PHẦN II: CÁC ĐỀ TỰ LUYỆN

ĐỀ SỐ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. planned B. planted C. played D. seemed
Question 2: A. shouting B. doubtful C. thorough D. amount
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. provide B. cancel C. enter D. listen
Question 4: A. volunteer B. concentrate C. company D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Your mother is cooking in the kitchen, _______?
A. won't she B. didn’t she C. doesn't she D. isn't she
Question 6: The names of the winners of the competition _______ in June.
A. will be published B. was published C. have published D. had been published
Question 7: He's very particular _______ the kitchen - everything has to be perfectly clean and in its
place.
A. about B. on C. from D. to
Question 8: _______ your education is, the greater your opportunities are.
A. Better B. The best C. The better D. The best
th
Question 9: My mother gave me a (n) _______ bike on my 17 birthday.
A. red expensive Japanese B. Japanese red expensive
C. expensive red Japanese D. expensive Japanese red
Question 10: I _______ on the computer when the lights went out.
A. was working B. is working C. worked D. works
Question 11: Many shops are doing badly _______ the economic situation.
A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite of
Question 12: _______, the price of the camera had risen by ten percent.
A. When I save enough money B. By the time I saved enough money
C. As soon as I have saved enough money D. After I had saved enough money
Question 13: _______ a hotel, we looked for some place to have dinner.
A. Having found B. Finding C. To find D. Having been found
Question 14: The sea turtle is an _______ species which needs protecting.
A. danger B. dangerously C. endangered D. danger
Question 15: All the steelworks around here were closed down in the 1980s.
A. closed down B. brought up C. carried off D. turned into
Question 16: Remember to _______ goodbye to the interviewer before you leave.
A. tell B. speak C. say D. talk
Question 17: We are trying to produce cheaper goods than our _______.
A. opponents B. contestants C. contender D. competitors
Question 18: You'll be green with _______ when you meet her new boyfriend.
A. black B. green C. blue D. red
Question 19: RMIT Vietnam holds annual graduation _______ in Ho Chi Minh City and Hanoi
A. celebrations B. ceremonies C. anniversaries D. occasion

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Some personality characteristics are innate; others are learned after birth.
A. studied B. natural C. false D. man-made
Question 21: Music is the literature of the heart; it commences where speech ends.
A. speaks B. begins C. lasts D. opens
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I was uneasy about my test results and only stopped that feeling when I found out I had
passed.
A. difficult B. simple C. calm D. nervous
Question 23: Even today, women don't have a level playing field in terms of opportunities to excel
and succeed.
A. a situation that is fair B. a situation that is biased
C. a situation that is important D. a situation that is trivial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Akina and Eudora are talking about transportation.
- Akina: “Cars have become an indispensable part of our lives”.
- Eudora “ _______, but I think we should limit car use to clear air pollution”
A. You shouldn’t say that again B. That’s right
C. I couldn’t agree with you less D. I’m afraid you are wrong.
Question 25: Fiona and her mother are checking their washing machine.
- Fiona “What’s wrong with the washing machine?
- Her mother “_______”
A. That is not right. B. They are not watching the right TV channel.
C. It might be the water supply. D. Make yourself at home.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
LIFELONG LEARNING
Evidence of the benefits of learning during the latter (26) _______ of life is overwhelming, from
research by the Alzheimer's Society showing the delayed onset of the disease, to reduced dependency
on welfare support.
Melissa March is executive director of Learning for the Fourth Age, a charity dedicated to
bringing trained volunteers into care settings (27) _______ they work with residents. “Our volunteers
help people with everything from recovering piano-playing after strokes to wanting to tackle Welsh for
the first time,” she explains.” In addition, there is (28) _______ of interest in IT and the connections
that email can bring. Our work helps break down older people's fears about young people and opens
our volunteers' eyes to the lives of older people with very different experiences from their own.” Such
improvements bring genuine happiness, as 78-year-old Londoner Maria Tolly found. In 1989, health
problems spelled an end to her career as a professional guitarist, until specialist music technology
courses at Morley College and the City Lit restored her (29) _______ to making music. “I was
concerned that I might be sidelined,” she recalls, “but actually studying at both institutions has proved
that age is immaterial - I feel so connected to life (30) _______ a combination of forgetting myself and
realizing how much I still have to learn.” Soon she had music commissions ranging from after-school
dance groups to composing a song for the 100th anniversary of her local park. “I am now becoming
interested in music videos and I am looking for collaborators.”
(Source: https://www.theguardian.com)
Question 26: A. spells B. spans C. stages D. periods
Question 27: A. what B. which C. where D. when

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Question 28: A. most B. lots C. a great many D. Instead
Question 29: A. ambition B. commitment C. sacrifice D. inspiration
Question 30: A. in spite of B. instead of C. due to D. thanks to
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
A few months ago, a group of scientists warned about the rise of “extinction denial,” an effort
much like climate denial to mischaracterize the extinction crisis and suggest that human activity isn’t
really having a damaging effect on ecosystems and the whole planet. That damaging effect is, in
reality, impossible to deny.
This past year, scientists and conservation organizations declared that a long list of species may
have gone extinct, including dozens of frogs, orchids and fish. Most of these species haven’t been seen
in decades, despite frequent and regular expeditions to find out if they still exist. The causes of these
extinctions range from diseases to invasive species to habitat loss, but most boil down to human
behavior.
One of the first papers of 2020 to report any extinction announced the probable loss of 17 percent
of Bangladesh's 187 known orchid species. Some of these still exist in other countries, but even
regional extinctions (or extirpations, as they're called) tell us that we’ve taken a toll on our ecological
habitats. A similar paper published just days later suggested that nine more orchid species from
Madagascar may have also gone extinct.
One of the few extinctions of 2020 received much media attention, and it's easy to see why.
Handfish are an unusual group of species whose front fins look somewhat like human appendages,
which they use to walk around the ocean floor. The smooth species, which hasn’t been seen since
1802, lived off the coast of Tasmania and was probably common when it was first collected by
naturalists. Bottom fishing, pollution, habitat destruction, bycatch and other threats are all listed as
among the probable reasons for its extinction. Even though the local fishery collapsed more than 50
years ago, the remaining handfish species are still critically endangered, so this extinction should serve
as an important wake-up call to save them.
(Adapted from https//www.scientificamerican.com/)
Question 31. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Human activities are not the primary cause of species extinction.
B. Myriad flora and fauna species may have become extinction recently.
C. The negative effects of extinction crisis are increasing.
D. Plants are more vulnerable than animals.
Question 32. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. expeditions B. decades C. species D. scientists
Question 33. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. It’s likely to find the extinct orchid species beyond the borders of Bangladesh.
B. Deforestation may cause some diseases to kill the invasive species.
C. The price for our modern society is the increasing loss in ecological habitats.
D. Bottom fishing and accidental entrapment only affect big marine species.
Question 34. According to the last paragraph, handfish _______.
A. are raised for recreation. B. resemble human's ancestor.
C. are threatened by naturalists D. live on the seabed.
Question 35. The word “collapsed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. closed down B. gave up C. put off D. took over
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 36 to 42.
When I was a teenager playing Ubisoft's Assassin's Creed series, I definitely wasn't looking to
learn things. But with 11 main AC games all set during different times and places in history - like

