MCQ For Class 12 Chapterwise

2
SOLUTIONS
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 9. 1 M, 2.5 litre NaOH solution is mixed with another 0.5 M, 3
litre NaOH solution. Then find out the molarity of resultant
1. “The importance of many pure substance in life depends solution
on their composition.” (a) 0.80 M (b) 1.0 M
Which of the following statement justify the above fact? (c) 0.73 M (d) 0.50 M
(a) 1 ppm of fluoride ions in water prevents tooth decay. 10. An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole
(b) 1.5 ppm of fluoride ions causes tooth decay. fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value of X is
(c) Concentration above 1.5 ppm can be poisonous. (a) 14 (b) 3.2
(d) All of the above. (c) 1.4 (d) 2
2. Which of the following fluoride is used as rat poison? 11. The molarity of the solution containing 7.1 g of Na2SO4 in
(a) CaF2 (b) KF 100 ml of aqueous solution is
(c) NaF (d) MgF2 (a) 2 M (b) 0.5 M
3. Most of the processes in our body occur in (c) 1 M (d) 0.05 M
(a) solid solution (b) liquid solution 12. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 25°C is 640 mm Hg
(c) gaseous solution (d) colloidal solution and that of solution of solute A is 630 mm Hg. The molality
4. The term homogenous mixtures signifies that of solution is
(a) its composition is uniform throughout the mixture. (a) 0.2 m (b) 0.4 m
(b) its properties are uniform throughout the mixture. (c) 0.5 m (d) 0.1 m
(c) both composition an d properties are un iform 13. 4.0 g of NaOH is dissolved in 100 ml solution. The normality
throughout the mixture. of the solution is
(d) neither composition nor properties are uniform (a) 0.1 N (b) 0.5 N
throughout the mixture. (c) 4.0 N (d) 1.0 N
5. Which of the following mixture is(are) called solution? 14. The molarity of pure water is
(i) water + ammonia (ii) water + acetone (a) 50 M (b) 18 M
(iii) acetone + alcohol (iv) hexane + water (c) 55.6 M (d) 100 M
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) 15. An aqueous solution of glucose is 10% in strength. The
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) volume in which 1 g mole of it is dissolved, will be
6. Which of the following is a quantitative description of the (a) 9 litre (b) 1.8 litre
solution? (c) 8 litre (d) 0.9 litre
(a) Dilute (b) Concentrated
(c) Saturated (d) Molar 16. 10 g of NaCl is dissolved in 10 6 g of the solution. Its
7. When a solute is present in trace quantities the following concentration is
expression is used (a) 100 ppm (b) 0.1 ppm
(a) Gram per million (b) Milligram percent (c) 1 ppm (d) 10 ppm
(c) Microgram percent (d) Parts per million 17. On adding a solute to a solvent having vapour pressure
8. Molarity of liquid HCl will be, if density of solution is 0.80 atm, vapour pressure reduces to 0.60 atm. Mole fraction
1.17 gm/cc of solute is
(a) 36.5 (b) 32.05 (a) 0.25 (b) 0.75
(c) 18.25 (d) 42.10 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.33
MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

02 62/87,216
18. 2.5 litres of NaCl solution contain 5 moles of the solute. N N N
What is the molarity? 29. If 50 ml H2SO4, 30 ml HNO3, 10 ml HCl is mixed
10 3 2
(a) 5 molar (b) 2 molar and solution is made to 1L. Then normality of resultant
(c) 2.5 molar (d) 12.5 molar solution is
19. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous
N N
solution i (a) (b)
20 40
(a) 0.009 (b) 0.018
(c) 0.027 (d) 0.036 N
(c) (d) N
20. 5 ml of N HCl, 20 ml of N/2 H2SO4 and 30 ml of N/3 HNO3 50
are mixed together and volume made to one litre. The 30. A solution made by dissolving 40 g NaOH in 1000 g of water
normality of the resulting solution is is
N N (a) 1 molar (b) 1 normal
(a) (b) (c) 1 molal (d) None of these
5 10
31. Which of the following concentration terms is/are
N N independent of temperature?
(c) (d)
20 40 (a) Molality only
21. 25ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1 (b) Molality and mole fraction
molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a titre value of 35 (c) Molarity and mole fraction
ml. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was (d) Molality and normality
(a) 0.07 (b) 0.14 32. A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g NaOH in 1250 mL
(c) 0.28 (d) 0.35 of a solvent of density 0.8 mL/g. The molality of the solution
22. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution in mol kg–1 is
is (a) 0.25 (b) 0.2
(a) 0.1770 (b) 0.0177 (c) 0.008 (d) 0.0064
(c) 0.0344 (d) 1.7700 33. Which of the following units is useful in relating
23. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4 ? concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
(a) 0.5 N (b) 1.0 N (a) mole fraction (b) parts per million
(c) 2.0 N (d) 3.0 N (c) mass percentage (d) molality
24. The volume of 4 N HCl and 10 N HCl required to make 1 litre 34. For mixture containing “four” components which of the
of 6 N HCl are following is correct in term of mole fraction?
(a) 0.75 litre of 10 N HCl and 0.25 litre of 4 N HCl (a) x1+ x2+ x3+ x4z
(b) 0.50 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.50 litre of 10 N HCl n3
(b) x3
(c) 0.67 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.33 litre of 10 N HCl n1 n 2 n 3
(d) 0.80 litre of 4 N HCl and 0.20 litre of 10 N HCl
n1 n1
25. Molarity of H2SO4 is 18 M. Its density is 1.8 g/ml. Hence (c x1
molality is n1 n 2 n 3 n 4 6n
(a) 36 (b) 200 (d) n1 + n2 + n3 + n4 = 1
35. Which of the following concentration unit is independent
(c) 500 (d) 18
of temperature ?
26. 200 ml of water is added to 500 ml of 0.2 M solution. What is
(a) Normality (b) Molarity
the molarity of this diluted solution ?
(c) Formality (d) Molality
(a) 0.5010 M (b) 0.2897 M
36. Which of the following factor do not affect solubility of
(c) 0.7093 M (d) 0.1428 M
solid solute in liquid ?
27. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure
be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0M HNO3 ? The concentrated
(c) Nature of solute (d) All of these
acid is 70% HNO3
37. When a solid solute is added to the solvent, some solute
(a) 90.0 g conc. HNO3 (b) 70.0 g conc. HNO3
dissolves and its concentration increases in solution. This
(c) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 (d) 45.0 g conc. HNO3 process is known as ______. Some solute particles in
28. For preparing 0.1 N solution of a compound from its impure solution collide with the solid solute particles and get
sample of which the percentage purity is known, the weight separated out of solution. This process is known as
of the substance required will be ______.
(a) Less than the theoretical weight (a) Crystallization, dissolution.
(b) More than the theoretical weight (b) Dissolution, saturation.
(c) Same as the theoretical weight (c) Saturation, crystallization.
(d) None of these (d) Dissolution, crystallization.

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38. At the state of dynamic equilibrium, for 43. The statement “If 0.003 moles of a gas are dissolved in 900
solute + solvent solution. g of water under a pressure of 1 atmosphere, 0.006 moles
(a) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation. will be dissolved under a pressure of 2 atmospheres”,
(b) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation. illustrates
(c) Rate of dissolution = Rate of saturation (a) Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(d) Rate of crystallization = Rate of saturation. (b) Graham’s law
39. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (c) Raoult’s law
(a) A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved (d) Henry’s law
at the same temperature and pressure is called a 44. According to Henry’s law, the amount of gas that will
saturated solution. dissolve in blood plasma or any other liquid is determined
(b) An unsaturated solution is one in which more solute by which of these factor?
can be dissolved at the same temperature. (a) Solubility of the gas in the liquid.
(c) The solution which is in dynamic equilibrium with (b) The total pressure of the gas mixture .
undissolved solute is the saturated solution.
(c) pH of the liquid.
(d) The minimum amount of solute dissolved in a given
(d) The osmotic pressure of the gas mixture.
amount of solvent is its solubility.
40. On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution 45. Henry’s law constant of oxygen is 1.4 × 10–3 mol. lit–1. atm–1
feels cool to touch. Under which of the following cases at 298 K. How much of oxygen is dissolved in 100 ml at 298
dissolution of sugar will be most rapid ? K when the partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm?
(a) Sugar crystals in cold water. (a) 1.4 g (b) 3.2 g
(b) Sugar crystals in hot water. (c) 22.4 mg (d) 2.24 mg
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water. 46. At equillibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a
(d) Powdered sugar in hot water. volatile liquid solvent is ______.
41. The solubility of a solid in a liquid is significantly affected (a) less than the rate of crystallisation.
by temperature changes. (b) greater than the rate of crystallisation.
ZZX Solution.
Solute + Solvent YZZ (c) equal to the rate of crystallisation.
The system being in a dynamic equilibrium must follow (d) zero
Le-chatelier’s principle. Considering the Le-chatelier’s 47. A beaker contains a solution of substance ‘A’. Precipitation
principle which of the following is correct? of substance ‘A’ takes place when small amount of ‘A’ is
(a) '+sol > 0; solubility n ; temperature p added to the solution. The solution is ______.
(a) saturated (b) supersaturated
(b) '+sol < 0; solubility p ; temperature n
(c) unsaturated (d) concentrated
(c) '+sol > 0; solubility p ; temperature n 48. Maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in
(d) '+sol < 0; solubility n ; temperature n a specified amount of a given liquid solvent does not depend
upon __________.
42. W1 (a) Temperature (b) Nature of solute
Piston W1 W2 W3 (c) Pressure (d) Nature of solvent
49. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of
people living at high altitude is due to _________.
(a) low temperature
(a) (b) (b) low atmospheric pressure
On the basis of the figure given above which of the (c) high atmospheric pressure
following is not true? (d) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
(a) In figure (a) assuming the state of dynamic equilibrium 50. Value of Henry's constant KH _______.
rate of gaseous particles entering and leaving the (a) increases with increase in temperature.
solution phase is same. (b) decreases with increase in temperature.
(b) In figure (b) on compressing the gas number of (c) remains constant.
gaseous particles per unit volume over the solution
(d) first increases then decreases.
increases.
51. The value of Henry's constant KH is _______.
(c) Rate at which gaseous particles are striking the
solution to enter it, decreases. (a) greater for gases with higher solubility.
(d) Rate at which gaseous particles are striking the (b) greater for gases with lower solubility.
solution to enter it, increases. (c) constant for all gases.
(d) not related to the solubility of gases.

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52. Which of the followingfactor(s) affect the solubility of a 59. Iodine and sulphur dissolve in
gaseous solute in the fixed volume of liquid solvent ? (a) water (b) benzene
(i) Nature of solute (ii) Temperature (iii) Pressure (c) carbon disulphide (d) ethanol
(a) (i) and (iii) at constant T 60. The liquids at a given temperature vapourise and under
(b) (i) and (ii) at constant P equilibrium conditions the pressure exerted by the vapours
(c) (ii) and (iii) only of the liquid over the liquid phase is called
(d) (iii) only (a) osmotic pressure (b) atmospheric pressure
53. Which of the following graph is a correct representation of (c) hydrostatic pressure (d) vapour pressure
Henry’s law? 61. The vapour pressure of the solution at a given temperature
is found to be …………… than the vapour pressure of the
(a) (b)
Partial pressure of gas
pure solvent at the same temperature.

(a) higher (b) lower
(c) equal (d) can't calculate
62. The decrease in the vapour pressure of solvent depends
on the
Mole fraction of gas
(a) quantity of non-volatile solute present in the solution
Mole fraction of gas
in solution in solution (b) nature of non-volatile solute present in the solution
(c) molar mass of non-volatile solute present in the
(c) (d)
solution
(d) physical state of non-volatile solute present in the
solution
63. A plot of p1 or p2 vs the mole fractions x1 and x2 is given
as.
Mole fraction of gas Mole fraction of gas

in solution in solution
p2 III p2°
= p1 +
Vapour pressure
54. Which is an application of Henry’s law? p Total II

(a) Spray paint (b) Bottled water p1° p2
(c) Filling up atire (d) Soft drinks (soda)
55. Scuba divers may experience a condition called ______.
p
To avoids this, the tanks used by scuba divers are filled 1
I
with air diluted with _____ .
(a) Migrains, Hydrogen (b) Cramps, Nitrogen x1 = 1 Mole fraction x1 = 0
(c) Nausea, Oxygen (d) Bends, Helium x2 = 0 x2 x2 = 1
56. People living at high attitudes often reported with a problem
In this figure, lines I and II pass through the point for
of feeling weak and inability to think clearly. The reason for
which.
this is.
(a) x1 z 1; x2 = 1 (b) x1 = x2 z 1
(a) at high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is less
(c) x1 = 1; x2 z d) x1 = x2 = 1
than at the ground level.
64. The vapour pressure of two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80
(b) at high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is more
and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of
than at the ground level.
solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mole of Q
(c) at high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is equal
would be
to at the ground level.
(a) 72 torr (b) 140 torr
(d) None of these.
(c) 68 torr (d) 20 torr
57. ____ a contemporary of Henry concluded independently
65. 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g of water. The
that solubility of a gas in a liquid solution is a function of
vapour pressure of water for this aqueous solution is
____ of the gas.
(a) 76.00 torr (b) 752.40 torr
(a) Mosley, temperature
(c) 759.00 torr (d) 7.60 torr
(b) Dalton, temperature
66. PA and PB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components,
(c) Dalton, partial pressure
A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If XA
(d) Mosley, partial pressure
represents the mole fraction of component A, the total
58. Raoult’s law becomes a special case of Henry’s law when pressure of the solution will be.
(a) K H p n (b) K H p n (a) PA + XA (PB – PA) (b) PA + XA (PA – PB)
1 1
(c) PB + XA (PB – PA) (d) PB + XA (PA – PB)
(c) K H p1n (d) K H p p1n

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67. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has a vapour 76. Which one of the following is non-ideal solution
pressure of 290 mm Hg at 300 K. The vapour pressure of (a) Benzene + toluene
propyl alcohol is 200 mm Hg. If the mole fraction of ethyl (b) n-hexane + n-heptane
alcohol is 0.6, its vapour pressure (in mm Hg) at the same (c) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide
temperature will be (d) CCl4 + CHCl3
(a) 360 (b) 350 77. Mixtures of ethanol and acetone show positive deviation.
The reason is
(c) 300 (d) 700
(a) In pure ethanol, molecules are hydrogen bonded.
68. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour
(b) In pure acetone, molecules are hydrogen bonded
pressure of the solution containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of (c) In both molecules are hydrogen bonded
Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is (d) None of these
further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the 78. A mixture of components A and B will show –ve deviation
solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure ( in mm when
Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be, respectively (a) 'Vmix > 0
(a) 300 and 400 (b) 400 and 600 (b) 'Hmix < 0
(c) 500 and 600 (d) 200 and 300 (c) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and B – B
69. The vapour pressure of two liquids X and Y are 80 and 60 interactions
torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of the ideal (d) A–B interaction is stronger than A–A and B–B
solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of X and 2 moles of Y interactions.
would be 79. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive
(a) 68 Torr (b) 140 Torr deviation from Raoult’s law ?
(c) 48 Torr (d) 72 Torr (a) Water - Nitric acid
70. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene at a (b) Benzene - Methanol
particular temperature are 100 mm and 50 mm respectively. (c) Water - Hydrochloric acid
(d) Acetone - Chloroform
Then the mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase in
80. A solution of acetone in ethanol
contact with equimolar solution of benzene and toluene is
(a) shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(a) 0.67 (b) 0.75 (b) behaves like a non ideal solution
(c) 0.33 (d) 0.50 (c) obeys Raoult’s law
71. A solution containing components A and B follows Raoult's (d) shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
law when 81. Negative deviation from Raoult’s law is observed in
(a) A – B attraction force is greater than A – A and B – B which one of the following binary liquid mixtures?
(b) A – B attraction force is less than A – A and B – B (a) Ethanol and acetone
(c) A – B attraction force remains same as A–A and B –B (b) Benzene and toluene
(c) Acetone and chloroform
(d) volume of solution is different from sum of volume of
(d) Chloroethane and bromoethane
solute and solvent
82. Which one of the following binary liquid systems shows
72. Relation between partial pressure and mole fraction is stated positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
by (a) Benzene-toluene
(a) Graham’s law (b) Raoult’s law (b) Carbon disulphide-acetone
(c) Le-Chatelier (d) Avogadro law (c) Phenol-aniline
73. Which one of the following is not correct for an ideal (d) Chloroform-acetone
solution? 83. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane
(a) It must obey Raoult’s law and ethanol. Which one of the following statements is
correct regarding the behaviour of the solution?
(b) 'H 0
(a) The solution is non-ideal, showing negative deviation
(c) 'H 'V z 0 from Raoult’s Law.
(d) All are correct (b) The solution is non-ideal, showing positive deviation
74. An ideal solution is formed when its components from Raoult’s Law.
(a) have no volume change on mixing (c) n-heptane shows positive deviation while ethanol
(b) have no enthalpy change on mixing shows negative deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(d) The solution formed is an ideal solution.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct 84. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution:
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct (a) 'Smix
75. All form ideal solution except (b) 'Vmix
(a) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 (b) C2H6 and C2H5I (c) 'P = Pobserved - PRaoult
(c) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br (d) C2H5 I and C2H5OH. (d) 'Hmix

