QUESTIONS

1. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following statements

1. Ministry of Environment and forest has
launched a mobile application “Ganga
Data Collector” under the “Biodiversity and
Ganga Conservation” project.
2. Ganga basin covers Madhya Pradesh,
Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh
along with other states.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
2 only
regarding Ratapani Tiger Reserve:
1. This tiger reserve is located in the state of
Uttar Pradesh.
2. Rare migratory birds from Tibet, Nepal,
Russia and Siberia visit this reserve.
3. The reserve mainly comprises of a teak
forest.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

RE
(b) (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements 5. Consider the following statements

about bio-fencing: regarding “Goldschmidtite” which
O
1. It is planting of trees or shrubs on farm or
field boundaries that provide protection
was seen recently in news:
1. It is a new mineral discovered inside a
against cattle and wildlife. diamond unearthed from a mine in South
SC
2. This method is environment-friendly and Africa.
harvesting of such plants can also be 2. It has high concentrations of niobium,
economical for farmers. potassium and the rare earth elements
lanthanum and cerium.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct option using the code given
(a) 1 only
below:
(b) 2 only
GS

(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following pairs:
Reservoir/Dam River 6. The ‘Special Report on the Ocean and
1. Khadakwasla Mutha river Cryosphere in a Changing Climate’ in
2. Tilaiya Sone river 2019 was published by:
3. Bansagar Barakar river (a) Intergovernmental panel on Climate
Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly Change (IPCC).
matched? (b) United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC).
(a) 1 only
(c) United Nations Environmental Programme
(b) 2 only
(UNEP).
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) World Meteorological Organization
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (WMO).

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D16
7. Match List I with List-II and select the 9. Which of the following statement
correct answer from the code given regarding Emperor Penguins is/are
below the lists: incorrect?
List I List II 1. It is one of the Antarctica’s endemic
(Organizations) (Headquarters)
species.
A. TRAFFIC 1. Seoul
2. It is endangered as per IUCN.
B. IUCN 2. Cambridge
Choose the correct answer using the code given
C. Global Green 3. Oakland
below:
Growth Institute
(a) 1 only
D. 350.org 4. Gland
A B C D (b) 2 only

(a) 2 3 4 1 (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 3 1 1 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RE
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 1 3 10. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s first e-waste clinic would be set up
8. Extinction Rebellion, recently seen in in Lucknow.
news is: 2. The clinic is being conceived in compliance
An international movement that uses non- with the Solid Waste Management Rules,
(a)
O
violent civil disobedience in an attempt to 2016.
halt mass extinction.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) An international movement started with
incorrect?
SC
the cooperation from UNDP to reduce
worldwide corruption. (a) 1 only
(c) A global movement to end abuses of (b) 2 only
human rights.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) A global movement started by World
Economic Forum for poverty alleviation. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
GS

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P2020_CRCA_500/D16 4
 ANSWER HINTS
Answer Key
Q. 1 (b) Q. 3 (a) Q. 5
Q. 2 (c) Q. 4 (c) Q. 6
1. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Dehradun
based Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has
launched a mobile application “Ganga Data
Collector” under the “Biodiversity and Ganga
Conservation” project initiated by the National
Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) of Union
Ministry of Jal Shakti.
O 
Supplementary notes:
Ganga data collector app
SC
 The app will provide field researchers with a
complete data entry solution to monitor the
aquatic population in the river.
 Dehradun based Wildlife Institute of India
(WII) has launched a mobile application
“Ganga Data Collector” under the “Biodiversity
and Ganga Conservation” project initiated by
the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG)
GS
of Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.
 The Ganga basin covers 11 states including
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar,
West Bengal and Delhi.
 In the first phase, training will be given to
volunteers and staff in five Ganga states
including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand and West Bengal where Ganga
stretches over 2,200-km. In the second phase,
training will be given to the staff of the other
six states of the Ganga basin.
2. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
P2020_CRCA_500/D16
(c) Q. 7 (d) Q. 9 (b)
(a) Q. 8 (a) Q. 10 (a)
Bio-fences
 Bio-fences/Live fences are lines of trees or
RE
shrubs planted on farm or field boundaries
that provide protection against cattle and
wildlife, act as windbreaks, enrich the
soil, provide bee forage, provide shade,
and control dust. Hence it is environment
friendly and economical for farmers.
They are less expensive and more useful than
fences made of wood, barbed wire, or stone
masonry. Various species have been tested to
discover their suitability for use as biofencing
plants.
 The Uttarakhand government is planning to us
this unique and cost-effective method to keep
wild animals away from residential areas.
 Plants like lemongrass, agave, rambans, and
certain species of chilly including some other
plant rare species have been identified as
effective to keep wild animals away.
 The government is planning to grow these
plants in the areas where wild animals enter
residential areas near forests.
 Wild animals like leopards and bears, along
with elephants and wild boars are a major
threat to human life, livestock and crops in
such areas the forest officials informed.
3. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Tilaiya dam
was constructed across the Barakar River at
Tilaiya in Koderma district in Jharkhand. It
was the first of the four multi-purpose dams
included in the first phase of the Damodar
Valley Corporation.
6
  Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bansagar Dam
is a multipurpose river Valley Project on Sone
River situated in the Ganges Basin in the state
of Madhya Pradesh.
Supplementary notes:
Khadakwasla Dam
 Khadakwasla Dam was built on the Mutha
River. The dam created a reservoir known as
Khadakwasla Lake which is the main source of
water for Pune and its suburbs in the state of
Maharashtra.
 Tilaiya dam was constructed across the
Barakar River at Tilaiya in Koderma district in
Jharkhand. It was the first of the four multi-
purpose dams included in the first phase of
the Damodar Valley Corporation.
Bansagar Dam is a multipurpose river Valley
RE

Project on Sone River situated in the Ganges
Basin in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
 Other major Dams and Reservoirs in India:
O crimson breasted barbet and the State Bird
SC
GS
5. Correct Option: (c)
4. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ratapani Tiger
Reserve, located in the Raisen district of
Madhya Pradesh, in Vindhya Range.
Supplementary notes:
Ratapani Tiger Reserve
7 P2020_CRCA_500/D16
 Recently it is declared the Tiger State of India,
Madhya Pradesh is inching closer to getting
its seventh tiger reserve — the Ratapani Tiger
Reserve.
 Established in the year 1976, the Ratapani
Wildlife Sanctuary boasts a forest area of
around 688 sq km – mainly comprising a
beautiful teak forest.
 The Ratapani Tiger Reserve, located in the
Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, in Vindhya
Range.
 Other tree species found here include bijasal,
saj, tendu and khair.
 Although the tiger holds the position of top
predator in the park, leopards, striped hyenas,
jackals, Indian foxes and wild dogs also inhabit
its forested tracts.
 Members of the deer family such as chausingha,
chinkara, and barasingha are spotted often,
and you can also expect to see herds of nilgai,
the largest Indian antelope.
 Around 150 species of birds can be spotted
here. Birders can expect to spot the Indian
robin, white spotted fantail fly-catcher,
of MP – paradise flycatcher, amongst other
species.
Many rare migratory birds from Tibet,

Nepal, Russia and Siberia also visit this
sanctuary and are a great attraction.
 Dahod Dam, Ratapani Dam and Barna Dam are
large water bodies inside the park and home to
aquatic avifauna such as ducks, geese, cranes,
storks and snipes. Among reptiles, pythons
and crocodiles are also seen here.
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Goldschmidt
 A new, curious mineral has been discovered
inside a diamond unearthed from a mine in
South Africa.
 The mineral has been named goldschmidtite,
after Victor Moritz Goldschmidt, the
Norwegian scientist acknowledged as the
founder of modern geochemistry.
 Goldschmidtite has an unusual chemical
signature for a mineral from Earth’s mantle
 While the mantle is dominated by elements
such as magnesium and iron, goldschmidtite
 has high concentrations of niobium, potassium
and the rare earth elements lanthanum and
cerium.
6. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Special Report on Ocean and Cryosphere in a
Changing Climate
 The IPCC approved and accepted this report
at its 51st session held in September.
 Created in 1988 by the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) and the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP)
 Global Green Growth Institute is a treaty-based
international organization headquartered
in Seoul, South Korea, aiming to promote
green growth, a growth paradigm that is
characterized by a balance of economic
growth and environmental sustainability.
 org is an international environmental
organization addressing the climate crisis.
Its goal is to end the use of fossil fuels and
transition to renewable energy by building a
global, grassroots movement. The 350 in the
name stands for 350 ppm (parts per million)
of carbon dioxide which has reached 415 ppm
as of 2019. It’s headquartered in Oakland,
California.
8. Correct Option: (a)

RE
Explanation:
 Headquarter: Geneva
 Option (a) is correct
 Objective: To provide governments at
all levels with scientific information that Supplementary notes:
they can use to develop climate policies.
IPCC reports are also a key input into About Extinction Rebellion
international climate change negotiations.
O  Extinction Rebellion is an international
movement that uses non-violent civil
IPCC Reports
disobedience in an attempt to halt mass
Reports Year extinction and minimise the risk of social
collapse.
First 1990
SC
 It is a movement made up of people from
Second 1995
all walks of life. It started in response to the
Third 2001 IPCC report that we only have 12 years to
Fourth 2007 stop catastrophic climate change and our
understanding that we have entered the 6th
Fifth 2013
mass extinction event.
 It started small and was launched in the UK on
7. Correct Option: (d)
GS

October 31st 2018, it has grown very quickly

Explanation:
 Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC),
a joint program of the World Wide Fund
for Nature (WWF) and IUCN, is a non-
governmental organization working globally
on trade in wild animals and plants in the
context of both biodiversity conservation and
sustainable development. Its headquarters is
located in Cambridge, United Kingdom.
 International Union for Conservation of
Nature is an international organization
(NGO), headquartered in Gland,
Switzerland, working in the field of nature
conservation and sustainable use of natural
resources. It is involved in data gathering and
analysis, research, field projects, advocacy,
lobbying, and education. The organization is
best known for compiling and publishing the
IUCN Red List.
and there are now about 130 Extinction
Rebellion groups across the UK and across the
world.
 The majority of people who work for Extinction
Rebellion are volunteers; a small percentage is
receiving living expenses.
 Decisions are made based on a model of
organising called a “self-organising system”
in which people do what they can accord the
skills and time they can offer.
9. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is listed as ‘near
threatened’ in the Red List of International
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Supplementary notes:

9 P2020_CRCA_500/D16
 Emperor Penguins
 Emperor penguins are the tallest and heaviest
of all living penguin species and are endemic
to Antarctica.
 The only penguin species that breeds during
the Antarctic winter, emperor penguins trek
50–120 km (31–75 mi) over the ice to breeding
colonies which can contain up to several
thousand individuals.
 It is listed as ‘near threatened’ in the Red List
of International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN).
Recent demands:
 Experts have demanded that the IUCN status
of species should be changed to ‘vulnerable’
from ‘near threatened’.
 The experts also advocated that the emperor
penguin should be listed by the Antarctic
Treaty as a Specially Protected Species.
The 1959 treaty sets aside Antarctica as a

O
scientific preserve, establishes freedom of
scientific investigation, and bans military
activity on the continent.
SC
**********
GS
P2020_CRCA_500/D16
10. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It would be setup
in Bhopal.
Supplementary notes:
e-Waste Clinic
 The Bhopal Municipal Corporation (BMC) and
the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
have signed a MOU to set up the country’s
first e-waste clinic in Bhopal.
 The clinic is being conceived in compliance
with the Solid Waste Management Rules,
2016.
 This would enable segregation, processing
and disposal of waste from both household
and commercial units.
RE
 Electronic waste will be collected door-to-door
or could be deposited directly at the clinic in
exchange for a fee. Door-to-door collection
will happen in two ways. Either separate carts
for the collection of e-waste will be designed,
or separate bins will be attached to existing
ones meant for solid and wet waste.
 A three-month pilot project, the clinic, if
successful, would be replicated elsewhere in
the country.
10
 QUESTIONS
1. Consider the following statements 4. Match the following:
about C40 cities: Energy Storage Category
1. It is a network of the world’s megacities System
committed to addressing climate change.
A. Compressed Air 1. Electrical Storage
2. C40 cities are involved in actions that Energy Storage
reduces global green house gas emission.
B. Superconducting 2. Chemical Storage
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Magnetic Energy
(a) 1 only Storage
(b) 2 only C. Chilled Water 3. Mechanical Storage
(c) Both 1 and 2 Storage

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 D. Power-to-Gas 4. Thermal Storage
Storage
2. Which of the following statements Select the correct answer using the code given
are correct regarding Asiatic Lion below:
Conservation Project? A B C D
1. This project will focus on conservation
O (a) 3 1 4 2
efforts of Asiatic Lions in the Gir Range
only. (b) 1 3 2 4
2. This project envisages involvement of (c) 2 4 3 1
communities for disease control and
SC
veterinary care for conservation efforts. (d) 4 2 1 3

Select the correct answer using the code given

below: 5. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. Guru Ghasidas National Park is Chhattisgarh’s
first ‘tiger reserve’.
(b) 2 only
2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority
(c) Both 1 and 2 (NTCA) approves declaration of a Tiger
GS

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 reserve in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only
regarding Hard ground swamp deer
(Barasingha): (b) 2 only

1. It is the state animal of Uttar Pradesh. (c) Both 1 and 2

2. It has been listed vulnerable in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened
Species. 6. Consider the following statements
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
regarding Brown to Green Report
correct? 2019:
(a) 1 only 1. It has been published by the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate
(b) 2 only
Change.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The report presents a comprehensive review
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of G20 countries’ climate performance.

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D17
 Which of the above statements is/are Correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
9. Which of the following resolution
piloted by India were adopted by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
UNEA?
1. Resolution on Single-use Plastics.
7. Recently around 17,000 migratory
birds died in Sambhar Lake. In this 2. Resolution on Sustainable Nitrogen
Management.
context, consider the following
statements: Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. The deaths of these birds have been due to
botulism. (a) 1 only
2. Botulism is a serious bacterial neuromuscular (b) 2 only
illness that occurs only in birds.

RE
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland
saltwater lake. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

10. Consider the following statements
1 and 2 only
(a)
regarding India Cooling Action Plan
(b) 2 and 3 only (ICAP):
O
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. This document addresses cooling
(d) 1, 2 and 3 requirement across sectors and lists out
actions which can help reduce the cooling
SC
demand.
8. Consider the following statements
2. India is the second country in world to
regarding National Clean Air
develop such a document.
Programme:
3. Its goals include reduction of cooling
1. It is a first ever national framework for demand across sectors by 20% to 25 % by
air quality management with time bound year 2037-38.
reduction targets.
GS

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

2. It aims to 30% reduction in PM2.1 and
PM10 in all cities by 2024. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) None of the above

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P2020_CRCA_500/D17 4
 ANSWER HINTS

Answer Key

Q. 1 (c) Q. 3 (b) Q. 5 (b) Q. 7 (c) Q. 9 (c)

Q. 2 (c) Q. 4 (a) Q. 6 (c) Q. 8 (a) Q. 10 (b)

1. Correct Option: (c)

Explanation:

RE
 Both statements are correct

Supplementary notes:
C40
 C40 is a network of the world’s megacities
committed to addressing climate change.
O
C40 supports cities to collaborate effectively,
share knowledge and drive meaningful,
measurable and sustainable action on climate
change.
SC
 Around the world, C40 Cities connects 94 of
the world’s greatest cities to take bold climate
action, leading the way towards a healthier
and more sustainable future.
 C40 cities are taking actions that reduces
global greenhouse gas emissions - together
GS

C40 member cities combined community

emissions represent 2.4 Gt of CO2.

