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Disha 3550 Class 10 Science and Mathematics Question Bank
Disha 3550 Class 10 Science and Mathematics Question Bank
Chemical
1 Acids, Bases
Reactions
Salts
Equations
and
and
heat NaOH(aq)
HO
C →
conc. HCl
D →
2
shake well
E(aq)
(Gas) (acidic solution)
(b) A and D are chemically same. If we added FeSO4 to above four test tubes, in which test
tube we observe black residue?
(c) D and E are chemically same.
(a) “A” and “B” (b) “B” and “C”
(d) C and E are chemically same.
(c) “A” and “C” (d) “B” and “D”
S-4 Science
Case/Passage - 2
Chemistry in Automobiles:
DIRECTIONS : Study the given case/passage and answer the For an internal combustion engine to move a vehicle down
following questions. the road, it must convert the energy stored in the fuel into
mechanical energy to drive the wheels. In your car, the
Case/Passage - 1 distributor and battery provide this starting energy by creating
The reaction between MnO2 with HCl is depicted in the an electrical “spark”, which helps in combustion of fuels like
following diagram. It was observed that a gas with bleaching gasoline. Below is the reaction depicting complete combustion
abilities was released . [From CBSE Question Bank-2021] of gasoline in full supply of air:
[From CBSE Question Bank-2021]
HCl (aq)
2C8H18(I) + 25O2(g) → 16 ‘X’ + Y
49. Which of the following are the products obtained from the
reaction mentioned in the above case?
Product ‘X’ Product ‘Y’
(a) CO2 H2O2
(b) H2O CO
(c) CH3OH H2O
MnO2(s)
(d) CO2 H2O
Reactants Products
50. Identify the types of chemical reaction occurring during
44. The chemical reaction between MnO2 and HCl is an the combustion of fuel:
example of: (a) Oxidation & Endothermic reaction
(a) displacement reaction (b) Decomposition & Exothermic reaction
(b) combination reaction (c) Oxidation & Exothermic reaction
(c) redox reaction (d) Combination & Endothermic reaction
(d) decomposition reaction. 51. On the basis of evolution/absorption of energy, which of
the following processes are similar to combustion of fuel?
45. Chlorine gas reacts with _____ to form bleaching powder.
(i) Photosynthesis in plants
(a) dry Ca(OH)2
(ii) Respiration in the human body
(b) dil. solution of Ca(OH)2 (iii) Decomposition of vegetable matter
(c) conc. solution of Ca(OH)2 (iv) Decomposition of ferrous sulphate.
(d) dry CaO (a) (ii) & (iii) (b) (i) & (ii)
46. Identify the correct statement from the following: (c) (iii) & (iv) (d) (ii) & (i)
(a) MnO2 is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting 52. ‘A student while walking on the road observed that a
oxidized cloud of black smoke belched out from the exhaust stack
(b) MnO2 is getting oxidized whereas HCl is getting of moving trucks on the road.’ Choose the correct reason
reduced. for the production of black smoke:
(a) Limited supply of air leads to incomplete combustion
(c) MnO2 and HCl both are getting reduced.
of fuel.
(d) MnO2 and HCl both are getting oxidized.
(b) Rich supply of air leads to complete combustion of
47. In the above discussed reaction, what is the nature of fuel.
MnO2? (c) Rich supply of air leads to a combination reaction.
(a) Acidic oxide (b) Basic oxide (d) Limited supply of air leads to complete combustion
(c) Neutral oxide (d) Amphoteric oxide of fuel.
53. ‘Although nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the
48. What will happen if we take dry HCl gas instead of
atmosphere, it does not take part in combustion’. Identify
aqueous solution of HCl?
the correct reason for this statement.
(a) Reaction will occur faster. (a) Nitrogen is a reactive gas
(b) Reaction will not occur. (b) Nitrogen is an inert gas
(c) Reaction rate will be slow. (c) Nitrogen is an explosive gas
(d) Reaction rate will remain the same. (d) Only hydrocarbons can take part in combustion
Chemical Reactions and Equations S-5
Reason : A substance which helps in oxidation is known
Assertion & Reason as reducing agent.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion 63. Assertion : The balancing of chemical equations is based
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on law of conservation of mass.
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that Reason : Total mass of reactants is equal to total mass of
best describes the two statements. products.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion. Match the Following
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion. DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D)
in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column II.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
54. Assertion : Chlorine gas react with potassium iodide 64. Column II gives type of reaction mention in column I,
solution to form potassium chloride and iodine.
match them correctly.
Reason : Chlorine is more reactive than iodine therefore Column I Column II
displaces iodine from potassium iodide.
(A) C + O2 → CO2 (p) Displacement
55. Assertion : When copper strip is placed in ferrous
sulphate solution, colour of the solution changes. light
(B) AgBr → Ag + Br (q) Combination
Reason : Iron is more reactive than copper.
(C) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu (r) Decomposition
56. Assertion : Decomposition of vegetable matter into
compost is an endothermic reaction. Cu
(D) CH3CH2OH → (s) Oxidation
Reason : Heat is required in an endothermic reaction.
CH3CHO + H2
57. Assertion : Reaction of sodium sulphate with barium
chloride is a precipitation reaction. 65. Column I Column II
∆
Reason : Precipitation reaction produces insoluble salt. (A) KClO3 → (p) O2
58. Assertion: When a mixture of hydrogen and chlorine is ∆
placed in sunlight, hydrogen chloride is formed. (B) ZnCO3 → (q) H2O
∆
Reason : It is an example of combination reaction. (C) H2CO3 → (r) CO2
59. Assertion : Stannous chloride gives grey precipitate with ∆
mercuric chloride, but stannic chloride does not do so. (D) C2H6 → (s) ZnO
73. The digestion of food in the body is an example of ......... 80. A complete chemical equation represents the reactants,
reaction. products and their physical states symbolically.
81. A magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling flame in air
74. The addition of oxygen to a substance is called ...........
(oxygen) and changes into a white substance, magnesium
75. When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to give oxide.
.................. and ................. . 82. Rusting is a double decomposition reaction.
76. The new substances produced in a reaction are called as 83. The reaction between nitrogen and hydrogen to give
.................... ammonia is an example of a combination reaction.
84. Action of heat on ferrous sulphate is an example of
decomposition reaction.
85. The formation of Cu and H2O in the reaction of copper
oxide with hydrogen is an example of a redox reaction.
Chemical Reactions and Equations S-7
6. (b) Except (b) all other reactions involve compounds. 29. (c) FeCl3 + H2S FeCl2 + HCl + S
CuSO 4 + H 2S
→ CuS + H 2SO 4 Oxidation
(blue) (black)
(double decomposition reaction) In the given reaction H2S undergoes oxidation,
hence behave as a reducing agent.
7. (d) reduction
30. (a)
8. (c) Iron is more reactive than copper, hence Cu will not +1 0 +2
displace iron from iron sulphate, hence no reaction 2C uI → C u + C uI 2 . Oxidation and reduction both
will take place. oxidation
9. (b) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 occur so the reaction is redo
Hydrogen gas burns with a pop sound. 31. (a) Cu is more reactive than Ag.
10. (c) Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2 0 +1
Cu + 2AgNO3
→ CuNO3 + 2Ag
Na2CO3 + NaOH → no reaction
11. (c) +2 0
−
12. (c) Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O 32. (b) Zn(aq) + 2e
→ Z n(s) ; reduction
(a) A is strongly basic and B is a weak base. (c) H2SO4 (d) HNO3
(b) A is strongly acidic and B is a weak acid. 12. Reaction of an acid with a base is known as –
(c) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7. (a) decomposition (b) combination
(d) A has pH less than 7 and B has pH greater than 7. (c) redox reaction (d) neutralization
Acids, Bases and Salts S-11
13. When CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns milky. 24. When an oxide of a non–metal reacts with water which of
The milkiness in due to formation of – the following is formed?
(a) CaCO3 (b) Ca(OH)2 (a) Acid (b) Base
(c) H2O (d) CO2 (c) Salt (d) None of these
19. Washing soda has the formula – (a) by adding water to calcium sulphate.
(a) Na2CO3.7H2O (b) Na2CO3.10H2O (b) by adding sulphuric acid to calcium hydroxide.
(c) Na2CO3.H2O (d) Na2CO3 (c) by heating gypsum to a very high temperature.
20. Plaster of Paris hardens by – (d) by heating gypsum to 373 K.
(a) giving of CO2 29. What is the term for the positive and negative ions of a
(b) changing into CaCO3 compound breaking apart in solution –
(c) combining with water (a) Conglomeration (b) Oxidation
(d) giving out water (c) Dissociation (d) None of the Above
21. Which of the following is acidic in nature? 30. Of the aqueous solutions listed below, which would be
(a) apple juice (b) soap solution the best conductor of an electric current?
(a) HCl (b) H3PO4
(c) slaked lime (d) lime
(c) HOCl (d) CH3COOH
22. The reaction of metal with acid results in the formation
of– 31. Common salt besides being used in kitchen can also be
used as the raw material for making
(a) only hydrogen gas
(i) washing soda (ii) bleaching powder
(b) only salt
(iii) baking soda (iv) slaked lime
(c) both salt and hydrogen gas
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) none of these (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
23. Which of the following acid does not react with metals? 32. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?
(a) sulphuric acid (b) phosphoric acid (a) Na2SO4 (b) BiOCl
(c) carbonic acid (d) nitric acid (c) Pb(OH)Cl (d) Na2HPO4
S-12 Science
33. An element X reacts with dilute H2SO4 as well as with 38. The chemical formula of ‘Plaster of Paris’ is
NaOH to produce salt and H2(g). Hence, it may be 1
concluded that: (a) CaSO 4 . H 2 O (b) CaSO4.2H2O
2
I. X is an electropositive element.
3
II. oxide of X is basic in nature. (c) CaSO4.H2O (d)
CaSO 4 . H 2 O
2
III. oxide of X is acidic in nature.
IV. X is an electronegative element. 39. A solution turns red litmus blue. Its pH is likely to be –
(a) I, II, III (b) IV, I, II (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) III, IV, I (d) II, III, IV (c) 5 (d) 10
34. The turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueous solution 40. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas
of - that turns lime water milky. The solution contains –
(a) potassium acetate (b) copper sulphate (a) NaCl (b) HCl
(c) sodium sulphate (d) ferric chloride (c) LiCl (d) KCl
35. The correct order of increasing pH values of the aqueous 41. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely
solutions of baking soda, rock salt, washing soda and neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take
slaked lime is 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of
(a) Baking Soda < Rock Salt < Washing Soda < Slaked HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to
lime neutralise will be –
(b) Rock Salt < Baking Soda < Washing Soda <Slaked (a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL
lime (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL
(c) Slaked lime < Washing Soda < Rock Salt < Baking
42. Which of the following type of medicines is used for
Soda treating indigestion ?
(d) Washing Soda < Baking Soda < Rock Salt < Slaked (a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic
lime (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic
36. You are provided with aqueous solutions of three salts — 43. Which of the following reaction does not results in the
A, B and C, 2-3 drops of blue litmus solution, red litmus evolution of H2 gas?
solution and phenolphthalein were added to each of these
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
solution in separate experiments. The change in colours
of different indicators were recorded in the following (b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
table: (c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid with diute sodium hydroxide
Sample With blue With red With solution.
litmus litmus phenolphtha-
solution solution lein
solution
A No change No change No change DIRECTIONS : Study the given case/passage and answer the
B Turns red No change No change following questions.
C No change Turns blue Turns pink
Case/Passage - 1
On the basis of above observations, identify A, B, and C Marble’s popularity began in ancient Rome and Greece, where
from the following options: white and off-white marble were used to construct a variety
of structures, from hand-held sculptures to massive pillars and
(a) A = NH4 Cl, B = NaCl, C = CH3COONa
buildings.
(b) A = NH4 Cl, B = CH3 COONa, C = NaCl
(c) A = NaCl, B = NH4 Cl, C = CH3 COONa
(d) A = CH3 COONa, B = NH4 Cl, C = NaCl
37. Aqua regia is the mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3
in the ratio:
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 3 : 2 [From CBSE Question Bank-2021]
Acids, Bases and Salts S-13
44. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is Case/Passage - 2
(a) Dolomite (b) A marble statue Frothing in Yamuna:
(c) Calcined gypsum (d) Sea shells.
The primary reason behind the formation of the toxic foam is
45. A student added 10g of calcium carbonate in a rigid high phosphate content in the wastewater because of detergents
container, secured it tightly and started to heat it. After used in dyeing industries, dhobi ghats and households.
some time, an increase in pressure was observed, the Yamuna’s pollution level is so bad that parts of it have been
pressure reading was then noted at intervals of 5 mins labelled ‘dead’ as there is no oxygen in it for aquatic life to
and plotted against time, in a graph as shown below. survive.
During which time interval did maximum decomposition
took place?
1.25
1.00
Pressure (atm)
0.75
0.50
Solution pH value
P 2
(a) decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium
Q 9
oxide
R 5
(b) polluted water is basic in nature hence it reacts with
calcium carbonate S 11
(c) polluted water is acidic in nature hence it reacts with 51. Which of the following correctly represents the solutions
calciumcarbonate in increasing order of their hydronium ion concentration?
(d) calcium carbonate dissolves in water to give calcium (a) P > Q > R > S (b) P > S > Q > R
hydroxide. (c) S < Q < R < P (d) S < P < Q < R
48. Calcium oxide can be reduced to calcium, by heating 52. High content of phosphate ion in river Yamuna may lead to:
with sodium metal. Which compound would act as an (a) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased
oxidizing agent in the above process? growth of algae
(a) sodium (b) sodium oxide (b) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and no effect of
(c) calcium (d) calcium oxide growth of algae
S-14 Science
(c) increased level of dissolved oxygen and increased Reason : Hydronium ions are responsible for corrosive
growth of algae action.
(d) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and decreased
growth of algae Match the Following
53. If a sample of water containing detergents is provided to
you, which of the following methods will you adopt to DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
neutralize it? two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D)
(a) Treating the water with baking soda in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column II.
(b) Treating the water with vinegar
(c) Treating the water with caustic soda 62. Column II gives nature of acids and bases mention in
column I, match them correctly.
(d) Treating the water with washing soda
Column I Column II
(A) HCl (p) Strong acid
Assertion & Reason (B) HCN (q) Weak acid
(C) NaOH (r) Weak base
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question (D) NH4OH (s) Strong base
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that 63. Match the salts given in column I with the corresponding
best describes the two statements. acid and base given in column II.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is Column I Column II
the correct explanation of Assertion. (A) KNO3 (p) Nitric acid, Silver
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is hydroxide
not the correct explanation of Assertion. (B) AgNO3 (q) Hydrochloric
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. acid, Magnesium
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. hydroxide
(C) MgCl2 (r) Carbonic
54. Assertion : Aqueous solution of ammonium nitrate turns
blue litmus red. acid, Ammonium
hydroxide
Reason : Ammonium nitrate is salt of strong acid and (D) (NH4)2CO3 (s) Nitric acid,
strong base.
Potassium hydroxide
55. Assertion : All alkalis are bases but all bases are not
64. Column I Column II
alkali.
(A) NaHCO3 (p) Baking soda
Reason : Water soluble bases are alkali.
(B) NaOH (q) Alkaline
56. Assertion : Magnesium hydroxide is used as antacid. (C) KHSO4 (r) Acidic salt
Reason : Magnesium hydroxide is a strong base. (D) Ca(OH)2 (s) Bitter taste
57. Assertion : Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of
blue litmus paper to red. Fill in the Blanks
Reason : Dry HCl gas is strongly basic.
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
58. Assertion : Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used in fire appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s).
extinguisher.
65. Oxy acids contains ........ atoms in addition to hydrogen
Reason : Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a mild base.
atom.
59. Assertion : H2CO3 is a strong acid.
66. An acid that contains more than one acidic hydrogen
Reason : A strong acid dissociates completely or almost atom is called a .............. .
completely in water.
67. When an acid reacts with a metal, ............. gas is evolved
60. Assertion : Salts are the products of an acid-base reaction. and a corresponding ............. is formed.
Reason : Salt may be acidic or basic. 68. When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate or metal
61. Assertion : On adding H2SO4 to water the resulting hydrogen carbonate, it gives the corresponding salt,
aqueous solution get corrosive. .......... gas and ............... .
Acids, Bases and Salts S-15
69. .......................... is the fixed number of water molecules 76. Mixing concentrated acids or bases with water is a highly
chemically attached to each formula unit of a salt in its endothermic process.
crystalline form.
77. Acids and bases neutralise each other to form
70. ENO contains .......... and is ........... in nature. corresponding salts and water.
78. The colour of caustic soda turns pink when phenolphthalein
71. Anhydrous sodium carbonate is commonly known as
is added.
............... .
79. Hydrogen chloride gas turns the blue litmus red.
72. Soda–acid fire extinguisher contains a solution of sodium
hydrogen carbonate and ............... . 80. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used in fire extinguisher.
73. An alkali reacts with ammonium salts to produce 81. Washing soda on strong heating gives sodium oxide and
corresponding salt, water and evolve .................. . carbon dioxide.
74. Zn(OH)2 is a ................. base. 82. Plaster of paris is obtained by heating gypsum at 373 K in
a kiln.
True / False 83. Bleaching powder is used for disinfecting drinking water.
84. Solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is alkaline in
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your nature.
answer as true or false.
Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen 59. (d) H2CO3 (carbonic acid) is a weak acid.
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g) 60. (b)
(c) Aluminium + Sulphuric acid → 61. (a) Because H2SO4 is a strong acid, it readily forms
hydronium ions when dissolved in water which are
Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
responsible for its corrosive action.
2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
62. A → (p); B → (q); C → (s); D → (r)
(d) dilute Hydrochloric acid + dilute sodium hydroxide
63. A → (s); B → (p); C → (q); D → (r)
→ sodiumchloride + water
64. A → (p, q, r); B → (q, s); C → (q, r); D → (q, s)
2HCl + 2NaOH → 2NaCHl + 2H2O
65. Oxygen 66. Polyprotic acid
44. (c) Calcined gypsum is CaSO4 ⋅ H2O
67. Hydrogen, salt 68.
Carbon dioxide, water
45. (d) 0-5 min
69. Water of crystallisation
46. (b) Gas is CO2 which is a important reactant in
70. Sodium hydrogen carbonate, basic
photosynthesis process.
71. Soda ash 72. Sulphuric acid
47. (c) polluted water is acidic in nature hence it reacts with
calcium carbonate 73. Ammonia 74. Diacidic
48. (d) calcium oxide 75. True 76. False 77. True 78. True
49. (a) 79. False 80.
True 81. False 82. True
50. (b) 83. True 84. True
MetalsBases
and and
3 Acids,
Salts
Non-Metals
8. Which of the following is not a characteristics of metal ?
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (a) Malleable (b) Electropositive nature
(c) Ductile (d) None of these
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice
questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) 9. Zn + H2O (Steam) –––→ A + B, In the equation A and B
out of which only one is correct. are –
(a) Zn, H only (b) ZnH2 and O2
1. Which of the following metal is liquid at ordinary
temperature? (c) ZnO2 & O2 (d) ZnO & H2
(a) Aluminium (b) Mercury 10. Removal of impurities from ore is known as –
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (a) crushing and grinding (b) concentration of ore
2. The atomic number of an element Y is 16. The number of (c) calcination (d) roasting
electrons in Y2– ion will be:
11. Froth floatation method is used for the concentration of–
(a) 16 (b) 17
(a) oxide ores (b) sulphide ores
(c) 18 (d) 20
(c) sulphate ores (d) halide ores
3. Which of the following elements will form basic oxides?
(a) Barium (b) Aluminium 12. Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for
(c) Carbon (d) Phosphorus conversion into oxide ore is known as –
(a) roasting (b) calcination
4. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the
electrolytic refining of copper? (c) reduction (d) none of these
(a) Basic Cu(OH)2 solution is used as cathode. 13. Pure gold is –
(b) Acidified CuSO4 solution is used as electrolyte. (a) 24 carats (b) 22 carats
(c) Impure Cu is taken as cathode (c) 20 carats (d) 18 carats
(d) Cu2+ ion gets collected at anode. 14. What is anode mud ?
5. Which of the following compound is covalent in nature? (a) Fan of anode
(a) Carbon tetrachloride (b) Ammonium chloride (b) Metal of anode
(c) Lithium chloride (d) Calcium chloride (c) Impurities collected at anode in electrolysis during
6.
A student by mistake used a wet gas jar to collect sulphur purification of metals
dioxide. Which one of the following tests of the gas is (d) All of these
likely to fail ?
(a) Odour 15. Which of the following pairs will give displacement
(b) Effect on acidified K2Cr2O7 solution reactions?
(c) Solubility test (a) ZnSO4 solution and aluminium metal
(d) None of these (b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
7. Silicon is used in : (c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
(a) solar energy devices (b) semiconductors (d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal.
(c) transistors (d) all of these
Metals and Non-Metals S-19
16. Which of the following is a chemical method for 26. The process to heat the ore in the presence of excess
preventing an iron frying pan from rusting? supply of air below its melting point is called –
(a) applying grease (a) roasting (b) calcination
(b) applying paint (c) smelting (d) liquation
(c) applying a coating of zinc 27. Graphite is a/an –
(d) all of the above (a) alloy (b) metal
17. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with (c) metalloid (d) non-metal
a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in 28. One of the constituents of amalgam is –
water. The element is likely to be – (a) aluminium (b) copper
(a) calcium (b) carbon (c) iron (d) mercury
(c) silicon (d) iron
29. Which of the following metal reacts with water/steam to
18. Aluminium does not oxidise readily in air because – produce oxide instead of hydroxide ?
(a) it is high in the electrochemical series. (a) Sodium (b) Potassium
(b) it is low in the electrochemical series. (c) Calcium (d) Magnesium
(c) the metal does not combine with oxygen. 30. The white phosphorus is stored
(d) the metal is covered with a layer of oxide which (a) in air (b) under water
does not rub off. (c) under kerosene (d) under CS2
19. The correct order of increasing chemical reactivity is – 31. Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of –
(a) Zn < Fe < Mg < K (a) an aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(b) Fe < Mg < Zn < K (b) an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
(c) Fe < Mg < K < Zn (c) fused sodium chloride
(d) Fe < Zn < Mg < K (d) fused sodium sulphate
20. The least malleable is – 32. In the combined state, zinc is mainly found as –
(a) aluminium (b) silver (a) chloride (b) bromide
(c) gold (d) carbon (c) oxide (d) sulphide
21. The metal that reacts with cold water is – 33. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) mercury (b) sodium (a) Chalcocite – Copper
(b) Magnetite – Iron
(c) zinc (d) tungsten
(c) Calamine – Aluminium
22. The only metal that is liquid at room temperature is – (d) Galena – Lead
(a) mercury (b) sodium
34. Among Mg, Cu, Fe, Zn the metal that does not produce
(c) zinc (d) tungsten hydrogen gas in reaction with hydrochloric acid is
23. The process of extraction of metal from its ores, is known (a) Cu (b) Zn
as – (c) Mg (d) Fe
(a) concentration (b) calcination 35. The major products of the following reaction,
(c) purification (d) metallurgy Heat
ZnS(s) + O2(g) → ..........are
24. The compound from which metal is extracted economically (a) ZnO and SO2 (b) ZnSO4 and SO3
is – (c) ZnSO4 and SO2 (d) Zn and SO2
(a) slag (b) gangue
36. Choose the incorrect pair
(c) ore (d) mineral
(a) NO - Neutral oxide (b) Cl2O7 - Acidic oxide
25. The process to remove unwanted impurities from the ore (c) MgO - Basic Oxide (d) P4O10 - Basic oxide
is called –
37. Metal present in chloroplast is
(a) purification (b) calcination
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) bassemerisation (d) concentration
(c) Magnesium (d) Cobalt
S-20 Science
38. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper before Choose the correct decreasing order of reactivity of these
making it to burn. The reason of rubbing the ribbon is to: metals amongst the following:
(a) remove moisture condensed over the surface of (a) M > L > H > K (b) K > M > H > L
ribbon. (c) M > K > L > H (d) L > H > K > M
(b) generate heat due to exothermic reaction. 47. ______ gas is evolved when Mn react with very dilute
(c) remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface HNO3
of magnesium.
(a) NO2 (b) H2
(d) mix silicon from sand paper (silicon dioxide) with
magnesium for lowering ignition temperature of the (c) N2O (d) NO
ribbon. 48. _____________ alloy is used for welding electrical wires
39. The element that cannot be used as a reducing agent is (a) Solder (b) Germen silver
(a) carbon (b) aluminium (c) Stainless steel (d) Gun metal
(c) sulphur (d) sodium 49. Aqueous solution of CsO2 is :
(a) Basic (b) Neutral
40. Al2O3 reacts with
(c) Acidic (d) Amphoteric
(a) only water (b) only acids
(c) only alkalis (d) both acids and alkalis 50. Which of the following will give displacement reactions ?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal
41. Which of the following is an example of neutral oxide?
(a) Fe2O3 (b) Al2O3 (b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) C O (d) NO2 (c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
42. A metal ‘M’ of moderate reactivity is present as its sulphide (d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
‘X’. On heating in air, ‘X’ converts into its oxide ‘Y’ and
51. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing
a gas evolves. On heating ‘Y’ and ‘X’ together, the metal
an iron frying pan from rusting ?
‘M’ is produced. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
(a) Applying grease
(a) ‘X’ cuprous sulphide, ‘Y’ cuprous oxide (b) Applying paint
(b) ‘X’ cupric sulphide, ‘Y’ cupric oxide (c) Applying a coat of zinc
(c) ‘X’ sodium sulphide, ‘Y’ sodium oxide (d) All the above
(d) ‘X’ calcium sulphide, ‘Y’ calcium oxide 52. An element can react with oxygen to give a compound
43. Which of the following metals react with conc. sulphuric with high melting point. This compound is also water
soluble. The element is likely to be
acid but does not react with a solution of ferrous sulphate?
(a) Cu (b) Zn (a) Calcium (b) Carbon
(c) Fe (d) Mg (c) Silicon (d) Iron
53. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
44. The formula of phosphate salt of a metal is MPO4. The
formula of its nitrate salt will be (a) zinc is costlier than tin.
(a) MNO3 (b) M(NO3)2 (b) zinc has higher melting point than tin.
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
(c) M2(NO3)3 (d) M(NO3)3
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin.
45. Solder is an alloy of
(a) Pb and Sn (b) Zn and Pb
(c) Pb and Zn (d) Zn and Sn
DIRECTIONS : Study the given case/passage and answer the
46. The following observations are given for four metals:
following questions.
I. Metal H does not react with dilute HCl.
II. Metal K reacts with warm water. Case/Passage - 1
III. Metal L does not react with water but displaces Metals are electropositive elements. They can easily lose
metal H from its aqueous salt solution. electrons to form ions. Metals show distinguished physical
as well as chemical properties. Generally most of the metals
IV. Metal M reacts with cold water.
are ductile and malleable with exception such as mercury.
Metals and Non-Metals S-21
These properties make them valuable for commercial as well 61. The metal that reacts with cold water is -
as domestic uses. Reaction of a metal with water is one of (a) mercury (b) sodium
important chemical property. Metals like sodium and potassium (c) zinc (d) tungsten
reacts with cold water while magnesium reacts with hot water.
Metals like aluminium, zinc do not react with hot/cold water 62. Metal present in chloroplast is
but they easily react with steam. When a metal react with hot/ (a) Iron (b) Copper
cold water the products are metal hydroxide and hydrogen, (c) Magnesium (d) Cobalt
and when it react with steam, the product are metal oxide and 63. Which of the following metal(s) catch fire on reaction
hydrogen. Some metals like sodium, potassium react violently with water?
with water. (a) Sodium (b) Potassium
54. When zinc reacts with steam it produces: (c) Magnesium (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) Zn(OH)2 (b) ZnO
Case/Passage - 3
(c) O2 (d) ZnO2
The huge annual loss due to corrosion is a national waste and
55. Most ductile metal among the following is: should be minimized.
(a) Au (b) Ag Following are some methods which are helpful to prevent
(c) Cu (d) Al corrosion
56. During the reaction of calcium with water, pieces of
(i) Coating the iron surface with paint or oil or grease
metal start floating due to the formation of:
prevents moist oxygen from coming in contact with
(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) CO2
the metal and thus effectively prevents rusting of
(c) H2 (d) none of these iron.
57. Consider the reactions:
(ii) Galvanisation : Iron is blasted with fine sand to make the
Na(s) + H2O (l) → NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) ..........(i)
surface rough dipped in molten zinc and then cooled. A
Ca(s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g).........(ii) thin layer of zinc forms on the iron surface. Since zinc is
(a) Reaction (i) is endothermic reaction. more reactive than iron, it acts as a sacrificial metal and is
(b) Reaction (ii) is endothermic reaction. preferentially oxidised thus preventing oxidation of iron.
(c) Reaction (ii) is more exothermic than reaction (i).
(iii) Electroplating with tin, nickel or chromium also prevents
(d) Reaction (i) is more exothermic than reaction (ii).
rusting.
58. Metals can be converted into thin sheet by hammering.
(iv) Alloying (mixing iron in its molten state with other
This property is known as:
metals) prevents rusting. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron
(a) Ductility (b) Sonorous
with Cr or Ni.
(c) Malleability (d) Both (a) and (c)
64. The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against
corrosion is :
Case/Passage - 2
(a) nickel plating (b) copper plating
Elements can be classified as metals or non-metals on the
(c) tin plating (d) zinc plating
basis of their properties. The easiest way to start grouping
substances is by comparing their physical properties. Metals, 65. The most convenient method to protect the bottom of
in their pure state, have a shining surface. This property is ship made of iron is :
called metallic luster. metals are generally hard. The hardness
(a) coating it with red lead oxide.
varies from metal to metal. some metals are used for making
cooking vessels. (b) white tin plating.
(c) connecting it with Mg block.
59. Metals generally are
(a) reducing agents (d) connecting it with Pb block.
(b) oxidising agent 66. The best way to prevent rusting of iron is :
(c) both oxidising and reducing agents (a) making it cathode
(d) None of these (b) putting in saline water
60. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is - (c) both of these
(a) iron (b) copper (d) none of these
(c) aluminium (d) mercury
S-22 Science
Case/Passage - 4 73. Assertion: Sodium, potassium and magnesium are never
found as free elements in nature.
Some metals are chemically very reactive, whereas others
are less reactive or unreactive. On the basis of vigourness of Reason: Sodium, potassium and magnesium are reactive
reactions of various metals with oxygen, water and acids, as elements.
well as displacement reactions, the metals have been arranged
74. Assertion: Carbonate ores are changed into oxides by
in a group or series according to their chemical reactivity.
roasting process.
The arrangement of metals in a vertical column in the order
of decreasing reactivities is called reactivity series of metals Reason: It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxides.
(or activity series of metals). In reactivity series, the most
75. Assertion : Iron is found in the free state in nature.
reactive metal is placed at the top whereas the least reactive
metal is placed at the bottom. As we come down in the series, Reason : Iron is highly reactive element.
the chemical reactivity of metals decreases. Since the metals 76. Assertion : Different metals have different reactivities
placed at the bottom of the reactivity series (like silver and with water and dilute acids.
gold) are less reactive, so they are usually found in free state
(native state) in nature. Reason : Reactivity of a metal depends on its position in
the reactivity series.
67. When metal Z is added to dilute HCl solution, there is no
evolution of gas. Metal is : 77. Assertion : Zinc becomes dull in moist air.
(a) K (b) Na Reason : Zinc is coated by a thin film of its basic
(c) Ag (d) Zn carbonate in moist air.
68. Copper sulphate solution can be safely kept in a container 78. Assertion : Zinc is used in the galvanisation of iron.
made of : Reason : Its coating on iron articles increases their life by
(a) aluminium (b) lead protecting them from rusting.
(c) silver (d) zinc
79. Assertion : Nitrate ores are rarely available.
69. Metal always found in free state is :
Reason : Bond dissociation energy of nitrogen is very high.
(a) gold (b) silver
(c) copper (d) sodium Match the Following
89. An alloy of any metal with mercury is called ...................... 103. Roasting is done for sulphide ores.
the electrical conductivity of an alloy is ........... than that 104. Reaction that takes place in aluminothermic process is
of pure metals.
also known as thermite reaction.
S-24 Science
34. (a) Cu does not produce hydrogen gas on reaction with 48. (a) Solder alloy is used for welding electrical wires.
hydrochloric acid. Cu is present below hydrogen in The constituents of solder alloy are lead and tin.
reactivity series, i.e. it is less reactive than hydrogen. 49. (a) 2CsO2 + 2H2O → 2CsOH + H2O2 + O2
∆
35. (a) 2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g) → 2ZnO + 2SO2 CsO2 is the oxide of alkali metal. It is a basic oxide.
The sulphide ore is heated in presence of air to Due to formation of CsOH its aqueous solution is
produce its oxide form at a temperature below the basic.
melting point of the metal. The process is known as 50. (d) Copper will displace silver from silver nitrate
roasting. solution because copper lies above silver in
36. (d) Non-metals oxides are acidic in nature. reactivity series of metals.
65. (c) To protect the bottom of the ship it is connected with 89. amalgam, less 90. iron, chromium, carbon
more reactive metal than iron like magnesium. This 91. sulphide 92. calcination 93. tin
technique is called cathodic protection.
94. copper pyrite 95. anode
66. (a) Cathodic protection is best method to prevent iron
from rusting. In this method iron is made cathode by 96. True 97. False 98. True
application of external current.
99. False 100. True 101. False
Saline water is highly conducting and hence
accelerates the formation of rust. 102. False 103. True 104. True
4 Acids, Bases and
Life Processes
Salts
6. In the following sketch of stomatal apparatus, parts I, II,
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) III and IV were labelled differently by four students. The
correct labelling is:
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice
questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d)
out of which only one is correct. I
II
1. A pacemaker is meant for III
IV
(a) transporting liver.
(b) transplanting heart.
(c) initiation of heart beats.
(a) I-guard cell, II-stoma, III-starch granule, IV-nucleus
(d) regulation of blood flow.
(b) I-cytoplasm II-nucleus, III-stoma, IV-chloroplast
2. Root cap has no role in water absorption because: (c) I-guard cell, II-starch, III-nucleus, IV-stoma
(a) It has no direct connection with the vascular system (d) I-cytoplasm, II-chloroplast, III-stoma, IV-nucleus
(b) It has no cells containing chloroplasts
7. The correct order of air reaching from atmosphere to the
(c) It has no root hairs lungs is through
(d) It has loosely arranged cells. (a) external nares, larynx, trachea and air sac.
3. Veins can be differentiated from arteries because the (b) larynx, trachea, air sac and external nares.
veins (c) trachea, air sac, external nares and larynx.
(a) have valves (d) air sac, trachea, larynx and external nares.
(b) have hard walls.
8. The rate at which oxygen moves from the alveoli of our
(c) have pure blood in them. lungs into our blood
(d) have thick walls. (a) depends on the difference in oxygen concentration
4. The function of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule of between the alveoli and the blood.
the nephron is to (b) depends on the color of the alveoli.
(a) reabsorb water into the blood. (c) depends on the availability of energy to transport
(b) eliminate ammonia from the body. gases across the membrane.
(c) reabsorb salts and amino acids. (d) none of the above
(d) filter the blood and collect the filtrate. 9. Major function of contractile vacuole is
5. An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the (a) Excretion (b) Circulation
form of uric acid is that – (c) Osmoregulation (d) All of these
(a) It is less toxic and reduces water loss and the 10. Heart beat can be initiated by
subsequent need for water.
(a) Sino-auricular node
(b) The formation of uric acid requires a great deal of
(b) Atrio-ventricular node
energy.
(c) Sodium ion
(c) Uric acid is the first metabolic breakdown products
(d) Purkinje’s fibres
of acids.
(d) Uric acid may be excreted through the lungs.
Life Processes S-27
11. Digestion of food in human starts from 21. In respiration, air passes through
(a) Duodenum (b) Small intestine (a) Pharynx → nasal cavity → larynx → trachea →
(c) Mouth (d) Large intestine bronchi → bronchioles
12. Large intestine in man mainly carries out (b) Nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea →
(a) absorption bronchi → bronchioles
(b) assimilation (c) Larynx → nasal cavity → pharynx → trachea
(c) digestion of fats (d) Larynx → pharynx → trachea → lungs
(d) digestion of carbohydrates 22. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings,
13. In Amoeba the digestion is intracellular because pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid in the
(a) Amoeba is unicellular (a) cytoplasm (b) chloroplast
(b) Amoeba is multicellular (c) mitochondria (d) golgi body
(c) Amoeba is found in a pond
(d) Amoeba is a microscopic animal 23. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the
following?
14. The process of transpiration in plants helps in:
(a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests
(a) Opening of stomata
carbohydrates.
(b) Absorption of CO2 from atmosphere
(c) Upward conduction of water and minerals (b) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins.
(d) Absorption of O2 from atmosphere. (c) Trypsin and lipase digest fats.
(d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsify fats.
15. Erythropoesis may be stimulated by the deficiency of
(a) Iron (b) Oxygen 24. Choose the correct statement that describes arteries.
(c) Protein (d) None of these (a) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under
high pressure, collect blood from different organs
16. In the cardiac cycle, diastole is –
and bring it back to the heart.
(a) The number of heart beats per minute
(b) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows
(b) The relaxation period after contraction of the heart
under low pressure and carry blood away from the
(c) The forceful pumping action of the heart
heart to various organs of the body.
(d) The contraction period after relaxation of the heart.
(c) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under
17. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water low pressure, carry blood from the heart to various
and energy takes place in organs of the body.
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria (d) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside,
(c) chloroplast (d) nucleus blood flows under high pressure and carry blood
18. What is the term used when vessels open and let more away from the heart to different parts of the body.
blood through? Pseudopodia
(a) Vasoconstriction
(b) Vasodilatation 25. Food particle
12 D
10
Aerobic Anaerobic
8 Location
(a) Cytoplasm Mitochondria
(mmol/litre)
E
6
B
C
End Porduct CO2 and H2O
(b) Ethanol and
4
CO2
2
A
0 Amount of ATP High
(c) Low
0 30 60
Time in seconds Oxygen Needed
(d) Not needed
Life Processes S-31
72.
Column I Column II
Assertion & Reason
(A) Regulation metabolic (p) The removal of waste
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion from an organism.
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question (B) Reproduction (q) The chemical process
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that of oxidizing organic
best describes the two statements. molecules to release
energy.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion. (C) Respiration (r) The replication of an
organism.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
(D) Excretion (s) The control and
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
coordination of
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
chemical processes
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. within the organism.
65. Assertion: Blood of insects is colourless. 73. Column I Column II
Reason: The blood of insect does not play any role in (A) Stomach (p) The structure is the
transport of oxygen. site where the
chemical breakdown
66. Assertion: Blood pressure is arterial blood pressure.
of proteins first occurs.
Reason: It is measured by sphygmomanometer. (B) Large intestine (q) This organ absorbs
67. Assertion: Chloroplast help in photosynthesis. most of the water from
the undigested food.
Reason: Mitochondria have enzymes for dark reaction.
(C) Small intestine (r) This organ is the
68. Assertion: During physiology of excretion, deamination section of the
does not take place in liver. alimentary canal
Reason: Deamination is a process to make use of excess of where most of the food
amino acids which can not be incorporated into protoplasm. is absorbed into the
blood.
69. Assertion: Photorespiration decreases net photosynthesis. (D) Liver (s) This organ secretes
Reason: Rate of respiration in dark and light is almost the chemical bile,
same in all plants. which is used to
emulsify fats.
Match the Following
Fill in the Blanks
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column II. appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s).
70. Column I Column II 74. Ninety percent of the water lost by the plants during
(A) Autotrophic (p) Leech nutrition transpiration is through the ................ of the leaf.
(B) Heterotrophic nutrition (q) Paramaecium 75. The semi-liquid mixture of partially digested food found
(C) Parasitic nutrition (r) Deer in the stomach is called ....................... .
(D) Digestion in food (s) Green plant. 76. The ......................... prevents the entry of food into the
vaculoes respiratory tract.
71. Column I Column II 77. Second heart sound heard as ............. is due to closure of
(Animal) (Respiratory Organ) .............. valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(A) Fish (p) Trachea 78. Kidney eliminate the excretory waste materials as their
(B) Birds (q) Gills aqueous solution, called .................. .
(C) Aquatic (r) Lungs 79. Energy rich compound generated during photosynthesis
(D) Earthworm (s) Moist cuticle is ........................ .
S-32 Science
80. Pressure in the arteries during ventricular relaxation is 86. A complete digestive tract consists of an oral and an anal
called ........................ pressure. opening.
81. Diffusion is insufficient to meet .................... requirement 87. Only the multicellular organisms require transporting
of multicellular organisms like humans. mechanisms.
88. Humans have an open circulatory system.
True / False
89. Living organisms must maintain a constant internal
environment.
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
answer as true or false. 90. In humans, the alveoli are the functioning units of
external respiration.
82. Translocation is the transportation of the products of
91. Circulatory system also performs the function of homeostasis.
photosynthesis.
92. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized in human body.
83. In a general, digestion is simply hydrolysis of complex
polymers to monomers. 93. Generally gravitational water is utilized by the plants.
84. The exchange of nutrients and waste products between 94. In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is given out by
the blood and cells occurs within the arteries. diffusion process.
85. Trypsin digests proteins into amino acids. 95. Bowman’s capsule is found in heart.
Life Processes S-33
47. (c) Glycogen is insoluble thus, storing it as glycogen 59. (d) (i) Urine (ii) Bladder
will not upset the osmotic pressure rather than (iii) Ureters (iv) Urethra
glucose which is soluble in water. And if cell store
it as glucose, it will disturb the osmotic pressure 60. (b) Tissue respiration
(hypertonic) that will cause the cell to lyse. 61. (b) Anaerobic respiration
48. (3) In this condition, adrenaline is secreated by adrenal 62. (b)
gland into the blood stream which increases the
Aerobic Anaerobic Amount of energy is high
heart rate, redistributing blood to the muscles and
and consistent in aerobic
altering the blood metabolism, so as to maximise
and low in anaerobic
blood glucose levels primarily for the brain.
49. (c) The pancreas is a glandular organ. It is the part of 63. (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) only
the digestive syste, located in the abdomen and 64. (a) Location Aerobic-Cyloplasm and Anaerobic-
produces insulin and other important enzymes and Mitochondria
hormones that help break down foods. The enzymes
65. (b) The blood of an insect functions differently than the
include trypsin and chymotrypsin to digest proteins,
blood of a human. Insect blood, however, does not
amylase to break down carbohydrates and lipase, to
carry gases and has no haemoglobin which gives red
break down fats into fatty acids and cholesterol.
colour to the blood.
Life Processes S-35
66. (b) Blood pressure, sometimes called arterial blood 72. (A) → (s), (B) → (r), (C) → (q), (D) → (p)
pressure, is the pressure exerted by circulating blood
73. (A) → (p), (B) → (q), (C) → (r), (D) → (s)
upon the walls of blood vessels. Blood pressure is
measured by sphygmomanometer. 74. stomata 75. chyme
67. (c) Dark reaction occurs in the stroma region of the 76. epiglottis 77.
Dup/Dubb, semilunar
chloroplast and mitochondria is involved in the 78. urine 79.
ATP
synthesis of ATP.