06 62/87,216
85. A mixture of two completely miscible non-ideal liquids which 93. The value of P° for benzene is 640 mm of Hg. The vapour
distill as such without change in its composition at a pressure of solution containing 2.5gm substance in 39gm.
constant temperature as though it were a pure liquid. This benzene is 600mm of Hg the molecular mass of X is
mixture is known as (a) 65.25 (b) 130
(a) binary liquid mixture (b) azeotropic mixture (c) 40 (d) 75
(c) eutectic mixture (d) ideal mixture 94. The vapour pressure at a given temperature of an ideal
86. The azeotropic mixture of water (b.p.100°C) and HCl solution containing 0.2 mol of a non-volatile solute and 0.8
(b.p.85°C) boils at 108.5°C. When this mixture is distilled it mol of solvent is 60 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure of the
is possible to obtain pure solvent at the same temperature is
(a) pure HCl (a) 150 mm of Hg (b) 60 mm of Hg
(b) pure water (c) 75 mm of Hg (d) 120 mm of Hg
(c) pure water as well as pure HCl 95. 12 g of a nonvolatile solute dissolved in 108 g of water
(d) neither HCl nor H2O in their pure states produces the relative lowering of vapour pressure of 0.1.
87. The system that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is The molecular mass of the solute is
(a) carbondisulphide – acetone (a) 80 (b) 60
(b) benzene – toluene (c) 20 (d) 40
(c) acetone – chloroform 96. The amount of solute (molar mass 60 g.mol –1) that must be
(d) n-hexane – n-heptane added to 180 g of water so that the vapour pressure of water
88. Which one of the following binary mixtures forms an is lowered by 10% is
azeotrope with minimum boiling point type? (a) 30 g (b) 60 g
(a) acetone-ethanol (b) H2O-HNO3 (c) 120 g (d) 12 g
(c) benzene-toluene (d) n-hexane-n-heptane 97. The vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18 g
89. On the basis of information given below mark the correct of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g of water at 20°C,
option. the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be
(a) 17.325 mm Hg (b) 15.750 mm Hg
Information: On adding acetone to methanol some of the
(c) 16.500 mm Hg (d) 17.500 mm Hg
hydrogen bonds between methanol molecules break.
98. Which one of the following is a colligative property ?
(a) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will
form boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation (a) Boiling point (b) Vapour pressure
from Raoult’s law. (c) Osmotic pressure (d) Freezing point
(b) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture 99. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exihibit
forms boiling azeotrope and will show positive highest boiling point ?
deviation from Raoult’s law. (a) 0.015 M urea (b) 0.01 M KNO3
(c) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will (c) 0.01 M Na2SO4 (d) 0.015 M glucose
form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show negative 100. The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 g of
deviation from Raoult’s law. glucose in 100 g of solvent is 0.1°C. The molal elevation
constant of the liquid is
(d) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will
form boiling azeotrope and will show negative (a) 0.01 K/m (b) 0.1 K/m
deviation from Raoult’s law. (c) 1 K/m (d) 10 K/m
90. According to Raoult's law, relative lowering of vapour 101. For an electrolyte, elevation of B.P. is directly proportional to
pressure for a solution is equal to (a) molarity (b) molality
(a) moles of solute (b) moles of solvent (c) mole fraction (d) All of these
102. Which of the following aqueous solution has minimum
(c) mole fraction of solute (d) mole fraction of solvent
freezing point ?
91. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the
(a) 0.01 m NaCl (b) 0.005 m C2H5OH
ratio between the number of
(c) 0.005 m MgI2 (d) 0.005 m MgSO4.
(a) solute molecules to the solvent molecules
103. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol–1)
(b) solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point
(c) solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol –1, the
(d) solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the
freezing point of benzene will be lowered by
solute.
(a) 0.3 K (b) 0.5 K
92. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm Hg. When
(c) 0.4 K (d) 0.2
15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved in 250 g of benzene
104. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX the degree
its vapour pressure decreased to 120.2 mm Hg. The
of ionization is 0.3. Taking kf for water as 1.85, the freezing
molecular weight of the solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78)
point of the solution will be nearest to
(a) 356.2 (b) 456.8
(a) – 0.360ºC (b) – 0.260ºC
(c) 530.1 (d) 656.7
(c) + 0.481ºC (d) – 0.481ºC

62/87,216 07
105. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as 116. Osmotic pressure of a solution at a given temperature
determined by depression in freezing point method (a) increases with concentration
corresponds to (b) decreases with concentration
(a) ionization of benzoic acid. (c) remains same
(b) dimerization of benzoic acid. (d) initially increases and then decreases
(c) trimerization of benzoic acid. 117. At 25°C, at 5 % aqueous solution of glucose (molecular
(d) solvation of benzoic acid. weight = 180 g mol–1) is isotonic with a 2% aqueous solution
106. A 0.5 molal solution of ethylene glycol in water is used as containing an unknown solute. What is the molecular weight
coolant in a car. If the freezing point constant of water be of the unknown solute?
1.86°C per mole, the mixture shall freeze at (a) 60 (b) 80
(a) 0.93°C (b) –0.93°C (c) 72 (d) 63
(c) 1.86°C (d) –1.86°C 118. Which one of the following statements is false?
107. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol1) boils at 100.18qC (a) Raoult’s law states that the vapour pressure of a
at the atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are component over a binary solution of volatile liquids is
1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol1 respectively, the above solution directly proportional to its mole fraction
will freeze at (b) Two sucrose solutions of the same molality prepared
(a) 0.654qC (b) 0.654qC in different solvents will have the same depression of
(c) 6.54qC (d) 6.54qC freezing point
108. The freezing point of 1% solution of lead nitrate in water will (c) The correct order of osmotic pressures of 0.01 M
be solution of each compound is
(a) 2°C (b) 1°C BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > glucose
(c) 0°C (d) below 0°C (d) In the equation osmotic pressure S = MRT, M is the
109. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol–1) has been molarity of the solution
prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. 119. Which of the following statements is false?
The freezing point of the solution obtained will be (a) Units of atmospheric pressure and osmotic pressure
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1). are the same.
(a) – 0.372°C (b) – 0.520°C (b) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through
(d) + 0.372°C (d) – 0.570°C a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower
110. A solution containing 1.8 g of a compound (empirical formula concentration of solute to a region of higher
CH2O) in 40 g of water is observed to freeze at –0.465° C. concentration.
The molecular formula of the compound is (c) The value of molal depression constant depends on
(Kf of water = 1.86 kg K mol–1) nature of solvent.
(a) C2H4O2 (b) C3H6O3 (d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure, is a
(c) C4H8O4 (d) C6H12O6 dimensionless quantity.
111. Blood cells retain their normal shape in solution which are 120. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable
(a) hypotonic to blood (b) isotonic to blood membrane is
(c) hypertonic to blood (d) equinormal to blood. (a) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal
112. Isotonic solutions have same flow rates
(a) molar concentration (b) molality (b) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with
(c) normality (d) None of these unequal flow rates
113. As a result of osmosis, the volume of more concentrated (c) from solution having lower concentration only
solution (d) from solution having higher concentration only
(a) gradually decreases (b) gradually increases 121. If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.1 M solution of urea are
(c) is not affected (d) suddenly increases placed on two sides of the semipermeable membrane to
114. Which of the following pairs of solution are isotonic at the equal heights, then it will be correct to say that
same temperature ? (a) there will be no net movement across the membrane
(a) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (b) glucose will flow towards urea solution
(b) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (c) urea will flow towards glucose solution
(c) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M MgCl2 (d) water will flow from urea solution to glucose
(d) 0.2 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl 122. The van’t Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes
115. Osmotic pressure of 0.4% urea solution is 1.64 atm and that dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent
of 3.42% cane sugar is 2.46 atm. When the above two is respectively
solutions are mixed, the osmotic pressure of the resulting (a) less than one and greater than one.
solution is : (b) less than one and less than one.
(a) 0.82 atm (b) 2.46 atm (c) greater than one and less than one.
(c) 1.64 atm (d) 4.10 atm (d) greater than one and greater than one.

08 62/87,216
123. If the various terms in the given below expressions have 132. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of
usual meanings, the van’t Hoff factor (i) cannot be calculated CuCl2 in 1 kg of water using the following information will
by which one of the following expressions be (Molecular weight of CuCl2 = 134.4 g and Kb= 0.52 K
(a) SV kg mol1)
inRT (a) 0.16 (b) 0.05
(b) 'T f iK f .m (c) 0.1 (d) 0.2
(c) 'Tb iK b .m 133. Freezing point of an aqueous solution is
q
Psolvent Psolution – 0.186°C. If the values of Kb and Kf of water are respectively
§ n ·
(d) i¨ ¸ 0.52 K kg mol–1 and 1.86 K kg mol–1, then the elevation of
q
Psolvent ©Nn¹ boiling point of the solution in K is
124. Van’t Hoff factor is given by the expression ________. (a) 0.52 (b) 1.04
(c) 1.34 (d) 0.052
Normal molar mass
(a) i
Abnormal molar mass 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
Abnormal molar mass 134. Study the given statements and choose the correct option.
(b) i (i) 3.62 mass percentage of sodium hypochlorite in water
Normal molar mass
is used as commercial bleaching solution.
Observed colligative property (ii) 35% volume percentage of ethylene glycol is used as
(c) i an antifreeze (as coolent in car engines).
Calculated colligative property
(iii) Concentration of dissolved oxygen in a litre of sea
(d) Both (a) and (c) water is 5.8 ppm.
125. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as 'A', 'B' (a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
and 'C' with concentrations 0.1M, 0.01M and 0.001M, (b) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct
respectively. The value of van't Hoff factor for these (c) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
solutions will be in the order ________. (d) Statements (i),(ii) and (iii) are correct
(a) iA < iB < iC (b) iA > iB > iC 135. Molarity and molality of a solution of NaOH is calculated.
(c) iA = iB = iC (d) iA < iB > iC If now temperature of the solution is increased then which
126. If D is the degree of dissociation of Na 2SO4, the Vant Hoff’s of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
factor (i ) used for calculating the molecular mass is (i) Molarity of solution decreases
(a) 1 + D (b) 1 – D (ii) Molality of the solution increases
(c) 1 + 2D (d) 1 – 2D (a) Both statements are correct
127. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solutions will be (b) Statement (i) is correct only
highest for (c) Statement (ii) is correct only
(d) Both statements are incorrect.
(a) C6H5NH3+Cl– (aniline hydrochloride)
136. “If temperature increases solubility of gas decreases”. For
(b) Ca(NO3)2 this situation which of the following statement(s) is/are
(c) La(NO3)3 correct ?
(d) C6H12O6 (glucose) (i) Reaction is endothermic
128. The correct relationship between the boiling points of very (ii) Le-chatelier’s principle can be applied
dilute solutions of AlCl3 (t1) and CaCl2 (t2), having the (a) Statement (i) and (ii) both are correct
same molar concentration is (b) Statement (i) is correct only
(a) t1 = t2 (b) t1 > t2 (c) Statement (ii) is correct only
(c) t2 > t1 (d) t2 tt1 (d) Both statement(s) (i) and (ii) are incorrect
129. At 25°C, the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1 M 137. Read the following statements carefully and choose the
solution of correct option.
(a) CaCl2 (b) KCl (i) Different gases have different KH values at the same
(c) glucose (d) urea temperature.
(ii) Higher the value of KH at a given temperature, lower
130. Which one of the following salts will have the same value of
is the solubility of the nature of gas in the liquid.
van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K4[Fe(CN)6].
(iii) KH is a function of the nature of the gas.
(a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) NaCl (c)
(iv) Solubility of gases increases with increase of
Al(NO3)3 (d) Na2SO4. temperature.
131. Which of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions will have (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
the lowest freezing point ? (b) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) C6H12O6 (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(c) KCl (d) C12 H22 O11 (d) (i) and (iv) are correct.

62/87,216 09
138. Read the following statements and choose the correct 142. Read the following statements carefully and choose the
option. correct option
(i) Polar solutes dissolve in a polar solvent. (i) Osmotic pressure is not a colligative property.
(ii) Polar solutes dissolve in a non-polar solvent. (ii) For dilute solutions, osmotic pressure is proportional
(iii) Non-polar solutes dissolve in a non-polar solvent. to the molarity, C of the solution at a given temperature
(iv) Non-polar solutes dissolve in a polar solvent. T.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct. (iii) During osmosis ,solvent molecules always flow from
higher concentration to lower concentration of
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
solution.
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct. (iv) The osmotic pressure has been found to depend on
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct. the concentration of the solution
139. Read the following statements carefully and choose the (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
correct option (b) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(i) The vapour pressure of a liquid decreases with (c) (iii), and (iv) are correct
increase of temperature. (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(ii) The liquid boils at the temperature at which its vapour
pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
(iii) Vapour pressure of the solvent decreases in the
presence of non-volatile solute. 143. Match the columns
(iv) Vapour pressure of the pure solvent and solution is a Column -I Column-II
function of temperature. (A) Mass percentage (p) Medicine and pharmacy
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (B) Mass by volume (q) Concentration of
(b) (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct pollutants in water
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct (C) ppm (r) Industrial chemical
application
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) Volume percentage (s) Liquid solutions
140. On the basis of information given below mark the correct
(a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
option.
(b) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(i) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture
intermolecular interactions of A-A and B-B type are (c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p)
nearly same as A-B type interactions. (d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(ii) In ethanol and acetone mixture A-A or B-B type 144. Match the columns
intermolecular interactions are stronger than A-B type Column-I Column-II
interactions. (A) Na-Hg Amalgam (p) gas - solid
(iii) In chloroform and acetone mixture A-A or B-B type (B) H2 in Pd (q) gas - liquid
intermolecular interactions are weaker than A-B type (C) Camphor in nitrogen gas (r) liquid - solid
interactions. (D) Oxygen dissolved in water (s) solid - gas
(a) Solution (ii) and (iii) will follow Raoult's law. (a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(b) Solution (i) will follow Raoult's law. (b) A – (t), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(c) Solution (ii) will show negative deviation from Raoult's (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
law. (d) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (p)
(d) Solution (iii) will show positive deviation from Raoult's 145. Match the Column I, II & III and choose the correct option.
law. Column-I Column-II Column-III
141. Which observation(s) reflect(s) colligative properties? (A) Gaseous (p) Solid-liquid (h) Copper dissolved
(i) A 0.5 m NaBr solution has a higher vapour pressure solutions in gold
than a 0.5 m BaCl2 solution at the same temperature (B) Liquid (q) Solid-solid (i) Chloroform mixed
(ii) Pure water freezes at the higher temperature than pure solutions with nitrogen
methanol (C) Solid (r) Liquid-gas (j) Common salt
(iii) a 0.1 m NaOH solution freezes at a lower temperature solutions dissolved in water
than pure water (a) (A) – (r) – (h), (B) – (r) – (i), (C) – (p) – (j)
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below (b) (A) – (r) – (i), (B) – (p) – (j), (C) – (q) – (h)
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (A) – (r) – (j), (B) – (p) – (h), (C) – (q) – (i)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii) (d) (A) – (r) – (j), (B) – (q) – (i), (C) – (p) – (h)