The chair
 The Chair is the elected leader of the
organisation.
 The Chairmanship is a rotating position, which
has been held to date by the following C40
2. Correct Option: (c)
City Mayors:
Explanation:
 Paris Mayor Anne Hidalgo (2016-present)
 Both statements are correct
 Rio de Janeiro Mayor Eduardo Paes (2013-
2016) Supplementary notes:
 New York Mayor Michael R. Bloomberg Asiatic Lion Conservation Project
(2010-2013)
 Asiatic Lion Conservation Project has been
 Toronto Mayor David Miller (2008-2010) launched by the Union Ministry of Environment,
Forests and Climate Change(MoEFCC).
 London Mayor Ken Livingstone (2005-
2008)  The Asiatic Lion, endemic to Gir landscape of

P2020_CRCA_500/D17 6
 Gujarat, is one of the 21 critically endangered
species identified by the Ministry for taking up
recovery programmes.
 The project envisages scientific management
with the involvement of communities in
coordination with multi-sectoral agencies
for disease control and veterinary care for
overall conservation of Asiatic lion.
 Modern Information and Communication
Technology (ICT) is proposed in the
conservation, protection and development
efforts of the Greater Gir Region.
 Additional ICT will include the following:
 GPS Based Tracking like Surveillance
Tracking Animal Tracking and Vehicle
Tracking
 Automated Sensor Grid like Magnetic
Sensors, Movement Sensors, and Infra-red
heat sensors
 Night vision capability enhancement
 GIS-based real-time monitoring, analysis
and report generation. O and Balaghat districts, is the only place in the
 This project has “Species Conservation over a
large landscape” approach.
 Large Landscape Conservation:
Large landscape conservation is
SC

an approach to conservation and
management that focuses on actions that
are taken across large areas, such as entire
watersheds. Large landscape conservation
generally involves many forest divisions,
government agencies, and conservation
organizations.
GS
 As Asiatic Lions are found only in the
Gir Landscape, this project will focus
on conservation efforts of Asiatic Lions
over whole Gir Range.
3. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Hard ground swamp
deer is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh
(NOT Uttar Pradesh).
Supplementary notes:
Near-extinct hard ground swamp deer see
revival in Kanha
 Barasingha is one of the rarest species of deer
family spread across central and northern
India only in small congregations. The deer is
native to India and Nepal.
7 P2020_CRCA_500/D17
 Barasingha is also known as swamp deer. It is
the state animal of Madhya Pradesh.
 It has been listed vulnerable in the IUCN
(International Union for Conservation of
Nature) Red List of Threatened Species.
 The Indian Barasingha or Swamp Deer is an
endangered species of deer and can be seen
in protected sanctuaries in India.
 The Barasingha is a medium-sized deer. It can
grow to a height of 130 cm and weigh up to
180 Kg.
 It has been listed vulnerable in the IUCN
(International Union for Conservation of
Nature) Red List of Threatened Species.
 A number of deer species like the hangul of
RE
Kashmir, the barasingha of Madhya Pradesh,
the brow-antlered deer of Manipur, and
antelope-like the Himalayan tahr - all adorn
the list of endangered species.
 The Kanha tiger reserve, spread over Mandla
world where the species exists.
 It is located on the Maikal range of the Satpura
hills and is spread over Mandla and Balaghat
districts of Madhya Pradesh.
 It is a first tiger reserve in India to officially
introduce a mascot, Bhoorsingh the
Barasingha.
 According to a recent survey, the population
of Hard ground swamp deer (Barasingha) has
increased to 800 in the Kanha National park
and Tiger Reserve.
4. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct:
Energy Storage Category
System
A. Compressed Air 3. Mechanical Storage
Energy Storage
B. Superconducting 1. Electrical Storage
Magnetic Energy
Storage
C. Chilled Water 4. Thermal Storage
Storage
D. Power-to-Gas 2. Chemical Storage
Storage
 Supplementary notes:
Classification of Energy Storage Systems
 Mechanical Storage includes Pumped Hydro
Storage (PHS), Compressed Air Energy
Storage (CAES) and Flywheels
 Electrochemical Storage includes various
battery technologies that use different
chemical compounds to store electricity. For
e.g. lead acid batteries, Lithium Batteries etc.
 Thermal Energy Storage includes ice-based
storage systems, hot and chilled water
storage, molten salt storage and rock storage
technologies. In these systems excess thermal
energy is collected for later use.
 Electrical Storage: Super capacitors and
Superconducting Magnetic Energy Storage
(SMES) systems store electricity in electric
and electromagnetic fields with minimal loss
of energy.
 Chemical Storage typically utilizes electrolysis
of water to produce hydrogen as a storage
medium that can subsequently be converted to
energy in various modes, including electricity
transportation fuel (power–to-gas).
O
(via fuel cells or engines), as well as heat and
5. Correct Option: (b)
SC
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Chhattisgarh’s
fourth ‘tiger reserve’.
Supplementary notes:
Guru Ghasidas National Park
GS
 Chhattisgarh state is set to have Guru
Ghasidas National Park in Kotiya district
as its fourth ‘tiger reserve’. The National
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
had approved to declare Guru Ghasidas
National Park as a tiger reserve in 2014.
 Emphasis was laid on increasing number
of tigers in Chhattisgarh and their safety
measures like radio collaring system for
tiger safety as well as resettlement of more
cheetahs from Barnavapara Sanctuary to Guru
Ghasi Das National Park and Udanti-Sitanadi
Tiger Reserve.
 Drafting of action plans for conservation of
wild buffalo (wild animal of Chhattisgarh), hill
myna (state bird of Chhattisgarh) and vultures.
At least 5 species of vultures are found in
Achanakmar tiger reserve, Guru Ghasidas
National Park and Mainpat in Surguja.
9 P2020_CRCA_500/D17
 The decision was also taken to develop water
sources for wild animals in the state’s forests,
construction of large ponds in the forest
villages and plantation of fruits and vegetables
especially Narwali vegetables, plantation
of bamboo and banana so that these wild
animals won’t have to wander here and there
for food and fodder.
 Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh: At
present there are three tiger reserves
in state: Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in
Bilaspur, Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve in
Gariaband and Indravati Tiger Reserve in
Bijapur district.
6. Correct Option: (c)
RE
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The 2019 Brown
to Green Report has been published by
the Climate Transparency Partnership, an
international research collaboration.
Supplementary notes:
Brown to Green Report 2019
 The 2019 Brown to Green Report has been
published by the Climate Transparency
Partnership, an international research
collaboration.
 The report is the most comprehensive review
of G20 countries’ climate performance,
mapping achievements and drawbacks in their
efforts to reduce emissions, adapt to climate
impacts and green the financial system.
Findings of the Report:
 Carbon emissions from the world’s 20 biggest
economies, including India, are rising.
 None of the G20 countries have plans that
will help them achieve the target. Many of
the current 2030 climate targets under the
Paris Agreement (Nationally Determined
Contributions or NDCs) are too weak, with
about half of the G20 countries projected to
meet or overachieve their inadequate NDCs.
 Energy-related carbon dioxide emissions in
G20 countries shot up by 1.8 per cent in 2018
due to rising energy demand.
 Energy supply is not getting cleaner: despite
a more than five per cent rise in G20 total
renewable energy supply in 2018, the share of
fossil fuels in the G20 energy mix remains at
82 per cent.
  While renewables now account for 25.5 per
cent of power generation, this is not sufficient
to outweigh the growth of emissions from
fossil fuel sources.
 Low-carbon fuels need to increase roughly 10
times by 2050 to keep global warming below
1.5 degrees Celsius.
 G20 emissions in the building sector grew
more than in any other sector in 2018 (4.1 per
cent). Retrofitting existing buildings challenges
all G20 and especially OECD countries. New
buildings have to be near zero-energy by
2020-25 to keep global warming below 1.5
degrees.
India specific observations:
 Among the G20 countries, India has the
most ambitious NDC. However, it still needs
real action now to prepare the different sectors
for stringent emission reductions.
 In the power, India is currently investing most
in renewable energy, while Brazil and Germany
are the only G20 countries with long-term
renewable energy strategies.
O
 India and China are among the G20 countries
with the most progressive energy efficiency
policies.
SC
7. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Botulism is a serious
bacterial neuromuscular illness that can affect
both humans and animals.
GS
Supplementary notes:
Migratory Birds Die in Sambhar Lake
 Nearly 17,000 migratory birds have died so
far at the country’s largest inland saltwater
lake near Jaipur due to botulism, a serious
and fatal illness that affects the nerves.
 In November 2019, thousands of birds,
including Northern Shoveler, Ruddy Shelduck,
Plovers, Avocets, were found were found dead
in the 5-7km area around Sambhar lake.
 Initially, it was suspected that the birds died due
to avian flu but the report from a laboratory in
Bhopal has ruled this out. The birds died due
to infection spread after feeding on maggots-
infested carcasses. This causes paralysis in
birds. The symptoms indicate that the cause
of death was botulism
P2020_CRCA_500/D17
Avian Botulism
 Avian botulism is a serious neuromuscular
illness of birds caused by a toxin that is
produced by the bacterium Clostridium
botulinum.
 Avian botulism has been recognized as a
major cause of mortality in wild-birds since
the 1900s.
 Botulinum is a natural toxin produced by bacteria
known as Clostridium botulin. It produces the
toxin when it starts reproducing.
 The bacteria is commonly found in the soil,
river, and sea water. There are around eight
types — A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, and G — of
botulinum toxin and they are distinguishable
when diagnosed. But all types of toxins attack
the neurons, which leads to muscle paralysis.
RE
 Botulinum affects both humans and
animals but the type of the toxin varies
— botulinum C in birds and A, B and E in
humans.
8. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It aims for 20-30%
reduction in Particulate Matter concentration
in 102 non-attainment cities across 23 States
and UT’s by 2024.
Supplementary notes:
National Clean Air Programme
 National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
is the first ever effort in the country to
frame a national framework for air quality
management with a time-bound reduction
target.
 Important Features of National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP):
 Achieve a national-level target of 20-
30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10
concentration by between 2017 and 2024.
 Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB) will execute this nation-wide
programme in consonance with the
section 162 (b) of the Air (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1986.
 The programme has been launched with
an initial budget of Rs. 300 crore for the
first two years.
 The plan includes 102 non-attainment
cities, across 23 states and Union
territories, which were identified by
10
 Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
on the basis of their ambient air quality
data between 2011 and 2015.
 Non-attainment cities are those which
have been consistently showing poorer
air quality than the National Ambient
Air Quality Standards. These include
Delhi, Varanasi, Bhopal, Kolkata, Noida,
Muzaffarpur, and Mumbai.
 As part of the programme, the Centre also
plans to scale up the air quality monitoring
network across India. At least 4,000
monitors are needed across the country,
instead of the existing 101 real-time air
quality (AQ) monitors, according to an
analysis.
 The plan proposes a three-tier system,
including real-time physical data collection,
data archiving, and an action trigger
system in all 102 cities, besides extensive
plantation plans, research on clean-
technologies, landscaping of major arterial
roads, and stringent industrial standards.
 It also proposes state-level plans of
O appreciating the 2018 World Environment
e-mobility in the two-wheeler sector, rapid
augmentation of charging infrastructure,
stringent implementation of BS-VI norms,
boosting public transportation system, and
SC
adoption of third-party audits for polluting
industries.
 The national plan has proposed setting
up an apex committee under environment
minister, a steering committee under-
secretary (environment) and a monitoring
committee under a joint secretary. There
GS
would be project monitoring committees
at the state-level with scientists and trained
personnel.
9. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are incorrect
Supplementary notes:
 The United Nations Environment Assembly
(UNEA) has adopted 2 resolutions piloted by
India on single-use plastics and sustainable
nitrogen management. The resolutions were
passed at the fourth session of the United
Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) which
was held in Nairobi. The theme of the fourth
session of UNEA was Innovative Solutions for
environmental challenges and sustainable
production and consumption.
11
Resolution on Single-use Plastics
 The resolution on Single-use Plastics rings
the alarm about plastic waste since only nine
per cent of the nine billion tonnes of plastics
ever produced have been recycled and that
most of it end in landfills, dumps and the
environment.
 The resolution notes the important role of key
sectors such as plastics producers, retailers
and the consumer goods industry, as well as
importers, packaging firms, transport firms,
and recyclers to contribute to the reduction of
plastic waste, arising from their products and
activities, as well as to provide information on
the impacts arising from their products and
encourages innovative approaches such as
the use of extended producer responsibility
RE
schemes, deposit refund schemes and other
initiatives.
 The resolution also welcomes the global
efforts to raise awareness about the negative
impacts of plastic pollution and in that regard
Day held under the theme “beating plastic
pollution” with India as its global host.
Resolution on Sustainable Nitrogen
Management
 The resolution recognises the multiple
pollution threats resulting from anthropogenic
reactive nitrogen, with adverse effects on the
terrestrial, freshwater and marine environments,
contributing to air pollution and greenhouse
gas emissions, while acknowledging the
benefits of nitrogen.
 The resolution notes the initiatives like the
Global Partnership on Nutrient Management
(GPNM), International Nitrogen Management
System as a science support system for policy
development across the nitrogen cycle and
the initiatives taken by South Asia Cooperative
Environment Programme (SACEP).
 The resolution calls for options to facilitate
better coordination of policies across the
global nitrogen cycle at the national, regional
and global levels, including consideration of
the case to establish an intergovernmental
coordination mechanism on nitrogen
policies, based primarily on existing networks
and platforms and consider the case for
developing an integrated nitrogen policy,
which could enhance the gravity of common
cause between multiple policy domains.
P2020_CRCA_500/D17
10. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the
first country in world to develop such a
document.
Supplementary notes:
India Cooling Action Plan(ICAP)
 India is the first country in world to develop
such a document, which addresses cooling
requirement across sectors and lists out
actions which can help reduce the cooling
demand.
 The overarching goal is to provide sustainable
cooling and thermal comfort for all while
securing environmental and socio-economic
interventions, refrigerant-based technologies
and alternative technologies such as not-in-
kind technologies.
 Suggest interventions in each sector to
provide for sustainable cooling and thermal
comfort for all.
 Focus on skilling of RAC service technicians.
 Develop an R&D innovation ecosystem
for indigenous development of alternative
technologies.
Goals of the ICAP:
 Reduction of cooling demand across sectors
by 20% to 25 % by year 2037-38.
 Reduction of refrigerant demand by 25% to
30% by year 2037-38.

RE
benefits for the society.  Reduction of cooling energy requirements by
25% to 40% by year 2037-38.
Objectives of the ICAP:
 Training and certification of 100,000 servicing
 Assessment of cooling requirements across
sector technicians by the year 2022-23, in
sectors in next 20 years and the associated
synergy with Skill India Mission.
refrigerant demand and energy use.
 Recognize “cooling and related areas” as a
 Map the technologies available to cater
thrust area of research under the national S&T
O
the cooling requirement including passive
Programme.

**********
SC
GS

P2020_CRCA_500/D17 12
 QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following are the features Which of the above statements are correct?
of Hazardous Waste (Management (a) 1 and 2 only
& Transboundary Movement) Rules, (b) 1 and 3 only
2016?
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. Solid plastic waste has been prohibited
(d) 1, 2 and 3
from import into the country including
in Special Economic Zones (SEZ) and by
Export Oriented Units (EOU). 4. Consider the following statements
2. Exporters of silk waste have now been given regarding Pamba-Achankovil-Vaippar
exemption from requiring permission from river link project:
the Ministry of Environment, Forest and 1. It is a part of river linking projects of the

RE
Climate Change. National Water Development Agency.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. It involves diversion of water from Pamba
below: and Achankovil rivers of Kerala to the
Vaippar basin in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(b) 2 only O (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements (d)
SC
regarding UN Convention to Combat
Desertification: Conference of Parties 5. With reference to ‘National Chambal
Sanctuary’ consider the following
(UNCCD COP-14):
statements:
1. It was hosted by China.
1. The sanctuary is located on the Chambal
2. The theme of the conference was ‘Restore River near the tri-point of Rajasthan,
GS

land, Sustain future’. Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. It is home to Gharial.
(a) 1 only 3. Gharial is a critically endangered species.

(b) 2 only Which of the statement given above are

correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3. Consider the following statements: (c)

1. Ecological Fiscal Transfers (ETFs) distributes (d) 1, 2 and 3

a share of intergovernmental fiscal transfers
to ecological indicators.
2. As per the 14th Finance Commission, 7.5%
of total centre-state disbursement is to be
set aside for ETFs.
3. ETFs did not increase spending on forests
by states in India.
6. Consider the following statements
regarding Olive Ridley Turtles:
1. They are the smallest and most abundant
of all sea turtles found in the world.
2. This species is recognized as Vulnerable by
the IUCN Red list.

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D18
 Which of the above statements is/are correct? 9. With reference to the recently
(a) 1 only published Global Migration Report,
(b) 2 only consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The report is published by International
Organization for Migration (IOM).
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. As per the report, India is the largest country
7. Consider the following statements: of origin of international migrants.

