Legaledge Test Series: Instructions To Candidates

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the Most Awesome and Consistently Successful Study Material and Test Series Module, spanning across
both Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. While most of the world fumbled and faltered, 2020
has been another inspiring Success story both for us and those who chose to trust us. As a result LE was able to
engineer Clean-Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 35 Selections under 100 ranks, and a whopping 180
selections under 500 ranks in CLAT 2020. With AILET being no different, a total of 30 LEtians found their way
into NLUD in 2020. Read on!
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #30
Candidate Name : _________________

Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a
BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and in
the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.32): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): It’s because drowsiness is always hovering, ready to pounce… Or let’s just say it’s
sleep’s tyranny. I’ve never been much good at waiting for anything without nodding off, but here, for
some reason, I haven’t had to work at resisting sleep. The doziness I can never normally shake from my
head and limbs hasn’t come over me here, even though in this room I can’t find anything stimulating to
keep me pleasantly occupied. All I can do is to go on taking stock of the room’s contents, sizing up the
furnishings one by one as if they have some significance, as if every object will yield a grand meaning.
When a person has nothing to do, when you’re just floating in a void, you can’t help trying to attach
meanings to the objects around you, to find some connection with them. As if I can retrieve some
memory of them, as if I’m already familiar with them, like they have some sort of place in my life or tell a
story I already know. I’ve told myself, for instance, that the knob on the wardrobe door looks like the one I
remember seeing in my aunt’s home, in the old flat, the one she left during the war.
I stare at the wardrobe’s double doors, following the patterns of the wood grain until my eyes are
watering. Then I shift my attention to the drawer in the little bedside table, indecisive about whether to
open it or not. I already know what is inside: a Bible, its pages thin and delicate, like you find in every
hotel room in Europe, and an old telephone directory that no one uses any longer, and hasn’t for a long
time. The hotel cleaners must have forgotten about it.
How many of those who’ve stayed in this room have spent as much time as I have contemplating every
one of its objects? Apart from whoever it was who left the letter inserted between the pages of the hotel
directory. And that directory is surely not something most guests would open. In the first place, there’s no
need for a directory in a hotel as small as this. No need for it in any hotel, in fact, now that people have
smart phones. It must be the owners’ attempt at giving their hotel a veneer of luxury, a touch of the
dignity of age. The directory looks old, its pages slightly crumpled and eaten away. Neglected and
forgotten here, like the Bible.
1. From the author’s description of the hotel, what is the look and feel of the hotel?
(a) Ancient and old (b) Vintage and luxurious
(c) Old and unattended (d) None of the above
2. “Or let’s just say it’s sleep’s tyranny” which tyranny is the author trying to infer?
(a) That people have forgotten Bible even though it’s a holy book;
(b) Not even the hotel cleaners pay attention to the old telephone dictionary
(c) Sleeping during important events in life
(d) Not being able to sleep when he actually wants to
3. What does the phrase ‘ready to pounce’ mean?

(a) Quickly take hold of something (b) Something that is unexpected
(c) An unwanted invasion in life (d) None of the above
4. Choose a word closest to the author’s emotions and feelings while he said this “I’ve told myself, for
instance, that the knob on the wardrobe door looks like the one I remember seeing in my aunt’s home, in
the old flat, the one she left during the war”?
(a) Grief (b) Déjà vu (c) Nostalgia (d) Anxious
5. “The directory looks old, its pages slightly crumpled and eaten away. Neglected and forgotten here, like
the Bible” what is author trying to say?
(a) Directory is old and needs replacement
(b) Directory has not been looked after and deserves more attention than
(c) Directory is being neglected by people just like the holy books and values
(d) Books these days are not valued enough by the people
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 36

Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Trees are mankinds lifeline. If they are destroyed, there is no way that human
beings can survive. From the oxygen that we breathe in, the food that we eat, to the clothes we wear, we
owe it all to the trees. Not only this, trees act as purifiers of air and receptacles of our waste products. We
get fuel, fodder, timber, medicines and numerous other valuable products from the trees. It is, therefore,
not surprising that trees were given great importance in our culture, our tradition, our mythology and
legends. The entire Panchatantra revolves around forests and its inhabitants. Tulsi plant is always found
and worshipped in a traditional home. Pipal tree is revered by all. Neem is valuable as an insecticide,
germicide and medicine, in the times when there were no coolers or air conditioners people comforted
themselves in the cool shades of mango, neem and other trees during summer heat. Today, however,
the forests are in danger. Their survival is at stake as man, in his blind pursuit of wealth and power, is
bent upon destroying them. The urgent need today is to save our forests from extinction. For sustaining
ecological balance, for environmental and other reasons, it is important that at least one third of our land
is covered with forests. However, today we have less than 20% area under forests and much of it is
degraded forest. Over felling of trees, hindering natural process of pollination and germination and
diverting land for other purposes have all taken their toll on forests. So, the need of the hour is to work
to save existing forests and help in bringing larger area under forests. The need to conserve forests and
upgrade them was recognized decades back by the Indian Government. Subsequently, to promote
research in forestry and allied sciences, a Forest Research Institute, and for forest management, an
Indian Institute of Forest Management were opened. While Indian Forest Service was organized on an
efficient basis by Sir John Strachedy, a new orientation was given to it after independence. The need to
involve public was felt and so social forestry scheme was launched. The purpose was to make forestry a
mass movement. One tree for every child, Trees for Eco-development and numerous other schemes
were launched. To provide financial support, Forest Development Boards were set up. To make use of
the waste lands, marginal lands and desert lands, energy plantations, fodder plantations etc. were
attempted. Under DDP, forests were sought to be promoted not only to restore fragile ecological balance
but also to provide people with the means of livelihood.
6. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the above passage?
(a) Importance of forests (b) Conserving forests
(c) Role of forests in our lives (d) All of the above
7. What does the author mean by ‘need of the hour’ used in the above passage?
(a) Measures should be taken that day itself
(b) Measures should be taken sometime
(c) Measures should be taken immediately
(d) None of the above
8. Assertion: Trees are mankind’s lifeline

Reason: We get fuel, fodder, timber, medicines and numerous other valuable products from the trees.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
9. As per the author, the urgent need today is to:

(a) Save our forests from extinction (b) bring larger area under forests
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
10. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(a) The purpose of forestry was to make forestry a mass movement.
(b) Under DDP, forests were sought to be promoted only to restore fragile ecological balance.
(c) To promote research in forestry and allied sciences, a Forest Research Institute, was opened.

Passage (Q.11-Q.15): We were fifteen by then, already into our last year at Hailsham. We’d been in the
pavilion getting ready for a game of rounders. The boys were going through a phase of “enjoying”
rounders in order to flirt with us, so there were over thirty of us that afternoon. The downpour had started
while we were changing, and we found ourselves gathering on the veranda – which was sheltered by the
pavilion roof – while we waited for it to stop. But the rain kept going, and when the last of us had
emerged, the veranda was pretty crowded, with everyone milling around restlessly. I remember Laura
was demonstrating to mean especially disgusting way of blowing your nose for when you really wanted to
put off a boy.
Miss Lucy was the only guardian present. She was leaning over the rail at the front, peering into the rain
like she was trying to see right across the playing field. I was watching her as carefully as ever in those
days, and even as I was laughing at Laura, I was stealing glances at Miss Lucy’s back. I remember
wondering if there wasn’t something a bit odd about her posture, the way her head was bent down just a
little too far so she looked like a crouching animal waiting to pounce. And the way she was leaning
forward over the rail meant drops from the overhanging gutter were only just missing her – but she
seemed to show no sign of caring. I remember actually convincing myself there was nothing unusual in
all this – that she was simply anxious for the rain to stop – and turning my attention back to what Laura
was saying. Then a few minutes later, when I’d forgotten all about Miss Lucy and was laughing my head
off at something, I suddenly realised things had gone quiet around us, and that Miss Lucy was speaking.
She was standing at the same spot as before, but she’d turned to face us now, so her back was against
the rail, and the rainy sky behind her.
“No, no, I’m sorry, I’m going to have to interrupt you,” she was saying, and I could see she was talking to
two boys sitting on the benches immediately in front of her. Her voice wasn’t exactly strange, but she was
speaking very loudly, in the sort of voice she’d use to announce something to the lot of us, and that was
why we’d all gone quiet. “No, Peter, I’m going to have to stop you. I can’t listen to you anymore and keep
silent.”
11. The above passage, the rain was referred to as:

(a) Downpour (b) Demonstration
(c) Enjoying rounders (d) None of the above
12. What can be concluded about the person referring herself as “I’ in the passage?
(a) She does not like rain
(b) She wanted the boys present there to flirt with her
(c) She was really interested in Lucy’s actions
(d) All of the above
13. “I was stealing glances” in the passage means?

(a) To quickly look at someone else
(b) Trying to hide ones shyness
(c) Looking at someone you live and admire
(d) Trying to get everyone’s attention
14. What was unusual about Lucy looking at rain?

(a) Rain drops from the overhanging gutter were only just missing her
(b) The way she was looking at rain drops
(c) Her leaning over the railing
(d) Her back
15. The closest meaning to ‘everyone milling around restlessly’ is

(a) Moving in order to save themselves (b) Moving without any purpose
(c) Moving to flirt with girls (d) None of the above

Passage (Q.16-Q.20): One of the objects of newspaper is to understand the popular feeling and give
expression to it; another is to arouse among the people certain desirable sentiments; and the third is
fearlessly to expose popular defects. M K Gandhi.
Historically, social structure and tradition in India remained impervious to major elements of modernity
until the contact with the west began through colonization. This contact had a special historicity which
brought about many far reaching changes in culture and social structure of Indian society. There was,
however, one important feature of Indian modernization during the British period. The growth of this
process was selective and segmental. It was not integrated with the microstructure of Indian society, such
as family, caste, village community. At these levels, the British by and large followed a policy of least
interference, especially after the rebellion of 1857. Later, in the twentieth century, as the nationalist
movement gathered momentum which felt strong need to mobilize masses in the active policies. The
press became the chief instrument for carrying out the task that is for arousing, training, mobilizing and
consolidating nationalist public opinion. The influence of the media on Indian masses was tremendous. It
not only educated the masses politically, but also motivated them to discard irrational, old and evil social
practices.
The media of communication which have accelerated the rate of growth and cultural diffusion of
modernization have also been introduced in India by the colonial masters. Printing was introduced by the
Portuguese in the second half of the sixteenth century and incentive for this was provided by the
Christian missionaries. In the British territory, the first press appeared in Bombay in 1674 on the initiative
of an Indian named Bhimji Parekh. In early eighteenth century a printing press was established in South
India by the Danish Lutheran Mission. Written newspapers called Akbar are known to have been in
circulation during the time of the Mughal Empire, but the printed newspapers came into existence only
after the contact with the west. A beginning in this direction was made about the first quarter of the 18th
century. Similarly, the British also introduced telegraph, railways and modern postal system in India.
The changes which have followed since the expansion in these communication media in India constitute
an indirect but concrete index of modernization. During 1940-41, India had between 3000 to 4000 printed
newspapers and periodicals published from a variety of centers in seventeen different languages, a few
bilingual. The number of newspapers and periodicals increased by almost 42.7 percent in almost twenty
years. At the end of 1966 their number was 10, 977.
16. The media of communication which have accelerated the rate of growth and cultural diffusion of
modernization have also been introduced in India by the colonial masters. The best explanation to this
from the following is:
(a) Communication and media are the reasons britishers came to India
(b) Mass media and communication is the reason for cultural exchange
(c) Media and Communication can never accelerate the growth
17. Assertion: Printing was introduced by the Portuguese in the second half of the sixteenth century.
Reason: The first press appeared in Bombay not on the initiative of an Indian named Bhimji Parekh
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
18. Historically, social structure and tradition in India remained impervious to major elements of modernity
until the contact with the west began through colonization. ‘Impervious’ here means:
(a) Unaffected (b) Disinterested (c) Alien (d) Distant
19. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “developing or happening more
quickly”?
(a) Mobilize (b) Movement (c) Beginning (d) Momentum