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ancient Egypt, Greece, and America during the Revolutionary War - I was bound to learn something,
even if just by accident. And I definitely did.
One day, my history teacher passed out blank maps of the Caribbean. It was a quiz I had forgotten
about. We had to label countries and major cities. Luckily, I'd been playing a lot of Assassin's Creed:
Black Flag, set in the Caribbean during the golden age of piracy in the early 18th century. So I was
able to draw on my life as a pirate to fill in the map, and I got an A.
When I was seven, I learned to multiply quickly through a purely educational game called
Treasure Mountain!, which had me solving math problems to progress up a mountain and collect
treasure in a never-ending loop. And then, of course, there was Assassin's Creed.
Ubisoft leaned into AC's educational potential, with very cool results. They did a lot of research to
recreate Ancient Egypt in AC: Origins and Ancient Greece in AC: Odyssey, and they released an
educational discovery tour for each game that lets you look around the environment with no violence,
enemies, or time constraints. You can learn about the Olympic Games, and how Sparta trained its
soldiers in ancient Greece, with real historical figures acting as your tour guides. Or jump over to
ancient Egypt to check out mummies and climb on the pyramids.
Obviously, Assassin's Creed can't teach you everything you need to know about the ancient world
— but the games do make that world come alive for people who are reluctant to learn, like I was.
If you're looking for some other options, Minecraft is incredibly popular with kids of any age.
Minecraft: Education Edition is free for everybody with a student email until at least June 30, and
features over 500 pre-made lesson plans for things like coding, history, English, and much more. For
example, there is a lesson plan on how to write clear instructions for in-game actions, and another that
lets kids learn about slopes by building a roller coaster.
(Source: https://www.npr.org)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Relaxation choices after studying. B. Propaganda for online gaming.
C. New educational platforms. D. Learning from video games.
Question 37: The word “bound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fated B. certain C. forced D. required
Question 38: The word “never-ending” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. endless B. relentless C. limitless D. hopeless
Question 39: According to paragraph 4, which is NOT an experience offered in Assassin’s Creed:
Odyssey
A. Learning about the grand pyramids and the making of mummies.
B. Historical personages introducing tours around the ancient Greek.
C. Exploring the ancient Greece without being hassled by enemies.
D. Watching how the ancient Spartan military training was like.
Question 40: According to the passage, what is the authors trying to convince the readers of?
A. The gaming industry is one of the most culturally rich industries.
B. Gaming teaches more about historical events than textbooks do.
C. Video games can get children interested in learning something.
D. The gaming worlds are well researched, thus historically correct.
Question 41: Through the passage, the author wants to encourage people _______.
A. to invest in online games as a potential learning tool in classrooms.
B. to use games as a way to solidify their previously learnt knowledge.
C. to take advantage of games, be it educational or not, to learn things.
D. to draw a clear line between the virtual world and the real world.
Question 42: The word “another” in paragraph 6 refers to _______.
A. instruction B. lesson plan C. in-game action D. student email

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: Electrical goods were almost double the price they were a few years ago.
A B C D
Question 44: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A B C D
Question 45: During this campaign, we aim to improve opportunities for the less
A B C
advantageous in society.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: We last saw Grandma in 1994.
A. The last time we saw Grandma was since 1994.
B. We haven’t seen Grandma since 1994.
C. It is in 1994 since I last saw Grandma.
D. It is in 1994 that I last saw Grandma.
Question 47: “Don’t forget to get up early for the meeting tomorrow, Maria”, said Antonio.
A. Antonio ordered Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day.
B. Antonio asked Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day.
C. Antonio reminded Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day.
D. Antonio persuaded Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day.
Question 48: She is not allowed to meet her children until the operation has finished.
A. She may not meet her children until the operation has finished.
B. She shouldn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
C. She needn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
D. She mustn’t meet her children until the operation has finished.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 49: He dropped out of school when he was 16. He regrets it now.
A. If he hadn’t dropped out of school when he was 16, he wouldn’t have regreted now.
B. He wishes he hadn't dropped out of school when he was 16.
C. If only he didn’t drop out of school when he was 16 so that he doesn't feel regretful now.
D. As long as he dropped out of school when he was 16, he regrets it now.
Question 50: My girlfriend was born in a rich family. She never wastes money on clothes that she
doesn't need.
A. However my girlfriend’s family is rich, she never wastes money on clothes that she doesn't need.
B. Were my girlfriend’s family rich, she would never waste money on clothes that she doesn't need.
C. As long as my girlfriend’s family rich, she never wastes money on clothes that she doesn't need.
D. Rich though my girlfriend’s family is, she never wastes money on clothes that she doesn't need.
The end

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 ĐỀ SỐ 2
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. knows B. lives C. stays D. meets
Question 2: A. reliable B. liquid C. revival D. final
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. attend B. option C. percent D. become
Question 4: A. beautiful B. important C. delicious D. exciting
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: That is your umbrella, _______?
A. isn't it B. isn't that C. does it D. doesn’t it
Question 6: _______ photograph of the place, I had no desire to go there.
A. Seeing B. Having seen C. Being seen D. To see
Question 7: When I was in Vietnam, I lived in a (n) _______ house.
A. modern big brick B. big modern brick C. brick modern big D. big brick modern
Question 8: When she came in and turned on the TV, her favourite programme _______.
A. just began B. was just beginning
C. had just begun D. would be beginning
Question 9: _______ the teacher explained the lesson several times, some of the students didn’t
understand it.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Though
Question 10: My father won’t allow me to go to the theater _______.
A. when I finished doing my household chores
B. after I had finished doing my household chores
C. once I will finish doing my household chores
D. until I has finished doing my household chores
Question 11: I think she's a teacher, but I couldn't say _______ certain.
A. at B. with C. to D. for
Question 12: I _______ when the ceremony will take place yet.
A. have not been informed B. am not informed
C. was not informed D. have not informed
Question 13: Music and television are forms of _______.
A. entertain B. entertained C. entertaining D. entertainment
Question 14: My father still hasn't really the death of my mother.
A. looked after B. taken after C. recovered from D. gone off
Question 15: In general, the more exercise you take, the greater the health benefit; but beyond a
certain level you get _______ returns.
A. diminishing B. lessening C. decreasing D. reducing
Question 16: I do not think there is a real _______ between men and women at home as
well as in society.
A. balance B. justice C. fairness D. equality
Question 17: The sign should be put in the most _______ place so that everybody can see it.
A. conspicuous B. obvious C. common D. spacious
Question 18: I _______ my chance to get that job because I arrived late for the interview.
A. threw B. blew C. flew D. drew
Question 19: The faster you drive, _______ you are to have an accident.
A. more likely B. the more likely C. the liker D. the most likely

