1. Which of the following is the percentage by A. 1.

71 x 10⁻⁴ M
mass of carbon in sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁)? B. 2.23 x 10⁻⁵ M a. boron hydride
C. 4.47 x 10⁻⁵ M b. formaldehyde
a. 6.4% D. 5.54 x 10⁻⁵ M c. selenium dichloride
b. 42.1% d. carbonate ion
c. 51.5% 5. Which of the following atoms and ions is
d. 75.7% the smallest in terms of ionic radius? 9. Which of the following is the number of
hydrogen atoms in 0.350 mol of glucose
2. For an electron with principal quantum a. Mg²⁺ (C₆H₁₂O₆)?
number of 3, which of the following is not an b. Ca²⁺
allowed value for its magnetic quantum c. Ca a. 2.53 x 10²⁴
number? d. All have the same ionic radius. b. 5.06 x 10²⁴
c. 1.27 x 10¹²
a. 0 6. Which of the following atoms and ions is d. 3.5 x 10¹²
b. 1 the largest in terms of ionic radius?
c. 2 10. A sample contains 40.92% C, 4.58% H, and
d. 3 A. S²⁻ 54.50% O by mass. Which of the following is
B. S the empirical formula of this sample?
3. Which of the following is the mass C. O²⁻
percentage of potassium chloride in a solution D. All have the same ionic radius. a. C₃H₄O₃
containing 3.0 g of KCl in 100.0 mL of water? b. CHO
Density of water = 1 g/cm³ 7. Which of the following ions is the smallest c. C₂H₃O₂
in terms of ionic radius? d. C₄HO
A. 2.91%
B. 0.97% A. K⁺ 11. How many moles of ammonia is produced
C. 3.88% B. Cl⁻ from 3.0 moles of nitrogen gas and 6.0 moles
D. 7.76% C. Ca²⁺ of hydrogen gas?
D. S²⁻
4. Which of the following is the [H⁺] of an okra N₂₍𝓰₎ + H₂₍𝓰₎⇄ NH₃₍𝓰₎
juice with pOH of 9.35? 8. Which of the following molecules does not
possess a trigonal planar molecular geometry? a. 4.0
b. 6.0 kJ/mol. 18. This is a type of heat transfer that involves
c. 9.0 no transfer of mass.
d. 10.0 C⁽ᵍʳᵃᵖʰᶦᵗᵉ⁾ + O₂₍𝓰₎ → CO₂₍𝓰₎ ΔH = -393.5 kJ
C⁽ᵈᶦᵃᵐᵒⁿᵈ⁾ + O₂₍𝓰₎ → CO₂₍𝓰₎ ΔH = -395.4 kJ I. conduction
12. Which of the following compounds is II. convection
insoluble in water? Which of the following is the ΔH for the III. diffusion
conversion of graphite to diamond?
a. sodium carbonate a. I only
b. lead(II) sulfate C⁽ᵍʳᵃᵖʰᶦᵗᵉ⁾ → C⁽ᵈᶦᵃᵐᵒⁿᵈ⁾ ΔH = ? b. II only
c. barium nitrate c. I and II
d. ammonium phosphate a. -1.9 kJ d. II and III
b. +1.9 kJ
13. Which of the following compounds is c. -393.5 kJ 19. This states that molar volumes of different
soluble in water? d. +395.4 kJ gases at the same temperature and pressure
have the same values.
a. sodium carbonate 16. Which of the following has the highest
b. lead(II) sulfate frequency? a. Boyle’s Law
c. cobalt(II) hydroxide b. Charles’ Law
d. silver iodide A. x-ray radiation c. Gay Lussac’s Law
B. radio waves d. Avogadro’s Law
14. Which of the following is the oxidation C. visible light
number of sulfur in sulfur dichloride? D. ultraviolet radiation 20. This states that at constant pressure and
constant amount of substance, the volume of
a. 0 17. Which of the following has the longest a system is proportional to its absolute
b. +1 wavelength? temperature.
c. +2
d. -1 a. gamma radiation a. Boyle’s Law
b. ultraviolet radiation b. Gay Lussac’s Law
15. Carbon's allotrope graphite has an c. infrared radiation c. Charles’ Law
enthalpy of combustion of -393.5 kJ/mol while d. microwave radiation d. Avogadro’s Law
its other allotrope diamond has a ΔH of -394
21. What is the formal charge of oxygen in the a. increasing the pressure of the system a. calcium
hydronium ion? b. decreasing the pressure of the system b. titanium
c. increasing the volume of the container c. cesium
a. -2 d. increasing the temperature d. iron
b. -1
c. 0 25. This reaction will produce salt and water. 29. Which of the following is an allowed value
d. 1 for the principal quantum number, n?
a. neutralization
22. Which of the following molecules that b. electrolysis a. ½
contains both ionic and covalent bonds? c. hydrolysis b. 0
d. combustion c. 1
a. sodium bicarbonate d. -1
b. lithium chloride 26. Oxygen and ozone can be described as
c. ethanol ___________. 30. Which of the following is an allowed value
d. ammonium bromide for the spin quantum number, mₛ?
a. allotropes
23. How many valence electrons does b. isomers a. -1
nitrogen have? c. isotopes b. 0
d. isotones c. ½
a. 3 d. 1
b. 4 27. Which of the following is an s-block
c. 5 element? 31. Which of the following is NOT a solution?
d. 6
a. thorium a. bronze
24. Consider b. copper b. brass
c. uranium c. iron
2A₍𝓰₎ + X₍𝓰₎ ⇄ J₍𝓰₎ + D₍𝓰₎ (exothermic) d. radium d. nichrome