20. In “the growth of this process was selective and segmental” which process is being referred by the
author?
(a) Process of expansion of communication
(b) Process of modernization
(c) Process of educating the masses
(d) Process of colonization
Passage (Q.21-Q.26): Ambedkar offered a substantive definition of democracy, radically different from
the procedural definition that dominated the 20th-century theories of democracy. He was not unmindful of
the procedural aspects of democracy, but for him, all these democratic mechanisms like elections and
parliament were there for a purpose: “to bring about welfare of the people”. He went on to offer a
definition of democracy for our times that would set him apart from the dominant theorists of democracy.
For him, democracy was “a form and a method of government whereby revolutionary changes in the
economic and social life of the people are brought about without bloodshed”. [Conditions Precedent for
the Successful Working of Democracy, 1952]
Departing from Western democratic imagination that foregrounds liberty, Ambedkar put equality and
fraternity at the heart of democracy. “The roots of democracy lie not in the form of Government,
Parliamentary or otherwise. A democracy is more than a form of Government. It is primarily a mode of
associated living. The roots of Democracy are to be searched in the social relationship, in terms of
associated life between the people who form a society.” [Prospects of Democracy in India, 1956] For this
ideal, he turned to the Buddhist tradition. He insisted that Buddhist Sanghas were the models for
parliamentary democracy.
In the light of this ideal, Ambedkar offered a thoroughgoing critique of the existing societies that claimed
to be democratic. Though his critique was general, his focus was, understandably, on Indian society. The
“associated living” that democracy presupposes simply did not exist in India. Caste system has divided
the Indian society into many parallel, self-contained communities that did not allow for the conversation
and negotiation necessary for a healthy democracy. Thus Ambedkar’s critique of the caste system was
not merely that it was unjust and oppressive for the “depressed classes”, but also that it fractured national
unity and made democracy impossible.
Ambedkar turned this critique into a general theory of preconditions for a successful democracy. He
reminded us, “democracy is not a plant that grows everywhere”. He would often cite the case of Italy and
Germany where absence of social and economic democracy led to the failure of nascent political
democracy. For him, the first and foremost condition for democracy was that there should be no glaring
inequalities, that every citizen should enjoy equal treatment in everyday administration and governance.
This needs to be backed up by popular acceptance of constitutional morality, widespread public
conscience and the upholding of moral order in society. Finally, Ambedkar reminded us that there is no
democracy without the existence of and respect for opposition, that tyranny of majority is antithetical to
democracy.
21. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Ambedkar believed that the sole function of democracy was to create an egalitarian society.
(b) Ambedkar believed that the society which is democratic is destined to greatness.
(c) Ambedkar believed in a notion of democracy where changes can be brought about without the need
for violence.
(d) All of the above.
22. According to the passage, which of the following explains the phrase associated living?
(a) The idea of associated living is that the democracy lies in the institutions that are just.
(b) The idea of associated living is that the democracy lies in the social relationship between people.
(c) The idea of associated living is that the democracy lies in the liberty of people.
(d) None of the above.

23. Why did Ambedkar believed that the associated living which democracy requires is not present in India?
(a) It does not exist in India as our county is fractured because of the rampant Corruption.
(b) It does not exist in India as our country is divided on the basis of caste and class.
(c) It does not exist in India as India was forced to be a unity of States.
(d) It does not exist in India as democracy as a form of governance was imposed upon us.
24. What is the meaning of the word fraternity used in the context of passage?
(a) The feeling of closeness based on the sharing common religion.
(b) The feeling of closeness based on sharing form of government.
(c) The feeling of closeness or a sense of belonging with the country.
25. According to Ambedkar, what is the precondition for existence of democracy?

(a) There should be respect for the political opposition.
(b) There should not be a glaring inequality.
(c) There should be moral order in the society.
26. What is the meaning of the word antithetical?

(a) Identical (b) At odds with (c) Uniform (d) Of a piece
Passage (Q.27-Q.32): The Battle of Chancellorsville, one of the most famous battles of the Civil War,
took place in Virginia in the spring of 1863. For months, the two armies had been staked out on opposite
banks of a narrow river. The Confederate troops were led by perhaps the most revered military tactician
in American history, General Robert E. Lee. The Union soldiers were led by “Fighting” Joe Hooker.
In appearance, personality and lifestyle, these men were nearly perfectly opposites. Lee, an old man in
poor health with a gray beard, had a somber, measured demeanour. Hooker was a blonde, strapping
young man whose vanity over his appearance was but one aspect of his egotism. Whereas Lee was
devout and principled, Hooker was known for his rollicking enjoyment of women and whiskey.
Despite the fact that the Confederacy had won the last four major battles and the Union soldiers were
famished, exhausted, and demoralized, Hooker proclaimed, “My plans are perfect. And when I start to
carry them out, may God have mercy on Bobby Lee, for I shall have none.” Why, aside from a
propensity for narcissism, was Hooker so confident?
Hooker had used spies, analysts, and even hot air balloons to compile a vast amount of intelligence
about Lee’s army. He had discerned, for example, that Lee had only 61,000 men to Hooker’s own
1,34,000. Buoyed by his superior numbers, Hooker covertly moved 70,000 men fifteen miles up and
across the river and then ordered them to sneak back down to position themselves behind Lee’s army. In
effect, Hooker had cut off the Confederate soldiers in front and behind. They were trapped. Satisfied with
his advantage, Hooker became convinced that Lee’s only option was to retreat to Richmond, thus
assuring a Union victory.
Yet Lee, despite his disadvantages of both numbers and position did not retreat. Instead, he moved his
troops in position to attack. Union soldiers who tried to warn Hooker that Lee was on the offensive were
dismissed as cowards. Having become convinced that Lee had no choice but to retreat, eating supper,
completely unprepared for battle. They abandoned their rifles and fled as Lee’s troops came shrieking out
of the bush, bayonets drawn. Against all odds, Lee won the Battle of Chancellorsville and Hooker’s forces
withdrew in defeat.
27. Based on information in the passage, it can be concluded that Hooker lost the Battle of Chancellorsville
mostly because of his
(a) Vanity (b) Ignorance (c) Overconfidence (d) Faulty Information

28. Based on its use in paragraph 3, it can be inferred that the word propensity belongs in which of the
following word groups?
(a) Fondness, partiality, affection (b) Flaw, fault, shortcoming
(c) Distaste, aversion, dissatisfaction (d) Tendency, inclination, predisposition
29. The term Buoyed used in the passage most nearly means
(a) Strengthen (b) Anchored (c) Floated (d) Heartened
30. According to the author, Hooker’s advantages going into the Battle of Chancellorsville included:
I. Numbers II. Positions III. Strategy
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only
31. In paragraph 3, the author quotes Hooker as saying, “My plans are perfect. And when I start to carry
them out, may God have mercy on Bobby Lee, for I shall have none.” The author most likely includes this
quote in order to
(a) Demonstrate Hooker’s belief in his own infallibility
(b) Provide an example of the way language has changed since 1863
(c) Reveal that Hooker was a deeply religious man inspite of his lifestyle
(d) Foreshadow Hooker’s defeat at the hands of Lee’s Army
32. Which of the following is exact opposite to the word demeanour used in the passage?
(a) Behaviours (b) Impropriety (c) Propriety (d) Manners

SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.33–Q.71): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.33-Q.37): On Tuesday, India abstained from voting on a resolution in the United Nations
Human Rights Council (UNHRC) that makes a wide-ranging and damaging commentary on the human
rights situation in Sri Lanka. This is the eighth resolution on Sri Lanka at the Human Rights Council since
the end of the war against the LTTE in [1]. India’s record of voting on these resolutions shows the ups
and downs of New Delhi-Colombo relations, the pressures on coalitions in India, the influence of politics
and parties in Tamil Nadu, and the ebb and flow of regional and international geopolitics.
Resolution 46/L1 has decided, among other things, to “strengthen” the Office of the High Commissioner
on Human Rights “to collect, consolidate, analyse, and preserve information and evidence and develop
possible strategies for future accountability processes for gross violations of human rights or serious
violations of international humanitarian law in Sri Lanka, to advocate for victims and survivors, and to
support relevant judicial and other proceedings, including in Member States, with competent jurisdiction”.
33. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) 2007 (b) 2010 (c) 2009 (d) 2011
34. Consider the following about the resolution put forward by Sri Lanka
I. The resolution among other things, talks about strengthening the Office of the High Commissioner of
Human Rights.
II. It also talks about encouraging the Sri Lankan government to implement the requirements of the
previous 30/1 resolution.
Which of the above is/are correct:
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
35. Who among the following is currently the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights?
(a) Mrs. Mary Robinson (b) Michelle Bachelet Jeria
(c) Ms. Navanethem Pillay (d) Mr. Sergio Vieira de Mello
36. Consider the following about UNHRC

I. UNHRC was reconstituted from its predecessor organisation, the UN Commission on Human Rights.
II. The UNHRC has 51 members serving at any time with elections held to fill up seats every year.
Which of the above is/are correct?
37. The new draft resolution talked about in the passage is called?
(a) The First Draft (b) The Zero Draft
(c) The Final Report (d) The Last Report
Passage (Q.38-Q.42): Parliament on Thursday passed a bill to set up the National Bank for Financing
Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) to fund infrastructure projects in India. The Rajya Sabha
passed the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) Bill 2021 by voice vote
on Thursday. The bill was passed in the Lok Sabha on March 23, 2021.
The bill seeks to establish the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development to support the
development of long-term non-recourse infrastructure financing in India including development of the
bonds and derivatives markets necessary for infrastructure financing and to carry on the business of
financing infrastructure and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

38. Which of the following about NaBFID is correct?
(a) NBFID will be set up as a corporate body with authorised share capital of one lakh crore rupees.
(b) Initially, the central government will own 100% shares of the institution which may subsequently be
reduced up to 26%.
(c) NBFID will be governed by a Board of Directors.
39. Which of the following is correct procedure for appointment of Chairperson of NaBFID?
(a) The Chairperson will be appointed by the President after Consultation the Prime Minister
(b) The Chairperson will be appointed RBI in consultation with the Central Government.
(c) The Chairperson will be appointed by the committee consisting of Prime Minister, Leader of
opposition in Lok Sabha and the Governor of RBI.
(d) The Chairperson will be appointed by the central government in consultation with RBI.
40. What is the source of funding for the Development Financial Institutions like NaBFID?
(a) Market (b) Government
(c) Multilateral Institution (d) All of the above
41. Which of the following is not correct about Development Financial Institutions?
(a) DFIs are set up for providing long-term finance for such segments of the economy where the risks
involved are beyond the acceptable limits of commercial banks.
(b) Development Financial Institution can take deposits from people.
(c) DFI’ can source funds from the market, government, as well as multilateral institutions
42. In the Union Budget 2021-22, the government has promised a grant of how much rupees to the NBFID
by the end of the first financial year?
(a) 15,000 Crore (b) 10,000 Crore (c) 05,000 Crore (d) 02,000 Crore
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): [1] and ISRO are collaborating on developing a satellite called NISAR, which will
detect movements of the planet’s surface as small as 0.4 inches over areas about half the size of a
tennis court.
The satellite will be launched in 2022 from the Satish Dhawan Space Center in Sriharikota, India, into a
near-polar orbit and will scan the globe every [2] over the course of its three-year mission of imaging the
Earth’s land, ice sheets and sea ice to give an “unprecedented” view of the planet.
The images will be able to capture changes in the Earth caused by certain activities. For instance,
drawing drinking water from an underground aquifer can leave signs on the surface. If too much of it is
drawn out, the ground begins to sink, which is what scientists believe the images will be able to show
them.
(a) Centre national d'études spatiales
(b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(c) Canadian Space Agency
(d) European Space Agency
44. Which of the following is not one of the goals of NISAR mission?
(a) Tracking subtle changes in the Earth’s surface
(b) Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions
(c) Helping to monitor groundwater supplies
(d) Tracking the rate of rotation of earth on its axis

