Chapter 3

Lagrangian Mechanics II

Chapter contents:
●
Generalized Forces
●
Lagrange’s Equations
●
Non-uniqueness of Lagrangian
●
Reference Frames
●
Velocity-Dependent Potentials
1
 Generalized Forces
We have eliminated the constraint force F i , but the D’Alembert principle
⃗ (c)
is not yet a useful equation of motion because δ ⃗r i are not all independent.
For a holonomic system of Np particles and Nc constraint equations,
we have f j (⃗r 1 , ... , ⃗r N , t) ( j=1, 2,... , N c )
p

=> True degree of freedom: N =3 N p −N c

As discussed before, we can introduce a set of generalized coordinates
{qα; α = 1, 2,…, N} so that
⃗r i =⃗r i (q1, q2,. .. , q N , t ) (i=1,2,. .. , N p )
Our task is to replace δ ⃗r i by δ q α in the D’Alembert principle:
Np

∑ ⃗ i − ⃗p˙ i )⋅δ ⃗r i =0
(F
(a)
2

i=1
 ⃗r i =⃗r i (q 1, q 2,. .. , q N , t ) => virtual displacement
N
∂ ⃗r i There is no time variation term δt
δ ⃗r i = ∑ δ qα because the virtual displacement
α=1 ∂ q α is defined at a fixed time

Consider the first term in the D’Alembert principle:

Np Np N
ri
∑
i=1
⃗ (a)
F r i=
i ⋅δ ⃗ ∑
i=1
⃗ (a)
F i ⋅
(∑ α=1
∂⃗
∂ qα
δ qα
)
i = particle index N Np α = generalized-coordinate
(runs from 1 to Np) = ∑ ∑
α=1
N
( i=1
⃗ (a)
F i ⋅
∂⃗ri
∂ qα )
δ qα index (runs from 1 to N)

= ∑Q α δ qα
α=1
where we have defined the generalized force
Np
ri
(a) ∂ ⃗
Q α= ∑ Fi ⋅
⃗
∂ qα
i=1

Since qα needs not have the dimension of length, hence Qα needs not
3
have the dimension of force.
Example: Pendulum of fixed length

As we have seen before, the true degree

of freedom of this system is one. We can
choose θ to be the generalized coordinate.

Position of particle: ⃗r =l sin θ x^ −l cos θ ^y

∂ ⃗r
=> =l cos θ x^ +l sin θ ^y
∂θ

Applied force: m ⃗g =−mg ^y

=> Generalized force associate with θ:

∂ ⃗r
Q θ=m ⃗g⋅ =−m g l sin θ
∂θ
(What is the physical meaning of Qθ?)
4
Now consider the second term in the D’Alembert principle:
Np Np

∑ ⃗p˙ ⋅δ ⃗r =∑ (m ⃗r¨ )⋅δ ⃗r

i i i i i
i=1 i=1
Np N N Np

= ∑
i=1
r¨ i )⋅
(mi ⃗
(∑
β=1
∂⃗ri
∂ qβ ) ∑ (∑
δ qβ =
β=1 i=1
¨
mi ⃗
r i⋅
∂⃗
)
ri
∂ qβ
δ qβ

It can be shown from the above equation that (Homework)

Np N
Total kinetic energy:
d ∂T ∂T Np
∑
i=1
p˙ i⋅δ ⃗
⃗ r i= ∑
β=1
[ ( ) ] −
dt ∂ q̇ β ∂ qβ
δ qβ
T ≡∑
i
1
2
2
mi v i

The D’Alembert principle now becomes

N
d ∂T ∂T
∑[ ( )
dt ∂ q̇ α
−
∂ qα
−Q α δ q α=0
] We have replaced the
dummy index β by α
α=1

5
Since the generalized coordinates {qα} are independent, each individual
term vanishes:
d ∂T ∂T
( )
dt ∂ q̇ α
−
∂ qα
=Q α (α=1, 2, ... , N )

Np Np
∂⃗ri 1
where Qα=∑ ⃗ (a)
F i ⋅
∂ qα
; ∑
T≡
i
2
m i v 2i
i=1

This set of N ODE will give the motion for any holonomic system. The
number of unknowns {qα} equals the number of degrees of freedom,
unlike Newton’s vector mechanics, in which the constraint forces are
also unknowns and more equations are needed.

