JAIPURIAR SCHOOL,CBSE

SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL

SANPADA, NAVI MUMBAI
SESSION-2021-22
PRELIM-1TERM-1 BOARD EXAMINATION
Sub: Chemistry (043)

Class: XII
Time Allotted :90 Minutes Max: Marks :35
Date: 23/10/2021
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1.The question paper contains three sections.
2.Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking
SECTION A
This section consists of 25multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any
20 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY
first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1.Which of the following is not chiral?
(A) 2- Hydroxy propanoic acid
(B) 2 – Butanol
(C) 2, 3 Dibromo butane
(D) 3- Bromo pentane
2. The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face centred unit cell is _____.
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12

3.In which pair most efficient packing is present?

(A) Hcp and bcc
(B) Hcp and ccp
(C) Bcc and ccp
(D)Bcc and simple unit cell.
4. Schottky defect is observed when __________
(A) Some cations move from their lattice site to the interstitial sites.
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(B) Equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice.
(C) Some lattice sites are occupied by electron.
(D) Some impurity is present in the lattice.
5.In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B
occupies the face centred positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face
centred points, the formula of the compound is
(A) A2B
(B) AB2
(C) A2B3
(D) A2B5
6. Lattice defect per 1015 NaCl is 1. What is the number of lattice defects in a mole of
NaCl?
(A) 6.02 × 10 23
(B) 6.02 × 108
(C) 1014
(D) None of these
7. AgCl is crystallized from molten AgCl containing a little CdCl2. The solid obtained
will have
(A) cationic vacancies equal to number of Cd2+ ions incorporated.
(B) cationic vacancies equal to double the number of Cd2+ ions.
(C) anionic vacancies.
(D) neither cationic nor anionic vacancies.
8. Which of the following statements not true for the amorphous and crystalline solids?
(A) Amorphous solids are isotropic and crystalline solids are anisotropic.
(B) Amorphous solids are short range order and crystalline solids are long range order.
(C) Amorphous solids melt at characteristic temperature while crystalline solids melt
over a range of temperature.
(D) Amorphous solids have irregular shape and crystalline solids have a geometrical
shape.
9. Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows:
(A) SN 1 mechanism
(B) SN 2 mechanism
(C) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction

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(D) Saytzeff rule.

10. Match the items given in column I and column II.

Column I Column II
i) Saturated solution a) Solution having same osmotic pressure at a
given temperature as that of given solution.
ii) Binary solution b) A solution whose osmotic pressure is less
than that of another.
iii) Isotonic solution c) Solution with two components
iv) Hypotonic solution d) A solution which contains maximum
amount of solute that can be dissolved in a
given amount of solvent at given
temperature.
v) Solid solution e) A solution whose osmotic pressure is more
than that of another.
vi) Hypertonic solution f) A solution in solid phase

(A) i) →a; ii) →c; iii) → d; iv) →b; v) →f; vi) → e

(B) i) →e; ii) →f; iii) → a; iv) →b; v) →c; vi) →d
(C) i) →d; ii) →c iii) → a; iv) →b; v) →f; vi) →e
(D) i) →c; ii) →b; iii) → a; iv) →d; v) →f; vi) →e

11. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickles shrivels
because
(A) it gains water due to osmosis.
(B) it loses water due to reverse osmosis.
(C) it gains water due to reverse osmosis.
(D) it loses water due to osmosis.

12. Value of Henry’s constant

(A) increases with increase in temperature
(B) decreases with increase in temperature
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(C) remains constant
(D) first increases, then decreases
13. 4 L of 0.02M aq. Solution of NaCl was diluted by adding one litre of water. The
molality of the resultant solution is-
(A) 0.004
(B) 0.008
(C) 0.012
(D) 0.016

14. 2.5 g of ethanoic acid is dissolved in 75 g of benzene. What will be the mole fraction
of ethanoic acid in benzene?
(A) 0.0399
(B) 0.0400
(C) 0.0415
(D) 0.0413

15. 18 g of glucose C6H12O6 is dissolved in 1Kg of water in a saucepan. At what

temperature will water boil at 1.013 bar? Given, Kb = 0.52 K Kg/mol
(A) 373.15 K
(B) 372.15 K
(C) 373.102 K
(D) 373.202 K

16. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and
para halo compounds. The reaction is.
(A) Electrophilic elimination reaction.
(B) Electrophilic substitution reaction.
(C) Free radical addition reaction.
(D) Nucleophilic substitution reaction.

17. Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic
structure?
(A) Glucose forms pentaacetate

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(B) Glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine to form an oxime
(C) Penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine
(D) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic acid.
18. Identify Y in the following reaction-

19. The given structure (I) and (II) represent configuration of the simplest sugar
glyceraldehyde. Which of the following statements is not correct for the structures?

(A) I represents D-form while II represents L-form of glyceraldehyde

(B) The sugars having same configuration as D- glyceraldehyde are designated as D-
sugars.
(C) Natural glucose and fructose are D-forms.
(D) ‘D’ is dextrorotatory while ‘L’ is laevorotatory enantiomer.

20. Catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen, because of

(A) single N–N bond is weaker.
(B) single N–N bond is stronger.
(C) ability to form pi bonds by N atoms.
(D) none of the above.

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21. Which of the following statement is false?
(A) Radon is obtained from the decay of radium.
(B) Helium is an inert gas.
(C) Xenon is the most reactive among the rare gases.
(D) The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is helium

22. Name the following reaction-

(A) Williamson’s synthesis

(B) Kolbe’s reaction
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(D) Sandmeyer’s reaction

23. The correct increasing order of thermal stability of hydrides of 16th group is
(A) H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(B) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(C) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O
(D) H2S < H2Se < H2O < H2Po < H2Te

24. The shape of XeF6 is

(A) tetrahedral
(B) square planar
(C) Distorted octahedral
(D) linear.

25. Which one of the following is present as an active constituent in bleaching powder
for bleaching action?
(A) CaCl2

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(B) CaOCl2
(C) Ca(OCl)2
(D) CaO2Cl
SECTION B
This section consists of 24multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any
20 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY
first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in
water?
(A) C6H5OH
(B) C6H5CH2OH
(C) (CH3) 3COH
(D) C2H5OH

27.Which of the following on heating does not give nitrogen gas?

(A) NH3NO2
(B) NH4NO3
(C) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(D) Ba(N3)2

28. Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the reaction with ___
(A) Br2 water test.
(B) Red litmus test.
(C) Na metal test
(D) K metal test

29. Brown Ring Test is used to identify the

(A) chloride ion
(B) nitrite ion
(C) nitride ion
(D) nitrate ion

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30. Chlorine water on standing loses its yellow colour due to the formation of
(A) Cl and HOCl
(B) HCl and HOCl
(C) HOCl and HOCl2
(D) HCl and HOCl2

31. The stability of +5 oxidation state decreases and that of +3 state increases down the
group in group 15 elements due to
(A) inert pair effect
(B) decrease in ionisation enthalpy
(C) increase in size
(D) shielding effect

32. Which of the following reactions is an example of

redox reaction?

(A) XeF4 + O2F2 XeF6 + O2

(B) XeF2 + PF5 [XeF]+[PF6]–
(C) XeF6 + H2O XeOF4 + 2HF
(D) XeF6 + 2H2O XeO2F2 + 2HF

33.Write down the decreasing order of reactivity of sodium metal towards primary,
secondary and tertiary alcohols.
(A) 1 o alc < 2 o alc < 3o alc
(B) 1 o alc > 2 o alc > 3o alc
(C) 3 o alc < 1 o alc < 2o alc
(D) 3 o alc >1 o alc < 2o alc

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34. What is A in the following reaction?

35. tert- Butyl methyl ether can be prepared by

(A) treating tert-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide
(B) treating sodium tert-butoxide with methyl iodide
(C) heating together a mixture of tert- butyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
(D) None of the above

36. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of

AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?
(A) Cl–
(B) Cl+
(C) AlCl3
(D) [AlCl4] –

37. Among the following four compounds,

i) phenol ii) methyl phenol iii) m-nitro phenol iv) p- nitro phenol
The acidity order is
(A) iv > iii > i > ii
(B) i > ii > iv > iii
(C) iv > iii > ii > i
(D) ii > iv > iii > i

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38. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is:

(A) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(B) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene.
(C) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene.
(D) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene

39. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN 1 reaction most readily?
(A) (CH3)3C—F
(B) (CH3)3C—Cl
(C) (CH3)3C—Br
(D) (CH3)3C—I

40. Curdling of milk is an example of:

(A) breaking of peptide linkage.
(B) hydrolysis of lactose.
(C) breaking of protein into amino acids.
(D) denaturation of protein.

41. Glucose and fructose are:

(A) isomers of each other.
(B) Homologous of each other.
(C) anomers of each other.
(D) enantiomers of each other.

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42. The IUPAC name of anisole is
(A) 2-methyltoluene
(B) Methyl phenyl ether
(C) Methoxybenzene
(D)Ethoxy benzene.

43. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester

linkage. Between which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are these linkages
present?
(A) 5’ and 3’
(B) 1’ and 5’
(C) 5’ and 5’
(D) 3’ and 3’

44. Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures, viz. α-helix
and β-pleated sheet structure. -α helix structure of protein is stabilised by:
(A) Peptide bonds.
(B) van der Waals forces.
(C) Hydrogen bonds.
(D) Dipole-dipole interactions.

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is

given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

45. Assertion: An aqueous solution of NaCl freezes below 273 K.

Reason: Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of the pure solvent.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.

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46. Assertion: The Bond angle in ethers is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle.

Reason: There is a repulsion between the two bulky (-R) groups.

(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.

47.Assertion: In monohaloarenes, further electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho

and para positions.

Reason: Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.

(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.

48. Assertion: Ortho and para-nitrophenol can be separated by steam distillation.

Reason: Ortho isomer associates through intermolecular hydrogen bonding while para
isomer associates through intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.

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49. Assertion: AgCl shows Frenkel defect while NaCl does not.

Reason: Frenkel defect is shown when anionic vacancies are occupied by unpaired
electrons.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
SECTION C
This section consists of 6multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any
5. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be
considered.
50. Which of the following statements is not true about glucose?
(A) It is an Aldohexose.
(B) On heating with HI, it forms n-hexane.
(C) It does not give 2,4-DNP test.
(D) It is present in furanose form.

51. Which one is not correct statement?

(A) Nitrogen does not form pentahalide due to non-availability of the d orbitals in its
valence shell
(B) Pentahalides are more covalent than trihalides.
(C) In case of nitrogen, only NF3 is known to be stable
(D) Trihalides except BiF3 are predominantly ionic in nature.

52. The correct order of acid strength is

(A)HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(B) HClO3 < HClO < HClO2 < HClO4
(C) HClO < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO4
(D) HClO2 < HClO4 < HClO < HClO2

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Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
In hexagonal system of crystals, a frequently encountered arrangement of atoms is
described as a hexagonal prism. Here, the top and bottom of the cell are regular
hexagons and three atoms are sandwiched in between them. A space -filling model of
this structure, called hexagonal close packed(hcp), is constituted of a sphere on a flat
surface surrounded in the same plane by six identical spheres as closely as possible.
Three spheres are then placed over the first layer so that they touch each other and
represent the second layer. Each one of these three spheres touches three spheres of
bottom layer. Finally, the second layer is covered with a third layer that is identical to
the bottom layer in relative position.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer:

53.The number of atoms in this hcp unit cell is

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 15

54.The volume of this hcp unit cell is

(A) 24√2r 3
(B) 16√2r3
(C) 12√2r3
(D) 64/3√3r3
55.In hexagonal close packing of spheres in three -dimensions
(A) in one unit cell there are 12 octahedral voids and all are completely inside the unit
cell.
(B) in one unit cell there are 6 octahedral voids and all are completely inside the unit
cell.
(C) in one unit cell there are 6 octahedral voids, out of which three are completely
inside the unit cell and other three are from contribution of octahedral voids which are
partially inside the unit cell.
(D) in one unit cell there are 12 tetrahedral voids and all are completely inside the unit
cell.
***********

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