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. delighted B. exciting C. essential D. informative
Question 21: The accomplishments he has had contributes to the development of local sports.
A. achievements B. structures C. calculations D. documents
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. forever B. permanent C. complicated D. contemporary
Question 23: I broke my neck trying to arrive at the railway station on time.
A. gave up B. pressed on C. went on D. kept on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Jane is talking to Liz about the gift.
- Jane: “Thanks for the nice gift you bought for us!”
- Liz:” _______.’’
A. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you
C. All right. Do you know how much it costs?
D. Actually speaking. I myself don’t like it.
Question 25: Mary is talking to Peter about the bus.
- Mary: “Oh my God, I’ve missed the bus!”
- Peter:” _______. Another will come here in ten minutes.”
A. I hope so B. Never mind. C. Don’t worry D. Thank you.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Today, many governments are promoting organic or natural farming methods (26) _______ avoid
the use of pesticides and other artificial products. The aim is to show that they (27) _______ about the
environment and about people’s health. But is this the right approach?
Europe is now the biggest (28) _______ for organic food in the world, expanding by 25 percent a
year over the past 10 years. Eating organic is (29) _______ way of defining oneself as natural, good,
caring, different from the junk-food-scoffing masses. As a journalist puts it: “It feels closer to the
source, the beginning, the start of things.”
The organic approach means farming with natural, rather than man-made. Techniques such as
crop rotation improve soil quality and help organic farmers compensate for the absence of man-made
chemicals. (30) _______ , for its ineffective use of land and labour, there are severe limits to how
much food can be produced.
(Adapted from IELTS by Cambridge)
Question 26: A. that B. how C. who D. why
Question 27: A. bring B. account C. take D. care
Question 28: A. agency B. market C. enterprise D. supermarket
Question 29: A. most B. other C. one D. each
Question 30: A. Moreover B. However C. Although D. Because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
At the end of 2019, a new type of coronavirus started spreading in China. This type of coronavirus
is often called 2019-nCoV, novel coronavirus, or COVID-19. It is believed that the virus was
transmitted from animals to humans. Some of the first cases were diagnosed in people who had visited

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a market selling live seafood and animals. Unfortunately, when viruses are transmitted from animals
to people, it can take scientists a lot of time before they can develop a vaccine or medicines to cure it.
Some of the symptoms of the coronavirus are fever, cough, runny nose, sore throat, headache, and
trouble breathing. These symptoms are very much like those people have with a cold or the flu. The
virus appears to spread mainly from person to person. The transmission occurs when someone comes
into contact with an infected person. For example, a cough, sneeze or handshake could cause
transmission. The spread may also be caused by coming into contact with something an infected
person has touched and then touching your mouth, nose or eyes.
There is no specific vaccine or medication to cure the disease, but generally, symptoms will go
away on their own. However, experts recommend seeking medical care early if symptoms feel worse
than a standard cold. Doctors can relieve symptoms by prescribing pain or fever medication. As far as
antibiotics are concerned, they are useless to treat coronavirus.
(Adapted from MyEnglishpage.com)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title of the passage?
A. The symptoms of coronavirus B. The origin of coronavirus
C. Coronavirus: Do you know about it? D. How to treat coronavirus?
Question 32: The word “Unfortunately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. Unluckily B. Unpleasantly C. Uncomfortably D. Unacceptably
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a symptom of the coronavirus?
A. fever B. cough C. trouble breathing D. allergic
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, the coronavirus can be transmitted from person to person
when _______?
A. An infected person shakes hands with someone.
B. An infected person coughs or sneezes without covering.
C. Someone come into contact with something an infected person touched.
D. All are correct.
Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to _______?
A. Doctors B. Antibiotics C. Symptoms D. Experts
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 36 to 42.
Although it's impossible to ignore their popularity, it seems to me that many reality shows send an
unfortunate message encouraging a cult of instant celebrity. Many are built around blatant self-
promotion and are based on humiliating others for the entertainment of viewers. These programmes
suggest that anyone can become famous simply by “being themselves” on TV, without working hard
or displaying any talent. Children who watch these shows may come to believe that they don't need to
study conscientiously at school, or train hard for a job. As one commentator points out, “We tell kids
that what matters is being a celebrity and we wonder why some behave as they do. It seems to me that
this addiction to celebrity culture is creating a dumbed-down generation.” In pretending to imitate real
life, reality shows promote the belief that we should aspire to be the reality stars we watch on
televisions.
One of the reasons so many people enjoy reality shows is that they feature real people operating
without scripts. The fact that characters have been selected to encourage disagreements or tension and
then cynically manipulated does not take away from the reality of the programmers; in fact it adds to
it. The unusual settings of shows like Big Brother do not reduce the educational value of observing
how the contestants cope with their situation. In fact, without such shows, most people would have
little concept of how a group of strangers would be able to survive, co-operate and develop in such
environments. As Time Magazine describes it, “They provoke and offend, but at least they are trying
to do something besides helping you get to sleep.” This insight therefore into the human condition is
invaluable, and it is little surprise that so many viewers are eager to watch these programmes.
Far from discouraging hard work and education, reality TV programmes help to create a society in
which we have shared experiences and a strong sense of community. Despite the fact that they do not

8
reflect reality, they provide an important social glue. In the past, there were only a few television
channels, and everybody watched the same programmes. This sense of a shared experience helped to
bind people together, giving them common things to talk about at work the next day: so-called “water
cooler moments'. Reality programmes play that role in contemporary society with viewership being
almost a cultural imperative, an experience shared simultaneously with friends and family. The
criticism that reality TV shows may corrupt viewers is not sustainable. Just as it is possible empathize
with real-life criminals without going on to commit crimes ourselves, there is no reason why viewers
should be persuaded to emulate the morality of reality TV programmes.
(Adapted from Life by National Geographic)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. How are reality TV programmes produced?
B. The arguments between commentators about reality TV programmes.
C. The aspects of reality TV programmes.
D. The effects of reality TV programmes on young people.
Question 37: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to _______?
A. Reality shows B. Reality stars C. Viewers D. Characters
Question 38: Why do so many people enjoy reality shows?
A. Because the real people appear in the shows.
B. Because there are no unusual settings in the shows.
C. Because people have to be in real situation.
D. Because there is no script for real people to perform.
Question 39: The phrase “cope with” is closest in meaning to _______?
A. fit B. manage C. stop D. make
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what reality TV programmes bring people nowadays more
than in the past?
A. That everybody watches the same programmes.
B. That everybody experiences the morality of TV programmes.
C. That everybody has a sense of shared experiences.
D. That everybody talks to each other about work after watching TV programmes.
Question 41: The word “sustainable” in paragraph 3 most probably means _______?
A. continuous B. unsuitable C. wasteful D. tiring
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Reality TV programmes send no message of morality to viewers.
B. Reality TV programmes have no values to viewers.
C. Reality TV programmes create a community in which people tend to be closer to each other.
D. Kids seem not to be interested in the celebrity appearing in the TV programmes.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: News about COVID-19 had been updated every minute recently.
A B C D
Question 44: Customs stopped us and checked their bags for alcohol and cigarettes.
A B C D
Question 45: Some Greeks felt that the universe was static and unchanged: others
A B C
believed that change was constant.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: She started learning English 10 years ago.

