BYJU'S All India Mock Board Exams: CBSE Grade X - Term 1 2021-22 Mock Papers Set - 1

BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams
CBSE Grade X - Term 1

2021-22
Mock Papers Set -1
TABLE OF CONTENTS
SAMPLE PAPERS 1
MATHEMATICS 2
SCIENCE 24
SOCIAL SCIENCE 53
ANSWER KEYS 75
MATHEMATICS 76
SCIENCE 77
SOCIAL SCIENCE 78
SOLUTIONS 79
MATHEMATICS 80
SCIENCE 116
SOCIAL SCIENCE 162
SAMPLE PAPERS
1
2021–2022
Mock Papers Set - 1
MATHEMATICS
Time Allowed: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40
Instructions:
1. The question paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 20 questions. Attempt any 16 questions.
3. Section B has 20 questions. Attempt any 16 questions.
4. Section C has 10 questions. Attempt any 8 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks (0.8 each)
6. There is no negative marking.
Section - A
Section - A consists of 20 questions. Attempt only 16 questions from this section.
The first 16 questions attempted would be evaluated.
Q1 The decimal expansion of an irrational number is:
A. Terminating and recurring

B. Non-terminating and recurring
C. Terminating and non-recurring
D. Neither terminating nor recurring
Q2 1
2 − 1 =___
𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ
2
A. 𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ
2
B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ
2
C. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
2
D. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ
2
Q3 ₹
The cricket coach of a school purchases 3 bats and 10 balls for 3,100. After a few
₹
days, he had to purchase 1 bat and 5 balls for 1,200. The price of each bat is
₹____.
A. 500
B. 700
C. 625
D. 750
Q4 Which of the following is not a rule of similarity of triangles?
A. AA
B. SAS
C. SSS
D. ASA
Q5 If a coin is tossed three times, the probability of getting at least 2 heads is ___.
5
A. 8
3
B. 8
7
C. 8
1
D. 8
3
Q6
The radius of the circle shown in the figure is 1 unit. The area of the major and minor
segments is _____ and _____, respectively.
3π π
A. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
π 5π
B. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
5π π
C. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
π 3π
D. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
Q7 The distance between points (3, 3) and (-1, 6) is ___ units.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 5
D. 6
Q8 A polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 6 − 3𝑥 cuts the x-axis at (2, 0) and the y-axis at (0, 6). The
zero of the given polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) is:
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4
Q9
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴
From the given triangle, 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴
=__
12
A. 5
5
B. 13
C. 0
D. 1
Q10 If a circular swimming pool is enlarged and its circumference is doubled, then the
area becomes _____ times the initial area.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. π
5
Q11 The prime factorisation of 360 is:
2
A. 3 × 4 × 10
2
B. 2 × 3 × 4 × 5
3 2
C. 2 × 3 × 5
3
D. 2 × 9 × 5
Q12
In the given figure, AB = 3 units, BC = 4 units, and CD = 12 units. Also, ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 and
∠𝐴𝐶𝐷 are right angles. The length of the side AD = ___ units
A. 15
B. 13
C. 12
D. 14
6
Q13 The lines 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 5 = 0 and − 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 + 5 = 0are _______.
A. parallel
B. coinciding
C. intersecting
D. perpendicular
Q14 The LCM of 21, 35, and 40 is ___.
A. 720
B. 840
C. 850
D. 950
Q15 P and Q are the points of trisection of a straight line AB, as shown in the figure. The
coordinates of P are:
1 5
A. ( 3 , 3
)
5 1
B. ( 3 , 3
)
5 4
C. ( 3 , 3
)
4 5
D. ( 3 , 3
)
Q16 The number of solutions of the pair of equations 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 7 = 0 and

− 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 − 14 = 0 is:
A. One
B. Zero
C. Two
D. Infinite
Q17 The coordinates of the point that divides the line joining the points (2, 0) and (0, 3) in
the ratio 1:2 are ____.
7
1
A. (1, 3
)
2
B. (1, 3
)
2
C. ( 3 , 1)
1
D. ( 3 , 1)
Q18 2 3
If α, β, γ are zeros of the polynomial 2𝑥 + 3𝑥 − 15𝑥 + 12 = 0, then
αβ + βγ + γα =___
−15
A. 2
15
B. 2
C. -5
D. 5
Q19 2 2 2 2 2 2
𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ −𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ-𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ-𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ =__
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
8
Q20 A bag contains 2 white, 3 blue, and 4 black balls. When a ball is drawn at random,
the probability of drawing a blue or a black ball is ___.
2
A. 9
3
B. 9
7
C. 9
D. 1
Section - B
Section - B consists of 20 questions (21 to 40). Attempt only 16 questions from this
section.
Q21 Which of the following is a polynomial?
−1 2
A. 5𝑥 + 4 + 3𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑥
4 2
B. 10𝑥 + 5𝑥 + 3
3 1
2
C. 3𝑥 4 + 2𝑥 + 𝑥 2
9
2 1
D. 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥
Q22 The probability that it will rain today is 0.4. The probability that it will not rain today
is _____.
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.6
D. 0.7
Q23 The perimeter of a rectangle is 12 units, and its length is twice its breadth. Which of
the following graphical solutions represents the dimensions of the rectangle
correctly?
A.
B.
10
C.
D.
Q24 The centre of a square ABCD is located at (2, 3), and the vertex D is located at (5,
6). The coordinates of the vertex exactly opposite to D are ___.
A. (-1, 0)
B. (2, 1)
C. (-1, 4)
D. (4, -1)
11
Q25
The area of the shaded region if the radius of the arc is 2 units is ____ square units.
2π
A. 3
2π
B. 3
− 3
2π
C. 3- 3
π
D. 3
− 3
Q26 The LCM of two co-primes is ___.
𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠

A. 2
B. 3
𝐻𝐶𝐹 × 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
C. 2
D. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
12
Q27 The area of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is 25 sq. units, and ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ∼ ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅. A side of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is 3 units, and
the corresponding side of ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 is 9 units. The area of ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 is ____ sq. units.
A. 225
B. 250
C. 200
D. 175
Q28 𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
=____
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒
A. 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
B. 𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒
𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
C. 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
D. 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
Q29 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 (1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴)(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴) =____
0
A. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 45
0
B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 45
0
C. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45
0
D. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 45
Q30 Krishna covered 46 km in total by rowing upstream for 7 hours and downstream for
3 hours. If the speed of the stream is 1 kmph, then the upstream speed of Krishna is
_____ kmph.
A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
Q31 1 2sin𝛽 − 3cos𝛽

𝑡𝑎𝑛β = , then =
3 3sin𝛽 + 3cos𝛽
1
A. 6
−1
B. 6
13
1
C. 4
−1
D. 4
Q32 The HCF of 45 and 60 is ___.
A. 5
B. 20
C. 12
D. 15
Q33 The point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points (1, 3) and (-1, 5) is ___.
A. (4.0)
B. (-4,0)
C. (0,-4)
D. (0,4)
Q34 In a rectangular swimming pool, Raj takes 8 minutes to reach the other end and
return to the starting point, while Kushal takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose
that they start at the same time and the same end of the pool. How many minutes
later will they meet at the starting point?
A. 36 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 24 minutes
D. 46 minutes
Q35 5
The ratio in which the point ( 3 ,
−1
) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and (3,
3
-3) is ___.
A. 2:1
B. 1:3
C. 1:2
D. 3:1
Q36 The solution of the pair of equations

2
+
3
= 18 and
5
−
2
= 7 is:
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
1 1
A. 𝑥 = 3
and y = 4
14
1 1
B. 𝑥 = 4
and y = 3
1 1
C. 𝑥 = 4
and y = 5
1 1
D. 𝑥 = 5
and y = 4
Q37
In the given figure, the area of the shaded region if the side of the square is 1 unit is
____ sq. units.
A. π − 1
B. 2π − 1
C. 2π
D. 2π + 1
Q38 The difference between zeros of a quadratic polynomial is 3, and their product is 10.
If both the zeros are positive, then the quadratic polynomial is:
2
A. 𝑥 − 7𝑥 + 10
2
B. 𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 10
2
C. 𝑥 − 2𝑥 + 5
2
D. 𝑥 − 5𝑥 + 10
15
Q39
In the given figure, the triangle is equilateral in nature and has a side equal to 1 unit.
The area of the incircle is ____ sq. units.
π
A. 3
π
B. 4
π
C. 2
π
D. 12
Q40 A whole number is chosen between 4 and 50 (including 4 and 50). The probability
that the number chosen is a prime number is _____ and that the number is not a
prime number is ____.
13 34
A. 47
and 47
12 35
B. 47
and 47
11 36
C. 47
and 47
D. None of the above
Section - C
Section - C consists of 10 questions (41 to 50). Attempt only 10 questions
from this section.
16
Case Aditya takes a cab to go to the office and gym every day, which are 6 km and 4 km
₹
away from his home, respectively. The cabs charge him 110 on his ride from his
₹
home to the office and 80 from his home to the gym.
One day, Aditya decides to understand the pricing of this cab company and realises
that it follows the structure of linear equations in two variables.
He notices that there are two variables (x, y): a fare that is fixed for all rides
independent of how much distance is travelled (x) and a fare that is dependent on
the distance travelled (y).
Q41 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his gym?
A. 4𝑦 = 6𝑥
B. 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 190
C. 𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 80
D. 𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 80
Q42 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his office?
A. 6𝑦 = 4𝑥
B. 6𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 190
C. 𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 110
D. 𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 110
Q43 What is the value of the fixed fare and the varying fare for Aditya’s rides?
A. ₹30, ₹15/km
B. ₹30, ₹12.5/km
C. ₹20, ₹15/km
D. ₹40, ₹10/km
17
Q44 After his calculations, Aditya wanted to test the equation and decided to go to a zoo
that was 9 km away. What would the price of his ride be?
A. ₹155
B. ₹140
C. ₹185
D. ₹160
Q45 Happy with his calculations, Aditya went by cab for a few more days. One day, he
₹
saw that the fare had increased. His cab now charged him 10 more for the gym
₹
and 14 more for his office. How much would a trip to the zoo cost Aditya with this
new fare?
A. ₹157
B. ₹173
C. ₹175
D. ₹193
18
Case A waterpark is constructing a 40-metre-long water slide. The engineers planned it to
come down in one single straight line from a height of 24 metres. The slide was also
supposed to have two supporting towers underneath perpendicular to the ground.
The first tower was constructed at one of the edges of the slide.
19
Q46 What is the height of the second tower if it stands at a distance of 24 metres from
point A?
A. 18 m
B. 16 m
C. 12 m
D. 10 m
Q47 In the previous question, what is the length of the portion of the slide from the
second tower to the ground (AP)?
A. 32 m
B. 36 m
C. 24 m
D. 30 m
Q48 What is the ratio of the area of ΔABC to the area of ΔAPQ?
A. 4:3
B. 16:9
C. 3:4
D. 9:16
20
Q49 The engineers also decided to add an adventure ladder to get to the top of this slide.
If the angle made by the ladder with the first supporting tower would be the same as
the angle made by the slide to the ground, which of the following is true?
A. ΔBCD ~ ΔACB
B. ΔBCD ~ ΔABC
C. ΔBDC ~ ΔACB
D. ΔBDC ~ ΔABD
Q50 In the scenario of question 49, what would be the length of the ladder?
A. 30 m
B. 32 m
C. 36 m
D. 40 m
21
2021–2022
Mock Paper Set - 1
SCIENCE
Instructions:
1. The question paper contains three sections.
4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks (0.8 each).
6. There is no negative marking.
Section - A
Section - A consists of 24 questions. Attempt only 20 questions from this
section.
Q1 Which of the following is the most suitable way to dilute concentrated acid?
A. Add water to the acid slowly with constant stirring.

B. Add water to the acid slowly with constant heating.
C. Add the acid to water slowly with constant heating.
D. Add the acid to water slowly with constant stirring.
Q2 Based on the information provided in the given statements, arrange the

following elements in an increasing order of their reactivity.
Statement 1: Potassium reacts with cold water to produce potassium
hydroxide.
Statement 2: Aluminium on treatment with steam gives aluminium oxide.
Statement 3: Copper does not react with cold water or steam.
A. K < Cu < Al
B. Cu < Al < K
C. Cu < K < Al
D. K < Al < Cu
22
Q3 An acid X is made to react with a base Y. The reaction produces a salt that
turns phenolphthalein solution pink. Which of the following options correctly
represents X and Y?
A. X = HNO3, Y = NaOH
B. X = CH3COOH, Y = NH4OH
C. X = HCl, Y = Cu(OH)2
D. X = CH3COOH, Y = NaOH
Q4 Adding a substance X to the beaker shown completes the given electric

circuit. Identify X.
A. C2H5OH(aq)
B. KOH(aq)
C. C6H12O6(aq)
D. C2H4(aq)
Q5 Which of the following options represents a pair of oxides correctly matched

with their respective nature?
A. CO2, Na2O [Acidic oxide]

B. CaO, Al2O3 [Basic oxide]
C. Al2O3, ZnO [Amphoteric oxide]
D. H2O, K2O [Neutral oxide]
23
Q6 A compound D, used in bakeries for making cakes soft and spongy, reacts
with hydrochloric acid as per the given reaction.
D + Hydrochloric acid → Salt + Water + Gas T
Which of the given options correctly represents compound D and gas T,

respectively?
A. Na2SO3, SO2
B. Na2SO4, SO2
C. NaHCO3, CO2
D. Na2CO3, CO2
Q7 Quicklime reacts with water to produce slaked lime. Identify the type of
reaction and the nature of slaked lime.
Option Type of reaction Nature of slaked lime
A. Combination Acidic
B. Combination Basic
C. Decomposition Basic
D. Decomposition Acidic
Q8 The reaction of iron with steam takes place as follows:

xFe(s) + yH2O(g) → pFe3O4(s) + qH2(g)
For the equation to be balanced, what will be the value of (x + y + p + q)?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 24
D. 14
24
Q9 Consider the following reactions:
(i) KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) →
(ii) NaOH(aq) + CuSO4(aq) →
(iii) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) →
(iv) BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) →
Which of the given cases will form a white precipitate?
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (iv)
Q10 Which of the following statements is correct for the given reaction?
2HNO3(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + H2O(l)
A. The reaction follows the law of conservation of mass.

B. The mass of reactants is not equal to the mass of products.
C. The number of atoms of all the elements is the same on the reactant
and product sides.
D. The amount of calcium by mass is more on the reactant side as
compared to the product side.
25
Q11 Observe the given image:
The correct sequence of the path of oxygen-rich blood through the body is:
A. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta →

Body cells
B. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Vena
cava → Body cells
C. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Vena
cava → Body cells
D. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Aorta →
Body cells
26
Q12 The given image shows bread mould growing on a piece of bread. How do
these bread moulds obtain nutrition?
A. By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food

B. By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming
them
C. By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them
D. By directly ingesting the bread on which they are growing
Q13 The function of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule of the nephron is to:
A. Reabsorb water into the blood

B. Eliminate ammonia from the body
C. Reabsorb salts and amino acids
D. Filter the blood and collect the filtrate
27
Q14 Study the diagram of the human digestive system. Select the option that
correctly identifies the part and its function/characteristics.
A. (i) Oesophagus: Mixes food with digestive juices

B. (ii) Appendix: Produces and stores bile
C. (iii) Stomach: Site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins,
and fats
D. (iv) Pancreas: Releases juice that helps in breakdown of proteins and
fats
28
Q15 The given image represents an activity to prove the requirements for
photosynthesis. During this activity, two healthy potted plants are kept in the
dark for about 72 hours. After 72 hours, potassium hydroxide (which
absorbs CO2) is kept in the watch glass in setup (i). Both of these setups are
air-tight and have been kept in light for 6 hours. After this, dilute iodine
solution (brown in colour) is added to one leaf from each of the two plants (i)
and (ii).
What results will we get on performing the starch iodine test on the leaf of
plant (i) and plant (ii), respectively?
Option Plant (i) Plant (ii)
A Blue-black Brown
B Brown Blue-black
C Blue-black Blue-black
D Brown Brown
29
Q16 Observe the diagram of the human respiratory system.
Match the labelling in column I and correlate them with the functions in column
II.
Column I Column II
i. a) Contracts and moves

downwards during inhalation
ii. b) Ensures that the air passage

does not collapse.
iii. c) Moves upwards and outwards

during inhalation
iv. d) Provides a surface where the

exchange of gases can take
place
A. i. – a); ii. – b); iii. – c); iv. – d)

B. i. – b); ii. – c); iii. – d); iv. – a)
C. i. – b); ii. – a); iii. – d); iv. – c)
D. i. – d); ii. – a); iii. – b); iv. – c)
30
Q17 Identify the type of mirror used in the given figure.
A. Concave
B. Convex
C. Plane
Q18 Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image
of the same size as the object?
A. At the principal focus of the lens

B. At twice the focal length
C. At infinity
D. Between the optical centre of the lens and the principal focus
31
Q19 Choose the correct ray diagram for the given incident ray.
A.
B.
C.
D.
32
Q20 The refractive index of air, water, diamond, and crown glass is 1.0003, 1.33,
2.42, and 1.52, respectively. In which medium would the speed of light be the
slowest?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Diamond
D. Crown glass
Q21 While doing the prism experiment, Rakesh passed a monochromatic light
through the prism. Which of the following phenomena will he observe?
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Both refraction and dispersion
Q22 A concave mirror of radius of curvature R produces a real image n times the
size of the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is:
A. − 2(𝑛 − 1)𝑅
−( 𝑛 − 1 )
B.
2𝑛
𝑅
−( 𝑛 + 1 )𝑅
C.
2𝑛
−( 𝑛 + 1 )
D.
2
𝑅
Q23 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖
When light enters from medium P to medium Q, the value of is less than
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
1, which means:
A. P is optically denser than Q.

