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

2.Theonlymeansaccompl
i
shi
ngt
askr
efi
nementi
stomakeuseofapr
ocessdesi
gnl
anguage
approach.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Sof
twar
epr
oject
sar
einev
itabl
ylat
eandt
her
eisnot
hingt
hatcanexpl
ainwhy

Tr
ue

Fal
se
Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Iti
sunethi
caltounder
takeaproj
ectthatyouknowi
nadvancecannotbecompl
etedbythe
customer'
sdeadli
ne,unl
essyouinf
ormt hecust
omeroft
heriskandest
abli
shapr
ojectpl
an
thatcandeli
vert
heneededsystem i
ncr
ement al
l
y

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hegui
dingpr
inci
plesofsof
twar
epr
ojectschedul
i
ng:

compar
tment
ali
zat
ion

mar
ketassessment

t
imeal
l
ocat
ion

ef
for
tval
i
dat
ion

Cor
rectAnswer:

mar
ketassessment

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Doubl
ingt
hesi
zeofy
oursof
twar
epr
ojectt
eam i
sguar
ant
eedt
ocutpr
ojectcompl
eti
ont
ime
i
nhalf.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se
Vi
ewAnswer

7.Thesof
twar
eequat
ioncanbeusedt
oshowt
hatbyext
endi
ngt
hepr
ojectdeadl
i
nesl
i
ght
ly

f
ewerpeopl
ear
erequi
red

y
ouar
eguar
ant
eedt
omeett
hedeadl
i
ne

mor
eli
nesofcodecanbepr
oduced

noneoft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

f
ewerpeopl
ear
erequi
red

Vi
ewAnswer

8.The40-
20-
40r
ulesuggest
sthatt
hel
eastofamountofdev
elopmentef
for
tbespenton

est
imat
ionandpl
anni
ng

anal
ysi
sanddesi
gn

codi
ng

t
est
ing

Cor
rectAnswer:

codi
ng

Vi
ewAnswer

9.At
askseti
sacol
l
ect
ionof

engi
neer
ingwor
ktasks,
mil
est
ones,
del
i
ver
abl
es

t
askassi
gnment
s,costest
imat
es,
met
ri
cs

mi
l
est
ones,
del
i
ver
abl
es,
met
ri
cs

r
esponsi
bil
i
ties,
mil
est
ones,
document
s

Cor
rectAnswer:

engi
neer
ingwor
ktasks,
mil
est
ones,
del
i
ver
abl
es

Vi
ewAnswer
10.Thet
ask(
act
ivi
ty)net
wor
kisausef
ulmechani
sm f
or

comput
ingt
heov
eral
lef
for
test
imat
e

det
ect
ingi
nter
taskdependenci
es

det
ermi
ningt
hecr
it
ical
pat
h

speci
fyi
ngt
het
asksett
othecust
omer

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Tasksthatl
ieonthecri
ti
cal
pat
hinat
asknet
wor
kmaybecompl
etedi
nanyor
derasl
ongas
theproj
ectisonschedul
e.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Twot
ool
sforcomput
ingcr
it
ical
pat
handpr
ojectcompl
eti
ont
imesf
rom act
ivi
tynet
wor
ks
are

CPM

DRE

FP

PERT

aandd

Cor
rectAnswer:

aandd

Vi
ewAnswer
13.Ti
mel
inechar
tsassi
stpr
ojectmanager
sindet
ermi
ningwhatt
askswi
l
lbeconduct
edata
gi
venpoi
ntint
ime.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Thebesti
ndi
cat
orofpr
ogr
essonasof
twar
epr
ojecti
sthecompl
eti
on

ofadef
inedengi
neer
ingact
ivi
tyt
ask

ofasuccessf
ulbudgetr
evi
ewmeet
ingont
ime

andsuccessf
ulr
evi
ewofadef
inedsof
twar
ewor
kpr
oduct

andsuccessf
ulaccept
anceofpr
ojectpr
otot
ypebyt
hecust
omer

Cor
rectAnswer:

andsuccessf
ulr
evi
ewofadef
inedsof
twar
ewor
kpr
oduct

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Sinceit
erat
iveprocessmodelworkbestf
orobj
ect
-or
ient
edpr
oject
siti
simpossi
blet
o
deter
mi newhetheranincrementwi
l
lbecomplet
edontimeornot
.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

16.WebApppr
oject
sonl
yrequi
ret
hecr
eat
ionofamacr
oschedul
e.

Tr
ue
Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Thepur
poseofear
nedv
alueanal
ysi
sist
o

det
ermi
nehowt
ocompensat
edev
eloper
sbasedont
hei
rpr
oduct
ivi
ty

pr
ovi
deaquant
it
ati
vemeansofassessi
ngsof
twar
epr
ojectpr
ogr
ess

pr
ovi
deaqual
i
tat
ivemeansofassessi
ngsof
twar
epr
ojectpr
ogr
ess

sett
hepr
icepoi
ntf
orasof
twar
epr
oductbasedondev
elopmentef
for
t

Cor
rectAnswer:

pr
ovi
deaquant
it
ati
vemeansofassessi
ngsof
twar
epr
ojectpr
ogr
ess

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Earnedval
ueanaly
sisi
sat
echni
quet
hatal
l
owsmanager
stot
akecor
rect
iveact
ionbef
orea
proj
ectcri
sisdev
elops

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

PRACTI
CEI
TNOW TOSHARPENYOURCONCEPT

1.Ari
skr
efer
entleveli
sar i
skcomponentval
ue(
performance,
cost
,suppor
t,schedul
e)or
combi
nat
ionofvaluesthatcauseapr
ojectt
obeter
mi nat
ed.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer
2.Anef
fect
iver
iskmanagementpl
anwi
l
lneedt
oaddr
esswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
ssues?

r
iskav
oidance

r
iskmoni
tor
ing

cont
ingencypl
anni
ng

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

3.Pr
oact
iver
iskmanagementi
ssomet
imesdescr
ibedasf
ir
efi
ght
ing

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

4.Sof
twar
eri
skal
way
sinv
olv
est
wochar
act
eri
sti
cs

f
ir
efi
ght
ingandcr
isi
smanagement

knownandunknownr
isks

uncer
tai
ntyandl
oss

st
aff
ingandbudget

Cor
rectAnswer:

uncer
tai
ntyandl
oss

Vi
ewAnswer

5.Thr
eecat
egor
iesofr
isksar
e

busi
nessr
isks,
per
sonnel
risks,
budgetr
isks

pr
ojectr
isks,
techni
cal
risks,
busi
nessr
isks
pl
anni
ngr
isks,
techni
cal
risks,
per
sonnel
risks

managementr
isks,
techni
cal
risks,
desi
gnr
isks

Cor
rectAnswer:

pr
ojectr
isks,
techni
cal
risks,
busi
nessr
isks

Vi
ewAnswer

6.Gener
icr
isksr
equi
ref
armor
eat
tent
iont
hanpr
oduct
-speci
fi
cri
sks.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

7.Ari
skitem checkl
i
stwoul
dcont
ainknownandpr
edi
ctabl
eri
sksf
rom whi
choft
hese
cat
egori
es?

pr
oductsi
ze

dev
elopmentenv
ironment

st
affsi
ze

pr
ocessdef
ini
ti
on

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

8.Quest
ionst
hatshoul
dbeaskedt
oassesst
heov
eral
lpr
ojectr
iski
ncl
ude:

Hav
etopmanager
sfor
mal
l
ycommi
tt
edt
osuppor
tthepr
oject
?

Ar
eend-
user
scommi
tt
edt
othepr
ojectandpr
oposedsy
stem bei
ngbui
l
t?
Ar
erequi
rementf
ull
yunder
stoodbydev
elopmentt
eam andcust
omer
s?

Doest
hepr
oposedbudgethav
eti
meal
l
ocat
edf
ormar
ket
ing?

a,
b,c

Cor
rectAnswer:

a,
b,c

Vi
ewAnswer

9.Sof
twar
eri
ski
mpactassessmentshoul
dfocusonconsequencesaf
fect
ing

pl
anni
ng,
resour
ces,
cost
,schedul
e

mar
ket
abi
l
ity
,cost
,per
sonnel

busi
ness,
technol
ogy
,pr
ocess

per
for
mance,
suppor
t,cost
,schedul
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

per
for
mance,
suppor
t,cost
,schedul
e

Vi
ewAnswer

10.Ri
skpr
oject
ionat
tempt
stor
ateeachr
iski
ntwoway
s

l
i
kel
i
hoodandcost

l
i
kel
i
hoodandi
mpact

l
i
kel
i
hoodandconsequences

l
i
kel
i
hoodandexposur
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

l
i
kel
i
hoodandconsequences

Vi
ewAnswer

11.Ri
skt
abl
esar
esor
tedby

pr
obabi
l
ityandcost

pr
obabi
l
ityandi
mpact
pr
obabi
l
ityandconsequences

pr
obabi
l
ityandexposur
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

pr
obabi
l
ityandi
mpact

Vi
ewAnswer

12.Indi
vi
dualteam member
scanmaket
hei
rownest
imat
eforar
iskpr
obabi
l
ityandt
hen
developaconsensusval
ue.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Tr
ue

Vi
ewAnswer

13.Whi
chf
act
orsaf
fectt
hepr
obabl
econsequencesl
i
kel
yifar
iskdoesoccur
?

r
iskcost

r
iskt
imi
ng

r
iskscope

r
iskr
esour
ces

bandc

Cor
rectAnswer:

bandc

Vi
ewAnswer

14.Thereasonforr
efi
ningr
isksi
stobr
eakt
hem i
ntosmal
l
eruni
tshav
ingdi
ff
erent
consequences.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:
Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

15.Ef
fect
iver
iskmanagementpl
anneedst
oaddr
esswhi
choft
hesei
ssues?

r
iskav
oidance

r
iskmoni
tor
ing

cont
ingencypl
anni
ng

al
loft
heabov
e

Cor
rectAnswer:

al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

16.Riskmoni
tor
inginvolveswatchi
ngther
iskindi
cat
orsdefi
nedf
orthepr
ojectandnot
deter
mi ni
ngt
heeffect
ivenessoftheri
skmiti
gati
onstepst
hemsel
ves.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

Vi
ewAnswer

17.Hazar
danal
ysi
sfocusesont
hei
dent
if
icat
ionandassessmentofpot
ent
ial
hazar
dst
hatcan
cause

pr
ojectt
ermi
nat
ion

schedul
esl
i
ppage

costov
err
uns

anent
ir
esy
stem t
ofai
l

Cor
rectAnswer:
anent
ir
esy
stem t
ofai
l

Vi
ewAnswer

18.Ri
skinf
ormat
ionsheet
s(RI
S)ar
enev
eranaccept
abl
esubst
it
utef
oraf
ull
riskmi
ti
gat
ion,
monit
ori
ng,andmanagement(
RMMM)plan.

Tr
ue

Fal
se

Cor
rectAnswer:

Fal
se

1.“
Sof
twar
eengi
neer
sshal
l-

actconsi
stent
lywi
tht
hepubl
i
cint
erest
.”

acti
namannert
hati
sint
hebesti
nter
est
sofhi
sexper
ti
seandf
avour
.”

ensur
ethatt
hei
rpr
oduct
sonl
ymeett
heSRS.
”d)al
loft
hement
ioned

al
loft
hement
ioned

Vi
ewAnswer


Sof
twar
eengi
neer
sshal
lactconsi
stent
lywi
tht
hepubl
i
cint
erest
.”

2.“
Soft
wareengi
neer
sshoul
dnotusethei
rtechni
cal
ski
l
lst
omi
suseot
herpeopl
e’
s
comput
ers.
”Her
etheter
m mi
suseref
ersto:

Unaut
hor
izedmodi
fi
cat
ionofcomput
ermat
eri
al

Unaut
hor
izedaccesst
ocomput
ermat
eri
al

Di
ssemi
nat
ionofv
irusesorot
hermal
war
e

Al
loft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

Al
loft
heabov
e

“Sof
twareengineersshoul
dnotusethei
rtechni
calski
ll
stomisuseotherpeopl
e’
s
computers.
”Heretheterm mi
suseref
erstotheUnauthori
zedmodif
icat
ionofcomput
ermat
eri
al,
Unaut
hor
izedaccesst
ocomput
ermat
eri
al&Di
ssemi
nat
ionofv
irusesorot
hermal
war
e.

3.Whati
saSof
twar
e?

Sof
twar
eisdocument
ati
onandconf
igur
ati
onofdat
a

Sof
twar
eissetofpr
ogr
ams

Sof
twar
eissetofpr
ogr
ams,
document
ati
on&conf
igur
ati
onofdat
a

Noneoft
hement
ioned

Vi
ewAnswer

Sof
twar
eissetofpr
ogr
ams,
document
ati
on&conf
igur
ati
onofdat
a.

4.Whi
choft
hesesof
twar
eengi
neer
ingact
ivi
ti
esar
enotapar
tofsof
twar
epr
ocesses?

Sof
twar
edev
elopment

Sof
twar
edependence

Sof
twar
eval
i
dat
ion

Sof
twar
especi
fi
cat
ion

Vi
ewAnswer

Sof
twar
edependencei
snotapar
tofsof
twar
epr
ocesses.

5.Thef
undament
alnot
ionsofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingdoesnotaccountf
or?

Sof
twar
eSecur
it
y

Sof
twar
ereuse

Sof
twar
epr
ocesses

Sof
twar
eVal
i
dat
ion

Vi
ewAnswer

Thef
undament
alnot
ionsofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingdoesnotaccountf
orSof
twar
eVal
i
dat
ion.
6.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngmodel
sisnotsui
tabl
eforaccommodat
inganychange?

Pr
otot
ypi
ngModel

RADModel

Bui
l
d&Fi
xModel

Wat
erf
all
Model

Vi
ewAnswer

Wat
erf
all
Model
isnotsui
tabl
eforaccommodat
inganychange.

7.SDLCst
andsf
or

Sy
stem Dev
elopmentLi
fecy
cle

Sof
twar
eDesi
gnLi
feCy
cle

Sof
twar
eDev
elopmentLi
feCy
cle

Sy
stem Desi
gnLi
feCy
cle

Vi
ewAnswer

SDLCst
andsf
orSof
twar
eDev
elopmentLi
feCy
cle.

8.Thespi
ral
model
wasor
igi
nal
l
ypr
oposedby-

Bar
ryBoehm

Pr
essman

Roy
ce

Pr
essman

Vi
ewAnswer

Thespi
ral
model
wasor
igi
nal
l
ypr
oposedbyBar
ryBoehm

9.I
fyouwer
etocr
eat
ecl
i
ent
/ser
verappl
i
cat
ions,
whi
chmodel
woul
dyougof
or?
Concur
rentModel

Spi
ral
Model

WI
NWI
NSpi
ral
Model

I
ncr
ement
alModel

Vi
ewAnswer

Concur
rentModel

10.I
nfr
ast
ruct
uresof
twar
ear
ecov
eredunder?

Cust
omi
sedPr
oduct
s

Gener
icandCust
omi
sedPr
oduct
s

Gener
icPr
oduct
s

Noneoft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

I
nfr
ast
ruct
uresof
twar
ear
ecov
eredunderGener
icPr
oduct
s.

11.Bui
l
dandFi
xmodel
has?

1Phases

2Phases

3Phases

4Phases

Vi
ewAnswer

Bui
l
dandFi
xmodel
has2Phases

12.Whi
teboxt
est
ing,
asof
twar
etest
ingt
echni
quei
ssomet
imescal
l
ed?
Gr
aphTest
ing

Basi
cpat
h

Gl
assboxt
est
ing

Dat
afl
ow

Vi
ewAnswer

Whi
teboxt
est
ing,
asof
twar
etest
ingt
echni
quei
ssomet
imescal
l
edGl
assboxt
est
ing.

13.St
ruct
uredpr
ogr
ammi
ngcodesi
ncl
udes?

al
ter
ati
on&i
ter
ati
on

mul
ti
pleexi
tfr
om l
oops

sequenci
ng

onl
y1and3

Vi
ewAnswer

St
ruct
uredpr
ogr
ammi
ngcodesi
ncl
udessequenci
ng,
alt
erat
ion&i
ter
ati
on.

14.Thedocumentl
i
sti
ngal
lpr
ocedur
esandr
egul
ati
onst
hatgener
all
ygov
ernanor
gani
zat
ioni
s
the?

Or
gani
zi
ngmanual

Per
sonal
pol
i
ngbank

Admi
nist
rat
ionpol
i
cymanual

Pr
ocedur
elog

Vi
ewAnswer

Thedocumentl
i
sti
ngal
lpr
ocedur
esandr
egul
ati
onst
hatgener
all
ygov
ernanor
gani
zat
ioni
sthe
Organi
zi
ngmanual.

15.Whichoneofthef
oll
owi
ngi
sNOTdesi
redi
nagoodSof
twar
eRequi
rementSpeci
fi
cat
ions
(SRS)document
?
Non-
Funct
ional
Requi
rement
s

Goal
sofI
mpl
ement
ati
on

Funct
ional
Requi
rement
s

Al
gor
it
hmsf
orSof
twar
eImpl
ement
ati
on

Vi
ewAnswer

Algor
it
hmsf orSof
twar
eImplement
ati
oni
snotdesi
redi
nagoodSof
twar
eRequi
rement
Speci
ficat
ions(
SRS)document
.

16.COCOMOst
andsf
or_
___
__.

const
ruct
ivecostModel

commoncont
rol
Model

composi
ti
oncostModel

consumedcostModel

Vi
ewAnswer

COCOMOst
andsf
orconst
ruct
ivecostModel
.

17.Whati
sthemostcommonmeasur
eforcor
rect
ness?

Er
ror
sperKLOC

Def
ect
sperKLOC

$perKLOC

Pagesofdocument
ati
onperKLOC

Vi
ewAnswer

Def
ect
sperKLOCi
sthemostcommonmeasur
eforcor
rect
ness.

18.Li
neofcode(
LOC)oft
hepr
oductcomesunderwhi
cht
ypeofmeasur
es?

Di
rectmeasur
es
Codi
ng

I
ndi
rectmeasur
es

Noneoft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

Li
neofcode(
LOC)oft
hepr
oductcomesunderDi
rectmeasur
es.

19.Li
neofcode(
LOC)oft
hepr
oductcomesunderwhi
cht
ypeofmeasur
es?

Di
rectmeasur
es

Codi
ng

I
ndi
rectmeasur
es

Noneoft
heabov
e

Vi
ewAnswer

Li
neofcode(
LOC)oft
hepr
oductcomesunderDi
rectmeasur
es.

20.Howmanynumber
sofmat
uri
tyl
evel
sinCMM ar
eav
ail
abl
e?

Vi
ewAnswer

mat
uri
tyl
evel
sinCMM ar
eav
ail
abl
eof5number
s.

21.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sthet
askofpr
ojecti
ndi
cat
ors:

t
rackpot
ent
ial
risk

hel
pinassessmentofst
atusofongoi
ngpr
oject
.
bot
h1and2

noneoft
hement
ioned

Vi
ewAnswer

bot
h1and2

22.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotadi
rectmeasur
eofSEpr
ocess?

Ef
for
tAppl
i
ed

Ef
fi
ciency

Ef
for
tAppl
i
ed

Al
loft
hement
ioned

Vi
ewAnswer

Ef
fi
ciencyi
snotadi
rectmeasur
eofSEpr
ocess.

23.I
nsi
zeor
ient
edmet
ri
cs,
met
ri
csar
edev
elopedbasedont
he_
__

numberofuseri
nput
s

numberofl
i
nesofcode

numberofFunct
ions

amountofmemor
yusage

Vi
ewAnswer

I
nsi
zeor
ient
edmet
ri
cs,
met
ri
csar
edev
elopedbasedont
henumberofl
i
nesofcode.

24.Usabi
l
itycanbemeasur
edi
nter
msof
:

Ti
mer
equi
redt
obecomemoder
atel
yef
fi
cienti
nsy
stem usage

Neti
ncr
easei
npr
oduct
ivi
ty

I
ntel
l
ect
ual
ski
l
ltol
ear
nthesy
stem
Al
loft
hement
ioned

Vi
ewAnswer

Al
loft
hement
ioned

Usabil
i
tycanbemeasur
edintermsofTimerequir
edt obecomemoderat
elyef
fi
cienti
nsy
stem
usage,Neti
ncr
easei
nproduct
ivi
ty&I
ntel
lect
ualskil
ltolear
nthesy
stem.
DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Unit 1 :Introduction to System Concept

Q:1) ______ is an orderly grouping of independent components linked together


according to a plan to achieve a specific objective or goal.

Sol: description here

A:) System
B:) Software
C:) Subsystem
D:) Physical system

Correct:A

Q:2)A ---------------is a set or group of component that interact to accomplish some


purpose.

Sol: description here

A:) System
B:) Software
C:) Subsystem
D:) Physical system
Correct:A

Q:3)System consists of----------------

Sol: description here

A:) Standards
B:) Measurement
C:) Compare
D:) All of above

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct:D

Q:4) Elements of system.

Sol: description here

A:) Output/Input
B:) Control
C:) Feedback
D:) All of above
Correct:D

Q:5) We can define information system as a set of devices, procedures, rules but most of the
work performs manually

Sol: description here

A:) Formal Information system


B:) Manmade Information system
C:) Informal information system
D:) All of above

Correct:B

Q:6) What are the characteristics of software?

Sol: description here

A:) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.


B:) Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
C:) Software can be custom built or custom build.
D:) All mentioned above

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct:D

Q:7) Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?

Sol: description here

A:) System software


B:) Application software
C:) Scientific software
D:) None of the above

Correct:B

Q:8)-------- refers to the process of examining a business situation with the intent of improving it
through better procedures and methods.

Sol: description here

A:) Software Anticipation


B:) Software Investigation
C:) Software Requirement
D:) System analysis

Correct:D

Q:9)The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as

Sol: description here

A:) Software engineering


B:) Software re-engineering

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C:) Reverse engineering


D:) Re-engineering

Correct:C

Q:10)Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?

Sol: description here

A:) Analysis
B:) Design
C:) Problem/Opportunity Identification
D:) Development and Documentation

Correct:C

Q:11)Decision makers who are concerned with tactical (short-term) operational problems and
decision making are

Sol: description here

A:) middle managers


B:) executive managers
C:) supervisors
D:) mobile managers

Correct:A

Q:12)A turnaround output is an example of

Sol: description here

A:) internal output


B:) external output
C:) summary output
D:) exception output

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct:B

Q:13)Critical information for top management is provided by ....... information system.

Sol: description here

A:) expert
B:) managerial
C:) executive
D:) decision

Correct:C

Q:14)________ expressly designed for the support of individual and collective decision making.

Sol: description here

A:) MIS
B:) DSS
C:) TPS
D:) OIS

Correct:B

Q:15)-----------The system which are represented conceptually non Physical systems are called

Sol: description here

A:) Abstract system


B:) System model
C:) Open system
D:) Closed system

Correct:A

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:16)------------it shows a two dimensional depicting system elements and their linkages.

Sol: description here

A:) Schematic Models


B:) Flow system models
C:) Static system models
D:) Dynamic system models

Correct:A

Q:17)---------------It shows the flow of material ,energy and information that hold system
together.

Sol: description here

A:) Schematic Models


B:) Flow system models
C:) Static system models
D:) Dynamic system models

Correct:B

Q:18)------------- This type of model exhibits are pair of relationship such as activity time or cost
quantity.

Sol: description here

A:) Schematic Models


B:) Flow system models
C:) Static system models
D:) Dynamic system models

Correct:C
Q:19)---------------- It depict constantly an ongoing constantly changing the system

Sol: description here

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A:) Schematic Models


B:) Flow system models
C:) Static system models
D:) Dynamic system models

Correct:D

Q:20) An -----------system is a one which does not provide for its own control or modification.

Sol: description here

A:) Open System


B:) Closed system
C:) MIS
D:) DIS

Correct:A

Q:21)----------system in one which automatically controls or modifies its own operation by


responding to data generated by the system itself.

Sol: description here

A:) Open System


B:) Closed system
C:) MIS
D:) DIS

Correct:B

Q:22)-------------------is represented by organization chart.

Sol: description here

A:) Formal Information system


B:) Closed system

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C:) MIS
D:) DIS

Correct:A

Q:23)-------------systems used organizational data as well as external data collected from


environment of the organization.

Sol: description here

A:) Formal Information system


B:) Closed system
C:) MIS
D:) DSS

Correct:D

Q:24)Effectiveness is a major goal of these types of systems.

Sol: description here

A:) Expert systems


B:) Closed system
C:) MIS
D:) DSS

Correct:A

Q:25)------------------system operates continuously to keep management abreast of what is


happening in all major areas

Sol: description here

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A:) Execution Information system(EIS)


B:) Integrated system
C:) Subsystem
D:) Transaction processing system

Correct:A

Q:26)----------------consists of individual computers may be workstations or multiple systems.

Sol: description here

A:) Execution Information system(EIS)


B:) Integrated system
C:) Subsystem
D:) Transaction processing system

Correct:B

Q:27)-------------is a unit that is part of a larger system that means a larger system divided into
subparts the subpart is known as --------------

Sol: description here

A:) Execution Information system(EIS)


B:) Integrated system
C:) Subsystem
D:) Transaction processing system

Correct:C

Q:28)-----------system collect,store,modify and retrieve the transaction of an organization.

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Sol: description here

A:) Execution Information system(EIS)


B:) Integrated system
C:) Subsystem
D:) Transaction processing system

Correct:D

Q:29)-----------------is concerned with how a systems tied together in order to achieve common
goal thus forming integration.

Sol: description here

A:) Interaction
B:) Interdependence
C:) Integration
D:) Central Objective

Correct:C

Q:30) --------means that parts of the organization depend on one another

Sol: description here

A:) Interaction
B:) Interdependence
C:) Integration
D:) Central Objective

Correct:B

Q:31) Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

Sol: description here

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A:) elicitation
B:) design
C:) analysis
D:) documentation

Correct:C

Q:32)-----------is a first technical step in software process.

Sol: description here

A:) Software Anticipation


B:) Software Investigation
C:) Software Requirement
D:) None of Above

Correct:D

Q:33)-------- refers to the process of examining a business situation with the intent of improving
it through better procedures and methods.

Sol: description here

A:) Software Anticipation


B:) Software Investigation
C:) Software Requirement
D:) System analysis

Correct:A

Q:34)What are the four dimensions of Dependability?

Sol: description here

A:) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility


B:) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
C:) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
D:) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct:B

Q:35)System analyst consist of following tasks:

Sol: description here

A:) Problem identification


B:) Problem understanding
C:) Analysis Problem
D:) All of the above

Correct:A

Q:36)--------- it include the study like can the work for the project is done with current
equipment existing software technology and with available manpower.

Sol: description here

A:) Technical feasibility


B:) Economic feasibility
C:) Operational feasibility
D:) None of above

Correct:B

Q:37)------- it include of study of cost of system.

Sol: description here

A:) Technical feasibility


B:) Economic feasibility
C:) Operational feasibility
D:) None of above

Correct:C

Q:38)--------- it include system be used if it developed and implemented.

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Sol: description here

A:) Technical feasibility


B:) Economic feasibility
C:) Operational feasibility
D:) None of above

Correct:A

Q:39) Analyst used ------- method to collect information from individual or from group.

Sol: description here

A:) Interviews
B:) Questionnaires.
C:) Record inspection or view
D:) Observations

Correct:A

Q:40)Analyst used --------- method to collect information from person by asking standard
question to person or group of person.

Sol: description here

A:) Interviews
B:) Questionnaires.
C:) Record inspection or view
D:) Observations

Correct:A

Q:41) -------- interviews use of standardized question in either an open response or close
response format.

Sol: description here

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A:) Unstructured Interviews.


B:) Structured Interviews
C:) Questionnaires.
D:) Record inspection or view

Correct:B

Q:42)----------- may be inefficient use of both respondent and interviewer time.

Sol: description here

A:) Unstructured Interviews.


B:) Structured Interviews
C:) Questionnaires.
D:) Record inspection or view

Correct:A

Q:43)Analyst use ----------to learn about feelings, opinions and general experiences or to explore
a process or problems.

Sol: description here

A:) open ended questionnaires


B:) Close ended questionnaires
C:) Record Inspection
D:) Observation

Correct:A

Q:44)---------- controlled the frame of reference by presenting respondent with specific responses
from which to select.

Sol: description here

A:) open ended questionnaires


B:) Close ended questionnaires

rof. Gayatri A.Amate www.dacc.edu.in


DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C:) Record Inspection


D:) Observation

Correct:

Q:45)In ----------- analyst examines information that has been recorded about system and about
the users.

Sol: description here

A:) Record Review


B:) Interviews
C:) Questionnaires
D:) Observation

Correct:B

Q:46)The ------------ is produced at the culmination of the analysis task.

Sol: description here

A:) Software requirement specification


B:) Questionnaires
C:) Record Inspection
D:) None of these

Correct:A

Q:47)Software is defined as ____

Sol: description here

A:) Instructions
B:) Data Structures

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C:) Documents
D:) All of the above

Correct:D

Q:48)The objective of software engineering is to produce ----------

A:) Software Product


B:) Output
C:) Input
D:) Processing

Correct:A

Q:49)----------- are software systems delivered to customer with the documentation which
describes how to install and use the system.

A:) Software Product


B:) Output
C:) Input
D:) Processing

Correct:A

Q:50)--------- These are stand-alone systems which are produced by a development organization
and sold on the open market to any customer who is able to buy them.

A:) Generic Product


B:) Customized product
C:) Product
D:) None of these

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct:A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Unit 2 Requirement Analysis

Q:1)------------- these are systems which are commissioned by a particular customer.

A:) Generic Product


B:) Customized product
C:) Product
D:) None of these

Correct: D

Q:2) ------------- component should be designed and implemented so that it can be reused in
many different programs.

A:) Reusability
B:) Effectiveness
C:) Flexibility
D:) None of these

Correct: A

Q:3)A primary goal of software engineering is to improve the -------------and to increase the
productivity and job satisfaction of software engineers.

A:) Quality of software product


B:) Satisfaction of product
C:) Flexibility
D:) None of these

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:4) A fundamental Principal of software engineering is to design software products that


minimize the intellectual distance between ----------- and solution.

A:) Method
B:) Process
C:) Product
D:) Problem

Correct: A

Q:5) ------------ is outgrowth of hardware and system engineering.

A:) Software engineering


B:) Requirement engineering
C:) System engineering
D:) None of these

Correct:B

Q:6)------------ provide automated or semi-automated support for methods.

A:) Software engineering tools


B:) Software engineering Procedures
C:) Software engineering Methods
D:) None of these

Correct: A

Q:7) ------------- encompass a broad array of tasks that include project planning and
estimation system analysis, design of data structure, program architecture, coding, testing
and maintenance.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A:) Software engineering tools


B:) Software engineering Procedures
C:) Software engineering Methods
D:) None of these

Correct: A

Q:8)------------- are the glue that holds the methods and tools together and they enable rational
and timely development of computer software.

A:) Software engineering tools


B:) Software engineering Procedures
C:) Software engineering Methods
D:) None of these

Correct :D

Q:9)Software engineering needed for building -----------systems in a timely manner with high
quality.

A:) Software
B:) Hardware
C:) Process
D:) All of above

Correct: A

Q:10)software engineering is a ----------------

A:) Graphical technology


B:) Layered technology

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C:) Paired technology


D:) Electrical technology

Correct: A

Q:11)--------- provides the technical how to building software.

A:) Software engineering tools


B:) Software engineering Procedures
C:) Software engineering Methods
D:) None of these

Correct :C

Q:12)Software is ------

A:) Developed
B:) Manufactured
C:) Non manufactured
D:) None of these

Correct:B

Q:13)Software does not-----------

A:) Engineered
B:) Developed
C:) Maintained
D:) Wear out

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:14) ------------ consists of a means of monitoring the software engineering processes and
methods used to ensure quality.

A:) Software quality assurance


B:) Software quality product
C:) Software requirement
D:) Software specification

Correct:B

Q:15) In McCall’s software quality factors, Product operation phase ----not contains.

A:) Correctness
B:) Reliability
C:) Usability
D:) Flexibility

Correct :C

Q:16) In McCall’s software quality factors, Product revision phase ----not contains.

A:) Maintainability
B:) Flexibility
C:) Testability
D:) Portability

Correct: A

Q:17)In McCall’s software quality factors, Product transition phase ----not contains

A:) Portability
B:) Reusability
C:) Interoperability
D:) Testability

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct :D

Q:18) ---------- it includes the steps of maintenance phase of software.

A:) Maintainability
B:) Flexibility
C:) Testability
D:) Portability

Correct: A

Q:19) The property of software in which software product may be adapted to changes of
specifications.

A:) Maintainability
B:) Flexibility
C:) Testability
D:) Portability

Correct :D

Q:20) It is the ability of software system to product their various components against
unauthorized access and modification.

A:) Correctness
B:) Reliability
C:) Usability
D:) Integrity

Correct :D

Q:21)------------ is the probability that the software will operate correctly over specified
time interval.

A:) Correctness

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

B:) Reliability
C:) Usability
D:) Flexibility

Correct :D

Q:22) --------------will be able to interface it with another system.

A:) Correctness
B:) Interoperability
C:) Usability
D:) Flexibility

Correct: A

Q:23) ----------- the ease with which conformance to standards can be checked.

A:) Correctness
B:) Auditability
C:) Usability
D:) Flexibility

Correct:B

Q:24) --------- The degree to which standard interfaces protocols and bandwidth are used.

A:) Correctness
B:) Communication commonality
C:) Usability
D:) Flexibility

Correct :D

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:25)------- The compactness of the program in terms of lines of code.

A:) Conciseness
B:) Consistency
C:) Data commonality
D:) Error tolerance

Correct: A

Q:26) --------The use of uniform design and documentation techniques throughout the
software development project.

A:) Conciseness
B:) Consistency
C:) Data commonality
D:) Error tolerance

Correct:B

Q:27)------- The use of standard data structures and types throughout the program.

A. Conciseness
B. Consistency
C. Data commonality
D. Error tolerance

Q:28)----------- the degree to which the software assists in enabling new users to apply the
system.

A. Training
B. Traceability

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C. Simplicity
D. Security

Correct: A

Q:29)--------- The degree to which the source code provides meaningful documentation.

A. Self-documentation
B. Training
C. Traceability
D. Simplicity

Correct: A

Q:30) ---------- The damage that occurs when the program encounters an error.

A. Error tolerance
B. Training
C. Traceability
D. simplicity

Correct: A

Q:31)-------------- The functional independence of program componets.

A. Error tolerance
B. Training
C. Modularity
D. Simplicity

Correct :C

Q:32)---------- The degree to which full implementation of required function has been achieved.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A. Error tolerance
B. Training
C. Completeness
D. Simplicity

Correct :C

Q:34)Pick up the odd one out of the following process models

A. Component assembly model


B. Prototyping Model
C. Spiral model
D. Waterfall Model

Correct:D

Q:35)The Linear Sequential or Classic Life Cycle is also called

A. Waterfall Model
B. Incremental Model
C. Spiral model
D. Prototyping Model

Correct: A

Q:36) The waterfall model of the software process considers each process activity as a
_______ phase

A. separate
B. discrete
C. Both a and b options

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

D. None of the above


Correct C

Q:37)In Boehm’s spiral model, each loop in the spiral represents _____ of the
software process

A. phase
B. design
C. documentation
D. none of the above

Correct: A

Q:38)In the Spiral model the radius of the spiral at any point represents

A. the level of risk


B. the progress made in the current phase
C. the cost incurred in the project till then
D. None of these

Q:39) Oldest paradigm for software engineering is

A. Incremental process model


B. RAD model
C. Waterfall model
D. None of above

Q:40)In incremental process model, some high end function are designed in

A. Construction framework
B. Modeling framework
C. Planning framework
D. Deployment framework

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct:B

Q:41) RAD stands for

A. Relative Application Development


B. Rapid Application Development
C. Rapid Application Document
D. None of the mentioned
Correct :B

Q:42) Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?

A. Build & Fix Model


B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model
D. Waterfall Model

Correct :D

Q:43) Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

A. Horizontal Prototype
B. Vertical Prototype
C. Diagonal Prototype
D. Domain Prototype

Correct :C

Q:44)Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

A. Quick Design
B. Coding
C. Prototype Refinement
D. Engineer Product

Correct:B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:45)RAD Model has

A. 2 phases
B. 3 phase
C. 5 phases
D. 6 phases

Correct :C

Q:46) What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

A. Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required


B. Increases reusability of components
C. Encourages customer/client feedback
D. Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers are required

Correct : D

Q:47)SDLC stands for

A. Software Development Life Cycle


B. System Development Life cycle
C. Software Design Life Cycle
D. System Design Life Cycle

Correct :A

Q:48)Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?

A. Waterfall Model
B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model
D. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

Correct:C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:49) Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?

A. WINWIN Spiral Model


B. Incremental Model
C. Concurrent Development Model
D. All of the mentioned

Correct:D

Q:50)The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?

A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model


B. Linear Model & RAD Model
C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model
D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model

Correct :C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Unit 3 Introduction to software engineering

Q:1) What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

A. Customer can respond to each increment


B. Easier to test and debug
C. It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
D. Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to
the market early

Correct: A

Q:2)The spiral model was originally proposed by

A. IBM
B. Barry Boehm
C. Pressman
D. Royce

Correct:B

Q:3) The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________

A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular
D. diagonal, perpendicular

Correct:C

Q:4) How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?

A. It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project


related information

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

B. It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass


around the spiral
C. It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
D. It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support

Correct:B

Q:5)Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

A. Doesn’t work well for smaller projects


B. High amount of risk analysis
C. Strong approval and documentation control
D. Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

Correct: A

Q:6) Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.

A. True
B. False

Correct:B

Q:7) How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

A. Progress can be measured for Incremental Model


B. Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
C. Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
D. All of the mentioned

Correct: A

Q:8)If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A. WINWIN Spiral Model


B. Spiral Model
C. Concurrent Model
D. Incremental Model

Correct:C

Q:9)A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the
market, what model approach would they prefer ?

A. RAD
B. Iterative Enhancement
C. Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
D. Spiral

Correct:C

Q:10)One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.

A. True
B. False

Correct:B

Q:11)Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.

A. True
B. False

Correct: A

Q:12)RAD Model has high reliability requirements.

A. True

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

B. False

Correct:B

Q:13) If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you
select?

A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. RAD
D. Incremental

Correct:C

Q:14) Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?

A. Spiral
B. Waterfall
C. RAD
D. Iterative Enhancement Model

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:15) This set of Software Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Selection of a Life Cycle Model”.

A. Requirements
B. Development team & Users
C. Project type and associated risk
D. All of the mentioned

Correct:D

Q:16) Selection of a model is based on

A. Requirements
B. Development team & Users
C. Project type and associated risk
D. All of the mentioned

Correct: A

Q:17) Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?

A. Spiral
B. Waterfall
C. RAD
D. Iterative Enhancement Model

Correct: A

Q:18) Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?

A. Waterfall & RAD


B. Prototyping & Spiral
C. Prototyping & RAD
D. Waterfall & Spiral

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct: B

Q:19) A model that is the demo implementation of the system.

A. waterfall
B. prototype
C. incremental
D. agile

Correct: B

Q:20) Maintenance is the final phase in waterfall model.

A. True
B. False

Correct: A

Q:21) A stage in which individual components are integrated and ensured that they are error-free
to meet customer requirements.

A. Coding
B. Testing
C. Design
D. Implementation

Correct: B

Q:22) Methodology in which project management processes were step-by step.

A. Incremental
B. Waterfall

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C. Spiral
D. Prototyping

Correct: B

Q:23) ER diagram is a ------------tool

A. Design
B. Coding
C. Testing
D. None of above

Correct: A

Q:24) ER diagram is a ________of the database system which provides high level conceptual
data model and supports the users perception of the data.

A. Graphical representation
B. Hierarchical representation
C. Both of these
D. None above these

Correct: A

Q:25) ________ is an object in to real world that is distinguishable from all other objects

A. Entity
B. Attribute
C. Both
D. None

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct: A

Q:26) _______ is set of entities of the same type that share the same properties attributes.

A. Entity
B. Attribute
C. Both
D. None

Correct: A

Q:27) Each entity has a set of _____________

A. Entity
B. Attribute
C. Row
D. None

Correct:B

Q:28)______ attributes cannot be divided into subparts

A. Simple
B. Composite
C. Single valued
D. Multivalued

Correct: A

Q:29) _________ attributes can be divided into subparts.

A. Simple
B. Composite

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C. Single valued
D. Multivalued

Correct:B

Q:30)_________-attribute has single value for a particular entity.

A. Simple
B. Composite
C. Single valued
D. multivalued

Q:31)_______attribute has a set of values for a specific entity.

A. Simple
B. Composite
C. Single valued
D. multivalued

Q:32)__________entity does not have a value for an attribute.

A. Null
B. Composite
C. Single valued
D. multivalued

Correct: A

Q:33)________ represent entity set.

A. Ellipses
B. Rectangles
C. Diamonds

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

D. Lines

Correct:B

Q:34)___________ represent attributes

A. Ellipses
B. Rectangles
C. Diamonds
D. Lines

Correct: A

Q:35)___________represent relationship set.

A. Ellipses
B. Rectangles
C. Diamonds
D. Lines

Correct :C

Q:36)___________represent multi-valued attribute.

A. Double ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse
C. Diamonds
D. Lines

Correct: A

Q:37)_________ represent derived attribute.

A. Double ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C. Diamonds
D. Lines

Correct:B

Q:38)_________represent weak entity set.

A. Double ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse
C. Double rectangle
D. Lines

Correct :C

Q:39) A _________ is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions
and their possible consequences, including chance event outcomes, resource costs, and utility.

A. Decision tree
B. Graphs
C. Trees
D. Neural Networks

Correct: A

Q:40) What is Decision Tree?

A. Flow-Chart
B. Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch represents
outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
C. Flow-Chart & Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute,
each branch represents outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:41) Decision Tree is a display of an algorithm.

A. True
B. False

Correct: A

Q:42) Choose from the following that are Decision Tree nodes?

A. Decision Nodes
B. End Nodes
C. Chance Nodes
D. All of the mentioned

Correct:B

Q:43) Decision Nodes are represented by ____________

A. Disks
B. Squares
C. Circles
D. Triangles

Correct:B

Q:44)Chance Nodes are represented by __________

A. Disks
B. Squares
C. Circles
D. Triangles

Correct :C

Q:45) End Nodes are represented by __________

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A. Disks
B. Squares
C. Circles
D. Triangles

Correct :D

Q:46) Which of the following are the advantage/s of Decision Trees?

A. Possible Scenarios can be added


B. Use a white box model, If given result is provided by a model
C. Worst, best and expected values can be determined for different scenarios
D. All of the mentioned

Correct :D

Q:47) Decision table made up of section.

A. Condition statement
B. Condition statements
C. Action statements
D. All of these

Correct:D

Q:48)__________ is a graphic representation of system that shows data flows to from and within
system, processing functions that change the data in some manner and storage of tis data.

A. DFD
B. ER model
C. Decision table
D. Decision Tree

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:49) DFD shows how things happen or the physical component is called ------------

A. Logical DFD
B. Physical DFD
C. Data dictionary
D. None of these

Correct: A

Q:50)A relational database system needs to maintain data about the relations, such as the schema
of the relations. This is called

A. Metadata
B. Catalog
C. Log
D. Dictionary

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Unit Q:4) Software Development Methodologies

Q:1) Relational schemas and other metadata about relations are stored in a structure called the
____________

A. Metadata
B. Catalog
C. Log
D. Data Dictionary

Correct:D

Q:2).A data dictionary is created when a __________ created.

A. Instance
B. Segment
C. Database
D. Dictionary

Correct :C

Q:3) Keep the statement language ______________ while writing a pseudo code.

A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Case sensitive
D. Capitalized

Correct:B

Q:4)Capitalize initial keyword – This is a rule while writing a pseudo code.

A. True
B. False

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:5) Which of the following is not a keyword?

A. Read
B. Write
C. start
D. endif

Q:6) ______________ is used to show hierarchy in a pseudo code.

A. Indentation
B. Curly Braces
C. Round Brackets
D. Semicolon

Correct: A

Q:7) structured design was developed by ----- and --------------------.

A. ED Yourdon and Larry constatine


B. By codd
C. All of these
D. None of these

Correct: A

Q:8) In specific design process activites are:

A. Architectural design.
B. Abstract specification
C. Interface design
D. All of these

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct :D

Q:9)_______________is the separation of a function contained as code in one module into a new
module of its own.

A. Factoring
B. Fan-in
C. Fan-out
D. System shape

Correct: A

Q:10)_______ it is a module where the number of immediate bosses it has.

A. Factoring
B. Fan-in
C. Fan-out
D. System shape

Correct :B

Q:11)Modules with _______ must have good cohesion.

A. Factoring
B. Fan-in
C. Fan-out
D. System shape

Correct :B

Q:12) Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits
software modularity?

A. Modules are robust


B. Module can use other modules

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C. Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library


D. Modules are mostly dependent

Correct :D

Q:13) _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.

A. Cohesion
B. Coupling
C. None of the mentioned
D. All of the mentioned

Correct :B

Q:14)Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. Data Coupling
D. Content Coupling

Correct:C

Q:15)Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. External Coupling
D. Content Coupling

Correct :C

Q:16) Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

A. Logical Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Coincidental Cohesion

Correct :D

Q:17) Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?

A. Functional Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Sequential Cohesion

Correct: A

Q:18)A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low
coupling.

A. True
B. False

Correct: A

Q:19) In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to
another?

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. External Coupling
D. Content Coupling

Correct :B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:20) If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being
exhibited?

A. Functional Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Sequential Cohesion

Correct :B

Q:21)_________ defined as a collection of program statements with four basic attribute i.e. input
and output, function, mechanics and internal data

A.Module

B.Factoring

C.Fan in

D.Fan Out

Correct :A

Q:22)__________ is the intellectual tool that allows us to deal with concepts apart from
particular instances of those concepts.

A. Module
B. Abstraction
C. Fan-in
D. Fan-out

Correct :B

Q:23)The -----------involves the use of parameterized subprograms.

A. Functional Abstraction
B. Control Abstraction

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C. Cohesion
D. Coupling

Correct: A

Q:24)The ________ is used to state a desired effect without stating the exact mechanism of
control.

A. Functional Abstraction
B. Control Abstraction
C. Cohesion
D. Coupling

Correct :B

Q:25)__________in this each module and its dub module corresponding to a processing step in
the execution sequence.

A. Information hiding criteria


B. Conventional criteria
C. Data abstraction criteria
D. None of these

Correct :B

Q:26)__________ In this each module hides a difficult or changeable design decision from the
other module.

A. Information hiding criteria


B. Conventional criteria
C. Data abstraction criteria
D. None of these

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:27) _______ In this each module hides the representation details of a major data structure
behind functions that access and modify the data structure.

A. Information hiding criteria


B. Conventional criteria
C. Data abstraction criteria
D. None of these

Correct :C

Q:28)A module has _______if there is some logical relationship in the elements of a module.

A. Logical cohesion
B. Temporal cohesion
C. Both A And B
D. None of these

Correct: A

Q:29)___________ This module gets data from sub-ordinates and forward it to


superordinate(boss) modules.

A. Afferent modules
B. Efferent modules
C. Co-ordinate modules
D. Transform modules.

Correct: A

Q:30)___________ This module gets data from super-ordinate and forward it to sub-ordinates.

A. Afferent modules
B. Efferent modules

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

C. Co-ordinate modules
D. Transform modules.

Correct:B

Q:31)_______ This module manages the flow of data between different sub-ordinates. They are
used for selection purpose and in decision making.

A. Afferent modules
B. Efferent modules
C. Co-ordinate modules
D. Transform modules.

Correct :C

Q:32) This module gets data from super-ordinates, process that data and again forward It to
super-ordinate modules, These modules are used for processing purpose.

A. Afferent modules
B. Efferent modules
C. Co-ordinate modules
D. Transform modules.

Correct :D

Q:33)Which of the following term describes testing?

A. Finding broken code


B. Evaluating deliverable to find errors
C. A stage of all projects
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:34) What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A. Black box testing


B. White box testing
C. Yellow box testing
D. Green box testing

Correct:B

Q:35) White Box techniques are also classified as

A. Design based testing


B. Structural testing
C. Error guessing technique
D. None of the mentioned

Correct:B

Q:36) Exhaustive testing is

A. always possible
B. practically possible
C. impractical but possible
D. impractical and impossible

Correct :C

Q:37)Which of the following is/are White box technique?

A. Statement Testing
B. Decision Testing
C. Condition Coverage
D. All of the mentioned

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct :D

Q:38) What are the various Testing Levels?

A. Unit Testing
B. System Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. All of the mentioned

Correct :D

Q:39)Boundary value analysis belong to?

A. White Box Testing


B. Black Box Testing
C. White Box & Black Box Testing
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :B

Q:40) Alpha testing is done at

A. Developer’s end
B. User’s end
C. Developer’s & User’s end
D. None of the mentioned

Correct: A

Q:41) The testing in which code is checked

A. Black box testing


B. White box testing
C. Red box testing
D. Green box testing

Correct :B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:42)Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :C

Q:43) Acceptance testing is also known as

A. Grey box testing


B. White box testing
C. Alpha Testing
D. Beta testing

Correct :D

Q:44)Which of the following is non-functional testing?

A. Black box testing


B. Performance testing
C. Unit testing
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :B

Q:45) Beta testing is done at

A. User’s end
B. Developer’s end
C. User’s & Developer’s end
D. None of the mentioned

Correct: A

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:46)Unit testing is done by

A. Users
B. Developers
C. Customers
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :B

Q:47) Behavioral testing is

A. White box testing


B. Black box testing
C. Grey box testing
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :B

Q:48) Which of the following is black box testing

A. Basic path testing


B. Boundary value analysis
C. Code path analysis
D. None of the mentioned

Correct:B

Q:49) Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software

A. KLOC
B. Function Points
C. Size of module
D. None of the mentioned

Correct :C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:50) The testing in which code is checked

A. Black box testing


B. White box testing
C. Red box testing
D. Green box testing

Correct :B

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Unit 5 Analysis and design Tools

Q:1)Which of these states the goal of engineering design analysis?

A. To understand an engineering design problem

B. To provide an solution for a given problem

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

Correct : A

Q:2) What methods can be followed if designers are out of good SRS or engineering
design?

A. They must do whatever part of product design which remains undone

B. Various approaches and techniques are to be followed to complete

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

Correct : C

Q:3) Why is Modelling one of the best way to carry out analysis?

A. During analysis, It serves as a good test for understanding

B. Provides further documentation for input to design resolution

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

Correct : C

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:4) Engineering design activities consists of which of the following?

A. Studying the SRS

B. Producing new models of the problem

C. Product design models

D. All of the mentioned

Correct: D

Q:5) A generic software engineering design follows which of the activities?

A. Analysis

B. Architectural Design

C. Finalize Design

D. Analysis & Architectural Design

Correct: D

Q:6) Architectural design stage include which of the following activity?

A. Generate/Improve detailed design alternatives

B. Select architecture

C. Finalize Design

D. All of the mentioned

Answer: b

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Selection and finalizing architecture is followed in Architectural design stage.

Q:7) Detailed design stage include which of the following activity?

A. Generate / Improve candidate architectures

B. Evaluate candidate architecture

C. Finalize Design

D. None of the mentioned

Correct : C

Finalizing design is the only stage mentioned here which belongs to Detailed Design.

Q:8) What is Analysis model?

A. Understanding of design problem

B. Representation of design problem solution

C. Representation of design problem

D. All of the mentioned

Correct : C

Analysis Model is representation of design problem.

Q:9) Which of the following statement is true?

A. A class model is representation of objects in a problem or a software solution

B. A object model is representation of classes in a problem or a software solution

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

Correct : D

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

All are false , A class model is representation of classes in a problem or a software solution and
vice versa.

Q:10) Which of the following statement is true?

A. Class Diagram are graphical form of class models

B. Object Diagram are graphical forms of object models

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

Correct : C

All of the statements are true.

Q:11) Which of these are types of class model used in object oriented analysis?

A. Analysis Class models/ Conceptual Models

B. Design Class Models

C. Implementation Class Models

D. All of the mentioned

Correct : D

Q:12) Which of the following represents the use of Conceptual models during product design?

A. Understanding the problem design

B. Setting Data Requirements

C. Validating Requirements

D. All of the mentioned

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Correct : D

Conceptual Models consists of all of the uses.

Q:13) Which of the following represents the use of Conceptual models during engineering
design?

A. Understanding product design

B. Undergirding Engineering Modelling

C. All of the mentioned

D. None of the mentioned

Correct : C

Q:14) What are Design Class Models?

A. They show classes in a software system

B. They represents attributes,operations, association in abstraction from language

C. They show implementation details

D. All of the mentioned

Correct : D

Q:15) Conceptual models are useful for which of the following reasons?

A. Understanding problem design

B. Data Requirements and Product design

C. Validating requirements

D. All of the mentioned

Correct : D

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Conceptual models are useful for all of the above reasons mentioned.

Q:16) Why there is a need for Software management?

a) Software development is complex and expensive

b) It is done with few people with fixed skills and abilities

c) It is not time consuming

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

Q:17)Which of these is wrong in terms of definition?

a) Planing is formulating scheme for doing project

b) Organizing is directing people doing project work

c) Project is one time effort to achieve a particular goal for organization

d) Staffing is filing the positions in an organizational structure

Answer: b

Q:18) Which of these is wrong in terms of definition?

a) Planing is formulating scheme for doing project

b) Organizing is directing people doing project work

c) Project is one time effort to achieve a particular goal for organization

d) Staffing is filing the positions in an organizational structure

Answer: b

Q:19) Which of these is not project development activity?

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

a) Planning

b) Organizing

c) Operating

d) Tracking

Answer: c

Q:20)Which of these comes under business activities?

a) Project

b) Operations

c) Planning

d) Project & Operations

Answer: d

Q:21)Which of these terms have its role in project planning?

a) Schedule

b) Milestone

c) Estimation

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Q:22)What fails a project?

a) Lack of anticipation of resources to accomplish tasks

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

b) Problems faced by rules governing project

c) All of the mentioned

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

Q:23)What makes tracking activity more essential?

a) No need to follow rules

b) It schedules, estimates and follows resource allocation

c) All of the mentioned

d) None of the mentioned

Q:24)What are decompositions for design project?

a) Analysis : Design Problem

b) Resolution : Product specifications

c) Resolution : Detailed design

d) All of the mentioned

Q:25 Why are Patterns important?

a) They capture expert design knowledge

b) They make captured design accessible to both novices and other experts

c) All of the mentioned

d) None of the mentioned)

Answer: c

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:28)What benefits does patterns provide?

a) Novice designers can benefit from learning solution patterns that experts use, without needing
design experience

b) Expert designers can benefit from studying patterns too: They can broaden their repertoire of
patterns and deepen their understanding of the patterns they already know

c) All of the mentioned

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

Q:29)What benefits does patterns provide?

a) Promoting Communication

b) Streamlining Documentation

c) Increasing Development Efficiency

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Q:30) Which of the following Choices and standardizes patterns for a problem domain
promotes software reuse and, hence, quality and productivity?

a) Promoting Communication

b) Streamlining Documentation

c) Increasing Development Efficiency

d) Supporting Software Reuse

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Answer: d

Q:31)Which of the following statement is false?

a) Terminological consistency is simply using words with same meaning and always using the
same words to refer to particular thing

b) A stakeholder goal or need is within the project scope

c) A statement is correct if it is contingent and accords with the facts

Answer: d

Q:32)Which of these are not purchaser (stakeholder) goals?

a) Pay the least for a product that meets irrigation needs

b) Purchase a product that is cheap to operate

c) Purchase a product that is cheap to maintain

d) Have a product that is easy and fast to install

Answer: d

Q:33) Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?

a) Use Cases

b) Entity Relationship Diagram

c) State Transition Diagram

d) Activity Diagram

Answer: d

Q:34)How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?

a) Two

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

b) Three

c) Four

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Q:35) How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?

a) Three

b) Four

c) Five

d) Six

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how),
Modeling, Specification and Review are the five phases.

Q:36) Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement


and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements, hence
requirements must be traceable.

Q:37) Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.

a) True

b) False

c) Depends upon the size of project

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identified


business needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of detail sufficient for system design.

Q:38) _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.

a) Performance, Design

b) Stakeholder, Developer

c) Functional, Non-Functional

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement
analysis..

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:39) The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one
of three perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or view ?

a) Developer

b) User

c) Non-Functional

d) Physical

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional, and
Physical views.All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the
customers’ needs and objectives.

Q:40) Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to optimize


performance requirements for identified functions, and to verify that synthesized solutions can
satisfy customer requirements.

Q:41) Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an
analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

a) Three

b) Four

c) Five

d) Six

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Retained information, Needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes,


Common operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by Coad and
Yourdon.

Q:42) Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and
behavior.

Q:43) Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements
Specification (SRS) ?

a) Verifiable

b) Ambiguous

c) Complete

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

d) Traceable

Answer: b

Q:44) Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a
standard is maintained” ?

a) Correct

b) Complete

c) Consistent

d) Modifiable

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and referencing of all figures, tables etc. and
definition of all terms and units of measure is defined.

Q:45)The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if

a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while
retaining the style and structure

b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet

c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable

d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Real world object may conflict with each other for example one requirement says
that all lights should be red while the other states that all lights should green.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Q:46)Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?

i. SRS is written by customer

ii. SRS is written by a developer

iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer

a) Only i is true

b) Both ii and iii are true

c) All are true

d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication media between the Customer, Analyst, system
developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially
written by a developer on the basis of customer’ need but in some cases it may be written by a
customer as well.

Q:47) The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.

a) black-box

b) white-box

c) grey-box

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The system is considered as a black box whose internal details are not known that
is, only its visible external (input/output) behavior is documented.

Q:48) Which of the following is included in SRS ?

a) Cost

b) Design Constraints

c) Staffing

d) Delivery Schedule

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Design constraints include standards to be incorporated in the software,


implementation language, resource limits, operating environment etc.

Q:49) Which of the following is not included in SRS ?

a) Performance

b) Functionality

c) Design solutions

d) External Interfaces

View Answer

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Answer: c

Explanation: The SRS document concentrates on:”what needs to be done” and carefully avoids
the solution (“how to do”) aspects.

Q:50) Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.

i. General description

ii. Introduction

iii. Index

iv. Appendices

v. Specific Requirements

a) iii, i, ii,v, iv

b) iii, ii, i, v, iv

c) ii, i, v, iv, iii

d) iii, i, ii

View Answer

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Unit 7: Software Maintenance and Software Re-Engineering

1. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10
secs of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here?

a) Consistent

b) Verifiable

c) Non-verifiable

d) Correct

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is
verifiable.Here the given condition can be verified during testing phase.

2. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file
character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?

a) Consistent

b) Non-verifiable

c) Correct

d) Ambiguous

View Answer

Answer: b

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, every requirement stated therein has only
one unique interpretation. The given statement does not answer the question: “which data set will
have an end of file character?”.

3. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.
“What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here?

a) Consistent

b) Non-Verifiable

c) Correct

d) Ambiguous

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable.
The statement can only be answered on completion of the software and customer evaluation but
still human interface will vary from person to person.

4. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer:b

Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst types of specification document as it is difficult
to change, difficult to be precise, has scope for contradictions, etc.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

5. Software Maintenance includes

a) Error corrections

b) Enhancements of capabilities

c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

6. Maintenance is classified into how many categories?

a) two

b) Three

c) four

d) five

Answer: c

Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective and preventive are the four types of software
maintenance.

7. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

a) Corrective

b) Adaptive

c) Perfective

d) Preventive

Answer: b

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Explanation: None.

8. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model?

a) six

b) Seven

c) eight

d) nine

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

9. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?

a) Regression Testing

b) System Testing

c) Integration Testing

d) Unit Testing

Answer: a

Explanation: All other options are known as levels of software testing which further have types
of software testing.

10. Regression testing is a very expensive activity.

a) True

b) False

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

11. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

a) E – errors found before software delivery

b) D – defects found after delivery to user

c) Both E and D

d) Varies with project

Answer: c

Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).

12.A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are
meaningful is known as

a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)

b) Function points analysis

c) Control Chart

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: Others options are formulas

13. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

a) E – errors found before software delivery

b) D – defects found after delivery to user

c) Both E and D

d) Varies with project

Answer: c

Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

15. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?

a) Threats

b) Vulnerabilities

c) Consequences

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.

16. Which one is not a risk management activity?

a) Risk assessment

b) Risk generation

c) Risk control

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.

17. Which one is not a risk management activity?

a) Risk assessment

b) Risk generation

c) Risk control

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

18. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the
potential magnitude of that loss?

a) Risk exposure

b) Risk prioritization

c) Risk analysis

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

19. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks

Answer: d

Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification,


and maintenance problems.

20. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?

a) Known risks

b) Business risks

c) Project risks

d) Technical risks

Answer: b

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.

21.Which of the following is not a business risk?

a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants

b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people

c) lack of documented requirements or software scope

d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

Answer: c

Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.

22.Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?

a) Risk identification

b) Performance risk

c) Support risk

d) Risk projection

23.Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?

a) Business impact risks

b) Process definition risks

c) Product size risks

d) Development environment risks

Answer: c

Explanation: None.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

24.Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?

a) Business impact risks

b) Process definition risks

c) Product size risks

d) Development environment risks

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

25.Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that
the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?

a) Performance risk

b) Cost risk

c) Support risk

d) Schedule risk

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

26.In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design information that
can be extracted from the source code?

a) interactivity

b) completeness

c) abstraction level

d) direction level

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

27. In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of detail that is provided at an abstraction
level?

a) interactivity

b) completeness

c) Abstraction level

d) Directionality

Answer: b

Explanation: None.

28. The core of reverse engineering is an activity called

a) Restructure code

b) Directionality

c) Extract abstractions

d) Interactivity

Answer: c

Explanation: The engineer must evaluate the old program and extract a meaningful specification
of the processing that is performed, the user interface that is applied, and the program data
structures or database that is used.

29. The core of reverse engineering is an activity called

a) Restructure code

b) Directionality

c) Extract abstractions

d) Interactivity

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The engineer must evaluate the old program and extract a meaningful specification
of the processing that is performed, the user interface that is applied, and the program data
structures or database that is used.

30. What have become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every type?

a) GUIs

b) Candidate keys

c) Object model

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Therefore, the redevelopment of user interfaces has become one of the most
common types of re-engineering activity. But before a user interface can be rebuilt, reverse
engineering should occur.

31. Forward engineering is also known as

a) Extract abstractions

b) Renovation

c) Reclamation

d) Both renovation and reclamation

View Answer

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Answer: d

Explanation: Forward engineering, also called renovation or reclamation, not only recovers
design information from existing software, but uses this information to alter or reconstitute the
existing system in an effort to improve its overall quality.

32. Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from its

a) GUI

b) Database

c) Source code

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: None

33. Reverse engineering techniques for internal program data focus on the definition of classes of
objects.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: This is accomplished by examining the program code with the intent of grouping
related program variables.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

34. Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a
precursor to re-engineering a new database model:

a) Build an initial object model

b) Determine candidate keys

c) Refine the tentative classes

d) Discover user interfaces

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Once information defined in the preceding steps is known, a series of


transformations can be applied to map the old database structure into a new database structure.

35.Much of the information necessary to create a behavioral model can be obtained by observing
the external manifestation of the existing

a) Candidate keys

b) Interface

c) Database structure

d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The GUI or the interface provides the base for the behavioral model.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

36. Extracting data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the
existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called

a) data analysis

b) directionality

c) data extraction

d) client applications

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

37. Reverse engineering and Re-engineering are equivalent processes of software engineering.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Re engineering is a process of analysis and change whereby a system is modified


by first reverse engineering and then forward engineering.

38. Transformation of a system from one representational form to another is known as

a) Re-factoring

b) Restructuring

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

c) Forward engineering

d) Both Re-factoring and Restructuring

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: None.

39. Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering?

a) to reduce maintenance effort

b) to cope with complexity

c) to avoid side effects

d) to assist migration to a CASE environment

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Reverse engineering helps us to detect side effects rather than avoiding them.

40. Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling
?

a) Activity

b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD)

c) State Chart

d) Component

View Answer

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

Answer: b

Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and do not recognize system objects.

41. _________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common
characteristics.

a) Realization

b) Aggregation

c) Generalization

d) dependency

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Generalization is an everyday technique that we use to manage complexity.This


means that common information will be maintained in one place only.

42. One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the
system architecture.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the
components that make up that system and their relationships.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

43. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling.

a) Use Case, Sequence

b) Class, Object

c) Activity, State Chart

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to model interactions between a system and
external actors.Sequence diagrams are used to model interactions between system components,
although external agents may also be included.

44. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?

a) Level 1

b) Level 2

c) Level 3

d) Level 4

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects (entities) and their “connections” to one
another while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships, and the attributes that provide
further depth. Thus option b is correct.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

45. ___________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as
the software is used.

a) Controller

b) Entity

c) Boundary

d) Business

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.

46. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator


(CRC) modeling?

a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in
CRC modeling

b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately

c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index
cards

d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: All participants in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC
model index cards.

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

47. A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. There is no reference within a data object to
operations that act on the data.

48. The two dimensions of spiral model are

a) diagonal, angular

b) radial, perpendicular

c) radial, angular

d) diagonal, perpendicular

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The radial dimension depicts the cumulative costs and the angular dimension
depicts the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral model represents a
phase.

49. The Incremental Model is combination of elements of

a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model

b) Linear Model & RAD Model

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject: 503 : Software Engineering CLASS: SYBBA(CA. III SEM (2019 PATTERN)

c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model

d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software system,
particularly needed in case of quick delivery of a limited functionality system..

50. Model preferred to create client/server applications is

a) WINWIN Spiral Model

b) Spiral Model

c) Concurrent Model

d) Incremental Model

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In case of client/server applications, the concurrent process model specifies


activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension. Hence
Concurrency is achieved by these two activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled
using the state-oriented approach.

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Software Engineering Solved MCQs

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Software Engineering Solved MCQs

SET-1

1) What is Software ?
a. Set of computer programs, procedures and possibly associated document
concerned with the operation of data processing.
b. A set of compiler instructions
c. A mathematical formula
d. None of above

Answer = A
Explanation: Computer software or just software, is a collection of computer programs
and related data that provides the instructions for telling a computer what to do and
how to do it.
2) Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ?
a. Software does not wear out
b. Software is flexible
c. Software is not manufactured
d. Software is always correct

Answer = D
Explanation:A Software is not correct until it meets all the user requirements.
3) Which of the following is not a product matrix ?
a. Size
b. Reliability
c. Productivity
d. Functionality

Answer = C
Explanation: Software metric are used to quantitatively characterize the different
aspects of software process or software product. Product metrics are the
measures for the software product.
4)Which of the following is not a process metric ?
a. Productivity
b. Functionality
c. Quality
d. Efficiency

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Answer = B
Explanation: Software metric are used to quantitatively characterize the different
aspects of software process or software product.Process metrics qualify the
attributes of software development and environment.
5) Efforts is measured in terms of ?
a. Person - Months
b. Persons
c. Rupees
d. Months

Answer = A
Explanation:Most appropriate unit of Effort is Person-Months , meaning thereby
number of persons involved for specified months

6) Infrastructure software are covered under ?


a. Generic Products
b. Customised Products
c. Generic and Customised Products
d. None of the above

Answer = A
Explanation:Generic products are developed for anonymous customers. The
target is generally the entire world and many copies are expected to be sold.
Infrastructure software like operating systems, compilers, word processors etc
are covered under this category.
7) Management of software development is dependent upon ?
a. People
b. Product
c. Process
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation:The management of software development is dependent upon four
factors : People, Product, Process and Project.
8) During software development which factor is most crucial ?
a. People
b. Process
c. Product
d. Project

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Answer = A
Explanation:Software development requires good managers. The manager who
can understand the requirements of people. Hence , people are the crucial and
criticle during software development.
9) Milestones are used to ?
a. Know the cost of the project
b. Know the status of the project
c. Know the user expectations
d. None of the above

Answer =A
Explanation:Milestones are used to measure the process or status of the project
10) The term module in the design phase refers to ?
a. Functions
b. Procedures
c. Sub programs
d. All of the above

Answer =D
Explanation: All the terms have the same meaning.

SET-2

1) Spiral Model was developed by?


a. Bev Littlewood
b. Berry Bohem
c. Roger Pressman
d. Victor Bisili

Answer = B
Explanation: Spiral model was developed by Berry Bohem in 1986 in his article "A
Spiral Model of Software Development and Enhancement"
2) Which model is popular for students small projects ?
a. Waterfall Model
b. Spiral Model
c. Quick and Fix model
d. Prototyping Model

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation

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3) Which is not a software life cycle model?
a. Spiral Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping Model
d. Capability maturity Model

Answer = D
Explanation:Capability maturity model is not a software life cycle model

4) Project risk factor is considered in ?


a. Spiral Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping Model
d. Iterative enhancement Model

Answer = A
Explanation:Aim of Risk analysis phase in the spiral model is to eliminate the
high risk problems before they threaten the project operation or cost.

5) SDLC stands for ?


a. Software design life cycle
b. Software development life cycle
c. System design life cycle
d. System development life cycle

Answer = B
Explanation:Full form of SDLC is software development life cycle.

6) Build and Fix model has?


a. 3 Phases
b. 1 Phases
c. 2 Phases
d. 4 Phases

Answer = C
Explanation:Build and fix model has 2 phases one is " build " and other is " fix " .

7) SRS stands for ?


a. Software requirement specification
b. Software requirement solution
c. System requirement specification
d. None of Above

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Answer = A
Explanation: SRS acts as a contract between the developer and the user.

8) Waterfall model is not suitable for ?


a. Small Projects
b. Complex Projects
c. Accommodating change
d. None of Above

Answer = C
Explanation:Waterfall model does not accommodate any change that's why this
model is used in those situations where requirements are well understood.

9) RAD stands for ?


a. Rapid Application Development
b. Relative Application Development
c. Ready Application Development
d. Repeated Application Development

Answer =A
Explanation:No Explanation for this question.

10) RAD Model was purposed by ?


a. IBM
b. Motorola
c. Microsoft
d. Lucent Technologies

Answer =A
Explanation:RAD Model was purposed by IBM in 1980s through the book of
James Martin entitles "Rapid Application Development"

SET-3

1) Software engineering aims at developing ?


a. Reliable Software
b. Cost Effective Software
c. Reliable and cost effective Software
d. None Of Above

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Answer = C
Explanation:Software engineering is the process that aims at developing the
software's that are Reliable and cost effective as well.

2) A good specification should be ?


a. Unambiguous
b. Distinctly Specific
c. Functional
d. All of Above

Answer = D
Explanation:A good specification should have all the qualities such as
unambiguos, distinctly specific and functional.

3) Which of the following is a tool in design phase ?


a. Abstraction
b. Refinement
c. Information Hiding
d. All of Above

Answer = D
4) Information hiding is to hide from user, details ?
a. that are relevant to him
b. that are not relevant to him
c. that may be maliciously handled by him
d. that are confidential

Answer = C
Explanation:Information hiding is just the process of making inaccessible certain
details that have no effect on the other parts of the program.

5) Which of the following comments about object oriented design of software, is


not true ?
a. Objects inherit the properties of class
b. Classes are defined based on the attributes of objects
c. an object can belong to two classes
d. classes are always different

Answer = C
Explanation:An object can not belong to two classes.

6) Design phase includes?

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a. data, architectural and procedural design only
b. architectural, procedural and interface design only
c. data, architectural and interface design only
d. data, architectural, interface and procedural design

Answer = D
Explanation:Design phase included the design of whole software including data,
architectural, interface and procedural design.

7) To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in


assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ?
a. 13 programmers
b. 10 programmers
c. 8 programmers
d. 100/13 programmers

Answer = C
Explanation: Writing the whole program in FORTRAN takes 100 man-day,
remaining 1% code requires 4 man-day. If it is completed in 13 days then 104/13 =
8 programmers it required.
8) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly
language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing
the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 13
d. 8

Answer = B
Explanation:The first case takes 99+10=109 man-day. The second case require
100+4=104 man-day. Percentage = (109-104)*100/100 = 5

9) If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the


execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and
rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 0.9
b. 0.8
c. 8
d. 9

Answer = B
Explanation:Let the first case takes 100 units of time to execute. Second case will

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take 99 +(1/5) units of time. As the 1% coding in assembly language will take 1/5
units of time. Hence the required percentage = 0.8*100/100 = 0.8.

10) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in


assembly language the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to
writing the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 0.9
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. 0

Answer = D
Explanation:In both cases the final program will have the same 99% of code in
FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language. Hence the execution time
will remain same.

SET-4

1) White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called ?


a. Basic path
b. Graph Testing
c. Dataflow
d. Glass box testing

Answer = D
Explanation: White box testing also named as clear box testing, transparent
testing, glass box testing and structural testing. It is a method in which the
internal structure of application is tested.

2) Black box testing sometimes called ?


a. Data Flow testing
b. Loop Testing
c. Behavioral Testing
d. Graph Based Testing

Answer = C
Explanation: Black box testing is a method that tests for the functionality of an
application.

3) Which of the following is a type of testing ?


a. Recovery Testing
b. Security Testing

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c. Stress Testing
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: Recovery testing is a method for testing how well a software can
recover from crashes. Security testing ensures that the software protects the
data and performs its all functions. Stress testing determines the robustness of
software.
4) The objective of testing is ?
a. Debugging
b. To uncover errors
c. To gain modularity
d. To analyze system

Answer = B
Explanation: The main objecting of testing is to make the software error free.

5) ...... is a black box testing method ?


a. Boundary value analysis
b. Basic path testing
c. Code path analysis
d. None of above

Answer = A
Explanation:In boundary value analysis, we choose an input from test cases from
an equivalence class such that the input lies on the edge of equivalence class.

6) Structured programming codes includes ?


a. sequencing
b. alteration
c. iteration
d. multiple exit from loops
e. only A, B and C

Answer = E
Explanation:These three constructs are sufficient to program any algorithm.
Moreover, as far as possible single entry single exit control constructs are used.
7) An important aspect of coding is ?
a. Readability
b. Productivity
c. To use as small memory space as possible

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d. brevity

Answer = A
Explanation:Readability and understandability as a clear objective of coding
activity can itself help in producing software that is more maintainable.

8) Data structure suitable for the application is discussed in ?


a. data design
b. architectural design
c. procedural design
d. interface design

Answer = A
Explanation: Data design is the first and most important design activity, where
the main issue is to select the appropriate data structure.

9) In object oriented design of software , objects have ?


a. attributes and names only
b. operations and names only
c. attributes, name and operations
d. None of above

Answer = C
Explanation: The objects contains attributes, names and operations as well.

10) Function oriented metrics were first proposed by ?


a. John
b. Gaffney
c. Albrecht
d. Basili

Answer = C
Explanation:Albrecht suggests a measure called Function point, which are
derives using a empirical relationship based on the countable measures of
software information domain.

SET-5

1) Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6


operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ?
a. 48

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b. 120
c. 720
d. insufficient data

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation
2) In the system conceps, term organization ?
a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component fuctions with other components of
the system
c. refers to the holism of system
d. means that part of the computer system depend on one another

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation
3) In the system concepts, the term integration ?
a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other components
of the system
c. means that parts of computer system depends on one another
d. refers to the holism of systems

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation
4) Project indicator enables a software project manager to ?
a. assess the status of an ongoing project
b. track potential risks
c. uncover problem araes before they " go critical "
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation
5) Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is
applied for each class. Class tests includes ?
a. Fault based testing
b. Random testing
c. Partition teting
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation

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6) ............ Developed a set of software quality factors that has been given the
acronym FURPS - Functinality, Usability, Reliability, performance, Supportability
?
a. Hewlett - Packard
b. Rambaugh
c. Booch
d. Jacobson

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation
7) In system design, we do following ?
a. Hardware design after software
b. Software design after hardware
c. Parallel hardware and software design
d. No hardware design needed

Answer = C
Explanation: No Explanation
8) The document listing all procedures and regulations that generally govern an
organization is the ?
a. Personal poling bank
b. Organizing manual
c. Administration policy manual
d. Procedure log

Answer = B Explanation: No Explanation


9) A turnkey package includes ?
a. Software
b. Hardware
c. Traning
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation
10) Detailed design is expressed by ?
a. CSPEC
b. PSPEC
c. MINI SPEC
d. Code SPEC

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Answer = C
Explanation: No Explanation

SET-6

1) In functional decomposition, the data flow diagram ?


a. is ignored
b. is partitioned according to the closeness of the datagram and storage items
c. is partitioned according to the logical closeness of the actigram
d. Both A and C
e. None of above

Answer = C
Explanation: N/A

2) Which of the following is done in order a data in phase 1 of the system


development life cycle ?
a. Reviewing policies and procedures
b. Using questionnaires to contact surveys
c. Conducting Interviews
d. All of above
e. None of above

Answer = D
Explanation: N/A

3) A graphic representation of an information system is called ?


a. Flow chart
b. Pictogram
c. Data flow diagram
d. Histogram
e. None of above

Answer = C
Explanation:N/A

4) To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system
analyst should ?
a. Provide for a check digit

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b. Provide for a hash totals
c. Provide batch totals
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: N/A

5) In the system concepts, the term integration ?


a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other component of
the system
c. means that part of the computer system depend on one another
d. refers to the holism of system
e. None of above

Answer = D
Explanation: system integration is the bringing together of the component
subsystems into one system and ensuring that the subsystems function together
as a system. In information technology, systems integration is the process of
linking together different computing systems and software applications
physically or functionally, to act as a coordinated whole

6) RAD is a linear sequential software development process model. RAD is an


acronym for ?
a. Rapid Application Development
b. Rapid Action Development
c. Rough Application Development
d. Rough Action Development

Answer = A
Explanation: Rapid application development (RAD) is a software development
methodology that uses minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping. The
"planning" of software developed using RAD is interleaved with writing the
software itself

7) In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ?


a. Technical
b. Management
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

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Answer = C
Explanation: N/A

8) The model remains operative until the software is retired ?


a. Waterfall
b. Incremental
c. Spiral
d. None of these

Answer = C
Explanation: The spiral model is based on continuous refinement of key products
for requirements definition and analysis, system and software design, and
implementation (the code). At each iteration around the cycle, the products are
extensions of an earlier product. This model uses many of the same phases as
the waterfall model, in essentially the same order, separated by planning, risk
assessment, and the building of prototypes and simulations

9) A quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or


process posses a given attribute ?
a. Measure
b. Measurement
c. Metric
d. None of these

Answer = C
Explanation: N/A

10) RAD is not appropriate when ?


a. Fast finding already done
b. Technical risks are high
c. Testing is not needed
d. None of above

Answer = B
Explanation: RAD model may not be useful for large, unique or highly complex
projects.This method cannot be a success if the team is not sufficiently
motivated and nor is unable to work cohesively together.

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Question Bank for Insem-Endsem Examination

Que. No. Question Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4

Project risk factor is considered


1 in which model?
Spiral model. Waterfall model. Prototyping model Incremental Model.

Which one of the following


may be experienced by a
software development team
Increased documentation Increased Decreased
2 when it adopts a systematic Increased development time
overhead development cost maintainability
development process model
in preference to a build-and-
fix style of development?

A software process model The way in which


The way in which The way in which The way in which software may
3 represents which one of the software processes
software is developed software is used fail
following? data

Which one of the following


activities spans all stages of a
4 Coding Testing Project management Design
software development life
cycle

The operation phase of the


waterfall model is a synonym Coding and unit testing Integration and
5 Maintenance phase Design phase
for which one of the following phase system testing phase
phases?
The implementation phase of
the waterfall model is a Coding and unit testing Integration and
6 Maintenance phase Design phase
synonym for which one of the phase system testing phase
following phases?

Unit testing is carried out


7 during which phase of the Implementation phase Testing phase Maintenance phase Design phase
waterfall model?

Which one of the following


phases accounts for the
8 maximum effort during Coding Testing Designing Specification
development of a typical
software?

Which one of the following is


9 not a standard software Waterfall Model Recursive Model RAD Model V Model
development process model?

Which one of the following


Implementation phase
feedback paths is not present Design phase to Implementation phase Design phase to requirements
10 to requirements
in an iterative waterfall feasibility study phase to design phase specification phase.
specification phase
model?

Which one of the following


Incremental Both incremental and iterative
11 most accurately reflects agile Iterative development Linear development
development development
software development?
In each increment, get
In each increment, get
In each increment, get In each increment, get something of business-
Agile model advocates which something delivered once it has
something “quick and something simple value delivered as
12 one of the following been fully documented and the
dirty” delivered and released as quickly as quickly as possible,
approaches? documentation has been signed
thereby save time possible consistent with the
off as complete
right level of quality
During a Sprint,
Members of a Scrum team It is month-long
customer feedback is
are not expected to answer iteration, during
It is the fundamental continually obtained Each day begins with a daily
13 which one of the following which incremental
process flow of Scrum and the Sprint backlog Scrum meeting
questions during a daily product functionality
is accordingly
Scrum meeting? completed
modified

Which one of the following


statements most accurately A shareholder of the Anyone who is Anyone who is a
Anyone who might be affected
14 identifies the stakeholders in organization developing interested in the source of requirements
by the software
a software development the software software for the software
project?

A software requirements
specification (SRS) document Non-functional Constraints on the
15 Functional requirements Design specification
should avoid discussing requirements implementation
which one of the following?

Consider the following


requirement for a word
processor software: " The
Non-functional Constraint on the
16 software should provide Functional requirement Goal of implementation
requirement implementation
facility to import an existing
image available as a jpeg file
into the document being
Consider the following
partial description of the IIT
security software. “A camera
at the main gate should detect
Non-Functional
17 an incoming vehicle, and the Functional requirement Design requirement Design constraint
requirement
gate should be opened for
registered vehicles.” Which
one of the following types of
requirements is this?

Consider the following


partial requirement for a
software: “A web browser
Non-functional
18 should be used as the front Functional requirement Design constraint External interface
requirement
end.” It can be considered to
be which one of the following
types of requirements?

When is the requirement


During requirements Before requirements Before requirements After requirements analysis
19 specification activity carried
gathering activity analysis activity gathering activity activity
out?

When a company plans to


develop a generic product,
Development team Personnel from finance
20 who among the following is Project manager Marketing personnel
members department
usually the source of the
requirements?

Which one of the following is


21 not a requirements gathering Task analysis Scenario analysis Form analysis SRS document review
technique
Which one of the following
problems in the gathered
22 requirements is not the focus Inconsistency Ambiguity Incompleteness Unstructuredness
of the requirements analysis
task?

Which one of the following


23 views is implicit in an SRS Black box White box Grey box Glass box
document?

Which one of the following is


24 Maintainability Portability Robustness None of the mentioned
a functional requirement ?

Which one of the following is


25 a requirement that fits in a Availability Testability Usability Flexibility
developer’s module ?

Consider a system where, a


heat sensor detects an
intrusion and alerts the
26 Functional Non-Functional Known Requirement None of the mentioned
security company.” What
kind of a requirement the
system is providing?
The ability of the
system to behave
It is a degree to which It cannot be enhanced
Which of the following consistently in a user-
software running on one by using languages,
statements explains acceptable manner
27 platform can easily be OS’ and tools that are None of the mentioned
portability in non-functional when operating within
converted to run on universally available
requirements? the environment for
another platform and standardized
which the system was
intended

Process-oriented
Choose the incorrect Product-oriented Quantitative Approach
Approach – Focus on Qualitative Approach – Study
statement with respect to Non- Approach – Focus on – Find measurable
28 how NFRs can be various relationships between
Functional system (or software) scales for the
used in the design quality goals
Requirement(NFR) quality functionality attributes
process

How many classification


29 schemes have been developed Two Three Four Five
for NFRs ?

A ________ view shows the


system hardware and how
30 software components are physical logical process all of the mentioned
distributed across the
processors in the system.

The UML was designed for Both object-oriented systems


31 object-oriented systems architectural design SRS
describing _________ and Architectural design
In Design phase, which is the
32 Architecture Data Interface All of the mentioned
primary area of concern ?

The importance of software


33 design can be summarized in Efficiency Accuracy Quality Complexity
a single word which is:

Cohesion is a qualitative is able to complete its


can be written more focuses on just one is connected to other modules
34 indication of the degree to function in a timely
compactly thing and the outside world
which a module manner

Coupling is a qualitative is able to complete its


can be written more focuses on just one is connected to other modules
35 indication of the degree to function in a timely
compactly thing and the outside world
which a module manner

Has explicit
Implements some dependencies through Communicates through
36 A software component All of the mentioned
functionality provides and required its interfaces only
interfaces

Which of the following is


Reduce the user’s Make the interface
37 golden rule for interface Place the user in control All of the mentioned
memory load consistent
design?
Which of the following is not Allow user interaction Show technical Design for direct interaction
Provide for flexible
38 a design principle that allows to be interrupt-able internals from the with objects that appear on the
interaction
the user to maintain control? and undo-able casual user screen

Which of the following is not User, task, and


Knowledgeable,
39 a user interface design environment analysis Interface design Interface validation
frequent users
process? and modeling

When users are involved in


complex tasks, the demand objects that appear on
40 short-term memory shortcuts all of the mentioned
on __________ can be the screen
significant

What incorporates data,


architectural, interface, and
41 design model user’s model mental image system image
procedural representations of
the software?

What establishes the profile


42 design model user’s model mental image system image
of end-users of the system?

Java packages and Fortran


43 subroutine are examples Functions Modules Classes Sub procedures
of__________
Which of the following is the
44 Control Coupling Stamp Coupling Data Coupling Content Coupling
best type of module coupling?
Question Bank for Insem-Endsem Examination (Unit I)

Que.
Question Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4
No.

RAD Software process A) Rapid Application B) Relative Application C) Recent Application


1 D) Rapid Application Design
model stands for…. Development Development Development

What is the simplest model


2 of software development A) V-model B) Waterfall model C) Spiral model D) Big Bang model
paradigm?

Which is the most important C) Performance


3 A) Quality management B) Risk Management D) Efficiency Management
feature of spiral model? Management

Which is not a step of D) Requirements


4 A) Requirements elicitation B) Requirements analysis C) Requirement design
Requirement Engineering ? documentation

The model in which the


requirements are A) Evolutionary D) Iterative Enhancement
5 B) Waterfall Model C) Prototyping
implemented by its category Development Model Model
is……

Find out which phase is not


6 A) Coding B) Testing C) Maintenance D) Abstraction
available in SDLC
Project risk factor is
7 A) Spiral model B) Waterfall model C) Prototyping model D)None of the above
considered in which model ?

Which model is also called


B) Linear Sequential
8 as the classic life cycle or A) Iterative Development C) RAD Model D) Incremental Development
Development
the waterfall model ?

Spiral model was developed


9 A) Roger Pressman B) Berry Boehm C) Victor Bisili D) Bev Littlewood
by

A) A good approach when a B) A reasonable approach C) The best approach to D) A revolutionary model that
The incremental model of
10 working core product is when requirements are use for projects with large is not used for commercial
software development is
required quickly. well defined. development teams. products.

Which one of the following


is usually not recognized as
11 a phase of the software A) Execution B) Initiation C) Maintenance D) Closing
project management life
cycle ?

Which one of the following


most closely describes the
A) Initiation, planning, B) Concept, definition, C) Initiation, definition, D) Concept, definition,
12 sequence of phases of a
executing and closing. development, closure, planning, monitoring. Implementation, maintenance,
project management life
cycle ?
Which one of the following
can be considered to be a
suitable SDLC model for
C) Iterative waterfall
13 developing a moderate- A) RAD Model B) V model D) Classical waterfall model
model
sized software for which the
customer is not clear about
his exact requirements ?

Which one of the following


life cycle models lacks the C) Classical waterfall
14 A) Spiral model B) Prototyping model D) Evolutionary model
characteristics of iterative model
software development ?

Which one of the following


life cycle models does not
15 involve constructing a A) Spiral model B) Prototyping model C) RAD D) Evolutionary model
prototype any time during
software development?

Which one of the following


16 is not a phase of the A) Feasibility study B) Project management C) Maintenance D) Requirements specification
waterfall life cycle model ?

which one of the following


A) Extreme Programming
17 is not an agile software B) Scrum C) Prototyping model D) Lean Software development
(XP)
development methodology?

Which one of the following


characteristics of a
moderate-sized project A) Stable and well B) Mission critical C) Service-oriented
18 D) Extremely large project
would indicate the understood requirements software project
suitability of the Extreme
Programming (XP) model ?
How is agility achieved in
A) Elaborate C) Avoidance of things
19 the agile model of software B) Rigorous planning D) prototype construction
documentation that waste time
development ?
In the agile model, why are B) To propose a commonC) To restructure code
A) To explore potential D) To construct simpler use
20 spikes constructed during vision of what is without affecting
solutions cases
development ? required. behaviour
C) No new functionality
Which one of the following A) A new release is B) A new release may not D) Existing functionalities may
may have been
21 is false about iteration in invariably made at the end be made at the end of have been enhanced at the end
incorporated at the end
the agile model? of each iteration each iteration of an iteration
of an iteration
Which one of the following
models is not suitable for
22 A) Build & Fix Model B) Prototyping Model C) RAD Model D) Waterfall Model
accommodating any
change?
) If requirements are easily
understandable and defined
23 A) Spiral model B) Waterfall model C) Prototyping model D) None of the above
then which model is best
suited?
A) A reasonable approach B) A good approach C) The best approach to
The waterfall model of D) An old fashioned model that
24 when requirements are when a working program use for projects with large
software development is is rarely used any more
well defined. is required quickly development teams.

B) A good approach
A) A reasonable approach C) The best approach to D) A revolutionary model that
The incremental model of when a working core
25 when requirements are use for projects with large is not used for commercial
software development is product is required
well defined. development teams. products.
quickly

B) A useful approach
A) A reasonable approach C) The best approach to D) A risky model that rarely
The prototyping model of when a customer cannot
26 when requirements are use for projects with large produces a meaningful
software development is define requirements
well defined. development teams. product.
clearly.
A) System Development B) Software Design Life C) Software Development
27 SDLC Stands for D) System Design Life Cycle
Life cycle. Cycle Life Cycle
Which is the most important C) Performance
28 A) Quality management B) Risk management D) Efficiency management
feature of spiral model? management
The process of developing a
software product using
29 software engineering a. Software myths b. Scientific Product c. Software Evolution d. None of the above
principles and methods is
referred to as, _______ .
Who manages the effects of
a. Software project tracking b. Software configuration
30 change throughout the c. Measurement d. Technical reviews
and control management
software process?
Question Bank for Insem Examination

Que. No. Question Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4


Project risk factor is considered
1 in which model?
Spiral model. Waterfall model. Prototyping model Incremental Model.

Which one of the following Increased documentation Increased development


2 Decreased maintainability Increased development time
may be experienced by a overhead cost
A software process model The way in which software The way in which The way in which The way in which software may
3
represents which one of the is developed software processes data software is used fail
Which one of the following
4 Coding Testing Project management Design
activities spans all stages of a
The operation phase of the Coding and unit testing Integration and system
5 Maintenance phase Design phase
waterfall model is a synonym phase testing phase
The implementation phase of Coding and unit testing Integration and system
6 Maintenance phase Design phase
the waterfall model is a phase testing phase
Unit testing is carried out
7 Implementation phase Testing phase Maintenance phase Design phase
during which phase of the
Which one of the following
8 Coding Testing Designing Specification
phases accounts for the
Which one of the following is
9 Waterfall Model Recursive Model RAD Model V Model
not a standard software
Which one of the following Design phase to feasibility Implementation phase to Implementation phase to Design phase to requirements
10
feedback paths is not present study phase design phase requirements specification specification phase.
Which one of the following Both incremental and iterative
11 Incremental development Iterative development Linear development
most accurately reflects agile development
Agile model advocates which In each increment, get In each increment, get In each increment, get In each increment, get
12
one of the following something “quick and something simple something of business- something delivered once it has
Members of a Scrum team It is the fundamental It is month-long iteration, During a Sprint, customer Each day begins with a daily
13
are not expected to answer process flow of Scrum during which incremental feedback is continually Scrum meeting
Which one of the following A shareholder of the Anyone who is interested Anyone who is a source of Anyone who might be affected
14
statements most accurately organization developing the in the software requirements for the by the software
A software requirements Non-functional Constraints on the
15 Functional requirements Design specification
specification (SRS) document requirements implementation
Consider the following Non-functional Constraint on the
16 Functional requirement Goal of implementation
requirement for a word requirement implementation
Consider the following Non-Functional
17 Functional requirement Design requirement Design constraint
partial description of the IIT requirement
Consider the following Non-functional
18 Functional requirement Design constraint External interface
partial requirement for a requirement
When is the requirement During requirements Before requirements Before requirements After requirements analysis
19
specification activity carried gathering activity analysis activity gathering activity activity
When a company plans to Development team Personnel from finance
20 Project manager Marketing personnel
develop a generic product, members department
Which one of the following is
21 Task analysis Scenario analysis Form analysis SRS document review
not a requirements gathering
Which one of the following
22 Inconsistency Ambiguity Incompleteness Unstructuredness
problems in the gathered
Which one of the following
23 Black box White box Grey box Glass box
views is implicit in an SRS
Which one of the following is
24 Maintainability Portability Robustness None of the mentioned
a functional requirement ?
Which one of the following is
25 Availability Testability Usability Flexibility
a requirement that fits in a
Consider a system where, a
26 Functional Non-Functional Known Requirement None of the mentioned
heat sensor detects an
Which of the following It is a degree to which It cannot be enhanced by The ability of the system
27 None of the mentioned
statements explains software running on one using languages, OS’ and to behave consistently in a
Choose the incorrect Product-oriented Approach Process-oriented Quantitative Approach – Qualitative Approach – Study
28
statement with respect to Non- – Focus on system (or Approach – Focus on Find measurable scales for various relationships between
How many classification
29 Two Three Four Five
schemes have been developed
A ________ view shows the
30 physical logical process all of the mentioned
system hardware and how
The UML was designed for Both object-oriented systems
31 object-oriented systems architectural design SRS
describing _________ and Architectural design
In Design phase, which is the
32 Architecture Data Interface All of the mentioned
primary area of concern ?
The importance of software
33 Efficiency Accuracy Quality Complexity
design can be summarized in
Cohesion is a qualitative can be written more is able to complete its is connected to other modules
34 focuses on just one thing
indication of the degree to compactly function in a timely and the outside world
Coupling is a qualitative can be written more is able to complete its is connected to other modules
35 focuses on just one thing
indication of the degree to compactly function in a timely and the outside world
Implements some Has explicit dependencies Communicates through its
36 A software component All of the mentioned
functionality through provides and interfaces only
Which of the following is Reduce the user’s Make the interface
37 Place the user in control All of the mentioned
golden rule for interface memory load consistent
Which of the following is not Provide for flexible Allow user interaction to Show technical internals Design for direct interaction
38
a design principle that allows interaction be interrupt-able and from the casual user with objects that appear on the
Which of the following is not User, task, and environment Knowledgeable, frequent
39 Interface design Interface validation
a user interface design analysis and modeling users
When users are involved in objects that appear on the
40 short-term memory shortcuts all of the mentioned
complex tasks, the demand screen
What incorporates data,
41 design model user’s model mental image system image
architectural, interface, and
What establishes the profile
42 design model user’s model mental image system image
of end-users of the system?
Java packages and Fortran
43 Functions Modules Classes Sub procedures
subroutine are examples
Which of the following is the
44 Control Coupling Stamp Coupling Data Coupling Content Coupling
best type of module coupling?
Question Bank for Insem-Endsem Examination

Que.
Question Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4
No.

A. Software is C. Software is set of


B. Software is set of
1 What is a Software documentation and programs, documentation D. None of the mentioned
programs
configuration of data & configuration of data

Which of these SE activities


2 are not a part of software A. Software dependence B. Software validation C. Software specification D. Software development
processes?

A. System Development B. Software Design Life C. Software Development


3 SDLC stands for D. System Design Life Cycle
Life cycle Cycle Life Cycle

C. ensure that their


B. act in a manner that is
A. act consistently with the products only meet the
4 Software engineers shall in the best interests of D. all of the mentioned
public interest.” SRS.” d) all of the
his expertise and favour.”
mentioned

5) Software is not
considered to be collection
5 of executable programming A. True B. False
code, associated libraries
and documentations
What is the unit of
measurement that is used
6 to measure the size of a . Function points Story points Work breakdown points Velocity points
user story for an Agile
project?

) How is Agile planning


different from the Agile planning is done only Agile planning is non Agile planning places Agile planning places emphasis
7
traditional approach to once iterative emphasis on the plan on planning and is iterative
planning?
What does “Time boxed”
8 Fast Flexible . Frequent Fixed
means in Agile terms?
Collaboration requires that
the team must take joint
responsibility for their work.
9 In order for this to A definition of done Continuous flow Trust An information radiator
effectively take place, what
must the team members
build?

Project Leader and


Who should attend the Sponsor and Executive Project Manager and
10 Customer The entire team
stand-up meetings? Management only Technical Leads only
Representatives only

In scrum the team activity is


11 monitored and coordinated hourl daily weekly monthly
on ......... Basis

Scrum is iterative. The


12 sprite IT1 sprint sprinte
iteration is called ..
Scrum eliminates many of
the tasks required of a lead
13 TRUE FALSE
because teams become self-
organizing
The scrum approach
originated with agile
14 software development as improve communication increase throughput increase risk All of Above
practitioners looked for
ways to
15 The main roles in Scrum are ScrumMaster Product Owner Team All the above
Select the developer- Both Portability and
16 Portability Maintainability Availability
specific requirement? Maintainability
Which one of the following
17 is not a step of requirement elicitation design analysis documentation
engineering?
A stakeholder is anyone
who will purchase the
18 TRUE FALSE
completed software system
under development.

Requirements can be
checked against following
conditions. 1) If they cannot
be practically implemented.
19 TRUE FALSE
2) If they are not valid and
as per functionality and
domain of software. 3) If
there are no ambiguities.
The process to gather the
software requirements from
Requirement engineering Requirement elicitation User interface
20 Client, Analyze and Software system analyst
process process requirements
Document is known as
______ .
Which of these primary To define a set of
To establish a basis for
objectives have to be To describe what the requirements that can be
21 the creation of a All mentioned above
achieved for the customer requires validated once the
software design
requirement model? software
The ability of the system
It is a degree to which It cannot be enhanced by to behave consistently in
Which of the following
software running on one using languages, OS’ and a user-acceptable manner
statements explains
22 platform can easily be tools that are universally when operating within None of the mentioned
portability in non-functional
converted to run on available and the environment for
requirements? *
another platform standardized which the system was
intended

1) Software does not wear-


out in the traditional sense Software suffers from Defects are more likely to Multiple change requests
Software spare parts become
23 of the term, but software exposure to hostile arise after software has introduce errors in
harder to order
does tend to deteriorate as environments. been used often. component interactions.
it evolves, because:
The requirements
Consistency and
document also describes
completeness of Prototyping is a method Requirements review is carried
2) Which one of the how the requirements that
24 functional requirements of requirements out to find the errors in system
following is TRUE? are listed in the document
are always achieved in validation design
are implemented
practice.
efficiently.
3) In the Spiral model of
software development, the Adopted process such as
25 primary determinant in Iteration size Cost Rational Unified Process Risk
selecting activities in each or Extreme Programming
iteration is
4) Which of the following
requirement specifications
can be validated?<br>
(S1) If the system fails
during any operation, there
should not be any loss of
data<br>
(S2) The system must
provide reasonable
performance even under
26 maximum load S4 and S3 S4 and S2 S3 and S1 S2 and S1
conditions<br>
(S3) The software
executable must be
deployable under MS
Windows 95, 2000 and
XP<br>
(S4) User interface
windows must fit on a
standard monitor's screen
1) Waterfall model a)
Specifications can be
developed incrementally

2) Evolutionary model b)
Requirements compromises
are inevitable
27 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
3) Component-based c)
Explicit recognition of
risksoftware engineering

4) Spiral development d)
Inflexible partitioning of the
project into stages

What is the appropriate


pairing of items in the two
columns listing various
activities encountered in a
software life cycle?
P. Requirements Capture
1.Module Development and
Integration
28 P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Q. Design
2.Domain Analysis
R. Implementation
3.Structural and Behavioural
Modeling
S. Maintenance
4.Performance Tuning
Re-constructing the
original source code from Scrapping the source Re-organising and
Translating source code of an
Software re-engineering is the existing machine (low - code of a software and re modifying existing
29 existing software to a new
concerned with: level) code program and writing it entirely from software systems to make
machine (low - level) language
modifying it to make it scratch. them more maintainable.
more user - friendly

a reasonable approach a useful approach when a The best approach to use


The prototyping model of A risky model that rarely
30 when requirements are customer cannot define for projects with large
software development is: produces a meaningful product
well-defined requirements clearly development teams.
The extent to which the s/w
can continue to operate
31 correctly despite the Reliability Robustness Fault tolerance Portability
introduction of invalid
inputs is called as
The importance of self-
Which of the following is organizing teams as well as
Emphasis on rapid
not a key issue stressed by communication and Recognition that change Having a separate testing
32 delivery of software that
an agile philosophy of collaboration between represents opportunity phase after a build phase.
satisfies the customer.
software engineering? team members and
customers.
A Software Requirements
Specification (SRS)
Non-functional Interfaces with third party
33 document should avoid User interface issues Design specification
requirements software
discussing which one of the
following?
Which one of the following
is NOT desired in a good
Non-Functional Algorithms for Software
34 Software Requirement Functional Requirements Goals of Implementation
Requirements Implementation
Specifications (SRS)
document?

Which one of the following


35 Maintainability Portability Robustness none of the mentioned
is a functional requirement
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Software Engineering Solved MCQs

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Software Engineering Solved MCQs

SET-1

1) What is Software ?
a. Set of computer programs, procedures and possibly associated document
concerned with the operation of data processing.
b. A set of compiler instructions
c. A mathematical formula
d. None of above

Answer = A
Explanation: Computer software or just software, is a collection of computer programs
and related data that provides the instructions for telling a computer what to do and
how to do it.
2) Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ?
a. Software does not wear out
b. Software is flexible
c. Software is not manufactured
d. Software is always correct

Answer = D
Explanation:A Software is not correct until it meets all the user requirements.
3) Which of the following is not a product matrix ?
a. Size
b. Reliability
c. Productivity
d. Functionality

Answer = C
Explanation: Software metric are used to quantitatively characterize the different
aspects of software process or software product. Product metrics are the
measures for the software product.
4)Which of the following is not a process metric ?
a. Productivity
b. Functionality
c. Quality
d. Efficiency

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Answer = B
Explanation: Software metric are used to quantitatively characterize the different
aspects of software process or software product.Process metrics qualify the
attributes of software development and environment.
5) Efforts is measured in terms of ?
a. Person - Months
b. Persons
c. Rupees
d. Months

Answer = A
Explanation:Most appropriate unit of Effort is Person-Months , meaning thereby
number of persons involved for specified months

6) Infrastructure software are covered under ?


a. Generic Products
b. Customised Products
c. Generic and Customised Products
d. None of the above

Answer = A
Explanation:Generic products are developed for anonymous customers. The
target is generally the entire world and many copies are expected to be sold.
Infrastructure software like operating systems, compilers, word processors etc
are covered under this category.
7) Management of software development is dependent upon ?
a. People
b. Product
c. Process
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation:The management of software development is dependent upon four
factors : People, Product, Process and Project.
8) During software development which factor is most crucial ?
a. People
b. Process
c. Product
d. Project

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Answer = A
Explanation:Software development requires good managers. The manager who
can understand the requirements of people. Hence , people are the crucial and
criticle during software development.
9) Milestones are used to ?
a. Know the cost of the project
b. Know the status of the project
c. Know the user expectations
d. None of the above

Answer =A
Explanation:Milestones are used to measure the process or status of the project
10) The term module in the design phase refers to ?
a. Functions
b. Procedures
c. Sub programs
d. All of the above

Answer =D
Explanation: All the terms have the same meaning.

SET-2

1) Spiral Model was developed by?


a. Bev Littlewood
b. Berry Bohem
c. Roger Pressman
d. Victor Bisili

Answer = B
Explanation: Spiral model was developed by Berry Bohem in 1986 in his article "A
Spiral Model of Software Development and Enhancement"
2) Which model is popular for students small projects ?
a. Waterfall Model
b. Spiral Model
c. Quick and Fix model
d. Prototyping Model

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation

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3) Which is not a software life cycle model?
a. Spiral Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping Model
d. Capability maturity Model

Answer = D
Explanation:Capability maturity model is not a software life cycle model

4) Project risk factor is considered in ?


a. Spiral Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping Model
d. Iterative enhancement Model

Answer = A
Explanation:Aim of Risk analysis phase in the spiral model is to eliminate the
high risk problems before they threaten the project operation or cost.

5) SDLC stands for ?


a. Software design life cycle
b. Software development life cycle
c. System design life cycle
d. System development life cycle

Answer = B
Explanation:Full form of SDLC is software development life cycle.

6) Build and Fix model has?


a. 3 Phases
b. 1 Phases
c. 2 Phases
d. 4 Phases

Answer = C
Explanation:Build and fix model has 2 phases one is " build " and other is " fix " .

7) SRS stands for ?


a. Software requirement specification
b. Software requirement solution
c. System requirement specification
d. None of Above

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Answer = A
Explanation: SRS acts as a contract between the developer and the user.

8) Waterfall model is not suitable for ?


a. Small Projects
b. Complex Projects
c. Accommodating change
d. None of Above

Answer = C
Explanation:Waterfall model does not accommodate any change that's why this
model is used in those situations where requirements are well understood.

9) RAD stands for ?


a. Rapid Application Development
b. Relative Application Development
c. Ready Application Development
d. Repeated Application Development

Answer =A
Explanation:No Explanation for this question.

10) RAD Model was purposed by ?


a. IBM
b. Motorola
c. Microsoft
d. Lucent Technologies

Answer =A
Explanation:RAD Model was purposed by IBM in 1980s through the book of
James Martin entitles "Rapid Application Development"

SET-3

1) Software engineering aims at developing ?


a. Reliable Software
b. Cost Effective Software
c. Reliable and cost effective Software
d. None Of Above

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Answer = C
Explanation:Software engineering is the process that aims at developing the
software's that are Reliable and cost effective as well.

2) A good specification should be ?


a. Unambiguous
b. Distinctly Specific
c. Functional
d. All of Above

Answer = D
Explanation:A good specification should have all the qualities such as
unambiguos, distinctly specific and functional.

3) Which of the following is a tool in design phase ?


a. Abstraction
b. Refinement
c. Information Hiding
d. All of Above

Answer = D
4) Information hiding is to hide from user, details ?
a. that are relevant to him
b. that are not relevant to him
c. that may be maliciously handled by him
d. that are confidential

Answer = C
Explanation:Information hiding is just the process of making inaccessible certain
details that have no effect on the other parts of the program.

5) Which of the following comments about object oriented design of software, is


not true ?
a. Objects inherit the properties of class
b. Classes are defined based on the attributes of objects
c. an object can belong to two classes
d. classes are always different

Answer = C
Explanation:An object can not belong to two classes.

6) Design phase includes?

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a. data, architectural and procedural design only
b. architectural, procedural and interface design only
c. data, architectural and interface design only
d. data, architectural, interface and procedural design

Answer = D
Explanation:Design phase included the design of whole software including data,
architectural, interface and procedural design.

7) To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in


assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ?
a. 13 programmers
b. 10 programmers
c. 8 programmers
d. 100/13 programmers

Answer = C
Explanation: Writing the whole program in FORTRAN takes 100 man-day,
remaining 1% code requires 4 man-day. If it is completed in 13 days then 104/13 =
8 programmers it required.
8) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly
language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing
the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 13
d. 8

Answer = B
Explanation:The first case takes 99+10=109 man-day. The second case require
100+4=104 man-day. Percentage = (109-104)*100/100 = 5

9) If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the


execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and
rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 0.9
b. 0.8
c. 8
d. 9

Answer = B
Explanation:Let the first case takes 100 units of time to execute. Second case will

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take 99 +(1/5) units of time. As the 1% coding in assembly language will take 1/5
units of time. Hence the required percentage = 0.8*100/100 = 0.8.

10) If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in


assembly language the percentage increase in the execution time, compared to
writing the 1% in assembly language is ?
a. 0.9
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. 0

Answer = D
Explanation:In both cases the final program will have the same 99% of code in
FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly language. Hence the execution time
will remain same.

SET-4

1) White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called ?


a. Basic path
b. Graph Testing
c. Dataflow
d. Glass box testing

Answer = D
Explanation: White box testing also named as clear box testing, transparent
testing, glass box testing and structural testing. It is a method in which the
internal structure of application is tested.

2) Black box testing sometimes called ?


a. Data Flow testing
b. Loop Testing
c. Behavioral Testing
d. Graph Based Testing

Answer = C
Explanation: Black box testing is a method that tests for the functionality of an
application.

3) Which of the following is a type of testing ?


a. Recovery Testing
b. Security Testing

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c. Stress Testing
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: Recovery testing is a method for testing how well a software can
recover from crashes. Security testing ensures that the software protects the
data and performs its all functions. Stress testing determines the robustness of
software.
4) The objective of testing is ?
a. Debugging
b. To uncover errors
c. To gain modularity
d. To analyze system

Answer = B
Explanation: The main objecting of testing is to make the software error free.

5) ...... is a black box testing method ?


a. Boundary value analysis
b. Basic path testing
c. Code path analysis
d. None of above

Answer = A
Explanation:In boundary value analysis, we choose an input from test cases from
an equivalence class such that the input lies on the edge of equivalence class.

6) Structured programming codes includes ?


a. sequencing
b. alteration
c. iteration
d. multiple exit from loops
e. only A, B and C

Answer = E
Explanation:These three constructs are sufficient to program any algorithm.
Moreover, as far as possible single entry single exit control constructs are used.
7) An important aspect of coding is ?
a. Readability
b. Productivity
c. To use as small memory space as possible

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d. brevity

Answer = A
Explanation:Readability and understandability as a clear objective of coding
activity can itself help in producing software that is more maintainable.

8) Data structure suitable for the application is discussed in ?


a. data design
b. architectural design
c. procedural design
d. interface design

Answer = A
Explanation: Data design is the first and most important design activity, where
the main issue is to select the appropriate data structure.

9) In object oriented design of software , objects have ?


a. attributes and names only
b. operations and names only
c. attributes, name and operations
d. None of above

Answer = C
Explanation: The objects contains attributes, names and operations as well.

10) Function oriented metrics were first proposed by ?


a. John
b. Gaffney
c. Albrecht
d. Basili

Answer = C
Explanation:Albrecht suggests a measure called Function point, which are
derives using a empirical relationship based on the countable measures of
software information domain.

SET-5

1) Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6


operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ?
a. 48

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b. 120
c. 720
d. insufficient data

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation
2) In the system conceps, term organization ?
a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component fuctions with other components of
the system
c. refers to the holism of system
d. means that part of the computer system depend on one another

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation
3) In the system concepts, the term integration ?
a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other components
of the system
c. means that parts of computer system depends on one another
d. refers to the holism of systems

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation
4) Project indicator enables a software project manager to ?
a. assess the status of an ongoing project
b. track potential risks
c. uncover problem araes before they " go critical "
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation
5) Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is
applied for each class. Class tests includes ?
a. Fault based testing
b. Random testing
c. Partition teting
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation

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6) ............ Developed a set of software quality factors that has been given the
acronym FURPS - Functinality, Usability, Reliability, performance, Supportability
?
a. Hewlett - Packard
b. Rambaugh
c. Booch
d. Jacobson

Answer = A
Explanation: No Explanation
7) In system design, we do following ?
a. Hardware design after software
b. Software design after hardware
c. Parallel hardware and software design
d. No hardware design needed

Answer = C
Explanation: No Explanation
8) The document listing all procedures and regulations that generally govern an
organization is the ?
a. Personal poling bank
b. Organizing manual
c. Administration policy manual
d. Procedure log

Answer = B Explanation: No Explanation


9) A turnkey package includes ?
a. Software
b. Hardware
c. Traning
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: No Explanation
10) Detailed design is expressed by ?
a. CSPEC
b. PSPEC
c. MINI SPEC
d. Code SPEC

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Answer = C
Explanation: No Explanation

SET-6

1) In functional decomposition, the data flow diagram ?


a. is ignored
b. is partitioned according to the closeness of the datagram and storage items
c. is partitioned according to the logical closeness of the actigram
d. Both A and C
e. None of above

Answer = C
Explanation: N/A

2) Which of the following is done in order a data in phase 1 of the system


development life cycle ?
a. Reviewing policies and procedures
b. Using questionnaires to contact surveys
c. Conducting Interviews
d. All of above
e. None of above

Answer = D
Explanation: N/A

3) A graphic representation of an information system is called ?


a. Flow chart
b. Pictogram
c. Data flow diagram
d. Histogram
e. None of above

Answer = C
Explanation:N/A

4) To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system
analyst should ?
a. Provide for a check digit

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b. Provide for a hash totals
c. Provide batch totals
d. All of above

Answer = D
Explanation: N/A

5) In the system concepts, the term integration ?


a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other component of
the system
c. means that part of the computer system depend on one another
d. refers to the holism of system
e. None of above

Answer = D
Explanation: system integration is the bringing together of the component
subsystems into one system and ensuring that the subsystems function together
as a system. In information technology, systems integration is the process of
linking together different computing systems and software applications
physically or functionally, to act as a coordinated whole

6) RAD is a linear sequential software development process model. RAD is an


acronym for ?
a. Rapid Application Development
b. Rapid Action Development
c. Rough Application Development
d. Rough Action Development

Answer = A
Explanation: Rapid application development (RAD) is a software development
methodology that uses minimal planning in favor of rapid prototyping. The
"planning" of software developed using RAD is interleaved with writing the
software itself

7) In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ?


a. Technical
b. Management
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

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Answer = C
Explanation: N/A

8) The model remains operative until the software is retired ?


a. Waterfall
b. Incremental
c. Spiral
d. None of these

Answer = C
Explanation: The spiral model is based on continuous refinement of key products
for requirements definition and analysis, system and software design, and
implementation (the code). At each iteration around the cycle, the products are
extensions of an earlier product. This model uses many of the same phases as
the waterfall model, in essentially the same order, separated by planning, risk
assessment, and the building of prototypes and simulations

9) A quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or


process posses a given attribute ?
a. Measure
b. Measurement
c. Metric
d. None of these

Answer = C
Explanation: N/A

10) RAD is not appropriate when ?


a. Fast finding already done
b. Technical risks are high
c. Testing is not needed
d. None of above

Answer = B
Explanation: RAD model may not be useful for large, unique or highly complex
projects.This method cannot be a success if the team is not sufficiently
motivated and nor is unable to work cohesively together.

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AC16 Software Engineering

TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS


PART I
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Each Question carries 2 marks.

Choose the correct or best alternative in the following:

Q.1 The most important feature of spiral model is


(A) requirement analysis. (B) risk management.
(C) quality management. (D) configuration management.

Ans: B

Q.2 The worst type of coupling is


(A) Data coupling. (B) control coupling.
(C) stamp coupling. (D) content coupling.

Ans: D

Q.3 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for


(A) Software requirement specification.
(B) Software design.
(C) Testing.
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Ans: A

Q.4 One of the fault base testing techniques is


(A) unit testing. (B) beta testing.
(C) Stress testing. (D) mutation testing.

Ans: D

Q.5 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the
required features is called
(A) Preventative maintenance.
(B) Adaptive maintenance.
(C) Corrective maintenance.
(D) Perfective maintenance.

Ans: D

Q.6 All the modules of the system are integrated and tested as complete system in the
case of
(A) Bottom up testing (B) Top-down testing
(C) Sandwich testing (D) Big-Bang testing

Ans: D

1
AC16 Software Engineering

Q.7 If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has
only one interpretation, SRS is said to be
(A) correct. (B) unambiguous.
(C) consistent. (D) verifiable.

Ans: B

Q.8 A fault simulation testing technique is


(A) Mutation testing (B) Stress testing
(C) Black box testing (D) White box testing

Ans: A

Q.9 Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data, then the cohesion is
(A) Sequential (B) Communicational
(C) Procedural (D) Logical

Ans: B

Q.10 If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with
(A) Object Oriented Analysis.
(B) Object Oriented Design
(C) Object Oriented Analysis & Design
(D) None of the above

Ans: A

Q.11 SRS is also known as specification of


(A) White box testing (B) Stress testing
(C) Integrated testing (D) Black box testing

Ans: D

Q.12 The model in which the requirements are implemented by category is


(A) Evolutionary Development Model
(B) Waterfall Model
(C) Prototyping
(D) Iterative Enhancement Model

Ans: A

Q.13 SRD stands for


(A) Software requirements definition
(B) Structured requirements definition
(C) Software requirements diagram
(D) Structured requirements diagram

Ans: B

Q.14 A COCOMO model is

2
AC16 Software Engineering

(A) Common Cost Estimation Model.


(B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
(C) Complete Cost Estimation Model.
(D) Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model.

Ans: B

Q.15 Which of the following statements is true


(A) Abstract data types are the same as classes
(B) Abstract data types do not allow inheritance
(C) Classes cannot inherit from the same base class
(D) Object have state and behavior

Ans: B

Q.16 The desired level of coupling is


(A) No coupling (B) Control coupling
(C) Common coupling (D) Data coupling

Ans: D

Q.17 In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed


(A) In the first loop (B) in the first and second loop
(C) In every loop (D) before using spiral model

Ans: C

Q.18 For a well understood data processing application it is best to use


(A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model
(C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model

Ans: A

Q.19 Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a


(A) cause-effect graph (B) dependence matrix
(C) Structure chart (D) SRS

Ans: B

Q.20 The symbol represents

(A) mandatory 1 cardinality (B) mandatory many cardinality


(C) optional 0 or 1 cardinality (D) optional zero-many cardinality

Ans: D

Q.21 Each time a defect gets detected and fixed, the reliability of a software product
(A) increases. (B) decreases.
(C) remains constant. (D) cannot say anything.
Ans: A

3
AC16 Software Engineering

Q.22 Output comparators are used in


(A) static testing of single module
(B) dynamic testing of single module
(C) static testing of single and multiple module
(D) dynamic testing of single and multiple module

Ans: D

Q.23 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is
(A) object. (B) class.
(C) inheritance. (D) aggregation.

Ans: C

Q.24 The level at which the software uses scarce resources is


(A) reliability (B) efficiency
(C) portability (D) all of the above

Ans: B

Q.25 If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is
(A) verifiable (B) traceable
(C) modifiable (D) complete

Ans: A

Q.26 Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called
(A) adaptive maintenance (B) corrective maintenance
(C) perfective maintenance (D) preventive maintenance

Ans: A

Q.27 All activities lying on critical path have slack time equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) None of above

Ans: A

Q.28 Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of


(A) Acceptance testing (B) Integration testing
(C) System Testing (D) Unit testing

Ans: A

Q.29 An object encapsulates


(A) Data (B) Behaviour
(C) State (D) Both Data and behaviour

Ans: D

4
AC16 Software Engineering

Q.30 In function point analysis, number of general system characteristics used to rate the
system are
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 20 (D) 12

Ans: B

Q.31 Aggregation represents


(A) is_a relationship (B) part_of relationship
(C) composed_of relationship (D) none of above

Ans: C

Q.32 If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as


(A) RE = P/L (B) RE = P + L
(C) RE = P*L (D) RE = 2* P *L

Ans: C

Q.33 Number of clauses used in ISO 9001 to specify quality system requirements are:
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 25 (D) 28

Ans: B

Q.34 ER model shows the


(A) Static view. (B) Functional view.
(C) Dynamic view. (D) All the above.

Ans: A

Q.35 The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle are called:
(A) CASE Tools (B) CAME tools
(C) CAQE tools (D) CARE tools

Ans: A

Q.36 Changes made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called
(A) Preventive Maintenance (B) Adaptive Maintenance
(C) Corrective Maintenance (D) Perfective Maintenance

Ans: A

Q.37 Requirements can be refined using


(A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model
(C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model

Ans: B

5
AC16 Software Engineering

Q.38 The model that assumes that effort and development time are functions of product
size alone is
(A) Basic COCOMO model (B) Intermediate COCOMO model
(C) Detailed COCOMO model (D) All the three COCOMO models

Ans: A

Q.39 Structured charts are a product of


(A) requirements gathering (B) requirements analysis
(C) design (D) coding

Ans: C

Q.40 The problem that threatens the success of a project but which has not yet happened is
a
(A) bug (B) error
(C) risk (D) failure

Ans: C

Q.41 The main purpose of integration testing is to find


(A) design errors (B) analysis errors
(C) procedure errors (D) interface errors

Ans: D

Q.42 Pseudocode can replace


(A) flowcharts (B) structure charts
(C) decision tables (D) cause-effect graphs

Ans: A

Q.43 If a program in its functioning has not met user requirements is some way, then it is
(A) an error. (B) a failure.
(C) a fault. (D) a defect.

Ans: D

Q.44 The testing that focuses on the variables is called


(A) black box testing (B) white box testing
(C) data variable testing (D) data flow testing

Ans: A

Q.45 CASE Tool is


(A) Computer Aided Software Engineering
(B) Component Aided Software Engineering
(C) Constructive Aided Software Engineering
(D) Computer Analysis Software Engineering

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Ans: A

Q.46 Software consists of


(A) Set of instructions + operating procedures
(B) Programs + documentation + operating procedures
(C) Programs + hardware manuals
(D) Set of programs

Ans: B

Q.47 Which is the most important feature of spiral model?


(A) Quality management (B) Risk management
(C) Performance management (D) Efficiency management

Ans: B

Q.48 Which phase is not available in software life cycle?


(A) Coding (B) Testing
(C) Maintenance (D) Abstraction

Ans: D

Q.49 Which is not a step of requirement engineering?


(A) Requirements elicitation (B) Requirements analysis
(C) Requirements design (D) Requirements documentation

Ans: C

Q.50 FAST stands for


(A) Functional Application Specification Technique
(B) Fast Application Specification Technique
(C) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
(D) None of the above

Ans: C

Q.51 For a function of two variables, boundary value analysis yields


(A) 4n + 3 test cases (B) 4n + 1 test cases
(C) n + 4 (D) None of the above

Ans: B

Q.52 Site for Alpha Testing is


(A) Software Company (B) Installation place
(C) Any where (D) None of the above

Ans: A

Q.53 Which is not a size metric?


(A) LOC (B) Function count

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(C) Program length (D) Cyclomatic complexity

Ans: D

Q.54 As the reliability increases, failure intensity


(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) no effect (D) none of the above

Ans: A

Q.55 Software deteriorates rather than wears out because


(A) software suffers from exposure to hostile environments.
(B) defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often.
(C) multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions.
(D) software spare parts become harder to order.

Ans: B

Q.56 What are the three generic phases of software engineering?


(A) Definition, development, support
(B) What, how, where
(C) Programming, debugging, maintenance
(D) Analysis, design, testing

Ans: A

Q.57 The spiral model of software development


(A) Ends with the delivery of the software product
(B) Is more chaotic than the incremental model
(C) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
(D) All of the above

Ans: C

Q.58 Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model?
(A) Ad hoc (B) Repeatable
(C) Reusable (D) Organized

Ans: C

Q.59 Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
(A) Process (B) Manufacturing
(C) Methods (D) Tools

Ans: B

Q.60 Which of the following are advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-
oriented metric?
(A) LOC is easily computed.
(B) LOC is a language dependent measure.

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(C) LOC is a language independent measure.


(D) LOC can be computed before a design is completed.

Ans: A

Q.61 Top down approach is used for


(A) development. (B) identification of faults.
(C) testing and validation. (D) reverse engineering.
Ans: A

Q.62 Which of the following is not an attribute of software engineering


(A) Efficiency. (B) Scalability.
(C) Dependability. (D) Usability.

Ans: C

Q.63 A key concept of quality control is that all work products


(A) are delivered on time and under budget
(B) have complete documentation
(C) have measurable specification for process outputs
(D) are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer

Ans: C

Q.64 The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is
(A) ISO 9000 (B) ISO 9001
(C) ISO 9002 (D) ISO 9003

Ans: B

Q.65 What types of models are created during software requirements analysis?
(A) Functional and behavioral (B) Algorithmic and data structure
(C) Architectural and structural (D) Usability and reliability

Ans: A

Q.66 What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?
(A) unit, integration, system, validation
(B) system, integration, unit, validation
(C) unit, integration, validation, system
(D) none of the above

Ans: A

Q.67 Software feasibility is based on which of the following


(A) business and marketing concerns
(B) scope, constraints, market
(C) technology, finance, time, resources
(D) technical prowess of the developers

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Ans: C

Q.68 FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on


(A) information domain values (B) project schedule
(C) software functions (D) process activities

Ans: C

Q.69 The software metrics chosen by an organization are driven by the business or
technical goals an organization wishes to accomplish.
(A) True (B) False

Ans: A

Q.70 The goal of quality assurance is to provide management with the data needed to
determine which software engineers are producing the most defects.
(A) True (B) False

Ans: B

Q.71 In the context of requirements analysis, partitioning results in the elaboration of data,
function, or behavior.
(A) True (B) False

Ans: A

Q.72 Units and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are tested
independently of one another
(A) True (B) False

Ans: A

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PART II
DESCRIPTIVES
Q1 Define a software process. How do software myths affect a software process ?

Ans:Software process is a Coherent set of activities for specifying, designing,


implementing and testing software systems.
Software myths propagates misinformation and confusion. Software myths had a no of
attributes. For instance, they appeared to be reasonable statements of fact, they had an
intuitive feel , and they were often promulgated by experienced practitioners who
“know the score” .

Q 2 What is the advantage of using prototype software development model instead of


waterfall model? Also explain the effect of defining a prototype on the overall cost of
the software project?

Ans:The waterfall model: This is the classic SDLC model, with a linear and sequential
method that has goals for each development phase. The waterfall model simplifies task
scheduling, because there are no iterative or overlapping steps. One drawback of the
waterfall is that it does not allow for much revision.
The prototyping model: In this model, a prototype (an early approximation of a final
system or product) is built, tested, and then reworked as necessary until an acceptable
prototype is finally achieved from which the complete system or product can now be
developed.

Q 3 How does the risk factor affect the spiral model of software development?

Ans:Risk Analysis phase is the most important part of "Spiral Model". In this phase all
possible (and available) alternatives, which can help in developing a cost effective
project are analyzed and strategies are decided to use them. This phase has been added
specially in order to identify and resolve all the possible risks in the project
development. If risks indicate any kind of uncertainty in requirements, prototyping may
be used to proceed with the available data and find out possible solution in order to deal
with the potential changes in the requirements.

Q 4 Define software reliability. What is the difference between hardware & software
reliability?

Ans:Software reliability is the probability that software will provide failure-free


operation in a fixed environment for a fixed interval of time. Probability of failure is the
probability that the software will fail on the next input selected. Software reliability is
typically measured per some unit of time, whereas probability of failure is generally
time independent. These two measures can be easily related if you know the frequency
with which inputs are executed per unit of time. Mean-time-to-failure is the average
interval of time between failures; this is also sometimes referred to as Mean-time-
before-failure.
Software reliability tends to change continually during test periods. While hardware
reliability may change during certain periods such as initial burn in or the end of useful
life however it has a much greater tendency then software value.

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Hardware faults are not physical faults whereas software faults are design faults that are
harder to visualise, classify, detect and correct. In reality, the division between
hardware and software reliability is somewhat artificial. Both may be defined in the
same way therefore one may combine hardware and software reliability to get system
reliability. The source of failure in hardware has generally being physically
deterioration.

Q5 Explain the following reliability model:


(i) Basic model (ii) Logarithmic (iii) Poisson Model

Ans: (i) Basic Execution Time Model


The model was developed by J.D. MUSA (MUSA79) in 1979 and is based on execution
time. It is assumed that failures may occur according to a non-homogeneous Poisson
Process (NHPP) Real world events may be described using Poisson processes. Example
of Poisson processes are:
 Number of telephone calls expected in a given period of time
 Expected number of road accidents in a given period of time
 Expected number of persons visiting in a shopping mall in a given period of time.
In this model, the decrease in failure intensity, as a function of the number of failures
observed, is constant and is given as:
 µ
λ ( µ ) = λ 0 1 − 
 V0 
Where: Initial failure intensity at the start of execution.
V0: Number of failures experienced, if program is executed for
Infinite time period.
µ : Average or expected number of failures experienced at a given point in time.
This model implies a uniform operational profile. If all input classes are selected
equally often, the various faults have an equal probability of manifesting themselves.
The correction of any of those faults then contributes an equal decrease in the failure
intensity. The negative sign shown that there is a negative slope meaning thereby a
decrementing trend in failure intensity.
(ii) & (iii) Logarithmic Poisson Execution Time Model
This model is also developed by Musa et. Al. (MUSA79). The failure intensity function
is different here as compared to Bias model. In this case, failure intensity function
(decrement per failure) decreases exponentially whereas it is constant for basic model.
This failure intensity function is given as:
λ(µ) = λ0 exp(-θµ)
Where θ is called the failure intensity decay parameter.
The θ represents the relative change of allure intensity per failure experienced. Failure
intensity of the logarithmic Poisson execution time model drops more rapidly initially
than that of the basic model and later it drops more slowly.
The expression for failure intensity is given as:
λ(ι)=λ0/(λ0θι+1)
The relations for the additional number of failures and additional execution time in this
model are:
Hence, at larger values of execution time, the logarithmic Poisson model will have
larger values of failure intensity than the basic model.

Q 6 Distinguish software faults and software failures

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Ans: In case of a failure, the software does not do what the user expects. A fault is a
programming error that may or may not actually manifest as a failure. A fault can also
be described as an error in the correctness of the semantic of a computer program. A
fault will become a failure if the exact computation conditions are met, one of them
being that the faulty portion of computer software executes on the CPU. A fault can
also turn into a failure when the software is ported to a different hardware platform or a
different compiler, or when the software gets extended.

Q 7 Why is SRS also known as the blackbox specification of system ?

Ans: SRS document is a contract between the development team and the customer.
Once the SRS document is approved by the customer, any subsequent controversies are
settled by referring the SRS document. The SRS document is known as black-box
specification. Since the system is considered as a black box whose internal details are
not known and only its visible external (i.e. input/output) behaviour is documented.
SRS document concentrates on what needs to be done and carefully avoids the solution
(“how to do”) aspects. The SRS document serves as a contract between development
team and the customer. SRS should be carefully written. The requirements at the SRS
stage are written using end-user terminology. If necessary later a formal requirement
specification may be developed from it.

Q8 Write short notes on


(i) Configuration Management
(ii) Key process areas of Capability Maturity model(CMM)

Ans: (i) Software configuration management is a set of tracking and control activities
that begin when a software project begins and terminate only when the software is taken
out of operation. Configuration control has the following meanings:
• The management of security features and assurances through control of
changes made to hardware, software, firmware, documentation, test, test
fixtures and test documentation of an automated information system,
throughout the development and operational life of a system. Source Code
Management or revision control is part of this.
• The control of changes--including the recording thereof--that are made to
the hardware, software, firmware, and documentation throughout the
system lifecycle.
• The control and adaption of the evolution of complex systems. It is the
discipline of keeping evolving software products under control, and thus
contributes to satisfying quality and delay constraints. Software
configuration management (or SCM) can be divided into two areas. The
first (and older) area of SCM concerns the storage of the entities produced
during the software development project, sometimes referred to as
component repository management. The second area concerns the activities
performed for the production and/or change of these entities; the term
engineering support is often used to refer this second area.
• After establishing a configuration, such as that of a telecommunications or
computer system, the evaluating and approving changes to the
configuration and to the interrelationships among system components.
• In distributed-queue dual-bus (DQDB) networks, the function that ensures
the resources of all nodes of a DQDB network are configured into a correct

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dual-bus topology. The functions that are managed include the head of bus,
external timing source, and default slot generator functions.
(ii) Key process areas of Capability Maturity model (CMM)
Predictability, effectiveness, and control of an organization's software processes are
believed to improve as the organization moves up these five levels. While not rigorous,
the empirical evidence to date supports this belief.

Except for Level 1, each maturity level is decomposed into several key process areas
that indicate the areas an organization should focus on to improve its software process.
The key process areas at Level 2 focus on the project's concerns related to establishing
basic project management controls. They are Requirements Management, Project
Planning, Project Tracking and Oversight, Subcontract Management, Quality
Assurance, and Configuration Management.
The key process areas at Level 3 address both project and organizational issues, as the
organization establishes an infrastructure that institutionalizes effective engineering
and management processes across all projects. They are Organization Process Focus,
Organization Process Definition, Training Program, Integrated Management, Product
Engineering, Intergroup Coordination, and Peer Reviews.
The key process areas at Level 4 focus on establishing a quantitative understanding of
both the process and the work products being built. They are Quantitative Process
Management and Quality Management.
The key process areas at Level 5 cover the issues that both the organization and the
projects must address to implement continual, measurable software process
improvement. They are Defect Prevention, Technology Change Management, and
Process Change Management.
Each key process area is described in terms of the key practices that contribute to
satisfying its goals. The key practices describe the infrastructure and activities that
contribute most to the effective implementation and institutionalization of the key
process area.

Q 9 Explain cause effect graphing .

Ans: Cause-effect graphing is a test case design technique that provides a concise
representation of logical conditions and corresponding actions.
There are four steps:
1. Causes (input conditions) and effects (actions) are listed for a module and an
identifier is assigned to each.

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2. A cause-effect graph is developed.


3. The graph is converted to a decision table.
4. Decision table rules are converted to test cases.

Q10 Write a short note on structure chart. (6)

Ans: Structure Chart is an important program design technique and shows all
components of code in a hierarchical format.
Structure Chart Elements

Module
Conditional Line
Off
1.2
Page
Calculate
Current GPA

Library Module

1.2 Control On
Calculate Couple page
Current GPA

Loop Data

Building the Structure Chart


• Processes in the DFD tend to represent one module on the structure chart
o Afferent processes – provide inputs to system
o Central processes – perform critical system operations
o Efferent processes – handle system outputs
• The DFD leveling can correspond to the structure chart hierarchy
Types of Structure Charts
• Transaction structure – control module calls subordinate modules, each of which
handles a particular transaction
o Many afferent processes
o Few efferent processes
o Higher up levels of structure chart
o Using inputs to create a new output

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• Transform structure – control module calls several subordinate modules in


sequence

• Each subordinate performs a step in a process that transforms an input into an


output
o Few afferent processes
o Many efferent processes
o Lower levels of structure chart
o Coordinates the movement of outputs
Steps in Building the Structure Chart
1. Identify top level modules and decompose them into lower levels
2. Add control connections
3. Add couples
4. Review and revise again and again until complete
Design Guidelines
• High quality structure charts result in programs that are modular, reusable and easy to
implement.
• Measures include:
o Cohesion
o Coupling
o Appropriate levels of fan-in and fan-out

Q 11 For the DFD given in Fig.2 design the structure chart. (8)

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Ans:
Main

Get Job Get Pay Calculate Calc Put Out


Ticket Table Job Cost Variance Record

Get Check Get Get Mod Accum Put


Formatted Limit Table Paras Table Summary
Ticket

Get Input Check


Format

Q12 Compare the basic COCOMO model with the detailed COCOMO model .

Ans. COCOMO consists of a hierarchy of three increasingly detailed and accurate


forms.
• Basic COCOMO - is a static single-valued model that computes software
development effort (and cost) as a function of program size expressed in
estimated lines of code.
• Intermediate COCOMO - computes software development effort as function of
program size and a set of "cost drivers" that include subjective assessment of
product, hardware, personnel and project attributes.
• Embedded COCOMO - incorporates all characteristics of the intermediate
version with an assessment of the cost driver's impact on each step (analysis,
design, etc.) of the software engineering process.

Q 13 Define software testing. Explain various level of testing .

Ans: Software testing is a process used to help identify the correctness,


completeness and quality of developed computer software. With that in mind,
testing can never completely establish the correctness of computer software. Only
the process of formal verification can prove that there are no defects.
“Testing is the process of demonstrating that defects are not present in the
application that was developed.”
“Testing is the activity or process which shows or demonstrates that a
program or system performs all intended functions correctly.”
“Testing is the activity of establishing the necessary “confidence” that a
program or system does what it is supposed to do, based on the set of
requirements that the user has specified.”
Testing is a process of executing a program with the intent of finding an error.
various level of testing are :
Unit Testing
Integrating testing

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Validation testing
System testing

Q 14 Differentiate between functional testing and structural testing.

Ans:Functional testing means behavioural testing or Black box testing. In this


techniques, tester design test case with the behaviour of the modules.
Structural testing means White Box testing. In this testing, tester design test cases
from the structure of the module.

Q 15 Explain some of the limitations of testing.

Ans: Though testing is an important part of system development and leads to a


valid, verified and efficient system, it also faces some limitation in its scope.
Following are some of such limitations.
• It is very difficult to trace out logical errors through Testing.
• Stress testing or load tests are not the realistic options and hence, it cannot be
defined that how application or module will be reacting at heavy data loads.
• In Integration testing, skeletons of different modules are used, which
cannot describe the full functioning and in-turn the complete behavior of
module they are representing.
• Being performed at later stages, testing may lead to a complete re-
development of the module under testing and hence putting all effects in
vain.

Q 16 Why is maintenance of a software important? Discuss some of the problems


that are faced during maintenance of software.

Ans: The modification of a software product, after delivery, to correct faults, to


improve performance or other attributes, or to adapt the product to a changed
environment.
Maintenance is an important part of the software life-cycle. It is expensive in
manpower and resources, and one of the aims of software engineering is to reduce its
cost.
The most important problem during maintenance is the before correcting or
modifying a program, the programmer must first understand it.
The problems are:
- Often another person or group of persons working over the years in
isolation from each other writes the program.
- Often the program is changed by person who did not understand it clearly,
resulting in a deterioration of the program’s original organization.
- There is a high staff turnover within information technology industry.
Due to this persons who are not the original authors maintain many
systems. These persons may not have adequate knowledge about the
system.
- Some problems only become clearer when a system is in use. Many users
know what they want but lack the ability to express it in a form
understandable to programmers. This is primarily due to information gap.

Q 17 Explain the reuse maintenance model with the help of a diagram.

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Ans: Reuse maintenance model: This model is based on the principal that
maintenance could be viewed as an activity involving the reuse. of existing
program components.
The reuse model has four main steps:
1. Identification of the parts of the old system that are candidates for reuse.
2. Understanding these system parts.
3. Modification of the Old system parts appropriate to the new requirements.
4. Integration of the modified parts into the new system.
With the five reuse model, the starting point may be any phase of the life
cycle. The requirements, the design, the code or the test data :- unlike other
models.

Q 18 Differentiate between object oriented and function oriented design .

Ans:• Function-oriented design relies on identifying functions which transform their


inputs to create outputs. In most systems, functions share some global system state.
• The functional design process involves identifying data transformations in the
system, decomposing functions into a hierarchy of sub-functions, describing the
operation and interface of each system entity and documenting the flow of control in
the system.
• Data-flow diagrams are a means of documenting end-to-end data flow through a
system. They do not include control information. Structure charts are a way of
representing the hierarchical organization of a system. Control may be documented
using a program description language (PDL).
• Data-flow diagrams can be implemented directly as a set of cooperating sequential
processes. Each transform in the data-flow diagram is implemented as a separate
process. Alternatively, they can be realized as a number of procedures in a sequential
program.
• Functional design and object-oriented design usually result in totally different
system decompositions. However, the most appropriate design strategy is often a
heterogeneous one where both functional and object-oriented approaches are used.

Q 19 How is software design different from coding ?

Ans: Points of difference between software design and coding can be laid down as
under:
Design :

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1. Design is most crucial and time-consuming activity


2. Screen of the system depends on the correct design specifications which is a key
activity of the process.
3. Software design is based on the findings collected in the initial investigation
phase.
4. Design includes the following:
(i) User interface design
(ii) Process Design
(iii) Database design
5. Designs are transformed into actual code or program during the implementation
phase.
6. it is more feasible to rectify design as different users may have conflicting user
requirements and only the final and valid design goes for next phase.
Coding:-
1. Involves conversion of detailed design specification laid out by designers into
actual code, files or database.
2. Less time consuming then the design phase and performed by programmers or
coders.
3. More concerned with technical aspect of the software rather than its functional
aspect.
4. Different software such as programming languages front-end tools, database
management system, utilities etc are used to facilitate the coding process.

Q 20 What problems arise if two modules have high coupling?

Ans: Coupling means the interconnection of different modules with each other or
we can say, it tells about the interrelationship of different modules of a system. A
system with high coupling means there are strong interconnections between its
modules. If two modules are involved in high coupling, it means their
interdependence will be very high. Any changes applied to one module will
affect the functionality of the other module. Greater the degree of change, greater
will be its effect on the other. As the dependence is higher, such change will
affect modules in a negative manner and in-turn, the maintainability of the
project is reduced. This will further reduce the reusability factor of individual
modules and hence lead to unsophisticated software. So, it is always desirable
to have inter-connection & interdependence between modules.

Q 21 Explain
a. the activities of software maintenance. (2)
b. key process areas of CMM. (6)

Ans:
a) Software maintenance is a broad activity that includes error correction,
enhancement of capabilities, deletion of obsolete capabilities and optimization.
b) Key process areas of CMM are
1. Requirements management which establishes a common relationship
between the customer and developer
2. Software project planning where reasonable plans for managing the
software project are established

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3. Software project tracing and oversight which establishes adequate


visibility into actual progress to help management track deviations
from plans
4. Software subcontract management for selecting efficient
subcontractors and managing them
5. Software quality assurance which provides visibility into the
software process and product
6. Software configuration management which establishes and maintains
the integrity of the products throughout the life cycle.

Q 22 Draw E-R diagram for the following situation


An account is a relationship between customer and bank. A customer has a name.
A bank has a branch. A customer may have several accounts of different type and
balance. (8)

Ans:

Bank Customer
Account
n

branch name
type balance

Q 23 Consider a program which registers students for different programs. The


students fill a form and submit it. This is sent to the departments for
confirmation. Once it is confirmed, the form and the fees is sent to the
account section. Draw a data flow diagram using SRD technique. (8)

Ans:

Department
Form

Form Seat info


and Registration
Student

Fees and
Seat info Accounts

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AC16 Software Engineering

Q 24 What are the three activities of risk assessment? (4)

Ans: The three activities are identifying, analyzing and giving priorities. Risks can
be identified by a check list or looking at previously identified risks. Risk
analysis involves examining how project outcomes may change with modification of
risk input variables. Risk prioritization helps in focus on most severe risks.

Q 25 What is a modular system? List the important properties of a modular


system. (6)

Ans: A modular system consists of well defined manageable units to well


defined interfaces among them. Desirable properties are
• Each module is a well defined subsystem useful to others
• Each module has a well defined single purpose
• Modules can be separately compiled and stored in library
• Modules can use other modules
• Modules should be easier to use than build
• Modules should have a simple interface

Q 26 Define the following:


a. Aggregation among objects.
b. Class.
c. Repeated inheritance.
d. Encapsulation.
e. Scenario. (2 x 5)

Ans:
a).Aggregation among objects
Aggregation among objects represents a relationship. It is a whole/part
relationship. Aggregation may imply containment.
b).Class
A class is a template that specifies the properties of objects. Classes have an
interface which consists of the operation, a body which implements the operations
and instance variable which contain the state of an object.
c).Repeated inheritance
If a class inherits more than once from the same class then it is referred to as
repeated inheritance.
d).Encapsulation
An object encapsulates the data and information it contains and supports a well
defined abstraction. Encapsulation leads to the separation of the interface and
implementation.
e).Scenario
A scenario is a sequence of events that occur in a particular execution of the
system. A scenario can be described textually by enumerating the sequence of
events or it can be shown as an event trace diagram in which events between
objects are shown.

Q 27 Explain the following:


(i) Equivalence class testing. (6)
(ii) User and System documentation with examples. (6)

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(iii) Core dumps. (4)

Ans:
(i) Equivalence class testing is based on partitioning the input domain of a
program into a number of equivalence classes so that the test of a representative value
of each class is equivalent to testing any other value. Two steps for this method are
Identify equivalence class by taking each input condition and partition into valid and
invalid classes.
Generate the test cases using the equivalence class of the previous step. The test cases
are generated for the valid and the invalid classes.
(ii) User documentation contains descriptions of the functions of a system without
reference to how these functions are implemented. Examples are installation guide
and reference guide. System documents contain all the facets of the system, including
analysis, specification design, implementation, testing, security error diagnosis and
recovery. Examples are SRS and system test plan.
(iii) Core dumps are a debugging technique. A printout of all relevant memory
locations is obtained and studied. All dumps should be well documented and retained
for possible use on subsequent problems. Its advantages are that a complete dump of
memory at a crucial time is obtained Require CPU and I/O time and can get
expensive if used indiscriminately. Sometimes it is difficult to interpret the dump
which is represented using hexadecimal numbers.

Q 28 Define capability. What are the quantities that determine the degree of
capability of a software reliability model? (6)

Ans: Capability refers to the ability of the model to estimate with satisfactory accuracy
quantities needed by managers; engineers and users in planning and managing
software development or running operational systems. The quantities are MTTF,
expected date of reaching reliability, resource and cost requirements to reach the
objectives.

Q.29 Explain the waterfall model. Explain why it is more advantageous than adhoc
methods.

Ans Waterfall Model:


1.The waterfall model is a sequential software development process, in which
progress is seen as flowing steadily downwards (like a waterfall) through the phases of
Conception, Initiation, analysis, design (validation), Construction, testing and
maintenance.
2. The first formal description of the waterfall model is given by Winston W. Royce in
1950, however, popular in 1970, and further refined by Barry Boehm.
3. To follow the waterfall model, one proceeds from one phase to the next in a purely
sequential manner. For example, one first completes requirements specifications,
which are set in stone. When the requirements are fully completed, one proceeds to
design.
4. Process structured as a cascade of phases where output of one is input of next.
5. Many variants of model depending on organization and specific project. However
underlying phases are same for all.
Why Waterfall model is advantageous than Adhoc Methods

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Ad-hoc Process Models-“Process capability is unpredictable because the software


process is constantly changed or modified as the work progresses. Schedules, budgets,
functionality, and product quality are generally inconsistent. Performance depends on the
capabilities of individuals and varies with their innate skills, knowledge, and
motivations. There are few stable software processes in evidence, and performance can
be predicted only by individual rather than organizational capability.” So to overcome
this problem waterfall model provides the following advantages:
a. Waterfall model is simple to follow, however real projects rarely follows this
approach.
b. Iteration is not required.
c. It is widely use because it is easy.

Q.30 What are the objectives of software design? How do we transform an informal
design to a detailed design?

Ans Objectives of software design


The purpose of the design phase is to plan a solution of the problem specified by the
requirements document. This phase is the first step in moving from the problem
domain to the solution domain. In other words, starting with what is needed; design
takes us toward how to satisfy the needs, so the basic objectives are:
• Identify different types of software, based on the usage.
• Show differences between design and coding.
• Define concepts of structured programming.
• Illustrate some basic design concepts.
• See how to design for testability and maintainability.
Non-formal methods of specification can lead to problems during coding, particularly
if the coder is a different person from the designer that is often the case. Software
designers do not arrive at a finished design document immediately but develop the
design iteratively through a number of different phases. The design process involves
adding details as the design is developed with constant backtracking to correct earlier,
less formal, designs. The transformation is done as per the following diagram.

Informal Informal More Finished


design design formal design
outline design

Q.31. Discuss the important issues that a SRS must address.

Ans. SRS is the process of establishing the services, the system should provide of
the system in new, it is difficult for software engineer to understand the nature of
problem constraints under which it must operates, so software engineer take help
of a step called requirement capture and analysis. It is first formal document

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produce in the software development process and it serves as a basis for the
contract between a producer and a software developer/supplier.
The important issues that a SRS must address are:
(a) System goals and requirements are different: Goal is a more general
characteristics.” e. g. Whole system should be designed in a user friendly
manner or more robust system”.
Requests are more testable in nature. For example all users command
selection should be only using pop up menus.
(b) Request Definition: A statement in a natural language stating what
services the system should expected to provide. It should be
understandable by clients, contractors, management & users.
(c) Request Specification: A structured document maintaining the services in
more details than definition, and precise enough to act as a contract. It
should be understandable by technical staff both at a developer and
producer’s place.
(d) Software Specification (Design Specification): It is an abstract design
description of the software which is the basis for design and
implementation. There should be a clear relationship between this
documents and the software request specification. The reader of this
document is software engineer, system analyst and project leaders.
(e) Requirement Capture and Analysis: It is the process of designing the
system request captures through: -
(i) Observation of existing system.
(ii) Discussion with potential users, producers.
(iii) Personal interviews and task analysis.
(iv) Standard published documents/reports from the user.
(f) Feasibility Study:
(i) It is estimate made weather the identified user needs can be satisfied using
the current technology.
(ii) Weather the proposed system is cost effective.
(iii) Weather it is possible to develop the system within the budgetary and time
constraints.
(g) Suggestions for preparing an SRS Document:
(i) Only specify external system behavior.
(ii)Specifying the constraints on implementation.
(iii)It should record for thought about the life cycle of the system.
(iv) It should characterize acceptable responses to the undesired events.

Q.32 Explain throw-away prototyping and evolutionary prototyping. Discuss the


differences between the two.

Ans Throw-Away Prototyping: Also called close ended prototyping.


Throwaway or Rapid Prototyping refers to the creation of a model that will
eventually be discarded rather than becoming part of the final delivered software.
Rapid Prototyping involved creating a working model of various parts of the
system at a very early stage, after a relatively short investigation. The method used
in building it is usually quite informal, the most important factor being the speed
with which the model is provided. The model then becomes the starting point from
which users can re-examine their expectations and clarify their requirements. When

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this has been achieved, the prototype model is 'thrown away', and the system is
formally developed based on the identified requirements.
The most obvious reason for using Throwaway Prototyping is that it can be done
quickly. If the users can get quick feedback on their requirements, they may be able to
refine them early in the development of the software. Speed is crucial in
implementing a throwaway prototype, since with a limited budget of time and money
little can be expended on a prototype that will be discarded. Strength of throwaway
prototyping is its ability to construct interfaces that the users can test. The user
interface is what the user sees as the system, and by seeing it in front of them, it is
much easier to grasp how the system will work.
Evolutionary prototyping: Evolutionary Prototyping (also known as breadboard
prototyping) is quite different from Throwaway Prototyping. The main goal when
using Evolutionary Prototyping is to build a very robust prototype in a structured
manner and constantly refine it. The reason for this is that the Evolutionary prototype,
when built, forms the heart of the new system, and the improvements and further
requirements will be built. When developing a system using Evolutionary
Prototyping, the system is continually refined and rebuilt. “Evolutionary prototyping
acknowledges that we do not understand all the requirements and builds only those
that are well understood.”
Evolutionary Prototypes have an advantage over Throwaway Prototypes in that they
are functional systems. Although they may not have all the features the users have
planned, they may be used on an interim basis until the final system is delivered. In
Evolutionary Prototyping, developers can focus themselves to develop parts of the
system that they understand instead of working on developing a whole system.

Q.33 Explain the cost drivers and EAF of the intermediate COCOMO model.

Ans. There are 15 different attributes, called cost drivers attributes that determine
the multiplying factors. These factors depend on product, computer, personnel, and
technology attributes also know as project attributes. Of the attributes are required
software reliability (RELY), product complexity (CPLX), analyst capability
(ACAP), application experience (AEXP), use of modern tools (TOOL), and
required development schedule (SCHD). Each cost driver has a rating scale, and
for each rating, there is multiplying factor is provided. For eg. for the product
attributes RELY, the rating scale is very low, low, nominal, high, and very high.
The multiplying factor for these ratings is .75, .88, .1.00, .1.15, and 1.40,
respectively. So, if the reliability requirement for the project is judged to be low
then the multiplying factor is .75, while if it is judged to be very high the factor is
1.40. The attributes and their multiplying factors for different ratings are shown in
the table below
Ratings
Very Very Extra
Cost Drivers Low Low Nominal High High High
Product attributes
Required software reliability 0.75 0.88 1.00 1.15 1.40
Size of application database 0.94 1.00 1.08 1.16
Complexity of the product 0.70 0.85 1.00 1.15 1.30 1.65
Hardware attributes

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Run-time performance constraints 1.00 1.11 1.30 1.66


Memory constraints 1.00 1.06 1.21 1.56
Volatility of the virtual machine environment 0.87 1.00 1.15 1.30
Required turnabout time 0.87 1.00 1.07 1.15
Personnel attributes
Analyst capability 1.46 1.19 1.00 0.86 0.71
Applications experience 1.29 1.13 1.00 0.91 0.82
Software engineer capability 1.42 1.17 1.00 0.86 0.70
Virtual machine experience 1.21 1.10 1.00 0.90
Programming language experience 1.14 1.07 1.00 0.95
Project attributes
Use of software tools 1.24 1.10 1.00 0.91 0.82
Application of software engineering methods 1.24 1.10 1.00 0.91 0.83
Required development schedule 1.23 1.08 1.00 1.04 1.10

Q.34 Compare the following


(i) Productivity and difficulty
(ii) Manpower and development time
(iii) Static single variable model and static multivariable model
(iv)Intermediate and Detailed COCOMO model

Ans.
(i) Productivity and difficulty
Productivity refers to metrics and measures of output from production processes,
per unit of input. Productivity P may be conceived of as a metrics of the technical
or engineering efficiency of production. In software project planning , productivity
is defined as the number of lines of code developed per person-month
Difficulty The ratio (K/td2), where K is software development cost and td is peak
development time, is called difficulty and denoted by D, which is measured in
person/year.
D= (K/td2)
The relationship shows that a project is more difficult to develop when the
manpower demand is high or when the time schedule is short.
Putnam has observed that productivity is proportional to the difficulty
Pα Dβ
(ii) Manpower and development time
Manpower may refer to labour Manpower, either an abstract term for human labour
effort (as opposed to machines, animals etc.) or the number of human productive units
available/needed for professional or other tasks, also used when referring to such
personnel as a resource (e.g. "a manpower shortage") and development time is the
time required to develop a project.
The Norden/ Reyleigh equation represents manpower, measured in person per unit
time as a function of time. It is usually expressed in person-year/year(PY/YR).
(iii) Static single variable model and static multivariable model

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Static single variable model: Methods using this model use an equation to
estimate the desired value such as cost, time, effort etc. They all depend on same
variable used as predictor (say, size). An example of the most common equation is
C= a Lb
Where C is the cost (effort expressed in the unit of manpower, for e.g. persons-
months) and L is the size generally given in the line of code (LOC). The constants
a and b are derived from the historical data of the organization. Since a and b
depends on the local development environment, these models are not transportable
to different organizations.
Static multivariable model: They depend on several variables representing
various aspects of the software development environment, for e.g. methods used,
user participation, customer oriented changes, memory constraints, etc. The model
provides relationship between delivered line of source code (L in thousand lines)
and effort (E in person-months) and is given by the following equation:
E= 5.2 L 0.91
In the same fashion, duration of development (D in months) is given by
D= 4.1 L 0.36
(iv) Intermediate and Detailed COCOMO model
Intermediate COCOMO computes software development effort as function of program
size and a set of "cost drivers" that include subjective assessment of product,
hardware, personnel and project attributes. This extension considers a set of four "cost
drivers", each with a number of subsidiary attributes:-
• Product attributes
o Required software reliability
o Size of application database
o Complexity of the product
• Hardware attributes
o Run-time performance constraints
o Memory constraints
o Volatility of the virtual machine environment
o Required turnabout time
• Personnel attributes
o Analyst capability
o Software engineering capability
o Applications experience
o Virtual machine experience
o Programming language experience
• Project attributes
o Use of software tools
o Application of software engineering methods
o Required development schedule
Each of the 15 attributes receives a rating on a six-point scale that ranges from
"very low" to "extra high" (in importance or value). An effort multiplier from
the table below applies to the rating. The product of all effort multipliers results
in an effort adjustment factor (EAF). Typical values for EAF range from 0.9 to
1.4.
Ratings
Very Very Extra
Cost Drivers Low Low Nominal High High High

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Product attributes
Required software reliability 0.75 0.88 1.00 1.15 1.40
Size of application database 0.94 1.00 1.08 1.16
Complexity of the product 0.70 0.85 1.00 1.15 1.30 1.65
Hardware attributes
Run-time performance constraints 1.00 1.11 1.30 1.66
Memory constraints 1.00 1.06 1.21 1.56
Volatility of the virtual machine environment 0.87 1.00 1.15 1.30
Required turnabout time 0.87 1.00 1.07 1.15
Personnel attributes
Analyst capability 1.46 1.19 1.00 0.86 0.71
Applications experience 1.29 1.13 1.00 0.91 0.82
Software engineer capability 1.42 1.17 1.00 0.86 0.70
Virtual machine experience 1.21 1.10 1.00 0.90
Programming language experience 1.14 1.07 1.00 0.95
Project attributes
Use of software tools 1.24 1.10 1.00 0.91 0.82
Application of software engineering methods 1.24 1.10 1.00 0.91 0.83
Required development schedule 1.23 1.08 1.00 1.04 1.10
The Intermediate Cocomo formula now takes the form:
E=ai(KLOC)(bi).EAF
where E is the effort applied in person-months, KLOC is the estimated number of
thousands of delivered lines of code for the project, and EAF is the factor calculated
above. The coefficient ai and the exponent bi are given in the next table.
Software project ai bi
Organic 3.2 1.05
Semi-detached 3.0 1.12
Embedded 2.8 1.20
The Development time D calculation uses E in the same way as in the Basic
COCOMO.
Detailed COCOMO
Detailed COCOMO - incorporates all characteristics of the intermediate version with
an assessment of the cost driver's impact on each step (analysis, design, etc.) of the
software engineering process.

Q.35 List the points of a simplified design process.

Ans. A design process may include a series of steps followed by designers.


Depending on the product or service, some of these stages may be irrelevant,
ignored in real-world situations in order to save time, reduce cost, or because they
may be redundant in the situation. Typical stages of the simplified design process
include:

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• Pre-production design
o Design brief - an early often the beginning statement of design goals
o Analysis- analysis of current design goals
o Research-investigating similar design solutions in the field or related topics
o Specification - specifying requirements of a design solution for a product
(product design specification) or service.
o Problem solving - conceptualizing and documenting design solutions
o Presentation - presenting design solutions
• Design during production
o Development - continuation and improvement of a designed solution
o Testing – on-site testing a designed solution
• Post-production design feedback for future designs
o Implementation - introducing the designed solution into the environment
o Evaluation and conclusion - summary of process and results, including
constructive criticism and suggestions for future improvements
• Redesign - any or all stages in the design process repeated (with corrections
made) at any time before, during, or after production.

Q.36 Explain the following with the help of an example


(i) Common coupling
(ii) Communicational cohesion
(iii) Class diagram
(iv) Structure chart

Ans.
(i) Common coupling: Common coupling is when two modules share the same
global data (e.g. a global variable). Changing the shared resource implies
changing all the modules using it. Diagnosing problems in structures with
considerable common coupling is time consuming and difficult. However, this
does not mean that the use of global data is necessarily ”bad”. It does not mean
that a software designer must be aware of potential consequences of common
coupling and take special care to guard against them.
(ii)Communicational cohesion: Communicational cohesion is when parts of a
module are grouped because they operate on the same data (e.g. a module which
operates on the same record of information). In this all of the elements of a
component operate on the same input data or produce the same output data. So
we can say if a module performs a series of actions related be a sequence of steps
to be followed by the product and all actions to be performed on the same data.
(iii)Class diagram: A class diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML)
is a type of static structure diagram that describes the structure of a system by
showing the system's classes, their attributes, and the relationships between the
classes. The UML specifies two types of scope for members: instance and
classifier. In the case of instance members, the scope is a specific instance. For
attributes, it means that its value can vary between instances. For methods, it
means that its invocation affects the instance state, in other words, affects the
instance attributes. Otherwise, in the classifier member, the scope is the class.
For attributes, it means that its value is equal for all instances. For methods, it
means that its invocation do not affect the instance state. Classifier members are
commonly recognized as "static" in many programming languages.

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(iv) Structure chart: A structure chart is a top-down modular design tool,


constructed of squares representing the different modules in the system, and lines
that connect them. The lines represent the connection and or ownership between
activities and sub activities as they are used in organization charts.
In structured analysis structure charts are used to specify the high-level
design, or architecture, of a computer program. As a design tool, they aid the
programmer in dividing and conquering a large software problem, that is,
recursively breaking a problem down into parts that are small enough to be
understood by a human brain. A structure chart depicts
• the size and complexity of the system, and
• number of readily identifiable functions and modules within each
function and
• Whether each identifiable function is a manageable entity or should
be broken down into smaller components.

Q.37. Explain Equivalence Class Partitioning and Boundary value analysis.


Compare the two.

Ans. Equivalence Class Partitioning: It is a technique in black box testing. It is


designed to minimize the number of test cases by dividing tests in such a way that
the system is expected to act the same way for all tests of each equivalence
partition. Test inputs are selected from each class. Every possible input belongs to
one and only one equivalence partition." In another words it is a method that can
help you derive test cases. You identify classes of input or output conditions. The
rule is that each member in the class causes the same kind of behaviour of the
system. In other words, the "Equivalence Class Partitioning" method creates sets
of inputs or outputs that are handled in the same way by the application. E.g.: If
you are testing for an input box accepting numbers from 1 to 1000 then there is no
use in writing thousand test cases for all 1000 valid input numbers plus other test
cases for invalid data. Using equivalence partitioning method above test cases can
be divided into three sets of input data called as classes. Each test case is a
representative of respective class.
Boundary Value Analysis: It’s widely recognized that input values at the
extreme ends of input domain cause more errors in system. More application
errors occur at the boundaries of input domain. ‘Boundary value analysis’
testing technique is used to identify errors at boundaries rather than finding those
exist in centre of input domain. Boundary value analysis is a next part of
Equivalence partitioning for designing test cases where test cases are selected at
the edges of the equivalence classes. E.g. if you divided 1 to 1000 input values in
valid data equivalence class, then you can select test case values like: 1, 11, 100,
950 etc.

Q.38 Explain the following terms with reference to software reliability models.
(i) Predictive validity
(ii) Resource usage
(iii) Applicability

Ans. (i) Predictive validity: It is the capability of the model to predict future
failure behaviour from present and past failure behaviour. This capability is
significant only when failure behaviour is changing. There are two general

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ways of viewing predictive validity based on the two equivalent


approaches to characterizing failure random process, namely;
1. the number of failure approach and
2. the failure time approach.
We can visually check the predictive validity by plotting the relative error against the
normalised test time.
(ii) Resource usage: It is linearly proportional to execution time τ and mean
failures experienced µ. Let Xr be the usage of resource r. Then
Xr=θrτ+µrµ
Where θr is the resource usage per CPU hr. It is nonzero for failure
identification personnel (θi) and computer time (θc). The quantity µr is the resource
usage per failure. It is nonzero for failure identification personnel (µi), failure
correction personnel (µf) and computer time (µc).
(iii) Applicability: It is another important characteristic of a model. The model
should be judged by its degree of applicability across software products that
vary in size, structure and function. The model should be usable in different
development environments, different operational environments, and different life
cycle phases. It is desirable that a model should be robust with respect to deviations
from its assumptions, errors in the data or parameters it employs, and unusual
conditions.

Q.39 What are the assumptions of the execution-time component model? Compare
the execution-time component for basic model and the logarithmic Poisson
model.

Ans. The execution-time component is based on the following assumptions:


(1) Tests represent the environment in which the program will be used.
(2) All failures are observed.
(3) Failure intervals are s-independent of each other.
(4) Hazard rate is a constant that changes at each fault correction.
(5) The failure rate is proportional to the s-expected value of the number of
faults remaining.
(6) The fault-correction occurrence rate is proportional to the failure-occurrence
rate. Both rates are with respect to execution time.
The two models-basic execution time model and logarithmic Poisson
execution time model- have failure intensity functions that differ as functions
of execution time. However, the difference between them is best defined in
terms of slope or decrement per failure experienced. The decrement in the failure
intensity function remains constant for basic model while the decrement per
failure decreases exponentially as shown in the following graph.

Q.40. Describe the various types of restructuring techniques. How does


restructuring help in maintaining a program?

Ans. Software restructuring modifies source code and / or data an effort to make
it amenable to future changes. In general, restructuring does not modify the overall
program architecture. It tends to focus on the design details of individual modules
and on local data structures define within the module. There are following types of
restructuring techniques:

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(a) Code Restructuring: It is performed to yield a design that produces the same
function but with higher quality than the original program. In general, code-
restructuring techniques model program logic using Boolean algebra and then
apply a series of transformation rules that yield restructured logic. The objective is
to take “spaghetti-bowl” code and derive a procedural design that conforms to the
structured programming philosophy.
(b)Data Restructuring: Before data restructuring begins, a reverse engineering
activity called analysis of source code must be conducted. The intent is to extract
data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the
existing data structures that have been implemented. This activity is sometimes
called data analysis. Once it has been completed, data redesign commences.
Another form of redesign, called data rationalization, which ensures that all data
naming conventions conform to local standards and that aliases are eliminated as
data flow through the system.
The restructuring helps in maintaining a program in the following ways:
(a) Programs have higher quality, better documentation, less complexity, and
conformance to modern software engineering practices and standards.
(b) Frustration among software engineers who must work on the program is
reduced, thereby improving productivity and making learning easier.
(c) Effort requires performing maintenance activities is reduced.
(d) Software is easier to test and debug.

Q.41. Describe the various steps of the reuse-oriented model.

Ans. The reuse-oriented model, also called reuse-oriented development (ROD), is a


method of software development in which a program is refined by producing a
sequence of prototypes called models, each of which is automatically derived
from the preceding one according to a sequence of defined rules.
The reuse-oriented model can reduce the overall cost of software development
compared with more tedious manual methods. It can also save time because each
phase of the process builds on the previous phase that has already been refined.
When carefully carried out, ROD can minimize the likelihood of errors or bugs
making their way into the final product.
The reuse-oriented model is not always practical in its pure form because a full
repertoire of reusable components may not be available. In such instances,
some new program components must be designed. If not thoughtfully done,
ROD can lead to compromises in perceived requirements, resulting in a product
that does not fully meet the needs of its intended users.

Q.42 What is ripple effect? How does it affect the stability of a program?