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 A. It's 10 years since she last started learning English.
B. She has started learning English for 10 years.
C. She has been learning English for 10 years.
D. The last time she learned English was 10 years ago.
Question 47: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?” he said.
A. He invited me to go to the cinema with him that night.
B. He offered me to go to the cinema with him that night.
C. He insisted me on going to the cinema with him that night.
D. He asked me to go to the cinema with him that night.
Question 48: It’s necessary for you to drink enough water every day.
A. You should drink enough water every day.
B. You may drink enough water every day.
C. You needn’t drink enough water every day.
D. You mustn’t drink enough water every day.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 49: I left home. Then I realized how much my family meant to me.
A. Not until I had left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
B. When having left home did I realized how much my family meant to me.
C. After having left home did I realized how much my family meant to me.
D. Only when I realized how much my family meant to me did I leave home.
Question 50: He didn't take his doctor's advice. His health gets worse.
A. If he took his doctor’s advice, his health wouldn't get worse.
B. He wishes he had taken his doctor’s advice and his health didn’t get worse.
C. If only he had taken his doctor's advice, his health wouldn’t have got worse.
D. Suppose that he didn’t take his doctor's advice, his health gets better.
The end

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 ĐỀ SỐ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. behaved B. acquired C. devoted D. damaged
Question 2: A. rich B. nice C. high D. fine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word which differs from the other three in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. admit B. support C. enhance D. suffer
Question 4: A. memory B. pollution C. holiday D. interview
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: She’s kind to animals, _______?
A. won’t she B. isn’t she C. doesn’t she D. didn’t she
Question 6: Over 100 guests _______ to attend John’s birthday at home.
A. invited B. were inviting C. were invited D. invite
Question 7: He remained strongly optimistic _______ his chances of making a full recovery.
A. with B. on C. to D. about
Question 8: _______ the test is, the better grades we get in our exams.
A. Simpler B. The simplest C. The simpler D. Simplest
Question 9: She gave her boyfriend a pair of _______ shoes on Valentine's Day to express her burning
love for him.
A. expensive leather running B. leather expensive running
C. expensive running leather D. running expensive leather
Question 10: Marry _______ the household chores while her brother was watching his
favorite cartoon.
A. is doing B. did C. does D. was doing
Question 11. More and more nuclear power stations were built _______ widespread opposition from
the public.
A. because of B. because C. in spite D. despite
Question 12: The mass murderer had left the scene of the crime _______.
A. before the police had come B. when the police were coming
C. by the time the police came D. as soon as the police come
Question 13: _______ a scholarship to Columbia University, she decided to hold a small party.
A. To be awarded B. Awarding C. Being awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 14: This is not an _______ option for many smallholder farmers because of its financial
burden.
A. attraction B. attractive C. attractively D. attract
Question 15: I couldn’t _______ what she was saying because of the noise of the traffic.
A. turn out B. put up C. make out D. get off
Question 16: It is the parents who actually _______ these behavioral problems in their children.
A. view B. observe C. stare D. glance
Question 17: There is a low survival _______ among babies born before 22 weeks.
A. percentage B. proportion C. rate D. level
Question 18: Gold prices were fallen last month, but he missed the _______ by waiting till today to
buy it.
A. ship B. shuttle C. boat D. flight
Question 19: The principal worked in close _______ with teachers on the new
method of study at school.
A. relation B. collaboration C. combination D. touch

11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: There was clear evidence that economic activities had fallen drastically and gradually
recovered in COVID-19 pandemic.
A. quickly B. slowly C. finally D. favorably
Question 21: The issue of climate change has received considerable attention in recent times.
A. notice B. ignorance C. balance D. battle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She was aware of what was going on, but she didn't completely understand it.
A. totally B. thoroughly C. partially D. negatively
Question 23: The bad weather conditions put a damper on our picnic beside the river.
A. showed the negative side of something
B. made something more enjoyable
C. changed something good into something bad
D. encouraged something to change
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Brown is talking to Linda, his new classmate, in the schoolyard.
- Brown: “How do you go to school, Linda?”
- Linda: “ _______.”
A. About ten kilometers B. Less than 30 minutes
C. A bit too long D. On foot
Question 25: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time.
- Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.”
- Laura: “ _______. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time management
skills”
A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right
C. I totally agree with you D. I don't quite agree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on each of the
following questions.
Question 26: Tomorrow morning, I had exams in Physics but I haven't started my revision yet.
A. morning B. had C. in D. haven’t started
Question 27: She has made a study of chemical fertilizers and its effect on the environment.
A. has made B. chemical C. its D. the
Question 28: Great white sharks are protective species along the California coast, but they are still
being hunted for business transaction.
A. protective B. coast C. hunted D. transaction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given
in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The last time I rode a bicycle to school was when I was in 9 grade.
A. I haven't ridden a bicycle to school for 9 years.
B. I haven't ridden a bicycle to school since I was in 9 grade.
C. I didn't ride a bicycle to school when I was in 9 grade.
D. I have ridden a bicycle to school for when I was in 9 grade.
Question 30: “I'm really sorry I didn't reply to your email, Jack” she said.
A. She blamed Jack for not replying to her email.
B. She apologized Jack for not replying to his email.
C. She refused to reply to Jack’s email.

12
 D. She promised to reply to Jack's email.
Question 31: It is absolutely imperative that we finish the project by next week.
A. We must finish the project by next week.
B. We may finish the project by next week.
C. We needn’t finish the project by next week.
D. We don’t have to finish the project by next week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 32: Her boss is on business. She really needs his support to solve the problem now.
A. As long as her boss isn’t on business, he will support her to solve the problem.
B. She wishes her boss wouldn’t be on business and could support her to solve the problem now.
C. If her boss isn’t on business, he will support her to solve the problem now.
D. If only her boss hadn’t been on business and could have supported her to solve the problem.
Question 33: He finally failed the entrance examination to university. He realized the importance of
making an attempt to study.
A. Not until he realized the importance of making an attempt to study did he fail the entrance
examination to university.
B. Only after he had failed the entrance examination to university did he realize the importance of
making an attempt to study.
C. Hardly had he realized the importance of making an attempt to study when he failed the entrance
examination to university.
D. Had he not realized the importance of making an attempt to study, he couldn’t have failed the
entrance examination to university.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
URBANIZATION
Urbanization is on the (34) _______ around the world. By 2050, some 70 percent of humanity will
live in the cities and that is good news for the environment.
Many of the environmental advantages are derived from living spaces being condensed. For example,
electricity use per person in cities is lower than electricity use per person in the suburbs and rural
areas. Condensed living space (35) _______ creates reduction in energy use also allows for more of
the natural environment to be preserved. In a suburban or rural environment, private properties are
spread out, because land values are relatively low. (36) _______ , more of the natural environment is
destroyed. In cities, property values are higher and space is used more efficiently. That means that
more people live in the same square mile of land than in rural areas.
(37) _______ environmental advantage of cities compared to rural areas is a decrease in carbon
emissions per person. In a rural or suburban area, people normally use their own vehicles to drive to
work or anywhere else. Due to congestion, the use of personal cars in the city is much less attractive.
More people use public (38) _______ instead and that means that less carbon dioxide gets released into
the atmosphere.
(Source: https://www.cato.org/blog/urbanization-good-environment)
Question 34: A. rise B. increase C. raise D. soar
Question 35: A. who B. when C. where D. that
Question 36: A. In contrast B. For example C. Therefore D. In addition
Question 37: A. Another B. Other C. Many D. Most
Question 38: A. conveyance B. transportation C. transmission D. transport
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 39 to 43.
The adorable clone, named Elizabeth Ann, is a species of black-footed ferret, one of the most
endangered mammals in North America, according to the World Wildlife Fund for Nature. Born on