B. Q is optically denser than P.
C. P and Q have the same optical density.
D. P and Q are opaque.
33
Q24 If white light falls on the system arranged in the given manner, what will be the
colour of the light coming from the third prism?
A. Only yellow colour

B. Seven different colours
C. Only red colour
D. Only violet colour
Section - B
Section - B consists of 24 questions (25 to 48). Attempt only 20 questions from
this section.
Q25 A food safety officer is given the responsibility to prepare two compounds X
and Y. Compound X will be used for curdling of milk to produce cheese, while
compound Y will be used to produce antacids. Identify the correct reagents
from the given table to manufacture X and Y, respectively.
Reagent pH
P 2
Q 7
R 5
S 8
A. P and R
B. Q and R
C. R and S
D. S and P
34
Q26 A gardener analyses a soil sample before using it to grow Brussels
sprouts. The pH of the soil is 4.5. It is unsuitable for growing the crop in the
current state since the optimum pH range for the growth of Brussels
sprouts is between 6 and 7.5. Which of the following salts can be added to
the soil to make it fit for growth?
A. X
B. Y
C. P
D. Q
Q27 A school is planning to install a bell on the campus. The administration has
listed down its requirements as follows:
1. The bell should be loud enough for the entire school to hear it.
2. It should be strong and durable.
3. It should be shiny so as to impart a good look to it.
Which of the following materials can be used to manufacture the bell?
A. Copper
B. Ceramic
C. Sodium
D. Plastic
35
Q28 Upon heating, a salt S produces compound X, water, and a gas Y according to
the following reaction:
Salt S belongs to the sodium family and gives a blue colour with the universal
indicator.
X on treatment with water forms washing soda.
Y is a gas that turns limewater milky.
Based on the given information, select the correct option that represents S, X,
and Y.
Option S X Y
A. NaCl NaOCl2 Cl2
B. Na2CO3 NaHCO3 CO2
C. NaHCO3 Na2CO3 CO2
D. CH3COONa Na2CO3 CO2
Q29 Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction?
A. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

B. CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
C. Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → 2NaCl + BaSO4
D. NH4OH + CH3COOH → CH3COONH4 + H2O
36
Q30 Study the given reactions and their characteristics provided in the table.
(i) MN + S → MS + NS - Heat
(ii) P + Q → PQ + Heat
Observation Reaction (i) Reaction (ii)
a Combination Exothermic
b Endothermic Exothermic
c Endothermic Combination
Which of the following options represents the correct observation(s)?

A. a
B. b
C. Both b and c
D. Both a and c
Questions 31 to 34 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Q31 Assertion: Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water.

Reason: A solution of an ionic compound contains ions, and the movement of
these ions conducts electricity.
Q32 Assertion: An unknown element Y is treated with water to produce a gas Z

that is collected by downward displacement of water.
Reason: Z is less dense than water and turns limewater milky.
Q33 Assertion: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and

deoxygenated blood.
Reason: Valves present in the heart allow the movement of blood in one
direction.
Q34 Assertion: The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut.

Reason: Scattering of sunlight cannot happen in outer space due to the
absence of the atmosphere.
37
Q35 A beaker contains a solution of cold water and a colourless substance P. On
adding element X to the solution, there is a violent reaction and the solution
turns pink. Which of the following options correctly represents the substances
P and X and the nature of the product formed?
Option P X Nature of
product
A. Phenolphthalein Copper Acidic
B. Phenolphthalein Potassium Basic
C. Universal Copper Basic

indicator
D. Universal Potassium Acidic

indicator
Q36 Among the following, choose the correct option that includes the organisms
that have a holozoic mode of nutrition.
A. Plasmodium and Amoeba

B. Cuscuta and Paramoecium
C. Plasmodium and Cuscuta
D. Paramoecium and Amoeba
Q37 Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.
A. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

B. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
C. Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
D. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
38
Q38 Which substances are produced during anaerobic respiration in yeast?
Option Carbon Alcohol Lactic acid Water

dioxide
A. Yes Yes No No
B. Yes No Yes No
C. No Yes No Yes
D. No No Yes Yes
Q39 If lens A has a focal length +15 cm and lens B has a focal length +30 cm, find
the lens that has more power.
A. Lens A has more power.

B. Lens B has more power.
C. Both the lenses have the same power.
D. The power of the lenses cannot be determined.
39
Q40 Three concave mirrors are cut from a sphere and are placed in such a way
that the Sun (which is at infinity) lies on the principal axis of mirror 2. What will
be the position of the image(s) formed by these three mirrors?
A. At F1, F2, and F3

B. At C
C. At P1, P2, and P3
D. At F2 only
Q41 Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen.

(i) Proteins
(ii) Nitrates and nitrites
(iii) Urea
(iv) Atmospheric nitrogen
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (iv)
40
Q42 If saliva contains less amount of salivary amylase, then which of the following
events will be adversely affected?
A. Proteins breaking down into amino acids

B. Starch breaking down into sugars
C. Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
D. Absorption of vitamins
Q43 Find the image’s position (v) and magnification (m) produced by the convex
lens if the first image formed by the plane mirror is taken as an object for the
given convex lens. Here, F1 is the principal focus of the convex lens.
A. v = 40 cm from the lens and m = -1

B. v = 20 cm from the lens and m = 1
C. v = 30 cm from the lens and m = -1
D. v = 10 cm from the lens and m = 1
41
Q44 Which of the following ray diagrams correctly represents the image formation
of an object placed between the centre of curvature and the focus of a
concave mirror?
A.
B.
C.
42
D.
Q45 A ray of light is allowed to pass through three media of absolute refractive
indices μ1, μ2, and μ3, respectively as shown (given that ray RS' is parallel to
ray PQ). Which of the following is correct?
A. μ1 > μ2 > μ3
B. μ1 < μ2 < μ3
C. μ1 = μ3 < μ2
D. μ1 < μ3 < μ2
43
Q46 If the absolute refractive index of a diamond is 2.42, what is the velocity of
light in it?
8
A. 2. 41 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
8
B. 1. 23 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
8
C. 1. 75 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
8
D. 2. 66 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
Q47 When viewed using a convex lens, a 10 cm tall candle appears to be 30 cm

tall as shown in the figure. The focal length of the lens is 5 cm. What is the
object distance?
A. 10 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 3.33 cm
44
Q48 Certain properties of elements X, Y, and Z are given below.
X Y Z
(a) Reaction with water Forms oxide Forms hydroxide Forms hydroxide
(b) Reaction with Forms metal

No reaction No reaction
CaCl2(aq) chloride
(c) Melting point High Low High
Identify elements X, Y, and Z, respectively.
A. Zn, Cu, Al
B. Fe, Na, Mg
C. Fe, Li, Zn
D. K, Na, Mg
Section - C
Section - C consists of three cases followed by questions. Out of the 12
questions in this section, attempt any 10.
Case Odisha is a land of red soil. The red colour of the soil is due to the presence of
large deposits of different ores of iron.
The abundance of iron in these ores is represented in the table.
Iron ore Formula % Iron
Haematite Fe2O3 70
Magnetite Fe3O4 72
Siderite FeCO3 48
Iron pyrite FeS2 47
The extraction of iron from these ores follows different processes.
45
Q49 Which of the following elements will form a compound having a chemical
formula similar to that of siderite ore?
A. Al
B. Sn
C. Mg
D. Si
Q50 On oxidation, iron pyrite produces a gas that turns moist blue litmus paper red.
What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of the gas?
A. 1.1
B. 5.9
C. 7.8
D. 8.6
Q51
Substance A is an iron ore and B is a gas.

Which of the following correctly represents A and B?
A. A = Fe2O3 and B = O2
B. A = Fe3O4 and B = H2
C. A = Fe2O3 and B = H2
D. A = Fe3O4 and B = O2
Q52 Iron can be extracted from siderite ore through the following reaction:
FeCO3(s) → FeO(s) + CO2(g)
Identify the type of reaction.

A. Combination
B. Decomposition
C. Displacement
46
D. Double displacement
Case Avinash was running in a marathon. With the finish line in sight, he started
running faster. As he was about to reach the line, he got a severe muscle
cramp in his leg. This cramp prevented Avinash from running any further and
he lost the marathon.
Read the above passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Q53 The process that provided most of the energy to Avinash for running the
marathon is:
A. Anaerobic respiration
B. Aerobic respiration
C. Fermentation
D. Breathing
Q54 A substance that likely accumulated in Avinash’s leg muscle cells is ______.
A. pyruvate
B. ethanol
C. carbon dioxide
D. lactic acid
47
Q55 The given graph represents the amount of energy supplied with respect to the
time while an athlete is running at full speed. Study the graph and choose the
option that correctly represents plot A and plot B.
Option Plot A Plot B
A. Aerobic Anaerobic
B. Anaerobic Aerobic
C. Anaerobic Anaerobic
D. Aerobic Aerobic
Q56 Which of the following is correct for the process of anaerobic respiration?
Option CO2 is always A lot of energy is

produced released
A. Yes No
B. No Yes
C. No No
D. Yes Yes
48
Case Ram is experimenting with tracing the path of light through a glass slab as
shown.
◦ ◦
The teacher asked Ram to take the angle of incidence between 30 and 60
and ensure that the glass slab does not displace its boundary during the
experiment. He tabulated the corresponding values of the angle of refraction
(r) and the angle of emergence (e) with different angles of incidence (i).
Ram Reading 1 Reading 2 Reading 3 Reading 4

◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
∠i 30 32 40 35
◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
∠r 18 20 24 20. 5
◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
∠e 30 32 40 37
49
Q57 The teacher now asked Ram to make a setup where the emergent ray coming
out from glass slab 1 is the incident ray for glass slab 2. If both the glass slabs
have the same refractive index, what will be the angle of emergence (e)?
◦
A. 45
◦
B. 20
◦
C. 30
◦
D. 20
Q58 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light that travels from medium 1 (air) to
◦
medium 2 (glass) such that the angle of incidence is 45 and the angle of
◦
refraction is 30 . What will be the refractive index of the second medium with
respect to the first?
A. 1.41
B. 1.50
C. 1.23
D. 1
50
Q59 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light at an angle of θ with respect to the
glass slab such that no refraction takes place. What will be the angle θ?
◦
A. 45
◦
B. 90
◦
C. 30
◦
D. 70
Q60 Considering all the four readings, the teacher told Ram that one of his
readings is incorrect. Find the incorrect reading.
A. Reading 1
B. Reading 2
C. Reading 3
D. Reading 4
51
2021–2022
Mock Paper Set - 1
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map-based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking
Section - A
Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions.
Q1 Which among the following monarchs was requested to be the German King
but under the provisions of the Parliament and the Constitution?
A. Emmanuel II
B. Guisepo Manzzini
C. Friedrich Wilhelm IV
D. Louis XVIII
Q2 What was the name of the female character that was used to depict the
German nation-state?
A. Marianne
B. Germania
C. Leopold
D. Delacroix
52
Q3 Which among the following artists used his paintings to portray his utopian
vision of the world, symbolising fraternity among nation-states?
A. Frederic Sorrieu
B. Michaelangelo
C. Pablo Picaso
D. Dante Aleghier
Q4 Who among the following was the mastermind behind the plan to unify Italy?
A. Louis Blanc
B. Jacob Grimm
C. Camillo de Cavour
D. Karol Kurpiński
Q5 The word ‘Liberalism’ has been derived from the Latin word, ‘Liber'. What does
Liber mean?
A. Free
B. Success
C. Captive
D. War
Q6 During the second half of the eighteenth century, industries began to develop in
______.
A. France
B. England
C. Germany
D. Russia
53
Q7 When does a ‘coming together federation’ get formed?
A. When independent states do not come together but pool their

sovereignty voluntarily.
B. When independent states come together, but keep their sovereignty.
C. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty
forcefully.
D. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty
voluntarily.
Q8 Which constitutional amendment introduced municipal councils and

corporations in India?
A. 73rd
B. 74th
C. 75th
D. 76th
Q9 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution gives special provisions
to some states for their development?
A. Article 371
B. Article 271
C. Article 471
D. Article 71
Q10 Which of the following bodies ensures that constitutional provisions are upheld
in all laws and policies in India?
A. Executive
B. Legislature
C. Judiciary
D. NITI Aayog
54
Q11 When did Sri Lanka gain independence?
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1984
Q12 Which of the following can be categorised as an institutional reform?
A. Using high yielding variety seeds

B. Using tractors
C. Using chemical fertilizers and pesticides
D. Reforms in land ownership
Q13 Wildlife belongs to which of the following resources?
A. Individual resources
B. Community resources
C. National resources
D. International resources
Q14 Which among the following is not a step in planning the usage of resources?
A. Identification and inventory of resources.

B. Developing infrastructure to harness resources.
C. Using resources faster than the rate of replenishment.
D. Ensuring the development plans of resources align with the nation’s
development plans.
55
Q15 Read the following statements and select the most appropriate option.
Statement 1 (S1): The rate of weathering does not depend on the weather
conditions.
Statement 2 (S2): Slopes of mountains contain thicker deposits of weathered

rock particles.
A. Both S1 and S2 are true.

B. Only S1 is true.
C. Only S2 is true.
D. Both S1 and S2 are not true.
Q16 What do you mean by technological reforms in agriculture?
A. Advanced methods and modern equipment in farming

B. Old methods in farming
C. Using hands for farming
D. Using sickle for farming
Statement 1 (S1): The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the
Exclusive Economic Zone are called International Resources.
Statement 2 (S2): International resources can be extracted by a country

unilaterally, provided it has a strong navy to defend its infrastructure.

B. Only S1 is true.
C. Only S2 is true.
56
Q18 Which of the following is covered under the human development report
published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?
A. Educational levels, health status, and nutritional levels

B. Corruption, happiness levels, and per capita income
C. Educational levels, health status, and per capita income
D. Educational levels, happiness levels, and per capita income
Q19 Which of the following is the correct meaning of infant mortality rate?
A. The number of children that die before the age of one as a proportion of
1,000 live children born in that particular year.
B. The number of children born in a year as a proportion of 1,000 females
born in that particular year.
C. The number of children that die before the age of five as a proportion of
1,000 live children born in a particular year.
D. The number of girls born in a year as a proportion of the number of
boys born in that particular year.
Q20 Which of the following best describes life expectancy at birth?
A. The total expected length of life of all people in a country in a particular

year.
B. The average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
C. The average expected number of people crossing 70 years of age in a
particular year.
D. The ratio of average expected birth to the average expected deaths in a
country in a particular year.
Q21 Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
A. Natural gas
B. Crude oil
C. Coal
D. Groundwater
Q22 Which of the following is an example of primary sector activity?
A. Banking
B. Trade
C. Mining
D. Hair-dressing
57
Q23 Which of the following examples fall under the organised sector?
A. A driver of a private bus

B. A government school teacher
C. A daily wage labourer
D. A mechanic who owns a small repair shop
Q24 Which of the following is the motive of a public sector enterprise?
A. Maximising profits
B. Social welfare
C. Entertainment
D. Minimising losses
Section - B
Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions.
Q25 Which of the following option(s) is/are true in the context of the French
Revolution?
I. The idea of nationalism developed with the French Revolution in 1789.

II. In France, regional dialects were encouraged and French, among
other languages, was adopted as the common language of the nation.
III. After the French Revolution, the idea of nationalism spread from France
to the rest of Europe.
Options:
A. l and II
B. I and III
C. Only II
D. Only I
Q26 Guiseppe Mazzini was sent into exile for attempting a revolution in 1831 at this
place. Identify the place.
Options:
A. Berne
B. Marseilles
C. Genoa
D. Liguria
58
Q27 This meeting gave way for conservatism in Europe. Identify the correct set of
parties that attended the meeting.
Options:
A. Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria
B. Switzerland, Greece, Italy, Poland
C. Britain, Greece, Prussia, Scotland
D. Prussia, Russia, Austria, France
Q28 Which of the following virtues is symbolised by the crown of oak leaves worn
by Germania?
Options:
A. Readiness to fight
B. Heroism
C. Freedom
D. Peace
Q29 The Act of Union of 1707 led to which of the following development(s) in
England?
I. The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain

II. Domination of the British Parliament by English members
III. Imposition of Scottish influence on the English
IV. Systematic suppression of English culture and political institutions
Options:
A. l and II
B. I and III
C. Only II
D. Only I
59
Q30 Which among the following statements incorrectly describes the reason as
to why the power-sharing agreement succeeded in Belgium?
A. The majority community in Brussels, the French-speaking population,

gave proportionate representation to the minority community.
B. The views and opinions of both major communities, the French- and
Dutch-speaking populations, were respected as their support was required
to pass major laws.
C. The powers of the central government were decentralised to grant to all
the communities the right to govern themselves.
D. The minority French-speaking population in the country was equally
accommodated in the central government.
Q31 Select the option that incorrectly describes why sharing of power is essential
for a government.
A. It helps in conflict resolution.

B. It helps in addressing the concerns of minority groups.
C. It leads to centralisation of political power in the hands of one individual.
D. It gives stability to a government and helps in decision-making.
Q32 Assertion (A): The leaders of the Constituent Assembly insisted on making
Hindi the national language.
Reason: (R): More than 50% of India’s population speak Hindi.
Read the above given statements and select the option that is true.
A. Both A and R are false.

B. Both A and R are true.
Q33 What makes the practice of federalism a good example of a power-sharing

agreement?
A. It allows different groups to share power vis-a-vis central and state

institutions.
B. It allows for better policy responses towards pandemics or natural
disasters.
C. Federal governments have at least two levels of government that allows
for sharing powers and responsibilities between different levels of
government.
D. All the above.
60
Q34 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to land resources in India?
I. The percentage of net sown area within the total land area is
almost the same in all the states and union territories in India.
II. The forest area of the country is far less than the desired 33
percent of geographical area as outlined in the National Forest
Policy, 1952.
III. When compared to 1960–61, the current land under
non-agricultural uses (including settlements, roads, railways,
and industries) has increased significantly.
Options:
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Only II
D. Only III
Q35 With respect to primitive farming, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
I. Primitive subsistence farming is more prominent in eastern and

northeastern states.
II. It is a profitable form of farming practice because the input cost is very
low.
III. It is widely accepted because of its environmental sustainability.
Options:
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and III
D. Only III
61
Q36 Match the items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
I. Coffee 1. Assam
II. Tea 2. Laterite soil
III. Cashew 3. Regur soil
IV. Cotton 4. Karnataka
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
A. I-1, II-4, III-3, IV-2

B. I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2
C. I-1, II-4, III-2, IV-3
D. I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3
Q37 Identify the crop which satisfies the given conditions:
I. It is a cash crop.
II. It is predominantly grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya
Pradesh.
III. It requires 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
Options:
A. Cotton
B. Maize
C. Wheat
D. Rice
Q38 Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the predominance of
cultivation of rabi crops in northern India?
A. Existence of large-scale farmers

B. Presence of distinct winter climate
C. Market demand of cities
D. Availability of huge water resources
62
Q39 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The idea of development is the same for all the people.
Reason (R): What may be development for some may even be destructive for
others.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Solution of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Solution of A.
Q40 Read the following table and question carefully.
Countries Monthly income of its citizens in 2020 (in Rupees)
I II III IV V
Country A 4,000 1,500 12,500 22,000 5,000
Country B 700 600 500 700 42,500
Country C 9,300 9,100 8,700 9,500 8,400
Mohan has job offers from three different countries. He has to choose one of
the given countries mentioned in the table. All his offer letters say that he will
be paid the average income of the country he chooses to work in. After
calculating the average income of the countries, he chooses to work in
country B.
Identify the reason for which Mohan has chosen country B.
A. Most of its citizens have a lower income than him.

B. The total income of its citizens is higher than the other countries.
C. He receives twice the salary offered in country A.
D. It has the most equitable distribution of income.
63
Q41 Given below is the profile of a person. Read the following data and answer
the question.
Name: Sanjay
Age: 21
Weight: 32 kg
Height: 150 cm
Analyse the data of the person given above and select the most suitable
option from the following:
A. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m2, and he is nourished.

B. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m2, and he is undernourished.
C. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m2, and he is nourished.
D. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m2, and he is overweight.
Q42 Read the following statements. Which of the following practices can help in
achieving sustainability in development?
I. Using energy-efficient electric appliances

II. Shifting to the use of organic pesticides
III. Increasing the use of fossil fuels
IV. Using rainwater harvesting techniques
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, and IV
Q43 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The tertiary sector is the largest producing sector in India.
Reason (R): The tertiary sector employs the largest share of the Indian
population.

64
Q44 Raju dropped out of his higher secondary school to help his mother and father
in the field. Though his additional labour made no impact on the farm output,
he is proud to be employed. Which type of employment is this?
A. Seasonal employment
B. Temporary employment
C. Underemployment
D. Part-time employment
Q45 The following table gives the contribution to the GDP in rupees (crores) of a
country by the three sectors:
Primary sector Secondary Tertiary sector

sector
2010 40,000 70,000 90,000
2020 80,000 1,20,000 3,00,000
Choose the correct option.
A. The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country increased
from 45% in 2010 to 60% in 2020.
B. The share of the primary sector in the GDP of the country increased
from 16% in 2010 to 20% in 2020.
C. The primary sector of the country is gaining more importance in recent
years.
D. The share of the secondary sector in the GDP of the country increased
from 35% in 2010 to 24% in 2020.
65
Q46 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and
Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The development of primary and secondary sectors may lead to
the development of the tertiary sector.
Reason (R): The development of primary and secondary sectors leads to an
increase in the demand for services such as transport, communication, trade,
banking, storage, and many more.

66
Section - C
This section consists of two cases. There are a total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any
10 questions from this section.
Q47-52 are based on this case study
Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to

the ideology of liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber,
meaning free. For the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the
individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasised the
concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism
stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and
representative government through parliament. Nineteenth-century liberals
also stressed the inviolability of private property.
Yet, equality before law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. In
revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal
democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to
property-owning men. Men without property and all women were excluded from
political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males
enjoy suffrage. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage
and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers
and husbands. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries,
women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding
equal political rights.
Q47 For a long time, women in France did not have suffrage rights.
A. This statement is true.
B. This statement cannot be verified.
C. This statement is false.
D. It was men in France who never had suffrage rights.
Q48 In post-revolutionary France, the concept of liberalism stood for monarchy.

A. This statement is false.
B. This is true for the USA at the time, not France.
C. This statement is true.
D. This statement cannot be verified.
Q49 Which of the following is true about suffrage rights in France?

A. There were no suffrage rights in France during Napoleon’s rule.
B. The Napoleonic Code suppressed only the rights of women.
C. Women were never given voting rights.
D. There was always universal suffrage in France.
67
Q50 During the rule of Napoleon of France, the status of women was reduced to
that of a minor.

B. This statement is false.
C. This statement cannot be verified.
D. There were no conservatives in France during this time.
Q51 Choose the right option based on the following statements:

I: The concept of liberalism introduced universal adult suffrage in France.
II: All male and female adults had voting rights since the republican
government took over in 1791.
A. I is true, but II is false.

B. Both I and II are true.
C. II is true, but I is false.
A. Both I and II are false.
Q52 Why was Liberalism attached closely with national unity in the early nineteenth
century?
I. It stood for political and economic freedom.

II. It stood for the end of autocratic rule of monarchs.
III. It stood for universal adult suffrage.
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. Only I
D. II and III
68
Q53-58 are based on this case study
The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of

any region,
but mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in
technology and institutions may hinder their fullest utilisation. Resources are
vital for any developmental activity. Irrational consumption and overutilisation
of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To
overcome these problems, resource conservation efforts like sustainable
development and resource planning at various levels should be
implemented.
Resource planning is a widely accepted strategy for the judicious use of

resources. There
are regions that are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in
some others. For example, Arunachal Pradesh has abundant water
resources but lacks infrastructural development. This calls for balanced
resource planning at the national, state, regional, and local levels.
Q53 In a survey it was discovered that a region has huge reserves of oil and gas,
which is yet to be extracted and used.
For such a scenario, predict how this discovery can affect the development
journey of that region.
A. The region will witness rapid development regardless of any other

condition, as oil and gas are the backbones of the economy.
B. The region will witness development only if the people have the
technology at hand that can help in the successful extraction of oil
and gas.
C. The region will witness development only if the region has strong
institutions to help in the distribution and proper utilisation of the
resources.
D. The region will witness development if it has good reserves of the
resource, technology for its extraction, and strong institutions for its
utilisation and distribution.
69
Q54 Sustainable development is a principle that ensures:
A. that development should take place without damaging the

environment and should not compromise with the needs of future
generations.
B. that the environmental losses caused by the developmental activities
should be financially compensated by those who reaped the benefits
from such development.
C. that there will be a huge amount of environmental loss during the
initial phases of development, but it will be reduced in the latter
phases.
D. that technology developed by the present generation will be passed
on to the future generation.
Q55 The concept of sustainable development was first introduced _____.
A. at the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992

B. at the Club of Rome, 1968
C. by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987
D. by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful.
Q56 The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country.
Resource planning can help in development of this region by ______.
A. utilising its cultural heritage and developing the tourism industry

around it
B. utilising the abundance of available water resources
C. utilising the precious minerals found in this region
D. All of the above
Q57 A region having coal reserves undergoes mining operations by a private

company over many years. What could be the potential effects of such an
activity?
I. Degradation of land.
II. Degradation of water resources of nearby areas.
III. A huge change in the standard of living for the miners and workers
who are employed in the mines.
IV. Profits generated by the mining activity are used solely for the
development of the local people.
Select the correct options:
A. I only
B. I, II, and IV
C. II and III
D. I and II
70
Q58 Resource planning is best suited for countries that _________.
A. have all kinds of resources available in all parts of the country

B. have no resources at all and depend on other countries for them
C. have some regions blessed with certain resources but at the same
time lack in some other resources
71
Section - D
Attempt both the map-based questions.
Q59 Observe the map of India given above and identify the type of soil found in
the regions marked in red.
A. Alluvial soil
B. Laterite soil
C. Red and yellow soil
D. Black soil
72
Q60 In the map of India given above, point A represents a dam across the
Narmada river. Identify the name of the dam from the options given below.
A. Hirakud Dam
B. Sardar Sarovar Dam
C. Bhakra Nangal Dam
D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
73
ANSWER KEYS
74
MATHEMATICS
1. D 11. C 21. B 31. B 41. C
2. A 12. B 22. C 32. D 42. D
3. B 13. A 23. D 33. D 43. C
4. D 14. B 24. A 34. C 44. A
5. A 15. A 25. B 35. C 45. C
6. C 16. D 26. D 36. A 46. A
7. C 17. C 27. A 37. B 47. D
8. B 18. C 28. D 38 A 48. B
9. C 19. B 29. C 39. D 49. A
10. B 20. C 30. D 40. A 50. A
75
SCIENCE
1. D. 13. D. 25. C. 37. C. 49. C.
2. B. 14. D. 26. C. 38. A. 50. A.
3. D. 15. B. 27. A. 39. A. 51. B.
4. B. 16. B. 28. C. 40. D. 52. B.
5. C. 17. A. 29. B. 41. B. 53. B.
6. C. 18. B. 30. C. 42. B. 54. D.
7. B. 19. A. 31. A. 43. A. 55. A.
8. B. 20. C. 32. C. 44. C. 56. C.
9. C. 21. B. 33. B. 45. C. 57. C.
10. B. 22. C. 34. A. 46. B. 58. A.
11. A. 23. A. 35. B. 47. D. 59. B.
12. C. 24. B. 36. D. 48. B. 60. D.
76
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Q1 C Q13 C Q25 B Q37 A Q49 C
Q2 B Q14 C Q26 D Q38 B Q50 A
Q3 A Q15 D Q27 A Q39 D Q51 D
Q4 C Q16 A Q28 B Q40 A Q52 B
Q5 A Q17 B Q29 A Q41 B Q53 D
Q6 B Q18 C Q30 A Q42 D Q54 A
Q7 D Q19 A Q31 C Q43 C Q55 C
Q8 B Q20 B Q32 C Q44 C Q56 A
Q9 A Q21 D Q33 D Q45 A Q57 D
Q10 C Q22 C Q34 B Q46 A Q58 C
Q11 C Q23 B Q35 A Q47 A Q59 B
Q12 D Q24 B Q36 D Q48 A Q60 B
77
SOLUTIONS
78
MATHEMATICS
Section - A
Q1 The decimal expansion of an irrational number is:
A. Terminating and recurring

B. Non-terminating and recurring
C. Terminating and non-recurring
D. Neither terminating nor recurring
Answer: (D) Neither terminating nor recurring
Solution:
The decimal expansion of an irrational number is neither terminating nor recurring.
Q2 1
2 − 1 =___
𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ
2
A. 𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ
2
B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ
2
C. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
2
D. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ
2
Answer: (A) 𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ
Solution:
2 2
1 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ 2
2 − 1 = 2 = 2 = 𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ
𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ
79
Q3 ₹
The cricket coach of a school purchases 3 bats and 10 balls for 3,100. After a few
₹
days, he had to purchase 1 bat and 5 balls for 1,200. The price of each bat is
₹____.
A. 500
B. 700
C. 625
D. 750
Answer: (B) 700
Solution:
Let us denote a bat as ‘t’ and a ball as ‘b’.
Given that,
3 bats + 10 balls = 3,100
3t + 10b = 3,100……. (1)
Also, 1 bat + 5 balls = 1,200
t + 5b = 1,200 …… (2)
Multiplying equation (2) by 2 and subtracting it from equation (1),
3t + 10b = 3,100
(-) 2t + 10b = 2,400
___________________
We get t = 700
₹
∴ The price of a bat is 700.
80
Q4 Which of the following is not a rule of similarity of triangles?
A. AA
B. SAS
C. SSS
D. ASA
Answer: (D) ASA
Solution:
The three rules of similarity of triangles are AA, SAS, and SSS.
Q5 If a coin is tossed three times, the probability of getting at least 2 heads is ___.
1
A. 2
3
B. 8
7
C. 8
1
D. 8
1
Answer: (A) 2
Solution:
The possible outcomes when a coin is tossed thrice = {HHH, HHT, HTT, HTH, THH,
TTH, THT, TTT}
∴ The total number of possible outcomes = 8
Number of outcomes with at least 2 heads = 4
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 4 1

∴ The probability of getting at least 2 heads = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠
=8 = 2
81
Q6
The radius of the circle shown in the figure is 1 unit. The area of the major and minor
segments is _____ and _____, respectively.
3π π
A. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
π 5π
B. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
5π π
C. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
π 3π
D. 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
5π π
Answer: (C) 6
𝑎𝑛𝑑 6
Solution:
60 2 π
Area of the minor segment = 360
× π(1) = 6
300 2 5π
Area of the major segment = 360
× π(1) = 6
Q7 The distance between points (3, 3) and (-1, 6) is ___ units.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 5
82
D. 6
Answer: (C) 5
Solution:
2 2
Distance between points (𝑥1, 𝑥2) and (𝑦1, 𝑦2) = (𝑥2 − 𝑥1) + (𝑦2 − 𝑦1)
2 2
= (− 1 − 3) + (6 − 3)
2 2
= 4 + 3 = 5 units
Q8 A polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 6 − 3𝑥 cuts the x-axis at (2, 0) and the y-axis at (0, 6). The
zero of the given polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) is:
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: (B) 2
Solution:
The zeros of a polynomial are the points where it cuts the x-axis. Since the given
polynomial cuts the x-axis at (2, 0), its zero is 2.
Q9
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴
From the given triangle, 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴
=__
12
A. 5
5
B. 13
83
C. 0
13
D. 5
Answer: (C) 0
Solution:
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴
=cot A
◦
It can be seen in the figure that∠𝐴 = 90
◦
∴ cot A = cot90 = 0
Q10 If a circular swimming pool is enlarged and its circumference is doubled, then the
area becomes _____ times the initial area.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. π
Answer: (B) 4
Solution:
Let r and R be the initial and final radii of the swimming pool.
Initial circumference = 2π𝑟
2
Initial area = π𝑟
Final circumference = 2 × 2π𝑟 = 4π𝑟
⇒ 2π𝑅= 4π𝑟
⇒ 𝑅= 2𝑟
2 2 2
Final area = π𝑅 = π(2𝑟) = 4π𝑟 = 4 × 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎
∴ The area becomes 4 times the initial area.
Q11 The prime factorization of 360 is:
2
A. 3 × 4 × 10
2
B. 2 × 3 × 4 × 5
3 2
C. 2 × 3 × 5
3
D. 2 × 9 × 5
84
3 2
Answer: (C) 2 × 3 × 5
Solution:
3 2
360 = 2 × 3 × 5
The other options are incorrect because the factors are not prime.
Q12
In the given figure, AB = 3 units, BC = 4 units, and CD = 12 units. Also, ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 and
∠𝐴𝐶𝐷 are right angles. The length of the side AD = ___ units
A. 15
B. 13
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: (B) 13
Solution:
By applying the Pythagorean theorem in ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶,
2 2 2
𝐴𝐵 + 𝐵𝐶 =𝐴𝐶
2 2 2
⇒𝐴𝐶 = 3 + 4 = 25
⇒ 𝐴𝐶 = 5
Then, by applying the Pythagorean theorem in ∆𝐴𝐶𝐷,
2 2 2
𝐴𝐶 + 𝐶𝐷 =𝐴𝐷
2 2 2
⇒𝐴𝐷 = 5 + 12 = 169
⇒ 𝐴𝐷 = 13
85
Q13 The lines 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 5 = 0 and − 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 + 5 = 0are _______.
A. parallel
B. coinciding
C. intersecting
D. perpendicular
Answer: (A) parallel
Solution:
Here, 𝑎1 = 2, 𝑏1 =− 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐1 = 5
𝑎2 =− 4, 𝑏2 = 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐2 = 5
𝑎1 1
𝑎2
=− 2
𝑏1 1
𝑏2
=− 2
𝑐1
𝑐2
= 1
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
∴ 𝑎1 = 𝑏1 ≠ 𝑐1
2 2 2
∴ The lines are parallel.
Q14 The LCM of 21, 35, and 40 is ___.
A. 720
B. 840
C. 850
D. 950
Answer: (B) 840
Solution:
21 = 3 × 7
35 = 5 × 7
40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5
LCM = 7 × 5 × 3 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 840
Q15 P and Q are the points of trisection of a straight line AB, as shown in the figure. The
coordinates of P are:
86
1 5
A. ( 3 , 3
)
5 1
B. ( 3 , 3
)
5 4
C. ( 3 , 3
)
4 5
D. ( 3 , 3
)
1 5
Answer: (A) ( 3 , 3
)
Solution:
P divides the line AB in the ratio 1:2.
m:n = 1:2
The coordinates of P can be obtained by using the section formula.
𝑚𝑥2+𝑛𝑥1 𝑚𝑦2+𝑛𝑦1 1(3)+2(−1) 1(1)+2(2) 1 5
( 𝑚+𝑛
, 𝑚+𝑛
) = ( 1+2
, 1+2
)= ( 3 , 3
)
1 5
∴ The coordinates of P are ( 3 , 3 ).
Q16 The number of solutions of the pair of equations 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 7 = 0 and

− 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 − 14 = 0 is:
A. One
B. Zero
C. Two
D. Infinite
Answer: (D) Infinite
Solution:
Here,
𝑎1 = 2, 𝑏1 = − 3, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐1 = 7
𝑎2 = − 4, 𝑏2 = 6, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐2 =− 14
𝑎1 1
𝑎2
= − 2
𝑏1 1
𝑏2
= − 2
87
𝑐1 1
𝑐2
=− 2
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
∴ 𝑎1 = 𝑏1 = 𝑐1
2 2 2
∴ The lines are coincident, and the pair of equations has infinite solutions.
Q17 The coordinates of the point that divides the line joining the points (2, 0) and (0, 3) in
the ratio 1:2 are ____.
1
A. (1, 3
)
2
B. (1, 3
)
4
C. ( 3 , 1)
1
D. ( 3 , 1)
4
Answer: (C) ( 3 , 1)
Solution:
𝑚𝑥2+𝑛𝑥1 𝑚𝑦2+𝑛𝑦1
Using the section formula, the coordinates of the point are ( 𝑚+𝑛
, 𝑚+𝑛
).
Here, (𝑥1, 𝑦1 ) = (2, 0)
(𝑥2, 𝑦2) = (0, 3)

m:n=1:2
𝑚𝑥2+𝑛𝑥1 𝑚𝑦2+𝑛𝑦1 0+4 3 4
∴( 𝑚+𝑛
, 𝑚+𝑛
)= ( 3
, 3
) = ( 3 , 1)
Q18 If α, β, γare zeros of the polynomial 2𝑥 + 3𝑥 − 15𝑥 + 12 = 0, then

2 3
αβ + βγ + γα =___
−15
A. 2
15
B. 2
C. -5
D. 5
Answer: (C) -5
Solution:
𝐶𝑜𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑥
We know that αβ + βγ + γα = 3
𝐶𝑜𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑥
−15
∴ αβ + βγ + γα = 3
=− 5
88
Q19 2 2 2 2 2 2
𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ −𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ− 𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ −𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ =__
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
Answer: (B) 1
Solution:
2 2 2 2 2 2
𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ −𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ-𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ-𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ
2 2 2 2 2 2
= (𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ) + (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ) −(𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ +𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ)
=1+1-1
=1
Q20 A bag contains 2 white, 3 blue, and 4 black balls. When a ball is drawn at random,
the probability of drawing a blue or a black ball is ___.
2
A. 9
3
B. 9
7
C. 9
D. 1
7
Answer: (C) 9
Solution:
Number of blue balls + Number of black balls = 3 + 4 = 7
Total number of balls = 9
∴ Probability of picking a blue or a black ball =
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 7
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠
=9
Section - B
section.
89
Q21 Which of the following is a polynomial?
−1 2
A. 5𝑥 + 4 + 3𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑥
4 2
B. 10𝑥 + 5𝑥 + 3
3 1
2
C. 3𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑥
4 2
2 1
D. 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥
4 2
Answer: (B) 10𝑥 + 5𝑥 + 3
Solution:
For an expression to be a polynomial, the variable x should have only positive
4 2
integers as exponents. Out of the given options, only 10𝑥 + 5𝑥 + 3 satisfies this
condition.
Q22 The probability that it will rain today is 0.4. The probability that it will not rain today is
_____.
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.6
D. 0.7
Answer: (C) 0.6
Solution:
Let P(R) and P(R’) be the probability of the occurrence of rain and no occurrence of
rain.
As the occurrence of rain and no occurrence of rain are two complementary events,
P(R) + P(R’) = 1
0.4 + P(R’) =1
⇒ P(R’) =0.6
∴ Probability that it will not rain today = 0.6
Q23 The perimeter of a rectangle is 12 units, and its length is twice its breadth. Which of
the following graphical solutions represents the dimensions of the rectangle
correctly?
90
A.
B.
91
C.
D.
Answer: (D)
Solution:
Perimeter of the rectangle = 12
⇒ 2(𝑙 + 𝑏) = 12
⇒ 𝑙 + 𝑏 = 6……(1)
Also,
Length = 2 ×Breadth
⇒ 𝑙 = 2𝑏…….(2)
92
By plotting b on the x-axis and l on the y-axis in order to represent equations 1 and 2
graphically, we get,
It can be seen that the two lines are intersecting at (2, 4).
⇒ The length of the rectangle is 4 units and its breadth is 2 units.
Q24 The centre of a square ABCD is located at (2, 3), and the vertex D is located at (5,
6). The coordinates of the vertex exactly opposite to D are ___.
A. (-1, 0)
B. (2, 1)
C. (-1, 4)
D. (4, -1)
Answer: (A) (-1, 0)
Solution:
The centre (2, 3) of the square becomes the midpoint of the diagonal BD.
Let (x, y) be the coordinates of B.
Then,
𝑥+5 𝑦+6
(2, 3) = ( 2
, 2
)
⇒ 𝑥 + 5 = 4and 𝑦 + 6 = 6
∴ (x, y) = (-1, 0)
93
Q25
The area of the shaded region if the radius of the arc is 2 units is ____ square units.
2π
A. 3
2π
B. 3
− 3
2π
C. 3- 3
π
D. 3
− 3
a.
2π
Answer: (B) 3
− 3
Solution:
60 2 2π
Area of the sector OAB = 360
× π(2) = 3
∆𝑂𝐴𝐵 is an equilateral triangle.

