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20M_ANS.done 2007 FINAL


Welcome, Abhishek
Practice Questions

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Group : Management
2020
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Syllabus
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Test Package
Section
Code 17- 5 Full-length
Part
Papers for Dec 2020

Code 17- Operations (Q.1) Which of the following action sets best represent an action research cycle?
Management
(a) Reflect, act, plan and observe
Code 17- Ethics, (b) Plan, act, observe and reflect
Entrepreneurship, (c) Observe, plan, reflect and act
MSME, CSR (d) Act, plan, observe and reflect
Your Response :
Code 17- Marketing
Correct Answer : B
Management
Exp: Action Research term was coined by Kurt Lewin in 1944. It is a type of research which seeks radicle
Code 17- Strategic change by taking action and performing research simultaneously linked together by critical
Management reflection. Researchers reflect upon the consequences of their own questions, beliefs, assumptions,
practices with the goal of understanding, developing and improving social practices.
Code 17- Financial According to Kurt Lewin, “a comparative research on the conditions and effects of various forms of
Management social action and research leading to social action" that uses "a spiral of steps, each of which is
composed of a circle of planning, action and fact-finding about the result of the action”. Action
Code 17- research cycle can be understood by the figure given below:
Organizational
Behavior

Code 17-
International Business

Code 17- Managerial


Economics

Code 17- Human


Resource
Management

Paper- I (Mock Test


for Dec 2020)
(Q.2) A good review of research literature aims at:
Code 17- Managerial
(a) Subjective analysis of the content.
Statistics
(b) Provides information about the authors and their affiliations.
Code 17- Generates research questions and validating those questions.
(c)
Management Conducts multiple task-based screening.
(d)
Information systems
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C
Code 17- Accounting

Code 17- Labour Exp: A literature review identifies, evaluates andsynthesises the relevant literature within a particular
field of research. It illuminates how knowledge has evolved within the field, highlighting what has
Welfare already been done, what is generally accepted, what is emerging and what is the current state of
thinking on the topic. In addition, within research-based texts such as a Doctoral thesis, a literature
Paper-1 Jun 2019 and review identifies a research gap (i.e. unexplored or under-researched areas) and articulates how a
Dec 2019 Papers particular research project addresses this gap.
A literature review has four main objectives:

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Paper-1 Reading 1. It surveys the literature in your chosen area of study
Comprehension 2. It synthesises the information in that literature into a summary

Paper-1 People and 3. It critically analyses the information gathered by identifying gaps in current knowledge; by
showing limitations of theories and points of view; and by formulating areas for further research and
Environment reviewing areas of controversy

Paper-1 Data 4. It presents the literature in an organised way

Interpretation
(Q.3) ‘Cone of Experience’ related to teaching-learning was suggested by:
Paper-1 Information
and Communication (a) John Dewey
Technology (b) Kilpatrick
(c) Froebel
Paper-1 Research
(d) Edgar Dale
Aptitude
Your Response :
Paper-1 Higher Correct Answer : D

Education
Exp: ‘Cone of Experience’ related to teaching-learning was suggested by Edgar Dale.
Paper-1 Dale’s Cone of Experience is a model that incorporates several theories related to instructional design and
Communication learning processes. During the 1960s, Edgar Dale theorized that learners retain more information by what
they “do” as opposed to what is “heard”, “read” or “observed”. His research led to the development of the
Paper-1 Logical Cone of Experience. Today, this “learning by doing” has become known as “experiential learning” or
“action learning”. The cone is diagramed and explained below:
Reasoning

Paper-1 Mathematical
Reasoning

Paper-1 Teaching
Aptitude

According to Dale’s research, the least effective method at the top, involves learning from information
presented through verbal symbols, i.e., listening to spoken words. The most effective methods at the
bottom, involves direct, purposeful learning experiences, such as hands-on or field experience. Direct
purposeful experiences represent reality or the closet things to real, everyday life.

The cone charts the average retention rate for various methods of teaching. The further one progress
down the cone, the greater the learning and the more information is likely to be retained. It also suggests
that when choosing an instructional method it is important to remember that involving students in the
process strengthens knowledge retention.

It reveals that “action-learning” techniques result in up to 90% retention. People learn best when they use
perceptual learning styles. Perceptual learning styles are sensory based. The more sensory channels
possible in interacting with a resource, the better chance that many students can learn from it. According
to Dale, instructors should design instructional activities that build upon more real-life experiences.

(Q.4) A researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis (Ho) in his/her research. What implications will it carry for his/her
principal research hypothesis?

(a) Accepting the research hypothesis.


(b) Rejecting the research hypothesis.
(c) Not taking any decision on the research hypothesis.
(d) Improving the research hypothesis.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: Hypothesis testing is a procedure for using sample data to draw conclusions about the
characteristics of the underlying population. The procedure begins with a statement, known as
thenull hypothesis. The null hypothesis is assumed to be true unless strong evidence against it is
found. An alternative hypothesis is also stated which is the result accepted if the null hypothesis is
rejected.

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So, in the question they are saying that the researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis means
researcher accepts the null hypothesis. Therefore, now researcher has to reject the alternate
hypothesis (the principle research hypothesis in our question).

(Q.5) Which one of the following is the main feature of qualitative research?

(a) Avoids positivist assumptions and data analysis.


(b) Subscribes to preexisting categories.
(c) Collects data in numerical form.
(d) Uses empirical method of data analysis.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: Let’s first understand what are the different paradigms. Three most common paradigms are
explained below:
(i) Positivists believe that there is a single reality, which can be measured and known, and therefore
they are more likely to use quantitative methods to measure and this reality.
(ii) Constructivists believe that there is no single reality or truth, and therefore reality needs to be
interpreted, and therefore they are more likely to use qualitative methods to get those multiple
realities.
(iii) Pragmatists believe that reality is constantly renegotiated, debated, interpreted, and therefore
the best method to use is the one that solves the problem.
So, if we study the question closely, we can say that the main feature of qualitative research is that
it avoids positivist assumption and data analysis (quantitative in nature). Rest all the other options
are actually features of quantitative research and not qualitative.