13
Dec. 10, 2020, Elizabeth Ann was created using cells from “Willa,” a wild black-footed ferret who
died and had her cells cryopreserved in 1988, according to a statement from the U.S. Fish and Wildlife
Service (USFWS), which was involved in the cloning.
The feat marks the first time an endangered species in the U.S. has been cloned, the statement
said. “It was a commitment to seeing this species survive that has led to the successful birth of
Elizabeth Ann,” Ryan Phelan, executive director of Revive & Restore, a conservation organization that
was involved with the cloning, said in the statement. “To see her now thriving ushers in a new era for
her species and for conservation-dependent species everywhere.”
Black-footed ferrets were once thought to be extinct, but scientists found a small population in
1981, which allowed conservationists to start captive breeding programs for the species. About 250 to
350 of the ferrets live in captivity, and 300 more live in reintroduction sites in the wild, according to
Revive & Restore. But the limited genetic diversity of the species has challenged its recovery, making
the creatures prone to health disorders and certain infections, the Times reported.
Since Willa was not one of the “seven founders” of the population, her genes — which are now
possessed by Elizabeth Ann — could bring much-needed variation to the population's genetics.
Several other endangered animals have been cloned in other parts of the world, including gaur, or
wild cattle, in 2001, bucardo, or wild goats, in 2009, and wild coyotes in 2012, according to Scientific
American.
(Source: https://www.livescience.com/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. First cloned endangered species in the US.
B. New technology to save the biodiversity.
C. The use of biotechnology in conservation.
D. The first step towards human cloning.
Question 40: The word “ushers in” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. escorts B. guides C. signals D. causes
Question 41: The word “her” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Willa B. Elizabeth Ann C. black-footed ferret D. clone
Question 42: According to the passage, Elizabeth Ann _______.
A. will serve as a key to the mystery of black-footed ferret’s genetics.
B. will be the only clone due to the controversial nature of the practice.
C. will be recorded in the history of biology as a technological miracle.
D. will help bring genetic diversity to the black-footed ferret population
Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Researchers have successfully cloned a highly endangered ferret species.
B. Before cloning, black-footed ferrets were a story of conservation failure.
C. Elizabeth Ann was cloned using cells frozen more than three decades ago.
D. Genetic similarity makes today’s ferrets potentially susceptible to diseases.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 44 to 50.
Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive skills, and
emotional skills.
Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family's responsibility for teaching these skills. Even if
your child is in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these skills is much more
effective than in the few hours your child is under someone else’s care. Your child will learn how to sit
up, walk, run, climb, hold a spoon and so on. These seem quite natural to us as adults, but they are
skills that have to be fine-tuned at a very young age, and they also reinforce your child’s
independence which is essential for their development.
Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child development. If you
do not speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never learn. One infamous example

14
of this occurring is with Genie, a child who was locked in a dark room with extremely little human
contact until she was rescued at age 13. She was never able to develop language fluency because it was
never taught to her. So, teaching your children language skills from a young age is also essential to
child development.
Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional skills are
important throughout your child’s entire life as they teach them when to have sympathy and
compassion for others as well as teach them how to deal with the highs and lows that come with life.
If your child does not have proper emotional skills, they will not be able to deal with bad outcomes. If
they lack emotional skills, it could lead to destructive choices when they are older.
To help develop your child’s emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when they are
babies is a good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is very important. In a
family, because there are multiple people, the family can be very helpful in developing a child’s skills
with the multiple perspectives. To bring this more to foundational building blocks, while your child is
very young, something very helpful for family members to do is to teach children basic emotions.
When a child is feeling a certain way, naming emotions and describing them are important ways for
your child to understand how they are feeling. Once this foundation is set, children can learn how to
respond to their feelings and move forward.
(Adapted from https://www.all4kids.org/)
Question 44. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development
B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development
C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time?
D. Family’s Roles in Child's Skill Development
Question 45. The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage
Question 46. The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that _______.
A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills.
B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl.
C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child.
D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily.
Question 47. The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means _______
A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness
C. love and hatred D. successes and failures
Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Parents have the greater influence on their child’s motor skills than others do.
B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to adults.
C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature.
D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies.
Question 49. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model.
B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family.
C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society.
D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions.
The end

15
 ĐỀ SỐ 4
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. types B. works C. laughs D. sends
Question 2: A. breath B. threaten C. great D. health
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. purpose B. repeat C. prepare D. police
Question 4: A. ability B. scientific C. experience D. material
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: You have a book about dinosaurs, _______?
A. do you B. don't you C. have you D. haven’t you
Question 6: _______ that he'd seen the film before, he turned off the television and went to bed.
A. Realizing B. Having realized C. To realize D. Being realized
Question 7: My father used to live in _______.
A. a small lovely old village B. an old small lovely village
C. a lovely small old village D. a lovely old village small
Question 8: While her brother was studying in London, Sarah _______ to him twice a week.
A. write B. had written C. has written D. wrote
Question 9: The strict punishments have already been passed _______ more and more people are
breaking the traffic rules, which causes serious problems.
A. although B. because C. in spite of D. because of
Question 10: _______, he takes the children for a walk to a nearby playground.
A. As soon as he finishes dinner B. After he had finished dinner
C. When he finished dinner D. Until he has finished dinner
Question 11: You have to be tough to be successful _______ politics.
A. in B. by C. on D. of
Question 12: There is no doubt that a language which _______ throughout the world will do much to
bring countries closer to each other.
A. commonly using B. is commonly used
C. was commonly used D. commonly used
Question 13: She suffered from severe body _______ after a car accident.
A. injure B. injuries C. injured D. injurious
Question 14: Many companies and private schools were _______ due to the seriously financial
problems.
A. wiped out B. taken off C. put away D. gone over
Question 15: I think we may _______ forward to a better vision of the current situation.
A. take B. have C. look D. give
Question 16: Scientific _______ help us discover more parts of the world where there are special
animals and plants.
A. surveys B. research C. experiments D. expeditions
Question 17: Thousands of people in Vietnam are under the threat of desert _______.
A. increase B. expansion C. rise D. development
Question 18: The man didn’t _______ an eyelid when he received the result.
A. bat B. wink C. use D. close
Question 19: _______ the time passes, _______ I feel! The deadline of my thesis is coming, but I
have just finished half of it.
A. The faster / the nervous B. The fastest / the more nervously