3 2
∴ Area of ∆𝑂𝐴𝐵= 4
𝑎
The side of ∆𝑂𝐴𝐵 is the radius of the arc, i.e., 2 units.
3 2
∴ Area of ∆𝑂𝐴𝐵= 4
(2) = 3
Area of the shaded region = Area of sector OAB - Area of ∆𝑂𝐴𝐵

2π
= 3
− 3
94
Q26 The LCM of two co-primes is ___.

A. 2
B. 3
𝐻𝐶𝐹 × 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
C. 2
D. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
Answer: (D) 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
Solution:
HCF of co-primes = 1
We know that, 𝐿𝐶𝑀 × 𝐻𝐶𝐹 = 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
∴ 𝐿𝐶𝑀 = 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠
Q27 The area of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is 25 sq. units, and ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ∼ ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅. A side of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is 3 units, and
the corresponding side of ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 is 9 units. The area of ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 is ____ sq. units.
A. 225
B. 250
C. 200
D. 175
Answer: (A) 225
Solution:
The ratio of areas of similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their sides.
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 2
∴ 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅
= (𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑠)
2
3 2 1 1
=(9) = (3) = 9
25 1
⇒ 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 = 9
⇒𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 = 225 sq. units
Q28 𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ
=____
𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒
A. 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
B. 𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒
𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
C. 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
95
D. 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
Answer: (D) 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
Solution:
𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
= 𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ
= 𝑡𝑎𝑛θ = 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ
Q29 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴(1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴)(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴) =____
◦
A. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 45
◦
B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 45
◦
C. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45
◦
D. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 45
◦
Answer: (C) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45
Solution:
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴(1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴)(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴) =(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴)(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴)
2 2 ◦
= 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 θ = 1 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45
Q30 Krishna covered 46 km in total by rowing upstream for 7 hours and downstream for 3
hours. If the speed of the stream is 1 kmph, then the upstream speed of Krishna is
_____ kmph.
A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: (D) 4
Solution:
Let u, d, and s be the upstream speed, downstream speed, and speed of the stream,
respectively.
Given that, 7𝑢 + 3𝑑 = 46…(1)
Let b be the speed of the boat in still water.

⇒ Upstream speed = 𝑏 − 𝑠
Downstream speed = 𝑏 + 𝑠
96
Downstream speed - Upstream speed = 𝑏 + 𝑠 − (𝑏 − 𝑠) = 2𝑠
⇒ 𝑑 − 𝑢 = 2𝑠
It is given that s = 1
⇒ 𝑑 − 𝑢 = 2…(2)
Multiplying equation (2) by 7 and adding it to equation (1), we get,

7𝑢 + 3𝑑 = 46
(+)− 7𝑢 + 7𝑑 = 14
______________
10𝑑 = 60
⇒𝑑 = 6
From (2), 𝑑 − 𝑢 = 2
⇒𝑢 = 4 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ
∴ The upstream speed of Krishna is 4 kmph.
Q31 1 2sin𝛽 − 3cos𝛽

𝑡𝑎𝑛β = , then =
3 3sin𝛽 + 3cos𝛽
1
A. 6
−1
B. 6
1
C. 4
−1
D. 4
a.
−1
Answer: (B) 6
Solution:
1 ◦
𝑡𝑎𝑛β = ⇒ β = 30
3
◦ 1
𝑠𝑖𝑛β =𝑠𝑖𝑛30 = 2
◦ 3
𝑐𝑜𝑠β =𝑐𝑜𝑠 30 = 2
1 3
2sin𝛽 − 3cos𝛽 2( 2 ) − 3( 2
)
= 1 3
3sin𝛽 + 3cos𝛽 3( ) + 3 ( )
2 2
3 −1
1− 2 −1
= 3 3 = 2
6 = 6
2
+2 4
Q32 The HCF of 45 and 60 is ___.
97
A. 5
B. 20
C. 12
D. 15
Answer: (D) 15
Solution:
Factorising 45 and 60, we get,
2
45 = 3 × 5
2
60 = 2 × 3 × 5
The highest common factor is (3 × 5) = 15
Q33 The point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points (1, 3) and (-1, 5) is ___.
A. (4.0)
B. (-4,0)
C. (0,-4)
D. (0,4)
Answer: (D) (0, 4)
Solution:
Let the point on the y-axis be (0, y).
Distance between (0, y) and (1, 3) = Distance between (0, y) and (-1, 5)
2 2
⇒ 1 + (𝑦 − 3) = 1 + (𝑦 − 5)
Squaring on both the sides,
2 2
⇒1 + (𝑦 − 3) = 1 + (𝑦 − 5)
⇒𝑦 − 3 =± (𝑦 − 5)
⇒y - 3 = y - 5 or y - 3 = 5 - y
y - 3 = 5 - y is a valid equation.
⇒2y = 8
⇒y = 4
∴ The required point is (0, 4).
Q34 In a rectangular swimming pool, Raj takes 8 minutes to reach the other end and
return to the starting point, while Kushal takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose
that they start at the same time and the same end of the pool. How many minutes
later will they meet at the starting point?
98
A. 36 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 24 minutes
D. 46 minutes
Answer: (C) 24 minutes
Solution:
They will meet at the starting point after a time (in minutes) equal to the LCM of 8
and 12.
3
LCM of 8 and 12 = 2 × 3 = 24
∴ They will meet again at the starting point after 24 minutes.
Q35 The ratio in which the point ( 3 ,

5 −1
) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and (3,
3
-3) is ___.
A. 2:1
B. 1:3
C. 1:2
D. 3:1
Answer: (C) 1:2
Solution:
5 −1
Let the ratio in which ( 3 , 3
) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and (3, -3) be
k:1.
5 −1 𝑚𝑥 +𝑛𝑥 𝑚𝑦 +𝑛𝑦
⇒( 3 , 3
) = ( 𝑚2+𝑛 1 , 𝑚2+𝑛 1 )
5 −1 𝑘(3)+1(1) 𝑘(−3)+1(1)
⇒( 3 , 3 ) = ( 𝑘+1 , 𝑘+1
)
3𝑘+1 5 −3𝑘+1 −1
⇒ 𝑘+1 = 3 and 𝑘+1 = 3
1
Solving one of the equations, we get 𝑘 = 2
5 −1
∴ The ratio in which the point ( 3 , 3
) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and
(3, -3) is 1:2.
Q36 The solution of the pair of equations

2
+
3
= 18 and
5
−
2
= 7 is:
𝑥 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦
1 1
A. 𝑥 = 3
and y = 4
99
1 1
B. 𝑥 = 4
and y = 3
1 1
C. 𝑥 = 4
and y = 5
1 1
D. 𝑥 = 5
and y = 4
1 1
Answer: (A) 𝑥 = 3
and y = 4
Solution:
1 1
Let 𝑥
= p and 𝑦
=q
2𝑝 + 3𝑞 = 18…(1)
5𝑝 − 2𝑞 = 7…(2)
Multiplying equation (1) by 5, equation (2) by 2, and subtracting (2) from (1),
10𝑝 + 15𝑞 = 90
(−) 10𝑝 − 4𝑞 = 14
________________
19q = 76
⇒𝑞 = 4
Substituting q = 4 in any of the two equations, we get p = 3
1 1
⇒ 𝑥 = 3 and 𝑦
=4
1 1
⇒𝑥 = 3
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 4
100
Q37
In the given figure, the area of the shaded region if the side of the square is 1 unit is
____ sq. units.
A. π − 1
π
B. 2 − 1
C. 2π
D. 2π + 1
π
Answer: (B) 2
− 1
Solution:
The diagonal of the square becomes the diameter of the circle.
Side of the square = 1
Using Pythagoras’ theorem to find the diagonal of the square,
2 2
1 +1 = 2
Diagonal of the square = 2 units
∴ Diameter of the circle = 2units
2
π𝑑 π
Area of the circle = 4
= 2
2 2
Area of the square = 𝑎 = 1 = 1
π
∴ Area of the shaded region = 2
− 1sq. units
Q38 The difference between zeros of a quadratic polynomial is 3, and their productis 10.
If both the zeros are positive, then the quadratic polynomial is:
2
A. 𝑥 − 7𝑥 + 10
2
B. 𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 10
2
C. 𝑥 − 2𝑥 + 5
101
2
D. 𝑥 − 5𝑥 + 10
2
Answer: (A) 𝑥 − 7𝑥 + 10
Solution:
Let α 𝑎𝑛𝑑 βbe the zeros of the required quadratic polynomial.
Given that, α − β = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 αβ = 10
We can find the polynomial by finding α + β.
2 2
(α + β) =(α − β) + 4αβ
=9 + 40 = 49
⇒α + β=± 7
It is given that the zeros are positive.
⇒α + β=7
2 2
The polynomial is 𝑥 − (α + β)𝑥 + αβ= 𝑥 − 7𝑥 + 10
Q39
In the given figure, the triangle is equilateral in nature and has a side equal to 1 unit.
The area of the incircle is ____ sq. units.
102
π
A. 3
π
B. 4
π
C. 2
π
D. 12
π
Answer: (D) 12
Solution:
Since the given triangle is equilateral in nature,
3 3 3
Length of the median of the triangle = 2
𝑎 = 2
(1) = 2
Incentre or centroid, i.e., I in the figure (both are located at the same point since the
triangle is equilateral in nature) divides the median in the ratio 1:2.
2 2 3 1
∴ 𝐴𝐼 = 3
× 𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 = 3
× 2
= and
3
1 1 3 1
𝐵𝐼 = 3
× 𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 = 3
× 2
=
2 3
BI is the radius of the incircle.
2 1 2 π
Area of the incircle = π𝑟 = π( ) = 12
sq. units.
2 3
Q40 A whole number is chosen between 4 and 50 (including 4 and 50). The probability
that the number chosen is a prime number is ____ and that the number is not a
prime number is ____.
103
13 34
A. 47
and 47
12 35
B. 47
and 47
11 36
C. 47
and 47
14 33
D. 47
and 47
13 34
Answer: (A) 47
and 47
Solution:
Number of prime numbers between 4 and 50 = 13
Total number of whole numbers between 4 and 50 = 47
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠
Probability of an event = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠
13
∴ Probability that the chosen number is prime = 47
47−13 34
Probability that the chosen number is not prime = 47 = 47
Section - C
Section - C consists of three cases followed by questions. There are a total of
10 questions. Attempt any 8 questions from this section.
The first 8 attempted questions would be evaluated.
104
Case Aditya takes a cab to go to the office and gym every day, which are 6 km and 4 km
₹
away from his home, respectively. The cabs charge him 110 on his ride from his
₹
home to the office and 80 from his home to the gym.
One day, Aditya decides to understand the pricing of this cab company and realises
that it follows the structure of linear equations in two variables.
He notices that there are two variables (x, y): a fare that is fixed for all rides
independent of how much distance is travelled (x) and a fare that is dependent on
the distance travelled (y).
105
Q41 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his gym?
A. 4𝑦 = 6𝑥
B. 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 190
C. 𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 80
D. 𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 80
Answer: (C) 𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 80
Solution:
Given,
₹
Aditya’s cab fare to the gym = 80
Distance to the gym = 4 km
Given,
Fixed fare independent of distance = 𝑥
Fare dependent on distance = 𝑦
So, adding them,

𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 80… (1)
Q42 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his office?
A. 6𝑦 = 4𝑥
B. 6𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 190
C. 𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 110
D. 𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 110
Answer: (D) 𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 110
Solution:
Given,
₹
Aditya’s cab fare to the gym = 110
Distance to the gym = 6 km
Using the variables,

𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 110… (2)
Q43 What is the value of the fixed fare and the varying fare for Aditya’s rides?
A. ₹30, ₹15/km
B. ₹30, ₹12.5/km
C. ₹20, ₹15/km
D. ₹40, ₹10/km
106
₹ ₹
Answer: (C) 20, 15/km
Solution:
Using equations (1) and (2) from previous questions,
𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 110
𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 80
Subtracting (2) from (1),
2𝑦 = 110 − 80 = 30
⇒ 𝑦 = 15
Substituting this in (1),
𝑥 + 4(15) = 80
⇒ 𝑥 = 80 − 60 = 20
₹
The fixed fare is 20.
₹
The varying fare is 15.
Q44 After his calculations, Aditya wanted to test the equation and decided to go to a zoo
that was 9 km away. What would the price of his ride be?
A. ₹155
B. ₹140
C. ₹185
D. ₹160
Answer: (A) ₹155
Solution:
Aditya’s cab fare now would be the sum of the fixed pay and the varying pay.
Let,
𝑑= Distance of the zoo from his house
𝑐= Total cab fare
𝑐 = 15𝑑 + 20… (3)

Hence, substituting d = 9 kms into this equation,
𝑦 = 15 × 9 + 20 = 135 + 20 = ₹155
₹
Therefore, the cab fare would be 155.
Q45 Happy with his calculations, Aditya went by cab for a few more days. One day, he
₹
saw that the fare had increased. His cab now charged him 10 more for the gym and
₹ 14 more for his office. How much would a trip to the zoo cost Aditya with this new
fare?
A. ₹157
B. ₹173
C. ₹175
D. ₹193
107
₹
Answer: (C) 175
Solution:
From the previous questions, the original fare was in the form:
𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 110
𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 80
₹ ₹
Also, we know that the updated fares are 90 and 124.
Therefore, the new equations become,
𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 124… (4)
𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 90… (5)
Subtracting these equations,
2𝑦 = 124 − 90 = 34
⇒ 𝑦 = ₹17
Substituting this into (5),
𝑥 = 90 − 4(17) = 90 − 68 = ₹22
So, the updated cab fare is of the form 17𝑑 + 22.
Let us substitute the distance to the zoo in this equation (𝑑 = 9).
Fare = 17(9) + 22 = ₹175
₹
Therefore, the updated cab fare to the zoo would be 175.
Case A waterpark is constructing a 40-metre-long water slide. The engineers planned it to

come down in one single straight line from a height of 24 metres. The slide was also
supposed to have two supporting towers underneath perpendicular to the ground.
The first tower was constructed at one of the edges of the slide.
108
Q46 What is the height of the second tower if it stands at a distance of 24 metres from
point A?
A. 18 m
B. 16 m
C. 12 m
D. 10 m
Answer: (A) 18 m
Solution:
Given,
Slide AB is 40 m long.
Height of the first supporting tower BC is 24 m.
The second tower is 24 m from A (AQ = 24 m).
Also, the towers are perpendicular to the ground.
So, using the Pythagorean theorem in ΔABC,

AC² = AB² - BC²
= 40² - 24²
= 1600 - 576
= 1024 = 32²
⇒AC = 32
109
Also, in ΔABC and ΔAPQ,
∠BAC = ∠PAQ (same angle)
∠BCA = ∠PQA (both are 90°)
So, by AA criterion, ΔABC ~ ΔAPQ
Hence, the ratio of their corresponding sides will be the same.
𝑃𝑄 𝐴𝑄
𝐵𝐶
= 𝐴𝐶
⇒ 𝑃𝑄
24
24
= 32 =
3
4
⇒𝑃𝑄 = 24×
3
4
= 18 𝑚
Q47 In the previous question, what is the length of the portion of the slide from the
second tower to the ground (AP)?
A. 32 m
B. 36 m
C. 24 m
D. 30 m
Answer: (D) 30 m
Solution:
Given,
PQ is 24 m.
Also, ΔABC ~ ΔAPQ (from the previous question)
The length of the slide from P to the bottom is AP.
𝐴𝑃 𝐴𝑄
𝐴𝐵
= 𝐴𝐶
⇒ 𝐴𝑃
40
=
24
32
3
= 4
⇒𝐴𝑃 = 40× 34 = 30 𝑚
⇒ AP = 30 m
110
Q48 What is the ratio of the area of ΔABC to the area of ΔAPQ?
A. 4:3
B. 16:9
C. 3:4
D. 9:16
Answer: (B) 16:9
Solution:
We know that ΔABC ~ ΔAPQ
So, their corresponding sides will be of the same ratio.
1
Area of ΔABC = 2
× 𝐴𝐶 × 𝐵𝐶
1
Area of ΔAPQ = 2
× 𝐴𝑄 × 𝑃𝑄
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ𝐴𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐶 × 𝐵𝐶
Hence, the ratio of areas = 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ𝐴𝑃𝑄 = 𝐴𝑄 × 𝑃𝑄
We also know that,
𝑃𝑄 𝐴𝑄 3
𝐵𝐶
= 𝐴𝐶
= 4
𝐴𝐶 𝐵𝐶 4 4 16
Therefore, ratio of areas = 𝐴𝑄 × 𝑃𝑄 = 3
× 3
= 9
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ𝐴𝐵𝐶 16
Therefore, 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ𝐴𝑃𝑄 = 9
111
Q49 The engineers also decided to add an adventure ladder to get to the top of this slide.
If the angle made by the ladder with the first supporting tower would be the same as
the angle made by the slide to the ground, which of the following is true?
A. ΔBCD ~ ΔACB
B. ΔBCD ~ ΔABC
C. ΔBDC ~ ΔACB
D. ΔBDC ~ ΔABD
Answer: (A) ΔBCD ~ ΔACB
Solution:
Given,
Angle made by the ladder with the first supporting tower = ∠DBC
Angle made by the slide with the ground = ∠BAC
△ △
In BCD and ACB,
∠DBC = ∠BAC (given)
∠BCD = ∠ACB (both are 90°)
Therefore, by AA criterion,
ΔBCD ~ ΔACB
112
Q50 In the scenario in question 49, what would be the length of the ladder?
A. 30 m
B. 32 m
C. 36 m
D. 40 m
Answer: (A) 30 m
Solution:
We have proven that ΔBCD ~ ΔACB
To find BD,
In ΔBCD and ΔACB,

∠DBC = ∠BAC (given)
∠BCD = ∠ACB = 90° (perpendicular supporting towers)
Therefore, by AA criterion, ΔBCD ~ ΔACB

Hence,
𝐵𝐶 𝐶𝐷 𝐵𝐷
𝐴𝐶
= 𝐶𝐵 = 𝐴𝐵
⇒ 𝐵𝐷
𝐴𝐵
𝐵𝐶
= 𝐴𝐶 = 32
24
=
3
4
⇒ BD =
40 × 3
4
= 30 m
Therefore, the length of the ladder would be 30 m.
113
SCIENCE
Section - A
Q1 Which of the following is the most suitable way to dilute concentrated acid?
A. Add water to the acid slowly with constant stirring.