Which of the following favors the production 28. Which of the following is the most 32. You need to measure 50mL of an unknown
of more reactants? electronegative element? liquid. Which of the following is the best
equipment to use?
 c. I, III and V c. is present as a solvent.
I. beaker d. II, III, IV and V
II. pipet d. would be used up first.
III. Erlenmeyer flask 35. The highest energy structure along the
IV. graduated cylinder reaction pathway belongs to the 38. Consider this reaction
_____________.
a. I and II H₂ + O₂ ⇄ H₂O
b. II and IV a. reactants
c. I, and III b. products If 2 mol of H₂ and 3 mol of O₂ are combined,
d. I, II, III, and IV c. catalyst the amount of H₂O that would be formed if all
d. transition state of the limiting reactant were used up is known
33. Your next experiment is titration of as the
vinegar. Which of the following is an essential 36. Which of the following is/are acidic?
piece of equipment for this experiment? I. pOH = 12.5 a. limited yield
II. [OH⁻] = 8.5 x 10⁻⁴ b. percent yield
a. burette III. [H₃O⁺] = 1.5 x 10⁻⁸ c. product yield
b. beaker d. theoretical yield
c. pipet a. I only
d. volumetric flask b. I and III 39. An atom of carbon-14 with atomic number
c. II and III of 6 contains ____________.
34. Which of the following are intensive d. I, II and III a. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 8 neutrons
properties? b. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 14 neutrons
37. The limiting reagent in a reaction is the c. 8 electrons, 8 protons, 6 neutrons
I. Temperature reagent that d. 8 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons
II. Volume
III. Pressure a. has the largest coefficient in the balanced 40. Which of the following is one condition to
IV. Mass equation. make phosphorus (P) atom isoelectronic with
V. Mole fraction an argon atom?
b. has the smallest mass in the reaction a. P is a cation.
a. I and III mixture. b. P is an anion
b. II and IV c. P is a zwitterion
d. P is a neutral atom. a. I only
45. Which of the following ground-state b. I and III
41. Uranium-235 and uranium-238 are best electron configurations is possible for an atom c. I, II and III
described as ____________. in the third period? d. None of the above
a. allotropes
b. isolectronic a. [Ar] 3s2 3p2 49. Which of the following describe
c. isotopes b. [Ne] 3s1 paramagnetic atoms?
d. isomers c. [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d2 I. with one or more unpaired electrons
d. [Ar] 3s2 3p7 II. attracted to a magnetic field
42. Which of the following is attributed to III. no unpaired electrons
Rutherford’s Gold Foil experiment? 46. The number of unpaired electrons in a IV. repelled by a magnetic field
a. Evidence of the dual nature of matter tellurium atom is _____. V. permanent magnet
b. Evidence that atoms are mostly empty a. 1
space b. 2 a. I, IV and V.
c. The Uncertainty Principle c. 3 b. I and II
D. The Quantum Mechanical Model of the d. 4 c. III and IV
Atom d. I, II and V
47. Which electron transition in a hydrogen
43. If an atom has a valence shell electron atom is with the smallest emission of energy? 50. X + Y → XY (ΔH = -13 kJ/mol) is an
configuration of ns2, it is a __________. a. n = 1 to n = 2 ______________.
a. Alkali metals b. n = 2 to n = 1 a. endothermic decomposition
b. Alkaline earth metals c. n = 2 to n = 3 b. endothermic synthesis
c. Chalcogens d. n = 3 to n = 2 c. exothermic decomposition
d. Transition elements d. exothermic synthesis
48. In ions, which of the following is TRUE?
44. The energy of a photon is least in the case Number (No.) of protons = No. of electrons 51. Which reaction is likely to be accompanied
of ______. No. electrons = No. of protons + No. of by an increase in entropy?
a. Infrared neutrons
b. Ultraviolet No. of neutrons = No. of protons + No. of a. N₂₍𝓰₎ + 3H₂₍𝓰₎ → 2NH₃₍𝓰₎ at 26 °C
c. Visible electrons
d. X-rays b. 2Na₍ₛ₎ + Cl₂₍𝓰₎ → 2NaCl₍ₛ₎ at 26 °C
 d. All of the above b. ΔH is negative
c. CO₂₍ₛ₎ → CO₂₍𝓰₎ at -71 °C c. the reaction is exothermic
55. Which of the following affects the vapor d. the reaction is endothermic
d. H₂O₍𝓰₎ → H₂O₍ₗ₎ at 99 °C pressure of a liquid?
59. A car battery is an EXAMPLE OF ALL of the
52. When a material in the solid-state is fused a. atmospheric pressure following EXCEPT for _______.
and then vaporized, the steps in the process b. temperature
are, respectively c. mass of the liquid a. galvanic cell
d. surface area of the liquid b. electrolytic cell
a. endothermic and endothermic c. electrochemical cell
b. endothermic and exothermic 56. If you want the cell to retain its current d. voltaic cell
c. exothermic and exothermic condition, the environment of the cell should
d. exothermic and endothermic be _______. 60. Which of the following pairs are
INCORRECT?
53. For which of these processes is the value a. hypertonic
of ΔS expected to be positive? b. hypotonic I. Au : Silver
c. isotonic II. Ca : Calcium
I. Sodium chloride is dissolved in water. d. osmotic lysis III. Mn : Manganes
II. Carbon dioxide is condensed.
IV. Fe : Iron
III. Electrolysis of water. 57. Oxygen is produced from water
V. Sr: Sulfur
a. I only a. neutralization
a. I only
b. II only b. electrolysis
b. I and V
c. I and II c. hydrolysis
c. III and IV
d. I and III d. combustion
d. I, III and V 
54. The melting point of an impure compound 58. Which of the following is NOT true if the
is ______________. bonds in the products are stronger than the
a. lower than that of the pure compound. bonds in the reactants of a chemical reaction?
b. higher than that of the pure compound.
c. the same as that of the pure compound. a. energy is released
  ORGANIC AND BIOCHEM QUESTIONS polymers of nucleotides linked by _________.
a. reactants
. A triple bond consists of _______.
a. amide bonds b. products
b. peptide bonds c. catalyst
a. 3 sigma bonds
c. 3’ to 5’ phosphodiester bridges d. transition state
b. 3 pi bonds
d. 5’ to 3’ phosphodiester bridges
c. 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
8. Which of the following is a non-aliphatic
d. 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
5. Which of the following is the enzyme that compound?
hydrolyzes nucleic acids?
2. In this step, the sequence of bases in DNA is
a. benzene
recorded as a sequence of complementary
a. cellulases b. nonane
bases in a single stranded mRNA molecule.
b. nucleases c. pentyne
c. lipases d. methane
a. replication
d. proteases
b. transcription
9. The pancreas releases this when blood
c. translation
6. Which of the following is not true about glucose is abnormally high.
d. recording
nucleophiles?
I. high electron density a. insulin
3. When a base is linked to a sugar,
II. unshared pair of electrons b. epinephrine
_________ are formed.
III. electron acceptors c. testosterone
I. nucleosides
d. cortisol
II. nucleotides
a. I only
III. carbohydrates
b. III only 10. Which of the following is true about
c. I and II electrophiles?
a. I only
d. II and III I. electron deficient sites
b. II only
II. electron donors
c. I and III
7. The highest energy structure along the III. high electron density
d. II and III
reaction pathway belongs to the
_____________. a. I only
4. Nucleic acids are composed of linear
b. II only 14. This is the specific bonds or functional 17. A primary carbon has ___ other carbon/s
c. I and II groups in a molecule responsible for the bonded to it.
d. II and III absorption of a particular wavelength of light.
a. 1
11. If two sugars differ from one another only a. active site b. 2
in configuration around a single carbon atom, b. chronosphere c. 3
this is referred to as _____________. c. chromophore d. 4
d. ionophore
a. epimers 18. The general formula of alkene is _____.
b. anomers 15. It is a chemical species whose interior is
c. isomers hydrophilic and whose exterior is a. Cₙ + H₂ₙ₊₂
d. polymers hydrophobic. b. Cₙ + H₂ₙ
c. Cₙ + H₂ₙ₋₂
12. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of ___ a. active site d. Cₙ + Hₙ
and ___. b. chronosphere
I. glucose c. chromophore 19. What is the minor product for the reaction
II. fructose d. ionophore
III. galactose 2-bromo-2-methylpentane (KOH, alcohol)→
16. Which of the following do not have a minor product?
a. I, I carbonyl group?
b. II, II I. amide a. 2-methyl-2-pentene
c. I an II II. alcohol b. 2-methyl-3-pentene
d. I and III III. aldehyde c. 3-methyl-1-pentene
IV. ether d. 2-methyl-1-pentene
13. Which of the following is found in milk? V. imide
20. What is the major product for the reaction
a. fructose a. I and V
b. glucose b. II and IV 2-bromo-2-methylpentane (KOH, alcohol)→
c. galactose c. I, II and IV minor product?
d. lactose d. I, III and V
a. 2-methyl-2-pentene
b. 2-methyl-3-pentene 24. What is the product for the reaction b. benzenol
c. 3-methyl-1-pentene c. 1,4-cyclohexadiene
d. 2-methyl-1-pentene 2-bromopropane (⁻SH, CH₃OH)→ ? d. No reaction

21. What is the product for the reaction a. butane-1-thiol 28. Which of the following does not have an
b. butane-2-thiol electronic type of excitation?
2-propanol (PBr₃)→ ? c. pentane-2-thiol I. ultraviolet region
d. 2-propanol II. visible region
a. 1-bromopropane III. infrared region
b. 2-bromopropane 25. The hybridization of each of the carbon
c. 2,2-dibromopropane atoms in benzene is ____. a. I only
d. 2-propanone b. II only
a. sp c. III only
22. What is the product for the reaction b. sp² d. I and II
c. sp³
1-pentene (HBr)→ ? d. sp³d 29. Which of the following will result in a
positive Tollens’ test?
a. 1-bromopentane 26. What is the product for the reaction
b. 2-bromopentane a. aldehyde
c. 2,2-dibromopentane benzene (Li, NH₃₍ₗᵢᵩ₎)→ ? b. alcohol
d. 1-pentanol c. alkene
a. cyclohexene d. ketone
23. What is the product for the reaction b. 1,4-cyclohexadiene
c. benzaldehyde 30. Which of the following will determine
1-propene (Br₂)→ ? d. No reaction trace amounts of water in a sample?

a. 2-bromopropane 27. What is the product for the reaction a. Benedict’s test
b. 1,1-dibromopropane b. Karl Fischer titration
c. 1,2-dibromopropane methylbenzene (KMnO₄)→ ? c. Tollens’ test
d. 2,2-dibromopropane d. Winkler method
a. benzenecarboxylic acid
31. Ethyl methyl ether and propan-1-ol are c. carbenes b. epinephrine
_______. d. carbyne c. estrogen
d. cortisol
a. allotropes 35. Which of the following is not a
b. isomers stereoselective reagent 39. This stimulates the synthesis of fatty acids
c. isotopes and triacylglycerols in the liver.
d. isotones a. Br₂
b. osmium tetroxide a. elevated insulin levels in the blood
32. Which positions must the chloro groups of c. H₂ b. decreased insulin levels in the blood
trans-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane occupy to d. hydrochloric acid c. elevated cortisol levels in the blood
achieve the greatest stability? d. decreased cortisol levels in the blood
36. Which of the following is a polar aprotic
a. equatorial, equatorial solvent? 40. The largest energy stores of a well-
b. axial, axial nourished human can be found in the
c. axial, equatorial a. DMSO _______.
d. equatorial, axial b. water
c. formic acid a. adipose tissues
33. Which positions must the bromo groups of d. ethanol b. liver tissues
trans-1,4-dibromocyclohexane occupy to c. muscle tissues
achieve the least stability? 37. Which of the following is a polar protic d. blood
solvent?
a. equatorial, equatorial 41. Most of the oxygen a human being
b. axial, axial a. DMSO breathes is converted into _______.
c. axial, equatorial b. ethanol
d. equatorial, axial c. acetone a. water
d. THF b. acetyl-CoA
34. Which of the following is not a reaction c. carbon dioxide
intermediate? 38. The pancreas releases this when blood d. insulin
glucose is abnormally low.
a. carbocations 42. The synthesis of urea for mammals
b. carbonyl a. glucagon primarily takes place in the ________.
 its individual enantiomers III. termination
a. kidney
b. liver a. racemization a. I only
c. large intestine b. resolution b. II only
d. pancreas c. mutarotation c. I and II
d. specific rotation d. II and III
43. Which of the following is an unsaturated
compound? 47. Peptide bonds are also _____ bonds. 50. The amino acid sequence in a polypeptide
chain is called _______ structure of a protein.
a. hexane a. amide
b. pentanol b. amine a. primary
c. octene c. azo b. secondary
d. 1-chloropentane d. sulfur c. tertiary
d. quaternary
44. Which of the following is a saturated 48. The molecularity of a reaction occuring
compound? due to the decomposition of a molecule. 51. α helix and the β pleated sheet are
examples of ________ structure of a protein.
a. ethene I. unimolecular
b. 2-bromooctane II. bimolecular a. primary
c. benzene III. trimolecular b. secondary
d. 1-pentyne c. tertiary
a. I only d. quaternary
45. Which of the following pairs is not part of b. II only
a homologous series? c. I and II 52. This refers to the overall three
d. II and III dimensional structure of a polypeptide.
a. methanoic acid and butanoic acid
b. ethane and ethene 49. During a chain reaction, this is the part a. primary structure of a protein
c. propane and octane where reactive intermediates are formed. b. secondary structure of a protein
d. 1-octyne and 1-pentyne c. tertiary structure of a protein
I. propagation d. quaternary structure of a protein
46. The separation of a racemic mixture into II. initiation
53. When multiple subunits (multiple I. ketones react with alcohols d. II and III
polypeptide chains) come together, they form II. aldehydes react with alcohols
the _______ structure of the protein. III. carboxylic acids react with alcohols 59. Terpenes are made up of _______
molecules.
a. primary a. I only I. neoprene
b. secondary b. II only II. isoprene
c. tertiary c. I and II III. isopentane
d. quaternary d. Ii and III
a. I only
54. When two sugars differ in configuration at 57. An _______ molecule has both b. II only
only one chiral center. hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts. c. I and II
I. enantiomers I. amphiprotic d. I and III
II. diastereomers II. amphipatic
III. epimers III. amphoteric 60. A sesquiterpene consists of _______
isoprene units.
a. I only a. I only
b. III only b. II only a. two
c. I and II c. I and II b. three
d. I and III d. II and III c. four
d. five
55. Hemiacetals are formed when _______. 58. When a tetrahedral carbon can be
I. alcohols react with ketones converted to a chiral center by changing only 61. This is an inactive enzyme that requires
II. alcohols react with aldehydes one of the attached groups, it is referred to as binding with a cofactor to make it catalytically
III. alcohols react with carboxylic acids ________. active.
I. prochiral
a. II only II. anomeric a. apoenzyme
b. III only III. enantiomeric b. coenzyme
c. I and II c. holoenzyme
d. II and III a. I only d. yoloenzyme
b. II only
56. Hemiketals are formed when ________. c. I and III 62. This is produced when an inactive enzyme
binds with a cofactor making it catalytically c. three a. one
active. d. Four b. two
c. three
66. During the first phase of glycolysis, glucose d. four
is converted into ________.
a. apoenzyme
70. The tricarboxylic acid cycle produces ___
b. coenzyme
a. glucose molecule/s of NADH for every molecule of
c. holoenzyme
b. pyruvate acetyl CoA.
d. yoloenzyme
c. 3-phosphoglycerate
d. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate a. one
63. Which of the following is the end product
b. two
of glycolysis?
67. The net ATP produced in glycolysis for c. three
every molecule of glucose. d. four
a. glucose
b. glycogen
a. 1 molecule 71. The Krebs cycle produces ____ molecules
c. pyruvate
b. 2 molecules of NADH for every molecule of glucose.
d. fructose-1,6-biphosphate
c. 3 molecules
d. 4 molecules a. one
64. The metabolic pathway that converts
b. three
glucose into pyruvate.
68. The citric acid cycle produces ____ c. six
molecule/s of ATP for every molecule of acetyl d. two
a. glycolysis
CoA.
b. glycogenesis
72. Which of the following metabolic
c. gycogenolysis
a. one pathways produces the most ATP?
d. gluconeogenesis
b. two
c. three a. glycolysis
65. During glycolysis, one molecule of glucose
d. four b. Krebs cycle
produces ______ molecule/s of pyruvate.
c. tricarboxylic acid cycle
69. The Krebs cycle produces ____ molecule/s d. electron transport chain
a. one
of FADH₂ for every molecule of glucose.
b. two
73. Gluconeogenesis mainly takes place in the
_______.