80. diastolic 81. oxygen
68. (d) Deamination takes place in liver during excretion
to make excess of amino acids which can not be 82. True 83. True 84. False 85. True
incorporated into protoplasm. 86. True 87. False 88. False 89. True
69. (c) 90. True 91. True 92. True 93. False
70. (A) → (s), (B) → (r), (C) → (p), (D) → (q) 94. False 95. False
71. (A) → (q), (B) → (r), (C) → (p), (D) → (s)
Light-Reflection
5 Acids,
Salts
Bases and
and Refraction
6. The image formed by a convex mirror
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (a) is always real
(b) is always virtual
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice (c) cannot say
questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) (d) None of these
out of which only one is correct.
7. In case of erect object having inverted image, linear
1. An object is at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane magnification is :
mirror. Distance between the object and image is (a) positive (b) negative
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (c) zero (d) no definite sign.
(c) 0.25 m (d) 1.5 m 8. If object lies symmetrically and number of images
formed are 9, therefore two plane mirrors are kept at an
2. Number of images formed when two plane mirrors are angle of :
inclined at an angle 90° is (a) 72° (b) 40°
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 36° (d) 50°
(c) 4 (d) 5 9. Reciprocal of focal length of a lens gives the
3. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) power (b) radius
(a) A convex mirror is often used as driving rear-view mirror. (c) magnification (d) none of these
(b) A convex mirror is often used as a shaving mirror. 10. Magnification of a lens is given by
(c) A concave mirror is often used in a search light or a torch. image height 1
(a) object height (b)
(d) A concave mirror is often used as the reflector Radius
behind lamp in a projector
1 1
4. The relation, R = 2f holds true for : (c) (d)
focal length image distance
(a) concave mirrors only
11. A man having height 2.5 m. He oberves image of 1m
(b) convex mirrors only height erect, then mirror used is
(c) all spherical mirrors (a) concave (b) convex
(d) lens as well as for all spherical mirrors. (c) plane (d) None of these
5. A magnification greater than unity indicates : 12. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens
(a) real image to get a real image of the size of the object?
(b) size of the image is smaller than that of object (a) At the principal focus of the lens
(c) size of the object is smaller than that of image (b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) size of object is equal to that of image
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its
principal focus.
Light-Reflection and Refraction S-37
13. Find the angle of incidence and angle of reflection from 20. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a convex mirror.
the diagram. The virtual image formed by the mirror is located 30 cm
behind the mirror. What is the object’s magnification
(a) + 2 (b) –2
(c) + 0.5 (d) – 0.5
21. Light rays A and B fall on optical component X and come
Mirror out as C and D.
surface 35° C
A
X
(a) 45°, 40° (b) 55°, 55° B
(c) 60°, 60° (d) 30°, 30° D
14. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a The optical component is a
focal length of –15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to (a) concave lens (b) convex lens
be (c) convex mirror (d) prism
(a) both concave.
22. An object is placed 20.0 cm in front of a concave mirror
(b) both convex. whose focal length is 25.0 cm. What is the magnification
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex. of the object?
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave. (a) + 5.0 (b) – 5.0
(c) + 0.20 (d) – 0.20
15. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use
while reading small letters found in a dictionary? 23. An object is placed at the radius of curvature of a concave
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm. spherical mirror. The image formed by the mirror is
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm. (a) located at the focal point of the mirror.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm. (b) located between the focal point and the radius of
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm. curvature of the mirror.
(c) located at the center of curvature of the mirror.
16. An object is situated at a distance of f/2 from a convex
(d) located out beyond the center of curvature of the
lens of focal length f. Distance of image will be – mirror.
(a) + (f/2) (b) + (f/3)
24. If the refractive indices for water and diamond relative to
(c) + (f/4) (d) – f
air are 1.33 and 2.4 respectively, then the refractive index
17. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a concave mirror. of diamond relative to water is –
The real image formed by the mirror is located 30 cm in (a) 5.5 (b) 1.80
front of the mirror. What is the object’s magnification? (c) 3.19 (d) None of these
(a) + 2 (b) –2
25. There is an equiconvex lens of focal length of 20 cm. If
(c) + 0.5 (d) –0.5
the lens is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to the
18. Two plane mirrors are set at right angle and a flower is principle axis, the focal lengths of each part will be
placed in between the mirrors. The number of images of (a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm
the flower which will be seen is (c) 40 cm (d) 15 cm
(a) One (b) Two 26. An object is placed 20.0 cm in front of a concave mirror
(c) Three (d) Four whose focal length is 25.0 cm. Where is the image
19. A man is 6.0 ft tall. What is the smallest size plane mirror located?
he can use to see his entire image (a) 1.0 × 102 cm in front of the mirror
(a) 3.0 ft (b) 6.0 ft (b) 1.0 × 102 cm behind the mirror
(c) 12 ft (d) 24 ft (c) 5.0 × 101 cm in front of the mirror
(d) 5.0 × 101 cm behind the mirror
S-38 Science
27. Which statement best describes the property of light 33. A number of images of a candle flame can be seen in a
waves illustrated in the diagram below? thick plane mirror. The brightest image is
(a) Fourth (b) Second
(c) Last (d) First
34. A ray from air enters water, then through a thick layer of
glass placed below water. After passing through glass, it
again comes out in air medium. Then final emergent ray
will
(a) Bend towards the normal
(b) Suffer lateral displacement
(a) Some materials absorb light waves.
(c) Have the same path as if it had not passed through
(b) Some materials reflect light waves.
glass and water.
(c) Light waves are refracted by some materials.
(d) None of these
(d) Light waves are emitted by some materials.
35. A concave spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of
28. Light waves
100 cm. What is its focal length
(a) require air or another gas to travel through
(a) 50 cm (b) 100 cm
(b) require an electric field to travel through
(c) 200 cm (d) 300 cm
(c) require a magnetic field to travel through
(d) can travel through perfect vacuum 36. Light is incident on an air-water interface at an angle of
25° to the normal. What angle does the refracted ray make
29. What are the factors that determine the angle of deviation
with the normal
in a prism?
(a) 19° (b) 34°
(a) angle of incidence (b) wave length
(c) 25° (d) 90°
(c) angle of the prism (d) All the above
30. Morning sun is not so hot as the mid day sun because 37. If the speed of light in medium –1 and medium –2 are
2.5 × 108 ms–1 and 2 × 108 ms–1, respectively, then the
(a) Sun is cooler in the morning
refractive index of medium – 1 with respect to medium –
(b) Heat rays travel slowly is the morning
2 is _________.
(c) It is God gift
(d) The sun’s rays travel a longer distance through 3 2
(a) (b)
atmosphere in the morning 2.5 2.5
31. The layered lens shown below is made of two different 2.5 2.5
(c) (d)
transparent materials. 3 2
38. Under what conditions does a diverging lens form a
virtual image of a real object
(a) Only if u > f.
(b) Only if u < f.
(c) Only if u = f
(d) A diverging lens always forms a virtual image of a
real object.
A point object is placed on its axis. The object will form
(a) one image (b) infinite images 39. A lens produces a enlarged, virtual image. What kind of
(c) no image (d) two images lens is it?
(a) converging
32. An object is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal
(b) diverging
length 50.0 cm and a real image is formed 75 cm in front
of the mirror. How far is the object from the mirror (c) It could be either diverging or converging.
(a) 25 cm (b) 30 cm (d) None
(c) 150 cm (d) –150 cm
Light-Reflection and Refraction S-39
40. In an experiment to determine the focal length of a 42. On the basis of experiment ‘to trace the path of a ray
concave lens, a student obtained the image of a distant of light passing through a rectangular glass slab’ four
window on the screen. To determine the focal length of students arrived at the following interpretations :
the lens, she/he should measure the distance between the I. Angle of incidence is greater than the angle of
(a) lens and the screen only emergence.
II. Angle of emergence is less than the angle of
(b) lens and the window only
refraction.
(c) screen and the window only
III. Emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
(d) screen and the lens and also between the screen and IV. Emergent ray is parallel to the refracted ray.
the window
The correct interpretation is that of the student.
41. Ashima looks into the mirror and sees the reflection of the (a) I (b) II
picture behind her. (c) III (d) IV
Picture 43. Light waves
Mirror
(a) are mechanical waves
(b) are electromagnetic waves
(c) travel with the same velocity in all media
(d) requires a material medium for their propagation
Image seen by Ashima
in the mirror 44. Virtual images of object of the same size are formed by
(a) a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror (d) all the above
45. Two plane inclined mirrors form 5 images by multiple
reflection. The angle of inclination is
Which of the following is the picture that is behind (a) 90° (b) 60°
Ashima ? (c) 45° (d) 30°
46. A bright × (cross) mark is made on a sheet of white paper.
Over the white paper a rectangular glass-slab of thickness
3 cm is placed. On looking through, the image of the mark
(a)
appears above the mark. It is below the upper surface of
the slab by (µglass = 1.5)
(a) 2.5 cm (b) 1.5 cm
(c) 2 cm (d) 1.75 cm
47. Images formed by an object placed between two plane
mirrors whose reflecting surfaces make an angle of 90°
(b)
with one another lie on a
(a) Straight line (b) Zig-zag curve
(c) Circle (d) Ellipse
48. A diver in a swimming pool wants to send a signal to a
person lying on the edge of the pool by flashing his water-
proof torch
(c) (a) He must direct the beam of light vertically upwards
(b) He must direct the beam horizontally
(c) He must direct the beam at an angle to the vertical
which is slightly lesser than the critical angle
(d) He must direct the beam at an angle to the vertical
which is slightly greater than the critical angle
49. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle θ. A ray of light
(d)
is incident on one mirror and is then reflected from the
other mirror. Then the angle between the first ray and the
final ray will be
S-40 Science
(a) θ (b) 2θ (c) plane or concave mirror
(c) between θ and 2θ (d) > 2θ (d) plane or concave or convex mirror
50. A glass slab is placed in the path of a beam of convergent 57. Refraction of light from air to glass and from air to water
light, then the point of convergence of light are shown in figure (i) and (ii) below. The value of the
(a) moves towards the glass slab angle in the case of refraction as shown in figure (iii) will
(b) moves away from the glass slab be :
(c) remains at the same point 35°
(d) undergoes a lateral shift
glass
51. A real image is formed by a convex mirror when the (i)
object is placed at
air
(a) infinite 60°
(b) between center of curvature and focus
(c) between focus and pole air
x
80. Two plane mirrors are kept on a horizontal table making
O
an angle θ with each other as shown schematically in the
30° figure. The angle θ is such that any ray of light reflected
after striking both the mirrors returns parallel to its
incident path. For this to happen, the value of θ should be
iˆ
(a) (b) iˆ − 3 ˆj
iˆ − 2 ˆj
(c) 3iˆ − ˆj (d)
78. A ray of light originates from inside a glass slab and is
incident on its inner surface at an angle θ as shown below.
Glass slab
2 (a) 30° (b) 45°
x
0 (c) 60° (d) 90°
A B C D
20 cm
(a) + 5 D (b) – 5 D
(a) A (b)
B
(c) + 0.5 D (d) – 0.5 D
(c) C (d)
D
Case/Passage - 2
Light travels through a vacuum at a speed c = 3 × 108 m/s. It 100. You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene.
can also travel through many materials, such as air, water and In which of these media, a ray of light incident obliquely
glass. Atoms in the material absorb, reemit and scatter the at same angle would bend the most?
light, however. Therefore, light travels through the material (a) Kerosene (b) Water
at a speed that is less than c, the actual speed depending on (c) Mustard oil (d) Glycerine
the nature of the material. To describe the extent to which
101. A ray of light is incident in medium 1 on a surface that
the speed of light in a material medium differs from that in
separates medium 1 from medium 2. Let v1 and v2
a vacuum, we use a parameter called the index of refraction
represent the velocity of light in medium 1 and medium 2
(or refractive index).
respectively. Also let n12 and n21 represent the refractive
97. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 and
refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1,
respectively. If i and r denote the angle of incidence and
angle of refraction, then-
45°
45° Medium B sin i v1 sin i v2
30° Medium A (a) sin r = n21 v (b) = n21 v
2 sin r 1
60°
sin i v1 sin i v2
(c) = n12 v (d) = n12 v
sin r 2 sin r 1
medium B. Retractive index of the medium B relative to
medium A is Case/Passage - 3
98. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown To good approximation, a substance’s index of refraction does
not depend on the wavelength of light. For instance, when red
and blue light waves enter water, they both slow down by about
Medium B the same amount. More precise measurements, however, reveal
that n varies with wavelength. Table presents some indices of
refraction of Custon glass, for different wavelengths of visible
Medium A light. A nanometer (nm) is 10–9 meters. In a vacuum, light
travels as c = 3.0 × 108 m/s
in the figure. The refractive index of medium B relative to Table : Indices of refraction of Custon glass
A will be
Approximately Wavelength in "Indices
(a) greater than unity (b) less than unity
colour vacuum (nm) n"
(c) equal to unity (d) zero
yellow 580 1.5
99. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing yellow orange 600 1.498
through a rectangular glass slab traced by four students
orange 620 1.496
shown as A, B, C and D in the figure. Which one of
them is correct? orange red 640 1.494
Light-Reflection and Refraction S-45
102. Inside Custon glass 108. Assertion : When a concave mirror is held under water,
(a) Orange light travels faster than yellow light its focal length will increase.
(b) Yellow light travels faster than orange light Reason : The focal length of a concave mirror is
(c) Orange and Yellow light travels equally fast independent of the medium in which it is placed.
(d) We cannot determine which color of light travels faster 109. Assertion : A convex mirror is used as a driver’s
mirror.
103. For blue-green of wavelength 520 nm, the index of
refraction of Custon glass is probably closest to Reason : Because convex mirror’s field of view is large
and images formed are virtual, erect and diminshed.
(a) 1.49 (b) 1.50
(c) 1.51 (d) 1.52 110. Assertion : When the object moves with a velocity v , its
image in the plane mirror moves with a velocity of −2v
104. Which of the following phenomena happens because n
with respect to the object.
varies with wavelength
Reason : The minimum height of the mirror to be required
(a) A lens focuses light
h
(b) A prism breaks sunlight into different colors to see the full image of man of height h is .
2
(c) Total internal reflections ensures that light travels
down a fiber optic cable 111. Assertion : As the temperature of a medium increases the
refractive index decreases.
(d) Light rays entering a pond change direction at the
pond’s surface Reason : When a ray travels from vacuum to a medium,
then µ is known as absolute refractive index of the
medium. (µvacuum = 1).
Assertion & Reason
112. Assertion : If a spherical mirror is dipped in water, its
focal length remains unchanged.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question Reason : A laser light is focused by a converging lens.
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that There will be a significant chromatic aberration.
best describes the two statements.
113. Assertion : A virtual image cannot be projected one
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
screen.
the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is Reason : Virtual images are formed by actual meeting
not the correct explanation of Assertion. of rays of light after reflection or refraction.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 114. Assertion : Red light travels faster in glass than green
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. light.
105. Assertion : The diameter of convex lens required to form Reason : The refractive index of glass is less for red
full image of an object is half the height of the object. light than for green light.
Reason : The smaller diameter lens will give full image 115. Assertion : As light travels from one medium to
of lower intensity. another, the frequency of light does not change.
106. Assertion : The image of a point object situated at the Reason : Because frequency is the characteristic of
centre of hemispherical lens is also at the centre. source.
Reason : For hemisphere Snell’s law is not valid. 116. Assertion : Light rays retrace their path when their
107. Assertion : A point object is placed at a distance of 26 cm direction is reversed (Law of reversibility of light rays)
from a convex mirror of focal length 26 cm. The image Reason : For the refraction of light, water is denser than
will not form at infinity. air, but for the refraction of sound, water is rarer than air.
1 1 1 117. Assertion : The mirrors used in search lights are parabolic
Reason : For above given system the equation + =
u v f and not concave spherical.
gives v = ∞.
Reason : Silvered plano convex lens is used in search
light.
S-46 Science
121. Light seems to travel in ...............
Match the Following
122. A light ray travelling obliquely from a denser medium to a
rarer medium bends ............. the normal. A light ray bends
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, .............. the normal when it travels obliquely from a rarer
D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in to a denser medium.
column II. 123. In case of a rectangular glass slab, the refraction takes
place at both .................. interface and ............... interface.
118. Match the following :
The emergent ray is ........... to the direction of incident
Column I Column II
ray.
(A) Power of convex mirror (p) Positive power
(B) Power of concave mirror (q) Negative power 124. Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its .................
(C) Power of plane mirror (r) Zero power 125. The SI unit of power of a lens is ................
(D) Power of convex lens (s) Infinite power
126. The angle of incidence is ......... to the angle of reflection.
119. The graphs given apply to convex lens of focal length f,
producing a real image at a distance v from the optical 127. The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror may be curved
centre when self luminous object is at distance u from
.............. or ..............
the optical centre. The magnitude of magnification is m.
Identify the following graphs with the first named quantity 128. The inner surface of the spoon can be approximated to a
being plotted along y-axis.
........... mirror.
Column I Column II
129. The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is
a point called the ................
v against u
(A) (p) 130. The centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies in ..........
of it.
131. Line passing through the pole and the centre of curvature
of a spherical mirror is called the ................
1 1 132. A ray parallel to the principal axis, after reflection, will
(B) against (q)
v u pass through the ....................
133. The dentists use ............... mirrors to see large images of
y the teeth of patients.
134. A transparent material bound by two surfaces, of which
m against v
(C) (r) one or both surfaces are spherical, forms a ...........
135. The degree of ............. of light rays achieved by a lens is
x
expressed in terms of its power.
136. An object is placed in front of a spherical mirror. The
v
(D) (m + 1) against (s) image is found to be virtual for all positions of the object.
f
The spherical mirror is .........
137. Two immiscible transparent liquids A and B have 1.2 and
1.5 as their refractive indices (with respect to air). The
Fill in the Blanks refractive index of B with respect to A is ........
1 1 1 60°
16. (d) For a spherical lens − =
v u f x
O 60°
For convex lens. u = – f /2 and f is + ve
1 1 1 1 1 2
∴ = + + =+ − r
∴v=–f
v f u f f f
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) B
Reflected
22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) ray
27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (d)
∴ if a vector r is along the reflected ray, then
32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a)
= r cos30°iˆ − sin 30 ˆj
37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (b)
3ˆ 1 ˆ
42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) =r i− j
2 2
47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (d)
=r 3 iˆ − ˆj
52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (a)
Hence, the direction of the reflected ray vector is .
sin 60° sin 60°
57. (b) aµg = and aµw = ˆ ˆ
sin 35° sin 41° 3i − j
Light-Reflection and Refraction S-49
78. (a) Angle of incidence, i = 90° – θ, decreases with 1 1 1 1 1 1
increase in θ upto angle of incidence i = critical = – ⇒ = –
–15 v2 20 v2 20 15
angle reflection takes place so x is positive and
beyond the critical angle refraction takes place so x ∴ v2 = –60 cm
is negative. Therefore image shifts away from mirror by
Hence graph ‘A’ correctly depicts variation of x with = 60 – 24 = 36 cm
the angle θ. 82. (c) For the end B, image distance of end B will be,
1 1 1 f = 10 cm
79. (c) For lens A, = –
f v u
A B
uB = –18 cm
1 1 1
⇒ = –– vB = image distance of end B
30 v 40
O As we know,
1 1 1
⇒ = +
30 v 40 40 cm 30 cm 1 1 1
= v −u
4–3 1 f B B
= = or, v = 120 cm.
120 120 1 1 1
For lens B, u = 90 cm [u = 120 – 30] v = f + u
B B
1 1 1 1 1 1
= – ⇒ = – 1 1 1 8
f v u 30 v 90 v = − =
1 1 1 3 +1 B 10 18 180
= + =
v 30 90 90 180
vB = ⇒ 22.5 cm
or, v = 22.5 cm 8
Which is positive so that it is 22.5 cm from lens B. Similarly, for the end A, image distance of end A
will be,
80. (d) Two mirrors are inclined at an angle, θ = ?
f = 10 cm
According to question, emergent ray is parallel to
incident ray uA = –20 cm
∴ deviation angle δ = 180° vA = image distance of end A
But δ = 360° – 2θ 1 1 1
= v −u
or, 360° – 2θ = 180° f A A
or, 2θ = 180° 1 1 1
= f + u
∴ θ = 90° vA A
81. (b) 1 1 1 1
f = 15 cm = − =
vA 10 20 20
O 40 cm
vA = 20 cm
So, length of image A’B’ = (vB – vA)
= 22.5 – 20 = 2.5 cm
1 1 1
Using mirror formula, = + A′B′ 2.5
f v1 u So magnification, m = ⇒ = 1.25
AB 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
– 15= v + u ⇒ =
v –15
+
40 v
1 1 83. (c) +5 =− ⇒ v =−5u
∴ v1 = –24 cm u
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards mirror 1 1 1 1 1 −1
Now, u2 = –20 Using ⇒ + = ⇒ + =
v u f −5 u u 0.4
1 1 1 ∴ u = – 0.32 m.
So, = +
f v2 u2
S-50 Science
84. (a) Given, 1 1 1
− =
Object distance, u = 30cm V −40 20
when a lens is cut along the principle axis into two or, V = 40 cm from converging lens real and
equal parts focal length remains same for each part. inverted.
\ Focal length, f = 20cm 92. (d) When mirror is rotated by angle θ reflected ray will
using lens formula be rotated by 2θ.
1 1 1 light
= - spot
f v u
y
1 1 1 1
Þ = - = source
v 20 30 60 2
Mirror
(L) x
⇒ v = 60 cm
85. (c) Focal length of a lens, F = 25 cm y y
= 2θ ⇒ θ =
f = 0.25 m x 2x
1 1 93. (b) Given: d1 = 5 cm, µ1 = 1.33
P = = = 4D
f 0.25 d2 = 2 cm, µ2 = 1.5
86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (a) d1 and d2 are the thickness of slabs of medium with
refractive index µ1 and µ2, respectively.
90. (d) Here µcs2 > µ water > µair
(1.6) (1.33) (1.0) d1 d 2
i.e., CS2 is denser than water and water is denser than air. using formula, d = µ + µ + .....
1 2
87. Assertion: The twinkling of stars is due to the fact that 95. The closest distance at which the eye can focus clearly is
refractive index of the earth’s atmosphere fluctuates. called the .................
Reason: In cold countries, the phenomenon of looming 96. For a normal eye, the range of vision is from .................
(i.e., ship appears in the sky) takes place, because 97. A person is short-sighted if his eyeball is too ....................
refractive index of air decreases with height.
98. The eye which cannot simultaneously see with the
88. Assertion: When we see an object, the image formed on same distinctness all objects or lines making different
the retina is real and inverted. inclinations is said to suffer from ..................
Reason: If the magnification of a system is less than one, 99. The defect of the eye due to which a person is unable to
then the image formed is inverted. distinguish between certain colours, known as ..............
89. Assertion: Rainbow is an example of the dispersion of 100. The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant
sunlight by the water droplets. objects, by adjusting its focal length, is called the ..........
Reason: Light of shorter wavelength is scattered much 101. The smallest distance, at which the eye can see objects
more than light of larger wavelength. clearly without strain, is called the ............. of the eye.
Match the Following 102. The splitting of white light into its component colours is
called .....................
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in 103. .................. causes the blue colour of sky and the
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, reddening of the Sun at sunrise and sunset.
D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in 104. Sunlight comprises ............... colours.
column II.
90. Column II gives lens that can be use to correct the defect
True / False
of vision given in column I, match them correctly.
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
Column I Column II answer as true or false.
(A) Myopia (p) Convex lens
105. Lens which is used for correcting the presbyopia defect
(B) Hypermetropia (q) Concave lens of the eye is concave.
106. The colour that deviates maximum while passing through
(C) Astigmatism (r) Cylindrical lens
a glass prism is violet.
(D) Presbyopia (s) Bi-focal lens Fill in the
107. Water droplets act as tiny prism in the formation of
Blanks
rainbow.
S-60 Science
108. The transparent spherical membrane covering the front of 113. Hypermetropia is corrected by using a convex lens of
the eye is known as cornea. suitable power.
109. The eye which can see near object clearly is said to suffer 114. A person suffering from myopia cannot see distant objects
from hypermetropia. clearly.
110. The eye which cannot see distant objects clearly is said to 115. The sun looks red at sunset because most of the blue light
suffer from myopia. in sunrays is scattered leaving behind red and yellow
111. Colour blindness is a genetic disorder which occurs by lights.
inheritance. 116. Clouds look white because water droplets of clouds
112. In Myopia the image of distant objects is focused before scatter all colours of light equally.
the retina. 117. The sun is visible two minutes before the actual sunrise
due to atmospheric refraction.
The Human Eye and the Colourful World S-61
3. (a) In poorly lit room or dim light the iris expands the power = – 1 D
pupil to allow more light to enter the eye. 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (c)
4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a)
32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d)
7. (d) Near the horizon at sunrise and sunset, most of the
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b)
blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered
away an hence sun appears red. 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (a)
8. (a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights. 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11.
(d) 12. (c)
48. (a)
13. (a) Dispersion arises because of basic phenomenon
49. (a) Difference in refractive indices of blue and green
refraction.
colour are less so they are seen together and red is
14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) seen separate because deviation depends on refractive
index.
18. (b) 19. (d)
20. (d) v = – 15 cm, u = – 300 cm 50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c)
N
85. (b) When a light ray passes through denser medium
M
Orange
Red from a rarer it undergoes refraction.
Yellow
Green
Indigo Blue (Sky Colour) 86. (b) In myopic eye due to the increased converging
power of eye lens, the image of a far off object is
Violet
B C
formed in front of the retina.
The Human Eye and the Colourful World S-63
87. (b) 96. 25 cm to infinity 97.
long
88. (c) The image formed on retina is real and inverted. If 98. astigmatism. 99. colour blindness
magnification is less than 1, then diminished image
100. accommodation of the eye.
is formed not inverted.
101. near point 102. dispersion.
89. (b)
103. Scattering of light 104.
7
90. (A) → q; (B) → p; (C) → r; (D) → p
105. False 106.
True 107.
True 108. True
91. iris 92. pupil 93. retina
109. False 110.
True 111.
True 112. True
94. 25 cm. 95. near point
113. True 114. True 115. True 116. True
117. True
Carbon and Its
7 Acids,
Salts
Bases
Compounds
and
14. The final product of chlorination of methane in the sun (a) 5 covalent bonds (b) 12 covalent bonds
light is – (c) 16 covalent bonds (d) 17 covalent bonds
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH2Cl2 23. Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four
(c) CHCl3 (d) CCl4 valence electrons with four univalent atoms, e.g.
hydrogen. After the formation of four bonds, carbon
15. The number of oxygen molecules used in the combustion attains the electronic configuration of:
of 1 molecule of ethanol is –
(a) helium (b) neon
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) argon (d) krypton
(c) 3 (d) 4
24. Which of the following does not belong to the same
16. General formula of alkyne is –
homologous series?
(a) CnH2n+2 (b) CnH2n
(a) CH4 (b) C2H6
(c) CnH2n–2 (d) CnHn (c) C3H8 (d) C4H8
17. When vanaspati oil reacts with hydrogen then it is 25. The enzyme involved in the oxidation of ethanol to form
converted into vanaspati ghee. In this process catalyst vinegar is –
used is :
(a) zymase (b) oxidase
(a) Fe (b) Mo
(c) acetobacter (d) invertase
(c) V (d) Ni
26. Glacial acetic acid is –
18. Observe the following pairs of organic compounds :
(a) 100% acetic acid free of water
(I) C4H9OH and C5H11OH
(b) solidified acetic acid
(II) C7H15OH and C5H11OH
(c) gaseous acetic acid
(III) C6H13OH and C3H7OH
(d) frozen acetic acid
Which of these pair is a homologous series according to 27. When ethanoic acid is heated with NaHCO3 the gas
increasing order of carbon atom? evolved is –
(a) (III) only (b) (II) only (a) H2 (b) CO2
(c) (I) only (d) All of these (c) CH4 (d) C O
19. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of : 28. During decarboxylation of ethanoic acid with sodalime
(a) carbon monoxide only. (NaOH + CaO), CO2 is removed as –
(b) carbon monoxide in traces, and carbon dioxide. (a) CO2 (b) CO
(c) carbon dioxide only. (c) Na2CO3 (d) CaCO3
(d) coal 29. When ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, a sweet
smelling product is formed. The functional group in
20. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of
the product is
palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an example
of : (a) aldehyde (b) ketone
(a) addition reaction (c) alcohol (d) ester
(b) substitution reaction 30. Detergents can lather well in –
(c) displacement reaction (a) soft water (b) hard water
(d) oxidation reaction (c) river water (d) any one of the above
S-66 Science
31. ‘Drinking alcohol’ is very harmful and it ruins the health. 39. The total number of electrons and the number of electrons
‘Drinking alcohol’ stands for – involved in the formation of various bonds present in one
(a) drinking methyl alcohol molecule of propanal (C2H5CHO) are respectively.
(b) drinking ethyl alcohol (a) 32 and 20 (b) 24 and 20
(c) drinking propyl alcohol (c) 24 and 18 (d) 32 and 18
(d) drinking isopropyl alcohol 40. The number of structural isomers of the compound
32. The treatment of acetic acid with lithium aluminium having molecular formula C4H9Br is
hydride produces – (a) 3 (b) 5
(a) methanol (b) ethanol (c) 4 (d) 2
(c) ethanal (d) methanal
41. A sweet smelling compound formed by reacting acetic
33. The fermentation reactions are carried out in temperature acid with ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid is
range of – (a) CH3COOC2H5 (b) C2H5COOH
(a) 20-30°C (b) 30-40°C (c) C2H5COOCH3 (d) CH3OH
(c) 40-50°C (d) 50-60°C
42. Percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2) is
34. Soaps are sodium salts of fatty acids. Which of the (a) 23.3% (b) 46.7%
following fatty acids does not form soap?
(c) 69.9% (d) 11.66%
(a) butyric acid (b) oleic acid
43. The molecular formula of carboxylic acid that differs
(c) palmitic acid (d) stearic acid
from the rest is
35. The OH group of an alcohol or the —COOH group of a
(a) C13H26O2 (b) C2H4O2
carboxylic acid can be replaced by —Cl using :–
(a) phosphorus pentachloride (c) C9H18O2 (d) C7H12O2
(b) hypochlorous acid 44. During laboratory preparation CH4 gas is collected by
(c) chlorine downward displacement of water because
(d) hydrochloric acid (a) CH4 is lighter than Air
36. Which compound represents the vinegar? (b) CH4 is poisonous gas
(a) HCOOH (b) CH3CHO (c) It does not dissolve in water
(c) HCHO (d) CH3COOH (d) All the above statements are correct
37. A & B both compounds give H2 gas with sodium. If A & 45. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about
B react in presence of acid catalyst then they form ethyl graphite and diamond ?
acetate. Thus, A & B would be - (a) Graphite is smooth and slippery.
(a) CH3COOH, CH3OH (b) Diamond is good conductor of heat.
(b) HCOOH, CH3COOH (c) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
(c) CH3COOH, C2H5OH (d) Physical and chemical properties of graphite and
diamond are same.
(d) C3H7COOH, C3H7OH
46. A compound ‘X’ reacts with a compound ‘Y’ , to produce
38. During the cleansing action of soap dirt is surrounded by a colourless and odourless gas. The gas turns lime water
soap molecules. Soap molecule is like a tadpole which milky. When ‘X’ reacts with methanol in the presence
has a head and tail. These head and tail respectively are: of concentrated H2SO4, a sweet smelling substance is
(a) hydrophobic and hydrophilic produced. The molecular formula of the compound ‘X’
(b) hydrophobic and hydrophobic is –
(c) hydrophilic and hydrophilic (a) C2H4O (b) C2H4O2
(d) hydrophilic and hydrophobic
(c) C2H6O (d) C2H6O2
Carbon and Its Compounds S-67
47. The functional groups present in the following compound (c) A = Sodium acetate, B = Ethanoic acid, C = Methyl
are – ethanoate, D = Methanol, E = Ethanol
O (d) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid, C = Methyl
ethanoate, D = Sodium acetate, E = Methanol
C — OH
52. In shaving creams________ is added to prevent rapid
drying.
O — C — CH3 (a) Methanol (b) Glycerol
(c) Ethanol (d) Glycol
O
53. An organic compound A on heating with concentrated
(a) alcohol, ketone and ester
H2SO4 gave product B and on warming with alkaline
(b) ester and carboxylic acid KMnO4 gave compound C. Compound A on heating
(c) carboxylic acid and ketone with compound C in presence of concentrated H2SO4
(d) ester and alcohol formed compound D, which has fruity smell. Identify the
compounds A, B, C and D:
48. A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen contains (a) A = Alcohol, B = Carboxylic acid,
these elements in the ratio of their atomic mass 9 : 1 : C = Alkene, D = Ester
3.5, if its molecular mass is 108 u. What is its molecular
(b) A = Carboxylic acid, B = Ester,
formula?
C = Alkene, D = Alcohol
(a) C2H2N (b) C3H4N (c) A = Alcohol, B = Alkene,
(c) C2HN2 (d) C6H8N2 C = Carboxylic acid, D = Ester
(d) A = Alkene, B = Alcohol, C = Ester,
49. How many grams of oxygen gas will be needed for
D = Carboxylic acid
complete combustion of 2 moles of 3rd member of alkyne
series ? 54. Two organic compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ react with sodium
metal and both produce the same gas ‘X’, but with
(a) 186 g (b) 256 g sodium hydrogen carbonate, only compound B reacts to
(c) 352 g (d) 372 g give a gas ‘Y’. Identify ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘X’ and ‘Y’:
(a) A = Ethylene, B = Ethyl alcohol,
50. A hydrocarbon ‘A’ (C3H8) on treatment with chlorine X = Carbon dioxide, Y = Hydrogen
in presence of sunlight yielded compound ‘B’ as major (b) A = Ethyl alcohol, B = Acetic acid,
product Reaction of ‘B’ with aqueous KOH gave ‘C’ X = Hydrogen, Y = Carbon dioxide
which on treatment with concentrated H2SO4 yielded (c) A = Methyl alcohol, B = Ethyl alcohol,
‘D’. Hydrogenation of ‘D’ gave back ‘A’. The sequence X = Hydrogen, Y = Carbon dioxide
of reactions involved in above conversion is: (d) A = Acetic acid, B = Formic acid,
(a) substitution, substitution, addition, dehydration X = Carbon dioxide, Y = Hydrogen
(b) substitution, substitution , dehydration, addition
55. Fermentation of sugarcane juice produces
(c) substitution, dehydration, addition, addition
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal
(d) addition, substitution, dehydration, substitution.
(c) Acetic acid (d) Gluconic acid
51. An organic liquid ‘A’ with acidified potassium dichromate
gave product ‘B’. The compound ‘B’ on heating with 56. Antiknocking compound in gasoline is :
methanol in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid (a) Triethyl lead (b) Trimethyl lead
formed compound ‘C’ which on subsequent treatment (c) Tetramethyl lead (d) Tetraethyl lead
with sodium hydroxide formed two product ‘D’ and ‘E’.
The product ‘D’ is known to affect the optic nerve causing 57. Identify the correct order of boiling points of the following
blindness. Intake of ‘D’ in very small quantities can cause compounds-
death. What are compound ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’? (A) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(a) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid, C = Methanol (B) CH3CH2CH2CHO
D = Sodium acetate, E = Methyl ethanoate (C) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(b) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid, C = Methyl (a) (A) > (B) > (C) (b) (C) > (A) > (B)
ethanoate D = Methanol, E = Sodium acetate
(c) (A) > (C) > (B) (d) (C) > (B) > (A)
S-68 Science
58. Ethane with the molecular formula C2H6 has : Reactions in which the compounds react with oxygen and form
(a) 6 covalent bonds (b) 7 covalent bonds carbon dioxide and water is known as combustion reaction. This
(c) 8 covalent bonds (d) 9 covalent bonds process occurs with release of great amount of heat.
64. The reaction
59. Butanone is four-carbon compound with the functional
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl is :
group :
(a) substitution reaction
(a) carboxylic acid (b) aldehyde
(b) addition reaction
(c) ketone (d) alcohol
(c) rearrangement reaction
60. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting (d) elimination reaction
blackened on the outside, it means that :
65. The reaction CH2 = CH2 + H2 → CH3 – CH3 is :
(a) the food is not cooked completely. (a) substitution reaction
(b) the fuel is not burning completely. (b) addition reaction
(c) the fuel is wet. (c) rearrangement reaction
(d) the fuel is burning completely. (d) elimination reaction
66. The reaction C2H6 + O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O is :
(a) substitution reaction
(b) rearrangement reaction
DIRECTIONS : Study the given case/passage and answer the
(c) addition reaction
following questions.
(d) combustion reaction
Case/Passage - 1
Case/Passage - 3
A carbon atom attached to one, two, three and four other carbon
The given diagram represent an experiment in which a test tube
atoms is called primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
contains 1 mL of ethanol (absolute alcohol) and 1 mL glacial
carbon respectively. Now consider following compound and
acetic acid along with a few drops of concentrated H2SO4.
answer the following questions.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
CH3
F E D C B A
CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH CH3 Test tube
containing
CH3 CH3 reaction
mixture
61. In above compound how many carbon atom are primary? Beaker
Water
(a) 7 (b) 5 Wire gauze
(c) 6 (d) 4 Tripod stand
62. In above compound how many carbon atoms are Burner
secondary?
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 0
67. Name the type of reaction taking place in this experiment.
63. In above compound which carbon atom is quaternary?
68. Write the chemical equation.
B
(a) D
(b)
F
(c) C
(d) 69. Why reverse of this reaction is known as saponification
reaction?
Case/Passage - 2
Reactions in which an atom or a group of atoms is replaced by 70. Give two uses of the resulting product.
some other atom or another group of atoms without causing any Case/Passage - 4
change in the structure of the remaining part of the molecule, Food, clothes, medicines, books, or many of the things are
are called substitution reactions. all based on this versatile element carbon. In addition, all
All organic compounds containing double or triple bonds living structures are carbon based. The earth’s crust has only
give addition reactions, i.e., alkenes, alkynes and aromatic 0.02% carbon in the form of minerals. The element carbon
hydrocarbons give addition reactions. occurs in different forms in nature with widely varying
Carbon and Its Compounds S-69
physical properties. Both diamond and graphite are formed 77. Assertion : The correct IUPAC name for the compound
by carbon atoms, the difference lies in the manner in which CH3 CH3
the carbon atoms are bonded to one another. Carbon has the | |
unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, H3C — CH — CH2 — CH — CH2 — CH3
giving rise to large molecules. This property is called
catenation. is 2, 4 dimethyl hexane not 3, 5 dimethyl hexane
71 From the given alternatives, whose chemical and physical Reason: When the parent chain has two or more
properties are not same? substitutents, numbering must be done in such a way that
(a) Graphite and Diamond the sum of the locants on the parent chain is the lowest
(b) Phosphorous and Sulphur possible.
(c) Carbon and Hydrogen 78. Assertion: Vegetable oil is converted into vegetable ghee
(d) Methyl alcohol and Acetic acid by hydrogenation process in presence of nickel catalyst.
72. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Reason: Unsaturated hydrocarbons add hydrogen to give
(a) Graphite is much less dense than diamond saturated hydrocarbon in presence of a catalyst.
(b) Graphite is black and soft
79. Assertion: Unsaturated hydrocarbon burns with sooty
(c) Graphite has low melting point
flame in excess supply of air.
(d) Graphite feels smooth and slippery
73. Which of the following are isomers? Reason: Saturated hydrocarbon has more carbon content.
(a) Butane and isobutene 80. Assertion : Following are the members of a homologous
(b) Ethane and ethene series :
(c) Propane and propyne CH3OH, CH3 CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
(d) Butane and isobutane Reason : A series of compounds with same functional
group but differing by – CH2 – unit is called a homologous
74. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? series.
(a) Soot (b) Graphite
81. Assertion : Diamond and graphite are allotropes of
(c) Diamond (d) Carborundum
carbon.
75. Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has
(a) 5 covalent bonds (b) 12 covalent bonds Reason : Some elements can have several different
structural forms in the same physical state. These
(c) 16 covalent bonds (d) 17 covalent bonds
differing forms are called allotropes.
82. Assertion : Carbon monoxide is extremely poisonous in
Assertion & Reason nature.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion Reason : Carbon monoxide is formed by complete
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question combustion of carbon.
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that 83. Assertion : Carbon has ability to form long carbon
best describes the two statements. chains.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason : Carbon has a unique property to form long
straight and branched chains called catenation.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion. 84. Assertion : All alcohols have similar chemical properties.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason : All alcohols contains similar hydroxy (–OH)
functional group.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
85. Assertion : Hydrogenation converts an oil into a fat,
76. Assertion: Ethanoic acid is called as glacial acetic acid. called vegetable ghee.
Reason: On cooling it freezes to form ice-like flakes. Reason : Hydrogenation is carried out in presence of a
They appear like a glaciers. catalyst, usually finely divided nickel.
S-70 Science
91. The soft crystalline form of carbon is ................ .
Match the Following
92. Next homologue of ethane is ............... .
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains option given in two 93. Valency of carbon in ethylene is ............... .
columns. options (A, B, C, D) in column I have to be matched 94. Ethylene burns in air to form CO2 and ............... .
with options (p, q, r, s) in column II.
95. The molecular mass of any two adjacent homologues
86. Column I Column II differ by ................. amu.
UV light
(A) Combustion reaction (p) C3H8 + Cl2 → 96. The purest form of carbon is ..................... .
C3H7Cl + HCl
97. The general formula of alcohols is ................ .
(B) Oxidation reaction (q) CH2= CH2+H2
Ni/Pd
98. The functional group present in carboxylic acids is
→ CH3– CH3 .....................
(C) Addition reaction (r) 2CH4+ O2(g)
99. Detergents cause ................. pollution.
300 °C
→
Molybdenum oxide
HCHO + 2H2O True / False
(D) Substitution reaction (s) C2H5OH + 3O2 →
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
2CO2 + 3H2O answer as true or false.
87. Column I Column II
100. Carbon is a versatile element.
(A) — CHO (p) Azo compounds
(B) — CONH2 (q) Aldehydes 101. Carbon forms covalent bonds with itself and other
elements such as hydrogen, oxygen, sulphur, nitrogen
(C) — NH2 (r) Acid amides
and chlorine.
(D) — N = N — (s) Amines
88. Column I Column II 102. Carbon and its compounds are some of our major sources
of fuels.
(A) CH2 = CH2 (p) Saturated
103. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
(B) CH2 (q) Unsaturated
104. The simplest saturated hydrocarbon is methane.
CH2 CH2 105. Ethanol is the first member of the alcohol homologous
(C) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (r) Acyclic series.
CH 106. Diamond is a good conductor of electricity.
(D)
CH CH (s) Cyclic
107. Graphite is used in pencils.
CH CH
CH 108. When hydrocarbons burn in air, carbon dioxide and
hydrogen are produced with heat energy.
Fill in the Blanks 109. If a hydrocarbon has double or triple covalent bond, it is
saturated.
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). 110. Unsaturated hydrocarbons give addition reactions.
111. By hydrogenation, vegetable oils are converted into
89. The ability of carbon to form chains gives rise to a vanaspati ghee.
............... series of compounds.
112. Invertase and amylase are two enzymes involved in
90. Newly discovered allotrope of carbon is ............. . fermentation of ethanol from sugar.
Carbon and Its Compounds S-71
– CHO ⇒ aldehyde 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d)
– COOH ⇒ Carboxylic acid 37. (c) 38. (d)
C = O ⇒ Ketone H H H
| | |
9. (c) Diamond is the purest form of carbon. 39. (a) H − C− C− C =O
10. (a) | |
H H
11. (d) Methane (CH4), ethane (C2H6) and propane Propanal
(CH3CH2CH3) differ from each other by CH2 group.