1. Article 28 of the Paris Agreement allows 3. China is the leading recipient of remittances
countries to leave the Paris Agreement and followed by India.
lays down the process for leaving.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2. A country can only give a notice for leaving
at least one year after the Paris Agreement (a) 1 only
came into force.
(b) 1 and 2 only
3. US will be the only country left out of the
3 only

RE
Paris Climate Agreement. (c)

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (d) 2 and 3 only

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
10. The Emissions Gap Report, 2019
was released recently. Consider the
(c) 1 and 3 only
following statements in this regard:
(d) None of the above
O
1. It is a flagship publication of UNEP released
annually.
8. Which of the following statements
about Feni River is/are correct? 2. As per this report, India is the second largest
SC
1. It is a trans-boundary river which originates emitter of GHGs but is on track to achieve
in Bangladesh and enters India before its self-declared climate-targets.
flowing into Bay of Bengal. 3. Transport sector is the largest emitter of
2. Muhuri River is its right bank tributary. GHGs as per this report.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
below:
GS

(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

**********

P2020_CRCA_500/D18 4
 ANSWER HINTS
Answer Key
Q. 1 (c) Q. 3 (d) Q. 5
Q. 2 (B) Q. 4 (d) Q. 6
1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Hazardous Waste (Management&
Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate

Change has amended the Hazardous and
O Movement) Rules, 2016, provided that
Other Wastes (Management & Transboundary
Movement) Rules, 2016 in order to strengthen
the implementation of environmentally sound
SC
management of hazardous waste in the
country.
 The amendment has been done keeping into
consideration the “Ease of Doing Business”
and boosting “Make in India” initiative by
simplifying the procedures under the Rules,
while at the same time upholding the principles
GS
of sustainable development and ensuring
minimal impact on the environment.
 Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management
& Transboundary Movement) Amendment
Rules, 2019 has the following features:
 Solid plastic waste has been prohibited
from import into the country including
in Special Economic Zones (SEZ) and by
Export Oriented Units (EOU).
 Exporters of silk waste have now
been given exemption from requiring
permission from the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate
Change.
 Electrical and electronic assemblies
and components manufactured in and
exported from India, if found defective
can now be imported back into the
country, within a year of export, without
P2020_CRCA_500/D18
(b) Q. 7 (b) Q. 9 (c)
(c) Q. 8 (b) Q. 10 (c)
obtaining permission from the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
RE
 Industries which do not require consent
under Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act 1974 and Air (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act 1981, are now
exempted from requiring authorization
also under the Hazardous and Other
Wastes (Management & Transboundary
hazardous and other wastes generated
by such industries are handed over to the
authorized actual users, waste collectors or
disposal facilities.
2. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: UNCCD COP - 14 was
hosted by India.
Supplementary notes:
UN Convention to Combat Desertification:
Conference of Parties (UNCCD COP-14).
 Held in Greater Noida, this was the first
time that India hosted an edition of the
UNCCD COP.
 The theme of the Conference was ‘Restore
land, Sustain future’.
 India being the global host for COP 14 has
taken over the COP Presidency from China for
the next two years till 2021.
 India is among the select few countries to have
hosted the COP of all three Rio conventions
on climate change, biodiversity and land.
Important Points to be remembered:
 Delhi Declaration: Commitment for a range of
issues, including gender and health, ecosystem
6
 restoration, taking action on climate change,
private sector engagement, Peace Forest
Initiative and recovery of five million hectares
of degraded land in India.
 The country parties have agreed to make
the Sustainable Development Goal target of
achieving land degradation neutrality by 2030,
a national target for action.
 Peace Forest Initiative: It is an initiative of
South Korea to use ecological restoration as a
peace-building process. It aims at addressing
the issue of land degradation in conflict-torn
border areas and would go a long way in
alleviating tensions and building trust between
communities living there and between enemy
countries in particular.
 Drought Toolbox: It is launched as a one-
RE
stop-shop for all actions on drought. It is a
sort of knowledge bank which contains tools
that strengthen the ability of countries to
anticipate and prepare for drought effectively
and mitigate their impacts as well as tools that
enable communities to anticipate and find
the land management tools that help them to
build resilience to drought.

O
International coalition for action on Sand and
Dust storms (SDS): The coalition will develop
an SDS source base map with the goal of
improving monitoring and response to these
SC
storms. SDS affects approximately 77% of
UNCCD country Parties or approximately 151
countries.
 Initiative of Sustainability, Stability and Security
(3S): Launched by 14 African countries to
address migration driven by land degradation.
It aims at restoring land and creating green
GS
jobs for migrants and vulnerable groups.
 Cooperation From Youth: The global Youth
Caucus on Desertification and Land convened
its first official gathering in conjunction with
the UNCCD COP14 to bring together youth
advocates from different parts of the world,
to build their capacity, share knowledge, build
networks and to engage them meaningfully in
the UNCCD processes.
4. Correct Option: (d)
3. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Ecological Fiscal Transfers
 Center for Global Development analyzed state
budgets to examine whether ecological fiscal
7 P2020_CRCA_500/D18
transfers (EFTs) have impacted state forestry
expenditures in a recent study.
 EFTs is meant to reward states that protected
their forests. Within the total centre-state
disbursement, 7.5% was set aside to be
divided among states based on the area
of forests within states (by 14th Finance
Commission).
 Consequently, states that preserved forests
stood to gain in terms of greater disbursement
from the centre.
 Based on available state budget data of 25
Indian states which accounted for 90% of
India’s forest cover (as of 2013), they find
that forestry budgets increased by 19%
in the three years EFTs were introduced.
However, the authors do not attribute
the increase in forestry budgets to EFTs
because forest spending as a share in total
state spending actually decreased by 16%
post EFT.
 EFTs did not increase forest budgets either
because states did not expect them to be
a criterion in future tax devolutions or the

funding was not significant enough.
For EFTs to work as a mechanism to restore
forests and mitigate climate change, it needs
to be retained in the next devolution formula
by the 15th Finance Commission with the base
year for forest cover measurement updated to
2019 (from 2013 currently).
 Ecological Fiscal Transfers (EFTs) distributes
a share of intergovernmental fiscal transfers
and revenue sharing schemes according to
ecological indicators such as protected areas
or watershed management areas. These
conservation areas thus become a source of
income for the receiving governments.
 Today, EFTs are often seen as an instrument
that incentivizes decentralized conservation
efforts.
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
River Interlinking Project
 The National River Linking Project (NRLP)
formally known as the National Perspective
Plan, envisages the transfer of water from
water ‘surplus’ basins where there are flooding
to water ‘deficit’ basins where there is drought/
 scarcity, through inter-basin water transfer
projects.
 Pamba-Achankovil-Vaippar river link project
was envisaged in 1995 for producing 500
MW of power for Kerala and irrigating 91,400
hectares of land at Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli
and Thoothukudi districts in Tamil Nadu.
 The river link proposal is listed among the
river linking projects of the National Water
Development Agency.
 It involves diversion of 634 Mm3 of water
from the Pamba and Achankovil rivers in
Kerala to the Vaippar basin in Tamil Nadu.
 Kerala government has opposed the move
citing a deficit of usable water for its own use.
5. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Only statement 1 is incorrect: National
Chambal Sanctuary is located on the Chambal
River near the tri-point of Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
O in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the
Supplementary notes:
National Chambal Sanctuary
The National Chambal Sanctuary was
SC
 Ridley turtle, are best known for their unique
established in 1979. It is located on the
Chambal River near the tripoint of Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
 Chambal Sanctuary is a division of one large
region jointly managed by the governments
of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and
Rajasthan.
GS
 It spreads across Sheopur, Morena and Bhind
districts of Madhya Pradesh.
 It is also known as the Chambal Gharial
Sanctuary for the rich population of Gharials
found here. It is home to Gharial (critically
endangered), Gangetic river dolphin
(Endangered) and red-crowned roofed turtle
(critically endangered).
 It is an area notified by the Ministry of
Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(MoEFCC), around Protected Areas, National
Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
 Notifications declaring areas as ESZ are
issued under the Environment (Protection)
Act 1986.
 The main aim behind ESZs is to regulate
certain activities to minimise the negative
impacts of such activities on the fragile
P2020_CRCA_500/D18
ecosystem surrounding the protected
areas.
6. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Olive Ridley Turtles
 The Odisha forest department banned fishing
between November 2019-May 2020, in the
state’s Gahiramatha Marine Sanctuary to
protect Olive Ridley turtles.
 Gahiramatha, located in Odisha, is known as
the world’s largest Olive Ridley rookery.
RE
 These animals come in lakhs in the waters
surrounding the sanctuary in November for
mating. The females lay eggs in March.
 Trawlers and boatmen have been directed not
to fish within 20 kilometres of the coastline.
 The Olive Ridley Turtles are the smallest
and most abundant of all sea turtles found
Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.
 These turtles, along with their cousin, Kemps
mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands
of females come together on the same beach
to lay eggs.
 The species is recognized as Vulnerable
by the IUCN Red list and is placed under
Appendix 1 of CITES.
 They are carnivores, and feed mainly on
jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs and a
variety of fish and their eggs.
 These turtles spend their entire lives in the
ocean, and migrate thousands of kilometres
between feeding and mating grounds in the
course of a year.
7. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: A country can only
give a notice for leaving at least three years
after the Paris Agreement came into force.
Supplementary notes:
Paris Agreement
 The Paris Agreement of 2016 is a historic
international accord that brings almost 200
8
 countries together in setting a common target
to reduce global greenhouse emissions in an
effort to fight climate change.
 The pact seeks to keep global temperature rise
to below 2 degrees Celsius from pre-industrial
levels, and to try and limit the temperature
increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
 To this end, each country has pledged to
implement targeted action plans that will limit
their greenhouse gas emissions.
 The Agreement asks rich and developed
countries to provide financial and technological
support to the developing world in its quest
to fight and adapt to climate change.
 United States initiated the process of leaving the
Paris Agreement, notifying the United Nations
of its withdrawal from the landmark climate
deal. The withdrawal will take effect one year
from delivery of the notification.
 After it leaves, the US will be the only
country left out of the global protocol.
Syria and Nicaragua, the last remaining
countries who were earlier holding out,
also became signatories in 2017.
 Article 28 of the Paris Agreement allows
O
countries to leave the Paris Agreement and
lays down the process for leaving.
SC
 A country can only give a notice for
leaving at least three years after the Paris
Agreement came into force. This happened
on November 4, 2016.
 Therefore, the US was eligible to move a notice
for leaving on November 4 2019, which it did.
The withdrawal is not immediate, however. It
GS

takes effect one year after the submission of
the notice. It means the United States will be
out of Paris Agreement only on November 4
2020.
8. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a trans-
boundary river which originates
in South Tripura district and flows
through Sabroom town and then enters
Bangladesh.
Supplementary notes:
Feni River
 On 6 November 2019, the Union Cabinet
approved a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) between India and Bangladesh on
9 P2020_CRCA_500/D18
the withdrawal of 1.82 cusecs (cubic feet
per second) of water from the Feni River by
India for a drinking water supply scheme for
Sabroom town in Tripura.
 Feni is a river in south-eastern Bangladesh.
 It is a trans-boundary river which originates
in South Tripura district and flows
through Sabroom town and then enters
Bangladesh.
 The river is navigable by small boats as far as
Ramgarh in India, about 80 kilometres (50 mi)
upstream.
 There has been no water-sharing agreement
between the countries on the Feni previously.
 Muhuri River, also called Little Feni,
from Noakhali District joins it near its mouth
RE
- right bank tributary.
9. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: India is the leading
recipient of remittances followed by China.
Supplementary notes:
Global Migration Report, 2020
 The Global Migration Report 2020 was
recently released by the UN-affiliated
International Organization for Migration
(IOM).
 Established in 1951, IOM is the leading inter-
governmental organization in the field of
migration ensuring the orderly and humane
management of migration, to promote
international cooperation on migration issues,
to assist in the search for practical solutions
to migration problems and to provide
humanitarian assistance to migrants in need,
including refugees and internally displaced
people.
 Key highlights of the report are:
 Of the 272 million international
migrants worldwide i.e. 3.5% of the
global population, India accounts for
the highest share (with 17.5 million of
them being Indians). India is followed
by Mexico (11.8 million) and China (10.7
million).
 Roughly two-thirds of international
migrants are labour migrants i.e. nearly
2/3rd of the migrants migrate in search of
work.
  India is the leading recipient of
remittances. International remittances
in 2018 (as per the 2020 report) reached
$689 billion, out of which India received
$78.6 million from the 17.5 million living
abroad. India is currently followed by
China ($67.4 billion) and Mexico ($35.7
billion).
 Remittances received by India have
consistently increased between the 2005
and 2020 reports.
 The top destination for international
migrants is the USA followed by Germany,
Saudi Arabia, Russian Federation and the
UK.
 The top migration corridors for Indians
are the United Arab Emirates, the US and
Saudi Arabia.
 The highest numbers of migrants entering
India come from Bangladesh.
 Oceania is the region with the highest
proportion of international migrants and
the UAE is the country with the highest
proportion of international migrants. More
O
than half of all international migrants (141
million) live in Europe and North America.
10. Correct Option: (c)
SC
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the fourth
largest emitter of GHGs but is on track to
achieve its self-declared climate-targets.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Energy sector is
the largest emitter of GHGs as per the 2019
GS
report.
Supplementary notes:
Emissions Gap Report, 2019
**********
P2020_CRCA_500/D18
 Recently the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) released the 10th edition
of Emissions Gap Report, 2019. (The report
is being published annually since 2011).
 It provides the latest assessment of scientific
studies on current and estimated future
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and compares
these with the emission levels permissible for
the world to progress on a least-cost pathway
to achieve the goals of the Paris Agreement.
This difference between “where we are likely
to be and where we need to be” has become
known as the ‘emissions gap’.
 Key findings of the report are:
 India is the fourth largest emitter of
greenhouse gases. It however adds
that India is among a small group of
RE
countries that are on track to achieve
their self-declared climate targets under
the Paris Agreement with their current
policies in place.
 The top four emitters (China, USA, EU and
India) contribute to over 55 per cent of
the total emissions over the last decade,
excluding emissions from land-use change
such as deforestation.
 Unless global greenhouse gas emissions
fall by 7.6 per cent each year, the world will
fail to meet the 1.5°C temperature goal of
the Paris Agreement.
 The largest share of emission comes
from the energy sector and its fossil fuel
emissions. Industry produces the next
largest footprint, followed by forestry,
transport, agriculture and buildings.
 Dramatic strengthening of the NDCs is
needed in 2020. Countries must increase
their NDC ambitions threefold to achieve
the well below 2°C goal and more than
fivefold to achieve the 1.5°C goal.
10
 QUESTIONS
1. Consider the following statements Which of the above statements are correct?
regarding the ‘Black Redstart (a) 1 and 2 only
(Phoenicurus ochruros)’: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. The species is found in Asia and Africa
(c) 2 and 3 only
only.
2. It is listed as Vulnerable under IUCN Red (d) 1, 2 and 3
List.
3. The bird sticks to Evergreen forest in India. 4. Consider the following statements
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are regarding the e-flow norms for river
correct? Ganga:
(a) 1 only 1. The e-flows are the acceptable flow regimes

RE
that are required to maintain a river in the
(b) 2 only desired environmental state.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. These norms are applicable for the entire
(d) None of the above stretch of river Ganga in India.
3. The compliance of minimum environmental
2. Consider the following statements
O flow is applicable to all existing, under-
construction and future projects on river
with respect to the Wasteland Atlas-
Ganga.
2019:
4. National Mission for Clean Ganga is
1. This is the 5th edition of Wasteland responsible for supervision, monitoring,
SC
Atlas released by Department of Land regulation of flows.
Resources.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2. It provides for both state and district wise
distribution of wastelands in the country. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. As per this report, there has been an (b) 2 and 4 only
increase in wasteland area as compared to
2008-09 levels. (c) 3 only
GS

Which of the above statements are correct? (d) 3 and 4 only

(a) 1 and 2 only

5. Which of the following statements
2 and 3 only
(b)
is/are correct with regard to Sujalam
(c) 1 and 3 only Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Maharashtra has launched the second
edition of the water conservation scheme
3. With reference to the Green Climate Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan.
Fund (GCF), consider the following 2. The scheme involves cleaning and desilting
statements: of riverfronts.

1. It supports climate change adaptation and Select the correct answer using the code given
mitigation projects in developed countries. below:
2. It is the only stand-alone multilateral (a) 1 only
financing entity whose sole mandate is to (b) 2 only
serve UNFCCC.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. NABARD is the first entity from India to be
accredited as Direct Access Entity to GCF. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D19
6. The existence of ‘Magadha Burrowing Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Frog’ has been confirmed in which of
1 only
the following states of India? (a)
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Chhattisgarh
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Jharkhand
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Bihar
(d) Andhra Pradesh 9. With reference to Fall Armyworm,
consider the following statements:
7. Match the following: 1. It is an insect indigenous to the tropical and
subtropical region of America.
List I List II
2. It feeds on the roots of the important
1. Palmyra (a) Lebanon cultivated crops and grasses.
2. Mosul (b) Iraq 3. Maize, Rice and Sugarcane are major crops
affected by this worm.