B. Add water to the acid slowly with constant heating.
C. Add the acid to water slowly with constant heating.
D. Add the acid to water slowly with constant stirring.
Answer: D. Add the acid to water slowly with constant stirring.
Solution: During the dilution of any concentrated acid or base, the acid/base should
be slowly added to water with constant stirring. If water is added to the concentrated
acid/base:
● The heat generated will result in splashing the mixture, causing burns.
● The glass container may break due to excessive local heating.
Q2 Based on the information provided in the given statements, arrange the following
elements in an increasing order of their reactivity.
Statement 1: Potassium reacts with cold water to produce potassium hydroxide.
Statement 2: Aluminium on treatment with steam gives aluminium oxide.
Statement 3: Copper does not react with cold water or steam.
A. K < Cu < Al
B. Cu < Al < K
C. Cu < K < Al
D. K < Al < Cu
Answer: B. Cu < Al < K

Solution: From the given statements, we can understand that copper does not react
with cold water or steam. Hence, copper is the least reactive among the given
elements.
Now, it is given that aluminium reacts with steam and potassium reacts with cold
water. Since steam provides more energy compared to cold water, we can infer that
potassium requires relatively lower energy to react with water as compared to
aluminium. Hence, potassium is more reactive than aluminium.
Therefore, the overall increasing order of their reactivity is Cu < Al < K.
114
Q3 An acid X is made to react with a base Y. The reaction produces a salt that turns
phenolphthalein solution pink. Which of the following options correctly represents X
and Y?
A. X = HNO3, Y = NaOH
B. X = CH3COOH, Y = NH4OH
C. X = HCl, Y = Cu(OH)2
D. X = CH3COOH, Y = NaOH
Answer: D. X = CH3COOH, Y = NaOH
Solution: Reaction between an acid and a base produces salt and water.
Given that the salt formed during the reaction turns phenolphthalein solution pink,
which means that the salt is basic in nature. In other words, the salt is formed by the
reaction of a weak acid and a strong base.
From the given options, the only combination that contains a weak acid and a strong
base is,
X = CH3COOH, Y = NaOH
Chemical reaction:
CH3COOH(aq) + NaOH(aq) → CH3COONa(aq) + H2O(l)
CH3COONa, i.e., sodium acetate, is a basic salt.
115
Q4 Adding a substance X to the beaker shown completes the given electric circuit.
Identify X.
A. C2H5OH(aq)
B. KOH(aq)
C. C6H12O6(aq)
D. C2H4(aq)
Answer: B. KOH(aq)
Solution: The given circuit would be complete only when there is a charge flow in
the circuit and the bulb glows.
For a flow of charge, there should be charged ions in the solution that can conduct
electricity.
Ionic compounds like KOH dissociate in water to furnish ions (K+ and OH-).
KOH(aq) → K+(aq) + OH-(aq)
These ions would conduct a charge flow in the circuit and the bulb would glow.
On the contrary, the given covalent compounds like C2H5OH, C6H12O6(aq), and C2H4
(aq) do not furnish any ions in aqueous solutions. Thus, the bulb does not glow.
116
Q5 Which of the following options represents a pair of oxides correctly matched with
their respective nature?
A. CO2, Na2O [Acidic oxide]

B. CaO, Al2O3 [Basic oxide]
C. Al2O3, ZnO [Amphoteric oxide]
D. H2O, K2O [Neutral oxide]
Answer: C. Al2O3, ZnO [Amphoteric oxide]
Solution:
● Metallic oxides are basic in nature. Examples: CaO, K2O, Na2O
● Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature. Example: CO2
● However, there are certain metal oxides that react with both acids and bases.
These are known as amphoteric oxides. Examples: ZnO, Al2O3
Q6 A compound D, used in bakeries for making cakes soft and spongy, reacts with
hydrochloric acid as per the given reaction.
D + Hydrochloric acid → Salt + Water + Gas T
Which of the given options correctly represents compound D and gas T,

respectively?
A. Na2SO3, SO2
B. Na2SO4, SO2
C. NaHCO3, CO2
D. Na2CO3, CO2
Answer: C. NaHCO3, CO2
Solution: It is given that compound D is used in baking. Therefore, D is baking soda

or sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3). When we heat NaHCO3, it releases carbon
dioxide gas that helps the dough to make the baked items soft and spongy.
Chemical reaction:
2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Also, metal bicarbonates react with acids to produce salt, water, and carbon dioxide
gas. So, gas T is carbon dioxide (CO2).
NaHCO3(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Q7 Quicklime reacts with water to produce slaked lime. Identify the type of reaction and
the nature of slaked lime.
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Option Type of reaction Nature of slaked lime
A. Combination Acidic
B. Combination Basic
C. Decomposition Basic
D. Decomposition Acidic
Answer: B. Combination, Basic
Solution: Quicklime or calcium oxide reacts with water to produce slaked lime
(calcium hydroxide) as per the following chemical reaction:
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq)
Calcium hydroxide is an example of metallic oxides that are generally basic in

nature. Thus, Ca(OH)2 is a basic oxide.
Q8 The reaction of iron with steam takes place as follows:

xFe(s) + yH2O(g) → pFe3O4(s) + qH2(g)
For the equation to be balanced, what will be the value of (x + y + p + q)?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 24
D. 14
Answer: B. 12
Solution: The number of atoms of each element on the reactant and the product
sides of the given reaction is as follows:
Element Number of atoms on the Number of atoms on the

reactant side product side
Fe x 3p
H 2y 2q
O y 4p
To balance the reaction, the number of atoms of each element on the reactant and
the product sides should be equal.
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This means,
x = 3p -------------------------- (i)
⇒
2y = 2q y = q -------------------------- (ii)
y = 4p -------------------------- (iii)
Now, let the coefficient associated with the maximum number of elements be 1.
⇒ p=1
y = 4 [From equation (iii)]
q = 4 [From equation (ii)]
x = 3 [From equation (i)]
So, x + y + p + q = 3 + 4 + 1 + 4 = 12
Thus, the balanced chemical reaction is:

3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Q9 Consider the following reactions:

(i) KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) →
(ii) NaOH(aq) + CuSO4(aq) →
(iii) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) →
(iv) BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) →
Which of the given cases will form a white precipitate?

A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (iv)
Answer: C. (iii) and (iv)
Solution: All the given reactions occur via double displacement and involve the
formation of a precipitate.
Reaction (i):
2KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) → 2KNO3(aq) + PbI2(s)
Lead iodide [PbI2] is a yellow precipitate.
Reaction (ii):
2NaOH(aq) + CuSO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + Cu(OH)2(s)
Copper hydroxide [Cu(OH)2] is a bluish-white precipitate.
Reaction (iii):
NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → NaNO3(aq) + AgCl(s)
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Silver chloride [AgCl] is a white precipitate.
Reaction (iv):
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) →2NaCl(aq) + BaSO4(s)
Barium sulphate [BaSO4] is a white precipitate.
120
Q10 Which of the following statements is correct for the given reaction?
A. The reaction follows the law of conservation of mass.

B. The mass of reactants is not equal to the mass of products.
C. The number of atoms of all elements is the same on the reactant and product
sides.
D. The amount of calcium by mass is more on the reactant side as compared to
the product side.
Answer: B. The mass of reactants is not equal to the mass of products.
Solution: Given reaction,

Element Number of atoms on the Number of atoms on

reactant Side the product side
H 4 2
N 2 2
O 8 7
Ca 1 1
The number of H and O atoms on the reactant and product sides are not equal.
⇒ The equation does not obey the law of conservation of mass.
⇒ The total mass of reactants is not equal to the total mass of products.
⇒ The equation is not balanced.
The balanced equation would be:

2HNO3(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
121
Q11 Observe the given image:
The correct sequence of the path of oxygen-rich blood through the body is:
A. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta → Body

cells
B. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Vena cava
→ Body cells
C. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Vena cava →
Body cells
D. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Aorta → Body
cells
Answer: A. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta →

Body cells
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Solution: Oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left atrium through the
pulmonary vein. From the left atrium, it enters the left ventricle. From the left
ventricle, the oxygenated blood is transported through the aorta where it branches
into many arteries to supply oxygenated blood to all body cells. Thus, the correct
flow is:
Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta → Body cells
123
Q12 The given image shows bread mould growing on a piece of bread. How do these
bread moulds obtain nutrition?
A. By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food

B. By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming them
C. By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them
D. By directly ingesting the bread on which they are growing
Answer: C. By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them
Solution: Bread moulds are examples of fungi. They follow a saprotrophic mode of
nutrition. These organisms breakdown the food material outside the body and
absorb it.
Q13 The function of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule of the nephron is to:
A. Reabsorb water into the blood
B. Eliminate ammonia from the body
C. Reabsorb salts and amino acids
D. Filter the blood and collect the filtrate
Answer: D. Filter the blood and collect the filtrate
Solution: The function of the glomerulus is to filter the blood and produce the
nephric filtrate.The Bowman’s capsule collects the filtrate and passes it to the other
parts of the nephron.
124
Q14 Study the diagram of the human digestive system. Select the option that correctly
identifies the part and its function/characteristics.
A. (i) Oesophagus: Mixes food with digestive juices

B. (ii) Appendix: Produces and stores bile
C. (iii) Stomach: Site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
D. (iv) Pancreas: Releases juice that helps in breakdown of proteins and fats
Answer: D. (iv) Pancreas: Releases juice that helps in breakdown of proteins and
fats
125
Solution: The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice that contains enzymes like
trypsinogen and lipases. Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin and is responsible for
digesting proteins, while lipase is responsible for breaking down emulsified fats.
Q15 The given image represents an activity to prove the requirements for
photosynthesis. During this activity, two healthy potted plants are kept in the dark for
about 72 hours. After 72 hours, potassium hydroxide (which absorbs CO2) is kept
in the watch glass in setup (i). Both of these setups are air-tight and have been kept
in light for 6 hours. After this, dilute iodine solution (brown in colour) is added to one
leaf from each of the two plants (i) and (ii).
126
What results will we get on performing the starch iodine test on the leaf of plant (i)
and plant (ii), respectively?
A Blue-black Brown
B Brown Blue-black
C Blue-black Blue-black
D Brown Brown
Answer: B.
B. Brown Blue-black
Solution:
Plants perform photosynthesis in the presence of carbon dioxide, water, sunlight,
and chlorophyll. Both the plants were destarched. When placed in sunlight, plant (ii)
starts performing photosynthesis, but plant (i) does not. Plant (i) has no carbon
dioxide available since potassium hydroxide (KOH) absorbs it. So, it gives a
negative starch test.
127
Q16 Observe the diagram of the human respiratory system.
Match the labelling in column I and correlate them with the functions in column II.
Column I Column II
i. a) Contracts and moves downwards during inhalation
ii. b) Ensures that the air passage does not collapse.
iii. c) Moves upwards and outwards during inhalation
iv. d) Provides a surface where the exchange of gases

can take place
A. i. – a); ii. – b); iii. – c); iv. – d)

B. i. – b); ii. – c); iii. – d); iv. – a)
C. i. – b); ii. – a); iii. – d); iv. – c)
D. i. – d); ii. – a); iii. – b); iv. – c)
Answer: B. i. – b); ii. – c); iii. – d); iv. – a)
Solution:
i. Rings of cartilage: They are present in the trachea and they ensure that the air
passage does not collapse.
ii. Ribs: The ribs move upwards and outwards during inhalation.
iii. Alveoli: They provide a thin, moist surface where the exchange of gases can take
place.
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iv. Diaphragm: It contracts and moves downwards during inhalation.
Q17 Identify the type of mirror used in the given figure.
A. Concave
B. Convex
C. Plane
Answer: A. Concave
Solution:
● Out of all kinds of mirrors, concave mirrors can form magnified images when
the object is placed at a certain distance from the pole of the mirror.
● Hence, concave mirrors are widely used by doctors to examine teeth and the
inner parts of the ear.
129
Q18 Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the
same size as the object?
A. At the principal focus of the lens
B. At twice the focal length
C. At infinity
D. Between the optical centre of the lens and the principal focus
Answer: B. At twice the focal length
Solution:
From the image formation by a convex lens ray diagram:

● Position of object: At 2F1
● Image position: At 2F2
● Nature and size of the image: Real, inverted, and same size as object
Q19 Choose the correct ray diagram for the given incident ray.
A.
130
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A.
131
Solution:
● An incident ray passing through the focus of a convex lens emerges as a ray
parallel to the principal axis after being refracted from the lens.
Q20 The refractive index of air, water, diamond, and crown glass is 1.0003, 1.33, 2.42,
and 1.52, respectively. In which medium would the speed of light be the slowest?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Diamond
D. Crown glass
Answer: C. Diamond
Solution:
From the definition of refractive index,
𝑐
µ = 𝑉
Where c is the speed of light in a vacuum and V is the speed of light in a medium
𝑐
⇒𝑉 = µ
1
∴𝑉∞ µ
● Thus, the speed of light in a medium is inversely proportional to the refractive

index of the medium.
● It means that if the refractive index of the medium is more, the speed of light
in that medium will be less.
● Hence, in this case, the speed of light is slowest in the diamond.
132
Q21 While doing the prism experiment, Rakesh passed a monochromatic light through
the prism. Which of the following phenomena will he observe?
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Both refraction and dispersion
Answer: B. Refraction
Solution:
● Rakesh will be able to see the refraction of light through the prism.
● He will not be able to see dispersion because the source of light is
monochromatic, which has only one wavelength.
Q22 A concave mirror of radius of curvature R produces a real image n times the size of
the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is:
A. − 2(𝑛 − 1)𝑅
−( 𝑛 − 1 )
B.
2𝑛
𝑅
−( 𝑛 + 1 )𝑅
C.
2𝑛
−( 𝑛 + 1 )
D.
2
𝑅
−( 𝑛 + 1 )𝑅
Answer: C.
2𝑛
Solution:
A real image with magnification n is given by,
𝑣
𝑚 = − 𝑢
= − 𝑛
So, v = nu
From the mirror formula,

1 1 1
𝑣
+ 𝑢
= 𝑓
1 1 −2
𝑛𝑢
+ 𝑢
= 𝑅
−(𝑛 + 1) 𝑅
⇒𝑢 = 2𝑛
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖
Q23 When light enters from medium P to medium Q, the value of is less than 1,
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
which means:
133
A. P is optically denser than Q.
B. Q is optically denser than P.
C. P and Q have the same optical density.
D. P and Q are opaque.
Answer: A. P is optically denser than Q.
Solution:
Given,
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖
<1
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
⇒ sin i < sin r
⇒ ∠i < ∠r
Angle of incidence < Angle of refraction
● It means that when a light ray travels from medium P to medium Q, the ray
bends away from the normal.
● We know that when a light ray travels from a denser medium to a rarer
medium, it bends away from the normal.
● Hence, medium P is optically denser than medium Q.
134
Q24 If white light falls on the system arranged in the given manner, what will be the
colour of the light coming from the third prism?
A. Only yellow colour

B. Seven different colours
C. Only red colour
D. Only violet colour
Answer: B. Seven different colours
Solution:
● Light disperses into seven colours after passing through the first prism.
● The seven colours coming out from the first prism fall on the second prism
and recombine again because of the reversal of the dispersion phenomenon.
● The emergent light from the second prism is a white light that falls on the
third prism.
● Since the incident light is a white light on the third prism, the emergent light is
a seven-coloured VIBGYOR spectrum.
135
Section - B
section.
Q25 A food safety officer is given the responsibility to prepare two compounds X and Y.
Compound X will be used for curdling of milk to produce cheese, while compound Y
will be used to produce antacids. Identify the correct reagents from the given table to
manufacture X and Y, respectively.
Reagent pH
P 2
Q 7
R 5
S 8
A. P and R
B. Q and R
C. R and S
D. S and P
Answer: C. R and S
Solution: Given,
⇒
X: Used for the curdling of milk X: Mild acidic substance (pH < 7)
⇒
Y: Used to produce antacids Y: Mild basic substance (pH > 7)
Out of the given substances, R (pH = 5) and S (pH = 8) are the most suitable
reagents for curdling the milk and producing antacids, respectively.
136
Q26 A gardener analyses a soil sample before using it to grow Brussels sprouts. The
pH of the soil is 4.5. It is not suitable for growing the crop in the current state
since the optimum pH range for the growth of Brussels sprouts is between 6 and
7.5. Which of the following salts can be added to the soil to make it fit for the
growth?
A. X
B. Y
C. P
D. Q
Answer: C. P
Solution: The pH of the given soil is 4.5, which means that it is acidic. To increase
the basic nature of the soil, a salt with pH > 7 should be used.
Out of the given options, P has a pH > 7 and can be used in fields to grow crops.
137
Q27 A school is planning to install a bell on the campus. The administration has listed
down its requirements as follows:
1. The bell should be loud enough for the entire school to hear it.
2. It should be strong and durable.
3. It should be shiny so as to impart a good look to it.
Which of the following materials can be used to manufacture the bell?
A. Copper
B. Ceramic
C. Sodium
D. Plastic
Answer: A. Copper
Solution: To meet the requirements for manufacturing the bell, a substance should
be sonorous, strong, durable, and lustrous.
All these are the physical properties of metals. Out of the given options, copper and
sodium are metals. However, sodium is a soft and non-sonorous metal. Thus,
copper is the correct option.
Q28 Upon heating, a salt S produces compound X, water, and a gas Y according to the
following reaction:
Salt S belongs to the sodium family and gives a blue colour with the universal
indicator.
X on treatment with water forms washing soda.
Y is a gas that turns limewater milky.
Based on the given information, select the correct option that represents S, X, and Y.
Option S X Y
A. NaCl NaOCl2 Cl2
B. Na2CO3 NaHCO3 CO2
C. NaHCO3 Na2CO3 CO2
D. CH3COONa Na2CO3 CO2
Answer: C). S – NaHCO3, X – Na2CO3, Y – CO2
138
Solution: It is given that salt S gives a blue colour with the universal indicator. This
implies that S is a basic salt. Out of the given options, Na2CO3, NaHCO3, and
CH3COONa are basic salts.
On heating, S produces a substance X that forms washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O)
when treated with water.
Na2CO3(s) + 10H2O(l) → Na2CO3.10H2O(s)
So, X is Na2CO3 (sodium carbonate).
It is given that gas Y evolved during the reaction that turns limewater milky. Thus, Y
is carbon dioxide (CO2).
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
Therefore, the given reaction is:

2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Q29 Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction?