6
 Lagrange’s Equations
Let us now consider the important case where the applied forces F ⃗ (a)
i
are conservative so that there exists a potential energy function V:
F i =−∇ i V (⃗
⃗ (a) r 1 , ... , ⃗r N p)
Gradient of V with respect to the
coordinates of the i-th particle

In Cartesian coordinates: ∂V ^ ∂V ^ ∂V ^
∇i V ≡ i+ j+ k
∂ xi ∂ y i ∂ zi

The generalized force is given by

Np Np
∂⃗ri ∂⃗r
Q α= ∑ ⃗ (a)
F i ⋅
∂ qα
=− ∑ ∇ i V⋅ i
∂ qα
i=1 i=1

7
For holonomic system, the coordinates of the particles can be expressed
in terms of {qα} (and possibly also explicitly on time t):
⃗r i =⃗r i (q 1, q2,. .. , q N , t) (i=1, 2,... , N p )
Np Np
ri
∂⃗ ∂V ^ ∂V ^ ∂V ^ ∂ xi ^ ∂ y i ^ ∂ zi ^
=> ∑
i=1
∇ i V⋅
∂ qα
= ∑(
i=1
∂ xi
i+
∂ yi
j+
∂ zi )(
k⋅
∂ qα
i+
∂ qα
j+
∂ qα
k )
Np
∂ V ∂ x i ∂ V ∂ yi ∂ V ∂ zi
= ∑( + +
∂ xi ∂ qα ∂ y i ∂ qα ∂ zi ∂ q α )
i=1
∂V
=
∂ qα

Hence, if the applied forces on the particles are conservative, the

generalized forces can be expressed as
Np
∂⃗r ∂V
Q α =− ∑ ∇ i V⋅ i =−
∂ qα ∂ qα
i=1

8
Recall that we have the following general equations of motion:
d ∂T ∂T
( )
dt ∂ q̇ α
−
∂ qα
=Q α (α=1, 2, ... , N )

For conservative applied forces, we then have

d ∂T
( )
dt ∂ q̇ α
− ∂ (T −V )=0
∂ qα

Assume that the potential energy function does not depend explicitly
on generalized velocities:
∂V We will deal with the case
=0 for all α when V depends explicitly
∂ q̇α on velocities later

We can rewrite the equations of motion as

d ∂
(T −V ) − ∂ (T −V )=0
[
dt ∂ q̇ α ]∂ qα

9
 We have assumed that V does
Definition: Lagrangian not depend explicitly on q̇ α

L(qα , q̇α , t)≡T (qα , q̇ α ,t )−V (qα , t)

The Lagrangian function is generally a function of generalized coordinates

and velocities (and possibly also explicitly on time t). The equations of
motion now become
d ∂L ∂L
( )
dt ∂ q̇ α
−
∂ qα
=0 (α=1,2, ... , N ) Lagrange’s equations

This is the fundamental equation in Lagrangian mechanics (also called

Euler-Lagrange’s equations).

Approach to solve a given problem in this formulation:

1. Choose a set of generalized coordinates {qα}
2. Construct the Lagrangian function L in terms of qα and q̇ α (and possibly
also on time t)
3. Solve the N Lagrange’s equations
10
 The physical content of the Lagrange’s equations and Newton’s
laws are the same. But the Lagrangian formulation has the following
advantages:
●
The unknown constraint forces do not appear in the equations.
● We can choose any set of generalized coordinates {qα}. The Lagrange’s
equations (being scalar equations) take the same form independent of
the choice of {qα}.
(As we have seen before, in Newton’s vector mechanics, the component form of the
Newton’s second law can be very different in different coordinate systems)
●
We only need to deal with a scalar function L instead of vectors like
⃗ , ⃗a etc.
F
Remark:
We have defined the Lagrangian function L for systems with conservative
forces (so that V can be defined) and the problem is reduced to solving
the Lagrange’s equations. For systems with non-conservative forces, the
Lagrange’s equations do not apply. But we can still solve the more general
equations:
d ∂T ∂T
( )
dt ∂ q̇ α
−
∂ qα
=Q α 11
Example: Pendulum with fixed length

Let us illustrate the application of the

Lagrange’s equations in this simple problem.
As discussed before, there is only one degree
of freedom and we can choose θ to be the
generalized coordinate. The original Cartesian
coordinates of the particle is given by
x=l sin θ , y=−l cos θ , z=0