10 62/87,216
146. Match the columns 151. Assertion : Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by
Column-I Column-II non-ideal solutions and they may have boiling points either
(A) Saturated solution (p) Solution having same greater than both the components or less than both the
osmotic pressure at a given components.
temperature as that of given Reason : The composition of the vapour phase is same as
solution. that of the liquid phase of an azeotropic mixture.
(B) Binary solution (q) A solution whose osmotic 152. Assertion : When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling
pressure is less than that point of water increases.
of another. Reason : When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent
(C) Isotonic solution (r) Solution with two elevation in boiling point is observed.
components 153. Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a depression in
(D) Hypotonic solution (s) A solution which contains freezing point is observed.
maximum amount of solute Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution
that can be dissolved in a causes depression in the freezing point.
given amount of solvent at 154. Assertion : When a solution is separated from the pure
a given temperature. solvent by a semipermeable membrane, the solvent
(a) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q) molecules pass through it from pure solvent side to the
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) solution side
(c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p) Reason : Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high
(d) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s) concentration solution to a region of low concentration
147. Match the laws given in the Column-I with expression given solution.
in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II &5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
(A) Raoult’s law (p) 'Tf = Kfm 155. The normality of orthophosphoric acid having purity of 70
(B) Henry’s law (q) S = CRT % by weight and specific gravity 1.54 is
o o (a) 11 N (b) 22 N
(C) Elevation of boiling point (r) p x1p1 x 2 p 2
(D) Depression in freezing point (s) 'Tb = Kbm (c) 33 N (d) 44 N
156. Which of the following statements, regarding the mole
(E) Osmotic pressure (t) p = KH.x fraction (x) of a component in solution, is incorrect?
(a) A – (r), B – (t), C – (s), D – (p), E – (q)
(a) 0 d x d 1
(b) A – (t), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s), E – (p)
(c) A – (p), B – (t), C – (r), D – (q), E – (s) (b) x d 1
(d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t) (c) x is always non-negative
(d) None of these
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 157. Which one of the following gases has the lowest value of
Henry’s law constant?
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, (a) N2 (b) He
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four (c) H2 (d) CO2
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You 158. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. container at 25°C. The fraction of the total pressure exerted
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct by oxygen is
explanation for assertion. (a) 1/2 (b) 2/3
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a 1 273
correct explanation for assertion (c) u (d) 1/3
3 298
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 159. When a gas is bubbled through water at 298 K, a very dilute
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. solution of the gas is obtained. Henry’s law constant for
148. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes the gas at 298 K is 100 kbar. If the gas exerts a partial pressure
with temperature. of 1 bar, the number of millimoles of the gas dissolved in
Reason : The volume of a solution changes with change in one litre of water is
temperature. (a) 0.555 (b) 5.55
149. Assertion : If a liquid solute more volatile than the solvent (c) 0.0555 (d) 55.5
is added to the solvent, the vapour pressure of the solution 160. KH value for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO (g) and CH4(g) are 40.39,
may increase i.e., ps > po. 1.67, 1.83 × 10–5 and 0.413 respectively.
Reason : In the presence of a more volatile liquid solute, Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing
only the solute will form the vapours and solvent will not. solubility.
150. Assertion : If one component of a solution obeys Raoult’s (a) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
law over a certain range of composition, the other component (b) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
will not obey Henry’s law in that range. (c) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
Reason : Raoult’s law is a special case of Henry’s law. (d) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO

62/87,216 11
161. What is the ratio of no. of moles of nitrogen to that of (a) 35.67 g (b) 356.7 g
oxygen in a container of 5 litre at atmospheric pressure? (c) 432.8 g (d) 502.7 g
(a) 1 : 1.71 (b) 1 : 2 170. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non-volatile non-
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 24 electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, the elevation
162. Consider a and b are two components of a liquid mixture, in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is 2°C. Assuming
their corresponding vapour pressure (mmHg) are concentration of solute is much lower than the concentration
respectively 450 and 700 in pure states and total pressure of solvent, the vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution
given is 600. Then corresponding composition in liquid is (take Kb = 0.76 K kg mol–1)
phase will be (a) 724 (b) 740
(a) 0.4, 0.6 (b) 0.5, 0.5 (c) 736 (d) 718
(a) 0.6, 0.4 (d) 0.3, 0.7 171. The difference between the boiling point and freezing point
163. Which will form maximum boiling point azeotrope of an aqueous solution containing sucrose (molecular wt =
(a) HNO3 + H2O solution (b) C2H5OH + H2O solution 342 g mole–1 ) in 100 g of water is 105°C. If Kf and
(c) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 solution (d) None of these Kb of water are 1.86 and 0.51 K kg mol –1 respectively, the
164. If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at weight of sucrose in the solution is about
some specific composition then _______. (a) 34.2 g (b) 342 g
(a) A – B interactions are stronger than those between
(c) 7.2 g (d) 72 g
A – A or B – B
172. If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of non-volatile,
(b) vapour pressure of solution increases because more
non-electrolytic and non-associating solute in a solvent
number of molecules of liquids A and B can escape
(Kb = x K kg mol–1) is y K, then the depression in freezing
from the solution.
point of solution of same concentration would be (Kf of the
(c) vapour pressure of solution decreases because less
solvent = z K kg mol–1)
number of molecules of only one of the liquids escape
from the solution 2xz yz
(d) A – B interactions are weaker than those between A – (a) (b)
y x
A or B – B
165. Chloroform and acetone are added to each other, Raoult’s xz yz
law shows negative deviation.what does this suggests ? (c) y
(d)
2x
(a) Exothermic reaction
(b) Endothermic reaction 173. 1 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute of molar mass
(c) Zero change in enthalpy 250 g/mol was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the
(d) None of these freezing point depression constant Kf of benzene is 5.12
166. At 300 K the vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing kg K mol–1. The freezing point of benzene is lowered by
1 mole of liquid A and 2 moles of liquid B is 500 mm of Hg. (a) 0.3 K (b) 0.5 K
The vapour pressure of the solution increases by 25 mm of (c) 0.2 K (d) 0.4 K
Hg, if one more mole of B is added to the above ideal solution 174. The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg–1 solution of X in water is
at 300 K. Then the vapour pressure of A in its pure state is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of
(a) 300 mm of Hg (b) 400 mm of Hg the following statements is true in this case ?
(c) 500 mm of Hg (d) 600 mm of Hg (a) Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass
167. Someone has added a non electrolyte solid to the pure of Y.
liquid but forgot that among which of the two beakers he (b) Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of
has added that solid. This problem can be solved by Y.
checking (c) Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X
(a) relative lower in vapour pressure undergoes no change.
(b) elevation in boiling point (d) X is undergoing dissociation in water.
(c) depression in Freezing point 175. What is the freezing point of a solution containing 8.1 g
(d) all above HBr in 100 g water assuming the acid to be 90% ionised ?
168. The vapour pressure of a solvent decreases by 10 mm of Hg (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) :
when a non-volatile solute was added to the solvent. The (a) 0.85°K (b) – 3.53°K
mole fraction of the solute in the solution is 0.2. What should
(c) 0°K (d) – 0.35°K
be the mole fraction of the solvent if the decrease in the
176. An 1% solution of KCl (I), NaCl (II), BaCl2 (III) and urea (IV)
vapour pressure is to be 20 mm of Hg ?
have their osmotic pressure at the same temperature in the
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.6
ascending order (molar masses of NaCl, KCl,
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.2
169. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm. When 15g BaCl2 and urea are respectively 58.5, 74.5, 208.4 and
of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 250 g of benzene, its 60 g mole–1). Assume 100% ionization of the electrolytes at
vapour pressure is decreased to 120.2 mm. The molecular this temperature
weight of the solute is (a) I < III < II < IV (b) III < I < II < IV
(c) I < II < III < IV (d) III < IV < I < II

12 62/87,216
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 Number of moles

14. (c) Molarity
Volume of solution (L)
1. (d)
2. (c) Sodium fluoride is used as rat poison. Mass 1000
Moles of water 55.6
3. (b) Almost all the processes in our body occur in liquid Molar mass 18
solution.
4. (c) In homogeneous mixtures composition and properties 55.6
Molarity = = 55
both are uniform throughout the mixture. 1
5. (a) Hexane is not water soluble, hence solution is not 15. (b) ' 10 g glucose is dissolved in = 100 ml solution.
formed. ? 180 g (g mole) is dissolved in
6. (d) Dilute, concentrated and saturated terms are 100
qualitative methods of description of concentration = u 180 = 1800 ml = 1.8 L
of solution whereas molar or molarity is quantitative 10
method. Mass of solute
16. (d) ppm u 106
7. (d) Mass of solution
8. (b) Density = 1.17 gm/cc (Given)
Mass 10
As d ? ppm u 106 10 ppm
Volume 106
volume = 1cc ? mass = d = 1.17g pq p
17. (a) xsolute
No. of moles 1.17 q1000 pq
Molarity
Volume in litre 36.5 q1 Given, p° = 0.8 atm, p = 0.6 atm, xsolute = ?
1170 0.8 0.6 0.2
=32.05M xsolute or xsolute ,
36.5 0.8 0.8
9. (c) From molarity equation or xsolute = 0.25
M1V1 + M2V2 = M3(V1 + V2)
1× 2.5 + 0.5 × 3 = M3 × 5.5 No. of moles of solute 5
18. (b) Molarity 2M
4 Volume in litres 2.5
M3 0.73M 19. (b) One molal solution means one mole of solute is present
5.5
in 1 kg (1000 g) solvent
10. (b) Relation between molality and mole fraction is
i.e., mole of solute = 1
1000 u x2 1000 u .2
m 3.2 1000g 1000
x1M1 0.8 u 78 Mole of solvent (H2O) = =
Thus, X (m) = 3.2 18g 18
Wt u 1000 7.1 u 1000 1
11. (b) M ; M 0.5M 18
M.Wt . u V 142 u 100 Mole fraction of solute = = = 0.018.
§ 1000 · 1008
'p n2 n2 640 630 0.0156 ¨1 ¸
12. (a) or © 18 ¹
pq n1 n2 n1 n2 640 1
20. (d) NV = N1V1 + N2V2 + N3V3
or 1 mole i.e., 78g benzene contains solute = 0.0156 mol
1 1 1
or, 1000N 1 u 5 u 20 u 30 or N .
0.0156 u 103 2 3 40
?Molality of solution = 0.2 m
78 21. (a) For HCl
Moles of solute M = N = 0.1
13. (d) Normality N1V1 = N2V2 ; 25 × N1 = 0.1 × 35
Volume of solution in litre
0.1 u 35 0.1 u 35
Given mass of solute = 4.0 g N1 ;?M 0.07 .
No. of moles of NaOH = 4/40 25 25 u 2
Volume of solution = 100 ml = 100/1000 L 22. (b) 1 molal solution means 1 mole of solute dissolved in
1000 gm solvent.
4 / 40 ? nsolute = 1 wsolvent = 1000 gm
Normality |1N
100 /1000

62/87,216 13
1000 33. (a)

? nsolvent = = 55.56 34. (c) In a given solution sum of all the mole fraction is unity
18
i.e.,
1 (a) x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 = 1
xsolute = = 0.0177
1 55.56
n3
23. (d) H3PO4 is tribasic so N = 3M = 3 × 1N = 3N. (b) n n n n x3
24. (c) N1V1 + N2V2 = NV 1 2 3 4
4x + 10 (1 – x) = 6 × 1; –6x = –4 ; x = 0.67 35. (d) Volume is temperature dependent, hence expression
Thus 0.67 litre of 4N HCl involving volume term (normality, molarity and
1 – x = 1 – 0.67 = 0.33 litre of 10 N HCl formality) varies with temperature
Molarity
25. (c) Molality (m) geq of solute
Molarity u Molecular mass Normality =
Density vol. of solution in L
1000
moles of solute
18 Molarity =
5000 vol. of solution in L
18 u 98
1.8
1000 formula mass
26. (d) No. of millimoles = 500 × 0.2 = 100 Formality =
vol. of solution in L
Thus, molarity of diluted solution
moles of solute
100 Molality =
mass of solvent in kg
700
(Molarity = No. of moles L–1 = No. of millimoles mL–1) Since molality does not include the volume term, it is
independent of temperature.
0.1428 M
36. (b) An increase in temperature of the solution increases
wt u1000 the solubility of a solid solute.
27. (d) Molarity (M) =
mol. wt. u vol (ml) The amount of solute that dissolve depends on what
type of solute it is.
wt. 1000 For solids and liquid solutes, changes in pressure have
2 u
63 250 practically no effect on solubility.
63 37. (d)
wt. = gm 38. (b) Number of solute particles going into solution will be
2
equal to the solute particles separating out and a state
100 of dynamic equilibrium is reached.
wt. of 70% acid = u 31.5 = 45 gm
70 solute + solvent solution.
28. (b) More than theoretical weight since impurity will not i.e., rate of dissolution = rate of crystallization.
contribute. 39. (d) The maximum amount of solute dissolved in a
29. (c) Applying the law of equivalence, given amount of solvent is its solubility.
N1V1 N 2V2 N3V3 N RVR 40. (d)
N N N 41. (b) According to Le-chateliers principle, for an exother
u 50 u 30 u 10 N R u 1000
10 3 2 mic reaction ('+< 0) increase in temperature decreases
5 N 10 N 5 N = 1000 u N R the solubility.
N 42. (c) On increasing the pressure over the solution phase
NR
50 by compressing the gas to a smaller volume (in fig b)
30. (c) 40 g NaOH = 1 mole increase the number of gaseous particles per unit
moles of the solute volume over the solution and also the rate at which
1
? molality = = 1 molal the gaseous particles are striking the surface of
mass of the solvent in kg 1
solution to enter it. The solubility of the gas will
31. (b) Both molality and mole fraction are not related to the increase until a new equilibrium is reached resulting
volume of solution, thus they are both independent of in an increase in the pressure of a gas above the
temperature. solution and thus its solubility increases.
32. (a) Given w = 10 g Mol. mass = 40
43. (d)
Weight of solvent = 1250 × 0.8 g = 10000 g = 1 kg
44. (a) According to Henry’s law at a constant temperature,
10 the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional
? molality 0.25
40 u 1 to the pressure of the gas.

14 62/87,216
45. (d) According to Henry’s law, 62. (a) For example, decrease in the vapour pressure of water
m=k×p by adding 1.0 mol of sucrose to one kg of water is
given KH = 1.4 × 10–3 nearly similar to that produced by adding 1.0 mol of
pO2 = 0.5 or urea to the same quantity of water at the same
temperature.
pO2 K H u x O2
63. (d)
0.5 64. (a) Given V.PP = 80 torr
? x O2
1.4 u 10 3 V.PQ = 60 torr
m Ptotal = V·PP × xp + V·Pq × xq
No. of moles; n
M
m ª 3 2º
0.7 u 10 4 = «80 u 60 u » = 16 × 3 + 12 × 2
32 ¬ 5 5¼
m 22.4 u 10 4 g 2.24 mg Ptotal = 48 + 24 = 72 torr
46. (c)
47. (b) [ Hint : If added substance dissolves, the solution is 65. (b) Moles of glucose 18
0. 1
unsaturated. If it does not dissolve solution is 180
saturated. If precipitation occurs solution is
supersaturated.] Moles of water 78.2
9.9
48. (c) 18
49. (b) Body temperature of human beings remains constant. Total moles = 0.1 + 9.9 = 10
50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (a)
53. (c) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase (p) is pH2O = Mole fraction × Total pressure 9.9
u 760
proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (x). 10
p = KH .x = 752.4 Torr
Where KH is Henry’s constant. 66. (d) p = pAxA + pBxB
54. (d) To increase the solubility of CO2 in soft drinks and = pAxA + pB (1 – xA)
soda water, the bottle is sealed under high pressure. pAxA + pB – pBxA
55. (d) Scuba divers must cope with high concentrations of pB+ xA (pA – pB)
dissolved gases while breathing air at high pressure
underwater. Increased pressure increases the solubility 67. (b) pAq ? , Given p Bq 200 mm of Hg, xA = 0.6,
of atmospheric gases in blood. When the divers come
towards surface, the pressure gradually decreases. xB = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4, P = 290 of Hg
This releases the dissolved gases and leads to the P = PA + PB = PAqx A PBqxB
formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood. This
blocks capillaries and creates a medical condition 290 = PAq × 0.6 + 200 × 0.4 ? pqA = 350 mm of Hg.
known as bends, which are painful and dangerous to
life. To avoid bends, as well as, the toxic effects of 68. (b) ptotal pAq xA pBq xB
high concentrations of nitrogen in the blood, the tanks
1 3
used by scuba divers are filled with air diluted with 550 pAq u pBq u
helium (11.7% helium, 56.2% nitrogen and 32.1% 4 4
oxygen). pAq 3 pBq 550 u 4 ...(i)
56. (a) At high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is In second case
less than that at the ground level. This leads to low
1 4
concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues of ptotal pAq u pBq u
people living at high altitudes or climbers. Low blood 5 5
oxygen causes climbers to become weak and unable q q
pA 4 pB 560 u 5 ...(ii)
to think clearly, symptoms of a condition known as Subtract (i) from (ii)
anoxia.
? pBq 560 u 5 550 u 4 600
57. (c)
58. (a) Raoult’s law becomes special case of Henry’s law when ' pAq 400
KH become equal to p n. 69. (d) According to given information
1
59. (c) 60. (d) pX = 80 Torr
61. (b) In the solution, the surface has both solute and solvent pY = 60 Torr
molecules; thereby the fraction of the surface covered nX = 3 moles
by the solvent molecules gets reduced. Consequently, nY = 2 moles
the number of solvent molecules escaping from the
surface is correspondingly reduced, thus, the vapour nX 3 3
mole fraction of X(xX)
pressure is also reduced. nX nY 32 5

