Direction: Read each item carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. Teacher X would like to conduct a test in Math during the 1st day of class. What type of test should he give?
A. Diagnostic
B. Formative
C. Summative
D. Posttest
2. Teacher X would like to have an overall assessment of student competencies on all units covered in Math throughout
the school year. What type of test is she likely to administer to achieve her goal?
A.Diagnostic
B. Formative
C. Summative
D. Placement
3. The 1st step in teaching and evaluation is the determination of_____
A. Instructional devices
B. Instructional objectives
C. Instructional procedure
D. Instructional activities
4. Which is d vital component of measurement?
A. Quality of an attribute
B. Quantity of an attribute
C. Setting of standards
D. Making instructional decisions
5. How does evaluation differ from measurement? Evaluation is
A. a process
B. Concerned with data
C. Teacher's concern
D. Based on certain criteria
6. What kind of standard can be achieved by majority of the learners?
A. Relative standard
B. Multiple standard
C. Absolute maximum standard
D. Absolute minimum standard
7. What must a teacher do when evaluation result is above the predetermined level of performance?
A. Review the lesson
B. Reteach the lesson
C. Remediate the learning difficulty
D. Proceed to the next instructional objective
8. A certain university administered a college entrance exam to enrollees and correlated the scores with their general
average in HS. The university would like to establish the____ of the exam.
A. concurrent validity
B. predictive validity
C. Content validity
D. Construct validity
9. Which of the following statements about test validity and reliability is most accurate?
A. A test cannot be valid and reliable unless it is objective.
B. A test cannot be valid and reliable unless is standardized.
C. A test cannot be valid unless it is reliable
D. A test cannot be reliable unless it is valid
10. What kind of decision is undertaken when an institution uses evaluation result to choose the best candidate for a
scholarship program?
A. Instructional decision
B. Placement decision
C. Selection decision
D. Guidance and counseling
11. In evaluating a certain test, which should a teacher consider first?
A. Validity
B. Usability
C. Reliability
D. Administrability
12. The degree to which an instrument measures what it purports to measure refers to
A.Usability
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Economy
13. What principle of evaluation is shown when knowledge, skills, and attitudes of students are appraised?
A. Evaluation should be continuous.
B. Evaluation should be comprehensive
C. Evaluation should be used judiciously used.
D. Evaluation should be based on clearly stated objectives.
14. A plan prepared by a classroom teacher as basis for writing test items is called
A. Test plan
B. Test analysis
C. Table of contents
D. Table of specifications
15. Which of the following shows the performance level of an objective?
A. Given a diagram
B. with 75%correctness
C. identity
D. Parts of circulatory system
16. Mrs. Somera would like to compare Antonio's performance in a science test with the rest of his classmates. What type
of test should she administer?
A. formative test
B. norm-referenced test
C. criterion -referenced test
D. summative test
17. What is the equivalent rating in percent of 32 in 50-item test?
A.32
B.60
C.64
D.82
18. Forty out of fifty examinees obtained scores below the mean in a standardized test. A graphic representation of the
score distribution is
A. Negatively skewed
B. Positively skewed
C Leptokurtic
D. Mesokurtic
19. A class is composed of academically bright students. The scores distribution will most likely be.
A.Leptokurtic
B.mesokurtic
C.platykurtic
D. Normal curve
20. Q1 is the 25th percentile while median is the
A.40th percentile
B.45th percentile
C 50th percentile
D.60th percentile
21. When a test yields zero standard deviation, this simply means that
A. the students’ scores are the same
B. fifty percent of the scores is zero.
C. less than fifty percent of the scores is zero.
D more than fifty percent of the scores is zero.
22. What is implied by a positively skewed distribution?
A. The mode is high
B. Most of the scores are high
C. Most of the scores are low.
D. The mean, median, and mode are equal.
23. In his conduct of item analysis, Teacher Y found out that more examinees from the Lower Group got item No.7
correctly.