RE
3. Beirut (c) Syria
Which of the above statements are correct?
4. Sena (d) Yemen
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) 2 and 3 only
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1-c,2-b,3-a,4-d
1, 2 and 3
(b) 1-b,2-a,3-d,4-c
O (d)

(c) 1-a,2-d,3-c,4-b 10. Consider the following statements

regarding Drake Passage:
1-d,2-a,3-c,4-b
SC
(d)
1. The Passage is located between Cape
Horn at the tip of South America and the
8. Which of the following statements Antarctic Peninsula.
is/are correct regarding Danakil 2. Last year, an all-woman Indian Navy team
Depression? on Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini
had failed to cross the Passage.
1. Mount Ayalu is situated at the northern
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
GS

end of the Danakil Depression.

(a) 1 only
2. The Danakil Depression is the northern part
of the Afar Triangle. (b) 2 only

3. It has resulted from the divergence of three (c) Both 1 and 2

tectonic plates in the Horn of Africa. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

**********

P2020_CRCA_500/D19 4
 ANSWER HINTS

Answer Key

Q. 1 (d) Q. 3 (c) Q. 5 (b) Q. 7 (a) Q. 9 (c)

Q. 2 (a) Q. 4 (b) Q. 6 (b) Q. 8 (c) Q. 10 (a)

1. Correct Option: (d) Supplementary notes:

Wasteland Atlas, 2019

RE
Explanation:
 Recently the 5th edition of Wasteland
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is found almost
Atlas was released by the Department
throughout Europe, Asia and in the portions
of Land Resources in collaboration with
of Africa and breed in the high altitude areas
National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC),
of Kashmir, Ladakh, Tibet and the Central Department of Space.
Himalayan Range.
 The previous 4 editions were released in 2000,

O
Statement 2 is incorrect: Listed as Least 2005, 2010 & 2011.
Concerned under IUCN Red List.
 This Wastelands Atlas-2019 provides
 Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, the bird district and state wise distribution of
sticks to areas near wetlands, open cultivation, different categories of wastelands area
SC
scrubs, gardens and orchards. including mapping of about 12.08 Mha
hitherto unmapped area of Jammu & Kashmir.
Supplementary notes: The changes in wastelands between 2008-
09 and 2015-16 have been presented in the
Black Redstart
Atlas.
 The black redstart (Phoenicurus ochruros) is  The effort has resulted in estimating the
a small passerine bird in the redstart genus spatial extent of wastelands for entire
Phoenicurus.
GS

country to the tune of 55.76 Mha (16.96

 It is found almost throughout Europe, Asia
and in the portions of Africa and breed in the
high altitude areas of Kashmir, Ladakh, Tibet
and the Central Himalayan Range.
 In India, the bird sticks to areas near wetlands,
open cultivation, scrubs, gardens and
orchards.
 Listed as Least Concerned under IUCN Red
List.
2. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: There has been a
reduction of 0.84 Mha (0.26%) of different
wasteland categories in the country during
2008-09 to 2015-16.
% of geographical area of the Country
i.e. 328.72 Mha) for the year 2015-16 as
compared to 56.60 Mha (17.21%) in the
year 2008-09. There is a net conversion of
0.84 Mha (0.26%) of different wasteland
categories in the country during 2008-09
to 2015-16.
 A reduction in wasteland area was observed
in the categories of land with dense scrub,
waterlogged and marshy land, sandy areas,
degraded pastures / grazing land and gullied
and / or ravinous land.
 The wastelands have undergone positive
change in the states of Rajasthan (0.48 Mha),
Bihar (0.11 Mha), Uttar Pradesh (0.10 Mha),
Andhra Pradesh (0.08 Mha), Mizoram (0.057
Mha), Madhya Pradesh (0.039 Mha), Jammu &
Kashmir (0.038 Mha) and West Bengal (0.032
Mha).

P2020_CRCA_500/D19 6
  Majority of wastelands have been changed into
categories of ‘croplands’ (0.64 Mha), ‘forest-
dense / open’ (0.28 Mha), ‘forest plantation’
(0.029 Mha), ‘plantation’ (0.057 Mha) and
‘industrial area’ (0.035 Mha) etc.
4. Correct Option: (b)
3. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It supports climate
change adaptation and mitigation projects in
developing countries.
Supplementary notes:
Green Climate Fund (GCF)
 GCF was set up by the 194 countries who
are parties to the United Nations Framework
RE
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in
2010, as part of the Convention’s financial
mechanism. It aims to deliver equal amounts
of funding to mitigation and adaptation,
while being guided by the Convention’s
principles and provisions.
 GCF helps developing countries limit O flow of river Ganga, the Centre has notified
or reduce their greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions and adapt to climate change. It
seeks to promote a paradigm shift to low-
emission and climate-resilient development
taking into account the needs of nations that
SC
are particularly vulnerable to climate change
impacts.
 The Green Climate Fund is the only stand-
alone multilateral financing entity whose
sole mandate is to serve UNFCCC.
 GCF’s activities are aligned with the priorities
of developing countries through the principle
GS
of country ownership, and the Fund has
established a direct access modality so that
national and sub-national organizations can
receive funding directly, rather than only via
international intermediaries.
 The Fund’s investments can be in the form of
grants, loans, equity or guarantees.
 NABARD is the first entity from India to be
accredited as Direct Access Entity (DAE). The
signing of AMA between GCF and NABARD is
an essential first step for accessing the GCF
resources to help safeguard the lives, property
and livelihoods of millions of people against
climate change impact.
 India has nominated a total of five direct access
entities for accreditation by the GCF. The
public sector entities are NABARD and Small
Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
The private sector entities nominated are YES
7 P2020_CRCA_500/D19
Bank, IDFC Bank and IL&FS Environmental
Services. So far, NABARD and SIDBI have been
accredited by the GCF.
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The minimum
e-flow norms will apply to the upper Ganga
River Basin - starting from originating
glaciers and through respective confluences
of its head tributaries which meet at
Devaprayag up to Haridwar - and the main
stem of the river Ganga up to Unnao district
of Uttar Pradesh.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Central Water
Commission (CWC) is responsible for
supervision, monitoring, regulation of
flows.
Supplementary notes:
E-Flow Norms for River Ganga
 In order to restore and maintain continuous
minimum environmental flow (e-flow) for
the river that has to be maintained at various
locations.
 The e-flows are the acceptable flow regimes
that are required to maintain a river in the
desired environmental state.
 Uninterrupted flow of water in any river is
important to keep it clean through its natural
ecological functions and processes.
 Any dam or structure meant for diversion of
river flows for the purpose of irrigation, hydro-
power and domestic or industrial use will now
have to maintain the minimum flow under the
notification.
 The compliance of minimum environmental
flow is applicable to all existing, under-
construction and future projects.
 All existing projects, which currently do not meet
the norms, will have to comply with it within
three years. However mini and micro projects,
which do not alter the flow characteristics of
the river or stream significantly, are, exempted
from these environmental flow norms.
 The minimum e-flow norms will apply to
the upper Ganga River Basin - starting from
originating glaciers and through respective
confluences of its head tributaries which
meet at Devaprayag up to Haridwar - and
the main stem of the river Ganga up to
Unnao district of Uttar Pradesh.
  The flow conditions in these river reaches will Supplementary notes:
be monitored at hourly intervals from time to
time. The Central Water Commission (CWC) Magadha Burrowing Frog
will be the designated authority and the  The frog was first discovered in 2015.
custodian of the data. It will be responsible
 Its existence was verified and confirmed
for supervision, monitoring, regulation
recently and published in the journal Records
of flows. The CWC will also take emergent
of the Zoological Survey of India.
decisions about the water storage norms in
case of any emergency.  The frog is endemic to agricultural areas in
Nawadih and Joungi village of Jharkhand’s
 The notification also stipulates that the
Koderma district.
central and concerned State authorities will
implement demand side management plans  It has been named as Spahaerotheca Magadha
to reduce water withdrawal from the Ganga and will be known by the common name of
by adopting good and scientific practices ‘Magadha Burrowing Frog’.
such as efficient method of irrigation, reuse
 The discovery points to the fact that new
and recycle of water including monitoring and
species of frogs can still be found even in
regulation of groundwater withdrawals for
the ‘Central Indian Landscape’ other than the
various purposes.

RE
Western Ghats and the Northeast, where most
discoveries are currently taking place.
5. Correct Option: (b)
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The government of 7. Correct Option: (a)
Gujarat has launched the second edition of the
water conservation scheme Sujalam Sufalam Explanation:
Jal Sanchay Abhiyan. Option (a) is correct
O 
Supplementary notes: Supplementary notes:
Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan  Palmyra is an ancient Semitic city in present-
day Homs Governorate, Syria. Archaeological
The scheme aims to deepen water bodies in
SC

finds date back to the Neolithic period, and
the state before monsoon to increase storage
documents first mention the city in the early
of rainwater to be used during times of
second millennium BC
scarcity.
 Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq. Located
 It involves cleaning and desilting of riverfronts,
approximately 400 km (250 mi) north of
sprucing up of Irrigation canals.
Baghdad, Mosul stands on the west bank of
 The government of Gujarat has launched the the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city
GS

second edition of the water conservation of Nineveh on the east bank

scheme Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay
 Beirut is the capital and largest city of
Abhiyan. Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay
Lebanon
Abhiyan
 Sena , is an abandoned ancient town in Yemen
 The scheme involves cleaning and desilting
located in the remote eastern Hadramaut
of riverfronts. Sprucing up of Irrigation
valley.This village is distinct from the capital of
canals.
Yemen
 The state government has increased its financial
contribution for the scheme to 60 per cent,
which meant private groups getting involved 8. Correct Option: (c)
would have to give only the remaining 40 per Explanation:
cent. Danakil Depression (Map Based)
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Ayalu is
situated at the southern end of the Danakil
6. Correct Option: (b) Depression

Explanation: Supplementary notes:

 Option (b) is correct: A new species  The Danakil Depression is the northern
of burrowing frog has been confirmed part of the Afar Triangle or Afar Depression
in Jharkhand’s Chhota Nagpur Plateau. in Ethiopia

P2020_CRCA_500/D19 8
  A geological depression that has resulted
from the divergence of three tectonic
plates in the Horn of Africa.
 The Danakil Depression lies at the triple
junction of three tectonic plates and has a
complex geological history. It has developed
as a result of Africa and Asia moving apart,
causing rifting and volcanic activity. Erosion,
inundation by the sea, the rising and falling
of the ground have all played their part in the
formation of this depression. Sedimentary
rocks such as sandstone and limestone are
unconformably overlain by basalt which
resulted from extensive lava flows
 The Danakil Depression is the hottest place
on Earth in terms of year-round average
temperatures. It is also one of the lowest
places on the planet (100 m below sea level),
and without rain for most of the year. Here,
the Awash River dries up in a chain of salt
lakes such as Lake Afrera, never reaching the
Indian Ocean.
 Mount Ayalu is the westernmost and older
of the two volcanoes at the southern end
of the Danakil Depression. The other active
O and Wheat Improvement Centre (CIMMYT)
volcano, Erta Ale, is one of several crater lakes
of lava bubbling from the Earth’s mantle.
Additionally, the area contains the Dallol
sulfur springs, or hot springs. These wet
SC
environments at the Danakil Depression are
being investigated to help understand how
life might arise on other planets and moons.
 Many microorganisms living here are
extremophilic microbes of a major interest
to astrobiologists. Nonetheless, in October
2019, scientists reported that terrestrial
lifeforms, including extreme forms of archaea
GS
microorganisms, were not found to exist in the
very hot, acidic and salty conditions present in
some parts of the Danakil Depression.
 Hot springs:Among the geological points
of interest to tourists are the hydrothermal
system of Dallol and the Yellow Lake.
9. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It feeds on leaves
and stems of cultivated crops and grasses.
Supplementary notes:
Fall Armyworm (FAW)
 It is an insect indigenous to the tropical
and subtropical region of the Americas,
has been spreading across the globe harming
crops.
9 P2020_CRCA_500/D19
 This lepidopteran pest feeds in large
numbers on leaves and stems of more than
80 plant species causing major damage to
economically important cultivated crops and
grasses.
 It primarily affects maize but can cause
damage to other crops such as rice,
sorghum and sugarcane, vegetable crops
and cotton.
 It migrated to Africa in 2016 and India in June
2018.
 It has also spread to neighbouring countries
like Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Southern parts of
China, Vietnam, Cambodia and Bangladesh.
 The spread of FAW through the Indian
subcontinent has been particularly fast.
 In 2019, the pest has spread as far as Mizoram
RE
in the northeast, Uttar Pradesh in the north,
Gujarat in the west, Chhattisgarh in central
India, and several states in the south.
 Four major organisations — USAID,
International Crops Research Institute for
Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRSAT), International Maize
and Consultative Group on International
Agriculture Research (CGIAR) — have joined
hands to prepare a strategy to address the
issue.
10. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Last year, an all-
woman Indian Navy team on Indian Naval
Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini had successfully
crossed Passage.
Supplementary notes:
Drake Passage
 In a first, six rowers from four countries crossed
the Drake Passage, in just under two weeks
setting up a new Guinness World Records
(GWR).
 Last year, an all-woman Indian Navy team
on Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini
had also successfully crossed Passage.
 The Passage is located between Cape
Horn at the tip of South America and the
Antarctic Peninsula.
 It is named after Sir Francis Drake, who was the
first Englishman to circumnavigate the globe.
 It has an average depth of about 11,000
feet, with deeper regions going up to over
15,600 feet near the northern and southern
boundaries.
  The Drake Passage is considered one of the
roughest waterways in the world because
here, layers of cold seawater from the south
and warm seawater from the north collide to
form powerful eddies.
 This eddies when combined with strong winds
and storms can be treacherous for those
attempting to navigate it.
**********
O
SC
GS
P2020_CRCA_500/D19
 It is also the narrowest stretch in the Southern
Ocean and spans approximately 800 km
between the southern tip of South America
and the northern tip of the West Antarctic
Peninsula.
 The waters of the passage are highly turbulent,
unpredictable, and frequented by icebergs
and sea ice.
RE
10
 QUESTIONS
1. Consider the following statements
regarding annular solar eclipse:
1. In this type of eclipse, the moon looks like
a “dark disk on top of a larger sun-colored
disk” forming a “ring of fire”.
2. It happens when the moon is closest to the
Earth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. In a positive development, India has
added 10 more wetlands to sites
protected by the Ramsar Convention.
With reference to the above statement,
consider the following statements:
1. The Ramsar Convention is an international
treaty for the conservation and wise use of
wetlands.

RE
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. In India, 42 sites have been recognised
under the international treaty.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Keoladeo National Park is indexed in the
Montreux Record.
2. Consider the following statements:
4. The convention entered into force in India
1. National Disaster Management Authority is in 1996.
the Apex Body for Disaster Management in
India.
2. The National Institute of Disaster
O
Management (NIDM) is under the Ministry
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a)
(b)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
SC
of Home Affairs.
(c) 2 and 4 only
3. The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk
(d) None of these
Reduction 2015-2030 is a global agreement
to reduce and prevent disaster risks across
the globe. 5. Chinese Paddlefish has been recently
Which of the above statements are correct?
declared extinct. In this context
consider the following statements:
1 and 2 only
GS

(a)
1. It was one of the largest freshwater fish
(b) 2 and 3 only which was endemic to Yangtze River in
China.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. IUCN classifies it as Critically Endangered.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Yangtze is the longest river in Asia.
Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Consider the following statements
regarding Locust Invasion in Gujarat: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The locusts in Gujarat have migrated all the (b) 1 and 3 only
way from Sudan and Eritrea. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. They differ from ordinary grasshoppers (d) 1, 2 and 3
in their ability to change behaviour and
form swarms that can migrate over large
distances. 6. Consider the following statements
regarding Asia Pacific Drosophila
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Research Conference (APDRC):
(a) 1 only
1. It is a biennial conference that promotes
(b) 2 only interaction of Drosophila researchers.

