1. Consider the following statements 1.

The Chairperson of the NGT has to be

regarding the Biological and Toxin a retired Chief Justice of India only.
Weapons Convention (BTWC) of 1972: 2. The Tribunal is to have at least 20
1. It puts prohibition only on the judicial members.
development of biological weapons. Which of the statements given above are
2. India has not ratified it so far. correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
2. Consider the following statements: 1. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is
1. The process of naming of the cyclones not bound by the procedure laid down
is done by the country where the under the Code of Civil Procedure,
landfall occurs. 1908.
2. The overall process of naming is done 2. The NGT is bound by the rules of
under the aegis of the World evidence, as enshrined in the Indian
Meteorological Organization (WMO). Evidence Act, 1872.
Which of the statements given above 3. While passing orders / decisions /
is/are correct? awards, the NGT will apply the
(a) 1 only principles of sustainable development,
the precautionary principle and the
(b) 2 only
polluter pays principles.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
given below:
(a) 1 only
3. Matters related to which of the following
(b) 1 and 3 only
Acts can be challenged in the National
(c) 2 and 3 only
Green Tribunal?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974
2. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 6. Which of the following conditions are
1991 essential for the formation of a tropical
cyclone?
3. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
1. Low vertical wind shear.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: 2. Sufficient warm temperature at sea
surface.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Presence of the Coriolis force.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only
given below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. Consider the following statements
(c) 1 and 3 only
regarding the National Green Tribunal
(NGT): (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 1
https://t.me/upsc_pt_mains
7. Consider the following statements about 2. They use techniques of machine
International Tropical Timber learning and artificial intelligence to
Organisation: manipulate or generate visual and
1. It is a group which represents only the audio content.
timber producing countries of the 3. They use neural network
world. architectures, such as auto-encoders
2. India is a member of this grouping. or Generative Adversarial Networks
Which of the statements given above (GANs).
is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements about
Five Eyes Alliance:
1. It is an intelligence sharing alliance. 11. Which of the following statements is/are
2. Japan, South Korea, Australia, New correct about the mRNA vaccines?
Zealand and ASEAN countries are 1. They are faster and cheaper to
party to it. produce than the traditional vaccines.
Which of the statements given above 2. They are not produced using
is/are correct? infectious elements.
(a) 1 only 3. They need to be stored at very low
(b) 2 only temperature.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
(a) 1 only
9. Consider the following statements about (b) 1 and 2 only
India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(c) 2 only
(PSLV):
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is a four-staged launch vehicle, with
first and third stages using solid
rocket motors, and second and fourth 12. Which of the following is/are the
stages using liquid rocket engines. implication(s) of the recent D614G
2. It is India’s first launch vehicle which mutation in the COVID-19 virus?
is equipped with liquid stages. 1. It will aid the virus in attaching more
Which of the statements given above efficiently with the ACE2 receptor in
is/are correct? the human host.
(a) 1 only 2. It will make the disease more severe
(b) 2 only and increase the mortality rate.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
(a) 1 only
10. Consider the following statements (b) 2 only
regarding ‘Deepfakes’:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. These are fake videos or audio
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
recordings that look and sound just
like the real thing.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 2
13. Damin-i-Koh, in history refers to which of Select the correct answer using the code
the following? given below:
(a) The name of the post of revenue (a) 1 only
collector during Iltutmish’s reign. (b) 2 only
(b) Forested areas of Rajamahal hills. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) The name of the head of royal atelier (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for paintings during Jehangir’s reign.
(d) The name of very fertile lands in the 17. Consider the following statements:
Northern Indian plains.
1. Article 42 of the Constitution
envisages that the state shall make
14. What is the objective of the recently provision for securing just and
launched scheme SERB – POWER? humane conditions of work and
(a) To provide 100% urban and rural maternity relief.
electrification by 2024. 2. The Factories Act, 1948 provides for
(b) To subsidise installation of roof top two days compulsory menstrual leave
solar panels in rural and hilly areas. every month to the women employees.
(c) To mitigate gender disparity in science Which of the statements given above
and engineering research in various is/are correct?
S&T programmes. (a) 1 only
(d) To provide low-cost housing to the (b) 2 only
slum dwellers. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the POSHAN Abhiyaan?
18. Which of the following statements is/are
1. It aims at the attainment of correct about the Socio-Economic Caste
malnutrition-free India by 2030. Census (SECC)?
2. It aims at converging the existing 1. The Ministry of Home Affairs started
schemes related to nutrition. the SECC in 2011.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. It aims at making available authentic
given below: information regarding the socio-
(a) 1 only economic condition and education
(b) 2 only status of various castes and sections
(c) Both 1 and 2 of the population.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:

16. Which of the following statements is/are (a) 1 only

correct about the 15th Finance (b) 2 only
Commission recommendations? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It has recommended devolution of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
42% of the divisible pool of taxes.
2. It has not recommended any sector
specific grants.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 3
19. The Interstate Migrant Policy Index Which of the statements given above
(IMPEX) is released by which of the is/are correct?
following? (a) 1 only
(a) The Ministry of Home Affairs (b) 2 only
(b) UN Development Programme (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) The World Bank (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) India Migration Now
24. Which of the following countries /
20. The Global Prevention Coalition aims at grouping are not parts of the Quad
preventing which of the following grouping?
diseases? 1. India
(a) HIV AIDS 2. USA
(b) Communicable diseases 3. South Korea
(c) COVID 19 4. Japan
(d) Tuberculosis 5. Australia
6. ASEAN
21. Tigray, a place recently in the news, is 7. New Zealand
located in which of the following Select the correct answer using the code
countries? given below:
(a) Ethiopia (a) 1, 3, 4 and 7 only
(b) Sudan (b) 3, 6 and 7 only
(c) Somalia (c) 2, 3, 6 and 7 only
(d) Eritrea (d) 1, 5, 6 and 7 only

22. Which of the following countries are
located on the Red Sea?
1. Ethiopia
2. Jordan
3. Israel
4. Eritrea
5. Sudan
6. Oman
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
23. Consider the following statements about
the Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation
(APEC):
1. All members of the ASEAN are the
members of the APEC.
2. India is not a part of the APEC group.
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Maldives lies entirely in the northern
hemisphere.
2. The Nine Degree Channel separates
Maldives from the Lakshadweep
Islands.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. The Ratchet Clause, recently in the news,
is related to which of the following?
(a) Trade remedies.
(b) International Refugee Law.
(c) A principle used in the settlement of
boundary between two countries.
(d) A principle of the United Nations used
in self-determination of the countries.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 4
27. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above
the Regional Comprehensive Economic is/are correct?
Partnership (RCEP): (a) 1 only
1. All countries of the ASEAN are party (b) 2 only
to this agreement.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. The RCEP agreements cover issues
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
which are not covered in the WTO
agreement.
Which of the statements given above 31. Consider the following statements about
is/are correct? Compulsory Licensing:
(a) 1 only 1. Compulsory Licensing is when a
(b) 2 only government allows someone else to
produce a patented product or
(c) Both 1 and 2
process without the consent of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
patent owner.
2. It is one of the flexibilities in the field
28. Consider the following statements about
of patent protection included in the
the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
TRIPS (The Trade-Related Aspects of
(SCO):
Intellectual Property Rights)
1. All Central Asian countries are part of
Agreement.
this Organization.
Which of the statements given above
2. India and Pakistan became the
is/are correct?
members of the SCO in 2020.
(a) 1 only
3. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure,
a permanent body of the SCO, is (b) 2 only
located in Shanghai. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 32. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only regarding the Global Compact for Safe,
(c) 1 and 3 only Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM):
(d) None of the above. 1. It is a non-binding document.
2. The New York Declaration set in
29. LEMOA, COMCASA and BECA are the motion a process of the development
agreements signed between India and of the Global Compact for Safe,
which of the following countries? Orderly and Regular Migration.
(a) USA 3. It is the first inter-governmentally
(b) China negotiated agreement covering all
(c) Russia dimensions of international migration
(d) France in a holistic and comprehensive
manner.
30. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are
1. Bioluminescence is the light produced correct?
by a chemical reaction within a living (a) 1 and 2 only
organism. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Most bioluminescent organisms are (c) 1 and 2 only
found in the ocean. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 5
33. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above
regarding the Convention for the is/are correct?
Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living (a) 1 only
Resources:
(b) 2 only
1. It was prepared under the auspices of
(c) Both 1 and 2
the United Nations.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Convention came into force in
1982.
3. The aim of the Convention is to 36. Consider the following statements
conserve marine life. regarding the Melghat Tiger Reserve:

Which of the statements given above 1. It forms a catchment to the Tapi and
is/are correct? the Purna river systems.
(a) 3 only 2. The Reserve forms a corridor between
(b) 2 and 3 only the forest areas of Madhya Pradesh
and Maharashtra.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. It is the first Tiger Reserve to be
declared in the state of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above
34. Consider the following pairs:
is/are correct?
S.N. State / UT PVTGs
(a) 2 only
1. Kerala Dongria
(b) 2 and 3 only
Khond
(c) 1 and 2 only
2. Andhra Pradesh Koraga
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Madhya Pradesh Baigas
4. Gujarat Siddi
37. Consider the following statements about
Which of the pairs given above are the IndiGen programme:
correctly matched?
1. Sequencing a genome means
(a) 1 and 2 only deciphering the exact order of base
(b) 3 and 4 only pairs in an individual.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. A genome is the sequence of genes in
(d) 1 and 4 only a cell.
3. The initiative aims to complete
35. Consider the following statements sequencing of at least 10,000
regarding the National Centre for Polar genomes over the next 15 years.
and Ocean Research (NCPOR): 4. The project is jointly launched by the
1. It as an autonomous Research and CSIR and the UGC.
Development Institution of the
Which of the statements given above are
Ministry of Environment, Forest and
correct?
Climate Change.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. The Centre is designated as the nodal
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
organization for the co-ordination and
implementation of the Indian (c) 2 and 4 only
Antarctic Programme. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 6
38. Consider the following statements about 41. Consider the following statements about
the Consumer Expenditure Survey: the Organization of the Petroleum
1. The Survey is conducted by the Exporting Countries (OPEC):
government’s National Sample Survey
Office (NSSO). 1. The OPEC is a permanent
2. Across the country, it collects intergovernmental organization of the
information on the consumption developing nations.
spending patterns of urban 2. India is a member country.
households only.
3. It co-ordinates and unifies the
3. It includes both food and non-food
items in the basket. petroleum policies of its member
Which of the statements given above countries.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 3 only is/are correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
39. Consider the following statements about (d) 1, 2 and 3
the State Disaster Response Fund:
1. The State Disaster Response Fund 42. Consider the following statements about
(SDRF) is constituted under the
the Participatory Notes (P-Notes):
Disaster Management Act, 2005 (The
DM Act). 1. Participatory Notes are financial
2. The financing of the SDRF is based on instruments required by the investors
the recommendations of the State to invest in Indian securities without
Finance Commissions. having to register with the SEBI.
3. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the
2. P-Notes are derivative instruments of
nodal ministry for overseeing the
operation of the SDRF. underlying foreign assets.
Which of the statements given above 3. SBI is the biggest issuer of these
is/are correct? instruments.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
40. Consider the following statements about (c) 1 and 3 only
the Stockholm Declaration: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It was the First World Conference to
make the environment a major issue.
2. The Stockholm Conference resulted in 43. The Singapore model of Temasek
the creation of the United Nations Holdings is related to which of the
Environment Programme (UNEP). following?
Which of the statements given above (a) Management of climate change
is/are correct?
(b) Strategic disinvestment of the PSUs
(a) 1 only
(Public Sector Undertakings)
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Control of epidemics
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of the above.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 7
56. Consider the following pairs: 2. Mahavir gave his first sermon at
1. Purushapur Stupa Takshila Pavapuri.
Which of the statements given above
2. Piparhwa Stupa Nepal
is/are correct?
3. Dhamekh Stupa Sarnath
(a) 1 only
4. Dharmarajika Stupa Amaravati (b) 2 only
Which of the pairs given above are (c) Both 1 and 2
incorrectly matched?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
60. Which of the following rulers gave
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
patronage to Jainism?
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The Chalukyan rulers of Gujarat
2. Kharvela
57. Consider the following statements about
3. Amoghavarsha
the Simon Commission:
Select the correct answer using the code
1. There were no Indian members in the
Simon Commission. given below:
2. It aimed to do an appraisal of the (a) 1 and 2 only
working of the Indian Constitution (b) 2 and 3 only
established by the Government of (c) 1 and 3 only
India Act, 1909. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
61. Consider the following statements about
(a) 1 only Samkhya:
(b) 2 only
1. It believes that the creation of world
(c) Both 1 and 2 has been by the God.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Kapila is considered to be founder of
this school.
58. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above
the Third Round Table Conference: is/are correct?
1. Congress refused to attend this
(a) 1 only
Conference.
(b) 2 only
2. The ‘White Paper’, which formed the
basis of the Government of India Act (c) Both 1 and 2
of 1935, was an outcome of this (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Conference.
3. Rahmat Ali proposed the name of 62. Consider the following pairs:
Pakistan during this Conference.
1. Nyaya System of logic
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 2. Vaisheshika Atomic Theory
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Mimansa Did not believe in the
(b) 2 only Vedas
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the pairs given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
59. Consider the following statements about (b) 1 and 2 only
Jainism: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Rishabhadeva is considered to be the (d) 1, 2 and 3
first Tirthankara of Jainism.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 10
63. Consider the following statements: 2. The penalty for crossing the line
1. Nagara temples have tapering without pass.
Shikharas. 3. Confiscation of jungle product found
2. Dravida temples have octagonal and with the offender.
pyramidal Shikharas. 4. The power to authorize arrest for the
3. Vesara temples have star shaped offences against the Regulation.
Vimana. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are given below:
correct? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
67. Consider the following statements:
64. Consider the following statements: 1. The North-Eastern Areas
1. Teli ka Mandir, situated in Madhya (Reorganization) Act, 1971, led to the
Pradesh, is made in the Nagara style. formation of the Union Territories of
2. Mahabalipuram has a panel showing Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
Varaha Avtar surrounded by Surya, 2. The Constitution (Fifty-third
Brahma and Prithvi. Amendment) Act, 1986, granted
3. Lad Khan temple is located in Aihole. statehood to Mizoram.
Which of the statements given above are 3. The Constitution of India provides for
correct? special provision for the state of
Mizoram.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
65. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Right to Protest is a
constitutionally protected right,
irrespective of the means adopted for 68. Consider the following statements about
the protest. reservation in the public services:
2. An organization having political 1. Article 16(4) neither confers a right on
objectives in its Memorandum of anyone to claim, nor imposes a
Association or its bye-laws can receive constitutional duty on the government
foreign funds to carry out the to make any reservations for anyone
protests. in the public services.
Which of the statements given above 2. Article 16(4) is merely an enabling
is/are correct? provision conferring discretionary
powers on the state to reserve posts in
(a) 1 only
favour of the backward classes of
(b) 2 only citizens, which, in its opinion, are not
(c) Both 1 and 2 adequately represented in the state
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 services.
Which of the statements given above
66. The Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation is/are correct?
(BEFR), 1873, provides for which of the (a) 1 only
following? (b) 2 only
1. The power to prescribe and alter the (c) Both 1 and 2
inner line. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 11
69. Which of the following statements about (a) The Andaman Islands and the Nicobar
Vertical and Horizontal Reservations Islands
is/are correct? (b) The Nicobar Islands and Indonesia
1. Reservations in favour of the (c) Amindivi and Minicoy
Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled (d) The Andaman Islands and Myanmar
Tribes and the Other Backward
Classes are an example of Horizontal
72. The Six Degree Channel divides which of
Reservation.
the following?
2. Reservations in favour of the
(a) Little Nicobar and Car Nicobar
physically handicapped can be
referred to as Vertical Reservations. (b) Andaman and Little Andaman
3. The percentage of reservations for SC (c) Great Nicobar and Indonesia
/ST and OBC should remain the (d) The Nicobar Islands and Little Nicobar
same when provisions are made for
Horizontal Reservations. 73. The Sunda Strait is located between
Select the correct answer using the code which of the following?
given below: (a) Sumatra and Singapore
(a) 3 only (b) Sumatra and Java
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Java and Borneo
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Bali and Lombok
(d) None of the above.
74. Nagaland shares its borders with which of
70. Consider the following statements about the following?
the Delhi Special Police Establishment 1. Arunachal Pradesh
(DSPE) Act, 1946: 2. Bangladesh
1. The Central Bureau of Investigation 3. Myanmar
(CBI) and Lokpal derive their
Select the correct answer using the code
jurisdictional authority from the
given below:
DSPE.
(a) 1 only
2. The CBI need not take consent from
(b) 1 and 3 only
the state governments to investigate
any criminal incidents occurring in (c) 2 and 3 only
the respective state. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Central Government appoints the
Director of the CBI on the 75. Consider the following statements about
recommendation of a Selection the World Press Freedom Index Report
Committee chaired by the Prime 2020:
Minister of India. 1. India’s rank has consistently
Which of the statements given above improved in the last 3 years.
is/are correct? 2. The Report is compiled by Reporters
(a) 1 and 2 only Without Borders.
(b) 3 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(d) 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
71. The Preparis Channel is located between (c) Both 1 and 2
which of the following? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 12
76. Consider the following pairs: (c) fulfilling the mandate of Article 22 of
S.N. Index Publisher the Indian Constitution.
(d) the violation of privacy, reputation or
1. Good NITI Aayog
dignity of a citizen, which is an
Governance
integral part of Article 21 of the Indian
Index
Constitution.
2. Public Affairs Public Affairs
Index Centre
79. The government has recently given the
3. Rule of Law World Justice Organic Certification to the Kiwis of the
Index Project Ziro Valley. In which among the following
Which of the pairs given above are states are these Kiwis grown?
correctly matched? (a) Assam
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(a) 2 and 3 only
(c) Manipur
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Nagaland
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 80. What does the KAPILA campaign of the
government deal with?
77. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution (a) Reduction in Maternal Mortality Rate
bestows which of the following (MMR).
Fundamental Rights? (b) Enhancing nutritional awareness
among the pregnant and lactating
1. Freedom of conscience
mothers.
2. Freedom to profess, practice and
(c) Enhancing awareness about the
propagate religion Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs).
3. Forceful conversion without consent (d) Improving the learning outcomes in
Select the correct answer using the code primary education.
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only 81. With reference to Broadband penetration
in India, consider the following
(b) 2 only
statements:
(c) 1 and 2 only 1. According to the current definition of
(d) None of the above. TRAI, ‘Broadband’ must be able to
support minimum download speed of
1 mbps.
78. Producing the victims and the suspects
2. The National Digital Communications
before the media along with disclosure of
Policy, 2018, has set a target of
personal information of the suspects to
providing Universal Broadband
the media or display of their photographs Connectivity at 50 mbps to every
in the newspapers or any digital platform citizen.
can be said to be Which of the statements given above
(a) within the legal parameters of is/are correct?
criminal investigation. (a) 1 only
(b) essential for full disclosure of (b) 2 only
information to the public at large. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 13
82. Consider the following pairs of 1. Easier access to foreign capital
Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) and 2. Lower exchange rate volatility
their concerned Administrative Ministry:
3. Outflow of domestic savings
S.N. IPRs Administrative
4. Internationalization of the Rupee
Ministry
Select the correct answer using the code
1. Patents The Ministry of
given below:
Commerce and
Industry (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. Copyrights The Ministry of
Human (c) 2 and 4 only
Resource (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Development
3. Protection of The Ministry of 85. The "Bolar Exception", sometimes seen in
Plant Varieties Science and the news, is associated with which of the
and Farmers’ Technology
following?
Rights Act, 2001
(a) Exemption from patent protection
Which of the pairs given above is/are
under the TRIPS Agreement.
correctly matched?
(b) Exemption from the payment of taxes
(a) 1 only
for the benefit of the MNCs.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Exemption from the imposition of
(c) 2 and 3 only
customs duty on certain critical
(d) 1, 2, and 3
medical devices and drugs.
(d) None of the above.
83. With reference to the Viability Gap
Funding (VGF) scheme, consider the
following statements: 86. Consider the following statements related
1. The scheme aims at providing to the Anti-Profiteering Framework in
financial support to the PPP projects, India:
which are economically justified and 1. The companies can pass on the
financially viable. benefit of the reduction in the GST
2. The amount of financial support to either in form of reduction of prices or
the physical and social infrastructure by providing higher quantity of
projects is limited to 30% of the total
commodity at the same price.
project cost.
2. The National Anti-Profiteering
Which of the statements given above
Authority (NAA) can cancel the
is/are correct?
registration of the defaulting firms
(a) 1 only
under the GST.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2
is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
84. Which among the following are likely to
be associated with Full Rupee (c) Both 1 and 2
Convertibility on Capital Account (d) Neither 1 nor 2
transactions?

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 14
87. Which among the following financial 3. Chhath Puja is dedicated to the River
assets accounts/account for the highest Goddess.
share of household savings in India? Which of the statements given above
(a) Currency is/are incorrect?
(b) Deposits with the Commercial banks (a) 2 only
(c) Deposits with the Co-operative banks
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Mutual Funds
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Karmanasa River is a tributary of
the Son River. 91. Consider the following pairs:
2. The Shipra River is a tributary of the 1. Hunar The Ministry of Skill
Narmada River. Haat Development and
3. The Belan River is a tributary of the Entrepreneurship
Ganga River.
2. Garima The Ministry of Social
Which of the statements given above
Greh Justice and
is/are incorrect?
Empowerment
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Swadhar The Ministry of Women
Greh and Child Development
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above. Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
89. Consider the following statements about (a) 1 and 2 only
the Food Coalition: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It is an initiative of the Food and (c) 1 and 3 only
Agriculture Organization (FAO).
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is an intergovernmental
organization.
3. It is an organization which will 92. Consider the following statements about
mobilize the resources which will help the Thirty Meter Telescope:
the countries to attain all Sustainable 1. It is located in Hawaii.
Development Goals (SDGs). 2. India is participating in the
Which of the statements given above programme.
is/are correct?
3. It will be the largest ground-based
(a) 1 only observatory in the world.
(b) 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
(c) 1 and 2 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
90. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Lachit Diwas is celebrated in Odisha.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Kevadia is a place located on the Tapi
River.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 15
93. Consider the following statements about 96. The Laxmi Vilas Bank (LVB) was recently
the Food Systems 2030: placed under Moratorium. In this context,
1. It is a fund established by the FAO for consider the following statements:
the transformation of food system. 1. When a bank is placed under
2. It will provide funds to pilot innovative Moratorium, restrictions are laid down
stage approaches. with respect to the acceptance and
withdrawal of the deposits for a
Which of the statements given above
temporary period of time.
is/are correct?
2. The notification to place a bank under
(a) 1 only Moratorium is issued by the Reserve
(b) 2 only Bank of India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
94. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri (b) 2 only
Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (c) Both 1 and 2
(PMBJP), consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. It seeks to provide quality generic 97. With reference to the Government's FDI
medicines at affordable prices through policy, consider the following statements:
special centres. 1. Presently, the FDI is completely
2. The scheme is implemented by the prohibited in the Digital Media for
Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India. uploading/streaming of news and
Which of the statements given above current affairs.
is/are correct? 2. The government allows 100% FDI in
(a) 1 only the Print Media.