a. liver
b. kidney
c. cell membrane
d. heart

74. Which reagents react with an alkene in a

Markovnikov orientation?

I. HBr
II. H₂O/H₂SO₄
III. Br₂
IV. OsO₄/ROOH

a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. II and IV
d. II, III, and IV

75. Which is the major product from the

reaction of propene with OsO₄/ROOH?

a. 1-propanol
b. 2-propanol
c. 1,2-propanediol
d. 1,3-propandiol 
 GENERAL CHEMISTRY 100/100 6. The energy of a photon is least in the case of I. With one or more unpaired
_______. electrons
a. Infrared II. Attracted to magnetic field
1. An atom of carbon-14 with atomic number of b. Ultraviolet III. No unpaired electrons
6 contains _________. c. Visible IV. Repelled by a magnetic field
a. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 8 neutrons d. X-rays V. Permanent magnet
b. 6 electrons, 6 protons, 14 neutrons 7. Which of the ff. ground-state electron a. I, IV, and V
c. 8 electrons, 8 protons, 6 neutrons configuration is possible for an atom in the b. I and II
d. 8 electrons, 6 protons, 6 neutrons third period? c. III and IV
2. Which of the ff. is one condition to make a. [Ar]3s2 3p2 d. I, II and V
phosphorus (P) atom isoelectronic with an b. [Ne]3s1 12. X + Y -> XY (∆H= -13 kJ/mol) is a ________.
argon atom? c. [Ne]3s2 3p6 3d2 a. Endothermic decomposition
a. P is a cation d. [Ar]3s2 3p7 b. Endothermic synthesis
b. P is an anion 8. The number of unpaired electrons in a c. Exothermic decomposition
c. P is a zwitterion tellurium atom is _______. d. Exothermic synthesis
d. P is neutral atom a. 1
3. Uranium-235 and Uranium-238 are best b. 2 Which reaction is likely to be accompanied by
described as _______> c. 3 an increase in entropy?
a. Allotropes d. 4
b. Isoelectric 9. Which electron transition in a hydrogen atom a.N₂₍𝓰₎ + 3H₂₍𝓰₎ → 2NH₃₍𝓰₎ at 26 °C
c. Isotopes is with the smallest emission of energy? b. 2Na₍ₛ₎ + Cl₂₍𝓰₎ → 2NaCl₍ₛ₎ at 26 °C
a. n = 1 to n = 2
d. Isomers c. CO₂₍ₛ₎ → CO₂₍𝓰₎ at -71 °C
4. Which of the ff. is attributed to rutherford’s b. n =2 to n = 1
c. n = 2 to n = 3 d. H₂O₍𝓰₎ → H₂O₍ₗ₎ at 99 °C
gold foil experiment?
a. Evidence of the dual nature of matter d. n = 3 to n = 2
b. Evidence that atoms are mostly empty 10. in ions, which of the ff. is TRUE? 13. When a material in the solid-state is fused
space I. Number (No.) of protons = No. of and then vaporized, the steps in the process
c. The uncertainty principle electrons are, respectively
d. The quantum mechanical model of the II. No. electrons = No. of protons + No. a. Endothermic and endothermic
atom of neutrons b. Endothermic and exothermic
5. If an atom has a valence shell electron III. No. of neutrons = No. of protons + c. Exothermic and exothermic
configuration oh ns2, it is a ________. No. of electrons d. Exothermic and endothermic
a. Alkali metals a. I only 14. For which of these processes is the value of
b. Alkaline earth metals b. I and III ∆S expected to be positive?
c. Chalcogens c. I, II, and III I. Sodium chloride is dissolved in