16
 C. The faster / the more nervously D. The faster / the more nervous
Mark the letter A, B,C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Scientists hope this vaccine will be able to eliminate the virus. Some tests on the
animals showed that most of the virus disappeared after they were injected with it.
A. release B. exchange C. create D. remove
Question 21: Recently the prices of pork, vegetables and some other food have fluctuated. Pork is $2
cheaper than it was last week and can be a bit more expensive next week.
A. spun out of control B. changed frequently
C. run fast D. gone slowly
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Before the exam, I had been told the instructions were easy, but in fact, I found them
extremely complicated.
A. manageable B. difficult C. demanding D. challenging
Question 23: You shouldn't make a mountain out of a molehill. You just gave a wrong answer but it
doesn't mean you’re not going to qualify for the second round.
A. make an unimportant matter seem important
B. magnify the extent of the problem
C. underestimate the seriousness of the problem
D. neglect the importance of the situation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Rose is having lunch in a restaurant.
- Rose: “Can you bring me some water?”
- Waiter:” _______.”
A. No, thanks. B. Of course, you can.
C. I’m afraid not. D. Certainly. Wait a minute.
Question 25: Mary and Mike are talking about French.
- Mary: “Can you speak French?”
- Mike: “ _______ “
A. No, I’m not. B. Only a little. C. Yes, very much. D. No, thanks.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Technology will allow homes in the future to be “smart”. Appliances will communicate with each
other and with you. Your stove, for instance, will tell you (26) _______ your food is cooked and ready
to eat. The technology is possible because tiny information-storing devices called RFID1 chips. People
already use them to keep (27) _______ of pets and farm animals. Future RFID chips will store
information about (28) _______ the items in your cabinets. For example, they will record the date that
you bought each item. Other devices will “read” this information using radio waves. When you need
more food, your cabinets will tell you to buy it.
In a smart home, you won’t have to repaint the walls. The walls will (29) _______ be digital
screens, like computer or TV screens. The technology is called OLED and it's here already. A
computer network will link these walls with everything else in your house. Called “ambient
intelligence,” this computer “brain” will control your entire house. It will (30) _______ adapt to your
preferences. Your house will learn about your likes and dislikes. It will then use that knowledge to
control the environment.
(Adapted from Complete Advanced)
Question 26: A. that B. how C. who D. when
Question 27: A. track B. control C. pace D. contact

17
Question 28: A. all B. every C. any D. each
Question 29: A. definitely B. really C. actually D. completely
Question 30: A. therefore B. also C. still D. instead
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 31 to 35.
We are in the middle of a worldwide change in cultures - a transformation of entertainment,
business and politics. Popular culture has crossed borders in ways we have never seen before.
According to social scientists, our world is shrinking. In Japan, people have become fanatics of
flamenco and there are hundreds of dance schools around the country. In the last few years, dozens of
top Spanish flamenco artists have given performances there. It’s a huge and growing market.
Meanwhile, in Denmark people have discovered a new interest in Italian food, and pasta imports have
grown fivefold over the last decade. And the classic American blonde Barbie doll now comes in about
30 national varieties, including new additions this year of Austrian and Moroccan. How do people feel
about globalisation? It depends to a large extent on where they live and how much money they’ve got.
However, globalisation, as one report has stated, ‘is a reality, not a choice’. Humans have always
developed commercial and cultural connections, but these days computers, the Internet, mobile
phones, cable TV and cheaper air transport have accelerated and complicated these connections.
Nevertheless, the basic dynamic is the same: Goods move. People move. Ideas move. And cultures
change. The difference now is the speed and extent of these changes. Television had 50 million users
after thirteen years; the Internet had the same number after only five years. But now that more than
one fifth of all the people in the world speak at least some English, critics of globalisation say that we
are one big ‘McWorld’.
(Adapted from Life by National Geographic)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Changes in culture B. A world together
C. What makes the world change D. Worldwide movement
Question 32: The word “shrinking” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. becoming big B. getting new C. becoming small D. changing.
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as an example of that the world is shrinking.
A. English language in Asia B. Italian food in Denmark
C. Flamenco dance in Japan D. American Barbie doll in Morocco
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, globalization is fast because of _______?
A. Computers and internet B. Mobile phones
C. Cable TVs D. Mass media and cheap air transport
Question 35: The phrase “the same number” in paragraph 2 refers to _______?
A. 30 years B. 50 millions
C. 5 years D. one fifth of people in the world
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 36 to 43.
Study of the origins and distribution of human populations used to be based on archaeological and
fossil evidence. A number of techniques developed since the 1950s, however, have placed the study of
these subjects on a sounder and more objective footing. The best information on early population
movements is now being obtained from the “archaeology of the living body”, the clues to be found in
genetic material.
Recent work on the problem of when people first entered the Americas is an example of the value
of these new techniques. North-east Asia and Siberia have long been accepted as the launching ground
for the first human colonisers of the New World. But was there one major wave of migration across
the Bering Strait into the Americas, or several? And when did this event, or events, take place? In
recent years, new clues have come from research into genetics, including the distribution of genetic
markers in modern Native Americans.

18
 An important project, led by the biological anthropologist Robert Williams, focused on the
variants (called GM allotypes) of one particular protein - immunoglobin G - found in the fluid portion
of human blood. All proteins “drift”, or produce variants, over the generations, and members of an
interbreeding human population will share a set of such variants. Thus, by comparing the GM
allotypes of two different populations (e.g. two Indian tribes), one can establish their genetic
“distance”, which itself can be calibrated to give an indication of the length of time since these
populations last interbred.
Williams and his colleagues sampled the blood of over 5,000 American Indians in western North
America during a twenty-year period. They found that their GM allotypes could be divided into two
groups, one of which also corresponded to the genetic typing of Central and South American Indians.
Other tests showed that the Eskimo and Aleut formed a third group. From this evidence it was deduced
that there had been three major waves of migration across the Bering Strait. The first, Paleo Indian,
was more than 15,000 years ago was ancestral to all Central and South American Indians. The second
wave, about 14,000-12,000 years ago, brought Na-Dene hunters, ancestors of the Navajo and Apache
who migrated south from Canada about 600 to 7000 years ago. The third wave, perhaps 10,000 or
9,000 years ago, saw the migration from North-east Asia of groups ancestral to the modern Eskimo
and Aleut.
(Adapted from IELTS by Cambridge)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. When the migration in America happened.
B. The relationship between population movements and genetics.
C. Distribution of human population in America.
D. The evidences of genetics in America.
Question 37: Where did scientists find out the information on early population movements?
A. From human distribution
B. From archeological documents of living creatures.
C. From fossil evidence
D. From genetic material of the living body
Question 38: According to Robert Williams, Gm allotypes of immunoglobin G in human blood show
one person belongs to an interbreeding human population _______?
A. Because of a similar set of variants.
B. Because the protein, immunoglobin G, produces variants.
C. When a population establishes genetic distance.
D. When the populations interbred.
Question 39: The word “indication” paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. discussion B. statement C. suggestion D. idea
Question 40: When did Robert William start to do research on blood samples of American Indians?
A. 9,000 years ago B. 600 years ago C. 5,000 years ago D. 20 years ago
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 4?
A. Williams had another research in Arizona.
B. Williams found out major waves of immigration.
C. Williams showed the milestones of each wave.
D. Williams studied the ancestors of Eskimo and Aleut.
Question 42: The word “their” paragraph 4 refers to _______?
A. William and his colleagues B. American Indians
C. Blood samples D. Two populations
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: The number of people suffering from the drought had been increasing rapidly.
A B C D

