Instruction : Just select 50 items to assign for students to ratio.

1. Teacher G does not wait for end of the term to find out how much the students learn. With which does Teacher G agree?
A. Formative Evaluation
B. Authentic Evaluation
C. Summative Evaluation
D. Norm-reference Evaluation
2. To what extent were the objectives of the course met? This is the concern of the process of ______ ev
A. Authentic assessment
B. Criterion-reference measure
C. Norm-referenced measure
D. Formative Test
3. Other than finding out how well the course objectives were met, Teacher K also wants to know his students’ performance
when compared with other student in the class. What is teacher K interested to do?
A. Authentic Evaluation
B. Formative Evaluation
C. Criterion-reference Evaluation
D. Norm-reference Evaluation
4. Which is a valid assessment tool if you want to find out how well your students can speak extemporaneously?
A. Performance test in extemporaneous speaking
B. Written quiz on how to deliver extemporaneous speech
C. Display of speeches delivered
D. Writing speeches
5. Which must go with self-assessment for it to be effective?
A. External monitor
B. Consensus of evaluation results from teacher and student
C. Scoring rubric
D. Public display of results of self-evaluation
6. Which must be present for self-evaluation to succeed?
A. Consensus between teacher and student regarding evaluation results
B. Teacher’s approval of self-evaluation results
C. Teacher’s monitoring of self-evaluation process
D. Student’s intrinsic motivation to learn

7. Teacher are encouraged to make use of authentic assessment. Which goes with authentic assessment?
A. Unrealistic performances
B. De-contextualized drills
C. Real world application of lesson learned
D. Answering high multiple choice test items
8. Which will be the most authentic assessment tool for an instructional objective on working with relating with people?
A. Conducting mock election
B. Home visitation
C. Organizing a community project
D. Writing articles on working with relating people
9. Here is the test item: ___ is an example of a mammal. What is defective with this test item?
A. The black is at the beginning of the sentence.
B. It is very short question
C. It is an insignificant test item.
D. It is very elementary
10. Which improvement/s should be done on this completion test item: An example of a mammal is ____.
A. The question should have only one acceptable answer.
B. The blank should be at the beginning of the sentence
C. The item should give more cues.
D. The black should be longer to accommodate all possible answer.

Here is the test. Study it thoroughly then answer the question # 11- 18

____1. Thought A. Anybody

____2. Noun B. Past form of the verb “think”
____3. He wrote “to the Filipino Youth” C. He is the Great Plebeian
____4. Walk D. An example of an adverb
____5. Andress Bonifacio E. An example of a collective noun
____6. Class F. Looks like verb but is used as a noun
____7. Gerund G. describes a noun and pronoun
____8. Adjective H. An example of an intransitive verb
____9. Very I. Jose Rizal
____10. Pronoun J. A name word
 11. What’s faulty with the test?
A. The option have no joker
B. The test items are on trivia.
C. Some items are not meant to be asked in the matching type of test.
D. The test items are limited in number.
12. Which is one way to improve the test?
A. Reduce the difficulty index.
B. Increase the options by at least two.
C. Add to the numbers to items.
D. Make a perfect types of matching test.
13. What’s wrong with the test items? The items are ________.
A. Heterogeneous
B. Homogeneous
C. Easy
D. Insignificant
14. How can you improve the test?
A. Make the test heterogeneous.
B. Make the items homogeneous.
C. Reduce the facility index.
D. Widen its scope and coverage.
15. What does the test lack?
A. 5 additional test items
B. More names of persons.
C. Blanks before the capital letters
D. Distracter/s
16. Which is TRUE of the test?
A. The test items are homogeneous.
B. The test is quite short for a matching type.
C. The right and the left columns should exchange position.
D. There are enough foils in the options.
17. Which is TRUE on the test?
A. Some items can be answered by mere process of eliminations.
B. It is classified as an imperfect matching types of test.
C. It is reliable because it has a wide coverage of subject.
D. We have more than enough foils in the options.
18. Which does the test lack?
I. Additional test items
II. Colum labels
III. Directions
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
19. Read this true or false test item and answer the question that follows:
Andres Bonifacio founded the Katipunan. Which principle in test construction is violated?
A. Test something significant
B. Make use of simple words
C. There should be sufficient reason to make the statement false.
D. Avoid qualitative terms.
20 . Here is Teacher E’s instructional objectives: “To distinguish between proper and improper fraction. “Which is a valid test item
for such objective?
A. Define proper and improper factions.
B. Put a check (/) on the proper factions and an X over the improper: ½, 4/3, ¾, 5/6, 7/8, 9/7, 2/10, 6/12.
C. Is an improper fraction really a fraction? Explain your answer.
D. Can you add proper and improper factions together? Explain.