Total no. of electrons of C atoms = 3 × 6 = 18
Hence these are said to form a homologous series.
Total no. of electrons of O atoms = 1 × 8 = 8
12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d)
Total no. of electorns of H atoms = 6 × 1 = 6
15. (c) C2 H5OH + 3O 2
→ 2CO 2 + 3H 2O
Total no. of electrons in one molecule
16. (c)
= 18 + 8 + 6 = 32 electrons
17. (d) Catalysts like Pd, Pt or Ni are used in hydrogenation
process. Total no. of bonds = 10
18. (c) C4H9OH and C5H11OH represent homologous series Each bond contains 2e–. Therefore no. of electrons
in increasing order of C atoms, other two also represent involved in bonding.
homologous series, but in decreasing order because
= 2 × 10 = 20 electrons.
they differ from each other by a CH2 group.
40. (c) (a) CH3CH2 CH2CH2 – Br
CH3CH2CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
1 – Bromobutane
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b)
S-72 Science
(b) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3 48. (d) C6H8N2 i.e. 12 × 6 + 8 × 1 + 14 × 2 = 108 u.
|
Br 49. (c) 2C4 H 6 + 11O 2
→ 8CO 2 + 6H 2O
2-Bromobutane For 2 moles of hydrocarbon, 11 moles of O2 is required
CH3
| ∴ 11 moles = 11 × 32 = 352 g
(c)
3CH – CH – CH2Br
50. (b) C3H8(A) is propane.
1-Bromo-2-methyl propane Sunlight
(i) CH3CH2CH3 + Cl2 →
CH3 (A)
|
(d) CH3 – C – CH3 CH3CH2CH2Cl + HCl (Substitution)
| (B)
Br
2-Bromo-2-methyl propane (ii) CH3CH2CH2Cl + aq. KOH →
(B)
41. (a) Acetic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence
CH3CH2CH2OH + KCl (Substitution)
of hydrochloric acid to produce ethyl acetate (ester)
(C)
which is a sweet smelling compound. conc. H SO
2 4→
(iii) CH3CH2CH2OH
CH3COOH + C2 H5OH → CH3COOC2 H5 + H2O
Acetic acid Ethanol Ethyl acetate (C)
CH3CH= CH2 + H2O (Dehydration)
42. (b) NH2CONH2 → Molecular mass = 60 (D)
% of N = (28/60) × 100 = 46.7% Ni/Pt/Pd
(iv) CH3CH = CH2 + H2 →
43. (d) C13H26O2, C2H4O2, C9H18O2 → These acids (D)
contains single bond between carbon atoms (C–C). CH3CH2CH3 (Addition)
Its general formula is (CnH2nO2). (A)
C7H12O2 → It contains double bond (C = C). Its Acidified
general formula is (CnH2n–2O2). K2Cr2O7
51. (b) CH3CH2OH → CH3COOH
44. (c) CH4 is non-polar compound, so it cannot be (A) (B)
conc.
dissolved in water. H2SO4
CH3COOH + CH3OH → CH3COOCH3 + H2O
45. (d) Graphite and diamond show different physical (B) (D) Methyl ethanoate
and chemical properties. Diamond is colourless (C)
47. (b)
CH3COOH
(C)
O C CH3 Concentrated
H2SO4
|| CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH ← → CH COOC H + H O
O → Ester group (A) (C)
3
(D)
2 5 2
Carbon and Its Compounds S-73
54. (b) When alcohol i.e. ethanol (A) and acid i.e. acetic 67. Esterification reaction
acid (B) reacts with a sodium metal, then it liberates
68. CH3COOH + CH3–CH2OH →
Acid
hydrogen gas (X).
Ethanoic acid Ethanol
2CH3CH2OH + 2Na → 2CH3CH2 O Na + H2↑ CH3– C – O – CH2 – CH3
(A) (X)
O
Ester
2CH3COOH +2Na → 2CH3 COONa + H2↑
(B) (X) 69. Reverse reaction is known as saponification reaction
because it is used in the prepration of soap.
When an acid reacts with carbonates or bicarbonates,
it librates CO2 gas. So, when acitic acid(B) reacts 70. Esters are used in making perfumes and as a flavouring
with NaHCO3, it librates CO2(Y) gas. agent.
43. Arrange the following in increasing order of their atomic 55. Which one of the following is the smallest in size?
radius : Na, K, Mg, Rb – (a) N3– (b) O2–
(c) F– (d) Na+
(a) Mg < K < Na < Rb (b) Mg < Na < K < Rb
(c) Mg < Na < Rb < K (d) Na < K < Rb < Mg 56. The size of the following species increases in the order –
44. Which is metalloid? (a) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < Al
(a) Pb (b) Sn (b) F– < Al < Na+ > Mg2+
(c) Si (d) Zn (c) Al < Mg2+ < F– < Na+
45. Which shows variable valency? (d) Na+ < Al < F– < Mg2+
(a) s–block elements (b) p–block elements 57. The correct order of radii is –
(c) d–block elements (d) Radioactive elements (a) N < Be < B
46. Dobereiner triads is – (b) F– < O2– < N3–
(c) Na < Li < K
(a) Li, K, Rb (b) Mg, S, As
(c) Cl, Br, I (d) P, S, As (d) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
S-78 Science
58. Which of the following is correct regarding ionic radii? 65. The maximum number of electrons that can be filled in
(a) Ti4+ < Mn7+ (b) 35Cl– < 37Cl– the shell with the principal quantum number n = 4 is
(c) K+ > Cl– (d) P3+ > P5+ (a) 64 (b) 26
59. Consider following as a portion of the periodic table from (c) 18 (d) 32
Group No. 13 to 17. Which of the following statements 66. The ionic radii of N3–, O2–, F–, Na+ follow the decreasing
is/are true about the elements shown in it? order
I. V., W, Y and Z are less electropositive than X. (a) N3– > O2– > F– > Na+
II. V, W, X and Y are more .electronegative than Z. (b) N3– > Na+ > O2– > F–
III. Atomic size of Y is greater than that of W. (c) Na+ > O2– > N3– > F–
IV. Atomic size of W is smaller than that of X. (d) O2– > F– > Na+ > N3–
67. Consider the elements A, B, C and D with atomic numbers
V Z
6, 7, 14 and 15, respectively. Which of the following
Y statements are correct concerning these elements?
W I. D will lose electron more easily than C.
II. C will gain electron more easily than B.
X III. The element with highest electronegativity is D.
(a) I, II and III (b) II and III IV. The element with largest atomic size is C.
(c) I and IV (d) III and IV (a) I and II (b) II and III
60. Mendeleev’s periodic law states that the properties of (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
elements are a periodic function of their 68. Which of the following statement can help a chemistry
(a) reactivity of elements (b) atomic size student to predict chemical properties of an element?
(c) atomic mass (d) electronic configuration I. Position of element in the periodic table
II. Atomic number of the element
61. Chemical symbol of metal tungusten is
III. Number of shells in the atom
(a) W (b) Xe
IV. Number of electron in the outer most shell
(c) Y (d) Zr
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
62. Which is incorrect order of size? (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
(a) Na > Na+ (b) Na+ > Mg2+
69. The element which normally exist in the liquid state are
(c) Cl– > Cl (d) F– > O2–
(a) Bromine and Iodine
63. The anion O2– is isoelectronic with (d) Mercury and chlorine
(a) F+ (b) F– (c) Iodine and mercury
(c) N2– (d) N+3 (d) Bromine and mercury
64. A part of the modern periodic table is presented below in 70. Which gas being filled in weather balloon?
which the alphabets represent the symbols of elements. (a) Helium (b) Neon
Group 1 12 14 15 16 17 (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen
→ 71. Manya, Kartik, Gurnoor and Sheena had arranged the
Period ↓ ions F–, Na+, O2– and Mg2+ in decreasing orders of their
2 M Q V ionic radii.
Manya – O2– > Mg2+ > F– > Na+
3 A J R W
Kartik – Mg2+ > Na+ > O2– > F–
4 E L T
Gurnoor – O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
5 G X
Sheena – F– > Na+ > O2– > Mg2+
Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict
which of the following is a covalent compound- Who had provided the correct order of their decreasing
(a) RQ2 (b) AT ionic radii?
(a) Manya (b) Kartik
(c) JQ (d) JX2
(c) Gurnoor (d) Sheena
Periodic Classification of Elements S-79
72. Consider the elements A, B, C and D with atomic
numbers 11, 12, 16 and 17, respectively. Which among
the following statements regarding these elements are
correct? DIRECTIONS : Study the given case/passage and answer the
following questions.
I. The element C will gain electron more easily than
element D. Case/Passage - 1
II. The element B tends to lose electron more readily Metallic Character The ability of an atom to donate electrons
than C. and form positive ion (cation) is known as electropositivity
III. The oxide of A will be least basic while that of D or metallic character. Down the group, metallic character
will be most basic. increases due to increase in atomic size and across the period,
from left to right electropositivity decreases due to decrease
IV. The energy required to remove an electron from
in atomic size. Non-Metallic Character The ability of an atom
outermost shell from A will be minimum while that
to accept electrons to form a negative ion (anion) is called
from D will be maximum. non-metallic character or electronegativity. The elements
(a) I and III only (b) I and IV only having high electro-negativity have a higher tendency to gain
(c) II and III only (d) II and IV only electrons and form anion. Down the group, electronegativity
decreases due to increase in atomic size and across the period,
73. Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity
from left to right electronegativity increases due to decrease in
of metals?
atomic size.
(a) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe 300
(b) Mg > Zn > Fe > Al 250 Cs(262)
(c) Al > Mg > Zn > Fe Atomic radius/pm 200 K(231) Rb(244)
(d) Mg > Zn > Al > Fe Na(186)
150
Li(152)
74. The following is the correct decreasing order of the ionic 100 I(133)
Cl(99) Br(114)
radii- F(72)
50
(a) K+ > Ca2+ > S2– > Cl–
(b) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– >S2– Atomic number (Z)
(c) Ca2+ > K+ >> Cl– >S2– 78. Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing
order of metallic character of Alkali metals plotted in the
(d) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
graph? [CBSE Sample Issued 2021]
75. Electro-negativity of the following elements increase in (a) Cs > Rb > Li > Na > K
the order:
(b) K > Rb > Li > Na > Cs
(a) C, N, Si, P (b) Si, P, C, N
(c) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
(c) P, Si, N, C (d) N, Si, C, P
(d) Cs > K > Rb > Na > Li
76. Which of the following statements is not a correct
79. Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the
statement about the trends when going from left to right
modern periodic table though it shows non-metallic
across the periods of periodic table. character
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature. (a) as Hydrogen has one electron & readily loses
(b) The number of valence electrons increases. electron to form negative ion
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily. (b) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali
(d) The oxides become more acidic. metals to form positive ion
(c) as Hydrogen can gain one electron easily like
77. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2,
Halogens to form negative ion
which is a solid with a high melting point? X would
most likely be in the same group of the periodic table (d) as Hydrogen shows the properties of non-metals
as : 80. Which of the following has highest electronegativity?
(a) Na (b) Mg (a) F (b) Cl
(c) Al (d) Si (c) Br (d) I
S-80 Science
81. Identify the reason for the gradual change in lose electrons easily. Thus, metallic character generally
electronegativity in halogens down the group. decreases across a period and increases down a group.
(a) Electronegativity increases down the group due to 86. The non metallic character on moving along a period –
decrease in atomic size (a) increases (b) decreases
(b) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to (c) depends on the period (d) remains the same
decrease in tendency to lose electrons 87. Group 1 and group 2 elements are considered as strong
(c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to metals because
increase in atomic radius/ tendency to gain electron (a) they have incomplete octet.
decreases (b) they can easily gain electrons.
(d) Electronegativity increases down the group due to (c) they can easily lose electrons.
increase in forces of attractions between nucleus & (d) they form anions.
valence electrons 88. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of
82. Which of the following reason correctly justifies that metallic character?
“Fluorine (72pm) has smaller atomic radius than Lithium (a) Ca > Sc > Ti > K (b) K > Ca > Sc > Ti
(152pm)”? (c) K > Sc > Ca > Ti (d) Ti > Sc > Ca > K
(a) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size increases Case/Passage - 4
down the group
Question numbers 1 – 3 are based on the periodic table. Study
(b) F and Li are in the same period. Atomic size increases the part of the modern periodic table presented below in which
across the period due to increase in number of shells the alphabets represent the symbols of elements and answer the
following questions.
(c) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size decreases
down the group Group 1 12 14 15 16 17
(d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period →
atomic size/radius decreases from left to right. Period ↓
Case/Passage - 2 2 M Q V
The table given below refers to the elements of the periodic
table with atomic number from 3 to 18. These elements are 3 A J R W
shown by letters. (not by the usual symbols of the elements). 4 E L T
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
5 G X
A B C D E F G H
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 89. Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict
I J K L M N O P which of the given combination is a covalent compound:
RQ2, AT, JQ, JX2.
83. Which of the following are noble gases?
(a) H and P (b) G and O 90. Considering the above part of the periodic table, which of
(c) D and L (d) A and I the given element is the most electropositive element?
84. Which are halogens? 91. Which of the given element is the most electronegative
element?
(a) H and L (b) C and M
(c) G and O (d) E and P 92. Study the data of the following three categories A, B and C.
85. Which of the following elements have valency 4? Category Name of the Atomic Mass
(a) F and N (b) C and K element
(c) D and L (d) H and P Li 7
A Na 23
Case/Passage - 3 K 39
Group VII A elements are strong non-metals because they can N 14
easily accept an electron to form an anion whereas group 1 A
B P 31
element are strong metals because they can very easily lose one
As 74
electron to form cation.
Metals have the tendency to lose their valence electrons and B 10.8
form positive ions, so metallic character is related to the C Al 27
ionisation potential. Elements having low ionisation potential, Ga 69.7
Periodic Classification of Elements S-81
(i) From the given three categories A, B and C, Pick the Reason : Nitrogen has smaller atomic size than that of
one which forms Dobereiner’s Triads. oxygen.
(ii) Why did Mendeleev placed elements of category A, 100. Assertion : According to Mendeleev, periodic properties
B and C in three different groups? of elements are functions of their atomic number.
(iii) Is Newland law of octaves applicable to all the three Reason : Atomic number is equal to the number of
categories? protons.
Give reason to justify your answer. 101. Assertion : Elements in the same vertical column have
similar properties.
Assertion & Reason Reason : Elements have periodic dependence upon the
atomic number.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question Match the Following
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
best describes the two statements.
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D)
the correct explanation of Assertion. in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is column II.
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
102. Column II give period to which an element in column I
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
belongs, match them correctly.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Column I Column II
93. Assertion: Ionic size of N3– is greater than F–.
(A) Hydrogen (p) 3
Reason: N3– and F– are isoelectronic anions.
(B) Sodium (q) 4
94. Assertion: Atomic radius of aluminium atom is larger
(C) Calcium (r) 6
than magnesium atom.
(D) Barium (s) 1
Reason: Effective nuclear charge increase from
magnesium to aluminium. 103. Match the column –
95. Assertion: Oxygen atom is divalent in most of its Column I Column II
compounds.
(A) Element with largest (p) boron
Reason: Valency is the number of valence electrons size in second period
present in the outermost shell of its atom. (B) Element with smallest (q) fluorine
96. Assertion: Silicon, germanium are the metalloids in the size in group 13
modern periodic table.
(C) Element with maximum (r) bromine
Reason: Silicon, germanium has properties of metal as non-metallic character.
well as non metals. (D) Element with smallest (s) lithium
97. Assertion: Bulbs are usually filled with chemically active size in fourth period
gases.
104. Column I Column II
Reason: Nitrogen and argon gases are filled in order to (A) s-block elements (p) Alkali metals
prolong the life of the filament.
p-block elements
(B) (q) Alkaline earth metals
98. Assertion : Group 1 elements are known as the alkali
(C) Representative
elements.
elements (r) Halogens
Reason : s-orbital can accommodate only two electrons.
(D) High ionisation (s) Noble gases
99. Assertion : Nitrogen has higher ionization energy than
that of oxygen. energy
S-82 Science
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). answer as true or false.
105. The law of triads was given by ........... . 116. As nuclear charge increases, atomic orbitals become
106. According to modern periodic law, the elements are smaller and more stable.
arranged in the periodic table in the order of their 117. As number of shells increases, atomic orbitals become
increasing ................ . larger and less stable.
118. Atomic radii decrease from left to right across a row of
107. Elements with eight electrons in their outermost energy
the periodic table.
shell are called ................. .
119. Atomic radii increase from top to bottom down a column
108. If two elements have the same number of valence of the periodic table.
electrons, then they belong to the same .............. of the
periodic table. 120. Fluorine has highest electron affinity in the periodic table.
121. Noble gases are placed extremely left in the periodic
109. The elements in groups 1, 2 and 13 to 18 are known as
table.
......... elements.
122. Magnesium is more metallic in nature than sodium.
110. The valency of an atom is equal to its .................... .
123. The number of shells increases in a given period from left
111. The atomic size in a period .............. from left to right. to right in the periodic table.
112. Dobereiner grouped the elements into triads and 124. The elements silicon, germanium and arsenic are called
Newlands gave the ................ . metalloids.
113. Mendeleev arranged the elements in increasing order of 125. Elements are classified on the basis of similarities in their
their .............. and according to their .......... properties. properties.
114. Mendeleev predicted the existence of some yet to be 126. Rows in the periodic table are called periods.
discovered elements on the basis of ....... in his periodic 127. The columns of the periodic table are called groups.
table.
128. You will find metals on the extreme right side of the
115. Elements in the modern periodic table are arranged in ...... periodic table.
vertical columns called ............. and .............. horizontal
rows called .............. . 129. Although the order of elements is based on atomic number,
vertical families share similar chemical properties.
Periodic Classification of Elements S-83
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c) 51. (b)
11. (c) 52. (d) 38 is the atomic no. of stronium (Sr) which is s-block
element and all elements of s-block are metals.
12. (c) The element is halogen and has one electron less
than inert gas configuration, hence its ion can be 53. (d) Mg, as we move across the period atomic radius
represented as M– ion. decreases.
13. (d) In a period, the value of ionisation potential 54. (a) O2– has the highest value of ionic radii as this can be
increases from left to right with breaks where Nuclear charge
explained on the basis of Z/e
the atoms have stable configurations hence the No. of electrons
correct order will be
When Z/e ratio increases, the size decreases and
F > N > O > C when Z/e ratio decreases, size increases.
14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 55. (d) Na+ < F– < O2– < N3–
18. (d) On moving along a period atomic radii decreases. All are isoelectronic, effective nuclear charge is
19. (b) The metallic character decreases as we move from highest for Na+ so it has smallest size.
left, to right in a period. 56. (a) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < Al
20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) F– has bigger size than Mg2+ and Na+
24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 57. (b) Ionic radii decreases significantly from left to right
28. (d) 29. (b) in a period among representative elements.
S-84 Science
58. (d) Nuclear charge per electron is greater in P5+. Atomic Electronic
Therefore, its size is smaller. Element
Number configuration
59. (c) Electropositive nature increases from top to bottom A(11) Na 2, 8, 1
in a group and decrease along a period. Therefore X B(12) Mg 2, 8, 2
is most electropositive.
C(16) S 2, 8, 6
Atomic size decreases along a period and increases D(17) Cl 2, 8, 7
down the group. Therefore W < X.
60. (c) Mendeleev’s periodic law states that the physical From the above table it is clear that:
and chemical properties of the elements are a (a) Chlorine (D) will gain electrons more easily than
periodic function of their atomic mass. sulphur (C).
61. (a) Tungsten → W (b) The oxide of sodium (A) which is an alkali metal,
62. (d) Size of F– is less than O2– will be the most basic while that of chlorine (D)
which is a halogen, will be the most acidic.
63. (b) Anion O2– has 10 electrons.
73. (a) The correct order of reactivity is as follows.
Anion F– has 10 electrons.
Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
64. (a) R and Q are members of Group 16th which is
non metallic having O, S, Se, Te etc. These are Alkali metals and alkaline earth metals are very
characterised by showing the formation of covalent reactive elements in the periodic table and reactivity
bond. decreases on moving from left to right in the periodic
table.
65. (d) The maximum number of electrons that can be filled in
the shell with principle quantum number(n) = 2n2. 74. (d) Among the isoelectronic species greater the ratio
larger will be the ionic radii, hence the order is
Maximum number of electrons = 2(4)2 = 32
66. (a) Increase in positive charge decrease the ionic radii S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
of cation while increase in negative charge increases 75. (b) Electro-negativity increases on moving left to right
the ionic size of anion. So N3– > O2– > F– > Na+. in the periodic table, while it decreases on moving
67. (c) down the group.
68. (b) Position, atomic number and number of electrons The correct order of E.N. is
in the outermost shell of an element predicts its Si < P < C < N
chemical properties. (1.8) (2.1) (2.5) (3.0)
69. (d) Bromine and mercury exist in the liquid state. 76. (c) As we move from left to right in a period no. of
70. (a) Helium is filled in weather balloon. shells remains same whereas one more electron is
71. (c) The ions F–, Na+, O2– and Mg2+ are isoelectronic added thus the size of atom decreases and hence the
species having same electronic configuration valence electron becomes more and more near to
but their nuclear charges differ from each other the nucleus and hold of nucleus on valence electron
because of their difference in the number of increases, due to this, the tendency of an atom to
protons in the nucleus. With increase in the lose valence electron decreases.
number of protons in the nucleus, the electrons are 77. (b) X forms XCl2 suggests that X is in +2 state in XCl2.
more attracted towards nucleus thereby causing Therefore X would most like be in gp 2 of periodic
the decrease in ionic radius. Therefore, the given table.
ions are 78. (c) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
F– : no. of proton = 9 and no. of electron = 10 79. (b) As Hydrogen can easily lose one electrion like alkali
Na+ : no. of proton = 11 and no. of electron = 10 metals to form positive ion
O2– : no. of proton = 8 and no. of electron = 10 80. (a) F
Mg2+ : no. of proton = 12 and no. of electron = 10 81. (c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to
72. (d) increase in atomic radius/ tendency to gain election
decreases.
Periodic Classification of Elements S-85
82. (d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period 98. (b) Group I elements are known as alkali metals as the
atomic size/radius decreases from left to right. hydroxides of these metals are soluble in water and
83. (a) H and P have complete octet. these solutions are highly alkaline in nature.
84. (c) G and O 99. (c) Nitrogen has higher ionisation energy as it has stable
half filled electronic configuration.
Both have 7 electrons in their outermost shell.
100. (d) According to Mendeleev, periodic properties of
85. (c) Both have four electrons in their outermost shell. elements is a function of their atomic masses.
86. (a) 87. (c) 101. (b)
88. (b) On moving along a period metallic character 102. A → (s); B → (p); C → (q); D → (r)
decreases.
103. A → (s); B → (p); C → (q); D → (r)
89. R and Q are members of group 16th having elements,
O, S, Se, Te etc. RQ2 is characterised by showing the 104. A → (p, q); B → (r, s); C → (p, q, r); D → (r, s)
formation of covalent bond. 105. Dobereiner 106. atomic number
90. Element ‘G’ is the most electropositive element. 107. noble gases 108. group
91. Element ‘V’ is the most electronegative element 109. main group 110. combining capacity
92. (i) Dobereiner’s Triads is A. 111. decreases 112. law of octaves
(ii) Mendeleev placed elements of category A,B and C 113. atomic masses, chemical 114. gaps
in three different groups because they have different
115. 18, groups, 7, periods
physical and chemical properties.
116. True 117. True 118. True
(iii) No, Newland’s Law of octaves is not applicable for
all three categories. 119. True 120. False
Because the law of octaves states that every eighth 121. False
element has similar properties when the elements Noble gases are placed extremely right in the periodic
are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic table.
masses. 122. False 123. False
93. (b) N3– and F– are isoelectronic anions. N3–
has only The number of shells remain same in a given period.
seven protons and F– has nine. Therefore, N3– has
124. True 125. True
larger ionic size.
126. True
94. (d) Atomic radius of aluminium atom is smaller than
magnesium atom because of increased effective Rows in the periodic table are called periods. The columns
nuclear charge. of the periodic table are called groups.
95. (c) Valency of an element is determined by the number 127. True
of valence electrons present in the outermost shell of 128. False
its atom.
Inert gases are found on the far right of the periodic table.
96. (a) Silicon and germanium are among the metalloids in Halogens are in the second group form the right. Metals
the modern periodic table. of all types are found around the left. Transition metal are
97. (d) Bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive gases. found in the middle side of the periodic table.
Nitrogen and argon gases are inactive and are filled 129. True
in order to prolong the life of the filament.
How Do
9 Acids, Bases
Organisms
Salts
Reproduce
and
35. Which part of the ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine (d) Statement(B) is correct but (A) is incorrect.
gland after ovulation ?
How Do Organisms Reproduce S-89
41. (A):
The middle piece is called as power house of the sperm. (d) Two pollen grains sending two pollen tubes inside
(B): The numerous mitochondria coiled around axial the ovary, resulting in the formation of two seeds
filament produce energy for the movement of the tail. inside the fruit.
(a) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct 49. During oogenesis in mammals, the second meiotic
division occurs
(b) Statement (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect.
(a) before fertilisation
(c) Both the statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(b) after implantation
(d) Statement(B) is correct but (A) is incorrect.
(c) before ovulation
42. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is (d) after fertilisation
normally dipoid?
(a) Spermatid (b) Spermatogonia 50. The correct route that sperm follows when it releases
from the testis of a mammal:
(c) Secondary polar body (d) Primary polar body
(a) Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
43. In human females, meiosis II is not complete until? (b) Urethra → Epididymis → Vas deferens
(a) Fertilisation (b) Uterine implantation (c) Epididymis → Urethra → Vas deferens
(c) Birth (d) Puberty (d) Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra
44. The human embryo gets nutrition from the mother blood
51. Which of the following is not a part of the female
with the help of a special organ called
reproductive system in human beings?
(a) Zygote (b) Ovary
(a) Ovary (b) Uterus
(c) Oviduct (d) Placenta
(c) Vas deferens (d) Fallopian tube
45. The source of mammalian hormone ‘relaxin’ is
(a) ovary (b) stomach 52. The anther contains
(c) intestine (d) pancreas (a) sepals (b) ovules
46. Grafting in monocot plants is not possible because they (c) carpel (d) pollen grains
have
(a) Parallel venation
(b) Have only one cotyledon
(c) Have cambium DIRECTIONS : Study the given case/passage and answer the
following questions.
(d) Have scattered vascular bundles
Case/Passage - 1
47. In the flowering plants sexual reproduction involves
several events beginning with the bud and ending in When the branches of a plant growing in the field are pulled
a fruit. These events are arranged in four different towards the ground and a part of them is covered with moist
combinations. Select the combination that has the correct soil (leaving the tips of the branches exposed above the
sequence of events. ground), then after sometime new roots develop from the parts
(a) Embryo, zygote, gametes, fertilization. of branches buried in the soil. On cutting these branches from
(b) Gametes, fertilization, zygote, embryo. the parent plant, new plants are produced from the cut parts of
(c) Fertilization, zygote, gametes, embryo. branches which had developed roots.
(d) Gametes, zygote, embryo, fertilization. 53. What is this method of propagation of plants known as?
48. “Double fertilization” is a complex mechanism of 54. What type of branches should a plant have to be able to
flowering plants that is also unique to angiosperms. be propagated by this method?
Choose the most appropriate statement from the options
listed below that explains this phenomenon. 55. Name any two plants which are grown for their flowers
(a) Fertilization in two flowers of the same plant and propagated by this method.
forming endosperms. 56. Name any two plants which are grown for their fruits and
(b) Two male gametes fertilize two eggs inside the ovule propagated by this method.
as a result the ovary gives rise to bigger fruits.
57. Name one plant which gets propagated by this method
(c) Two fertilizations occur in a flower-one fertilization naturally by forming runners (soft horizontal stems
results in the formation of a diploid zygote and the
running above the ground).
second fertilization results in the formation of a
triploid endosperm.
S-90 Science
Case/Passage - 2 64. The seminiferous tubules of the testes are lined by the
germinal epithelium consisting of
When an insect sits on the flower of a plant then some particles,
present on the top of little stalks in the flower get stick to its (a) sertoli cells
body hair. When this insect now sits on the flower of another (b) cells of germinal epithelium
similar plant, then particles attached to the hair of insect are (c) cells of Leydig or interstitial cells
shifted to top of a flask-shaped organ at the centre of a flower.
This particle grows a long tube B from the top of flask-shaped (d) secondary spermatocytes
organ through which C moves down and reaches the bottom 65. Another name for Bulbourethral gland is
of the flask-shaped organ. Here C fuses with the nucleus of D, (a) Meibomian gland
present in structure E.
(b) Prostate gland
The fusion of C and D forms a new cell F which grows and
(c) Perineal gland
develops into a seed of the plant.
(d) Cowper’s gland
58. What are these particles? Name the process by which
these particles are transfered from one flower to other 66. In man, Cryptorchidism is the condition when
flower of another similar plant. (a) testes do not descent into the scrotum
59. What is the name of tube B? (b) there are two testes in each scrotum
60. What is C which moves down through the tube B? (c) testis degenerates in the scrotum
61. Name D and E. (d) testis enlarges in the scrotum
62. What is F? 67. Which of these is an accessory reproductive gland in
Case/Passage - 3 male mammals
The male reproductive system consists of portions which (a) Inguinal gland
produce the germ-cells and other portions that deliver the (b) Prostate gland
germ-cells to the site of fertilisation. The formation of
(c) Mushroom-shaped gland
germ-cells or sperms takes place in the testes. These are
located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because (d) Gastric gland
sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the
normal body temperature. We have discussed the role of Assertion & Reason
the testes in the secretion of the hormone, testosterone,
in the previous chapter. In addition to regulating the
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion
formation of sperms, testosterone brings about changes in followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question
appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty. The sperms on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
formed are delivered through the vas deferens which best describes the two statements.
unites with a tube coming from the urinary bladder. The
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
urethra thus forms a common passage for both the sperms
the correct explanation of Assertion.
and urine. Along the path of the vas deferens, glands like
the prostate and the seminal vesicles add their secretions (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
so that the sperms are now in a fluid which makes their not the correct explanation of Assertion.
transport easier and this fluid also provides nutrition. (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
The sperms are tiny bodies that consist of mainly genetic (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
material and a long tail that helps them to move towards
68. Assertion: Asexual reproduction is also called
the female germ-cell.
blastogenesis.
63. The seminiferous tubules of the testes are lined by the
Reason: In asexual reproduction, there is no formation
germinal epithelium consisting of
and fusion of gametes.
(a) spermatids
69. Assertion: Amoeba shows multiple fission during
(b) cells of Sertoli
unfavourable conditions.
(c) spermatogonium
Reason: Chances of survival are less during unfavourable
(d) spermatocytes conditions.
How Do Organisms Reproduce S-91
70. Assertion: Urethra in human male acts as urinogenital (C) Condom (r ) Protozoan
canal. (D) Trichomoniasis (s) Corpus spongiosum
Reason: Urethra carries only urine while sperms are
carried by vasa deferentia only.
Fill in the Blanks
71. Assertion: In morula stage, cells divide without increase
in size. DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
Reason: Zona pellucida remain undivided till cleavage is appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s).
complete. 74. In many invertebrate organisms, both sexes are found in
the same individual. This is called ..................
Match the Following
75. During the birth process, the pituitary hormone ...............
signals the uterus to contract.
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) 76. A technique to produce genetically alike individuals from
in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in a single cell is known as ..............
column II. 77. Budding is a common method of asexual reproduction in
72. Column A Column B yeast and .............
(A) Animals which give (p) Hydra 78. In ..............., vegetative propagation occurs by leaves.
birth to young one 79. Surgically when fallopian tube is removed or ligated, it is
called ...............
(B) Animal which (q) Planaria
80. An egg cell of a plant is contained in an ............ present
produces bud
in an ovary.
(C) An animal which (r) Placenta
81. Transfer of pollen from one flower to stigma of another
shows regeneration flower of same species is termed ........................ .
(D) Provides nutrition to (s) Cross-pollination 82. Ovaries are also responsible for the production of
the developing hormone called ........................ .
embryo from the 83. Plants raised by vegetative propagation bear early ............
and .................... .
mother
84. Future shoot hidden in a seed is called .................. .
(E) The pollen transferred (t) Germination
85. The gametes are formed in most of the multicellular
from one flower to
organisms by a process of cell division called ............... .
another flower of
86. The two parts tied together during grafting are called
other plant ........ and ............ .
(F) The process in which (u) Viviparous 87. Simply break up into smaller pieces upon maturation is
embryo develops into found in .................. .
seedling
True / False
(G) Fertilised egg in (v) Menstruation
humans gets DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
implanted in answer as true or false.
(H) When egg in humans (w) Uterus 88. Basic event in reproduction is creation of DNA copy.
is not fertilised, 89. Copper–T is a contraceptive device used by women.
what happens? 90. At the time of birth, a baby girl has thousands of immature
73. Column A Column B eggs.
(A) Seminal vesicle (p) Latex sheath 91. Sperms mature at a temperature higher than that of human
body.
(B) Urinogenital duct (q) Semen plasma
S-92 Science
92. The only function of the testes is to produce sperm. 103. Placenta is the name of a vital connection between mother
93. Animal development is limited to the period prior to bird and embryo.
hatching. 104. The male germ-cell produced by pollen grain contains
94. Onset of menstruation is termed as menopause. half the amount of DNA as compared to the other body
cells of the plant.
95. In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes place by
fragmentation. 105.
Vegetative propagation produces plants that are
genetically similar to the parent plant.
96. Vegetative propagation by leaves occurs in sweet potato.
106. Regeneration is the same as reproduction.
97. Transfer of male gametes to the stigma of flower is called
pollination. 107. Before cell division copying of DNA is not essential.
98. In mammals including man, fertilization takes place 108. Sexually transmitted diseases can be prevented by using
externally. condoms.
99. The ovulation takes place 10-12 days after the start of 109. Plants produced by vegetative propagation are genetically
menstruation. similar to the parent plant.
100. In human-beings, male can produce sperms upto the age 110. Sexual reproduction does not lead to variation in a
of 45-50 years. population.
101. In fission, many bacteria and protozoa simply divide into 111. The ovary of a flower grows into a fruit.
two or more daughter cells.
102. Plants that produce asexually do not produce flower.
How Do Organisms Reproduce S-93
20. (a) The Cowper’s glands (or bulbourethral glands) are 42. (b) Spermatogonia are diploid male germ cells which
a pair of exocrine glands in the mammals (male undergo meiosis to form sperms.
reproductive system). They produce thick clear 43. (a) Meiosis II does not complete untill fertilisation
mucus prior to ejaculation that drains into the occurs in females (in human being). If fertilisation
spongy urethra. takes place, it results in a fertilized mature ovum and
21. (a) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which second polar body.
is a steroid hormone responsible for the changes 44. (d) It is a connecting link between mother and
occur in the endometrium (its development) and its developing foetus, which provides nutrients and
maintenance. removes the waste from baby’s blood.
22. (b) 45. (a) Relaxin is produced in the corpus luteum, the
23. (b) The birth control pill works by stopping sperm from placenta and the uterus in females as well as in other
joining with an egg (which is called fertilization). reproductive structures, this varies by species. It also
The hormones in the pill stop ovulation. No promotes the development of mammary glands in
ovulation means there’s no egg hanging around for pregnant mammals.
sperm to fertilize, so pregnancy can’t happen. 46. (d) Grafting in monocot plants is not possible because
24. (a) they have scattered Vascular Bundles.
25. (c) Bacteria have three mechanism for genetic 47. (b)
information transfer without undergoing reproduction 48. (c) In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with
i.e., transformation, transduction and conjugation. the egg and results in the formation of a diploid
S-94 Science
zygote and this process is called fertilization. The 62. (e) F is fertilised egg (zygote).
other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei
63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (a)
to form a triploid endosperm. This process is called
triple fusion. After fertilisation, the fertilized ovule 67. (b)
forms the seed while the tissues of the ovary become 68. (b) Development of the offspring from reproductive units,
the fruit. such as buds or fragments, in asexual reproduction is
called blastogenesis. In asexual reproduction, only
49. (d) A primary oocyte begins the first meiotic division,
one parent is involved, so also called uniparental
but then arrests until later in life when it will finish
reproduction.
this division in a developing follicle. This results in
a secondary oocyte, which will complete meiosis 69. (a)
if it is fertilized. So, the second meiotic division 70. (c) The urethra is the tube that allows urine to pass out
occurs after fertilisation. of the body. In men, it’s a long tube that runs through
50. (d) The sperm releases from the testis, enters into the penis. It also carries semen in men.
epididymis which leads to vas deferens. Then 71. (a)
sperms are transferred into the urethra. 72. (A) → (u), (B) → (p), (C) → (q), (D) → (r), (E) → (s),
51. (c) Ovary, uterus and fallopian tube are the part of female (F) → (t), (G) → (w), (H) → (v)
reproductive system but vas deferens is a part of male
reproductive system in human beings. The sperms are 73. (A) → (q), (B) → (s), (C) → (p), (D) → (r)
delivered through the vas deferens which unites with a 74. hermaphroditism 75. oxytocin
tube coming from the urinary bladder. 76. cloning 77. Hydra
52. (d) Stamens are the male reproductive parts of flowers. A 78. Bryophyllum 79. tubectomy
stamen consists of an anther (which produces pollen)
80. ovule 81. cross-pollination
and a filament.
82. oestrogen/progesterone
53. (a) Layering
83. flowers, fruits 84. plumule
54. (b) Slender branches (Thin branches)
85. meiosis 86. stock, scion
55. (c) Jasmine and China rose 87. Spirogyra
56. (d) Lemon and Guava 88. True 89. True 90. True 91. False
57. (e) Strawberry 92. False 93 False 94. False 95. True
58. (a) These particles are known as pollen grains; cross 96. False 97. True 98. False 99. True
pollination 100. False 101. True 102. False 103 True
59. (b) Pollen-tube 104. True 105. True 106. False 107. False
60. (c) C is male gamete. 108. True 109. True 110. False 111. True
61. (d) D is female gamete (ovum or egg); E is ovule
10 Acids, Bases
Heredity
Salts
Evolution
andand
Bird Human 76. In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly
except one. These unpaired chromosomes are:
(a) Large chromosome (b) Small chromosome
(c) Y chromosome (d) X chromosome
Bird
77. The process where characteristics are transmitted from
parent to offsprings is called:
(a) Variation (b) Heredity
(c) Gene (d) Allele
(A) (B) (e) None of the above
(a) What term can be used for the structure given in 78 Who have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes?
image A?
(a) Girls only
(b) What term can be used for the structure given in
image B? (b) Boys only
(c) Which image shows a common ancestry? (c) Both girls and boys
(d) Which image has a common function but different (d) It depends on many other factors
origin?
73. A person first crossed pure-breed pea plants having round- Assertion & Reason
yellow seeds with pure-breed pea plants having wrinkled-
green seeds and found that only A-B type of seeds were DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion
produced in the F1 generation. When F1 generation pea followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question
plants having A-B type of seeds were cross-breed by self- on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
pollination, then in addition to the original round-yellow best describes the two statements.
and wrinkled-green seeds, two new varieties A-D and (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
C-B type of seeds were also obtained. the correct explanation of Assertion.
(a) What are A-B type of seeds?
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
(b) State whether A and B are dominant traits or not the correct explanation of Assertion.
recessive traits.
(c) What are A-D type of seeds? (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) What are C-B type of seeds? (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Heredity and Evolution S-101
79. Assertion: Chromosomes are known as hereditary vehicles.
Match the Following
Reason: The chromosomes are capable of self-
reproduction and maintaining morphological and
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
physiological properties through successive generations.
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D)
80. Assertion: Ear muscles of external ear in man are poorly in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in
developed. column II.
Reason: These muscles are useful which move external 89. Match the genetic cross of the parents on the left with
ear freely to detect sound efficiently. the genotypes of the offspring most likely to be produced
81. Assertion: Although living organism always arise from from that cross on the right.
other living organism, life should certainly have had a Column I Column II
beginning.
(A) BB × bb (p) 100% BB
Reason: The study of the conditions and the mechanisms
(B) Bb × Bb (q) 100% bb
involved in the creation of most primitive living structures
on earth is actually the problem of origin of life. (C) BB × BB (r) 25% BB, 50%Bb,
25%bb
82. Assertion: The establishment of reproductive isolations
in an event of biological significance. (D) bb × bb (s) 100% Bb
Reason: In the absence of reproductive isolation species 90. Match the physical evidence of evolution with the best
can merge back into single population. description of that particular type of evidence.
83. Assertion: DNA fingerprinting is a method in which Column I Column II
polymerase chain reaction followed by DNA probe is (A) Fossils (p) Comparing
used. similarities and
Reason: A DNA fingerprint is inherited and therefore, differences between
resembles that of parents. amino acid sequences
in two organisms.
84. Assertion: The birds have large, light spongy bones with (B) Embryology (q) Comparing and
air sacs. contrasting cell
Reason : These adaptations help them during flight. structures found
within an organism.
85. Assertion: We have lost all the direct evidence of origin
(C) Cytology (r) The remains of dead
of life.
organisms that are
Reason: The persons responsible for protecting evidences studied.
were not skilled. (D) DNA evidence (s) Comparisons of the
86. Assertion: Among the primates, chimpanzee is the early development
closest relative of the present day humans. stages of an organism.
91.
Reason: The banding pattern in the autosome numbers 3
Column A Column B
and 6 of man and chimpanzee is remarkably similar.
(A) Genetic changes (p) Homologous organ
87. Assertion: Human ancestors never used their tails and so
(B) Independent (q) Fossil
the tail expressing gene has disappeared in them.
assortment
Reason: Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly (C) Natural selection (r) Analogous organ
called theory of continuity of germplasm.
(D) Dihybrid ratio (s) XY
88. Assertion: The genetic complement of an organism is (E) Male human beings (t) 9:3:3:1
called genotype.
(F) Wing of a bat and a (u) Darwin
Reason: Genotype is the type of hereditary properties of wing of a bird
an organism. (G) Remnant of ancient (v) Mendel
animals
(H) Arm of a man and (w) DNA copying
wing of a bird
S-102 Science
111. The age of fossil is usually determined by analysing the
Fill in the Blanks ............ present in the rock from which fossil is recovered.
112. Theory of natural selection was proposed by ...............
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). 113. Wind of bat and wing of bird are the example of the
................ organs.
92. Mendel performed his experiments on ...............
114. Forelimbs of frog and lizard are the example of the
93. According to modern concept, Mendel’s factor is called a ................ organs.
....................
94. Mendelian factors or genes as well as chromosomes are True / False
present in ................
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
95. The traits which express themselves in F1 generation are
answer as true or false.
called ................
96. The phenotypic ratio between tall and dwarf is ................ 115. Mouth parts of insects show divergent evolution.
97. The phenotypic ratio in dihybrid cross is ................. 116. Life can originate on earth from pre-existing life only.
98. There are ................ pairs of chromosomes in human. 117. The atmosphere of the primitive earth was reducing.
99. The offspring can be of two types with XX and ................ 118. Variations arising during the process of reproduction
chromosomes. cannot be inherited.
100. The traits which are acquired by an organism during its 119. Sex is determined by different factors in various species.
lifetime are called ................ . 120. Changes in the non-reproductive tissues caused by
101. Transmission of traits from one generation to the next environmental factors are inheritable.
generation is called ................ 121. Exchange of genetic material takes place in asexual
102. ................ traits are unable to express in a hybrid. reproduction.
103. Two types of nucleic acids are DNA and ................ . 122. A cross between a true tall and pure dwarf pea plant
resulted in production of all tall plants because tallness is
104. Chromosome consists of a DNA molecule and ................. the dominant trait.
105. If tall plant contains TT gene then dwarf plant contains 123. Reduction in weight of an organism due to nutrition is
................ . genetically controlled.
106. Mendel choose ................................ characters in Pea for 124. New species may be formed if DNA undergoes significant
his experiments. changes or chromosome number changes in the gametes.
107. Broccoli has been developed from ................ cabbage 125. Both the parents contribute DNA equally to the offspring.
through artificial selection. 126. Sex of the child is determined by the type of ovum
108. ................................ speciation occurs in geographically provided by the mother.
separated populations. 127. A recessive trait can also be common as blood group O.
109. The first organisms were ................ and not autotrophs. 128. Attached ear lobe is recessive trait.
100. The study of fossils, a branch of biology called ........... 129. Charles Darwin discovered the law of independent
was founded by Goerges Cuiver. assortment.
Heredity and Evolution S-103
Gametes
XX XX XY XY
Female – Carrier yR yr
YR Yr
Male
(Normal)
Since all the male progeny will get the X chromosome YR Yr yR yr
form their mother, they will all be normal.
YYRR YYRr YyRR YyRr
57. (d)
YR yellow yellow yellow yellow
58. (d) According to dihybrid phenotypic ratio round round round round
YYRr Yyrr YyRr Yyrr
9 : 3 : 3 : 1, Yr yellow yellow yellow yellow
round wrinkled round wrinkled
TW — 9 Tw —3
YyRR YyRr yyRR yyRr
tW – 3 tw –1 yR yellow yellow green green
round round round round
The total number of short and blue flowered plants is
YyRr Yyrr yyRr yyrr
1 1080 yr yellow yellow green green
× 2130 = = 135 round wrinkled round wrinkled
16 8
59. (b) Artificial selection is characterized by intentional The genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
reproduction of an organism having desirable traits. The phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
It is also called as selective breeding. ∴ The number of different genotypes and phenotypes
60. (b) Analogous organs are such organs which show obtained would be 9 and 4, respectively.
anatomically different structures but doing similar
67. (b) Phenotypic ratio can be determined by doing a test
functions. Example : wings of a bat and wings of a
pigeon. cross and identifying the frequency of a trait or trait
combinations that will be expressed based on the
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) genotypes of the offspring.
64. (b) Chromosomes carry genes, which are the hereditary Parents Plant-1 × Plant-2
characters to the offspring. Phenotype Red White
65. (a) The genotypes of offspring of parents having IAIO coloured
flowers
coloured
flowers
and IAIB blood groups are: Genotype RR × rr
A O A B
Parents I I × I I r
Gametes R
F1 generation Rr
(all red
coloured
Genotype A A A B A O B O flowers)
I I I I I I I I
Phenotype Blood Group A Blood Group AB Blood Group A Blood Group B Self fertilization
Offspring
Rr × Rr
20. A 24V potential difference is applied across a parallel 29. A letter ‘A’ is constructed of a uniform wire of resistance
combination of four 6 ohm resistor. The current in each 1 ohm per cm. The sides of the letter are 20 cm and the
resistor is cross piece in the middle is 10 cm long. The resistance
(a) 1 A (b) 4 A between the ends of the legs will be
(c) 16 A (d) 36 A (a) 32.4 ohm (b) 28.7 ohm
(c) 26.7 ohm (d) 24.7 ohm
Electricity S-109
30. A wire of resistance R is cut into ten equal parts which are 37. The unit for specific resistance is
then joined in parallel. The new resistance is (a) ohm × second (b) ohm × m
(a) 0.01 R (b) 0.1 R (c) ohm (d) ohm/cm
(c) 10 R (d) 100 R
38. If the temperature of a conductor is increased, its
31. If a wire is stretched to make its length three times, its resistance will
resistance will become (a) not increase
(a) three times (b) one-third (b) increase
(c) nine times (d) one-ninth (c) decrease
32. The resistivity of a wire depends on (d) change according to the whether
(a) length (b) area of cross-section 39. The equivalent resistance between points a and b of a
(c) material (d) All the above network shown in the figure is given by
33. The effective resistance between the points A and B in the 3
(a) R
figure is 4
D R b
(a) 5 Ω 3 3 4
(b) R R
(b) 2 Ω 6 3
A C R O a
(c) 3 Ω 5 R
(c) R
(d) 4 Ω 3 3 4
B 4
34. In the circuits shown below the ammeter A reads 4 amp. (d) R
and the voltmeter V reads 20 volts. The value of the 5
resistance R is 40. Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 are joined in parallel.
R
A The equivalent resistance of the combination is
(a) R1R2/(R1 + R2) (b) (R1 + R2)
(c) R1 × R2 (d) R1/R2
V
41. In the given circuit, the potential of the point E is
(a) slightly more than 5 ohms
E 1
(b) slightly less than 5 ohms (a) Zero A + – D
(c) exactly 5 ohms
8V
(d) None of the above (b) – 8 V
35. Three resistors are connected to form the sides of a (c) – 4/3 V
triangle ABC as shown below. B C
B
60
C (d) 4/3 V 5
30V 1.3V
(a) –10 V (b) –20 V
1 1
(c) 0 V (d) 10 V (a) (b)
117 13
97. The diameter of a wire is reduced to one-fifth of its
1
original value by stretching it. If its initial resistance is (c) (d) 1
R, what would be its resistance after reduction of the 12
diameter? 103. What is the current supplied by the battery in the circuit
shown below? Each resistance used in circuit is of 1 kW
R R
(a) (b) and potential difference VAB= 8V
625 25
(c) 25 R (d) 625 R (a) 64 mA A
98. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part
(b) 15 mA
is used in the heater, the heat generated now will be
(a) doubled (b) four times (c) 9.87 mA
(c) one fourth (d) halved B
99. The resistance of a wire is R. After melting it is remouled (d) 1 mA
such that its area of cross section becomes n times its
initial area of cross section. It new resistance will be 104. A wire of resistance R is bent to form a A B
R square ABCD as shown in the figure. The
(a) nR (b) effective resistance between E and C is:
n
(E is mid-point of arm CD)
R 7 D C
(c) n2R (d) (a) R (b) R
E
n2 64
100. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and 3 1
stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new resistance (c) R (d) R
4 16
will be :
105. Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?
R
(a) (b) n2R (a) conductor (b) inductor
n
(c) switch (d) fuse
R
(c) 2 (d) nR 106. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads 2 A, What is
n the value of resistence R (the resistance of ammeter is
negligible).
101. Three electric bulbs of rating 40 W – 200 V; 50 W – 200
3
V and 100 W – 200 V are connected in series to a 600 V
R
supply. What is likely to happen as the supply is switched
on?
6
(a) Only 50 W bulb will fuse
(b) Both 40 W and 50 W bulbs will fuse.
(c) All the three bulbs will emit light with their rated 6V
powers. A
(d) 100 W bulb will emit light of maximum intensity. (a) 1 W (b) 2 W
(c) 3 W (d) 4 W
S-114 Science
107. A circuit to verify Ohm’s law uses ammeter and voltmeter (a) 0 V 6V 2k
in series or parallel connected correctly to the resistor. In
the circuit : (b) 4.8 V
8k
(a) ammeter is always used in parallel and voltmeter is V
(c) 6.0 V
series
(b) Both ammeter and voltmeter must be connected in (d) 1.2 V A
parallel
(c) ammeter is always connected in series and voltmeter 113. A student in a town in India, where the price per unit (1
in parallel unit = 1 kW-hr) of electricity is `5.00, purchases a 1 kVA
(d) Both, ammeter and voltmeter must be connected in UPS (uninterrupted power supply) battery. A day before
series
the exam, 10 friends arrive to the student’s home with their
108. An electric bulb is rated 220V and 100W. When it is laptops and all connect their laptops to the UPS. Assume
operated on 110V, the power consumed will be that each laptop has a constant power requirement of 90 W.
(a) 100W (b) 75W Consider the following statements
(c) 50W (d) 25W I All the 10 laptops can be powered by the UPS if
connected directly.
109. From a power station, the power is transmitted at a very
II All the 10 laptops can be powered if connected using
high voltage because –
an extension box with a 3A fuse.
(a) it is generated only at high voltage
(b) it is cheaper to produce electricity at high voltage III If all the 10 friends use the laptop for 5 hours, then
the cost of the consumed electricity is about `22.50.
(c) electricity at high voltage is less dangerous
(d) there is less loss of energy in transmission at high Select the correct option with the true statements.
voltage (a) I only (b) I and II only
110. Two electric bulbs rated P1 watt V volts and P2 watt V (c) I and III only (d) II and III only
volts are connected in parallel and applied across V volts.
114. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% longer. The
The total power (in watts) will be
percentage change in its electrical resistance if its volume
P1 + P2 (b)
(a) P1 P2 remains unchanged is:
(a) 2.0% (b) 2.5%
PP P1 + P2 (c) 1.0% (d) 0.5%
(c) 1 2 (d)
P1 + P2 P1 P2
115. Six similar bulbs are connected as
111. In the circuit, wire 1 is of negligible resistance. Then, shown in the figure with a DC source A B
R1 R2 of emf E, and zero internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the
bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii)
Wire 1 in the situation when two from section
+ – + – A and one from section B are glowing,
1 2
will be: E
(a) current will flow through wire 1, if ε1 ≠ ε2 (a) 4 : 9 (b) 9 : 4
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
ε1 ε 2
(b) current will flow through wire 1, if ≠
R1 R2
(c) current will flow through wire 1, if
A 3.0 4.0 B (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion.
5.0
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3.0 I
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
138. Assertion : Fuse wire must have high resistance and low
132. The equivalent resistance between points A and B melting point.
(a) 6.2 Ω (b) 5.1 Ω
Reason : Fuse is used for very small current flow only.
(c) 13.33 Ω (d) 1.33 Ω
139. Assertion : Alloys are commonly used in electrical
133. The current through the battery is heating devices like electric iron and heater.
(a) 2.33 A (b) 3.12 A
Reason : Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than
(c) 4.16 A (d) 5.19 A that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low
134. The current through the 4.0 ohm resistor is melting points than their constituent metals.
(a) 5.6 A (b) 0.98 A 140. Assertion : In a simple battery circuit, the point of lowest
(c) 0.35 A (d) 0.68 A potential is negative terminal of the battery.
Reason : The current flows towards the point of higher
potential as it flows in such a circuit from the negative to
positive terminal.
Electricity S-117
141. Assertion : The equation V = Ri can be applied to those Reason : The power dissipated in the circuit is directly
conducting devices which do not obey Ohm’s law. proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
Reason : V = Ri is a statement of Ohm’s law.
142. Assertion : All electric devices shown in the circuit are Match the Following
ideal. The reading of each of ammeter (A) and voltmeter
(V) is zero. DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
E two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C,
D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in
column II.
V
152. Column I Column II
168. Physical quantity represented by coulomb per second is 186. The resistivity of all pure metals increases with the rise in
.............. . temperature.
169. Two resistances of 2 Ω each are connected in parallel. 187. Ohm’s law is a relation between the power used in a
The equivalent resistance is .............. . circuit to the current and the potential difference.
170. The resistance of a wire is .............. proportional to the 188. Direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of
square of its radius. flow of electrons.
171. Kilowatt is the unit of electrical .............. but kilowatt- 189. The equivalent resistance of several resistors in series is
hour is the unit of electrical .................. equal to the sum of their individual resistances.
172. Energy spent in kilowatt-hour 190. In parallel combination, the reciprocal of equivalent
resistance is the sum of the reciprocal of individual
volt ×..........×.......... resistance.
1000
191. The series arrangement is used for domestic circuits.
173. A fuse is a short piece of wire of high .............. and low
..................... 192. The reciprocal of resistance is called specific resistance.
174. Fuse wire has a ............... melting point and is made of an 193. Resistivity is measured in ohm-metre.
alloy of ..............and ................. If the current in a circuit 194. The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to length.
rises too high, the fuse wire .................
195. The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to area.
175. A fuse is connected in ................. to the ......................
196. The resistivity of alloys decreases with the rise in temp.
wire.
197. The filament resistance of glowing bulb is greater, to its
176. Electric energy is produced by the ............. of charges.
resistance when it is not glowing.
177. Energy converted per unit charge is measured with an
198. The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt-hour
instrument called a .....................
(kWh).
178. The electrical energy dissipated in a resistor is given by
199. Pure tungsten has high resistivity and a high melting
W = ......................
point (nearly 3000°C).
179. The unit of power is ..................
200. When a metallic conductor is heated the atoms in the
180. One watt of power is consumed when 1 A of current flows metal vibrate with greater amplitude and frequency.
at a potential difference of ...............
201. One kilowatt is equal to 10 horse power.
181. 1 kW h = ...................
202. Fuse is a thin wire which melts and breaks the electric
182. The alloy which is used for making the filament of bulbs circuit due to only high voltage.
is ...............
183. Power transmission is carried out at high.........................
and low .......................... .
Electricity S-119
3
ρ I = amp
100. (b) We know that, R = 10
A Power dissipated across arm AB,
2
ρ 2 PAB = I 2 × RAB = 3 × 1
or R = ⇒ R ∝ 2
Volume 10 3
3
According to question 2 = n1 PAB = = 0.03 Watt
100
R2 n 2l 2 Total power dissipated in circuit,
R = 21
1 l1 2
Pckt = I 2 × Req = 3 × 13
R2 10 3
or, = n2
R1 39
Pckt = = 0.39 watt
⇒ R2 = n2R1 100
Ratio of power across A and B to total power = Ratio
101. (b) Resistance of 40 W – 200 V, 50 W – 200 V, of work done across A and B to total circuit
100 W – 200 V are respectively. Q W = P × t
V2 200 × 200
R40 = = = 1000 Ω So, P=
AB W=AB 0.03
=
1
P40 40 Pckt Wckt 0.39 13
R50 = 800 Ω and R100= 400 Ω 103. (b) After simplifying the given circuit, we get
600 600
I = = = 0.2727 A
1000 + 800 + 400 2200
P1 40 A B C
I40 = = = 0.2 A
V 200
P2 50 5
I50 = = = = 0.25 A
V 200 20
P3 100
I100 = = = 0 .5 A
V 200 8V
Clearly, 0.2 A & 0.25 A < 0.27 A hence both 40 W Resistance between arm AB, Rnet AB= 1 =
kΩ
1000
Ω
and 50 W bulbs will fuse. 5 5
S-122 Science
1 1000 6V
Resistance between arm BC, Rnet BC = kΩ
= Ω Req = = 3 W ...(ii)
3 3 2A
So, Rnet = Rnet AB + Rnet BC where unknown resistance R, from (i) and (ii)
V
6V High resistance
A Hence, maximum potential drop occurs in the
voltmeter.
Two resistance are in parallel, So, reading of voltmeter is nearly 6 V.
1 1 1 2 +1 3 1 113. (c) Power delivered by the UPS battery is 1kVA i.e.
= + = = =
R1 3 6 6 6 2 1000 V.A = 1000W
When all the laptops connected directly to UPS then
\ R1 = 2W ...(i)
total power requirement
Voltage 90 × 10 = 900W,
Req =
Current
Electricity S-123
So battery (UPS) can provide power to all laptops. 116. (a) When the lamps are connected in parallel, then
If all laptops are used for 5 hours, then cost of potential difference V across each lamp will be
electricity consumed as the cost of electricity is same and will be equal to potential necessary for
`5.00 per unit. full brightness of each bulb. Because illumination
produced by a lamp is proportional to electric power
900 × 5 × 3600 consumed in it, and power consumed,
= × 5 = 22.5
3.6 × 106
ρ V2 V2
114. (c) Resistance, R = P1 = < = P2
A R1 R2
I 3.0 I
6V 12 V
Equivalent Resistance,
R1 + R2 = 2 + 4 = 6Ω [Series combination]
= (i)
The circuit reduces to figure (a)
Now the 3.33 Ω and the 4.0 Ω are in series.
V 6
Current, I=
= = 1A. Rs1 = 3.33W + 4.0W = 7.33W
R 6
Heat dissipated in 4Ω Resistor The circuit reduces to figure (ii)
= I2Rt = 1 × 4 × 5 = 20 J
3.0 7.33 B
[∵ I = 1A, R = 4Ω, t = 5 sec.] A
3× 6
126. (b) Equivalent resistance of 3Ω and 6Ω = = 2Ω
3+ 6
3.0 I
as they are in parallel they have same p.d.
3 1
i= = 12 V
6 2
Electricity S-125
(ii)
The 7.33 Ω and the 3.0 Ω are in parallel. V 2
136. (a) Main current I=
= = 1A
(7.33Ω) (3.0Ω) R 2
R=
p2 = 2.13Ω
7.33Ω + 3.0Ω Current flowing through 0.5Ω resistor = 1A
A 3.0 2.13 B 137. (d) P.D. across the junctions :
V1 = IR1 = 1 × 1.5 = 1.5V
(iii)
The circuit reduces to figure (iii). 139. (c) Alloys are used in electrical heating device because
Finally, the 2.13 Ω and the 3.0 Ω are in series. they have high resistivity or resistance as compared
to pure metals and high melting point.
R= Rs2= 2.13Ω + 3.0Ω= 5.13 Ω= 5.1Ω
140. (c) It is clear that in a battery circuit, the point of lowest
A 5.13 B potential is the negative terminal of battery.
and current flows from higher potential to lower
potential.
I
141. (c) It is common error to say that V = Ri is a statement
of Ohm’s law. The essence of Ohm’s law is that the
12 V value of R is independent of the value of V. The
equation V = Ri is used for finding resistance of all
conducting devices, whether they obey Ohm’s law
(iv)
The circuit reduces to figure (iv). or not.
133. (a) From Ohm’s law, I= V= 12V = 2.33A= 2.3A 142. (d) (A) will read zero but (V) will read E
R 5.13Ω
143. (d) ρ is the characteristic of the material of resistors. It
134. (d) To find the current through the 4.0 ohm resistor, we
does not depend on the length and cross-sectional
need to expand the combinations.
area of resistors. But R depends on the length and
In figure (iii), the current through the 2.13 Ω and 3.0 the cross-sectional are of the resistor.
Ω is the same as the total current, 2.33 A. So, R1 may be greater than R2 even when r1 ≤ r2.
The voltage across the 2.13 Ω is then V2.13 = (2.13
144. (a) 145. (d)
Ω) (2.33 A) = 4.96 V.
In figure (ii), the voltage across the 7.33 Ω and 3.0 146. (c) Resistivity is a material property.
Ω is the same as that across the 2.13 Ω, 4.96V. 147. (c) r = r0(1 + aDT)
So, the current through the 7.33 Ω is 148. (b) Glow = Power (P) = I2R
4.96V
I 7.33
= = 0.677 A
7.33Ω \ dP =2 dI =2 × 0.5 =1%
P I
In figure (i), the current through the 3.33 Ω and the 2
4.0 Ω is the same as the current through the 7.33 Ω 149. (a) Power loss = i²R = P R
Therefore, I4.0 = 0.68 A. V
[P = Transmitted power]
135. (a) E.m.f. of the battery = 2V
Effective resistance of the parallel resistors is given V2 1
150. (b) P = ; R ∝ (same rated voltage)
by R1. R P
2
1 1 1 1+ 3 4 2
= = ⇒ R1= 3= 1.5 Ω 151. (c) Here, P = E , so P ∝ R only when I is constant.
= + = R
R1 6 2 6 6 3 2
Here I increases as R is decreased. Hence the reason
Total resistance of the circuit, R = 1.5 + 0.5 = 2Ω
is wrong.
S-126 Science
152. (A) → (q); (B) → (p); (C) → (s); (D) → (r) 171. power, energy 172. ampere, hour
153. (A) → q; (B) → r; (C) → p; (D) → s 173. resistance, melting point 174. low, lead, tin, melts
162. directly proportional, temperature 185. False 186. True 187. False
163. length, area of cross-section, resistivity 188. True 189. True 190. True
164. joule 165. Scalar 191. False 192. False 193. True
166. decreases 167. ohm-meter 194. True 195. False 196. False
197. True 198. True 199. True
168. electric current
200. True 201. False 202.
False
169. 1 Ω 170. inversely.
Magnetic Effects
12 Acids,
of Bases
Electric
Salts
Current
and
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice 6. The most suitable material for making the core of an
questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) electromagnet is:
out of which only one is correct. (a) soft iron (b) brass
(c) aluminium (d) steel
1. A magnet attracts:
(a) plastics (b) carbon 7. In an electric motor, the direction of current in the coil
changes once in each:
(c) aluminium (d) iron and steel
(a) two rotations (b) one rotation
2. A plotting compass is placed near the south pole of a bar (c) half rotation (d) one-fourth rotation
magnet. The pointer of plotting compass will:
(a) point away from the south pole 8. An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles
to it as shown in the Figure.
(b) point parallel to the south pole
(c) point towards the south pole
(d) point at right angles to the south pole Magnetic
field
3. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
magnetic field lines?
Electron beam
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken
to be the direction in which the north pole of a The direction of force acting on the electron beam will
magnetic compass needle points. be:
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves (a) to the left (b) to the right
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, (c) into the page (d) out of the page
they represent zero field strength 9. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the placed in a magnetic field is the largest when the angle
degree of closeness of the field lines between the conductor and the magnetic field is:
4. The magnetic field lines in the middle of the current (a) 45o (b) 60o
o
(c) 90 (d) 180o
carrying solenoid are
(a) circles 10. The force exerted on a current-carrying wire placed in a
(b) spirals magnetic field is zero when the angle between the wire
(c) parallel to the axis of the tube and the direction of magnetic field is:
(d) perpendicular to the axis of the tube (a) 45o (b) 60o
(c) 90o (d) 180o
5. The front face of a circular wire carrying current behaves
like a north pole, The direction of current in this face of 11. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the
the circular wire is: plane of paper carries a current when the key is ON.
S-128 Science
The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of 17. The magnetic lines of force, inside a current carrying
paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti clockwise and solenoid, are
clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines point (a) along the axis and are parallel to each other
from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the (b) perpendicular to the axis and equidistance from each
face close to other
(a) A (c) circular and they do not intersect each other
(b) B (d) circular at the ends but they are parallel to the axis
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large inside the solenoid.
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is 18. Which of the following determines the direction of
large magnetic field due to a current carrying conductor?
(a) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction
A. B. Variable (b) Fleming’s left-hand rule
resistance
(c) Lenz’s rule
+ –
(d) Maxwell’s cork screw rule
19. Along the direction of current carrying wire, the value of
+ – magnetic field is
A (a) zero
K (b) infinity
12. A small magnet is placed perpendicular to a uniform (c) depends on the length of the wire
magnet field. The forces acting on the magnet will (d) uncertain
result in 20. The value of magnetic field due to a small element of
(a) Rotational motion current carrying conductor at a distance r and lying on the
(b) Translatory motion plane perpendicular to the element of conductor is
(c) No motion at all (a) zero
(d) Translational and rotational motion both (b) maximum
13. Which one of the following substances is the magnetic (c) inversely proportional to the current
substances? (d) none of the above
(a) Mercury (b) Iron 21. The value of intensity of magnetic field at a point due to
(c) Gold (d) Silver a current carrying conductor depends
(a) Only on the value of current
14. Magnetic lines do not intersect on one-another because
(b) Only on a small part of length of conductor
(a) they are at a distance
(c) On angle between the line joining the given point
(b) they are in the same direction
to the mid point of small length and the distance
(c) they are parallel to another between the small length and the given point
(d) at the point of intersection there will be two direction (d) On all of the above
of the magnetic force which is impossible
22. The direction of magnetic lines of forces close to a
15. By removing the inducing magnet, the induced magnetism straight conductor carrying current will be
is (a) along the length of the conductor
(a) Finished after some time (b) radially outward
(b) Finished just after (c) circular in a plane perpendicular to the conductor
(c) Not finished for a long time (d) helical
(d) Not changed
23. When an electron beam is moving in a magnetic field,
16. A current carrying wire in the neighbour hood produces then the work done is equal to the
(a) no field (a) charge of electron
(b) electric and magnetic fields (b) magnetic field
(c) electric field only (c) product of electronic charge and the magnetic field
(d) magnetic field only (d) zero
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current S-129
24. A current carrying loop lying in a magnetic field behaves 32. The current in a generator armature is AC because
like a. (a) the magnetic field reverses at intervals
(a) A magnetic dipole (b) the current in the field coils is AC
(b) magnetic pole (c) the rotation of the armature causes the field through
(c) magnetic material it to reverse
(d) non-magnetic material (d) the commutator feeds current into it in opposite
directions every half cycle
25. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each
circulating in the same direction. If the loops approach 33. The current in the armature of a motor is reversed every
each other, you will observe that half cycle due to the action of a(n)
(a) the current in each increases, (a) armature (b) field coil
(b) the current in each decreases, (c) brush (d) commutator.
(c) the current in each remains the same, 34. In an electric motor, the energy transformation is
(d) the current in one increases whereas that in the other (a) from electrical to chemical
decreases
(b) from chemical to light
26. An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is (c) from mechanical to electrical
plunged into a coil. The strength of the induced e.m.f. is (d) from electrical to mechanical
independent of
35. The direction of induced current is obtained by
(a) the strength of the magnet
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule
(b) number of turns of coil
(b) Maxwell’s cork-screw rule
(c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
(c) Ampere’s rule
(d) speed with which the magnet is moved
(d) Fleming’s right hand rule
27. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in
the construction of a 36. A metal sheet is placed in a variable magnetic field which
is increasing from zero to maximum. Induced current
(a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
flows in the directions as shown in figure. The direction
(c) electric motor (d) generator
of magnetic field will be - N
28. Direction of induced e.m.f. is determined by - (a) normal to the paper, inwards
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule (b) normal to the paper,outwards W E
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule (c) from east to west
(c) Maxwell’s rule (d) from north to south
(d) Ampere’s rule of swimming S
29. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is – 37. A magnet NS is placed along the axis of a circular coil.
The magnet is moved away from the coil. The induced
(a) the process of charging a body.
current in the coil is:
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a
(a) Zero
current passing through a coil.
(b) Clockwise N S
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative
motion between a magnet and the coil. (c) Anti-clockwise
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor. (d) None of these
Coil
30. The device used for producing electric current is called a 38. Four situations are given below-
(a) generator (b) galvanometer I. An infinitely long wire carrying current
(c) ammeter (d) motor II. A rectangular loop carrying current
III. A solenoid of finite length carrying current
31. In an electric motor, conversion takes place of
IV. A circular loop carrying current.
(a) Chemical energy into electrical energy
(b) Electrical energy into mechanical energy In which of the above cases will the magnetic field
produced be like that of a bar magnet?
(c) Electrical energy into light
(a) I (b) I and III
(d) Electrical energy into chemical energy
(c) Only III (d) Only IV
S-130 Science
39. The similar magnets of steel are ................. than the oriented with their planes parallel to each other. The
magnets of soft iron Y-axis passes vertically through loop A (dashed line).
(a) stronger (b) of equal strength There is a current IB in loop B as shown in the diagram.
(c) weaker (d) none of the above Possible actions which we might perform on loop A are
Y
40. A bar of soft iron is placed flat on the table. A bar magnet
is taken and its south pole is placed on one end of the bar
IB
of soft iron. The magnet is held almost vertically. The bar
is stroked from one end to the other with magnet. On the –X X
other end of the bar, magnet is lifted and again placed on
the first end and the bar is again stroked. The end of the
bar where the magnet is lifted will be
A
B
(a) south pole
(b) no pole
(c) south and north both type
(d) north pole (I) move A to the right along X-axis closer to B
41. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces? (II) move A to the left along X-axis away from B
(a) we will have a single pole on each piece (III) as viewed from above, rotate A clockwise about
(b) each piece will have two like poles Y-axis
(c) each piece will have two unlike poles (IV) as viewed from above, rotate A anti-clockwise about
y-axis
(d) each piece will be lose magnetism
Which of the actions will induce a current in A only in
42. The permanent magnets are kept with soft iron pieces at
the direction shown?
ends as keepers
(a) Only (I) (b) Only (II)
(a) to magnetise the soft iron pieces
(c) Only (I) and (IV) (d) Only (II) and (III)
(b) to increase the strength of the magnets
(c) to avoid self demagnetisation 47. An electron move with velocity v in a uniform magnetic
(d) for physical safety of the magnets field B. The magnetic force experienced by the electron is
(a) Always zero
43. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a coil changes,
(b) Never zero
an induced e.m.f. is produced in the circuit. The e.m.f.
lasts (c) Zero if v is perpendicular to B
(a) for a short time (d) Zero if v is parallel to B
(b) for a long time
(c) for ever
(d) so long as the change in flux takes place
DIRECTIONS : Study the given case/passage and answer the
44. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, following questions.
then the induced e.m.f. is
Case/Passage - 1
(a) larger in case (i)
(b) smaller in case (i) A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current
(c) equal in both the cases is run in order to create a magnetic field. The magnetic field of
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the the solenoid is the superposition of the fields due to the current
coil through each coil. It is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and
close to zero outside and is similar to the field of a bar magnet
45. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in
having a north pole at one end and a south pole at the other
the construction of a
depending upon the direction of current flow. The magnetic
(a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
field produced in the solenoid is dependent on a few factors
(c) electric motor (d) generator
such as, the current in the coil, number of turns per unit length
46. The diagram below shows two circular loops of wire (A etc. The following graph is obtained by a researcher while
and B) centred on and perpendicular to the X-axis and doing an experiment to see the variation of the magnetic field
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current S-131
with respect to the current in the solenoid. The unit of magnetic (a) Only IV (b) I and III and IV
field as given in the graph attached is in milli-Tesla (mT) and (c) I and II (d) Only II
the current is given in Ampere.
52. From the graph deduce which of the following statements
is correct.
(a) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT
(b) For larger currents, the magnetic field increases non-
linearly.
(c) For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 1.3 mT
(d) There is not enough information to find the magnetic
field corresponding to 0.8A current.
Case/Passage - 2
For a conductor of length L carrying a current of I in a field B
the force experienced by the conductor F = I L × B
48. What type of energy conversion is observed in a linear If the current-carrying conductor in the form of a loop of any
→
solenoid? arbitrary shape is placed in a uniform field, then, F = 0 i.e.,
(a) Mechanical to Magnetic the net magnetic force on a current loop in a uniform magnetic
(b) Electrical to Magnetic field is always zero. Here it must be kept in mind that in this
(c) Electrical to Mechanical situation different parts of the loop may experience elemental
(d) Magnetic to Mechanical force due to which the loop may be under tension or may
experience a torque.
49. What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the
solenoid? Direction of force can be determined by fleming’s left hand
(a) The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short- rule, right hand palm rule or screw rule.
circuit. 53. The direction of induced current is obtained by
(b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current (a) Fleming’s left hand rule
in the circuit. (b) Maxwell’s cork-screw rule
(c) The bar will be magnetised permanently. (c) Ampere’s rule
(d) The bar will not be affected by any means. (d) Fleming’s right hand rule
50. The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid are 54. An electron moving with uniform velocity in x-direction
similar to that of … enters a region of uniform magnetic field along
(a) a bar magnet 10 y-direction. Which of the following physical quantity(ies)
(b) a straight current carrying conductor is (are) non-zero and remain constant? y
(c) a circular current carrying loop I. Velocity of the electron
II. Magnitude of the
(d) electromagnet of any shape
momentum of the electron.
51. After analysing the graph a student writes the following III. Force on the electron. x
–
statements. IV. The kinetic energy of electron. e
I. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is (a) Only I and II. (b) Only III and IV.
inversely proportional to the current. (c) All four (d) Only II and IV.
II. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is
55. Which of the following can produce a magnetic field?
directly proportional to the current.
(a) Electric charges at rest
III. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is
directly proportional to square of the current. (b) Electric charges in motion
IV. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is (c) Only by permanent magnets
independent of the current. (d) Electric charges whether at rest or in motion
Choose from the following which of the following would 56. A wire is lying horizontally in the north-south direction
be the correct statement(s). and there is a horizontal magnetic field pointing towards
S-132 Science
the east. Some positive charges in the wire move north
and an equal number of negative charges move south. Assertion & Reason
The direction of force on the wire will be
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an assertion
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question
N on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
best describes the two statements.
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in 76. An electric current can be used for making temporary
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, magnets known as .................
D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in 77. The unit of magnetic field is ......................
column II.
78. The N-pole of a compass points to the .............. pole of a
68. Column I Column II permanent magnet.
(A) An electric motor (p) to a battery 79. The force that a magnetic field exerts on a current is
works on always perpendicular to the ............. and to the ..............
(B) An electric motor is also (q) direct current
80. In a magnetic field pointing away from you, an electron
(C) A commutator is used to (r) reverse the direction
traveling to the right will experience a force in the
of flow of current. .............. direction.
(D) Commutator rings are (s) known as DC
81. Magnetic fields are produced by .................
connected MOTOR
82. You are looking into a solenoid, at its S-pole, along its
69. Equal currents i flow in two wires along x and y axis as
axis. From your view point, the direction of the current in
shown. Match the following :
the solenoid is ................
83. Crowding the wires of a solenoid more closely together
i
will .............. the strength of the field inside it.
Fill in the Blanks 90. To produce DC, the output of a generator must be fed
through a (n) ...............
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an 91. In any generator, the current in the armature is of the
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). .......... type.
70. A compass needle is a .................... magnet. 92. In an AC generator, maximum number of lines of force
pass through the coil when the angle between the plane of
71. Field lines are used to represent a ................
coil and lines of force is .....................
72. Field lines are shown closer together where the magnetic
field is .................... True / False
73. A metallic wire carrying an electric current has associated
with it a ........... field. DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
answer as true or false.
74. The field lines about the wire consist of a series of
concentric circles whose direction is given by the ............ 93. A magnetic field exists in the region surrounding a
rule. magnet, in which the force of the magnet can be detected.
S-134 Science
94. The pattern of the magnetic field around a conductor due 98. Two magnetic lines of force never intersect each other.
to an electric current flowing through it depends on the
99. The field lines inside the infinite solenoid are in the form
shape of the conductor.
of parallel straight lines.
95. A current-carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic
100. An electric generator works on the principle of
field always experiences a force.
electromagnetic induction.
96. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor
101. In a DC electric motor a pair of split rings is used as
placed in a magnetic field can be reversed by reversing
commutator.
the direction of current flowing in the conductor.
102. The magnitude of induced current can be increased by
97. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor
decreasing the speed of rotation of coil.
placed in a magnetic field cannot be reversed by reversing
the direction of magnetic field.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current S-135
44. (a) 45. (d) 61. (a) A moving charge experiences a force in magnetic
field. It is because of interaction of two magnetic
46. (a) In loop shown current is anti-clockwise. fields, one which is produced due to motion charge
A and other in which charge is moving.
IA IB
B 62. (c) Force acting on each pair of the opposite sides of the
coil are equal.
63. (c) Force on moving charge will be maximum if
direction of velocity of charge is perpendicular to
So to induce a anti-clockwise current in A, flux direction of magnetic field
going into A must be increased and by bringing A
closer to B, we get a anti-clockwise current in A. 64. (a) Magnetic force is always perpendicular to the
This is in accordance with Lenz’s law. direction of motion of charged particle, i.e., work
done on the charge particle moving on a circular
47. (d) We know, Lorentz Force path in magnetic field is zero.
F = q v B sin q 65. (c) In a conductor, the average velocity of electrons is
where q is angle between the direction s of v and B. zero. Hence no current flows through the conductor.
Hence, no force acts on this conductor.
S-136 Science
66. (a) 67. (b) 82. clockwise 83. increase
68. (A) → q, (B) → s, (C) → r, (D) → p 84. North 85. south
69. (A) → r, (B) → q, (C) → r, (D) → p 86. electrical, electromagnetic induction.
70. small 71. magnetic field 87. 220 V, 50 Hz. 88.
60 Hz
72. greater. 73. magnetic 89. magnetic 90. commutator
74. right-hand 75. north magnetic 91. A.C 92. 90 degree
76. electromagnets 77. tesla 93. True 94. True 95. False 96. True
78. South 79. field, current 97. False 98. True 99. True 100. True
80. downward 81. currents 101. True 102. False
13 Acids,
Our Bases and
Environment
Salts
(c) Because respiration ceases at such low temperature.
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (d) Because there is no transpiration.
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice 7. In order to maintain proper ecological balance
questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) (a) the existing forests would be cleared and new ones
out of which only one is correct. should be planted.
(b) some quick growing annuals should be planted if a
1. An example of a producer in the aquatic food web would tree must be cut for other uses.
be:
(c) tree must be cut whenever necessary because the
(a) Duckweed (b) Ducks underground part performs the useful purpose.
(c) Fish (d) Insects (d) a tree should be planted in place of one to be cut.
2. Which one is recyclable waste? 8. It is said, the Tajmahal may be destroyed due to
(a) Paper (a) Flood in Yamuna river
(b) Torn clothes (b) Decomposition of marble as a result of high
(c) Metallic and plastic discards temperature
(d) All the above (c) Air pollutants released from oil refinery of Mathura
3. Which of the following does not form part of particulate (d) All the above
matter?
9. In an ecosystem, the function of the producers is to
(a) Dust (b) Fly ash
(a) convert organic compounds into inorganic compounds.
(c) Aerosols (d) Nitric oxide
(b) trap solar energy and convert it into chemical energy.
4. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices? (c) utilize chemical energy.
(a) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while shopping (d) release energy.
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans
10. Free services provided to humans by ecosystems include
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to
drop you on her scooter (a) control of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration.
(d) All of the above (b) prevention of soil erosion.
5. Habitat together with functions of species constitute: (c) filtering of pollutants from water and air.
(a) Trophic level (b) Boundary (d) all of the above
(c) Topography (d) Niche 11. Carcinogenic chemicals produced during recycling of
6. Plants are killed in winter by frost: plastics and polythene is/are
33. For corrosion of metals, there should be (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) Moisture 43. As energy is passed from one trophic level to another, the
(c) Air amount of usable energy
(d) All these (a) increases
(b) decreases
34. Sun gives radiations in the form of
(c) remains the same
(a) Infra-red radiation (b) Visible light
(d) energy is not passed from one trophic level to another
(c) Ultra-violet (d) All these
44. In the biosphere, which of the following is the ultimate
35. In an ecosystem green plants are known as source of energy?
(a) primary consumers (b) secondary consumers (a) Carbon (b) Water
(c) producers (d) tertiary consumers (c) Sunlight (d) Nitrogen
36. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because 45. Sulphur dioxide affects
(a) It reacts with O2 (a) Haemoglobin of blood (b) Arteries
(b) It inhibits glycolysis (c) Alveoli of lungs (d) Nerves
(c) Reacts with haemoglobin
46. Pyramid of energy in a forest ecosystem is
(d) Makes nervous system inactive
(a) Always inverted
37. The presence of which of the following pollutants in the (b) Always upright
atmosphere has caused damage to Taj Mahal? (c) Both upright and inverted depending on ecosystem
(a) CO2 (d) First upright then inverted
(b) SO2
47. CO2 absorbs some of the ............. that radiates from the
(c) Pb particles
surface of earth to space
(d) Radioactive disintegrations
(a) ozone (b) heat
38. Which of the following does not affect ozone layer? (c) ultraviolet light (d) smog
(a) Cl2 (b) CH3Cl 48. Human-caused changes to the nitrogen cycle are expected
(c) NO (d) CFCl3 to result in
39. Which one is present in maximum number in an (a) an increase in acid rain.
ecosystem? (b) an increase in the loss of species from ecosystems.
(a) Herbivores (b) Carnivores (c) higher concentrations of a greenhouse gas.
(c) Producers (d) Omnivores. (d) all of the above
40. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the 49. The biological process by which carbon is returned to its
green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about reservoir is
(a) 1% (b) 5% (a) photosynthesis (b) denitrification
(c) 8% (d) 10% (c) carbon fixation (d) cellular respiration
41. Decrease in number of trees may cause 50. Which of the following constitute a food-chain?
(a) increase in rainfall (a) grass, wheat and mango
(b) decrease in rainfall (b) grass, goat and human
(c) increase in temperature (c) goat, cow and elephant
(d) conservation of nutrients in soil (d) grass, fish and goat
S-140 Science
51. As a black widow spider consumes her mate, what is the 59. Which two of the following statements regarding food
lowest trophic level she could be occupying chains are correct?
(a) third (b) first (i) Removal of 80% tigers resulted in increased growth
of vegetation.
(c) second (d) fourth
(ii) Removal of most carnivores resulted in increased
52. Among the most dangerous non-biodegradable waste is population of deer.
(a) cow-dung (b) plastic articles (iii) Length of food chain is limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels
(c) garbage (d) radioactive waste due to energy loss.
(iv) Length of food chain may vary from 2 – 3 trophic
53. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy is transferred from
levels.
one trophic level to the next in the form of
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(a) heat energy (b) light energy
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(c) chemical energy (d) mechanical energy
60. Match the terms given in column-I with their definition
54. Organisation involved in formulating programmes for given in column-II and choose the correct option.
protecting environment is:
Column - I Column - II
(a) WHO (b) UNDP A. Food chain I. An organism that eats meat.
(c) UNEP (d) UNICEF B. Food web II. An organism that eats plants.
55. In every food chain green plants are C. Heterotrophs III. An organism that makes its
food from light or chemical
(a) decomposers (b) producers
energy.
(c) consumers (d) None of the above.
D. Autotrophs IV. An organism that gets its energy
56. The decomposers in an ecosystem by eating other organisms.
E. Carnivore V. The sequence of organisms
(a) convert inorganic material, to simpler forms.
of who eats whom in a
(b) convert organic material to inorganic forms. biological community.
(c) convert inorganic materials into organic compounds. F. Herbivore VI. The network of all the
interrelated food chains in a
(d) do not break-down organic compounds.
biological community.
57. If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer (a) A – V; B – VI; C – IV; D – III; E – I; F – II
will be from (b) A – VI; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II; F – V
(c) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – VI; F – IV
(a) producer to decomposer
(d) A – II, B – V; C – VI; D – IV; E – III; F – I
(b) producer to primary consumer
61. Assertion: Pond ecosystem is upright in the pyramid of
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer number.
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer
Reason: Phytoplanktons are maximum and secondary
58. The diagram below shows a food pyramid. consumers are lesser in number.
(a) Statement (A) and (B) both are correct.
(b) Statement (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect.
(c) Statement (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(d) Statement (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
62. Which of the following ecological pyramid is never
inverted?
Which level of the food pyramid contains consumers (a) Pyramid of number in forest ecosystem
with the least biomass? (b) Pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem
(a) snakes (b) frogs (c) Pyramid of energy in parasitic food chain
(c) crickets (d) green plants (d) Pyramid of biomass in parasitic food chain
Our Environment S-141
63. Match column - I with column - II and select the correct 69. What is the main reason for increase in temperature in a
answer using the codes given below. glass house?
Column - I Column - II (a) Sunlight is completely absorbed by plants in the
A. Phosphorus I. Atmosphere glass house
B. Carbon II. Producers (b) Radiation fails to escape from the glass house completely
C. Goat III. Rock (c) Plant do not utilize sunlight in a glass house
D. Grasses IV. T2 (d) Plants produce heat inside the glass house
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I 70. Read the following statements carefully.
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II (I) Energy transfer in the biotic world always proceeds
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV from the autotrophs.
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(II) Energy flow is unidirectional.
64. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched ? (III) Energy availability is maximum at the tertiary level.