(Q.6) Which of the following is a social characteristic of a learner?

(a) Power of sensory perception


(b) Thinking ability
(c) Power of synthetic imagination
(d) Ability to relate oneself with others
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: ‘Ability to relate oneself with others’ is a social characteristic


of a learner.

(Q.7) Which is the characteristic of formative evaluation?

(a) Evaluation occurs at the terminal point.


(b) Evaluation is used before programme design.
(c) Evaluation relates to indicating learning outcome of teaching.
(d) Evaluation is conducted during teaching.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: Among the above options, the characteristic of formative evaluation is “evaluation is conducted
during teaching”.

There are four types /approaches of Evaluation:


- Placement evaluation
- Formative evaluation
- Diagnostic evaluation
- Summative evaluation

1. Placement Evaluation – Placement evaluation can be defined as a type of


evaluation that provides information to the teachers about the learners to whom
he/she deals with relating to their existing knowledge and experiences based on
that the teacher designs to teach new knowledge. As seen in the figure above, the
placement evaluation is conducted before undertaking the teaching-learning
activities. It is used to measure the entry behavior or existing knowledge of the
learners. Another purpose of placement evaluation is to know whether the learner
is able to acquire the new learning experiences based on his/her previous

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knowledge. The key word, which is used for placement evaluation, is the “entry
behaviour”.
2. Formative Evaluation - For the first time in the year 1967, Michael Scriven
used the concept of formative evaluation while working on curriculum evaluation.
According to him, “Formative evaluation is typically conducted during the
development or improvement of a programme or product (or person, and so on)
and it is conducted, often more than once, for in-house staff of the programme
with the extent to improve”. If we analyze the definition, it is clear that the
purpose of conducting formative evaluation is to monitor the learning progress of
the learner. However, initially the concept of formative evaluation was coined in
the area of curriculum development but subsequently the term became familiar to
be used in the teaching pedagogy and the process of teaching and learning. It is
also conducted to know whether the learning objectives are being achieved or not.
The key word in formative evaluation is “learning progress”.  As shown in the
Figure above, the formative evaluation is considered as the second stage of
evaluation which is conducted during the teaching-learning process. The first
stage of evaluation is the placement evaluation. Formative evaluation starts from
the very beginning of designing instruction and it continues until the end of the
course/instruction. Conducting unit end examination, monthly examination,
quarterly examination, half-yearly examination, etc. are the examples of formative
evaluation.
3. Diagnostic Evaluation – Diagnostic evaluation is conducted along with
formative evaluation during the instructional process. It is carried out based on
the data obtained from formative evaluation. Diagnostic evaluation is specially
conducted to identify and remove the learning difficulties of learner if it is
observed and found during the formative evaluation. For example, if a learner
could not understand certain concepts in a particular subject and continuously
perform poorly in that subject, we conduct diagnostic test to know the causes of
the difficulties and accordingly provide him remedial treatment to overcome the
difficulties. The key word in diagnostic evaluation is identifying of “learning
difficulties”. Diagnostic evaluation not only solves learning difficulties of learners
but also identifies and provides remedies for personal, physical and psychological
problems. To exemplify, sometimes you may find that few students in your class
are very nervous to come forward and say something, this is due to the tendency
of fear towards their friends and teachers, or suffering from certain psychosocial
disorders or even physical disorders.
4. Summative Evaluation - Summative evaluation is used to find out the extent
to which the instructional objectives have been achieved at the end of a terminal
period. It is used primarily for assigning course grades or for certifying student’s
mastery of the intended learning outcomes at the end of a particular programme.
The techniques used for summative evaluation are determined by the
instructional objectives. For this evaluation, both external and teacher-made tests
are used. Although the main purpose of summative evaluation is assigning grades
or marks, it also provides information for judging the appropriateness of the
course objectives and the effectiveness of instruction.

(Q.8) Which among the following is a non-cognitive characteristic of learner?

(a) Recalling
(b) Problem solving
(c) Identifying important sensory inputs
(d) Believing what is true
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: ‘Believing what is true’ is a non-cognitive characteristic of learner. The question


refers to Bloom’s Taxonomy of Learning, which is explained below:
Bloom’s Taxonomy of Learning: Objectives of Educational Activities
Bloom’s Taxonomy was created in 1956 under the leadership of educational
psychologist Dr. Benjamin Bloom in order to promote higher forms of thinking in
education such as analyzing and evaluating concepts, process, procedures and
principles, rather than just remembering facts (rote learning). It is most often used
when designing educational, training and learning process. In simple words, Bloom’s
Taxonomy is a hierarchical ordering of cognitive skills that can, among countless
other uses, help teachers teach and students learn.
The three domains of educational activities for learners are:
(a) Cognitive (mental skill) – about knowing
(b) Affective (growth in feelings or emotional areas) – about attitude, feelings,
interest etc.
(c) Psychomotor (manual or physical skills) – about doing
a) Cognitive Objectives: The cognitive domain involves knowledge and the
development of intellectual skills. This includes the recall or recognition of specific
facts, procedural patterns, and concepts that are six major categories of cognitive
process, stating from the simplest to the most complex such as:
Knowledge - remembering or recalling information.
Comprehension - the ability to obtain meaning from information.
Application - The ability to use information.
Analysis - the ability to break information into parts to understand it better.
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Synthesis -the ability to put material together to create something new.
Evolution - the ability to check, judge and critique materials.
b) Affective Objectives: Affective domain is designed to change an individual's
attitude. Affective objectives refer to attitude, appreciations, choices and
relationship. Affective domain includes the manner in which we deal with things
emotionally, such as feelings, values, appreciation, enthusiasm, motivations, and
attitudes. The five major categories are listed from the simplest behavior to the
most complex.
Receiving – being aware of or attending to something environment.
Responding – showing some new behavior as a result of experience.
Valuing – showing some new definite involvement or commitment.
Organization – integrating a new value into one's general set of values, giving it
some ranking among one's general priorities.
Characterization by value – acting consistently with the new value.
c) Psychomotor Objectives: The psychomotor domain is skill-based and refers to
the learning of physical skills. Physical skills psychomotor objectives are designed
to build physical skill. Physical skills are the ability move, at or manually
manipulate the body to perform a physical movement. Dave developed this
taxonomy;
Imitation – observing and copying someone else.
Manipulation – guided via instruction to perform a skill.
Precision – accuracy, proportion and exactness exist in the skill performed
without the presence of the original sources.
Articulation – two or more skills combined, sequenced and performed
consistently.
Naturalization – two or more skills combined, sequenced and performed
consistently and with ease.