This means that the test item
A. has high validity
B. has high reliability.
C. has a positive discriminating power.
D. has a negative discriminating power.
24. Which of the following is /are the least stable measures (s) of central tendency?
A. Median
B Mean
C. Mode
D. Mode and Median
25. The score distribution follows the normal. This means that___
A. The score coincides with the Mean
B. Most of the scores are on the +2SD
C. Most of the scores are on the -2SD
D. Most of the scores pile up between -1SDand 2SD.
26. What will you do with an item having a difficulty index of 0.49 and a discrimination index of 0.60?
A. The item should be revised.
B. The items should be retained
C. The items should be rejected.
D The items should be replaced
27.A test on creative thinking has construct validity if the examinees who are creative will___
A. perform similarly with those who are not creative
B. perform differently from those of others
C not vary, as the theory underlying creativity would predict
D. specify how creative people behave like those of others
28. A good test item should have an average difficulty index, which means ___
A.50 percent of the examinees can get the item right.
B.10 percent of the examinees can answer the item incorrectly
C. The bright pupils can be separated from the average ones.
D. The performance of the both bright and poor students is similar.
29. In employing parallel forms estimate of reliability, we actually measure
A. changes due to specificity of knowledge.
B. changes due to responses made by examinees.
C. changes due to time interval between the two tests
D. Changes due to maturation level of the examinees
30. Which tells whether score distribution appears compressed or expanded?
A. Standard scores
B. Measure of correlation
C Measure of Variability
D. Measure of central Tendency
31. Which of the following verbs describes learning outcome at the comprehension level?
A. paraphrase
B. identifies
C. Demonstrate
D. differentiates
32. Which verbs describes learning outcomes at the application level?
A. interprets
B. summarizes
C. demonstrates
D. differentiates
33. The verbs compose, formulate, devise and summarize can be categorized at the ______level.
A. Knowledge
B. application
C analysis
D. synthesis
34. Twenty students obtained the scores recorded below.
SCORE 20 24 29 35 40 41 44 50 60 62
Frequency 1 2 3 4 5 6 78 9 1
What is the mean of these scores?
A.36.2
B.37.2
C.38.2
D 39.2
35. How can essay examinations be made more valid?
A. make essay items longer
B. give weight to items for scoring
C. provide more time for each item
D.give clues in answering test items

ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING 2
1. If a teacher gives a diagnostic test, what does she wants to know?
A. Learner's readiness for the lesson
B. Parts of the lesson that the learners don't understand while teaching- learning is in progress
C. What grade/mark to give the learners
D. What assignment to give for lesson mastery
2. Teacher is surprised to find out lack of lesson mastery at the end of a chapter. Which type of assessment/s
didshe fail to do?
A. Diagnostic assessment B. Formative assessment
C. Summative assessment D. Formative and summative assessment
3. On which type of assessment are grades based?
A. Diagnostic assessment B. Formative assessment
C. Summative assessment D. Formative and summative assessment
4. Which statement on assessment is CORRECT?
A. Diagnostic and formative assessments when done well lead to favorable summative results.
B. Good diagnostic and formative assessments do not necessarily lead to good summative results.
C. Diagnostic, formative and summative assessments are independent of one another.
D. Between diagnostic and formative assessments, only formative assessment has an influence on summative
assessment results.
5. Which tests are said to be decontextualized?
A. Simple recall tests B. Tests that measure HOTS
C. Performance tests D. Simulation tests
6. Which test item belongs to a contextualized test?
A. What is assessment?
B. Formulate a test item that is aligned with this learning outcome: Design an experi ment to determinethe
effect of detergent on plants.
C. Why was the turtle mad at the monkey?
D. What are the characteristics of a high quality assessment?
7. In which assessment are you engaged if you want to know of learners have realized intended
learningoutcomes?
A. Criterion- referenced assessment
B. Norm- references assessment
C. Contextualized assessment
D. Decontextualized assessment
8. The following are current trends in assessment EXCEPT?
A. clarifying with students intended learning outcomes expected to be achieved
B. teacher sharing Scoring Rubric with students only during summative assessment.
C. making use of a combination of written objectives tests and performance tests
D. engaging students in a self- assessment process
9. Ideally, in which part of the lesson are students engaged?
I. At the beginning of the lesson to set targets
II. During the lesson to determine progress
III. At the of the lesson to reflect on their learning
A. I,II and III C. I and II B. II and III D. I and III
10. In a parents'- teachers' conference, a parent raised a complaint of her daughter who did not know how
she was graded because teacher did not present the scoring rubric. Teacher explained to the parent that she
does not make scoring rubric public. Is the teacher right?