(a) Autotrophs – Fungi (IV) There is loss of energy from one trophic level to the
(b) Primary consumers – Zooplankton other.
(c) Secondary consumers – Fishes Select the relevant statements for the forest ecosystem
(d) Decomposers – Fungi (a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III
65. Abundance of coliform bacteria in a water body is (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
indicative of pollution from
71. In a highly pesticide polluted pond. Which of the
(a) petroleum refinery (b) metal smelter following aquatic organisms will have the maximum
(c) fertilizer factory (d) domestic sewage amount of pesticide per gram of body mass?
66. Prolonged exposure to the fumes released by incomplete (a) Lotus (b) Fishes
combustion of coal may cause death of a human because Spirogyra
(c) (d) Zooplanktons
of
72. DDT is non-biodegradable chemical when it enters food
(a) inhalation of unburnt carbon particles. chain it gets accumulated in each trophic level. This
(b) continuous exposure to high temperature. phenomenon is called as -
(c) increased level of carbon monoxide. (a) Eutrophication
(d) increased level of carbon dioxide. (b) Chemical amplification
67. Which among grass, goat, tiger and vulture in a food chain, (c) Biomagnification
will have the maximum concentration of harmful chemicals (d) Chemical magnification
in its body due to contamination of pesticides in the soil?
73. The following diagram shows a simple version of energy
(a) Grass since it grows in the contaminated soil flow through food web.
(b) Goat since it eats the grass Sunlight
(c) Tiger since it feeds on the goat which feeds on the Plants
grass
(d) Vulture since it eats the tiger, which in turn eats the Animals
Herbivores
Our Environment S-143
82. If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a 87. The mussel can be described as
terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar energy (a) Producer (b) Primary consumer
will be converted into food energy? (c) Secondary consumer (d) decomposer
(a) 10,000 J 88. Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?
(b) 100 J (a) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers
(c) 1000 J (b) Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs
(c) Herbivores – primary consumers
(d) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.
(d) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms
83. If Ravi is consuming curd/yogurt for lunch, which 89. The given figure best represents:
trophic level in a food chain he should be considered as
occupying ?
(a) First trophic level (b) Second trophic level
(c) Third trophic level (d) Fourth trophic level
84. The decomposers are not included in the food chain.The
correct reason for the same is because decomposers:
(a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
(b) Do not breakdown organic compounds
(c) Convert organic material to inorganic forms (a) Grassland food chain (b) Parasitic food chain
(d) Release enzymes outside their body to convert
(c) Forest food chain (d) Aquatic food chain
organic material to inorganic forms
85. Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an 90. Why do all food chains start with plants?
ecosystem. Movement of (a) Because plants are easily grown
(a) Energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly (b) Because plants are nutritious
circulating.
(c) Because plants can produce its own energy
(b) Energy is repeatedly circulation and matter is
unidirectional. (d) Because plants do not require energy
(c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly 91. In the food web, what two organisms are competing for
circulating. food?
(d) Energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional. G E
86. Which of the following limits the number of trophic F D
levels in a food chain? C B
(a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
(b) Less availability of food A
(c) Polluted air (a) A and B (c) A and C
(d) Water (b) D and F (d) B and D
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your 139. Secondary consumers in a food chain are always carnivores.
answer as true or false. 140. Carbon dioxide causes depletion of ozone layer thereby
allowing more UV-radiations to reach the earth.
131. Non-biodegradable articles are the ones which cannot be
digested. 141. Organisms can make organic compounds from inorganic
substances by using the radiant energy of the sun in the
132. Ozone is formed in stratosphere by action of ultraviolet presence of chlorophyll.
radiations on oxygen.
142. Ecology is the scientific study of the interaction of
133. Earth is kept warm due to green house flux. organisms with each other and the environment.
134. Biodegradable wastes should be separated and kept in 143. The abiotic components of the environment are the living
blue colour bins for garbage collectors. factors.
135. Blue green algae are producers. 144. The amount of usable energy remains constant as it is
passed from one trophic level to another.
136. The reproduction and other activities of living organisms
are affected by the abiotic components of ecosystem. 145. The energy within an ecosystem is fixed and never changes.
137. Specific enzymes are needed for the break-down of a 146. Human population and technology are having a
particular substance. destructive impact on the biosphere.
Our Environment S-147
77. (b) Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (d)
inorganic compounds using radiant energy are called 103. (c) In the food web, different food chains are
producers e.g., all green plants. The producers make
interconnected. Each chain consists of different
the energy from sunlight available to the rest of the
trophic levels i.e., producers, consumers and
ecosystem.
detrivores. So, kite can also be a part of food web.
Organisms which consume the food produced, either
directly from producers or indirectly by feeding on 104. (a)
other consumers are the consumers. 105. (c) Tropical rain forests have disappeared mainly
Microorganisms which break-down the complex due to man’s activities. Due to over population in
organic substances into simple inorganic substances countries like India, rain forests are cut to make
used by plants are called decomposers. place available for man to live and build houses. To
Carnivores and herbivores are types of consumers. build buildings and factories man has incessantly
cut down trees. This has caused the depletion of rain
78. (b) Producers capture the solar energy and convert it
forests.
into chemical energy. All green plants and certain
blue-green algae which can produce food by 106. (A) → r (B) → s (C) → p (D) → q
photosynthesis come under this category and are
called the producer. 107. (A) → (w), (B) → (s), (C) → (u), (D) → (v), (E) → (p),
(F) → (q), (G) → (r), (H) → (t)
79. (a) There is a loss of energy as we go from one trophic
108. weather 109. organic material
level to the next, this limits the number of trophic
levels in a food-chain. 110. trophic 111. decomposers
80. (c) 81. (d) 112. Chorofluorocarbons 113. producers
82. (b) 100 J 114. ozone
84. (a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain 116. ecosystem 117. artificial
85. (c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly 118. bacteria, fungi 119. autotrophs
circulating 120. unidirectional 121. food web
86. (a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic level 122. environmental 123. biotic
87. (c) Secondary consumer 124. biome 125. biosphere
88. (d) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms 126. light, chemical 127. 10%
90. (c) Because plants can produce its own energy 130. algae
91. (d) B and D 131. True 132. True 133. True 134. False
92. (c) (ii), (iii) 135. True 136. True 137. True 138. False
93. (b) Saprophytes 139. True 140. False 141. True 142. True
143. False 144. False 145. False 146. True
94. (d) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms
29. For some integer m, every even integer is of the form 37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
(a) m (b) m+1 (a) There are infinitely many even primes.
(c) 2m (d) 2m + 1 (b) Let ‘a’ be a positive integer and p be a prime number
such that a2 is divisible by p, then a is divisible by p.
30. For some integer q, every odd integer is of the form (c) Every positive integer different from 1 can be
(a) q (b) q+1 expressed as a product of non-negative power of 2
(c) 2q (d) 2q + 1 and an odd number.
33 p is an irrational number.
31. The decimal expansion of the rational number 2 will (d) If ‘p’ is a positive prime, then
terminate after 2 .5
(a) one decimal place
(b) two decimal places
(c) three decimal places DIRECTIONS : Study the given Case/Passage and answer the
(d) more than 3 decimal places following questions.
59. Assertion : n2 + n is divisible by 2 for every positive 65. The exponent of 2 in the prime factorisation of 144,
integer n. is ...............
Reason : If x and y are odd positive integers, from 66. 7 5 is a/ an ............... number.
x2 + y2 is divisible by 4.
67. 6 + 2 is a/ an ............... number.
Match the Following 68. An .............. is a series of well defined steps which gives
a procedure for solving a type of problem.
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in 69. An........... is a proven statement used for proving another
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) statement.
in column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column-II.
70. L.C.M. of 96 and 404 is ..................
60. Column-I Column-II 71. H.C.F. of 6, 72 and 120 is ..............
(A) Irrational number is (p) rational number
72. 156 as a product of its prime factors .............
always
(B) Rational number is (q) irrational number 35
73. is a ..................... decimal expansion.
always 50
(C) 3 6 is not a (r) non-terminating,
non-repeating True / False
(D) 2 2 is an (s) terminating decimal
61. Column-I Column-II DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
answer as true or false.
(A) H.C.F of the smallest (p) 6
composite number and 74. Given positive integers a and b, there exist whole numbers
the smallest prime q and r satisfying a = bq + r, 0 ≤ r < b.
number 75. Every composite number can be expressed (factorised) as
(B) H.C.F of 336 and 54 (q) 5 a product of primes and this factorisation is unique, apart
(C) H.C.F of 475 and 495 (r) 2 from the order in which the prime factors occur.
62. Column-I Column-II 76. 2 and 3 are irrational numbers.
551
(A) (p) a prime number 77. If x = p/q be a rational number, such that the prime factorisation
2 × 56 × 79
3
of q is of the form 2n5m, where n, m are non-negative integers.
(B) Product of ( )
5 – 3 (q) is an irrational number Then x has a decimal expansion which is terminating.
78. Any positive odd integer is of the form 6q + 1 or 6q + 3 or
and ( 5 + 3 is ) 6q + 5, where q is some integer.
(C) 5 – 4 (r) is a terminating decimal 79. The quotient of two integers is always a rational number.
representation 80. 1/0 is not rational.
422 81. The number of irrational numbers between 15 and 18 is
(D) 3 4 (s) is a non-terminating but
2
× 5 repeating decimal infinite.
representation 82. Every fraction is a rational number.
M-6 Mathematics
2. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 8. The zeroes of the polynomial are
14. If a3 – 3a2b + 3ab2 – b3 is divided by (a – b), then the (c) 10 (d) 2.5
remainder is 22. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 3x + k is 2,
a2 – ab
(a) + b2 then the value of k is
(b) a2 + ab + b2 (a) 10 (b) –10
(c) 1 (c) 5 (d) –5
(d) 0 23. If one of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial
(k –1) x2 + kx + 1 is –3, then the value of k is
15. A quadratic polynomial when divided by x + 2 leaves
a remainder of 1 and when divided by x – 1, leaves a 4 −4
(a) (b)
remainder of 4. What will be the remainder if it is divided 3 3
by (x + 2) (x – 1) ? 2 −2
(c) (d)
(a) 1 (b) 4 3 3
(c) x + 3 (d) x – 3 24. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 99x + 127
are
16. If the polynomials ax3 + 4x2 + 3x – 4 and x3 – 4x + a leave (a) both positive
the same remainder when divided by x – 3, then the value
(b) both negative
of a is
(c) one positive and one negative
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 19/14 (d) –5/14 (d) both equal
25. Which of the following given options is/are correct?
17. If the value of a quadratic polynomial p(x) is 0 only at
x = –1 and p(–2) = 2, then the value of p(2) is 2
(a) + 3 is a polynomial
(a) 18 (b) 9 x
x x
Case/Passage-I k px 2 – –1
k – px 2 + + 1 (b)
(a)
p p
The below picture are few natural examples of parabolic shape
which is represented by a quadratic polynomial. A parabolic arch
1 1
is an arch in the shape of a parabola. In structures, their curve k x 2 + px – (d)
(c) k x 2 – px +
p p
represents an efficient method of load, and so can be found in
bridges and in architecture in a variety of forms.
Case/Passage-II
An asana is a body posture, originally and still a general term
for a sitting meditation pose, and later extended in hatha yoga
and modern yoga as exercise, to any type of pose or position,
adding reclining, standing, inverted, twisting, and balancing
poses. In the figure, one can observe that poses can be related
to representation of quadratic polynomial.
TRIKONASANA
[From CBSE Question Bank-2021]
29. In the standard form of quadratic polynomial, ax2 + bx + c,
a, b and c are
ADHOMUKHA SAVASANA ADHO MUKHA SVANA
(a) All are real numbers.
(b) All are rational numbers. [From CBSE Question Bank-2021]
(c) ‘a’ is a non zero real number and b and c are any real
34. The shape of the poses shown is
numbers.
(a) Spiral (b) Ellipse
(d) All are integers.
(c) Linear (d) Parabola
30. If the roots of the quadratic polynomial are equal, where
the discriminant D = b2 – 4ac, then 35. The graph of parabola opens downwards, if__________.
(a) D > 0 (b) D < 0 (a) a ≥ 0 (b) a = 0
(c) D ≥ 0 (d) D = 0 (c) a < 0 (d) a > 0
M-12 Mathematics
36. In the graph, how many zeroes are there for the polynomial?
–2 4
3
1
2 4
–8
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 [From CBSE Question Bank-2021]
37. The two zeroes in the above shown graph are 39. The shape of the path traced shown is
(a) 2, 4 (b) –2, 4 (a) Spiral (b) Ellipse (c) Linear (d) Parabola
(c) –8, 4 (d) 2, –8 40. The graph of parabola opens upwards, if____________.
(a) a = 0 (b) a < 0 (c) a > 0 (d) a ≥ 0
38. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 4 3 x 2 + 5 x – 2 3
are 41. Observe the following graph and answer
2 3 2 3
(a) , –
(b) ,
3 4 3 4 6
2 3 2 3
(c) , – (d) – ,− 2
3 4 3 4 –4 –3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4
–2
Case/Passage-III
Basketball and soccer are played with a spherical ball. Even –6
though an athlete dribbles the ball in both sports, a basketball
player uses his hands and a soccer player uses his feet. Usually,
soccer is played outdoors on a large field and basketball is In the above graph, how many zeroes are there for the
played indoor on a court made out of wood. The projectile (path polynomial?
traced) of soccer ball and basketball are in the form of parabola
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
representing quadratic polynomial.
42. The three zeroes in the above shown graph are
(a) 2, 3, –1 (b) –2, 3, 1
(c) –3, –1, 2 (d) –2, –3, –1
v = 8.552 m/s 43. What will be the expression of the polynomial?
(a) x3 + 2x2 − 5x − 6 (b) x3 + 2x2 − 5x + 6
θ = 51.89°
R = 7.239 m x3 + 2x2 + 5x − 6
(c) (d) x3 + 2x2 + 5x + 6
47. Assertion : Zeroes of f(x) = x2 – 4x – 5 are 5, – 1. 56. A polynomial of degree n has at the most ........... zeroes.
8. (c) We have, p(x) = x2 –10x –75 = x2 – 15x + 5x – 75 So, quadratic polynomial p(x) = k(x + 1)2
p(–2) = k(–2 + 1)2 = 2 ⇒ k = 2 ∴ p(x) = 2(x + 1)2
= x (x – 15) + 5 (x –15) = (x – 15) (x + 5)
Also, p(2) = 2(2 + 1)2 = 2 × 3 × 3 = 18
∴ p(x) = (x –15) (x + 5)
Polynomials M-15
18. (c) x2 – 4 = (x – 2)(x + 2) are the factors 24. (b) Coefficient of all the terms are positive. So, both
roots will be negative.
∴ x = 2, –2 are roots of polynomial
25. (d) In (a) power of x is –1 i.e. negative
∴ at x = 2; P(2) = 2(2)3 + k1(2)2 + k2(2) + 12 = 0
\ (a) is not true.
⇒ 16 + 4k1 + 2k2 + 12 = 0 ⇒ 2k1 + k2 = –14...(i)
at x = 2; P(–2) = 2(–2)3 + k1(–2)2 + k2(–2) + 12 = 0 1
In (b) power of x = , not an integer. \ (b) is not
2
⇒ –16 + 4k1 – 2k2 + 12 = 0 true
2. For what values of k will the following pair of linear 8. The pair of linear equations x + 2y = 5 and 3x + 12y = 10 has
equations have infinitely many solutions? (a) unique solution
kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0 (b) no solution
12x + ky – k = 0 (c) more than two solutions
k = 4
(a) (b) k = 3 (d) infinitely many solutions
k = 6
(c) (d) k = 2 9. ` 49 was divided among 150 children. Each girl got 50 paise
3.
Which of the following is true if following pair of linear and each boy got 25 paise. How many boys were there?
equations has unique solution? (a) 100 (b) 102
3x – 2y = – 8 (c) 104 (d) 105
(2m – 5)x + 7y – 6 = 0 10. If the sum of the ages (in years) of a father and his son is
11 11 65 and twice the difference of their ages (in years) is 50,
m=
(a) (b) m = – what is the age of the father?
4 4
(a) 45 years (b) 40 years
11 11
m≠–
(c) (d) m≠ (c) 50 years (d) 55 years
4 4
4. The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cm. The ratio of its sides 11. The value of k for which the system of linear equations
is 2 : 3. Find its length and breadth. x + 2y = 3, 5x + ky + 7 = 0 is inconsistent is
(a) l = 10 cm, b = 8 cm (b) l = 12 cm, b = 8 cm 14 2
(a) − (b)
3 5
l = 12 m, b = 8 m
(c) (d) l = 40 m, b = 30 m
(c) 5 (d) 10
Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables M-19
12. A can do a piece of work in 24 days. If B is 60% more (a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
efficient than A, then the number of days required by B to (c) 7 : 1 (d) 1 : 7
do the twice as large as the earlier work is
21. In a number of two digits, unit’s digit is twice the tens digit.
(a) 24 (b) 36
If 36 be added to the number, the digits are reversed. The
(c) 15 (d) 30 number is
13. X’s salary is half that of Y’s. If X got a 50% rise in his (a) 36 (b) 63
salary and Y got 25% rise in his salary, then the percentage (c) 48 (d) 84
increase in combined salaries of both is
1 22. A man can row a boat in still water at the rate of 6 km per
(a) 30 (b) 33 hour. If the stream flows at the rate of 2 km/hr, he takes
3
1 half the time going downstream than going upstream the
(c) 37 (d) 75 same distance. His average speed for upstream and down
2
stream trip is
14. The points (7, 2) and (–1, 0) lie on a line
(a) 6 km/hr
(a) 7y = 3x – 7 (b) 4y = x + 1
(b) 16/3 km/hr
y = 7x + 7
(c) (d) x = 4y + 1
(c) Insufficient data to arrive at the answer
15. At present ages of a father and his son are in the ratio 7 : 3,
and they will be in the ratio 2 : 1 after 10 years. Then the (d) none of the above
present age of father (in years) is 23. A boat travels with a speed of 15 km/hr in still water. In
(a) 42 (b) 56 a river flowing at 5 km/hr, the boat travels some distance
(c) 70 (d) 77 downstream and then returns. The ratio of average speed
to the speed in still water is
16. A fraction becomes 4 when 1 is added to both the numerator
(a) 8 : 3 (b) 3 : 8
and denominator and it becomes 7 when 1 is subtracted
from both the numerator and denominator. The numerator (c) 8 : 9 (d) 9 : 8
of the given fraction is 24. x and y are two non-negative numbers such that 2x + y = 10.
(a) 2 (b) 3 The sum of the maximum and minimum values of (x + y)
is
(c) 5 (d) 15
(a) 6 (b) 9
17. A motor boat takes 2 hours to travel a distance 9 km
down the current and it takes 6 hours to travel the same (c) 10 (d) 15
distance against the current. The speed of the boat in still 25. The average incomes of the people in two villages are P
water and that of the current (in km/hour) respectively and Q respectively. Assume that P ≠ Q. A person moves
are from the first village to the second village. The new average
(a) 3, 1.5 (b) 3, 2 incomes are P’ and Q’ respectively. Which of the following
is not possible?
(c) 3.5, 2.5 (d) 3, 1
P’ > P and Q’ > Q (b)
(a) P’ > P and Q’ < Q
18. The 2 digit number which becomes (5/6)th of itself when
its digits are reversed. The difference in the digits of the P’ = P and Q’ = Q (d)
(c) P’< P and Q’ < Q
number being 1, then the two digits number is 26. The graphs of the equations x – y = 2 and kx + y = 3,
(a) 45 (b) 54 where k is a constant, intersect at the point (x, y) in the
(c) 36 (d) None of these first quadrant, if and only if k is
(a) equal to –1 (b) greater than –1
19. x and y are 2 different digits. If the sum of the two digit
numbers formed by using both the digits is a perfect square, (c) less than 3/2 (d) lying between –1 and 3/2
then value of x + y is 27. For what value of p, the following pair of linear equations
(a) 10 (b) 11 in two variables will have infinitely many solutions ?
(c) 12 (d) 13 px + 3y – (p – 3) = 0, 12x + py – p = 0
20. If 3x + 4y : x + 2y = 9 : 4, then 3x + 5y : 3x – y is equal (a) 6 (b) – 6
to (c) 0 (d) 2
M-20 Mathematics
28. In a classroom, one-fifth of the boys leave the class and 36. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equations x – y = 2 and
the ratio of the remaining boys to girls is 2 : 3. If further x + y = 4, then the values of a and b are, respectively.
44 girls leave the class, then the ratio of boys to girls is 5: (a) 3 and 5 (b) 5 and 3
2. How many more boys should leave the class so that the
(c) 3 and 1 (d) – 1 and – 3
number of boys equals that of girls?
5
(a) 16 (b) 24 37. I. If x – y = xy = 1 – x – y, then x + y is
3
(c) 30 (d) 36 II. The system of equations 3x + 2y = a and 5x + by
1 1 = 4 has infinitely many solutions for x and y, then
1 1
29. The equations + = 15 and − = 5 are such that a = 4, b = 3
x y x y
x y
ax = 1 and by = 1. The values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are III. If+ = 2 and ax – by = a2 – b2, then x = a, y = b
a b
(a) 10, 5 (b) 10, –5
Which is true?
(c) –5, 10 (d) 5, 10
(a) I only (b) II only
30. Consider the following two statements: (c) III only (d) None of these.
I. Any pair of consistent linear equations in two variables 38. I. If 3x – 5y = –1 and x – y = – 1, then x = –2, y = –1
must have a unique solution.
II. 2x + 3y = 9, 3x + 4y = 5 ⇒ x = –21, y = 17
II. There do not exist two consecutive integers, the sum
2x y x y
of whose squares is 365. III. + = 2, – = 4 ⇒ x = 2a, y = 2b
a b a b
Then,
Which is true?
(a) both I and II are true (b) both I and II are false
(a) I (b) II
(c) I is true and II is false (d) I is false and II is true
(c) III (d) None of these
31. In village Madhubani 8 women and 12 girls can paint a
39. If a pair of linear equations is inconsistent, then the lines
large mural in 10 hours. 6 women and 8 girls can paint it
will be
in 14 hours. The number of hours taken by 7 women and
14 girls to paint the mural is (a) parallel (b) always coincident
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) intersecting (d) coincident
(c) 20 (d) 35 40. For what values of k, do the equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and
32. A boat takes 3 hours to travel 30 km downstream and takes 6x – ky = –16 represent coincident lines?
5 hours to return to the same spot upstream. Find the speed (a) solution of 3k – 9 = 0 (b) solution of 2k – 8 = 0
of the boat in still water. (km/hr)
(c) 2 (d) 3
(a) 10 km/hr (b) 8 km/hr
(c) 6 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
24
33. The pair of equations 5x – 15y = 8 and 3 x – 9 y = has
5 DIRECTIONS : Study the given Case/Passage and answer the
(a) one solutio
following questions.
(b) two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions Case/Passage-I
A test consists of ‘True’ or ‘False’ questions. One mark is
(d) no solution
awarded for every correct answer while 1/4 mark is deducted
34. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 for every wrong answer. A student knew answers to some of the
is added to it, the digits of the number get reversed. The questions. Rest of the questions he attempted by guessing. He
number is answered 120 questions and got 90 marks.
(a) 25 (b) 72 Type of Question Marks given for Marks deducted for
(c) 63 (d) 36 correct answer wrong answer
True/False 1 0.25
35. The value of c for which the pair of equations cx – y = 2
[From CBSE Question Bank-2021]
and 6x + 2y = 3 will have infinitely many solutions is
41. If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were
(a) 3 (b) – 3 wrong, then how many questions did he answer correctly?
(c) – 12 (d) no value 42. How many questions did he guess?
Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables M-21
43. If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were Refer situation 1
wrong and answered 80 correctly, then how many marks 50. If the fixed charges of auto rickshaw be ` x and the
he got? running charges be ` y km/hr, the pair of linear equations
44. If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were representing the situation is
wrong, then how many questions answered correctly to (a) x + 10y = 110, x + 15y = 75
score 95 marks?
(b) x + 10y = 75, x + 15y = 110
Case/Passage-II
(c) 10x + y = 110, 15x + y = 75
Amit is planning to buy a house and the layout is given below.
The design and the measurement has been made such that areas (d) 10x + y = 75, 15x + y = 110
of two bedrooms and kitchen together is 95 sq.m. 51. A person travels a distance of 50km. The amount he has
x 2 y to pay is
(a) ` 155 (b) ` 255 (c) ` 355 (d) ` 455
5m Bath
Bedroom 1 room Kitchen Refer situation 2
52. What will a person have to pay for travelling a distance
2m of 30km?
Living Room (a) ` 185 (b) ` 289 (c) ` 275 (d) ` 305
5m Bedroom 2 53. The graph of lines representing the conditions are:
(situation 2)
Y
15 m 25 (20, 25)
[From CBSE Question Bank-2021] 20
Based on the above information, answer the following questions: 15
45. Form the pair of linear equations in two variables from (a) 10
this situation. 5 (0, 5) (30, 5)
46. Find the length of the outer boundary of the layout.
47. Find the area of each bedroom and kitchen in the layout. X¢ –5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 X
–5
48. Find the area of living room in the layout.
–10
49. Find the cost of laying tiles in kitchen at the rate of ` 50 Y¢
per sq.m Y
25
Case/Passage-III
20
It is common that Governments revise travel fares from time to
15
time based on various factors such as inflation ( a general increase
in prices and fall in the purchasing value of money) on different (b) 10 (0, 10) (20, 10)
types of vehicles like auto, rickshaws, taxis, radio cab etc. The auto 5 (12.5, 0)
charges in a city comprise of a fixed charge together with the charge
X¢ –5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 X
for the distance covered. Study the following situations. –5
(5, –10) (25, –10)
–10
Y¢
50
45
40
35
Name of the city Distance travelled (km) Amount paid (`)
30
City A 10 75
25
15 110
20
City B 8 91 15 (11, 10) (19, 9)
14 145 (47, 7)
(c) 10 (5, 10)
Situation 1: In city A, for a journey of 10 km, the charge paid 5 (27, 8)
is ` 75 and for a journey of 15 km, the charge paid is ` 110. 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55
Situation 2: In a city B, for a journey of 8 km, the charge paid
is ` 91 and for a journey of 14km, the charge paid is ` 145.
[From CBSE Question Bank-2021]
M-22 Mathematics
Y 58. Assertion : If kx – y – 2 = 0 and 6x – 2y – 3 = 0 are
25 inconsistent, then k = 3
20
Reason : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 are
15 (15, 15)
(35, 10) a1 b1 c1
(d)
10 inconsistent if = ≠
5 (0, 10) a2 b2 c2
59. Assertion : 3x – 4y = 7 and 6x – 8y = k have infinite
X¢ –5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 X number of solution if k = 14
–5 (15, –5)
–10
Y¢ Reason : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 have
a1 b1
a unique solution if ≠
Assertion & Reason a2 b2
60. Assertion : The linear equations x – 2y – 3 = 0 and
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion 3x + 4y – 20 = 0 have exactly one solution
followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the Reason : The linear equations 2x + 3y – 9 = 0 and
question on the basis of following options. You have to select 4x + 6y – 18 = 0 have a unique solution
the one that best describes the two statements.
Match the Following
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion.
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D)
not the correct explanation of Assertion. in column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. column-II.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
61. Column-II give value of x and y for pair of equation given
54. Assertion : 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 and 6x + ky + 9 = 0 in Column-I.
represent parallel lines if k = 8 Column-I Column-II
Reason : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 (A) 2x + y = 8, x + 6y = 15 (p) (3, 4)
(B) 5x + 3y = 35, 2x + 4y = 28 (q) (1/14, 1/6)
a1 b1 c1
represent parallel lines if = ≠ 1 1 1 1
a2 b2 c2 (C) + = 3, − = 5 (r) (4, 5)
7x 6 y 2x 3y
55. Assertion : x + y – 4 = 0 and 2x + ky – 3 = 0 has no solution (D) 15x + 4y = 61 (s) (3, 2)
if k = 2
4x + 15y = 72
Reason : a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 are 62. Column-I Column-II
a1 b1 (A) 5y – 4x = 14, y – 2x = 1 (p) Infinite solutions
consistent if ≠
a2 b2 (B) 6x – 3y + 10 = 0, (q) Consistent
56. Assertion : If the system of equations 2x + 3y = 7 and 2x – y + 9 = 0
2ax + (a + b) y = 28 has infinitely many solutions, then (C) 3x – 2y = 4, 9x – 6y = 12 (r) No solution
2a – b = 0
(D) 2x – 3y = 8, 4x – 6y = 9 (s) Inconsistent
Reason : The system of equations 3x – 5y = 9 and
63. Column-I Column-II
6x – 10y = 8 has a unique solution.
24
(A) No solution (p) 5x – 15y = 8, 3x – 9y =
57. Assertion : If the pair of lines are coincident, then we 5
say that pair of lines is consistent and it has a unique
solution. (B) Infinitely many solutions (q) 2x + 4y = 10, 3x + 6y = 12
Reason : If the pair of lines are parallel, then the (C) Unique solution (r) x + y = 6, x – y = 2
pair has no solution and is called inconsistent pair of (D) Integral solution (s) 2x + y = 6, 4x – 2y – 2 = 0
equations.
Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables M-23
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). answer as true or false.
64. If the lines intersect at a point, then that point gives the 72. If a pair of linear equations is given by a1x + b1y + c1 = 0
unique solution of the two equations. In this case, the pair
a1 b1
of equations is ................. and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 and ≠ . In this case, the pair
a2 b2
65. If the lines are parallel, then the pair of equations
has no solution. In this case, the pair of equations of linear equations is consistent.
is .............. 73. If a pair of linear equations is given by a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and
66. Two distinct natural numbers are such that the sum of one a1 b1 c1
a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 and = ≠ . In this case, the pair
number and twice the other number is 6. The two numbers a2 b2 c2
are .............. of linear equations is consistent.
67. If p + q = k, p – q = n and k > n, then q is ................... 74. If a pair of linear equations is given by a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and
(positive/negative).
a1 b1 c1
68. Sum of the ages of X and Y, 12 years, ago, was 48 years a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 and = = . In this case, the pair
a2 b2 c2
and sum of the ages of X and Y, 12 years hence will be
96 years. Present age of X is .............. of linear equations is consistent.
69. The number of common solutions for the system 75. 3x – y = 3, 9x – 3y = 9 has infinite solution.
of linear equations 5x + 4y + 6 = 0 and 10x + 8y = 12
76. 2x + 3y = 0 , 3 x − 8 y = 0 has no solution.
is .............
77. 3x + 2y = 5, 2x – 3y = 7 are consistent pair of equation.
70. If 2x + 3y = 5 and 3x + 2y = 10, then x – y = ............... .
1 1 1 1 78. In a ∆ ABC, ∠C = 3 ∠B = 2 (∠ A + ∠ B), then angles are
71. If + = k and – = k , then the value of y is ........... 20°, 40°, 100°.
x y x y
M-24 Mathematics
x +1 ∴ 9x – 9y = 36 or x – y = 4
= 4 ... (i)
y +1 Solve, x = 2y, x–y=4
x −1 Substitute x = 2y in x – y = 4
and = 7 ... (ii)
y −1 we get, 2y – y = 4 ⇒ y = 4
Solving (i) and (ii), we have x = 15, y = 3 and x = 8
i.e. numbers = 15 So, the number = 10y + x = 48
17. (a) Let speed of boat in still water = x km/hr 22. (b)
Upstream speed = 4 km/hr and time = x hrs.
and speed of stream = y km/hr Downstream speed = 8 km/hr and
According to question,
time taken = x/2 hrs.
9 4 x + 8 × x / 2 16
time (t1) = = 2 (for down = rate) ... (i) Hence average speed = = km/hr.
x+ y x+ x/2 3
M-26 Mathematics
23. (c) Let distance = d, Adding (i) and (ii), we have
d d 5
Time taken upstream = = kx + x = 5 ⇒ x (k + 1) = 5 ⇒ x =
15 − 5 10 k +1
d d Putting the value of x in equation (i), we have
Time taken downstream = = 5
15 + 5 20 −y=2
Hence, average speed k + 1
2d 2d × 20 40 5 5 − 2k − 2 3 − 2k
= = = km/hr ⇒ −2= y⇒ = y⇒ y=
d d 3d 3 k + 1 k +1 k +1
+
10 20 y should be positive as they intersect in 1st quadrant
40 Therefore, y > 0
Ratio = :15 = 40 : 45 = 8 : 9
3 3 − 2k 2k − 3
>0⇒ <0
24. (d) Given 2x + y = 10 k + 1 k +1
on adding y both sides, we get, 2x + y + y = 10 + y + – +
y –∞ –1 3 +∞
⇒ 2(x + y) = 10 + y ⇒ x + y = 5 + 2
2
Now, (x + y)max when y is maximum & maximum \ k should lie between – 1 and 3/2
value of y will be 10. (Q y = 10 – 2x) 27. (a) Condition for infinite many solutions.
So (x + y)max = 5 + 5 = 10 & (x + y)min when y = 0 p 3 p – 3 a1 b1 c1
= = = =
\ minimum value of x + y = 5 12 p p a2 b2 c2
So, sum of (x + y)max & (x + y)min = 15 p2 = 36 ; p = {From I and II}
25. (c) Let the number of people in first and second village p2 – 3p = 3p {From II and III}
be x and y respectively. p=6
According to given condition, \ p = 6
average income of x people = P and 28. (b) Let the number of boys and girls in classroom is x
and y.
average income of y people = Q, where P ≠ Q
According to question
\ Total income of people in two villages are Px
x −x/5 2 4x 2 x 5
and Qy respectively. = ⇒ = ⇒ = ...(i)
y 3 5y 3 y 6
When, one person moves from first village to second
village. x − x/5 5 4x 5
Also, = ⇒ =
Then, number of people in first village = x – 1 and in y − 44 2 5 (y − 44) 2
second village = y + 1. ⇒ 8x = 25y – 1100 ...(ii)
New average income = P′ and Q′ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get, x = 50, y = 60
(Total income = no. of persons × average income) Let n number of boy leaves the class so number of
boys and number of girls become equal.
\ Total income = P′(x – 1) and Q′(y + 1)
\ 50 – 10 – n = 60 – 44
Total income in both cases are same n = 40 – 16 = 24
\ Px + Qy = P′(x – 1) + Q′(y + 1) 1 1
29. (a) x = ⇒ a = 10 and y = ⇒ b = 5
⇒ Px – P′(x – 1) = Q′(y + 1) – Qy 10 5
⇒ x(P – P′) + P′ = y(Q′ – Q) + Q′ 30. (b) (I) Statement I is false. Consistent Linear equations
\ P′ ≠ P and Q′ ≠ Q may have unique or infinite solutions.
(II) Statement or is also false
Hence, option (c) is not possible.
\ Q 132 + 142 = 365
26. (d)
x – y = 2 .... (i)
31. (a) Let one woman can paint a large mural in W hours
kx + y = 3 .... (ii) and one girl can paint it in G hours
Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables M-27
According to question, 3 –1 8
40. (c) For coincident lines, = =
8 12 1 2 3 1 6 – k 16
+ = fi + = ...(i)
W G 10 W G 40 1 1
= ⇒ k = 2
6 8 1 3 4 1 2 k
Also, + = fi + = ...(ii)
W G 14 W G 28 Sol. (41-44):
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get Let x be number of known questions and y be number of
W = 140 and G = 280 questions cheating by the student.
7 14 1 1 Here, x + y = 120
Now, + = = (say)
140 280 Time taken t 1
x − y = 90
4
1 1 1
⇒ = + ⇒ t = 10 hours On solving these two equations
t 20 20
32. (b) Let speed of boat in still water be x km/hr We have, x = 96 and y = 24
and speed of stream be y km/hr 41. No. of correct questions are 96
30 42. He guessed 24 questions.
= 3 ⇒ x + y = 10 …(i)
x+y 1
43. Marks = 80 – of 40 = 70
4
30
= 5 ⇒ x – y = 6 …(ii) 44. Here, x + y = 120 ...(i)
x−y
1
From solving equations (i) and (ii) x − y = 95
4 ...(ii)
–x + y = 10 On solving (i) & (ii) x = 100
–x – y = 6
45. Given area of two bedrooms and a kitchen is 95 sq m.
+ –
2 × Area of bedroom + Area of kitchen = 95
2y = 4 y = 2 km/hr. and
2 × 5 x + 5y = 95
x = 8 km/hr or 2x + y = 19 ...(i)
a1 b1 c1 5 and x + 2 + y = 15
33. (c) a = b = c = 3
2 2 2 or x + y = 13 ...(ii)
34. (d)
Let x & y be the unit and tenth digits respectively of 46. Length of outer boundary = 12 + 15 + 12 +15 = 54 m
a two digit number. Then,
47. On solving x + y = 13
x + y = 9 (∵ Given) ... (i)
2x + y = 19
and according to given condition,
10x + y = 10 y + x + 27 x = 6m, y = 7m
⇒ 9x – 9y = 27 Area of a bedroom = 5x = 5 × 6 = 30 sq m
⇒ x – y = 3 ... (ii) Area of kitchen = 5y = 5 × 7 = 35 sq m
On adding (i) & (ii) 48. Area of living room = 9 × 5 + 2 × 15 = 75 sq m
2x = 12 ⇒ x = 6 49. Total cost of laying tiles in the kitchen = ` 50 × 35 = ` 1750
Hence, from equation (i), 50. (b) Given, fixed charges of auto rickshaw be ` x and
6 + y = 9 ⇒ y = 3 running charges be ` y km/hr, so representing situation 1
So number will be 10 × 3 + 6 = 36 x + 10y = 75
−c −1 −2 x + 15y = 110
35. (d) For solution to be infinite, = = must satisfy. 51. (c) On solving x + 10y = 75
6 2 −3
−1 2 x + 15y = 110
but ≠ , so, infinite solution don’t exist, for given
2 3 we get x = 5 km,
equations.
y = ` 7/km
36. (c) On adding both the equations, we get x = 3, y = 1 Charges to go 50 km.
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) x + 50y = 5 + 50 × 7 = ` 355
M-28 Mathematics
52. (b) To cover 30 km distance, 57. (d) Assertion is clearly false.
x + 30y = 19 + 30 × 9 = 289 [Q If the lines are coincident, then it has infinite
53. (c) number of solutions]
DIRECTIONS : Study the given Case/Passage and answer the DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion
following questions. followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the
question on the basis of following options. You have to select
Case/Passage-I the one that best describes the two statements.
In order to conduct Sports Day activities in your School, (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
lines have been drawn with chalk powder at a distance the correct explanation of Assertion.
of 1 m each, in a rectangular shaped ground ABCD, 100
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
flowerpots have been placed at a distance of 1 m from
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
each other along AD, as shown in given figure below.
Niharika runs 1/4 th the distance AD on the 2nd line and (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
posts a green flag. Preet runs 1/5 th distance AD on the (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
eighth line and posts a red flag.
[From CBSE Question Bank 2021] 36. Assertion : If A(2a, 4a) and B(2a, 6a) are two vertices of
D C an equilateral triangle ABC then, the vertex C is given by
(2a + a 3,5a) .
1
2
(– 4 – k, 6 – 2k) are collinear if k = .
1 2
A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Reason : Three points A, B and C are collinear in same
straight line, if AB + BC = AC.
31. Find the position of green flag
38. Assertion : Mid-point of a line segment divides line in the
(a) (2, 25) (b) (2, 0.25)
ratio 1 : 1.
(c) (25, 2) (d) (0, –25)
Reason : If area of triangle is zero that means points are
32. Find the position of red flag
collinear.
(a) (8, 0) (b) (20, 8)
(c) (8, 20) (d) (8, 0.2) Match the Following
33. What is the distance between both the flags?
(a) √41 (b) √11 DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
(c) √61 (d) √51 two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D)
in column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column-II.
34. If Rashmi has to post a blue flag exactly halfway between
the line segment joining the two flags, where should she
39. Column-II gives distance between pair of points given in
post her flag?
Column-I
(a) (5, 22.5) (b) (10, 22)
Column-I Column-II
(c) (2, 8.5) (d) (2.5, 20)
(A) (–5, 7), (–1, 3) (p) 17
35. If Joy has to post a flag at one-fourth distance from green
flag ,in the line segment joining the green and red flags, (B) (5, 6), (1, 3) (q) 8
then where should he post his flag?
( 3 + 1,1), (0, 3) (r) 6
(C)
(a) (3.5, 24) (b) (0.5, 12.5)
(c) (2.25, 8.5) (d) (25, 20) (0,0) (− 3, 3) (s)
(D) 4 2
M-32 Mathematics
40. Column-II gives the coordinates of the point P that divides 48. (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a
the line segment joining the points given in Column-I. parallelogram taken in order, then the value of x and y are
Column-I Column-II ...........
A (–1, 3) and
(A) (p) (7, 3) 49. Relation between x and y if the points (x, y), (1, 2) and
(7, 0) are collinear is ...........
B (5, –6) internally
in the ratio 1 : 2 50. The distance of the point (x1, y1) from the origin is ............
A (–2, 1) and
(B) (q) (0, 3)
True / False
B (1, 4) internally
in the ratio 2 : 1 DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
A (–1, 7) and
(C) (r) (1, 3) answer as true or false.
B (4, –3) internally
51. The distance between P (x1, y1) and Q (x2, y2) is
in the ratio 2 : 3
A (4, –3) and
(D) (s) (1, 0) ( x2 + x1 )2 + ( y2 + y1 )2
B (8, 5) internally 52. The coordinates of the point P(x, y) which divides the
in the ratio 3 : 1 line segment joining the points A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2)
internally in the ratio m1 : m2 are
Fill in the Blanks m1 x2 − m2 x1 m1 y2 − m2 y1
m + m , m + m
1 2 1 2
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). 53. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points
41. Points (3, 2), (–2, –3) and (2, 3) form a ............. triangle. x +x y + y
P (x1, y1) and Q (x2, y2) is 1 2 , 1 2 .
2 2
42. If x – y = 2, then point (x, y) is equidistant from (7, 1) and 54. Points (1, 7), (4, 2), (–1, –1) and (– 4, 4) are the vertices
(.........) of a square.
43. Distance between (2, 3) and (4, 1) is .............. 55. Coordinates of the point which divides the join of (–1, 7)
and (4, –3) in the ratio 2 : 3 is (1, 3).
44. Points (1, 5), (2, 3) and (– 2, – 11) are ...........
56. Ratio in which the line segment joining the points (– 3, 10)
45. (5, – 2) (6, 4) and (7, – 2) are the vertices of an ..............
and (6, – 8) is divided by (– 1, 6) is 3 : 7.
triangle.
57. The ratio in which the point (3, 5) divides the join of
46. Point on the X-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (1, 3) and (4, 6) is 2 : 1.
(–2, 9) is .............
58. The distance of the point (5, 3) from the X-axis is 5 units
47. Point (– 4, 6) divide the line segment joining the points
A(– 6, 10) and B(3, – 8) in the ratio .............. 59. The distance of a point (2, 3) from Y-axis is y-units.
Coordinate Geometry M-33
⇒ x = 7, –3 ∴ ratio = 3 : 4
3+ k 4+7
∴ x= and y = AB = (0 − 0)2 + (0 − 4)2 = 4
2 2
Also 2x + 2y + 1 = 0 putting values we get BC = (3 − 0)2 + (0 − 0)2 = 3
3+k+4+7+1=0
CA = (0 − 3)2 + (4 − 0)2 = 5
⇒ k + 15 = 0 ⇒ k = – 15
AB + BC + CA = 12
5. (b) Let the required ratio be K : 1
5 −1
∴ The coordinates of the required point on the y-axis is 9. (a) P(x, 0) = , 0 = (2, 0)
2
K(−4) + 3(1) K(2) + 5(1) [Q A and B both lies on x-axis]
x= ; y=
K +1 K +1
Three or more points lies in same line are called collinear.
Since, it lies on y-axis
M-34 Mathematics
10. (c) For reflection of a point with respect to x-axis change 19. (b)
sign of y-coordinate and with respect to y-axis change sign
20. (b)
of x-coordinate.
21. (d) 4
P (4, 5)
4 × 3 + 1× 6 3 × y + 1× 5
11. (d) P(6, 2) = ,
3 +1 3 +1 5
18
Q 6 ≠ (Question is wrong)
4
22. (d) As (a, 0), (0, b) and (1, 1) are collinear
3y + 5
2= ⇒ 3y + 5 = 8 \ a(b – 1) + 0(1 – 0) + 1(0 – b) = 0
4
3y = 3 ⇒ y = 1 ab – a – b = 0
12. (a) ab = a + b
13. (a) Since, C (y, – 1) is the mid-point of P (4, x) and Q (–2, 4). 1 1
1= +
a b
23. (b) Let coordinate of point p be (h, 5h + 3)
P(h, 5h + 3)
y = 5x + 3
4−2 4+ x
We have, = y and = −1
2 2
∴ y = 1 and x = – 6 M
17. (b) x
C
x + x + x y + y + y3
18. (b) Centroid is 1 2 3 , 1 2
3 3 ∠AOB = q
3 + (–8) + 5 –7 + 6 + 10 0 9
i.e. , = 3 , 3 = (0, 3) Q CO ^ OA
3 3
Coordinate Geometry M-35
\ ∠BOC = (90° – q)
⇒ ( x + 2) 2 + ( y + 3) 2 = ( x - 2) 2 + ( y + 3) 2
3 4
sin θ = cos θ = Q cos θ = 1 −sin 2 θ ⇒ x2 + 4 + 4x + (y + 3)2 = x2 + 4 – 4x + (y + 3)2
5; 5
⇒ 8x = 0 ⇒ x = 0
−y
Now, sin(90° − θ) =
1 \ centre of the circle is (0, 1).
−4 27. (a)
⇒ y = – cos q ⇒ y =
5
28. (b)
x 3
cos(90° – q) = ⇒ x = sin q, x = 29. (d)
All the statements given in option ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are
1 5
correct.
25. (c) (x – 6)2 + (y + 6)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y + 7)2...(i) 30. (c)
2 + 5 25 + 22.5
–6x = – 18 ⇒ x = 3 35. (a) , = (3.5, 24)
2 2
26. (b) A (–2, 5)
36. (c) Let A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2) & C(x3, y3) are all rational
coordinates of a triangle ABC.
x1 y1 1
O 1
(x, y) ar (∆ ABC) = x2 y2 1
2
x3 y3 1
B C 3
(–2, 3) (2, –3) = [(x1 – x2)2 + (y1 – y2)2 ]
4
LHS = rational, RHS = irrational
Let O(x, y) is the centre of the given circle.
Hence, (x1, y1) (x2, y2) & (x3, y3) cannot be all rational.
Join OA, OB & OC.
37. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correct
Q OA = OB = OC
explanation of assertion.
\ OA2 = OB2
38. (b) Both statements are individually correct.
⇒ x2 + 4 + 4x + y2 + 25 – 10y = x2 + 4 + 4x + y2 + 9 + 6x 40. (A) → (s); (B) → (q); (C) → (r); (D) → (p)
41. right angle
⇒ 16y = 16 ⇒ y = 1
42. (3, 5)
Again: OB2 = OC2
M-36 Mathematics
51. False
43. 2 2
52. False
44. Non-collinear
53. True
45. isosceles
54. True
46. (–7, 0)
55. True
47. 2 : 7
56. False
48. (6, 3)
57. True
49. x + 3y = 7
58. False
50. x12 + y12
59. False
5 Acids, Bases and
Triangles
Salts
A
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Case/Passage-I
Vijay is trying to find the average height of a tower near his
30
m
m
40
house. He is using the properties of similar triangles.The height
of Vijay’s house if 20m when Vijay’s house casts a shadow 10m
long on the ground. At the same time, the tower casts a shadow D
50m long on the ground and the house of Ajay casts 20m shadow
on the ground. [From CBSE Question Bank-2021] 42. Which property of geometry will be used to find the
distance AC?
(a) Similarity of triangles (b) Thales Theorem
(c) Pythagoras Theorem (d) Area of similar triangles
43. What is the distance AC?
(a) 50m (b) 12m
(c) 100m (d) 70m
Vijay's House Tower 44. Which is the following does not form a Pythagoras triplet?
Ajay's House
(a) (7, 24, 25) (b) (15, 8, 17)
37. What is the height of the tower? (c) (5, 12, 13) (d) (21, 20, 28)
(a) 20m (b) 50m 45. Find the length AB?
(c) 100m (d) 200m (a) 12m (b) 38m
38. What will be the length of the shadow of the tower when (c) 50m (d) 100m
Vijay’s house casts a shadow of 12m? 46. Find the length of the rope used.
(a) 75m (b) 50m (a) 120m (b) 70m
(c) 45m (d) 60m (c) 82m (d) 22m
Triangles M-41
51. In figure, the line segment XY is parallel to the side AC of
Assertion & Reason ∆ABC and it divides the triangle into two parts of equal
areas, then,
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion A
followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the question
on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
X
best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
B Y C
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Column-I Column-II
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. (A) AB : XB (p) 2 :1
47. Assertion : If in a ∆ABC, a line DE || BC, intersects AB (B) ar (∆ ABC) : ar (∆ XBY) (q) 2 : 1
AB AC (C) AX : AB (r) ( 2 − 1) 2 : 2
in D and AC in E, then = .
AD AE (D) ∠ X : ∠ A (s) 1 : 1
Reason : If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle 52. Column-I Column-II
intersecting the other two sides, then the other two sides A
are divided in the same ratio.
(A) (p) 36 : 49
48. Assertion : ABC is an isosceles, right triangle, right angled
at C. Then AB2 = 3AC2.
C B
Reason : In an isosceles triangle ABC if AC = BC and ABC is an isosceles
AB2 = 2AC2, then ∠C = 90°. right angled triangle.
49. Assertion : ABC and DEF are two similar triangles such AB2 =?
that BC = 4 cm, EF = 5 cm and area of ∆ABC = 64 cm2, (B) ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF, (q) AB2 = 2AC2
then area of ∆DEF = 100 cm2.
such that
Reason : The areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio
AB = 1.2 cm and
of the squares of the corresponding altitudes.
DE = 1.4 cm
Match the Following area ( ∆ABC )
= ?
area ( ∆DEF )
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in (C) ∆ABC ~ ∆APQ and (r) 36 : 49
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) area ( ∆APQ ) 36
=
in column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in area ( ∆ABC ) 49
column-II.
BC
= ?
50. If in a ∆ ABC, DE || BC and intersects AB in D and AC in PQ
E, then. A
Column-I Column-II
AD AC (D) D E (s) 6 : 7
(A) (p)
DB AE A
AB
(B) (q) AE B C
AD EC If DE || BC and
AE AD 6
(C) DB
D E
(r) =
AB AC DB 7
AD EC B C AE 2
(D) (s) then, =?
AB AC EC 2
M-42 Mathematics
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). answer as true or false.
53. All circles are .................. 66. Two figures having the same shape but not necessarily the
54. All squares are .................. same size are called similar figures.
55. All ........... triangles are similar. 67. All the congruent figures are similar but the converse is
56. Two polygons of the same number of sides are similar, not true.
if their corresponding angles are ......... and their 68. If in two triangles, corresponding angles are equal, then
corresponding sides are in the same ........... their corresponding sides are in the same ratio and hence
57. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the two triangles are similar.
the other two sides in distinct points, then the other two
69. If in two triangles, two angles of one triangle are
sides are divided in the ............. ratio.
respectively equal to the two angles of the other triangle,
58. If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same then the two triangles are similar.
ratio, then the line is parallel to the .............. side.
70. If in two triangles, corresponding sides are in the same
59. All congruent figures are similar but the similar figures
ratio, then their corresponding angles are equal and hence
need ............. be congruent.
the triangles are similar.
60. Two polygons of the same number of sides are similar, if
71. If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of another
all the corresponding angles are .............
triangle and the sides including these angles are in the
61. The diagonals of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other same ratio (proportional), then the triangles are similar.
AO CO 72. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to
at the point O such that = . ABCD is a .............
BO DO the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides.
62. A line drawn through the mid-point of one side of a triangle
73. In a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to
parallel to another side bisects the ............. side.
the sum of the squares of the other two sides.
63. Line joining the mid-points of any two sides of a triangle
74. If, in a triangle, square of one side is equal to the sum of
is ............. to the third side.
the squares of the other two sides, then the angle opposite
64. In fig., MN || BC and AM : MB = 1 : 2, then A the first side is a right angle.
ar(∆AMN) 75. Diagonals AC and BD of a trapezium ABCD with
= ..................
ar(∆ABC) M N OA OB
AB || DC intersect each other at the point O, = .
OC OD
B C
65. In DABC, AB = 6 3 m, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm,
then ∠B = .................. .
OR
Two triangles are similar if their corresponding sides are
.................. .
Triangles M-43
6. (a)
From the right angled ∆ACB,
2. (c)
E A
AB2 = AC2 + CB2
= (20)2 + (15)2 = 400 + 225 = 625
x
∴ AB = 625 25cm
2x
Again, from right angled ∆ABD
x
AB2 = AD2 + BD2
B C
Let AB = BC = x. ⇒ 625 = (24)2 + (BD)2
Since, ∆ABC is right-angled with ∠B = 90°
⇒ (BD)2 = 625 – 576 = 49
∴ AC2 = AB2 + BC2 = x2 + x2 = 2x2
⇒ BD = 7 cm
⇒ AC = 2x
7. (a) In DAFD & DFEB,
Since, ∆ABE ~ ∆ACD ∠1 = ∠2 (V.O.A)
Area ( ∆ABE ) AB x 1 2 2
∠3 = ∠4 (Alternate angle)
∴ = = 2 = .
Area ( ∆ACD ) AC 2
2x 2
\ ∆ FBE ~ ∆ FDA
Area (∆ABE) 1 EF FB
Thus, = So,
Area (∆ACD) 2 FA DF
10
m
P
cm
16. (c) Since, DE || BC ∴ ∆ADE ~ ∆ABC
10
P 2x Q
AD AE 1.5 1
y ∴ = ⇒ = ⇒ EC = 2 cm
y
2x DB EC 3 EC
B S L R C
17. (b) In ∆KPN and ∆KLM, we have
9. (d) All equilateral triangles are similar ∠KNP = ∠KML = 46°
∴ ∆ ABC~ ∆EBD ∠K = ∠K (Common)
2 A ∴ ∆KNP ~ ∆KML (By A A criterion of similarity)
Area of ABC BC
⇒
Area of BDE BD 2 E ⇒ KN = NP ⇒ c = x
D is mid-point of BC KM ML b+c a
B C
2 D 18. (a) Statement given in option (a) is false.
( 2BD) 4
\ BC = 2BD = = 19. (b) Since, ∆ABC ~ ∆APQ
BD 2 1
⇒ Area (∆ABC) : Area (∆BDE) = 4 : 1 ar( ∆ABC ) BC 2
∴ =
ar( ∆APQ) PQ 2
10. (a) Given, AB = 2DE and ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF
2
ar( ∆ABC ) BC 2 BC 1
area(∆ABC ) AB 2 ⇒ = ⇒ =
Hence, = 4 ⋅ ar( ∆ABC ) PQ 2 PQ 4
area(∆DEF ) DE 2
BC 1
56 4 DE 2 ⇒ =
or = = 4 [∵ AB = 2DE] PQ 2
area(∆DEF ) DE 2
20. (d) Since, ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
56
area (∆DEF) = = 14sq.cm. ar(∆ABC ) BC 2 9 (4.5) 2
4 ∴ = ⇒ =
ar(∆PQR) QR 2 16 QR 2
11. (b)
12. (c) As PQ is parallel to BC ⇒ ∆ABC ~ ∆APQ 16 × (4.5) 2
⇒ QR 2 = ⇒ QR = 6 cm
9
Area of ∆ABC 2
⇒ = 21. (a) Let side of a square = x cm
Area of ∆APQ 1
∴ By Pythagoras theorem, x2 + x2 = (16)2 = 256
Ratio of sides = AB = 2 \ AP : AB = 1 : 2 ⇒ 2x2 = 256 ⇒ x2 = 128 ⇒ x = 8 2 cm.
AP 1
22. (b) Given an equilateral triangle ABC in which
13. (a) Since, ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
AB = BC = CA = 2p A
ar(∆PQR) PR 2 QR 2 9 QR 3
\ = = = ∵ = =9 and AD ⊥ BC.
ar(∆ABC ) AC 2 BC 2 1 BC 1 2p 2p
∴ In ∆ADB,
14. (b) Hypotenuse = 270m AB2 = AD2 + BD2
⇒ Hypotenuse2 = Side2 + Side2 =2 Side2 B D C
(By Pythagoras theorem)
⇒ Side2 = (270)2/2 = 72900/2 = 36450 ⇒ (2p)2 = AD2 + p2 ⇒ AD2 =
3 p.
or Side = 190.91m
23. (c) Given, area of two similar triangles,
⇒ Required area = 1/2 × 190.91 × 190.91
A1 = 81cm2 , A2 = 49 cm2
= 36446.6/2 = 18225 m2 (approx). A1 81 9
Ratio of corresponding medians = = =
A2 49 7
Triangles M-45
24. (c) Let BD = x cm \ ∠QAB = ∠BAP
R is reflection of P on AC
Since AC = BC, therefore DABC is an isoscele triangle.
\ ∠RAC = ∠CAP
⇒ ∠B = ∠CAB = 72°
∠QAR = 180°
Since AD bisects ∠A
\ 2∠BAP + 2∠CAP = 180°
\ ∠DAB = 36° so, In DADB, ∠ADB = 72°
∠BAP + ∠CAP = 90° ⇒ ∠BAC = 90°
⇒ DADB is an isoscele triangle
26. (a) DABC ~ DANM
\ AB = AD = 1cm
⇒ AB = 1 cm Area of ∆ABC AC 2
\ = ...(i)
Similarly, DADC is also an isoscele triangle. Area of ∆ANM AM 2
\ AD = CD ⇒ AD = 1 cm DABC ~ DMPC
2
\ Area of ∆ABC = AC
C
...(ii)
Area of ∆MPC MC 2
36° 1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii,) we get
Area of ∆ANM AM 2
D =
x
1+
Area of ∆MPC MC 2
72°
36° x Area of ∆ANM + Area of ∆MPC AM 2 + MC 2
=
36° Area of ∆MPC MC 2
72°
A B Now, Area of DANM + Area of DMPC
AC CD = Area of DABC – Area of BNMP
Now =
AB BD 5
Using Area of BNMP = of area of DABC
1+ x 1 18
⇒ = ⇒ x + x2 – 1 = 0
1 x 2 2
2 \ 13 (Area of ∆ABC ) = AM + MC ...(iii)
– 1 ± (1) – 4(1)(–1) –1 ± 5 18 (Area of ∆MPC ) MC 2
⇒ x = =
2 2
13 AC 2 AM 2 + MC 2
From Eq. (iii), =
BD =
5 –1 18 MC 2 MC 2
2
⇒ 13 (AM + MC)2 = 18 (AM2 + MC2)
25. (c) Here, ABC is a triangle & P be interior point of a
AM 1
DABC, Q and R be the reflections of P in AB and AC, ⇒ = 5, . Hence, option (a) is correct.
MC 5
respectively.
27. (d) A
R
A
b
Q θ
φ b
Q P
P 2b a
2b
a
a C
B C B
In DABC
As QAR are collinear
AB = AC
\ ∠QAR = 180°
⇒ ∠C = ∠B ⇒ ∠B = ∠C = a
Q is reflection of P on AB
M-46 Mathematics
By angle sum properly in DABC,
1 2QR 2 + 7QR 2 1 2 2
b + a + a = 180 =
9 = QR = QM
4 4
⇒ b + 2a = 180° ...(i) QG 2 + GM 2 = QM 2 ∴ ∠QGM = 90
In DQPB
29. (c) ∵ ∠BAC = ∠ADC (given)
⇒ ∠QPB = 180 – 4b
∠C = ∠C (common)
Since ‘APC’ is a straight line A
⇒ 180 – 4b + a + b = 180
⇒ a = 3b ...(ii)
From equations (i) & (ii)
180 B D C
b + 2(3b) = 180 ⇒ b =
7 \ DABC ~ DDAC (by AA similarity criterion)
180 5
∠AQP = 180° – 2 = p BC AC
7 7
2
⇒ = ⇒ BC × DC = AC
AC DC
28. (c) Let DPQR 2
⇒ BC × DC = (21) = area of rectangle with sides BC
Given, QR2 + PR2 = 5PQ2 & DC
Median PM and QN intersect at G.
Now, Area of equilateral triangle = area of rectangle
1
⇒ PN = NR = PR &
⇒ 3 (side) = (21) ⇒ Side = 14 × 3
2 2 3/4
2
1 4
QM = MR = QR
2 30. (a) Here, BAC is a right angle triangle
P B
AB = 15 & BC = 25
N D
∴ AC = BC 2 − AB 2 = 20 F
G
1 A
Area of ∆ABC =
BC. AD
Q R 2 E C
M
1
= AB. AC
2 1 2
QG = QN , GM = PM
3 3 ⇒ BC. AD = AB. AC
2 2
2 2 2 1 ⇒ 25(AD) = 15(20) ⇒ AD = 12
⇒ QG + GM = QN + PM
3 3
∵ AEDF is rectangle then, AD = EF = 12
4 1
= QN 2 + PM 2
9 9 31. (a) We know that height of an
4 2 PQ 2 + 2QR 2 − PR 2 3 A
= a,
equilateral triangle
9 4
2
1 2 PQ 2 + 2 PR 2 − QR 2 where a is the side of 30° 30°
+
9 4 equilateral triangle
8 PQ + 8QR − 4 PR
2 2 2
3 3
∴ AD 2 = a 2 = BC 2
60° 60°
B C
1 +2 PQ 2 + 2 PR 2 − QR 2 4 4 D
=
9 4
32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a)
35. (a) (By definition of similar triangles).
1 10 PQ + 7QR − 2 PR
2 2 2
36. (d) All the statements given in option (a, b, c) are correct.
= 9 4
Triangles M-47
Sol. (37-41) DB EC
P
⇒ 1 + =1+ A
AD AE
X
AD + DB AE + EC
A
⇒ =
AD AE D E
20 m AB AC
⇒ =
B C Q R Y Z AD AE B C
10 m 50 m 20 m
[Vijay’s house] [Tower] [Ajay’s house] ∴ Assertion is true.
37. (c) Q DABC ~ DPQR Since reason gives Assertion.
AB BC 20 10 48. (d) In right angled ∆ABC,
∴ = ⇒ =
PQ QR PQ 50
AB2 = AC2 + BC2 (By Pythagorus Theorem)
⇒ PQ = 100 = AC2 + AC2 [∵ BC = AC]
\ Height of the tower = 100 m = 2AC2 A
38. (d) Let BC = 12 m and PQ = 100 m \ AB2 = 2AC2
AB BC 20 12 ∴ Assertion is false.
= ⇒ =
PQ QR 100 QR
Again since C B
⇒ QR = 60 AB2 = 2AC2 = AC2 + AC2
39. (b) Q DABC ~ DXYZ = AC2 + BC2 (∵ AC = BC given)
AB BC 20 10 \ ∠C = 90° (By converse of Pythagoras Theorem)
∴ = ⇒ =
XY YZ XY 20 \ Reason is true.
⇒ XY = 40 49. (b) Reason is true [standard result]
40. (a) Let QR = 40 m, PQ = 100 m and XY = 40 m For Assertion, since ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF
PQ QR 100 40 area ( ∆ABC )
∴ = ⇒ = BC 2 (4)2 16
XY YZ 40 YZ \ = = =
area ( ∆DEF ) EF 2 (5)2 25
⇒ YZ = 16 m.
(∵ ratio of areas of two similar ∆s is equal to the ratio
41. (d) Let QR = 40m, PQ =100m and AB = 20 m of the squares of corresponding sides)
AB BC 20 BC 64
∵ = ⇒ = 16 64 × 25
PQ QR 100 40 \ = ⇒ area (∆DEF) =
area (∆DEF ) 25 16
⇒ BC = 8 m. = 4 × 25 = 100 cm2
42. (c) Pythagoras theorem \ Assertion is true. But reason is not the correct
43. (a) AC2 = 302 + 402 = 2500 ⇒ AC = 50m explanation for assertion.
44. (d) (21, 20, 28) Q 282 ≠ (21)2 + (20)2 50. (A) → q; (B) → p; (C) → s; (D) → r
45. (b) AB = 50 – 12 = 38m 51. (A) → p; (B) → q; (C) → r; (D) → s
46. (c) 82m
52. (A) → q; (B) → p; (C) → s; (D) → r
47. (a) Reason is true. [This is Thale’s Theorem]
(A) AB2 = AC2 + BC2
For Assertion
Since, ∆ABC is an isosceles right angled triangle.
Since DE || BC ∴ by Thale’s Theorem
\ AC = BC
AD AE DB EC
= ⇒ = Now, AB2 = AC2 + AC2 = 2AC2
DB EC AD AE
M-48 Mathematics
2 2 1
area ( ∆ABC ) ( AB ) (1.2) 1.44 64.
(B) = = = 9
area ( ∆DEF ) ( DE ) 2
(1.4) 2 1.96
AM AM 1 1
36 (36 × 2) 72 = = =
= = = AB AM + BM 1 + 2 3
49 (49 × 2) 98 2 2
ar ( ∆AMN) AM 1 1
2 \ = = =
area ( ∆APQ ) ( BC ) 36 BC 6 ar ( ∆ABC) AB 3 9
(C) = = = =
area ( ∆ABC ) ( PQ ) 2 49 PQ 7 65. [90°]
AD AE 6 Q AB2 + BC2 = 108 + 36 = 144 = AC2
∵ DE || BC \
(D) = =
DB EC 7 So, AC is hypotenuse and ∠B = 90°.
sin θ sin θ 3 1
(a) (b) (a) cos θ = (b) sin θ =
1 − cos θ 1 − cos φ 2 2
sin θ 1
sin φ
(c) (d) (c)
θ = 60° (d) tan θ =
sin φ 3
sin θ
1 tan θ − cot θ
23. is equal to
15. If cosec x – cot x = , where x ≠ 0, then the value of sin θ cos θ
cos2x – sin2x is 3
(a) sec2 θ + cosec2 θ (b) cot2 θ – tan2 θ
16 9 (c) cos2 θ – sin2 θ (d) tan2θ – cot2θ
(a) (b)
25 25
2 tan 30°
8 7 24. =
(c) (d) 1 + tan 2 30°
25 25 (a) sin 60° (b) cos 60°
16. If cosec x + sin x = a and sec x + cos x = b, then
(c) tan 60° (d) sin 30°
2 2
2 3 2 3
(a) ( a b) + (ab ) =1 1 − tan 2 45°
25. =
2 2 1 + tan 2 45°
(ab 2 ) 3
(b) + ( a 2b 2 ) 3 =1 (a) tan 90° (b) 1
(c) a2 + b2 = 1 (c) sin 45° (d) 0
(d) b2 – a2 = 1 26. sin 2A = 2 sin A is true when A =
17. If tan2q = 1 – e2, then the value of (a) 0° (b) 30°
secq + tan3q cosec q is equal to (c) 45° (d) 60°
(a) (1 – e2)1/2 (b) (2 – e2)1/2 2 tan 30°
27. =
(c) (2 – e2)3/2 (d) (1 – e2)3/2 1 − tan 2 30°
18. If sinq + sin3q = cos2q, then the value of (a) cos 60° (b) sin 60°
cos6q – 4cos4q + 8cos2q is (c) tan 60° (d) sin 30°
(a) 1 (b) 4
28. 9 sec2 A – 9 tan2 A =
(c) 2 (d) 0 (a) 1 (b) 9
11 (c) 8 (d) 0
19. If cosec A + cot A = , then tan A
2 29. (1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ– cosec θ) =
21 15 (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) (b)
22 16 (c) 2 (d) –1
44 11 30. (sec A + tan A) (1 – sin A) =
(c) (d)
117 117 (a) sec A (b) sin A
(c) cosec A (d) cos A
2 tan 30°
20. is equal to
1 + tan 2 30° 1 + tan 2 A
31. =L
(a) sin 30° (b) cos 60° 1 + cot 2 A
1 3 (a) sec2 A (b) –1
(c) (d)
2 2 (c) cot2 A (d) tan2 A
32. The value of (sin 30° + cos 30°) – (sin 60° + cos 60°) is
sin θ − 2sin 3 θ
21. is equal to (a) –1 (b) 0
2 cos3 θ − cos θ (c) 1 (d) 2
(a) sec θ (b) tan θ
(c) sec θ − 1 (d) cot θ
Introduction to Trigonometry M-51
tan 30° 39. The value of sec C is
33. The value of is 4 5
cot 60° (a) (b)
1 1 3 3
(a) (b) 1
2 3 (c) (d) None of these
3
(c) 3 (d) 1
40. sin2C + cos2C =
34. The value of (sin 45° + cos 45°) is (a) 0 (b) 1
1 (c) –1 (d) None of these
(a) (b) 2
2
3 Assertion & Reason
(c) (d) 1
2
a DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion
35. Given that sin θ = , then cos θ is equal to
b followed by reason. Read them carefully and answer the
b question on the basis of following options. You have to select
b
(a) 2 2
(b) the one that best describes the two statements.
b −a a
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
b −a 2 2 a the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) (d)
b b2 − a 2 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
36. If sin A + sin2A = 1, then the value of the expression (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(cos2A + cos4A) is (d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
1 3
(a) 1 (b) 41. Assertion: In a right angled triangle, if tan θ = , the
2 4
greatest side of the triangle is 5 units.
(c) 2 (d) 3
Reason: (greatest side)2 = (hypotenuse)2
3 1 = (perpendicular)2 + (base)2.
37. If sin (A + B) =
and sin 2B = , then
2 2 1
(a) tan B = 1 (b) B = 30° 42. Assertion : In a right angled triangle, if cos θ = and
2
1 3
(c) B = 45° (d) cos A = sin θ = , then tan θ = 3
2 2
sin θ
Reason: tan θ = cos θ
DIRECTIONS : Study the given Case/Passage and answer the Match the Following
following questions.
Case/Passage DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
In ∆ABC, right angled at B two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D)
C in column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in
column-II.
=
1
−
1
= sec2 θ − cosec2θ = (1 + sin A)(1 – sin A)
2 2 cos A
cos θ sin θ
= 1 + tan θ − 1 − cot 2 θ = tan 2 θ − cot 2 θ
2 1 – sin 2 A cos 2 A
= = (∵ cos 2 A = 1 – sin 2 A)
cos A cos A
1 = cosA.
2
2 tan 30° 3
24. (a) = 1 + tan 2 A (sec2 A – tan 2 A) + tan 2 A
1 + tan 2 30° 1
2 31. (d) =
1+ 1 + cot 2 A (cosec2 A – cot 2 A) + cot 2 A
3
2
sec2 A sin 2 A sin A 2
2 = = =
= tan A.
cosec2 A 2
cos A cos A
2 3 3
= 3 = × = = sin 60°. 32. (b) (sin 30° + cos 30°) – (sin 60° + cos 60°)
1 3 4 2
1+
3 1 3 1 3
2 2 = 2 + 2 − 2 + 2 = 0
1 – tan 45° 1 – (1)
25. (d) = = 0.
1 + tan 45°2
1 + (1) 2 1
tan 30° 3
26. (a) Here, when A = 0° 33. (d) = =1
cot 60° 1
LHS = sin 2 A = sin 0° = 0 3
and RHS = 2 sin A= 2 sin 0° = 2 × 0 = 0 1 1 2
34. (b) sin 45° + cos 45° = + = = 2
In the other options, we will find that 2 2 2
(on rationalizing)
LHS ≠ RHS
a2 b2 − a 2
1 35. (c) cos θ = 1 − sin 2 θ = 1 − =
2 b2 b
2 tan 30° 3
27. (c) = 36. (a) Given, sin A + sin2A =1
1 – tan 2 30° 1
2
1– ⇒ sin A = 1 – sin2A = cos2 A
3
Consider, cos2A + cos4A = sinA + (sin A)2 = 1
2
3
= 3 = 2 × 3 = 3 = tan 60°. 37. (c) We have, sin ( A + B) =
1 3 2 2
1– ⇒ A + B = 60° ...(i)
3
and 2B = 30° ∴ B = 15°
28. (b) 9sec2 A – 9 tan 2 A = 9(sec2 A – tan 2 A)
= 9 × 1 = 9. Putting B in (i), we get
29. (c) (1 + tan θ + sec θ)(1 + cot θ – cosec θ) A + 15° = 60° ⇒ A = 45°
441 120°
21
cm
D
(A) Area of (p) 3 C
segment AYB 4 O O
(C) (r) 114.7 cm2
21
(B) Area of (q) (88 − 21 3) A B
sector OAYB 4
BC = 6 cm, AB = 8 cm.
(C) Area of ∆ (r) 462
Area of the shaded region = ?
OAB
(D) OM (s) 21/2
51. Two circular flower beds have been shown on two sides O
(D) (s) 30.57 cm2
of a square lawn ABCD of side 56m. If the centre of each
circular flowered bed is the point of intersection O of the 60°
diagonals of the square lawn, then match the column. A B
Column-I Column-II OB = 14.8 m.
Area of the shaded region = ?
(A) Area of ∆OAB (p) 4032
A B
(B) Area of flower bed (q) 784 O
56m Fill in the Blanks
(C) Area of sector OAB (r) 448 D C
(D) Total area (s) 1232 DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s).
52. Column - I Column - II
θ 54. A sector of a circle is called a ................. sector if the minor
(A) Circumference (p) 2r + × 2πr
360° arc of the circle is a part of its boundary.
θ 55. The boundary of a sector consists of an arc of the circle
(B) Area of a quadrant (q) × πr 2
360° and the two .................. .
1 22 1 22
10
= × × 14 × 14 + 2
2 × 4 × 7 × 7 × 7 = 385 cm
A B 2 7
X
\ Shaded area = (644 – 385) = 259 cm2
= 25 π – 50 = 25 × 3.14 – 50 = 78.5 – 50 = 28.5 cm2.
7. (a) Perimeter of sector = 25 cm
2. (a) Area of the shaded region
θ
40° 22 40° 22 ⇒ 2r + × 2pr = 25
= × × (7)2 − × × (3.5)2 360°
360° 7 360° 7
90° 22
1 22 1 22 49
= × × (7 2 − 3.52 ) = × × 49 − ⇒ 2r + 360° × 2 ×
7
× r = 25
9 7 9 7 4
1 22 49 77 2 11 25
= × × × 3 = cm ⇒ 2r + r = 25 ⇒ r = 25 ⇒ r = 7
9 7 4 6 7 7
3. (b) We have, πθ sinθ 2
Area of minor segment = − r
Area of square metal plate = 40 × 40 = 1600 cm2 360° 2
2
22 1 11 22 90° sin 90° 2
Area of each hole = πr 2 = × = cm 2 = × − (7)
7 2 14 7 360° 2
11 11 1 4
∴ Area of 441 holes = 441× = 346.5cm 2 = − × 49 = × 49 = 14 cm2.
14 14 2 14
Hence, area of the remaining square plate 8. (a) Let the radii of the two circles be r1 and r2, then
= (1600 – 346.5) = 1253.5 cm2 r1 + r2 = 15 (given) ..... (i)
4. (c) Area of the remaining piece of paper πr12 + πr22 = 153π
and (given)
= Area of trapezium – Area of 2 semi-circles
1 1 ⇒ r12 + r22 = 153 ..... (ii)
= (7 + 19)× 20 – 2 × pr2
2 2 On solving, we get
1 22 7 7 r1 = 12, r2 = 3
= × 26 × 20 – × × Required ratio = 12 : 3 = 4 : 1
2 7 2 2
= 260 – 38.5 = 221.5 cm2 9. (b)
2 πr1 = 503 and 2 πr2 = 437
42 503 437
5. (b) Diameter of each semi-circle = = 14 cm ∴ r1 = and r2 =
3 2π 2π
Radius of each semi-circle = 7 cm Area of ring = π (r1 + r2 ) (r1 − r2 )
M-64 Mathematics
503 + 437 503 − 437 2
= π r 2 81
then, area = π r − = πr
2π 2π 10 100
940 66 66 81
= = 235 × × 7 = 235 × 21 = 4935 sq. cm. Thus, area is diminished by 1 − % = 19%
2 2π 22 100
10. (b) πd1 + πd2 = πd ⇒ d1 + d2 = d 2πr
21. (b) Perimeter = + 2r
2
2 1 22 2 = πr + 2r
11. (a) Required area = 7 – × × 7 cm2
4 7
⇒ (π + 2) r = 36
= (49 – 38.5) cm2 = 10.5 cm2
36 r r
12. (a) Let the radii of the outer and inner circles be r1 and ⇒ – r = 36
r2 respectively; we have 7
Area = pr12 – pr22 = p(r12 – r22) ⇒ r = 7 cm
= p(r1 – r2) (r1 + r2) Hence, diameter = 7 × 2 = 14 cm.
= p(5.7 – 4.3) (5.7 + 4.3) = p × 1.4 × 10 sq. cm
22. (a) Required area = π (r + d )2 − r 2
= 3.1416 × 14sq. cm. = 43.98 sq. cms.
13. (b) Area of sector = 240°/360° × p(100)2 = 20933 cm2. d
Let r be the radius of the new circle, then
20933
20933 = pr2 ⇒ r = = 81.6 cm. r
π
14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (c) Joining B to O and C to O
Let the radius of the outer cirlce be r = π[r2 + d2 + 2rd – r2]
∴ perimeter = 2πr = π[d2 + 2rd] = πd[d + 2r]
But OQ = BC = r [diagonals of the square BQCO] 23. (a) A
∴ Perimeter of ABCD = 4r. 53
m
m
2πr π
Hence, ratio = =
35
4r 2
17. (c) Radius of outer concentric circle = (35 + 7) m = 42 m.
B 66 m C
22
Area of path = π (422 – 352) m2 = (422 – 352) m2 Here, a = 66 m, b = 53 m & c = 35 m
7
a + b + c 66 + 53 + 35
1 s= = = 77m
18. (c) Perimeter = × 2πr + 2r 2 2
4
Area of ∆ = s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)
1 22
= × × 7 + 2 × 7 cm = 25 cm
2 7 So, area of ∆ = 77(11)(24)(42) = 924
19. (d) 2πr = 4π ⇒ r = 2
πr2 = 2(924)
Area = π(2)2 = 4π
When, 2πr = 8π 2 × 924 + 7 r
⇒ r 2 = ⇒ r2 = 588
⇒r=4 22
Area = 16π ⇒ r = 14 3 m
20. (b) Let r be the radius of circle, then area = πr2 24. (a) Area of square = 2 cm2
Side of square = 2 cm
When r is diminished by 10%
Areas Related to Circles M-65
We know,
2
OP = cm, OQ = x cm Area of common region
2
Q = 2 (Area of sector – Area of ∆APQ)
60° 1
x = 2 × π(2) 2 − × (2) 2 × sin 60°
2
360° 2
P O 4π 4 3
x
= 2 −
2 6 4
2
( 2)
2
⇒ x2 = + 2
2 = 2 (3.14) − (1.73)
3
2
⇒ x2 = 2 + = 2 (2.09 – 1.73) = 2 (0.36) = 0.72.
4
∴ Area of region lie between 0.7 and 0.75.
5 2 5 26. (a) A
⇒ x = ⇒x= cm.
2 2
5 r
AC = 2 cm (AC = Diameter) r
2 O
r
D a C
B C
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an 68. If the probability of an event is 1, then it is an impossible
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). event.
69. If A is any event in a sample space, then P( A) = 1 + P( A)
55. Probability of an event E + Probability of the event ‘not
E’ = .................... 70. The sum of probabilities of two students getting distinction
in their final examinations is 1.2.
56. The probability of an event that cannot happen is
................. Such an event is called .................. 71. A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the
probability of drawing a blue ball is double that of a red
57. The probability of an event that is certain to happen is
ball, the number of blue balls in the bag is 10.
............... Such an event is called ................
72. A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90.
58. The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events
If one disc is drawn at random from the box, the probability
of an experiment is ................
that it bears a two-digit number is 0.9
59. The probability of an event is greater than or equal to .........
73. An event A associated to a random experiment is said to
and less than or equal to ..............
occur if any one of the elementary events associated to the
60. If P(E) = 0.05, the probability of ‘not E’ is ........... event A is an outcomes.
61. A die is thrown once, the probability of getting a prime 74. An event associated to a random experiment is a
number is .............. compound event if it is obtained by combining two or more
elementary events associated to the random experiment.
Probability M-73
4. (b) E = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5)} 8. (c) Initial number of workers = 120
5. (b) The sum of the two numbers lies between 2 and 12. 90 2
\ Probability of female workers = =
So, the primes are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11. 135 3
9. (d) Total number of marbles = 38 – 18 + 1 = 21
No. of ways for getting 2 = (1, 1) = 1
The multiples of 3 from 18 to 38 are 18, 21, 24, 27,
No. of ways of getting 3 = (1, 2), (2, 1) = 2
30, 33, 36.
No. of ways of getting 5
These are 7 in numbers
= (1, 4), (4, 1), (2, 3), (3, 2) = 4 7 1
∴ Required probability = =
No. of ways of getting 7 21 3
10. (b) Total number of cards = 52
= (1, 6), (6, 1), (2, 5), (5, 2), (3, 4), (4, 3) = 6
Total number of diamond cards = 13
No. of ways of getting 11 = (5, 6), (6, 5) = 2
I. P(diamond cards) = 13/52 = 1/4
No. of favourable ways = 1 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 2 = 15 II. P(an ace of heart) = 1/52
No. of exhaustive ways = 6 × 6 = 36 1 3
III. P(not a heart) = 1 − =
\ Probability of getting the sum as a prime 4 4
15 5 4 4 8 2
= = IV. P(king or queen) = + = =
36 12 52 52 52 13
M-74 Mathematics
11. (b) [Hint. The outcomes are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. Out of these, So, required probability of getting the product of the
4 is the only composite number which is less than 5]. 6 3
two numbers so obtained is =
12. (c) [Hint. The English alphabet has 26 letters in all. 16 8
The word ‘DELHI’ has 5 letter, so the number of No. of favourable outcomes 1
28. (b) Probability = =
favourable outcomes = 5.] Total number of outcomes 5
13. (c) P(raining on both day) = 0.2 × 0.3 = 0.06 29. (c) Total number of cards = 25
(Because both independent event) Prime number are 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23,
14. (b) 8
∴ Probability of prime number card =
15. (b) 24 out of the 90 two digit numbers are divisible by 25
‘3’ and not by ‘5’. 30. (b) No. of sample space = 6 × 6 = 36
24 4 Sum total of 9 = (3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)
The required probability is therefore, = .
90 15
4 1
∴ P = =
4 2 36 9
16. (a) Required probability = = .
6 3
31. (b) n(S) = [1, 2, 3, ..., 100] = 100
17. (b) [Hint. One digit prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7. Out of 1
these numbers, only the number 2 is even.] Q x + >2
x
1+ 2 +1 4
18. (c) Required probability = = . \ x2 + 1 > 2x
11 11
⇒ x2 – 2x + 1 > 0
19. (a) There are 2 favourable choice (3, 7) for unit place.
⇒ (x – 1)2 > 0
2 2
P = 1× 1× = x = [2, 3, ... ,100]
5 5
n(E) = [2, 3, 4, ..., 100] = 99
20. (d)
99
21. (c) Total outcomes = HH, HT, TH, TT P(E) = = 0.99
100
Favourable outcomes = HT, TH, TT 32. (a) 33. (d)
3 34. (b) A die is thrown once therefore, total number of
P(at most one head) = .
4 outcomes are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
P(odd number) = 3/6 = 1/2
(a)
5 1
22. (c) Required probability = = .
25 5 (b) P(multiple of 3) = 2/6 = 1/3
P(prime number) = 3/6 = 1/2
(c)
23. (a) P (E) + P ( E ) = 1
P(greater than 5) = 1/6
(d)
24. (d) 25. (c)
35. (b) The probability of an event can never be negative.
26. (a) Total three digit number are : 3 × 3 × 2 = 18
36. (c)
Now, numbers divisible by 5 are :
37. (d) All the three statements are correct.
2 × 3 × 1 + 2 × 2 × 1 = 10
2 1
So, probability that the slip bears a number divisible 38. (a) P(king of red colour) = =
52 26
10 5 12 3
by 5 = = 39. (d) P(getting a face card) = =
18 9 52 13
27. (c) Possible products are 1, 4, 9, 16, 2, 8, 18, 32, 3, 12, 1
40. (b) P(getting a jack of hearts) =
27, 48, 4, 16, 36, 64 52
Probability M-75
3 49. (a) Assertion and Reason both are correct. Also Reason
41. (a) P(getting a red face card) = is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
26
13 1 50. (b) Assertion and Reason is correct but Reason is not
42. (d) P(getting a spade) = =
correct explanation for Assertion.
52 4
43. (b) Sum of the two numbers appearing on the top face 51. (a) Both statements are correct and Reason is the correct
of dice is 8. for Assertion.
52. (a) Both statements are correct. Event given in Assertion
(2, 6), (3, 5), (4, 4) (5, 3), (6, 2)
is an impossible event.
5 53. (A) → (s); (B) → (t); (C) → (p); (D) → (r); (E) → (q)
\ Required probability =
36 54. (A) → (r) ; (B) → (p) ; (C) → (q)
44. (d) Since, the sum of two numbers appearing on the top
Sample space = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
face of dice cannot be 13.
2 1
So, required probability = 0. A : P (one head) = =
4 2
45. (a) Since, the pair of number whose sum is less than 0
(∵ favourable event = HT, TH)
or equal to 12 in a pair of dice is 36.
3
36 B : P (at least one head) =
\ Required probability = =1 4
36
46. (c) Since, the pair of numbers on the top of dice whose (∵ favourable event = HH, HT, TH)
sum is 7 are (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2) , (6, 1)
6 1 1
\ Required probability = = C : P (two heads) = (∵ favourable event = HH)
36 6 4
5 55. 1 56. 0, impossible event
47. (d)
18 57. 1, sure or certain event 58. 1
59. 0, 1 60. .95
48. (d) Assertion is not correct, but reason is correct.
61. 1/2 62. complement
5 5
P(white marble) = = . 63. mutually exclusive 64. elementary
5 + 2 + 4 11
65. True
66. True 67. False 68. False
5 11 – 5 6 69. False 70. True 71. True 72. True
P(not white marble) = 1 – = = .
11 11 11
73. True 74. True
9 Acids, Bases and
Quadratic
Salts
Equations
7. Find the product of the roots of x2 + 8x – 16 = 0
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (a) 8 (b) –8
(c) 16 (d) –16
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are α and β,
8.
of which ONLY ONE is correct. then the quadratic equation whose roots are –α and –β
is _____ .