(Q.9) The field of study which uses role playing, simulation and self-evaluation as strategies for adult
learners is known as:

(a) Pedagogy
(b) Andragogy
(c) Anthropology
(d) Psychology
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: The field of study which uses role playing, simulation and self-evaluation as
strategies for adult learners is known as Andragogy.
The other options of the question are explained below:
Pedagogy refers more broadly to the theory and practice of education, and how
this influences the growth of learners. Pedagogy, taken as an academic discipline,
is the study of how knowledge and skills are exchanged in an educational context,
and it considers the interactions that take place during learning.
Psychology is the science of behavior and mind, including conscious and
unconscious phenomena, as well as feeling and thought. It is an academic
discipline of immense scope and diverse interests that, when taken together; seek
an understanding of the emergent properties of brains, and all the variety of
phenomena they manifest. As a social science it aims to understand individuals
and groups by establishing general principles and researching specific cases.
Anthropology is the study of humans and human behavior and societies in the
past and present.

(Q.10) Which of the following research formats focusses on hypothesis testing and generalizations’?

(a) Experimental and ex-post facto research


(b) Intervention based action research
(c) Phenomenological and narrative research
(d) Case study research
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: Hypothesis testing and generalizations are basic characteristics of Quantitative


Research. Let’s study the characteristics of Quantitative Research:
1. The data is usually gathered using structured and pre-determined research
instruments.
2. The results are based on larger sample sizes that are representative of the
population.
3. The research study can usually be replicated or repeated, given its high
reliability.
4. Researcher has a clearly defined research question or a hypothesis which can
be tested to get the answers to the research questions.

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5. All aspects of the study are carefully designed before data is collected.
6. Data are in the form of numbers and statistics, often arranged in tables,
charts, figures, or other non-textual forms.
7. Results can be used to generalize concepts more widely, predict future results,
or investigate causal relationships.
8. Researcher uses tools, such as questionnaires or computer software, to collect
numerical data.
Now, if we closely examine the options, only Experimental and Ex-post facto
(Descriptive) research falls under quantitative research. Rest all options are types
of qualitative research. Hence, answer is A.

Part

Read the following passage and answer questions:


There is a common thread running through the unravelling of India’s statistical system. A modern economy
with sound institutions is characterized by timely dissemination of credible data. A long term policy needs an
empirical basis and issues of veracity of data will influence investment decisions. In a country with a large
population of youth, data on national development, especially in core sectors like agriculture, industry,
health, education and employment, will be critical. Here comes the role of National Statistical Commission, a
body created to establish standards.
Questioning the data veracity is a global phenomenon. The official narrative is always questioned by the
people on the other side of the fence. Dissemination of economic data is essential to reach out to the public
who lived their reality. Lack of data will adversely impact the quality of national policies. India must start
strengthening institutions such as the central statistical commission.
These institutions must be granted autonomy and insulated from external interferences. Enhanced
operational autonomy will make their work credible. An indicator of operational autonomy is their ability to
stick to a dissemination calendar regardless of what the data indicates.

(Q.11) What is important for a modern economy?

(a) A common thread


(b) Dissemination of credible data
(c) Unravelling of statistical system
(d) Selective Distribution of Data
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: Dissemination of credible data is important for a modern economy. Source Based
Answer and it is clear from the following lines –
“A modern economy with sound institutions is characterized by timely
dissemination of credible data.”

(Q.12) What is the work of National Statistical Commission?

(a) Establishing Standards


(b) Questioning Data Veracity
(c) Questioning Official Narrative
(d) Supporting the Public Perception
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: The work of National Statistical Commission is establishing standards. Source


Based Answer and it is clear from the following lines –
“In a country with a large population of youth, data on national development,
especially in core sectors like agriculture, industry, health, education and
employment, will be critical. Here comes the role of National Statistical Commission,
a body created to establish standards.”

(Q.13) What does the passage ultimately suggest to National Statistical Commission?

(a) Restricting policy decisions


(b) Critically examining data veracity
(c) Stick to a calendar of data dissemination
(d) Support development in core sectors
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C

Exp: Stick to a calendar of data dissemination is the ultimate suggestion to National


Statistical Commission. Source Based Answer and it is clear from the following
lines –
“These institutions must be granted autonomy and insulated from external
interferences. Enhanced operational autonomy will make their work credible. An
indicator of operational autonomy is their ability to stick to a dissemination calendar
regardless of what the data indicates.”

(Q.14)

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Investment decision is impacted by:

(a) Youth Population


(b) National Development
(c) Issues of Data Veracity
(d) Establishment of National Institutes
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C

Exp: Investment decision is impacted byissues of Data Veracity (accuracy). Source


Based Answer and it is clear from the following lines –
“A long term policy needs an empirical basis and issues of veracity of data will
influence investment decisions.”

(Q.15) How can the quality of national policies be improved?

(a) By living reality


(b) By supporting external interferences
(c) By controlling autonomous institutions
(d) By enhanced operational freedom
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: By enhanced operational freedom, the quality of national policies is improved.


Source Based Answer and it is clear from the following lines –
“These institutions must be granted autonomy and insulated from external
interferences. Enhanced operational autonomy will make their work credible.”