19
Question 44: We were all really tired out after our long journey, so we asked the
A B C
landlord to put him up for the night.
D
Question 45: He was an industrial worker when he worked in the factory.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: The last time I heard from Jane was 3 years ago.
A. I didn’t hear anything from Jane 3 years ago.
B. It's 3 years since I last heard from Jane.
C. I haven’t heard anything from Jane for 3 year.
D. I started hearing from Jane was 3 years ago.
Question 47: “Remember to wake me up at 6 a.m tomorrow” she said to me.
A. She told me to remember to wake her up at 6 a.m tomorrow.
B. She reminded me to wake her up at 6 a.m the next day.
C. She reminded me to remember to wake her up at 6 a.m the next day.
D. She told me to wake her up at 6 a.m the following day.
Question 48: It isn’t necessary for you to finish the project today.
A. You can't finish the project today.
B. You may not finish the project today.
C. You had better not finish the project today.
D. You don’t need to finish the project today.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 49: I arrived home. After that I prepared dinner for my family.
A. No sooner had I prepared dinner for my family than I arrived home.
B. Only after I had arrived home did I prepare dinner for my family.
C. Had I arrived home, I would have prepared dinner for my family.
D. Not until I arrived home did I prepare dinner for my family.
Question 50: I couldn’t understand the exercise. I didn’t go to school yesterday.
A. If only I had understood the exercise, I would have gone to school yesterday.
B. I wish I had gone to school yesterday so that I could understand the exercise
C. Had I gone to school yesterday, I couldn’t have understood the exercise.
D. As long as I couldn’t understand the exercise, I would go to school yesterday.
The end,

20
 ĐỀ SỐ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. called B. phoned C. showed D. finished
Question 2: A. campus B. accident C. disapprove D. salmon
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. regret B. damage C. faster D. study
Question 4: A. difficult B. geology C. confident D. natural
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Someone knocked at the door, _______?
A. did it B. did they C. didn’t it D. didn’t they
Question 6: The house _______ by the fire before the fire brigade arrived.
A. destroyed B. had been destroyed
C. was destroyed D. have been destroyed
Question 7: The class is comprised mainly _______ Italian and French students.
A. in B. on C. of D. at
Question 8: The higher we climbed, _______ it was to breathe.
A. more difficult B. the most difficult C. the more difficult D. most difficult
Question 9: Mr Brown found a/an _______ box full of old photos.
A. old brown wooden B. brown old wooden
C. old wooden brown D. brown wooden old
Question 10: I don't know what has happened to him. He _______ badly since he came home.
A. behaved B. behaves C. has behaved D. is behaving
Question 11: _______ repeated assurance that the product is safe, many people have
stopped buying it.
A. Despite B. Because C. Although D. Though
Question 12: It won't be safe to use these stairs _______.
A. before they repair them. B. after they will repair them.
C. when they repaired them D. until they have repaired them.
Question 13: _______ the report on the students’ result, she shut down the computer
and went home.
A. To have finished B. To finish C. Being finished D. Having finished
Question 14: She sent me a _______ letter thanking me for my invitation.
A. impoliteness B. politeness C. politely D. polite
Question 15: We arrived a few minutes before the plane _______.
A. took on B. took up C. took off D. took out
Question 16: When the pregnant woman got on the bus, one of the young man stood up and _______
room for her.
A. made B. put C. got D. did
Question 17: In many countries now there is still no gender equality and women never have the same
_______ as men.
A. state B. status C. role D. position
Question 18: Our company is bending over _______ to satisfy our customers.
A. backwards B. forwards C. downwards D. upwards
Question 19: Many patients think optimistically. They are never in the _______ of death.
A. dread B. fear C. panic D. terror

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 20: With so many writing projects to work on, the editor decided to outsource some of the
easier tasks to other freelancers.
A. oblige B. assign C. exchange D. resign
Question 21: Moving to a new country at a young age gave me a chance to spread my wings.
A. become accustomed to doing new things
B. become nervous and avoid trying new things
C. become independent and try new things
D. become incapable of doing new things
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The teacher tried to forbid the students from using their cell phones in their exams, but
it turned out that they didn't listen to her.
A. restrain B. prohibit C. permit D. imply
Question 23: She is wearing a lot of layers today because it’s freezing outside.
A. chilly B. flammable C. glacial D. scorching
Mark the letter A, B,C or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Lam is in the post office.
- Post office staff: “How can I help you?” - Lam: “ _______.”
A. I’d like two stamps, please. B. No, I don’t want to.
C. Yes, I’d love to. D. Ok. You are very kind.
Question 25: Peter and Carla are talking to each other.
- Peter: “Would you like to go to the cinema this Saturday afternoon?”
- Mike: “_______”
A. No, I wouldn’t. B. Yes, I would
C. It’s a pity. I am busy. D. No, I don't like it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Why is the South Pole colder than the North Pole? Both polar regions of the earth are cold,
primarily (26) _______ they receive far less solar radiation than the tropics and mid-latitudes do. At
either pole the sun never rises more than 23.5 degrees above the horizon and both locations experience
six months of continuous darkness. Moreover, most of the sunlight (27) _______ does shine on the
polar regions is reflected by the bright white surface.
What makes the South Pole so (28) _______ colder than the North Pole is that it sits on top of a
very thick ice sheet, which itself sits on a continent. The (29) _______ of the ice sheet at the South
Pole is more than 9,000 feet in elevation - more than a mile and a half above sea level. Antarctica is by
far the highest continent on the earth. In (30) _______ , the North Pole rests in the middle of the Arctic
Ocean, where the surface of floating ice rides only on foot or so above the surrounding sea. The Arctic
Ocean also acts as an effective heat reservoir, warming the cold atmosphere in the winter and drawing
heat from the atmosphere in the summer.
(Adapted from Essential Reading for IELTS)
Question 26: A. but B. despite C. because D. because of
Question 27: A. that B. whose C. when D. where
Question 28: A. many B. much C. some D. a lot of
Question 29: A. face B. top C. surface D. reef
Question 30: A. contrast B. conclusion C. addition D. comparison
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 31 to 35.