Ans. The ripple effect is a term used to describe a situation where, like the ever
expanding ripples across water when an object is dropped into it, an effect from an
initial state can be followed outwards incrementally. Examples can be found in
economics where an individual's reduction in spending reduces the incomes of
others and their ability to spend. In sociology it can be observed how social
interactions can affect situations not directly related to the initial interaction. and in
charitable activities where information can be disseminated and passed from
community to community to broaden it's impact.

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In software, the effect of a modification may not be local to the modification, but may
also affect other portions of the program. There is a ripple effect from the location of
the modification to the other parts of the programs that are affected by the
modification. One aspect of the ripple effect concerns the performance of the
program. The primary attribute affecting the ripple effect as a consequence of a
program modification is the stability of the program. Program stability is defined as
the resistance to the amplification of changes in the program.

Q.43 List four reasons why it is difficult to improve software process.

Ans It is difficult to improve software process due to following reasons:


1. Lack of knowledge-Many software developers are not aware of best
practices of industry. In fact best practices available in literature are not being
used widespread in software development.
2. Not enough time-There is always a shortage of time because upper
management are always demanding more software of higher quality in minimum
possible time. Unrealistic schedule sometimes leave insufficient time to do the
essential project work.
3. Wrong motivations-The process improvement initiatives are taken for
wrong reasons like sometimes contractor is demanding achievement of CMM or
sometimes senior management is directing the organization to achieve CMM
without a clear explanations why improvement was needed and its benefits.
4. Insufficient commitments-The software improvement fails due to lack of
true commitment. Management sets no expectations from the development
community regarding process improvement.

Q.44 Discuss the various strategies of design. Which design strategy is most
popular and practical?

Ans The most commonly used software design strategy involved


decomposing the design into functional components with system state
information held in a shared data area.
The design strategies are:
1. Functional design The system is designed from a functional viewpoint,
starting from with a high level view and progressively refining this into a more
detailed design. The system state is centralised and shared between the functions
operating on that state.
2. Object-oriented design: The system is viewed as a collection of objects
rather than as functions. Object-oriented design is based on the idea of information
hiding. In a object-oriented design, the system state is decentralized and each
object manages is own state information

Q.45 Differentiate between structured analysis and structured design.

Ans. The aim of structured analysis is to transform the textual description of a


problem into a graphic model. During structured analysis, functional
decomposition of the system takes place, i.e. each function that the system
performs is analyzed and hierarchically decomposed into more detailed functions.
On the other hand, during structured design all functions identified during
structured analysis are mapped to a module structure. This module structures is also

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called software architecture for the given problem and it can be directly
implemented using a conventional programming language.
The purpose of structured analysis is to capture the detailed structure of the system
as perceived by the user, whereas the purpose of structured design is to define the
structure of the solution that is suitable for implementation in some programming
language.

Q.46 A supermarket needs to develop software to encourage regular customers. For


this, the customer needs to supply his name, address, telephone number
and driving license number. A customer is assigned a unique customer
number (CN) by the computer. When a customer makes a purchase, the
value of the purchase is credited against his CN. At the end of each year,
surprise gifts to 10 customers who have made the highest purchase is
given. In addition, a 22 carat gold coin is given to every customer who has
made a purchase over Rs.10,000/-. The entries are reset on the last day
of the year.
(i) Draw the context diagram
(ii) Give data dictionary entries for
• address
• CN
• gold-coin-winner-list
• totalsales
Ans.

Data dictionary entries for:


address: name + house# + street# + city + pin
name: string
house#: string
street#: string
city: string
pin: integer
CN: {integer|character|spl. chararacter}*
Gold-coin-winner-list: {address}*
Total sales: integer

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Q.47 Explain the following:


(i) Information flow index.
(ii) Span and average span size for a program.
(iv) Function points.

Ans (i)Information Flow index Information flow metrics are applied to the
components of a system design. For any component ‘A’, We can define three
measures:
1: ‘FAN IN’ is simply a count of the number of other components that can
all, or pass control, to component A.
2: ‘FAN OUT’ is the number of components that are called by component A.
3: using the following formula derives this. We will call this measure the
INFORMATION FLOW index of component A , abbreviated as IF(A).
IF(A) = {FAN IN(A) *FAN OUT (A)}2
(ii) Span and average span size of a program
Span size indicates the number of statements that pass between successive uses of
a variable. For example in the following sample of code, variable ‘x’ has 4 spans
of 10,12,7, and 6 statements while ‘y’ has 2 spans of 23 and 14 statements. This
shows x is being used more than y.


21 scanf(x,y);

32 a=x;

45 b=x-y;

53 c=x;

60 printf(x,y);
Average span size=(Σ span size of a variable in a program)/no. of span
For example
Average span size of variable x in the above sample=(10+12+7+6)/4=8.75
Average span size of variable y=(23+14)/2=18.5
(iii)Function points: Function point measures the functionality from the user
point of view, that is, on the basis of what the user request and receives in
return. Therefore, it deals with the functionality being delivered, and not with
the lines of code, source modules, files etc. Measuring size in this way has the
advantage that size measure is independent of the technology used to deliver
the function.
Importance of function point:
- This is independent of the languages tools, or methodology used for
implementation.
- They can be estimated from requirement specification or design
specification.
- They are directly linked to the statement of request.

Q.48 Explain the development phases of the detailed COCOMO model.

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Ans A software development is carried out in four successive phases, which are as
follows:
1: plan/requirements: this is the first phase of the development cycle. The
requirement is analyzed, the product plan is set up and a full product
specification is generated. This phase consumes from 6% to 8% of the effort
and 10% to 40% of the development time.
2: product design:The second phase of the COCOMO development cycle is
concerned with the determination of the product architecture and the specification
of the subsystems. This requires 16% to 18% of the normal effort and 19% to 38%
of the development time.
3: programming: This is the third phase and is divided into sub phases : detailed
phase and code/unit phase. This requires 48% to 68% of the effort and 24% to
64% of the development time.
4: integration/test : This phase of COCOMO occurs before delivery. This mainly
consists of putting the tested parts together and then testing the final product. This
requires 16% to 34% of normal effort and 18% to 34% of the development
time.

Q.49 Why does the software design improve when we use object-oriented
concepts?

Ans. The software design improves when we use object-oriented concepts because
1.Object-orientation works at higher level of abstraction. The development can
proceed at the object level and ignore the rest of the system for as long as necessary.
2.The data on which a system is based tends to be more stable than the functionality
it supports.
3.Object-orientated programming encourages and supports good programming
techniques.
4.Object-oriented programming design and programming promote code re-use.

Q.50 Describe system testing.

Ans. System testing:


System test are designed to validate a fully developed systems with a view to
assuring that it meets its requirements. There are three types of system testing:
Alpha testing:
This refers to system testing that is carried out by the test team within the
organisation.
- Beta testing:
This is the system testing performed by a select group of friendly customers.
- Acceptance testing:
this is performed by the customer to determine whether or not to accept the
delivery of the system.

Q.51 Define graph matrix and connection matrix.

Ans: Graph matrix: A graph matrix is a square matrix whose size(i.e., number of
rows and columns) is equal to the number of nodes on the flow graph. Each row
and column corresponds to an identified node, and matrix entries correspond to
connections (an edge) between nodes.

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Connection matrix: In connection matrix, each letter has been replaced with a 1,
indicating that a connection exists (zeros have been excluded for
clarity).

Q.52 What are dynamic testing tools? Explain the functions that they must
support.

Ans. Dynamic testing tools:


1: coverage analyzers (execution verifiers): A coverage analyzer is the most
common and important tool for testing. It is often relatively simple. One of the
common strategies for testing involves declaring the minimum level of
coverage, ordinarily expressed as a percentage of the elemental segments that are
exercised in aggregate during the testing process.
2: output comparators: these are used in dynamic testing-both single-module and
multiple- module(system level) varieties to check that predicted and actual
outputs are equivalent. This is also done during regression testing.
3: Test data generators:this is a difficult one, and at lease for the present is one for
which no general solution exists. one of the practical difficulties with test data
generation of sets of inequalities that represent the condition along a chosen
path.
4: Test file generators: this creates a file of information that is used as the
program and does so based on comments given by the user and/or from the
data descriptions program’s data definition section.
5: test harness systems:this is one that is bound around the test object and that
permits the easy modification and control of test inputs and output’s and
provides for online measurement of CI coverage values.
6: Test archiving systems: the goal is to keep track of series of tests ant to act as
the basis for documenting that the tests have been done and that no defects were
found during the process.
Functions that dynamic testing tools supports:
1: input setting: selecting of the test data that the test object reads when called.
2: stub processing: handling outputs and selecting inputs when a stub is called.
3: results displays: providing the tester with the values that the test object produces
so that they can be validated.
4: test coverage measurement: determining the test effectiveness in terms of the
structure of the program.
5: test planning: helping the tester to plan tests so they are both efficient and also
effective at forcing discovery of defects.

Q.53 What is reverse engineering?

Ans. It is a process of analysing software with a view to understanding its design


and specification.
- In reverse engineering, source code and executable code are the input.
- It may be part of a re-engineering process but may also be used to re-
specify a system for re-implementation.
- Reverse engineering often proceeds re-engineering but is sometimes worth
wise in its own right.
- Builds a program database and generates information from this.

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- Program understanding tools (browsers, cross reference etc.) may also be


used in this process.
- Design and specification may be reverse engineer to :
- Serves as input to SRS for program replacement.
- Be available to help program maintenance.

Q.54 What is structured programming and why is it important?

Ans. Structured programming is a term which was coined in the late 1960’s to
mean programming without using go to statements, programming using only
while loops and if statements as control constructs and designing using a top-
down approach. The adoption of structured programming was an important
milestone in the development of software engineering because it was the first
away from an undisciplined approach to software development.
Structured programming means programs can be read sequentially and are therefore
easier to understand and inspect.

Q.55 Discuss any two software characteristics. (5)

Ans.Software is not manufactured: The life of a software is from concept


exploration to the retirement of the software product. It is one time development
effort and continuous maintenance effort in order to keep it operational.
However, making 1000 copies of software is not an issue and it does not involve
any cost. In case of hardware product, every product costs us due to raw material
and other processing expenses. We do not have assembly line in software
development. Hence it is not manufactured in the classical sense.
Software is flexible: We all feel that software is flexible. A program can be
developed to do almost anything. Sometimes this characteristic may be the best
and may help us to accommodate any kind of change.

Q.56 Differentiate between iterative Enhancement Model and Evolutionary (5)


Development model.

Ans. Iterative Enhancement Model: This model has the same phases as the
waterfall model, but with fewer restrictions. Generally the phases occur in the
same order as in the waterfall model, but these may be conducted in several
cycles. A useable product is released at the end of the each cycle, with each
release providing additional functionality.

Requirements Design Implementation &Fig. Integration & Operation


Unit Testing System Testing (Install

Release I

Design Implementation & Integration & Operation


Testing Unit System Testing (Install)

Release II

Design Implementation & Integration & Operation


Testing Unit System Testing (Install)

39 Release III
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Evolutionary Development Model: Evolutionary development model resembles


iterative enhancement model. The same phases as defined for the waterfall
model occur here in a cyclical fashion. This model differs from iterative
enhancement model in the sense that this does not require a useable product at
the end of each cycle. In evolutionary development, requirements are
implemented by category rather than by priority.
(6)
Q.57 Explain the software life cycle model that incorporates risk factor.

Ans. The problem with traditional software process models is that they do not
deal sufficiently with the uncertainty, which is inherent to software projects.
Important software projects failed because project risks were neglected and
nobody was prepared when something unforeseen happened. Barry Boehm
recognized this and tried to incorporate the “ project risk” factor into a life cycle
model. The results is the spiral model, which was presented in 1986 BOEH86
Each loop of the spiral from X-axis clockwise through 3600 represents one
phase. One phase is split roughly into four sectors of major activities.
• Planning : Determination of objectives, alternatives and constraints
• Risk Analysis : Analyze alternatives and attempts to identify and resolve
the risks involved
• Development : Product development and testing product
• Assessment : Customer evaluation
During the first phase, planning is performed, risks are analyze, prototypes are
built, and customers evaluate the prototype. During the second phase, a more
refined prototype is built, requirements are documents and validated, and
customers are involved in assessing the new prototype. By the time third phase
begins, risks are known, and a somewhat more traditional development approach
The advantage of this model is the wide range of options to accommodate the
good features of outer life cycle models. It becomes equivalent to another life
cycle model in appropriate situations. It also incorporates software quality
objectives into software development. The risk analysis and validation steps
eliminate errors in the early phases of development

Q.58 Explain any two requirement elicitation methods.

Ans. Interviews:
After receiving the problem statement from the customer, the first step is to
arrange a meeting with the customer. During the meeting or interview, both the
parties would like to understand each other. Normally specialized developers
often called ‘requirement engineers’ interact with the customer. The objective of
conducting an interview is to understand the customer’s expectation from the
software. Both parties have different feelings, goals, opinions, vocabularies,
understanding, but one thing in common, both want the project to be a success.
With this is mind, requirement engineers normally arrange interviews.
Requirements engineers must be open minded and should not approach the
interview with pre-conceived notion about what is required.
Interview may be open-ended or structured. In open ended interview there is no
pre-set agenda. Context free questions may be asked to understand the problem

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and to have an overview of the situation.


In structured interview, agenda of fairly open questions is prepared. Sometimes a
proper questionnaire is designed for the interview. Interview, may be started
with simple questions to set people at ease. After making atmosphere
comfortable and calm, specific questions may be asked to understand the
requirements, The customer may be allowed to voice his or her perception about
a possible solution.
Facilitated Application Specification Technique
A team oriented approach is developed for requirements gathering and is called
facilitated application specification Techniques (FAST
This approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers and
developers who work together to understand the expectations and propose of set
of requirements. The basic guidelines of FAST are given below :
• Arrange a meeting at a neutral site for developers and customers.
• Establishment of rules for preparation and participation.
• Prepare and informal agenda that encourages free flow of ideas.
• Appoint a facilitator to control the meeting. A facilitator may be a
developer, a customer, or an outside expert. Prepare a definition
mechanism-Board, flip chart, worksheets, wall stickiest, etc.
• Participants should not criticize or debate.

Q.59 A store is in the business of selling paints and hardware items. A number of
reputed companies supply items to the store. New suppliers can also register
with the store after providing necessary details. The customer can place the order
with the shop telephonically. Or personally. In case items are not available
customers are informed. The detail of every new customer is stored in the
company’s database for future reference. Regular customers are offered
discounts. Additionally details of daily transactions are also maintained. The
suppliers from time to time also come up with attractive schemes for the dealers.
In case, scheme is attractive for a particular item, the store places order with the
company. Details of past schemes are also maintained by the store. The details
of each item i.e. item code, quantity available etc. is also maintained. Draw a
level 1 DFD for the above requirement.
Items code +
Customer Ite quantity
ms
Item-details
Customer- Items-details
details Ite
Customer- Scheme-
ms
Order details
Analyze Update
Customer Ite Process Comp Scheme Bill Compan
Invento
ms Order any y
rs
Scheme-
& make
Items description
Transaction - Suppliers- Paym
details details ent
Transactio Suppliers Schemes
n

Company - Req. for


details Registration
Register Registration
supplies Accepted Comp
(3)
any
Registration
41 Denied
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Q.60 List any three characteristics of a good SRS.

Ans:The SRS should be: Correct , Unambiguous, Complete

1. Correct: An SRS is correct iff every requirement stated therein is


one that the software shall meet .
2. Unambiguous: An SRS is unambiguous iff every requirement
stated therein has only one interpretation. Each sentence in SRS
should have the unique interpretation.
3. Complete: An SRS is complete iff it includes all significant
requirements full labels and references to all figures and diagram
and definition of all terms and units of measures

Q.61 Define the following terms:


(i) Product metrics
(ii) Live variables
(iii) FAN IN (10)

Ans: (i) Product metrics: describe the characteristics of the product


such as size, complexity, design features, performance, efficiency,
reliability, portability, etc.
(ii) A variable is live from its first to its last reference within a
procedure.
(iii) FAN IN is simply a count of the number of other Components
that can call, or pass control, to Component A.

Q.62 Compare the Organic Semi detached and Embedded cocomo (8)
modes

Ans:
Mode Project Nature of Project Innovati Deadline of Developme
size on the project nt
Environmen
t
Organic Typical Small size project, Little Not tight Familiar &
ly experienced In house
2-50 developers in the
KLOC familiar
environment. For
example, pay roll,
inventory projects
etc.
Semi Typical Medium size Medium Medium Medium
detached ly project, Medium
ty 50-300 size team, Average
KLOC previous
experience on
similar projects.
For example:

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AC16 Software Engineering

Utility systems
like compilers,
database systems,
editors etc.
Embedd Typical Large project, Real Signific Tight Complex
ed ly over time systems, ant Hardware/c
300 Complex ustomer
KLOC interfaces, very interfaces
little previous required
experience.
For Example:
ATMs, Air Traffic
Control etc.

Q.63 Why is good design important for a product? (3)

Ans: A good design is the key to successful product. Almost 2000


years ago a Roman Architect recorded the following attributes of a
good design:
 Durability
 Utility and
 Charm
A well-designed system is easy to implement, understandable and
reliable and allows for smooth evolution.

Q.64 Define coupling. Discuss various types of coupling. (8)

Ans: Coupling is the measure of the degree of interdependence between


modules.
Type of coupling : Different types of coupling are content, common,
external, control, stamp and data. The strength of coupling from lowest
coupling (best) to highest coupling (worst) is given in the figure.
Data coupling Best
Stamp coupling
Control coupling
External coupling
Common coupling
Content coupling (Worst)
Given two procedures A and B, we can identify a number of ways in which
they can be coupled.
Data coupling
The dependency between module A and B is said to be data coupled if their
dependency is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data.
Other than communicating through data, the two modules are independent. A
good strategy is to ensure that no module communication contains “tramp
data” only the necessary data is passed. Students name, address, course are
example of tramp data that are unnecessarily communicated between
modules. By ensuring that modules communicate only necessary data,
module dependency is minimized.

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Stamp coupling: Stamp coupling occurs between module A and B when


complete data structure is passed from one module to another. Since not all
data making up the structure is usually necessary in communication between
the modules, stamp coupling typically involves data. If one procedure only
needs a part of a data structure, calling modules pass just that part, not the
complete data structure.
Control coupling: Module A and B are said to be control coupled if they
communicate by passing of control information. This is usually
accomplished by means of flags that are set by one module and reacted upon
by the dependent module.
External coupling: A form of coupling in which a module has a
dependency to other module, external to the software being developed or to a
particular type of hardware. This is basically related to the communication to
external tools and devices.
Common coupling:With common coupling, module A and module B have
shared data. Global data areas are commonly found in programming
languages. Making a change to the common data means tracing back to all
the modules which access that data to evaluate the effect of change. With
common coupling, it can be difficult to determine which module is
responsible for having set a variable to a particular value. Fig. below shows
how common coupling works
Global:
A1
A2
A3
Variables:
V1
V2

Change V1 to Zero Increment V1 V1 =V2+A1

Module X Module Y Module Z


Content coupling :Content coupling occurs when module A changes data of
module B or when control is passed.

Q.65 Explain the concept of bottom-up, top-down and hybrid design. (8)

Ans: Bottom up design:This approach leads to a style of design where we


decide how to combine these modules to provide larger ones; to combine
those to provide even larger ones, and so on, till we arrive at one big module
which is the whole of the desired program.
Since the design progressed from bottom layer upwards, the method is
called bottom up design. The main argument for this design is that if we
start coding a module soon after its design, the chances of recoding is high;
but the coded module can be tested and design can be validated sooner than

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AC16 Software Engineering

a module whose sub modules have not yet been designed.


Top down design:A top down design approach starts by identifying the
major modules of the system, decomposing them into their lower level
modules and iterating until the desired level of details is achieved. This is
stepwise refinement; starting from an abstract design, in each step the
design is refined to a more concrete level, until we reach a level where no
more refinement is needed and the design can be implemented directly.
Hybrid design:Pure top-down or pure bottom up approaches are often not
practical therefore hybrid approach which combines the above two
approaches is often used.

Q.66 Explain the bath tub curve of hardware reliability. (5)

Ans: As indicated in the figure below, there are three phase in the life of
any hardware component i.e. burn-in, useful life & wear out. In burn-in
phase, failure rate is quite high initially, and it starts decreasing gradually as
the time progresses. It may be due to initial testing in the premises of the
organization. During useful life period, failure rate is approximately
constant. Failure rate increases in wear-out phase due to wearing out/aging
of components. The best period is useful life period. The shape of this curve
is like a “bath tub” and that is why it is known as bath tub curve.
Burn-in

Useful life Wear-out


Failure
rate

Time

Bath tub curve of hardware reliability

Q.67 Consider a program for the determination of the nature of roots of a


quadratic equation. Its input is a triple of positive integers (say a, b,
c) and values in the interval [0,100]. The program output may be one
of the following:
[Not a quadratic equation; Real roots; Imaginary roots; Equal roots].
Design the boundary value test cases and robust test cases for the
program. (16)

Ans. Quadratic equation will be of type:


ax 2 + bx + c = 0
Roots are real if (b 2 − 4ac ) > 0
Roots are imaginary if (b 2 − 4ac ) < 0
Roots are equal if (b 2 − 4ac) = 0
Equation is not quadratic if a=0

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AC16 Software Engineering

The boundary value test cases are:


Test a b c Expected output
Case
1 0 50 50 Not Quadratic
2 1 50 50 Real Roots
3 50 50 50 Imaginary Roots
4 99 50 50 Imaginary Roots
5 100 50 50 Imaginary Roots
6 50 0 50 Imaginary Roots
7 50 1 50 Imaginary Roots
8 50 99 50 Imaginary Roots
9 50 100 50 Equal Roots
10 50 50 0 Real Roots
11 50 50 1 Real Roots
12 50 50 99 Imaginary Roots
13 50 50 100 Imaginary Roots

As we know, robust test cases are 6n+1. Hence, in 3 variable input cases
total number of test cases are 19 as given below:
Test A B C Expected Output
Case
1 -1 50 50 Invalid Input
2 0 50 50 Not Quadratic
Equation
3 1 50 50 Real Roots
4 50 50 50 Imaginary Roots
5 99 50 50 Imaginary Roots
6 100 50 50 Imaginary Roots
7 101 50 50 Invalid Input
8 50 -1 50 Invalid Input
9 50 0 50 Imaginary Roots
10 50 1 50 Imaginary Roots
11 50 99 50 Imaginary Roots
12 50 100 50 Equal Roots
13 50 101 50 Invalid Input
14 50 50 -1 Invalid Input
15 50 50 0 Real Roots
16 50 50 1 Real Roots
17 50 50 99 Imaginary Roots
18 50 50 100 Imaginary Roots
19 50 50 101 Invalid Input

Q.68 Discuss the problems faced during software maintenance


(7)

Ans. Problems During Maintenance The most important problem during


maintenance is that before correcting or modifying a program, the
programmer must first understand it. Then, the programmer must
understand the impact of the intended change. Few problems are discussed

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AC16 Software Engineering

below.
Often the program is written by another person or group of persons working
over the years in isolation from each other.
Often the program is changed by person who did not understand it clearly,
resulting in a deterioration of the program’s original organization.
Program listing, even those that are well organized, are not structured to
support reading or comprehension. We normally read article or book
straight through, but with listing, programmer rummages back and forth.
There is a high staff turnover within information Technology industry. Due
to this many systems are maintained by persons who are not the original
authors. These persons may not have adequate knowledge about the system.
This may mean that these persons may introduce changes to programs
without being aware of their effects on other parts of the system -the ripple
effect. This problem may be worsened by the absence of documentation.
Even where it exists, it may be out of date or inadequate.
Some problems only become clearer when a system is in use. Many users
know that they want but lack the ability to express it in a form
understandable to programmers/analysts. This is primarily due to
information gap.
Systems are not designed for change. If there is hardly any scope for
change, maintenance will be very difficult. Therefore approach of
development should be the production of maintainable software.

Q.69 Explain acceptance testing and beta testing. (5)

Ans. Acceptance Testing and Beta testing:System tests are designed to validate a
fully developed system to assure that it meets its requirements.
Acceptance and beta testing are form of system testing:
• Beta testing. Beta testing is the system testing performed by a select group of
friendly customers.
• Acceptance Testing. Acceptance testing is the system testing performed by the
cutomer to determine whether he should accept the delivery of the system.

Q.70. Define the following


(i) Structural testing
(ii) Special value testing
(iii) Mutation testing (9)

Ans(i) Structural Testing:Sometime called white-box testing. Here derivations of


test cases are according to the program structure. Knowledge of the program is used
to identify additional test cases. The objective of structural testing is to exercise all
program statements (not all path combinations)

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AC16 Software Engineering

(ii)Special Value Testing:It is the form of functional testing. Special value testing
occurs when a tester uses his or her domain knowledge, experience with similar
program and information about “soft spots” to dense test case. No guidelines are used
other than to use “best engineering judgment”. As a result special value testing is
heavily dependent on the abilities of the testing persons.
(iii)Mutation testingIn mutation testing, the software is first tested by using an initial
test suite built up from the different white box testing strategies. After the initial
testing is complete, mutation testing is taken up. The idea behind mutation testing is
to make few arbitrary changes to a program at a time. Each time the program is
changed, it is called as a mutated program and the change effected is called as a
mutant. A mutated program is tested against the full test suite of the program. If there
exists at least one test case in the test suite for which a mutant gives an incorrect
result, then the mutant is said to be dead. If a mutant remains alive even after all the
test cases have been exhausted, the test data is enhanced to kill the mutant. A major
disadvantage of the mutation-based testing approach is that it is computationally very
expensive, since a large number of possible mutants can be generated.

Q.71. What is CMM? Describe its levels & compare it with ISO 9001?

Ans. CAPABILITY MATURITY MODEL (CMM): CMM is a strategy for


improving the software process, irrespective of the actual life cycle model used.
Software Engineering Institute (SEI) of Carnegie-Mellon University developed
CMM in 1986. CMM is used to judge the maturity of the software processes of an
organization and to identify the key practices that are required to increase the
maturity of these processes.
Different levels of CMM:
1) Initial (maturity level 1)-At this, the lowest level, there are essentially no sound
software engineering management practices in place in the organization. Instead
everything is done on adhoc basis. In maturity level 1 organization, the software
process is unpredictable.
2) Repeatable (maturity level 2)-At this level, policies for managing a software
project and procedures to implement those policies are established. Planning and
managing new projects is based on experience with similar projects. An objective in
achieving level 2 is to institutionalize effective management processes for software
projects, which allow organizations to repeat successful practices, developed on
other projects. The software process capability at level 4 organizations can be
summarized as disciplined.
3) Defined (maturity level 3)- At this level, the standard process for developing and
maintaining software across the organization is documented, including both software

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AC16 Software Engineering

engineering and management processes. Processes established at level 3 are used to


help the software managers and technical staff to perform more effectively. The
software process capability at level 4 organizations can be summarized as standard
and constituent.
4) Managed (maturity level 4)-At this level, the organization sets quantitative
quality goals for both software products and processes. Productivity and quality are
measured for important software process activities across all projects as part of an
organizational measurement program. The software process capability at level 4
organizations can be summarized as “predictable”.
5) Optimizing (maturity level 5)-At this level, the entire organization s focused on
continuous process improvement. The organizations have the means to identify
weaknesses and strengthen the process proactively, with the goal of preventing the
occurrence of defects. . The software process capability at level 4 organizations can
be summarized as continuously improving.
ISO 9001 and CMM:
1: Management responsibility: ISO 9001 requires that the quality policy be
defined, documented, understood, implemented, and maintained. Whereas in
CMM, management responsibility for quality policy and verification activities
is primarily addressed in software quality assurance.
2: Document control: ISO 9001 requires that the distribution and modification of
documents be controlled. In the CMM, the configuration management practices
characterizing document control are described in software configuration
management.
3: Purchasing: ISO 9001 requires that purchased products conform to their specified
requirements.
In the CMM, this is addressed in software subcontract management.
4: Training: ISO 9001 requires that training needs to be identified and that training
be provided. Records of training are maintained.
In CMM, specified trainings are identified in the training and orientation practices in
the ability to perform common feature.
5: Internal quality audit:ISO 9001 requires that the audits be planned and
performed. The results of audits are communicated to management, and any
deficiencies found are corrected.
Specific audits in the CMM are called out in the auditing practices of the verifying
implementation common feature.

Q.72 Spiral model is a realistic approach to the development of large-scale systems


& software. Justify & explain the model?

Ans. There are several advantages of Spiral model that makes it a realistic
approach to development of large-scale systems and software, viz:
1) The spiral model promotes quality assurance through prototyping at each stage
in system development.
2) The spiral model is a realistic approach to the development of large-scale
software products because the software evolves as the process progresses. The
developer and client better understand and react to risk at each evolutionary
level.
3) The model uses prototyping as a risk reduction mechanism and allows for the
development of prototypes at any stage of the evolutionary development.

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AC16 Software Engineering

4) It maintains a systematic stepwise approach like the classic life cycle model but
incorporates it into an iterative framework that more reflect the real world.
If employed correctly this model should reduce risk before they become problematic
as consideration of technical risk are considered at all stages
Spiral model is also known, as spiral life cycle model is a system development life
cycle model used in information technology. This model of development combines
the features of prototyping model and waterfall model. The spiral model is used for
large, expensive and complicated project.
• Presented by BARRY BOHEM in 1986 incorporating the project risk factor.
• Designed in order to overcome the disadvantages of waterfall model.
• The radial dimension represents the cumulative cost incurred in accomplishing the
steps done so far and the angular dimension represents the progress made in
completing each cycle of the spiral.
• Each loop is a development stage.
• Balance all the risk elements that is the high-risk element must be lowered.
• The people concerned with the project complete each phase with a review.
Different Phases of spiral model:
1) Planning: In this phase the objectives, alternatives and constraints of the project
are determined or documented. The objectives and other specifications are fixed in
order to decide which strategies or approaches to follow during the project life cycle.
2) Risk analysis: In this phase, all possible and available alternatives which can help
in developing a cost effective project are analyzed and strategies are decided to use
them. This phase has been added specially in order to identify and resolve all the
possible risk in the project development.
3) Development: In this phase the actual development of the project is carried out.
The output of this phase is passed through all the phases iteratively in order to obtain
improvements in the same.
4) Assessment: In this phase, developed product is pass on to the customer in order
to receive customer comments and suggestions, which can help in identifying and
resolving potential problems or errors in the software development.

Q.73 A program is to be developed to simulate the operations of a scientific


calculator. List the facilities to be provided by this calculator. Analyze this
using DFD?

Ans

User posts Mathematics Scientific


expressions User receives
Calculator

Context Free Diagram

Posts
expression

Scientific
User Calculator

Receives
Calculated
value

50 Level 0 DFD
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Q.74 What is function point? Explain its importance. What is function-oriented


metrics?

Ans. Function point measures the functionality from the user point of view, that is,
on the basis of what the user request and receives in return. Therefore, it deals with
the functionality being delivered, and not with the lines of code, source modules,
files etc. measuring size in this way has the advantage that size measure is
independent of the technology used to deliver the function.
Importance of function point:
- This is independent of the languages tools, or methodology used for
implementation.
- They can be estimated from requirement specification or design
specification.
- They are directly linked to the statement of request.
Function-oriented metrics: Function-oriented software metrics use a measure of
the functionality delivered by the application as a normalization value. function-
oriented metrics were first proposed by Albrecht, who suggested a measure called
function point. Function points are derived using a empirical relationship based on
countable measures of software’s information domain and assessments of software
complexity.

Q.75 Explain basic information flow model & it’s more sophisticated
versions?

Ans. Information flow metrics are applied to the components of a system design.
For any component ‘A’, we can define three measures:
1: ‘FAN IN’ is simply a count of the number of other components that can
all, or pass control, to component A.
2: ‘FAN OUT’ is the number of components that are called by component
A.
3: using the following formula derives this.
We will call this measure the INFORMATION FLOW index of component
A, abbreviated as IF(A).
IF(A) = {FAN IN(A) *FAN OUT (A)}2
The sophisticated IF model differs from basic model in its definition of FAN IN
and FAN OUT
For a component A let:
a= the number of components that call A.
b=the number of parameters passed to A from components higher in the hierarchy
c= the number of parameters passed to A from components lower in the
hierarchy
d=the number of data elements read by components A
then
FAN IN(A)=a+b+c+d
Also let:
e= the number of components called by A.
f=the number of parameters passed from A to components higher in the hierarchy
g= the number of parameters passed from A to components lower in the
hierarchy
h=the number of data elements written to by A

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FAN OUT(A)=e+f+g+h
Other than those changes to the basic definitions, the derivation, analysis and
interpretation remain the same.

Q.76 Explain COCOMO model with its relevant equations. Explain various
attributes of cost drivers used in COCOMO model.

Ans. COCOMO stands for constructive cost model


- An empirical model based on project experience.
- Well-documented, independent model, which is not tied to a specific
software vendor.
- There is a long history of COCOMO model, from initial versions published
in 1981(COCOMO-81) through various versions instantiations to COCOMO-2.
- Then COCOMO-2 takes into account different approaches to software
development, reuse etc.
Various attributes of cost drivers used in COCOMO model are:
1. Physical attributes: These are concerned with required characteristics of the
software product being developed.
2. Computer attributes: These are constraints imposed on the software by the
hardware platform. These affect software productivity because effort must be
expended to overcome the hardware limitations.
3: Personnel attributes: These are multipliers which takes into account the
experience of the people working on the project.
4: Project attributes: These are concerned with the use of software tools, the
project development schedule and the use of modern programming practices.

Q.77 What is Data Binding?

Ans.The matrix that attempts to capture the module-level concept of coupling is


data binding. Data binding are a measure that captures the data interaction across
portions of a software system. In other words, data binding try to specify how
strongly coupled different modules in a software system are.

Q.78 Define cohesion & coupling? Give suitable examples.

Ans Coupling:Coupling refers to the strength of the relationship between


modules in a system. Coupling represents how strongly different modules are
interconnected with each other.
Cohesion: Cohesion refers to the strength of relationship among elements within a
module. Cohesion represents how strongly the internal elements of a module are
bound to each other.

Q.79 Explain various Object Oriented concepts used in Software Engineering.


Give an example.

Ans .Various concepts of Object Oriented concepts used in Software


Engineering:
• Object:- An object is something which is capable of being seen,
touched or sensed. Each object has certain distinctions or attributes which

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enable you to recognize and classify it. Each object has certain actions or
methods associated with it.
• Class:-A class encapsulates data and procedural abstractions required to
describe the content and behavior of some real world entity. A class is a
generalized description that describes a collection of similar objects.
• Encapsulation:- An object is said to be encapsulate (hide) data and
program. This means that the user cannot see the inside of the object but
can use the object by calling the program part of the object. This hiding of
details of one object from another object, which uses it, is known as
encapsulation.
• Inheritance:-Inheritance is defined as the property of objects by which
instances of a class can have access to data and programs contained in a
previously defined class, without those definitions being restated. Classes
are linked together in a hierarchy. They form a tree, whose root is the class
of “objects”. Each class (except for the root class) will have a super class
(a class above it in the hierarchy) and possibly subclasses. A class can
inherit (i.e. acquire) methods from its super class and in turn can pass
methods on to its subclasses. A subclass must have all the properties of the
parent class, and other properties as well.
• Polymorphism:-Polymorphism includes the ability to use the same
message to objects of different classes and have them behave differently.
Thus we could define the message “+” for both the addition of numbers
and the concatenation (joining) of characters. Polymorphism provides the
ability to use the same word to invoke different methods, according to
similarity of meaning.
• Object/class associations:-Objects/classes interact with each other.
Multiplicity defines how many instances of one object/class can be
associated with one instance of another object/class.
• Messages:-The interaction or communication between the different objects
and classes is done by passing messages. The object, which requires
communicating with another object, will send a request message to the
latter. A message can be sent between two objects only if they have an
association between them.

Q.80 . Compare and contrast reliability and availability?

Ans. Reliability:The probability of failure-free system operation over a specified


time in a given environment for a given purpose is called reliability
Availability:The probability that a system, at a point in time, will be operational and
able to deliver the requested services is known as availability.
Both of these attributes can be expressed quantitatively. It is sometimes possible to
subsume system availability under system reliability. Obviously if a system is
unavailable it is not delivering the specified system services. However, it is possible
to have systems with low reliability that must be available. So long as system failures
can be repaired quickly and do not damage data, low reliability may not be a
problem.
Availability takes repair time into account.

Q.81 Design black box test suits for a function that checks whether a character or
string upto ten characters in a palindrome?

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Ans Following may be the test cases:


- Try with Even number of characters (MALAYALAM)
- Try with Odd number of characters (ADDA)
- Try with maximum length of string
The following are negative test cases: (Warning message should come for the
following)
- Try with empty string
- Try with numbers
- Try with special characters

Q.82 How is cyclomatic complexity useful in program test? What is sequence of


testing? What is testability?

Ans. Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in a single


software module. It is used for two related purposes in the structured testing
methodology. First, it gives the number of recommended tests for software. Second,
it is used during all phases of the software lifecycle, beginning with design, to keep
software reliable, testable, and manageable. Cyclomatic complexity is based entirely
on the structure of software’s control flow graph.
The sequence of testing is:
Unit testing: Unit testing is undertaken after a module has been coded and
successfully reviewed. Unit testing (or module testing) is the testing of different
units (or modules) of a system in isolation.
Integration testing: The primary objective of integration testing is to test the module
interfaces, i.e. there are no errors in the parameter passing, when one module invokes
another module. During integration testing, different modules of a system are
integrated in a planned manner using an integration plan. The integration plan
specifies the steps and the order in which modules are combined to realize the full
system. After each integration step, the partially integrated system is tested.
System testing System tests are designed to validate a fully developed system to
assure that it meets its requirements. There are essentially three main kinds of system
testing:
• Alpha Testing- Alpha testing refers to the system testing carried out by the test
team within the developing organization.
• Beta testing-Beta testing is the system testing performed by a select group of
friendly customers.
• Acceptance Testing-Acceptance testing is the system testing performed by the
customer to determine whether he should accept the delivery of the system.
Software testability is the degree to which a software artifact (i.e. a software system,
software module, requirements- or design document) supports testing in a given test
context.
Testability is not an intrinsic property of a software artifact and can not be measured
directly. Instead testability is an extrinsic property which results from
interdependency of the software to be tested and the test goals, test methods used, and
test resources.
A lower degree of testability results in increased test effort. In extreme cases a lack of
testability may hinder testing parts of the software or software requirements at
all.

Q.83 Explain various types of static and dynamic testing tools.

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Ans. Static testing tools:


1. Static analysers A static analyser operates from a pre-computed database of
descriptive information derived from the source text of the program. The idea of
a static analyser is to provide allegations, which are claims about the analysed
programs that can be demonstrated by systematic examination of all cases.
2. Code inspectors A code inspector does a simple job of enforcing standards
in a uniform way for many programs. These can be single statement or multiple
statement rules. The AUDIT system is available which imposes some minimum
conditions on the programs.
3. Standard enforcesThis tool is like a code inspector; expect that the rules are
generally simpler. The main distribution is that a full-blown static analyser looks at
whole programs, whereas a standard enforcer looks at only single statements.
Dynamic testing tools
1. Coverage analyzers (execution verifiers) A coverage analyzer is the most
common and important tool for testing. It is often relatively simple. One of the
common strategies for testing involves declaring the minimum level of coverage,
ordinarily expressed as a percentage of the elemental segments that are exercised in
aggregate during the testing process.
2. Output comparators These are used in dynamic testing-both single-module
and multiple-module (system level) varieties to check that predicted and actual
outputs are equivalent. This is also done during regression testing.
3. Test data generatorsThis is a difficult one, and at least for the present is one
for which no general solution exists. One of the practical difficulties with test data
generation of sets of inequalities that represent the condition along a chosen path.
4. Test file generators This creates a file of information that is used as the
program and does so based on comments given by the user and/or from the data
descriptions program’s data definition section.
5. Test harness systemsThis is one that is bound around the test object and that
permits the easy modification and control of test inputs and output’s and provides
for online measurement of CI coverage values.
6. Test archiving systems: The goal is to keep track of series of tests ant to act as
the basis for documenting that the tests have been done and that no defects were
found during the process.

Q. 84 Explain the following Software Metrics


(i) Lines of Code (ii) Function Count
(iii) Token Count (iv) Equivalent size measure

Ans (i) Lines of code (LOC) is a software metric used to measure the size of a
software program by counting the number of lines in the text of the program's source
code. LOC is typically used to predict the amount of effort that will be required to
develop a program, as well as to estimate programming productivity or effort once
the software is produced. Advantages:-
1. Scope for Automation of Counting: Since Line of Code is a physical entity;
manual counting effort can be easily eliminated by automating the counting process.
Small utilities may be developed for counting the LOC in a program. However, a
code counting utility developed for a specific language cannot be used for other
languages due to the syntactical and structural differences among languages.
2. An Intuitive Metric: Line of Code serves as an intuitive metric for measuring the
size of software due to the fact that it can be seen and the effect of it can be

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visualized. Function Point is more of an objective metric which cannot be imagined


as being a physical entity, it exists only in the logical space. This way, LOC comes
in handy to express the size of software among programmers with low levels of
experience.
Disadvantages
1. Lack of Accountability: Lines of code measure suffers from some fundamental
problems. Some think it isn't useful to measure the productivity of a project using
only results from the coding phase, which usually accounts for only 30% to 35% of
the overall effort.
2. Lack of Cohesion with Functionality: Though experiments have repeatedly
confirmed that effort is highly correlated with LOC, functionality is less well
correlated with LOC. That is, skilled developers may be able to develop the same
functionality with far less code, so one program with less LOC may exhibit more
functionality than another similar program. In particular, LOC is a poor productivity
measure of individuals, because a developer who develops only a few lines may still
be more productive than a developer creating more lines of code.
3. Adverse Impact on Estimation: Because of the fact presented under point (a),
estimates based on lines of code can adversely go wrong, in all possibility.
4. Developer’s Experience: Implementation of a specific logic differs based on
the level of experience of the developer. Hence, number of lines of code differs from
person to person. An experienced developer may implement certain functionality in
fewer lines of code than another developer of relatively less experience does, though
they use the same language.
(ii) Function count:- It measures the functionality from the user point of view,
that is, on the basis of what the user requests and receives in return. Therefore it
deals with the functionality being delivered, and not with the lines of code, source
modules, files etc. measuring size is in this way has the advantage that size measure
is independent of the technology used to deliver the function.
Features:-
• Function point approach is independent of the language tools, or
methodologies used for implementation.
• They can be estimated from requirement specification or design
specification.
• They are directly linked to the statement of requirements.
• They are based on the system user’s external view of the system, non-
technical users of the software system have a better understanding of what function
points are measuring.
(iii) Token count:- A program is considered to be series of tokens and if we count
the number of tokens, some interesting results may emerge. Tokens are classified as
either operators or operands. All software science measures are functions of the
counts of these tokens.
Variables, constants and even labels are operands. Operators consist of arithmetic
symbols such as +, -. /, * and command names such as “while”, “for”, “printf”,
special symbols such as : =, braces, parentheses, and even function names such as
“eof”.
The size of the vocabulary of a program, which consists of the number of unique
tokens to build a program, is defined as:-
n =n1 + n2
Where, n : vocabulary of a program.
n1: number of unique operators

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n2: number of unique operands.


(iv) Equivalent size measure:- Models makes no distinction between a new
software and the portion being reused. The equivalent size measure Se, is a
function of Sn (new developed code) and Su (reused code); means that the efforts
required to develop the software with Sn and Su is equivalent to the effort of
developing a product with Se “from scratch”. Sometimes there may be an
undesirable situation in which it actually costs more to put together several existing
program segments then it would to construct equivalent software from scratch.
Boehm has proposed a function for equivalent size measure as
Se=Sn+(a/100)Su
Where the adjustment factor ‘a’ is determined by the percentage of modification
required of design(DM), of the code(CM), and of the efforts necessary for the
integration of the modified code(IM).

Q. 85 Explain incremental model? Define core product and detailed


plan.

Ans. The incremental model is proposed by D.L PARNAS. It is basically


implemented by combining elements of linear sequential model and iterative
prototyping model. Incremental development refer to the process of developing to
completion only a part of the requirement at a time by selectively developing parts
of the requirements, designing, coding and testing software that means these
require functions, the software product may be built up incrementally to its final
configuration. This approach model releases the product partially to the customer
in the beginning and slowly at increased functionality to the system. That is why it
is called incremental model.
The model prioritizes the system requirements and implements them and
implements them in groups. Each new release of the system enhances the
functionality of the previously released system thereby reducing the cost of project.
In the first release on the functionality of the product is offered to the customer. In
the second release, functionality A+ functionality B is offered. Finally, in release 3
functionality A, B and C are offered. Therefore with each release in addition to
new functionality in the system, functionality of earlier release may also be
enhanced.
Advantages of incremental Model:-
• As product is to be delivered in parts, total cost of the project is distributed.
• Limited number of persons can be put on to the project because work is to
be delivering in parts.
• As development activities for next release and use of early version of
product is done. Simultaneously, error if found can be corrected.
• Customers or end users get the chance to see the useful functionality early
in SDLC.
• As a result, of end users feedback requirements for successive release
become clearer.
• Testing also becomes easier.
• Risk of failure of product is decreased as user start using the product early.

Q.86 What is Data Dictionary? Explain each component?

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Ans Data dictionary is a storehouse of data giving information about data. It is a


list of terms and their definition for all data items and data files of a system. A data
dictionary contains descriptions and definitions concerning the data structure, data
elements, their interrelationships and other characteristics of a system.
Objectives of Data dictionaries:-
1) A standard definition of all terms in a system, that is each item of data is
uniquely identified and defined.
2) Easy cross-referencing between sub-systems, programs and modules.
3) Simpler program maintenance.
Data Items:
There are three classes of data items in a data dictionary:-
1) Data element- It is the smallest unit of data which cannot be meaningfully
decomposed further. e.g. Employee number etc.
2) Data structure- A group of data elements forms a data structure.
3) Data Flows and Data Stores- data Flows are data structures in motion
whereas data stores are data structures at rest.

Q.87 What specific languages can be used in SRS? What are the advantages of
using these specific languages of SRS?

Ans. Requirement specification necessitates the use of some specification language.


The language should support the desired qualities of the SRS- modifiability,
understandability, unambiguous, and so forth. The language should be easy to learn
and use.
For ease of understanding a natural language might be preferable. Though formal
notations exist for specifying specific properties of the system, natural languages are
now most often used for specifying requirements. The overall SRS is generally in a
natural language, and when flexible and desirable, some specifications in the SRS may
use formal languages.
The major advantage of using a natural language is that both client and superior
understand the language. However, by the very nature of a natural language, it is
imprecise and ambiguous. To reduce the drawback of natural language, most often
natural language is used in a structured fashion. In structured English, requirements
are broken into sections and paragraphs. Each paragraph is then broken into sub
paragraphs.
In an SRS, some parts can be specified better using some formal notation, example- to
specify formats of inputs or outputs, regular expression can be very useful.
Similarly when discussing system like communication protocols, finite state automata
can be used. Decision tables are useful to formally specify the behavior of a system on
different combination of input or settings.

Q.88 Draw the flow chart of Risk Management-Activity and explain various
Software risks.

Ans “RISK” is a problem that could cause some loss or threatens the success
of the project, but which has not happened yet.
Typical Software Risks:-
1. Dependencies: -Many risks arise due to dependencies of project on
outside agencies or factors. It is not easy to control these external
dependencies. Some typical dependency-related risk factors are:-

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• Availability of trained, experienced people.


• Intercomponent or inter-group dependencies.
• Customer-furnished items or information
• Internal and external subcontractor relationships.
2. Requirement Issues:-Many project face uncertainty and turmoil
around the product’s requirements. If we do not control
requirements-related risk factors, we might either build the wrong
product, or build the right product badly. Either situation results in
unpleasant surprises and unhappy customers. Some typical factors:-
• Lack of clear product vision.
• Lack of agreement on product requirements.
• Unprioritized requirements.
• New market with uncertain needs.
• Rapidly changing requirements.
3. Management Issues:-Project managers usually write the risk
management plan, and most people do not wish to air their weaknesses in
public. If we do not confront such touchy issues, we should not be surprised if
they bite us at some point.
• Inadequate planning and task identification
• Inadequate visibility into actual project status.
• Unclear project ownership and decision making.
• Unrealistic commitments made, sometimes for the wrong reasons.
• Staff personality conflicts.
• Poor communication.
4. lack of Knowledge:-The rapid rate of change of technologies, and
the increasing change of skilled staff, means that our project teams
may not have the skills we need to be successful. Some of the
factors are:-
• Inadequate training.
• Poor understanding of methods, tools, and techniques.
• Inadequate application domain experience.
• New technologies.
• Ineffective, poorly documented, or neglected processes.

Q.89 Software project planning entails what activities? What are the difficulties
faced in measuring the Software Costs?

Ans. Software project planning entails the following activities:


• Estimation:
o –Effort, cost, resource, and project duration
• Project scheduling:
• Staff organization:
o –staffing plans
• Risk handling:
o -identification, analysis, and abatement procedures
• Miscellaneous plans:
o –quality assurance plan, configuration management plan, etc.
Software costs are due to the requirement for software, hardware and human
resources. One can perform cost estimation at any point in the software life cycle.

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As the cost of software depends on the nature and characteristics of the project, the
accuracy of estimate will depend on the amount of reliable information we have
about the final product. So when the product is delivered, the costs can be actually
determined as everything spend is known by then. However when the software is
being initiated or during feasible study, we have only some idea about the
functionality of software. There is very high uncertainty about the actual
specifications of the system hence cost estimations based on uncertain information
cannot be accurate.

Q.90 Explain the types of COCOMO Models and give phase-wise distribution of
effort.

Ans. COCOMO model stand for Constructive Cost Model. It is an empirical model
based on project experience. It is well-documented, independent model, which is not
tied to a specific software vendor. Long history from initial version published in
1981(COCOMO-81) through various instantiations to COCOMO 2. COCOMO 2
takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse etc.
This model gives 3 levels of estimation namely basic, intermediate and detail.
1) Basic COCOMO model:- It gives an order of magnitude of cost. This model
uses estimated size of software project and the type of software being developed.
The estimation varies for various types of projects and these various kinds are:-
• Organic-mode project:- These project include relatively small teams working
in a familiar environment, developing a well understood application, the feature of
such project are-
1) The communication overheads are low.
2) The team members know what they can achieve.
3) This project is much common in nature.
• Semi-detached model: A project consists of mixed project team of
experienced and fresh engineers. The team has limited experience of related system
development and some of them are unfamiliar with output and also some aspects of
system being developed.
• Embedded model:- There will be very strong coupled hardware, software
regulations and operational procedures. Validation costs are very high. For e.g. System
program and development of OCR for English.
2) Intermediate COCOMO model:-
The intermediate COCOMO model estimates the software development effort by
using 15 cost drivers’ variables besides the size variable used in basic COCOMO.
3) Detailed COCOMO model:-
The detailed COCOMO model can estimate the staffing cost and duration of each of
the development phases, subsystem, and modules. It allows you to experiment with
different development strategies, to find the plan that best suits your needs and
resources.

Q.91 Differentiate between function oriented design and object oriented


design.

Ans. Function oriented design:- Function oriented design strategy relies on


decomposing the system into a set of interacting functions with a centralized
system state shared by these functions. Functions may also maintain local state
information but only for the duration of their execution. Function oriented design

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conceals the details of an algorithm in a function but system state information is


not hidden.
Object oriented design:-Object oriented design transforms the analysis model created
using object-oriented analysis into a design model that serves as a blueprint for
software construction. It is a design strategy based on information hiding. Object
oriented design is concerned with developing an object-oriented model of a software
system to implement the identified requirements. Object oriented design establishes a
design blueprint that enables a software engineer to define object oriented
architecture in a manner that maximizes reuse, thereby improving development speed
and end product quality.
Object oriented design Vs function oriented design-
• Unlike function oriented design methods, in OOD, the basic abstractions
are not real world function such as sort, display, track etc. but real world
entities such as employee, picture, machine etc.
• In OOD, state information is not represented in a centralized shared
memory but is distributed among the objects of the system.

Q.92 What is stepwise refinement? Discuss partitioning & abstraction.

Ans. Stepwise Refinement:-Stepwise Refinement is a top-down design strategy


originally proposed by Niklaus Wirth. A program is developed by successively
refining levels of procedural detail. A hierarchy is developed by decomposing a
macroscopic statement of function in a stepwise fashion until programming language
statements are reached.
Refinement is actually a process of elaboration. We begin with a statement of
function that is defined at a high level of abstraction. That is, the statement describes
function or information conceptually but provides no information about the internal
workings of the function or the internal structure of the information. Refinement
causes the designer to elaborate on the original statement, providing more and more
detail as each successive refinement occurs.
Partitioning:-Problems are often too large and complex to be understood as a whole.
For this reason, we tend to partition such problems into parts that can be easily
understood and establish interfaces between the parts so that overall function can be
accomplished.
Partitioning decomposes a problem into its constituent parts. We establish a
hierarchical representation of function or information and then partition the
uppermost element by:-
1) Exposing increasing detail by moving vertically in the hierarchy or
2) Functionality decomposing the problem by moving horizontally in
the hierarchy.
Abstraction:- Abstraction permits one to concentrate on a problem at some level of
generalization without regard to irrelevant low level details; use of abstraction also
permits one to work with concepts and terms that are familiar in the problem
environment without having to transform them to an unfamiliar structure.
• It allows considering the modules at the abstract level without worrying about
its details.
• It provides external behavior of the modules.
• It is used for existing modules as well as for modules that are being design.
• It is essential for the problem partitioning.

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Q.93 Differentiate between failures and faults.

Ans. Failure:-Failure is the departure of external results of program operation from


requirements. So failure is something dynamic. Failure can also be defined as
deficiency in performance, attributes and excessive response time.
There are four general ways of characterizing failure occurrence in time:-
1) Time of failure.
2) Time interval between failures.
3) Cumulative failures experienced up to a given time.
4) Failure experienced in a time interval.
Various failure classes are transient, permanent, recoverable, unrecoverable, non-
corrupting, and corrupting.
Fault:- fault is the defect in the program that, when executed under particular
condition, causes of failure. A fault is a property of the program rather than a
property of its execution or behavior.
Various fault classes are data faults, control faults, input/output faults, interface
faults, storage management faults, and exception management faults.

Q.94 What do you understand by black box testing? Explain:


(i) Equivalence class
(ii) Equivalence partitioning

Ans. Black Box Testing:-Black Box Testing is also called behavioral testing,
focuses on the functional requirements of the software. It enables the software
engineer to derive sets of input conditions that will fully exercise all functional
requirements for a program. It is a complementary approach that is likely to
uncover a different class of errors than white box testing.
Black Box Testing attempts to find errors in the following categories:-
1) Incorrect or missing functions.
2) Interface errors.
3) Errors in data structures or external database access.
4) Behavior or performance errors.
5) Initialization and termination errors.
Black Box Testing tends to be applied during later stages of testing because black box
testing purposely disregards control structures; attention is focused on the information
domain.
Equivalence class:-It represents a set of valid or invalid states for input conditions. An
input condition is either a specific numeric value, a range of values, a set of related
values, or a Boolean condition. Equivalence class may be defined according to the
following guidelines:-
1) If an input condition specifies a range, one valid and two invalid
equivalence classes are defined.
2) If an input condition requires a specific value, one valid and two invalid
equivalence classes are defined.
3) If an input condition specifies a member of a set, one valid and one
invalid equivalence class are defined.
4) If an input condition is Boolean, one valid and one invalid class are
defined.
Equivalence Partitioning:-Equivalence partitioning is black box testing method that
divides the input domain of a program into classes of data from which test cases can

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be derived. An ideal test case single-handedly uncovers a class of errors that might
otherwise require many cases to be executed before the general error is observed.
Equivalence partitioning strives to define test case that uncovers classes of errors,
thereby reducing the total number of test case that must be developed.

Q.95 Explain
(i) Reverse Engineering
(ii) Re-Engineering

Ans i) REVERSE ENGINEERING:-It is a process of analyzing software with a view


to understanding its design and specification.
• In this, source code and executable code are the input.
• It may be part of a re-engineering process but may also be used to re-
specify a system for re-implementation.
• Builds a program data base and generates information from this.
• Program understanding tools (browsers, cross reference generates,
etc.) may be used in this process.
• Design and specification may be reverse re-engineer to:-
a) Serve as input to SRS for program replacement.
b) Be available to help program maintenance.
Reverse Engineering often precedes Re-Engineering but is sometimes worthwhile in
its own right. The design and specification of a system may be reverse engineered so
that they can be an input to the requirements specification process for the system
replacement. The design and specification may be reverse engineered to support
program maintenance.
ii) RE-ENGINEERING:- It is re-organizing and modifying existing system to make
them more maintainable. It involves:-
• Source code translation.
• Reverse engineering.
• Program structure development.
• Program modularization.
• Data re-engineering.
Restructuring or re-writing part or all of the legacy system without hanging its
functionality. Legacy system is a system that is hard to maintain. So it involves:-
1) Re-documenting the system.
2) Organizing and re-structuring the system.
3) Modifying and upgrading structure and value of the system data.
4) Input to a re-engineering process is a legacy system and output is a
structure modularized version of the same program. So re-engineering
involves adding effort to make them easier to maintain. The system may be
restructured or redocumented.
When to Re-Engineer?
• When the system changes are mostly confined to part of the system
then re-engineer that part.
• When hardware or software support becomes obsolete.
• When tools to support re-structuring are available.
Advantages of Re-Engineering:-

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1) Reduced risk – there is a high risk in new software development.


There may be development problems, staffing problems and
specification problems.
2) Reduced cost – the cost of re-engineering is often significantly less
than the cost of developing new software.
Re-Engineering cost factors:-
1) The quality of the software to be re-engineered.
2) The tool support available for re-engineering.
3) The extent of the data conversion, which is required.
4) The availability of expert staff for re-engineering.

Q.96 Explain various types of debugging techniques used in Software


testing.

Ans. Debugging is the activity of locating and correcting errors. Various debugging
techniques are:-
1) Core dumps:-A printout of all registers and relevant memory location is obtained
and studies. All dumps should be well documented and retained for possible use on
subsequent problems.
Advantages:-
1. The complete contents of a memory at a crucial instant of time are
obtained for study.
2. Can be cost effective if used to explore validity of a well formulated
error hypothesis.
Disadvantages:-
1. Require some CPU time, significant input time, and much analysis
time.
2. Wasteful if used indiscriminately.
3. Hexadecimal numbers are cumbersome to interpret and it is difficult to
determine the address of source language variables.
2) Traces:-Printout contains only certain memory and register contents and printing
is conditional on some event occurring. Typical conditionings are entry, exit, or use
of-
1) A particular subroutine, statement, macro, or database;
2) Communication with a terminal, printer, disk, or other peripheral;
3) The value of a variable or expression; and
4) Timed actuations in certain real time system.
A special problem with trace programs is that the conditions are entered in the
source language and any changes require a recompilation.
3) Print statements:-The standard print statement in the language being used is
sprinkled throughout the program to output values of key variables.
Advantages:-
1) This is a simple way to test whether a particular variable
changes, as it should after a particular event.
2) A sequence of print statements portrays the dynamics of variable
changes.
Disadvantages:-
1) They are cumbersome to use on large programs.
2) If used indiscriminately they can produce copious data to be
analyzed much of which are superfluous.

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4) Debugging programs:-A program which runs concurrently with the program under
test and provides commands to examine memory and registers, stop execution of a
program at a particular point, search for references to particular constants, variables,
registers.
Advantages:-
1) Terminal oriented real time program.
2) Considerable flexibility to examine dynamics of operation.
Disadvantages:-
1) Generally works on a machine language program.
2) Higher-level language versions must work with interpreters.
3) More commonly used on microcomputers than large computers.
(ii) Spiral Model: The Spiral model is one of the popular model used for large
projects. This model was proposed by Boehm in 1988 and it focuses on minimizing
the risk through the use of prototype. We can view the Spiral Model as a waterfall
model with each stage preceeded by Risk analysis stage. The model is divided into
four quadrants, each with a specific purpose as shown in the fig. Each spiral
represents the progress made in the project. In the first quadrant objectives,
alternative means to develop product and constraints imposed on the products are
identified. The next quadrant deals with identification of risk and strategies to
resolve the risks. The third bottom right quadrant follows the waterfall model. In the
bottom left quadrant customer evaluates the product requirements are further
refined. If at some stage during the project risk cannot be resolved, project is
terminated. The model is used if the requirements are very complex or some new
technology is being introduced by the company.
Advantages:
1. The model tries to resolve all possible risks involved in the project.
2. Each phase of the model improves the quality of the product.
Disadvantages:
1. The model is suitable only for large size projects because in some cases the cost
of risk analysis may exceed the actual cost of the project.
2. Expertise in risk management and project management is essential.

Optimizing: This is the highest level of process maturity in CMM. This level focuses
on continuous process improvement in the organization using quantitative feedback,
latest tools and technology. The important KPAs at this level are:
• Defect Prevention
• Technology Change Management

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• Process Change Management

Q.97 What is the use of a data flow diagram? Explain the important concepts of data
flow diagram.

Ans. A data flow diagram is used to show the functional view of an application
domain. It shows all the important business processes and the flow of data between
those processes. The main concepts used are:
(i) A process represents some kind of transformation on data. It takes as input one or
more inputs and after doing necessary processing generates the output. It is
represented by a circle with the name written inside as shown
(ii) Data Flow: A data flow represents data in motion and is represented by an arrow.
The data flows represent the flow of data among processes, stores and external agents.
(iii) Data Store: A data store represents the data at rest. At the time of implementation
it is represented by data base or files. Graphically I is shown as in figure.
(iv) External Agent: An external agent represents a person, a system or any other
software which interacts with the system by providing necessary inputs and outputs.
Graphically it is represented by a rectangle.
(b) Draw a context diagram for a Library management system.

Q.98 What is Software requirement Specification (SRS)? Why is it important? List


the characteristic of a good quality SRS?

Ans: Software Requirement Specification Document is the output of requirement


analysis stage o the software development life cycle. It documents all types of
requirements and constraints imposed on the end product. This document is important
because it is used in all the successive stages of SDLC. Any error introduced here will
result in to incomplete and bad quality product. The characteristics of a good quality
SRS are:
(i) Correctness
(ii) Completeness
(iii) Consistency
(iv) Unambiguousness
(v) Ranking for importance and/ or stability
(vi) Modifiability
(vii) Verifiability

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(viii) Traceability
(ix) Design Independent
(x) Understandable by customer

Q.99 What is the difference between module coupling and module collection? List
different types of coupling and cohesion.

Ans: Cohesion is the property of a single module and can be described as a glue that
keeps the data elements within a single module together. While defining, we must aim
for high cohesion. Different types of cohesion are:
• Coincidental Cohesion
• Logical Cohesion
• Temporal Cohesion
• Communicational Cohesion
• Sequential Cohesion
• Functional Cohesion
• Procedural Cohesion
Coupling on the other hand is the measure of dependence among modules. A designer
must try for minimum coupling. Different types of coupling are:
• Content Coupling
• Common Coupling
• Control Coupling
• Stamp Coupling
• Data Coupling

Q 100 What are the different levels of testing? Explain in details.

Ans:The different levels of testing are:


• Unit Testing
• Integration Testing
• System Testing
Unit Testing: The unit testing is done to test the individual module of the software.
Test cases are designed to test the program logic, functionality, interfaces etc. in a
module. Since individual module is being tested, white box testing techniques are
used here. Wherever required, stubs and drivers are also written to test the module,
which increase the cost of the testing.
Integration Testing: In this the module are systematically integrated and tested to find
interface problems, protocol design error, errors due to global values, input/ output
format errors etc. Different strategies can be:
• Bottom up Integration: In this type of testing the modules at the leaf level are
first tested and then we move up in the hierarchy. Drivers are used in this type of
testing at different levels of hierarchy. Driver is a program which accepts the test case
data to be inputted and printed by the module to be tested.
• Top Down Integration: In this case we start the top most module in the
hierarchy and move down till the leaf modules are tested. Where ever required
necessary stubs/ drivers are used. A stub is a program which simulates the module
called by the module to be tested.

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• Big-Bang Testing: In this all the modules after unit testing are combined and
tested in one go. The problem with this kind of testing is debugging of errors.
• Sandwich Testing: This technique makes use of combination of top down and
Bottom up testing.
System Testing: This testing focuses on validating the product with respect to
software specification Document. Techniques like function testing (using Black Box
testing), Performance testing and acceptance testing (to be done by end user) is done
here to test the product.

Q.101 What are the advantages of using testing tools? Explain in detail different type of
testing tools.

Ans: The advantages of testing tools are:


• They improve the productivity and quality of software development.
• Help in identification of errors which are difficult and time consuming to find
manually.
• Reduce the testing time.
• Help in running large volumes of test unattended for 24 hours.
• Automatic generation of test cases.
• Automated the regression testing.
• Improve the productivity of the testers.
Some of the important testing tools are:
(a) Test Case Generators: These tools generate test cases from SRS, program or test
design languages. They use certain rules called test design techniques to generate rest
cases.
(b) Capture/ Playback and Test harness tools: These tools automate the re running of
manual test by recording and replaying the test scripts. The recorded test scripts can
also be edited as per need. They can be either intrusive or non intrusive type. Intrusive
tools along with software under test reside on the same machine.
(c) Coverage Analysis Tools: These tools ensure that the software is tested and helps
the tester to find the parts which are not covered.
(d) Test Comparators: These tools compare the results of software under test with the
expected results and generate the report.
(e) Memory Testing Tools: These tools are used to test memory related problems.
such as using uninitialized memory location, accessing memory locations which are
out of range etc.
(f) Simulators: These tools are used to simulate the hardware/ software with which
software under test is going to interact.
(g) Test database: It is a sample of database which is being manipulated by software
under test.

Q102 Define Reverse Engineering? What are the main objectives of reverse
engineering?

Ans: The reverse engineering is the process of generating representations that are
implementation independent, starting from code. It is opposite of normal forward
engineering process. The main objectives of the reverse Engineering process are:
(i) It helps the companies to understand the complexities of the system
(ii) Helps the analyst to generate useful lost information about legacy systems

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(iii) Can be used to identify reusable components for analysis and future use
(iv) Helps in generating graphical representation of the system from different
perspectives e.g. ER diagram, DFD, class diagram etc.
(v) Can be used as a part of Reengineering process.
(vi) Over a period of time modifications made to the software also result into
unexpected problems. The anomalies can be detected using reverse engineering
techniques.

Q.103 Write short notes on following maintenance models – Quick-fix Model and
Iterative Enhancement model.

Ans: Quick-fix Model: This is the simplest model used for the maintenance of the
software. In this model changes at the code level are made as early as possible
without anticipating future maintenance problems. This model is not suitable for
large and complex software systems. It should be used if the size of the software is
small and is developed and maintained by one person. Also if the customers want
fixing of bugs to be done immediately one can use this model. In that bugs can be
fixed temporarily and parallely, proper correction can be done.
Iterative Enhancement model: This model incorporates changes in the software
based on the analysis of the existing system. Also the complete documentation of the
system is available before doing any changes. In case of any change made, all the
documents at different stages i.e. SRS, Design document, testing document etc. are
also modified so as to support the next change successfully.

Q.104 What is verification? (2)

Ans.Verification is the process of determining whether the output of one phase of


software development conforms to that of its previous phase, whereas validation is
the process of determining whether a fully developed system conforms to its
requirements specification. Thus while verification is concerned with phase
containment of errors, the aim of validation is that the final product be error free.

Q.105 Describe design walk throughs and critical design review. (8)

Ans.A design walkthrough is a quality practice that allows designers to obtain an


early validation of design decisions related to the development and treatment of
content, design of the graphical user interface, and the elements of product
functionality. Design walkthroughs provide designers with a way to identify and
assess early on whether the proposed design meets the requirements and addresses
the project's goal.
For a design walkthrough to be effective, it needs to include specific components.
The following guidelines highlight these key components. Use these guidelines to
plan, conduct, and participate in design walkthroughs and increase their
effectiveness.
1. Plan for a Design Walkthrough
2. Get the Right Participants
3. Understand Key Roles and Responsibilities
4. Prepare for a Design Walkthrough
5. Use a Well-Structured Process
6. Review and Critique the Product, not the Designer

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7. Review, do not Solve Problems


The purpose of critical design review is to ensure that the detailed design satisfies the
specifications laid down during system design. The critical design review process is
same as the inspection process in which a group of people gets together to discuss the
design with the aim of revealing design errors or undesirable properties.

Q.106 Explain the relationship between


(i) Productivity and difficulty
(ii) Time and cost. (6)

Ans
(i) Productivity and difficulty
Productivity refers to metrics and measures of output from production processes,
per unit of input. Productivity P may be conceived of as a metrics of the technical or
engineering efficiency of production. In software project planning , productivity is
defined as the number of lines of code developed per person-month
Difficulty The ratio (K/td2), where K is software development cost and td is peak
development time, is called difficulty and denoted by D, which is measured in
person/year.
D= (K/td2)
The relationship shows that a project is more difficult to develop when the
manpower demand is high or when the time schedule is short.
Putnam has observed that productivity is proportional to the difficulty
Pα Dβ
The average productivity may be defined as
P=Lines of code produced/Cumulative manpower used to produce code
=S/E
Where S is the lines of code produced and E is cumulative manpower used from t=0
to td (inception of the project to the delivery time)
(ii) Time and cost
In software projects, time cannot be freely exchanged against cost. Such a trade off is
limited by the nature of the software development. For a given organization,
developing software of size S, the quantity obtained is constant. We know
K1/3 td 4/3 =S/C
If we raise power by 3, then Ktd4 is constant for constant size software. A
compression of the development time td will produce an increase of manpower cost.. If
compression is excessive, not only would the software cost much more, but also the
development would become so difficult that it would increase the risk of being
unmanageable.

Q 107 Write short notes on


(i) Configuration Management
(ii) Decision Table

Ans: (i) Configuration Management:


Due to several reasons, software changes during its life cycle. As a result of the
changes made, multiple versions of the software exist at one time. These changes
must be managed, controlled and documented properly in order to have reliable
systems. Configuration management helps the developers to manage these changes
systematically by applying procedures and standards and by using automated tools.

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Though multiple versions of the software exist in the tool repository, only one official
version of set of project components exist called baseline. The different components
of the baseline are called configuration items. Some examples of configuration items
are project plan, SRS, Design document, test plans, user manuals etc. A group of
people constitute Configuration Control Board (CCB) which controls the changes to
be made to the software. Whenever changes are to be made the following steps are
followed:
(i) Submit the change request along with details to CCB
(ii) CCB accesses the change request after proper evaluation.
(iii) Depending upon the results, the request is either accepted or rejected or can be
deferred for the future assessment.
(iv) If accepted, proper plan is prepared to implement the change.
(v) Once changes are made, after validating by the quality personnel, all configuration
items are updated.
Some popular configuration management tools are Clear CASE, Visual Source Safe
etc.
(ii) Decision Table: When the process logic for a process involves multiple
conditions and is very complicated, it is not advisable to use structured English.
Instead decision tables are used. Main parts of the table are:
1. Condition Stubs
2. Action Stubs
3. Roles
Condition stubs list all the conditions relevant to the decision. Action part lists all the
actions that will take place for a valid set of conditions. Finally rules part of the table
specify the set of conditions that will trigger a particular action. A sample decision
table is shown below:
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3
Condition 1 X X
Condition 2 X
Condition 3 X X
Condition 4 X
Action 1 X
Action 2 X
Action 3 X
From this table it is clear that if conditions 1 and 3 are satisfied, Action 1 will be
triggered.

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PART III
NUMERICALS
Q1 For the flow graph shown in fig ,
(i) compute the McCobe’s cyclomatic complexity
(ii) Find out independent path

Ans
(i) Cyclomate complexity, V (G)
V(G) = E-N+2
Where E is the no of flow graph edges and N is the no of nodes .
So we have E = 8 N = 7 and V(G) = 8-7+2 = 3

(ii) independent path


(i) 1,2,3,5,6,7
(ii) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
(iii)1,2,3,4,6,7

Q2 Drive an expression for peak manning of a project using Nordes / Rayleigh


equation .

Ans Norden Rayleigh curve used to approximate software project .


M(t) =Man power utilization
= dy/dt = 2kate-at2 -------------(1)
K = Area under the curve t=time
Integrating eg . (1) with respect to t
Y(t) = k[1-e-at2] ----------------(2)
Differentiating eq (1) with respect to t
M’(t) = d2y/dt2 = 2kae-at2(1-2at2) ---------(3)
Put a=1/2td2 and t=td in eq (1)
M(t) = 2kate-at2 = 2k*1/2t2d *td e-1/2td2 *td
= k/tde-1/2 = k/tde1/2
M0 = k/tde1/2
M0 = peak manning of a project .

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Q3 Assuming the Putnam model and given S = 100,000 C = 5000 and D0 = 15


calculate the development time td. (4)

Ans: In Putnam model


(S/C ) 3 = D0td7
lhs = 203 = 8000
td7 = 8000/ 15
td is seventh root of 533.33

Q 4. Define the failure intensity of the Basic model. (4)

Ans: The failure intensity of the Basic model is


λ (µ) = λ0 [1 – µ / v0]
where λ0 is the initial failure intensity and µ is the average number of failures
expected at any given point in time. The quantity v0 is the total number of failures
that would occur at infinite time.

Q 5. Assume a program will experience a total of 200 failures. Initial failure


intensity is 16 failure/ CPU hr. It has now experienced 50 failures. Determine
the following after specifying the formula
a. Current failure intensity
b. Decrement of failure intensity
c. Failure intensity at 100 CPU hr. (4 x 3)

Ans:
i. Current failure intensity
λ (µ) = λ0 [1 – µ / v0] = 16 [ 1- 50 / 200] = 12 failure / CPU hr
ii. Decrement of failure intensity
dλ / dµ = -λ0 / v0 = 16 / 200 = -0.08 CPU hr
iii. Failure intensity at 100 CPU hr
λ (τ) = λ0 exp(- λ0τ / v0)
= 16 exp ( -16 * 100 / 200) = 16 exp(-8)

Q6 Consider the program given below


void main()
{
int i,j,k;
readln (i,j,k);
if( (i < j) || ( i > k) )
{
writeln("then part");
if (j < k)
writeln ("j less then k");
else writeln ( " j not less then k");
}
else writeln( "else Part"); }
(i) Draw the flow graph. (4)
(ii) Determine the cyclomatic complexity. (4)
(iii) Arrive at all the independent paths. (8)

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Ans:
void main()
{
1 int i,j,k;
2 readln (i,j,k);
3 if( (i < j) || ( i > k) )
{
4 writeln("then part");
5 if (j < k)
6 writeln ("j less then k");
7 else writeln ( " j not less then k");
8 }
9 else writeln( "else Part");
}

if (i < j) F
2
T
3 if ( i > k)
4
T
F
if (j < k)
5
T F

6 7

8 9

1
0

(ii) Cyclomatic complexity = E - N + 2 = 12 – 10 + 2 = 4


(iii) The four independent paths are
Path1 : 1 2 3 9 10
Path2 : 1 2 4 5 7 8 10
Path3 : 1 2 4 5 6 8 10
Path4 : 1 2 3 4 5 7 8 10

Q7. a) Define Annual Change Traffic (ACT) and Annual Maintenance Effort
(AME) of Boehm model. (4)
b) For a software system of 90 KLOC, 5KLOC of code was added. The
initial development cost was Rupees 8 lakhs with a total KLOC of 50. Total

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lifetime for the software is 10 years. Compute ACT and the total cost of the
system. (6)

Ans: a) Boehm proposed a formula for estimating maintenance costs as part of his
COCOMO model. He used a quantity called Annual Change Traffic (ACT)
which is defined as:
“ The fraction of a software product’s source instructions which undergo change
during a year either through addition, deletion or modification
ACT is defined as
ACT = (KLOC added + KLOC deleted) / KLOC total
(Annual Maintenance Effort)
AME is defined as ACT X SDE
where SDE is the software development effort in man-months]
ACT: Annual Change Traffic.

b) ACT = ( 5 ) / 50 = 0.10
Development cost = Rs. 8 lakhs.
Life time = 10 years
Total cost = development cost + 10 * (development cost * 0.10)
= 8 + 10 * .8 = 16 lakhs

Q 8. Consider a project for which the manpower requirement is 200 PY and the
development time is 2 years.
calculate the peak manning time.

Ans Software Project cost K=200 PY


Peak development time td =2 year =2 years
Peak manning m0=(k/ td* sqrt(e))=200/2*1.648=164.8 ≈164 persons

Q.9 For the program given below, calculate the values of software science
measures like η, N, V,E and λ.
1. int. sort (int x[], int n)
2. {
3. int i, j, save, im1;
4. /*This function sorts array x in ascending order*/
5. If (n<2) return 1;
6. for (i =2; i<=n;i++)
7. {
8. im1=i-1;
9. for (j=1;j<=im;j++)
10. if (x[i]<x[j] )
11. {
12. Save = x[i];
13. x [i]=x[j];
14. x [j]=save;
15. }
16. }
17. return 0;
18. }

Ans:

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This list of operators and operands is given in Table.


Operators Occurrences Operands Occurrences
int 4 SORT 1
() 5 x 7
, 4 n 3
[] 7 i 8
if 2 j 7
< 2 save 3
; 11 im1 3
for 2 2 2
= 6 1 3
- 1 0 1
<= 2 - -
++ 2 - -
return 2 - -
{} 3 - -
η1=14 N1=53 η2=10 N2=38

Here N1=53 and N2=38. The program length N =N1+N2=91


Vocabulary of the program η = η1+ η2=14+10=24
Volume V=Nxlog2 η
=91x log2 24=417 bits.
The estimated program length N of the program
=14 log214+10 log210
=14*3.81+10*3.32
=53.34+33.2=86.45
Conceptually unique input and output parameters are represented by η*2.
η*2=3 {x:array holding the integer to be sorted. This is used both as input and
output}.
{N: the size of the array to be sorted}.
The potential volume V*=5 log2 5=11.6
Since L=V*/V
=11.6/417=0.027
D=I/L
=1/0.027=37.03
Estimated program level
2 η 2 10
Lˆ = x 2 = x = 0.038
η1 N 2 14 38
We may use another formula
Vˆ * = VxLˆ = 417 x0.038 = 15.67
The discrepancy between V* and Vˆ * does not inspire confidence in the
application of this portion of software science theory to more complicated
programs.
E=V/ Lˆ = Dˆ x V
= 417/0.038=10973.68
Therefore, 10974 elementary mental discriminations are required to construct
the program.

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10974
T = E/β = = 610 seconds ≈ 10 minutes
18

Q.10 A software project is planned to cost 95PY in a period of 1 year (5)


and 9 months. Calculate the peak manning and average rate of
software them build up.

Ans. Software project cost K=95PY


Peak development time td=1.75years
K
Peak manning = mo =
td e
95
= 32.94 = 33 persons
1.75 x1.648
Average rate of software team build up
=mo/td=33/1.75=18.8 person/ year or 1.56 person / month.

Q.11 Assume that a program will experience 200 failures in infinite (6)
time. It has now experienced 100. The initial failure intensity
was 20 failures/CPU hr.
(i) Determine the current failure intensity
(ii) Find the decrement of failure intensity per failure.

Ans: Here
Vo = 200 failure
µ = 100 failure
λo = 20 failures / CPUhr.
(i) Current failure intensity:
 µ
λ ( µ ) = λo 1 − 
 Vo 
 100 
= 201 −  = 20(1 − 0.5) = 10 failures / CPU hr.
 200 
(ii) Decrement of failure intensity per failure can be
calculated as:
dλ − λo 20
= =− = −0.1 / CPU hr.
dµ Vo 200

Q.12 Compute function point value for a project with the following domain
characteristics:
No. of I/P = 30
No. of O/P = 62
No. of user Inquiries = 24
No. of files = 8
No. of external interfaces = 2
Assume that all the complexity adjustment values are average. Assume that
14 algorithms have been counted.

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Ans. We know
UFP=Σ Wij Zij where j=2 because all weighting factors are average.
=30*4+62*5+24*4+8*10+2*7
=120+310+96+80+14
=620
CAF=(0.65+0.01Σ Fi)
=0.65+0.01(14*3)
=0.65+0.42
=1.07
nFP=UFP*CAF
=620*1.07
=663.4≈663

Q.13 Consider a program that reads a set of Data for ‘n’ no. of triangles. The
program reads three integer values as representing the sides of triangles.
The program prints for each triangle whether the triangle is isosceles or
equilateral or a simple. Develop logic and do the following:
(i) Compute cyclomatic complexity?
(ii) Design test cases for loop testing?

Ans. The program logic will be as follows:


Enter three sides of a triangle.
Read a, b and c
If(a<b+c)AND(b<a+c)AND(c<a+b)
Then is_a_triangle=TRUE
Else is_a_triangle=FALSE;
IF is_a_triangle 1
Then
If(a=b)XOR(a=c)XOR(b=c) AND NOT ((a=b)AND(a=c))
Then print “Triangle is Isosceles” 2
If(a=b)AND(b=c)
Then print “Triangle is Equilateral” 3 4
If(a<>b)AND (a<>c) AND(b<>c)
Then print “Triangle is scalene”
Else 5
Print “Not a triangle”
The flow graph of the problem is given as in 6
the fig:

(i) There are 6 independent paths i.e. 7 8


1,2,3,9,14
1,2,4,5,6,8,11,13,14 9
1,2,3,5,6,8,11,13,14 1
1,2,4,5,6,7,8,11,13,14 1
1,2,4,5,6,8,10,11,13,14
1,2,4,5,6,8,11,12,13,14
Cyclomatic complexity is 6 1
1
(ii) Few test cases are:

1
78
AC16 Software Engineering

Test # Description Test Data


1 A valid scalene triangle. a = 2, b = 3, c = 4
2 An illegal triangle with a zero length side. a = 0, b = 1, c = 1
3 An illegal triangle with one short side. a = 1, b = 4, c = 2
4 A valid equilateral triangle. a = 1, b = 1, c = 1
5 A valid isosceles triangle. a = 1, b = 2, c = 2

Q.14 Consider a program which computes the square root of an input integer
between 0 and 5000. Determine the equivalence class test cases.
Determine the test cases using boundary value analysis also.

Ans. For a program that computes the square root of an input integer which can
assume values in the range of 0 to 5000, there are three equivalence classes: The set
of negative integers, the set of integers in the range of 0 and 5000, and the integers
larger than 5000. Therefore, the test cases must include representatives for each of the
three equivalence classes and a possible test set can be: {-5,500,6000}.
Boundary value analysis leads to selection of test cases at the boundaries of the
different equivalence classes. For a function that computes the square root of integer
values in the range of 0 and 5000, the test cases must include the following values: {0,
-1,5000,5001}.

Q.15 For the structural chart given in fig.1 calculate the Information Flow index of
individual modules as well as whole software.

Ans:
Information Flow index of
Module Fan-in Fan-out module(Fan-in*Fan-out)2
main 2 2 16
A 2 2 16
B 2 2 16
C 2 1 4
l 0 1 0
m 1 1 1
n 0 1 0
x 1 1 1

79
AC16 Software Engineering

y 1 0 0

Total information flow = IF (main) + IF (A) + IF (B) + IF (C) + IF (I) + IF (m)


+ IF (n) + IF (x) + IF (y)
= 16 + 16 + 16 + 4 + 0 + 1 + 0 + 1 + 0
= 54

Q.16 For the flow graph shown in Fig2, compute McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity.

Ans:In this flow graph, Number of regions are 5, hence the Cyclomatic complexity is
=5
OR
No of edges = 10
No of nodes (N) = 7
Hence Cyclomatic complexity + E-N+2 = 10-7+2 = 5

Q 17 Write a program in C to add two numbers and then calculate the values of the
following software science metrics :
(i) n(vocabulary of a program )
(ii) N (program length)
(iii)V(Volume)
(iv) L(program level)

Ans Void Main()


{ int i,j,sum
scanf(“%d%d”,i,j);
sum = i+j;
printf(“%d” ,sum);}

operators occurrences operands occurrences


main() 1
i 2

80
AC16 Software Engineering

j 2
scanf 1
sum 2
printf 1
n1=3 N1=3 n2=3 N2=6

(i) n(vocabulary of a program ) = n1 + n2 = 6


(ii) N (program length) = N1 + N2 = 9
(iii) V(Volume) = N log2 n
= 9 log2 6
(iv) L(program level) = 2/n1 * n2/N2
= 2/3 * 3/6
= 1/3
= 0.33

81
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s


module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test
Q.no 3. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 4. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 6. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 7. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints


and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design
B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 9. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 10. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 11. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development


Q.no 12. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 14. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review
D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 18. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 19. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 20. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 21. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux
C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 23. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 24. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 28. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software


B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 36. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 37. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level
C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 43. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects


B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 48. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring
B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 54. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests
D : if then-else

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team
C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 2. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 3. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable
B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 5. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when


operating within the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 7. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 8. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.


Q.no 9. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with
an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 11. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 12. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?
A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 14. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 15. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 16. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box
Q.no 18. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an
implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 19. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 20. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. RE represents what

A : Risk expense
B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 23. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 24. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 25. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 26. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items
Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 31. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 32. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 33. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 39. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure
D : Test Design

Q.no 41. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 43. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 44. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 45. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured
D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 46. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 47. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 48. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 49. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk
C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 51. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?
A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 58. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 59. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance


Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 1. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 2. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 3.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 4. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team
Q.no 5. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 6. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 7. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 8. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 9. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert
D : storesAlert

Q.no 10. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 11. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 12. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 13. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 14. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name
C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 15. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 17. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 19.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market


C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 20. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 21. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 22. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 23.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 24. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency
B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 25. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 26. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 27. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 31. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 32. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 35. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 37. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 38. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule
B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 39. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 40. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?


A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 45. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 46. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 48. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management
Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else
Q.no 57. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 1. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase


B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 2. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 3. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 5. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 6. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording
B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 7. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 9. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 10. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 11. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command


B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 12. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 13. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 14. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 15. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a type of maintainence


A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 17. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 18. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 19. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 20. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement
C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 21. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 22. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 23. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 24. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester
B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 29. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 30. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?


A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 31. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 32. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 33. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading


Q.no 40. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 41. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 42. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 43. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up
C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 45. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 46. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 47. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 49.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?
A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 52. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data
D : Test log

Q.no 54. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 55. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 56. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact
B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 1. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 2. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 3. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web


browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 6. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 7. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures
Q.no 8. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 10. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 12. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode
Q.no 13. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 14. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 15. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 16. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 17. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible


Q.no 18. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 19. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 20. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 22. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner


D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 24. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 26.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity
C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 28. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 29. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 32. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.


A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 33. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 36. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS
Q.no 37. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 38. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 39. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 40. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules
D : Process support modules

Q.no 42. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 45. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 46. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing
C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 47. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 49. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA
B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 54. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 55.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 59. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 60. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance
Q.no 1. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 2. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 3. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 4. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 5. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu
D : monitor

Q.no 6. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 8. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 9. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 10. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring
C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 11. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 12. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 13. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 14. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 15. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer
B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 16. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 17. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which
phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 18. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 19. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 20. The selenium can


A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 21. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 22. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 23. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 24. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests


D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 25. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of


accesspoints and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 28. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 29. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.


B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 34. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 35. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 37. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 38. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading


D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 39. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 43. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting


D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 44. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 45. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 48. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable


D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 49. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control
B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 58. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?


A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 1. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 2. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural


C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 3. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 5. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 6. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 7. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?
A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 8. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 9. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 10. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 11. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert
B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 12. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 13. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 14. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 15. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 16. Why do you think iteration is important for design?


A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 17. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 18. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 19. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 20. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage
D : waitForLoad

Q.no 21. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 22. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 23. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 24. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 25. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy
C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 28. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring
B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 31. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 34. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 35.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?


A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 36. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 37. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management
Q.no 40. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 41. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC
D:PxS

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 47. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 48. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?
A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing
D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance
C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 60. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 2. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 3. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.


B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 5. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 6. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 7. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 8. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 9. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 10. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 11. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world


Q.no 13. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 14. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 15. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 16. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 17. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency
D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent
platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 18. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 19. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 20. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 21. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 22. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify
C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 23. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 24. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 25. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 28. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing
Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with
Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 34. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 35. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 36. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box
D : Combination of all

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 39. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 40. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type
C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level
B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 48. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3
Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down
C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model
D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 1. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 2. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 4. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium
D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 6. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 7. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 9. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management


D : Software Course Management

Q.no 10. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 11. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 12. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 13. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability


D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 15. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 17. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 18. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 19. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software


C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 20. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 21. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 22.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 24. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing


C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 25. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 27. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 28. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 29.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective
C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?
A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 39. Which of the following statement is true?


A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing
Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management
Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 47. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 48. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing
D : Unit testing

Q.no 49. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 50. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 51. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing
B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?
A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 1. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation
Q.no 3. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 4. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 5. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 6. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 7. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components


D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the
components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 8. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web


browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 9. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 10. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 11. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 12. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix
B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 13. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 14.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 15. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box
Q.no 17. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 18.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 19. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 20. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 21. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing


C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 22. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 23. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 24. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 26. Beta Testing is done at:


A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code


Q.no 31. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 35. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits


C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 36. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 39. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 40. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 41. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 42. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk
C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 45. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 46. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 47. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 48. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 49. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model
C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 50. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram


B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user


D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 1. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 2. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering
B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 4. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 5. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 6. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 7. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 8. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 9. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 10. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 12. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys
D : sendKeys()

Q.no 13. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 14. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 15. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 16. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 17. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?
A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system
dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 18. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 19. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 21. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model
C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 22. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 23. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 24. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 25. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 27. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 28. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 29. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. What is Fault Masking?


A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 32. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 33. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 35. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable


Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 38. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based
B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 41. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 44. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project
A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 47. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 49. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling
Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 53. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 54.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model
D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down
C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 1. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 2. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 3. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 4. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data
C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 6. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 7. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 8. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 9. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation


C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 10. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 11. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 13. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 14. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding
B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 15. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 16. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 17. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 19. Out of the following which is not a wait comand


A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 21. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 22. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 23. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines


Q.no 24. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural
representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 25. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 26. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured
D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 30. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 31. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 32. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 34.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 36. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 37. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level
Q.no 38. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 39. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 40. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 41. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 42. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading


D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 43. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 44. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 45. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 46. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 47. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 48. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 49. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 50. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing
Q.no 52. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 55. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition
C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 60. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 1.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?
A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 2. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 3. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 4. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints


and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 5. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional
C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 7. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 8. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 9. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 10. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing
A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 11. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 12. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 13. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 14. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete
Q.no 15. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 16. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 17. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 18. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 19. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components


C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 20. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 23. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when


operating within the environment for which the system was intended
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 24. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 25. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 26. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 27. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails
C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 32. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 33. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control
B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 34. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 40. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 41. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 43. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 45. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 46. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 47. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC
D:PxS

Q.no 48. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 49. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 50. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 51. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 52. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram


C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.
A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 1. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0
Q.no 2. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 3. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 4. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 5. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 6. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications


D:0

Q.no 7. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done
in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 8. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 9. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 10.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 11. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data
C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 12. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 14. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 15. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture


Q.no 16. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 17. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 18. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 20. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository


D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 21. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 22. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 23. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 24. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 25. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system


B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 26. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 28. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3


Q.no 30. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 31. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 33. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 34. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3
C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 35. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 36. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 38. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 41. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 42. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 43. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 44. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit


B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 45. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 48. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk


A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 54. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2
B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 59. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 60.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 2. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 3. Exhaustive testing is:


A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 4. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 5. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 6.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 7. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 8. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?
A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 10. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 11. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 12. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming
D : After designing

Q.no 13. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 14. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 15. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 16. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 17. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts
C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 19. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 20. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 22. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection
C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 23. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 24. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 26. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation
C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 29. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 32. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems
B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 33. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Q.no 37. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 38. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 40. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 41. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing
D : Unit testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 43. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 44. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 45. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 46. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element
C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 47. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 48.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 49. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 50. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 51. The order in which test levels are performed is:
A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing
C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 1. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 2. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word


which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 3. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 4. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 5. System testing is a


A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 6. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 7. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 8. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 9. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text
Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 12. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 13. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 14. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques


Q.no 15. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 16. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 17. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 18. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 19. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode
D : Perfect mode

Q.no 20. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 21. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 22. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 23. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 24. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only


D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 26. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 28. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New
C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 32. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects


B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 35. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 38. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 39.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing


B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 40. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 41. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 42. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 47. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 48. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture


C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 49. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 51.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 52. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 56. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data
D : Test log

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 1. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 2. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent
C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 3. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 4.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 5. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 6. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s


module ?

A : Availability
B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 8. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to


change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 9. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 10. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 11. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 12. Which of these truly defines Software design?


A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 13. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 14. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 15. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?


A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 19. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 20. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 21. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods


Q.no 22. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software
development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 23. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 25. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 26. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 27.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 29. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 30. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing
B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 33. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 34. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 35. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 38. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items
C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 41. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 42. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 43. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 44. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 45. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design
C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 49. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 50. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk
B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 51. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by
A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance
D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 60. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 3. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 4. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid
D : Selenium Web

Q.no 5. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 6. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 7. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 8. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 9. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index
A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 10. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 13. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 14. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?
A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system
dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 15. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 16. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 17. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with
an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle
C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 19. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 20. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 21.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 22. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management


B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 24. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 25. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 26. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 27. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process
A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 29. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 30. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 31. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 32. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.
A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 35. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 36. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 37. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control


Q.no 38. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control
D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end
C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 49. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?


A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 54. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 55.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 56. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Q.no 57. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 59. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 2. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 3. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 5. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized
C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when
operating within the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 7. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 9. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 10. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?
A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 11. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 13. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test
Q.no 15. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 16. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 17. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 18. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity
C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 20. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 21. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 22. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 23. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 24. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert
B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 25. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 26. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 27. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 28. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode


D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 30. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 31. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 32. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 35. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down
Q.no 38. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 39. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 40. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 41. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing
D : Functional Testing

Q.no 43. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 44. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 45. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 47. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions


B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 48. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 50. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?


A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management
Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 59. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 1. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects


B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object
decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 2. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 3. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 4. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 5. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 6. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?


A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 7. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 8. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 10. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
Q.no 11. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 14. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 15. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration
Q.no 16. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 17. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 18. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 19. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 20. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase
Q.no 21. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 24. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 25. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design


D : Only Software testing

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 28. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 29. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 30. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element
C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 32. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 35. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk
B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation
D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 41.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer


D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 45. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 46. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 47.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 48. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 49. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 50. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram


B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:
A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 2. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 3. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification
Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 6. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 7. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s


module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability
D : Flexibility

Q.no 9. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 10. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 11. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 12. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 13. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting
C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 14. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 15. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 16. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 17. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 18. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements


B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 19. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 21. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 22. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components
D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 23. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 24. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which
phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 25. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 27. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 31. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a module type


A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 33. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 36. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing
Q.no 37. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 38. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 41. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.


D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 42. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 43. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 44. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 45. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New
C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 47. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 48. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as
A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group


Q.no 56. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control
B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 1. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 2. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 3. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 4. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?
A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 6. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 7. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 8. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 9. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText
D : OpenTable

Q.no 10. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 12. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 13. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 14. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode
C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 15. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 16. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 17. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 18. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.
Q.no 19. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web
browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 20. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 21. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 22. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 23. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox
D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 25. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture


C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 30. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 33. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering
B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 34. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 35. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 38. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 41. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 42. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer


D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 49. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 50. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log
Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 55. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 56. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang
D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 1. Select the name which is not the type of locators


A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 2. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 3. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 5. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 6. Verification is focused on


A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 7. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 8. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done
in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 9. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 10.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 11. Out of the following which is not a wait comand


A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 12. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 15. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity
C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 16. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 17. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 18. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 19. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 20. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers
C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 22. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 23. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 24. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 25. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.


B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 26. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 27. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 28. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 29. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level
D : maintainence level

Q.no 30. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 31. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 32. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective
C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 36. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 39. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into
A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 40. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 41. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 42. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 43. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk
Q.no 44. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 47. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 48. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design
C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 49. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 53. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 58. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 1. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 2.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase
D : Design phase

Q.no 3. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 6. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 7. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation


D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 8. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 10. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 11. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 12. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows
D : Solaries

Q.no 13. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 14. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 16. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 17. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC
C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 18. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 19. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 20. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 21. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 22. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese


C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 24. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 25. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy
B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 28. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 30. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing


B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 34. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 35. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 40. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 44. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 45. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 46. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect


B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 47. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 48. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing
B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control
Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow
and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 60. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang
D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 1. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 2. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 3. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 5.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used


D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 7. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 8. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 9. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 10. The selenium can


A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 11. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 13. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 15. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?
A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 16. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 18. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence
Q.no 20. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 21. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 22. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 23. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 24. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing
D : Specification

Q.no 25. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 26. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified
B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 30. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 31. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 32. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 33. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 38. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans


B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 41. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 44. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 45. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 46. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 47. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 48. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing
C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 49. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 50. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 51.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 52. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram


B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 2. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 3. WMITS stands for


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A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 4. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 5. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 6. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 7. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 8. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral


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B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 9. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 10. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 11. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 12. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 13. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()
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C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 14. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 15. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 18. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

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C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 19. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 20. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 21. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 23. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

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C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 24. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 26. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 27. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

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C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 31. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 32. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 33. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

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B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 35. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 36. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 37. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 38. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

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A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 39. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

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A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 46. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 48. What is “V” Model?

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A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 49. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA
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B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

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A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 2. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation
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B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 4. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 6. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 7. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 8. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

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B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 9. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 10. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 11. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 12. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 13. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI
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C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 14. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 15. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 17. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 18. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget


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D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 19. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 20. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 21. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 22. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 23. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

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D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 24. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 25. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 27. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 28. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

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B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 29. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 32. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 33. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

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B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 34. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 35. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 37. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs


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C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 42. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 43. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

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C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 47. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 48. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 49. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

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A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 54. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

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Q.no 58. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 3. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

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A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 4. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 5. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 6. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 8. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two
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B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 9. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 10. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 11. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 13. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

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A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 15. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 16. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 17. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before moving on to the
next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 18. What is TestNG ?

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A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 19. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 20. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 21. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 22. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing


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B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 24. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 25. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 27. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 28. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

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B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 29. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 30. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 33. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

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B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 36. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 37. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 38. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 39. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 40. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 41. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

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B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 44. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 45. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 46. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 47. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 48. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

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B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 49. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 51. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

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A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Q.no 58. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 2. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 3. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.
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B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 4. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 5. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 6. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 7. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 8. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible


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C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 9. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 10. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 11. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is
usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 12. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

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B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 14. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 15. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 18. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

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B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 19. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 20. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 21. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 22. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 23. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing


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C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 24. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 25. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 26. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 27. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 28. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

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C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 29. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 30. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 31. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 32. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 33. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

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C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 36. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

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C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 40. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 41. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

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B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 44. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 46. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

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B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

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A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

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Q.no 58. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 3. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

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A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 4. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 5. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 6. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 7. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 8. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall model?

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A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 10. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 11. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 12. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 13. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

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A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 14. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 15. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 17. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 18. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation
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B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 19. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 20. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 21. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 23. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

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B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 24. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 25. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 26. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 27. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 28. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

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B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 29. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 30. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

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A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 34. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

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A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 40. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 42. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 43. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

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A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 47. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

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Q.no 48. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 49. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 50. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

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D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

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D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 2. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 3. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver
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B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 4. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 6. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 7. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command


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C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 9. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 10. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 11. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 12. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 13. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

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C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 14. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 15. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 16. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 17. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 18. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

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C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 20. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 21. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 22. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 23. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance


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D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 24. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 25. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 28. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

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C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 29. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 30. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 31. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 33. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

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C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 38. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

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C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 39. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 40. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 41. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 42. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

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C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness
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D : abstraction level

Q.no 49. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 52. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

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C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

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B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 3. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

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A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 4. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 5. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 6. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

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Q.no 8. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 9. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 10. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 11. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 12. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

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Q.no 13. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 15. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 16. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 17. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

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Q.no 18. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 20. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 21. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 22. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

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Q.no 23. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 24. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 25. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

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Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 30. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 33. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 34. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 35. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 36. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 37. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

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Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 40. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 42. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

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Q.no 43. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

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D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 48. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 49. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

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D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

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C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 2. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 3. System testing is a

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A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 4. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 5. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 7. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 8. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

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A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 9. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 10. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 12. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 13. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering
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B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 14. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 15. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 16. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 17. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 18. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

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B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 19. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 20. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 21. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 22. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 23. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

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B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 24. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 25. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 28. What is Fault Masking?

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A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 29. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 30. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 31. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 33. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

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A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 34. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

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A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 43. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

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A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 45. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

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Q.no 48. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 49. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

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D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

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C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 2. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

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Q.no 3. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 4. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 5. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 6. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 7. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

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D : Ignore

Q.no 8. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 9. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 10. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 11. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 12. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

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D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 13. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 15. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 16. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 17. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

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D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 18. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 19. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 20. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 21. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 22. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

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D : Design phase

Q.no 23. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 24. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 26. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 27. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe
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Q.no 28. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 29. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 30. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 32. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

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Q.no 33. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 36. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 37. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

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Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 40. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

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D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 44. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 45. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 47. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

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D : Test Design

Q.no 48. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 49. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 50. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

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D : Test log

Q.no 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

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D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 2. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 3. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding
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B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 4. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 5. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 6. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 7. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 8. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

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A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 9. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 10. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 13. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control


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B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 15. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 16. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 18. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase
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C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 19. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 20. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 21. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 22. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 23. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management
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D : Design

Q.no 24. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 25. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 26. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 27. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

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C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

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C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 35. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 36. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 38. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

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C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 39. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 40. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 43. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

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B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 46. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 47. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 48. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

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B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 49. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 50. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 53. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

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A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 54. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 55. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

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A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 2. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 3. Verification is the responsibility of

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A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 4. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 5. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 6. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 7. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 8. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing
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B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 9. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 10. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 11. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 12. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

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B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 14. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 16. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 17. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 18. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

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B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 19. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 20. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 21. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 22. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 23. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition


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C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 24. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 25. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 26. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 27. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 28. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

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B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 29. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 30. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 32. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 33. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

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B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 37. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 38. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

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B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 39. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 40. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 41. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 42. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

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B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 44. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 47. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 48. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

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B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 50. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 51. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

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Q.no 53. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

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Q.no 58. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 2. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 3. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

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A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 4. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 5. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 6. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 8. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

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A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 9. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 10. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 11. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 12. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 13. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation
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B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 14. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 15. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 16. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 18. The Selenium RC is used

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A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 19. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 20. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 21. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 22. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 23. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification


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B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 24. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 25. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 26. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 27. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

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A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 29. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 30. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

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A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. Which is not a SQA activity?

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A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 40. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 41. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 42. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a module type

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A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

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A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 49. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 50. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 51. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. Which of the following is the component test standard?

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A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 54. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

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Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 60. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 2. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 3. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management


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B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 4. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 5. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 7. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 8. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications


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C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 9. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 10. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 12. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 13. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design
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D : Testing

Q.no 14. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that
you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 15. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 16. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 17. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 18. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

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D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 19. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 20. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 21. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 22. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

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D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 24. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 25. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 27. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 28. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

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D : implementation engineering

Q.no 29. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 30. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 31. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 32. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

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D : different operating system

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 35. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 36. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 37. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


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Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 41. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 42. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 43. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

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Q.no 44. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 45. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 47. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 48. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

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Q.no 49. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 50. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

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Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram


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C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 2. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 3. Verification and Validation uses __________.


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A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 6. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 7. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 8. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics


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B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 9. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 10. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 11. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 12. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 13. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

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B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 14. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 15. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 16. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Which of the following are correct statements?

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A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 19. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 20. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 21. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 22. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 23. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

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A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 24. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 25. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 26. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 27. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 28. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

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A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 29. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 30. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 32. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 33. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

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A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 35. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

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A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 40. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 41. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 42. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

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A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 47. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

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Q.no 48. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 49. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 52. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 53. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.
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A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 56. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

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Q.no 58. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 59. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 2. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 3. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints


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B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 4. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 5. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is usually
the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 7. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 8. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

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B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 9. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 10. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 11. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 12. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

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B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 15. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 16. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 17. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 18. The Web Driver is used

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A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 19. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 20. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 21. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 23. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase
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B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 24. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 25. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 26. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 27. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

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B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 29. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 30. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 31. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 32. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 33. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

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A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 34. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 35. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

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A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 40. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 41. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 42. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 43. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

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A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 44. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 48. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy
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B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 53. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

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B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 54. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 55. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 56. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

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B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 60. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 2. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 3. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system


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B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 5. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 6. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 7. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 8. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up
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C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 9. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to change management
is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 10. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 11. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 12. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 13. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

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C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 14. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 15. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 16. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 17. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 18. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

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C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 19. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 20. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 21. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 22. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

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C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 24. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 25. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 26. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 27. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 28. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

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B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 29. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 30. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 31. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 32. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

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B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 34. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 35. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 36. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 37. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

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B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 40. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 41. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 42. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

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B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 45. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

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B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 49. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 50. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

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A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 54. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

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D : Test log

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 60. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 3. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling
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B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 4. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 5. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 6. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 7. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 8. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible


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C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 9. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 10. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 11. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 13. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

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C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 14. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 15. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 16. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 17. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 18. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

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C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 19. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 21. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 22. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

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B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 25. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 26. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 27. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 28. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

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A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 29. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 30. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 32. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

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Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 34. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

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Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 39. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 41. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

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Q.no 43. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 46. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 47. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

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Q.no 48. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 49. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

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Q.no 53. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 55. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

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D : system image

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 2. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 3. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

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A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 5. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 6. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 8. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

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A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 9. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 10. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 11. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 12. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 13. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID
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B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 14. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 16. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 17. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to change
management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 18. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

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B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 19. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 21. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 22. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 23. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

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A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 24. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 26. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 27. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 28. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk
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B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 29. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 30. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 32. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

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B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 34. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

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B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 40. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 41. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 43. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

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A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 46. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 47. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

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Q.no 48. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 49. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 51. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

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D : Change management

Q.no 53. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 56. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 57. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

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D : system image

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 2. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 3. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification


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B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 4. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 5. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 6. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 7. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

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B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 9. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 10. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 11. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 12. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 13. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()
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C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 14. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 15. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 16. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 18. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration
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D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 19. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 20. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 22. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert
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Q.no 24. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 26. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 27. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 28. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

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D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 29. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 30. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 33. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

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C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 35. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 36. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 37. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 38. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

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C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 41. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 43. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

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C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 44. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 45. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 48. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

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C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 49. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 51. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

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A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. Which of the following is the component test standard?

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A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 59. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 60. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 2. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 3. Unit testing is done by:

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A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 5. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 6. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 7. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

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Q.no 8. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 9. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 10. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 11. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 12. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

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Q.no 13. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 14. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 15. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 16. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 17. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

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D : After designing

Q.no 18. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 19. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 21. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 22. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence
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Q.no 23. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 24. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 25. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 26. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 27. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

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Q.no 28. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 29. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 30. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 32. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

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Q.no 33. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

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Q.no 38. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 41. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

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Q.no 43. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 44. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 45. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

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Q.no 48. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

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Q.no 53. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 56. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 57. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

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C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 2. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components
D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 3. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 4. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 5. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 6. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 7. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()
B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 8. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 9. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 10. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web
browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 11. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 12. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?
A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 13. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 14. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 15. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 16. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command


Q.no 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 18. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 19. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 20. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 21. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini
C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 22. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 25. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of


accesspoints and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Test Type?


A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 27. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 28. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 29. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 30. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server


Q.no 31. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 32. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 34. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 35. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3
C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 36. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 37. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 40. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy
B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 41. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements
Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined


D : Array bound violations

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 55. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 58.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 2. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles
Q.no 3. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 4. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 5. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 6. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 7. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test


Q.no 8. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 9. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 11. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 12. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 15. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 16. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility
Q.no 17. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 18. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 19. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 20. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 21. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design


D : Only Software testing

Q.no 22. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 23. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 24. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 25. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 26. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing


D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 27. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules
D : Process support modules

Q.no 32. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 33. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 34. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.


B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 40. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 41. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 43. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 44. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 45. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 46. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 47. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 48. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 49. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects


Q.no 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group


Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system


Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 2. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.


Q.no 3. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 4. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 5. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 6. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model
D : V Model

Q.no 8. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 9. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 10. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 11. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 12. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model
D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 15. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 16. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 17. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location
A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 18. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 19. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 20. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 21. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 22. The Selenium IDE is used


A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 24. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 25. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 26. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements
Q.no 27. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 30. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 31. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer
D : Scribe

Q.no 32. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 35.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 41. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading


B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 43. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 44. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 45. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 48. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 49. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured
D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance
B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact
Q.no 60. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 2.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase
Q.no 3. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 4. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 5. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 6. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 7. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management


Q.no 8. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 9. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 11. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 12. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase


C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 13. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 14. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 15. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 16. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation


Q.no 17. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 18. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 19. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 20. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 21. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer
D : Business Analyst

Q.no 22. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 23. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 24. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 25. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 26. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk
C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 27. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 28. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 29. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 30. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 31. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk
B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 32. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 33. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 35. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?
A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 39. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 40. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?


A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 43. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 45. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester


Q.no 46. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 48. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 49. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects


Q.no 51. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 52. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification
D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 57. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 58. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 2. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment


C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 3. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 4. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 5. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 6. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 7. The Actions Commands


A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 8. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components
are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 10. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 11. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure


Q.no 12. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 14. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 15. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 16. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS
D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 17. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 18.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 20. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 21. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?
A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 22. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 23. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 24. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 25. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development


Q.no 26. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 27. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 29. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management
C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 33. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing


B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 36. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 40. What is the major improvement in SVN


A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 41. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 44. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable


Q.no 45. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 47. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 48.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 49. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 50. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 51. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.
D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 54. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction


B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 60. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Q.no 3. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 4. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 5. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 6. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 7. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components
are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process
D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 8. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word


which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 9. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 10. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability
C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 14. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 15. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 17.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market


C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 18. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 20. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 21. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 22. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC
C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 23. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 24. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 26. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 27. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end
B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 31. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 32. What is “V” Model?


A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 33. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 35.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 36. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule
C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 37. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as
A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 42. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 43. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer
D : Scribe

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 50. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition


C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 55. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact
B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 56. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 58. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command


Q.no 3. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 6. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 7. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only


D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 8. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 9. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 10. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver
D:0

Q.no 13. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 14. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 15. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 17. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open
C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 18. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 19. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 20. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 21. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 22. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle
B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 26.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing
Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 29. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 30. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control
C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 34. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.


A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 37. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 38. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 39. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 40. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design


Q.no 41. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 42. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 45. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element
D : human elements

Q.no 46. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 49.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions


B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models


C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 2. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when


operating within the environment for which the system was intended
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 3. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 6. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 7. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling
C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 8. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 9. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence
B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 13. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 14. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 15. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 16. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation
Q.no 17. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an
implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 18. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 19. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 20. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore
Q.no 21. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 22. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 24. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 25. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed
C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 26. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 27. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 28. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 29. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification


B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?
A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 36. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 37. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 39. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing
Q.no 40. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 42. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 43. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST
D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing
B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.
A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 58. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image
D : system image

Q.no 59. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 2. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
Q.no 3. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 4. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 6. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 7. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase
D : Design phase

Q.no 8. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 10. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 11. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 12. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer
D : Project team

Q.no 13. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 15. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 16. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 17. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity


B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 18. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 19. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 20. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Software Design consists of _____________


A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 23. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 24. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 25. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode


Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 32. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 33. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 34. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 35. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 36. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk
D : Project risk

Q.no 37. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 38. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 40. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique


B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 43. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 46.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?


A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 47. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 48. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects


Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system


Q.no 55. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing
C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 2. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence
Q.no 3. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 4. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 5. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components
are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 8. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 9. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 10. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 11. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.
Q.no 12. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 13. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 14.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 16. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing
D : Specification

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 18. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 20. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 21. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager
C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 22. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 24. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 25. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?
A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 35. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable


B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 36. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 37. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 40. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU
B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 41. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 42. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 45. What can static analysis NOT find?


A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 49. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk
Q.no 50. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity
A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 57. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 2. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 3. White-box testing can be started:


A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 4. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 5. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 6. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 7. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness
Q.no 8. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 9. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 10. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 11. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 12. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed
C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 15. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 16. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations
Q.no 17. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 18. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 20. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 21. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit


D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 23. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 24. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 25. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect


C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 28. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 31. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 32. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 35. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading


Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 39. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level
C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 41. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 42. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 45. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture
C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 46. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 47. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 48.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829
C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 2. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 3. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?


A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 5. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 6. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 7. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 8. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE
A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 9. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word


which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 10. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 11. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 13. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:


A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 14. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 15. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 17. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 18. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 19. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 20. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 21. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 22. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel
D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 23. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 24. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 25. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture
C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 28. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 32. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.


A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 33. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 36. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading


Q.no 37. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 38. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 39. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 40. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 41. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing
C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 42. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 43. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 44. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 46. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk
C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing
B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 55. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 56. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 58. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 59. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?


A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 2. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 3. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:


A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 4. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 5. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 6. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 7. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element
Q.no 8. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 9. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web


browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 10. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 11. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 12. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image
D : system image

Q.no 13. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 15. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 16. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers
C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 18. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 19. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 20. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 21. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 22. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding
B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 23. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 24. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 25. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 26. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 27. ETL stands for


A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 31. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST
D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 32. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 33. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 36.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive
B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 40. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 41. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software


B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 42. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 43. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 46. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 47. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 50. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based
D : client-based

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.
A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing


Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 2. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 3. Which one is the basic input device in GUI


A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 4. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 6. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 7. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 8. which of the following is not a component of risk


A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 9. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 10. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department


Q.no 13. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 14. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 15. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 16. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 17. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing
D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 19. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 20. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer
D : Project team

Q.no 23. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 24. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 25. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk
D : business risk

Q.no 28. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 32. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits


C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 33. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 34. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 35. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture
C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable


B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 43. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 44. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 45. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?
A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 48. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing
Q.no 52. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma
D : tracking

Q.no 57. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 2. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 3. What type of abstraction used in Software design


A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 4. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 5. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done
in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 6. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 7. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid
Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 9. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 10. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure


Q.no 13. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 14. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 15. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 16. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit


C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 18. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 19. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 20. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 21. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team
Q.no 22. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 23. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 24. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 25. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 26. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling
D : assembling

Q.no 27. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 28. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 34. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 35. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 36. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs


C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 37. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 38. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 39. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 41. The technique applied for usability testing is:


A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 42. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 43. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 44. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 45. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects


D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 48. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 49. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 53.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis


B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.
D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping
Q.no 3. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 5. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 7. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format
D : HTML format

Q.no 8. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 9. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 10. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 11. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 12. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in
A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 13. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 14. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 15. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 16. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments
Q.no 17. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 18. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 19. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 20. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 21. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques


D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 23. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 24. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 25. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 26. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule
C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 29. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 30. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 31. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?
A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 32. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 33. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 34. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 35. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints


Q.no 36. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 38. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 40. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk
Q.no 41.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 43. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS
Q.no 46. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 47. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 48. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level
D : maintainence level

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2
B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 59. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking
Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 2. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned


Q.no 3. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 4. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 5. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 7. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid
D : Selenium Web

Q.no 8. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 9. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 11. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 12.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market


C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 13. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 14. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 15. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 16. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 17. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development
B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 18. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 19. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 20. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 21. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 22. What is TestNG ?


A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 23. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 24. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 26.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 27. What is the major improvement in SVN


A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 28. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 29. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management
Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 36. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect


C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 37. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 38. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 39. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 41. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions


B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 42. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 43. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 44. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 45. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?


A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 49. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering
Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 54. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 55.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model
C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.
Q.no 60. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 2. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software


Q.no 3. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints
and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 4. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 5. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail


Q.no 8. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 9.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 11. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 12. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing


D : Glass box

Q.no 13. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 14. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 15. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 16. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing
C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 18. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 19. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 20. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 21. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements
C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 23. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 24. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 25. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 26. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 27. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading


B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing
Q.no 32. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 34. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 35. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 36. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing
D : Regression Testing

Q.no 37. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 45. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Q.no 46. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 47. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 48. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 49. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 50. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation
Q.no 51. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 54. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing
C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 57. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 58. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System


B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 2. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints


and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design
Q.no 3. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 4. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 5. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 6. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 7. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase


D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 8. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to


change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 9. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 11. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 12. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible
B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 13. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 14. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 15. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 16. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 17. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975
B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 18. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 19. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 20. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 21. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 22. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity


B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 23. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 24. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 25.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 26. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable


D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang
B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 32. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 33. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 34. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 35. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 36. Version control is not capable of doing


A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 37. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 38.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 41. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 42. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 43. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 44. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 45. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element
C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 46. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 47. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 49. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 50. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller
B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model
Q.no 55.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting
D : Change control

Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 2. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a component of risk


A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 4. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 5. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.
Q.no 8. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 9. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 10. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 11. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 12. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967
Q.no 13. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 14. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 15. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 16. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 17. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage
D : waitForLoad

Q.no 18. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 19. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 20. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 21. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 22. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 23. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 24. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture


C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 28. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 29. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 31. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 32. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs


C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 33. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 34. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 35. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 37. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 44. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 45. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 46. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing
B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 47. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 50. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.
A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model
C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 2. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 3. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?
A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 4. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 5. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 6. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 7.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase
D : Design phase

Q.no 8. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 9. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 11. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design
C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 13. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 14. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 15. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 16. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Which of these truly defines Software design?


A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 18. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 19. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 21. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 22. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 23. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 24. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 25. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect
Q.no 27. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 28. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 30. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 31. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design
Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 33. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 39. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 40. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?


A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 44. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?


A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 48. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 49. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 50. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing
Q.no 51. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 54. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC
C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance
Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing


Q.no 3. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 5. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 6.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle
B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 8. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 9. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 10. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 11. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 12. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems
B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 13. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 15. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed


B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 18. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 20. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 21. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?
A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 23. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 24. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 25. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 29. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 30.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing
Q.no 31. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 33. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 34. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?


A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 42. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 43. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling
Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 47. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 49. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation
D : User requirement documents

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA
B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration
Q.no 3. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 4. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 5. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 6. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 7. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management


C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 8. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 9. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 11. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 12. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase
B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 13. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 14. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 15. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 16. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 17. WMITS stands for


A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 18. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 19. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 20. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 21. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of


accesspoints and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 22. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?
A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 23. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 24. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 25. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. What is the major improvement in SVN


A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 28.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 29. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 30. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements
Q.no 32. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 37. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 38. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 39. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 40. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline
Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management
Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 43. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 44. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 45. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down
Q.no 47. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 48. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 50. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model
D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC
C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 2. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 3. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:


A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 4. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 5. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 6. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent
Q.no 8. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web
browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 9. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 10. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 11. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 12. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed
C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 13. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 14. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 15. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 16. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 17. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 18. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with
an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 20. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 21. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI
C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 22. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 23. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 24. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 26. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable


C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 29.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 30. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 31. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk
B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 32. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 33. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 34. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 35. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 36. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?


A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 37. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 38. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?


A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 43. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation
D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 47. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 51. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Q.no 55. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance


D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group


Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er1

1.Whi
chquest
ionnol
ongerconcer
nst
hemoder
nsof
twar
eengi
neer
?

a.Whydoescomput erhardwarecostsomuch?
b.Whydoessoftwaretakeal ongt
imetofi
nish?
c.Whydoesitcostsomucht odevel
opapieceofsoft
war
e?
d.Whycan’
tsoftwareerrorsberemovedf
rom product
spr
iort
odel
i
ver
y?

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
1)

2.Soft
wareisaproductandcanbemanuf
act
uredusi
ngt
hesamet
echnol
ogi
es
usedforot
herengineer
ingar
ti
fact
s
.
a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
1)

3.Sof
twar
edet
eri
orat
esr
athert
hanwear
soutbecause

a.Sof
twaresuff
ersfr
om exposuret
ohostil
eenvi
ronments
b.Def
ectsaremoreli
kelyt
oariseaft
ersof
twarehasbeenusedof t
en
c.Mult
ipl
echangerequest
sintr
oduceerr
orsincomponentint
eract
ions
d.Sof
twaresparepar
tsbecomehardertoorder

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion1.
1)

4.WebAppsareamixt
ureofpri
ntpubli
shi
ngandsof
twar
edevel
opment,maki
ng
t
hei
rdevel
opmentoutsi
dethereal
m ofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingpr
act
ice.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
2)

5.Whi
choft
hei
temsl
i
stedbel
owi
snotoneoft
hesof
twar
eengi
neer
ingl
ayer
s?

a.Pr
ocess
b.Manufact
uri
ng
c.Methods
d.Tool
s

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
3)

6.Soft
wareengi
neer
ingumbrel
l
aacti
vit
iesar
eonl
yappl
i
eddur
ingt
hei
nit
ial
phasesofsof
twar
edevel
opmentproj
ects.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
4)

7.Whi
choft
hesear
ethe5gener
icsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingf
ramewor
kact
ivi
ti
es?

a.communicati
on,planning,modeling,const
ruction,deployment
b.communicati
on,ri
skmanagement ,measurement ,
pr oducti
on,
rev
iewi
ng
c.anal
ysi
s,desi
gning,programmi ng,debugging,maintenance
d.anal
ysi
s,pl
anning,designing,
programmi ng,testi
ng

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
4)

8. Pl
anni
ngaheadforsof
twar
ereusereducesthecostandi
ncr
easest
hev
alue
ofthesyst
emsintowhi
chtheyar
eincorpor
ated.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
5)

9.Theessenceofsof twareengi
neer
ingpracti
cemightbedescri
bedas
underst
andt heproblem,pl
anasolut
ion,car
ryoutthepl
an,andexami
net
he
resul
tforaccuracy.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
5)

10.
Inagi
lepr
ocessmodel
stheonl
ydel
i
ver
abl
ewor
kpr
oducti
sthewor
king
progr
am.

c.True
d.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
6)
11.
Amostsoftwar
edev
elopmentpr
oject
sar
eini
ti
atedt
otr
ytomeetsome
busi
nessneed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
7)

12.
Ingeneralsof
twar
eonlysucceedsi
fit
sbehav
iori
sconsi
stentwi
tht
he
object
ivesofi
tsdesi
gner
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
7)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er2

1.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
erecogni
zedpr
ocessf
lowt
ypes?

a.Concur rentprocessfl
ow
b.It
erati
v epr ocessfl
ow
c.Linearpr ocessflow
d.Spiralprocessf l
ow

Answer
:aandc(
Sect
ion2.
1)

2.Soft
wareprocessescanbeconst
ruct
edoutofpr
e-exi
sti
ngsof
twar
epat
ter
ns
tobestmeettheneedsofasoft
wareproj
ect
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion2.
1.3)

3.Whi
choft
hesear
est
andar
dsf
orassessi
ngsof
twar
epr
ocesses?

a.SEI
b.SPI
CE
c.I
SO9000
d.I
SO9001

Answer
:bandd(
Sect
ion2.
2)

4.Thewat
erf
all
model
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

a.Areasonabl
eapproachwhenrequir
ementsarewelldefi
ned.
b.Agoodapproachwhenawor ki
ngpr ogr
am i
srequi
redquickl
y.
c.Thebestapproacht
ouseforproj
ectswithl
argedevelopmentt
eams.
d.Anoldfashi
onedmodelthati
srarel
yusedanymor e.

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion2.
3.1)

5.Thei
ncr
ement
almodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

a.Areasonabl
eappr
oachwhenrequi
rementsarewel
ldef
ined.
b.Agoodapproachwhenaworki
ngcoreproducti
srequi
redqui
ckl
y.
c.Thebestappr
oacht
ouseforpr
oject
swit
hlargedev
elopmentteams.
d.Arevol
uti
onar
ymodelt
hati
snotusedforcommerci
alproduct
s.

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
3.2)

6.Ev
olut
ionar
ysof
twar
epr
ocessmodel
s

a.Arei
terat
ivei
nnature
b.Caneasil
yaccommodat eproductr
equi
rement
schanges
c.Donotgeneral
lyproducet
hrowawaysystems
d.Al
loftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion2.
3.3)

7.Thepr
otot
ypi
ngmodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

a.Areasonableapproachwhenrequi
rement
sarewelldefi
ned.
b.Ausefulapproachwhenacustomercannotdefi
nerequir
ement
sclear
ly.
c.Thebestapproacht ousef
orproj
ectswi
thlar
gedevelopmentt
eams.
d.Ari
skymodel t
hatrarel
ypr
oducesameaningful
product.

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
3.3)

8. Thespi
ral
model
ofsof
twar
edev
elopment

a.Endswitht
hedeliver
yofthesoft
wareproduct
b.I
smor echaoti
cthantheincr
ementalmodel
c.I
ncludespr
ojectr
iskseval
uati
onduri
ngeachiter
ati
on
d.All
oftheabove

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion2.
3.3)

9.Theconcur
rentdev
elopmentmodel
is

a.Anothernamef orconcur
rentengi
neering.
b.Defi
nesev entsthattri
ggerengi
neeringacti
vi
tystatet
ransit
ions.
c.Onlyusedf ordevelopmentofparal
lelordi
stri
butedsystems.
d.Usedwhenev eralargenumberofchanger equestsar
eant i
cipat
ed.

Answer
:aandb(
Sect
ion2.
3.4)

10.Thecomponent
-baseddev
elopmentmodel
is

a.Onlyappropr
iat
eforcomput erhardwaredesi
gn.
b.Notabletosupportthedevelopmentofreusabl
ecomponent
s.
c.Dependentonobjecttechnol
ogiesforsupport
.
d.Notcostef
fect
ivebyknownquant
if
iabl
esof
twar
emet
ri
cs.

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion2.
4.1)

11.Thefor
malmethodsmodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmentmakesuseof
mat
hemati
cal
met hodst
o

a.Def
inethespecif
icat
ionf
orcomputer-
basedsyst
ems
b.Devel
opdefectfr
eecomputer-
basedsystems
c.Ver
ifyt
hecorrect
nessofcomputer-
basedsyst
ems
d.Al
loftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion2.
4.2)

12.
Whi
choftheseisnotoneoft
hephasenamesdef
inedbyt
heUni
fi
edPr
ocess
model
forsoft
waredevel
opment
?

a.I
ncepti
onphase
b.El
aborati
onphase
c.Constr
ucti
onphase
d.Val
idati
onphase

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion2.
5.2)

13.
Whi
choft
hesei
snotachar
act
eri
sti
cofPer
sonal
Sof
twar
ePr
ocess?

a.Emphasizespersonalmeasurementofwor kproduct
b.Pr
acti
ti
onerr equi
rescar
efulsupervi
sionbytheproj
ectmanager
c.I
ndi
vidualpracti
ti
oneri
sresponsibl
ef oresti
mati
ngandschedul
ing
d.Pr
acti
ti
oneri sempoweredtocont r
olqualit
yofsoft
wareworkpr
oduct
s

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
6.1)

14.
Whi
choft
hesear
eobj
ect
ivesofTeam Sof
twar
ePr
ocess?

a.Acceler
atesoft
wareprocessimprov
ement
b.All
owbet t
erti
memanagementbyhi ghl
ytr
ainedprof
essional
s
c.Buil
dself-
dir
ectedsof
twareteams
d.Showmanager showt oreducecost
sandsustai
nquali
ty

Answer
:bandc(
Sect
ion2.
6.2)

15.
Processt
echnol
ogytool
sall
owsoft
wareorgani
zat
ionst
ocompr
ess
schedul
esbyski
ppinguni
mport
antact
ivi
ti
es.
a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
7)

16.
Iti
sgeneral
l
yaccept
edthatonecannothav
eweaksof
twar
epr
ocessesand
creat
ehighqual
i
tyendproduct
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion2.
8)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er3

1.Agil
i
tyisnothi
ngmor
ethant
heabi
l
ityofapr
ojectt
eam t
orespondr
api
dly
tochange.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion3.
1)

2.Whichoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotnecessar
ytoappl
yagi
l
ityt
oasof
twar
e
pr
ocess?

a.El
iminatetheuseofprojectpl
anningandt est
ing
b.Onlyessenti
alworkproductsareproduced
c.Processall
owst eam t
ostreamli
net asks
d.Usesincrementalpr
oductdeli
verystrategy

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
1)

3.Howdoy
oucr
eat
eagi
l
epr
ocessest
omanageunpr
edi
ctabi
l
ity
?

a.Requir
ementsgatheri
ngmustbeconductedv erycaref
ull
y
b.Ri
skanaly
sismustbeconductedbefor
epl anningtakesplace
c.Soft
warei
ncrement smustbedel
iv
eredinshor tti
meper i
ods
d.Soft
wareprocessesmustadaptt
ochangesi ncrementall
y

Answer
:candd(
Sect
ion3.
2)

4.Inagil
esof
twareprocessest
hehi
ghestpri
ori
ti
esi
stosati
sfyt
he
customert
hroughearl
yandconti
nuousdel
iver
yofval
uabl
esoft
war
e.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
3)

5. Whi
chofthefoll
owi
ngt
rai
tsneedt
oexi
stamongt
hemember
sofan
agi
lesof
twareteam?

a.Compet
ence
b.Deci
sion-
makingabi
li
ty
c.Mutualtr
ustandr
espect
d.Al
loftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion3.
3.3)

6.Inagil
edevelopmenti
tismorei
mportantt
obuildsoftwar
ethatmeetsthe
customers’
needstodaythanwor
ryaboutfeat
uresthatmightbeneededi
n
thefut
ure.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
4.1)

7.Whatarethef
ourfr
amewor
kact
ivi
ti
esf
oundi
ntheExt
remePr
ogr
ammi
ng
(
XP)processmodel
?

a.anal
ysis,
design,
coding,testi
ng
b.pl
anning,anal
ysi
s,desi
gn, coding
c.pl
anning,anal
ysi
s,coding,testi
ng
d.pl
anning,desi
gn,codi
ng, t
esting

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion3.
4.2)

8.Al
lagil
eprocessmodel
sconf
or mtoagreaterorl
esserdegreet
othe
pr
inci
plesst
atedi
nthe“Mani
festof
orAgil
eSof t
wareDevelopment
”.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
5)

9.Whataret
hethr
eefr
amewor kact
ivi
ti
esf
ort
heAdapt
iveSof
twar
e
Dev
elopment(
ASD)processmodel?

a.analy
sis,design,coding
b.feasi
bili
tyst
udy ,
f uncti
onalmodel i
ter
ati
on,i
mplementat
ion
c.requi
rementsgat hering,adapt
ivecycl
eplanni
ng,i
ter
ati
vedevel
opment
d.speculati
on,coll
abor at
ion,l
earni
ng

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion3.
5.1)

10.
Whi
chisnotoneofthekeyquesti
onsthati
sanswer
edbyeacht
eam
memberateachdai
l
yScr um meet
ing?
a.Whatdi
dyoudosincethel
astmeet i
ng?
b.Whatobst
acl
esareyouencounter
ing?
c.Whati
sthecauseofthepr
oblemsy ouar
eencount
eri
ng?
d.Whatdoyouplant
oaccomplishbethenextt
eam meeti
ng?

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion3.
5.2)

11.TheDy nami cSystemsDevel


opmentMethod(DSDM)suggestsa
phi
losophythatisbasedonthePar
etopri
nci
ple(80%oftheappl
icat
ion
canbedel i
veredin20%oftheti
merequi
redtobuil
dthecomplet
e
appli
cati
on).

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
5.3)

12.
InFeat
ureDri
venDev el
opment(FDD)acl
ient
-val
uedf
eatur
eisacl
i
ent
-
val
uedfunct
ionthatcanbedeli
veredi
ntwoweeksorless.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion3.
5.5)

13.
AgileModel
i
ng(AM)prov
idesgui
dancet
opr
act
it
ionerdur
ingwhi
chof
thesesof
twaret
asks?

a.Anal
ysi
s
b.Desi
gn
c.Codi
ng
d.Test
ing

Answer
:aandb(
Sect
ion3.
5.7)

14.
AgileUni
fi
edProcessusestheclassi
cUPphasedact
ivi
ti
es(i
ncept
ion,
elabor
ati
on,const
ruct
ion,
transi
ti
on)tohel
pthet
eam vi
sual
i
zetheov er
all
processfl
ow.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
5.8)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er5

1.Requir
ementsengineer
ingi
sagener
icpr
ocesst
hatdoesnotv
aryf
rom one
soft
wareproj
ecttoanother
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
1)

2.Dur
ingpr
ojecti
ncept
iont
hei
ntentoft
heoft
het
asksar
etodet
ermi
ne

a.basicproblem under
standing
b.natureofthesoluti
onneeded
c.peoplewhowantasol uti
on
d.noneoft heabov e

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion5.
1)

3.Thr
eet
hingst
hatmaker
equi
rement
sel
i
cit
ati
ondi
ff
icul
tar
epr
obl
emsof

a.budgeti
ng
b.scope
c.understandi
ng
d.vol
ati
lit
y

Answer
:b,
c,d(
Sect
ion5.
1)

4.Astakeholderi
sanyonewhowi
l
lpur
chaset
hecompl
etedsof
twar
esy
stem
underdevelopment
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
2.1)

5.I
tisr
elat
ivel
ycommonf ordi
ff
erentcust
omerstoproposeconf
li
cti
ng
r
equi
rements,eachar
guingt
hathisorherv
ersi
onistheri
ghtone.

a.True
b.False
Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
2.2)

6.Whichofthef
oll
owingisnotoneoft
hecont
ext
-f
reequest
ionst
hatwoul
dbe
useddur
ingproj
ecti
ncepti
on?

a.Whatwil
lbetheeconomicbenefi
tfr
om agoodsol
uti
on?
b.Whoisbehi
ndtherequestforwork?
c.Whowil
lpayforthework?
d.Whowil
lusethesolut
ion?

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion5.
2.4)

7.I
ncol
l
abor
ati
ver
equi
rement
sgat
her
ingt
hef
aci
l
itat
or

a.arr
angesthemeetingpl
ace
b.cannotbeacustomer
c.contr
olst
hemeeting
d.mustbeanoutsi
der

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion5.
3.1)

8.Whichofthefol
lowi
ngisnotoneofther
equi
rementcl
assi
fi
cat
ionsusedi
n
Quali
tyFunct
ionDepl
oyment(QFD)
?

a.exci
ti
ng
b.expect
ed
c.mandator
y
d.normal

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion5.
3.2)

9.Theworkproduct
spr
oduceddur
ingr
equi
rementel
i
cit
ati
onwi
l
lvar
y
dependi
ngonthe

a.si
zeoft hebudget
b.si
zeoft heproductbei
ngbui
lt
c.softwareprocessbei
ngused
d.stakeholder
sneeds

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
3.4)

10.
Devel
opersandcust
omer screat
euse-
casest
ohel
pthesoft
wareteam
under
standhowdiff
erentcl
assesofend-
user
swi
ll
usefunct
ions.
a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
4)

11.
Use-
caseact
orsar
eal
way
speopl
e,nev
ersy
stem dev
ices.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
4)

12.
Theresul
tofther
equi
rement
sengi
neer
ingt
askisananal
ysi
smodel
that
def
ineswhichoft
hefoll
owi
ngpr
obl
em domain(
s)?

a.i
nformation
b.functi
onal
c.behavior
al
d.alloft
heabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion5.
5)

13.Analysi
spat
ter
nsfaci
li
tat
ethetransf
ormationoft
heanal
ysi
smodeli
ntoa
desi
gnmodelbysuggesti
ngrel
i
ablesolut
ionstocommonprobl
ems.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
5.2)

14.
Inwin-winnegot
iat
ion,
thecust
omer
’sneedsar
emetev
ent
hought
he
developer’
sneedmaynotbe.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
6)

15.
Inrequi
rementsvali
dat
iont
her
equi
rement
smodel
isr
evi
ewedt
oensur
eit
s
techni
calfeasi
bil
i
ty.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
7)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er6

1.Whi
choft
hesei
snotanel
ementofar
equi
rement
smodel
?

a.Behavi
oralelements
b.Class-
basedelements
c.Dataelements
d.Scenari
o-basedelement
s

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion6.
1)

2.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotanobj
ect
ivef
orbui
l
dingar
equi
rment
smodel
?

a.definesetofsof
twarerequir
ementst hatcanbeval
i
dat
ed
b.describecust
omerrequir
ement s
c.developanabbrevi
atedsoluti
onfortheproblem
d.establi
shbasisf
orsoftwaredesign

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion6.
1.1)

3.Object-
ori
enteddomainanal
ysisisconcernedwi
tht
heident
if
icat
ionand
specif
icat
ionofreusabl
ecapabil
i
tieswit
hinanappl
i
cat
iondomain.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
1.3)

4.I
nstr
ucturedanal
ysi
smodel
sf ocusonthest
ruct
ureoft
hecl
assesdef
ined
f
orasystem al
ongwitht
hei
rinter
act
ions.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion6.
1.4)

5.Cr
eati
onandr
efi
nementofusecasesi
fani
mpor
tantpar
tofscenar
io-
based
model
ing.

a.True
b.False
Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
2)

6.I
tisi
mportantt
oconsi
deral
ter
nat
iveact
ori
nter
act
ionswhencr
eat
inga
pr
eli
minar
yusecase.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion6.
2.1)

7.Brai
nst
ormingisonetechni
quet
hatmaybeusedt
oder
iveacompl
etesetof
usecaseexcepti
ons.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
2.2)

8.I
nmanycasest her
eisnoneedt
ocr
eat
eagr
aphi
cal
repr
esent
ati
onofa
usagescenar
io.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
2.3)

9.UMLact
ivi
tydi
agr
amsar
eusef
uli
nrepr
esent
ingwhi
chanal
ysi
smodel
el
ement
s?

a.Behav i
oralelements
b.Class-basedel ement
s
c.Fl
ow- basedel ements
d.Scenar i
o-basedelement
s

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
3.1)

10.
Oneormor eat
tri
butesofadataobj
ectmustbedef
inedasakeyt
oal
l
owt
he
locat
ionofani
nstanceofthedat
aobject
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
4.2)
11.
Theent
it
yrel
ati
onshi
pdi
agr
am

a.depict
srelat
ionshi
psbet weendat aobj
ect s
b.depict
sfunctionsthatt
ransformthedat aflow
c.i
ndicateshowdat aaretransfor
medbyt hesystem
d.i
ndicatessystem r
eacti
onst oexternal
ev ents

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
4.3)

12.
Whichofthefol
lowi
ngshoul
dbeconsi
der
edascandi
dat
eobj
ect
sina
probl
em space?

a.event
s
b.peopl
e
c.str
uctur
es
d.al
loftheabov
e

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
5.1)

13.
Attri
butesarechosenforanobjectbyexamini
ngthepr
obl
em st
atementand
identi
fyi
ngtheenti
tiest
hatappeartoberelat
ed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion6.
5.2)

14.
Whichoft hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hebr
oadcat
egor
iesusedt
ocl
assi
fy
operat
ions?

a.computati
on
b.datamanipul
ati
on
c.eventmonit
ors
d.tr
ansfor
mer s

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
5.3)

15.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
temsdoesnotappearonaCRCcar
d?

a.cl
asscoll
aborat
ors
b.cl
assname
c.cl
assrel
iabi
li
ty
d.cl
assresponsi
bil
i
ties

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion6.
5.4)
16.Cl
assr
esponsi
bil
i
tiesar
edef
inedby

a.i
tsatt
ri
butesonly
b.i
tscol
laborator
s
c.i
tsoperat
ionsonly
d.bot
hitsattr
ibut
esandoper
ati
ons

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
5.4)

17.
Ananaly
sispackageinvol
vest
hecat
egor
izat
ionofanal
ysi
smodel
element
s
int
ouseful
groupings.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
5.6)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er7

1.Thedat
afl
owdi
agr
am

a.depict
srelat
ionshi
psbet weendat aobj
ect s
b.depict
sfunctionsthatt
ransformthedat aflow
c.i
ndicateshowdat aaretransfor
medbyt hesystem
d.i
ndicatessystem r
eacti
onst oexternal
ev ents

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion7.
2)

2.Cont
rol
flowdi
agr
amsar
e

a.neededtomodel eventdri
vensyst
ems.
b.requi
redforallsy
stems.
c.usedinplaceofdataflowdiagr
ams.
d.usedtorepresentsyst
em behavi
or.

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
2.2)

3.Thecontrolspeci
fi
cat
ionr
epr
esent
sthesy
stem behav
iorusi
ngUMLsequenceand
st
atediagrams.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion7.
2.3)

4.Thedatafl
owdiagr
am mustbeaugmentedbymin-
specthatcanserveasagui
de
thedesi
gnoft
hesoftwar
ecomponentthatwi
ll
implementtheprocess.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
2.4)

5.Forpur
posesofbehav
iormodel
i
nganev
entoccur
swhenev
er

a.ast
ateandprocessexchangeinformat
ion.
b.t
hesyst
em anact orexchangeinf
ormat
ion.
c.t
woactorsexchangeinformati
on.
d.t
woobjectsexchangeinformat
ion.
Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
3.1)

6.Forpur
posesofbehav
iormodel
i
ngast
atei
sany

a.consumerorpr oducerofdat
a.
b.dataobjecthi
erarchy.
c.observabl
emodeofbehav i
or.
d.welldefi
nedprocess.

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion7.
3.2)

7.Thest
atet
ransi
ti
ondi
agr
am

a.depict
srelat
ionshi
psbet weendat aobj
ect s
b.depict
sfunctionsthatt
ransformthedat aflow
c.i
ndicateshowdat aaretransfor
medbyt hesystem
d.i
ndicatessystem r
eacti
onst oexternal
ev ents

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion7.
3.2)

8.TheUMLsequencedi
agr
am showt
heor
deri
nwhi
chsy
stem ev
ent
sar
epr
ocessed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
3.2)

9.Anal
ysi
spat
ter
nsar
edi
scov
ered,
theyar
enotexpl
i
cit
lycr
eat
ed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
4)

10.
Iti
snotpossi
blet
ojust
if
ythet
imer
equi
redf
orWebAppr
equi
rement
sanal
ysi
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
5)

11.
Whi
chisnotoneoft
heanal
ysi
sact
ivi
ti
est
hati
susedt
ocr
eat
eacompl
eteanal
ysi
s
model
?
a.Confi
gurati
onanalysi
s
b.Contentanal
y si
s
c.Functi
onalanalysi
s
d.Marketanalysis

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion7.
5.3)

12.
Contentobj
ectsareext
ractedfrom usecasesbyexami
ningt
hescenar
iodescr
ipt
ion
fordi
rectori
ndir
ectcontentref
erences.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
5.4)

12.Whatar
etheel
ement
sofaWebAppi
nter
act
ionmodel
?

a.acti
vi
tydi
agrams, sequencediagr
ams,stat
ediagrams, i
nter
faceprotot
ype
b.acti
vi
tydi
agrams, col
laborat
iondi
agrams,sequencediagrams,stat
ediagr
ams
c.use-
cases,sequencediagrams,stat
ediagr
ams, i
nterf
aceprototy
pe
d.use-
cases,sequencediagrams,stat
ediagr
ams, sequencediagr
ams

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion7.
5.5)

13.
UMLacti
vi
tydi
agr
amscanbeusedt
orepr
esenttheuserobser
vablef
unct
ional
i
ty
del
i
ver
edbytheWebAppaswel
last
heoperat
ionscontai
nedineachanal
ysi
sclass.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
5.6)

14.
Confi
gurat
ionanal
ysi
sfocusesont
hear
chi
tect
ureoft
heuser
’swebbr
owsi
ng
envi
ronment.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
5.7)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er8

1.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
ear
easofconcer
nint
hedesi
gnmodel
?

a.architect
ure
b.data
c.i
nter f
aces
d.projectscope

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion8.
1)

2.Thei
mpor
tanceofsof
twar
edesi
gncanbesummar
izedi
nasi
ngl
ewor
d

a.accuracy
b.compl exi
ty
c.eff
ici
ency
d.quali
ty

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
1)

3.Whi
choft
hesear
echar
act
eri
sti
csofagooddesi
gn?

a.exhi
bi t
sstr
ongcouplingbetweenit
smodul es
b.i
mpl ementsallr
equir
ement sint
heanalysi
smodel
c.i
ncludestestcasesforallcomponent
s
d.providesacompletepict
ureofthesoft
ware

Answer
:b,
d(Sect
ion8.
2.1)

4.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotachar
act
eri
sti
ccommont
oal
ldesi
gnmet
hods?

a.configurat
ionmanagement
b.functional
componentrepr
esent
ati
on
c.quali
tyassessmentguidel
i
nes
d.refi
nementheuri
sti
cs

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
2.2)

5.Whatt
ypesofabst
ract
ionar
eusedi
nsof
twar
edesi
gn?

a.cont
rol
b.data
c.envir
onmental
d.procedur
al

Answer
:a,
b,d(
Sect
ion8.
3.1)

6.Whichoft
hefol
l
owingcanbeusedt
orepr
esentt
hear
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnofa
pi
eceofsoft
war
e?

a.Dynamicmodels
b.Functi
onalmodel
s
c.Str
uctural
models
d.Alloft
heabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
3.2)

7.Desi
gnpat
ter
nsar
enotappl
i
cabl
etot
hedesi
gnofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
e?

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.3)

8.Si
ncemodul
ari
tyi
sanimpor
tantdesi
gngoal
iti
snotpossi
blet
ohav
etoo
manymodul
esinapr
oposeddesign.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.5)

9.I
nfor
mati
onhidi
ngmakesprogr
am maint
enanceeasi
erbyhi
dingdat
aand
pr
ocedur
efr
om unaf
fect
edpart
softheprogr
am.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
3.6)

10.
Cohesi
oni
saqual
i
tat
ivei
ndi
cat
ionoft
hedegr
eet
owhi
chamodul
e

a.canbewr i
t t
enmor ecompact l
y.
b.focusesonj ustonething.
c.i
sabl etocompl et
ei t
sf unct
ioninat
imel
ymanner.
d.i
sconnect edt oothermodulesandtheoutsi
dewor
ld.
Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.7)

11.
Coupl
i
ngi
saqual
i
tat
ivei
ndi
cat
ionoft
hedegr
eet
owhi
chamodul
e

a.canbewr i
t t
enmor ecompact l
y.
b.focusesonj ustonething.
c.i
sabl etocompl et
ei t
sf unct
ioninat
imel
ymanner.
d.i
sconnect edt oothermodulesandtheoutsi
dewor
ld.

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
3.7)

12.
Whenusingstr
uctur
eddesignmet
hodol
ogi
est
hepr
ocessofst
epwi
se
ref
inementi
sunnecessar
y.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.8)

13.
Soft
waredesignsarerefactor
edtoall
owthecreat
ionofsof
twar
ethati
s
easi
ert
ointegrat
e,easiertotest
,andeasi
ert
omai nt
ain.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
3.10)

14.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hef
ivedesi
gncl
asst
ypes

a.Businessdomainclasses
b.Enti
tyclasses
c.Processclasses
d.Userinter
facecl
asses

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.13)

15.
Whichdesi
gnmodelel
ement
sareusedt
odepi
ctamodel
ofi
nfor
mat
ion
repr
esent
edfr
om t
heuser
’svi
ew?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesignelements
b.Component -
leveldesi
gnelement
s
c.Datadesi
gnel ement s
d.I
nterf
acedesi gnelements

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion8.
4.1)
16.
Whi
chdesi
gni
sequi
val
entt
othef
loorpl
anofahouse?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesign
b.Component -
leveldesi
gn
c.Datadesi
gn
d.I
nterf
acedesi gn

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
4.2)

17.
Whichdesi
gnmodel i
sequiv
alentt
othedet
ail
eddr
awi
ngsoft
heaccess
poi
ntsandext
ernal
util
it
iesf
orahouse?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesign
b.Component -
leveldesi
gn
c.Datadesi
gn
d.I
nterf
acedesi gn

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
4.3)

18.
Whichdesi
gnmodel
isequi
val
entt
oasetofdet
ail
eddr
awi
ngsf
oreachr
oom
inahouse?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesign
b.Component -
leveldesi
gn
c.Datadesi
gn
d.I
nterf
acedesi gn

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
4.4)

19.
Thedepl
oymentdesi
gnel
ement
sspeci
fyt
hebui
l
dor
derf
ort
hesof
twar
e
component
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
4.5)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er9

1.Thebestr
epr
esent
ati
onofsy
stem ar
chi
tect
urei
sanoper
ati
onal
sof
twar
e
prot
oty
pe.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
1.1)

2.Thear
chi
tect
uralr
epresent
ati
onscanbeanenabl
erf
orcommuni
cat
ion
amongpr
ojectst
akeholder
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion9.
1.2)

3.Anarchi
tect
ural
descr
ipt
ioni
sof
tendocument
edusi
nganar
chi
tect
ure
templ
ate.

a.Tur
e
b.Fal
se

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
1.3)

4.Anarchit
ectur
algenrewi
l
loft
endict
atet
hear
chi
tect
ural
appr
oacht
hatmay
usedforthestr
uctur
etobebuil
t.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion9.
2)

5.Anar
chi
tect
ural
sty
leencompasseswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ement
s?

a.const
raint
s
b.setofcomponent
s
c.semanti
cmodels
d.synt
acti
cmodels
Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion9.
3)

6.Todet
erminethearchi
tectur
alst
yleorcombi
nat
ionofst
ylesthatbestf
it
sthe
pr
oposedsyst
em, r
equirementsengi
neeri
ngi
susedtouncover

a.al
gori
thmiccomplexi
ty
b.char
acteri
sti
csandconst
rai
nts
c.cont
rolanddata
d.desi
gnpatterns

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
3.1)

7.Bef
oreanar
chi
tect
uralpat
ter
ncanbechosenforuseinaspeci
fi
csy
stem i
t
musthav
eacodeimplementati
ont
ofaci
li
tat
eitsreuse.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
3.2)

8.Thecri
ter
iausedtoassesst
hequal
i
tyofanar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnshoul
dbe
basedonsystem

a.accessibi
l
ity
b.control
c.data
d.i
mpl ementati
on

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion9.
3.3)

9.Duri
ngprocessofmodeli
ngt hesyst
em i
ncont
ext
,sy
stemst
hati
nter
actwi
th
thet
argetsyst
em ar
erepresentedas

a.Peer-
levelsystems
b.Subordi
natesy stems
c.Superor
dinatesy st
ems
d.Workingsy st
ems

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion9.
4.1)

10.
Oncesel
ected,ar
chet
ypesal
way
sneedt
ober
efi
nedf
urt
herasar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnproceeds.

a.True
b.False
Answer
:a(
Sect
ion9.
4.2)

11.
Whi
chofthefol
l
owingisnotanexampl
eofinf
rast
ructurecomponent
sthat
mayneedtobeint
egr
atedint
othesof
twar
earchit
ecture?

a.Communi cati
onscomponents
b.Databasecomponents
c.I
nterfacecomponents
d.Memor ymanagementcomponent
s

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion9.
4.3)

12.
Inthearchi
tect
uret
rade-
offanal
ysi
smet
hodt
hear
chi
tect
ural
sty
leshoul
dbe
descri
bedusingthe

a.dataflowv i
ew
b.modul evi
ew
c.processview
d.userview

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion9.
5.1)

13.
Quanti
tat
ivemethodsforassessi
ngt
hequal
i
tyofpr
oposedar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnsarereadi
lyavai
labl
e.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
5.2)

14.
Ausef ul
t echni
queforev
aluat
ingt
heoveral
lcompl
exi
tyofapr
oposed
archi
tectureistol
ookatthecomponent

a.cohesi
on
b.fl
owdependencies
c.shari
ngdependenci
es
d.si
ze

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion10.
5.3)

15.
Whent heoveral
lfl
owinasegmentofadat
aflowdiagr
am isl
argel
y
sequenti
alandfoll
owsst
rai
ght
-l
inepat
hs____
____
_ispresent
.

a.l
owcoupl i
ng
b.goodmodul ari
ty
c.tr
ansact
ionf l
ow
d.t
ransf
ormf
low

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion9.
6)

16.
Whenasi ngl
eit
em thattr
iggersot
herdataf
lowal
ongoneofmanypaths
_____
___char
acter
izestheinf
ormati
onflowi
nasegmentofadat
aflow
diagr
am ispr
esent.

a.hi
ghcoupli
ng
b.poormodular
it
y
c.tr
ansact
ionfl
ow
d.tr
ansfor
mf l
ow

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion9.
6.1)
SoftwareEngineeri
ng
Apracti
ti
oner’sapproach
Sevent
hedi t
ion
-
RogerPr essman

Chapt
er10

1.Int
hemostgener
alsenseacomponenti
samodul
arbui
l
dingbl
ockf
or
comput
ersof
twar
e.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
1)

2.I
nthecont
extofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingacomponentcont
ains

a.att
ri
butesandoperations
b.i
nstancesofeachclass
c.rol
esforeachactor(deviceoruser
)
d.setofcol
labor
ati
ngcl asses

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
1.1)

3.I
ntradi
ti
onalsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingmodul
esmustser
vei
nwhi
choft
he
f
oll
owingrol
es?

a.Controlcomponent
b.I
nfrastruct
urecomponent
c.Problem domaincomponent
d.Al
l oftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
1.2)

4.Sof
twareengi
neer
salwaysneedtocer
atecomponent
sfr
om scr
atchi
nor
der
tomeetcust
omerexpect
ati
onsful
ly
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
1.3)

5.Whichofthefoll
owingisnotoneoft
hef
ourpr
inci
plesusedt
ogui
de
component-
leveldesi
gn?

a.DependencyI
nver
sionPr
inci
ple
b.I
nterf
aceSegregati
onPrinci
ple
c.Open-Cl
osedPrinci
ple
d.Parsi
moniousCompl exi
tyPri
ncipl
e

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
2.1)

6.Theuseofst
ereot
ypescanhel
pident
if
ythenat
ureofcomponent
satt
he
det
ail
eddesi
gnlev
el.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
2.2)

7.Classesandcomponent
sthatexhi
bitf
unct
ional
,lay
er,
orcommuni
cat
ional
cohesionar
erel
ati
vel
yeasytoimpl
ement,t
est,andmaint
ain.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
2.3)

8.Soft
warecoupl
ingi
sasi
gnofpoorar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnandcanal
way
sbe
avoi
dedinever
ysyst
em.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
2.4)

9.I
ncomponentdesignel
abor
ati
onr
equi
reswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ement
sto
bedescr
ibei
ndetail
?

a.Al
gorit
hms
b.Att
ri
butes
c.I
nterf
aces
d.Operat
ions

Answer
:b,
c,d(
Sect
ion10.
3)

10.
Incomponent
-l
evel
desi
gnper
sist
entdat
asour
cesr
efert
o

a.Componentli
brar
ies
b.Databases
c.Fi
les
d.Al
l oft
heabove
Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion10.
3)

11.
WebAppcont
entdesi
gnatthecomponentl
evel
focusesoncont
entobj
ect
s
andt
hemannerinwhicht
heyint
eract
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
4.1)

12.
AWebAppfunct
ionalar
chit
ect
uredescri
best
hekeyf
unct
ional
component
s
andhowt
heyint
eractwit
heachother.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
4.2)

13.
Whi
choft
heseconst
ruct
sisusedi
nst
ruct
uredpr
ogr
ammi
ng?

a.branching
b.condit
ion
c.repeti
ti
on
d.sequence

Answer
:b,
c,d(
Sect
ion10.
5)

14.
Whi
choft
hesei
sagr
aphi
cal
not
ati
onf
ordepi
cti
ngpr
ocedur
aldet
ail
?

a.boxdiagram
b.deci
siontabl
e
c.ERdiagram
d.fl
owchart

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
5.1)

15.
Adeci
siont
abl
eshoul
dbeused

a.todocumentallcondi
ti
onalstat
ement s
b.togui
dethedevelopmentoftheprojectmanagementpl
an
c.onl
ywhenbuildinganexpertsyst
em
d.whenacompl exsetofcondit
ionsandacti
onsappearsi
nacomponent

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
5.2)
16.
Apr
ogr
am desi
gnl
anguage(
PDL)i
sof
tena

a.combinat
ionofpr ogrammingconstruct
sandnarrat
ivet
ext
b.l
egit
imateprogrammi nglanguageinit
sownr i
ght
c.machinereadablesoftwaredevel
opmentlanguage
d.usef
ulwayt orepresentsoft
warearchit
ect
ure

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
5.3)

17.
Incomponent -
basedsoft
wareengi
neeri
ng,t
hedev el
opmentteam examines
therequir
ementstoseewhichareamenabletocomposit
ion,
ratherthan
construct
ion,
beforebegi
nni
ngdetai
leddesi
gntasks.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
6)

18.
Whichofthefol
l
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hemaj
oract
ivi
ti
esofdomai
n
engi
neer
ing?

a.analysi
s
b.construction
c.dissemi nati
on
d.vali
dation

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
6.1)

19.
Whichofthefol
l
owi
ngf
act
orswoul
dnotbeconsi
der
eddur
ingcomponent
qual
if
icat
ion?

a.appli
cat i
onprogr
ammi nginter
face(API
)
b.developmentandi ntegrati
ontoolsr
equi
red
c.exceptionhandli
ng
d.test
ingequipmentr equired

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
6.2)

20.
Whi
chi
sthef
oll
owi
ngi
sat
echni
queusedf
orcomponentwr
appi
ng?

a.bl
ack-boxwrapping
b.cl
ear-
boxwrapping
c.gr
ay-boxwrapping
d.whit
e-boxwrapping

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
6.2)
21.
Whichofthef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hei
ssuest
hatf
orm abasi
sfordesi
gn
forr
euse?

a.object-
ori
entedpr ogr
ammi ng
b.program t
empl ates
c.standarddata
d.standardi
nterfaceprotocol
s

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
6.3)

22.
Inareuseenv
ironment
,li
brar
yquer
iesar
eof
tenchar
act
eri
zedusi
ngt
he
___
_____el
ementofthe3CModel.

a.concept
b.content
c.context
d.al
loft heabov
e

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion10.
6.4)
Chapt
er1

1.Whi
chquest
ionnol
ongerconcer
nst
hemoder
nsof
twar
eengi
neer
?

a.Whydoescomput erhardwarecostsomuch?
b.Whydoessoftwaretakeal ongt
imetofi
nish?
c.Whydoesitcostsomucht odevel
opapieceofsoft
war
e?
d.Whycan’
tsoftwareerrorsberemovedf
rom product
spr
iort
odel
i
ver
y?

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
1)

2.Soft
wareisaproductandcanbemanuf
act
uredusi
ngt
hesamet
echnol
ogi
es
usedforot
herengineer
ingar
ti
fact
s
.
a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
1)

3.Sof
twar
edet
eri
orat
esr
athert
hanwear
soutbecause

a.Sof
twaresuff
ersfr
om exposuret
ohostil
eenvi
ronments
b.Def
ectsaremoreli
kelyt
oariseaft
ersof
twarehasbeenusedof t
en
c.Mult
ipl
echangerequest
sintr
oduceerr
orsincomponentint
eract
ions
d.Sof
twaresparepar
tsbecomehardertoorder

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion1.
1)

4.WebAppsareamixt
ureofpri
ntpubli
shi
ngandsof
twar
edevel
opment,maki
ng
t
hei
rdevel
opmentoutsi
dethereal
m ofsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingpr
act
ice.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
2)
5.Whi
choft
hei
temsl
i
stedbel
owi
snotoneoft
hesof
twar
eengi
neer
ingl
ayer
s?

a.Process
b.Manuf act
uri
ng
c.Methods
d.Tools

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
3)

6.Soft
wareengi
neer
ingumbrel
l
aacti
vit
iesar
eonl
yappl
i
eddur
ingt
hei
nit
ial
phasesofsof
twar
edevel
opmentproj
ects.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
4)

7.Whi
choft
hesear
ethe5gener
icsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingf
ramewor
kact
ivi
ti
es?

a.communicati
on,planning,modeling,const
ruction,deployment
b.communicati
on,ri
skmanagement ,measurement ,
pr oducti
on,
rev
iewi
ng
c.anal
ysi
s,desi
gning,programmi ng,debugging,maintenance
d.anal
ysi
s,pl
anning,designing,
programmi ng,testi
ng

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
4)

8. Pl
anni
ngaheadforsof
twar
ereusereducesthecostandi
ncr
easest
hev
alue
ofthesyst
emsintowhi
chtheyar
eincorpor
ated.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
5)
9.Theessenceofsof twareengi
neer
ingpracti
cemightbedescri
bedas
underst
andt heproblem,pl
anasolut
ion,car
ryoutthepl
an,andexami
net
he
resul
tforaccuracy.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
5)

10.
Inagi
lepr
ocessmodel
stheonl
ydel
i
ver
abl
ewor
kpr
oducti
sthewor
king
progr
am.

c.True
d.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
6)

11.
Amostsoftwar
edev
elopmentpr
oject
sar
eini
ti
atedt
otr
ytomeetsome
busi
nessneed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion1.
7)

12.
Ingeneralsof
twar
eonlysucceedsi
fit
sbehav
iori
sconsi
stentwi
tht
he
object
ivesofi
tsdesi
gner
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion1.
7)
Chapt
er2

1.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
erecogni
zedpr
ocessf
lowt
ypes?

a.Concur rentprocessfl
ow
b.It
erati
v epr ocessfl
ow
c.Linearpr ocessflow
d.Spiralprocessf l
ow

Answer
:aandc(
Sect
ion2.
1)

2.Soft
wareprocessescanbeconst
ruct
edoutofpr
e-exi
sti
ngsof
twar
epat
ter
ns
tobestmeettheneedsofasoft
wareproj
ect
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion2.
1.3)

3.Whi
choft
hesear
est
andar
dsf
orassessi
ngsof
twar
epr
ocesses?

a.SEI
b.SPI
CE
c.I
SO9000
d.I
SO9001

Answer
:bandd(
Sect
ion2.
2)

4.Thewat
erf
all
model
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

e.Ar easonabl
eapproachwhenrequir
ementsarewelldefi
ned.
f. Agoodapproachwhenawor ki
ngpr ogr
am i
srequi
redquickl
y.
g.Thebestappr oacht
ouseforproj
ectswithl
argedevelopmentt
eams.
h.Anol dfashi
onedmodelthati
srarel
yusedanymor e.

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion2.
3.1)
5.Thei
ncr
ement
almodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

a.Areasonabl
eapproachwhenr equi
rementsarewelldefi
ned.
b.Agoodapproachwhenawor ki
ngcoreproductisr
equi r
edquickly.
c.Thebestapproacht
ousef orproj
ectswit
hlargedevelopmentt eams.
d.Arevol
uti
onarymodelthati
snotusedf orcommercialproducts.

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
3.2)

6.Ev
olut
ionar
ysof
twar
epr
ocessmodel
s

a.Arei
terat
ivei
nnature
b.Caneasil
yaccommodat eproductr
equi
rement
schanges
c.Donotgeneral
lyproducet
hrowawaysystems
d.Al
loftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion2.
3.3)

7.Thepr
otot
ypi
ngmodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmenti
s

a.Areasonableapproachwhenrequi
rement
sarewelldefi
ned.
b.Ausefulapproachwhenacustomercannotdefi
nerequir
ement
sclear
ly.
c.Thebestapproacht ousef
orproj
ectswi
thlar
gedevelopmentt
eams.
d.Ari
skymodel t
hatrarel
ypr
oducesameaningful
product.

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
3.3)

8. Thespi
ral
model
ofsof
twar
edev
elopment

a.Endswitht
hedeliver
yofthesoft
wareproduct
b.I
smor echaoti
cthantheincr
ementalmodel
c.I
ncludespr
ojectr
iskseval
uati
onduri
ngeachiter
ati
on
d.All
oftheabove

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion2.
3.3)
9.Theconcur
rentdev
elopmentmodel
is

a.Anothernamef orconcur
rentengi
neering.
b.Defi
nesev entsthattri
ggerengi
neeringacti
vi
tystatet
ransit
ions.
c.Onlyusedf ordevelopmentofparal
lelordi
stri
butedsystems.
d.Usedwhenev eralargenumberofchanger equestsar
eant i
cipat
ed.

Answer
:aandb(
Sect
ion2.
3.4)

10.Thecomponent
-baseddev
elopmentmodel
is

a.Onlyappropri
ateforcomput erhardwaredesi
gn.
b.Notabletosuppor tthedevelopmentofreusablecomponents.
c.Dependentonobj ecttechnol
ogiesforsupport.
d.Notcosteffect
ivebyknownquant if
iabl
esoftwaremetr
ics.

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion2.
4.1)

11.Thefor
malmethodsmodel
ofsof
twar
edev
elopmentmakesuseof
mat
hemati
cal
met hodst
o

a.Def
inethespecif
icat
ionf
orcomputer-
basedsyst
ems
b.Devel
opdefectfr
eecomputer-
basedsystems
c.Ver
ifyt
hecorrect
nessofcomputer-
basedsyst
ems
d.Al
loftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion2.
4.2)

12.
Whi
choftheseisnotoneoft
hephasenamesdef
inedbyt
heUni
fi
edPr
ocess
model
forsoft
waredevel
opment
?

a.I
ncepti
onphase
b.El
aborati
onphase
c.Constr
ucti
onphase
d.Val
idati
onphase
Answer
:d(
Sect
ion2.
5.2)

13.
Whi
choft
hesei
snotachar
act
eri
sti
cofPer
sonal
Sof
twar
ePr
ocess?

a.Emphasizespersonalmeasurementofwor kproduct
b.Pr
acti
ti
onerr equi
rescar
efulsupervi
sionbytheproj
ectmanager
c.I
ndi
vidualpracti
ti
oneri
sresponsibl
ef oresti
mati
ngandschedul
ing
d.Pr
acti
ti
oneri sempoweredtocont r
olqualit
yofsoft
wareworkpr
oduct
s

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
6.1)

14.
Whi
choft
hesear
eobj
ect
ivesofTeam Sof
twar
ePr
ocess?

a.Acceler
atesoft
wareprocessimprov
ement
b.All
owbet t
erti
memanagementbyhi ghl
ytr
ainedprof
essional
s
c.Buil
dself-
dir
ectedsof
twareteams
d.Showmanager showt oreducecost
sandsustai
nquali
ty

Answer
:bandc(
Sect
ion2.
6.2)

15.
Processt
echnol
ogytool
sall
owsoft
wareorgani
zat
ionst
ocompr
ess
schedul
esbyski
ppinguni
mport
antact
ivi
ti
es.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion2.
7)

16.
Iti
sgeneral
l
yaccept
edthatonecannothav
eweaksof
twar
epr
ocessesand
creat
ehighqual
i
tyendproduct
s.

a.True
b.False
Answer:a(Sect
ion2.
8)
Chapt
er3

17.
Agil
i
tyisnothi
ngmor
ethant
heabi
l
ityofapr
ojectt
eam t
orespondr
api
dly
tochange.

i
. True
j
. False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion3.
1)

18.
Whichofthef
oll
owi
ngi
snotnecessar
ytoappl
yagi
l
ityt
oasof
twar
e
process?

c.Eliminatetheuseofprojectpl
anningandt est
ing
d.Onl yessenti
alworkproductsareproduced
e.Pr ocessall
owst eam t
ostreamli
net asks
f. Usesincrementalpr
oductdeli
verystrategy

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
1)

19.
Howdoy
oucr
eat
eagi
l
epr
ocessest
omanageunpr
edi
ctabi
l
ity
?

e.Requir
ementsgatheri
ngmustbeconductedv erycaref
ull
y
f. Ri
skanal
ysi
smustbeconductedbefor
epl anningtakesplace
g.Softwar
eincr
ement smustbedel
iv
eredinshor tti
meper i
ods
h.Softwar
eprocessesmustadaptt
ochangesi ncrementall
y

Answer
:candd(
Sect
ion3.
2)

20.
Inagil
esof
twareprocessest
hehi
ghestpri
ori
ti
esi
stosati
sfyt
he
customert
hroughearl
yandconti
nuousdel
iver
yofval
uabl
esoft
war
e.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
3)
21.Whichofthefoll
owi
ngt
rai
tsneedt
oexi
stamongt
hemember
sofan
agi
l
esoftwareteam?

e.Compet ence
f. Deci
sion-
makingabi
li
ty
g.Mut ualtr
ustandr
espect
h.Alloftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion3.
3.3)

22.
Inagil
edevelopmenti
tismorei
mportantt
obuildsoftwar
ethatmeetsthe
customers’
needstodaythanwor
ryaboutfeat
uresthatmightbeneededi
n
thefut
ure.

e.Tr ue
f. False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
4.1)

23.
Whatarethef
ourfr
amewor
kact
ivi
ti
esf
oundi
ntheExt
remePr
ogr
ammi
ng
(XP)pr
ocessmodel
?

e.analysis,
design,
coding,testi
ng
f. pl
anning,anal
ysi
s,desi
gn, coding
g.planning,anal
ysi
s,coding,testi
ng
h.planning,desi
gn,codi
ng, t
esting

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion3.
4.2)

24.
All
agil
eprocessmodel
sconf
or mtoagreaterorl
esserdegreet
othe
pri
nci
plesst
atedi
nthe“Mani
festof
orAgil
eSof t
wareDevelopment
”.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
5)
25.
Whataret
hethr
eefr
amewor kact
ivi
ti
esf
ort
heAdapt
iveSof
twar
e
Dev
elopment(
ASD)processmodel?

e.analy
sis,design,coding
f.feasi
bili
tyst
udy ,
f uncti
onalmodel i
ter
ati
on,i
mplementat
ion
g.requi
rementsgat hering,adapt
ivecycl
eplanni
ng,i
ter
ati
vedevel
opment
h.speculati
on,coll
abor at
ion,l
earni
ng

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion3.
5.1)

26.
Whi
chisnotoneofthekeyquesti
onsthati
sanswer
edbyeacht
eam
memberateachdai
l
yScr um meet
ing?

e.Whatdidyoudosincethel
astmeet i
ng?
f. Whatobst
acl
esareyouencounter
ing?
g.Whatisthecauseofthepr
oblemsy ouar
eencount
eri
ng?
h.Whatdoy ouplant
oaccomplishbethenextt
eam meeti
ng?

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion3.
5.2)

27.TheDy nami cSystemsDevel


opmentMethod(DSDM)suggestsa
phi
losophythatisbasedonthePar
etopri
nci
ple(80%oftheappl
icat
ion
canbedel i
veredin20%oftheti
merequi
redtobuil
dthecomplet
e
appli
cati
on).

e.Tr ue
f. False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
5.3)

28.
InFeat
ureDri
venDev el
opment(FDD)acl
ient
-val
uedf
eatur
eisacl
i
ent
-
val
uedfunct
ionthatcanbedeli
veredi
ntwoweeksorless.

a.True
b.False
Answer
:b(
Sect
ion3.
5.5)

29.
AgileModel
i
ng(AM)prov
idesgui
dancet
opr
act
it
ionerdur
ingwhi
chof
thesesof
twaret
asks?

a.Anal
ysi
s
b.Desi
gn
c.Codi
ng
d.Test
ing

Answer
:aandb(
Sect
ion3.
5.7)

30.
AgileUni
fi
edProcessusestheclassi
cUPphasedact
ivi
ti
es(i
ncept
ion,
elabor
ati
on,const
ruct
ion,
transi
ti
on)tohel
pthet
eam vi
sual
i
zetheov er
all
processfl
ow.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion3.
5.8)
Chapt
er5

1.Requir
ementsengi
neer
ingi
sagener
icpr
ocesst
hatdoesnotv
aryf
rom onesof
twar
e
proj
ecttoanot
her.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
1)

2.Dur
ingpr
ojecti
ncept
iont
hei
ntentoft
heoft
het
asksar
etodet
ermi
ne

a.basi cproblem under


standing
b.nat ureofthesoluti
onneeded
c. peoplewhowantasol uti
on
d.noneoft heabov e

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion5.
1)

3.Thr
eet
hingst
hatmaker
equi
rement
sel
i
cit
ati
ondi
ff
icul
tar
epr
obl
emsof

a.budgeting
b.scope
c. under
standi
ng
d.v ol
ati
l
ity

Answer
:b,
c,d(
Sect
ion5.
1)

4.Astakehol
deri
sany
onewhowi
l
lpur
chaset
hecompl
etedsof
twar
esy
stem under
dev
elopment.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
2.1)

5.Iti
srel
ati
vel
ycommonf ordi
fferentcustomerstopr
oposeconf
li
cti
ngr
equi
rement
s,
eachargui
ngthathi
sorherversionistheri
ghtone.
a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
2.2)

6.Whichofthefoll
owingisnotoneoft
hecont
ext
-f
reequest
ionst
hatwoul
dbeused
dur
ingproj
ectincepti
on?

a.Whatwil
lbetheeconomicbenefi
tfr
om agoodsol
uti
on?
b.Whoisbehi
ndtherequestforwork?
c. Whowi
l
lpayforthework?
d.Whowil
lusethesolut
ion?

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion5.
2.4)

7.I
ncol
l
abor
ati
ver
equi
rement
sgat
her
ingt
hef
aci
l
itat
or

a.ar r
angesthemeetingpl
ace
b.cannotbeacust omer
c. contr
olst
hemeeting
d.mustbeanout si
der

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion5.
3.1)

8.Whichofthef
oll
owi
ngisnotoneoft
her
equi
rementcl
assi
fi
cat
ionsusedi
nQual
i
ty
Funct
ionDepl
oyment(
QFD)?

a.excit
ing
b.expected
c. mandator
y
d.normal

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion5.
3.2)

9.Thewor
kpr
oduct
spr
oduceddur
ingr
equi
rementel
i
cit
ati
onwi
l
lvar
ydependi
ngon
the
a.sizeoft hebudget
b.sizeoft heproductbei
ngbui
lt
c. softwareprocessbei
ngused
d.st akeholder
sneeds

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
3.4)

10.Devel
opersandcustomerscr
eateuse-
casestohel
pthesof
twar
eteam under
stand
howdiff
erentcl
assesofend-
userswil
lusef
uncti
ons.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
4)

11.Use-
caseact
orsar
eal
way
speopl
e,nev
ersy
stem dev
ices.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
4)

12.Theresul
toft
herequi
rement
sengineer
ingt
aski
sananal
ysi
smodel
thatdef
ines
whichoft
hefol
lowi
ngprobl
em domain(
s)?

a.information
b.f uncti
onal
c. behavior
al
d.al loft
heabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion5.
5)

13.Anal
ysispat
ternsfaci
l
itat
ethet
ransf
ormat
ionoft
heanal
ysi
smodel
int
oadesi
gn
modelbysuggesti
ngreli
abl
esol
uti
onstocommonprobl
ems.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion5.
5.2)
14.I
nwi n-
winnegot
iat
ion,
thecust
omer
’sneedsar
emetev
ent
hought
hedev
eloper
’s
needmaynotbe.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
6)

15.I
nrequi
rement
sval
i
dat
iont
her
equi
rement
smodel
isr
evi
ewedt
oensur
eit
stechni
cal
f
easi
bil
i
ty.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion5.
7)
Chapt
er6

1.Whi
choft
hesei
snotanel
ementofar
equi
rement
smodel
?

a.Behavi
oralelements
b.Class-
basedelements
c.Dataelements
d.Scenari
o-basedelement
s

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion6.
1)

2.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotanobj
ect
ivef
orbui
l
dingar
equi
rment
smodel
?

a.definesetofsof
twarerequir
ementst hatcanbeval
i
dat
ed
b.describecust
omerrequir
ement s
c.developanabbrevi
atedsoluti
onfortheproblem
d.establi
shbasisf
orsoftwaredesign

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion6.
1.1)

3.Object-
ori
enteddomainanal
ysisisconcernedwi
tht
heident
if
icat
ionand
specif
icat
ionofreusabl
ecapabil
i
tieswit
hinanappl
i
cat
iondomain.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
1.3)

4.I
nstr
ucturedanal
ysi
smodel
sf ocusonthest
ruct
ureoft
hecl
assesdef
ined
f
orasystem al
ongwitht
hei
rinter
act
ions.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion6.
1.4)
5.Cr
eati
onandr
efi
nementofusecasesi
fani
mpor
tantpar
tofscenar
io-
based
model
ing.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
2)

6.I
tisi
mportantt
oconsi
deral
ter
nat
iveact
ori
nter
act
ionswhencr
eat
inga
pr
eli
minar
yusecase.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion6.
2.1)

7.Brai
nst
ormingisonetechni
quet
hatmaybeusedt
oder
iveacompl
etesetof
usecaseexcepti
ons.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
2.2)

8.I
nmanycasest her
eisnoneedt
ocr
eat
eagr
aphi
cal
repr
esent
ati
onofa
usagescenar
io.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
2.3)

9.UMLact
ivi
tydi
agr
amsar
eusef
uli
nrepr
esent
ingwhi
chanal
ysi
smodel
el
ement
s?

a.Behav i
oralelements
b.Class-basedel ement
s
c.Fl
ow- basedel ements
d.Scenar i
o-basedelement
s

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
3.1)

10.
Oneormor eat
tri
butesofadataobj
ectmustbedef
inedasakeyt
oal
l
owt
he
locat
ionofani
nstanceofthedat
aobject
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
4.2)

11.
Theent
it
yrel
ati
onshi
pdi
agr
am

a.depict
srelat
ionshi
psbet weendat aobj
ect s
b.depict
sfunctionsthatt
ransformthedat aflow
c.i
ndicateshowdat aaretransfor
medbyt hesystem
d.i
ndicatessystem r
eacti
onst oexternal
ev ents

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
4.3)

12.
Whichofthefol
lowi
ngshoul
dbeconsi
der
edascandi
dat
eobj
ect
sina
probl
em space?

a.event
s
b.peopl
e
c.str
uctur
es
d.al
loftheabov
e

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
5.1)
13.
Attri
butesarechosenforanobjectbyexamini
ngthepr
obl
em st
atementand
identi
fyi
ngtheenti
tiest
hatappeartoberelat
ed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion6.
5.2)

14.
Whichoft hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hebr
oadcat
egor
iesusedt
ocl
assi
fy
operat
ions?

a.computati
on
b.datamanipul
ati
on
c.eventmonit
ors
d.tr
ansfor
mer s

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
5.3)

15.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
temsdoesnotappearonaCRCcar
d?

a.cl
asscoll
aborat
ors
b.cl
assname
c.cl
assrel
iabi
li
ty
d.cl
assresponsi
bil
i
ties

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion6.
5.4)

16.Cl
assr
esponsi
bil
i
tiesar
edef
inedby

a.i
tsatt
ri
butesonly
b.i
tscol
laborator
s
c.i
tsoperat
ionsonly
d.bot
hitsattr
ibut
esandoper
ati
ons

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion6.
5.4)
17.
Ananaly
sispackageinvol
vest
hecat
egor
izat
ionofanal
ysi
smodel
element
s
int
ouseful
groupings.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion6.
5.6)
Chapt
er7

18.
Thedat
afl
owdi
agr
am

a.depict
srelat
ionshi
psbet weendat aobj
ect s
b.depict
sfunctionsthatt
ransformthedat aflow
c.i
ndicateshowdat aaretransfor
medbyt hesystem
d.i
ndicatessystem r
eacti
onst oexternal
ev ents

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion7.
2)

19.
Cont
rol
flowdi
agr
amsar
e

a.neededtomodel eventdri
vensyst
ems.
b.requi
redforallsy
stems.
c.usedinplaceofdataflowdiagr
ams.
d.usedtorepresentsyst
em behavi
or.

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
2.2)

20.
Thecontrol
specif
icat
ionrepr
esent
sthesy
stem behav
iorusi
ngUML
sequenceandstatedi
agrams.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion7.
2.3)

21.
Thedataf
lowdiagr
am mustbeaugmentedbymin-
spect
hatcanser
veasa
gui
dethedesi
gnofthesof
twarecomponentt
hatwil
li
mplementt
heprocess.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
2.4)
22.
Forpur
posesofbehav
iormodel
i
nganev
entoccur
swhenev
er

a.ast
ateandprocessexchangeinformat
ion.
b.t
hesyst
em anact orexchangeinf
ormat
ion.
c.t
woactorsexchangeinformati
on.
d.t
woobjectsexchangeinformat
ion.

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
3.1)

23.
Forpur
posesofbehav
iormodel
i
ngast
atei
sany

a.consumerorpr oducerofdat
a.
b.dataobjecthi
erarchy.
c.observabl
emodeofbehav i
or.
d.welldefi
nedprocess.

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion7.
3.2)

24.
Thest
atet
ransi
ti
ondi
agr
am

a.depict
srelat
ionshi
psbet weendat aobj
ect s
b.depict
sfunctionsthatt
ransformthedat aflow
c.i
ndicateshowdat aaretransfor
medbyt hesystem
d.i
ndicatessystem r
eacti
onst oexternal
ev ents

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion7.
3.2)

25.
TheUMLsequencedi
agr
am showt
heor
deri
nwhi
chsy
stem ev
ent
sar
e
processed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
3.2)
26.
Anal
ysi
spat
ter
nsar
edi
scov
ered,
theyar
enotexpl
i
cit
lycr
eat
ed.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
4)

27.
Iti
snotpossi
blet
ojust
if
ythet
imer
equi
redf
orWebAppr
equi
rement
s
analy
sis.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
5)

28.
Whichi
snotoneoft
heanal
ysi
sact
ivi
ti
est
hati
susedt
ocr
eat
eacompl
ete
anal
ysi
smodel?

a.Confi
gurati
onanalysi
s
b.Contentanal
y si
s
c.Functi
onalanalysi
s
d.Marketanalysis

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion7.
5.3)

29.
Contentobj
ectsareext
ract
edfrom usecasesbyexami
ningt
hescenar
io
descri
pti
onfordi
rectori
ndir
ectcontentr
efer
ences.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
5.4)

12.Whatar
etheel
ement
sofaWebAppi
nter
act
ionmodel
?
a.activ
itydi
agrams, sequencediagr
ams,stat
ediagrams, i
nter
faceprotot
ype
b.activ
itydi
agrams, col
laborat
iondi
agrams,sequencediagrams,stat
e
diagrams
c.use-cases,sequencediagrams,stat
ediagr
ams, i
nterf
aceprototy
pe
d.use-cases,sequencediagrams,stat
ediagr
ams, sequencediagr
ams

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion7.
5.5)

30.
UMLact iv
itydi
agramscanbeusedt
orepr
esentt
heuserobser
vabl
e
funct
ionali
tydel
iver
edbyt
heWebAppaswellastheoper
ati
onscont
ainedi
n
eachanalysiscl
ass.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion7.
5.6)

31.
Confi
gurat
ionanal
ysi
sfocusesont
hear
chi
tect
ureoft
heuser
’swebbr
owsi
ng
envi
ronment.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion7.
5.7)
Chapt
er8

1.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngar
ear
easofconcer
nint
hedesi
gnmodel
?

a.architect
ure
b.data
c.i
nter f
aces
d.projectscope

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion8.
1)

2.Thei
mpor
tanceofsof
twar
edesi
gncanbesummar
izedi
nasi
ngl
ewor
d

a.accuracy
b.compl exi
ty
c.eff
ici
ency
d.quali
ty

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
1)

3.Whi
choft
hesear
echar
act
eri
sti
csofagooddesi
gn?

a.exhi
bi t
sstr
ongcouplingbetweenit
smodul es
b.i
mpl ementsallr
equir
ement sint
heanalysi
smodel
c.i
ncludestestcasesforallcomponent
s
d.providesacompletepict
ureofthesoft
ware

Answer
:b,
d(Sect
ion8.
2.1)

4.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotachar
act
eri
sti
ccommont
oal
ldesi
gnmet
hods?

a.configurat
ionmanagement
b.functional
componentrepr
esent
ati
on
c.quali
tyassessmentguidel
i
nes
d.refi
nementheuri
sti
cs
Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
2.2)

5.Whatt
ypesofabst
ract
ionar
eusedi
nsof
twar
edesi
gn?

a.control
b.data
c.envir
onment al
d.procedural

Answer
:a,
b,d(
Sect
ion8.
3.1)

6.Whichoft
hefol
l
owingcanbeusedt
orepr
esentt
hear
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnofa
pi
eceofsoft
war
e?

a.Dynamicmodels
b.Functi
onalmodel
s
c.Str
uctural
models
d.Alloft
heabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
3.2)

7.Desi
gnpat
ter
nsar
enotappl
i
cabl
etot
hedesi
gnofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
e?

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.3)

8.Si
ncemodul
ari
tyi
sanimpor
tantdesi
gngoal
iti
snotpossi
blet
ohav
etoo
manymodul
esinapr
oposeddesign.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.5)
9.I
nfor
mati
onhidi
ngmakesprogr
am maint
enanceeasi
erbyhi
dingdat
aand
pr
ocedur
efr
om unaf
fect
edpart
softheprogr
am.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
3.6)

10.
Cohesi
oni
saqual
i
tat
ivei
ndi
cat
ionoft
hedegr
eet
owhi
chamodul
e

a.canbewr i
t t
enmor ecompact l
y.
b.focusesonj ustonething.
c.i
sabl etocompl et
ei t
sf unct
ioninat
imel
ymanner.
d.i
sconnect edt oothermodulesandtheoutsi
dewor
ld.

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.7)

11.
Coupl
i
ngi
saqual
i
tat
ivei
ndi
cat
ionoft
hedegr
eet
owhi
chamodul
e

a.canbewr i
t t
enmor ecompact l
y.
b.focusesonj ustonething.
c.i
sabl etocompl et
ei t
sf unct
ioninat
imel
ymanner.
d.i
sconnect edt oothermodulesandtheoutsi
dewor
ld.

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
3.7)

12.
Whenusingstr
uctur
eddesignmet
hodol
ogi
est
hepr
ocessofst
epwi
se
ref
inementi
sunnecessar
y.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.8)
13.
Soft
waredesignsarerefactor
edtoall
owthecreat
ionofsof
twar
ethati
s
easi
ert
ointegrat
e,easiertotest
,andeasi
ert
omai nt
ain.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
3.10)

14.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hef
ivedesi
gncl
asst
ypes

a.Businessdomainclasses
b.Enti
tyclasses
c.Processclasses
d.Userinter
facecl
asses

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
3.13)

15.
Whichdesi
gnmodelel
ement
sareusedt
odepi
ctamodel
ofi
nfor
mat
ion
repr
esent
edfr
om t
heuser
’svi
ew?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesignelements
b.Component -
leveldesi
gnelement
s
c.Datadesi
gnel ement s
d.I
nterf
acedesi gnelements

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion8.
4.1)

16.
Whi
chdesi
gni
sequi
val
entt
othef
loorpl
anofahouse?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesign
b.Component -
leveldesi
gn
c.Datadesi
gn
d.I
nterf
acedesi gn

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion8.
4.2)
17.
Whichdesi
gnmodel i
sequiv
alentt
othedet
ail
eddr
awi
ngsoft
heaccess
poi
ntsandext
ernal
util
it
iesf
orahouse?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesign
b.Component -
leveldesi
gn
c.Datadesi
gn
d.I
nterf
acedesi gn

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion8.
4.3)

18.
Whichdesi
gnmodel
isequi
val
entt
oasetofdet
ail
eddr
awi
ngsf
oreachr
oom
inahouse?

a.Archi
tect
uraldesign
b.Component -
leveldesi
gn
c.Datadesi
gn
d.I
nterf
acedesi gn

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
4.4)

19.
Thedepl
oymentdesi
gnel
ement
sspeci
fyt
hebui
l
dor
derf
ort
hesof
twar
e
component
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion8.
4.5)
Chapt
er9

1.Thebestr
epr
esent
ati
onofsy
stem ar
chi
tect
urei
sanoper
ati
onal
sof
twar
e
prot
oty
pe.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
1.1)

2.Thear
chi
tect
uralr
epresent
ati
onscanbeanenabl
erf
orcommuni
cat
ion
amongpr
ojectst
akeholder
s.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion9.
1.2)

3.Anarchi
tect
ural
descr
ipt
ioni
sof
tendocument
edusi
nganar
chi
tect
ure
templ
ate.

a.Tur
e
b.Fal
se

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
1.3)

4.Anarchit
ectur
algenrewi
l
loft
endict
atet
hear
chi
tect
ural
appr
oacht
hatmay
usedforthestr
uctur
etobebuil
t.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion9.
2)

5.Anar
chi
tect
ural
sty
leencompasseswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ement
s?
a.const
raint
s
b.setofcomponent
s
c.semanti
cmodels
d.synt
acti
cmodels

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion9.
3)

6.Todet
erminethearchi
tectur
alst
yleorcombi
nat
ionofst
ylesthatbestf
it
sthe
pr
oposedsyst
em, r
equirementsengi
neeri
ngi
susedtouncover

a.al
gori
thmiccomplexi
ty
b.char
acteri
sti
csandconst
rai
nts
c.cont
rolanddata
d.desi
gnpatterns

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
3.1)

7.Bef
oreanar
chi
tect
uralpat
ter
ncanbechosenforuseinaspeci
fi
csy
stem i
t
musthav
eacodeimplementati
ont
ofaci
li
tat
eitsreuse.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
3.2)

8.Thecri
ter
iausedtoassesst
hequal
i
tyofanar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnshoul
dbe
basedonsystem

a.accessibi
l
ity
b.control
c.data
d.i
mpl ementati
on

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion9.
3.3)
9.Duri
ngprocessofmodeli
ngt hesyst
em i
ncont
ext
,sy
stemst
hati
nter
actwi
th
thet
argetsyst
em ar
erepresentedas

a.Peer-
levelsystems
b.Subordi
natesy stems
c.Superor
dinatesy st
ems
d.Workingsy st
ems

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion9.
4.1)

10.
Oncesel
ected,ar
chet
ypesal
way
sneedt
ober
efi
nedf
urt
herasar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnproceeds.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion9.
4.2)

11.
Whi
chofthefol
l
owingisnotanexampl
eofinf
rast
ructurecomponent
sthat
mayneedtobeint
egr
atedint
othesof
twar
earchit
ecture?

a.Communi cati
onscomponents
b.Databasecomponents
c.I
nterfacecomponents
d.Memor ymanagementcomponent
s

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion9.
4.3)

12.
Inthearchi
tect
uret
rade-
offanal
ysi
smet
hodt
hear
chi
tect
ural
sty
leshoul
dbe
descri
bedusingthe

a.dataflowv i
ew
b.modul evi
ew
c.processview
d.userview

Answer
:a,
b,c(
Sect
ion9.
5.1)
13.
Quanti
tat
ivemethodsforassessi
ngt
hequal
i
tyofpr
oposedar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnsarereadi
lyavai
labl
e.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion9.
5.2)

14.
Ausef ul
t echni
queforev
aluat
ingt
heoveral
lcompl
exi
tyofapr
oposed
archi
tectureistol
ookatthecomponent

a.cohesi
on
b.fl
owdependencies
c.shari
ngdependenci
es
d.si
ze

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion10.
5.3)

15.
Whent heoveral
lfl
owinasegmentofadat
aflowdiagr
am isl
argel
y
sequenti
alandfoll
owsst
rai
ght
-l
inepat
hs____
____
_ispresent
.

a.l
owcoupl i
ng
b.goodmodul ari
ty
c.tr
ansact
ionf l
ow
d.tr
ansfor
mf low

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion9.
6)

16.
Whenasi ngl
eit
em thattr
iggersot
herdataf
lowal
ongoneofmanypaths
_____
___char
acter
izestheinf
ormati
onflowi
nasegmentofadat
aflow
diagr
am ispr
esent.

a.hi
ghcoupli
ng
b.poormodular
it
y
c.tr
ansact
ionfl
ow
d.tr
ansfor
mf l
ow Answer
:c(
Sect
ion9.
6.1)
Chapt
er10

1.Int
hemostgener
alsenseacomponenti
samodul
arbui
l
dingbl
ockf
or
comput
ersof
twar
e.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
1)

2.I
nthecont
extofobj
ect
-or
ient
edsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingacomponentcont
ains

a.att
ri
butesandoperations
b.i
nstancesofeachclass
c.rol
esforeachactor(deviceoruser
)
d.setofcol
labor
ati
ngcl asses

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
1.1)

3.I
ntradi
ti
onalsof
twar
eengi
neer
ingmodul
esmustser
vei
nwhi
choft
he
f
oll
owingrol
es?

a.Controlcomponent
b.I
nfrastruct
urecomponent
c.Problem domaincomponent
d.Al
l oftheabove

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
1.2)

4.Sof
twareengi
neer
salwaysneedtocer
atecomponent
sfr
om scr
atchi
nor
der
tomeetcust
omerexpect
ati
onsful
ly
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
1.3)
5.Whichofthefoll
owingisnotoneoft
hef
ourpr
inci
plesusedt
ogui
de
component-
leveldesi
gn?

a.DependencyI
nversi
onPr i
nci
ple
b.I
nterf
aceSegregati
onPrinci
ple
c.Open-Cl
osedPrinci
ple
d.Parsi
moniousCompl exi
tyPri
ncipl
e

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
2.1)

6.Theuseofst
ereot
ypescanhel
pident
if
ythenat
ureofcomponent
satt
he
det
ail
eddesi
gnlev
el.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
2.2)

7.Classesandcomponent
sthatexhi
bitf
unct
ional
,lay
er,
orcommuni
cat
ional
cohesionar
erel
ati
vel
yeasytoimpl
ement,t
est,andmaint
ain.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
2.3)

8.Soft
warecoupl
ingi
sasi
gnofpoorar
chi
tect
ural
desi
gnandcanal
way
sbe
avoi
dedinever
ysyst
em.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
2.4)
9.I
ncomponentdesignel
abor
ati
onr
equi
reswhi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngel
ement
sto
bedescr
ibei
ndetail
?

a.Al
gorit
hms
b.Att
ri
butes
c.I
nterf
aces
d.Operat
ions

Answer
:b,
c,d(
Sect
ion10.
3)

10.
Incomponent
-l
evel
desi
gnper
sist
entdat
asour
cesr
efert
o

a.Componentli
brar
ies
b.Databases
c.Fi
les
d.Al
l oft
heabove

Answer
:b,
c(Sect
ion10.
3)

11.
WebAppcont
entdesi
gnatthecomponentl
evel
focusesoncont
entobj
ect
s
andt
hemannerinwhicht
heyint
eract
.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
4.1)

12.
AWebAppfunct
ionalar
chit
ect
uredescri
best
hekeyf
unct
ional
component
s
andhowt
heyint
eractwit
heachother.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
4.2)

13.
Whi
choft
heseconst
ruct
sisusedi
nst
ruct
uredpr
ogr
ammi
ng?
a.branching
b.condit
ion
c.repeti
ti
on
d.sequence

Answer
:b,
c,d(
Sect
ion10.
5)

14.
Whi
choft
hesei
sagr
aphi
cal
not
ati
onf
ordepi
cti
ngpr
ocedur
aldet
ail
?

a.boxdiagram
b.deci
siontabl
e
c.ERdiagram
d.fl
owchart

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
5.1)

15.
Adeci
siont
abl
eshoul
dbeused

a.todocumentallcondi
ti
onalstat
ement s
b.togui
dethedevelopmentoftheprojectmanagementpl
an
c.onl
ywhenbuildinganexpertsyst
em
d.whenacompl exsetofcondit
ionsandacti
onsappearsi
nacomponent

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
5.2)

16.
Apr
ogr
am desi
gnl
anguage(
PDL)i
sof
tena

a.combinat
ionofpr ogrammingconstruct
sandnarrat
ivet
ext
b.l
egit
imateprogrammi nglanguageinit
sownr i
ght
c.machinereadablesoftwaredevel
opmentlanguage
d.usef
ulwayt orepresentsoft
warearchit
ect
ure

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
5.3)

17.
Incomponent
-basedsof
twar
eengi
neer
ing,
thedev
elopmentt
eam exami
nes
therequir
ementstoseewhi
char
eamenabletocomposi
ti
on,
rat
hert
han
construct
ion,
befor
ebegi
nni
ngdet
ail
eddesi
gntasks.

a.True
b.False

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
6)

18.
Whichofthefol
l
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hemaj
oract
ivi
ti
esofdomai
n
engi
neer
ing?

a.analysi
s
b.construction
c.dissemi nati
on
d.vali
dation

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
6.1)

19.
Whichofthefol
l
owi
ngf
act
orswoul
dnotbeconsi
der
eddur
ingcomponent
qual
if
icat
ion?

a.appli
cat i
onprogr
ammi nginter
face(API
)
b.developmentandi ntegrati
ontoolsr
equi
red
c.exceptionhandli
ng
d.test
ingequipmentr equired

Answer
:d(
Sect
ion10.
6.2)

20.
Whi
chi
sthef
oll
owi
ngi
sat
echni
queusedf
orcomponentwr
appi
ng?

a.bl
ack-boxwrapping
b.cl
ear-
boxwrapping
c.gr
ay-boxwrapping
d.whit
e-boxwrapping

Answer
:b(
Sect
ion10.
6.2)
21.
Whichofthef
oll
owi
ngi
snotoneoft
hei
ssuest
hatf
orm abasi
sfordesi
gn
forr
euse?

a.object-
ori
entedpr ogr
ammi ng
b.program t
empl ates
c.standarddata
d.standardi
nterfaceprotocol
s

Answer
:a(
Sect
ion10.
6.3)

22.
Inareuseenv
ironment
,li
brar
yquer
iesar
eof
tenchar
act
eri
zedusi
ngt
he
___
_____el
ementofthe3CModel.

a.concept
b.content
c.context
d.al
loft heabov
e

Answer
:c(
Sect
ion10.
6.4)
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 2. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan
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B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 4. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 5. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 6. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 7. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 8. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()
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C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 9. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 10. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 11. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 12. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 13. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

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C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 14. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 16. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 17. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

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C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 19. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 20. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 21. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 22. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 23. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

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C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 24. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 25. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 27. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control
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D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 29. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 30. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

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C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 35. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 36. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 37. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

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C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined


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D : Array bound violations

Q.no 44. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 45. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 46. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 47. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 48. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

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B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 49. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 50. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

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A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

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A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 1. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 2. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 3. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

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A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 4. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 5. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 6. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 8. What is architectural style?

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A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 9. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before moving on to the
next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

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Q.no 13. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 14. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 15. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 16. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 17. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

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D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 18. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 19. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 20. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 21. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 22. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

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D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 25. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 26. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 27. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

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C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 29. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 30. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 32. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

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C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 33. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 34. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 35. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 36. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

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C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 38. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 39. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 40. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 41. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 42. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process
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D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 43. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 46. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 47. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

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C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 49. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 50. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 51. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

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B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 57. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

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A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 60. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 1. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

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Q.no 2. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 3. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 5. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 6. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

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Q.no 7. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 8. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 9. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 10. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 11. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

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Q.no 12. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 13. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 15. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 16. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

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D : deselectAll()

Q.no 17. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 18. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 19. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to change
management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 20. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 21. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

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D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 22. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 23. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 24. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 25. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 26. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation
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Q.no 27. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 28. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 32. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 33. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 34. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 35. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 36. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

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Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 39. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 41. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

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Q.no 42. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 43. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

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D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 48. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 50. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

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B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

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B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Q.no 1. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 2. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 3. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 4. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

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Q.no 6. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 7. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 8. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 9. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 10. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

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Q.no 11. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 12. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 15. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

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Q.no 16. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 17. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 18. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 19. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 20. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

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Q.no 21. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 22. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 23. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 24. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?


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A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 28. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 29. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Which of the following statement is true?

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A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 32. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 35. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 36. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

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A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

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A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 45. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 46. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

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A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 47. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

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A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 53. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

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A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 57. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

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D : Destructive impact

Q.no 1. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 2. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 3. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 4. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 5. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only


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Q.no 6. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 7. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 8. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 9. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 10. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

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Q.no 11. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 13. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 14. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 15. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

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Q.no 16. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 17. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 19. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 20. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 21. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?
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A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 22. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 23. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 24. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 25. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 26. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based
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B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 27. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 28. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 29. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 30. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 31. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

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A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 33. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

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A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 41. What is Fault Masking?

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A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 46. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are

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called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 48. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 49. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 50. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

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Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

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Q.no 56. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

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Q.no 1. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 2. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 3. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 4. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 5. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

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Q.no 6. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is usually
the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 7. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 9. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

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D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 12. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 13. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 15. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

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C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 16. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 18. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 20. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance


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D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 21. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 22. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 23. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 25. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

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D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 27. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 29. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


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Q.no 31. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

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Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 37. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 38. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

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Q.no 41. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 42. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 43. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

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D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 46. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 47. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 48. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 49. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 50. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

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D : User requirement documents

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 55. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

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C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 58. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.
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A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 2. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 4. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

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Q.no 5. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 6. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 7. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 9. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

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Q.no 10. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 11. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 13. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 14. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 15. The selenium can


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A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 16. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 17. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 18. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 19. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 20. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory
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B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 22. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 23. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 24. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 25. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

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B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

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B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 32. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 33. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 34. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 35. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

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B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 36. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 37. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 38. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

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A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 44. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 45. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

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A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 46. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 47. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 50. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

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A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

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Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 57. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

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Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 2. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 3. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 4. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 5. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?


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A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 6. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

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A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 11. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 12. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 14. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

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A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 16. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 17. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 18. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 20. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable
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B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 21. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 22. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 24. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 25. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered

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vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 26. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 28. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 29. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

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Q.no 30. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 34. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

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Q.no 35. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 36. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 39. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

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Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 42. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

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D : human elements

Q.no 45. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 46. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 47. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 49. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

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D : SCI

Q.no 50. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

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D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 57. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

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C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 2. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 3. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 4. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

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C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 5. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 6. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 7. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 8. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 9. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

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C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 10. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 11. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 12. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 13. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users


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D : Interface validation

Q.no 15. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 16. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 17. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 18. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk
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Q.no 20. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 21. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web browser should be
used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of the following types of
requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 22. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 24. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

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D : Regression testing

Q.no 25. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 28. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 29. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

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C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 33. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 34. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

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B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 35. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

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B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 41. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 42. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 43. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 44. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

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B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 49. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

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A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 50. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 53. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

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Q.no 54. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

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D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 1. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 2. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 3. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

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C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 4. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 5. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 6. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 7. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 8. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

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C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 9. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 10. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 11. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 12. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 13. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

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C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 14. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 15. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 16. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 17. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 18. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

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B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 19. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 20. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 22. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 23. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()
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C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 24. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 25. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 26. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 27. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 28. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

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C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 31. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 32. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

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C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 36. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 37. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 38. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

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C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 39. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 40. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 41. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 42. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 43. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

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C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 46. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 48. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

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C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 49. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

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C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

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B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 3. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

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B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 4. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 5. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 8. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

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B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 9. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 10. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 11. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 12. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 13. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

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B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 15. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 16. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 17. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 18. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing


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C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 19. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 20. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 21. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 22. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 23. Selenium IDE stands for

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A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 24. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 26. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 27. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

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A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

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Q.no 33. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

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C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 41. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

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C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 46. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 47. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

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C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 48. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

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C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

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B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 59. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 2. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

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B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 3. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 4. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is usually
the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 5. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 6. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 7. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

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B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 8. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 9. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 10. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 11. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web browser should be
used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of the following types of
requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 12. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

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B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 15. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 16. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 17. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible
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C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 18. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 19. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 20. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 21. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

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C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 23. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 24. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 26. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 27. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

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C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 30. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

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C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 35. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 36. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

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C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 39. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 40. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 41. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 42. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

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C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 43. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

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C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 48. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 49. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

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B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 53. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

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B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 1. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

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A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 3. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 4. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 5. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 7. A software process model represents which one of the following?

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A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 9. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 10. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 11. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 12. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

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A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 13. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 14. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 15. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 16. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 17. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

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A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 20. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral


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B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 23. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 24. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 25. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 27. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

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A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 28. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

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A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 33. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 34. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 35. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

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A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 39. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 40. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

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D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

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D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 48. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 49. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 50. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

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D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 56. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

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C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

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B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 2. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 3. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 4. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 5. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 6. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

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A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 9. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

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D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 11. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 12. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 15. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

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D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 16. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 17. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 19. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 20. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

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D : Regression testing

Q.no 21. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 22. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 24. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 25. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management


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Q.no 26. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 27. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 28. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 30. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

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Q.no 31. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 32. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 33. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 35. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

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Q.no 36. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 37. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 38. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 40. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

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Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 42. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 45. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

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Q.no 46. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 47. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 48. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

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Q.no 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 52. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

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C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 59. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 60. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1
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D : IEEE 610

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 3. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 4. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 5. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control
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Q.no 6. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 7. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 8. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 9. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 10. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

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Q.no 11. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 12. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 13. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 14. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 15. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 16. Software Design consists of _____________


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A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 17. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 18. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to change
management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 19. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 20. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 21. Error guessing is a:

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A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 22. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 23. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 24. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique


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B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

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A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 33. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 34. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

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A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 40. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

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Q.no 41. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 42. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 44. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 45. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

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Q.no 46. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 47. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 48. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 49. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 50. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

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Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 52. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 53. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 54. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

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D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

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B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 1. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 2. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 3. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able


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C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 6. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 7. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 8. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 9. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis
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D : prototyping

Q.no 11. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 12. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 13. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 15. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
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Q.no 16. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 17. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 18. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 20. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

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Q.no 21. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 22. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 23. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 24. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 25. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

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C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

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C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 34. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 35. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting


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D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 36. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 39. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 40. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

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C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 42. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 43. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

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C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 47. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 48. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 50. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

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B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

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A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance
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D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 60. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 1. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 3. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 4. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing
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Q.no 5. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 6. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 7. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

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D : Data flow testing

Q.no 10. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 11. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 12. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 13. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 14. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing


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Q.no 15. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 18. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 19. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

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Q.no 20. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 21. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 22. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 24. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 25. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE
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A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 26. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 29. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 30. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

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A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 31. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 34. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 35. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 38. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

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Q.no 40. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 41. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 42. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

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Q.no 45. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 46. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 47. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 48. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

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Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

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Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

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Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 1. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 3. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 4. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

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Q.no 5. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 7. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 8. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 9. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

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C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 11. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 12. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 13. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 14. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

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C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 15. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that
you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 16. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 17. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

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A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 20. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 21. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 22. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 23. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 24. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

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A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 27. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

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A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 31. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 33. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution


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B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 39. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing
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C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 40. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 41. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 43. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

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C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 45. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 46. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 48. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 49. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

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B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

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B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 58. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

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A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 1. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 2. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 3. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 4. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

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A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 5. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 6. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 7. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

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Q.no 9. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 10. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 11. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 12. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 13. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 14. Design phase will usually be.


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A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 15. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 17. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 18. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

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Q.no 19. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 20. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 21. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 22. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 23. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

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Q.no 24. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 25. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 26. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 27. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 28. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

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Q.no 29. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 30. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

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Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 37. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 38. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

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D : implementation engineering

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 41. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 43. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

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D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 44. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 45. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 46. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 48. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

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D : different operating system

Q.no 49. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 50. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 51. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

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C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 54. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 55. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 58. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

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A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 1. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

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D : Installation test

Q.no 3. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 4. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 5. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 6. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 7. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

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D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 8. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 10. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 11. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 12. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart


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Q.no 13. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 14. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 15. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 16. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 17. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 18. Acceptance testing is also known as


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A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 19. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 20. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 22. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 23. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users
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B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 24. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that
you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

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A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 29. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 30. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a module type

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A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 34. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 35. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 36. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 37. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

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Q.no 38. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:


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A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 44. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 45. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 46. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 48. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

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A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 50. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

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Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

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Q.no 58. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 59. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 60. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 1. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 2. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

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D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 3. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 4. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 5. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 6. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 7. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

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D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 8. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 10. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 11. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 12. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

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C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 13. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 14. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 15. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

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C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 18. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 19. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 20. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 21. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 22. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

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C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 23. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 24. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 25. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 26. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 27. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

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B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 28. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 29. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 30. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 31. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 32. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

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B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 33. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 34. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 35. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships


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C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 38. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 42. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

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C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 43. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 44. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 45. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 46. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

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C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

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B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 54. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 56. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 57. Which of the following is the component test standard?

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A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

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Q.no 2. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 3. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 4. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 5. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 6. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

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Q.no 7. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 8. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 9. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 10. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 11. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

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Q.no 12. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 13. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 14. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 15. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique
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A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 18. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 19. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 20. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 21. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 22. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

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A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 23. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 24. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 25. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

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A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 28. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

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Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 33. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 35. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

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Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 39. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 40. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 42. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 43. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 46. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

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Q.no 47. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 48. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 49. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 50. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 51. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

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D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

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C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 1. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

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C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 2. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 3. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 4. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 5. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 6. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

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B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 7. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the following
phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 9. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 10. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 11. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

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A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 12. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 13. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 14. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

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Q.no 16. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 17. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 18. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 19. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 20. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

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Q.no 21. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 22. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 24. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

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D : OpenTable

Q.no 26. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 27. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 28. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 29. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 30. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

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C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 31. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 32. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 33. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 34. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 35. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

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B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 38. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 40. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

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B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 42. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

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B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 46. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 47. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 48. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 49. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

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B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

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A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Q.no 60. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 1. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 2. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 3. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 4. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

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D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 5. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 7. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 9. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

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C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 10. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 11. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 12. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 13. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 14. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977
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D : 1967

Q.no 15. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 16. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 17. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 18. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 19. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

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D : Testing

Q.no 20. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 21. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 22. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 23. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 24. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

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D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 25. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 26. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 27. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

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D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 30. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 31. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 32. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 33. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

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C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 35. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 39. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

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C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 40. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 41. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 43. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

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C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 46. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 47. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

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C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 51. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

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B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

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Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 2. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 3. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

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Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

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Q.no 9. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before moving on to the
next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 10. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 11. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 12. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is
usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 13. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

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Q.no 14. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 15. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 16. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 17. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 18. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

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Q.no 19. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 20. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 21. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 22. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 23. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

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Q.no 24. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 25. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 28. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

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Q.no 29. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 30. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 31. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 32. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 33. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 34. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process
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A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 37. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

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A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 40. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 41. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 42. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 43. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 44. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

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A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 45. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 46. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 48. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans


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B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 53. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

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B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

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B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 1. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 3. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

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Q.no 4. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 6. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 7. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web browser should be
used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of the following types of
requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 8. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

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D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 10. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 11. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 12. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 13. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta
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Q.no 14. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 15. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 16. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 17. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 19. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?


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A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 20. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 22. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 23. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 24. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

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A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 25. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 26. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 27. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 28. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 29. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 32. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 33. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

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B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 36. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

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Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 41. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 44. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 46. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 48. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

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Q.no 49. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

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D : During testing

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 56. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

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C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 1. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 2. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 3. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

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C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 4. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 5. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 6. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 7. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design
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D : Testing

Q.no 9. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 12. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is
usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 13. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

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D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 15. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 16. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 17. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 18. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

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C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 19. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 20. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 21. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 22. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

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B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

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B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 29. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 30. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 32. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 33. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

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A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 34. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 35. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. which of the following is not a software risk

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A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 39. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 41. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 42. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 43. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

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A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 44. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 45. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 46. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 47. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 48. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

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A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 49. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

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A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

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Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 1. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 2. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

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Q.no 3. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 4. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 5. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 6. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 7. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 8. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?


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A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by


the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

Q.no 9. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 10. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 11. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 12. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

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Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent platform dependency
and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 16. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 17. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

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Q.no 18. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 20. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 21. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 22. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

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Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 24. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 25. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 26. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 27. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

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Q.no 28. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 30. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 32. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

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Q.no 33. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 34. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 35. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

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Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

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Q.no 43. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 44. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 46. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

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Q.no 48. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 49. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 51. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 52. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

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Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

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D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 1. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 2. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

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B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 3. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 4. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 5. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 6. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis
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C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 8. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software development team when it
adopts a systematic development process model in preference to a build-and-fix style of
development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 9. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 10. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 11. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 12. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

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B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 13. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 15. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 16. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 17. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users
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C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 18. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 19. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 21. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 22. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

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B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 23. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 24. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

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B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 28. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 29. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

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A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 33. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 34. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 37. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team

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3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 38. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 39. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 40. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

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Q.no 42. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 43. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 44. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 45. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

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Q.no 47. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 48. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 49. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

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Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 1. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

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D : system image

Q.no 2. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 3. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 6. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
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Q.no 7. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 8. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 9. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?
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A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 13. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 15. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 16. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 17. Which of the following are correct statements?

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A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 18. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 19. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 20. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 21. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

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Q.no 22. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 23. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall
model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 24. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 25. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 26. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

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D : Functional testing

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 29. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 30. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 31. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

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D : Agile model

Q.no 32. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 33. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 34. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 36. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

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D : Unit testing

Q.no 37. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 39. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 40. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 41. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

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D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 42. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 45. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

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D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

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D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

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C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 2. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components
D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 3. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 4. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 5. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 6. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 7. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()
B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 8. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 9. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 10. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web
browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 11. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 12. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?
A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 13. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 14. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 15. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 16. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command


Q.no 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 18. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 19. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 20. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 21. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini
C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 22. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 25. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of


accesspoints and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Test Type?


A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 27. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 28. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 29. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 30. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server


Q.no 31. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 32. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 34. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 35. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3
C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 36. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 37. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 40. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy
B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 41. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements
Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined


D : Array bound violations

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 55. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 58.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 2. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles
Q.no 3. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 4. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 5. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 6. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 7. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test


Q.no 8. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 9. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 11. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 12. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 15. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 16. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility
Q.no 17. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 18. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 19. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 20. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 21. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design


D : Only Software testing

Q.no 22. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 23. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 24. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 25. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 26. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing


D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 27. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules
D : Process support modules

Q.no 32. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 33. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 34. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.


B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 40. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 41. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 43. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 44. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 45. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 46. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 47. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 48. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 49. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects


Q.no 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group


Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system


Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 2. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.


Q.no 3. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 4. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 5. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 6. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model
D : V Model

Q.no 8. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 9. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 10. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 11. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 12. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model
D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 15. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 16. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 17. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location
A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 18. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 19. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 20. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 21. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 22. The Selenium IDE is used


A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 24. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 25. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 26. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements
Q.no 27. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 30. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 31. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer
D : Scribe

Q.no 32. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 35.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 41. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading


B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 43. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 44. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 45. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 48. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 49. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured
D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance
B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact
Q.no 60. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is d


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 2.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase
Q.no 3. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 4. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 5. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 6. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 7. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management


Q.no 8. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 9. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 11. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 12. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase


C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 13. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 14. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 15. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 16. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation


Q.no 17. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 18. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 19. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 20. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 21. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer
D : Business Analyst

Q.no 22. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 23. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 24. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 25. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 26. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk
C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 27. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 28. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 29. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 30. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 31. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk
B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 32. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 33. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 35. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 36. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?
A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 39. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 40. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?


A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 43. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 45. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester


Q.no 46. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 48. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 49. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects


Q.no 51. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 52. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification
D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 57. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 58. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 2. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment


C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 3. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 4. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 5. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 6. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 7. The Actions Commands


A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 8. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components
are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 10. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 11. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure


Q.no 12. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 14. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 15. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 16. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS
D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 17. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 18.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 20. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 21. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?
A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 22. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 23. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 24. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 25. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development


Q.no 26. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 27. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 29. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management
C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 33. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing


B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 36. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 40. What is the major improvement in SVN


A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 41. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 44. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable


Q.no 45. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 47. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 48.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 49. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 50. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 51. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.
D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 54. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction


B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 60. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Q.no 3. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 4. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 5. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 6. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 7. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components
are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process
D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 8. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word


which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 9. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 10. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability
C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 14. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 15. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 17.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market


C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 18. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 20. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 21. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 22. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC
C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 23. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 24. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 26. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 27. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end
B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 31. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 32. What is “V” Model?


A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 33. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 35.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 36. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule
C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 37. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as
A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 42. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 43. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer
D : Scribe

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 50. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition


C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 55. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact
B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 56. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 58. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command


Q.no 3. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 6. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 7. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only


D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 8. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 9. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 10. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver
D:0

Q.no 13. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 14. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 15. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 17. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open
C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 18. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 19. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 20. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 21. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 22. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle
B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 23. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 24. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 26.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing
Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 29. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 30. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control
C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 34. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.


A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 37. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 38. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 39. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 40. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design


Q.no 41. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 42. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 45. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element
D : human elements

Q.no 46. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 49.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions


B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models


C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 2. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when


operating within the environment for which the system was intended
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 3. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 6. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 7. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling
C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 8. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 9. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence
B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 13. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 14. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 15. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 16. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation
Q.no 17. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an
implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 18. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 19. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 20. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore
Q.no 21. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 22. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 24. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 25. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed
C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 26. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 27. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 28. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 29. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification


B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?
A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 36. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 37. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 39. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing
Q.no 40. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 42. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 43. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST
D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 46. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing
B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.
A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 58. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image
D : system image

Q.no 59. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 2. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
Q.no 3. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 4. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 6. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 7. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase
D : Design phase

Q.no 8. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 10. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 11. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 12. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer
D : Project team

Q.no 13. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 15. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 16. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 17. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity


B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 18. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 19. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 20. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Software Design consists of _____________


A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 23. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 24. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 25. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode


Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 32. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 33. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 34. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 35. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 36. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk
D : Project risk

Q.no 37. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 38. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 40. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique


B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 43. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 46.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?


A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 47. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 48. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects


Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system


Q.no 55. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing
C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 2. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence
Q.no 3. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 4. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 5. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components
are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 8. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 9. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 10. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 11. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.
Q.no 12. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 13. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 14.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 16. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing
D : Specification

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 18. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 20. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 21. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager
C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 22. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 24. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 25. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?
A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 27. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 35. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable


B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 36. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 37. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 40. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU
B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 41. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 42. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 45. What can static analysis NOT find?


A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 49. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk
Q.no 50. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity
A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 57. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 2. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 3. White-box testing can be started:


A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 4. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 5. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 6. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 7. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness
Q.no 8. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 9. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 10. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 11. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 12. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed
C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 13. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 14.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 15. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 16. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations
Q.no 17. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 18. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 20. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 21. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit


D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 23. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 24. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 25. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect


C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 28. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 31. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 32. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 35. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading


Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 39. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level
C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 41. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 42. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 43. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 44. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 45. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture
C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 46. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 47. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 48.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829
C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 60. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 2. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 3. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?


A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 5. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 6. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 7. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 8. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE
A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 9. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word


which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 10. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 11. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 13. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:


A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 14. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 15. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 17. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 18. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 19. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 20. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 21. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 22. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel
D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 23. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 24. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 25. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture
C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 28. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 32. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.


A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 33. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 36. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading


Q.no 37. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 38. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 39. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 40. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 41. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing
C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 42. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 43. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 44. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 46. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk
C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing
B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 54. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 55. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 56. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 58. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 59. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?


A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 2. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 3. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:


A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 4. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 5. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 6. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 7. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element
Q.no 8. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 9. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web


browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 10. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 11. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 12. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image
D : system image

Q.no 13. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 15. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 16. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers
C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 18. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 19. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 20. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 21. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 22. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding
B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 23. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 24. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 25. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 26. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 27. ETL stands for


A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 31. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST
D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 32. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 33. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 36.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive
B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 37. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 39. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 40. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 41. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software


B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 42. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 43. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 46. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 47. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 50. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based
D : client-based

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.
A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing


Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 2. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 3. Which one is the basic input device in GUI


A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 4. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 6. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 7. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 8. which of the following is not a component of risk


A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 9. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 10. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department


Q.no 13. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 14. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 15. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 16. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 17. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing
D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 19. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 20. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer
D : Project team

Q.no 23. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 24. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 25. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk
D : business risk

Q.no 28. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 32. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits


C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 33. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 34. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 35. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture
C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable


B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 43. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 44. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 45. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?
A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 48. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing
Q.no 52. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma
D : tracking

Q.no 57. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 2. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 3. What type of abstraction used in Software design


A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 4. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 5. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done
in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 6. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 7. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid
Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 9. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 10. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 11. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 12. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure


Q.no 13. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 14. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 15. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 16. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit


C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 18. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 19. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 20. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 21. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team
Q.no 22. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 23. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 24. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 25. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 26. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling
D : assembling

Q.no 27. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 28. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 34. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 35. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 36. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs


C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 37. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 38. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 39. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 41. The technique applied for usability testing is:


A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 42. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 43. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 44. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 45. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects


D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 48. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 49. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 53.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis


B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.
D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping
Q.no 3. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 4. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 5. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 6. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 7. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format
D : HTML format

Q.no 8. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 9. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 10. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 11. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 12. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in
A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 13. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 14. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 15. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 16. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments
Q.no 17. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 18. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 19. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 20. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 21. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques


D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 22. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 23. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 24. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 25. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 26. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule
C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 29. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 30. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 31. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?
A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 32. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 33. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 34. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 35. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints


Q.no 36. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 37. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 38. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 40. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk
Q.no 41.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 43. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS
Q.no 46. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 47. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 48. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level
D : maintainence level

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2
B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 59. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking
Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 2. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned


Q.no 3. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 4. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 5. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 7. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid
D : Selenium Web

Q.no 8. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 9. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 11. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 12.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market


C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 13. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 14. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 15. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 16. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 17. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development
B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 18. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 19. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 20. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 21. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 22. What is TestNG ?