Answer: B. CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
Solution: The nature of each reaction is discussed as follows:

This is a neutralisation reaction that involves the reaction of an acid (HCl)
with a base (NaOH) to produce salt (NaCl) and water.
CuO loses oxygen and gets reduced to Cu. Similarly, H2 gains oxygen and
gets oxidised to H2O.
Also, the equation obeys the law of conservation of mass. Hence, it is a
balanced redox reaction.

This is a double displacement reaction that involves the formation of a
precipitate (BaSO4).

This is a neutralisation reaction that involves the reaction of an acid
(CH3COOH) with a base (NH4OH) to produce a salt (CH3COONH4) and
water.
Q30 Study the given reactions and their characteristics provided in the table.
139
(i) MN + S → MS + NS - Heat
(ii) P + Q → PQ + Heat
Observation Reaction (i) Reaction (ii)
a Combination Exothermic
b Endothermic Exothermic
c Endothermic Combination
A. a
B. b
C. Both b and c
D. Both a and c
Answer: C. Both b and c
Solution: The nature of the given reactions is discussed as follows:

● MN + S → MS + NS - Heat
In the given reaction, heat written on the product side with a minus sign
denotes that it is absorbed during the reaction. It can also be represented as:
MN + S + Heat → MS + NS
So, this is an endothermic reaction.
● P + Q → PQ + Heat
In the given reaction, heat written on the product side with a plus sign
denotes that heat energy is evolved in this reaction. Thus, it is an
exothermic reaction. Also, it forms a single product, which implies that it is a
combination reaction.
Questions 31 to 34 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Answer
these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q31 Assertion: Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water.

Reason: A solution of an ionic compound contains ions, and the movement of these
ions conducts electricity.
Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
140
Solution: An ionic compound is composed of ions that are charged particles. When
an ionic compound is dissolved in water, the ions become mobile and the movement
of these ions through the electric circuit helps in the conduction of electricity.
Q32 Assertion: An unknown element Y is treated with water to produce a gas Z that is
collected by downward displacement of water.
Reason: Z is less dense than water and turns limewater milky.
Answer: C. A is true, but R is false.
Solution: Metals like sodium and potassium form the respective hydroxide and
liberate hydrogen gas when dissolved in water.
Metal (Y) + Water → Metal hydroxide + Hydrogen gas
Hydrogen is collected by downward displacement of water as it is:
● Less dense than water
● Insoluble in water
Hydrogen gas does not turn limewater milky. So, the assertion is correct but the
reason is not.
Q33 Assertion: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood.
Reason: Valves present in the heart allow the movement of blood in one direction.
Answer: B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Solution: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated

blood as there are different chambers for oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and
double circulation. Such separation allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the
body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs like birds and mammals,
who constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature. On the other hand,
valves ensure that blood does not flow backwards when the atria or ventricles
contract. Hence, both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the
correct solution of the assertion.
141
Q34 Assertion: The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut.
Reason: Scattering of sunlight cannot happen in outer space due to the absence of
atmosphere.
Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Solution:
i. Scattering of light is a phenomenon that results in the sky appearing blue.

ii. Fine dust particles in Earth's atmosphere scatter the sunlight.
iii. Scattering of light cannot happen in outer space due to the absence of the
atmosphere. Therefore, the sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut.
Q35 A beaker contains a solution of cold water and a colourless substance P. On adding
element X to the solution, there is a violent reaction and the solution turns pink.
Which of the following options correctly represents the substances P and X and the
nature of the product formed?
Option P X Nature of
product
A. Phenolphthalein Copper Acidic
B. Phenolphthalein Potassium Basic
C. Universal indicator Copper Basic
D. Universal indicator Potassium Acidic
Answer: B. Phenolphthalein, Potassium, Basic
Solution:
Given,
Beaker contains cold water + P
Element X + Solution (cold water + P) → Pink colouration
The phenolphthalein indicator attains pink colour in basic solutions. Thus, the
product formed is basic in nature.
Also, element X reacts with cold water, which implies that X is a highly reactive
metal. Hence, out of the given options, element X would be potassium.
2K(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + H2(g)
142
Q36 Among the following, choose the correct option that includes the organisms that
have a holozoic mode of nutrition.
A. Plasmodium and Amoeba

B. Cuscuta and Paramoecium
C. Plasmodium and Cuscuta
D. Paramoecium and Amoeba
Answer: D. Paramoecium and Amoeba
Solution: Among the given options, Paramoecium and Amoeba have a holozoic
mode of nutrition. Here, the complex food materials are taken and broken into
simpler forms inside the body of the organisms. On the other hand, Cuscuta and
Plasmodium have a parasitic mode of nutrition. These organisms derive nutrition
from plants or animals without killing them.
Q37 Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.
A. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

B. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
C. Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
D. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
Answer: C. Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
Solution: The following events occur during photosynthesis:
i. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

ii. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and splitting of water
molecules into hydrogen and oxygen
iii. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
143
Q38 Which substances are produced during anaerobic respiration in yeast?
Option Carbon Alcohol Lactic acid Water

dioxide
A. Yes Yes No No
B. Yes No Yes No
C. No Yes No Yes
D. No No Yes Yes
Answer: A.
Solution: During anaerobic respiration in yeast, ethanol and carbon dioxide are
produced.
Glucose is broken down into pyruvate (3C molecule) in the cytoplasm. Further, the
pyruvate is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Q39 If lens A has a focal length +15 cm and lens B has a focal length +30 cm, find the
lens that has more power.
A. Lens A has more power.
B. Lens B has more power.
C. Both the lenses have the same power.
D. The power of the lenses cannot be determined.
Answer: A. Lens A has more power.
Solution:
Given,
Focal length of lens A,
𝑓𝐴 = + 15 𝑐𝑚 = + 0. 15 𝑚
Focal length of lens B,
𝑓𝐵 = + 30 𝑐𝑚 = + 0. 30 𝑚
Since,
144
1
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 (𝑃) = 𝐹𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ (𝑓)
Therefore,
1
𝑃𝐴 = 0.15 = 6. 66 𝐷
1
𝑃𝐵 = 0.30
= 3. 33 𝐷
Hence, 𝑃𝐴 > 𝑃𝐵
Q40 Three concave mirrors are cut from a sphere and are placed in such a way that the
Sun (which is at infinity) lies on the principal axis of mirror 2. What will be the
position of the image(s) formed by these three mirrors?
A. At F1, F2, and F3

B. At C
C. At P1, P2, and P3
D. At F2 only
Answer: D. At F2 only
Solution:
● If the mirror was complete, the image of an object kept at infinity would be
formed at focus F2 .
145
● If some parts of the mirrors are blocked or cut to form three mirrors as shown
in the question, the position of the image will not be affected. However, the
brightness of the image reduces (due to the missing part of the mirror).
● Therefore, the image will be formed at F2.
Q41 Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen.

(i) Proteins
(ii) Nitrates and nitrites
(iii) Urea
(iv) Atmospheric nitrogen
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (iv)
146
Answer: B. (ii) Nitrates and nitrites, (iii) Urea
Solution: Plants cannot absorb atmospheric nitrogen directly. They can absorb
nitrogen in the form of nitrates, nitrites, and urea.
Q42 If saliva contains less amount of salivary amylase, then which of the following events
will be adversely affected?
A. Proteins breaking down into amino acids

B. Starch breaking down into sugars
C. Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
D. Absorption of vitamins
Answer: B. Starch breaking down into sugars
Solution:
Salivary amylase is an enzyme present in the saliva. It is responsible for the
breakdown of starch into simple sugars. If salivary amylase is present in less
amounts in the saliva, then the function of starch breakdown will be adversely
affected.
Q43 Find the position of the image (v) and magnification (m) produced by the convex
lens if the first image formed by the plane mirror is taken as an object for the given
convex lens. Here, F1 is the principal focus of the convex lens.
A. v = 40 cm from the lens and m = -1

B. v = 20 cm from the lens and m = 1
C. v = 30 cm from the lens and m = -1
D. v = 10 cm from the lens and m = 1
Answer: A. v = 40 cm from the lens and m = -1
147
Solution:
In a plane mirror, the image is formed behind the mirror at the same distance as the
object is in front of it. Therefore, the total distance of the image in the plane mirror
from the convex lens is 40 cm (20 cm + 10 cm + 10 cm). This image is to be taken
as the object for the convex lens.
Given, the focal length of the convex lens is 20 cm.

Since the object is at 40 cm from the convex lens, it means that the object is at 2F1.
From the ray diagram, we have,
Therefore, the image is formed at 40 cm from the lens.

Therefore,
u = -40 cm
v = 40 cm
𝑣 40
Magnification, m =
𝑢
= −40
= -1
148
Q44 Which of the following ray diagrams correctly represents the image formation of an
object placed between the centre of curvature and the focus of a concave mirror?
A.
B.
149
C.
D.
Answer: C.
150
Solution:
● After reflection, a ray parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror will
pass through the principal focus.
● After reflection, a ray passing through the principal focus of a concave mirror
will emerge parallel to the principal axis.
● Therefore, for the object placed between C and F, the correct ray diagram for
the image formation is:
Q45 A ray of light is allowed to pass through three media of absolute refractive indices
μ1, μ2, and μ3, respectively as shown (given that ray RS' is parallel to ray PQ). Which
of the following is correct?
151
A. μ1 > μ2 > μ3
B. μ1 < μ2 < μ3
C. μ1 = μ3 < μ2
D. μ1 < μ3 < μ2
Answer: C. μ1 = μ3 < μ2
Solution:
From Snell’s law, we have,
µ1 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ1 = µ2 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ2 .--------- (a)
Where θ1and θ2 are the angles made by the incident ray and refracted ray,
respectively with the normal.
Considering rays PQ and QR, the angle made by ray PQ with the normal is greater
than the angle made by ray QR with the normal, i.e., θ1 > θ2 .
Therefore, from equation (a),
μ1 < μ2 --------- (b)
Since rays PQ and RS’ are parallel to each other, the angle made by ray PQ with the
normal is equal to the angle made by the ray RS’ with the normal.
Therefore, from equation (a)
µ3 = µ1.--------- (c)
Hence, from equations (b) and (c), we get,

μ1 = μ3 < μ2
Q46 If the absolute refractive index of the diamond is 2.42, what is the velocity of light in
it?
152
8
A. 2. 41 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
8
B. 1. 23 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
8
C. 1. 75 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
8
D. 2. 66 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
8
Answer: B. 1. 23 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
Solution:
The absolute refractive index of diamond is,
𝑐
µ𝑑 = 𝑉𝑑
8
3 × 10 8
𝑉𝑑 = = 1. 23 × 10 𝑚/𝑠
2.42
Q47 When viewed using a convex lens, a 10 cm tall candle appears to be 30 cm tall as
shown in the figure. The focal length of the lens is 5 cm. What is the object
distance?
A. 10 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 3.33 cm
Answer: D. 3.33 cm
Solution:
Given,
Height of the object (h) = 10 cm
153
Height of the image (h’) = 30 cm
Focal length (f) = 5 cm
Magnification,
ℎ' 30
𝑚 = ℎ
= 10
= 3
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 (𝑣)
Also, 𝑚 = = 3
𝑂𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 (𝑢)
Therefore, v = 3u
From the lens formula,
1 1 1
𝑓
= 𝑣
− 𝑢
1 1 1
5
= 3𝑢
− 𝑢
u = -3.33 cm
Therefore, the object distance is 3.33 cm.
154
Q48 Certain properties of elements X, Y, and Z are given below.
X Y Z
(a) Reaction with water Forms oxide Forms hydroxide Forms hydroxide
(b) Reaction with Forms metal

No reaction No reaction
CaCl2(aq) chloride
(c) Melting point High Low High
Identify elements X, Y, and Z, respectively.
A. Zn, Cu, Al
B. Fe, Na, Mg
C. Fe, Li, Zn
D. K, Na, Mg
Answer: B. Fe, Na, Mg
Solution: The given properties of the elements X, Y, and Z can be interpreted as

follows:
(a) Reaction with water
● Iron reacts with steam to form iron oxide and hydrogen gas.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
● Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
gas.
2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
● Magnesium reacts with water to form magnesium hydroxide and
hydrogen gas.
Mg(s) + 2H2O(l) → Mg(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)
(b) Reaction with CaCl2

● Iron, being less reactive than calcium, cannot displace it from calcium
chloride solution.
Fe(s) + CaCl2(aq) → No reaction
● Sodium, being more reactive than calcium, displaces it from calcium
chloride solution to form sodium chloride.
Na(s) + CaCl2(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + Ca(s)
● Magnesium, being less reactive than calcium, cannot displace it from
calcium chloride solution.
Mg(s) + CaCl2(aq) → No reaction
155
(c) The metals, iron and magnesium, have high melting points while sodium has
a low melting point.
Section - C
Section - C consists of three cases followed by questions. Out of the 12 questions in
this section, attempt any 10.
Case Odisha is a land of red soil. The red colour of the soil is due to the presence of large
deposits of different ores of iron.
The abundance of iron in these ores is represented in the table.
Iron ore Formula % Iron
Haematite Fe2O3 70
Magnetite Fe3O4 72
Siderite FeCO3 48
Iron pyrite FeS2 47
The extraction of iron from these ores follows different processes.
Q49 Which of the following elements will form a compound having a chemical formula
similar to that of siderite ore?
A. Al
B. Sn
C. Mg
D. Si
Answer: C. Mg
Solution: The formula of siderite ore is FeCO3. Here, iron has a charge of +2 and
carbonate has a charge of -2. So, the element which forms a compound similar to
siderite ore should also form a di-positive ion.
Out of the given elements, only magnesium (Mg) can form a di-positive ion.
Formula of the compound: MgCO3
Q50 On oxidation, iron pyrite produces a gas that turns moist blue litmus paper red. What
will be the pH of an aqueous solution of the gas?
A. 1.1
156
B. 5.9
C. 7.8
D. 8.6
Answer: A. 1.1
Solution: Iron pyrite (FeS2) is a sulphide ore. On oxidation, it produces iron oxide
and sulphur dioxide gas.
4FeS2(s) + 11O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) + 8SO2(g)
Under excess supply of oxygen, when SO2 dissolves in water, it produces sulphuric
acid, which is a strong acid with a pH value of 1.1.
SO2(g) + O2(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO4(aq)
Q51
Substance A is an iron ore and B is a gas.

Which of the following correctly represents A and B?
A. A = Fe2O3 and B = O2
B. A = Fe3O4 and B = H2
C. A = Fe2O3 and B = H2
D. A = Fe3O4 and B = O2
Answer: B. A = Fe3O4 and B = H2
Solution: When steam passes through red hot iron, it produces iron(III) oxide and
hydrogen gas.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
A is an iron ore, which implies that it is Fe3O4 (magnetite).

B burns with a pop sound, which implies that B is H2.
157
Q52 Iron can be extracted from siderite ore through the following reaction:
FeCO3(s) → FeO(s) + CO2(g)
Identify the type of reaction.

A. Combination
B. Decomposition
C. Displacement
D. Double displacement
Answer: B. Decomposition
Solution: In the given reaction, a single compound breaks into more than one
simpler products. Thus, this is an example of a decomposition reaction.
Case Avinash was running in a marathon. With the finish line in sight, he started running
faster. As he was about to reach the line, he got a severe muscle cramp in his leg.
This cramp prevented Avinash from running any further and he lost the marathon.
Read the above passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Q53 The process that provided most of the energy to Avinash for running the marathon
is:
A. Anaerobic respiration
B. Aerobic respiration
C. Fermentation
D. Breathing
Answer: B. Aerobic respiration
Solution: The process that provided most of the energy to Avinash for running the
marathon is aerobic respiration. The breakdown of glucose in the presence of
oxygen is known as aerobic respiration. It yields about 36 or 38 molecules of ATP.
Q54 A substance that likely accumulated in Avinash’s leg muscle cells is ______.
A. pyruvate
B. ethanol
C. carbon dioxide
D. lactic acid
Answer: D. lactic acid
158
Solution: A substance that likely accumulated in Avinash’s leg muscle cells is lactic
acid. This happens due to lack of oxygen in the muscle cells. Here, the pyruvate is
converted into lactic acid.
Q55 The given graph represents the amount of energy supplied with respect to the time
while an athlete is running at full speed. Study the graph and choose the option that
correctly represents plot A and plot B.
B. Anaerobic Aerobic
159
C. Anaerobic Anaerobic
D. Aerobic Aerobic
Answer: A.
Solution: Plot A corresponds to aerobic respiration, while plot B corresponds to

anaerobic respiration. The amount of energy produced is high and consistent in
aerobic respiration.
Q56 Which of the following is correct for the process of anaerobic respiration?
Option CO2 is always produced A lot of energy is

released
A. Yes No
B. No Yes
C. No No
D. Yes Yes
Answer: C. No, No
Solution: Anaerobic respiration happens in the absence of oxygen. It does not

always produce carbon dioxide. Lack of oxygen in the muscle cell yields lactic acid
with the release of little energy. The release of energy in the aerobic process is
greater than that in the anaerobic process.
160
Case Ram is experimenting with tracing the path of light through a glass slab as shown.
◦ ◦
The teacher asked Ram to take the angle of incidence between 30 and 60 and
ensure that the glass slab does not displace its boundary during the experiment. He
tabulated the corresponding values of the angle of refraction (r) and the angle of
emergence (e) with different angles of incidence (i).
Ram Reading 1 Reading 2 Reading 3 Reading 4
∠i ◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
30 32 40 35
∠r ◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
18 20 24 20. 5
∠e ◦ ◦ ◦ ◦
30 32 40 37
161
Q57 The teacher now asked Ram to make a setup where the emergent ray coming out
from glass slab 1 is the incident ray for glass slab 2. If both the glass slabs have the
same refractive index, what will be the angle of emergence (e)?
◦
A. 45
◦
B. 20
◦
C. 30
◦
D. 70
◦
Answer: C. 30
Solution:
● In multiple refractions through a glass slab, if the incident ray and the
emergent ray have the same medium, the rays will be parallel.
● Hence, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence, which is
◦
30 .
162
Q58 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light that travels from medium 1 (air) to medium
◦ ◦
2 (glass) such that the angle of incidence is 45 and the angle of refraction is 30 .
What will be the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first
medium?
A. 1.41
B. 1.50
C. 1.23
D. 1
Answer: A. 1.41
Solution:
Refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is,
◦ 1
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖 𝑠𝑖𝑛 45 2
µ
1 2
=
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟
= ◦ = 1 = 1. 41
𝑠𝑖𝑛 30 2
163
Q59 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light at an angle of θ with respect to the glass
slab such that no refraction takes place. What will be the angle θ?
◦
A. 45
◦
B. 90
◦
C. 30
◦
D. 70
◦
Answer: B. 90
● When a light incident is oblique to an interface, it either bends towards the