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 It is hard to argue that the actual contribution to development amounts to a great deal directly.
Whilst volunteer tourists can get involved in building homes or schools, they have usually paid a
significant fee for the opportunity to be involved in this work: money that, if donated to a local
community directly, could potentially pay for a greater amount of labor than the individual volunteer
could ever hope to provide. This is especially so in the case of gap years, in which the level of
technical skill or professional experience required of volunteers is negligible. Hence, it is unsurprising
that many academic studies allude to the moral issue of whether gap year volunteering is principally
motivated by altruism - a desire to benefit the society visited - or whether young people aim to
generate “cultural capital” which benefits them in their careers. However, the projects may play a role
in developing people who will, in the course of their careers and lives, act ethically in favor of those
less well-off.
Volunteering may lead to greater international understanding; enhanced ability to solve conflicts;
widespread and democratic participation in global affairs through global civic society organizations;
and growth of international social networks among ordinary people. In this scenario, the whole is
greater than the sum of its parts, an outcome where benefits accrue to volunteers and host
communities, and contribute to the global greater good. However, if volunteering is largely limited to
individuals of means from wealthier areas of the world, it may give these privileged volunteers an
international perspective, and a career boost, but it will do little for people and communities who
currently lack access to international voluntary work. Those who volunteer will continue to reap its
benefits, using host organizations and host communities as a rung on the ladder of personal
advancement.
(Adapted from Compact Advanced)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Voluntary work B. Volunteer tourism
C. Volunteer issues D. Voluntary potential
Question 32: What is money paid by tourists probably used to do?
A. build homes and schools B. pay for the volunteer
C. to pay for the labor D. do the charity
Question 33: The word “negligible” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. important B. significant C. vast D. unimportant
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT the benefit volunteer tourism bring about?
A. Greater international understanding
B. Enhanced ability to solve conflicts
C. Reduction violence affairs
D. Growth of international social networks among ordinary people
Question 35: The phrase “a rung on the ladder” in paragraph 2 refers to _______?
A. a stage B. a match C. a play D. an advantage
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 36 to 42.
Being bullied in school is not “part of growing up” or just a “rite of passage.” Some children who
endure bullying never get over the fear and the humiliation, according to Mr. Barone. By working
together, schools and parents can make going to school an experience that students will enjoy, not
dread.
Students who are the victims of bullies and school officials who hold the power to stop them have
very different perceptions of the problem. This difference has hindered effective prevention efforts.
Bullying is a situation when a student or group of students is mean to you over a long period of time
(weeks or even months). Bullying can either be physical (hitting, kicking, and so on) or it can be
verbal (threats, name calling, gossiping, or ignoring). Using this definition, the school staff member
were asked to estimate the percentage of the students in their schools who had been victimized by
bullying. On average, the staff member believed that 16% of the students had been victims of bullies.
The students in the same schools were asked whether they had ever been bothered by a bully or bullies

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while you were in middle school. And 58.8 % of the students surveyed said that they had. The size of
the difference in perceptions between students and school staff members suggests that the staff
members do not recognize the extent of the bullying that students face. Bullying just does not seem to
be “that big a problem” to the staff.
The same survey uncovered some interesting facts. Contrary to what many of us believe, bullying
in school does not primarily involve boys. Popular portrayals, such as The Lord of the Flies and the
Lords of Discipline, which depict only boys as both the bullies and the victims, do not reflect reality.
As shown in this study, only 47% of the victims of bullying in middle school are boys. Thus,
according to the students’ own perceptions, the majority (53%) of the victims of bullies are girls. Not
surprisingly, the bullying that takes place among boys tends to be more physical (punching, kicking,
pushing, and so on) than that which takes place among girls (which is usually more verbal in nature).
Among the students who said that the bullying they had experienced was mostly physical, 89.3% were
boys. Among those students who said that the bullying they experienced was mostly verbal, 67.1%
were girls)
Among all students surveyed, 10% indicated that they had been physically injured by a bullying in
school. Furthermore, the nature of the injuries ranged from minor bumps and bruises to some injuries
that required hospitalization. Of those students who said they had been injured by a bully, 76.5% were
boys.
(Adapted from Reading Academic English)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. A study of gender differences in schools
B. A study of bullying in schools
C. A study of bullying consequences
D. A study of how victims are bullied in school
Question 37: The phrase “rite of passage” is closest in meaning to _______?
A. Important occasion B. Important part
C. Important message D. Important period
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, who can prevent the state of bullying in schools?
A. Students B. School staffs C. Parents D. School officials
Question 39: The word “estimate” paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. count B. number C. calculate D. understand
Question 40: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to _______?
A. the study B. the bullying C. the victim D. the middle school
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Only boys are bullied in school.
B. The number of the girls who are bullied is bigger than that of the boys.
C. The boys are often punched, pushed and kicked.
D. More girls experienced verbal bullying than boys.
Question 42: What can be the writer’s purpose in the passage?
A. To warn schools members of serious bullying in schools.
B. To show the real state of bullying in schools
C. To predict that bullying is more and more developing in schools.
D. To advise school members to pay attention to the bullying in schools.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: They already filled over 6 bags with rubbish from the beach up to now.
A B C D
Question 44: Others say that we must limit population growth because their resources are limited.
A B C D
Question 45: In the study, temperature was a variableness which needed measuring by a special tool.

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 A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: The last time I watched TV was two weeks ago.
A. I didn’t watch TV for two weeks.
B. I haven’t watched TV for two weeks.
C. I hadn’t watched TV for two weeks.
D. I have watched TV for two weeks.
Question 47: “Did you go to the library yesterday?” she said to me.
A. She asked me if you go to the library yesterday.
B. She asked me if you went to the library yesterday.
C. She asked me if I had been to the library yesterday.
D. She asked me if I had been to the library the day before.
Question 48: It is important to be hard working in any circumstances.
A. You should work hard in any circumstances.
B. You may work hard in any circumstances.
C. You must work hard in any circumstances.
D. You need to work hard in any circumstances.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 49: A few ill people didn’t isolate on their own. People around them were affected.
A. If only a few ill people isolated on their own, people around them would not be affected.
B. Suppose that a few ill people were isolated on their own, people around them would be affected.
C. If a few ill people had isolated on their own, people around them would not be affected.
D. If a few ill people had isolated on their own, people around them wouldn’t have been affected.
Question 50: They didn’t stop arguing about the exercise. Then, the teacher explained it.
A. Not until did the teacher explain the exercise they stopped arguing about it.
B. Only after the teacher explained the exercise, they stopped arguing about it.
C. Not until the teacher explained the exercise did they stop arguing about it.
D. Only until the teacher explained the exercise, they stopped arguing about it.
The end

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