1. If the product of roots of the equation x3 – 3x + k = 10 is (a) ax2 – bx – c = 0 (b) ax2 – bx + c = 0
–2, then the value of k is
ax2 + bx – c = 0
(c) (d) ax2 – bx + 2c = 0
(a) –2 (b) –8
(c) 8 (d) 12 9. If the equation
(1 + m2) x2 + (2mc) x + (c2 – a2) = 0 has equal roots,
2. If one root of 5x2 + 13x + k = 0 be the reciprocal of the
then
other root, then the value of k is
(a) c2 – a2 = 1 + m2 (b) c2 = a2 (1 + m2)
(a) 0 (b) 1
c2a2 = (1 + m2) (d)
(c) c2 + a2 = 1 + m2
(c) 2 (d) 5
10. Which of the following satisfy the equation
3.
If the sum of the roots of a quadratic equation is 6 and their
product is 6, the equation is a2b2x2 + b2x – a2x – 1 = 0
(a) x2 – 6x + 6 = 0 (b) x2 + 6x – 6 = 0 1 1
(a) 2 (b) 2
x2 – 6x – 6 = 0
(c) (d) x2 + 6x + 6 = 0 a b
4. If the equation x2 + 2(k + 2)x + 9k = 0 has equal roots, then −1
(c) (d) None of these
k=? b2
(a) 1 or 4 (b) –1 or 4
11. The roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 0.04 = 0 are
(c) 1 or – 4 (d) –1 or – 4
(a) ± 0.2 (b) ± 0.02
5. If the roots of 5x2 – kx + 1 = 0 are real and distinct, then
(c) 0.4 (d) 2
−2 5 < k < 2 5
(a)
12. One of the two students, while solving a quadratic equation
(b)
k > 2 5 only in x, copied the constant term incorrectly and got the roots
(c)
k < −2 5 only 3 and 2. The other copied the constant term and coefficient
of x2 correctly as –6 and 1 respectively. The correct roots
(d) either k > 2 5 or k < −2 5 are
If a – b, b – c are the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, then find
6. (a) 3, –2 (b) –3, 2
(a − b)(b − c) (c) –6, –1 (d) 6, –1
the value of
c−a 13. The condition for one root of the quadratic equation
b c ax2 + bx + c = 0 to be twice the other, is
(a) (b)
c b b2 = 4ac
(a) (b) 2b2 = 9ac
ab bc c2 = 4a + b2
(c) (d) c2 = 9a – b2
(c) (d)
c a
Quadratic Equations M-77
2 2 24. If the equation (m2 + n2) x2 –2 (mp + nq) x + p2 + q2 = 0
1 3
14. If x − − x − = x + 2 , then x = has equal roots, then
2 2
mp = nq
(a) mq = np
(b)
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) None of these mn = pq
(c) mq =
(d) np
15. If x2 + y2 = 25, xy = 12, then x = 25. Each root of x2 – bx + c = 0 is decreased by 2. The resulting
(a) {3, 4} (b) {3, –3} equation is x2 – 2x + 1 = 0, then
(c) {3, 4, –3, –4} (d) {–3, –3} b = 6, c = 9
(a) (b) b = 3, c = 5
1 b = 2, c = –1
(c) (d) b = – 4, c = 3
16. If x = 7 + 4 3 , then x + = 26. Two distinct polynomials f (x) and g(x) are defined as
x
(a) 4 (b) 6 follows:
f (x) = x2 + ax + 2; g (x) = x2 + 2x + a.
(c) 3 (d) 2
If the equations f (x) = 0 and g(x) = 0 have a common
17. If the roots of the equation px 2 + 2qx + r = 0 and root, then the sum of the roots of the equation
qx 2 − 2 pr x + q = 0 be real, then f (x) + g(x) = 0 is
(a) p = q (b) q2 = pr 1
-
(a) (b) 0
2 2
(c) p = qr (d) r2 = pq
18. The equation 2x2 + 2(p + 1) x + p = 0, where p is real, 1
(c) (d) l
always has roots that are 2
(a) Equal 27. If a and b are the roots of the quadratic equation
x2 – 6x – 2 = 0 and if an = an – bn, then the value of
(b) Equal in magnitude but opposite in sign a10 − 2a 8
(c) Irrational is
2a 9
(d) Real
(a) 6.0 (b) 5.2
19. If the ratio of the roots of the equation x2 + bx + c = 0 is
the same as that of x2 + qx + r = 0, then (c) 5.0 (d) 3.0
(a) r2b = qc2 (b) r2c = qb2 28. Consider the quadratic equation nx 2 + 7 nx + n = 0,
(c) c2r = q2b (d) b2r = q2c where n is a positive integer. Which of the following
statements are necessarily correct?
20. The real roots of the equation x 2/3 + x1/3 − 2 = 0 are
I. For any n, the roots are distinct.
(a) 1, 8 (b) –1, –8
II. There are infinitely many values of n for which both
(c) –1, 8 (d) 1, –8
roots are real.
21. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?
III. The product of the roots is necessarily an integer.
(a) x2 – 2x + 2 (3 – x) = 0
(a) III only (b) I and III
x (x + 1) + 1 = (x – 2) (x – 5)
(b)
(c) (2x – 1) (x – 3) = (x + 5) (x – 1) (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
1 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
23. The roots of the equation x + = 3 , x ≠ 0, are 30. The values of k, so that the equations 2x2 + kx – 5 = 0 and
x 3
x2 – 3x – 4 = 0 have one root in common, are
1
(a) 3, 1 (b) 3, 27 27
3 (a) 3, (b) 9,
2 4
1 1 − 27 4
(c) 3, − (d) – 3, − (c) – 3, (d) 3,
3 3 4 27
M-78 Mathematics
38. Which of the following equations has 2 as a root?
3+ 5
31. If x = and y = x3, then y satisfies the quadratic (a) x2 – 4x + 5 = 0
2
equation x2 + 3x – 12 = 0
(b)
(a) y2 – 18y + 1 = 0 (b) y2 + 18y + 1 = 0 (c) 2x2 – 7x + 6 = 0
(c) y2 – 18y – 1 = 0 (d) y2 + 18y – 1 = 0 (d) 3x2 – 6x – 2 = 0
32. Let b be a non-zero real number. Suppose the quadratic 39. Values of k for which the quadratic equation 2x2– kx + k = 0
1 has equal roots is
equation 2x2 + bx + = 0 has two distinct real roots.
Then b (a) 0 only (b) 4 only
Fill in the Blanks 84. The roots of the equation (x – 3)2 = 3 are 3 ± 3
85. If sum of the roots is 2 and product is 5, then the quadratic
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an equation is x2 – 2x + 5 = 0
appropriate word/ term to be filled in the blank space(s).
86. Sum of the reciprocals of the roots of the equation
67. A quadratic equation in the variable x is of the form x2 + px + q = 0 is 1/p.
ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real numbers and a ......
87. The nature of roots of equation x 2 + 2 x 3 + 3 = 0 are real
68. A quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has two distinct real
and equal.
roots, if b2 – 4ac ..............
69. The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its 88. For the expression ax2 + 7x + 2 to be quadratic, the possible
base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, the other two sides values of a are non-zero real numbers.
are ...............
Quadratic Equations M-81
5. (d) The roots of 5x2 – kx + 1= 0 are real and distinct. a2 – b2 = (a – b) (a + b), we get x = 4
3
⇒ 3 x 2 − 10 x + 3 = 0 (
2 α 9 − β9 )
⇒ (x – 3) (3x – 1) = 0 ⇒ x = 3, x =
1
=
α10 − α 9β − αβ9 + β10 ( )
24. (b) ‘b2 = 4ac’
3
(
2 α −β 9 9
)
⇒ 4 (mp +
⇒ m2q2 +
nq)2
n2p2
=4 (m2
– 2mnpq = 0
+ n2) (p2 + q2)
α 9 ( α + β ) − β9 ( α − β ) (
( α + β ) α 9 − β9 )
⇒ (mq – np)2 = 0 ⇒ mq – np = 0.
=
(
2 α −β 9 9
) =
( 9
2 α −β 9
)
25. (a) α + β = b, αβ = c 6
= = 3 (Q a + b = 6)
Sum of roots of resulting equation = (α – 2) + (β – 2) 2
⇒ (α + β – 4 ) = b – 4 ; 28. (b) The given quadratic equation is, nx2 + 7 n x + n = 0
Product of roots resulting equation Now, the discriminant,
= (α – 2) (β – 2) = αβ – 2 (α + β ) + 4 D = 49n – 4n2 = n (49 – 4n)
= c – 2b + 4 D ≠ 0; \ ∀ n ∈ I+
Now, 2 = b – 4 ; 1 = c – 2b + 4 etc.
⇒ Roots of the quadratic equation are distinct.
Quadratic Equations M-83
For real roots D ≥ 0 18 – 3k (k + 6) – 5 (k + 6)2 = 0
49 18 – 3k2 – 18k – 5k2 – 180 – 60k = 0
⇒ n(49 – 4n) ≥ 0 ⇒ n ≤
4
–8k2 – 78k – 162 = 0
So, n ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4, ..., 12}
8k2 + 78k + 162 = 0
So, x have only finite value. 4k2 + 39x + 81 = 0
n 4k2 + 27k + 12k + 81 = 0
Product of roots = =1
n
k(4k + 27) + 3 (4k + 27) = 0
⇒ Products of root is necessarily integer.
(k + 3) (4k + 27) = 0
Hence, option (b) is correct.
27
29. (b) Let a, b be the roots of x2 – bx + 6 = 0 and a, g be the k = −3, −
4
roots of x2 – 6x + c = 0
3+ 5
x2 – bx + 6 = 0; α + β = b, α + γ = 6 31. (a) x =
2
x2 – 6x + c = 0; αβ = 6, αγ = c 3
3 Ê3+ 5ˆ 27 + 5 5 + 9 5(3 + 5)
β 3 fi x = Á ˜ = = 9+4 5
Given, = Ë 2 ¯ 8
γ 4
αβ 6 ⇒ y = x3 = 9 + 4 5
=
αγ c ⇒ One root is 9 + 4 5 \ other is root 9 – 4 5
β 6 3 6
= ⇒ = ∴ c=8 \ Sum of roots = 9 + 4 5 + 9 – 4 5 = 18
γ c 4 c
Product of roots = (9 + 4 5 ) (9 – 4 5 ) = 1
ab = 6; ag = 6
\ Required equation is: y2 – 18y + 1 = 0
HCF (α β, α γ ) = α
32. (c) D > 0 (for real roots)
HCF (6, 8) = 2
1 b3 − 8
a=2 ⇒ b2 − 4 × 2 × > 0 ⇒ >0
b b
30. (c) Let the common root be t 1.5
(b − 2)(b 2 + 2b + 4) 0 3
Then, the equation becomes ⇒ >0
b
2t2 + kt – 5 = 0 ...(i)
⇒ b ∈ ( −∞, 0) ∪ (2, ∞)
t2 – 3t – 4 = 0 ...(ii)
Clearly options A and B are wrong
Multiply equation (ii) by 2 and then subtract from
Let f(b) = b2 – 3b
equation (i)
range of f (b) when b ∈ (–∞, 0) ∪ (2, ∞)
2t2 + kt – 5 = 0
= (f(2), ∞) = (–2, ∞)
2t2 – 6t – 8 = 0
⇒ b2 – 3b > – 2 is correct
– + +
So, b ∈ (–∞, 0) ∪ (2, ∞) is subset of solution set of
(k + 6)t + 3 = 0 b2 – 3b + 2 > 0
3 1
t= −
Also D is wrong as b 2 + 2 ∈ (0, ∞)
k +6 b
Now, put the value of t in equation (i) 33. (c) (i) For equal roots,
−3 −3
2 D = 0 ⇒ b2 – 4ac = 0
2 +k −5 = 0
k + 6 k + 6 16 – 8 (a + 5) = 0
18 −3 a+5=2
2
+ −5 = 0
k+6 a = –3
(k + 6)
M-84 Mathematics
(ii) For distinct real roots, For equal roots, discriminant, D = 0
D > 0 Þ b2 – 4ac > 0 ⇒ b2 – 4ac = 0 ⇒ ( − k )2 − 4(2) (k ) = 0
a2 + 12b(a + 4) > 0 ⇒ k2 – 8k = 0 ⇒ k = 0, 8
9 + 12b > 0
40. (c) Let α + 3 = x ∴ α = x – 3 (replace x by x – 3)
9
b>– So the required equation
12
(x – 3)2 – 5 (x –3) + 6 = 0
3
b> − ⇒ x2 – 6x + 9 – 5x + 15 + 6 = 0 ⇒ x2 – 11x + 30 = 0
4
(x2 – 11x + 30) × 2 = 0 ⇒ 2x2 – 22x + 60 = 0
34. (d)
The given quadratic equation is
x2 + (3 – l) x + 2 = l
41. (b) 42. (a)
⇒ 27 – 6p + 2q = 0 ⇒ – 6p + 2q = – 27 ... (ii) 12
⇒ k = ± ⇒ k=±4
3
On solving (i) and (ii), we get
61. (c) Reason is false.
15
p = and q = – 6 + 15 = 9
2 Assertion : 4x2 – 12x + 9 = 0
49. (a) Speed of Ajay's car = (x + 5) km/h. ⇒ D = b2 – 4ac = (– 12)2 – 4(4) (9) = 144 – 144 = 0
⇒ Roots are repeated.
Distance = Speed × Time = 2(x + 5) km
400 400 62. (c) Assertion is correct. Reason is incorrect.
50. (c) – =4
x x+5 63. (a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is
⇒ x2 + 5x – 500 = 0 correct explanation.
51. (a) (x + 25)(x – 20) = 0 Assertion : 2x2– 3x + 5 = 0
⇒ x = 20 km/hour – b – (–3) 3 c 5
⇒ α+β = = = and αβ = =
52. (d) Speed of Ajay = x + 5 = 25 km/h. a 2 2 a 2
400 64. (A) → s; (B) → p; (C) → q; (D) → r
Time = = 16 hours.
25 (A) 6x2 + x – 12 = 0
53. (c) (20 – x) km/hr 6x2 + 9x – 8x – 12 = 0
54. (a) Speed = Distance/Time 3x (2x + 3) – 4 (2x + 3) = 0
(3x – 4)(2x + 3x) = 0
15 15
55. (c) – =1 4 −3
20 – x 20 + x x= ,
⇒ x2 + 30x – 400 = 0 3 2
(B) 8x2 + 16x – 192 = 0
56. (b) (x – 10)(x + 40) = 0
8x2 + 48x – 32x – 192 = 0
⇒ x = 10 km/hour 8x (x + 6) – 32(x + 6) = 0
57. (c) Speed in downstream = 20 + 10 = 30 km/h x = 4, – 6
Distance 15 (C) x2 – 45x + 324 = 0
Time = = = 30 minutes
Speed 30 x2 – 36x – 9x + 324 = 0
58. (b) Assertion : Given equation x2 – bx + c = 0 x (x – 36) – 9 (x – 36) = 0
2x (x – 3) + 1 (x – 3) = 0
Let α, β be two consecutive roots such that | α – β | = 1
x = 9, 36.
⇒ (α + β)2 – 4αβ = 1 ⇒ b2 – 4c = 1
(D) 2x2 – 5x – 3 = 0
Reason : Given equation : 2x2 – 6x + x – 3 = 0
4abc x2 + (b2 – 4ac) x – b = 0 −1
x = ,3
D= (b2 – 4ac)2 + 16ab2c 2
D= (b2 + 4ac)2 >0 65. (A) → q; (B) → r; (C) → s; (D) → p
Hence, roots are real and unequal. 66. (A) → (r,); (B) → (p,); (C) → (q) ; (D) → (s)
59. (b) Assertion and Reason both are true statements. But 67. ≠ 0
Reason is not the correct explanation.
M-86 Mathematics
68. > 0 1
76. (b − q )
69. 5 cm, 12 cm. 2
70. b2 < 4ac 77. two 78. b2 < 4ac
71. 7 and –9 79. False 80. True
72. x2 – bx + ca = 0 81. False 82. True
n ( n + 1) 14. There are four arithmetic means between 2 and –18. The
(a) (b) 2n( (n + 1) means are
2
(a) –4, –7, –10, –13 (b) 1, –4, –7, –10
n ( n + 1) (c) –2, –5, –9, –13 (d) –2, –6, –10, –14
(c) (d) 1
2 15. If the first, second and the last terms of an A.P. are a, b, c
respectively, then the sum is
6. If eight times the8th term of an A.P. is equal to 12 times
the 12th term of the A.P. then its 20th term will be (a + b) (a + c − 2b) (b + c) (a + b − 2c)
(a) (b)
(a) –1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2 2 (b − a ) 2 (b − a )
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 13 (a) 110 (b) 335 (c) 770 (d) 1100
21. The number of terms of the series 5, 7, 9, .... that must be 32. Which of the following represents an A.P. ?
taken in order to have the sum 1020 is (a) 0.2, 0.4, 0.6, .... (b) 29, 58, 116....
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50 (c) 15, 45, 135, 405... (d) 3, 3.5, 4.5, 8.5 ....
22. If the nth term of an A.P. is 4n + 1, then the common 33. If tn = 6n + 5, then tn+1 =
difference is : (a) 6(n + 1) + 17 (b) 6(n – 1) + 11
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 6n + 11 (d) 6n – 11
23. If a, b, c, d, e, f are in A.P., then e – c is equal to: 34. Summation of n terms of an A.P. is
(a) 2(c – a) (b) 2(d – c) n n
(c) 2(f – d) (d) (d – c)
(a) ( 2a + l ) (b) 2a + ( n − 1) d
2 2
24. The number of common terms of the two sequences
17, 21, 25, ....., 417 and 16, 21, 26, ........, 466 is
a rn −1
(c)
(
) (d)
(
a 1− rn )
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 91
( r − 1) (1 − r )
25. The number of two digit numbers which are divisible by 35. Sn = 54 + 51 + 48 + ........ n terms = 513. Least value of n is
3 is (a) 18 (b) 19
(a) 33 (b) 31 (c) 30 (d) 29 (c) 15 (d) None of these
26. If the nth term of an A.P. is given by an = 5n – 3, then the 36. If the nth term of an A.P. be (2n – 1), then the sum of its
sum of first 10 terms is first n terms will be
(a) 225 (b) 245 (c) 255 (d) 270 (a) n2 – 1 (b) (n – 1)2
2
(c) (n – 1) – (2n – 1) (d) n2
27. If S1, S2, S3, ......., Sr are the sum of first n terms of r
arithmetic progressions respectively. Whose first terms b+c−a c+a−b a+b−c
37. If , , are in A.P., then which of
are 1, 2, 3, ......... and whose common differences are 1, a b c
3, 5, ........ respectively, then the value of S1 + S2 + S3 + the following is in A.P.?
...... Sr is (a) a, b, c (b) a2, b2, c2
(nr – 1 )(nr +1 ) (nr + 1)nr 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) , , (d) a3, b3, c3
2 2 a b c
Arithmetic Progressions M-89
46. If nth term of an AP is given by
an = 2n + 3 then common difference of an AP is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 1
DIRECTIONS : Study the given Case/Passage and answer 47. The value of x, for which 2x, x+ 10, 3x + 2 are three
the following questions. consecutive terms of an AP
Case/Passage-I (a) 6 (b) –6 (c) 18 (d) –18
India is competitive manufacturing location due to the low cost
of manpower and strong technical and engineering capabilities
contributing to higher quality production runs. The production of
Assertion & Reason
TV sets in a factory increases uniformly by a fixed number every
year. It produced 16000 sets in 6th year and 22600 in 9th year. DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion
[From CBSE Question Bank 2021] followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the
question on the basis of following options. You have to select
the one that best describes the two statements.
Match the Following 64. The difference of corresponding terms of two A.P’s will
be .................... .
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in two 65. Sum of all the integers between 100 and 1000 which are
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in divisible by 7 is ................... .
column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column-II.
True / False
55. Column -I Column-II
(A.P.) (Common Difference)
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
3 5 answer as true or false.
(A) 1, , 2, ,....... (p) – 4
2 2
1 5 9 13 66. In an AP with first term a and common difference
(B) , , , ,....... (q) 0.2 d, the n th term (or the general term) is given by
3 3 3 3
(C) 1.8, 2.0, 2.2, 2.4 (r) 4/3 an = a + (n – 1)d.
(D) 0, – 4, –8, –12 (s) 1/2 67. If is the last term of the finite AP, say the nth term, then
the sum of all terms of the AP is given by :
56. Column-I Column-II
(A.P.) (nth term) S = n (a + )
(A) 119, 136, 153, 170 ...... (p) 13 – 3n 2
68. The balance money ( in `) after paying 5% of the total
(B) 7, 11, 15, 19, ....... (q) 9 – 5n loan of ` 1000 every month is 950, 900, 850, 800, . . . 50.
(C) 4, –1, –6, –11, ...... (r) 3 + 4n represented A.P.
(D) 10, 7, 4, 3, ...... (s) 17n + 102 69. 2, 4, 8, 16, ............. is not an A.P.
70. 10th term of A.P. 2, 7, 12, ......... is 45.
Fill in the Blanks
71. 301 is a term of A.P. 5, 11, 17, 23, ............. .
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an 72. The general form of an A.P. is a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d,
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). .............
57. 4, 10, 16, 22, ........, .......... . 73. In an Arithmetic progression, the first term is denoted by
58. 1, –1, –3, – 5, ....... , ......... . ‘a ’ and ‘d ’ is called the common difference.
59. 11th term from last term of an A.P. 10, 7, 4......... , – 62, is 74. If an+1 – an = same for all ‘n’, then the given numbers
......... . form an A.P.
60. In a flower bed, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 75. If Sn of A.P. is 3n2 + 2n, then the first term of A.P. is 3.
in the second, 19 in the third, and so on. There are 5 rose
plants in the last row. Number of rows in the flower bed
is ............... .
Arithmetic Progressions M-91
n ⇒ x = 1
Sn = 2a + ( n − 1) d
2 However, the common difference is 2x and not x
n n ( n + 1) ∴ When x = 1, d = 2x = 2
= 2 × 2 + ( n − 1) 2 =
2 2 13. (d) Let d be the common difference
n 2S n
17. (b) We have, S = ( a + ) ⇒ = n …(i) Sr = [2(r ) + (n − 1)(2r − 1)]
2 a+ 2
Adding S1, S2, S3, ......., Sr, we have
−a −a
Also, = a + (n − 1) d ⇒ d = = n r (r + 1) r
n −1 2S S1 + S2 + ... + Sr = (2) + (n − 1) [1 + 2r − 1]
−1 2 2 2
a+
n
2 − a 2 = r (r + 1) + (n − 1)r 2
= \ k = 2S 2
2 S − ( + a )
nr nr
= [ r + 1 + nr − r ] = [ nr + 1]
18. (a) 2 2
2n n According to question,
20. (c) Given, {2.2 + (2n − 1)3} = {2.57 + (n − 1)2}
2 2 1
S5 = ( S10 – S5 ) , 4S5 = S10 – S5, 5S5 = S10
4
or 2 (6n + 1) = 112 + 2n
or 10n = 110 ∴ n = 11 5 10
5 {2 × 2 + (5 –1)d } = [2 × 2 + (10 –1)d ]
21. (b) 2 2
22. (b) n
Sn = ( 2a + (n – 1) d
23. (b) Let x be the common difference of the A.P. 2
a, b, c, d, e, f. 5 10
⇒ 5 × (4 + 4d ) [4 + 9d ]
∴ e = a + (5 – 1)x 2 2
[∵ an = a + (n – 1)d] ⇒ 20 + 20d = 8 + 18d
⇒ e = a + 4x ...(i) ⇒ d = – 6
and c = a + 2x ...(ii) 30 30
S30 = [2 × 2 + (30 – 1) (–6)] = [4 + 29 × (–6)]
∴ Using equations (i) and (ii), we get 2 2
e – c = a + 4x – a – 2x 30 –5100
= × (–170) = = – 2550
⇒ e – c = 2x = 2(d – c). 2 2
24. (b) Common terms will be 21, 41, 61, ........ 29. (a) Since, the general term of sum of odd natural
21 + (n – 1) 20 ≤ 417 number in the group is = n (2n)2 = 4n × n2 = 4n3
Hence, the required sum of numbers in the 10th group =
⇒ n ≤ 20.8 ⇒ n = 20
4 × 103 = 4000
Arithmetic Progressions M-93
30. (c) Given, Sm = n and Sn = m Dividing each term by (a + b + c),
m a+b+c a+b+c a+b+c
Sm = [2a + (m − 1)d ] = n ...(i) , , are in A.P.
2 a (a + b + c) b (a + b + c) c (a + b + c)
n 1 1 1
Sn = [2a + (n − 1)d ] = m ...(ii) , , are in A.P.
2 a b c
On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get 38. Given that
a6 = a + 5d = 16000 ..... (i)
(m − n ) d a9 = a + 8d = 22600 ..... (ii)
2a + [m(m − 1) − n(n − 1)] = n − m
2 2 – – –
d –3d = – 6600 ⇒ d = 2200
(m – n)a + (m – n)(m + n –1) = – (m – n) ⇒ a = 5000
2
\ Production during first year = 5000
⇒ 2a + (m + n –1) d = –2 [m ≠ n]
39. Production during 8th year is (a + 7d) = 5000 + 2(2200)
m+n
\ Sm + n = [(2a + (m + n − 1)d ]
2 = 20400
m+n 40. Production during first 3 year = 5000 + 7200 + 9400
= ( − 2) = −(m + n)
2
= 21600
31. (a) a1 = 2, d = 4
41. 5000 + (n – 1) 2200 = 29200 ⇒ n = 12th year
n
[ 2a1 + (n − 1)d ] 42. Difference = (a + 6d) – (a + 3d) = 3d = 6600
Mn = 2 = 2(n + 1) − 2 = 2n
n 43. (b)
10 10 44. (c) an = 51 – (n – 1)2 = 31 ⇒ n = 11
\ ∑ M n = 2 ∑ n = 110 45. (b) an = 51 – (n – 1)2 = 30 ⇒ n = 11.5 (not possible)
n =1 n =1
32. (a) Since there is a common difference option (a), 46. (a) d = a2 – a1 = [2(2) +3] – [2(1) + 3] = 2
d = 0.4 – 0.2 = 0.6 – 0.4 = 0.2 47. (a) 2(x + 10) = 2x + 3x + 2 ⇒ x = 6
33. (c) Put n + 1 in place of n in Tn = 6n + 5 48. (a) 49. (d)
34. (b)
n 50. (a) Both are correct. Reason is the correct reasoning for
35. (a) Sn = 513; [2(54) + (n – 1)(– 3)] = 513 assertion.
2
10
⇒ n(108 – 3n + 3) = 1026 Assertion : S10 = [ 2(−0.5) + (10 − 1) (−0.5)]
⇒ n2 – 37n + 342 = 0 2
⇒ n2 – 19n – 18n + 342 = 0 = 5 [−1 − 4.5] = 5(−5.5) = 27.5
⇒ n(n – 19) – 18(n – 19) = 0 51. (d) Assertion is incorrect.
⇒ (n – 18) (n – 19) = 0 ⇒ n = 18 or n = 19
Assertion : Even natural numbers divisible by 5 are
36. (d) t1 = 2(1) – 1 = 1
10, 20, 30, 40, ..........
t2 = 2(2) – 1 = 3, t3 = 2(3) – 1 = 5 and so on.
They form an A.P. with a = 10, d = 10
\ t1 + t2 + t3 +…+ tn = 1 + 3 + 5 +…[2(n) – 1]
100
n n
= [2 + (n – 1)2] = (2 + 2n – 2) = n2
S100 = [ 2(10) + 99(10)] = 50500
2
2 2
Reason is correct.
b+c−a c+a−b a+b−c 52. (a) Both are correct. Reason is the correct explanation.
37. (c) , , are in A.P.
a b c
Assertion : an = 7 – 4n
Adding 2 to each term
d = an + 1 – an= 7 – 4 (n + 1) – (7 – 4n)
b+c−a c+a−b a+b−c
+2, +2, + 2 are in A.P. = 7 – 4n – 4 – 7 + 4n = – 4.
a b c
a+b+c a+b+c a+b+c 53. (c) Assertion is correct. Reason is incorrect.
, , are in A.P.
a b c a10 = a + 9d = 5 + 9(3) = 5 + 27 = 32.
M-94 Mathematics
54. (a)
Both are correct and Reason is the correct
3 + 15
explanation for the Assertion. 62. 72 8 etc.
2
55. (A) → (s); (B) → (r); (C) → (q); (D) → (p)
63. 11 [S2 = 4(2)2 – 2 ⇒ 14
3 1
(A) Common difference = d = −1 = S1 = 4(1)2 – 1 ⇒ 3 etc.]
2 2
5 1 4 64. another A.P.
d= − =
(B)
3 3 3 65. 70336 [Hint : S = 105 + 112 + ... 994 and 105 + (n – 1)7
d = 2 – 1.8 = 0.2
(C) = 994 ⇒ 105 + 7n – 7 = 994 ⇒ n = 128 etc.]
d = – 4 – 0 = – 4.
(D) 66. True
56. (A) → (s); (B) → (r); (C) → (q); (D) → (p) 67. True
13 – 3n = 13 – 3(1) = 10 68. True
9 – 5n = 9 – 5(1) = 4 69. True
3 + 4n = 3 + 4(1) = 7 70. False
17n + 102 = 17(1) + 102 = 119 71. False
57. 28, 34 72. True
58. –7, –9 73. True
59. –32 74. True
60. n = 10 75. False
First term = a = a1 = 3 (1)2 + 2(1) = 5
61. 1000 [ 2(1) + (1000 − 1)2]
2
11 Acids, Bases and
Circles
Salts
(a)
∠AQB = 70°, ∠AMB = 110°
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (b)
∠AQB = 110°, ∠AMB = 70°
(c)
∠AQB = 100°, ∠AMB = 50°
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice
(d)
∠AQB = 60°∠AMB = 40°
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out
of which only one is correct. 5. A tangent CQ touches a circle
A
with centre O at P. Diameter AB
1. Two circles with centres O Q
is produced to meet the tangent O
R
and P, and radii 8 cm and at C. If ∠ACP = a° and
T
4 cm touch each other S ∠BPC = b°, the relation
B
3. A ball is in the rest position 8. AB and CD are two chords of a circle intersecting at the
against a step PQ. If PQ = 10 point P outside the circle. If PA = 12 cm, CD = 7cm and
cm and QR = 15 cm, then find PC = 15 cm, then AB is equal to
diameter of the ball. (a) 15.5 cm (b) 4 cm
P
(a) 16 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm
(b) 32.5 cm Q R 9. In the figure below (not to scale), AB = CD and AB and
(c) 28 cm CD are produced to meet at the point p.
(d) 42 cm A
C B
R
B
O
60°
40°
l P
A P A T
(a) 50° (b) 55° (c) 60° (d) 70°
(a) 45° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 90°
18. Three circles with radii R1, R2 and r touch each other
12. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle and D, E and F externally as shown in the adjoining figure. If PQ is their
are mid points of AB, BO and OA respectively. If ∠DEF common tangent and R1 > R2, then which of the following
= 30°, then ∠ACB is relations is correct?
C (a) R1 – R2 = r
P
(b) R1 + R2 = 2r
R1 R
1 1 1 Q
O (c) + =
F E R1 R 2 r R2
1 1 1
A B (d) + =
D R1 R2 r
19. Two circles, both of radii a touch each other and each of them
(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 120º touches internally a circle of radius 2a. Then the radius of the
circle which touches all the three circles is
13. In the below diagram, O is the centre of the circle, AC is
the diameter and if ∠APB = 120°, then ∠BQC is 1 2 3
(a) a (b) a (c) a (d) a
2 3 4
C 20. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle and OA = CD,
O
then ∠CPD is
Q
O
A B
A
B
P
C D
(a) 30° (b) 150° (c) 90° (d) 120°
14. In two concentric circles, if chords are drawn in the outer
P
circle which touch the inner circle, then (a) 45° (b) 30° (c) 70° (d) 60°
(a) all chords are of different lengths. 21. In figure ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and ∠ADC = 80°,
(b) all chords are of same length. ∠ACD = 50°, then ∠CBD is:
Circles M-97
(b) In a circle, the perpendicular from the centre to a chord
C B bisects the chord.
(c) The point common to a circle and its tangent is called
the point of contact.
O (d) Adjacent angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are
D A supplementary.
29. Which of the following statement(s) is / are not correct ?
(a) 60° (b) 130° (c) 50° (d) 40° (a) The length of tangent from an external point P on
circle with centre O is always less than OP.
22. In the given figure, AC is the diameter of the circle.
(b) The tangent to the circumcircle of an isosceles triangle
ED || AC, ∠CBE = 65°, then ∠DEC is ABC at A, in which AB = AC, is parallel to BC.
B
(c) If angle between two tangents drawn from a point
P to a circle of radius ‘a’ and centre ‘O’is 90°, then
A C OP = a 2.
O
(d) None of these
E D 30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) If a chord AB subtends an angle of 60° at the centre
(a) 35° (b) 25° (c) 65° (d) 30°
of a circle, then angle between the tangents at A and
23. Let ABCD be a square of side length 1, and G a circle passing B is also 60°.
through B and C, and touching AD. The radius of G is (b) The length of tangent from an external point on a circle
1 is always greater than the radius of the circle.
3 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) If a number of circle touch a given line segment PQ at
8 2 2 8
a point A, then their centres lie on the perpendicular
24. Three circles of radii 1, 2 and 3 units respectively touch bisector of PQ.
each other externally in the plane. The circumradius of the (d) None of these
triangle formed by joining the centers of the circles is
31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(a) 1.5 (b) 2 (c) 2.5 (d) 3
(a) Angle between the tangent line and the radius at the
25. Circles A, B and C are externally D point of contact is 90°.
tangent to each other and internally (b) A circle can have two parallel tangents atmost.
tangent to circle D. Circles A and B A (c) The distance between two parallel tangents drawn to
are congruent. Circle C has radius C a circle is equal to twice of radius.
1 unit and passes through the centre B (d) A line intersecting a circle in two points is called a chord.
of circle D. Then are radius of circle
32. A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a
B is ________ units.
line through the centre O at a point Q so that OQ = 12 cm.
3 6 8 9
(a) (b) (c) (d) Length PQ is :
7 9 9 8
(a) 12 cm (b) 13 cm
26. The length of tangent drawn from a point Q to a circle
(c) 8.5 cm (d) 119 cm
is 24 cm and distance of Q from the centre of circle is
25 cm. The radius of circle is 33. In fig. if TP and TQ are the two tangents to a circle with
(a) 7 cm (b) 12 cm centre O so that ∠POQ = 110°, then ∠PTQ is equal to
(c) 15 cm (d) 24.5 cm T
47. Assertion: If in a cyclic quadrilateral, one angle is 40°, 51. If an isosceles ∆ABC in which AB = AC = 6 cm is inscribed
then the opposite angle is 140° in a circle of radius 9 cm, then
A
Reason: Sum of opposite angles in a cyclic quadrilateral 6 cm 6 cm
P
is equal to 360° B C
59. The tangent to a circle is .............. to the radius through 69. A tangent to a circle is a line that intersects the circle at
the point of contact. only one point.
70. Two equal chords of a circle are always parallel.
60. There are exactly two tangents to a circle passing through
a point lying ........... the circle. 71. A line drawn from the centre of a circle to a chord always
bisects it.
61. The lengths of the two tangents from an external point to
72. Line joining the centers of two intersecting circles always
a circle are ............. .
bisect their common chord.
62. The tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle 73. In a circle, two chords PQ and RS bisect each other. Then
are .................. . PRQS is a rectangle.
Circles M-101
⇒ a2 + 2ar + r2
+ = 4a2 r2 – 4ar + a2
\ OM bisects the chord BC
2 a
⇒ 6ar = 4a2 ⇒ r = 1 1
3 \ CM = MB = BC = (∵ BC = 1)
2 2
20. (d) In the given figure, ODC is
⇒ OM = MN – ON = 1 – r
equilateral triangle
A x
O
B In DOMC, OC2 = OM2 + CM2
⇒ ∠ODC = ∠OCD = 60° y
2
Ê 1ˆ
⇒ r2 = (1 – r)2 + Á ˜
x y
Now, in quadrilateral ABCD C
60° 60°
Ë 2¯
D
⇒ x + x + 60° + y + y + 60° = 360°
1 5
⇒ x + y = 120° ⇒ r2 = 1 – 2r + r2 + ⇒r=
P 4 8
Circles M-103
24. (c) Since, radii of circles are 1, 2 and 3 units. 26. (a) Here, O is the centre of circle.
∴ Side of ∆ABC are AB = 5, BC = 3, AC = 4
C
1
1
2
3
B
3
2
Let r be the radius of circle r = (25) 2 − (24) 2
A
= 625 − 576 = 49
= 7 cm
∴ ∆ABC is formed a right angled triangle, where AB is
27. (b) 28. (d)
hypotenuse of triangle.
29. (d) All the three statements are correct.
Since, circumradius of a right angled triangle is the half
of the hypotenuse. 30. (d) All the three statements are false.
1 1 31. (d)
∴ Circumradius = × AB = × 5 = 2.5
2 2
32. (d) O is the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle
25. (c) In ∆MAN is 5 cm.
(2 – r)2 = x2 + r2
⇒ 4 + r2 – 4r = x2 + r2 O
4(1 – r) = x2 ⇒ 4 – 4r = x2 12 c m 5 cm
Q
2
4− x
⇒ r= P
4
PQ is tangent to the circle at P. Then,
OP = 5 cm and ∠OPQ = 90°.
r B
1
1M
r
x N We are given that OQ = 12 cm.
C
1 2–r r
r A
By Pythagoras Theorem, we have
PQ2 = OQ2 – OP2 = (12)2 – (5)2 = 144 – 25 = 119
⇒ PQ = 119 cm .
In ∆CAN, (1 + x)2 + r2 = (1 + r)2
33. (b) In figure, TPOQ is a quadrilateral.
1 + x2 + 2x + r2 = 1 + r2 = 2r
Here, ∠OPT = ∠OQT = 90° ⇒ ∠PTQ + ∠POQ = 180°
⇒ x2 +2x = 2r ⇒ x2 = 2r – 2x
⇒ ∠PTQ + ∠110° = 180° ⇒ ∠PTQ = 70°.
4 − x2
⇒ x2 = 2 − 2x 34. (a) In figure
4
P
2
4− x
⇒ x2 = − 2x
°
40 40°
2
⇒ 2x2 = 4 – x2 – 4x ⇒ 3x2 + 4x – 4 = 0
A
B
2
⇒ x = , x = −2.
3
∆OAP ≅ ∆OBP (SSS congruence)
2
2 4
4− ⇒ ∠POA = ∠POB = ∠AOB ... (i)
r = 4−
3
= 9 ⇒ 36 − 4 = 32 ⇒ 8 .
4 4 36 36 9
Also, ∠AOB + ∠APB = 180°
M-104 Mathematics
⇒ ∠AOB + 80° = 180° B
1
∠POA = × 100° = 50°.
2
47. (c) Angle + 40° = 180°
35. (b)
Angle = 180° – 40° = 140°.
36. (c)
48. (a)
37. (c) ∵ ∠ROQ + ∠RPQ = 180°
⇒ ∠ROQ = 180° − 30° = 150° 49. (A) → (s); (B) → (p); (C) → (q); (D) → (r)
38. (a) ∵ ∠RQP = ∠QRP 50. (A) → (r); (B) → (p); (C) → (q); (D) → (s)
and ∠RQP + ∠QRP + ∠QPR = 180° 51. (A) → (r); (B) → (q); (C) → (s); (D) → (p)
⇒ 2∠RQP = 180° − 30° ⇒ ∠RQP = 75° OP ⊥ BC, Let AP = x cm and PB = CP = y cm
1 1
39. (b) ∠RSQ = ∠ROQ = × 150° = 75° On applying Pythagoras in ∆APB and ∆OPB, we have
2 2
36 = y2 + x2 and 81 = (9 – x)2 + y2
40. (a) 90° [∵ OR ⊥ RP]
On solving these, we get, x = 2 cm and y = 4 2 cm.
Sol. (41-45)
C 1 1
Area of ∆ABC = (BC × AP) = × 8 2 × 2 = 8 2 cm2.
10-x 2 2
10-x
52. (A) → (s); (B) → (r); (C) → (q); (D) → (p)
F E
O AD = AF = x cm, BD = BE = y cm, CE = CF = z cm
x 12-x
(∵ tangents drawn from an exterior point to a circle are
B equal in length).
A x D 12-x
AB = 8 cm ⇒ AD + BD = 8 ⇒ x + y = 8 ... (i)
BC = 10 – x + 12 – x = 8 Similarly, BE + CE = 10
⇒ x = 7.
⇒ y + z = 10 ... (ii)
41. (a) AD = 7 cm
z + x = 12
and ... (iii)
42. (b) BE = 12 – x = 12 – 7 = 5 cm
Adding equations (i) + (ii) + (iii),
43. (d) CF = 10 – x = 10 – 7 = 3 cm
⇒ x + y + z = 15 ... (iv)
1
44. (c) Ar DOAB = × AB × OD Thus, on solving (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2
we get, AD = x cm = 5 cm
1
= × 12 × 4 = 24 cm 2 BE = y cm = 3 cm
2
45. (b) Ar DABC = Ar DAOB + Ar DOBC + Ar DAOC CF = z cm = 7 cm
= 25 − 9 = 4 cm
12 Acids, Bases and
Constructions
Salts
equal distance points are marked on the ray AX such that
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) the minimum number of these point is
(a) 2 (b) 5
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice (c) 4 (d) 7
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out 6. The sides of a triangle (in cm) are given below. In which
of which only one is correct. case, the construction of triangle is not possible.
(a) 8, 7, 3 (b) 8, 6, 4
1. To draw tangent from an exterior point ‘P’ to a circle using
(c) 8, 4, 4 (d) 7, 6, 5
the centre ‘O’ of the circle, first we
7. Given a triangle with side AB = 8 cm. To get a line segment
(a) join P to O.
3
(b) draw tangent from P to the circle. AB' = of AB, it is required to divide the line segment
4
(c) draw secant from P which intersects the circle at two
points. AB in the ratio
(d) draw perpendicular at P to PO. (a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
2. To divide a line segment AB of any length in the ratio
8. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined
2 : 5, first draw a ray AX (or BX) making an acute angle
to each other at an angle of 70°, it is required to draw
with AB. Then, draw 7 arcs intersecting the ray at X1,
tangents at end points of those two radii of the circle, the
X2, X3, X4, X5, X6 and X7 such that AX1 = X1X2 =
angle between them should be
X2X3 = X3X4 = X4X5 = X5X6 = X6X7. Then join X7B,
(a) 110° (b) 20°
then after
(c) 90° (d) 120°
(a) join X2B
9.
To divide a line segment AB in the ratio p : q (p, q are
(b) draw X2B′ parallel to X7 B, which intersects AB at B′.
positive integers), draw a ray AX so that ∠BAX is an acute
(c) join X5B angle and then mark points on ray AX at equal distances
(d) draw perpendicular from X2 to AB. such that the minimum number of the points is
3. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to (a) greater of p and q (b) p+q
each other at an angle of 45° it is required to draw tangents (c) p + q – 1 (d) pq
at end points of those two radii of the circle, the angle 10. Draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to
between them should be- each other at an angle of 35°, it is required to draw tangents
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 135° at the end points of those two radii of the circle, the angle
4. Which is true? between which is
In order to divide a line segment AB = 6 cm, in the radio (a) 105° (b) 70°
3 : 5, we draw a ray AX making an acute angle ∠BAX. (c) 140° (d) 145°
Along AX mark off.... points A1, A2, A3 etc. such that 11. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 4 : 7, a ray AX
AA1 = A1A2 = etc., The number of points is is drawn first such that ∠BAX is an acute angle and then
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 2 points A1, A2, A3, ..... are located at equal distance on the
ray AX and the point B is joined to
5. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 2 : 5, first a ray
(a) A12 (b) A11 (c) A10 (d) A9
AX is drawn, so that ∠BAX is an acute angle and then at
Constructions M-107
DIRECTIONS : Given below question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements
(A, B, C, D,....) in Column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s,....) in Column-II.