Part

(Q.16) Some of the barriers to effective communication are:


(a) Polysemy
(b) Simple language
(c) Use of Clichés
(d) Easy construction of sentences
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) (a) and (b)


(b) (b) and (c)
(c) (c) and (d)
(d) (a) and (c)
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: Some of the barriers to effective communication are Polysemy and Use of Clichés.
The other options in the question are positive in nature and will not act as barrier
to effective communication.
Polysemy - When a symbol, word, or phrase means many different things, that's
called polysemy. The verb "get" is a good example of polysemy — it can mean
"procure," "become," or "understand." The word ‘polysemy’ comes from Greek, in
which it means "of many senses." It is an ambiguous quality of an ‘individual
word or phrase’ that can be used (in different contexts) to express two or more
different meanings. That’s why it acts as barrier to effective communication.
Use of Clichés - A cliché is “a phrase or expression that has been used so often
that it is no longer original or interesting,” according to Merriam-Webster. These
worn sayings blur the meaning from intended use, and because of that, the
message gets garbled. Relying on clichés can be a sign of a poor vocabulary and
can affect how the receiver see the sender of the message.

(Q.17) On a map, 1 inch represents 250 miles. What is the actual distance between two cities if they
are  ½ inches apart on the map?

(a) 1100 miles


(b) 1125 miles
(c) 1150 miles
(d) 1200 miles
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: The two cities are 4.5 inches apart.


One Inch = 250 miles
4.5 inches = 250 × 4.5 = 1125 miles

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(Q.18) Assertion A: The correlation function of mass media is vital for any society.
Reason R: The interpretational aspects that include advertising and public relations shape and
influence public opinion.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.


(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: BothA and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.


The PR team of an organization is responsible for creating/improving relationship with its
customers, to help promote a positive image and reflect the values of the organization to its
consumers and other stakeholders alike and also to do damage control in case something
negative takes place and to take advantage of a situation to help promote the brand to the
masses. They can reach out to consumers more closely and give the image that the
organization cares about its customers which can result in improved brand loyalty and
more viral marketing.

(Q.19) If the number 345xy is divisible by 90, then (x + y)?

(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 6
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: It is given that the number 345xy is divisible by 90. It means that it is divisible by
both 10 and 9. Since it is divisible by 10, therefore last digit is 0. Hence y = 0
Since the number is divisible by 9, it means that the sum of digits is also divisible
by 9
Thus, 3+ 4+ 5 + x + y is divisible by 9
12+x is divisible by 9 (y =0)
Thus, the value of x can be 6
Answer is x+y = 6+0 = 6

(Q.20) In which of the following arguments ‘the relation that exists between premises and conclusion
is that of logical necessity’?

(a) Inductive
(b) Deductive
(c) Demonstrative
(d) Analogical
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: ADeductive argument is one that attempts to follow a certain logical form such
that if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true. If premises are True, it
is IMPOSSIBLE for the conclusion to be FALSE. You will find that the sense of
Conclusion is Definitely, Certainly, Absolutely, Necessarily (there is 100%
confidence that the Conclusion is True).
An Inductive argument is such that if the premises are true, then the
conclusion is “likely” to be true. Thus, we do not have 100 % confidence in
Conclusion but a Probability. If premises are True, it is IMPROBABLE for the
conclusion to be FALSE. You will find that the sense of Conclusion is Probably,
Reasonably, Possibly, most likely (but not 100% confidence that the Conclusion
is True).
An analogical argument is an explicit representation of a form of analogical
reasoning that cites accepted similarities between two systems to support the
conclusion that some further similarity exists. Analogical Arguments (or
Arguments by Analogy) are a form of Induction (type of Inductive Arguments)
where a conclusion is derived from a comparison of similarities between two or
more cases.

(Q.21) The sequential order of elements in classroom communication is:

(a) knowledge, interest, evaluation, awareness.


(b) awareness, interest, evaluation, knowledge.
(c) evaluation, awareness, knowledge, interest.

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(d) interest, knowledge, evaluation, awareness.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: The sequential order of elements in classroom communication is awareness,


interest, evaluation, knowledge. This sequential process of classroom
communication is similar to ‘AIETA Model of Marketing’ wherein the various
phases by which a customer is gone through to accept innovation in products
and services are considered. It involves five stages Awareness, Interest,
Evaluation, Trial and Adoption. With respect to classroom communication, AIETA
model involves:
Awareness – It is the phase wherein the students become aware about the new
topic to be taught by the teacher.
Interest – The phase at which the information about new topic is given or
delivered to the students by the teacher in the classroom.
Evaluation – The phase at which the students evaluate the new information given
by the teacher to have in depth understanding about it.
Trial & Adoption (Knowledge) – The phase wherein the students will experiment
on the basis of the new information given to them and they will finally adopt or
retain the knowledge gained.

(Q.22) What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of interest
for 9 years and that for 12 years?

(a) 3:4
(b) 2:3
(c) 4:3
(d) Data inadequate
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp:
Simple Interest is calculated by

Interest in case of 9 years =

Interest in case of 12 years =


We can clearly see that the ratio is 9: 12 or 3:4

(Q.23) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the center. E is to the left of
D. C is between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is to the right of C?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in closed circle.


E is sitting to the left of D
Thus E-D
C is between A and B
This can be represented by A-C-B or B-C-A
F is between E and A
This can be represented by E-F-A or A-F-E. But we already know that D is right
to E. Thus, only possible option is A-F-E
Now A-C-B cannot be a possibility, because we have already established A-F-E.
Thus only option is B-C-A
Combining them together, the possible arrangement is B-C-A-F-E-D
The person to the right of C is A.

(Q.24) If 60% of (a – b) = 40% of (a + b), then what percent of a is b?

(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: It is given that 60% of (a-b) = 40% of (a+b)


which can be written as

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We can clearly see that b is one-fifth of a, i.e. b is


20% of a.

(Q.25) ‘All Judges are fairminded’ is an example of __________ proposition.