A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 23. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 24. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 26.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 27. What is the major improvement in SVN


A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 28. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 29. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management
Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 36. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect


C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 37. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 38. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 39. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 41. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions


B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 42. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 43. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 44. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 45. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?


A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 49. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering
Q.no 51. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 54. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 55.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model
C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.
Q.no 60. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 2. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software


Q.no 3. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints
and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 4. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 5. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail


Q.no 8. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 9.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 10. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 11. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 12. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing


D : Glass box

Q.no 13. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 14. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 15. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 16. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing
C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 18. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 19. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 20. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 21. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements
C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 23. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 24. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 25. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 26. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 27. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading


B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing
Q.no 32. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 34. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 35. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 36. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing
D : Regression Testing

Q.no 37. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 45. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Q.no 46. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 47. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 48. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 49. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 50. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation
Q.no 51. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 54. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing
C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 57. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 58. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System


B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 2. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints


and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design
Q.no 3. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 4. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 5. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 6. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 7. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase


D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 8. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to


change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 9. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 10. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 11. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 12. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible
B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 13. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 14. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 15. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 16. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 17. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975
B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 18. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 19. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 20. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 21. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 22. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity


B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 23. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 24. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 25.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 26. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable


D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang
B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 32. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 33. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 34. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 35. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 36. Version control is not capable of doing


A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 37. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 38.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 41. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 42. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 43. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 44. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 45. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element
C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 46. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 47. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 49. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 50. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller
B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model
Q.no 55.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting
D : Change control

Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 2. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 3. which of the following is not a component of risk


A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 4. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 5. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.
Q.no 8. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 9. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 10. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 11. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 12. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967
Q.no 13. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 14. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 15. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 16. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 17. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage
D : waitForLoad

Q.no 18. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 19. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 20. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 21. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 22. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 23. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 24. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture


C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 28. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 29. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 31. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 32. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs


C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 33. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 34. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 35. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 37. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 44. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 45. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 46. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing
B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 47. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 48. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 50. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.
A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 53. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model
C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 2. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 3. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?
A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 4. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 5. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 6. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 7.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase
D : Design phase

Q.no 8. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 9. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 11. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design
C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 13. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 14. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 15. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 16. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Which of these truly defines Software design?


A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 18. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 19. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 21. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 22. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 23. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 24. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 25. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect
Q.no 27. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 28. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 30. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 31. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design
Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 33. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 39. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 40. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?


A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 44. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 45. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?


A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 48. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 49. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 50. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing
Q.no 51. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 54. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC
C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance
Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing


Q.no 3. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 5. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 6.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle
B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 8. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 9. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 10. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 11. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 12. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems
B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 13. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 15. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed


B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 18. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 20. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 21. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?
A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 23. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 24. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 25. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 29. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 30.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing
Q.no 31. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 33. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 34. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 37. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 38. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?


A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 42. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 43. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling
Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 47. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 49. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation
D : User requirement documents

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA
B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration
Q.no 3. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 4. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 5. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 6. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 7. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management


C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 8. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 9. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 11. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 12. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase
B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 13. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 14. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 15. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 16. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 17. WMITS stands for


A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 18. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 19. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 20. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 21. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of


accesspoints and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 22. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?
A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 23. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 24. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 25. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 26. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 27. What is the major improvement in SVN


A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 28.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 29. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 30. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements
Q.no 32. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 37. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 38. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 39. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 40. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline
Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management
Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 43. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 44. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 45. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down
Q.no 47. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 48. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 50. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 51. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model
D : Sequence model

Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 56. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC
C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 57. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 58. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 59. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 2. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 3. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:


A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 4. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 5. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 6. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 7. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent
Q.no 8. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web
browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 9. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 10. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 11. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 12. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed
C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 13. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 14. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 15. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 16. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 17. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 18. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with
an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 19. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 20. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 21. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI
C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 22. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 23. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 24. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 26. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable


C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 29.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 30. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 31. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk
B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 32. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 33. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 34. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 35. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 36. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?


A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 37. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 38. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?


A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 43. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation
D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 47. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 51. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model
Q.no 55. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance


D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group


Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is c

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s


module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test
Q.no 3. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 4. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 6. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 7. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints


and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design
B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 9. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 10. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 11. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development


Q.no 12. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts
the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 14. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 15. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review
D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 17. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 18. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 19. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 20. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 21. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux
C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 23. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 24. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 25. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 27. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 28. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 29. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software


B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 36. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 37. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level
C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 43. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 44. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects


B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 48. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring
B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 54. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests
D : if then-else

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team
C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 2. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 3. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable
B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 5. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when


operating within the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 7. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 8. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.


Q.no 9. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with
an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 11. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 12. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?
A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 14. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 15. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 16. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box
Q.no 18. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an
implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 19. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 20. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. RE represents what

A : Risk expense
B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 23. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 24. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 25. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 26. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items
Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 29. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 30. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 31. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 32. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 33. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 39. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure
D : Test Design

Q.no 41. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 43. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 44. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 45. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured
D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 46. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 47. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 48. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 49. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 50. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk
C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 51. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?
A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 58. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 59. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance


Q.no 60.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 1. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 2. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 3.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 4. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team
Q.no 5. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 6. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 7. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 8. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 9. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert
D : storesAlert

Q.no 10. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 11. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 12. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 13. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 14. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name
C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 15. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 17. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 19.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market


C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 20. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 21. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 22. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 23.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 24. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency
B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 25. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 26. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 27. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components


Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 31. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 32. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures


D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 35. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 37. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 38. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule
B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 39. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 40. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?


A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 45. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 46. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 48. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management
Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else
Q.no 57. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 1. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase


B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 2. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 3. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 5. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 6. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording
B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 7. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 9. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 10. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 11. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command


B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 12. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 13. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 14. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 15. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 16. which of the following is not a type of maintainence


A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 17. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 18. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 19. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 20. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement
C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 21. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 22. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 23. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 24. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester
B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 28. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 29. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 30. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?


A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 31. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 32. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 33. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading


Q.no 40. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 41. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 42. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 43. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up
C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 45. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 46. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 47. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 48. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 49.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?
A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 52. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data
D : Test log

Q.no 54. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 55. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 56. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact
B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 1. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 2. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 3. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web


browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 5. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 6. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 7. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures
Q.no 8. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 9. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 10. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 12. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode
Q.no 13. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 14. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 15. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 16. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 17. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible


Q.no 18. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 19. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 20. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 22. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner


D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 24. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 26.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity
C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 28. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 29. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 32. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.


A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 33. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 36. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS
Q.no 37. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 38. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 39. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 40. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules
D : Process support modules

Q.no 42. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 45. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 46. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing
C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 47. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 49. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA
B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 54. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 55.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 59. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 60. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance
Q.no 1. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 2. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 3. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 4. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 5. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu
D : monitor

Q.no 6. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 8. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 9. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 10. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring
C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 11. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 12. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 13. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 14. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 15. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer
B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 16. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 17. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which
phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 18. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 19. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 20. The selenium can


A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 21. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 22. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 23. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 24. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests


D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 25. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of


accesspoints and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 28. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 29. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.


B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 30. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 31. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 34. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 35. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 37. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 38. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading


D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 39. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 40. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 43. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting


D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 44. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 45. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 46. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 47. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 48. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable


D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 49. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control
B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 58. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?


A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 59. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 1. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 2. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural


C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 3. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 4. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 5. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 6. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 7. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?
A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 8. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 9. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 10. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 11. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert
B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 12. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 13. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 14. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 15. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 16. Why do you think iteration is important for design?


A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 17. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 18. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 19. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 20. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage
D : waitForLoad

Q.no 21. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 22. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 23. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 24. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 25. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy
C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 28. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring
B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 31. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 34. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 35.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?


A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 36. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 37. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management
Q.no 40. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 41. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC
D:PxS

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 47. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 48. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?
A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 50. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 51. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 52.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing
D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance
C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 60. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 2. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 3. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.


B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 5. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 6. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 7. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 8. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 9. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 10. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 11. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world


Q.no 13. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 14. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 15. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 16. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 17. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency
D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent
platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 18. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 19. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 20. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 21. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 22. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify
C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 23. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 24. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 25. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 28. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing
Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with
Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 33. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 34. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 35. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 36. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box
D : Combination of all

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 39. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 40. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 41. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type
C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 42. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 46. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level
B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 48. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 49. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 50. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3
Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down
C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model
D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 1. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 2. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 4. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium
D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 5. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 6. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 7. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 9. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management


D : Software Course Management

Q.no 10. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 11. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 12. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 13. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability


D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 15. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 17. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 18. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 19. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software


C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 20. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 21. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 22.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 23. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 24. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing


C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 25. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 26. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 27. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 28. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 29.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective
C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 31. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 32. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?
A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 39. Which of the following statement is true?


A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 40. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing
Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management
Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 47. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 48. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing
D : Unit testing

Q.no 49. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 50. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 51. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 52. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing
B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?
A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 1. Which one of the following is not a standard software development


process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 2. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation
Q.no 3. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 4. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 5. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 6. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 7. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components


D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the
components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 8. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web


browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 9. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 10. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 11. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 12. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix
B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 13. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 14.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 15. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 16. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box
Q.no 17. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 18.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 19. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 20. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 21. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing


C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 22. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 23. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 24. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 26. Beta Testing is done at:


A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 30. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code


Q.no 31. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 32. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 34. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 35. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits


C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 36. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 39. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 40. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as
A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 41. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 42. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 43. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 44. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk
C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 45. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 46. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 47. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 48. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 49. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model
C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 50. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 51. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 52. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram


B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user


D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 1. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 2. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 3. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering
B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 4. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 5. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 6. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 7. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 8. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 9. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 10. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 12. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys
D : sendKeys()

Q.no 13. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 14. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 15. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 16. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 17. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?
A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system
dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 18. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 19. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 21. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model
C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 22. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 23. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 24. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 25. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 27. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 28. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 29. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. What is Fault Masking?


A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 32. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 33. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 34. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 35. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable


Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 38. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based
B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 41. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 44. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project
A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 47. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 49. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling
Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 53. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 54.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model
D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down
C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 1. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 2. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 3. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 4. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data
C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 6. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 7. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 8. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 9. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation


C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 10. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 11. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 12. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 13. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 14. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding
B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 15. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 16. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 17. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 19. Out of the following which is not a wait comand


A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 21. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 22. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 23. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines


Q.no 24. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural
representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 25. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 26. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured
D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 30. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 31. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 32. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 33. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 34.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 36. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 37. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level
Q.no 38. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 39. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 40. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 41. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 42. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading


D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 43. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 44. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 45. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 46. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 47. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction
B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides
assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 48. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 49. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 50. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing
Q.no 52. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 53. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 54. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 55. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 56. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition
C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 60. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 1.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?
A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 2. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 3. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 4. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints


and external utilities of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 5. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional
C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 7. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 8. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 9. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 10. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing
A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 11. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 12. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 13. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 14. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete
Q.no 15. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 16. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 17. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 18. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 19. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components


C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 20. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 21. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 22. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 23. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when


operating within the environment for which the system was intended
D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 24. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 25. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 26. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 27. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails
C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 32. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 33. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control
B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 34. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 37. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 40. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 41. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture


Q.no 43. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 45. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 46. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 47. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC
D:PxS

Q.no 48. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 49. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 50. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 51. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 52. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram


C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.
A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 60. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 1. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0
Q.no 2. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 3. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 4. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 5. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 6. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications


D:0

Q.no 7. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done
in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 8. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 9. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 10.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 11. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data
C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 12. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 14. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 15. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture


Q.no 16. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 17. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 18. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 20. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository


D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 21. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 22. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 23. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 24. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 25. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system


B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 26. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 28. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3


Q.no 30. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 31. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 33. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 34. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3
C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 35. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 36. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 38. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality
B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 41. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 42. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 43. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 44. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit


B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 45. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 48. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk


A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 54. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 55. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2
B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 59. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 60.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 1. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 2. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 3. Exhaustive testing is:


A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 4. A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be:

A : Large

B : Small

C : Difficult to write

D : Difficult to test

Q.no 5. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 6.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 7. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 8. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?
A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 10. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification

Q.no 11. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 12. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming
D : After designing

Q.no 13. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 14. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 15. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 16. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 17. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts
C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 19. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 20. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 21. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the
following is usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 22. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection
C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 23. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 24. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the
stakeholders in a software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 26. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation
C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 29. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 30. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 31. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 32. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems
B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 33. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Q.no 37. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 38. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 40. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 41. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing
D : Unit testing

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 43. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 44. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 45. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 46. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element
C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 47. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 48.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 49. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 50. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 51. The order in which test levels are performed is:
A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 55. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing
C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 1. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 2. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word


which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 3. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 4. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 5. System testing is a


A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 6. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 7. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 8. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a
defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 9. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text
Q.no 10. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 11. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 12. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 13. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 14. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques


Q.no 15. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 16. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 17. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 18. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 19. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode
D : Perfect mode

Q.no 20. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 21. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 22. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 23. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 24. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only


D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 25. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 26. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 27. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 28. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New
C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 30. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 31. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 32. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects


B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 35. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 38. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 39.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing


B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 40. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 41. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 42. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 47. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 48. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture


C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 49. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 51.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 52. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until
B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 54. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 55. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 56. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 57. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data
D : Test log

Q.no 58. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 59. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 1. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 2. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent
C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 3. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 4.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 5. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known
as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 6. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s


module ?

A : Availability
B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 8. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to


change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 9. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 10. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software
development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 11. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 12. Which of these truly defines Software design?


A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 13. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 14. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 15. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?


A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 19. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 20. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 21. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods


Q.no 22. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software
development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 23. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 25. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 26. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 27.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 29. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 30. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing
B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 33. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 34. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 35. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 38. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items
C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 41. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 42. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 43. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 44. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 45. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design
C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 49. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 50. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk
B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 51. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 54. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by
A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 58. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 59. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance
D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 60. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 3. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 4. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid
D : Selenium Web

Q.no 5. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components

D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 6. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 7. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 8. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 9. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index
A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 10. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 13. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 14. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?
A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system
dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 15. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 16. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 17. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 18. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with
an expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle
C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 19. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 20. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 21.  What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components


interface as is feasible

Q.no 22. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management


B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 24. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 25. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 26. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 27. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 28. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process
A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 29. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 30. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 31. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 32. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.
A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 35. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 36. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 37. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control


Q.no 38. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control
D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end
C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 49. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?


A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 54. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 55.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 56. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project


Q.no 57. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 59. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 1. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 2. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 3. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 5. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional


requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to


run on another platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized
C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when
operating within the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 6. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 7. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 8. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 9. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the
security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 10. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?
A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 11. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 13. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test
Q.no 15. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The
software should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg
file into the document being created.". Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 16. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 17. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 18. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity
C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 20. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 21. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 22. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 23. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 24. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert
B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 25. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the


components that always affect how they are used

Q.no 26. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 27. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 28. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode


D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 30. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 31. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 32. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 35. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down
Q.no 38. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 39. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 40. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 41. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing
D : Functional Testing

Q.no 43. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 44. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 45. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 47. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions


B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 48. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 50. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?


A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management
Q.no 57. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 58. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 59. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 1. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects


B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object
decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 2. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 3. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 4. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 5. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 6. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?


A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 7. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 8. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 10. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP
Q.no 11. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D :  Data flow testing

Q.no 14. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 15. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration
Q.no 16. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 17. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows

D : Solaries

Q.no 18. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 19. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 20. The implementation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which
one of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase
Q.no 21. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 24. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid


discussing which one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 25. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design


D : Only Software testing

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 28. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 29. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 30. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element
C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 32. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 35. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk
B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 36. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 37. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation
D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 40. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 41.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 44. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer


D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 45. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 46. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 47.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 48. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 49. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern
C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 50. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram


B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 59. The order in which test levels are performed is:
A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 60. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 1. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in
Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 2. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 3. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?

A : Test recording

B : Test configuration

C : Test planning

D : Test specification
Q.no 4. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an
expected value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 6. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 7. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 8. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s


module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability
D : Flexibility

Q.no 9. Design phase will usually be.

A : Top down

B : Bottom up

C : Randon

D : iterative

Q.no 10. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 11. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 12. A collection of actions and tasks that define an effective approach to
change management is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 13. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning
and documentation?

A : Unit testing

B : Retesting
C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 14. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 15. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 16. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 17. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 18. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements


B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 19. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 20. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 21. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing

A : Variable

B : Data

C : Information

D : Info

Q.no 22. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an


implementation?

A : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture

B : The implementation need not be divided into prescribed components

C : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural


decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into
prescribed components
D : An implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural
decisions described by the architecture whereas implementation need not be divided
into prescribed components

Q.no 23. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 24. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which
phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 25. Which one of the following most accurately reflects agile software
development?

A : Incremental development

B : Iterative development

C : Linear development

D : Both incremental and iterative development

Q.no 26. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 27. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification
B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 29. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 30. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 31. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 32. Which of the following is not a module type


A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 33. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 36. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing
Q.no 37. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 38. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 39. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 40. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 41. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.


D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 42. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 43. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 44. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 45. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New
C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 47. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 48. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 50. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 51. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as
A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group


Q.no 56. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 57. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 58. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control
B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 1. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information when
executing tests

A : Information

B : Feddback

C : Reference

D : Element

Q.no 2. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 3. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural


representations of the software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 4. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?
A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 6. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 7. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 8. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 9. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using
theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText
D : OpenTable

Q.no 10. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software
components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D :      all of the mentioned

Q.no 11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 12. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 13. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture
of the software

Q.no 14. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode
C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 15. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 16. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 17. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 18. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from
thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.
Q.no 19. Consider the following partial requirement for a software: “A web
browser should be used as the front end.” It can be considered to be which one of
the following types of requirements?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Design constraint

D : External interface

Q.no 20. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 21. SCM stands for

A : Software Control Management

B : Software Configuration Management

C : Software Concept Management

D : Software Course Management

Q.no 22. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 23. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox
D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 25. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture


C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 29. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be
considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 30. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 33. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering
B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 34. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 35. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 38. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?


A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative
abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse
engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 41. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 42. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer


D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management


Activity?

A : Configuration item identification

B : Risk management

C : Release management

D : Branch management

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be


accommodated in any testing strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 49. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 50. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log
Q.no 52. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 53. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 54. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 55. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 56. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang
D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 57.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 58.  Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a
risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 1. Select the name which is not the type of locators


A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 2. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative
waterfall model?

A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 3. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 5. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 6. Verification is focused on


A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 7. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 8. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done
in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 9. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 10.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 11. Out of the following which is not a wait comand


A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 12. What is the main technique for achieving portable software?

A : The main technique for achieving portable software is to isolate system


dependency

B : The main technique for achieving portable software is to increase the overall
performance

C : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency

D : The main technique for achieving portable software is to have independent


platform dependency and to increase accuracy

Q.no 13. Which of the following is not a design principle that allows the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process
model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 15. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not
the focus of the requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity
C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 16. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s
module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 17. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 18. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C :  Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 19. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 20. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers
C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 21. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 22. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 23. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each
room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 24. Error guessing is a:

A : Test verification techniques

B : Test data management techniques

C : Test control management techniques

D : Test execution techniques

Q.no 25. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then
___________.

A : We cannot run the test.


B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C :  It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 26. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as
conventional software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 27. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some
rapid actions to overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 28. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 29. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level
D : maintainence level

Q.no 30. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 31. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 32. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 33. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 34.  The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective
C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 35. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 36. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination


of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 39. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into
A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 40. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module
cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 41. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 42. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A :  Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 43. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk
Q.no 44. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 45. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 46. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 47. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 48. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design
C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 49. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50.  Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C :  User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 51. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow


and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats
the task until the condition fails.

A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 53. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently


B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of
the total maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the
processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 56. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 58. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 59. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is
also called as disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 1. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 2.    The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one
of the following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase
D : Design phase

Q.no 3. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can
be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?

A : User, task, and environment analysis and modeling

B : Interface design

C : Knowledgeable, frequent users

D : Interface validation

Q.no 6. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in

A : 1975

B : 1966

C : 1977

D : 1967

Q.no 7. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation


D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 8. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 9. Selenium IDE stands for

A : Selenium Initialization Development Environment

B : Selenium Interrelated Development Environment

C : Selenium Integrated Development Environment

D : Selenium Information Development Environment

Q.no 10. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

A : Control Coupling

B : Stamp Coupling

C : Data Coupling

D : Content Coupling

Q.no 11. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 12. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE

A : Unix

B : Linux

C : Windows
D : Solaries

Q.no 13. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral

B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 14. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 15. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 16. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A
camera at the main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should
be opened for registered vehicles.” Which one of the following types of
requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 17. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC
C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 18. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 19. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 20. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 21. The Selenium

A : provides professional computer support

B : tests reports are generated automatically

C : comes with a built in object repository

D : Cannot access elements outside of the web application under test

Q.no 22. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

B : To design a test Using Selenese


C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 23. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 24. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 25. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object


decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a
program and their relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their


information

A : Determinacy
B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 28. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A :  Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 30. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 32. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing


B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 33. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same
time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 34. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 35. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 36. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming
software testing. Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy
Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in
many web-based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D :  different operating system

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are
commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 40. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 41. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative


abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides


assumptions of some other arbitrary components
C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination
of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with


Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and
construct a specific version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 44. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 45. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 46. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect


B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 47. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 48. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 50. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing
B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object
classes and their relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system
, coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and
semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to
maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 55. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control
Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow
and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two
different people, don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 59. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from
concept to detailed object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 60. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang
D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 1. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 2. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 3. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 4. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 5.   A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used


D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional


Requirement(NFR)

A : Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality

B : Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process

C : Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes

D : Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

Q.no 7. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and


composition of software product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 8. Which one of the following may be experienced by a software


development team when it adopts a systematic development process model in
preference to a build-and-fix style of development?

A : Increased documentation overhead

B : Increased development cost

C : Decreased maintainability

D : Increased development time

Q.no 9. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the
following questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality


completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog
is accordingly modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 10. The selenium can


A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 11. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is
loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 13. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A : Maintainability

B : Portability

C : Robustness

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 15. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?
A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 16. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is not a standard software development
process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 18. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a
variable that you will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 19. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence
Q.no 20. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 21. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 22. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 23. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible

C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible,


consistent with the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and
the documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 24. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort
during development of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing
D : Specification

Q.no 25. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time


control with a set of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 26. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1)
Place the user in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface
consistent. These rules are called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 27. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified
B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 30. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 31. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 32. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that
the proper set of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 33. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 34. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture


B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 35. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A :  To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 38. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 39. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans


B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 40. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 41. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering
process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to
perform as expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 44. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 45. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter


relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 46. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of
the following testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 47. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables
access to and management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 48. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance
test for a software system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing
C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 49. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 50. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A :  Waterfall model

B :  V model

C :  Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 51.  Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 52. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential
specification of behavior.

A : Data flow diagram


B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________


activity

A :  Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is
called as, a _______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the
information domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram
Q.no 58. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B :  tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 59. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data
can be accessed by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data
security and integrity can be maintained, and how easily the existing model can
be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work
product is known as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 2. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 3. WMITS stands for


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A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 4. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 5. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 6. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command

C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 7. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 8. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________.

A : Functional and Behavioral


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B : Architectural and Structural

C : Usability and Reliability

D : Algorithmic and Data Structure

Q.no 9. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 10. Which design model is equivallent to set of detailed drawing for each room of a building

A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 11. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 12. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 13. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()
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C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 14. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 15. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 16. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 17. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?

A : Availability

B : Testability

C : Usability

D : Flexibility

Q.no 18. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

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C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 19. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 20. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 21. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 23. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

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C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 24. Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?

A : Functional

B : Non-Functional

C : Known Requirement

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 25. Reference architecture is a

A : reference model mapped onto software components

B : data flow with comments

C : data flow with pieces

D : reference model mapped onto software components & data flow with comments

Q.no 26. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 27. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 28. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

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C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 29. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 30. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 31. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 32. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 33. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

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B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 35. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 36. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 37. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 38. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

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A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 39. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 41. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 42. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 43. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

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A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 46. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 48. What is “V” Model?

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A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 49. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 50. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 52. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 53. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA
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B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 56. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

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A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 60. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 2. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation
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B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 4. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control

B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 6. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 7. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 8. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

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B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 9. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 10. Software Design consists of _____________

A : Software Product Design

B : Software Engineering Design

C : Software Product & Engineering Design

D : Only Software testing

Q.no 11. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 12. What type of abstraction used in Software design

A : Control, data, environmental

B : Data, environmental, procedural

C : Control, data, procedural

D : Control, Environmental, procedural

Q.no 13. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI
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C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 14. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 15. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 17. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 18. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget


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D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 19. What is architectural style?

A : Architectural style is a description of component types

B : It is a pattern of run-time control

C : Architectural style is a description of component types and a pattern of run-time control with a set
of constraints on architecture

D : It is a set of constraints on architecture

Q.no 20. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 21. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 22. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 23. When is the requirement specification activity carried out?

A : During requirements gathering activity

B : Before requirements analysis activity

C : Before requirements gathering activity

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D : After requirements analysis activity

Q.no 24. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 25. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 27. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 28. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

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B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 29. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 30. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 31. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 32. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 33. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

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B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 34. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 35. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 37. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs


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C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 41. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 42. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 43. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

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C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 45. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 46. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 47. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 48. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 49. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 52. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 53. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

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A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 54. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

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Q.no 58. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 59. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 60. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium

A : FlexUISelenium

B : FlexUI

C : UIFlexSelenium

D : SeleniumFlex

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 3. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

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A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 4. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 5. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 6. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 8. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two
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B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 9. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 10. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 11. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 12. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 13. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

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A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 14. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 15. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding

B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 16. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:

A : Efficiency

B : Accuracy

C : Quality

D : Complexity

Q.no 17. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before moving on to the
next command

A : clickAndWait

B : typeAndWait

C : selectAndWait

D : selectAndType

Q.no 18. What is TestNG ?

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A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 19. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 20. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 21. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance

D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 22. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 23. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing


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B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 24. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 25. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A : Big-bang

B : Bottom-up

C : Design based

D : Top-down

Q.no 27. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 28. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

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B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 29. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 30. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 32. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 33. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

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B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 34. After occurence of the risk ,the developement team members do some rapid actions to
overcome the problem called as

A : reactive risk mode

B : proactive risk mode

C : fire fighting mode

D : quick rectification mode

Q.no 35. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 36. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 37. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 38. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

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B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 39. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 40. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 41. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 42. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 43. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

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B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 44. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 45. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 46. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 47. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 48. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

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B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 49. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 50. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 51. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 52. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 53. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task
until the condition fails.

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A : repeat until

B : condition

C : do while tests

D : if then-else

Q.no 54. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 55. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 56. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 57. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Q.no 58. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is b

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Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 2. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 3. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.
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B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 4. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 5. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 6. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 7. The UML was designed for describing _________

A : object-oriented systems

B : architectural design

C : SRS

D : Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

Q.no 8. Agile model advocates which one of the following approaches?

A : In each increment, get something “quick and dirty” delivered and thereby save time

B : In each increment, get something simple released as quickly as possible


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C : In each increment, get something of business-value delivered as quickly as possible, consistent with
the right level of quality

D : In each increment, get something delivered once it has been fully documented and the
documentation has been signed off as complete

Q.no 9. Why do you think iteration is important for design?

A : To frequently reanalyze the problem

B : To generate and improve solutions only once for better output

C : To compare and analyze the complexity of algorithm/ program

D : Due to language supports iterations

Q.no 10. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 11. When a company plans to develop a generic product, who among the following is
usually the source of the requirements?

A : Development team members

B : Project manager

C : Marketing personnel

D : Personnel from finance department

Q.no 12. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 13. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

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B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 14. Verification and Validation uses __________.

A : Internal and External resources respectively.

B : Internal resources only.

C : External resources only.

D : External and Internal resources respectively.

Q.no 15. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A : Software Developer

B : End users

C : Testing team

D : Systems engineers

Q.no 16. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 17. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 18. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

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B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 19. Which is not the other name for structural testing?

A : Behavioral testing

B : Glass box testing

C : White box testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 20. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 21. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 22. which of the following is not a type of maintainence

A : Corrective maintainence

B : adaptive maintainence

C : perfective maintainence

D : predetermined maintainence

Q.no 23. Which Testing is performed first?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing


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C : Dynamic testing

D : Static testing

Q.no 24. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 25. In software development life cycle , who is the best person to catch a defect?

A : Software Tester

B : Customers

C : Designer

D : Business Analyst

Q.no 26. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 27. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming software testing.
Which testing principle implies this?

A : Pareto principle

B : Testing is Context dependent

C : Testing shows presence of defects

D : Absence of errors-fallacy

Q.no 28. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

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C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 29. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 30. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 31. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 32. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 33. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

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C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 36. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 37. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 38. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

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C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 39. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 40. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 41. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 43. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

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B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 44. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 46. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 48. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

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B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 49. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 50. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

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A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 55. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 56. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

D : Test log

Q.no 57. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

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Q.no 58. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers, how well data security and integrity can be
maintained, and how easily the existing model can be extended to accommodate new needs.

A : Data model

B : Meta model

C : Configuration model

D : Test model

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

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Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is d

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 2. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A : Exhibits strong coupling among between modules

B : Implements all requirements in the analysis model

C : Includes test cases for all components

D : Implements all requirements in the analysis model and provide a complete picture of the software

Q.no 3. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without planning and
documentation?

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A : Unit testing

B : Retesting

C : Ad hoc testing

D : Regression testing

Q.no 4. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 5. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in a variable that you
will specify

A : storeAlert

B : storedAlert

C : store_Alert

D : storesAlert

Q.no 6. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 7. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 8. Which one of the following feedback paths is not present in an iterative waterfall model?

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A : Design phase to feasibility study phase

B : Implementation phase to design phase

C : Implementation phase to requirements specification phase

D : Design phase to requirements specification phase.

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 10. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse location

A : click_Context()

B : context.Click()

C : contextClick()

D : context_Click()

Q.no 11. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

A : Spiral model.

B : Waterfall model.

C : Prototyping model

D : Incremental Model.

Q.no 12. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 13. Which design model is equivallent to the detailed drawing of accesspoints and external
utilities of a building

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A : Architectural Design

B : Component level design

C : Data design

D : Interface design

Q.no 14. The Actions Commands

A : are commands that directly interact with page elements

B : are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C : are commands that verify if a certain condition is met

D:0

Q.no 15. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Yellow box testing

D : Green box testing

Q.no 16. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?

A : Test Plan

B : Test Design Specification

C : Test Case Specification

D : Test Log

Q.no 17. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 18. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation
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B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 19. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 20. System testing is a

A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 21. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title with an expected
value

A : verifyTitle

B : verifiedTitle

C : verifyTitles

D : verifiedTitles

Q.no 22. Select the name which is not the type of locators

A : ID

B : Name

C : Password

D : Link Text

Q.no 23. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

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B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 24. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE

A : Google Chrome

B : Opera Mini

C : Mozilla Firefox

D : Internet Explorer

Q.no 25. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

A : Functions

B : Modules

C : Classes

D : Sub procedures

Q.no 26. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 27. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 28. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

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B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 29. ______provide the mechanisms for assembling SCIs into a version-specific
configuration.

A : Repository

B : versioning

C : modeling

D : assembling

Q.no 30. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 31. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 32. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 33. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

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A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 34. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 35. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 36. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 37. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 38. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

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A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 39. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 40. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 41. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 42. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?

A : Adaptive

B : Corrective

C : perfective

D : preventive

Q.no 43. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

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A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 44. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 45. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 46. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 47. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

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Q.no 48. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 49. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 50. RE is the overall risk exposure and is written as:

A:PxC

B:PxM

C:MxC

D:PxS

Q.no 51. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 52. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

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D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 53. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities?

A : Integration testing

B : Regression testing

C : System testing

D : User acceptance testing

Q.no 54. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 55. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 56. What mechanism is used to apprise others of changes that are made?

A : Configuration management

B : Requirementss tracing

C : Reporting

D : Change control

Q.no 57. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

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D : Sequence model

Q.no 58. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 59. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as?

A : Regression testing

B : Beta testing

C : Alpha testing

D : None of the above

Q.no 2. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver

A : Perl

B : Sql

C : ASP

D : Cobol

Q.no 3. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver
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B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 4. A software component

A : Implements some functionality

B : Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces

C : Communicates through its interfaces only

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 5. Exhaustive testing is:

A : always possible

B : impractical but possible

C : practically possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 6. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 7. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 8. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable in Selenium IDE

A : The 'display' command

B : The 'echo' command


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C : The 'print' command

D : The 'printr' command

Q.no 9. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 10. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in

A : DHTML format

B : XML format

C : j2EE format

D : HTML format

Q.no 11. What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

A : Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

B : All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

C : System itself is a component

D : Component itself is a system and hence architecture

Q.no 12. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 13. Consider the following partial description of the IIT security software. “A camera at the
main gate should detect an incoming vehicle, and the gate should be opened for registered
vehicles.” Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-Functional requirement

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C : Design requirement

D : Design constraint

Q.no 14. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 15. The Selenium IDE is used

A : To create customized test results

B : To deploy your tests across multiple environments using Selenium Grid

C : To test with HTML Unit

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 16. Which one of the following problems in the gathered requirements is not the focus of the
requirements analysis task?

A : Inconsistency

B : Ambiguity

C : Incompleteness

D : Unstructuredness

Q.no 17. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 18. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A : Architecture

B : Data

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C : Interface

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 19. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 20. What are the benefits for component based product lines?

A : Being able to take faster advantage of new product and new technology

B : Increase in time to market market

C : Higher employee productivity

D : A disciplined approach to specify as many assumptions about a components interface as is feasible

Q.no 21. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management

D : Design

Q.no 22. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page is loaded completely

A : waitForPageToLoad

B : waitForElementPresent

C : waitForPage

D : waitForLoad

Q.no 23. The expected results of the software is _________________.

A : Only important in system testing

B : Only used in component testing

C : Most useful when specified in advance


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D : Derived from the code.

Q.no 24. Which of the following are correct statements?

A : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that do not affect how they are used

B : An architecture is not dependable on requirements

C : An architecture may or may not defines components

D : An architecture is foremost an abstraction of a system that suppresses details of the components


that always affect how they are used

Q.no 25. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 26. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 27. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 28. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

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C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 29. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 30. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 31. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 32. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 33. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

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C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 34. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 35. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 36. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

Q.no 37. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 38. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

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C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 39. which of the following is the highest level in the reverse engineering process

A : testing level

B : abstraction level

C : design level

D : maintainence level

Q.no 40. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 41. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 42. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 43. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

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C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 44. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 45. Which is not a SQA activity?

A : Black box testing

B : White box testing

C : Integration testing

D : Unit testing

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?

A : Asynchronous communication

B : Observe and React

C : Environmental Control

D : Process Pipeline

Q.no 47. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 48. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness
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D : abstraction level

Q.no 49. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 50. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 51. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 52. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

Q.no 53. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

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C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 54. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 55. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 57. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

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B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A : Structural model

B : Dynamic model

C : Subsystem model

D : Sequence model

Q.no 60. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is c


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Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 2. Test cases are created in which phase?

A : Test Specification

B : Test Planning

C : Test Requirement

D : Test Configuration

Q.no 3. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

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A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 4. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?

A : Web Driver

B : Selenium RC

C : Selenium IDE

D : Selenium Grid

Q.no 5. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 6. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?

A : It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another
platform

B : It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized

C : The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within
the environment for which the system was intended

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 7. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

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Q.no 8. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 9. Verification is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 10. What is TestNG ?

A : TestNextGeneration

B : TestNewGenerlization

C : TestNewGeneration

D : TestNextGenerations

Q.no 11. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 12. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

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Q.no 13. Verification is the responsibility of

A : Developer

B : Designer

C : Tester

D : QA Team

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 15. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 16. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 17. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

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Q.no 18. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Closure

C : Coding

D : Testing

Q.no 20. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 21. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 22. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

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Q.no 23. Exhaustive testing is

A : always possible

B : practically possible

C : impractical but possible

D : impractical and impossible

Q.no 24. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

D : Ignore

Q.no 25. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite

A : Selenium IDE

B : Selenium RC

C : SeleniumGrid

D : Selenium Web

Q.no 26. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 27. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

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Q.no 28. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 29. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 30. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 31. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 32. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Reuse?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

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Q.no 33. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 34. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 35. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

D : Test Design

Q.no 36. What is “V” Model?

A : Test Design Technique

B : Test Type

C : SDLC Model

D : Test Level

Q.no 37. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

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Q.no 38. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 39. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 40. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a module type

A : Object modules

B : Hardware modules

C : Functional modules

D : Process support modules

Q.no 42. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

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Q.no 43. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 44. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 45. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 47. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

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D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 48. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 49. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 51. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 52. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?

A : Provide for flexible interaction

B : Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able

C : Show technical internals from the casual user

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D : Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

Q.no 53. which control helps to ensure that parallel changes, performed by two different people,
don’t overwrite one another.

A : version control

B : synchronization control

C : access control

D : configuration control

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which of the following type of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total
maintenance effort in a typical life cycle of a software product ?

A : Adaptive maintenance

B : Corrective maintenance

C : Preventive maintenance

D : Perfective maintenance

Q.no 56. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 57. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

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C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design?

A : Designing system architecture

B : Developing design models

C : Specifying interfaces

D : Developing a debugging system

Q.no 59. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 60. Which of the following is the component test standard?

A : BS7925-2

B : IEEE 829

C : BS7925-1

D : IEEE 610

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Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 2. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.

A : physical

B : logical

C : process

D: all of the mentioned

Q.no 3. System testing is a

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A : Black box testing

B : Grey box testing

C : White box testing

D : Glass box

Q.no 4. CTC stands for

A : condition-transaction-consequence

B : condition-transfer-consequence

C : condition-transition-consequence

D : condition-transmission-consequence

Q.no 5. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id" attribute in Web
Driver Selenium

A : By.id

B : By.idno

C : By.id_no

D : By.tag_id

Q.no 6. Which one of the following is not a requirements gathering technique

A : Task analysis

B : Scenario analysis

C : Form analysis

D : SRS document review

Q.no 7. RE represents what

A : Risk expense

B : Related expense

C : Risk exposure

D : Risk evaluation

Q.no 8. Which one of the following statements most accurately identifies the stakeholders in a
software development project?

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A : A shareholder of the organization developing the software

B : Anyone who is interested in the software

C : Anyone who is a source of requirements for the software

D : Anyone who might be affected by the software

Q.no 9. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 10. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE

A : Assert

B : Verify

C : WaitFor

D : Wait

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 12. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain element

A : verifyTable

B : verifyTitlePresent

C : verifyTextPresent

D : verifyElementPresent

Q.no 13. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering
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B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 14. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems

A : Selenium Generator

B : Selenium IDE

C : Selenium WebDriver

D:0

Q.no 15. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 16. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 17. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

A : We cannot run the test.

B : It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

C : It may be difficult to repeat the test.

D : We cannot automate the user inputs.

Q.no 18. The Web Driver is used

A : To execute tests on the HTML Unit browser

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B : To design a test Using Selenese

C : To quickly create tests

D : To test a web application against Firefox only

Q.no 19. Validation is focused on

A : Product

B : Process

C : Design

D : Testing

Q.no 20. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Adhoc testing

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 21. When testing principles are useful?

A : During testing

B : During execution

C : During review

D : Throughout life-cycle

Q.no 22. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 23. The risks that are analyzed and managed should be derived from thorough study of

A : people,
product, process, and project.

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B : people,
product, process, and management.

C : people,
product, process, and feedback.

D : people,
product, process, and environment.

Q.no 24. Alpha testing is:

A : Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

B : The first testing that is performed

C : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites

D : Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site

Q.no 25. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be done in-house?

A : Alpha

B : Betta

C : Gamma

D : Theta

Q.no 26. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 27. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 28. What is Fault Masking?

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A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 29. Which of the following statement is true?

A : Exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable

B : Exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable

C : Exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable

D : Exhaustive testing is possible and practicable

Q.no 30. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A : Non-functional system testing

B : Component testing

C : User acceptance testing

D : Maintenance testing

Q.no 31. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 32. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 33. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

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A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 34. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?

A : Unit Testing

B : Integration Testing

C : Acceptance Testing

D : Regression Testing

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

A : Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

B : Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

C : Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing
strategy

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 36. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Modifiability with Scalability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 37. Static analysis can be best described as:

A : The reviewing of test plans

B : The analysis of batch programs

C : The use of black box testing

D : The analysis of program code

Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

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A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 40. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 41. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Portability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 42. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 43. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

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A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 44. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 45. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 46. Which architectural style goal is to achieve Integrability?

A : Data Flow Architecture

B : Call and Return Architecture

C : Data Centered Architectures

D : Virtual Machine Architecture

Q.no 47. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

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Q.no 48. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-
based systems?

A : model-view-controller

B : repository pattern

C : architecture

D : different operating system

Q.no 49. A set of tools coupled within a file management system that enables access to and
management of each software configuration item is known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 50. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 51. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 52. A product is re-engineered when

A : system crashes frequently

B : tools to support restructuring are disabled

C : hardware or software support becomes obsolete

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D : subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

Q.no 53. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 54. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 55. Which one of these belongs to integration testing in the OO context?

A : Unit testing

B : Regression testing

C : Sandwich testing

D : Thread-based testing

Q.no 56. which of the following impact of the risk drivers on risk components is also called as
disastrous impact

A : critical impact

B : catastrophic impact

C : marginal impact

D : Destructive impact

Q.no 57. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

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C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 58. Three factors that affect the consequences that are likely to happen if a risk does occur:

A : its nature,
its scope, and its intensity.

B : its nature,
its scope, and its timing.

C : its nature,
its scope, and its durability.

D : its nature,
its limit, and its timing.

Q.no 59. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 60. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is d

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

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Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is d

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Method which selects the option which displays the text matching the parameter passed
to it

A : selectVisibleText()

B : selectByVisibleText()

C : select_VisibleText()

D : select_ByVisibleText()

Q.no 2. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

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Q.no 3. Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following
questions during a daily Scrum meeting?

A : It is the fundamental process flow of Scrum

B : It is month-long iteration, during which incremental product functionality completed

C : During a Sprint, customer feedback is continually obtained and the Sprint backlog is accordingly
modified

D : Each day begins with a daily Scrum meeting

Q.no 4. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 5. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC

A : ASP

B : Java

C : C#

D : PHP

Q.no 6. A software process model represents which one of the following?

A : The way in which software is developed

B : The way in which software processes data

C : The way in which software is used

D : The way in which software may fail

Q.no 7. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

A : Mitigate,Contingency

B : Transfer

C : Mitigate,Contingency, Transfer, Ignore

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D : Ignore

Q.no 8. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?

A : waterfall model

B : agile model

C : spiral model

D : v-v model

Q.no 9. which of the followingis not a configuration object

A : Design specification

B : Test specification

C : source code

D : configuration control

Q.no 10. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints

B : Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product

C : Software Design satisfies client needs and desires

D : Software design is an activity subjected to constraints specifies nature and composition of software
product which satisfies client needs and desires

Q.no 11. Select the command in SeleniumIDE used to open a web page using theURL

A : OpenRecord

B : Open

C : OpenText

D : OpenTable

Q.no 12. WMITS stands for

A : waste mitigation inspection tracking system

B : waste management inspection tracking system

C : waste manupulation inspection tracking system

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D : waste measurement inspection tracking system

Q.no 13. Unit testing is done by:

A : Users

B : Developers

C : Customers

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique

A : Data re-engineering

B : Refactoring

C : Restructuring

D : Repairing

Q.no 15. A software requirements specification (SRS) document should avoid discussing which
one of the following?

A : Functional requirements

B : Non-functional requirements

C : Design specification

D : Constraints on the implementation

Q.no 16. The Selenium RC is used

A : To run your test against different browers on different opearting systems

B : To create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming

C : To test a web application against firefox only

D : To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines

Q.no 17. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index

A : selectByIndex()

B : selectIndex()

C : selectedByIndex()

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D : selectByIndexes()

Q.no 18. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

A : elicitation

B : design

C : analysis

D : documentation

Q.no 19. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 20. The selenium can

A : access controls within the desktop

B : both web and desktop applications

C : only test web applications

D:0

Q.no 21. Acceptance testing is also known as

A : Grey box testing

B : White box testing

C : Alpha Testing

D : Beta testing

Q.no 22. The operation phase of the waterfall model is a synonym for which one of the
following phases?

A : Coding and unit testing phase

B : Integration and system testing phase

C : Maintenance phase

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D : Design phase

Q.no 23. What is incorrect about structural design?

A : Structural design introduced notations and heuristics

B : Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition

C : The advantage is data flow representation

D : It follows Structure chart

Q.no 24. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 25. Which one of the following is not a standard software development process model?

A : Waterfall Model

B : Recursive Model

C : RAD Model

D : V Model

Q.no 26. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A : Operating systems

B : Live data

C : Test documentation

D : User requirement documents

Q.no 27. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe
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Q.no 28. Webapp configuration object can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for

A : content items

B : graphic items

C : functional items

D : user items

Q.no 29. What is Fault Masking?

A : Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

B : Error condition hiding another error condition

C : Masking a fault by developer

D : Masking a fault by a tester

Q.no 30. Beta Testing is done at:

A : Developer’s end

B : User’s end

C : User’s & Developer’s end

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 31. which of the following risk is a potential threat to every software project

A : generic risk

B : project risk

C : product risk

D : business risk

Q.no 32. Regression testing is a major part of which of the life cycle?

A : Waterfall model

B : V model

C : Iterative model

D : Agile model

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Q.no 33. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 34. Which of the following truly describes Wrappers?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : cIncorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 35. A software reengineeering process model consists of:

A : code restructuring

B : back engineering

C : document engineerinhg

D : implementation engineering

Q.no 36. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A : Retesting

B : Sanity testing

C : Breadth test and depth test

D : Confirmation testing

Q.no 37. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

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Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a Test Type?

A : Database Testing

B : Security Testing

C : Statement Testing

D : Functional Testing

Q.no 39. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 40. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following truly describes Mediators?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

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D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 44. ETL stands for

A : Data Extraction Transformation & Loading

B : Data Execution Transformation & Loading

C : Extraction Transformation & Loading

D : Execution Transformation & Loading

Q.no 45. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design: 1) Place the user
in Control. 2) Reduce user's memory load. 3) Make the interface consistent. These rules are
called as __________.

A : Governed Rule

B : Golden Rule

C : User Rule

D : Thumb Rule

Q.no 46. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A : directionality

B : connectivity

C : completeness

D : abstraction level

Q.no 47. ________is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

A : Requirements Gathering

B : Test Planning

C : Test Closure

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D : Test Design

Q.no 48. What effect does achievement of quality attribute will have?

A : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a positive effect

B : The achievement of quality attribute will always have a negative effect

C : The achievement of quality attribute will have no effect

D : The achievement of quality attribute will have a positive as well as negative effect

Q.no 49. The nature of Software Application can be characterized by their information

A : Determinacy

B : Content

C : Complexity

D : Both OPTION 2 and OPTION 3

Q.no 50. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 51. When a cost to remove defect is not high?

A : During requirement analysis

B : During designing

C : During coding

D : During testing

Q.no 52. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is called as, a
_______

A : Test suite

B : Test procedure

C : Test data

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D : Test log

Q.no 53. The order in which test levels are performed is:

A : Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

B : Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

C : Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

D : It depends on the nature of a project

Q.no 54. when SCM is a formal activity the software configuration audit is conducted by

A : testing specialists

B : development team

C : senior managers

D : quality assurance group

Q.no 55. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of
behavior.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 56. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.

A : Data flow diagram

B : State transition diagram

C : Control specification

D : Activity diagram

Q.no 57. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A : Bottom up

B : Top down

C : Big-bang

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D : Functional incrimination

Q.no 58. The main focus of ______ is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A : QA

B : QC

C : Six Sigma

D : tracking

Q.no 59. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 60. Risk mitigation is a risk ___________activity. Risk monitoring is a ___________ activity

A : Avoidance, Project tracking.

B : Increasing, Project tracking.

C : Project tracking, Avoidance.

D : Random, Tracking.

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Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

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Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a

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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

11677 SOFTWARE ENGINNERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT


Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is a static test?

A : Coverage analysis

B : Code inspection

C : Usability assessment

D : Installation test

Q.no 2. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?

A : sendsKey()

B : sendKey()

C : sendKeys

D : sendKeys()

Q.no 3. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase:

A : Coding
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B : Design

C : Implementation

D : Requirements Gathering

Q.no 4. Consider the following requirement for a word processor software: " The software
should provide facility to import an existing image available as a jpeg file into the document
being created.". Which one of the following types of requirements is this?

A : Functional requirement

B : Non-functional requirement

C : Constraint on the implementation

D : Goal of implementation

Q.no 5. Which one of the following phases accounts for the maximum effort during development
of a typical software?

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Designing

D : Specification

Q.no 6. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A : Programs are thought of collection of objects

B : It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition

C : Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another

D : Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Q.no 7. Which one is the basic input device in GUI

A : Mouse

B : keyboard

C : cpu

D : monitor

Q.no 8. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:

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A : Fire fighting mode

B : Solution mode

C : Uncertain mode

D : Perfect mode

Q.no 9. which of the following is not a component of risk

A : Quality risk

B : Performance risk

C : Cost risk

D : Support risk

Q.no 10. Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A : waitForTitle

B : waitForTextPresent

C : waitForActive

D : waitForAlert

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A : reverse engineering

B : forward engineering

C : inventory analysis

D : prototyping

Q.no 12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A : can be written more compactly

B : focuses on just one thing

C : is able to complete its function in a timely manner

D : is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q.no 13. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?

A : Place the user in control


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B : Reduce the user’s memory load

C : Make the interface consistent

D : All of the mentioned

Q.no 14. Risk management is responsibility of the

A : Customer

B : Investor

C : Developer

D : Project team

Q.no 15. Which one of the following views is implicit in an SRS document?

A : Black box

B : White box

C : Grey box

D : Glass box

Q.no 16. RMMM stands for

A : risk mitigation methodology and management

B : risk mitigation manupulation and management

C : risk mitigation monitoring and management

D : risk mitigation measurement and management

Q.no 17. Which of the following is not a white box technique?

A : State transition testing

B : Path testing

C : Statement testing

D : Data flow testing

Q.no 18. Unit testing is carried out during which phase of the waterfall model?

A : Implementation phase

B : Testing phase
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C : Maintenance phase

D : Design phase

Q.no 19. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant

A : short-term memory

B : shortcuts

C : objects that appear on the screen

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 20. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A : Two

B : Three

C : Four

D : Five

Q.no 21. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver Selenium

A : dselectAll()

B : deselect_Al()

C : dselect_Al()

D : deselectAll()

Q.no 22. White-box testing can be started:

A : After installation

B : After SRS creation

C : After programming

D : After designing

Q.no 23. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle

A : Coding

B : Testing

C : Project management
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D : Design

Q.no 24. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?

A : Ad-hoc testing

B : Monkey testing

C : Fuzz testing

D : End-to-End testing

Q.no 25. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those characteristics?

A : Uncertainity & loss

B : Certainity & Profit

C : Staff size and budget

D : Project Deadline and budget

Q.no 26. In a simple risk table the risks are categorized into

A : PS, BU , CU

B : TU ,DE ,ST

C : BE ,CU ,ST

D : SU , TE ,CU ,PS

Q.no 27. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
2. Size of development team
3. Size of testers
4. Risk associated with project

A : a. 1, 3, 4

B : b. 1, 2, 3

C : c. 1, 4

D : d. 1, 3

Q.no 28. Which of the following truly describes Bridges?

A : Encapsulation whereby some components is encased within an alternative abstraction

B : Translation between assumptions of an arbitrary component to some provides assumptions of some


other arbitrary components

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C : Incorporation of planning function that in effect results in runtime determination of the translation

D : Repair those cases you have detected by adapting the components

Q.no 29. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A : To find faults in the software

B : To give confidence in the software

C : To prove that the software has no faults

D : To find performance problems

Q.no 30. What can static analysis NOT find?

A : Memory leaks

B : Unreachable (“dead”) code

C : The use of a variable before it has been defined

D : Array bound violations

Q.no 31. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?

A : Version Control

B : Access control

C : CM Process

D : Version Control and Access control

Q.no 32. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected

A : Product risk

B : Business risk

C : Programming risk

D : Project risk

Q.no 33. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A : software-based

B : transaction-based

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C : server-based

D : client-based

Q.no 34. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing principle implies
this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 35. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

A : Priority of that bug may low.

B : Lack of time for the release.

C : The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

D : Data may be unavailable.

Q.no 36. What is the major improvement in SVN

A : it allows to rollback of commit

B : addition of atomic commits

C : supported everywhere

D : each file is processed independently

Q.no 37. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A : Verified

B : New

C : Critical

D : Deferred

Q.no 38. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?

A : Model-View-Controller

B : Layered Architecture

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C : Client–server

D : MVC, Layered Architecture and Client–server

Q.no 39. Who leads a formal review process?

A : Author

B : Moderator

C : Reviewer

D : Scribe

Q.no 40. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following
testing principle implies this?

A : Testing shows presence of defects

B : Pesticide paradox

C : Testing is context dependent

D : Defect Clustering

Q.no 41. A set of tools that automate the construction of software by ensuring that the proper set
of validated components have been assembled are known as

A : component element

B : process element

C : construction element

D : human elements

Q.no 42. Which of the following testing method is normally used as acceptance test for a software
system?

A : Regression testing

B : Integration testing

C : Unit testing

D : Functional testing

Q.no 43. Architectural styles is composed of which of the following?

A : A set of component types that perform some function at run-time

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B : A topological layout of these components indicating their run-time inter relationships

C : Coupling among the client will lessen the effect of data center architecture

D : A set of semantic constraints

Q.no 44. Version control is not capable of doing

A : enables any version to be constructed using differences from past versions

B : a make facility that enables you to collect all relevant configuration objects and construct a specific
version of the software.

C : If the central database is corrupted, the entire history remains safe and secured

D : a project database repository that stores all relevant configuration objects

Q.no 45. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software process?

A : Versioning

B : Audit trails

C : Change control

D : SCI

Q.no 46. The technique applied for usability testing is:

A : White box

B : Grey box

C : Black box

D : Combination of all

Q.no 47. which of the following is not a software risk

A : product risk

B : project risk

C : business risk

D : management rsik

Q.no 48. Requirement Engineering is not concern with ____________.

A : Requirement Design

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B : Requirement Elicitation

C : Requirement Analysis

D : Requirement Documentation

Q.no 49. Software testing are most effective if applied immediately after

A : Requirement Specification

B : Design

C : Coding

D : Integration

Q.no 50. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?

A : Test implementation and execution

B : Test closure activity

C : Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D : Test analysis and design

Q.no 51. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with
all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?

A : design model

B : user’s model

C : mental image

D : system image

Q.no 52. The ability to identify which requirement generated any given work product is known
as

A : forward tracing

B : backward tracing

C : Dependency tracking

D : Change management

Q.no 53. What determines how information is stored in the repository, how data can be accessed
by tools and viewed by software engineers,

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