20th of November 2020 POTD 335 Solver: MrTryHqrd

While the circuit 1 is closed, let i1 be the intensity of the current through it. Therefore, using
Kirchhoff’s Second Law, we’ll get:
di1 L di1 V
V − i1 R − L= 0 ⇒ i1 + =
dt R dt R
After a long time, i1 remains constant, so, when the switch is thrown in position 2, the electric
current through the inductor is i1 = VR . From now on, let i(t) be the current through the circuit 2.
Let A1 be the area between the initial position of the segment AB and the final one, and let A2 be
the area between the final position of that segment and the cord. Therefore, the magnetic flux through
the circuit is:
dΦm  dA
1 dA2  dΦm  di dA2 
Φm = B(A1 + A2 ) ⇒ =B + ⇒ = B vl0 +
dt dt dt dt dt di
Using Faraday’s Induction Law, we find the emf induced through the circuit to be:
dΦm  di dA2 
εind = − ⇒ εind = −B vl0 +
dt dt di
Therefore, using Kirchhoff’s Second Law again, for circuit 2, we’ll get:
di di  dA2 
L = εind ⇒ vBl0 + +L =0
dt dt di
Now, we shall find the derivative of A2 with respect to the current intensity. Firstly, let’s find the
equation of the shape of the cord at any time, as a function of i. From lex secunda applied for a small
element of it, we get:
(
~ ⇒ T1p= T2 = T dy 0
T~1 +T~2 = id~l×B
p
⇒ T dα = iBdl ⇒ −T = iBdx 1 + (y 0 )2 ⇒
T 2(1 − 2 cos dα) = iBdl 1 + (y 0 )2

y0 x
dy 0
Z Z
⇒ −T
3/2 = iB dx ⇒
0 1 + (y 0 )2 0

y0 iBx iBx
⇒p =− ⇒ y0 = − p
1 + (y 0 )2 T T 2 − (iBx)2
From the statement of the problem, we
deduce that the cord can be approximated
to a zero-length spring. Therefore, if l is the
length of the cord at any time, the tension
through it will be T = kl. Let’s find the value of l:
Z l0 Z l0
2 p
0 2
2 T T  iBl 
0 iBl0  iB 
l= 1 + (y ) dx ⇒ l = p dx ⇒ l = 2 arcsin ⇒ = sin ⇒
−
l0
2
−
l0
2
T 2 − (iBx)2 iB 2T 2kl 2k

iB
⇒l=  
2k sin iB
2k

Also, the expression for y as a function of x is:

√
k 2 l 2 − i 2 B 2 x2
y= −C
iB

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20th of November 2020 POTD 335 Solver: MrTryHqrd

√
l0 4k2 l2 −i2 B 2 l02
At x = 2
, so C = − 2iB
,
so the expression of y is:
p √
4k 2 l2 − i2 B 2 l02 k 2 l 2 − i 2 B 2 x2
y=− +
2iB iB
iB
But, since k
is small, l ≈ l0 , and we can make the following approximations:

kl0  i2 B 2  kl0  i2 B 2 x2  iBl0  4x2 

y≈− 1− + 1 − ⇒ y = 1 −
iB 8k 2 iB 2l02 k 2 8k l02
Integrating, we get that the area A2 is described by the expression:

iBl02 dA2 Bl2

⇒ = 0A2 =
12k di 12k
Hence, the differential equation that describes the variation of i becomes:

di  Bl2 
L+ 0 =0 vBl0 + (1)
dt 12k
Now, let’s find an expression for the velocity of the beads. Using lex secunda for them, we’ll get:

iB l20 iBl0
−T sinα = mv̇ ⇒ kl0 = mv̇ ⇒ v̇ =
kl0 2m
Hence, equation (1) becomes:

2
v
B 2 l02 B 2 l02

di u
+i  = 0 ⇒ i = A cos tt  +ϕ
u
 
dt2 2m L +
Bl20
2m L + 12k
Bl02
12k

At t = 0, s = 0 and i = i0 , so, the expression of i is:

s
v 2 Bl2 v
B 2 l02
2
 
u B l0 L + 12k0 u
i = i0 cos tt   ⇒v= i0 sin tt   +C
u u
Bl2 2m Bl2
2m L + 0 12k
2m L + 0 12k

Now, since at t = 0 v = 0, we find the value of C to be:

s
Bl2 v
B 2 l02

L + 12k0 u
C=0⇒v= i0 sin tt   ⇒
u
2m Bl2
2m L + 0 12k
 2

Bl0 v !
2m L + 12k
u B 2 l2
⇒ s = i0 1 − cos tt  0 2
u
Bl0 Bl
2m L + 12k0
Now, we shall calculate the value of i0 . Between t = 0 and t = dt, the differential equation that
describes the variation of i gives:
i0 Bl02
i0 − i1 12k
−0 L VL
L + = 0 ⇒ i0 = i1 2 ⇒ i0 =  
dt dt Bl Bl02
L + 12k0 R L + 12k
Therefore, the expression of s = f (t) is:
v !
VL u B 2 l02
s= 1 − cos tt 
u

BRl0 Bl2
2m L + 0 12k

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