(a) Universal affirmative


(b) Universal negative
(c) Particular affirmative
(d) Particular negative
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: We know that:


All X are Y   Universal Affirmative- A
No X are Y   Universal Negative- E
Some X are Y   Particular Affirmative- I
Some X are not Y   Particular Negative- O
All Judges are fairminded is of type “All X are Y”.
Thus, it is Universal Affirmative- A

(Q.26) In a classroom, content produced for a specific user will lead to:

(a) personality development


(b) content filtering
(c) personalisation
(d) general academic integration
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C

Exp: In a classroom, content produced for a specific user will lead to personalization.
Personalized learning is an educational approach that aims to customize learning
for each student’s strengths, needs, skills and interests. Each student gets a
learning plan that’s based on what he knows and how he learns best. The teacher
doesn’t lead all students through the same lessons. Instead, the teacher guides
each student on an individualized journey. The what, when, where and how of
learning is tailored to meet each student’s strengths, skills, needs and interests.

(Q.27) Inference (anumana) in Indian Logic is rooted in:

(a) variable relation between minor term and major term.


(b) invariable relation between middle term and minor term.
(c) variable concomitance between middle term and major term.
(d) invariable concomitance between middle term and major term.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: Inference (anumana) in Indian Logic is rooted in invariable concomitance between


middle term and major term.
Anumana literally means such knowledge as follows some other knowledge. It is
the knowledge of an object due to a previous knowledge of some sign or mark
(linga). The previous knowledge is the knowledge of the linga or mark as having a
universal relation with the sadhya or major term and as being present in the
paksa or minor term. Hence anumana has been by direct observation, but by
means of the knowledge of a linga or sign and that of its universal relation
(vyapti) with the inferred object.
All systems of Indian philosophy except the Carvaka admit Anumana (Inference)
as a means of valid knowledge. It is a means of arriving at truth not directly but
through a previous knowledge of concomitance (vyapti) between the major term
(sadhya) and the middle term (sadhana). Therefore, unlike Pratyaksa (perception),
Anumana (inference) yields mediate knowledge. Anumana is the process of
reasoning in the course of which from ones’s invariable relation with other found
previously a new type of knowledge is deduced.

(Q.28) In a classroom, use of communication technology pre-supposes:

(a)

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Inattentive audience.
(b) Luxurious ambience.
(c) Extrapolation of contents.
(d) New forms of expression and applications.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: In a classroom, use ofcommunication technology pre-supposes new forms of


expression and applications.
In a classroom, use of ICT (i.e. information communication technology)
presupposes the employment of the computer and electronic gadgets to
disseminate information and elicit responses. Educators within the online
environment tend to see their role as less of the disseminator of knowledge and
more as the facilitator of the learning process. When instructors support and
actively use the technologies in the classroom, students are much more actively
engaged in using the online technologies in and out of the classroom. This
presupposes both an instructor’s familiarity with and endorsement of said
technology as well as the student’s access, comfort, and desire to utilize that
technological tool. Communication technology, then, plays many roles within a
course and can both influence and be influenced by the pedagogical design of the
teacher.

(Q.29) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members in a family in which there are two married couples. E, a
teacher is married to the doctor, who is the mother of C and F. B, the lawyer is married to A. A
has one son and one grandson. Of the two married ladies, one is a housewife. There is also one
student and one male engineer in the family. How is A related to C?

(a) Grandfather
(b) Mother
(c) Sister
(d) Grandmother
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: There are 6 members; A, B, C, D, E and F.


E (teacher) is married to a doctor, who is mother of C and F.
Thus, E is Father, Doctor is Mother and C and F are Children.
Now it is given that B (Lawyer) is married to A. Thus, only possibility for doctor is
that, she can be D.
The two couples are E-D and B-A.
But it is given that A has one son and one grandson. Thus E-D are son/daughter
of B-A. But E-D have children C and F.
Thus, A is either Grandfather or grandmother of C.
Now it is given that, out of two married ladies, one is housewife. We know that D
is doctor, so out of B-A couple, wife is housewife. But B is lawyer, therefore A is
housewife and thus is a female.
Thus A is grandmother of C.

(Q.30) Choose the missing term out of the following:


JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, __________.

(a) OEP
(b) NEO
(c) MEN
(d) PFQ
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, __________


Let us look at position of these alphabets.
The middle letter is A, B, C, D. Thus, the next middle
letter will be E.
Answer is A, B or C
The first letter is J, K, L, M, Thus the next first letter will
be N
Thus, the answer is NEO.

Part

Consider the following table that shows the distribution of students in two sections A and B in a school
according to the marks obtained by them. There is a total of 45 students in each of the sections A and B.
Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table:
Marks obtained by students

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Marks in Number of students in


Class Interval
Section A Section B
[0—9] 2 4
[10—19] 5 5
[20—29] 10 9
[30—39] 4 4
[40—49] 8 7
[50—59] 4 5
[60—69] 7 5
[70—79] 5 6

(Q.31) How many students in Section A have obtained 30 or more marks but less than 50?

(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 13
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: There are 45 students in each Section A and section B.

Marks in Number of students in


Class Interval
Section A Section B
[0—9] 2 4
[10—19] 5 5
[20—29] 10 9
[30—39] 4 4
[40—49] 8 7
[50—59] 4 5
[60—69] 7 5
[70—79] 5 6
Students in Section A who have obtained 30 or more marks but less than 50 are
= 4 + 8 = 12 (total of frequency against the class interval of 30-39 and 40-49)

(Q.32) If the pass mark is 40, approximately what is the percentage of successful students in Section
B?

(a) 48%
(b) 51%
(c) 50%
(d) 47%
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: There are 45 students in each Section A and section B.

Marks in Number of students in


Class Interval
Section A Section B
[0—9] 2 4
[10—19] 5 5
[20—29] 10 9
[30—39] 4 4
[40—49] 8 7
[50—59] 4 5
[60—69] 7 5
[70—79] 5 6
Taking Passing marks as 40
The total of students who get passed in section B = 7 + 5 + 5 + 6 = 23

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Therefore the percentage shall be or 51% approx..

(Q.33) How many students in Section A and Section B together have obtained marks less than 10?

(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 6
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: There are 45 students in each Section A and section B.

Marks in Number of students in


Class Interval
Section A Section B
[0—9] 2 4
[10—19] 5 5
[20—29] 10 9
[30—39] 4 4
[40—49] 8 7
[50—59] 4 5
[60—69] 7 5
[70—79] 5 6
Total students in Section A and Section B together who have obtained marks less
than 10 =
2+4=6

(Q.34) If the pass mark is 30, what is the number of failures in both the sections together?

(a) 43
(b) 35
(c) 16
(d) 26
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: There are 45 students in each Section A and section B.

Marks in Number of students in


Class Interval
Section A Section B
[0—9] 2 4
[10—19] 5 5
[20—29] 10 9
[30—39] 4 4
[40—49] 8 7
[50—59] 4 5
[60—69] 7 5
[70—79] 5 6
Taking Passing marks = 30, the total number of students in both Sections A and
B who scored less than 30 = (2 + 5+ 10) + (4 + 5 + 9) = 35

(Q.35) How many students in Section A and Section B have obtained 50 or more than 50 marks?

(a) 23
(b) 43
(c) 32
(d) 34
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C

Exp: There are 45 students in each Section A and section B.

Marks in Number of students in


Class Interval
Section A Section B

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[0—9] 2 4
[10—19] 5 5
[20—29] 10 9
[30—39] 4 4
[40—49] 8 7
[50—59] 4 5
[60—69] 7 5
[70—79] 5 6
Total students in Section A and Section B who have obtained 50 or more than 50
marks are = (4 + 7 + 5) + (5 + 5 + 6) = 32

Part

(Q.36) The duration for which of the usable compost generation is 3–6 months?

(a) Vermi composting


(b) Semi-Automatic waste converter
(c) Pit composting
(d) Automatic waste converter
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C

Exp: Compost is decomposed organic material. Compost is made with material such
as leaves, shredded twigs, and kitchen scraps from plants.
To gardeners, compost is considered "black gold" because of its many benefits in
the garden.Compost is a great material for garden soil.Adding compost to clay
soils makes them easier to work and plant. In sandy soils, the addition of
compost improves the water holding capacity of the soil. By adding organic
matter to the soil, compost can help improve plant growth and health.
Composting is also a good way to recycle leaves and other yard waste. Instead of
paying a company to haul away leaves, you can compost the leaves and return
the nutrients to your garden.

Vermicompost- The compost is ready in 60 to 90 days and the material


becomes moderately loose, crumbly with dark brown colour. It will be black,
granular, lightweight and humus-rich. Presence of earthworm castings
(vermicompost) on the top of the bed is also an indicator and vermicompost can
be harvested. The harvested material should be placed in a heap in the sun so
that most of the worms move down to the cool base of the heap.
Automatic and Semi-Automatic waste converter- Can generate 15 to 20 kg of
organic compost by processing up to 100 kg of waste in a day, without using a
Dehydration System. Time duration shall be 24 to 48 hours. If Dehydration
System is used, then the machine is capable of processing up to 1000 kg
of wastes and converting it into 150-200 kg of humus.
Pit composting- Under this method, the composting is generally carried out in a
corner of a field in a circular or rectangular pit (FAO, 1980). Rice straw, animal
dung (usually pig), aquatic weeds and green manure crops are used. Silt pumped
from river beds is often mixed with the crop residues. The pits are filled layer by
layer, each layer being 15 cm thick. Usually, the first layer is a green manure
crop or water hyacinth, the second layer is a straw mixture (Plate 1) and the third
layer is animal dung. These layers are alternated until the pit is full, when a top
layer of mud is added. A water layer of about 4 cm deep is maintained on the
surface to create anaerobic conditions, which helps to reduce N losses. The
approximate quantities of the different residues in terms of tonnes per pit are:
river silt 7.5, rice straw 0.15, animal dung 1.0, aquatic plants or green manure
0.75, and superphosphate 0.02. In total, there are three turnings. The first
turning is given one month after filling the pit and, at this time, the
superphosphate is added and mixed in thoroughly. Water is added as necessary.
The second turning is done after another month and the third two weeks later.
The material is allowed to decompose for 3-6 months and produces about 8
tonnes of compost per pit.

(Q.37) One of the main outcomes of the Rio +20 conference was to develop a set of:

(a) Sustainable Development Goals


(b) Millennium Development Goals
(c) National Development Strategy
(d) National Land Restoration Strategy
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development - or Rio+20 - took


place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil on 20-22 June 2012. It resulted in a
focused political outcome document which contains clear and practical measures
for implementing sustainable development.

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In Rio, Member States decided to launch a process to develop a set of Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs), which will build upon the Millennium Development
Goals and converge with the post 2015 development agenda. The Conference also
adopted ground-breaking guidelines on green economy policies. Governments
also decided to establish an intergovernmental process under the General
Assembly to prepare options on a strategy for sustainable development financing.
Governments also agreed to strengthen the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) on several fronts with action to be taken during the 67th
session of the General Assembly. They also agreed to establish a high-level
political forum for sustainable development. Decisions on its detailed form are
expected to be taken during the upcoming session of the General Assembly, with
the aim of having the first session of the forum at the beginning of the 68th
session of the Assembly.

(Q.38) During which year the present system of affiliation of colleges to the Universities was
introduced
in India?

(a) 1857
(b) 1948
(c) 1928
(d) 1966
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: The system of affiliation of colleges to universities was introduced in the year
1857.

(Q.39) Which one of the following computer components is fastest in terms of speed of access?

(a) USB Drive


(b) Solid State Drive
(c) RAM
(d) Hard Disk Drive
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C

Exp: The RAM (Random Access Memory) is faster for quick access. RAM is much,
much, much, much faster than even a fast SSD, as DDR3 RAM can have read
and write speeds of 6GB/s and faster (17GB/s), SSD are around 200MB/s,
therefore more RAM allows you to have more applications and documents open,
without RAM being copied to the SSD, which is quite fast with an SSD, but RAM
is still faster.