Study the Table of Specifications below then answer question # 21 -26

Objective Topic No. of hours Type of test No. of items

Minutes

1. To write a faction Writing a fraction 30 minutes Multiple choice 3/comprehension and

application
 2. To add proper fractions Adding proper fractions 1 hour Completion 12/comprehension

3. To distinguish between Differentiating proper and improper 30 minutes Short answer 9/comprehension
proper and improper fractions
fractions
4. To add improper fraction Adding improper fractions 1 hour and 30 Completion 9/comprehension
minutes

5. To reduce fractions to their Reducing fraction to their lowest terms 1 hour and 30 Short answer 6/comprehension
lowest terms minutes

6. To solve problems Problem solving on adding proper and 2 hours Problem solving 9/ application and analysis
involving adding proper improper fractions
and improper fractions

Total number of items 47 items

21. Are the number of test items per objective proportionate to the number of hours spent for each-objective?
A. Yes.
B. No, but it should be
C. No, but it is NOT necessary
D. It cannot be determine

22. Is this test item valid for objective #1 as contained in the table of specifications?

I divide a cake equally into four. I ate two pieces. Which part did I eat?
A. 2/4
B. ¼
C. 4/4
D. 4/2

A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, but needs to be improve
D. No, because it is insufficient
23. Which test item is in accordance with objective specifications?
A. What is the difference between proper and improper fractions?
B. Give an example of an improper fraction.
C. Five an example of proper fraction
D. Define proper and improper fractions.
24. If you have to be true to your table of specifications when you make your test, on which objective should you have the least items?
A. Objective #2
B. Objective #1
C. Objective #3
D. Objective #1 and 3
25. If you should be true to your table of specifications, when you make test, on which objective/should you have most number of
items?
A. Objective #5
B. Objective #6
C. Objective #4
D. Objective #5 and 6\
26. Which is valid test item for objective #5?
A. How do you reduce a fraction to its lowest term?
B. Is 4/6 equal to 1/3?
C. What is meant by “lowest term?
D.
27. According to Wiggins and McTighe, one faucet of understanding, an evidence of learning, is empathy. Which test question assess
capacity to empathize?
A. State the Pythagorean theorem
 B. Test on Romeo and Juliet. Imagine your Juliet. Write your thoughts and feelings why you have to take this desperate
action?
C. Diagnose and fix the broken lamp.
D. Translate all the words to Spanish and give the meaning of the sentence.
28. The best way to assess leaning is to use in real-life situation, objects and material existing in the environment. Hence, teacher is
encourage to use ______.
A. Rating scale
B. Paper and pencil test.
C. Observation technique
D. Authentic assessment
29. The main purpose in administering a pretest and posttest to student is to ______.
A. Accustom the student in frequent testing
B. Keep adequate records
C. Measure the value of the material used
D. Measure gain in learning.
31. Understanding of a concept is revealed as ____, the ability to accomplish tasks successful under pressure.
A. Performance in teamwork
B. Performance know-how
C. Performance in arts
D. Performance at works
32. Which of the following statements is/are NOT TRUE about assessment?
I. Feedback is the most important factor in assessment.
II. Only those that can be objectively measured should be taught.
III. Assessment should follow a development pattern
IV. Identifying systematic errors committed by student should be the basis of remedial instruction
A. II only
B. IV only
C. III and IV
D. I and II
33. To identify learning needs and respond to such needs the teacher administers a ____ test.
A. Formative
B. Summative
C. Periodic
D. Diagnostic
34. In constructing test items the teacher considers the alignment of ___ with assessment.
A. Content and process
B. Monitoring and evaluate
C. Instructional objectives
D. Instructional materials

35. The Department of Education directed that the lowest failing grade in the report card is ___%
A. 60
B. 70
C. 65
D. 50
36. Scoring guides for rating open ended question are called ____
A. Output
B. Outcomes
C. Rubrics
D. Scales
Read the rubric for assessing output and answer question #37

8-10 pts – Demonstrates imaginative thinking and unique qualities

5-7 pts – demonstrated moderate imaginative skills
1-4 pts – lacks imaginative thinking
37. What is being assessed by the above criteria?
 A. Appeal
B. Creativity
C. Aesthetic
D. Workmanship
38. Which of the following assessment tools would you recommend if one should adhere to constructivist theory of learning?
I. Constructed response test
II. Performance test
III. Checklist of motor screening test
IV. Observation test
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I,II and IV
39. Which of these are non-threatening means of assessing learning outcomes?
I. Portfolio
II. Self-evaluation
III. Peer evaluation
IV. Learning journals
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II and IV
40. A criterion referenced test is designed to determine whether or not a student has____.
A. Performance will in a wide content coverage
B. Performance higher that the other member of a group
C. Reach a present target
D. Reach a performance level on a specific skill
42. Essay questions are used in an achievement test when____
A. Most of the materials sampled is factorial information
B. A wide sampling of material is desired
C. Originality is a factor in the response
D. Little time is available for construction and scoring.
43. Which of the following are alternative assessment?
A. Portfolio, exhibits, journals
B. Paper and pencil test, demonstration, reports
C. Student self-assessment, authentic assessment , survey
D. Multiple choice, structured observation, sentence completion
44. Which among the indicators could be most useful for assessing quality of schooling?
A. Participation rate
B. Cohort survival rate
C. Net enrollment
D. Drop-out rate
45. When a student clarifies information from conclusion. What cognitive domain is involved?
A. Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Application
D. Synthesis
46. In the context of the 6 facets of understanding cited by Wiggins and McTighe, what is a proof of a student’s understanding a
principle?
A. Repeating the principle give n by the teacher
B. Applying It solve his/her problem
C. Stating it from memory
D. Memorizing it
47. Which of the following statements concerning test validity and reliability is most accurate?
A. A valid test is a reliable test
B. A valid test is a valid test
 C. A test can not be valid and reliable unless It is objective
D. A test can not be valid and reliable unless it is standardized test
48. The instructions for attest are made simple, clear and concise. This is part of which of the following characteristics of a good test?
A. Objectivity
B. Economy
C. Administrability
D. Scorability
49. An entering student in college would like to determine which vocation is best suited for him. Which of the following test is most
appropriate for his purpose?
A. Intelligence test
B. Diagnostic test
C. Achievement test
D. Aptitude test

50. With the mode of answering as point of reference, which of the following types of test does NOT to the group?
A. Problem-solving
B. Completion
C. Matching
D. Essay
51. Which of the following is a precise meaning of evaluation?
A. Collecting data relevant to personal characteristics
B. Administrating teacher-made tests
C. Interpreting and attaching value to data collected
D. Scoring accomplished tests

52. Teacher B wants to determine students’ strengths and weaknesses in the use of laboratory equipment. Which assessment
procedure will be most appropriate and authentic?
A. Observation of students use of laboratory equipment while they conduct experiments.
B. Paper-and-pencil test that requires student to enumerate the do’s and don’ts in the use of laboratory equipment
C. Practicum test on the use of laboratory equipment
D. Requiring students to draw and label the laboratory equipment
53. Marking on a normative basis means that _____.
A. The normal curve of distribution should be followed.
B. Some students must fail
C. Fewer students must get high marks
D. Grades show how a student achieves relative to other students
54. Teaching by objective logically goes hand in hand with which type(s) of evaluation?
A. Norm-referenced
B. Criterion-referenced
C. Standardized
D. Norm-referenced and standardized
55. The difficulty index of a test item is one (1). What does this mean?
A. The test item is very good, so retain it.
B. The test item is very difficult
C. The test item is extremely easy.
D. The test item is not valid.
56. The difficulty index of a test item is .50. this means that the test item is _____.
A. Valid
B. Moderate in difficulty
C. Very easy
D. reliable
57. The discrimination index of a test item is -35. What does this mean?
A. More from the upper group got the item correctly
B. More from the lower group got the item correctly
C. The test is quite reliable
 D. The test item is valid.
58. The discrimination index of test item is +48. What does this mean?
A. An equation number from the lower and upper group got the item correctly
B. More from the upper group got the item wrongly.
C. More from the lower group got the item correctly
D. More from the upper group got the item correctly.
59. If the difficulty index of your test item is .98, what should you do with this item?
A. Revise it
B. Reject it
C. Retain it
D. Reserve it for another group of pupils
60. If the difficulty index of your test item is .10, what should you do with this item?
A. Retain it
B. Revise it
C. Reject it
D. Reserve it for another group of pupils
61. A negative discrimination index of a test item tells that particular test item lacks _____.
A. Objectivity
B. Reliability
C. Content validity
D. Construct validity
Read the following then answer questions # 62-66
In a multiple choice test item with option A-B-C-D and out of 50 examines:
A. The correct answer, was chosen by 5;
B. Was chosen by 30; of 30 , 16 from the lower group
C. Was chosen by 13 and; of 16 , 9 from lower group choose it
D. Was chosen by 2. Of 2 , none from the lower group choose it

62. Which was the MOST effective distracter?

A. Option A
B. Option C
C. Option D
D. Option B
63. Which was the LEAST effective distracter?
A. Option C
B. Option D
C. Option B
D. Option A
64. Which must have served as a plausible option/s?
A. Option B
B. Option D
C. Option C
D. Option B and C
65. Which statement can be TRUE of the test item?
A. The difficulty index must be low.
B. The difficulty index must be high.
C. It cannot be determined.
D. The test item must be reliable.
66. How do you consider Option D?
A. Most effective distracter
B. Effective distracter
C. Ineffective distracter
D. Attractive option
 E.
67. Your percentile rank in class is 60%. What does this mean?
A. You got 40% of the test items wrongly
B. You scored less than 60% of the class.
C. You got 60% of the test items correctly.
D. You scored better than 60% of the class.
68. Here are raw scores in a quiz: 97, 95, 85, 83, 77, 75, 50, 10, 5, 2, 1. To get a picture of the group’s performance, which measure of
central tendency is most reliable?
A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Median
D. None. It is best to look at the individual scores
69. Here are raw scores in a quiz 97, 95, 85, 83, 77, 75, 50, 10, 5, 2, 1. Which is the median?
A. 75
B. 52.72
C. 76
D. 77
70. Here is a score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88, 87, 85, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34, 20, 18, 15, 12, 9, 8, 6, 3, 1. Which is a
characteristic of the score distribution?
A. No discernible pattern
B. Tri-modal
C. Bi-modal
D. Skewed to the right
71. Here is score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88, 87, 85, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34, 20, 18, 15, 12, 9, 8, 6, 3, 1. Which is the range?
A. 93
B. 85
C. 97
D. Between 52 and 34
72. which measure of central tendency is most reliable when scores are extremely high and low?
A. Cannot be identified unless individual scores are given
B. Mode
C. Mean
D. Median
73. which is TRUE when standard deviation is small?
A. Scores are tightly bunched together.
B. The bell curved is relatively flat
C. Scores are spread apart
D. Scores are toward both extremes
74. Which is TRUE when standard deviation is big?
A. The bell curve shape is steep
B. Scores are spread apart
C. Semi-interquartile range
D. Range
75. In a grade distribution, what does the normal curve mean?
A. A large number of students receiving low grades and very few students with high grades.
B. A large number of more or less average students and very few students receiving low and high grades.
C. A large number of student with high grades and very few with low grades.
D. All of the students have average grades
76. There is a negative correlation between amount of practice and number of errors in tennis. What does this mean?
A. The increase in the amount of practice does not all after number of errors
B. Decrease in the amount of practice goes with decrease in the number of errors.
C. As the amount of practice increases, the number of errors decrease
D. The decrease in the amount of practice sometimes affects the number of errors.
77. Which one indicates a strong negative correlation?
 A. -.75
B. -.10
C. -.25
D. -.15