(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
95. With reference to the Time Use Survey,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
which was recently in the news, consider
the following statements:
98. Which among the following arguments
1. The Time Use Survey (TUS) measures
can be put forward in the favour of
the participation of men and women
issuing banking licenses to the large
in paid and unpaid activities.
industrial/corporate houses?
2. The Survey is conducted by the 1. The Indian economy would be less
National Statistical Office (NSO), prone to external shocks.
under the Ministry of Statistics and
2. Promotes inter-connected lending.
Programme Implementation.
3. Improves credit-GDP ratio.
Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 16
99. The Tarapore Committee, sometimes seen
in the news, deals with which of the
following?
(a) Boosting merchandise exports from
India
(b) Issuance of banking licenses to large
industrial/corporate houses.
(c) Capital Account convertibility
(d) Deepening the Corporate Bond market
100. Consider the following statements related
to the Universal Service Obligation Fund
(USOF):
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
1. The financial resources for this Fund
are raised through Universal Service
Levy (USL) of 5% of the Adjusted
Gross Revenue (AGR) of the Telecom
Service Providers.
2. This Fund was established with the
object of improving telecom services in
the remote and rural areas of India.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17
Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST CODE: TS21E1027

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER – I)

CA: December 2020

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: December 2020
GS Paper-I: (TS21E1027)
1. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Biological and Toxin Weapons
Convention (BTWC) of 1972 prohibits the
signatory nations to develop, produce,
stockpile or otherwise, acquire or
retain biological weapons.
India ratified and pledged to abide by
its obligations in 2015.
2. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The naming of the tropical cyclones is
a recent phenomenon. The process of
naming the cyclones involves several
countries in the region and is done
under the aegis of the World
Meteorological Organization (WMO).
For the Indian Ocean region, a formula
for naming the cyclones was agreed upon
in 2004. Eight countries in the region,
viz., Bangladesh, India, the Maldives,
Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
and Thailand, all contributed a set of
names, which are assigned sequentially
whenever a cyclonic storm develops.
3. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has
the power to hear all civil cases relating to
the environmental issues and questions
that are linked to the implementation of
the laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT
Act. These include the following:
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974
2. The Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
3. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
4. The Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981
5. The Environment (Protection) Act,
1986
6. The Public Liability Insurance Act,
1991
7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
This means that any violations pertaining
only to these laws, or any order/decision
taken by the government under these
laws can be challenged before the NGT.
4. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was
established in 2010 under the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010, passed by the
Central Government.
The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired
judge of the Supreme Court.
The Tribunal is to have at least 10
judicial and 10 technical members.
5. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The principles of justice adopted by
the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
 The NGT is not bound by the
procedure laid down under the Code
of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be
guided by the principles of natural
justice.
 Further, the NGT is also not bound
by the rules of evidence, as
enshrined in the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872. Thus, it will be relatively
easier (as opposed to approaching a
court) for the conservation groups to
present facts and issues before the
NGT, including pointing out technical
flaws in a project, or proposing
1
 alternatives that could minimize the the field through projects and other
environmental damage, but which activities.
have not been considered. Collects, analyzes and disseminates data
 While passing orders / decisions / on the production and trade of tropical
awards, the NGT will apply the timber.
principles of sustainable development, Promotes sustainable tropical timber
the precautionary principle; the supply chains.
polluter pays principles and the Helps develop capacity in tropical
principles of natural justice. forestry.
ITTO’s membership represents about 90%
6. Answer: (d) of the global tropical timber trade and
Explanation: more than 80% of the world’s tropical
Conditions for the formation of the forests.
tropical cyclones: It has representation from both timber
 Sufficient warm temperature at sea producing and consuming countries.
surface. The International Tropical Timber
 Atmospheric instability. Organization (ITTO) was established
under the International Tropical Timber
 Impact of the Coriolis force, so that
Agreement, 1983 (ITTA, 1983), for the
low pressure can be developed.
purpose of administering the provisions
 High humidity in the lower to middle
and supervising the operation of the ITTA.
levels of the troposphere.
The ITTA, 1983, was succeeded by the
 A pre-existing low-level focus or ITTA, 1994, which in turn was succeeded
disturbance. by the ITTA, 2006.
 Low vertical wind shear. It has 74 members. India is also a
member.
7. Answer: (b)
Explanation: 8. Answer: (a)
International Tropical Timber Explanation:
Organisation – The International Tropical It is an intelligence sharing alliance
Timber Organization (ITTO) is an between US, UK, Australia, New Zealand
intergovernmental organization promoting and Canada. These countries are party to
the sustainable management and multilateral UK USA agreement, a treaty
conservation of tropical forests and the for joint cooperation in signals
expansion and diversification of intelligence. Japan is planning to join this
international trade in tropical timber from alliance.
sustainably managed and legally
harvested forests. ITTO:
9. Answer: (c)
Develops internationally agreed policy
Explanation:
guidelines and norms to encourage
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle –
sustainable forest management (SFM)
and sustainable tropical timber industries  India’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
and trade. (PSLV) is the third generation launch
vehicle.
Assists tropical member countries to
adapt such guidelines and norms to local  It is a four-staged launch vehicle, with
circumstances and to implement them in first and third stages using solid

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 2
 rocket motors, and second and fourth
stages using liquid rocket engines.
 PSLV is the first launch vehicle which
is equipped with liquid stages.
 PSLV’s first successful launch was in
October, 1994. PSLV was used for two
of the most important missions. These
are Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars
Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013.
 PSLV has helped take payloads into
almost all the orbits in the space,
including Geo-stationary Transfer
Orbit (GTO), the Moon, Mars and
would soon be launching a mission to
the Sun.
 Between 1994 and 2019, PSLV has
launched 50 Indian satellites and 222
foreign satellites for over 70
international customers from 20
countries.
10. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Deepfakes –
 These are fake videos or audio
recordings that look and sound just
like the real thing.
 While the act of faking content is not
new, Deepfakes leverage powerful
techniques from machine learning and
artificial intelligence to manipulate or
generate visual and audio content
with a high potential to deceive.
 The main machine learning methods
used to create Deepfakes are based on
deep learning and involve training
generative neural network
architectures, such as auto-encoders
or Generative Adversarial Networks
(GANs).
 Access to commodity cloud
computing, algorithms and abundant
data has created a perfect storm to
democratise media creation and
manipulation. Deepfakes are a new
tool to spread computational
propaganda and disinformation at
scale and with speed.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
11. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
mRNA Vaccine –
 RNA vaccines use a different approach
that takes advantage of the process
that cells use to make proteins: Cells
use DNA as the template to make
messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules,
which are then translated to build
proteins.
 An RNA vaccine consists of an mRNA
strand that codes for a disease-
specific antigen. Once the mRNA
strand in the vaccine is inside the
body’s cells, the cells use the genetic
information to produce the antigen.
This antigen is then displayed on the
cell surface, where it is recognised by
the immune system.
 Unlike a normal vaccine, RNA
vaccines work by introducing an
mRNA sequence (the molecule which
tells the cells what to build), which is
coded for a disease specific antigen,
once produced within the body, the
antigen is recognised by the immune
system, preparing it to fight the real
thing.
 RNA vaccines can be delivered using a
number of methods: via needle-
syringe injections or needle-free into
the skin; via injection into the blood,
muscle, lymph node or directly into
the organs; or via a nasal spray. The
optimal route for vaccine delivery is
not yet known. The exact
manufacturing and delivery process of
RNA vaccines can vary depending on
the type.
How are they beneficial?
 RNA vaccines are faster and cheaper
to produce than the traditional
vaccines and an RNA based vaccine is
also safer for the patient, as it is not
produced using infectious elements.
 A major advantage of RNA vaccines is
that RNA can be produced in the
3
 laboratory from a DNA template, using
readily available materials, less
expensively and faster than the
conventional vaccine production,
which can require the use of chicken
eggs or other mammalian cells.
Challenges:
 There are still no commercially
available mRNA based vaccines.
 They also reportedly need to be
refrigerated at nearly minus 70°C
temperature, and India, with its
limited cold chain infrastructure,
lacks efficient vaccine storage
capacity.
12. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
What is the D614G mutation?
 When the virus enters an individual’s
body, it aims at creating copies of
itself. When it makes an error in this
copying process, we get a mutation.
 In this case, the virus replaced the
aspartic acid (D) in the 614th position
of the amino acid with glycine (G).
Hence the mutation is called D614G.
 This mutated form of virus was first
13. Answer: (b)
identified in China and then in
Europe.
 Later it spread to other countries, like
the U.S. and Canada, and was
eventually reported in India.
How is this mutation different?
 The D614G mutation is situated in
the spike protein of the virus.
14. Answer: (c)
 You can think of the spike protein as
a massive ‘trimer’ assembly with three
protein chains. Each protein chain
has two sub-units (S1 and S2).
 The S1 sub-unit is the one that
attaches to the host cells — Human
ACE2 receptor.
 The S2 sub-unit mediates the fusion
of the viral and the human
membranes.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
 The D614G mutation is present in the
S1 sub-unit of the protein and is also
close to the S2 sub-unit.
 Therefore, it has an impact on the
human cell’s interactions with both S1
and S2.
 In simple words, this particular
mutation aids the virus in attaching
more efficiently with the ACE2
receptor in the human host, thereby
making it more successful in entering
a human body than its predecessors.
What are the effects of the mutation?
 Displayed greater ability at attaching
itself to the cell walls inside an
individual’s nose and throat,
increasing the viral load.
 The patients seem to be exhibiting
variable reactions to it, depending
upon their genetic constitution, age,
exposure to other diseases etc. The
researchers are still pondering over
the effects of this mutation.
 It is yet to be proven if the
mutation will make the disease
more severe and increase the
mortality rate.
Explanation:
This a Persian term which refers to the
forested areas of the Rajmahal foothills.
In the 19th century the Santhals were
given land and persuaded to settle in this
area by the English East India Company.
Explanation:
SERB – POWER –
A programme for Promoting Opportunities
for Women in Exploratory Research
(POWER) was launched to help bridge gap
of gender disparity in the field of science
and technology (S&T). This will include a
fellowship called SERB – POWER
Fellowship and a SERB – POWER
Research Grants for the women scientists.
4
 This is a scheme that would help and
encourage the women scientists to work
in the field of science and technology,
along with several other programmes of
the Department of Science and
Technology (DST), like Vigyan Jyoti and
Consolidation of University Research for
Innovation and Excellence in Women
(CURIE).
The Science and Engineering Research
Board (SERB), a statutory body of the
DST, Government of India, has been
contemplating to institute a scheme to
mitigate gender disparity in science and
engineering research in various S&T
programmes in the Indian academic
institutions and R&D laboratories.
SERB – POWER Fellowship –
 Target: Women researchers in 35-55
years of age-group. Upto 25
Fellowships per year and not more
than 75 at any point in time.
 Components of support: Fellowship
of Rs. 15,000/- per month in addition
to regular income; Research grant of
Rs. 10 lakh per annum; and Overhead
of Rs. 90,000/- per annum.
 Duration: Three years, without the
possibility of extension. Once in a
career.
 POWER Grants will empower the
women researchers by funding them
under the following two categories:
o Level I (Applicants from IITs, IISERs,
IISc, NITs, Central Universities and
National Labs of Central Government
Institutions): The scale of funding up
to Rs. 60 lakh for three years.
o Level II (Applicants from State
Universities / Colleges and Private
Academic): The scale of funding up to
Rs. 30 lakh for three years.
 POWER Grant will be regulated
through the terms of reference
conforming to the SERB-CRG (Core
Research Grant) guidelines.
 While a Search-cum-Selection
Committee, constituted for the
purpose, will help in identifying the
POWER Fellowship, the exiting
Programme Advisory Committee (PAC)
mechanism will be used to select the
POWER Research Grants.
 It is proposed to institute 25 POWER
Fellowships annually. A total of 50
POWER Grants each will be
sanctioned in Level I and Level II per
annum.
15. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 POSHAN (The Prime Minister's
Overarching Scheme for Holistic
Nutrition) Abhiyaan is a multi-
ministerial convergence mission
with the vision to ensure the
attainment of malnutrition free
India by 2022.
 The objective of the POSHAN
Abhiyaan is to reduce stunting in the
identified districts of India with the
highest malnutrition burden by
improving the utilization of key
Anganwadi services and improving the
quality of Anganwadi services delivery.
 Its aim is to ensure holistic
development and adequate nutrition
for pregnant women, mothers and
children.
 The Ministry of Women and Child
Development is implementing the
POSHAN Abhiyaan in 315 districts in
the first year, 235 districts in the
second year and the remaining
districts will be covered in the third
year.
 There are a number of schemes
directly/indirectly affecting the
nutritional status of children (0-6-year
age), and pregnant women and
lactating mothers.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 5
  In spite of these, the level of
malnutrition and related problems in
the country are high.
 There is no dearth of schemes, but
lack of creating synergy and linking
the schemes with each other to
achieve the common goal. POSHAN
Abhiyaan, through robust
convergence mechanism and other
components, would strive to create the
synergy.
16. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Finance Commission uses certain
criteria while deciding devolution to the
states.
The 15th Finance Commission used the
following criteria while determining the
share of the states: (i) 45% for the income
distance; (ii) 15% for the population in
2011; (iii) 15% for the area; (iv) 10% for
forest and ecology; (v) 12.5% for
demographic performance; and (vi) 2.5%
for tax effort.
For 2020-21, the Commission has
recommended a total devolution of Rs.
8,55,176 crore to the states, which is
41% of the divisible pool of taxes. This is
1% lower than the percentage
recommended by the 14th Finance
Commission.
Sectors for which sector-specific grants
have been provided for: (i) nutrition; (ii)
health; (iii) pre-primary education; (iv)
judiciary; and (v) railways.
17. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 15(3) empowers the state to make
special provisions for women and
children, which is an exception to the
general rule laid down in Article 15(1).
This protective discrimination is a
necessity to maintain social equality,
where there has been a history of
discrimination against women.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
Article 42 of the Constitution envisages
that the state shall make provision for
securing just and humane conditions of
work and maternity relief.
Although the government has provided
protective measures, especially to the
women workers under various labour
laws, like the Factories Act, 1948, the
Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 etc.,
wherein the aspects of health, leave
and working hours are provided, the
idea of menstrual leave finds no
mention.
18. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Rural Development
commenced the Socio-Economic and
Caste Census (SECC) 2011, in June
2011, through a comprehensive door
to door enumeration across the
country.
However, because of the lack of reliability
of the data collected, or its political and
electoral sensitivity, the caste portion of
the SECC has not been disclosed so far.
Objectives –
To enable the households to be ranked
based on their socio- economic status.
• Identify below poverty line persons for
government benefit schemes in urban
and rural areas.
• To make available authentic
information to enable caste-wise
population enumeration of the
country.
• To make available authentic
information regarding the socio-
economic condition and education
status of various castes and sections
of the population.
19. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The Interstate Migrant Policy Index
(IMPEX) is released by India Migration
Now (IMN).
6
  IMPEX ranks and compares all the The Eastern Shore –
states based on their migrant Saudi Arabia
integration policies. It examines policy Yemen
areas, such as child rights, education,
The Western Shore –
health and sanitation, housing,
Egypt
political inclusion, etc.
Sudan
 More than 1/3rd of India’s population
is internal migrants, while 75% of the Eritrea
youth are migrants (The Centre for Djibouti
Policy Research,2018). The Gulf of Suez is entirely bordered by
 IMN is a Mumbai-based research non- Egypt. The Gulf of Aqaba borders Egypt,
profit organization. Israel, Jordan and Saudi Arabia.

20. Answer: (a) 23. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Explanation:
The Global Prevention Coalition, formed The Asia-Pacific Economic Co-
in 2017, is a coalition of the United operation (APEC) –
Nations’ member states, donors, civil
APEC's 21 member economies are:
society organizations and implementers to
Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada;
support global efforts to accelerate HIV
Chile; the People's Republic of China;
prevention.
Hong Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; the
It seeks to ensure accountability for
Republic of Korea; Malaysia; Mexico; New
delivering prevention services at scale in
Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru; the
order to achieve the targets of the 2016
Philippines; the Russian Federation;
Political Declaration on Ending AIDS,
Singapore; Chinese Taipei; Thailand; the
including a 75% reduction in HIV
United States of America; and Vietnam.
infections by 2020 and to ending the
AIDS epidemic by 2030. Some members of the ASEAN (The
Association of Southeast Asian Nations),
such as Myanmar, Laos and Cambodia
21. Answer: (a)
are not the members of the APEC.
Explanation:
India is not a member of the APEC.
Tigray is a province located in the
northern territory of Ethiopia. It has been
in the news due to a simmering civil war 24. Answer: (b)
in the territory between the Tigray rebels Explanation:
and the Ethiopian government. The Quad Grouping – The grouping of
four democracies – India, Australia, US
22. Answer: (b) and Japan – is known as the
Explanation: Quadrilateral Security Dialogue or the
The Red Sea may be geographically Quad. It is an informal grouping formed
divided into three sections: the Red Sea by these democratic countries. This
proper, and in the north, the Gulf of grouping in widely viewed as a response
Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. The six to check increased Chinese assertiveness
countries bordering the Red Sea proper in the international sphere.
are:

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 7
25. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Maldives is a country located in the
Indian Ocean, south of the Lakshadweep
Islands of India. The Eight Degree
Channel separates Maldives from the
Lakshadweep Islands.
Maldives lies on the Equator. The
southern-most island of the Lakshadweep
crosses the Equator and is placed in the
southern hemisphere. (The Addu Islands).
26. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Ratchet Clause: Ratchet means a
screw which turns only in one direction,
up or down and not both ways. This
concept is proposed to be applied in the
RCEP (The Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership), which
disallow the member country to increase
the import duties, once reduced. The
Indian Government wanted the RCEP
member countries to adopt safeguard
mechanism which should enable the
countries to increase the tariffs on certain
products when there is a surge in
imports.
27. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership (RCEP) – It is a
free trade agreement (FTA) between the
10 member states of the ASEAN and the 5
Asia-Pacific states with which the ASEAN
has existing FTAs. (Australia, China,
Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).
The RCEP covers trade in goods, services,
investment, economic and technical
cooperation, intellectual property,
competition, dispute settlement and other
issues.
28. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO) –
• The SCO is an 8-member Eurasian
economic and security bloc, led by
China. It was founded in 2001 with
China, Russia, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan
as its founding members.
Turkmenistan is not a member of
the SCO.
• India and Pakistan became its full-
time members in 2017, in the
backdrop of the Astana Summit of the
SCO in Kazakhstan. (Russia had been
pushing for India’s leadership since
2009).
• Two permanent bodies of the SCO
include: Secretariat in Beijing; and
the Executive Committee of RATS
(The Regional Anti-Terrorist
Structure) in Tashkent.
will • The SCO has 4 observers and 6
dialogue partners. Four observer
states include Afghanistan, Belarus,
Iran and Mongolia. Six dialogue
partners include Azerbaijan, Armenia,
Cambodia, Nepal, Turkey and Sri
Lanka.
29. Answers: (a)
Explanation:
India and the United States signed the
Basic Exchange and Cooperation
Agreement (BECA), the last of four so-
called Foundational Agreements for
sharing sensitive information, sales of
advanced military hardware and
geospatial cooperation, during the 2+2
Ministerial Dialogue.
• With this, India has signed all the four
Foundational Defence Agreements: the
Logistics Exchange Memorandum of
Agreement (LEMOA); the
Communications Compatibility and
Security Agreement (COMCASA); the
General Security of Military
Information Agreement (GSOMIA); and
the Basic Exchange and Cooperation
Agreement (BECA).

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 8
 • An extension to the GSOMIA, the
Industrial Security Annex (ISA), was
signed at the last 2+2 Dialogue.
30. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Bioluminescence is the light produced by
a chemical reaction within a living
organism. Bioluminescence is a type
of chemiluminescence, which is simply
the term for a chemical reaction where
light is produced. (Bioluminescence is
chemiluminescence that takes place
inside a living organism).
Bioluminescence is a "cold light”. Cold
light means less than 20% of the light
generates thermal radiation, or heat.
Most bioluminescent organisms are found
in the ocean. These
sbioluminescent marine species include
fish, bacteria and jellies. Some
bioluminescent organisms, including
fireflies and fungi, are found on the land.
There are almost no bioluminescent
organisms native to the
freshwater habitats.
The chemical reaction that results in
bioluminescence requires two unique
chemicals: Luciferin and either luciferase
or photoprotein. Luciferin is the
compound that actually produces light. In
a chemical reaction, luciferin is called
the substrate. The bioluminescent colour
(yellow in fireflies, greenish in lanternfish)
is a result of the arrangement of luciferin
molecules. Some bioluminescent
organisms produce (synthesize) luciferin
on their own.
31. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Compulsory Licensing is when a
government allows someone else to
produce a patented product or process
without the consent of the patent
owner or plans to use the patent-
protected invention itself. It is one of
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
the flexibilities in the field of patent
protection included in the WTO (World
Trade Organization)’s agreement on
intellectual property — the TRIPS (The
Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights) Agreement.
 They always existed in the TRIPS
Agreement, ever since it took effect in
January, 1995.
 For Compulsory Licensing, it is when
the generic copy is produced mainly
for the domestic market, not for
export.
32. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly
and Regular Migration (GCM) – The New
York Declaration set in motion a process
of intergovernmental consultations and
negotiations towards the development of
the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and
Regular Migration. This process
concluded in 2018 with the adoption of
the Global Compact by the majority of
the UN member states at an Inter-
governmental Conference in Marrakesh,
Morocco.
The Global Compact is the first inter-
governmentally negotiated agreement,
prepared under the auspices of the
United Nations, covering all dimensions of
international migration in a holistic and
comprehensive manner. It is a non-
binding document that respects states’
sovereign right to determine who enters
and stays in their territory and
demonstrates commitment to
international co-operation on migration. It
presents a significant opportunity to
improve the governance of migration, to
address the challenges associated with
today’s migration and to strengthen the
contribution of the migrants and
migration to sustainable development.
The Global Compact is framed in a way
consistent with target 10.7 of the 2030
Agenda for Sustainable Development in
9
 which the member states committed to The Commission for the Conservation of
co-operate internationally to facilitate Antarctic Marine Living Resources
safe, orderly and regular migration. The (CCAMLR) and its Scientific Committee
Global Compact is designed to – were a pioneer in the development of what
 support international co-operation on has become known as the ‘ecosystem
the governance of international approach’ to the regulation of fisheries.
migration; An ecosystem approach does not
 provide a comprehensive menu of concentrate solely on the species fished,
options for the states from which they but also seeks to avoid situations in
which the fisheries have a significant
can select policy options to address
some of the most pressing issues adverse effect on ‘dependent and related
around international migration; and species’. The CCAMLR has to develop
management approaches that assess the
 give states the space and flexibility to
status of the ecosystem and its health. In
pursue implementation based on their
the application of this ecosystem
own migration realities and capacities.
approach, the CCAMLR has tackled with
the difficulty of describing the full
33. Answer: (b) complexity of the marine ecosystems.
Explanation: Note: Twelve countries, represented by
The Convention for the Conservation the governments of Argentina, Australia,
of Antarctic Marine Living Resources Belgium, Chile, the French Republic,
came into force in 1982, as a part of Japan, New Zealand, Norway, the Union
the Antarctic Treaty System. It was of South Africa, the Union of Soviet
established mainly in response to the Socialist Republics, the United Kingdom
concerns that an increase in krill catches of Great Britain and Northern Ireland,
in the Southern Ocean could have a and the United States of America, signed
serious effect on the population of krill the Antarctic Treaty in 1959 in
and other marine life; particularly on Washington.
birds, seals and fish, which mainly
depend on krill for food. 34. Answer: (b)
The aim of the Convention is to conserve Explanation:
marine life. This does not exclude
harvesting as long as such harvesting is State / UT PVTGs
carried out in a rational manner. The Bodo Gadaba; Bondo
Convention defines a Commission and a Poroja; Chenchu; Dongria
Scientific Committee to work together to Andhra Khond; Gutob Gadaba;
manage the marine living resources in the Pradesh and Khond Poroja; Kolam;
Southern Ocean. Telangana Kondareddis; Konda
The Southern Ocean surrounds the Savaras; Kutia Khond;
continent of Antarctica and is clearly Parengi Poroja; Thoti.
delimited by the Antarctic Convergence, Asurs; Birhor; Birjia; Hill
which is formed where the cold Antarctic Bihar and Kharia; Konvas; Mal
waters meet the warmer waters to the Jharkhand Paharia; Parhaiyas;
north. The Antarctic Convergence acts as Sauda Paharia; Savar.
an effective biological barrier and the
Jharkhand Same as above.
Southern Ocean is, therefore,
substantially a closed ecosystem. Kathodi; Kohvalia;
Gujarat
Padhar; Siddi; Kolgha.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 10
 Karnataka Jenu Kuruba; Koraga. Development), Government of India, in
1998.
Cholanaikayan (a section
of Kattunaickans); Kadar; With a mission mandate that is quite
Kerala challenging, the Centre is designated as
Kattunayakan;
Kurumbas: Koraga. the nodal organization for the co-
ordination and implementation of the
Abujh Macias; Baigas; Indian Antarctic Programme, including
Madhya Bharias; Hill Korbas; the maintenance of India’s permanent
Pradesh Kamars; Saharias; station in Antarctica.
Birhor.
The NCPOR is located in India’s most
Chhattisgarh Same as above. seafaring state of Goa.
At the NCPOR, the scientific mandate is
Katkaria (Kathodia); multidisciplinary. Operating in a complex
Maharashtra
Kolam; Maria Gond. matrix, which has as its focal theme,
Manipur Marram Nagas. research in those areas of the polar
Birhor; Bondo; Didayi; science currently not being undertaken
Dongria Khond; Juangs; by any other institution in India.
Kharias; Kutia Kondh; Note: Year-round maintenance of the two
Odisha Lanjia Sauras; Lodhas; Indian stations (Maitri and Bharati) in
Mankidias; Paudi Antarctica is the primary responsibility of
Bhuyans; Soura; Chuktia the Centre. Maitri (1989) and Bharati
Bhunjia. (2011) were established for carrying out
research by the Indian scientists in all
Rajasthan Seharias.
disciplines of the polar research.
Kattu Nayakans; Kotas;
Tamil Nadu Kurumbas; Irulas;
36. Answer: (d)
Paniyans; Todas.
Explanation:
Tripura Reangs. The Melghat Tiger Reserve is a typical
Uttar representative of the Central Indian
Pradesh and Buxas; Rajis. Highland forming a part of the
Uttarakhand Biogeographic Zone ‘6 E-Deccan
Peninsula’– Central Highlands. This area
West Bengal Birhor; Lodhas; Totos.
constitutes forests which are part of the
The world’s fifth biologically richest heritage
Great Andamanese;
Andaman country. The Reserve forms an important
Jarawas; Onges;
and Nicobar corridor between the forest areas of
Sentinelese; Shorn Pens.
Islands Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra,
ensuring contiguity of forests in the
35. Answer: (b) Satpuras. It beholds one of the viable
populations of tigers.
Explanation:
The Melghat, nestling in the Satpura hill
The National Centre for Polar and
ranges of Central India’s vast tracts of
Ocean Research (NCPOR) was
inviolate natural forests, consisting of
established as an autonomous
unique and representative ecosystems
Research and Development Institution
with rich biodiversity and varied habitats
of the Ministry of Earth Sciences
offered by deep valleys (locally known
(formerly the Department of Ocean
as the Khoras) and high hills (locally
known as the Ballas), daunted with rivers

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 11
 and nallahs having water all the year Sequencing a genome means deciphering
round in the ‘Doh’, was the natural choice the exact order of base pairs in an
for the community of the foresters in individual. This “deciphering” or reading
Maharashtra, when it came to choose an of the genome is what sequencing is all
area for preserving it for posterity and for about.
ensuring that the ‘Tiger’, the most
magnificent and flagship of the Indian 38. Answer: (b)
wild species, could sustain a viable
Explanation:
population and survive for the eternity.
The Consumer Expenditure Survey (CES)
The fascinating landscape, its enchanting
is traditionally a quinquennial (recurring
beauty and richness leave everlasting
every five years) survey conducted by the
imprints on the people visiting the area.
government’s National Sample Survey
The Melghat Tiger Reserve is one of the
Office (NSSO), that is designed to
earliest 9 Tiger Reserves established by
collect information on the
the Government of India and is the first
consumption spending patterns of
Tiger Reserve to be declared in the state
households across the country, both
of Maharashtra. It came into being in
urban and rural.
1974.
The data gathered in this exercise reveals
The Reserve forms a very important
the average expenditure on goods (food
catchment to the Tapi and the Purna river
and non-food) and services, and helps
systems, with important tributaries, like
generate estimates of household Monthly
the Dolar, the Khandu, the Sipna, the
Per Capita Consumer Expenditure
Gadga, the Khapra and the Wan rivers.
(MPCE), as well as the distribution of
The Chandrabhaga river, which originates
households and persons over the MPCE
from Chikhaldara, has its watershed in
classes.
the Reserve. The basic life support
systems that the area beholds in terms of
conserving soil, water and clean air, it
serves as life-line for the people of
Amravati and Akola districts.

37. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
The Council of Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR) has launched an
ambitious project, IndiGen, to sequence
whole genomes of diverse ethnic Indian
population to develop public health
technology applications.
As part of the project, the CSIR
announced sequencing of 1,008 genomes.
The initiative aims to complete
sequencing of at least 10,000 genomes
over the next 3 years.
A genome is the DNA, or sequence of
genes, in a cell. Most of the DNA is in the
nucleus and intricately coiled into a
structure called the chromosome.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
39. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The State Disaster Response Fund
(SDRF) is the primary fund available
with the states for disaster response
and is constituted under Section 48 of
the Disaster Management Act, 2005
(The DM Act).
 The SDRF is used for meeting the
expenditures for providing immediate
12
 relief to the victims of cyclone,
drought, earthquake, fire, flood,
tsunami, hailstorm, landslide,
avalanche, cloud burst, pest attack,
and frost and cold wave.
 Besides, for providing immediate relief
to the victims of the state-specific
disaster within the local context,
which are not included in the list of
the above notified natural calamities,
the Ministry of Home Affairs has
authorized the state governments to
incur an expenditure of 10% of the
funds available under SDRF, subject
to the procedures laid down therein.
This flexibility is applicable only after
the state has listed the natural
disasters for inclusion and has
notified clear and transparent
guidelines for relief, in case such
disasters occur.
 Any amount spent by the state for
such disasters over and above the
specified ceiling would have to be
borne out of its own resources and it
would be subject to the same
accounting norms.
 If the amount available under the
SDRF is not sufficient, the states can
request for making available
assistance from a similar fund
managed by the Central Government -
the National Disaster Response Fund
(NDRF).
 While the DM Act clearly provides two
sources of financing the NDRF, no
source has been laid down for the
SDRF. It is implied that the corpus of
the SDRF will be the grant
recommended by the Finance
Commission (FC) under Article 275 (1)
of the Constitution.
 Thus, the financing of the SDRF is
based on the recommendations of
the Finance Commission, which
determine the annual size of the
funds, as well as the respective
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
contributions of the Union and
State Governments.
 The Ministry of Home Affairs is the
nodal ministry for overseeing the
operation of the SDRF and monitors
compliance with the prescribed
processes.
40. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The 1972 United Nations Conference
on the Environment in Stockholm was
the First World Conference to make
the environment a major issue. The
participants adopted a series of
principles for sound management of
the environment, including the
Stockholm Declaration and Action
Plan for the Human Environment and
several resolutions.
 The Stockholm Declaration, which
contained 26 principles, placed the
environmental issues at the forefront
of the international concerns and
marked the start of a dialogue
between the industrialized and the
developing countries on the link
between economic growth, the
pollution of the air, water, and oceans
and the well-being of the people
around the world.
 The Action Plan contained three main
categories :
(a) Global Environmental Assessment
Programme (The Watch Plan);
(b) Environmental management activities;
(c) International measures to support
assessment and management
activities carried out at the national
and international levels.
 In addition, these categories were
broken down into 109
recommendations.
 One of the major results of the
Stockholm Conference was the
creation of the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP).
13
41. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Organization of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a
permanent intergovernmental
organization of 13 oil-exporting
developing nations that co-ordinates
and unifies the petroleum policies of
its member countries.
 India is not a member country.
42. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Participatory Notes also referred to as
P-Notes, or PNs, are financial
instruments required by the investors
or the hedge funds to invest in Indian
securities without having to register
with the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI). P-Notes are
among the group of investments
considered to be Offshore Derivative
Investments (ODIs).
 Citigroup (C) and Deutsche Bank
44. Answer: (d)
(DB) are among the biggest issuers
of these instruments.
 Participatory Notes are derivative
instruments of underlying Indian
assets.
 Participatory Notes are popular
investments due to the investor
remaining anonymous.
43. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 Aggressive disinvestment, preferably
strategic stake sale, should be done to
improve higher profitability, promote
efficiency, increase competitiveness
and promote professionalism in the
management in the Central Public
Sector Undertakings (CPSEs).
 The Economic Survey said the
government can learn from the
experience of Singapore's Temasek
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
Holdings Company on the structure to
be followed.
 “The government can transfer its
stake in the listed CPSEs to a
separate corporate entity. This entity
would be managed by an independent
board and would be mandated to
divest the government stake in these
CPSEs over a period of time,” the
Survey said.
 Temasek Holdings was incorporated
by the Government of Singapore in
June 1974, as a private commercial
entity, to hold and manage its
investments in its government-linked
companies (GLCs). It is wholly owned
by the Ministry for Finance and
operates under the provisions of the
Singapore Companies Act. Temasek’s
board comprises 13 members – mostly
non-executive and independent
business leaders from the private
sector.
Explanation:
Reverse Charge Mechanism is the process
of the payment of the GST by the receiver,
instead of the supplier. In this case, the
liability of tax payment is transferred to
the recipient/receiver, instead of the
supplier.
The government has finally imposed the
Reverse Charge Mechanism starting from
1st February, 2019, as per the GST Acts
and amendments.
Reverse Charge Mechanism is applicable
in case of:
 Imports
 Purchase from unregistered dealers
 Supply of notified goods and services
This reverses the scenario as the person
who is receiving the goods and services
needs to pay the taxes. If the receiver is
purchasing goods from the unregistered
providers, there needs to be a GST paid
on their behalf. A payment voucher needs
14
 to be issued from the supplier to the
recipient. The recipient must be a
registered person as per the CGST Act,
2017.
45. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Nagorno-Karabakh is a landlocked
region in South Caucasus, within the
mountainous range of Karabakh, lying
between Lower Karabakh and
Zangezur, and covering the south-
eastern range of the Lesser Caucasus
Mountains.
 The region is mostly mountainous and
forested.
 Nagorno-Karabakh is a disputed
territory, internationally recognized
as a part of Azerbaijan, but mostly
governed by the unrecognized
Republic of Artsakh [formerly
named the Nagorno-Karabakh
47. Answer: (d)
Republic (NKR)] since the first
Nagorno-Karabakh War.
 Since the end of the war in 1994, the
representatives of the governments of
Armenia and Azerbaijan have been
holding peace talks mediated by the
OSCE (Organization for Security and
Co-operation in Europe) Minsk Group
on the region's disputed status.
46. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Earth-observation satellites vary
according to the type of orbit they have,
the payload they carry and, from the
point of view of imaging instruments, the
spatial resolution, spectral characteristics
and swath width of the sensors. All these
parameters are designed at the beginning
of the mission definition depending on the
application the satellite mission is
targeting.
In order to monitor the weather at large
scales and high frequency, it is
convenient for a satellite to be in a
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
geostationary orbit. In such an orbit a
satellite is able to continuously view
almost an entire hemisphere. However, as
the orbit is very high (approximately
36,000 km above the Earth) a high
spatial resolution is difficult to attain. But
for such applications, as the tracking
of clouds over the continents, a high
spatial resolution is not necessary.
Starting with IRS-1A in 1988, ISRO has
launched many operational remote
sensing satellites. Today, India has one of
the largest constellations of remote
sensing satellites in operation. Currently,
13 operational satellites are in the Sun-
synchronous orbit: RESOURCESAT-1, 2,
2A CARTOSAT-1, 2, 2A, 2B, RISAT-1 and
2, OCEANSAT-2, Megha-Tropiques,
SARAL and SCATSAT-1, and 4 in
Geostationary orbit- INSAT-3D, Kalpana
& INSAT 3A, INSAT -3DR.
Explanation:
The Antarctic Treaty was signed in
Washington in 1959 by the 12 nations
that had been active during the IGY
(International Geophysical Year)
(Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Chile,
France, Japan, New Zealand, Norway,
South Africa, the United Kingdom, the
United States and the USSR). The Treaty,
which applies to the area south of 60°
south latitude, is surprisingly short, but
remarkably effective. Through this
agreement, the countries active in
Antarctica consult on the uses of a whole
continent, with a commitment that it
should not become the scene or object of
international discord. In its 14 Articles
the Treaty:
 stipulates that Antarctica should be
used exclusively for peaceful
purposes, military activities, such as
the establishment of military bases or
weapons testing, are specifically
prohibited;
15
  guarantees continued freedom to and 50 Newton-meter-second reaction
conduct scientific research, as enjoyed wheels, the satellite provides all-weather
during the IGY; surveillance using synthetic aperture
 promotes international scientific co- radars (SAR).
operation, including the exchange of The PSLV-C46, on its 48th mission,
research plans and personnel, and
would launch the radar-imaging earth
requires that the results of the
observation satellite RISAT-2B.
research be made freely available;
 sets aside the potential for sovereignty
disputes between the Treaty parties by 49. Answer: (a)
providing that no activities will Explanation:
enhance or diminish previously The National Commission for Women
asserted positions with respect to (NCW) is a statutory body of the
territorial claims, provides that no
Government of India, generally
new or enlarged claims can be made,
concerned with advising the government
and makes rules relating to
on all policy matters affecting women. It
jurisdiction;
was established in 1992 under the
 prohibits nuclear explosions and the
National Commission for Women Act,
disposal of radioactive waste;
1990.
 provides for inspection by the
observers, designated by any party, of Service standards – Investigation and
ships, stations and equipment in examination of the legal safeguards
Antarctica to ensure the observance provided for women under the
of, and compliance with, the Treaty; Constitution and other laws, and
 requires parties to give advance notice recommend to the government measures
of their expeditions; provides for the for their effective implementation;
parties to meet periodically to discuss Review the existing provisions of the
measures to further the objectives of Constitution and other laws affecting
the Treaty; and
women and recommend amendments to
 puts in place a dispute settlement meet any lacunae, inadequacies or
procedure and a mechanism by which
shortcomings in such laws;
the Treaty can be modified.
Look into the complaints and take suo-
The Treaty also provides that any member
moto notice of the matters relating to the
of the United Nations can accede to it.
deprivation of women’s rights, etc., and
take up the issues with appropriate
48. Answer: (c)
authorities;
Explanation:
Take up studies/research on the issues of
Radar Imaging Satellite or RISAT is a
relevance to women, participate and
series of Indian radar imaging
reconnaissance satellites built by ISRO. advise in the planning process for socio-
The latest RISAT satellite will be placed economic developments of women,
into an orbit of 555 km at an inclination evaluate the progress made thereof;
of 37 degrees. Inspect jails, remand homes etc., where
In 2012, ISRO then launched what was women are kept under custody and seek
India’s first indigenous all-weather radar remedial action wherever necessary.
imaging satellite, known as RISAT-1. With The NCW is not an implementing agency.
a 160 x 4 Mbit/s data handling system It does not have responsibility centres.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 16
50. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Asiatic lions are slightly smaller than
the African lions. The maximum recorded
total length of a male Asiatic lion is 2.92m
(115 inches), including the tail. The most
striking morphological character, which is
always seen in the Asiatic lions, and
rarely in the African lions, is a
longitudinal fold of skin running along its
belly.
The Asiatic lion faces threat of genetic
inbreeding arising from a single
population in one place.
They are listed in Schedule I of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972; in
Appendix I of CITES (Convention on
International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora); and as
Endangered on the IUCN (International
Union for Conservation of Nature) Red
List.
51. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Sundarbans of India and Bangladesh
is the only largest mangrove forest in the
world colonized by the Royal Bengal
Tigers.
Mangroves are dense and floristically
diverse along the east coast of India and
the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. They are
largely distributed in the high energy tidal
coast of two extreme conditions: (i) humid
and wet in Sundarbans with rich
biodiversity; and (ii) arid and dry in
Gujarat with low biodiversity.
According to the Forest Survey of India,
Dehradun, the mangrove coverage was
4,046 sq. km. in 1987 and was 4,921 sq.
km in 2017, based on the remote sensing
data. In the past 30 years, the mangrove
cover decreased in Andhra Pradesh and
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
Andaman & Nicobar Islands at 0.61% and
0.34% per year, respectively, whereas it
increased in all other places by 168% in
Gujarat; 117% in Maharashtra; 113% in
Tamil Nadu; 22% in Odisha; 26 folds in
Goa; 10 folds in Karnataka; 9 folds in
Kerala; 3 folds in Daman & Diu and 2
folds in Puducherry. There was a
marginal increase of only 1.83%, at
0.061% per year, in the Sundarbans.
Overall, the mangrove cover increased by
21.63% over 30 years at 0.72% per year
in India.
52. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty
was an agreement between the United
States and the erstwhile Soviet Union
that limited the number of ground-based
anti-ballistic missile systems and sites
that each side could have. Both parties
also agreed not to develop sea-based, air-
based or space-based ABM systems. After
the fall of the Soviet Union, the Treaty
was expanded to include Belarus,
Ukraine and Kazakhstan.
The ABM Treaty was signed in 1972 and
entered into force in the same year. Under
the Treaty, the United States and the
Soviet Union could establish two ABM
sites : one to protect the national capital
and one to protect an intercontinental
ballistic missile (ICBM) launch site.
In 2001, the George W. Bush
administration announced that the
United States planned to withdraw from
the ABM Treaty. Six months later, the US
officially withdrew from the Treaty in
order to develop and deploy the Ground-
Based Midcourse Defence (GMD) system.
This was the only time that the United
States has withdrawn from a major
international arms control treaty. At the
time, Russia said that it did not feel
threatened by US withdrawal, but called
the move “a mistake.”
17
53. Answer: (a) • His clan considered themselves to be
Explanation: the descendants of the Ikshvaku
dynasty.
S.N. Term Meaning
• He died in Kushinara/Kushinagar
1. Haze Smoke resulting
(Uttar Pradesh) and the event is
pollution from land and/or
known as Mahaparinirvana.
forest fire which
• After leaving his home in search of
causes deleterious
enlightenment, Buddha visited
effects.
Vaishali (Bihar) and learnt Samkhya
2. Zero Policy that prohibits Darshan from Alara Kalama.
burning open burning, but
• He then went to Rajgriha and learnt
policy may allow some
Yoga.
forms of controlled
• He later went to Uruvela
burning.
(Bodhgaya), where he attained
3. Land Coal seam fires, enlightenment. This event is known
and/or peat fires and as Sambodhi.
forest fires plantation fires.
• He then went on to Sarnath, where he
delivered his first sermon, also called
54. Answer: (a) Dharmachakrapravartana.
Explanation: • Buddha delivered his maximum
The Bonn Agreement is a mechanism by sermons from Sravasti and made
which 10 governments, together with the Magadha his promotional centre.
European Union, co-operate in dealing
with pollution of the North Sea by oil and 56. Answer: (a)
other harmful substances. Explanation:
The signatories to the Agreement are the 1. Piprahwa, Nepal (The oldest Stupa).
governments of the Kingdom of Belgium,
2. Bharhut, Madhya Pradesh (built by
the Kingdom of Denmark, the French
Ashoka): We find depiction of the
Republic, the Federal Republic of
stories of Lord Buddha’s previous
Germany, the Republic of Ireland, the
birth on its Toranas (gateways).
Kingdom of the Netherlands, the Kingdom
3. Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh (built by
of Norway, the Kingdom of Sweden, the
Ashoka and later by the Shungas): It
United Kingdom of Great Britain &
is one of the biggest Stupas in India.
Northern Ireland and the European
Union. 4. Amaravati, Guntur, Andhra Pradesh
(2nd century B.C-2nd century A.D.,
Spain was welcomed as a Bonn
built by the Satvahanas with the use
Agreement Contracting Party at a
of white marble): Its ancient name is
ministerial meeting in 2019.
Dhanyakataka.
India is not a member country.
5. Nagarjunakonda, Andhra Pradesh
(2nd–3rd century A.D., built by the
55. Answer: (b) Ikshavakus).
Explanation: 6. Dhamekh/Sarnath Stupa [The great
• Gautama Buddha was born in the Mauryan king Ashoka had
Lumbini village of Kapilavastu, Nepal, commissioned a structure at the place
in the Shakya Kshatriya clan. (Dhamekh)].
7. Dharmarajika Stupa, Takshila.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 18
65. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
On the protest by the farmers against the
Central Farm Laws, the Supreme Court
has held that the farmers have a
constitutional right to continue with
their “absolutely perfect” protest, as
long as their dissent against the
controversial agricultural laws did not
67. Answer: (d)
slip into violence.
The Court also said that the Fundamental
Right to Protest cannot affect other
Fundamental Rights and the Right to Life
of others. The Right to Protest is part of
the Fundamental Right and can, as a
matter of fact, be exercised subject to
public order. The protests can continue in
a non-violent manner and the police
cannot use violent means to end or
disturb a non-violent protest.
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
has relaxed the norms for the farmer,
student, religious and other groups
who are not directly aligned to any
political party to receive foreign funds,
if the groups are not involved in
“active politics”. The MHA has amended
the FCRA 2011 Rules, based on the
recent Supreme Court judgment. The
organizations of the farmers, workers,
students and youth based on caste,
community, religion, language or
others will only be considered as a
political group if they participate in “active
politics or party politics”. Such groups or
organizations can receive foreign funds if
not involved in active politics or party
politics.
66. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation
(BEFR), 1873, provides for –
 The power to prescribe and alter the
inner line.
 The penalty for crossing the line
without pass.
 The power to prescribe the form of
pass.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
 Confiscation of jungle product found
with the offender.
 The power to authorize arrest for the
offences against the Regulation.
 Acquisition of interest in land by other
than the natives of the districts
comprised in the Preamble.
Explanation:
The North-Eastern Areas (Reorganization)
Act, 1971, led to the establishment of the
states of Manipur, Tripura and
Meghalaya, and of the Union Territories of
Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh, by
reorganization of the then state of Assam.
The Constitution (Fifty-third Amendment)
Act, 1986, granted statehood to Mizoram.
In 1986, a Memorandum of Settlement on
Mizoram was signed by the Government
of India and the Government of Mizoram,
with the Mizo National Front, which
envisages among other things the
conferment of statehood on the Union
Territory of Mizoram.
The Constitutional 53rd Amendment
inserted a new Article 371G, which
provides for special provision with respect
to the state of Mizoram.
371G – Special provision with respect
to the state of Mizoram:
Notwithstanding anything in this
Constitution –
(a) no Act of the Parliament in respect of:
(i) religious or social practices of the
Mizos,
(ii) Mizo customary law and
procedure,
(iii) administration of civil and
criminal justice involving
decisions according to Mizo
customary law,
(iv) ownership and transfer of land
shall apply to the state of
Mizoram, unless the Legislative
Assembly of the state of Mizoram
by a resolution so decides:
21
 Provided that nothing in this clause
shall apply to any Central Act in force
in the Union Territory of Mizoram,
immediately before the
commencement of the Constitution
(Fifty-third Amendment) Act, 1986;
(b) the Legislative Assembly of the state of
Mizoram shall consist of not less than
40 members.
68. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Article 16(4) - Nothing in this Article
shall prevent the state from making any
provision for the reservation of
appointments or posts in favour of any
backward class of citizens, which, in the
opinion of the state, is not adequately
represented in the services under the
state.
The term state denotes both ‘Central’ and
‘State’ governments, and their
instrumentalities. Explaining the nature
of Article 16(4), the Supreme Court, in
Mohan Kumar Singhania v/s Union of
India case, stated that Article 16(4) is
merely an enabling provision conferring
discretionary powers on the state to
reserve posts in favour of the backward
classes of citizens, which, in its opinion,
are not adequately represented in the
state services.
In a recent Supreme Court judgment
on reservation in NEET for the state of
Tamil Nadu.
The Supreme Court held that Articles 16
(4) and 16 (4A) empower the state to
make reservation in the matters of
appointment and promotion in favour of
the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes, 'if in the opinion of the state, they
are not adequately represented in the
services of the state'.
1. Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4A) are in the
nature of enabling provisions and
accordingly, the state has discretion
either to provide reservation in the
public services under Article 16(4) or
reservation in promotions under
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
Article 16(4A) or not to provide such
reservations.
2. If the states wish to provide
reservation in promotion, then the
state has to collect quantifiable
data showing inadequacy of
representation of that class in the
public services.
3. Even if under-representation of the
Scheduled Castes and the Schedules
Tribes in the public services is
brought to the notice of the Court, the
state cannot be directed to provide
such reservations under the writ of
Mandamus.
4. The Supreme Court effectively held
that the state government is not bound
to make reservations and the citizens
cannot claim reservation in the public
services under Article 16(4) and
reservation in promotion under Article
16(4A) as Fundamental Right.
69. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In Indra Sawhney v/s the Union of India
case, the principle of Horizontal
Reservation was explained thus:
 All reservations are not of the same
nature. There are two types of
reservations, which may, for the sake
of convenience, be referred to as
‘Vertical Reservations’ and
‘Horizontal Reservations’.
 S1 – The reservations in favour of
the Scheduled Castes, the
Scheduled Tribes and Other
Backward Classes [(under Article
16(4)] may be called Vertical
Reservations.
 S2 - Whereas reservations in favour
of the physically handicapped
[under clause (1) of Article 16] can
be referred to as Horizontal
Reservations.
 Horizontal Reservations cut across
Vertical Reservations – what is called
Interlocking Reservations.
22
  To be more precise, suppose 3% of the People or where there is no such
vacancies are reserved in favour of the Leader of Opposition, then the Leader
physically handicapped persons; this of the single largest Opposition Party
would be a reservation relatable to in that House; and
clause (1) of Article 16. The persons (c) the Chief Justice of India or a judge of
selected against the quota will be the Supreme Court nominated by him
placed in that quota by making – Member.
necessary adjustments; similarly, if he
belongs to open competition (OC) 71. Answer: (d)
category, he will be placed in that
Explanation:
category by making necessary
adjustments.
 Even after providing for these
Horizontal Reservations, the
percentage of reservations in favour of
the backward class of citizens remains
– and should remain – the same.

70. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
traces its origin to the Special Police
Establishment (SPE), which was set up in
1941 by the Government of India.
Whereas The Lokpal and Lokayuktas
Act, 2013, authorizes powers,
functions and responsibilities to the
Lokpal and the Lokayuktas.
The issue of providing consent or even
withdrawal of consent to the CBI to
investigate any case specific to the
state jurisdiction is done by the state
as per the Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act, 1946. General
consent is necessary for the CBI, as the
jurisdiction of the CBI and other agencies
covered under the Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act, 1946, is confined to
Delhi and the Union Territories.
The Committee for the appointment of
the Director of the CBI – The Central
Government shall appoint the Director of
the CBI on the recommendation of the
Committee, consisting of
(a) the Prime Minister – Chairperson;
(b) the Leader of Opposition recognized –
Member; as such in the House of the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 23
72. Answer: (c)
Explanation:

75. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The World Press Freedom Index is
compiled by Reporters Without Borders
73. Answer: (b) (RSF). Decreasing press freedom has also
Explanation: been highlighted by the World Press
Freedom Index Report, where rank of
India has continuously deteriorated
from 138 in 2018, 140 in 2019 and
142 in 2020, out of 180 countries.

76. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
The Department of Administrative
Reforms and Public Grievances
(DARPG), Government of India,
partnered the Centre for Good
Governance (CGG), Hyderabad, as its
technical partner in its endeavour to
prepare the Good Governance Index
(GGI). The framework of the GGI aims to
74. Answer: (b) put forth a comprehensive means of
Explanation: computing an Index to measure
governance across the states and rank
them accordingly. The intent of the Index
is to provide information for the state
governments to act on and improve upon,
and it would also provide some insights to
the central ministries and departments.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 24
77. Answer: (c) 80. Answer: (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
Forceful conversion without consent is The government has recently launched
not included within Article 25. the 'KAPILA' Kalam Programme for
Article 25 - Subject to public order, Intellectual Property Literacy and
morality and health and to the other Awareness campaign on the 89th birth
provisions of this Part, all persons are anniversary of the former President, APJ
equally entitled to freedom of Abdul Kalam.
conscience and the right freely to
profess, practice and propagate 81. Answer: (b)
religion. Explanation:
The prevailing definition of Broadband in
78. Answer: (d) India was notified by the DoT (The
Explanation: Department of Telecommunications).
The High Court of Madhya Pradesh, in an According to the current definition,
important ruling, has held that Broadband must be able to support the
production of the victims and the download speed of 512 kbps.
suspects before the media, as well as The National Digital Communications
disclosure of personal information of the Policy, 2018, has set a target of providing
suspects to the media or display of their Universal Broadband Connectivity at 50
photographs in the newspapers or any mbps to every citizen.
digital platform is violative of Article 21 of
the Indian Constitution. Even parading of 82. Answer: (a)
the suspects in general public is violative
Explanation:
of Article 21. The Court overall held
The laws governing different kinds of
that privacy/reputation/dignity of a
Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) in India
citizen of India, are an integral part
are Patents Act, 1970; Trade Marks Act,
of Article 21 of the Constitution of
1999; Designs Act, 2000; Geographical
India and cannot be infringed, unless
Indications of Goods (Registration and
and until a restriction is imposed by or
Protection) Act, 1999; Copyright Act,
under the authority of law and such
1957; Protection of Plant Varieties and
restriction should be reasonable, having
Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001;
nexus with the object sought to be
Semiconductor Integrated Circuits
achieved.
Layout-Design Act, 2000; and Biological
Diversity Act, 2002.
79. Answer: (b)
Explanation: IPRs Administrative
Ministry
Arunachal Pradesh has become the first
state in India to obtain Organic
Patents, Copyrights, The Ministry of
Certification for Kiwis under Mission
Designs, Commerce and
Organic Value Chain Development for
Trademarks and Industry
North East Region (MOVCD-NER). The
Geographical
Kiwis of the Ziro Valley, located in the
Indications
Lower Subansiri district, were certified as
‘Organic’, following a standard 3-year
Protection of Plant The Ministry of
process.
Varieties and Agriculture and

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 25
 Farmers’ Rights Farmers' Welfare restrictions on the movement of capital
Act, 2001 (such as FDI, FPI, etc.) from one country
to another. India has adopted Partial
Semiconductor The Ministry of Rupee Convertibility on Capital Account
Integrated Circuits Electronics and transactions.
Layout-Design Act, Information Pros Cons
2000 Technology • Easier access to • Higher Volatility
Foreign Capital in the Exchange
Note: Copyrights were earlier and technology rate due to
administered by the Ministry of Human due to greater ease sudden inflow
for the foreign and outflow of
Resource Development. In 2016, they
Investors. Foreign
were transferred to the Department for • Promote currencies.
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, competition (1997 Asian
under the Ministry of Commerce and between domestic Financial Crisis)
Industry. companies and • Higher Inflows
MNCs of foreign
• Capital could
83. Answer: (d) Internationali lead to sudden
Explanation: sation of Rupee- appreciation in
Rupee can easily the value of
The Viability Gap Funding (VGF) be accepted in Rupee and thus
scheme aims at supporting other countries. hurt Exports.
infrastructure projects that are • Enable domestic • Greater chances
economically justified, but may not be Investors to invest of global risks
in overseas market affecting Indian
financially viable (e.g., the construction
• Promote Financial Economy!
of a highway between two cities with Discipline since Example: 2007-
lower traffic volume). It provides the Government 08 Global
Viability Gap Funding in the form of must keep in Financial Crisis)
‘grant’ (not in terms of loan), up to check Fiscal • Higher Foreign
Deficit and Public Debt
20% of the total project cost (TPC). The
Debt to attract • Outflow of
state government or the government foreign Capital Domestic
entity that owns the project may provide • Promote Savings to other
additional grants out of its budget, up to Employment Countries.
further 20% of the TPC. opportunities and • No empirical
GDP growth. link between
In order to boost social infrastructure, the Capital Account
government will enhance the quantum of Convertibility
VGF up to 30% each of the TPC as VGF and Economic
by the centre and state/statutory bodies. Growth.
For other sectors, VGF existing support of
20% each from the Government of India 85. Answer: (a)
and the states/statutory bodies shall Explanation:
continue. Usually, the marketing approval for new
drugs takes substantial amount of time.
84. Answer: (d) Hence, upon the expiry of the patented
Explanation: drugs, the entry of the cheaper generic
Capital Account Convertibility (CAC) is medicines into the market may get
not just the currency convertibility, but it delayed. Hence, Bolar Exception, under
also involves the freedom to invest in the the TRIPS Agreement, allows the potential
financial assets of other countries. It competitors to use a patented invention
basically refers to easing of the during the patent term, without the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 26
 consent of the patent owner for the
purpose of obtaining marketing approval
for a prospective generic product.
86. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Section 171 of the CGST Act deals with
profiteering. It empowers the Central
Government to constitute an authority to
check illegal profiteering. Accordingly, the
Union Cabinet has constituted the
National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA)
in 2017. When the NAA certifies that
there is anti-profiteering in a specific
case, it can order the concerned firm to
reduce its prices or return the undue
benefit availed by it along with interest to
the recipient of the goods or services. If
the undue benefit cannot be passed on to
the consumer, it can be ordered to be
deposited in the Consumer Welfare Fund.
In extreme cases, the NAA can impose a
penalty on the defaulting business entity
and even order the cancellation of its
registration under GST.
Problem with the Anti-Profiteering
Framework: Presently, the companies are
compulsorily required to reduce the
prices of their products whenever the GST
rates are reduced. If the companies use
any other method to pass on the
benefit of the reduced GST rates, it
still is considered as profiteering. Now,
for example, the companies can decide to
pass on the benefit in the form of
increased grammage, i.e., providing
higher quantity of the commodity at the
same price.
87. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The gross savings are contributed by
mainly 3 sectors: The public sector, the
private corporate sector and the
household sector. The household sector
accounts for the highest share of gross
savings, followed by the private corporate
sector. The financial savings of the
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
households majorly include the deposits
of the households with the banks and the
financial institutions. The physical
savings include savings in the form of
land, buildings, home, etc.
88. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
(1) The Belan River originates in the
Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh. It
is a tributary of the Tons River.
(2) The Shipra River is a river in Madhya
Pradesh. It is a tributary of the
Chambal River.
(3) The Karmanasa River is a tributary of
the Ganges.
89. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Food Coalition is an initiative of the Food
and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
The Food Coalition is a voluntary alliance
open to all partners and stakeholders
(national governments, civil society and
farmers’ organizations, academia and
private sector entities), who are interested
in joining a global and coordinated action
towards agri-food systems transformation
in the context of COVID-19.
Supporting countries to get back on
track to meet SDG 1 and SDG 2, and
eradicate poverty and hunger by 2030.
Guiding Principles:
The members of the Food Coalition work
towards a common vision.
An equal voice and inclusiveness are
assured for all.
Dialogue, advocacy and communication
across different range of stakeholders are
27
 aligned to the vision and objective of the
Food Coalition.
All members realize mutual benefits from
the process and learn from each other.
Transparency and accountability are
ensured by the leadership of the Food
Coalition and all its members.
90. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Lachit Diwas is celebrated in the state
of Assam. It is celebrated to
commemorate the heroism of Lachit
Borphukan. On this day, Borphukan had
defeated the Mughal army on the banks
of the Brahmaputra in the Battle of
Saraighat in 1671.
Kevadia is a place located in the state
of Gujarat. It is the site where the
Statue of Unity is located. It is located
on the banks of the Narmada river.
Chhath Puja is celebrated in Bihar and
Eastern Uttar Pradesh. It is in the
honour of the Sun God.
91. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Garima Greh is meant for the
transgender persons. It has been created
by the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment.
Hunar Haat is created by the Ministry of
Minority Affairs. It is a platform by which
the artisans/craftsmen of India can
93. Answer: (b)
showcase their expertise.
Swadhar Greh
The Ministry of Women and Child
Development is implementing the
Swadhar Greh Scheme, which targets the
women victims of difficult circumstances,
who are in need of institutional support
for rehabilitation, so that they could lead
their life with dignity.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1027
92. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project
is an international partnership between
CalTech, the Universities of California,
Canada, Japan, China and India; through
the Department of Science and
Technology (DST) and the Department of
Atomic Energy (DAE).
TMT is located in Hawaii.
The Thirty Meter Telescope will be the
largest ground-based observatory in the
world and will provide new observational
opportunities in essentially every field of
astronomy and astrophysics. The
astronomers will pursue further
advancement of our understanding in
several key science areas, including –
Spectroscopic exploration of the “dark
ages”, when the first sources of light and
the first heavy elements in the universe
were formed.
Exploration of the galaxies and large-
scale structure in the young universe,
including the era in which most of the
stars and heavy elements were formed
and the galaxies in today’s universe were
first assembled.
Investigations of massive black holes
throughout the cosmic time.
Exploration of planet-formation processes
and the characterization of extra-solar
planets.
Discovery observations that push into the
terrestrial-planet regime.
Explanation:
Food Systems 2030 seeks to build the
foundations for sustainable food systems
that deliver improved livelihoods and safe,
affordable and nutritious diets for all. It
promotes new ways of doing business
while addressing market and institutional
incentives, to put food systems on a
better path. Transformed, the food
28
 systems can be the cornerstone of the information on the time spent in unpaid
healthy people, a healthy planet and care-giving activities, volunteer work,
healthy economies. unpaid domestic service producing
The Food Systems 2030 is an Umbrella activities of the household members. It
Trust Fund of the World Bank Group. It also provides information on the time
harnesses the Bank Group’s unique spent on learning, socializing, leisure
abilities to convene partners, inform activities, self-care activities, etc., by the
policies and provide finances to help the household members.
countries develop food systems that bring
them closer to achieving their Sustainable 96. Answer: (a)
Development Goals (SDGs). Funding for Explanation:
the Trust Fund is expected to leverage
A Moratorium is essentially a temporary
about $4 billion in annual World Bank
suspension of an activity. Typically, it is
lending, sharpen policies that govern
lifted once the problems, that led to the
public spending and help steer trillions of
Moratorium, have been resolved. In the
dollars in private sector activity in the
present scenario, the Reserve Bank of
agriculture and food sector.
India (RBI) has put Lakshmi Vilas Bank
under a Moratorium and capped its
94. Answer: (c) deposits at Rs. 25,000. This has been
Explanation: done to find a resolution for the bank,
The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya while protecting the interests of its
Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) is a depositors. There are limits on
campaign launched by the Department of withdrawals for now, but the deposits
Pharmaceuticals to provide quality with the bank will continue to be
medicines at affordable prices to the protected under the proposed resolution.
masses through special centres, known Under Section 45 of the Banking
as the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Regulation Act, 1949, the RBI can apply
Janaushadhi Kendra (PMBJK). The to the Central Government for suspension
PMBJKs have been set up to provide of the business by a bank and to prepare
generic drugs, which are available at a scheme for its revival. Based upon the
lesser prices, but are equivalent in quality recommendations of the RBI, the
and efficacy as the expensive branded Central Government then can issue the
drugs. The scheme is implemented by the notification.
Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India.
97. Answer: (d)
95. Answer: (c) Explanation:
Explanation: Presently, FDI is allowed in the Digital
The National Statistical Office (NSO) has Media for uploading/streaming of news
recently conducted the first Time Use and current affairs. However, the limit is
Survey (TUS) for the period January to 26% and it is allowed only through the
December, 2019. The primary objective of government route.
the TUS is to measure the participation of FDI cap in Print Media: 26%.
men and women in paid and unpaid
activities. TUS is an important source of

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 29
98. Answer: (c) 99. Answer: (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
The entry of large industrial/corporate The Tarapore Committee deals with
houses into the banking sector would Capital Account convertibility. The
make the Indian economy more prone Committee has recommended that India
to external shocks. The Indian economy should adopt Capital Account
remained less affected by the global convertibility in a phased and gradual
financial crisis, 2017-18, due to the manner.
dominance of the Public Sector Banks.
The corporate houses can involve in inter- 100. Answer: (c)
connected lending. They can easily turn Explanation:
the banks into a source of funds for their
The Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act,
own businesses. They can also use the
2003, has given a statutory status to the
banks to provide finance to the customers
Universal Service Obligation Fund
and suppliers of their businesses. Hence,
(USOF). The proceeds of the Fund are
it leads to conflict of interest.
used for improving the
telecommunication infrastructure in the
rural and remote areas.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1027 30