(Q.40) A group’s access to digital technology and another group’s lack of access to it, will cause a
disparity
known as:

(a) Internet inequality


(b) Web inequality
(c) Technological imbalance
(d) Digital divide
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: Digital divide is a term that refers to the gap between demographics and regions
that have access to modern information and communications technology, and
those that don't or have restricted access. This technology can include the
telephone, television, personal computers and the Internet. Well before the late
20th century, digital divide referred chiefly to the division between those with and
without telephone access; after the late 1990s the term began to be used mainly
to describe the split between those with and without Internet access,
particularly broadband.
The digital divide typically exists between those in cities and those in rural areas;
between the educated and the uneducated; between socioeconomic groups; and,
globally, between the more and less industrially developed nations. Even among
populations with some access to technology, the digital divide can be evident in
the form of lower-performance computers, lower-speed wireless connections,
lower-priced connections such as dial-up, and limited access to subscription-
based content.

(Q.41) Which one of the following is an educational FM radio network?

(a) Gyan Darshan


(b) Gyan Vani
(c) Gyan Dhara

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(d) GIAN
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: Gyan Vani is an educational FM radio station in several cities of India which
operates as a media cooperative with the day-to-day programmes. The medium of
broadcasting programmes in Gyan Vani is English, Hindi or language of the
region. Gyan Vani FM radio uses stereophonic FM transmitters, and
professionals operate the radio stations. Each nodal centre is provided with
media from Indira Gandhi National Open University's (IGNOU) Electronic Media
Production Centre.
Gyan Darshan (GD) channel is a major milestone in the field of Educational
Television in India. It is a joint venture of the Ministry of Human Resource
Development (MHRD), Ministry of Information & Broadcasting (I & B Ministry),
Prasar Bharati and IGNOU serving as the nodal agency. Launched in the year
2000, GD is a 24-hour educational channel which offers the best of educational
programmes covering a variety of subjects and catering to a wide range of
viewers. These include pre-school, primary, secondary and higher secondary
students, college/university students, youth seeking career opportunities,
homemakers and working professionals. The software is pooled from various
educational Institutions and Development Organisations. GD conducts two hours
of live interactive sessions every day to build interactivity in the Open and
Distance Learning (ODL) system. Teachers/Resource persons and IGNOU
Regional Center functionaries interact for academic and administrative matters
with students. Induction Programmes for new students and convocations for
graduating students are also conducted live through Teleconferencing every year.

Gyan Drashan is also available on webcast, thus extending the reach of IGNOU
programmes to audiences world over. The Gyan Darshan telecast is also
beneficial for students of the formal education system and the viewers can access
Gyan Darshan on IGNOU’s website
https://www.ignouonline.ac.in/gyandarshan/. As Gyan Darshan Channel is
must carry channel as per the Government of India Gazette notification, a
number of private DTH/Cable Operators carries Gyan Darshan in their
Bouquets. Gyan Darshan is now part of Swayam Prabha and can be watched on
MHRD Channel.
Gyandhara is an internet audio counseling service offered by IGNOU. Students
can listen to the live discussions by the teachers and experts on the topic of the
day and interact with them through telephone, email and also chat mode. When
live sessions are not on, Gyanvani Delhi is made available on this platform. The
Gyandhara streaming is available for internet users anywhere in the world.
Important events broadcast by GV Delhi are also relayed by all GV stations using
the Gyandhara feed.
Govt. of India approved a new program titled Global Initiative of Academic
Networks (GIAN) in Higher Education aimed at tapping the talent pool of
scientists and entrepreneurs, internationally to encourage their engagement with
the institutes of Higher Education in India so as to augment the country's
existing academic resources, accelerate the pace of quality reform, and elevate
India's scientific and technological capacity to global excellence.

(Q.42) The constitution of India provides right to establish educational institutes of their choice by all
minorities as per:

(a) Article 30 (1)


(b) Article 29
(c) Article 38
(d) Article 16 (2)
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: Minority Institutions: As iterated by the article 30 of Constitution of India,


minority institutions are the ones which are established and administered by the
religiously or linguistically minority communities, to keep alive and foster what it
considers its unique and special features. Constitutionally, there are various
features that differentiate a minority and a non-minority institutions:
•Establishment of a minority institution is covered under the fundamental rights
whereas it is not explicit in the case with other institutions
•Minority institution reserves 50% seats for the minority community which is in
contravention with the article 15 which prohibits discrimination on grounds of
religion and other criterias
•Redressal for state encroachment – minority institution can directly approach
Supreme court for redressal in case state hampers its status as under article 30,
whereas other institutions have to follow normal course of legal procedure in case
of such scenario
•Reservation for SC, ST provided under article 15(4) cannot be forced in case of
minority educational institution
•Minority educational institutions are exempted from enforcing right to education
as under article 21A

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The National Commission for Minorities Educational Institutions (NCMEI) gives
the minority status to the educational institutions on the basis of six religious
communities (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and
Jains) notified by the Ministry of HRD under the NCMEI Act, 2004.
  

(Q.43) While sending an e-mail, to differentiate among To: Cc: and Bcc: fields, which one of the
following statements is True?

(a) Recipients in the To: field can see the email addresses that are in the Bcc: and Cc: fields.
(b) Recipients in the Cc: field can see the email addresses that are in the To: and Bcc: fields.
(c) Recipients in the Bcc: field can see the email addresses that are in the To: and Cc: fields.
(d) Only the recipients in the Cc: field can see the other email addresses in the Bcc: field.
Your Response :
Correct Answer : C

Exp: Ccstands for carbon copy which means that whose address appears after
theCc:header would receive a copy of the message. Also, theCcheader would also
appear inside the header of the received message.
Bccstands for blind carbon copy which is similar to that ofCcexcept that
the Email address of the recipients specified in this field do not appear in
the received message header and the recipients in theToorCcfields will not
know that a copy sent to these address.

(Q.44) The time frame for the implementation of Millennium Development Goals was:

(a) 2000—2005
(b) 2000—2015
(c) 2005—2010
(d) 2000—2012
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: The United Nations Millennium Development Goals are eight goals that all
191 UN member states have agreed to try to achieve by the year 2015. The
United Nations Millennium Declaration, signed in September 2000
commits world leaders to combat poverty, hunger, disease, illiteracy,
environmental degradation, and discrimination against women. The MDGs
are derived from this Declaration, and all have specific targets and
indicators.
The Eight Millennium Development Goals are:
to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger;
to achieve universal primary education;
to promote gender equality and empower women;
to reduce child mortality;
to improve maternal health;
to combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases;
to ensure environmental sustainability; and
to develop a global partnership for development.
The MDGs are inter-dependent; all the MDG influence health, and health
influences all the MDGs. For example, better health enables children to learn and
adults to earn. Gender equality is essential to the achievement of better health.
Reducing poverty, hunger and environmental degradation positively influences,
but also depends on, better health.

(Q.45) Software that you can download for free, but have to pay to continue its use after a trial period
is called:

(a) public domain software


(b) freeware
(c) open-source software
(d) shareware
Your Response :
Correct Answer : D

Exp: Shareware is a type of software that is distributed free of charge to prospective


customers in a limited format. A full software version is distributed for a trial
period (usually 30 days), or a trial version is distributed with disabled features.
Shareware is often confused with freeware. Like open-source software, freeware is
truly free, whereas shareware is proprietary and subject to copyright. Shareware
with disabled features may be referred to asliteware or crippleware. As these
terms suggest, shareware is limited and not fully functional.

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Compared to proprietary software, shareware development is usually cheaper and
easier. Shareware developers try to fill computing niches that are not always
covered by larger developers. These niches include system control, network
configuration, some multimedia functions (like bulk photo editing) and smaller
functions that do not require large or complex software.

(Q.46) In Internet terminology, what does the acronym WYSIWYG stand for?

(a) Why You Saw Is What You Got


(b) What You See Is What You Get
(c) Where You See Is Where You Got
(d) What You See Is What You Got
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: The acronym WYSIWYG stand for “What You See Is What
You Get”.

(Q.47) SWAYAM refers to:

(a) Study World of Action-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds


(b) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
(c) Student World of Action-Learning for Young Ailing Minds
(d) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth Awareness Models
Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: SWAYAM refers to Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds.
SWAYAM is a programme initiated by Government of India and designed to
achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity and
quality. The objective of this effort is to take the best teaching learning resources
to all, including the most disadvantaged. SWAYAM seeks to bridge the digital
divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the digital
revolution and have not been able to join the mainstream of the knowledge
economy.
This is done through a platform that facilitates hosting of all the courses, taught
in classrooms from Class 9 till post-graduation to be accessed by anyone,
anywhere at any time. All the courses are interactive, prepared by the best
teachers in the country and are available, free of cost to any learner. More than
1,000 specially chosen faculty and teachers from across the country have
participated in preparing these courses.
The courses hosted on SWAYAM are in 4 quadrants – (1) video lecture, (2)
specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed (3) self-
assessment tests through tests and quizzes and (4) an online discussion forum
for clearing the doubts. Steps have been taken to enrich the learning experience
by using audio-video and multi-media and state of the art pedagogy / technology.
In order to ensure that best quality content is produced and delivered, nine
National Coordinators have been appointed. They are:
(i) AICTE - (All India Council for Technical Education) for self-paced and
international courses
(ii) NPTEL - (National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning) for
Engineering
(iii) UGC – (University Grants Commission) for non technical post-graduation
education
(iv) CEC - (Consortium for Educational Communication) for under-graduate
education
(v) NCERT - (National Council of Educational Research and Training) for school
education
(vi) NIOS - (National Institute of Open Schooling) for school education
(vii) IGNOU - (Indira Gandhi National Open University) for out-of-school students
(viii) IIMB - (Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore) for management studies
(ix) NITTR - (National Institute of Technical Teachers Training and Research) for
Teacher Training programme.
Courses delivered through SWAYAM are available free of cost to the learners,
however learners wanting a SWAYAM certificate should register for the final
proctored exams that come at a fee and attend in-person at designated centres
on specified dates.

(Q.48) Oligotrophic lakes are characterized by:

(a) High level of nutrients:


(b) Low level of nutrients
(c) Absence of nutrients
(d) High level of organic matter

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Your Response :
Correct Answer : B

Exp: An oligotrophic lake or water body is one which has a relatively low productivity
due to the low nutrient content in the lake. The waters of these lakes are usually
quite clear due to the limited growth of algae in the lake. The waters of such
lakes are of high-drinking quality. Such lakes support aquatic species who
require well-oxygenated, cold waters such as lake trout. Oligotrophic lakes are
usually found in the cold regions of the world where mixing of nutrients is rare
and slow due to the low temperatures of the lake waters.

(Q.49) With increase in temperature, the dissolved oxygen content in a water body will:

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remain constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the temperature range
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: The solubility of oxygen decreases as temperature increases. This means that
warmer surface water requires less dissolved oxygen to reach 100% air saturation
than does deeper, cooler water.Temperature also plays a prominent role in
dissolved oxygen levels because temperature establishes a maximum oxygen-
holding capacity of water. High water temperatures (86°F or higher) reduces this
holding capacity.

(Q.50) Which one of the following reports addressed the academic, technical and administrative
problems of the examination system?

(a) Report on standards of the Educational System (1965)


(b) Report of University Education Commission (1948-49)
(c) Sargent Report (1944)
(d) Hartog Committee report (1929)
Your Response :
Correct Answer : A

Exp: The UGC came out with a report on Standards of Education Systems in year
1965, that addressed the academic, technical and administrative challenges of
the examination system.

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