62/87,216 15
On adding benzene, its molecules come between
nY 2 2
mole fraction of Y(xY) ethanol molecules there by breaking H-bonds which
n X n Y 3 2 5 weaken intermolecular forces. This results in increase
Total Pressure, P = pXxX + pYxY in vapour pressure.
3 2 80. (a) A solution of acetone in ethanol shows positive
u 80 u 60 = 48 + 24 = 72 Torr.. deviation from Raoult's law. It is because ethanol
5 5
molecules are strongly hydrogen bonded. When
70. (a) Total vapour pressure = vapour pressure of pure acetone is added, these molecules break the hydrogen
benzene + vapour pressure of toluene bonds and ethanol becomes more volatile. Therefore
= 100 + 50 = 150 mm its vapour pressure is increased.
We know, 81. (a) Acetone and chloroform shows negative deviation
PCq6H6 P u xC6 H6 from Raoult's law when these are mixed, the hydrogen
bonding takes place between the two molecular species
100 150 u xC6 H 6 due to which escaping tendency of either liquid
molecules becomes less and boiling point of solution
100 increases.
xC6 H 6 0.67
150 82. (b)
71. (c) These two components A and B follows the condition 83. (b) For this solution intermolecular interactions between
of Raoult’s law if the force of attraction between A and n-heptane and ethanol are weaker than n-heptane-n-
B is equal to the force of attraction between A and A or heptane & ethanol-ethanol interactions hence the
B and B. solution of n-heptane and ethanol is non-ideal and
72. (b) According to Raoult’s law “The partial pressure of a shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
volatile component of a solution is directly proportional 84. (a) For an ideal solution 'Smix > 0
to its mole fraction in solution at any temperature”. 85. (b)
p = Pxq 86. (d) Azeotropic mixture is constant boiling mixture, it is not
where, p = Partial pressure of component possible to separate the components of azeotropic
P° = Vapour pressure of component in pure form mixture by boiling.
x = mole fraction of component in solution. 87. (c)
73. (c) For an ideal solution, 'H 0 , 'V 0 88. (a) Minimum boiling azeotrope is formed by solution
Hence, option (c) is incorrect. showing positive deviation. e.g. acetone – ethanol.
74. (c) For ideal solution, 89. (b)
'Vmixing 0 and 'H mixing 0. 90. (c) Relative lowering of vapour pressure depends upon
the mole fraction of solute.
75. (d) C2H5I and C2H5OH form non-ideal solution.
Pq P
76. (d) i.e., mole fraction of solute
77. (a) On adding acetone, its molecules get in between the Pq
host molecules and break some of the hydrogen bonds 91. (b) According to Raoult's law, the relative lowering in
between them. Due to weakening of interactions, the vapour pressure of a dilute solution is equal to the mole
solution shows positive deviation from Raoult's law. fraction of the solute present in the solution.
78. (d) A solution containing A and B components shows pq p n
negative deviation when A–A and B–B interactions Mole fraction of solute
p n N
are weaker than that of A–B interactions. For such
92. (a) Given vapour pressure of pure solvent
solutions.
'H = –ve and 'V = –ve (P°) = 121.8 mm Hg; Weight of solute (w) = 15 g
79. (b) Positive deviations are shown by such solutions in Weight of solvent (W) = 250 g; Vapour pressure of
which solvent-solvent and solute-solute interactions solution (P) = 120.2 mm Hg and Molecular weight of
are stronger than the solute-solvent interactions. In solvent (M) = 78
such solution, the interactions among molecules From Raoult’s law
becomes weaker. Therefore their escaping tendency Po P w M
increases which results in the increase in their partial o
u
P m W
vapour pressures.
In pure methanol there exists intermolecular 121.8 120.2 15 78
u
H–bonding. 121.8 m 250
---O – H--- O—H --- O—H--- 15 u 78 121.8
or m u 356.2
| | | 250 1.6
CH3 CH3 CH3

16 62/87,216
Pq P n2 0.1 u180 u100

93. (d) 100. (c) Kb 1K/m
Pq n1 n2 1.8 u1000
101. (b) 'Tb = Kb × i × m
640 600 2.5 x
Where 'Tb = Elevation in boiling point
640 39 78 Kb = molal elevation constant
640 u 78 u 2.5 i = vant Hoff factor
x 80 ? ' Tb v molality..
39 u 40
94. (c) According to Raoult's law 102. (a) 'Tf = i × Kf × m
pq p Van't Hoff factor, i = 2 for NaCl, m = 0.01
xB
pq hence 'Tf = 0.02 Kf which is maximum in the present
case.
ª .2 1º Hence 'Tf is maximum or freezing point is minimum.
« xB Mole fraction of solute .2 .8 5»
« » 103. (c)
¬ p 60 mm of Hg ¼ K f u W2 u1000 1 1000
'T Kfm 5.12 u u 0.4K
pq p 1 M 2W1 250 51.2
or 4 pq ( p) u 5
pq 5
104. (d) ( HX H X , i = 1.3); 'Tf = Kf × m × i
60q5 1 0.3 0.3
º p° 75mm of Hg 0. 3
4 'Tf = 1.85 × 0.2 × 1.3 = 0.481º C
Po Ps n w M ? Tf = T fq 'T f = 0 – 0.481ºC = – 0.481ºC
95. (c) = u
o N m W
P 105. (b) Benzoic acid exists as dimer in benzene.
12 18 106. (b) 'T f K f u m 1.86 u 0.5 0.93qC; T f 0.93qC
0.1 = u
m 108
107. (b) As 'Tf = Kf. m
12 u 18 'Tb = Kb. m
m= 20
0.1u 108
'T f 'Tb
ª Pq P º w 2 M1 Hence, we have m
96. (b) «¬ Pq »¼ u 100 u
M 2 w1
u 100 10 Kf Kb
Kf
w 2 18 or 'T f 'Tb
u u 100 10 or w2 = 60 g Kb
60 180
Thus, 60 g of the solute must be added to 180 g of ['Tb 100.18 100 0.18qC]
water so that the vapour pressure of water is lowered
1.86
by 10%. = 0.18 × = 0.654°C
97. (a) The vapour pressure of a solution of glucose in water 0.512
can be calculated using the relation As the Freezing Point of pure water is 0°C,
pq ps 'Tf = 0 –Tf
Moles of glucose in solution
0.654 = 0 – Tf
ps Moles of water in solution ? Tf = – 0.654
17.5 ps 18/180 Thus the freezing point of solution will be – 0.654°C.
or [' pq 17.5 ] 108. (d) Addition of solute to water decreases the freezing point
ps 178.2/18
of water (pure solvent).
0.1u ps ?When 1% lead nitrate (solute) is added to water, the
or 17.5 – ps or ps = 17.325 mm Hg. freezing point of water will be below 0°C.
9.9
Hence (a) is correct answer.
1000W2 1.86×1000×68.5
98. (c) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property. 109. (a) 'T f Kf = = 0.372
M 2W1 342×1000
99. (c) 'Tb Kb u m
Elevation in boiling point is a colligative property, Tf = T °f –'Tf
which depends upon the no. of particles Tf = – 0.372°C
(concentration of solution). Thus greater the number 110. (d) 'Tf = Kf × m
of particles, greater is the elevation in boiling point 1000 u K f u w 2 solute
and hence greater will be its boiling point. M
'Tf u w1 solvent
Na2SO4 U 2Na+ + SO42–
Since Na2SO4 has maximum number of particles (c) 1000 u 1.86 u 1.8
M = 180
hence has maximum boiling point. 0.465 u 40

62/87,216 17
Molecular formula = (empirical formula)n 124. (d) 125. (c)
Molecular mass 180 126. (c) Na2SO4 o 2Na+ + SO 24
n 6
Empirical formula mass 30 Mol. before dissociation 1 0 0
Molecular formula = (CH2O)6 = C6H12O6. Mol. after dissociation 1 – D 2D 1D
111. (b) Blood cells neither swell nor shrink in isotonic solution. i 1 D 2D D 1 2D
As isotonic solutions have equal concentration 127. (d) The salt that ionises to least extent will have highest
therefore there is no flow of solvent occurs and hence freezing point. [ i.e., minimum ' Tf ]
solvent neither enters nor flow out of the blood cells. 128. (b) AlCl3 furnishes more ions than CaCl2 and thus possess
112. (a) Isotonic solutions have same molar concentration at higher boiling point i.e., t1 > t2.
given temperature provided the Van't Hoff factor (i) is 129. (a) Concentration of particles in CaCl2 solution will be
same. maximum as i = 3 for CaCl2 and i = 2 for KCl.
113. (b) Glucose and Urea do not dissociate into ions, as they
114. (a) The solution which provide same number of ions are are nonelectrolytes.
isotonic.
130. (a) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] and Al 2(SO 4 )3 both dissociates to
Ca (NO3)2 o Ca2+ + 2 NO3–
give 5 ions or i = 5
Total ions produced = 3
ZZX 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–
K4 [Fe(CN)6] YZZ
Na2SO4 o 2 Na+ + SO42–
Total ions produced = 3 ZZX 2Al3 3SO 4
and Al2 (SO4 )3 YZZ
? 0.1 M Ca (NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4 are isotonic. 131. (a) Depression in freezing point v No. of particles.
115. (d) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property. Hence (when concentration of different solutions is equal)
resulting osmotic pressure of the solution is given by Al 2 (SO4 )3 provides five ions on ionisation
ST = S1 + S2 + S3 ..........
ST = 1.64 + 2.46 = 4.10 atm. o 2 Al 3 3SO 42 –
Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3
116. (a) According to Boyle-van't Hoff law, while KCl provides two ions
S v C (at constant temp) KCl ¶¶ l K Cl
117. (c) Isotonic solutions have same osmotic pressure C6 H12 O6 and C12 H22 O11 are not ionised so they
Sglucose = Sunknown solute have single particle in solution.
Hence, Al2(SO4)3 have maximum value of depression
m1 m2 5 2
? or M2 72 in freezing point or lowest freezing point.
M1 M2 180 M2
118. (b ) 'Tf = Kf × m No. of particles after ionisation
132. (a) (i) i
Kf is a characteristic of a particular solvent i.e., it will No. of particles before ionisation
be different for different solvents. (ii) 'Tb = i × Kb × m
119. (b)
120. (c) During osmosis water flows through semipermeable o Cu2+ + 2Cl
CuCl2
1 0 0
membrane from lower concentration to higher
concentration. (1D) D 2D
121. (a) As both the solutions are isotonic hence there is no 1 2D
net movement of the solvent occurs through the i , i = 1 + 2D
1
semipermeable membrane between two solutions.
Assuming 100% ionization
122. (c) If compound dissociates in solvent i > 1 and on
association i < 1. So, i = 1 + 2 = 3
123. (a) Van’t Hoff equation is 13.44
'Tb = 3 u 0.52 u 0.1 = 0.156 | 0.16 [m 0.1]
SV = inRT 134.4
For depression in freezing point.
133. (d) 'Tf i.k f .m ; 'Tb i.k b .m
' Tf = i × Kf × m
For elevation in boiling point. 'Tf kf
' Tb = i × Kb × m 'Tb kb
For lowering of vapour pressure,
'Tf 0 ( 0.186qC) 0.186qC
q
Psolvent Psolution § n ·
i¨ . 0.186 1.86 0.52 u 0.186
© N n ¸¹ 'Tb 0.052
P q
solvent 'Tb 0.52 1.86

18 62/87,216
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 156. (a) Mole fraction of any component A in solution
134. (d) No. of moles of A

x
135. (b) Molarity include volume thus with increase Total No. of moles of solution
intemperature increases’ volume increases, hence As total no. of moles of solution > No. of moles of A
molarity decreases while in case of molality mass of
Thus x can never be equal to one or zero.
solvent is taken, which is not effected by temperature.
157. (d) According to Henry’s law the mass of a gas dissolved
136. (c) As temperature increases solubility of gas decreases,
per unit volume of solvent is proportional to the
so dissolution of gas can be considered as exothermic
process. pressure of the gas at constant temperature m = K p
i.e. as the solubility increases, value of Henry’s law
137. (c) Solubility of gases increase with decrease of
temperature. constant decreases. Since CO2 is most soluble in water
among the given set of gases. Therefore CO2 has the
138. (c) A solute dissolves in a solvent if intermolecular
lowest value of Henry’s law constant.
interactions are similar in the two or we may say like
dissolves like. 158. (d) Let the mass of methane and oxygen = m gm.
139. (c) The vapour pressure of a liquid increases with Mole fraction of O2
increase of temperature.
Moles of O2
140. (b) =
Moles of O 2 + Moles of CH 4
141. (d) Colligative properties depends upon the no. of
particles. Since methanol is non electrolyte hence m / 32 1
m / 32
cannot be considered. = = =
m / 32 m /16 3m / 32 3
142. (b) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property as it
depends on the number of solute molecules and not Partial pressure of O2 = Total pressure × mole fraction
on their identity. For dilute solutions, during osmosis 1 1
solvent molecules always flow from lower of O2 , PO2 = P × = P
3 3
concentration to higher concentration of solution.
159. (a) kH = 100 kbar = 105 bar, p = 1 bar
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 p = k H × xA
143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (a) p 1
xA = 105
kH 100 u 103
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
148. (a) 1000
Moles of water = 55.5
149. (c) Both the solute and solvent will form the vapours but 18
vapour phase will become richer in the more volatile Weight of water = 1000 g (' 1000 mL = 1000 g)
component.
150. (b) 151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (a) 154. (b) x
Mole fraction = 10–5 =
55.5 x
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 As 55.5 >>> x, thus neglecting x from denominator
155. (c) Equivalent weight of orthophosphoric acid x
105 x 55.5 u 105 moles
3 31 64 98 55.5
(H3PO4) =
3 3 or 0.555 millimoles.
Now 100 gm solution contains 70 gm H3PO4 160. (c)
161. (a) % of N2 in atmosphere = 78.9%
100 70
litre of solution contains gm % of O2 in atmosphere = 20.95%
1000 u1.54 98 / 3
Partial pressure of N2 = 0.789 atm = 0.799 bar
equivalent of H3PO4
Partial pressure of O2 = 0.2095 atm = 0.212 bar
Normality of solution
According to Henry’s law,
70 u 3
0.212
=
98 70 u 3
u 10 u 1.54 33 N P (K H )O2 x x O2 6.08 u10 6
1 98 (34.86 u1000)
10 u1.54

62/87,216 19
167. (d)
0.799
P (K H ) N 2 x x N2 1.0447 u 10 5 168. (b) According to Raoult's law
(76.48 u 1000)
'p n
§ n O2 · § n N2 · (mole fraction of solute)
¨ ¸:¨ ¸ pq n N
¨ n O nH O n N ¸ ¨ n O nH O n N ¸
© 2 2 2 ¹ © 2 2 2 ¹ 10
x O2 : x N 2 0.2 ? p° = 50 mm of Hg
pq
6.08 u 10 6 :1.04 u10 5 For other solution of same solvent
= 1 : 1.71
20 n
162. (a) According to idea of Raoult’s law “partial pressure of (Mole fraction of solute)
one of the component is proportional to mole fraction pq nN
of that component in the solution.” 20
Mole fraction of solute
P P1n x1 P2n x 2 50
600 = 450 x1 + 700 x2 Mole fraction of solute = 0.4
4.5 x1 + 7x2 = 6 As mole fraction of solute + mole fraction of solvent = 1
' x1 + x2 = 1 Hence, mole fraction of solvent = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
? x1 = 0.6 x2 = 0.4 169 (b) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is given by :
x1 = 0.4, x2 = 0.6
Pq – Ps w/m
163. (a) The solutions (liquid mixture) which boils at constant
Pq w/ m W / M
temperature and can distil as such without any change
in composition are called azeotropes. where, P° = vapour pressure of pure solvent
Solution of HNO3 and H2O will form maximum boiling Ps = vapour pressure of solution
point azeotrope. Maximum boiling azeotropes show w = mass of solute
negative deviation from Raoult’s law. m = molecular mass of solute
Composition (%) Boiling Point W = mass of solvent
HNO3 68.0 359 K M = molecular mass of solvent
H2O 32.0 373 K For dilute solution
Boiling point of the azeotrope of these two solutions 121.8 120.2 15/ m 15 78
is 393.5 K. = u 1.3 u 102
121.8 250 / 78 m 250
164. (a)
m = 356.265
165. (a) Since formation of hydrogen bonding takes place, due
170. (a) From Raoult law
to this bond energy is supposed to be released and
hence change in enthalpy is negative,so reaction is pq – p
exothermic. pq
166. (a) According to Raoult’s law,
PT = xAp°A + xBp°B No.of moles of solute
=
Given, = PT1 500 mm Hg No. of moles of solvent+ No. of moles of solute
nA = 1 and nB = 2 ? xA = 1/3 and xB = 2/3 When the concentration of solute is much lower than
the concentration of solvent,
1 2
500 pqA pqB pq p No. of moles of solute
3 3
pq No. of moles of solvent
1500 pqA 2pqB ...(i)
'Tb = Kb × m
Also given Qn that one more mole of B is added to the
Number of moles of the solute
solution, the pressure of the ideal solution increases m u 1000
by 25 mm Hg. Mass of solvent in grams
? PT2 = 500 + 25 = 525 mm Hg Number of moles of the solute

'Tb Kb u × 1000
Also, nB = 3 ?xA = 1/4 and xB = 3/4 Mass of solvent in grams
1 3 Number of moles of solute

525 pqA pqB ...(ii)
4 4 'Tb u Mass of solvent in grams
K b u 1000
2100 PAq 3PBq Subtract (i) and (ii),
p°B = 600 mm Hg 2 u100
0.26,
p°A + 2p°B = 1500 p°A = 300 mm Hg. 0.76 u1000

20 62/87,216
100 For HBr
Number of moles of solvent 5.56
18 o H Br
HBr
760 p 0.26 1 0 0
From equation (i) we get, (1D ) D D
760 5.56 D = 90% = 0.9
On solving, p = 724.46 | 724 i = 1 + D = 1 + 0.9 = 1.9
171. (d) (100 + 'Tb) – (0 – 'Tf) = 105 'T f = Kf × m × i
'Tb + 'Tf = 5
m (kb + kf) = 5 moles of solute
= 1.86 × × 1.9
mass of solvent in kg
5 5
m i.e., moles in 1000 g water
2.37 2.37 8.1/ 81
= 1.86 × u 1.9
5 100 /1000
(or) moles in 100 g water = 1.86 × 1 × 1.9 = 3.534K
2.37 u 10
Tf T f q 'T f
5
? Wt. of sucrose u 342 = 72g or Tf = 0 – 3.534 K
2.37 u 10
? Tf = – 3.534K
172. (b) Given kb = x K kg mol–1 176. (d) 1% solution contains 1 g of the solute in 100 g of
'Tb = kb × m solution.
? y= x × m Osmotic pressure, S = CRT
y The value of R and T is same for all the solute however,
m all of them undergo 100% dissociation
x
?Sv i × C
We know
iKCl = 2, iNaCl = 2, iBaCl = 3 and iurea = 1.
'Tf = kf × m nKCl = 1/74.5
2
On substituting value of m,
1/ 74.5
CKCl u 1000 0.13
yz 100
'Tt =
x or SKCl = 2 × 0.13 = 0.26
173. (d) Mass of non-volatile solute = 1g 1
Molar mass of solute = 250g mol–1 nNaCl=
58.5
Mass of benzene = 51.2g, Kf = 5.12 K kg mol–1
1/ 58.5
K f u 1000 u w 2 C NaCl u 1000 0.17
'Tf 100
M 2 u w1 ? SNaCl = 2 × 0.17 = 0.34
where, w2= mass of the solute 1
n =
M2 = molar mass of solute BaCl2 208.4
w1 = mass of the solvent
1/ 208.4
5.12 u 1000 u 1 CBaCl2 u 1000 0.048
On substituting given values, 'T f 100
51.2 u 250
or S BaCl2 3 u 0.048 0.14
? 'T f 0.4K
1
174. (d) 'Tb = iKb m n urea
60
Given, ('Tb)x > ('Tb)y
? ix Kb m > iyKb m (Kb is same for same solvent) Curea
1/ 60
u 1000 0.16
ix > iy 100
So, x is undergoing dissociation in water. ? Surea = 1 × 0.16 = 0.16
175. (b) Given mass of solute = 8.1 g ? SBaCl2 Surea SKCl SNaCl
Mass of solvent = 100 g or III < IV < I < II

3
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
7. Which one is not called a anode reaction from the following?

)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216
1
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding (a) Cl o Cl2 e (b) Cu o Cu 2e
2
electrochemistry?
(a) It is the study of production of electricity from energy (c) Hg o Hg e (d) Zn2 2eo Zn
released during spontaneous chemical reactions. 8. The cell reaction Cu 2Ag o Cu2 Ag is best
(b) NaOH, Cl2, alkali and alkaline earth metals are prepared represented by
by electrochemical methods.
(c) The demerit associated with electrochemical methods (a) Cu(s ) | Cu 2 (aq) | | Ag (aq) | Ag( s )
is that they are more polluting. Thus they are eco-
destructive. (b) Pt | Cu 2 | | Ag ( aq ) | Ag( s)
(d) Electrochemical reactions are more energy efficient
(c) Cu 2 | Cu | | Pt | Ag
and less polluting.
2. What flows in the internal circuit of a galvanic cell? (d) None of the above representations
(a) Ions (b) Electrons
9. Zn (s ) | Zn 2 ( aq) | | Cu 2 ( aq) |Cu( s) is
(c) Electricity (d) Atoms anode cathode
3. Which of the following statements about galvanic cell is
incorrect (a) Weston cell (b) Daniel cell
(a) anode is positive (c) Calomel cell (d) Faraday cell
(b) oxidation occurs at the electrode with lower reduction 10. The tendency of an electrode to lose electrons is known as
potential (a) electrode potential (b) reduction potential
(c) cathode is positive (c) oxidation potential (d) e.m.f.
(d) reduction occurs at cathode 11. The chemical reaction,
4. Reaction that takes place at graphite anode in dry cell is
2AgCl(s) H 2 (g)
o 2HCl(aq) 2Ag(s)
(a) Zn 2 2e o Zn(s)
taking place in a galvanic cell is represented by the notation
(b) Zn(s) o Zn 2 2e
(a) Pt(s) | H 2 (g),1 bar |1M KCl(aq) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s)
(c) Mn 2 2e o Mn(s)

(d) Mn(s) o Mn e 1.5V (b) Pt(s) | H 2 (g),1 bar |1M HCl(aq) |1MAg (aq) | Ag(s)
5. In which of the following conditions salt bridge is not
required in a galvanic cell? (c) Pt(s) | H 2 (g),1 bar |1M HCl(aq) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s)
(a) When galvanic cell is used in geyser. (d) Pt(s) | H 2 (g),1 bar |1M HCl(aq) | Ag(s) | AgCl(s)
(b) When distance between oxidation half cell and
reduction half cell is negligible. 12. Given that the standard reduction potentials for M+/M and
(c) Electrolytic solutions used in both the half cells are of N+/N electrodes at 298 K are 0.52 V and 0.25 V respectively.
same concentration. Which of the following is correct in respect of the following
(d) When both the electrodes are dipped in the same electrochemical cell ?
electrolytic solution. M/M+ | | N+/N
6. Which device converts chemical energy of a spontaneous (a) The overall cell reaction is a spontaneous reaction.
redox reaction into electrical energy? (b) The standard EMF of the cell is – 0.27 V.
(a) Galvanic cell (b) Electrolytic cell (c) The standard EMF of the cell is 0.77 V.
(c) Daniell cell (d) Both (a) and (c) (d) The standard EMF of the cell is – 0.77 V.

22 (/(&752&+(0,675<
13. The difference between the electrode potentials of two 22. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given
electrodes when no current is drawn through the cell is below :
called _________. F2(g) + 2e– o 2F– (aq); E° = + 2.85 V
(a) Cell potentials (b) Cell emf Cl2(g) + 2e– o 2Cl–(aq); E° = + 1.36 V
(c) Potential difference (d) Cell voltage Br2(l) + 2e– o 2Br–(aq); E° = + 1.06 V
14. For the given Nernst equation I2(s) + 2e– o 2I–(aq); E° = + 0.53 V
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively
ª 2 º
RT ¬ Mg ¼ are
E cell Eqcell ln
2F ª º 2 (a) F2 and I– (b) Br2 and Cl–
Ag –
¬ ¼ (c) Cl2 and Br (d) Cl2 and I2
Which of the following representation is correct? 23. A button cell used in watches functions as following
(a) Ag+|Ag||Mg2+|Mg (b) Mg2+|Mg||Ag|Ag+ Zn(s) + Ag2O(s) + H2O(l)
2+
(c) Mg|Mg ||Ag |Ag + (d) Mg|Mg2+||Ag|Ag+ 2Ag(s) + Zn2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq)
15. For cell representation: If half cell potentials are :
Cu(s)|Cu2+(aq)||Ag+(aq)|Ag(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2e– o Zn(s); Eo = – 0.76 V
Which of the following is correct? Ag2O(s) + H2O (l) + 2e– o 2Ag(s) + 2OH–(aq); Eo = 0.34 V
(i) Cu is reducing agent. The cell potential will be :
(ii) Overall cell reaction is (a) 0.42 V (b) 0.84 V
(c) 1.34 V (d) 1.10 V
Cu s 2Ag aq o Cu 2 aq 2Ag s 24. The oxidation potentials of A and B are +2.37 and +1.66 V
(iii) Cu is cathode respectively. In chemical reactions
(iv) Ag is anode (a) A will be replaced by B
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) A will replace B
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (c) A will not replace B
16. The reference electrode is made by using (d) A and B will not replace each other
(a) ZnCl2 (b) CuSO4 25. A smuggler could not carry gold by depositing iron on the
(c) HgCl2 (d) Hg2Cl2 gold surface since
17. The standard hydrogen electrode potential is zero, because (a) gold is denser
(a) hydrogen oxidized easily (b) iron rusts
(b) electrode potential is considered as zero (c) gold has higher reduction potential than iron
(c) hydrogen atom has only one electron (d) gold has lower reduction potential than iron
(d) hydrogen is a very light element 26. Which cell will measure standard electrode potential of
copper electrode ?
18. Without losing its concentration ZnCl2 solution cannot be
(a) Pt (s) |H2 (g, 0.1 bar) |H+ (aq., 1 M) ||Cu2+ (aq., 1 M) |
kept in contact with
Cu
(a) Au (b) Al
(b) Pt (s) |H2 (g, 1 bar) |H+ (aq., 1 M) ||Cu2+ (aq., 2 M) |
(c) Pb (d) Ag Cu
19. On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest (c) Pt (s) |H2 (g, 1 bar) |H+ (aq., 1 M) ||Cu2+ (aq., 1 M) |
oxidizing agent is : Cu (d) Pt (s) |H2 (g, 1 bar) |H+ (aq., 0.1
[Fe(CN)6]4– o[Fe(CN)6]3– + e– ; E° = – 0.35 V M) ||Cu2+ (aq., 1 M) | Cu
Fe2+ o Fe3+ + e–; E° = – 0.77 V 27. Which of the following statement is not correct about an
(a) [Fe(CN)6]4– (b) Fe2+ inert electrode in a cell ?
(c) Fe3+ (d) [Fe(CN)6]3– (a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
20. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are (b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction
– 1.2 V, + 0.5 V and – 3.0 V, respectively. The reducing power reaction.
of these metals will be : (c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(a) Y > Z > X (b) X > Y > Z (d) It provides surface for redox reaction.
(c) Z > X > Y (d) X > Y > Z 28. In the electrochemical reaction
21. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+ / Sn2+ couple is + 0.15 V 2Fe 3 Zn o Zn 2 2Fe 2 ,
and that for the Cr3+ / Cr couple is – 0.74 V. These two couples on increasing the concentration of Fe2+
in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell
(a) increases cell emf
potential will be
(b) increases the current flow
(a) + 1.19 V (b) + 0.89 V
(c) decreases the cell emf
(c) + 0.18 V (d) + 1.83 V (d) alters the pH of the solution

(/(&752&+(0,675< 23
29. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction 37. The electrode potential E of a zinc electrode at
with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium (Zn 2 Zn)
constant of the reaction would be 25°C with an aqueous solution of 0.1 M ZnSO 4 is
(Given F = 96500 C mol–1; R = 8.314JK–1mol–1) 2.303RT
(a) 2.0 u 1011 (b) 4.0 u 1012 [ Eq 2 = – 0.76 V. Assume = 0.06 at 298 K].
(Zn Zn) F
(c) 1 .0 u 10 2 (d) 1 .0 u 1010 (a) + 0.73 (b) – 0.79
(c) – 0.82 (d) – 0.70
30. What will be the emf for the given cell
38. In the cell reaction
Pt | H2 (P1) | H+ (aq) | | H2 (P2) | Pt
Cu(s) 2Ag (aq) o Cu 2 (aq) 2Ag(s) ,
RT P
(a)
RT P
log e 1 (b) log e 1 Eocell = 0.46 V. By doubling the concentration of Cu2+, Eocell
F P2 2F P2 will become
RT P (a) doubled
(c) log e 2 (d) None of these (b) halved
F P1
(c) increases but less than double
31. The value of electrode potential (10–4 M) H+ | H2(1 atm) | Pt (d) decreases by a small fraction
at 298 K would be 39. E° of a cell aA bB
o cC dD is
(a) – 0.236 V (b) + 0.404 V
(c) + 0.236 V (d) – 0.476 V [a ]A [b]B RT [C]c [D]d
(a) E RT ln (b) E ln
C D nF [A]a [B]b
32. According to Nernst equation, which is not correct if [c] [d]
Q = Kc :
RT RT [C]c [d]D RT [a ]A [B]B
(a) Ecell = 0 (b) ln Q E Dcell (c) E ln (d) E ln
nF nF [A]A [B]B nF [C]C [d]D
nFEDcell 40. E° for the cell,
(c) Kc e RT (d) E cell EDcell Zn | Zn 2 (aq) | | Cu 2 (aq)| Cu is 1.10 V at 25°C. The
33. The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron change is
equilibrium constant for the cell reaction
found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the
reaction is (F = 96500 C mol–1) Zn Cu 2 (aq) Cu Zn 2 (aq)
(a) 1.0 × 101 (b) 1.0 × 105 is of the order of
(c) 1.0 × 10 10 (d) 1.0 ×1030 (a) 10–37 (b) 1037
34. For the galvanic cell (c) 10–17 (d) 1017
Zn | Zn2+ (0.1M) || Cu2+ (1.0M)|Cu the cell potential increase 41. What is the standard cell potential E° for an electrochemical
if: cell in which the following reaction takes place
(a) [Zn2+] is increased spontaneously ?
(b) [Cu2+] is increased Cl2 (g) 2Br o Br2 (aq) 2Cl 'Gq 50.6 kJ
(c) [Cu2+] is decreased (a) 1.2 V (b) 0.53 V
(d) surface area of anode is increased (c) 0.26 V (d) –0.53 V
35. Consider the following cell reaction: 42. If 0.01 M solution of an electrolyte has a resistance of 40
2Fe( s) O2 ( g) 4H (aq) o 2Fe2 (aq) 2H2O(l);Eq 1.67V ohms in a cell having a cell constant of 0.4 cm–1, then its
At [Fe2+] = 10–3 M, p(O2) = 0.1 atm and pH = 3, the cell molar conductance in ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 is
potential at 25ºC is (a) 102 (b) 104
(a) 1.47 V (b) 1.77 V (c) 10 (d) 103
43. Specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23ºC is
(c) 1.87 V (d) 1.57 V
0.012 ohm–1 cm–1. Resistance of cell containing the solution
36. The e.m.f. of a Daniell cell at 298 K is E1. at same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell
ZnSO4 CuSO4 constant is
Zn Cu (a) 0.0616 cm–1 (b) 0.66 cm–1
(0.01 M) (1.0 M)
(c) 6.60 cm–1 (d) 660 cm–1
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and that of 44. The unit of equivalent conductivity is
CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. changed to E2. What is the (a) ohm cm
relationship between E1 and E2? (b) ohm–1 cm2 (g equivalent)–1
(a) E 2 0 z E1 (b) E1 ! E 2 (c) ohm cm2 (g equivalent)
(c) E1 E 2 (d) E1 E 2 (d) S cm–2

24 (/(&752&+(0,675<
45. The resistance of 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte was found (iii) (iv)
m/(S cm mol )
–1
to be 220 ohm at 298 K using a conductivity cell with a cell
m/(S cm mol )
–1
constant of 0.88cm–1. The value of equivalent conductance
2
of solution is –
2
(a) 400 mho cm2 g eq–1 (b) 295 mho cm2 g eq–1
(c) 419 mho cm2 g eq–1 (d) 425 mho cm2 g eq–1
46. Specific conductance of 0.1 M HNO3 is 6.3×10–2 ohm–1 cm–1. 1
1
The molar conductance of the solution is c / (mol L) 2
c / (mol L) 2
(a) 100 ohm–1 cm2 (b) 515 ohm–1 cm2
(c) 630 ohm–1 cm2 (d) 6300 ohm–1 cm2 (v)
m/(S cm mol )
–1
47. The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23°C is
0.012 ohm–1cm–1. The resistance of cell containing the
2
solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm.
The cell constant will be
(a) 0.142 cm–1 (b) 0.66 cm–1
1
(c) 0.918 cm –1 (d) 1.12 cm–1
c / (mol L) 2
48. The unit of specific conductivity is
(a) ohm cm–1 (b) ohm cm–2 Weak acid Strong acid
(c) ohm cm –1 (d) ohm–1 cm–1 (a) (iv) (v)
49. Which of the following solutions of KCl will have the highest (b) (ii) (iv)
value of specific conductance? (c) (i) (ii)
(a) 1.0 N (b) 0.1 N (d) (iii) (ii)
(c) 1.0 ×10–2N (d) 1.0 ×10–3N Electrolyte: KCl KNO 3 HCl NaOAc NaCl
50. The cell constant of a conductivity cell ___________. 55.
f 2 –1
/ (S cm mol ) : 149.9 145 426.2 91 126.5
(a) changes with change of electrolyte.
(b) changes with change of concentration of electrolyte. Calculate /f
HOAc using appropriate molar conductances
(c) changes with temperature of electrolyte.
(d) remains constant for a cell. of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution in H 2 O
51. Which of the following pair(s) is/are incorrectly matched? at 25°C
(i) R (resistance) – ohm (:) (a) 217.5 (b) 390.7
(ii) U (resistivity) – ohm metre (:m) (c) 552.7 (d) 517.2
(iii) G (conductance) – seimens or ohm (S)
56. Kohlrausch’s law states that at
(iv) N (conductivity) – seimens metre–1 (Sm–1)
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) only equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever
52. On which of the following magnitude of conductivity does be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte.
not depends? (b) infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution
(a) Nature of material (b) Temperature to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte depending
(c) Pressure (d) Mass of the material on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte.
53. Which of the following expression correctly represents (c) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution
molar conductivity? to conductance of an electrolyte whatever be the nature
K KA of the other ion of the electrolyte.
(a) m (b) m
C l (d) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution
to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever
(c) m KV (d) All of these be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte.
54. Which of the following represents variation of molar 57. Which of the following expressions correctly represents
conductance of electrolyte with (concentration) ½
the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al2(SO4)3,
respectively for weak and strong electrolyte ?
(i) (ii) Given that / qAl3 and /qSO2 are the equivalent
m/(S cm mol )
m/(S cm mol )
–1
–1
4
conductances at infinite dilution of the respective ions?
2
1 q 1 2/q 3/q
(a) / 3 /q 2 (b) Al3 SO24
3 Al 2 SO4
1 1
/q /q §/q / q 2 · u 6
(c) Al3 SO24 (d) © Al3 SO4 ¹
c / (mol L) 2 c / (mol L) 2

(/(&752&+(0,675< 25
58. Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH 65. Molar ionic conductivities of a two-bivalent electrolytes
i.e., /qm(NH 4OH is equal to : x 2 and y2 are 57 and 73 respectively. The molar
conductivity of the solution formed by them will be
(a) / qm NH / q q
/ m NaOH (a) 130 S cm2 mol–1 (b) 65 S cm2 mol–1
4Cl m NaCl

(c) 260 S cm mol2 –1 (d) 187 S cm2 mol–1
(b) / qm NaOH / qm NaCl / qm NH Cl
4 66. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinum
electrodes, the product obtained at the anode will be
(c) / qm NH q
/ m NH 4Cl /qm HCl
4OH (a) hydrogen (b) oxygen
(d) / qm NH q
/ m NaOH / qm NaCl (c) hydrogen sulphide (d) Sulphur dioxide
4 Cl
67. If 0.5 amp current is passed through acidified silver nitrate
59. Molar conductivities ( /q m ) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl solution for 100 minutes. The mass of silver deposited on
and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 cathode, is (eq.wt.of silver nitrate = 108)
respectively. /qm for CH3COOH will be (a) 2.3523 g (b) 3.3575 g
(a) 425.5 S cm2 mol–1 (b) 180.5 S cm2 mol–1 (c) 5.3578 g (d) 6.3575 g
2
(c) 290.8 S cm mol –1 (d) 390.5 S cm2 mol–1 68. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000°C to furnish
60. At 25°C, the molar conductance at infinite dilution for the aluminium metal (At. Mass = 27 amu; 1 Faraday = 96,500
strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl and BaCl2 are 248 × 10–4,
126 × 10 –4 and 280 × 10 – 4 Sm 2 mol –1 respectively. Coulombs). The cathode reaction is– Al
3+
+ 3e o Al
To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium metal by this method we
/ 0m Ba(OH)2 in S m2 mol –1 is
require electricity of
(a) 52.4 × 10–4 (b) 524 × 10–4
(c) 402 × 10–4 (d) 262 × 10–4 (a) 5.49 × 101 C (b) 5.49 × 10 4 C
61. / CICH2COONa 224 ohm 1cm 2gm eq 1, (c) 1.83 × 10 7 C (d) 5.49 × 10 7 C
69. Which of the following is the use of electrolysis?
/ NaCl 38.2 ohm 1cm 2gm eq 1, (a) Electrorefining (b) Electroplating
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
/ HCl 203 ohm 1cm 2gm eq 1,
70. An electrolytic cell contains a solution of Ag2SO4 and has
What is the value of /CICH2COOH platinum electrodes. A current is passed until 1.6 gm of O2
has been liberated at anode. The amount of silver deposited
(a) 288.5 ohm–1cm2gmeq–1
at cathode would be
(b) 289.5 ohm–1cm2gmeq–1
(a) 107.88 gm (b) 1.6 gm
(c) 388.8 ohm–1cm2gmeq–1
(c) 0.8 gm (d) 21.60 gm
(d) 59.5 ohm–1cm2gmeq–1 71. When 9650 coulombs of electricity is passed through a
62. At 25°C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution solution of copper sulphate, the amount of copper deposited
of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 ohm-1 cm2mol-1 and at is (given at. wt. of Cu = 63.6)
infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1. (a) 0318g (b) 3.18 g
The degree or ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the
(c) 31.8g (d) 63.6g
same concentration and temperature is:
72. Find the charge in coulombs required to convert 0.2 mole
(a) 20.800% (b) 4.008% VO3–2 into VO4–3 –
(c) 40.800% (d) 2.080% (a) 1.93 × 104 (b) 9.65 × 104
63. The electrical properties and their r espective (c) 1.93 × 10 5 (d) 9.65 × 105
SI units are given below. Identify the wrongly matched pair. 73. A silver cup is plated with silver by passing 965 coulombs
Electrical property SI unit of electricity. The amount of Ag deposited is :
(a) Specific conductance S m–1 (a) 107.89 g (b) 9.89 g
(b) Conductance S (c) 1.0002 g (d) 1.08 g
(c) Equivalent conductance S m2 gequiv–1 74. The number of coulombs required to reduce 12.3 g of
(d) Cell constant m nitrobenzene to aniline is :
64. The ion of least limiting molar conductivity among the (a) 115800 C (b) 5790 C
following is (c) 28950 C (d) 57900 C
75. The amount of electricity that can deposit 108 g of Ag from
(a) SO 24 (b) H+ AgNO3 solution is:
(a) 1 F (b) 2 A
(c) Ca 2 (d) CH 3COO (c) 1 C (d) 1 A

26 (/(&752&+(0,675<
76. To deposit one equivalent weight of silver at cathode, the (a) 1.0 mol (b) 0.20 mol
charge required will be (c) 0.40 mol (d) 0.80 mol
(a) 9.65 × 104 C (b) 9.65 × 103 C 87. A current strength of 9.65 amperes is passed through excess
(c) 9.65 × 10 C5 (d) 9.65 × 107 C fused AlCl3 for 5 hours. How many litres of chlorine will be
77. The volume of oxygen gas liberated at NTP by passing a liberated at STP? (F = 96500 C)
current of 9650 coulombs through acidified water is (a) 2.016 (b) 1.008
(a) 1.12 litre (b) 2.24 litre (c) 11.2 (d) 20.16
(c) 11.2 litre (d) 22.4 litre
88. A solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) is electrolysed for
78. Three faradays electricity was passed through an aqueous
10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes. The mass of copper
solution of iron (II) bromide. The weight of iron metal
deposited at th e cathode (at. mass of Cu = 63u)
(at. wt = 65) deposited at the cathode (in gm) is
is
(a) 56 (b) 84
(c) 112 (d) 168 (a) 0.3892g (b) 0.2938g
79. On passing C ampere of electricity through a electrolyte (c) 0.2398g (d) 0.3928g
solution for t second. m gram metal deposits on cathode. 89. When 0.1 mol MnO42– is oxidised the quantity of electricity
The equivalent weight E of the metal is required to completely oxidise MnO42– to MnO4– is
C ut Cum (a) 96500 C (b) 2 × 96500 C
(a) E (b) E
m u 96500 t u 96500 (c) 9650 C (d) 96.50 C
90. The weight of silver (at wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of
96500 u m C u t u 96500
(c) E (d) E electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2 at STP will be
C ut m
(a) 5.4 g (b) 10.8 g
80. The number of electrons passing per second through a
cross-section of copper wire carrying 10–6 amperes of (c) 54.9 g (d) 108.0 g
current per second is found to be 91. Electrolysis of a salt solution was carried out, after some
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 (b) 6 × 10–35 time solution turned yellow than salt can be
(c) 6 × 10 –16 (d) 6 × 1012 (i) NaCl (ii) KCl
81. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis will fail when (iii) RbCl (iv) KBr
(a) temperature is increased
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (ii) and (iv)
(b) inert electrodes are used
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) a mixture of electrolytes is used
(d) None of these cases 92. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
82. The electric charge for electrode decomposition of one gram (a) Both electronic and electrolytic conductance depends
equivalent of a substance is on the nature of conducting material.
(a) one ampere per second (b) Both electronic and electrolytic conductance varies
(b) 96500 coulombs per second similarly with temperature.
(c) one ampere for one hour (c) Electronic conductance is independent but electrolytic
(d) charge on one mole of electrons conductance depends on the amount of the
83. In electrolysis of dilute H2SO4 using platinum electrodes conducting substance.
(a) H2 is evolved at cathode (d) All the above statements are incorrect.
(b) NH2 is produced at anode 93. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(c) Cl2 is obtained at cathode
(a) Electrodes made up of gold participates in the chemical
(d) O2 is produced
reaction.
84. In electrolysis of NaCl when Pt electrode is taken then H2 is
liberated at cathode while with Hg cathode it forms sodium (b) Electrolytic products of NaCl are Na and Cl2 whereas
amalgam. This is because of aqueous NaCl are NaOH, Cl2 and H2.
(a) Hg is more inert than Pt (c) During electrolysis at cathode, reaction with higher
(b) more voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg than at Pt value of E is preferred.
(c) Na is dissolved in Hg while it does not dissolve in Pt
(d) All of the above statements are incorrect.
(d) conc. of H+ ions is larger when Pt electrode is taken
85. Electrolysis of fused NaCl will give 94. During electrolysis of sulphuric acid, which of the following
(a) Na (b) NaOH processes is possible at anode?
(c) NaClO (d) None of these A. o O 2 (g) 4H (aq) 4e Ecell
2H 2 O(l) = + 1.23 V
86. How many moles of Pt may be deposited on the cathode
when 0.80 F of electricity is passed through a 1.0 M B. 2SO 24 (a q)
o S2O82 (aq) 2e Ecell
= 1.96 V
solution of Pt4+?

(/(&752&+(0,675< 27
Choose the correct option based on following statements. 104. Hydrogen-Oxygen fuel cells are used in space craft to supply
(i) Process A is preferred at higher concentration of (a) power for heat and light
sulphuric acid. (b) power for pressure
(ii) Process B is preferred at higher concentration of (c) oxygen
sulphuric acid. (d) water
(iii) Process A is preferred for dilute sulphuric acid. 105. Prevention of corrosion of iron by zinc coating is called
(iv) Process B is preferred for dilute sulphuric acid. (a) electrolysis (b) photoelectrolysis
(v) Both A and B are equally possible at higher (c) cathodic protection (d) galvanization
concentration. 106. The best way to prevent rusting of iron is
(a) (v) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (ii) (a) making it cathode (b) putting in saline water
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (v) and (iv)
95. Which of the following metals is not produced by (c) Both of these (d) None of these
electrochemical reduction? 107. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship
(a) Na (b) Fe to
(c) Mg (d) Al (a) make the ship lighter
96. As lead storage battery is charged (b) prevent action of water and salt
(a) lead dioxide dissolves (c) prevent puncturing by under-sea rocks
(b) sulphuric acid is regenerated (d) keep away the sharks
(c) lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulphate 108. Which of the following batteries cannot be reused?
(d) the concentration of sulphuric acid decreases (a) Lead storage battery (b) Ni-Cd cell
97. During the charging of lead storage battery, the reaction at (c) Mercury cell (d) Both (b) and (c)
anode is represented by 109. Which of the following is a merit of Ni–Cd cell over lead
(a) Pb2 SO24 o PbSO 4 storage battery?
(a) Ni–Cd cell can be re-used.
(b) PbSO 4 2H 2 O o PbO2 SO42 4H 2e (b) Ni–Cd cell is comparatively economical to manufacture
(c) Pb o Pb 2e
2 (c) Ni–Cd cell has comparatively longer life
(d) Pb2 2e o Pb (d) All the above are the merits of Ni–Cd cell over lead
98. Which colourless gas evolves, when NH4Cl reacts with storage battery.
zinc in a dry cell battery 110. Which of the following statements regarding fuel cell is
(a) NH4 (b) N2 incorrect?
(c) H2 (d) Cl2 (a) These cells are eco-friendly.
99. In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen (b) These cells convert energy of combustion of fuels
occurs to like H2, CH4, CH3OH etc., directly into electrical energy.
(a) produce high purity water (c) H2 – O2 fuel cell is used in Apollo space programme.
(b) create potential difference between two electrodes (d) Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency of
(c) generate heat about 100%.
(d) remove adsorbed oxygen from elctrode surfaces
100. Among the following cells: 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
Leclanche cell (i)
Nickel-Cadmium cell (ii) <1.1 V =1.1 V
Lead storage battery (iii) 111.
e–
Mercury cell (iv) anode cathode
current I=0
primary cells are Zn Cu Zn Cu
salt
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) –ve bridge +ve
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
101. The electrolyte used in Leclanche cell is
(a) paste of KOH and ZnO
(b) 38% solution of H2SO4 ZnSO4 CuSO4 ZnSO4 CuSO4
(c) moist paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2 Figure -1 Figure -2
(d) moist sodium hydroxide >1.1 V
102. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like
e–
hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is cathode
+ve current anode
known as : –ve
Zn Cu
(a) Electrolytic cell (b) Dynamo
(c) Ni-Cd cell (d) Fuel Cell
103. Which one of the following cells can convert chemical
energy of H2 and O2 directly into electrical energy?
(a) Mercury cell (b) Daniell cell ZnSO4 CuSO4
(c) Fuel cell (d) Lead storage cell Figure -3

28 (/(&752&+(0,675<
(i) Figure 1 represents electrochemical and Figure 3 Which of the following is the correct coding for the
represents electrolytic cell. statements above.
(ii) Figure 2 represents electrolytic an d Figure 3 (a) TTTTT (b) TTFTF
represents electrochemical cell. (c) FFTTT (d) FFFTT
(iii) Figure 2 represents a cell which is not working i.e. no 115. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
current flows through the cell. (i) Molar conductivity for strong electrolytes increases
(iv) Energy conversion shown in Figure 1 is chemical to gradually and of weak electrolytes increases rapidly
electrical whereas energy conversion shown in Figure on dilution.
2 is electrical to chemical. (ii) If D is the degree of dissociation of weak electrolytes.
Which of the following is the correct coding for the
m
statements above. Then, D qm
(a) TFTT (b) TTTT
(c) TFFT (d) FTFF (iii) Molar conductivity of CaX2 increases rapidly on
112. Which of the following statements regarding given cell dilution.
representation is/are correct? (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) only
Cd(s)/Cd2+(aq)//Ag+(aq)/Ag(s) (c) (i) only (d) (i) and (ii)
(i) In the given cell Cd electrode act as an anode whereas 116. Read the following statements.
Ag electrode acts as a cathode. (i) According to Faraday’s second law amounts of
(ii) In the given cell Cd electrode acts as a cathode whereas different substances liberated by same quantity of
Ag electrode acts as a annode. electricity passing through the electrolytic solution
E are proportional to their chemical equivalent weights.
(iii) E cell E
Ag /Ag Cd 2 /Cd
(ii) 1 F = 96487 Cmol–1 96500 Cmol–1 (for more accurate
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii) calculation).
(c) Only (i) (d) (i) and (iii) (iii) As per electrode reactions
113. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) for the
addition of Li, K, Rb to the aqueous solution of Na+. K e
oK
(i) The correct order of metals in which they reduce the
Na+ ion is Rb < K < Li. Al3 3e
o Al
(ii) Reduction of metal ions would not take place. one mole of K+ and Al3+ require 1(1F) and 3(3F) mol of
(a) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct. electrons respectively.
(b) Statement (i) is correct only. Which of the following is the correct coding for the above
(c) Statement (ii) is correct only. statements?
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct. (a) TTT (b) FFT
114. Read the following statements carefully. (c) TFT (d) FTF
(i) According to a convention cell potential of hydrogen 117. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are incorrect for
electrode (S.H.E.) is considered to be zero at all corrosion of iron?
temperatures.
(i) Reaction occurring at anode is
(ii) e.m.f. of the cell Pt(s)/H2(g, 1 bar)/H+(aq, 1 M)
|| Zn 2 (aq,1M) / Z n is – 0.76. This negative value O2 g 4H aq 4e
o 2H 2 O l
indicates that Zn 2+ ion reduces less easily then H+ (ii) Reaction occurring at cathode is
ions.
(iii) Copper does not dissolve in HCl but dissolves in HNO3 o 2Fe2 4e
2Fe s
as in nitric acid it gets oxidised by nitrate ion.
(iv) Inert metals like Pt or Au are used in certain electrodes (iii) Rust is Fe2O3.xH2O
i.e., these metals does not participate in reaction but (iv) H+ involved in corrosion reaction is provided from
provide surface for oxidation and reduction reactions. H2CO3 which is formed due to dissolution of carbon
(v) Fluorine has the highest electrode potential thereby dioxide from air in to water.
making it strongest oxidising agent whereas lithium (a) (iv) only (b) (i) only
with lowest electrode potential is the weakest oxidising (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
and strongest reducing agent.

(/(&752&+(0,675< 29
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 121. Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II
118. Match the Column-I (functioning of Daniel cell) with (A) N (p) I × t
Column-II (value of Eext) and choose the correct option.
(B) /m (q) / m / / om
Column-I Column-II
(A) Flow of electrons from (p) E = 1.1 V N
Cu to Zn and current (C) D (r)
c
flows from Zn to Cu
(B) No flow of electrons (q) E < 1.1 V G*
(D) Q (s)
or current R
(C) Zn dissolves at anode (r) E > 1.1 V (a) (A) – (p), (B) – (r), (C) – (q), (D) – (s)
and copper deposits at (b) (A) – (s), (B) – (q), (C) – (r), (D) – (p)
cathode (c) (A) – (r), (B) – (s), (C) – (q), (D) – (p)
(a) (A) – (q), (B) – (p), (C) – (r) (d) (A) – (s), (B) – (r), (C) – (q), (D) – (p)
(b) (A) – (r), (B) – (p), (C) – (q) 122. Match the columns
(c) (A) – (p), (B) – (r), (C) – (q) Column-I Column-II
(d) (A) – (r), (B) – (q), (C) – (p) (A) Cell in which electrolyte (p) H2 – O2 fuel cell
is a paste of KOH and
119. Match the items of Column I and Column II on the basis of
ZnO. This cell is used in
data given below : low current devices like

O
O hearing aids, watches, etc.
E O = 2.87 V, E Li /Li = –3.5 V, E Au 3 /Au =1.4 V,
F2 /F (B) Cell in which 38% H2SO4 (q) Mercury cell
solution is used as an
E O electrolyte.
Br2 /Br =1.09 V
(C) Cell in which vapours (r) Lead storage battery
Column-I Column-II produced during electro-
(A) F2 (p) metal is the strongest chemical reaction were
condensed and added
reducing agent.
to drinking water
(B) Li (q) anion that can be oxidised
(D) Cell having longer life (s) Nickel – Cadmium cell
by Au3+ than lead storage cell
(C) Au3+ (r) non metal which is the and is expensive to
best oxidising agent manufacture
(D) Br – (s) metal ion which is an (a) (A) – (r), (B) – (q), (C) – (p), (D) – (s)
oxidising agent (b) (A) – (q), (B) – (r), (C) – (p), (D) – (s)
(a) (A) – (r), (B) – (p), (C) – (s), (D) – (q) (c) (A) – (q), (B) – (r), (C) – (p), D) – (s)
(d) (A) – (q), (B) – (r), (C) – (s), (D) – (p)
(b) (A) – (p), (B) – (r), (C) – (s), (D) – (q)
(c) (A) – (q), (B) – (p), (C) – (s), (D) – (r) $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(d) (A) – (r), (B) – (s), (C) – (p), (D) – (q)
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
120. Match the columns.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
Column-I Column-II alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(A) /m (p) intensive property have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct

(B) EO
cell (q) Depends on number of explanation for assertion.
ions/ volume (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
correct explanation for assertion
(C) N (r) Extensive property
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(D) 'rGcell (s) Increases with dilution (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(a) (A) – (p), (B) – (s), (C) – (q), (D) – (r) 123. Assertion : The resistivity for a substance is its resistance
(b) (A) – (s), (B) – (p), (C) – (q), (D) – (r) when it is one meter long and its area of cross section is one
(c) (A) – (s), (B) – (q), (C) – (p), (D) – (r) square meter.
(d) (A) – (s), (B) – (p), (C) – (r), (D) – (q) Reason : The SI units of resistivity is ohm metre (:m).

30 (/(&752&+(0,675<
124. Assertion : On increasing dilution, the specific conductance If the standard reduction potential of Cu2+/Cu is +0.34 V,
keep on increasing. the reduction potentials in volts of the above electrodes
Reason : On increasing dilution, degree of ionisation of follow the order.
weak electrolyte increases and molality of ions also (a) P > S > R > Q (b) S > R > Q > P
increases. (c) R > S > Q > P (d) Q > R > S > P
125. Assertion : Galvanised iron does not rust. 132. At 298K the standard free energy of formation of H2O (A) is
Reason : Zinc has a more negative electrode potential than –237.20 kJ/mole while that of its ionisation into H+ ion
iron. and hydroxyl ions is 80 kJ/mole, then the emf of the following
cell at 298 K will be
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 [Take Faraday constant F = 96500C]
H2 (g , 1 bar) | H+ (1M) | | OH– (1M) | O2(g, 1 bar)
126. If salt bridge is removed from two half-cells the voltage (a) 0.40V (b) 0.81V
(a) drops to zero (b) does not change (c) 1.23 V (d) – 0.40 V
(c) increases gradually (d) increases rapidly 133. If the following half cells have E° values as
127. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from A3+ + e– ––––o A2+, E° = y2V
(a) cathode to anode in solution A2+ + 2e– ––––o A, E° = –y1V
(b) cathode to anode through external supply The E° of the half cell A3+ + 3e ––––o A will be
(c) cathode to anode through internal supply
2 y1 y2 y2 2 y1
(d) anode to cathode through internal supply (a) (b)
3 3
128. Standard potentials (Eº) for some half-reactions are given
below : (c) 2y1 – 3y2 (d) y2 – 2y1
134. Cu + (aq ) is unstable in solution and undergoes
(i) Sn 4 2e o Sn 2 ; E º 0.15 V
simultaneous oxidation and reduction according to the
(ii) 2 Hg 2 2e o Hg 2 2 ; E º 0.92 V reaction :
(iii) PbO2 4H 2e o Pb 2 2H 2O ; E º 1.45 V 2Cu (aq) Cu 2 (aq) Cu( s )
Based on the above, which one of the following statements Choose correct Eº for given reaction if Eº Cu2+/Cu = 0.34 V
is correct ? and Eº Cu2+/Cu+ = 0.15 V
(a) Sn4+ is a stronger oxidising agent than Pb4+ (a) –0.38 V (b) +0.49 V
(b) Sn2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Hg22+ (c) +0.38 V (d) –0.19 V
(c) Hg2+ is a stronger oxidising agent than Pb4+ 135. In a cell that utilises the reaction
(d) Pb2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Sn 2+
Zn( s) 2H (aq) o Zn 2 (aq) H 2 ( g ) addition of H2SO4
129. Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical
cell: to cathode compartment, will
(i) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) (a) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right
– (Reduction potential of cathode) (b) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right
(c) lower the E and shift equlibrium to the left
(ii) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)
(d) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left
+ (Reduction potential of cathode)
136. For a cell reaction involving two electron change, the
(iii) emf of cell = (Reduction potential of anode)
standard EMF of the cell is 0.295 V at 2°C. The equilibrium
+ (Reduction potential of cathode) constant of the reaction at 25°C will be:
(iv) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) (a) 29.5 × 10–2 (b) 10
– (Oxidation potential of cathode) (c) 1 × 1010 (d) 2.95 × 10–10
Which of the above relations are correct? 137. Standard cell voltage for the cell Pb | Pb2+ || Sn2+ | Sn is
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (i) – 0.01 V. If the cell is to exhibit Ecell = 0, the value of
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv) [Sn 2+] / [Pb2+] should be antilog of –
130. The correct order of E q 2 values with negative sign (a) + 0.3 (b) 0.5
M /M
(c) 1.5 (d) – 0.5
for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is
(a) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (b) Cr < Fe > Mn > Co 138. The cell, Zn | Zn 2 (1 M) || Cu 2 (1 M) | Cu ( E qcell 1.10 V)
(c) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co (d) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co was allowed to be completely discharged at 298 K. The
131. Consider the following four electrodes:
§ [Zn 2 ] ·
P = Cu2+ (0.0001 M)/Cu(s) relative concentration of Zn2+ to Cu2+ ¨¨ ¸ is
2 ¸
Q = Cu2+ (0.1 M)/Cu(s) © [Cu ] ¹
R = Cu2+ (0.01 M)/Cu(s) (a) 9.65 × 104 (b) antilog (24.08)
S = Cu2+ (0.001 M)/Cu(s) (c) 37.3 (d) 1037.3.

(/(&752&+(0,675< 31
139. What is the potential of half-cell consisting of 146. A weak electrolyte having the limiting equivalent
zinc electrode in 0.01 M ZnSO 4 solution at 25°C conductance of 400 S cm2. equivalent–1 at 298 K is 2%
ionized in its 0.1 N solution. The resistance of this solution
E D
ox 0.763 V (in ohms) in an electrolytic cell of cell constant 0.4 cm–1 at
(a) 0.8221 V (b) 8.221 V this temperature is
(a) 200 (b) 300
(c) 0.5282 V (d) 9.282 V
(c) 400 (d) 500
140. The oxidation potential of 0.05 M H2SO4 is
147. Conductivity N, is equal to _________.
(a) –2 × 0.0591 (b) –0.01 × 0.0591
(c) –2.321 × 0.0591 (d) +1 × 0.0591 1 l G
(i) (ii)
141. For a relation RA R
' r G nFE cell l
(iii) /m (iv)
E cell E qcell in which of the following condition? A
(a) Concentration of any one of the reacting species (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
should be unity (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) Concentration of all the product species should be 148. Arrange the following in increasing order of their
unity. conductivity Na+ (A), K+ (B), Ca2+ (C), Mg2+(D)
(c) Concentration of all the reacting species should be (a) A, B, C, D (b) B, A, C, D
unity. (c) C, A, D, B (d) A, B, D, C
(d) Concentration of all reacting and product species 149. The conductivity of electrolytic solutions depends upon
should be unity. which of the following?
142. A 0.5 M NaOH solution offers a resistance of 31.6 ohm in a (i) Size of ions produced
conductivity cell at room temperature. What shall be the (ii) Viscosity of the solvent
approximate molar conductance of this NaOH solution if (iii) Concentration of electrolyte
cell constant of the cell is 0.367 cm–1 . (iv) Solvation of ions produced
(a) 234 S cm2 mole–1 (b) 23.2 S cm2 mole–1 (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
2
(c) 4645 S cm mole –1 (d) 5464 S cm2 mole–1 (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
150. Mark the false statement?
143. The equivalent conductances of two strong electrolytes at
(a) A salt bridge is used to eliminate liquid junction
infinite dilution in H2O (where ions move freely through a
potential
solution) at 25°C are given below :
(b) The Gibbs free energy change, 'G is related with
/D CH3COONa 91.0 S cm 2 / equiv. electromotive force E as 'G = –nFE
(c) Nernst equation for single electrode potential is
/D HCl 426.2 S cm 2 / equiv. RT
What additional information/ quantity one needs to calcu- E Eo log a M n
nF
late / D of an aqueous solution of acetic acid? (d) The efficiency of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is 23%
(a) / D of chloroacetic acid (ClCH2COOH) 151. When electric current is passed through acidified water,
112 ml of hydrogen gas at STP collected at the cathode in
(b) / D of NaCl
965 seconds. The current passed in amperes is
(c) / D of CH3COOK (a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
(d) the limiting equivalent coductance of H (Oq ). (c) 0.1 (d) 2.0
H
144. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 :. The 152. On passing current through two cells, connected in series
specific conductance of the solution is 1.3 S m –1 . If containing solution of AgNO3 and CuSO4, 0.18 g of Ag is
resistance of the 0.4 M solution of the same electrolyte is deposited. The amount of the Cu deposited is:
260 :, its molar conductivity is : (a) 0.529 g (b) 10.623 g
(a) 6.25 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (b) 625 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 (c) 0.0529 g (d) 1.2708 g
(c) 62.5 S m2 mol–1 (d) 6250 S m2 mol–1 153. In the electrolysis of water, one faraday of electrical energy
would liberate
145. The limiting molar conductivities of HCl, CH3COONa and
(a) one mole of oxygen (b) one gram atom of oxygen
NaCl are respectively 425, 90 and 125 mho cm2 mol–1 at
(c) 8 g oxygen (d) 22.4 lit. of oxygen
25°C. The molar conductivity of 0.1 M CH3COOH solutions
154. Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCl solution was carried
is 7.8 mho cm2 mol–1 at the same temperature. The degree of
out by passing 10 milli ampere current. The time required to
dissociation of 0.1 M acetic acid solution at the same
liberate 0.01 mol of H2 gas at the cathode is
temperature is
(1 Faraday = 96500 C mol–1)
(a) 0.10 (b) 0.02
(a) 9.65 × 104 sec (b) 19.3 × 104 sec
(c) 0.15 (d) 0.03 4
(c) 28.95 × 10 sec (d) 38.6 × 104 sec

32 (/(&752&+(0,675<
155. What is the amount of chlorine evolved when 2 amperes of (i) Copper will deposit at cathode.
current is passed for 30 minutes in an aqueous solution of (ii) Copper will deposit at anode.
NaCl ?
(iii) Oxygen will be released at anode.
(a) 66 g (b) 1.32 g
(iv) Copper will dissolve at anode.
(c) 33 g (d) 99 g
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
156. On passing a current of 1.0 ampere for 16 min and 5 sec
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
through one litre solution of CuCl2, all copper of the solution
was deposited at cathode. The strength of CuCl2 solution 160. How much charge is required, when 1 mole of Cr2O72
was (Molar mass of Cu= 63.5; Faraday constant = 96,500 reduce to form 1 mole of Cr 3+ ?
Cmol–1) (a) 6F (b) 3F
(a) 0.01 N (b) 0.01 M (c) 1F (d) 2F
(c) 0.02 M (d) 0.2 N 161. When a lead storage battery is discharged
(a) SO2 is evolved
157. 0.2964 g of copper was deposited on passage of a current of
(b) Lead sulphate is consumed
0.5 amp for 30 mins through a solution of copper sulphate.
(c) Lead is formed
Calculate the oxidation state of Cu (At. mass 63.56).
(d) Sulphuric acid is consumed
(a) +1 (b) +2
162. The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against
(c) +3 (d) +4 corrosion is
158. One Faraday of electricity is passed through molten Al 2O3, (a) nickel plating (b) copper plating
aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten NaCl taken in three (c) tin plating (d) zinc plating
different electrolytic cells connected in series. The mole 163. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
ratio of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the respective cathode dry (Leclanche) cell?
is (a) Cathode used in the cell is coated by powdered
(a) 2 : 3 : 6 (b) 6 : 2 : 3 manganese dioxide and carbon.
(c) 6 : 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) Most common application of this cell is in our
transistors and clocks.
159. What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous
(c) At cathode, Mn is oxidised from + 3 to + 4.
solution of CuSO4 by using platinum electrodes ?
(d) At anode Zn is oxidised from 0 to + 2.