78. Which is graphic illustration of the relationship between two variables?

A. Histogram
B. Scatter diagram
C. Frequency polygon
D. Normal curve
SITUIATION- Answer item 79 -80 , refers to the table below.
Reading comprehension test s results in MPS Grade III-School A
Grade III section English (MPS) Filipino (MPS)
A 75 87
B 60 30
C 32 60
D 80 90
E 51 72
79. With MPS 75 as mastery level, which section/s should be given remedial instruction in English and in Filipino?
A. Section B only
B. Section C only
C. Section B and C
D. Section B, C and E
80. If the Grade III section C teacher targeted a 10% MPS increase in English and in Filipino, what should be the ne MPS?
A. 63 or below, Filipino; 32 or below, English
B. At least 65 + for Filipino; 34, English
C. 66 + for Filipino; 35.2, + English
D. 64, Filipino; 33, English
Use the table below to answer items 81 -82
Percentage of literacy
2004 2008
Age Range Total Male Female Total Male Female
6-14 yrs. 92.72 94.47 91.02 91.5 93.67 89.38
15yrs 93.19 95.46 91.02 91.28 96.07 90.57
15 – 24 yrs 98.12 98.43 97.81 98.57 98.67 98.47

81. What is/are TRUE of 2004 and 2008 data on literacy?

I. There is a greater percentage among men and women
II. The percentage of literacy increase
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. Neither I and II
82. What trend appears as males and females get older?
A. No apparent trend can be noted?
B. There are more belonging to the 15-24 age range that those in 6-14 years.
C. Males become increasingly dominant in literacy rate over their female counterparts
D. The difference in literacy rates between males and females tends to disappear as they grow older.
83. How will you interpret a student’s 80% percentile score? The student scored _____.
A. Higher that 80% of the members of the group
 B. Better, relative to the competencies targeted
C. High in all skills being tested
D. 80% of the specified content
84. What can be said of student performance in a positively skewed score distribution?
A. Almost all student had average performance.
B. A few student performed excellently
C. Most student performed poorly
D. Most student performed well
85. If there are three raters of an essay test, what correlation is determined?
A. Triple rater
B. Inter rater
C. External rate
D. Multiple rater
86. Interpreting assessment results considers consistency. Which is described when the result are consistent?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Subjectivity
D. Objectivity
87. The common instrument used in measuring learning in the effective domain is ___.
A. Questionnaire
B. Checklist
C. Multiple choice
D. Scaling

A parent receives the report card of his/her first year son as follows:
English - 82
Filipino - 82
Mathematics - 75
Science - 74
Aralin Panlipunan - 80
Values Education - 83
TLE - 85
MAPEH - 86

88. How may a teacher encourage the learner to improve his performance in Science?
A. Ask the learner why Science is difficult for him
B. Request the parent to guide the learner in developing good study habits
C. Make available science reading materials to the parents and learner
D. Conduct remedial teaching in Science.

89. In qualitative social and behavioral studies, “the investigator is a part of the study”. What are implied in this statement?
I. The researcher processes and analyzes the data himself
II. Date interpretation depends on the orientation of researcher
III. The investigator in the only source of information
IV. Data gathering may be done by others but the analysis is done by the researcher.
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II, and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
90 . It is wise to orient our students and parents on our grading system?
A. Yes, so that from very start students and parents know how grades are derived
B. Yes , but orientation must be only our immediate customers, the students
C. No, this will court a lot of complaints later
D. No, grade and how they are derived are highly confidential.

Study the diagram below which shows the learners and student assessment in the center of the foundation for
Accountability. Based on the diagram answer question # 91,92, 93 .
 for student
learning

family, school, community

standards
standards learners of delivery
of practice

91. What standards’ impinge directly on student’s assessment?

I. Practice
II. Student learning
III. Delivery
IV. Family and Community
A. III and IV
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I,II,III
92. How should the test results be used to advantage?
A. As index of comparing achievement
B. As indicator of learners’ knowledge of subject matter
C. As a mean of assessing students’ performance in the subject.
D. As indicator of learner’s performance with respect to competencies in the subject matter
93. Which characterize the process approach of assessing student performance?
I. Teacher collects student work recorded in a portfolio
II. Teacher focuses on what student do while engaged in the learning process
III. Students critically evaluate their own work
IV. Students select samples of what they think enhance their learning.
A. I and II
B. I,II,III,IV
C. II,IV,III
D. III and IV
94 . When checking project made by your pupils, what must be done to ensure objectively in giving grades?
A. Prepare rubrics in giving grades
B. Request somebody to grade the project of your class
C. Rate the project by batch checking
D. Rate the projects in descriptive and not in a quantitative manner.150. Key questions are considered in instructionbal planning
and in identifying desired results and assessment. Which question are relevant?
I. What activities will equip students with the needed knowledge and skill
II. What method of assessment should be used?
III. What materials and resources are best suited to accomplish the learning objectives?
IV. Which type of test be given?
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. II and III
D. IV

4.4 Demonstrate skills in the use of techniques and tools in assessing effective learning
95. Which is one measure of attitude that consists of a value statement where you are asked to express your degree of agreement or
disagreement of a statement?
A. Likert scale
B. Interview schedule
C. Semantic differential
D. Checklist
SITUATION – Here is one measure of attitude where a subject is asked to check the blank that corresponds to her answer.

Being liked by other Students

Important _________ ___________ __________ Unimportant
Pleasant _________ ___________ __________ Unpleasant
96. Question: How is it called?
A. Questionnaire
B. Checklist
C. Likert scale
D. Semantic differential
97 . Teacher F narrates: “I went through a test where I was asked how the ink blots appeared to me.” What test did Teacher F
probably undergo?
A. IQ test
B. Rorschach test
C. Aptitude
D. EQ test
98. Teacher U asked her pupils to create a story out of the given pictures. Which projective technique did Teacher U use?
A. Rorschach test
B. Narrative
C. Thematic Apperception
D. Reflective
99. Which tool should a teacher use if she wants to locate areas which are adversely affecting the performance of a significant
number of students?
A. Problem checklist
B. Self-report technique
C. Autobiography
D. Cumulative record
100. With projective personality tests in mind, which does NOT belong?
A. Interview
B. Sentence completion task
C. Word association test
D. Thematic Apperception test
101 . You intend to assess affective attributes such as capacity to feel, attitudes and behavior. Which of the following should you
establish to ascertain the instrument validity?
A. Construct
B. Content
C. Criterion-related
D. Face
102 . An appropriate assessment tool for assessing the development is learning in the affective domain is through ________.
A. Reading of journal entries
B. Performance assessment
C. Product assessment
D. Self-assessment

4.5 Assign students’ marks/ratings

103. Analytic scoring uses the ____ judgment of the students work
A. Evaluation
B. Performance
C. Standards
D. Criterion
104. Rubrics are used for rating performance and scoring guides to describe the ____qualities of student outcomes.
A. Tested
B. Accomplish
C. Distinguish
D. Criterion
105. The report card is given every grading period to the pupils/student and the parents are inform of the learner’s performance. This is
a/an ____ of the teacher stipulated in the Education Act of 1982.
A. Role
B. Obligation
C. Accountability
D. Responsibility
106. Teacher should avoid ______ in assigning student performance-based rating.
A. Arbitrariness and bias
B. Unnecessary deductions
C. Partiality and calculation
D. Unnecessary evaluation
For number 107 , Consider the following data obtained in a multiple choice type of item 1 where B is the
correct answer.

OPTION
A B* C D
2 11 4 3 upper 27%
3 5 10 2 lower 27%

107. Which among options A, C and D is NOT an effective distractor?

A. A and C B. C and B C. C only D. D only
To answer 108- 112, use the Situation below - Study the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness
and non- plausibility of distracters based on the results of a try-out test in science. The letter
marked with an asterisk is the correct answer.

Item No. 1 A B C D E*

Upper 27% 11 5 0 3 1

Lower 27% 8 6 0 5 1

108 . In the table above, find the index of difficulty. The index of difficulty is ____.
A. 0.05 B. 0 C. 0.10 D. 0.2

109 . In the table above, find the index of discrimination. The index of discrimination is _____.
A. 0.05 B. 0 C. 0.10 D. 0.2

110 . The table above shows that the test item ___.
A. has a positive discrimination index.
B. has a negative discrimination index.
C. is extremely easy.
D. is very difficult.
111 Based on the table which option is the most effective destructor?
A. Option A B. option C and D
 C. Option C and B D. Option D

112 . Based on the table, which group get more correct answer?
A. Upper group C. Lower group
B. None of the group D. Data are not sufficient to give an answer