d. Transition elements d. None of the above water
11. Which of the ff. describe paramagnetic II. Carbon dioxide is condensed
atoms?
 III. Electrolysis of water b. 6 II. No. of electrons in bonding
a. I only c. 8 orbitals
b. II only d. 12 III. No. of electrons in nonbonding
c. I and II orbitals
d. I and III a. II only
15. The melting point of an impure compound is 20. The limiting reagent in a reaction is the b. I and II
_________. reagent that c. I and III
a. Lower than that of the pure compound a. Has the largest coefficient in the d. II and III
b. Higher that that of the pure compound balanced equation 23. Which of the ff. is/are acidic?
c. The same as that of the pure compound b. Has the smallest mass in the reaction I. pOH = 12.5
d. All of the above mixture II. [OH-] = 8.5 x 10-4
16. Which of the ff. affects the vapor pressure of c. Is present as a solvent III. [H3O+] = 1.5 x 10-8
a liquid? d. Would be used up first a. I only
a. Atmospheric pressure b. I and III
b. Temperature Consider this reaction c. II and III
c. Mass of the liquid d. I, II and III
d. Surface area of the liquid H₂ + O₂ ⇄ H₂O 24. Considering the nomenclature of
17. A gas or vapor may be liquefied only at monodentate ligands, which of the ff. are
temperatures If 2 mol of H2 and O2 are combined, the amount of H2O incorrect?
I. At critical temperature that would be formed if al of the limiting reactant were
II. Equal to the normal boiling point used up is known as the H₂O : aqua
III. Below the critical temperature
a. Limited yield
II. H⁻ : hydroxo
IV. Above the critical temperature III. NH₃ : amino
b. Percent yield
V. Above the normal boiling point
c. Product yield IV. O²⁻ : oxido
a. I only
d. Theoretical yield V. OH⁻ : hydrido
b. I and II
c. I, II and III
a. I and IV
d. I, II, III, IV and V
b. I, II, and V
18. If you want the cell to retain its current 21. A symmetry element or operation that causes
c. II, III and V
condition, the environment of the cell should no change in the molecule
d. I, II, III and V
be ________. a. Cn
25. [Ag(NH3)2Br is __________.
a. Hypertonic b. E
a. Diamminesilver(I) bromide
b. Hypotonic c. I
b. Diaminosilver(I) bromide
c. Isotonic d. Ơ
c. Silver(I) bromodiammine
d. Osmotic lysis 22. In the computation of the bond order, which
d. Amino silver bromide
19. In a body-centered-cubic lattice, what is its of the ff. will you consider?
coordination number? I. No. of electrons in antibonding
a. 4 orbitals
 26. Consider the nomenclature of K3[Fe(CN)6],
which will be written first in its inner
coordination sphere?
a. The potassium ion
b. The iron ion
c. The cyano group
d. None of the above
27. Which of the ff. is/ are INCORRECT?
I. Strong ligand field : high spin
II. Weak ligand field : high spin
III. Strong ligand field : large crystal
field splitting
a. I only
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III
28. Considering ligand field strengths, which of
the ff. is correct?

a. F⁻ > Cl⁻ > Br⁻ > I⁻

b. Cl⁻ > F⁻ > Br⁻ > I⁻
c. F⁻ = Cl⁻ = Br⁻ = I⁻
d. I⁻ > F⁻ > Cl⁻ > Br⁻