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D20
 2. Drosophila is the most widely used (c) Both 1 and 2
organism for biological research as its
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
genome is entirely sequenced.
3. India recently organized the conference for
the first time. 9. Consider the following statements
Which of the above statements are correct? regarding Miyawaki method, seen in
(a) 1 and 2 only
news recently:
1. It is Japanese method of afforestation which
(b) 1 and 3 only
can turn backyards into mini-forests.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. In this method, the saplings need minimum
(d) 1, 2 and 3 maintenance and are free of chemicals and
fertilizers.
7. Consider the following statements: 3. The forests grown with method match an
1. Extraocular vision is the ability to see old-growth forest’s complex ecosystem.
without eyes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
2. The Red Brittle Star is the only species

RE
known to have this ability. (a) 1 and 2 only

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 1 and 3 only

(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Both 1 and 2
(c)
O
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 10. Consider the following statements:
1. India recently organized the first
8. With reference to India Climate International Symposium on Marine
SC
Report, 2019 consider the following Ecosystems.
statements: 2. Marine Biological Association of India aims
1. The report has been published by Indian to promote research on marine sciences in
Institute of Tropical Metrology. the Asia-Pacific region.
2. As per the report, the country witnessed Which of the above statements is/are correct?
excess rainfall during both northeast and
southwest monsoon. (a) 1 only
GS

Which of the above statement is/are correct? (b) 2 only

(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

**********

P2020_CRCA_500/D20 4
 ANSWER HINTS
Answer Key
Q. 1 (a) Q. 3 (c) Q. 5
Q. 2 (d) Q. 4 (c) Q. 6
1. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It happens when
the moon is farthest from the Earth, which is
why it seems smaller.
Supplementary notes:
Annular Solar Eclipse
 An eclipse happens when the moon while
O 
orbiting the Earth comes in between the sun
and the Earth, due to which the moon blocks
the sun’s light from reaching the Earth, causing
SC
an eclipse of the sun or a solar eclipse.
 There are three types of eclipses: one is a total
solar eclipse, which is visible only from a small
area on Earth.
 According to NASA, people who are able to
view the total solar eclipse are in the centre
of the moon’s shadow as and when it hits the
GS
Earth.
 A total solar eclipse happens when the sun,
moon and Earth are in a direct line.
 The second type of a solar eclipse is a partial
solar, in which the shadow of the moon
appears on a small part of the sun.
 The third kind is an Annular Solar Eclipse,
which happens when the moon is farthest
from the Earth, which is why it seems
smaller.
 In this type of an eclipse, the moon does
not block the sun completely, but looks like
a “dark disk on top of a larger sun-colored
disk” forming a “ring of fire”.
 Furthermore, during a solar eclipse the moon
casts two shadows on the Earth, the first one
is called the umbra, which gets smaller as it
reaches the Earth.
P2020_CRCA_500/D20
(d) Q. 7 (a) Q. 9 (a)
(d) Q. 8 (b) Q. 10 (b)
 The second one is called the penumbra, which
gets larger as it reaches the Earth.
RE
 According to NASA, people standing in the
umbra see a total eclipse and those standing
in the penumbra see a partial eclipse.
 One of the reasons that NASA studies solar
eclipses is to study the top layer of the sun
called the corona.
During an annular eclipse, NASA uses ground
and space instruments to view this top layer
when the sun’s glare is blocked by the moon.
2. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Conference on Disability-Inclusive Disaster
Risk Reduction
 The National Institute of Disaster Management
(NIDM), organized “National Conference on
Disability-inclusive Disaster Risk Reduction:
Pathways for Inclusion and Action for
Resilience”.
 The one-day conference was organized
in collaboration with the Department of
Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
(DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment (MoSJE).
 It was organised as a run up to National
Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (NPDRR)
in May 2020.
 The event was focused to bring together the
stakeholders from Disaster Risk Reduction
(DRR) and disability inclusion to deliberate
on actions and strategies for mainstreaming
disability-inclusion in DRR process.
6
3. Correct Option: (c)  FAO provides information on the general
locust situation to the global community and
Explanation: gives timely warnings and forecasts to those
 Both statements are correct countries in danger of invasion.

Supplementary notes:  Locust Warning Organisation (LWO),

Directorate of Plant Protection Quarantine
Locust Invasion in Gujarat and Storage, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers
Welfare, is responsible for monitoring, survey
 The migratory insect - locust has swarmed the
and control of Desert Locust in Scheduled
northern parts of Gujarat, causing significant
damage to agriculture. Desert Areas mainly in the States of Rajasthan
and Gujarat.
 The locusts, known as tiddis locally, destroyed
standing crops of castor, cumin, jatropha,
cotton, and potato, and fodder grass in around 4. Correct Option: (c)
20 talukas.
Explanation:
 Gujarat has not witnessed such an invasion of
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ramsar
locusts since 1993-94.
Convention is an international treaty for the

RE
 The locusts emerged in February 2019 from conservation and wise use of wetlands. A total
Sudan and Eritrea in Africa’s Red Sea Coast of 37 sites in the country have been recognised
and travelled through Saudi Arabia and under the international treaty.
Iran to enter Pakistan, where they invaded
 Statement 4 is incorrect: India became a
the Sindh province and from there they
signatory to the Ramsar Convention on 1
moved into Rajasthan and Gujarat, where
February 1982.
south western monsoon had prolonged
this time.

O
The UN Food and Agriculture Organisation
(FAO) had issued an alert of a massive locust
attack in South Asia covering Pakistan and
Supplementary notes:
Ramsar Convention
 The Ramsar Convention is an international
treaty for the conservation and wise use of
SC
India.
wetlands.
 The Locust Warning Organization (LWO) in
Jodhpur also noticed the swarms and predicted  It is named after the Iranian city of Ramsar, on
their trajectory across the international the Caspian Sea, where the treaty was signed
border. on 2 February 1971.

Locust  Known officially as ‘the Convention on

Wetlands of International Importance
A locust is a large, mainly tropical grasshopper
GS

 especially as Waterfowl Habitat’ (or, more

with strong powers of flight. They differ
from ordinary grasshoppers in their ability
to change behaviour (gregarize) and
form swarms that can migrate over large
distances.
 Locusts are generally seen during the months
of June and July as the insects are active from
summer to the rainy season.
 Locusts have a high capacity to multiply, form
groups, migrate over relatively large distances
(they can fly up to 150 km per day). They can
rapidly reproduce and increase some 20-fold
in three months.
 Threat to Vegetation: Locust adults can eat
their own weight every day, i.e. about two
grams of fresh vegetation per day. A very
small swarm eats as much in one day as about
35,000 people, posing a devastating threat to
crops and food security.
recently, just ‘the Convention on Wetlands’), it
came into force in 1975.
 The aim of the Ramsar list is to develop and
maintain an international network of wetlands
which are important for the conservation of
global biological diversity and for sustaining
human life through the maintenance of
their ecosystem components, processes and
benefits.
 The convention entered into force in India
on 1 February 1982.
 Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites
on the Ramsar list, which are facing immediate
challenges.
 The listed sites are threatened by changes that
affect their ecosystem components, processes,
benefits and services which characterise the
said wetland at a given point in time.

7 P2020_CRCA_500/D20
  In India, a total of 37 sites have been
recognised under the international treaty.
Wetlands declared as Ramsar sites are
protected under strict guidelines.
 India’s two wetlands find a place in the
Montreux Record. They are:
 Keoladeo National Park, in Rajasthan, was
designated a Ramsar site in 1981 and listed
in the Montreux Record in 1990.
 Loktak Lake in Manipur was declared a
Ramsar site in 1990 and indexed in the
Montreux Record in 1993.
5. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Chinese Paddlefish
 Recently, the Chinese paddlefish (Psephurus
gladius) has been declared extinct by Chinese
scientists. O discoveries in biology have been made using
 It was one of the world’s largest freshwater
fish which grew as long as 7 metres.
 Its ancestral home was the Yangtze River.
 It was once common in the Yangtze, before
SC
overfishing and habitat fragmentation —
including dam building — caused its population
to dwindle from the 1970s onwards. Between
1981 and 2003, there were just around 210
sightings of the fish. The researchers estimate
that it became functionally extinct by 1993,
and extinct sometime between 2005 – 2010.
GS
 Functionally extinct”, which means the species
continues to exist but it has too few members
to enable to reproduce meaningfully enough
to ensure survival.
 IUCN has classified it as Critically
Endangered (based on the last assessment
in 2009).
Yangtze River
 It is the longest river in Asia, the third-
longest river in the world and the longest
river to flow entirely in one country.
 It rises in the northern part of the Tibetan
Plateau and flows in a generally easterly
direction to the East China Sea.
6. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
9 P2020_CRCA_500/D20
Supplementary notes:
Asia Pacific Drosophila Research Conference
 The Asia Pacific Drosophila Research
Conferences (APDRC) are biennial events
that aim to promote the interaction of
Drosophila Researchers in the Asia-Pacific
region with their peers in the rest of the
world.
 The fifth edition of the Asia Pacific Drosophila
Research Conference (APDRC5) is being held
at Pune.
 The conference is being organized in the
country for the first time by the Indian
Institute of Science Education and Research
(IISER).
 The last four editions of this conference took
RE
place in Taipei, Seoul, Beijing and Osaka.
 Drosophila (or fruit fly) is one of the
most widely-used and preferred model
organisms in biological research across
the world for the last 100 years. Several
this. Its genome is entirely sequenced and
there is enormous information available about
its biochemistry, physiology and behavior.
7. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The red brittle star
becomes only the second creature, after
a sea urchin species, known to have this
ability.
Supplementary notes:
Extraocular Vision
 The ability to see without eyes is known as
extraocular vision.
 For the first time, researchers have shown that
a species of brittle stars, which are relatives of
starfish, can see even though it does not have
eyes.
 The red brittle star (Ophiocoma wendtii),
which lives in the coral reefs of the
Caribbean Sea, becomes only the second
creature, after a sea urchin species, known
to have this ability (barring freak cases in
other species).
 In sea urchins and brittle stars, researchers
suspect that extraocular vision is facilitated
by the photoreceptor cells found on their
bodies.
  The researchers suggest that a brittle star sees
with the help of light-sensing cells that cover
its entire body. These light-sensing cells give
the brittle star visual stimuli, allowing it to
recognize coarse structures such as rocks, the
research suggests.
 Another peculiar feature of the red brittle
star is its signature colour change. While the
creature is deep red during the day, it changes
its colour to beige at night.
 The researchers think that there may be a link
between their extraocular vision and colour
changing abilities since the responses they
saw in the creatures tested during the day,
disappeared in those that were tested at
night.
8. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The report has
been published by Indian Metrological
Department.
Supplementary notes:
O Kerala initiative on.
India Climate Report, 2019
 Recently, India Meteorological Department
(IMD) has released India Climate Report
SC
2019.
 Key findings of the report are:
 The India climate report 2019 confirms that
the extreme weather events have become
par for the course in the country. This is
what climate scientists have been claiming
for more than half a decade.
GS
 It notes that excessive heat, cold and
rainfall killed 1,562 people in 2019.
 In 2019, the mean temperature was 0.36
above normal while the country also
recorded excess rainfall during both the
southwest and northeast monsoons.
 The year 2019 was the seventh warmest
recorded in the country since 1901.
However, this was substantially lower than
the highest warming observed over India
during 2016.
 Intense dry spells were interspersed with
floods in several parts of the country.
 During 2019, 8 cyclonic storms formed over
the Indian seas. Arabian Sea contributed 5
out of these 8 cyclones against the normal
of 1 per year, which equals the previous
record of 1902 for the highest frequency
of cyclones over the Arabian Sea. This
P2020_CRCA_500/D20
year also witnessed development of more
intense cyclones over the Arabian Sea.
9. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Forests grown using
this method do not match a forest’s complex
ecosystem. Such forests also lack some
qualities of natural forests, such as medicinal
properties and the ability to bring rain.
Supplementary notes:
Miyawaki Method
 Kerala has decided to use the Japanese
Miyawaki method of afforestation.
 It has revolutionized the concept of urban
afforestation by turning backyards into
RE
mini-forests.
 Earlier, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana
and some other states adopted this method.
 The replication of the model across Kerala,
which has suffered floods, landslides and soil
erosion, assumes significance with the Rebuild
 It is named after the Japanese botanist and
plant ecologist Akira Miyawaki. By promoting
natural vegetation on land destroyed by natural
calamities and man-induced mistakes along
the coastline of Japan, Miyawaki managed to
raise mini-forests.
 As a side benefit, these forests serve as a
natural bulwark against soil erosion and
Tsunami.
 In contrast to conventional planting
techniques, this method allows for planting
more number of trees in small spaces.
The trees grow faster too and are free of
chemicals and fertilizers. The advantage of
Miyawaki method is that the saplings need
minimum maintenance.
 However environmentalists have questioned
the efficacy of the method that accelerates
the growth of trees and claims to match a
forest’s complex ecosystem. Such forests
also lack some qualities of natural forests,
such as medicinal properties and the ability
to bring rain.
 Miyawaki method’s increasing usage is being
justified to cut trees. It has reached a level
where people say even if we cut trees or
forests somewhere, we’ll replace them by this
method. Old-growth forests are millions of
years old and can never be replaced and they
can regenerate only if they are not disturbed
too much.
10
10. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: India recently
organized the third International Symposium
on Marine Ecosystems.
Supplementary notes:
Global Meet on Marine Ecosystems
 Eminent marine scientists, oceanographers,
fishery researchers and marine
biotechnologists assembled in Kochi to
attend the third International Symposium
on Marine Ecosystems – challenges and
opportunities from January 7 to 10.
 Organized by the Marine Biological
Association of India, MECOS-3 set a platform
recent development in aquaculture, eco-
labeling and green fishing technologies.
 The first MECOS was organized in 2009 and
MECOS-2 in 2013.
Marine Biological Association of India
(MBAI)
 The Marine Biological Association of India
was established in the year 1958 to serve the
cause of promotion of research on marine
sciences in the Asia-Pacific region. Enshrined
in the articles of the association is the primary
cause to create among its members an active
interest in the field of marine biology and
allied marine sciences. The association carries
out this objective by:
 Organizing lectures, symposia and seminars
on specific subjects

RE
for discussion on a wide range of topics,
 Offering requisite information to research
including impact of climate change on marine
workers and students undertaking research
ecosystems and unusual warming of the in marine biological sciences
Arabian Sea.
 Publishing the Journal of the Marine
 The four-day meet held at the Central Biological Association of India (JMBAI)
Marine Fisheries Research Institute assumes
significance in the backdrop of recent trend  Publishing occasional Memoirs,
Monographs and Bibliographies on topics
O
of continuous cyclonic storms and other
phenomena in the Arabian Sea. During a special
session on climate crisis, experts discussed
blue carbon habitats, ocean acidification,

of current interest in marine biology
Instituting fellowships and studentships
to research workers at various recognized
sea surface temperature, ocean warming, institutions
SC
extreme events, climate smart technologies,
 Sponsoring and aiding expeditions in
carbon foot print and impact, mitigation and
Indian Seas
vulnerability of the climate change.
 Institution of prizes in recognition of
 The meet also focused on sustainable outstanding contributions towards
development goal -14 (life under water) of advancement of marine biological
the UN, development of small-scale fisheries, sciences.
GS

**********

11 P2020_CRCA_500/D20
 QUESTIONS
1. The Supreme Court recently directed Select the correct answer using the code given
Delhi government to install smog below:
towers in India. Consider the following (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
statements in this regard: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. These smog towers will only focus on
reducing the particulate matter load in the (c) 2 and 4 only
air. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Smog towers are large-scale air-purifiers
consisting of carbon nanofibres as filters.
4. Which of the following island nations
Which of the above statements is/are correct? form the “Vanilla Islands” grouping?
(a) 1 only 1. Madagascar

RE
(b) 2 only 2. Maldives
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Mauritius
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Chagos Archipelago
5. Kerguelen Islands
2. ‘International Maritime Organization O 6. Mayotte
(IMO) recently notified new rules for
ships in the Arctic region. In this regard, Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
consider the following statements:
1. IMO has banned ships from using fuels with (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
SC
sulphur content above 0.5 percent. (b) 1, 3 and 6 only
2. Very low sulphur fuel oil (VLSFO) contributes (c) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
to highly polluting black carbon emissions
in the environment. (d) 2, 3 and 5 only

3. IMO measures cover all aspects of

international shipping. 5. With reference to Disaster
GS

Management Act of 2005, consider

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
the following statements:
(a) 2 only
1. The Act mandated the creation of the
(b) 1 and 3 only National and state Disaster Management
Authority only.
(c) 3 only
2. The main drawback of the present policy is
(d) None of the above
it neglects long-term recovery.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Which of the following are the
1 only
advantages of Polycrack technology (a)

for waste-to-energy conversion? (b) 2 only

1. It can be fed with all types of plastic (c) Both 1 and 2
2. No need for pre-segregation of wastes (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. High moisture tolerance and no need to
dry wastes 6. ‘Mount Merapi’ which was seen
4. No affect on the air quality of surrounding recently in news is located in which of
area the following country?

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D21
 (a) Indonesia 9. Consider the following statements
(b) Mexico regarding Kawal Tiger Reserve:
(c) Ethiopia
1. It is located in Andhra Pradesh.
(d) Ecuador
2. It is covered with evergreen forest.