45. ISRO will provide which of the following for NISAR?
(a) A payload data subsystem
(b) GPS receivers
(c) A high-rate communication subsystem for science data
(d) The spacecraft bus
(a) 12 days (b) 14 days (c) 16 days (d) 30 days
47. What kind of Radar is ISRO providing to the NISAR?
(a) R-Band Radar (b) S-Band Radar (c) P-Band Radar (d) A-Band Radar
Passage (Q.48-Q.52): The entire Nagaland was on Wednesday declared a “disturbed area” for six more
months by the central government. This enabled the continuation of the controversial AFSPA which
empowers security forces to conduct operations anywhere and arrest anyone without any prior warrant.
The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) has been in force in Nagaland for several decades.
The MHA said in a notification that the central government is of the opinion that the area comprising the
whole of Nagaland is in such a “disturbed and dangerous condition” that the use of armed forces in aid of
the civil power is necessary, reported PTI. Now, therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred by the
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (No. 28 of 1958), the central government hereby declares that
whole of the State of Nagaland to be 'disturbed area' for a period of six months with effect from 30th
December 2020 for the purpose of the said Act,” PTI quoted the notification. A home ministry official said
the decision to continue the declaration of Nagaland as a "disturbed area" has been taken as killings, loot
and extortion have been going on in various parts of the state which necessitated the action for the
convenience of the security forces operating there., reported PTI.
As per a report in PTI, the AFSPA has not been withdrawn even after a framework agreement was
signed on August 3, 2015 by NSCN-IM. The framework agreement came after over 80 rounds of
negotiations spanning 18 years, with the first breakthrough in 1997 when the ceasefire agreement was
sealed after decades of insurgency in Nagaland. However, the peace process has been stuck for some
time as the NSCN-IM has been pressing for a separate flag and Constitution, a demand rejected by the
central government, reported PTI.
SOURCE: Excerpt from India Today, (dated 31st December 2020)
48. Under which section of AFSPA, Nagaland was declared as “disturbed area”?
(a) Section 4 (b) Section 3 (c) Section 6 (d) Section 5
49. Who can declare a region as “Disturbed Area”?

(a) State Government (b) Governor of the State
(c) The President (d) The Home Minister
50. NSCN-IM is a
(a) Political Party (b) Regional Group
(c) Insurgent Group (d) None of the above
51. For how long, the region is declared as “disturbed” according to The Disturbed Areas (Special Courts)
Act, 1976?
(a) Four months (b) Six months
(c) Twelve months (d) Three months
52. What were the demands put forward by NSCN-IM?
(a) Separate Flag and Constitution.
(b) Increment in the Reservation policy.
(c) Allocation of Resources.

Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The global water crisis is one of the greatest challenges facing humankind. The
crisis is manifesting due to the progressive decline in availability, rampant misuse of the precious
resource and societal inability to deliver water where it is needed.
India’s tryst with fighting the water crisis began with the Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan. While providing health
and sanitation facilities to each household, it soon became clear that water security was an essential
component for the success of the project. With this insight, the government launched the ambitious Jal
Jeevan Mission (Rural) in 2019 and Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) in 2020.
The initiatives must be community driven, as this increasing the chances of these resources being
actively sustained. The Pani Samitis are a great example of how to manage at the micro level. Access to
safe water is not a privilege but a fundamental right. Corporate houses, communities and the government
need to work together to ensure that this resource is protected, preserved and distributed equitably
amongst all.
53. Under the Budget 2021-22, Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) is announced under which of the following
ministry?
(a) Ministry of Jal Shakti
(b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(c) Ministry of Health and Family welfare
(d) Ministry of Environment, forest and Climate Change
54. Under the Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban), what percentage of city’s water demand should be met by using
recycled water?
(a) 25% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%
55. India is ranked at what place in the WaterAid’s Water Quality Index?
(a) 120th (b) 123rd (c) 100th (d) 101th
56. Funding for the mission from the Central Government is based on outcome initially achieved by the
State/City/ UT. What is the ratio in which funding will be given?
(a) 30:30:40 (b) 20:40:40 (c) 40:40:20 (d) 40:30:30
57. As per the Union Budget 2021-22, the government has promised to provide 2.64 crore sewer
connections/septage in how many AMRUT cities?
(a) 300 (b) 100 (c) 500 (d) 250
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): The bridge 'Maitri Setu' has been built over the [1] which flows between the Indian
boundary in Tripura and Bangladesh.
The name 'Maitri Setu' symbolizes growing bilateral relations and friendly ties between India and
Bangladesh. The construction was taken up by the [2] at a project cost of Rs. 133 Crores.
With this inauguration, Tripura is set to become the 'Gateway of North East' with access to Chittagong
Port of Bangladesh.
Prime Minister will also inaugurate and lay the foundation stone of multiple infrastructure projects in
Tripura during the event.
He will lay the foundation stone for setting up an Integrated Check Post at Sabroom. It will help ease the
movement of goods and passengers between the two countries, provide new market opportunities for
products of North-East states and assist seamless movement of passengers to and from India and
Bangladesh.

58. The 1.9 Km long bridge joins _____ in Tripura with ________ in Bangladesh.
(a) Sabroom and Ramgarh (b) Ramgarh and Sabroom
(c) Belonia and Matiranga (d) Matiranga and Belonia
(a) Kushiyara River (b) Karnaphuli River
(c) Brahmaputra River (d) Feni River
60. Which of the following will now become the nearest city to an international sea port in India
(a) Imphal (b) Agartala (c) Aizawl (d) Kohima
(a) National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited
(b) National Highway Authority of India
(c) Ministry of Road Transport
(d) Border Roads Organisation
62. Consider the following:

I. After this bridge is operation, the Indian state of Tripura will become the ‘Gateway of North East’ with
having access to Chittagong Port in Bangladesh.
II. Prime Minister Modi will also lay down the foundation stone to set up an “Integrated Check Post at
Sabroom” on the occasion.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): US president Joe Biden has declared it was time “to end America’s longest war”
as he announced that nearly 10,000 US and NATO troops would return home from Afghanistan in the
run-up to the 20th anniversary of 9/11. Addressing the world from the White House, Biden said 2,500 US
troops plus a further 7,000 from “NATO allies” including 750 from the UK would gradually leave the
country starting on 1 May. “The plan has long been in together, out together,” he added. Biden said he
was the fourth president to preside over the US-led fight against the Taliban. Member states did not
oppose the plans for a full withdrawal once the US has made its intentions clear earlier this week, partly
because they cannot guarantee the security of their own forces without the presence of the US. Minutes
after Biden’s confirmation of the withdrawal plan, all NATO members, including the UK, put out a joint
statement, confirming they would join in with an “orderly, coordinated, and deliberate” removal of troops
alongside the US. The alliance said that it had achieved a goal to “prevent terrorists from using
Afghanistan as a safe haven to attack us” but acknowledged also there was no good reason to stay on.
“There is no military solution to the challenges Afghanistan faces,” NATO members said. The UK, which
has been present alongside the US for nearly 20 years, had been preparing to withdraw for several
weeks, once the new administration had decided on its plans. If they [the Americans] go, we’ll all have to
go. That’s the reality of it,” a British defence source said.
SOURCE- Excerpt from The Guardian, written by Dan Sabbagh and Julian Borger (dated 14 April 2021)
63. Foreign troops under NATO command will withdraw from Afghanistan in coordination with a U.S. pull-out
by-
(a) May 1, 2021 (b) August 12, 2021
(c) September 11, 2021 (d) June 29, 2021
64. NATO-led security mission ‘ISAF’ is abbreviation of-

(a) International Security Alliance Force.
(b) International Science Alliance Force.
(c) International Scientific Atomic Firm.
(d) International Security Assistance Force.

65. When will U.S. troops begin its final withdrawal from Afghanistan?
(a) September 11, 2021 (b) August 20, 2021
(c) July 12, 2021 (d) May 1, 2021
66. When was Taliban ousted from power by a U.S. invasion?

(a) Late 1980 (b) Late 2000 (c) Late 2001 (d) Late 2003
67. What is the key reason for a coordinated withdrawal of US troops from Afghanistan?
(a) NATO relied on U.S. political support.
(b) NATO relied on U.S. Military.
(c) NATO relied on U.S. Airlift capabilities.
Passage (Q.68-Q.71): Trade minister of India on 15 April 2021 chaired the first meeting of National
Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) set up to advise the government on measures needed to build a strong
ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country. In the inaugural address, Trade Minister
said that this council shall act as the guiding light for many budding startup entrepreneurs in India. He
said that this is the first time in our nation’s history where such a high-powered team of people from the
private sector and the government have come together, so that they take their own policy decisions.
DPIIT in January had constituted the Council to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large
scale employment opportunities. Besides the ex-officio members, the council has a number of non-official
members, representing various stakeholders such as founders of successful startups, veterans who have
grown and scaled companies in India, persons capable of representing interest of investors into startups,
persons capable of representing interests of incubators and accelerators, representatives of associations
of stakeholders of startups and representatives of industry associations. Describing the startups as the
new champions of Aatmanirbhar Bharat, the Trade Minister said that India has the potential to become
world’s largest and most innovative startup ecosystem. He said that the government has and will always
be a supportive partner in charting progress of Indian startup ecosystem. He also called upon the
successful entrepreneurs to take initiative to share their knowledge, experience, ideas and mentor
students and youth.
SOURCE: Excerpt from Mint, written by Asit Ranjan Mishra (dated 15 April, 2021)
68. Who is the present Trade Minister of India?

(a) Suresh Prabhu (b) Kamal Nath (c) Piyush Goyal (d) Anand Sharma
69. Which department constituted the National Startup Advisory Council?