Kinetic energy: T = 1 m( ẋ 2 + ẏ 2 + ż2)= 1 m l 2 θ̇2

2 2
Potential energy: V =−mg l cos θ We have defined V(y=0) = 0
1 2 2
Lagrangian: L(θ , θ̇)≡T −V = m l θ̇ +mg l cos θ
2
Lagrange’s equation:
(This is of course the same equation that
=> θ̈=− g sin θ
d ∂L ∂L you obtained by applying Newton’s 2nd law
( )
dt ∂ θ̇
−
∂θ
=0
l to the particle in elementary mechanics
courses) 12
Example:
Consider a free particle moving on a 2D plane. Let
us express the Lagrangian in different coordinates
and write down the corresponding Lagrange’s
equations.
1
Cartesian coordinates: L= m( ẋ 2 + ẏ 2)
2 x=r cos φ , y=r sin φ
d ∂L ∂L d ∂L ∂L 2 2 2 2
ẋ + ẏ = ṙ +r φ̇
2

( )
dt ∂ ẋ
−
∂x
=0 , ( )
dt ∂ ẏ
−
∂y
=0
(Why?)

Polar coordinates: 1 2 2 2
L= m( ṙ +r φ̇ )
2
d ∂L ∂L d ∂L ∂L
( )
dt ∂ ṙ
−
∂r
=0 ,
dt( )
∂ φ̇
−
∂ φ
=0

Note: The Lagrange’s equations take the same form independent of

coordinates. 13
 Non-uniqueness of Lagrangian
In general, the Lagrangian function L is not unique for a given physical
system. Consider a system with one degree of freedom with a chosen
generalized coordinate q. Obviously, two Lagrangians different from
each other by an additive or multiplicative constant are physically
equivalent:
L '=c L or L '=L+c c=constant
L’ and L lead to the same equations of motion (Why?).
More generally, if L(q , q̇ , t) is a Lagrangian satisfying the Lagrange’s
equations, then a new Lagrangian L’ defined by
d F (q ,t )
L ' (q , q̇ ,t )≡L(q , q̇ ,t )+
dt
also satisfies the Lagrange’s equations, where F(q, t) is an arbitrary
function of q and time t (but not on q̇ ). The two Lagrangians L and L’
14
describe the same physical system.
Proof:
d F (q , t)
Using the definition L ' (q , q̇ , t)≡L(q , q̇ , t)+
dt
We have used the fact that
d ∂ L ' ∂ L' d ∂ dF dF
( )
dt ∂ q̇
− =
∂ q dt ∂ q̇
L+ ( ) ( )
dt
− ∂ L+
∂q dt
the old Lagrangian L satisfies
the Lagrange’s equation
d dF dF d ∂L ∂L
= ∂
dt ∂ q̇ dt ( ) ( )
− ∂
∂ q dt ( )
dt ∂ q̇
−
∂q
=0

The function F depends explicitly only q and t:

=> ∂F ∂F
dF= dq+ dt
∂q ∂t
dF ∂ F ∂F
Ḟ≡ = q̇+
dt ∂ q ∂t

We thus have the following partial derivatives:

2 2
∂ Ḟ ∂ F ∂ F ∂ Ḟ ∂ F
= q̇+ , =
∂ q ∂ q2 ∂q∂t ∂ q̇ ∂ q
15
 d ∂ Ḟ d ∂ F
=>
( ) ( )
=
dt ∂ q̇ dt ∂ q
2
∂ F ∂ F
( )
= ∂
∂q ∂q
q̇+
∂t ∂q

2 2 2 2
d ∂ L' ∂ L' ∂ F ∂ F ∂ F ∂ F
=>
( )
dt ∂ q̇
−
∂q
=
(
∂q
2
q̇+
∂t ∂q )(
−
∂q
2
q̇+
∂q∂t )
=0

Hence, the new Lagrangian L’ also satisfies the Lagrange’s equation.

Note: The proof can easily be generalized to systems with N degrees

of freedom {qα}.