7. Consider the following statements 3. The reserve is a catchment area for the
regarding the International Search and rivers Godavari and Kadam.
Rescue Advisory Group (INSARAG):
Which of the above statement(s) are correct?
1. It is been organized by the National Disaster
Response Force (NDRF). (a) 1 and 2 only
2. The Secretariat is located in the United
Nations Office for the Coordination of (b) 2 only
Humanitarian Affairs (OCHA).
(c) 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

RE
(a)
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 10. Which of the following countries are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 part of the South Asia Corporative
Environment Programme (SACEP)?
8. Consider the following statements:
O 1. India
1. Bajra is the principal crop in the Cauvery
Delta. 2. Pakistan
2. The river Cauvery is the fourth largest river 3. Bangladesh
SC
of the southern region and flows from
North West to the south-east. 4. Maldives
3. Tamil Nadu is heavily dependent on
Select the correct answer using the code given
monsoon rains and thereby is prone to
droughts when the monsoons fail. below:
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
GS

(a)
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

**********

P2020_CRCA_500/D21 4
 ANSWER HINTS
Answer Key
Q. 1 (c) Q. 3 (d) Q. 5
Q. 2 (d) Q. 4 (b) Q. 6
1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Smog Tower in Delhi
 The Supreme Court recently directed the
Centre and the Delhi government to draw
O
up a comprehensive plan in 10 days to install
‘smog towers’ across the capital to deal with
air pollution.
 A ‘smog tower’ being planned for Delhi
SC
as an experiment would create a “clean air
zone” around it. An estimate made by project
experts of the tower’s impact on air quality
shows it would reduce 50% of the particulate
matter load in an area 1 km in the direction of
the wind, as well as 200 metres each along the
sides of the tower and against the direction of
the wind.
GS
 The filters being installed in it would use
carbon nanofibres as a major component
and the project will only focus on reducing
particulate matter load at present.
 The project is being headed by the Indian
Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay in
collaboration with IIT-Delhi and the University
of Minnesota. The Central Pollution Control
Board is also involved with the project.
 Smog towers are structures designed to
work as large-scale air purifiers. They are
usually fitted with multiple layers of air filters,
which clean the air of pollutants as it passes
through them. China, which has been battling
air pollution for a few years, has two smog
towers — in its capital Beijing and in a northern
city called Xi’an. The latter is dubbed as the
world largest smog tower and has reportedly
brought down PM 2.5 by 19% in an area of
around 6 sq. km in the tower’s vicinity.
P2020_CRCA_500/D21
(b) Q. 7 (c) Q. 9 (c)
(a) Q. 8 (b) Q. 10 (d)
2. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
RE
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
UN New Rules for Ships in the Arctic
 The International Maritime Organization
(IMO), the shipping agency of the United
Nations, recently issued new rules aiming to
reduce sulphur emissions, due to which ships
are opting for newer blends of fuels.
The IMO has banned ships from using fuels

with sulphur content above 0.5 per cent,
compared with 3.5 per cent previously.
 Sulphur oxides (SOx), which are formed after
combustion in engines, are known to cause
respiratory symptoms and lung disease, while
also leading to acid rain.
The new limits are monitored and enforced

by national authorities of countries that are
members of the International Convention
for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) Annex VI.
 Under the new policy, only ships fitted with
sulphur-cleaning devices, known as scrubbers,
are allowed to continue burning high-sulphur
fuel.
 Alternatively, they can opt for cleaner fuels,
such as marine gasoil (MGO) and very low-
sulfur fuel oil (VLSFO).
 Of the two cleaner fuels, ship owners were
expected to opt for MGO, which is made
exclusively from distillates, and has low
sulphur content.
 However, many are reportedly choosing
VLSFO, which has better calorific properties
and other technical advantages. There are
complaints against VLSFO as well, as testing
6
 companies have claimed that high sediment
formation due to the fuel’s use could damage
vessel engines.
 VLSFO with 0.5 per cent sulphur content
can contain a large percentage of aromatic
compounds, thus contribute to highly polluting
black carbon emissions in the environment
International Maritime Organization
 As a specialized agency of the United Nations,
IMO is the global standard-setting authority
for the safety, security and environmental
performance of international shipping. Its
main role is to create a regulatory framework
for the shipping industry that is fair and
effective, universally adopted and universally
implemented.
 IMO measures cover all aspects of
international shipping – including ship
design, construction, equipment, manning,
operation and disposal – to ensure that this
vital sector for remains safe, environmentally
sound, energy efficient and secure.
3. Correct Option: (d) O 
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
SC
Polycrack Technology
 By January 2020, pretty much all kind of waste
generated at Bhubaneswar’s railway station,
carriage and coaching depot will be converted
into light diesel oil that can be used in furnaces
and gas that can be used to keep the waste-
to-energy plant running.
GS
 This will be done using a patented technology
developed by Indian Railways’ Bhubaneswar-
located Carriage Repair Workshop, called
Polycrack.
 The world’s first such process, Polycrack
converts multiple feedstock into hydrocarbon
liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water.
 This will be the third such facility in India. The
same technology is being used for waste-
to-energy plants at New Delhi and Infosys,
Bengaluru.
 Polycrack can be fed with all types of
plastic; petroleum sludge; un-segregated
municipal solid waste with moisture up to 50
per cent; electronic waste, automobile fluff,
organic waste including bamboo, garden
waste; jatropa fruit and palm bunch.
 Polycrack’s strength includes not requiring
pre-segregation of waste, allowing waste
as collected to be directly used. With a high
7 P2020_CRCA_500/D21
moisture tolerance, drying of waste is not
required.
 Waste is processed within 24 hours. The
working environment is dust free as the
unit is enclosed and the air quality of the
surrounding area is not hit. Also, the area
required for installing the plant is less when
compared with the conventional method of
processing, and all constituents are converted
into energy.
4. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Vanilla Islands
RE
 Vanilla Islands is a grouping of six island
nations in south-west Indian Ocean
who joined hands in 2010 to integrate
their efforts to boost tourism. Mayotte,
Comoros, Mauritius, Seychelles, Reunion
and Madagascar are its members.
The term ‘Vanilla’ is used because these
countries are known for their export of the
flavoring substance Vanilla.
 Importance of Vanilla Islands for India:
 As India, China as well as other countries
eye the resources of Africa, the islands
situated on important sea lines of
communication (SLOC) have become
strategically important. This importance
is further increased by China trying to
increase its footprint in the Indian Ocean
region.
 Important European countries like France,
Britain and US maintain presence in the
Indian Ocean through the territories in this
region.
 India also finds a convergence of goals in
the islands’ insistence on global measures
to arrest climate change and developing
Blue Economy grounded in the sustainable
use of the resources of the ocean.
 The islands have presence of Indian
diaspora, giving it a certain leverage, and
shared history of a colonial past with
India.
 Recently, India sent an amphibious
warship, INS Airavat, to Madagascar in
the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) to help in
rescue efforts after the island nation was
hit by a cyclone. As part of Operation
Vanilla, the Navy delivered clothing, food
and medicines, and also provided diving and
communication assistance for evacuation.
The move follows an appeal by Madagascar
 President for international help to deal with an
unprecedented situation caused by floods.
5. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act mandated
the creation of the National Disaster
Management Authority, State Disaster
Management Authorities and District Disaster
Management Authorities.
Supplementary notes
Proposal to Amend the Disaster Management
Act of 2005
 The present Act largely focuses on:
 Improving preparedness
RE
 Providing immediate relief
 Protecting infrastructure
 The main drawback of the present policy is it
neglects long-term recovery.
A brief about disaster management act, 2005 O
 It was enacted to effectively prevent, mitigate
(reducing the severity) and prepare for
disasters.
It came into being on the heels of three major
SC
 Act.
disasters.
1999 - Super cyclone in Odisha
6. Correct Option: (a)

 2001 - Bhuj earthquake
 2004 - Indian Ocean tsunami.
 The Act mandated the creation of the
National Disaster Management Authority,
GS
State Disaster Management Authorities and
District Disaster Management Authorities.
 It laid down the framework, roles and
responsibilities of these bodies to formulate
and implement disaster management plans at
their levels.
The focus of the act is preparedness, that is:
 Most States invested in resilient infrastructure,
early warning systems and evacuation.
 This translated into
 timely warnings
 relief shelters and
 massive evacuation exercises
 All these steps have reduced casualties.
 NDRF and SDRF have helped in providing
immediate relief in the aftermath of disasters.
9 P2020_CRCA_500/D21
Long-term recovery
 Once the hazardous situation is passed, the
important aspect is how to ensure recovery.
 We are seeing disasters from the narrow prism
of providing food, water and medicines.
 At the most, some states are looking at
providing shelter.
 These interventions are crucial, but long-term
recovery needs much more.
What is urgently needed?
 Recovery measures should address inherent
vulnerabilities pertaining to livelihoods,
education, water, sanitation, health, and
ecology of the disaster-affected communities.
 Intangible losses such as psychosocial needs
of the communities should be given equal
emphasis.
 Long-term recovery needs to be thought
of alongside development in an integrated
comprehensive manner by combining health,
skill building and livelihood diversification
schemes.
 This would ensure that communities have, at
the very least, recovered to a new normal before
the next disaster strikes. This understanding is
crucial to the lawmakers looking to amend the
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Indonesia’s Mount Merapi Erupts
 Mt Merapi, located near Yogyakarta, is one of
the most active volcanoes on earth and has
erupted regularly since 1548.
 It is one of some 500 volcanoes in Indonesia,
from which at least 129 are active in the volcanic
arc spread along the Asia-Pacific islands called
the Ring of Fire– a section of fault lines and
volcanoes stretching from the western coast
of South America, Alaska through Japan and
Southeast Asia.
 The name Merapi could be loosely translated
as “Mountain of Fire” from the Javanese
combined words “Meru,” meaning “mountain,”
and “api,” meaning “fire.”
 Merapi is the youngest and southernmost of a
volcanic chain extending north and northwest,
to the Mount Ungaran volcano.
  Tectonically, Merapi is situated at the
subduction zone where the Indo-Australian
Plate is sliding beneath the Eurasian Plate.
 Mount Merapi is a stratovolcano – a tall,
conical volcano composed of one layer of
hardened lava, tephra (fragmented material
produced by a volcanic eruption) and volcanic
ash.
 These volcanoes are characterized by a steep
profile and periodic, explosive eruptions.
7. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
International Search and Rescue Advisory
Group (INSARAG)
 The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
has organized the second BIMSTEC Disaster
Management Exercise as per the International
Search & Rescue Advisory Group (INSARAG)
guidelines for familiarization & exercise
purposes.
O the monsoons fail.
 The International Search and Rescue
Advisory Group (INSARAG) was established
in 1991.
SC
 It is a network of disaster-prone and disaster-
responding countries and organizations
dedicated to urban search and rescue (USAR)
and operational field coordination.
 It aims to establish standards and classification
for international USAR teams as well as a
methodology for international response
GS
coordination in the aftermath of earthquakes
and collapsed structure disasters.
 The Secretariat is located in the United Nations
Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian
Affairs (OCHA).
8. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In the Cauvery Delta
rice (NOT Bajra) is the principal crop; it is either
single or double-cropped. A third crop rise is
also grown during summer in some parts.
Supplementary notes:
“Cauvery Delta and Protected Special
Agriculture Zone”
 The Cauvery Delta lies at the bottom of the
Cauvery river basin. The river Cauvery is the
P2020_CRCA_500/D21
fourth largest river of the southern region and
flows from North West to the south-east.
 Cauvery Delta zone consists of four districts
of Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Thrivarur
and parts of the district Trichy, Cuddalore and
Puddubbottai in Tamil Nadu.
 Cauvery Delta zone has a total geographical
land area of 1.45 million Ha which is equivalent
11% of the area of Tamil Nadu state.
 In the Cauvery Delta rice is the principal crop;
it is either single or double-cropped. A third
crop rise is also grown during summer in
some parts.
 Because of plentiful rainfall during North-
East monsoon and good irrigation facilities
rice is the most suitable from September to
December.
RE
 The landholdings in the delta are quite
small with more than 75% are one ha or
less. Population growth has progressively
diminished the size of landholdings.
 Tamil Nadu is heavily dependent on monsoon
rains and thereby is prone to droughts when
 The climate of the state ranges from dry sub-
humid to semi-arid. The state has three distinct
periods of rainfall
 The south-west monsoon from June to
September, with strong southwest winds
 North-East monsoon from October to
December, with dominant northeast winds
 The dry season from January to May
 The normal annual rainfall of the state is about
945 mm of which 48% is through the North-
East monsoon, and 32% through the South-
West monsoon.
 Since the state is entirely dependent on rains
for recharging its water resources, monsoon
failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe
drought.
9. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Kawal Tiger Reserve
is located in Adilabad district in Telangana
state.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a dry deciduous
teak forest mixed with bamboo, terminalia,
Pterocarpus and cassias constitute the
predominant flora of the region.
10
Supplementary notes:
Kawal Tiger Reserve
 The man-animal conflict in the Kawal Tiger
Reserve (KTR) is on the decline as there was no
incident of wild animals straying into human
habitations for water in 2019.
 Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in Adilabad
district in Telangana state.
 It was declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2012.
The reserve is a catchment area for the rivers
Godavari and Kadam.
 It is a dry deciduous teak forest mixed with
bamboo, terminalia, Pterocarpus and cassias
constitute the predominant flora of the
region.
 The reserve has several species of animals
including Cheetal, Sambar, Barking Deer,
**********
O
SC
GS
11
Nilgai, Sloth Bear, Indian Bison, Panther and
Tiger.
10. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 South Asia Co-operative Environment
Programme (SACEP) is an inter-governmental
organization established in 1982 by the
government of South Asia to promote
and support protection, management and
enhancement of the Environment in the
region.
 SACEP member countries are Afghanistan,
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives,
RE
Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
P2020_CRCA_500/D21
 QUESTIONS
1. According to the recent data on Start 2. Entrepreneurial activity in the Agriculture
Ups released in Economic Survey, sector is higher in Manipur and
Meghalaya.
consider the following statements:
3. Manufacturing sector is highest in the
1. India ranked first in the number of new regions of Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu.
firms created across the globe.
Which of the following statements is/are
2. Birth of new firms is homogenous across correct?
Indian districts and across sectors.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) 3 only
(a) 1 only
1, 2 and 3

RE
(d)
(b) 2 only
Both 1 and 2
(c)
4. The entrepreneurial intensity is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 significantly higher for the developed
economies while it is also growing
2. With reference to relationship between O across all countries except a South
Entrepreneurship and GDP as stated American country ___________ , which
in the Economic Survey, consider the has seen a significant decline?
following statements? (a) Argentina
SC
1. Entrepreneurs are seen as agents of change (b) Peru
that accelerate innovation in the economy.
(c) Chile
2. On a per-capita basis, India has high rates
(d) Brazil
of entrepreneurship in the formal economy
compared to the informal economy.
3. Peninsular states dominate entry of new
5. Which of the following statement is/
firms compared to other parts of the are correct:
GS

country. 1. Liberalization of the Indian economy

enabled the forces of creative destruction.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct? 2. SENSEX has grown at an accelerating pace
post market reforms introduced in 90s.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 and 3 only below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. With reference to Spatial Heterogeneity (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in Entrepreneurial Activity based on
the Economic survey, consider the 6. Consider the following statements:
following statements
1. The share of financials and information
1. All regions demonstrate strong growth in technology sectors in the total market
entrepreneurial activity with the exception capitalization has increased over the last
of the eastern states. two decades.

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D22
 2. Herfindahl Index is used to analyse degree Which of the following statement is/are correct?
of competition within the two sectors
(a) 1 only
reveals.
Which of the following statement is/are correct? (b) 2 only

(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

9. With reference to Essential
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Commodities Act, 1955, consider the
7. Which of the following statement is/ following statements:
are correct about Dutch Disease in 1. It is applicable only to agricultural
economics? commodities such as Onions and Pulses.

(a) It’s a phenomenon wherein countries that 2. It gives the central government the power
are rich in natural resources witness uneven to fix price limits, and regulate stock limits,

RE
growth across sectors. of essential goods.
(b) It can affect the exchange rate of the 3. On average, the conviction rate under the
currency of resource rich country. Act is abysmally low at 2-4 percent.
(c) Coal Mines sector in India suffered from Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
this disease from 1993 to 2011.
(a) 1 and 2 only
All of the above
(d)
O (b) 2 and 3 only

8. The recent economic survey suggests (c) 3 only

promoting pro-business policies to (d) 1 and 3 only
SC
unleash the power of competitive
markets to generate wealth and to 10. The term “Maximum Allowable Post-
wean away pro-crony policies. In manufacturing Expenses” (MAPE) ,
this context, consider the following frequently seen in the news, is used
statements:
in which context?
1. Pro crony policies promote preferential
GS

treatment to some incumbent firms (a) Agro-process industries

making resource allocation efficient in the (b) Pharmaceutical Policy
economy.
(c) Automobile industries
2. Pro-business policies maximize the citizen’s
welfare. (d) Data Centres.

**********

P2020_CRCA_500/D22 4
 ANSWER HINTS

Answer Key

Q. 1 (d) Q. 3 (a) Q. 5 (c) Q. 7 (d) Q. 9 (a)

Q. 2 (c) Q. 4 (d) Q. 6 (c) Q. 8 (b) Q. 10 (b)

1. Correct option: (d) 2. Correct option: (c)

Explanation: Explanation:

RE
 Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranked third in
number of new firms created.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Birth of new firms
is very heterogeneous across Indian districts
and across sectors.
Supplementary notes:
O 
Entrepreneurship and Wealth Creation at the
Grassroots (Economic Survey)
 The “Startup India” campaign of the Government
SC
of India recognizes entrepreneurship as
an increasingly important strategy to fuel
productivity growth and wealth creation in
India.
 India ranks third in number of new firms
created.
 Data shows that new firm creation has gone
GS
 Statement 2 is incorrect: On a per-capita
basis, India has low rates of entrepreneurship
in the formal economy.
Supplementary notes:
Entrepreneurship and GDP
Entrepreneurs are seen as agents of change
that accelerate innovation in the economy.
 On a per-capita basis, India has low rates of
entrepreneurship in the formal economy. A
large number of India’s enterprises operate in
the informal economy which is not captured
in these data.
 It is clear that entrepreneurial activity has a
significant positive impact on GDP.
 The peninsular states dominate entry of
new firms, entrepreneurship is dispersed
across India and is not restricted just to a few

up dramatically in India since 2014. metropolitan cities.

 New firm creation in services is significantly
higher than that in manufacturing, 3. Correct option: (a)
infrastructure or agriculture.
Explanation:
 Entrepreneurship at the bottom of the
administrative pyramid – a district – has a  Statement 3 is incorrect: Manufacturing sector
significant impact on wealth creation at the is highest in the regions of Gujarat, Meghalaya,
grass root level. Puducherry, Punjab and Rajasthan.

 Birth of new firms is very heterogeneous Supplementary notes:

across Indian districts and across sectors.
 Literacy and education in the district foster
local entrepreneurship significantly.
 The eastern part of India has the lowest literacy
rate of about 59.6 per cent according to the
census of 2011. This is also the region in which
new firm formation is the lowest.
 The level of local education and the quality of
physical infrastructure in the district influence
new firm creation significantly.
Spatial Heterogeneity in Entrepreneurial
Activity
 The impact of new firm entry is greatest in the
Manufacturing and Services sectors.
 All regions demonstrate strong growth in
entrepreneurial activity over time with the
exception of the eastern states.
 Agriculture sector are not geographically
localized and seem to be distributed evenly
across most districts in India.

P2020_CRCA_500/D22 6
  States in the highest quintile of relative
entrepreneurial activity in the Agriculture
sector are Manipur, Meghalaya, Madhya
Pradesh, Assam, Tripura and Orissa.
 North Eastern states are more likely to be
private enterprises in the food business such
as organic produce farms and tea plantations.
 Majority of the establishments in Madhya
Pradesh and Orissa are farmer producer
companies.
 Manufacturing sector is highest in the regions
of Gujarat, Meghalaya, Puducherry, Punjab
and Rajasthan.
 States with inflexible labour laws such as
West Bengal, Assam, Jharkhand, Kerala and
Bihar were classified in the lowest quintiles of
entrepreneurial activity.
Gujarat’s labour reforms are viewed as pro-

worker.
 Entrepreneurial activity in the Infrastructure
sector is highest in the states of Jharkand,
Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh,
Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir and Bihar, some
of which are characterized by poor levels of
extant infrastructure. O period.
4. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
SC
 Option(d) is correct: In general, the
entrepreneurial intensity is significantly higher
for the developed economies. It is also growing
across all countries except Brazil, which has
seen a significant decline.
Supplementary notes:
Other Major Outcomes from entrepreneurial
GS
intensity
 Entrepreneurship as a strategy to fuel
productivity growth and wealth creation. Birth
of new firms in India is heterogeneous and
dispersed across districts and sectors.
 Ease of Doing Business and flexible labour
regulation enable new firm creation, especially
in the manufacturing sector.
 Economic Survey suggests enhancing ease
of doing business and implementing flexible
labour laws can create maximum jobs in
districts and thereby in the states.
 Literacy, education and physical infrastructure
are the other policy levers that district and
state administrations must focus on foster
entrepreneurship
 In general, the entrepreneurial intensity
is significantly higher for the developed
economies. It is also growing across all
7 P2020_CRCA_500/D22
countries except Brazil, which has seen a
significant decline from 2010 to 2018.
5. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct:
Supplementary notes:
Liberalisation of Indian Economy and its
outcomes
 The liberalization of the Indian economy
in 1991 unleashed competitive markets. It
enabled the forces of creative destruction,
generating benefits that we still witness
RE
today.
 Using the lens of Indian equity markets as
captured in the S&P BSE Sensex, we can clearly
see an increase in market dynamism in the
pro-business India of the post-liberalization
 After the market reforms of 1991, SENSEX
has not only grown, but has grown at an
accelerating pace.
 Whereas crossing the first incremental 5000
points took over 13 years and was achieved
in 1999, the time taken to achieve each
incremental milestone has substantially
reduced over the years.
 Broadly, the growth of the SENSEX can be
divided into three phases after 1999.
 Phase I from 1999 to 2007 saw acceleration in
the growth of the Sensex, with each successive
5000-point mark taking lesser and lesser time
to achieve.
 Phase II from 2007 to 2014 saw a slowdown in
the index’s growth. This phase coincides with
the global slowdown in 2008 among other
unfavorable events.
 Phase III began in 2014 and saw a revival
in response to structural reforms and
improvement in global liquidity. Strikingly, in
this phase, the Sensex jumped from the 30,000
mark to the 40,000 mark in just two years.
 Figure shows : Sensex- Incremental months
taken to cross each 5000-point milestone

6. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The rising share in
market capitalization has been accomplished
by a rise in number of companies rather than a
rise in size of incumbents, suggesting greater
competition within these sectors
Supplementary notes:
Economy after 1991. O of the world, it causes the exchange rate of
 After liberalization in the Indian economy
there has been rise of new sectors such as
Financials and Information Technology.
Virtually non-existent in the Sensex of
the early 1990s, the share of these sectors
SC
in the total market capitalization has
increased over the years, so much so that
these sectors dominate the Sensex today.
 However more concentration or a reversal in
creative destruction in the economy is not a
cause of concern. The rising share in market
capitalization has been accomplished by a
GS
rise in number of companies rather than a
rise in size of incumbents, suggesting greater
competition within these sectors.
 Using the Herfindahl Index to analyse
degree of competition within the two sectors
reveals an overall decline in concentration
in both sectors. However, the IT sector has
recently begun to show a slight increasing
trend in the Herfindahl index, indicating
that there is room to increase competition
in the sector.
 Three key insights emerge from the analysis
above. First, we can expect today’s dominant
firms to remain dominant for only one-
fifth of the time that their preliberalization
counterparts did. Second, sectors once
considered mainstays of the Indian economy
are being displaced by new sectors bringing
with them new technologies and products. The
competitive advantage of entrenched firms is
9 P2020_CRCA_500/D22
being rapidly challenged by new, smaller and
more agile firms; every five years, roughly
one in three firms in the Indian economy can
expect to be challenged in a massive way by
the forces of creative destruction.
 Finally, the difference between the sizes of the
largest and smallest firms is rapidly shrinking,
and consequently monopoly power in the
economy is declining and making way for more
competitive markets. Consumers benefit from
an increased variety of goods and services,
lower prices and incessant improvement in
the quality of existing products.
7. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Dutch Disease in economics
RE
 It refers to the phenomenon wherein
countries that are rich in natural resources
witness uneven growth across sectors.
 According to the thesis, when resource-rich
countries export their resources to the rest
their currency to appreciate significantly;
this, in turn, affects other sectors in the
country by discouraging their exports
while encouraging the import of cheaper
alternatives.
 The term was coined by The Economist in 1977
to describe the decline of the manufacturing
industry in the Netherlands. The idea, however,
was first proposed by economists Peter Neary
and Max Corden in a paper published in
1982.
 Economy Survey explains in its chapter “Pro-
business vs. Pro crony “that how political
connection used in gaining the allocation of
resources affects the economy. It gives the
example of coal mines allocation.
8. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Pro crony policies
promote preferential treatment to some
incumbent firms making resource allocation
inefficient in the economy.
Supplementary notes:
Economic Survey 2019-20
 The Economic Survey 2019-20 says India’s
aspiration to become a $5 trillion economy
depends critically on promoting “pro-
business” policy that unleashes the power of
competitive markets to generate wealth, on
 the one hand, and weaning away from “pro-
crony” policy that favour specific private
interests, especially powerful incumbents, on
the other hand.
 Pro-crony policy supports incumbent firms
but does not necessarily foster competitive
markets. On the other hand, policy that
fosters competitive markets (hereafter pro-
business policy) creates a level playing field
for businesses to compete. It unleashes the
powerful forces of creative destruction, which
create wealth.
Benefits of Pro-business policies
 Firms compete on a level playing field
 Resource allocation in the economy is
efficient
Citizens’ welfare is maximized
 
Disadvantage of Pro-crony policies
 Some incumbent firms may receive preferential
treatment
 Resource allocation in the economy may not
be efficient
 Citizens’ welfare may not be maximized
O 
9. Correct Option: (a)
SC
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is also applicable
to non-agricultural commodities such as
prices of essential drugs, Petroleum, and its
products, etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The state

governments have the power to implement
GS
the provisions under the Act.
Supplementary notes:
Essential Commodities Act, 1955
 Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 was
enacted to control the production, supply
and distribution of, and trade and commerce
in, certain goods considered as essential
commodities.
 The Act itself does not lay out Rules and
Regulations but allows the States to issue
Control Orders related to dealer licensing,
regulate stock limits, restrict movement of
goods and requirements of compulsory
purchases under the system of levy.
 The Act also provides for action to confiscate
the stock seized; to suspend/ cancel
licences, if any and impose punishments like
imprisonment. The Act also gives the power
to fix price limits, and selling the particular
P2020_CRCA_500/D22
commodities above the limit will attract
penalties.
 Most of the powers under the Act have been
delegated by the Central Government to the
State Governments with the direction that
they shall exercise these powers.
 Food and civil supply authorities in States
execute the Provisions of the Act.
 The major commodity groups included in
the Act are:
 Petroleum and its products, including petrol,
diesel, kerosene, Naphtha, solvents,etc
 Foodstuff, including edible oil and seeds,
vanaspati, pulses, sugarcane, and its
products like sugar, rice paddy
Raw Jute and jute textiles
RE
 Drugs- prices of essential drugs are still
controlled by the DPCO
 Fertilizers- the Fertiliser Control Order
prescribes restrictions on transfer and
stock of fertilizers apart from prices
Onion and Potato
 Seeds of food crops, fruits and vegetables,
cattle fodder, Jute seeds, and Cotton
seeds
 As per the reports received from the State
Governments/ UT Administrations, the
conviction rate under the Act is abysmally low
at 2-4 percent on an average.
10. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Maximum Allowable Post-manufacturing
Expenses (MAPE)
 The MRP of a drug is calculated using a
formula prescribed in the DPCO.
 Drugs Prices Control Order (DPCO) is an
order issued under Sec. 3 of the Essential
Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 that seeks
to regulate the prices of pharmaceutical
drugs.
 The formula contains a variable element. ‘MAPE’
(Maximum Allowable Post-manufacturing
Expenses) which is the sum total of all costs
incurred by a manufacturer up to retailing
and includes trade margin and margin for the
manufacturer.
10
 QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following statements (c) Both 1 and 2
is/are correct regarding the trends in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Indian food grain markets ?
1. The production pattern of cereals is 4. Consider the following statements :
synchronized with its demand patterns.
1. India’s lacklustre export performance is
2. The government is the single largest buyer caused by a very high diversification in its
of rice and wheat, in the domestic grain export basket.
market
2. India’s participation in Global Value Chains
3. Food Corporation of India is a non-statutory (GVCs) has been low compared to the major
organization. exporting nations in East and Southeast
Select the correct answer using the code given Asia.

RE
below: Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3 only O (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. The economy survey used the term 5. The bilateral agreements between
‘Deadweight Loss’- income that is lost India and which of the following
forever, to highlight which issue in the
SC
countries has shown the percentage
Indian economy: increase in imports higher than that
(a) Impact of climate change on the market of exports?
(b) Excessive government interventions in the (a) Korea, Japan and Sri Lanka
market
(b) USA, China and Russia
(c) Low female labour participation in the
Sri Lanka, Nepal and Bhutan
GS

(c)
market
(d) Indonesia and Bhutan
(d) Wastage of demographic dividend.

6. With reference to Free Trade

3. Consider the following statements
Agreements signed by India, consider
on the basis of the analysis of debt
the following statements:
waivers given by States/Centre to
1. Most of the FTAs that India had signed in
farmers, according to the Economy
the past had not worked in “India’s favour.”
Survey :
2. The agreements led to worsening of India’s
1. Farmers who avail full waiver, invest more
trade deficit with the partner countries with
but are less productive after the waiver when
which the agreements have been signed.
compared to the partial beneficiaries.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
2. Debt waivers increase the formal credit flow
to the farmers. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D23
7. In which of the following parameters 1. Getting Electricity
of Ease of Doing Business Index, 2. Percentage of International Tourist
India’s rank is trailing? 3. Protecting Minority investor
1. Protecting Minority Interest 4. Use of Technology
2. Registering Property 5. Starting Business
3. Enforcing Contract Select the correct answer using code given
4. Paying Taxes below.

Select the correct answer using code given (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
below: (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. Consider the following statements
with reference to Non Banking

RE
Financial Companies (NBFC):
8. Which of the following is the correct
1. NBFCs have a banking license.
order of percentage share of freight
2. NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on it.
transportation in India?
3. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit
(a) Railway > Road > Waterways > Air Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(b) Road > Rail > Air > Waterway is not available to depositors of NBFC.
O Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Waterways > Rail > Road >Air
below:
(d) Road > Railway > Waterway > Air
(a) 1 only
SC
9. Which one of the following is not a (b) 2 and 3 only
sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease (c) 1 and 2 only
of Doing Business Index’? (d) 1, 2 and 3

**********
GS

P2020_CRCA_500/D23 4
 ANSWER HINTS
Answer Key
Q. 1 (b) Q. 3 (d) Q. 5
Q. 2 (b) Q. 4 (b) Q. 6
1. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The trend of
decreasing demand for cereals and increasing
supply of cereals shows that the production
pattern is not synchronized with the demand
patterns
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Food Corporation
of India is a statutory organization.
O 2. Correct Option: (b)
Supplementary notes:
Indian food grain markets
Food Corporation of India (FCI) was set up
SC

in 1965 under the Food Corporations Act,
1964with the primary duty to purchase, store,
move/transport, distribute and sell food grains
and other foodstuffs.
 The main objectives of FCI are
 procurement of foodgrains from farmers at
Minimum Support Prices (MSP) announced
GS
by the Government;
 distribution of food grains to consumers
through PDS, particularly the vulnerable
sections of society at affordable prices;
and
 maintenance of buffer stock of food grains
for food security and price stability.
 According to NSS 73rd round on consumer,
expenditure shows that the share of cereals
in Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE) has
fallen by about 33 percent in rural India and
about 28 percent in urban India from 2004-05
to 2011-12 (latest estimates available).
 The trend of decreasing demand for cereals
and increasing supply of cereals shows that
the production pattern is not synchronized
with the demand patterns.
 The Government has emerged as the single
largest procurer and hoarder of foodgrains.
The government procures around 40-50
P2020_CRCA_500/D23
(a) Q. 7 (c) Q. 9 (c)
(c) Q. 8 (d) Q. 10 (b)
percent of the total market surplus of rice
and wheat emerging as the dominant buyer
of these grains. A record procurement of 44.4
RE
million tonnes of rice and 34 million tonnes
of wheat was done in 2018-19. Thus the
government, as the single largest buyer of
rice and wheat, is virtually a monopsonist in
the domestic grain market and is a dominant
player crowding out private trade.
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
 The government can affect markets either
through direct participation (as a market maker
or as a buyer or supplier of goods and services)
or through indirect participation in private
markets (for example, through regulation,
taxation, subsidy or other influence).
 Government intervention affects the dynamic
interaction of supply and demand in markets
and thereby determination of ‘equilibrium’
market prices.
 When the price is too high, there is an
excessive amount of the product for sale
compared to what people want. When the
price is too low, it causes consumers to
want more of the product than producers
have available.
 In both cases, serious welfare loss results
because not enough of the good is sold.
The wasted chance to create both producer
and consumer welfare from such sales
leads to ‘deadweight loss’ - income that
is lost forever.
 There is a case for Government intervention
when markets do not function properly,
excessive intervention, especially when markets
6
 can do the job of enhancing citizens’ welfare
perfectly well, stifles economic freedom.
3. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Farmers with
full waiver beneficiaries consume less, save
less, invest less and are less productive after
the waiver when compared to the partial
beneficiaries.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Debt waivers
reducing the formal credit flow to the very
same farmers it intended to help, thereby
defeating the very purpose of the debt waiver
provided to farmers.
Supplementary notes:
Essential Commodities Act (ECA)
Debt waivers to farmers
 An unconditional and blanket debt waiver is a
bad idea. It does not achieve any meaningful
real outcomes for the intended beneficiaries
while the costs to the exchequer are significant.
O 
Most importantly, debt waivers disrupt the
credit culture and end upreducing the
formal credit flow to the very same farmers
it intends to help.
SC
 Analysis of debt waivers given by States/
Centre shows that full waiver beneficiaries
consume less, save less, invest less and
are less productive after the waiver when
compared to the partial beneficiaries.
 The waiver increases loan defaults on
future loans and no improvement in wages,
productivity, or consumption of marginal
GS
farmers.
4. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s lacklustre
export performance caused by a lack of
diversification in its export basket.
Supplementary notes:
 India’s lacklustre export performance caused
by a lack of diversification in its export
basket.
 Overall, high diversification combined with low
specialization implies that India is spreading
its exports thinly over many products and
partners, leading to its lacklustre performance
compared to China.
 If India wants to become a major exporter,
it should specialize more in the areas of its
7 P2020_CRCA_500/D23
comparative advantage and achieve significant
quantity expansion.
 India’s participation in GVCs has been low
compared to the major exporting nations in
East and Southeast Asia.
 In contrast, China’s export composition shows
a strong bias towards traditional labour-
intensive industries and labour-intensive
stages of production processes within capital-
intensive industries.
5. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
Supplementary notes:
Free Trade Agreements by India.
An apprehension is that most of the FTAs that
RE

India had signed in the past had not worked
in “India’s favour.”
 The agreements led to worsening of India’s
trade deficit with the partner countries with
which the agreements have been signed.
This is the mercantilist way of evaluating the
gains from trade. Basic trade theory teaches
us that a country’s gains from free trade arise
from the fact that it leads to a more efficient
allocation of a country’s resources.
 Manufactured products from India has clearly
benefitted from eight out of the fourteen
trade agreements considered here. These are:
MERCOSUR, ASEAN, Nepal, Singapore, Chile,
Bhutan, Afghanistan and Japan.
 Four of the agreements (SAFTA, BIMSTEC,
Thailand and Sri Lanka) had no effect on
exports of manufactured products while the
bilateral agreements with Korea and Japan
exerted a negative effect.
 Turning to overall merchandise exports, only
four trade agreements (MERCOSUR, Nepal,
Singapore, and Chile) show a positive impact.
 The agreements that exerted a positive effect
on India’s imports include Japan, Korea and
Chile for manufactured products and Japan,
Korea, Chile, Singapore and Sri Lanka for
overall merchandise imports.
 The exceptions are the bilateral agreements
with Korea, Japan and Sri Lanka, where the
percentage increase in imports are higher
than that of exports.
6. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both the statements are correct:
 Supplementary notes: parameter has improved from 137 in 2014
to 24 in 2018. India ranks 7th in Protecting
 An apprehension is that most of the FTAs
Minority Investors and 22nd in Getting Credit
that India had signed in the past had not
worked in “India’s favour.”  India continues to trail in parameters such
 The agreements led to worsening of India’s as
trade deficit with the partner countries with  Ease of Starting Business (Rank 136),
which the agreements have been signed.
 Registering Property (Rank 154),
 This is the mercantilist way of evaluating the
gains from trade. Basic trade theory teaches  Paying Taxes (Rank 115), and
us that a country’s gains from free trade arise  Enforcing Contracts (Rank 163)
from the fact that it leads to a more efficient
allocation of a country’s resources.
8. Correct Option: (d)
 Manufactured products from India has clearly
benefitted from eight out of the fourteen Explanation:
trade agreements considered here. These are:
MERCOSUR, ASEAN, Nepal, Singapore, Chile,  Option (d) is correct: Road > Railway >
Bhutan, Afghanistan and Japan. Waterway > Air

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 Four of the agreements (SAFTA, BIMSTEC,
Thailand and Sri Lanka) had no effect on
exports of manufactured products while the
bilateral agreements with Korea and Japan
exerted a negative effect.
 Turning to overall merchandise exports, only
four trade agreements (MERCOSUR, Nepal, O
Singapore, and Chile) show a positive impact.
 The agreements that exerted a positive
effect on India’s imports include Japan,
Korea and Chile for manufactured products
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and Japan, Korea, Chile, Singapore and Sri
Lanka for overall merchandise imports.
 The exceptions are the bilateral agreements
with Korea, Japan and Sri Lanka, where the
percentage increase in imports are higher
than that of exports.
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Supplementary notes:
Transportation in India
 The coordinated system of transport plays
an important role in the sustained economic
growth of a country. The transport system in
India comprises a number of distinct modes
and services, notably railways, roads, road
transport, ports, inland water transport,
coastal shipping, airports, and airlines.
 Railways and roads are the dominant means
of transport carrying more than 95% of total
traffic generated in the country. Although
other modes such as coastal shipping and
inland water transport would play a greater
role, the railways and roads would continue
to dominate the transport landscape in the
foreseeable future.
 Globally, transportation by ports is the most
favoured followed by railways and then roads,

7. Correct Option: (c) whereas in India it is the opposite.

Explanation:
Ease of Doing Business Index
 The Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) index is a
ranking system established by the World Bank
Group.
 Among the chosen 190 countries, India ranked
63rd in Doing Business 2020: World Bank
Report.
 In 2014, the Government of India launched
an ambitious program of regulatory
reforms aimed at making it easier to do
business in India. The program represents a
great deal of effort to create a more business- 9. Correct Option: (c)
friendly environment.
Explanation:
 India’s ranking on construction permit
parameter has improved from 184 in 2014 to
Ease of Doing Business Index
52 in 2018. India’s ranking on getting electricity  The Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) index is a

9 P2020_CRCA_500/D23
 ranking system established by the World Bank
Group. In the EODB index, ‘higher rankings’
(a lower numerical value) indicate better,
usually simpler, regulations for businesses and
stronger protections of property rights.
 The research presents data for 190economies
and aggregates information from 10 areas of
business regulation:
 Starting a Business
 Dealing with Construction Permits
 Getting Electricity
 Registering Property
 Getting Credit
 Protecting Minority Investors
 Paying Taxes
Trading across Borders
EoDB ranking. A high EoDB ranking means the
regulatory environment is more conducive for
starting and operating businesses.
10. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Non-banking financial companies (NBFCs)
are financial institutions that offer various
banking services but do not have a banking
license.
 They are primarily responsible for making
investments, but do not have the authority to
accept deposits.
 NBFCs cannot form part of the payment and
settlement system. This means that cannot

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 issue cheques drawn on itself.
 Enforcing Contracts
 Deposit insurance facility of Deposit
 Resolving Insolvency Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
 Rankings and weights on each of the mentioned is not available to depositors of NBFCs,
parameters are used to develop an overall unlike in case of banks.
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P2020_CRCA_500/D23 10
 QUESTIONS
1. According to Economic Survey, which 4. Who laid down the comprehensive
of the following statements are guidelines on “Capital Restructuring
correct? of Central Public Sector Enterprises?
1. NBFCs are overly-dependent on short-term (a) Department of Economic Affairs.
wholesale funding from Liquid Debt Mutual (b) Department of Investment and Public Asset
Funds (LDMF). Management (DIPAM)
2. Due to economic stress, NBFCs are facing (c) NITI AAYOG
rollover risks.
(d) SEBI
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
5. Economic survey of 2019-2020
(a) 1 only has mentioned about “Difference-

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(b) 2 only in-Difference Methodology” for
Privatization and Wealth Creation,
(c) Both 1 and 2
with reference to this methodology
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 which of the following statements is/
are correct?
2. Which of the following statement is 1. This methodology is used to assess
correct about Shadow Banking?
(a)
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When a Central bank opens up another
the impact of strategic disinvestment/
privatization on performance of select
CPSEs before and after privatization.
subsidiary it is called as its Shadow Bank. 2. It is a statistical technique used to estimate
SC
(b) Shadow bank is mainly concerned with the effect of a specific intervention or
underground parallel economy. treatment (such as a passage of law,
enactment of policy, or large-scale program
(c) NBFCs are considered as an important implementation).
segment of the shadow banking system in 3. This methodology is used in order to lend
India. professionalism and autonomy to the
(d) None of the above. disinvestment programme which, in turn,
would improve the economic performance
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of the CPSEs.
3. According to Economic Survey, which 4. To decide on the proposals of Core Group of
of the following statements is/are Disinvestment (CGD) with regard the timing,
correct? price, terms & conditions of sale, and any
other related issue to the transaction.
1. A refinance occurs when there is a revision
Select the correct answer using the code given
in the interest rate, payment schedule, and
below :
terms of a previous credit agreement.
(a) 1 only
2. NBFCs typically borrow money from banks
or sell commercial papers to mutual funds (b) 1 and 2 only
to raise money. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 3 and 4 only
below:
(a) 1 only 6. With reference to Different Approaches
(b) 2 only for Disinvestment, consider the
following statement:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. In Disinvestment through Majority stake
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sale, the Government will retain majority

3 P2020_CRCA_500/D23
 shareholding, i.e., at least 51 per cent and 9. Investment catalyses the economy
management control of the Public Sector
into a virtuous cycle. Which of the
Undertakings.
following statements is/are correct in
2. In Disinvestment through Minority stake
sale, the Government will retain Minority this regard?
shareholding, i.e. less than 51 percent. 1. Investment increases labour productivity
3. In complete privatisation, 100% control of 2. Investment improves productive capacity
the company is passed on to a buyer.
of capital
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Investment generates employment
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 1 and 2 only below:
(c) 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
3 only
7. Investment is crucial for economic (c)

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development. Which of the following (d) 1, 2 and 3
measures can foster investment in the
economy? 10. Consider the following statements
1. Tightening FDI norms with reference to Price Deficiency
2. Containing inflation Payment Scheme (PDPS) launched
3. Cutting corporate tax rates under Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay
O Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA):
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 1. Oilseeds are not covered under its Price
(a) 1 only Deficiency Payment sub Scheme (PDPS).
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(b) 1 and 2 only 2. Direct payment of the difference between
the MSP and the selling price is made to
(c) 2 and 3 only pre-registered farmers selling his produce
(d) 1, 2 and 3 in the notified market yard through a
transparent auction process
8. Difference-in-difference (DID) model Select the correct answer using the code given
is a type of __________ : below:
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(a) A statistical and econometric model (a) 1 only

(b) An Environment Impact Assessment model (b) 2 only
(c) A cost-benefit analysis approach (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) A Banking stress analysis model (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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P2020_CRCA_500/D23 4
 ANSWER HINTS
Answer Key
Q. 1 (c) Q. 3 (c) Q. 5
Q. 2 (c) Q. 4 (b) Q. 6
1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
NBFCs
 Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC)
are overly-dependent on short-term wholesale
funding from Liquid Debt Mutual Funds
(LDMF).

O
While at good times, this funding arrangement
is smooth but during periods of economic
stress, their reliance on short-term funding
puts them on a significant risk. This happens
SC
because during times of economic stress, they
are unable to roll over short term funding,
which they had generated via LDMF.
 All those who invested in LDMF panic during
times of economic stress and ask NBFC to pay
back the money they had invested in them.
This is similar to ‘Bank run’ wherein the

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depositors rush to claim their deposits when
they hear that the bank may fail.
2. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Shadow Banking comprises a set of
activities, markets, contracts and institutions
that operate partially (or fully) outside the
traditional commercial banking sector and are
either lightly regulated or not regulated at all.
A shadow banking system can be composed
of a single entity that intermediates between
end-suppliers and end-users of funds, or
it could involve multiple entities forming a
chain.
 NBFCs are considered as an important
segment of the shadow banking system in
India.
P2020_CRCA_500/D23
(b) Q. 7 (c) Q. 9 (d)
(c) Q. 8 (a) Q. 10 (b)
3. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
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Refinance
 A refinance occurs when an individual or
business revises the interest rate, payment
schedule, and terms of a previous credit
agreement.
 NBFCs are facing a liquidity crunch (refinance
trouble). In other words, they don’t have money
to lend or are facing enormous difficulties in
raising funds.
 NBFCs typically borrow money from banks
or sell commercial papers to mutual funds to
raise money. When NBFCs don’t have money
to lend, that reduces the credit flow to the
economy, hits economic growth and causes
many borrowers to default on loans.
4. Correct Answer (b)
Explanation:
 Department of Investment and Public
Asset Management (DIPAM) has laid down
comprehensive guidelines on “Capital
Restructuring of CPSEs” in May, 2016 by
addressing various aspects, such as, payment
of dividend, buyback of shares, issues of bonus
shares and splitting of shares.
 The Department of Disinvestment was one of
the Departments under the Ministry of Finance.
It was renamed as Department of Investment
and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) from
14th April, 2016.
 The mandate of the Department is as follows:
 All matters relating to the management of
Central Government investments in equity
including disinvestment of equity in Central
Public Sector Undertakings.
6
  All matters relating to the sale of Central 6. Correct option: (c)
Government equity through offer for sale
or private placement or any other mode Explanation:
in the erstwhile Central Public Sector
Undertakings
 The Department of Investment and Public
Asset Management (DIPAM) under the
Ministry of Finance has been made the nodal
department for the strategic stake sale in the
Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
 Till now, PSUs for strategic sale were
identified by NITI Aayog. From now, DIPAM
and NITI Aayog will jointly identify PSUs
for strategic disinvestment.
 Also, DIPAM secretary would now co-
chair the inter-ministerial group on
disinvestment, along with the secretary of
administrative ministries concerned.

RE
 This has done with a view to streamlining 7. Correct Option (c)
and speeding up the process, reducing
the role of administrative ministries which Explanation:
often used to place hurdles in the path of
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Relaxing FDI norms
major stake sales.
O Supplementary notes:
5. Correct Option: (b)  Recent initiatives taken to foster investment in
economy:
Explanation:
 Relaxing FDI norms
 To assess the impact of strategic disinvestment/
SC
privatization on performance of select CPSEs  Cutting corporate tax rates
before and after privatization, 11 CPSEs
 Containing inflation
are studied, that had undergone strategic
disinvestment from 1999-2000 to 2003-04 for  Accelerating infrastructure creation
which data is available both before and after
privatization.  Improving ease of doing business

 To enable careful comparison using a  Reforming taxation.

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difference-in-difference methodology,
these CPSEs have been compared with their
8. Correct option: (a)
peers in the same industry group.
 Difference-in-differences (DiD) is a statistical Explanation:
technique used to estimate the effect of a Supplementary notes:
specific intervention or treatment (such as
a passage of law, enactment of policy, or Difference-in-difference (DID) model
large-scale program implementation).
 The economic survey uses DID model, which
 The technique compares the changes in is an econometric technique that attempts
outcomes over time between a population to mimic an experimental research design
that is affected by the specific intervention by studying the differential effect of a quasi-
(the treatment group) and a population that is experiment such as a GDP methodology
not (the control group). change.
 DiD is typically used to mitigate the possibility
of any extraneous factors affecting the
estimated impact of an intervention. This is
9. Correct Option: (d)
accomplished by differencing the estimated Explanation:
impact of the treatment on the outcome in the
treatment group as compared to the control Investment catalyses the Economy into a
group. Virtuous Cycle

7 P2020_CRCA_500/D23
  The Economic Survey of 2018-19 laid out  PM-AASHA, launched in 2018, covers three
the role of investment, especially private sub-scheme i.e. Price Support Scheme (PSS),
investment in : Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
 Driving demand and pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist
 Creating capacity Scheme (PPSS).

 Increasing labour productivity  Under PSS, physical procurement of pulses,

 Introducing new technology oilseeds and Copra is done by Central
Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State
 Allowing creative destruction
governments.
 Generating employment.
 PDPS covers all oilseeds for which MSP is
notified. Under this, direct payment of the
10. Correct Option: (b)
difference between the MSP and the selling/
Explanation: modal price is made to pre-registered farmers
Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan selling his produce in the notified market yard
Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) through a transparent auction process.

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9 P2020_CRCA_500/D23