(a) Department of Promotion of Innovation and Internal Technology
(b) Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Department of Promotion of Industry and International Trade
70. How many non-official members are nominated on the National Startup Advisory Council?
(a) 21 (b) 30 (c) 23 (d) 28
71. The National Startup Advisory Council will be chaired by-

(a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
(b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
(d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

SECTION – C: LEGALREASONING
Directions (Q.72 – Q.107): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.72-Q.76): Time has come to initiate action against persons who file frivolous complaints
under Sections 354, 354A, 354B, 354C, 354D IPC, etc. only for an ulterior purpose, the Delhi High Court
has just recently on February 23, 2021, in the latest decision has imposed a cost of Rs. 30,000 on the
petitioners with a warning not to file false and frivolous cases. It is a national tragedy that we see that
laws meant for protection of women are fast turning into weapons of stabbing men in the most gruesome
manner.
It is a matter of national disgrace that a man named Vishnu Tiwari had to suffer without committing any
offense 20 years of incarceration in connection with a false rape case filed against him by a woman
owing to an alleged land dispute in Lalitpur district in UP. Offenses under Sections 354, 354A, 354B,
354C, 354D IPC are serious offenses. Such allegations have the effect of tarnishing the image of the
person against whom such allegations are made.
Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment.
Section '354A- A man committing any of the following acts-
I Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures; or
ii. A demand or request for sexual favors; or
iii. Showing pornography against the will of a woman; or
iv. Making sexually colored remarks shall be guilty of the offense of sexual harassment.
Section 354B - Any man, who assaults or uses criminal force to any woman or abets such act to disrobe
or compel her to be naked, shall be punished.
Section 354C - Any man who watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act in
circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed either by the
perpetrator or by any other person at the behest of the perpetrator or disseminates such image shall be
punished on first the conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less
than one year, but which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Sources: Legal service India
legalservicesindia.com/law/article/1880/5/It-Is-Now-Becoming-A-Trend-To-Register-FIRs-Alleging-
Sexual-Harassment-Cases-To-Force-A-Party-To-Withdraw-Complaint-Or-To-Arm-Twist-A-Party-Delhi-
HC
72. X is boss of Y a female employee, after office hours X requested Y to watch pornography content
together for business purpose as a company is doing research on Hormonal control methods but Y is not
uncomfortable for some minutes and then she did not deny or show any disapproval for watching porn.
Will Boss is liable for sexual harassment to decide in context of the passage.
(a) Yes, shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment because showing pornography against the
will of a woman is sexual harassment.
(b) Yes, he is guilty of the offence of sexual harassment as indirectly X demanding and requesting for
sexual favor from Y.
(c) No, showing pornography with the will of a woman is not sexual harassment.
73. What can be inferred from “It is a national tragedy that we see that laws meant for the protection of
women are fast turning into weapons of stabbing men in the most gruesome manner” in context with the
passage.
(a) All women are misusing laws that are meant for their protection against sexual harassment.
(b) Law that protects women are being misused in a heinous way by some people against men for
ulterior motives.
(c) Law is enforceable in society for women's protection but misusing it in an unlawful way is derogatory
for society at large.
(d) Law is for providing justice and misuse of the same legal law is illegal in any legal system.

74. C a woman is changing clothes at a roadside Open restaurant. Unintentionally Z, an employee in a
restaurant watched her changing clothes. She filed a complaint against Z under section 354C. Decide Z
will be liable or not under Section 354C.
(a) Yes, Section 354C.Any man who watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private
act in circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed.
(b) Yes, 354C.Any man who watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private act image
shall be punished on first conviction with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not
be less than one year.
(c) No, circumstances in which she was changing the clothes, it has the possibility of being observed.
(d) Both A and B
75. Which is true in the context of the passage?

(a) Due to land dispute in Lalitpur district in UP between a woman and Vishnu Tiwari a false rape case
filed against him by a woman.
(b) False Rape allegations have the effect of tarnishing the image of the person against whom such
allegations are made.
(c) Law that protects women are being misused in a heinous way by some people against men for
ulterior motives.
(d) All of the Above
76. What punishment should be given to women in the context of the passage? Who filled false allegations
against men?
(a) Fine up to Rs 30,000.
(b) Imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than one year, but which may
extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.
(c) In accordance with the law in the force.
(d) None of the Above.
Passage (Q.77-Q.81): Supreme Court has issued new guidelines for all courts to adhere to while passing
bail orders in cases involving crimes against women. The judgment came on a plea filed by nine women
lawyers who contended that such bail orders have the effect of trivializing sexual offenses.
Guidelines for judges, lawyers to follow
In its judgment, the court passed seven key directions for courts to follow when bail orders are dictated.
“The act perpetrated on the survivor constitutes an offense in law and is not a minor transgression that
can be remedied by way of an apology, rendering community service, tying a rakhi or presenting a gift to
the survivor,” the court said. Among the key directions in the judgment are that bail conditions should not
mandate or permit contact between accused and victim should seek to protect the victim, not discuss the
complainant’s behaviour, dress, past conduct, or morals and the complainant should immediately be
informed about the bail order. The bench also said courts must desist from expressing any stereotype
opinion about women, in words were spoken during proceedings, or in the course of a judicial order.
Further, the top court said the expressions that should not find their way into any verdict include phrases
such as “women are physically weak and need protection”, “women are incapable of or cannot take
decisions on their own”, “men are the head of household and should take all decisions relating to the
family” and “good women are sexually chaste”. “The causes and factors of violence against women
include entrenched unequal power equations between men and women that foster violence and its
acceptability, aggravated by cultural and social norms, economic dependence, poverty and alcohol
consumption, etc.,” the court said.
Source: The Print 19 March 2021 9:29 am
https://theprint.in/judiciary/no-rakhi-tying-suggesting-marriage-or-discussing-victims-dress-new-sc-guide-
on-sexual-offence-cases/624463/

77. Court gives bail order on condition to give half property of X convicted for sexual harassment against
women Y for the remedy of the offense of X and giving justice to Y. The Bail order of the court is in line
with Supreme Court new guidelines that all courts have to adhere to while passing bail?
(a) No, It is a minor transgression that can be remedied by way of an apology.
(b) No, It is not a minor offense that can be remedied by presenting a gift to the survivor.
(c) No, this is against the law in force
78. Tara was the victim of a sexual offense and during giving bail to accused bail conditions discuss Tara's
past behaviour of alleging false complaint against his boss and her Bar dancer profession. Is this
violation of guidelines issued by the Supreme Court?
(a) Yes, that bail conditions should not mandate or permit contact between accused and victim should
seek to protect the victim, not discuss the complainant’s behaviour, dress, past conduct or morals.
(b) Yes, courts must desist from expressing any stereotype opinion about women, in words spoken
during proceedings, or in the course of a judicial order.
(c) Yes, the court should seek to protect the victim.
(d) Yes, such bail orders have the effect of trivializing sexual offenses.
79. What can be inferred from “The causes and factors of violence against women include entrenched
unequal power equations between men and women that foster violence and its acceptability, aggravated
by cultural and social norms, economic dependence, poverty and alcohol consumption, etc.”?
(a) Violence against is due to increasing alcohol consumption by their husbands.
(b) Violence against women is committed because many women are not economically independent and
they have to face abusive violence.
(c) Women are not given equal position like a man in society many spheres of their life,
(d) Both B and C.
80. Which are following Guidelines are given by Supreme Court in context of the passage?
(a) That bail conditions should mandate or permit contact between accused and victim, should seek to
protect the victim, not discuss the complainant’s behaviour, dress, past conduct, or morals.
(b) Courts must desist from expressing any stereotypical opinion about women, in words spoken during
proceedings, or in the course of a judicial order.
(c) Courts must desist from expressing any stereotype opinion about women, in words spoken during
proceedings, or in the course of giving bail.
81. Court in its verdict said that for ensuring safety and giving protection to women legislature, executive and
judiciary need to work together because women need protection due to increase in crime against them.
Decide in context of the last paragraph that using such the phrase will violate guidelines of court?
(a) Ye,s using such phrase infers meaning that “women are physically weak and need protection”.
(b) Court verdict does not violate guidelines because no stereotypical phrase being used in the verdict.
(c) Verdict of the court says that women are incapable of protecting themselves.
(d) All are not true.

Passage (Q.82-Q.87): Negligence is the failure degree of care in conduct that a reasonable man in
situation would observe but this is just one way of formulation of this concept. Limiting negligence to only
this definition without further explanation would be obscure that there could be inconsistent application to
this principle to similar cases. One significant benefit of anthropomorphizing the negligence test is to
make vivid a negligence standard would otherwise be abstract. Does a reasonable person standard
amount only to a useful rhetorical device for helping the fact-finder to analyse and apply considerations
that are relevant? If negligence should be understood as an unreasonable balance of advantages and
disadvantages of taking precaution, perhaps the reasonable man is just a person who does this balance.
The reasonable person formulation then adds nothing of substance to the content of negligence test.
Personification might serve 3 additional functions. First, it seems preferable to an ‘Impersonal’ Learned
Hand Balancing test in accounting for cases of deficit skill in conducting an activity. The surgeon whose
hand slips during surgery, we describe their fault if we try to characterize it as an unreasonable balance
of taking precautions. Second, a reasonable person can readily be calibrated along the dimension of
civilizations in asking what a reasonable person under all the circumstances would have done; we can
relate negligence to certain capacities and traits. This test is overly idealised and homogenous in nature.
A reasonable should be what a person would take if he/she were to have reasonable beliefs and values.
Third, this test precludes separate analysis of different dimensions of unreasonableness. A final value of
personification should include excused and justified conduct.
[Source- Kenneth W. Simons, “Dimensions of Negligence in Criminal and Tort Law”,
<https://www.researchgate.net/publication/311813946_Dimensions_of_Negligence_in_Criminal_and_Tor
t_Law>, as accessed on 04th April 2021]
82. Mahadev Bus Services was the well known transport services in city of Bhopal which covers every small
routes and villages for wider services to be availed by the passengers. They hired Prabhu as the bus
conductor. He has his own private bus and asked the transport services to use it under their services and
they can pay the amount for the petrol and other maintenance charges during his services. Prabhu,
before starting his services at Mahadev Transportation, decided to give his bus for maintenance and
other repairing works to Kapil Mechanics. After a week, he took his first ride from Bhopal to Indore. In the
way, he realised that breaks are not working properly and subsequently they met with an accident.
Suraiya, one of the passengers in the bus, filed a suit against Prabhu and Mahadev Bus Services for
negligence. Decide-
(a) She will win in her case as Prabhu and Mahadev Bus Services were negligent about the break
failures and should have applied due and reasonable care before providing the services.
(b) She will fail in her case against Mahadev Bus Services as they were not negligent, and it was fault of
both Prabhu and Kapil Mechanics who should have applied due and reasonable care while providing
bus services repairing bus respectively.
(c) She will win in her case against Prabhu and not Mahadev Bus Services as there was no agent-
principle relationship between them and Prabhu was negligent about the break failures and should
have applied due and reasonable care before providing the services.
(d) She will fail in her case against Prabhu and Mahadev Bus Services but can win against Kapil
Mechanic as he was the one who was negligent to check the break failures and should have applied
due and reasonable care.
83. Priya Malik was a well-known athlete and she was a good swimmer. She bought a new mansion and had
constructed a swimming pool wide enough with filters to avoid overflowing. She also hired a staff to carry
out maintenance and cleaning services of the pool. One day, she was out of the town for her fellowship
programme. Staff person opened the pipes filing the pool and left it unattended. Filters of the pool also
got blocked. Soon the swimming pool gets overflowed and the water runs out of the mansion to the public
road. Jatin, a biker and racer, was passing through outside her mansion and was in a high speed. Due to
wet and slippery road from the overflowed water, he met with an accident and crushed through side of his
face. He claimed compensation and damages from Priya for her negligence. Decide-
(a) Priya is not liable for damages as she was not negligent. The act of overflowing of water was just an
accident and hence Jatin will fail in his suit.