normal or away from the normal.
◦
● However, when it is incident at 90 with the interface, which means that it is
parallel to the normal, it neither bends away nor towards.
● Therefore, no refraction occurs when light enters the medium normally, i.e.,
at a right angle with respect to the glass slab.
164
Q60 Considering all the four readings, the teacher told Ram that one of his readings is
incorrect. Find the incorrect reading.
A. Reading 1
B. Reading 2
C. Reading 3
D. Reading 4
Answer: D. Reading 4
Solution:
● When a light ray passes from air to glass, it bends towards the normal due to
the high refractive index of glass.
● The same ray acts as an incident ray for the inner surface of the glass slab
and emerges away from the normal due to a rarer medium (air).
● As the ratio of refractive indices of air and glass slab are the same in both
cases, the emergent ray will be parallel to the incident ray.
● It means that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence.
● Therefore, Reading 4 is incorrect.
165
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Q1 Which among the following monarchs was requested to be the German King but
under the provisions of the Parliament and the Constitution?
A. Emmanuel II
B. Guisepo Manzzini
C. Friedrich Wilhelm IV
D. Louis XVIII
Answer: (C) Friedrich Wilhelm IV
Solution: Friedrich Wilhelm IV was requested to be the German King but under the
provisions of the Parliament and the Constitution.
Q2 What was the name of the female character that was used to depict the German
nation-state?
A. Marianne
B. Germania
C. Leopold
D. Delacroix
Answer: (B) Germania
Solution: Many artists in the 18th century used allegorical paintings to raise
nationalistic feelings among their fellow countrymen. Allegories represent abstract
ideas portrayed as real-life characters. Germania was a princess warrior who
represented the German nation-state.
166
Q3 Which among the following artists used his paintings to portray his utopian vision of
the world, symbolising fraternity among nation-states?
A. Frederic Sorrieu
B. Michaelangelo
C. Pablo Picaso
D. Dante Aleghieri
Answer: (A) Frederic Sorrieu
Solution: Frederic Sorrieu used his paintings to portray his utopian vision of the
world, symbolising fraternity among nation-states.
Q4 Who among the following was the mastermind behind the plan to unify Italy?
A. Louis Blanc
B. Jacob Grimm
C. Camillo de Cavour
D. Karol Kurpiński
Answer: (C) Camillo de Cavour
Solution: The Chief Minister of Sardinia–Piedmont, Count Camillo de Cavour, was

the mastermind behind the plan to unify Italy. He was not a revolutionary. He
belonged to the elite, educated class. He made a diplomatic alliance with the
French and together they defeated the Austrian forces controlling North Italy in
1859.
167
Q5 The word ‘Liberalism’ has been derived from the Latin word, ‘Liber'. What does
Liber mean?
A. Free
B. Success
C. Captive
D. War
Answer: (A) Free
Solution: The word ‘Liberalism’ has been derived from the Latin word, ‘Liber’,
which means ‘free’. In the political sphere, Liberalism stood for the end of
autocracy and clerical privileges, and rooted for a government based on the
consent of the people. Liberalism also claimed the importance of inviolability of
private property and was strongly associated with individual freedom and equality
before the law.
Q6 During the second half of the eighteenth century, industries began to develop in
______.
A. France
B. England
C. Germany
D. Russia
Answer: (B) England
Solution: Industries began to develop in England during the second half of the
eighteenth century, and by the nineteenth century, industrialisation spread across
France and parts of German states. In Western and Central Europe, with the
increase of industrial production and trade, there was a growth of towns and new
job opportunities for people.
168
Q7 When does a ‘coming together federation’ get formed?
A. When independent states do not come together but pool their sovereignty
voluntarily
B. When independent states come together but keep their sovereignty
C. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty
forcefully
D. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty
voluntarily
Answer: (D) When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty
voluntarily
Solution: In a ‘coming together federation’, independent states come together and

pool their sovereignty voluntarily. Being a part of a bigger nation would make
individual states feel more secure. Having more resources and people is a good
idea to prevent other nations from attacking.
Q8 Which constitutional amendment introduced municipal councils and corporations in

India?
A. 73rd
B. 74th
C. 75th
D. 76th
Answer: (B) 74th
Solution: The 74th amendment, introduced in 1992, gave birth to municipal

councils and corporations in India. These institutions derive their powers from the
individual state governments.
Q9
Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution gives special provisions to
some states for their development?
A. 371
B. 271
C. 471
D. 71
169
Answer: (A) 371
Solution: Some states face many disadvantages. Some of them have hilly terrains,
strategic international borders and economic backwardness. Others have poor
infrastructure and non-viable state finances. To assist them in their development,
certain provisions are provided in the Constitution of India, under Article 371.
Q10 Which of the following bodies ensures that constitutional provisions are upheld in
all laws and policies in India?
A. Executive
B. Legislature
C. Judiciary
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: (C) Judiciary
Solution: The Judiciary has the power to interpret the basic structure of the Indian
Constitution. It oversees the implementation of constitutional provisions, and
ensures that all laws and policies framed by the other two organs are in keeping
with the spirit of the Constitution.
Q11 When did Sri Lanka gain independence?
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1984
Answer: (C) 1948
Solution: India and Sri Lanka won their independence one year apart. India
gained independence in 1947, and Sri Lanka won its independence in 1948.
170
Q12 Which of the following can be categorised as an institutional reform?
A. Using high yielding variety seeds

B. Using tractors
C. Using chemicals and fertilisers
D. Reforms in land ownership
Answer: (D) Reforms in land ownership
Solution: Reforms related to land ownership, crop subsidies, and selling of farm
produce are called institutional reforms. These reforms ensure a holistic
development of the farming sector, making agriculture a profitable activity, and
improving socio-economic conditions of the farmers.
The other three are categorised as technological reforms.
Q13 Wildlife belongs to which of the following resources?
A. Individual resources
B. Community resources
C. National resources
D. International resources
Answer: (C) National resources
Solution: The wildlife within the political boundary of a nation belongs to that
nation. Hence, it is considered a national resource. All resources such as water,
minerals, forests, and wildlife within the political boundary of a nation are national
resources. Even the resources in the ocean up to 12 nautical miles or 22.2
kilometres from the coast belong to the nation.
Q14 Which among the following is not a step in planning the usage of resources?
A. Identification and inventory of resources

B. Developing infrastructure to harness resources
C. Using resources faster than the rate of replenishment
D. Ensuring the development plans of resources align with the nation’s
development plans
171
Answer: (C) Using resources faster than the rate of replenishment
Solution: Resource planning is a complex process that involves three main steps.
The first step is the identification and inventory of resources across the regions of
the country. The next step is evolving a structure endowed with appropriate
technology, skill, and institutional set up for implementing resource development
plans. Lastly, matching the resource development plans with the overall national
development plans.
Furthermore, resource planning should avoid exhausting resources by consuming

the same at a lesser rate than the rate of replenishment.
Statement 1 (S1): The rate of weathering does not depend on the weather
conditions.
Statement 2 (S2): Slopes of mountains contain thicker deposits of weathered rock

particles.

B. Only S1 is true.
C. Only S2 is true.
Answer: (D) Both S1 and S2 are not true.
Solution: The climatic conditions adversely affect the weathering process.

Extreme weather conditions such as heavy rains increase the weathering of rocks.
The process of weathering also depends on the land relief features. The slopes of
a mountain have thinner deposits of weathered rock materials, as erosion is more
on slopes. On the other hand, foothills or plains have thicker deposits, as most
eroded materials settle in these areas.
Q16 What do you mean by technological reforms in agriculture?
A. Advanced methods and modern equipment in farming

B. Old methods in farming
C. Using hands for farming
172
D. Using sickle for farming
Answer: (A) Advanced methods and modern equipment in farming
Solution: Technological reforms refer to the advanced methods and modern

equipment used in farming to increase productivity.
Statement 1 (S1): The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the
Exclusive Economic Zone are called International Resources.
Statement 2 (S2): International resources can be extracted by a country

unilaterally, provided it has a strong navy to defend its infrastructure.

B. Only S1 is true.
C. Only S2 is true.
Answer: (B) Only S1 is true.
Solution: The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive
Economic Zone are not owned by any specific country. These resources are
regulated by International Institutions. Their utilisation requires prior approval from
these international institutions.
Q18 Which of the following is covered under the human development report published
by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?
A. Educational levels, health status, and nutritional levels

B. Corruption, happiness levels, and per capita income
C. Educational levels, health status, and per capita income
D. Educational levels, happiness levels, and per capita income
Answer: (C) Educational levels, health status, and per capita income
Solution: Even though the level of income is an important measure of

development, it does not consider the educational levels and the health status of a
country. To overcome this shortcoming, the Human Development Report published
173
by the UNDP includes educational levels of people, their health status, and per
capita income.
Q19 Which of the following is the correct meaning of infant mortality rate?
A. The number of children that die before the age of one as a proportion of
1,000 live children born in that particular year.
B. The number of children born in a year as a proportion of 1,000 females
C. The number of children that die before the age of five as a proportion of
1,000 live children born in a particular year.
D. The number of girls born in a year as a proportion of the number of boys
Answer: (A) Infant mortality rate refers to the number of children that die before
the age of one as a proportion of 1,000 live children born in that particular year.
Solution: Infant mortality rate can reflect various factors of development like
access to clean water, food security, social stigmas, superstitions, diseases,
peace, freedom, and environmental conditions. A lower infant mortality rate shows
higher development of a region.
Q20 Which of the following best describes life expectancy at birth?
A. The total expected length of life of all people in a country in a particular

year.
B. The average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
C. The average expected number of people crossing 70 years of age in a
particular year.
D. The ratio of average expected birth to the average expected deaths in a
country in a particular year.
Answer: (B) The average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
Solution: Life expectancy at birth means the average expected length of life of a
person at the time of birth. It is a measure used in the Human Development Index
(HDI) to measure the dimension of health. According to the Human Development
Report of 2020, the life expectancy at birth in India is 69.7.
Q21 Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
A. Natural gas
B. Crude oil
174
C. Coal
D. Groundwater
Answer: (D) Groundwater
Solution: Renewable resources are replenished by nature. However, even these

resources may get overused. Non-renewable resources like crude oil, coal, and
natural gas will get exhausted after a few years of use.
Q22 Which of the following is an example of primary sector activity?
A. Banking
B. Trade
C. Mining
D. Hair-dressing
Ans: (C) Mining
Solution: The primary sector produces the raw materials that are used to make all
the other products. The sector comprises activities like farming, mining, fishing,
dairy, and logging. Banking, trade, and hair-dressing are all service activities.
Q23 Which of the following examples fall under the organised sector?
A. A driver of a private bus

B. A government school teacher
C. A daily wage labourer
D. A mechanic who owns a small repair shop
Answer: (B) A government school teacher
Solution: In the organised sector, the terms of employment are regular and the
employees have assured work. A government school teacher gets regular
salaries, provident fund benefits, paid leaves, medical allowances, and much
more. Moreover, he/she is employed by the government. Hence, a government
school teacher falls under the category of the organised sector.
Q24 Which of the following is the motive of a public sector enterprise?
A. Maximising profits
B. Social welfare
C. Entertainment
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D. Minimising losses
Answer: (B) Social welfare
Solution: Public sector enterprises offer services not just to earn profits. The
government raises money through taxes and other ways to render public services.
There are several things in a society which the private sector will not provide at a
reasonable cost such as roads, bridges, healthcare facilities, educational
institutions, and many other things. So, the government spends on those.
Q25 Which of the following option(s) is/are true in the context of the French Revolution?
l. The idea of nationalism developed with the French Revolution in 1789.

II. In France, regional dialects were encouraged and French, among other
languages, was adopted as the common language of the nation.
III. After the French Revolution, the idea of nationalism spread from France to the
rest of Europe.
Options:
A. l and II
B. I and III
C. Only II
D. Only I
Answer: (B) I and III
Solution: The French Revolution was a watershed moment in history. It wrested the
power from the monarchy and developed the ideas of nationalism and nation-states.
These two ideas found great acceptance in the rest of Europe and, later, around the
world. The French revolutionaries introduced different measures and practices to
create a sense of collective identity among the French population. An example of
this would be the adoption of French as the common language of the nation and
discouraging the use of regional dialects.
Q26 Guiseppe Mazzini was sent into exile for attempting a revolution in 1831 at this
place. Identify the place.
Options:
A. Berne
B. Marseilles
C. Genoa
D. Liguria
Answer: (D) Liguria
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Solution: Giuseppe Mazzini was one of the most influential revolutionaries of
modern Europe. He was sent into exile for attempting a revolution in Liguria in 1831.
Being a fierce critic of the monarchy and a staunch supporter of democratic
republics, he established two underground societies Young Italy and Young Europe
in Marseilles and Berne respectively.
Q27 This meeting gave way for conservatism in Europe. Identify the correct set of parties
that attended the meeting.
Options:
A. Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria
B. Switzerland, Greece, Italy, Poland
C. Britain, Greece, Prussia, Scotland
D. Prussia, Russia, Austria, France
Answer: (A) Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria
Solution: In 1815 CE, after the defeat of Napoleon, representatives of Britain,

Russia, Prussia, and Austria assembled in Vienna to draw up a settlement for
Europe. This settlement came to be known as the Treaty of Vienna of 1815. Hosted
by Austrian Chancellor Metternich, it aimed to undo the changes brought about by
the Napoleonic Wars in Europe. This whole exercise was driven by the spirit of
conservatism to restore the traditional institutes of state and society.
Q28 Which of the following virtues is symbolised by the crown of oak leaves worn by
Germania?
Options:
A. Readiness to fight
B. Heroism
C. Freedom
D. Peace
Answer: (B) Heroism
Solution: Germania is an allegorical figure of the German nation. In the eighteenth

and nineteenth centuries, female allegorical figures were introduced by artists to
represent nations. Germania can be seen wearing a crown of oak leaves. The
German oak represents heroism.
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Q29 The Act of Union of 1707 led to which of the following development(s) in England?
I. The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain

II. Domination of the British Parliament by English members
III. Imposition of Scottish influence on the English
IV. Systematic suppression of English culture and political institutions
Options:
A. l and II
B. I and III
C. Only II
D. Only I
Answer: (A) I and II
Solution: The Act of Union of 1707 between England and Scotland led to the
formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. With this, England was able to
impose influence on Scotland. The British Parliament came to be dominated by the
English. Scotland’s distinctive culture and political institutions came to be
systematically oppressed by the English. Moreover, the Catholic clans that lived in
the Scottish Highlands were repressed whenever they tried to assert their
independence. They were forbidden to speak their language or wear their national
dress. A large number of them were also driven out of their homeland.
Q30 Which among the following statements incorrectly describes the reason as to why
the power-sharing agreement succeeded in Belgium?
A. The majority community in Brussels, the French-speaking population, gave

proportionate representation to the minority community.
B. The views and opinions of both major communities, the French- and
Dutch-speaking populations, were respected as their support was required to
pass major laws.
C. The powers of the central government were decentralised to grant to all the
communities the right to govern themselves.
D. The minority French-speaking population in the country was equally
accommodated in the central government.
Answer:
(A) The majority community in Brussels, the French-speaking population, gave
proportionate representation to the minority community.
Solution: The Dutch-speaking population was in majority in the country while the
French-speaking population was in majority in Brussels. However, the majority
communities were willing to accommodate the minority community and grant them
equal representation in ministerial positions in the central government and in
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Brussels. Additionally, powers were granted to community governments to make
laws giving all communities the right to govern themselves. The views and opinions
of all communities were respected. All these measures led to the establishment of
trust amongst all communities. Thus, the power-sharing agreement was successful
in Belgium.
Q31 Select the option that incorrectly describes why sharing of power is essential for a
government?
A. It helps in conflict resolution.