16
 Reference Frames
Since Newton’s laws are used in the derivation of the Lagrange’s
equations, the Lagrangian L = T − V must be evaluated in an inertial
frame. However, the coordinates we choose to express T and V are
arbitrary, and can be even in a non-inertial frame. Let us illustrate the
point by considering a ball being thrown upward inside an accelerating
elevator.

y = height of the ball (mass m) relative to

the ground level
(assumed to be inertial frame)
~
y = coordinate used in the accelerating
elevator
(non-inertial frame)
17
Using the inertial-frame coordinate {y}, we have the following well-known
equations: ÿ (t)=−g We have assumed
ẏ (t)=u 0 −g t y (0)=0 ; ẏ (0)=u0
1 2
y (t)=u0 t− g t
2
In the accelerating frame, we have
~ We have assumed
y¨ (t)=−(g+a) ~
y (0)=0 ; ~
y˙ (0)=u 0
~
y˙ (t)=u 0 −(g+a)t = ẏ (t)−a t (i.e., These initial conditions mean
that the elevator accelerates from
1 2 1 2 rest at t =0. Why?)
~
y (t)=u 0 t− (g+a)t = y (t)− a t
2 2
(These results are obtained only from kinematic consideration and they are the
correct equations for the accelerating frame)

In the inertial frame, the Lagrangian is given by

1
L= m ẏ 2 −m g y
2
18
 Lagrange’s equation => ÿ (t)=−g

Using the inertial-frame coordinate, the Lagrange’s equation gives back

the correct equation of motion. However, if we want to use the non-inertial
frame coordinate and define the Lagrangian as
1 ˙2
L= m ~ y −m g ~
y
2
Lagrange’s equation => ~y¨ (t )=−g Incorrect equation of motion!

The correct way to express the Lagrangian in terms of non-inertial

frame coordinate is to start with the original Lagrangian in inertial frame
and re-express it in terms of non-inertial frame coordinates:
1 2
L= m ẏ −m g y
2
1 2 1 2
= m(~ y˙ +a t ) −m g(~
y+ at )
2 2
You can check that this Lagrangian gives the correct equation of motion:
~
y¨ (t)=−(g+a) 19
 Velocity-Dependent Potentials
In obtaining the Lagrange’s equations, we started from the general
equation of motion
d ∂T ∂T
( )
dt ∂ q̇ α
−
∂ qα
=Q α

We then assumed that the applied forces are conservative so that a

scalar potential energy function V exists and furthermore that V does
not depend explicitly on the generalized velocities q̇α.
But indeed we can relax the condition on V by noting that the Lagrange’s
equations still hold if V depends on q̇α in such a way that the generalized
force can be expressed as
∂V d ∂V
Q α =− + ( )
∂ qα dt ∂ q̇ α
where the Lagrangian is defined just as before (L = T − V). Here V is
called a generalized potential (or velocity-dependent potential). 20
Example: Charged particle in an electromagnetic field
q= charge
⃗v = velocity
Lorentz force law: F
⃗ =q( E
⃗ +⃗v × B
⃗) ⃗
E= Electric field
⃗
B=Magnetic field
In EM theory, it is useful to introduce the scalar potential Φ(⃗r ,t ) and
vector potential ⃗A (⃗r , t) so that the electric and magnetic fields can be
expressed as ∂⃗A
E =−∇ Φ−
⃗ , B⃗ =∇ × A⃗
∂t
It can be shown that the Lorentz force on the particle can be written as
∂V d ∂V
F x =− +
∂ x dt ∂ ẋ ( )
(similarly for the y- and z-components)

where we have defined a generalized potential: (Homework)

V ≡q Φ−q ⃗A⋅⃗v
We can then define the Lagrangian for a charged particle in EM field:
1 2
L≡T −V = m v −q Φ+q ⃗
A⋅⃗v
2
21
Side note: Potential formulation of electrodynamics

The theory of electromagnetism are governed by the Maxwell’s

equations. Two of the equations are
(We don’t need the other two
B =0
∇⋅⃗ equations in this discussion)
∂B
⃗
∇ × E =−
⃗
∂t
An arbitrary vector function
From vector analysis:
∇⋅B
⃗ =0 => B =∇ × A
⃗ ⃗

Putting this result into the second equation (i.e., Faraday’s law):

⃗ =− ∂ ( ∇ × A
∇ ×E ⃗) A
∂⃗
∂t
=> ∇× E+
⃗
(
∂t
=0 ) An arbitrary scalar
function

=> A
∂⃗
E+
⃗ =−∇ Φ
∂t
22