12. To draw tangents from an exterior point P to a circle, drawn using a bangle, each step of continue diagram in random order is
given in column I and how to draw each steps of continue diagram is written in different random order in column II match
the items in two columns.
Column-I Column-II
O A
R B
P
T
O A
R B
P
O A
R B
P
T
(G) (v) With centre O and radius OB (or OR), draw a semi-circle.
A
R B
P
(H) (w) With centre P and radius PQ draw arcs intersecting the
circle drawn using the bangle at S and T.
O A
R B
P
DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s). answer as true or false.
13. Two circles are called concentric if both have ............ 16. We can not draw the tangent to a circle at a given point on
centre and ............ radii. it, when the centre of the circle is not known.
14. To construct a triangle we must know atleast its ............ 17. We can draw the tangents to a circle from a point outside
parts. it (external point), only when its centre is known.
15. To construct the tangents to a circle from a external point
18. Construction of a triangle is not possible if AB + BC < AC.
if distance of point from centre of circle is ............ radius
of circle. 19. To draw the perpendicular bisector of line segment PQ,
1
we open the compass more than PQ.
2
Constructions M-109
75
B D C (c) m (d) 75 m
2
3 1 8. A professor standing on one end of a football field observes
(a) (b)
4 2 the elevation of the top of a flood light tower at an angle
1 4 of α. He then walks a distance equal to twice the height
(c) (d) of the tower and finds that the elevation of the top is now
2 7
at an angle of 90°– α. What is the value of tanα ?
3. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower, as seen
from two points A and B situated in the same line and at 1 − 2
(a) (b) 2 −1
distance x and y respectively. from the foot of the tower,
(c) 2 (d) 1
are complementary. Find the height of the tower.
(a) x + y (b) xy 9. An electrician has a repair an electric fault on a pole of
height 5 cm. He has to reach a point 1.3 m below the top
xy
(c) (d) x+ y of the pole to undertake the repair work. What should
Some Applications of Trigonometry M-111
be the length of the ladder that he should use which, 16. In the given figure, the positions of the observer and the
when inclined at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, would object are mentioned, the angle of depression is
enable him to reach the required position? Also, how Observer
far from the foot of the pole should he place the foot of
the ladder?
[Take 3 = 1.73].
(a) 4.28 m, 2.14 m
(b) 4.28 m, 2.83 m
(c) 4.6 7m, 2.14 m Object
if BC = 20 m, then
height AB is 11.56 m.
AB perpendicular
Reason : tan θ = = ,
BC base
where θ is the angle ∠ACB.
[From CBSE Question Bank 2021]
Some Applications of Trigonometry M-113
29. Assertion : If the length of shadow of a vertical pole is
equal to its height, then the angle of elevation of the sun Fill in the Blanks
is 45°.
Reason : According to pythagoras theorem, h2 = l2 + b2, DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
where h = hypotenuse, l = length and b = base appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s).
Match the Following 32. The ............... is the line drawn from the eye of an observer
to the point in the object viewed by the observer.
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in two
33. The ............. of an object viewed, is the angle formed by
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in
the line of sight with the horizontal when it is above the
column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column-II.
horizontal level, i.e., the case when we raise our head to
30. From a window, h metres high above the ground, of a house look at the object.
in a street, the angles of elevation and depression of the top
and bottom of another house on the opposite side of the street 34. The ....................... of an object viewed, is the angle formed
are α and β respectively, then match the column. by the line of sight with the horizontal when it is below
E the horizontal level, i.e., the case when we lower our head
to look at the object.
35. In the adjoining figure, the positions of observer and object
α
D
β A are marked.
O
(Observer)
hm
β B
30°
C
P (Object) Horizontal
Column-I Column-II
(A) DB (p) h(1 + tana cotb) The angle of depression is ...............
(B) DE (q) h / sinb
(C) CE (r) h tan a cot b 36. The top of a building from a fixed point is observed at an
(D) AD (s) h cot b angle of elevation 60° and the distance from the foot of
31. Column-I Column-II the building to the point is 100 m. then the height of the
(A) A (p) 60º building is................
60°
60°
B C
3
AB = ?
1
(C)
A
(r) 45°
5 A
40 B C
B
20
C True / False
=?
A
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
(D) (s) 3
answer as true or false.
50 m
of the tower.
30° 60°
C D B
Some Applications of Trigonometry M-115
⇒ OA = 20 m
In ∆OAC,
h + 20
tan 60° =
20
h
h + 20 In rt. ∆BDC, tan (90 – θ) =
⇒ 3 = y
20
h
⇒ h = 20 ( 3 –1 m ) ⇒ cot θ =
y
... (ii)
2. (b) BD = DC given as D is the mid point of BC. Multiplying (i) by (ii), we get
A h h
tan θ × cot θ = ×
x y
1 h2
⇒ tan θ × =
tan θ xy
2
⇒ 1 = h ⇒ h 2 = xy
C xy
B D
⇒ h = xy
AC
In ∆ADC, cot θ = ... (i) 4. (d)
CD
AC
In ∆ABC, cot φ = ... (ii)
BC
AC
cot θ CD
∴ =
cot φ AC
BC
AC
= CD [∵ 2CD = BC] Let the broken part of the ladder, AC = x metres
AC
2CD ∴ length of ladder = AC + AB = 15 m
cot θ 2
⇒ = ⇒ x + AB = 15 ⇒ AB = (15 – x)m
cot φ 1
In ∆ ABC,
tan θ 1
⇒ =
tan φ 2 AB 15 − x 3 15 − x
sin 60° = = ⇒ =
3. (b) Let DC be the tower of height ‘h’ metres. AC x 2 x
⇒ x=
30
=
(
30 2 − 3 ) From (i) and (ii)
tan2α + 2tanα – 1 = 0
( )
3 + 2 ( 2 )2 − 3 2
∴ tan α = 2 − 1
⇒ x = 30 ( 2 − 3 ) = 8.04 m
9. (a)
In figure, the electrician is required to reach the point
Hence, AB = 15 – x = (15 – 8.04)m = 6.96 m B on the pole AD.
5. (a) Let h be the length of the pole. A
6 h
By the given condition =
4 50
B
6 × 50
⇒ h = = 75m
4
60°
6. (a)
Here, In rt. ∆ABD, A
D C
h
+ BC So, BD = AD – AB = (5 – 1.3)
BD
cot α = = 2 ....(i) = 3.7 m
AB h
also, In rt. ∆ABC,
hm BD 3.7 3
So, sin 60° = ⇒ =
BC BC BC BC 2
cot β = =
AB h 3.7 × 2
α β ∴ BC = = 4.28 m (Approx.)
Now, cot α – cot β 3
D C B
h m
h 2 i.e., the length of the ladder should be 4.28 m
+ BC BC
2 1
= − = DC 1
h h 2 Now, = cot 60° =
BD 3
7. (a)
A
3.7
i.e., DC = = 2.14m (Approx )
3
15 dge
0m
i
River River
distance of 2.14 m from the pole.
45°
C B
10. (b)
Let A1 and A2 be the position of the two aeroplanes.
and A1A2 = x m
x 1
= sin 45° = OM = y m
150 2
150 2 y
⇒ x= . = 75 2 m. = cot 30° = 3
2 2 3125
Let OB = x m.
A2
h
tan α = ...(i) 60° 3125 m
2h + x
30°
h O M
tan(90° − α ) = ⇒ x = tanα ... (ii) y
x
Some Applications of Trigonometry M-117
y 1 C
Also, = cot 60° =
3125 + x 3
⇒
(3125) 3
=
1
3125 + x 3
⇒ 3125 + x = (3125) (3) ⇒ x = 6250 m.
BC
11. (d) Hint: sin 30° = A 15 m B
AC
1 BC In ∆ ABC,
⇒ = ⇒ BC = 3 cm.
2 6
BC
AB = tan 45°
12. (c) Hint: tan30° = BA
OB
⇒ BC = AB = 15 m.
A
30° 16. (c) ∠ XCA = ∠CAB = 60°
1 3y
⇒ = (Q From (i))
3 20 + y
⇒ y + 20 = 3y
⇒ 2y = 20 ⇒ y = 10 m
18. (b) R
A
C B
∴ AB = BC D
Q
In ∆ ABC,
B
C
AB AB Taking DARC and DBQC
tan θ = ⇒ = tan θ ⇒ tan θ = 1 ⇒ θ = 45°
BC AB
R Q
⇒ tan q = 1 ⇒ q = 45°
45 20
15. (d) Let BC be the tree of height h metre.
90 –
Let AB be the shadow of tree. A C B C
M-118 Mathematics
tan(90 – q) = cotq 20. (b) In figure,
20 AC y
= (let AC = BC = AB = x m) tan a = and
BC 45 x
h
x2 = 900 ⇒ x = 30 tan b =
x
Now, in D ARD and BQD
tan α y
\ =
45 20 AD 9 tan β h
= = tan θ ⇒ =
AD BD BD 4
tan α
h + y = h 1 +
9 10 tan β
AD = × 30 = 20 m
13 13
21. (d)
19. (a) Let PQRS be the rectangular field with length l and 22. (d) All the statements given in option a, b and c are correct.
width b and RT be the vertical pole.
23. (b) A
T
42 m
60°
S R
C 42 m B
30°
Since h = 42
P Q d = 42
So q = 45°
RT 1 10
In ∆PRT, tan 30° = ⇒ = 42
PR 3 PR 24. (a) tan 60° =
x
PR = l 2 + b 2 = 10 3 42 42
x= = 3 = 14 3 = 24.24 m
3 3
l2 + b2 = 100 × 3 = 300 ... (i)
25. (a) A
10
In ∆SRT, tan 60° =
SR
10
⇒ 3= h
SR
10
SR = =l 60°
3 C 20 m B
100 h
⇒ l2 = ... (ii) tan 60° =
3 20
Use equation (ii) in (i), then h = 20 3 m
100 800 26. (b)
b2 = 300 − = A
3 3
100 800 80000
l2b2 = × =
3 3 9 x
200 2
⇒ lb = 45°
3 C B
x
Hence, the required area of rectangular field is
Since ratio of length of a rod: Shadow of rod = 1:1
200 2 .
3 so Angle = 45°
Some Applications of Trigonometry M-119
27. (a) Corresponding angle 32. line of sight
28. (a) Both the assertion and reason are correct, reason is 33. angle of elevation
the correct explanation of the assertion.
34. angle of depression
AB AB
tan30° = = 35. 30°
BC 20
1 20 36. 100 3 m
AB = × 20 = = 11.56 m.
3 1.73 37. [30°, 45°]
29. (b)
Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is O2 O1
F E
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
60°
30. (A) → q; (B) → r; (C) → p; (D) → s
31. (A) → q ; (B) → s ; (C) → p ; (D) → r
AB 45°
(A) tan 45° = ⇒ BC = 10 A
BC B C
AB AB Depression angle at O1 = 90° – 60° = 30°
tan 60° =
(B) = ⇒ AB = 3 × 3 = 3
BC 3 Depression angle at O2 = 45° = ∠BAO2
20 1 38. True
(C)
cos θ = = = cos 60º ⇒ θ = 60º
40 2
AB 39. False
(D) In ∆ABC, tan 45° = ⇒ AB = 2, and
BC 40. True
AB 2 1 41. False
tan θ = = = .
BD 10 5
14 Acids,
Surface
Salts
Bases and
Areas
and Volumes
20
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (a)
π 10 cm
50
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice (b)
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out π
of which only one is correct. 25
(c)
π 2 cm
1. The volume of a cylinder is 448 p cm3 and height 7 cm. (d) 40 π
Find its lateral surface area and total surface area is
7. If h be the height and α the semi-vertical angle of a right
(a) 253 cm2 (b) 352 cm2
2
circular cone, then its volume is given by
(c) 532 cm (d) 325 cm2
1 3 1 2
2. The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 m, and 2m long. (a) πh tan 2 α (b) πh tan 2 α
3 3
How much area will it cover in 5 revolutions.
1 1 3
(a) 44 m2 (b) 140 m2 (c) πh 2 tan 3 α (d) πh tan 3 α
2 3 3
(c) 440 m (d) 220 m2
8. Cubes A, B, C having edges of 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm
3. If a sphere and a cube have equal surface areas, then the respectively are melted and moulded into a new cube D.
ratio of the diameter of the sphere to the edge of the cube is Find the edge of the bigger cube D.
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (a) 32 (b) 28
(c) 6: ≠
≠ : 6 (d) (c) 39 (d) 36
4. The internal and external diameter of a hollow 9. The height of a conical tent is 14 m and its floor area is 346.5
hemispherical vessel are 42 cm and 45.5 cm. respectively. m2. The length of canvas, 11m wide, required for it is.
Find its capacity (volume) and also its outer curved (a) 490 m (b) 525 m
surface area. (c) 665 m (d) 860 m
(a) 5.27 litres, 3253.25 cm2
10. Three identical cones with base radius r are placed on
(b) 5.20 litres, 3253.25 cm2 their bases so that each is touching the other two. The
(c) 5.27 litres, 3200.18 cm2 radius of the circle drawn through their vertices is –
(a) smaller than r
(d) 5.27 litres, 3250.25 cm2 (b) equal to r
5. If h, c, v are respectively the height, the C.S.A and the (c) larger than r
(d) depends on the height of the cones
volume of a cone, find the value of 3πvh3 – c2h2 + 9v2
(a) 1 (b) 2 11. The diameter of hollow cone is equal to the diameter of a
(c) 0 (d) 3 spherical ball. If the ball is placed at the base of the cone,
what portion of the ball will be outside the cone?
6. The diagram shows the parts of a right cylinder. The
(a) 50% (b) less than 50%
volume of the cylinder, in cm3 is
(c) more than 50% (d) 100%
Surface Areas and Volumes M-121
12. A slab of ice 8 inches in length, 11 inches in breadth, and 21. In the adjoining figure, the bottom of the
2 inches thick was melted and resolidified in the form of glass has a hemispherical raised portion. If
a rod of 8 inches diameter. The length of such a rod, in the glass is filled with orange juice, the
inches, is nearest to quantity of juice which a person will
15cm
(a) 3 (b) 3.5 get is
(c) 4 (d) 4.5 (a) 135 π cm3
13. The base radii of a cone and a cylinder are equal. If their (b) 117 π cm3
curved surface areas are also equal, then the ratio of the (c) 99 π cm3
slant height of the cone to the height of the cylinder is
6cm
(d) 36 π cm3
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 22. Ratio of lateral surface areas of two cylinders with equal
height is
14. If the perimeter of one face of a cube is 20 cm, then its
(a) 1 : 2 (b) H : h
surface area is
(c) R : r (d) None of these
(a) 120 cm2 (b) 150 cm2
2
(c) 125 cm (d) 400 cm2 23. Ratio of volumes of two cylinders with equal height is
(a) H : h (b) R:r
15. A cube of side 12 cm is painted red on all the faces and
(c) R2 : r2 (d) None of these
then cut into smaller cubes, each of side 3 cm. What is the
total number of smaller cubes having none of their faces 24. Ratio of volumes of two cones with same radii is
painted? (a) h1 : h2 (b) s1 : s2
(a) 16 (b) 8 (c) r1 : r2 (d) None of these
(c) 12 (d) 24 25. Volume of a spherical shell is given by
16. If the diameter of the sphere is doubled, the surface (a) 4π (R2 – r2) (b) π (R3 – r3)
area of the resultant sphere becomes x times that of the 4
(c) 4π (R3 – r3) (d) π (R3 – r3)
original one, then x would be 3
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 8 26. The volume of a largest sphere that can be cut from
cylindrical log of wood of base radius 1m and height 4 m, is
17. If h be the height and α the semi-vertical angle of a right
16 8
circular cone, then its volume is given by (a) ≠ m3 (b) ≠ m3
3 3
1 1 2
(a) πh3 tan 2 α (b) πh tan 2 α 4 10
3 3 (c) ≠ m3 (d) ≠ m3
3 3
1 1
(c) πh 2 tan 3 α (d) πh3 tan 3 α
3 3 27. If four times the sum of the areas of two circular faces
of a cylinder of height 8 cm is equal to twice the curve
18. If the radius of the sphere is increased by 100%, the surface area, then diameter of the cylinder is
volume of the corresponding sphere is increased by (a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm
(a) 200% (b) 500% (c) 2 cm (d) 6 cm
(c) 700% (d) 800%
28. A rectangular sheet of paper 40 cm × 22 cm, is rolled to
19. A sphere is melted and half of the melted liquid is used form a hollow cylinder of height 40 cm. The radius of the
to form 11 identical cubes, whereas the remaining half is cylinder (in cm) is
used to form 7 identical smaller spheres. The ratio of the (a) 3.5 (b) 7
side of the cube to the radius of the new small sphere is (c) 80/7 (d) 5
1/ 3 1/ 3
4 8 29. A right circular cylinder has its height equal to two times
(a) (b)
3 3 its radius. It is inscribed in a right circular cone having
(c) (3)1/3 (d) 2 its diameter equal to 10 cm and height 12 cm, and the
axes of both the cylinder and the cone coincide. Then, the
20. If a solid of one shape is converted to another, then the
volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is approximately
volume of the new solid
(a) 107.5 (b) 118.6
(a) remains same (b) increases
(c) 127.5 (d) 128.7
(c) decreases (d) can’t say
M-122 Mathematics
30. If the ratio of volumes of two cubes is 27 : 64, then the 36. The number of solid cones with integer radius and integer
ratio of their surface area is: height each having its volume numerically equal to its
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 total surface area is
(c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) infinite
31. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 125 : 64. The ratio
of their surface areas will be 37. A solid metallic cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 14
(a) 5 : 4 (b) 25 : 16 cm is melted to make two cones in the proportion of their
(c) 16 : 25 (d) 125 : 64 volumes as 3 : 4, keeping the height 10 cm, what would
be the percentage increase in the flat surface area?
32. A solid metallic block of volume one cubic metre is (a) 9 (b) 16
melted and recast into the form of a rectangular bar of (c) 50 (d) 200
length 9 metres having a square base. If the weight of the
block is 90 kg and biggest cube is cut off from the bar, 38. Given three cubes with integer side lengths, if the sum of
then the weight of the cube is surface areas of three cubes is 498 sq. cm, then the sum
of the volumes of the cubes in all possible solutions is
1 2
(a)
6 kg (b) 5 kg (a) 731 (b) 495
3 3 (c) 1226 (d) None of these
2 1
(c)
4 kg (d) 3 kg 39. Which one of the following is/are incorrect ?
3 3
(a) Total surface area of cuboid is 2(lb + bh + hl)
33. Consider a cuboid all of whose edges are integers and (b) Total surface area of a cube is 4l2
whose base is a square. Suppose the sum of all its edges (c) Area of four walls = 2h (l + b)
is numerically equal to the sum of the areas of all its six (d) Area of four walls = Height × Perimeter of the room
faces. Then, the sum of all its edges is
40. A Circular Cylinder can not be separated into
(a) 12 (b) 18
(a) circular end at the bottom
(c) 24 (d) 36
(b) curved surface
34. Shyam wants to make a solid brick shape structure from (c) circular end at the top
400 wooden cubes of unit volume each. If the sides of (d) None of these
the solid brick have the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then the maximum
41. Which one of the following is / are incorrect ?
number of cubes, which can be used, will be _______.
(a) Total surface area of cylinder is 2πr2 + 2πrh.
(a) 400 (b) 288
(b) Total surface area of a sphere is 4πr2.
(c) 300 (d) 384
(c) Total surface area of cone is πr2 + πrl.
35. Sealed bottle containing some water is made up of two (d) None of these
cylinders A and B of radius 1.5 cm and 3 cm respectively,
42. Which one of the following is/ are made up of
as shown in the figure. When the bottle is placed right up
combinations of two or more of the basic solids?
on a table, the height of water intit is 15 cm, but when
(a) Buildings (b) Funnel
placed upside down the height of water is 24 cm. The
(c) Monuments (d) Test-tube
height of the bottle is
43. Among the following, which one is/are correct?
(a) The slant height is the longest side of a pyramid.
(b) The section between the base and a plane parallel to
the base of a solid is known as frustum.
(c) All the surfaces of a cuboid are square.
15 cm (d) For a cylinder, the top, the bottom and the walls of
24 cm
the cylinder determine the total surface area.
44. If a marble of radius 2.1 cm is put into a cylindrical cup
(a) 25 cm (b) 26 cm full of water of radius 5cm and height 6 cm, then how
(c) 27 cm (d) 28 cm much water flows out of the cylindrical cup?
(a) 38.8 cm3 (b) 55.4 cm3
(c) 19.4 cm3 (d) 471.4 cm3
Surface Areas and Volumes M-123
45. A cubical ice-cream brick of edge 22 cm is to be distributed
among some children by filling ice-cream cones of radius
2 cm and height 7 cm upto its brim. How many children
will get the ice-cream cones? Area = 551 m2
(a) 163 (b) 263 (c) 363 (d) 463 r=7m
46. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be
cut out from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is
(a) 9.7 cm3 (b) 77.6 cm3 49. The volume of cylindrical cup is
3
(c) 58.2 cm (d) 19.4 cm3 (a) 295.75cm3 (b) 7415.5cm3
3
(c) 384.88cm (d) 404.25cm3
47. If two solid hemispheres of same base radius r are joined 50. The volume of hemispherical cup is
together along their bases, then curved surface area of (a) 179.67cm3 (b) 89.83 cm3
this new solid is 3
(c) 172.25 cm (d) 210.60 cm3
(a) 4πr2 (b) 6πr2 (c) 3πr2 (d) 8πr2
51. Which container had more juice and by how much?
48. A right circular cylinder of radius r cm and height h cm (a) Hemispherical cup, 195 cm3
(h > 2r) just encloses a sphere of diameter (b) Cylindrical glass, 207 cm3
(a) r cm (b) 2r cm (c) h cm (d) 2h cm (c) Hemispherical cup, 280.85 cm3
(d) Cylindrical glass, 314.42 cm3
52. The height of the conical tent prepared to accommodate
four students is
DIRECTIONS : Study the given Case/Passage and answer (a) 18m (b) 10m
the following questions. (c) 24m (d) 14m
53. How much space on the ground is occupied by each
Case /Passage-I student in the conicaltent
Adventure camps are the perfect place for the children to (a) 54m2 (b) 38.5m2
practice decision making for themselves without parents and (c) 86m 2 (d) 24m2
teachers guiding their every move. Some students of a school
reached for adventure at Sakleshpur. At the camp, the waiters Case /Passage-II
served some students with a welcome drink in a cylindrical glass
and some students in a hemispherical cup whose dimensions are
shown below. After that they went fora jungle trek. The jungle
trek was enjoyable but tiring. As dusk fell, it was time to take
shelter. Each group of four students was given a canvas of area
551m2. Each group had to make a conical tent to accommodate
all the four students. Assuming that all the stitching and wasting
incurred while cutting, would amount to 1m2, the students put
the tents. The radius of the tent is 7 m.
[From CBSE Question Bank 2021]
61. What is the curved surface area of hemisphere (ice cream) 68. Assertion: No. of spherical balls that can be made out of
if the base radiusis 7cm? a solid cube of lead whose edge is 44 cm, each ball being
(a) 309 cm2 (b) 308 cm2 4 cm. in diameter, is 2541
(c) 803 cm 2 (d) 903 cm2
Volume of one ball
62. Slant height of a cone if the radius is 7cm and the height Reason : Number of balls = .
volume of lead
is 24 cm
(a) 26cm (b) 25 cm
(c) 52 cm (d) 62cm
Surface Areas and Volumes M-125
Column-I Column-II
Match the Following
(A) Area of bottom of cylinder (p) 10.56
(B) Outer curved surface area (q) 1.54
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in
two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, (C) Curved area of conical cavity (r) 5.5
D)in Column-I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) (D) Total surface area (s) 17.6
in Column-II. 72. Column-I (Object) Column-II (Shape)
69. For figure shown, match the column (A) Dice (p) Right circular cone
(B) Road rollers (q) Sphere
Hemisphere (C) Ice-cream cone (r) Cylinder
(D) Volleyball (s) Cube
3.5cm
True / False
20
14. (b) Edge of cube = cm = 5 cm, Q P 12
4 h
r
surface area = 6×52 cm2 = 150 cm2 B
R O S
C
15. (b)
5
16. (c)
17. (a) 30 60
⇒ r = and h =
11 11
18. (c) When the radius is increased by 100%, the
corresponding volume becomes 800% and thus 22 900 60
Volume of cylinder = πr2h = ≈ 127.50
increase is 700%. 7 121 11
19. (b) As per the given conditions,
30. (c) Let a1 and a2 be the sides of two cubes and S1 andS2
4 1/ 3 be the surface area of cubes
11a = 7 × × π × r 3
3 a 8
∴ =
3 r 3 a13 27 a 3 S1 6a12 9
∴ = ⇒ 1 = , = 2 =
20. (a) a23 64 a2 4 S2 6a2 16
= 625 = 25 cm
x = 81 , y = 1,z= 1 ⇒ x = 9, y = 1, z = 1
66. (d) Assertion is incorrect and reason is true.
Sum of volumes = 93 + 13 + 13 = 729 + 1 + 1 = 731
V1 (1 / 3)πr 2 h1 4h
So, total sum of volume of cubes is (495 + 731) 1226. = = 1
39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) V2 (1 / 3)π(r / 2)2 h2 h2
44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b)
V1 = V2
As
49. (d) Volume of cylindrical cup = pr2h
22 7 7 ∴ h2 = 4h1
× × × 10.5 = 404.25 cm3
7 2 2 67. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is
50. (b) Volume of hemispherical cup the correct explanation of the assertion.
3 68. (c) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
2 3 3 22 7
= πr = × × = 89.83 cm3
3 2 7 2 69. (A) → (q); (B) → (p); (C) → (r); (D) → (s)
51. (d) Cylindrical glass, 314.42 cm3
70. (A) → (r); (B) → (s); (C) → (q) ; (D) → (p)
52. (c) Curved surface area of cone = 551 ⇒ prl = 441
22 71. (A) → (q); (B) → (p); (C) → (r); (D) → (s)
⇒ × 7 × l = 551
7
72. (A) → (s); (B) → (r); (C) → (p); (D) → (q)
⇒ l = 25.045
d3
2 2
73. cb. units.
3 3
∴ h = l − r = 24 m
Surface Areas and Volumes M-131
74. cuboid 82. True
75. 49 : 25 83. True
76. space 84. True
77. 96 cm2 85. False
78. 3 units 86. True
79. 15 cm 87. False
80. True 88. True
81. False
15 Acids, Bases and
Statistics
Salts
4. The mean weight of a class of 35 students is 45kg.
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) If the weight of a teacher be included, the mean
weight increases by 500 grams. Find the weight of
DIRECTIONS : This section contains multiple choice the teacher.
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out (a) 63 kg (b) 61 kg
of which only one is correct.
(c) 64 kg (d) 70 kg
1. For the following grouped frequency distribution 5. In the following distribution
Class 3–6 6–9 9–12 12–15 15–18 18–21 21–24
Monthly income range (in `) Number of families
Frequency 2 5 10 23 21 12 3
Income more than ` 10,000 100
Consider the following. Income more than ` 13,000 85
(I) Lower limit of model class is 12 Income more than ` 16,000 69
(II) Frequency of the class preceding the model class = 10 Income more than ` 19,000 50
(III) Mode = 14.6 Income more than ` 22,000 33
(IV) Width of the model class is 4 Income more than ` 25,000 15
Which of the following is correct? the number of families having income range (in `)
(a) I and II (b) II and III 16000 – 19000 is
(c) I, II and III (d) All of these (a) 15 (b) 16
(c) 17 (d) 19
2. The marks in science of 80 students of class X are given
below. Find the mode of these marks obtained by the 6. Find the mean of the following frequency distribution.
students in science. Class Interval 0–10 10–20 20–30 30–40 40–50
Marks 0–10 10–20 20–30 30–40 40–50 Frequency 8 12 10 11 9
Frequency 3 5 16 12 13
(a) 25. 3 (b) 25.2
Marks 50–60 60–70 70–80 80–90 90–100
Frequency 20 5 4 1 1 (c) 24 (d) 25.5
7. Calculate the mean of the following frequency distribution:
(a) 53.18 (b) 53.25
C. I. 0–80 80–160 160–240 240–320 320–400
(c) 52.25 (d) 53
Frequency 22 35 44 25 24
3. There are three sections A, B and C in class X with 25,
(a) 195.5 (b) 198.8
40 and 35 students respectively. The average marks
obtained by section A, B and C are 70%, 65% and (c) 196.8 (d) 195
50% respectively. Find the average marks of entire 8. If the mean of first ‘n’ odd natural numbers is ‘n’ itself,
class X. what is the value of ‘n’?
(a) 59% (b) 56% (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 63% (d) 61% (c) 1 (d) Any natural number
Statistics M-133
9. What is the arithmetic mean of 20 fours, 40 fives, 30 sixes 17. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10
and 10 tens? and the width of the class is 6. The lower limit of the class
(a) 50 (b) 25 is
(c) 5.6 (d) 33 (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 12
10. The mean of discrete observations y1, y2, .........., yn is given 18. If the mean of the observations x, x + 3, x + 5, x + 7 and
by x + 10 is 9, then the mean of the last three observations is
1 2
n n
(a)
10 (b) 10
∑y i ∑y i 3 3
(a) i =1
(b) i =1
n 1 2
n (c)
11 (d) 11
∑i
i =1
3 3
19. The mean of fifteen different natural numbers is 13. The
n n
maximum value for the second largest of these numbers
∑y f i i ∑y f i i
is
(c) i =1
(d) i =1
n
n (a) 46 (b) 51 (c) 52 (d) 53
∑f i
i =1 20. For the data (2, 9, x + 6, 2x + 3, 5, 10, 5) if mean is 7, then
11. If the mean of the numbers 27 + x, 31 + x, 89 + x, 107 + x, mode is
156 + x is 82, then the mean of 130 + x, 126 + x, 68 + x, (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 10
50 + x, 1 + x is 21. The mean of three positive numbers is 10 more than the
(a) 75 (b) 157 smallest of the numbers and 15 less than the largest of the
(c) 82 (d) 80 three. If the median of the three numbers is 5, then the
mean of squares of the numbers is
12. If the class-intervals are 10 – 19, 20 – 29, 30 – 39, ..............,
then the upper limit of the first class-interval is 2 2
(a)
108 (b) 116
(a) 19.5 (b) 19 3 3
(c) 20 (d) None of these 1 2
(c) 208 (d) 216
13. The numbers 3, 5, 7 and 9 have their respective frequencies 3 3
x – 2, x + 2 , x – 3 and x + 3. If the arithmetic mean is 6.5, 22. Positive integers from 1 to 21 are arranged in 3 groups
then the value of x is of 7 integers each, in some particular order. Then the
(a) 3 (b) 4 highest possible mean of the medians of these 3 groups
is ______
(c) 5 (d) 6
(a) 16 (b) 12.5
14. The median of a set of 9 distinct observations is 20.5. If
(c) 11 (d) 14
each of the largest 4 observation of the set is increased by
2, then the median of the new set 23. The mean of 5 observation is 15. If the mean of first three
(a) is increased by 2 observations is 14 and last three observations is 17, then
the third observation is :
(b) is decreased by 2
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 17 (d) 20
(c) is two times the original median
24. The mean of a group of eleven consecutive natural numbers
(d) remains the same as that of the original set
is m. What will be the percentage change in the mean when
15. A set of numbers consists of three 4’s, five 5’s, six 6’s, next six consecutive natural numbers are included in the
eight 8’s and seven 10’s. The mode of this set of numbers group ?
is m m 300
(a) 6 (b) 7 (a) m% (b) % (c) % (d) %
3 300 m
(c) 8 (d) 10 25. A 100 mark examination was administered to a class of
16. The mean of a set of 20 observation is 19.3. The mean is 50 students. Despite only integer marks being given, the
reduced by 0.5 when a new observation is added to the set. average score of the class was 47.5. Then, the maximum
The new observation is number of students who could get marks more than the
class average is
(a) 19.8 (b) 8.8
(a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 45 (d) 49
(c) 9.5 (d) 30.8
M-134 Mathematics
26. Let x1, x2 , ..., x11 be 11 distinct positive integers. If we 29. The upper limit of modal class is
replace the largest of these integers by the median of the (a) 15 (b) 25
other 10 integers, then
(c) 35 (d) 45
(a) the median remains the same
30. The mean of the given data is
(b) the mean increases
(a) 26.2 (b) 32.4
(c) the median decreases
(c) 33.5 (d) 35.4
(d) the mean remains the same
Refer to table 2
27. The mean of 15 observations written in some order is
50. If the mean of first eight observations and last eight 31. The mode of the given data is
observations are 48 and 53 respectively, then the eighth (a) 41.4 (b) 48.2
observation is (c) 55.3 (d) 64.6
(a) 35 (b) 80 (c) 72 (d) 58
32. The median of the given data is
(a) 32.7 (b) 40.2
(c) 42.3 (d) 48.6
(a) 0-10 (b) 10-20 Life time Number of Life time Number
(c) 20-30 (d) 30-40 (hours) tubes (hours) of tubes
Refer to data received from Colony B 300 – 399 14 800 – 899 62
400 – 499 46 900 – 999 48
36. The modal weekly consumption is
500 – 599 58 1000 – 1099 22
(a) 38.2 units (b) 43.6 units
600 – 699 76 1100 – 1199 6
(c) 26 units (d) 32 units
700 – 799 68
37. The mean weekly consumption is
Column-II gives data for description given in Column-I,
(a) 15.65 units (b) 32.8 units
match them correctly.
(c) 38.75 units (d) 48 units
Column-I Column-II
Assertion & Reason (A) Upper limit of the fifth class (p) 100
(B) Lower limit of the eighth class (q) 949.5
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains an Assertion
(C) Class marks of the seventh class (r) 1000
followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the
question on the basis of following options. You have to select (D) Class interval size (s) 799
the one that best describes the two statements. 42. Following is the distribution of heights of students in a
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is class and the total number of students is 50.
the correct explanation of Assertion.
Height (in cm) Frequency Cumulative
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is
frequency
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 150 – 155 12 a
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. 155 – 160 b 25
38. Assertion : The arithmetic mean of the following given 160 – 165 10 c
frequency distribution table is 13.81. 165 – 170 d 43
x 4 7 10 13 16 19 170 – 175 e 48
f 7 10 15 20 25 30 175 – 180 2 f
Reason : x =
∑ fi xi . With the help of information given match the columns.
∑ fi
Column-I Column-II
39. Assertion : If the number of runs scored by 11 players of
a cricket team of India are 5, 19, 42, 11, 50, 30, 21, 0, 52, (Unknown) (Values)
36, 27 then median is 30. (A) a= (p) 35
th
n +1 (B) b= (q) 5
Reason : Median = value, if n is odd.
2 (C) c= (r) 13
40. Assertion : If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 (D) d= (s) 50
respectively, then the value of median is 64. (E) e= (t) 12
1 (F) f= (u) 8
Reason : Median = (mode + 2 mean).
2
M-136 Mathematics
43. 46. For the given frequency distribution, match the Column-I
Column-I Column-I with Column-II.
(A) The arithmetic th Class 30–35 35–40 40–45 45–50 50–55 55–60 60–65
n +1
mean of a set of (p) Value of the Frequency 14 16 18 23 18 8 3
observations is observation. 2
h = width of the class interval
obtained by
c = cumulative frequency
(B) The value of 1 f = frequency of the class interval to which median belongs
the observation (q) × Value of
2 l1 = lower limit of the median class interval
having maximum
frequency is called n th n th Column-I Column-II
+ + 1
2 f
(A) (p) 45.4
2
observations. c
(B) (q) 45
(C) If n is odd, then (r) Median l1
(C) (r) 48
median is equal to (D) median (s) 23
(D) If n is even, then (s) Mode
median is equal to
Fill in the Blanks
(E) – divides the (t) Dividing the sum of the
arranged series values of observations by
(in ascending or the number of observations DIRECTIONS : Complete the following statements with an
descending order) parts. appropriate word / term to be filled in the blank space(s).
into two equal parts. 47. Median divides the total frequency into .......... equal parts.
44. 48. The algebraic sum of the deviations from arithmetic
Column-I Column-II mean is always ...............
(A) Mean of first five prime numbers is (p) 12 49. The class mark of a class is 25 and if the upper limit of
(B) Mean of all factors of 24 is (q) 7.5 that class is 40, then its lower limit is ...................
(C) Mean of first six multiples of 4 is (r) 5.6 50. The mid-value of 20-30 is .................
(D) If mean of x – 5y, x – 3y, x – y, (s) 14 51. The sum of 12 observations is 600, then their mean is .........
x + y , x + 3y and x + 5y is 12, 52. In the class interval 35-46, the lower limit is ....... and
then x is upper limit is .............
45. For the following marks distribution of 5 students in 53. A class interval of a data has 15 as the lower limit and 25
an examination, match Column-I with the data given in as the size, then the class mark is .............
Column- II. 54. 0–10, 10–20, 20–30 ............ so on are the classes, the
lower boundary of the class 20–30 is ...............
Class interval 0–10 10–20 20–30 30–40
55. The mid-point of a class interval is called its ................
No. of students 1 3 0 1
56. Facts or figures, collected with a definite purpose, are
Here, called ..................
xk = lower limit of the modal class interval 57. Value of the middle-most observation (s) is called ............
h = width of the class interval 58. The ................. is the most frequently occurring observation.
fk = frequency of the modal class 59. 3 median = mode + ............. mean
fk–1 = frequency of the class preceding the modal class 60. To find the mode of a grouped data, the size of the classes
fk+1 = frequency of the class succeeding the modal class is ..................
Column-I Column-II n
61. On an ogive, point A (say), whose Y- co-ordinate is
2
xk
(A) (p) 3
(half of the total observation), has its X-coordinate equal
fk
(B) (q) 10 to .................. of the data.
fk–1
(C) (r) 0 62. Two ogives, for the same data intersect at the point P.
h
(D) (d) 1 Then, Y-coordinate of P represents .................. .
Statistics M-137
66. The modal value is the value of the variate which divides
True / False the total frequency into two equal parts.
67. The mean of x, y, z is y, then x + z = 2y
DIRECTIONS : Read the following statements and write your
68. 2(Median – Mean) = Mode – Mean.
answer as true or false.
69. Mean may or may not be the appropriate measure of
63. The median for grouped data is formed by using the central tendency.
n 70. If 16 observations are arranged in ascending order, then
− cf
formula, Median = l + 2 ×h (8th observation + 9th observation )
f median is
2
71. Median of 15, 28, 72, 56, 44, 32, 31, 43 and 51 is 43.
Upper class limit + Lower class limit
64. Class mark = 72. Mode of 2, 3, 4, 5, 0, 1, 3, 3, 4, 3 is 3.
2
65. The median of grouped data with unequal class sizes 73. Mean of 41, 39, 48, 52, 46, 62, 54, 40, 96, 52, 98, 49, 42,
cannot be calculated. 52, 60 is 55.4
M-138 Mathematics
Lower Limit of the modal class = l = 50 ⇒ Total weight = weight of students + weight of
teacher
Class-Interval = h = 10
∴ Weight of teacher = Total weight – weight of
Frequency of the modal class = fi = 20
students
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class
∴ Weight of the teacher = Σx2 – Σx1
= f0 = 13
= 1638 – 1575 = 63 kg
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class
= f2 = 5 5. (d)
Clearly, the number of families having income
range (in `)
f1 − f 0
Mode, N 0 = l + ×h
2f1 − f 0 – f 2 16000 – 19000 = 69 – 50 = 19.
6. (b)
20 − 13
= 50 +
2 × 20 − 13 − 5 C.I. xi fi fixi
7 0 – 10 5 8 40
= 50 + × 10 = 50 + 3.18 = 53.18
22 10 – 20 15 12 180
3. (d) n1 = 25 x1 = 70% 20 – 30 25 10 250
n 2 = 40 x 2 = 65%
30 – 40 35 11 385
n 3 = 35 x 3 = 50%
40 – 50 45 9 405
n x1 + n 2 x 2 + n 3 x 3
x= 1 50 1260
n1 + n 2 + n 3
Statistics M-139
Σ fx 1260 ∴ Required mean is,
We have x = = = 25.2 130 + x + 126 + x + 68 + x + 50 + x + 1 + x
Σf 50 x=
375 + 5 x 375 + 0 5 375
x= = = = 75
7. (c) Let a = 200 5 5 5
8. (d) First find the sum of first ‘n’ odd natural numbers x+ y
∴ = 10 ⇒ x + y = 20 .....(i)
2
1 = 12
and x – y = 6 (width of the class = 6) .....(ii)
1 + 3 = 4 = 22
By solving equations (i) and (ii), we get y = 7.
1 + 3 + 5 = 9 = 32
Hence, lower limit of the class is 7.
1 + 3 + 5 + ....+ (2n –1) = n2.
Sum of all the observations
2
18. (c) We know, Mean =
Sum of observations n Total no. of observation
Mean = = =n
n n x + x + 3 + x + 5 + x + 7 + x + 10
⇒ Mean =
It is given that the mean is ‘n’ itself. 5
5 x + 25
∴ n=n 9 = ⇒ x=4
5
Thus, ‘n’ is any natural number. So, mean of last three observations i.e; 14, 11 and 9
20 ( 4) + 40 ( 5) + 30 ( 6) + 10 (10) is
9. (c) x=
20 + 40 + 30 + 10 14 + 11 + 9 34 1
= = 11
80 + 200 + 180 + 100 560 3 3 3
= = = 5.6
100 100
x1 + ... + x15
19. (b) Given, = 13
10. (a) 15
\ Upper limit of modal class = 45 41. (A) → (s); (B) → (r); (C) → (q); (D) → (p)
Σf i x i 2830
30. (d) Mean = = = 35.4 42. (A) → (t); (B) → (r); (C) → (p); (D) → (u); (E) → (q);
Σf i 80
(F) → (s)
f1 − f 0
31. (a) Mode = l + h = 41.4
2f1 − f 0 − f 2 As we know, cumulative frequency of an interval is equal
to the sum of frequency of that interval and of previous
n
− Cf intervals.
32. (b) Median = l + 2 × h = 40.2
f
∴ a = 12
a + b = 25 ⇒ b = 13 (∵ a = 12)
Weekly No. of Cumulative Class fixi
Now, 25 + 10 = c ⇒ c = 35
consumption families fi frequency marks
cf xi c + d = 43 ⇒ d = 8 (∵ c = 35)
1-10 16 16 5 8 43 + e = 48 ⇒ e = 5
10-20 12 28 15 180
and, f = 48 + 2 = 50
20-30 18 46 25 450
30-40 6 52 35 210 43. (A) → (t); (B) → (s); (C) → (p); (D) → (q); (E) → (r)
40-50 4 56 45 180
44. (A) → (r); (B) → (q); (C) → (s); (D) → (p)
50-60 0 0 55 0
Sfi = 56 Sfidi = 110 45. (A) → (q); (B) → (s); (C) → (t); (D) → (q)
35. (c) Modal class = the class with maximum frequency 50. 25
= 20 – 30 51. 50
M-142 Mathematics
52. 35, 46 53. 27.5 63. True 64. True