B. It helps in addressing the concerns of minority groups.
C. It leads to centralisation of political power in the hands of one individual.
D. It gives stability to a government and helps in decision-making.
Answer: (C) It leads to centralisation of political power in the hands of one individual.
Solution: Power-sharing agreements help in addressing the concerns of minority

groups by giving them representation in the government. It helps in conflict resolution
and thus, gives stability to the government. Power-sharing agreements help in
decentralisation by distributing powers between different organs/levels of
government.
Q32 Assertion (A): The leaders of the Constituent Assembly insisted on making Hindi as
the national language.
Reason: (R): More than 50% of India’s population speak Hindi.
Read the above given statements and select the option that is true.
A. Both A and R are false

B. Both A and R are true
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false
Solution: Over 40% of the Indian population speak Hindi. Besides, India’s enormous
linguistic diversity made it difficult for the leaders of our Constituent Assembly to
impose one particular language as the national language. Thus, the leaders were
careful to not insist on making Hindi as the national language. Even though Hindi is
recognised as an official language in India, there are 21 other languages that are
also recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.
Q33 What makes the practice of federalism a good example of a power-sharing

agreement?
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A. It allows different groups to share power vis-a-vis central and state
institutions.
B. It allows for better policy responses towards pandemics or natural disasters.
C. Federal governments have at least two levels of government that allows for
sharing powers and responsibilities between different levels of government.
D. All the above
Answer: (D) All the above
Solution: Federalism leads to the sharing of powers and responsibilities between

different levels of government: at the central, state, or regional levels. Federalism
also guarantees some level of autonomy to territorial units such as states, regions, or
provinces. It allows for better policy responses towards pandemics or natural
disasters as smaller territorial units of government are more aware of their needs
and challenges in dealing with a pandemic or a natural disaster. Federalism
disperses access to power, wealth, and resources more widely to different territorial
groups. Thus, federalism is a safeguard against abuses of power. It limits the power
of all governing institutions, thereby preventing any one person or institution from
having too much power.
Q34
Which of the following is/are correct with respect to land resources in India?
I. The percentage of net sown area within the total land area is almost the
same in all the states and union territories in India.
II. The forest area of the country is far less than the desired 33 percent of
geographical area as outlined in the National Forest Policy, 1952.
III. When compared to 1960–61, the current land under non-agricultural uses
(including settlements, roads, railways, and industries) has increased
significantly.
Options:
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Only II
D. Only III
Answer: (B) II and III
Solution:
● The percentage of net sown area within the total land is not the same in all
the states and union territories in India. For example, it is over 80 percent of
the total area in Punjab and Haryana while it is less than 10 percent in
Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
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Note: This statement is extreme, and we cannot expect the same level of net
sown area in all the states and union territories.
● The forest area of the country is far less than the desired 33 percent of
geographical area as outlined in the National Forest Policy,1952. As of 2019,
it is 21.67%.
● According to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Ministry of
Agriculture, 2017, the land under non-agricultural uses increased from 4.95
percent in 1960–61 to 8.7 percent in 2014–15.
Note: This statement is logical as there has been an increase in the

non-agricultural uses of land like development of roads, railways, etc. So,
we can consider this to be correct.
Q35 With respect to primitive farming, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
I. Primitive subsistence farming is more prominent in eastern and northeastern

states.
II. It is a profitable form of farming practice because the input cost is very low.
III. It is widely accepted because of its environmental sustainability.
Options:
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and III
D. Only III
Answer: (A) Only I
Solution:
● Statement I is correct. Primitive subsistence farming is more prominent in

eastern and northeastern states such as Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and
Chhattisgarh.
● Statement II is wrong. Though the input cost is very low, the profitability of
this farming practice is low because the productivity is very low.
● Statement III is wrong.
It is not widely accepted because:
a. It is not environmentally sustainable.

b. It is not profitable.
c. It needs more land.
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Q36 Match the items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
I. Coffee 1. Assam
II. Tea 2. Lateritic soil
III. Cashew 3. Regur soil
IV. Cotton 4. Karnataka
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
A. I-1, II-4, III-3, IV-2

B. I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2
C. I-1, II-4, III-2, IV-3
D. I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3
Answer: (D) I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3
Solution:
● Assam is the largest producer of tea. Around 50 percent of total tea is

produced in Assam.
● Karnataka is the largest producer of coffee and contributes around 70
percent of total coffee production in India.
● Regur soil is also called as black soil and it is more suitable for cotton
cultivation.
● Laterite soil is suitable for the cultivation of cashew.
Note: Laterite soil is also suitable for tea and coffee cultivation, but cashew is a
more appropriate match when compared to other matches.
Q37 Identify the crop which satisfies the given conditions:
I. It is a cash crop.
II. It is predominantly grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.
III. It requires 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
Options:
A. Cotton
B. Maize
C. Wheat
D. Rice
Answer: (A) Cotton
Solution:
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● Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan
plateau. It requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free
days, and bright sunshine for its growth.
● It is a Kharif crop and requires 6–8 months to mature.
● Major cotton producing states are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana, and
UP.
Note: Alternate method to find the answer: Except cotton, all are food crops. This
eliminates all the options except cotton from statement I itself.
Q38 Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the predominance of
cultivation of rabi crops in northern India?
A. Existence of large-scale farmers

B. Presence of distinct winter climate
C. Market demand of cities
D. Availability of huge water resources
Answer: (B) Presence of distinct winter climate
Solution: South India is influenced by maritime presence, so the winter is not

prominent in southern India. This is not the case in North India, so the rabi crops are
predominant in northern India.
Q39 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The idea of development is the same for all the people.
Reason (R): What may be development for some may even be destructive for
others.

Answer: (D) A is false, but R is true.
Solution: Development may mean different things for different people. Sometimes,
the aspirations of some may conflict with the aspirations of others. It may even be
destructive for others.
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Q40 Read the following table and question carefully.
Countries Monthly income of its citizens in 2020 (in Rupees)
I II III IV V
Country A 4,000 1,500 12,500 22,000 5,000
Country B 700 600 500 700 42,500
Country C 9,300 9,100 8,700 9,500 8,400
Mohan has job offers from three different countries. He has to choose one of the
given countries mentioned in the table. All his offer letters say that he will be paid
the average income of the country he chooses to work in. After calculating the
average income of the countries, he chooses to work in country B.
Identify the reason for which Mohan has chosen country B.
A. Most of its citizens have a lower income than him.

B. The total income of its citizens is higher than the other countries.
C. He receives twice the salary offered in country A.
D. It has the most equitable distribution of income.
Answer: (A) Most of its citizens will have lower income than his.
Solution: The average income of countries A, B, and C is the same. However,

country B has a vast disparity in the distribution of income. This means that most of
the citizens in country B get less than the average income of the country.
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Q41 Given below is the profile of a person. Read the following data and answer the
question.
Name: Sanjay
Age: 21
Weight: 32 kg
Height: 150 cm
Analyse the data of the person given above and select the most suitable option
from the following:
A. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m2, and he is nourished.

B. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m2, and he is undernourished.
C. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m2, and he is nourished.
D. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m2, and he is overweight.
Answer: (B) BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m2, and he is undernourished.
Solution: Weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in metres gives the
Body Mass Index (BMI).
Given, Weight = 32 kg
Height = 150 cm = 1.5 m
BMI = 32/(1.5)2
BMI = 14.2 kg/m2
A person with a BMI of less than 18.5 kg/m2 is considered to be undernourished,

and a person above the BMI of 25 kg/m2 is considered to be overweight.
Q42 Read the following statements. Which of the following practices can help in
achieving sustainability in development?
I. Using energy-efficient electric appliances

II. Shifting to the use of organic pesticides
III. Increasing the use of fossil fuels
IV. Using rainwater harvesting techniques
A. I and II
B. I and III
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C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, and IV
Answer: (D) I, II, and IV
Solution: Scientists have been warning that the present types and levels of
development are not sustainable. However, development can also happen in
sustainable ways. Using energy-efficient appliances such as LED bulbs, shifting to
organic farming, reducing fossil fuel usage, and harvesting rainwater are a few
steps towards sustainable development.
Q43 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The tertiary sector is the largest producing sector in India.
Reason (R): The tertiary sector employs the largest share of the Indian population.

Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false.
Solution: The tertiary sector has become the largest producing sector in India,
replacing the primary sector. However, the primary sector still employs the largest
share of the population in India.
Q44 Raju dropped out of his higher secondary school to help his mother and father in
the field. Though his additional labour made no impact on the farm output, he is
proud to be employed. Which type of employment is this?
A. Seasonal employment
B. Temporary employment
C. Underemployment
D. Part-time employment
Answer: (C) Underemployment
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Solution: Underemployment or disguised unemployment is a situation where
people apparently work but are not fully employed. The primary sector employs
more people than is needed, and this has resulted in underemployment.
Q45 The following table gives the contribution to the GDP in rupees (crores) of a country
by the three sectors:
Primary sector Secondary sector Tertiary sector
2010 40,000 70,000 90,000
2020 80,000 1,20,000 3,00,000
Choose the correct option.
A. The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country increased from
45% in 2010 to 60% in 2020.
B. The share of the primary sector in the GDP of the country increased from
16% in 2010 to 20% in 2020.
C. The primary sector of the country is gaining more importance in recent
years.
D. The share of the secondary sector in the GDP of the country increased from
35% in 2010 to 24% in 2020.
Answer: (A) The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country increased
from 45% in 2010 to 60% in 2020.
Solution: Adding the value of all the three sectors gives GDP.
Therefore, GDP in 2010 = 40,000 + 70,000 + 90,000 = 2,00,000

GDP in 2020 = 80,000 + 1,20,000 + 3,00,000 = 5,00,000
Share of primary sector in the GDP in 2010 = (40,000/2,00,000)* 100 = 20%

Share of primary sector in the GDP in 2020 = (80,000/5,00,000)* 100 = 16%
Share of secondary sector in the GDP in 2010 = (70,000/2,00,000)* 100 = 35%

Share of secondary sector in the GDP in 2020 = (1,20,000/5,00,000)* 100 = 24%
Share of tertiary sector in the GDP in 2010 = (90,000/2,00,000)* 100 = 45%

Share of tertiary sector in the GDP in 2020 = (3,00,000/5,00,000)* 100 = 60%
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The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country has increased in a
decade. However, the shares of primary and secondary sectors in the GDP have
decreased.
Q46 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Assertion (A): The development of primary and secondary sectors may lead to the
development of the tertiary sector.
Reason (R): The development of primary and secondary sectors leads to an
increase in the demand for services such as transport, communication, trade,
banking, storage, and many more.

Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Solution of A.
Solution: The development in agriculture and manufacturing will lead to an increase

in demand for more services. In fact, one of the reasons behind the growing
importance of the service sector in India is the developments in agriculture and
manufacturing.
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Q47 to 52 are based on this case study
Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the ideology
of liberalism. The term liberalism derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new
middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the
law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French
Revolution, liberalism stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution
and representative government through parliament. Nineteenth century liberals also
stressed the inviolability of private property.
Yet, equality before law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. In revolutionary
France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and
to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men. Men without property and all
women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all
adult males enjoy suffrage. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage
and reduced women to the status of a minor, subjecting them to the authority of men who
were their fathers and husbands. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries,
women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political
rights.
Q47 For a long time, women in France did not have suffrage.

B. This statement cannot be verified.
C. This statement is false.
D. It was men in France who never had suffrage rights.
Answer: (A) This statement is true.
Solution: After the French Revolution of 1789, the republican government took over.
At this time, all adult males enjoyed suffrage, until Napoleon took over and
non-propertied men lost their voting rights. However, women fought for equal political
rights, and it was only in 1946 that the French women won the right to vote.
Q48 In post-revolutionary France, the concept of liberalism stood for absolute monarchy.
A. This statement is false.

B. This is true for the USA at the time, not France.
C. This statement is true.
D. This statement cannot be verified.
Answer: (A) This statement is false.
Solution: Liberalism stood for the end of autocracy, clerical privileges, a constitution,
and a representative government.
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Q49 Which of the following is true about suffrage rights in France?
A. There were no suffrage rights in France during Napoleon’s rule.

B. The Napoleonic Code suppressed only the rights of men.
C. Women were never given voting rights.
D. There was always universal suffrage in France.
Answer: (C) Women were never given voting rights.
Solution: After the French Revolution of 1789, the Liberal era began, but that did not
mean equality before law. Women were denied the right to vote or contest elections.
During the nineteenth and twentieth centuries, women organised various movements
demanding equal political rights.
Q50 During the rule of Napoleon, the status of women was reduced to that of a minor.

B. This statement is false.
C. This statement cannot be verified.
D. There were no conservatives in France during this time.
Answer: (A) This statement is true.
Solution: The Napoleonic Code reduced the status and denied voting rights for
non-propertied men and all women. However, the overall status of men in society
was higher than women as the Code reduced the status of women to that of minors,
subjecting them to a male authority, who was generally a husband or a father.
Q51 Choose the right option based on the following statements:

I: The concept of liberalism introduced universal adult suffrage in France.
II: All male and female adults had voting rights since the republican government took
over in 1791.
A. I is true, but II is false.

B. Both I and II are true.
C. II is true, but I is false.
D. Both I and II are false.
Answer: (D) Both I and II are false.

Solution: After the French Revolution of 1789, the liberal era began, but that did not
mean equality before law. In the case of suffrage, the right to vote and to get elected
was given only to men with property; men without property and all women were
excluded. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy
suffrage, though women did not.
190
Q52 Why was liberalism attached closely with national unity in the early nineteenth
century?
I. It stood for political and economic freedom.

II. It stood for the end of the autocratic rule of monarchs.
III. It stood for universal adult suffrage.
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. Only I
D. II and III
Answer: (B) I and II
Solution: Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth-century Europe were closely

allied to the ideology of liberalism. For the new middle classes that emerged after the
fall of King Louis XVI, liberalism stood for freedom for individuals and equality of all
before the law. In political terms, liberalism emphasised the concept of government
by consent and it stood for freedom, the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a
constitution, and a representative government through parliament.
In economic terms, liberalism meant freedom of markets, that is, the government
could not impose restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
191
Q53 to 58 are based on this case study
The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any

region,
but mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in
technology and institutions may hinder its fullest utilization.Resources are vital for
any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-utilisation of
resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To overcome
these problems, resource conservation efforts like Sustainable Development and
Resource planning at various levels should be implemented.
Resource Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of

resources.There
are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some
other resources.For example Arunachal Pradesh has an abundance of water
resources but lacks infrastructural development.This calls for balanced resource
planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.
Q53 In a survey it was discovered that a region has huge reserves of oil and gas, which is
yet to be extracted and used.
For such a scenario, predict how this discovery can affect the development journey
of that region.
A. The region will witness rapid development, regardless of any other condition
as oil and gas are backbone of the economy
B. The region will witness development only if people just have the technology
at hand which can help in successful extraction of the oil and gas.
C. The region will witness development only if the region has strong institutions
to help in the distribution and proper utilisation of the resources.
D. The region will witness development if it has good reserves of the resource,
technology for its extraction and strong institutions for its utilization and
distribution.
Answer: (D) The region will witness development if it has good reserves of the
resource technology for its extraction and strong institutions for its utilization and
distribution.
Solution: In any region, mere availability of resources won't guarantee development

of that region. It also must have technology to extract or transform that resource and
strong institutions to properly use and distribute it. Thus, all the three components
are required.
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Option A says “regardless of any other condition” thus it can be eliminated. Option B
and C uses the words “Just” which indicates that even with just two components
development can happen, which is again wrong.
Q54 Sustainable development is a principle which ensures:
A. Development should take place without damaging the environment, and

ensuring not to compromise with the needs of future generations.
B. The environmental losses caused by the development activities should be
financially compensated by those who reaped the benefits from such
development
C. There will be a huge amount of environmental loss in initial phases of
development, but it will be reduced in the later phases.
D. Technology developed by the present generation will be passed on to the
future generation
Answer: (A) Development should take place without damaging the environment, and
Solution: Sustainable economic development means development should take

place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not
compromise with the needs of the future generations.
Option B and C are wrong because they assume there will be environmental losses if
development happens. This is against the principle of sustainable development,
which says that development can happen without damaging the environment.
Q55 The concept of Sustainable Development was first introduced _____.
A. at the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992

B. at the Club of Rome in 1968
C. by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987
D. by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful.
Answer: (C) by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987
Solution: Development should take place without damaging the environment, and
Brundtland Commission Report, 1987 report introduced the concept of Sustainable
Development’ and advocated it as a means for resource conservation.
Q56 The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. Resource
planning can help in the development of this region by ______.
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A. utilising its cultural heritage and developing the tourism industry around it
B. utilising the abundance of available water resources
C. utilising the precious minerals found in this region
D. All of the above.
Answer: (A) utilising its cultural heritage and developing tourism industry around it
Solution: Ladakh has a very rich cultural heritage which can be used for attracting
tourists, but it lacks the water and minerals.
Q57 A region having coal reserves undergoes mining operations by a private company
over many years. What could be the potential effects of such an activity?
A. Degradation of land.
B. Degradation of water resources of the nearby areas.
C. A huge change in standard of living for the miners and workers who get
employment by working in the mines.
D. Profits generated by the mining activity are used solely for the development of
the local people.
Select the appropriate options:
A. I only
B. I, II and IV
C. II and III
D. I and II
Answer: (D) I and II
Solution: Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete, leaving
deep scars and traces of over-burdening, thus causing the degradation of land.
Mining operations also produce a lot of harmful chemicals that can pollute the nearby
water sources.
Although the local people can get employment in the mines, most of the profits
generated by mining operations are generally appropriated by the companies running
these operations, and local people get very little share of it. This causes a
socio-economic disparity between the different sections of society.
Q58 Resource planning is best suited for countries that _________.
A. have all kinds of resources available in all parts of the country
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B. have no resources at all and depend on other countries for them
C. have some regions blessed with certain resources but at the same time lack
in some other resources
Answer: (C) Have some regions which are blessed with certain resources but at the
same time lack in some other types of resources.
Solution: Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources,
especially in countries having enormous diversity in the availability of resources.
This means there are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms
of the availability of certain resources and there are some regions which have acute
shortage of some vital resources.
Option A is wrong because when all the places of a country have all the resources
then there is hardly any need for such rigorous planning.
195
Q59 Observe the map of India given above and identify the type of soil found in the
regions marked in red.
A. Alluvial soil
B. Laterite soil
C. Red and Yellow soil
D. Black soil
Answer: (B) Laterite soil
196
Q60 In the map of India given above, point A represents a dam across the Narmada
river. Identify the name of the dam from the options given below.
A. Hirakud Dam
B. Sardar Sarovar Dam
C. Bhakra Nangal Dam
D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
Answer: (B) Sardar Sarovar Dam
197

BYJU'S All India Mock Board Exams: CBSE Grade X - Term 1 2021-22 Mock Papers Set - 1

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BYJU'S All India Mock Board Exams: CBSE Grade X - Term 1 2021-22 Mock Papers Set - 1

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BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams

CBSE Grade X - Term 1

Time Allowed: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40

Q1 The decimal expansion of an irrational number is:

A. Terminating and recurring

Q4 Which of the following is not a rule of similarity of triangles?

Q7 The distance between points (3, 3) and (-1, 6) is ___ units.

Q14 The LCM of 21, 35, and 40 is ___.

Q16 The number of solutions of the pair of equations 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 7 = 0 and

Q21 Which of the following is a polynomial?

Q26 The LCM of two co-primes is ___.

𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠

Q29 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 (1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴)(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴) =____

Q31 1 2sin𝛽 − 3cos𝛽

Q32 The HCF of 45 and 60 is ___.

Q36 The solution of the pair of equations

A. Add water to the acid slowly with constant stirring.

Q2 Based on the information provided in the given statements, arrange the

Q4 Adding a substance X to the beaker shown completes the given electric

Q5 Which of the following options represents a pair of oxides correctly matched

A. CO2, Na2O [Acidic oxide]

D + Hydrochloric acid → Salt + Water + Gas T

Which of the given options correctly represents compound D and gas T,

Option Type of reaction Nature of slaked lime

Q8 The reaction of iron with steam takes place as follows:

For the equation to be balanced, what will be the value of (x + y + p + q)?

Which of the given cases will form a white precipitate?

A. (i) and (ii)

A. The reaction follows the law of conservation of mass.

A. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta →

A. By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food

A. Reabsorb water into the blood

A. (i) Oesophagus: Mixes food with digestive juices

Option Plant (i) Plant (ii)

i. a) Contracts and moves

ii. b) Ensures that the air passage

iii. c) Moves upwards and outwards

iv. d) Provides a surface where the

A. i. – a); ii. – b); iii. – c); iv. – d)

A. At the principal focus of the lens

A. P is optically denser than Q.

A. Only yellow colour

Which of the following materials can be used to manufacture the bell?

A. NaCl NaOCl2 Cl2

B. Na2CO3 NaHCO3 CO2

C. NaHCO3 Na2CO3 CO2

D. CH3COONa Na2CO3 CO2

Q29 Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction?

A. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

Observation Reaction (i) Reaction (ii)

Which of the following options represents the correct observation(s)?

Questions 31 to 34 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Q31 Assertion: Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water.

Q32 Assertion: An unknown element Y is treated with water to produce a gas Z

Q33 Assertion: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and

Q34 Assertion: The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut.

A. Phenolphthalein Copper Acidic

B. Phenolphthalein Potassium Basic

C. Universal Copper Basic

D. Universal Potassium Acidic

A. Plasmodium and Amoeba

Q37 Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.

A. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll