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0 Prove that 2n − 3 ≤ 2
n−2
, for all n ≥ 5 by mathematical induction
algebra-precalculus
proof-writing
induction

Prove that 2n − 3 , for all n by mathematical induction

n−2
≤ 2 ≥ 5

I have to prove by mathematical induction that: 2n − 3 ≤ 2

n−2
, for all n ≥ 5

Thank you for the Review.

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Victor F Salazar G
asked
1,247 ● 12 ● 25 Jan 7 '14 at 1:12

edited
Jan 7 '14 at 1:34

1 This statement is wrong

– Alex
Jan 7 '14 at 1:16

I've edited your post to take advantage of LT

A
EX formatting. Please confirm that it still says what you intended...
(because I've transcribed pretty much exactly what was written, but, as Alex mentioned, this is pretty wrong)
– apnorton
Jan 7 '14 at 1:16

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2 Answers order by
votes

For n = 5 you have

2
5−2
8 = 2 ≥ 2 ⋅ 5 − 3 = 7

So the statement is correct for n = 5

n−2
Now assume 2 ≥ 2n − 3 is valid for some fixed n then for n + 1 you will get:

n−1 n−2 n−2 n−2

2 = 2 + 2 ≥ 2 + 2

assumption

≥ 2n − 3 + 2 = 2(n + 1)

− 3

Thus
 n−2 n−1
2 ≥ 2n − 3 ⟹ 2 ≥ 2(n + 1)

− 3

which means the statement is correct for every n ≥ 5

(Answer to previous question)

For n = 6 you have

6−2 4
2 ⋅ 6 = 12 < 2 = 2 = 16

Thus your statement is wrong

However, if you assume 2n ≤ 2

n−2
for all n ≥ 6 now you have:

2(n + 1) = 2 + 2n

assumption
n−2 n−2
≤ 2 + 2 ≤ 2

n−2 n−1
+ 2 = 2

Thus
n−2
2n ≤ 2 ⟹ 2(n + 1)

n−1
≤ 2

So this statement is correct for all n ≥ 6 .

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user127.0.0.1
answered
6,847 ● 6 ● 27 ● 43 Jan 7 '14 at 1:17

edited
Jan 7 '14 at 1:41

2 Yes, probably it should be 2n ≤ 2

n−2
for all n > 5 .
– Benjamin Dickman
Jan 7 '14 at 1:19

1 Yes, i´ve missed one part, in fact, it is: 2n−2 ≥ 2n − 3 for all n ≥ 5
–  Victor F Salazar G
Jan 7 '14 at 1:22

I answered this question as well now.

– user127.0.0.1
Jan 7 '14 at 1:23

finally the answer to the question you hopefully really had

– user127.0.0.1
Jan 7 '14 at 1:42

Add a comment

n−3
Another way: this is equivalent to showing that n < 2 for n ≥ 6 . The base and assumption
1
 state are the same. The inductive step is

n+1−3 n−3
n + 1 < 2n < 2 = 2 ⋅ 2

Divide through 2 and you are back to your assumption step, hence the statement is proven.

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Alex
answered
18.5k ● 4 ● 24 ● 38 Jan 7 '14 at 1:27

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