A. Yes, she is. B. No, she isn't.
C. Yes, if the class is unruly. D. No, she isn't right, if the class s behaved.
11. Do OBE, OBTL and UbD observe the principle, "begin with the end in mind"?
A. No B. Yes C. Somewhat D. Only UbD
12. Which statement is/are TRUE?
I. Spady's OBE is concerned with exit, broad outcomes which are demonstrated in the place of work?
II. Bigg's OBTL is directed to more specific learning or instructional outcomes?
A. I and II C. II only B. I only D. None
13. With which outcome is OBE Spady version concerned?
A. Immediate outcome B. Deferred outcome
C. Specific learning outcome D. Lesson outcome
14. Based on Bigg's and Tang's OBE version, which outcomes are most broad?
A. Program outcomes B. Course outcomes
C. Institutional outcomes D. Learning outcomes
15. Based on Bigg's and Tang's OBE version, which outcomes are most specific?
A. Program outcomes B. Course outcomes
C. Institutional outcomes D. Learning outcomes
16. What are the four principles of OBE cited by Spady (1996)?
I. Clarity of focus
II. Designing down
III. Constructive Alignment
IV. High Expectations
V. Expanded Opportunities
A. I, II, III and IVC. II, III, IV and VB. I, III, IV, and VD. I, II, IV and V
17. Why does Understanding by Design (Wiggins and McTighe) go with OBE? According to UBD_______
A. the first step in the instructional process is identifying and clarifying learning outcomes.
B. assessment is at the beginning , middle and end of the teaching- learning process.
C. formative assessment is sure part of instruction
D. the emphasis of instruction is HOTS
18. Which is the first step in the instructional cycle?
A. Planning teaching- learning activities
B. Outlining the lesson
C. Preparing assessment task
D. Setting instructional objectives
19. In OBE,which determines the what and the how of instruction?
A. Assessment tasks B. Learning outcomes
C. Teaching- learning activities D. Subject matter
20. Which is a behavioral term that is used in the formulation of learning outcomes?
A. Understand C. Appreciate B. Refute D. Comprehend
21. Which is TRUE of learning outcomes?
A. What learners are expected to demonstrate at the end of a lesson.
B. What institution are expected to realize
C. What education program is supposed to attain.
D. What a course is supposed to achieve
22. Which are sources of learning outcomes?
I. Vision- mission statement of institutions
II. Program outcomes from the Commission on Higher Education
III. Needs of industry
IV. Local, national, and international development goals
A. I and II C. I,III and IV B. II and III D. I, II, III and IV
23. Why should educational institution consider needs of industry in the formulation of learning outcomes?
A. To prepare graduates for the world of work
B. To eliminate probation of new employees in industry
C. For industry to save on cost for human resource development
D. To add prestige to educational institutions
24. Which does NOT apply to good learning outcomes?
A. State what and how teachers must teach
B. State what must be realized at the end of the program
C. Describe how students must be taught
D. State the specific knowledge and skills that a student must be able to demonstrate at the end of a lesson
25. Read this learning outcome:"To demonstrate how to read a poem". Is this a good learning outcome?
A. Yes, it is stated in behavioral terms.
B. Yes, it is simple, clear and direct
C. No, it does not state what the learner is expected to demonstrate at the end of the lesson
D. No, it does not state who is supposed to demonstrate how to read a poem.

26. Which is an improved version of this learning outcome:"To understand inductive lesson development"
A. To teach how a lesson is developed inductively
B. To write a lesson plan following the inductive method
C. To describe how a lesson is developed inductively
D. To answer a question on inductive lesson development
27. In McTighe's and Wiggin's Understanding by Design, which is the highest level of understanding?
A. Provide explanations
B. Aware of what they do not understand
C. Use knowledge in new situation
D. See viewpoints through critical eyes
28. In McTighe's and Wiggin's Understanding by Design, which is the lowest level of understanding?
A. Provide explanations
B. Aware of what they do not understand
C. Use knowledge in new situation
D. See viewpoints through critical eyes
29. Which are formulated from the learner's point of view?
A. Learning outcomes B. Teaching objectives
C. Vision- Mission statements D. Institutional goals
30. If you align your learning outcomes with the vision statement of DepEd, which will most likely formulate?
A. Compose an essay describing the Philippines a s"Pearl of the Orient Seas"
B. State at least 3 ways of showing love for one's country
C. Explain why Philippines is referred to as"Pearl of the Orient Seas"
D. Dream to build the Philippine as a nation.