(b) Priya is vicariously liable for damages as she was negligent in applying due care and diligence. There
exists principle-agent relationship between her and the staff and hence Jatin will succeed in his suit
for damages.
(c) Priya is not liable for damages as her staff was negligent in taking due care and diligence. She cannot
be held liable as principle for the negligent acts of her staff and hence Jatin will fail in his suit.
(d) Priya is liable for damages as she was negligent. But Jatin will not succeed in his suit because he
was also negligent as he was driving bike in very high speed and he should have taken reasonable
care while driving.
84. Manohar, a well known chef in Pyarelal Restaurent, was famous for his Grated Cheese Pizza Patties
dish. He usually purchases a packet of cheese cubes from the nearby shop in his locality which is
different in texture from other cheese cubes and that’s what makes his dish delicious and different. On
day, a customer, Mr. Sharma went to the restaurant and ordered his favorite dish Grated Cheese Pizza
Patties. He was served with the mouth- watering dish and he tasted it. He didn’t like the taste as it was
not as usual as before and complained the manager of the bad dish. He smelled the same and stated
that cheese used in the dish is giving foul smell and asked to call the chef. On testing, it was found that
cheese cubes brought by Manohar were 6 months expired. Mr. Sharma gets to know this and claimed
damages from Manohar for his negligent act of using the expired cheese for his dishes. Decide-
(a) Mr. Sharma can validly claim damages from Manohar as he was negligent and he should have taken
reasonable care and due diligence before buying and using cheese in his dishes.
(b) Mr. Sharma can validly claim damages from both Manohar and restaurant as there exists principle-
agent relationship between them and under vicarious liability they are liable.
(c) Mr. Sharma cannot claim damages from Manohar as he was not negligent in his act and it’s the shop
owner who should have taken reasonable care and due diligence before selling the cheese to its
customers.
(d) Mr. Sharma cannot claim damages from Manohar and restaurant authorities as he had wished for the
dish and had consented for the same. He was negligent in ordering such dish and he should have
taken reasonable care for the same.
85. Qui Facit per Alium Facit per se means he who does things through others does it himself.
Facts: Jetali and Mehul were best friends and were employed in the same office and under same
departmental heads. Jetali was not well and she decided to take leave for the day. She asked Mehul to
take her car to attend the meeting scheduled in their office and return back the same to her by night.
Mehul agreed to her and asked her to take rest. On the way to office, Mehul was on a call and hit a
pedestrian, Rahul who was crossing the road in a hurry. He was injured badly and was taken to taken
hospital. Decide-
(a) Rahul can claim damages from Mehul only as he was negligent while driving car and having a call at
the same time. He has a duty of reasonable care and due diligence against Rahul and other
pedestrians.
(b) Rahul cannot claim damages from Mehul as he was not negligent while driving the car. He has not
duty of reasonable care and due diligence against Rahul or other pedestrians.
(c) Rahul cannot claim damages from Mehul or Jetali as they were not negligent. Rahul must have taken
reasonable care while crossing the road.
(d) Rahul can claim damages from both Mehul and Jetali as Mehul was negligent while driving car and
having a call at the same time and Jetali being owner of the car is also liable.
86. Choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): While determining the degree of negligence in the conduct of the person, the standard of
care by reasonable man has to be applied.
Reasoning (R): As legally defined, a reasonable person is one who acts carefully and/or makes
reasonable balance between advantages and disadvantages.
(a) Both A and R is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R is incorrect.
(c) Only A is correct and R is incorrect.
(d) Both A and R is correct but R is incorrect explanation of A.

87. Various tests and principle of reasonable person has been discussed by the author in the above passage
with regards to negligence. What is the stand of the author while stating those tests and their validity with
the time?
I. The author has not find these tests to determine and apply the principle of standard reasonable care
perfect but a suitable option to be used as compared to other options available.
II. She/he finds such test of reasonable person very interesting and appreciated the full proof validity of
the same with changing time.
III. The author seems to be very indifferent when it comes to the principle of reasonable man.
(a) The author has showcased the orthodox view while applying the test of reasonable man and standard
care for determining the negligent act. Both I and III
(b) Only IV
(c) Both II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Passage (Q.88-Q.92): Full Bench of the Bombay High Court, Goa Bench on Friday held that the Goa
State Cooperative Bank Ltd. is not a 'State' nor does it fall within the ambit of 'any other authority' for the
purposes of Article 12 of the Constitution of India. The bench also went ahead to observe that the said
Bank does not discharge any public functions which would warrant issuance of a writ in the nature of
mandamus. The bench comprising of Justice M.S. Sonak, Justice Dama Seshadri Naidu and Justice
Bharati H. Dangre was dealing with a reference order adjudicating major issues- Whether Goa State
Cooperative Bank Ltd. is a 'State' or any instrumentality thereof, for the purposes of Article 12 of the
Constitution of India and whether it performs any public functions, which would warrant issuance of writ in
the nature of mandamus in discharge of its performance of the public functions? Two division benches of
the High Court in the cases of Ganesh Morto Naik vs. Goa State Co-operative Bank and Surendra J.
Kalangutkar vs. Goa State Cooperative Bank Ltd. held that the Goa State Cooperative Bank Ltd. is a
'State' for the purpose of Article 12 and that since it is discharging public functions, it is amenable to writ
jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. In another decision by the Full Bench of the HC
in Shamrao Vithal Co-operative Bank Limited vs. Padubidri Pattabhiram Bhat, it was held that Multi State
Co-operative Bank is not a 'State' within the meaning of Article 12, though it is governed by the Banking
Regulations Act, 1949 and it performs public functions. By applying various tests as developed by the
Courts under Article 12, the Court observed that a writ in the nature of mandamus would also lie against
a private body, but only when such body performs any public function. Therefore, a commercial business
of banking though is a function of public importance is not a public function. Providing life insurance cover
comes under the ambit of public function.
[Source- Nupur Thapliyal, ‘Goa State Cooperative Bank Ltd. Not A 'State' Under Art. 12, Does Not
Discharge Any Public Functions: Full Bench Of Bombay High Court’, Live Law,
<https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/goa-state-cooperative-bank-ltd-not-a-state-under-art-12-does-not-
discharge-any-public-functions-full-bench-bombay-hc-170825>, as accessed on 13th March 2021]
88. Amit was the student of National Law University Jodhpur and was a studious child. One day, he gets to
know that his grandfather is sick and is admitted in ICU ward. He has to urgently leave for his home in
Amritsar to meet his grandfather. He was in dilemma as mid semester exams were approaching in the
coming week. He went to Amritsar without informing the authorities and came back after two weeks. He
was marked absent for his exams and was marked zero for the same. He approached the administration
to give him a chance to justify his reasons for not attending the exams. Being a studious child, such
action would affect his total grades. But he was refused for any such hearing. He filed a case against the
university stating it to be a State within article 12 of the Constitution and thus, it cannot violate his
fundamental right of fair hearing. Decide-
(a) NLUJ is not a state within the ambit of article 12 of the Constitution as it was not serving any public
function and thus is not liable for violation of fundamental right.
(b) NLUJ is not a state but an instrumentality of state which is serving public function of educating the law
graduates and thus is liable for violation of fundamental right.

(c) NLUJ is not a state within the ambit of article 12 of the Constitution though it was not serving public
function of educating law graduates but is a private body and thus is not liable for violation of
fundamental right.
(d) NLUJ is a state within the ambit of article 12 of the Constitution as it was governed by the state
government and thus is liable for violation of fundamental right.
89. Suyash was a agent of Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. (LIC). His oldest of all customers was Mr. Bhide
whom he had family relations too. Mr. Bhide deposits a sum of Rs. 1000 every month with Suyash for life
insurance cover policy and get receipts for the same in return. Suyash was not an honest employee and
he cheated Mr. Bhide. He only deposits Rs. 500 per month as life insurance cover and kept the
remaining 500 for his personal use. This fraud came into notice of Mr. Bhide when he went to LIC office
and asked for his insurance amount due for the remaining years. Mr. Bhide filed a suit for recovery of
damages from Suyash and compensation as well. The court decided in favour of Mr. Bhide and held
Suyash liable for the same. One of the issues brought up before the court was to held LIC to be liable as
there is principal-agent relationship between Suyash and LIC Ltd. The court went on to seek the nature of
LIC ltd. Decide-
(a) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is not a state as it giving life insurance cover does not amount to
public function and hence is not liable for any damages to Mr. Bhide.
(b) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is instrumentality of state as it discharges public function of giving life
insurance cover and hence is liable for damages to Mr. Bhide.
(c) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is not a state but a private body which does discharge public function
of giving life insurance cover but is not liable for damages to Mr. Bhide.
(d) Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is not a state or instrumentality of state. The question here for
consideration is irrelevant as there do not exist any principal-agent relationship between Suyash and
LIC Ltd.
90. K.L Rahul, one of the renounced cricketer of India was admitted in Indian Cricket Team by BCCI (Board
of Control for Cricket in India). For the new test series against England, BCCI decided to give a chance to
new players and had not selected K L Rahul for the series. He was very disappointed. Seeing his last
performances, he was expecting to be in the team for this series and in this regard, he had a talk with the
chairman of BCCI. He contended that he should be in the team for this series and they can give chance
to new comers in other upcoming events scheduled. BCCI refused him again and asked him to wait for
more opportunities in the next month. He made a point to file a case against BCCI for unfair practices in
selecting players including the corruption charges. BCCI chairman asked him to file the same and
contended that BCCI is not a state that it will protect the fundamental rights of the players. Decide-
(a) The contention of BCCI is correct as it is not a state within the meaning of article 12 as it does not
discharge any public function and hence is liable for infringing FR.
(b) The contention of BCCI is not correct as it is an instrumentality of state within the meaning of article
12 as it discharges public function of representing India in game of Cricket at global level and hence
is liable for infringing FR.
(c) The contention of BCCI is not incorrect as it is not an instrumentality of state or state within the
meaning of article 12 as it is a private body discharging function of public importance and hence is not
liable for infringing FR.
(d) The contention of BCCI is incorrect as it is a state within the meaning of article 12 as it discharges
both public function and of public importance by representing India at global level in game of Cricket
and hence is not liable for infringing FR.

91. In case of Rajasthan State Electricity Board (RSEB) vs. Union of India, it was held by the court that
RSEB is a state within the ambit of article 12 as it discharges functions similar and under the guidance of
state government of Rajasthan and can be said to be its instrumentality for the purpose. Going by the
ruling of the case, a private electricity board was set up by name of Balaji Electricity Suppliers and was
charging fewer fees for supplying electricity to the connected areas. RSEB filed an action against the
Balaji Electricity Suppliers for violating the terms of market competition and performing similar function
without any authority. Balaji Electricity Suppliers contended that they are also the State within the
meaning of article 12 and RSEB cannot stop them from performing public function. Decide-
(a) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are not state or instrumentality of state although they perform similar
functions of RSEB. They are private body performing function of public importance.
(b) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are state or instrumentality of state as they perform similar functions of
RSEB. Though, they are private body performing public functions, they are very well within the ambit
of article 12.
(c) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are not state but instrumentality of state as they perform similar functions
of RSEB. They are performing function of public importance which are per se public functions.
(d) Balaji Electricity Suppliers are state but not instrumentality of state. Although they perform similar
functions of RSEB but RSEB is instrumentality of state and not state per se.
92. Which of the following statement(s) with respect to writ of Mandamus is/are incorrect?
I. A writ of mandamus is used to order a lower court or government agency to complete a duty to
uphold the law or to correct an abuse of discretion.
II. A writ of mandamus is deemed necessary when the actions (or inaction) of government bodies or
corporate officials are so inappropriate or egregious that immediate, emergency action needs to be
taken by the legal system.
III. Scope of Writ of Mandamus also extends to Chief Justice of Supreme Court and other distinct High
Courts.
IV. The writ of mandamus can be issued against the Head of the State, that is, the President on a
national level or Governor at the state level.
(a) Both II and IV
(b) Only I
(c) Both III and IV
(d) Both I and III
Passage (Q.93-Q.97): Section 171C(1) forbids the use of undue influence at elections. As per the
section, undue influence is the interference with the free exercise of any electoral right. Section 171C (2)
specifies the ways in which undue influence can be exercised. As per clause (b) of the subsection, a
person who induces or attempts to induce any candidate or voter to believe that he or any other person in
whom he is interested would face spiritual censure or divine displeasure, commits the offence of undue
influence at elections. The purpose of section 171C and that of other sections under chapter IX-A
(offences related to elections) of IPC is to ensure that elections are conducted freely and the righteous
freedom of any voter or candidate (with respect to elections) is not adversely affected. To truly ensure
this righteous freedom, it is important to appreciate that undue influence at elections is not limited to overt
threats of divine displeasure. The opening of sub-section (2) which reads “without prejudice to the
generality of provisions of sub-section (1)” conveys that a specific mention of divine displeasure in sub-
section (2)(b) doesn’t render other religiously based acts (which can unduly influence the elections) out of
the scope of the section. In Shiv Kirpal Singh’s case, the SC laid down a relatively liberal definition of
undue influence. According to the decision an element of threat or compulsion is not a sine qua non for
establishing undue influence. Also, it is not necessary that an actual interference with free exercise of
electoral right is caused and that even an attempt to do so would amount to undue influence. Moreover,
considering the huge diversity in India and therefore the significance of religion in Indian politics, it is
important that section 171C is not read in a literal and narrow sense.
[Source- Vaibhav Yadav, ‘Legality of Hindutva Politics under Section 171C IPC: Scope of the Section and
Hindutva’s Varied Interpretations’, <https://criminallawstudiesnluj.wordpress.com/2021/03/12/legality-of-

hindutva-politics-under-section-171c-ipc-scope-of-the-section-and-hindutvas-varied-interpretations/>, as
accessed on 20th March 2021]
93. Meenal was contesting for upcoming Uttar Pradesh elections of 2021. She asked her husband to help
her out for votes and make her win these elections. Her husband was not much happy with her wife
contesting the elections and wants her candidature to be rejected. They called a Priest and asked about
her winning chances. The Priest forecasted that she will win by a good majority number but goddess
Durga will not be much happier of her winning. She should not contest these elections. Decide-
(a) The forecast by Priest was in form undue influence and fall under the said section 171C amounting to
divine displeasure.
(b) The forecast by Priest was not in form of undue influence and does not fall under the said section
171C i.e divine displeasure or spiritual censure.
(c) The forecast by Priest amounts to only undue influence but do not fall under section 171C amounting
to divine displeasure or spiritual censure.
(d) The forecast by Priest doesn’t amount to undue influence but was only a divine displeasure not falling
under section 171C.
94. Banku, a minister wants to contest elections again for the upcoming Karnataka elections 2021. He filed
his candidature on 1st January 2021 and starts preparing for influencing votes by rallies, posters etc. On
5th January 2021, he met with fortune teller and asked him that he will lose the elections and he should
not contest the same. On 7th January 2021, his candidature was rejected due to invalidity. He filed a
complaint against Prakash, the opponent, as he got to know that fortune teller was fraud send by him
only. Decide-
(a) Banku can file a valid complaint against such rejection for his candidature as it was fraud in name of
divine displeasure.
(b) Banku cannot file a valid complaint for his candidature as it was rejected for reasons of its invalidity
and not undue influence.
(c) Banku can file a valid complaint for candidature as the act of Prakash falls under section171C i.e
divine displeasure and spiritual censure.
(d) Banku cannot file any valid complaint against such rejection for his candidature as there was no
undue influence. Only spiritual censure under section 171C.
95. Meenakshi was a house wife of Mr. Ratan. Rattan does not want her to get into politics and asked her not
to file candidature for upcoming Panchayat elections of their village. Meenakshi doesn’t listen to him and
made him to agree with her decision. Soon, she filed the candidature and before the day of voting, she
withdraws the same. The council asked her the reasons and she stated that she doesn’t want to contest
while making her husband and family upset from her decision. Ratan was glad to hear that and in her
place filed his nomination. Decide-
(a) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn due to undue influence exercised by her husband and
falls under section 171C.
(b) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn not due to undue influence of her husband and her
family but because of her own voluntary decision. She does not want to contest the same.
(c) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn due to only undue influence of Ratan but does not fall
within section 171C.
(d) The candidature of Meenakshi was withdrawn was due to other reasons than undue influence but
they form part of section 171C.

96. Anant , an MLA, of Chattarpur was again contesting elections for year 2021. His opposition candidate
Munna was not happy as he has fair chances of losing the elections. He asked Anant to withdraw his
candidature, but Anant refused to do so. Munna warned him time again and threatened him to take back
his candidature or else he will kill his family members. Anant, to save his family, took back his
candidature and eventually Munna won the elections. Decide-
(a) Anant has taken back his candidature due to threat and compulsion of Munna and said it to be undue
influence under section 171C.
(b) Anant has taken back his candidature but not due to threat and compulsion of Munna and cannot be
said to be undue influence under section 171C.
(c) Anant has taken back his candidature due to threat and compulsion of Munna but it does not amount
to undue influence under section 171C.
(d) Anant has taken back his candidature due to threat and compulsion of Munna and amount to undue
influence but not under section 171C.
97. Choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion: Right to vote and right to file candidature are one of the important part of Indian democracy
and are categorised as civil rights of an Individuals.
Reason: Civil rights are secured by positive government actions in contrast to civil liberties which are
secured by restraints on government.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Only Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Passage (Q.98-Q.101): It was clearly laid down as early as in 1953 in Raj Bahadur v. State of W.B.,
that traffic in human beings means to deal in men and women like goods, such as to sell or let or
otherwise dispose of. It would include traffic in women and children for immoral or other purposes.
The Supreme Court in Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, elucidated the rehabilitation of bonded
labour and directed the Government to award compensation to released/rescued bonded labour under
the provisions of Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 after taking note of serious violation of
fundamental and human rights:
“The bonded labourer who is released would prefer slavery to hunger, a world of ‘bondage and illusory
security’ as against a world of freedom and starvation.”
The Constitution of India also incorporates several safeguards in this respect.
Article 23 – It specifically prohibits “traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced
labour”.
Article 39 – It states that men and women should have the right to an adequate means of livelihood and
equal pay for equal work; that men, women and children should not be forced by economic necessity to
enter unsuitable avocations; and that children and youth should be protected against exploitation. It is
enshrined in the Constitution in the form of a directive to be followed while formulating policies for the
State.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Human Trafficking’ by Arunima Bose, published on scconline blog
https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2020/09/20/human-trafficking/]
98. X employs a number of street children or urchins and sends them to people’s houses on contract basis to
clean houses. He keeps the children in a bungalow where he gives them two meals a day. Whatever
money is earned by the children; X keeps all of it without giving any share to the children. When a child
turns 18, X gives an option to either continue to participate in the business the same way or leave the
bungalow and find other ways to survive. Is this a violation of the principles mentioned in the passage?
(a) Yes, because “traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour” are
prohibited under Article 23 which includes making children work for immoral purposes
(b) Yes, because women and children should not be forced by economic necessity to enter unsuitable
avocations and the same is prohibited under Article 39
(c) No, because the children were working out of their own will and were not being exploited but rather
given a place to stay and food to consume
99. Y lost his father at a very young age. His mother tried to apply several times to the unemployment bureau
to earn some money but she was never able to secure a job. This forced Y’s mother to enter into
prostitution, even though she detested the same. As bigger expenses fell upon the family, such as paying
for Y’s education, Y also had to resort to taking up odd jobs like cleaning the sewers, even though he was
just 10 years old. Is the condition of Y’s family in violation of Article 39?
(a) Yes, because prostitution and cleaning of sewers amounts to begar or forced labour as well as
human trafficking
(b) Yes, because women and children should not be forced by economic necessity to enter unsuitable
avocations and should not be exploited
(c) No, because prostitution by women and cleaning of sewers by children does not amount to
exploitation as they are respectable means of earning a livelihood
(d) No, because Article 39 is a directive principle of state policy and not a fundamental right whose
violation can be mandatorily claimed
100. A group of 30 girls were rescued from the home of a drug dealer. He used to sell these girls to rich
households in other countries so that they could be used as objects for any purpose by those
households. The girls were kidnapped or taken from their parents at a young age under false pretences
in exchange for a meagre amount of money given to their families. Is such a business in violation of the
principles mentioned in the passage?
(a) Yes, because it amounts to human trafficking as the girls are being treated like goods which are
bought and sold
(b) Yes, because the girls are being forced by economic necessity to enter unsuitable avocations like this
(c) No, because it not begar or forced labour as the girls are not being forced to provide services for free
or a very minimum charge
(d) No, because there is no economic exploitation of the girls as their families were paid money in
exchange for their services
101. Rama and Ramesh were working in the same company. Rama was paid a salary of Rs. 20,000 for her
work as an assistant to the regional manager while Ramesh was paid a salary of Rs. 35,000 for his work
as assistant regional manager. Can Rama challenge this as arbitrary and claim the same salary as
Ramesh?
(a) Yes, because Article 39 provides that men and women should not be forced by economic necessity to
enter unsuitable avocations
(b) Yes, because Article 39 provides that men and women should have the right to an adequate means
of livelihood and equal pay for equal work
(c) No, because Rama and Ramesh are not doing the same work to claim the same salary so there is
nothing arbitrary about their earnings
(d) No, because Rama is being exploited as she is not being paid the same salary for the same work
Passage (Q.102-Q.107): State of mind to commit a particular crime "must be visible" to determine the
culpability for offence of abetment, the Supreme Court has said while setting aside the conviction of a
man who was accused of abetting his wife's suicide in 1997.
The apex court said that ingredient of "mens rea" (intention) cannot be assumed to be ostensibly present
but has to be "visible and conspicuous".
A bench set aside the order of the Punjab and Haryana High Court which had upheld the trial court's
verdict convicting the man for the offence under section 306 (abetment of suicide) of the Indian Penal
Code.
"As in all crimes, mens rea has to be established. To prove the offence of abetment, as specified under
sec 107 of the IPC, the state of mind to commit a particular crime must be visible, to determine the
culpability," said the bench.
An FIR was lodged in the matter in August 1997 at Barnala on the basis of statement of the deceased's
father and the prosecution had alleged that the woman was harassed after marriage for insufficient
dowry.
The apex court noted that there is no direct evidence of cruelty against the husband or the in-laws in the
case.

"Insofar as the possible reason for a young married lady with two minor children committing suicide, in
the absence of evidence, conjectures cannot be drawn that she was pushed to take her life by the
circumstances and atmosphere in the matrimonial home," the bench said.
"In view of the foregoing, we are persuaded to conclude that the decisions under challenge cannot be
legally sustained. Consequently, interfering with the impugned judgment of the high court and the trial
court, the appellant's conviction under section 306 IPC is set aside and quashed," it said.
Source: The New Indian Express
102. Arya and Bhakti went for hunting deer. Arya knows Zia (her arch enemy) to be behind a bush. Bhakti
does not know it. Arya induces Bhakti to fire at the bush. Bhakti fires and kills Zia. Will Arya and Bhakti be
held liable for murder?
(a) Arya had mens rea but no actus reas. Bhakti had actus rea but no mens rea. No one is guilty.
(b) Arya induced Bhakti to fire at the bush with the knowledge that Zia is there. Arya is guilty of murder
but Bhakti is not guilty of any offence.
(c) Both Arya and Bhakti are guilty.
103. Punnu was in his car when he was approached by a police officer who told him to move the vehicle.
Punnu did so, reversed his car and rolled it on to the foot of the police officer. The officer forcefully told
him to move the car off his foot at which point Punnu swore at him and refused to move his vehicle and
turned the engine off. Punnu was convicted for assaulting a police officer, whereas Punnu argues that it
was an accident Was it an accident?
(a) He is not liable because there cannot be an assault in omitting to act and that driving on to the
officer's foot was accidental, meaning that he was lacking mens rea when the act causing damage
had occurred.
(b) He is not liable as the act neither amount to an attempt nor a threat to commit an offence that
amounts to an actionable act of assault.
(c) Punnu's crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the officer
and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual criminal act.
(d) He is neither liable for assault nor battery as he accidently drove his car on the police officer's foot.
104. Amit while on a jungle safari, is attacked by a lion and lion drags him while he is crying for help. Pooja, a
co-passenger in Amit’s safari picks up Amit’s gun in good faith and fires at lion which injures Amit. Pooja
has never used the gun before. Decide the liability.
(a) Pooja is liable for the injury because she knew that she can injure Amit as she has never used any
gun before
(b) Pooja is not liable as she has done the act in good faith and without any mens rea.
(c) Pooja is liable because she has not taken A’s consent before firing
(d) Pooja is liable because she has used Amit’s gun without his consent
105. Osama, a terrorist having links with various extremist organizations, plans various attacks on major
metropolitans of the country during the festive week of Durga Pooja. He hires a small-time gangster,
Ballu Badshah, and instigates him by brainwashing him to help out with the attacks. Ballu Badshah asks
his brother Chota Chetan, who is a chartered accountant to arrange funds without telling him his real
motives. Chota Chetan arranges the funds and the attacks are carried out as planned. Can Osama be
held liable to abet the attacks by instigating Ballu Badshah to arrange it?
(a) Osama can be held liable to abet the attacks by instigating Ballu Badshah since he brainwashed him
to arrange it.
(b) Osama cannot be held liable since Ballu Badshah did not directly carry out the attacks.
(c) Osama can be held liable to abet the attacks since he was the mastermind behind it.
(d) Osama cannot be held liable to abet the attacks since he did not actively engage with Ballu Badshah
to plan the same.

106. Can Ballu Badshah be held liable to abet the attacks by intentionally engaging with Osama and Chota
Chetan to carry out the attacks?
(a) Ballu Badshah cannot be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with Osama and Chota Chetan
since he was brainwashed.
(b) Ballu Badshah can be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with Chota Chetan to carry out the
attacks but not with Osama since he was brainwashed by Osama.
(c) Ballu Badshah cannot be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with Chota Chetan since Chota
Chetan did not know of the actual purpose but he can be liable to abetment by intentionally engaging
with Osama.
(d) Ballu Badshah can be held liable to abet by intentionally engaging with both Osama and Chota
Chetan.
107. Can Chota Chetan be liable of abetment by intentionally aiding the carrying out of the attacks by
arranging for the funds for the same?
(a) Chota Chetan can be held liable for abetment by aiding since he arranged for the funds for the
attacks.
(b) Chota Chetan cannot be held liable for abetment by aiding since he did not know the true motives of
his brother and did not intentionally aid in the carrying out of the attacks.
(c) Chota Chetan can be held liable for abetment since intention and knowledge is irrelevant to be held
liable for abetment.
(d) Chota Chetan cannot be held liable for abetment since he did not actively engage in the carrying out
of the attacks.

SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.108-Q.112): Now, normalcy is exactly what a lockdown is not — being stuck in your home
with your favourite cactus and pets and humans for company for an entire month (or longer, in some
cases). And if that sounds bad, it’s even worse for businesses like hospitality that depend on the daily
buzz of regular life to keep things going. There appears to be a direct correlation between death rate and
unemployment, according to this report, with a 370 percent increase in chances of death if one is
unemployed. So, it comes down to this: death and morbidity due to COVID-19 or slow starvation — of not
only yourself but your entire family and all those who depend on you. And that is the cold hard
mathematics that governments across the world are doing.
With a poor social security net, underfunded health systems and large population near or under the
poverty line, lockdowns are not just an option — neither is widespread disease-spread which would push
the healthcare system beyond capacity. Despite a second COVID-19 wave, with elections around the
corner in five Indian states, the virus is no longer just in the minds of the people or for that matter the
government’s thought process. For, if your locality goes into lockdown, you have admitted ‘defeat’ and
your own ineffectiveness.
Remember, most of us believe that this will not happen to us, but Statistics is a cold hard beast and plays
by the rules. It is simply a matter of when — not if — someone we know who gets severely sick, and then
finally it is us who will also have to pay the price. No point in blaming governments then, because
governments in democracies do what the people want, and it is clear that the people do not care about
their health or that of others.

(a) The major driving point this election is par excellent or poor handling of COVID - 19
(b) Lockdowns are the only way we can slow down the spread of COVID - 19
(c) The people, indirectly, have chosen to brave the spread of COVID – 19 over financial instability
caused due to lockdowns
(d) The government is the main party to blame for such chaotic times
109. Which of the following, if true, supports the author’s conclusion?

(a) The situation today is much better than the situation the country was in one year ago
(b) Despite lockdown, the general fatality rate may remain higher than pre-lockdown era
(c) If the people start to be more careful, the government will automatically start supporting the
movement of curtailing COVID-19
110. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above?
(a) The government is doing everything in their power to protect people from the spread of COVID-19
(b) The elections in 5 states have made the matters worse by diverting attention at such a crucial time
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
111. Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the author’s argument?
(a) Majority of the states have failed to control the spread of COVID-19
(b) The states with on-going elections have negligible cases of COVID-19
(c) COVID-19 is rapidly spreading in smaller cities rather than metros
(d) Hospitals are almost at full capacity all throughout the country
112. The author’s statement that “It is simply a matter of when — not if — someone we know who gets
severely sick…”-
(a) Forms premise of the above passage
(b) Forms conclusion of the above passage
(c) Forms assumption of the author to the above passage

Passage (Q.113-Q.117): A recent report reveals that during the lockdown, almost nine out of every 10
released prisoners lost their source of income, while only 12 percent could continue earning, as the
economy tanked. Due to the absence of a safety net and access to welfare schemes, most released
prisoners suffered the worst wrath of the economic crisis that followed the COVID-19 lockdown. The
access to continuous employment and stable income for women was already significantly lesser
compared to that of men, before the lockdown. The imposition of the lockdown aggravated that divide, by
pushing a vast majority of former women inmates out of the workforce.
The experiences of the respondents in the study reveal how that section of society fares. A section that
has historically struggled to make a decent living due to the absence of safety nets and inadequate
access to welfare schemes. However, their struggles were aggravated manifold by the lockdown. Many
struggled to meet even the basic needs of their families, with 87 percent saying they required support for
their ration needs. Moreover, online education, which is the new medium of instruction in most schools,
was not accessible to many of these children.
The report further highlights that the lockdown magnified the anxiety of those who had a member of their
family in prison due to the stoppage of ‘mulakat’ or meetings in prisons and special homes at the time.
This period also saw delays in trials, which added to the stress faced by these families. Many reported
difficulties in meeting legal expenses after a drop in their incomes. The poor rate of support and
employment, coupled with rising financial and psychological crises, suggests that released prisoners are
at risk of falling back into the cycle of crime or victimisation.
113. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

(a) Prisoners should never have been released in such turbulent times
(b) COVID-19 has equally impacted all communities and members of society
(c) Crime rate is likely to increase as majority of prisoners are financially instable
(d) There is a good probability that these released prisoners may become repeat offenders

(a) Female prisoners have suffered much more than male prisoners after getting released
(b) Calling such prisoners back is the best solution to the problem stated above
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
115. Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the author’s argument?
(a) Majority of the prisoners were anyways about to be released in this accounting year
(b) The aforesaid prisoners would have been in the same condition even if COVID-19 had not been
affecting the nation
(c) Majority of foreign jurisdiction have support legislation for prisoners released from jails
(d) Majority of foreign jurisdiction do not have support legislation for prisoners released from jails
116. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above?
(a) Our reform system is pristine.
(b) Living in prisons may be considered better than being released early in present times
(c) Enforcement of beneficial legislations can easily protect the poorer sections of society from the
COVID-19 destruction
117. The author’s statement that “…released prisoners are at risk of falling back into the cycle of crime or
victimization” forms the:
(a) Premise that once a man commits a crime, he can never be properly reformed
(b) Conclusion that once a man commits a crime, he can never be properly reformed
(c) Premise that reformation stops at putting criminals in prisons
(d) Conclusion that reformation does not stop at putting criminals in prisons

Passage (Q.118-Q.122): Challenging and displacing the narratives of colonialist like Joyce Cary and
Joseph Conrad meant for Achebe the appropriation of ethnographic modes of representation to prove
that the communities of his African past were neither 'primitive' nor 'without history'. James Clifford,
borrowing from Bakhtin, argues that since culture is not 'a unified corpus of symbols and meanings that
can be definitively interpreted", ethnographic representation must incorporate a narratological dialogism
that reveals culture's "contested, temporal, and emergent " nature. As George Marcus also contends, this
dialogical approach to ethnographic representation must be borne in mind by both "outsiders" like Conrad
and Cary writing about the Other and "insiders" like Achebe writing about themselves and their own
cultures. Henrietta Moore, among anthropologists welcoming the new dialogical ethnography of Clifford
and others, agrees with them on the use of "new forms of writing such as those predicated on dialogue,
intertexuality and presence of various varieties within one language to unmask and displace the unitary
authority" of the author.
Excerpt from: Chinua Achebe's Things Fall Apart by Harold Bloom, published 2010
118. What is the main point of contention in the passage?

(a) The fact that new forms of writing and modes of representations of culture have given the texts more
autonomy, dialogue and openness to interpretation.
(b) A sharp criticism of colonial authors such as Joyce Carry and Joseph Conrad by presenting counter
arguments by Bakhtin, Moore and others.
(c) To outline the distinction between various cultural interpretations of colonial literature.
(d) To reinforce the point that only an "insider" has the right to write about his culture and stories related
to it.
119. Identify the assumption in the following statement:

"new forms of writing such as those predicated on dialogue, intertexuality and presence of various
varieties within one language to unmask and displace the unitary authority" of the author.
(a) There is more than one from of writing
(b) Author is in a position of authority within the text.
(c) Both the above
120. According to your understanding of the passage, which of the following captures the representation of
Africans by authors such as Joyce Cary and Joseph Conrad?
(a) Africans and their culture as complex and sophisticated.
(b) Africans having a rich history and culture.
(c) Africans as primitive and a historical beings.
(d) Africans as people ready to be suppressed.
121. Which of the following group of authors can be seen as supporting each other's claims/ arguments in the
passage?
(a) Cary, conrad and Achebe
(b) Bakhtin, Conrad, Achebe and Moore
(c) Bakhtin, Marcus, Cary and Clifford
(d) Bakhtin, Marcus, Moore and Clifford.
122. Which of the following can be inferred as a statement supported by Bakhtin?

(a) New forms of writing can displace the unitary auhority of author within a text.
(b) Culture is not a static body. It exists in a state of flux depending on its interpretation.
(c) culture exists independent of time.
(d) The essence of culture always remains the same. Only some of its parts change with time.

Passage (Q.123-Q.126): If Alok Sharma (Mayor of Bhopal since February 2015) accepts new traffic
transgression penalty, income of Nagar Nigam will certainly rise, since multiple researches have
irrefutably proved that, if such traffic rules have come into effect, then there is a rise in the breach of such
traffic rules, and a rise in traffic transgression will result in more number of traffic penalties collected.
In Madhya Pradesh, where fines are so large as to be unaffordable, traffic tickets become an extremely
regressive form of covert taxation, as it disproportionally affects people of lesser means. Also, a
deliberate attempt to move traffic enforcement towards targeting the majority of careful drivers rather than
dangerous individuals can only result in growing public distrust towards governmental authorities and
politicians. The ultimate goal of governmental authorities towards road transportation should be to
promote safety, not revenue generation for its own sake. This can best be achieved through fact-based
engineering approaches (e.g., design and maintenance of the road, adequate signage, speed limit
setting), education, and sensible enforcement. And in the end, the additional revenues generated by
automated traffic enforcement (ATE) programs should be dedicated to further promoting road safety by
being invested in improved infrastructure rather than become a permanent revenue generation fixture in
governmental budgets.
123. The pattern of reasoning in the first paragraph of the above passage closely resembles the pattern of
reasoning in which one of the following statement-
(a) There is an increase in tax rate, and this led to the increase in the revenue of the city.
(b) There is an increase in the court fee, and this led to the dropping of number of cases filed in the court.
(c) There is an increase in the stamp duty, and this led to the increase in number of registries.
124. What is the conclusion of the 1st paragraph of the above passage?
(a) An increase in traffic regulations will eventually lead to the increase in revenue of the city.
(b) An increase in traffic regulation will lead to the traffic violations.
(c) An increase in the traffic regulations will eventually lead to the greater number of fines collected.
(d) New traffic regulation is the best regulation ever made.
125. If the statements in the passage are true, which one of the following must also be true?
(a) Unless there is an increase in the number of traffic violations in the city, city revenues will not
increase.
(b) If Nagar Nigam institutes new traffic regulations, it will fall from favor with the citizens.
(c) Nagar Nigam will institute new traffic regulations only if an increase in city revenues can be expected
to result.
(d) If Nagar Nigam’s new regulation causes more traffic violation and fine charged on it, the city revenue
will increase.
126. Which of the following statement could strengthen the argument in favour of automated traffic
enforcement (ATE)?
(a) Artificially low speed limit settings, increased fines, and rigorous enforcement can deter dangerous
driving behaviours.
(b) The implementation of proven engineering practices (such as better signage et(c)) is the most
effective way of reducing traffic violations and collisions.
(c) ATE programs have the potential to create perverse incentives and conflicts of interests over revenue
generation.

127. Editorial: The roof of Bhopal's municipal equipment-storage building collapsed under the weight of last
week's heavy snowfall. The building was constructed recently and met local building-safety codes in
every particular, except that the nails used for attaching roof supports to the building's columns were of a
smaller size than the codes specify for this purpose. Clearly, this collapse exemplifies how even a single,
apparently insignificant departure from safety standards can have severe consequences.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the editorial's argument?
(a) The only other buildings to suffer roof collapses from the weight of the snowfall were older buildings
constructed according to less exacting standards than those in the codes.
(b) The amount of snow that accumulated on the roof of the equipment-storage building was greater than
the predicted maximum that was used in drawing up the safety codes.
(c) Because the equipment-storage building was not intended for human occupation, some safety-code
provisions that would have applied to an office building did not apply to it.
(d) The municipality of Bhopal itself has the responsibility for ensuring that buildings constructed within its
boundaries meet the provisions of the building-safety codes.
128. Statement: The entire south India, including Daman and the neighbouring states remained 'powerless'
the whole day of April 24,2021 as the southern grid supplying electricity to the seven states collapsed yet
again.
Assumptions:
1. The southern grid had collapsed earlier.
2. The grid system of providing electricity to a group of states is an ineffective type of power supply
system.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit (b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Both I and II are implicit (d) Neither I nor II is implicit
129. Pablo Picasso: A copy of a painting should be worth exactly what the original is worth if the two paintings
are visually indistinguishable. After all, if the two paintings are visually indistinguishable, they have all the
same qualities, and if they have all the same qualities, their prices should be equal.
Frida Kahlo : How little you understand art, Picasso! Even if someone could make a perfect copy that is
visually indistinguishable from the original, the copy would have a different history and hence not have all
the same qualities as the original.
Frida uses which of the following techniques in attempting to refute Picasso’s argument?
(a) Attacking his assumption that the price of a painting indicates its worth.
(b) Raising a point that would undermine one of the claims on which his conclusion is based.
(c) Questioning his claim that a perfect copy of a painting would be visually indistinguishable from the
original.
(d) Giving reason to believe that Picasso is unable to judge the quality of a painting because of his
inadequate understanding of the history of art.
130. Statements:
I. The government has allowed private airline companies in India to operate to overseas destinations.
II. The national air carrier has increased its flights to overseas destinations.
Identify the correct relationship between the given statements.

(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(c) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(d) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

131. The mayor of Bhopal has announced that magistrate Kavindra, who was on the seven-member panel
appointed to resolve the Narmada Bachao Andolan, will have sole responsibility for resolving the Upper
lake catchment dispute. Since in its decision the Narmada panel showed itself both reasonable and fair,
the two sides in the catchment dispute are undoubtedly justified in the confidence they have expressed in
the reasonableness and fairness of the arbitrator assigned to their case.
Which one of the following contains flawed reasoning most parallel to that contained in the passage?
(a) Representing the school board, Alia presented to the school’s principal a list of recently elected
school board members. Since only an elected member of the school board can act as its
representative. Ms. Alia’s name undoubtedly appears on that list.
(b) Saif, who likes being around young children, has decided to become a pediatrician. Since the one
characteristic common to all good pediatricians is that they like young children, Mr. Saif will
undoubtedly be a very good pediatrician.
(c) Hrithik is a teacher at a music school nationally known for the excellence of its conducting faculty.
Since Mr. Hrithik has recently been commended for the excellence of his teaching, he is undoubtedly
a member of the school’s conducting faculty.
(d) Kareena, who has sold real estate for Budhwara Realty for many years, undoubtedly sold fewer
houses last year that she had the year before since the number of houses sold last year by Budhwara
Realty is far lower than the number sold the previous year.
132. Statement 1: If you wish to understand the causes that existed in the past, look at the results as they are
shown in the present.
Statement 2: Prabhas did not work as hard as his classmates but got first position in the annual
semester.
Which of the following options is correct with respect to the above two statements?
(a) If Statement II is right, Statement I is invalid
(b) Statement I and Statement II are contradictory to each other
(c) Statement II supplements Statement I
(d) Statement I will hold true even if Statement II is valid
Directions (Q.133 – Q.135): In each question below are given some statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give
answer-
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If both conclusions I and II follow.
133. Statements: Some cats are rats. Some rats are fishes. All fishes are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some fishes are rats.
II. All cats being birds is a possibility
134. Statements: Some flowers are roses. No rose is red. All red are leaves.
Conclusions:
I. Some flowers are definitely not red.
II. Some leaves are definitely not roses.
135. Statements: All cards are sheets. All files are cards. Some sheets are papers.
Conclusions:
I. All files being papers is a possibility.
II. All files are not sheets.

SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.136-Q.140): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
The first pie chart represents total number of students appeared for an exam from five cities.
The second pie chart represents total number of students passed the exam from five cities.
The table represents ratio of number of boys and number of girls passed the exam from five cities
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL NUMBER OF

STUDENTS APPEARED= STUDENTS PASSED=
60,000 25,000
Delhi Pune Delhi

Pune 10%
20% 16% 15%
Varanasi
Chennai
Varanasi Chennai 25%
20%
15% 25%
Mumbai Mumbai
24% 30%
City Boys : Girls

Delhi 8:7
Chennai 3:2
Mumbai 2:3
Varanasi 14:11
pune 3:2
136. Number of girls who passed the exam from Delhi is what percent of the number of boys who passed the
exam Chennai?
(a) 60%
(b) 58%
(c) 65%
(d) 52%
137. What percent of the students are passed from Mumbai?

(a) 64%
(b) 48%
(c) 52%
(d) 56%
138. Find the respective ratio of number of girls passed from Varanasi and number of boys passed from
Mumbai.
(a) 7:9
(b) 9:10
(c) 11:12
(d) 11:18

139. Out of the total number of students appeared from Pune 56% are girls. Find the number of failed girls
from Pune.
(a) 2880
(b) 3860
(c) 4320
(d) 5720
140. Find the total number of passed girls from all the cities.
(a) 14000
(b) 16000
(c) 18000
(d) 12000
Directions (Q.141-Q.145): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
In a school there are total 120 staff members and 800 students. 65 per cent of the number of staff
members are teachers and the remaining staff members are administrative officials. Out of the total
number of students 45 per cent are girls. Twenty per cent of the number of girls can speak only Hindi.
The remaining girls can speak both Hindi and English. Three-fourths of the number of boys can speak
only Hindi. The remaining boys can speak both Hindi and English. Two-thirds of the number of teachers
are males. Five-fourteenths of the number of administrative officials is females.
141. What is the difference between the number of boys (student) who can speak both Hindi and English and
the number of girls (student) who can speak both Hindi and English?
(a) 164 (b) 178 (c) 188 (d) 174
142. The total number of girls (student) is what percentage of the total number of staff members in the school?
(a) 350 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 450
143. What is the difference between the total number of female administrative officials, female teachers and
the number of male administrative officials?
(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 14
144. What is the ratio of the total number of teachers to the number of boys (student) who can speak Hindi
only?
(a) 11 : 56 (b) 13 : 54 (c) 13 : 55 (d) 11 : 54
145. What is the total number of male administrative officials, female teachers and girls (student) who can
speak Hindi only?
(a) 125 (b) 115 (c) 127 (d) 117

Directions (Q.146 - 150): Study the following graph to answer the given questions:
Percent profit earned by two companies over the given years.

% profit = [(income-expenditure)/(expenditure)]*100
146. If the expenditure of company 1 in 2010 was Rs. 400 crores, what was its income?
(a) 500 (b) 520 (c) 560 (d) 580
147. If the income of company 2 in 2014 was Rs. 300 crores, what was its expenditure?
(a) 222 (b) 240 (c) 280 (d) 284
148. If the incomes of two companies are equal in 2011, what was the ratio of their expenditures?
(a) 25:27 (b) 27:26 (c) 26:27 (d) 30:31
149. What is the percent increase in the percent profit for company 2 from year 2010 to 2012?
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 33.33% (d) 46.67%
150. If the expenditure of both the companies are equal in 2015, find the ratio of their income?
(a) 14:15 (b) 16:15 (c) 15:16 (d) 15:14

Legaledge Test Series: Instructions To Candidates

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Legaledge Test Series: Instructions To Candidates

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

Candidate Name : _________________

3. What does the phrase ‘ready to pounce’ mean?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 36

8. Assertion: Trees are mankind’s lifeline

9. As per the author, the urgent need today is to:

10. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 3 of 36

11. The above passage, the rain was referred to as:

13. “I was stealing glances” in the passage means?

14. What was unusual about Lucy looking at rain?

15. The closest meaning to ‘everyone milling around restlessly’ is

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 4 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 5 of 36

21. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 6 of 36

25. According to Ambedkar, what is the precondition for existence of democracy?

26. What is the meaning of the word antithetical?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 7 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 8 of 36

36. Consider the following about UNHRC

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 9 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 10 of 36

49. Who can declare a region as “Disturbed Area”?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 11 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 12 of 36

62. Consider the following:

64. NATO-led security mission ‘ISAF’ is abbreviation of-

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 13 of 36

66. When was Taliban ousted from power by a U.S. invasion?

68. Who is the present Trade Minister of India?

69. Which department constituted the National Startup Advisory Council?

71. The National Startup Advisory Council will be chaired by-

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 14 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 15 of 36

75. Which is true in the context of the passage?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 16 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 17 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 18 of 36

86. Choose the appropriate option.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 19 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 20 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 21 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 22 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 23 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 25 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 26 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 27 of 36

108. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

109. Which of the following, if true, supports the author’s conclusion?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 28 of 36

113. Which of the following is most supported by the author’s argument?

114. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 29 of 36

118. What is the main point of contention in the passage?

119. Identify the assumption in the following statement:

122. Which of the following can be inferred as a statement supported by Bakhtin?

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 30 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 31 of 36

Identify the correct relationship between the given statements.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 32 of 36

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 33 of 36