(/(&752&+(0,675< 33
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 20. (c) As the value of standard reduction potential decreases
the reducing power increases i.e.,
1. (c) Electrochemical reactions are more energy efficient Z ! X ! Y
and less polluting. Thus study of electrochemistry is ( 3.0) ( 1.2) ( 0.5)
important to create new eco-friendly technologies. 21. (b) Given ESn 4 = + 0.15 V
Sn 2
2. (a) We know that in the internal circuit of a galvanic cell
ions flow whereas in the external circuit, the electrons E Cr3 Cr = – 0.74 V
flow from one electrode to another.
3. (a) Anode has negative polarity.
4. (b) q
E cell q E qred
E ox
5. (d) When both the electrodes are kept in the same solution = 0.74 + 0.15
there will be no requirement of salt bridge. = 0.89 V
6. (d) 22. (a) Higher the value of reduction potential higher will be
Reduction the oxidising power whereas the lower the value of
reduction potential higher will be the reducing power.
7. (d) It shows reduction reaction.
Zn 2 2e Zn 23. (d) E°Cell = E°OP + E°RP
= 0.76 + 0.314 = 1.10 V
8. (a) 24. (b) Follow ECS, A will replace B.
9. (b) The cell in which Cu and Zn rods are dipped in its
solution is called Daniel cell. 25. (c) Gold having higher E oRe d and oxidises Fe
o Fe .
10. (c) The magnitude of the electrode potential of a metal is 26. (c) 27. (d)
a measure of its relative tendency to loose or gain
RT ln[Fe 2 ]2 ª 2 º
electrons. i.e., it is a measure of the relative tendency 28. (c) Nernst equation Ecell = E ocell Zn
to undergo oxidation (loss of electrons) or reduction nF [Fe3 ]2 ¬ ¼
(gain of electrons). increasing [Fe2+] will decrease the Ecell.
n
MoM ne (oxidation potential) 0.0591
n 29. (d) Eq log K
M ne o M (reduction potential) n
11. (b) 2AgCl(s) H 2 (g) o 2HCl(aq) 2Ag(s) Here, n 2, E q 0.295
The activities of solids and liquids are taken as unity 2 u 0.295
and at low concentrations, the activity of a solute is ? log K = 9.98 | 10 or K 1010
0.0591
approximated to its molarity.
The cell reaction will be 30. (b) RHS : 2H+ + 2e– YZZZZX H (P )
2 2
LHS : H2(P1) YZZ 2H+ + 2e–
ZZX
Pt(s) | H 2 (g),1bar | H (aq)1M | AgCl(aq)1M | Ag(s) ZZX H (P )
overall reaction : H2 (P1) YZZ 2 2
12. (b) Eocell o
Ecathode o
Eanode Eoright E left
o
RT P2 RT P2 RT P1
E En A n 0 An An
nF P1 nF P1 nF P2
Eocell 0.25 0.52 0.27V
13. (b) 14. (c) 0.059 1
31. (a) E Eq log
15. (d) Cu is anode and Ag+ is cathode. n [H ]
16. (d) Calomel electrode is used as reference electrode.
17. (b) Electrode potential is considered as zero. 0.059 1
= 0 log 4 0.236V
18. (b) Without losing its concentration ZnCl 2 solution 1 10
cannot kept in contact with Al because Al is more D RT
reactive than Zn due to its highly negative electrode 32. (d) Ecell Ecell ln Q
nF
reduction potential.
At equilibrium,
19. (c) From the given data we find Fe3+ is strongest oxidising
Ecell = 0 and Q = Kc
agent. More the positive value of E°, more is the
tendency to get oxidized. Thus correct option is (c). D
? Ecell z Ecell

34 (/(&752&+(0,675<
33. (c) The E°cell is given by 0.059 1.10 u 2
40. (b) E ocell log K C or log K C
0.0591 2 0.059
E°cell log Keq
n ? KC 1.9 u 1037
0.0591 'Gq
? 0.591 log Keq 41. (c) 'Gq nFEq; Eq ;
1 nF
0.591 (50.61kJ)
or log Keq = = 10 Eq 0.26V
0.0591 2 u 96500 u 103
or Keq = 1 × 1010 42. (d) Molarity = 0.01 M ; Resistance = 40 ohm;
34. (b) For the given cell l 1
Cell constant 0.4cm .
0.059V [Zn 2 ( aq )] A
Ecell = E°cell log
2 [Cu 2 ( aq)] Specific conductivity (N )
The cell potential will decreases with increase in
cell constant 0.4
[Zn 2+ (aq)] and will increases with increase in = = 0.01 ohm 1 cm 1
[Cu2+(aq)]. resistance 40
35. (d) Here n = 4, and [H+] = 10– 3 (as pH = 3) 1000N
Applying Nernst equation Molar conductance ( m )
Molarity
0.059 [Fe 2 ]2 1000 u 0.01

E = Eº – log 4 103 ohm 1 cm 2 mol1
n [H ] ( pO2 ) .01
43. (b) Specific conductance of the solution (N) = 0.012 ohm–1
0.059 (103 )2 cm–1 and resistance (R) = 55 ohm.
1.67 log
4 (103 ) 4 u 0.1 Cell constant = Specific conductance × Observed
0.059 resistance
1.67 log107 = 1.67 – 0.103 = 1.567
4 = 0.012 × 55= 0.66 cm–1.
44. (b) ohm–1 cm2 (geq)–1
36. (b) Cell reaction is, Zn Cu 2 o Zn 2 Cu
1000 1 l 1000
° RT [Zn 2 ] 45. (a) / eq Nu = u u
Ecell Ecell An N R a N
nF [Cu 2 ]
1 1000 1 1000
= u cell constant u = u 0.88 u
ª ( Zn 2 ) º R N 220 0.01
Greater the factor « 2
» , less is the EMF = 400 mho cm2 g eq–1
«¬ (Cu ) »¼
46. (c) Molar conductance of solution is related to specific
Hence E1 > E2 conductance as follows :
37. (b) For Zn2+ o Zn
m = N u 1000 ....(a)
E E q 2
2.303RT
log
> Zn @ C
2 where C is molar concentration.
Zn /Zn Zn /Zn nF ª Zn 2 º
¬ ¼ Putting N = 6.3 × 10–2 ohm–1 cm–1 and
C = 0.1M
0.06 1 1000
0.76
2
log
> 0.1@
0.76 0.03 m = (6.3 × 10–2 ohm–1 cm–1) ×
(0.1mol / cm3 )
E 0.79V = 6.3 × 10–2 × 104 ohm–1cm2 mol–1
Zn 2 /Zn = 630 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
38. (d) emf will decrease. 1
47. (b) N u Cell constant
o RT [C]c [D]d R
39. (b) E cell E cell ln .
nF [A]a [B]b Cell constant = N × R; 0.012 × 55 = 0.66 cm–1.
48. (d) ohm–1 cm–1
RT [C]c [D]d 49. (a) The specific conductance increases with concentration.
Hence E ocell E cell ln
nF [A]a [B]b The number of ions per cm–3 increase with increase of
concentration.

(/(&752&+(0,675< 35
50. (d)
60. (b) /q /q 248 u 10 4 Sm 2 mol1
51. (c) Correct matching for pair (iii) will be Na OH
[G (conductance) – siemens or ohm–1(S).]
/q /q 126 u 10 4 Sm 2 mol 1
52. (d) Conductivity does not depend upon mass or weight Na Cl
of material.
53. (d) /q /q 280 u 10 4 S m 2 mol1
Ba 2 2Cl
54. (c) (i) represents weak electrolyte
(ii) represents strong electrolyte. Now, /qBa(OH)2 /qBaCl2 2/ qNaOH 2/ qNaCl
55. (b) f
/ HCl 426.2 (i) /qBa(OH)2 280 u 104 2 u 248 u 104 2 u 126 u 104
/ qBa(OH) 2 524 u 10 4 Sm 2 mol 1.

/f
AcONa 91.0 (ii)
61. (c) ClCH 2COONa HCl o ClCH 2COOH NaCl
/f
NaCl 126.5 (iii)
-ClCH 2COONa -HCl -ClCH 2COOH - NaCl
/f
AcOH (i) (ii) (iii)
224 203 -ClCH2COOH 38.2
[426.2 91.0 126.5] 390.7
56. (d) Kohlrausch’s Law states that at infinite dilution, each -ClCH 2COOH 427 38.2
ion migrates independent of its co-ion and contributes
to the total equivalent conductance of an electrolyte a 388.8 ohm1cm 2gm eq1
definite share which depends only on its own nature. /M 9.54
From this definition we can see that option (d) is the 62. (b) D = = = 0.04008 = 4.008 %.
/fM 238
correct answer.
63. (d) Cell constant = l/a
57. (c) Conductivity of an electrolyte depends on the mobility Unit = m/m2 = m–1.
of ions and concentration of ions. The motion of an
64. (d) Larger the size, lower the speed.
ionic species in an electric field is retarded by the
oppositely charged ions due to their interionic f 2 1
65. (a) / m 57 73 130 Scm mol
attraction. On dilution, concentration of electrolyte 66. (b) At anode :
decreases and the retarding influence of oppositely
1
charged ions decreases. Therefore mobility of ions 2HO– H 2O + O2
2
increases.
67. (b) Given current (i) = 0.5 amp;
/ qm NH Cl /qm /qm Time (t) = 100 minutes × 60 = 6000 sec
58. (d) 4 NH 4 Cl Equivalent weight of silver nitrate (E) = 108.
According to Faraday's first law of electrolysis
/qm NaOH /qm /qm
Na OH Eit 108 u 0.5 u 6000
W 3.3575 g.
96500 96500
/qm NaCl /qm /qm
Na Cl 68. (d) 1 mole of e– = 1F = 96500 C
27g of Al is deposited by 3 × 96500 C
? /qm q
NH4 / mOH 5120 g of Al will be deposited by
3 u 96500 u 5120
= 5.49 u 10 7 C
/qm q q 27
NH4 / mCl / m Na 69. (c) Electrorefining and electroplating are done by
electrolysis.
ª º
/qm « /qm /qm » WA WB 1.6 Wt. of Ag
OH

¬«
Na
Cl »
¼
70. (d)
EA EB
;
8 108
/ qm NH q q ? Wt . of Ag 21.6 g
4OH / m NH 4Cl / m NaOH /qm NaCl
71. (b) Cu+2 + 2e– oCu (s)
2 × 96500 C 63.6g
59. (d) / qCH3COOH /qCH3COONa /qHCl / qNaCl
63.6
= 91 + 425.9 – 126.4 = 390.5 S cm2mol–1 9650 C will deposit = u 9650 = 3.18 g
2 u 96500

36 (/(&752&+(0,675<
72. (a) Charge = 0.2 × 1 Faraday NaCl (s) o Na+ (l) + Cl– (l)
= 0.2 × 96500 coulombs Na+ + e– o Na (l) (at cathode)
= 19300 = 1.93 × 104 coulombs Cl– (l) o Cl (g) + e– (at anode)
73. (d) Ag e
o Ag Cl (g) + Cl(g) o Cl2 (g)
96500 coulombs deposit = 108 g of Ag 86. (b) Pt4+ + 4e–—o Pt
108 4F electricity is required to deposit 1 mole of Pt.
? 965 coulombs deposit = u 965 1.08 g Ag ? 0.80 F of electricity will deposit
96500
= 1/4 × 0.80 moles of Pt = 0.20 mol.
74. (d) C 6 H 5 NO 2 6H 6e ¶ ¶
l C 6 H 5 NH 2 2H 2 O
87. (d) 1F o11.2 L Cl2 at STP
123
E C6 H 5 NO 2 (eq.wt) 20.5 ? No. of Faradays =
9.65 u 5 u 60 u 60
1.8
6 96500
w q96500 ? Vol. of Cl2 = 1.8 × 11.2 L = 20.16
Number of coulombs required = 88. (b) W = Zit
Eq. wt
where Z = Electrochemical equivalent
12.3q 96500
57900 C 63
20.5 Eq. wt. of copper = 31.5
2
75. (a) According to Faraday law's of electrolysis, amount of
31.5
electricity required to deposit 1 mole of metal Z=
96500
= 96500 C = 1 F
i.e., for deposition of 108g Ag electricity required = 1 F 31.5
W= Zit = u 1.5 u 10 u 60 0.2938g
76. (a) For deposition of silver, reaction is 96500
Ag+ + e– o Ag ( 6) ( 7)
1 mol of Ag will be deposited by 89. (c) MnO 24 o MnO4 e
= 1 F = 96500 C = 9.65 × 104 C 0.1 mole
Since 1 equivalent weight of Ag is also equal to the Quantity of electricity required
weight of its 1 mol, hence 1 equivalent weight of Ag = 0.1F = 0.1 × 96500 = 9650 C
will be deposited by = 9.65 × 104 C 90. (d) wO = nO × 32
77. (b) A current of 96500 coulombs liberate 1 mole of O2. 2 2
96500 C liberates = 22.4 L of O2 at NTP 5600
wO = u 32 8g
22.4
2 22400
9650 C liberates q 9650 = 1 equivalent of O2
96500
= 2.24 L of O2 at NTP = 1 equivalent of Ag = 108
91. (a) Electrolysis of these (i), (ii) and (iii) salt release Chlorine
2 56 which is yellowish in colour while Br2 is reddish brown
78. (b) Fe 2e o Fe; E Fe 28
2 in colour
1 Faraday liberates = 28 g of Fe 92. (b) Electronic conductance decreases with increase in
3 Faraday liberates = 3 × 28 = 84 gm temperature whereas electrolytic conductance
79. (c) increases with increase in temperature as no. of ions
80. (d) Charge (Coulombs) pass per second = 10–6 or charge carriers increases with increase in
number of electrons passed per second temperature.
10 6 93. (a) Gold is an inert metal. Electrodes made up of inert
19
6.24 u 1012 metals does not participate in chemical reaction.
1.602 u 10
81. (d) 94. (b) Reaction A is preferred for electrolysis of dilute
sulphuric acid and B is preferred for electrolysis of
82. (d) Charge on one mole of electrons = 96500 C.
concentrated sulphuric acid.
83. (a) When platinum electrodes are dipped in dilute solution
H2SO4 than H2 is evolved at cathode. 95. (b) Iron can be easily reduced with carbon it does not
require electrochemical reduction.
84. (b) In electrolysis of NaCl when Pt electrode is taken then
H2 liberated at cathode while with Hg cathode it forms 96. (b) H2SO4 is regenerated.
sodium amalgam because more voltage is required to 97. (b) During charging, the lead storage battery behaves like
reduce H+ at Hg than Pt. an electrolytic cell. So, at anode the reaction is
85. (a) When molten or fused NaCl is electrolysed, it yields o PbO 2 4H SO 42 2e
PbSO 4 2H 2 O
metallic sodium and gaseous chlorine. Reactions
98. (c) 2NH 4 Cl Zn o 2NH 3 ZnCl 2 H 2 n .
involved are as follows:

(/(&752&+(0,675< 37
99. (b) In H 2 O 2 fuel cell, the combustion of H2 occurs to 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
create potential difference between the two
118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (b) 121. (d) 122. (b)
electrodes.
100. (d) Primary cells are those cells, in which the reaction $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
occurs only once and after use over a period of time, it
becomes dead and cannot be reused again. e.g.,
Leclanche cell and mercury cell. 123. (b) We know, R v A or R U §¨ A ·¸ , where proportionality
A © A¹
101. (c) The electrolyte used in Leclanche cell is moist paste of
NH4Cl and ZnCl2. constant U is called resistivity. If A = 1m and A = 1m2,
102. (d) A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels, then R = U i.e., Resistance = Resistivity..
directly into electrical energy is known as fuel cell. 124. (d) The specific conductivity decreases while equivalent
103. (c) and molar conductivities increase with dilution.
104. (b) H2 – O2 fuel cell supply power for pressure. 125. (a) Zinc metal which has a more negative electrode
105. (d) Prevention of corrosion by zinc coating is called potential than iron will provide electrons in preference
galvanization. of the iron, and therefore corrodes first. Only when all
106. (a) Cathodic protection is best method to prevent iron the zinc has been oxidised, the iron start to rust.
from rusting. In this method iron is made cathode by
application of external current. &5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
Saline water is highly conducting and hence
126. (a) Salt bridge allows the flow of current by completing
accelerates the formation of rust.
circuit. No current will flow and voltage will drop to
107. (b) Magnesium provides cathodic protection and prevent zero, if salt bridge is removed.
rusting or corrosion.
127. (d) In electrolytic cell the flow of electrons is from anode
108. (c) Mercury cell being primary in nature can be used only
to cathode through internal supply.
once.
109. (c) 128. (b) En 0.15V En 0.92
110. (d) Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency of Sn 2 / Sn 4 Hg 22 / Hg 2
about 70% compared to thermal plants whose Hence, Sn 2+ is stronger reducing agent than Hg 22 .
efficiency is about 40%.
129. (a) Option (ii) and (iv) are correct.
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
130. (a) The value of E n for given metal ions are
M 2 M
111. (a) Statement (ii) is false as in Figure 2 equal potential is
applied from either side thereby making his cell
En 1.18 V,
non-functional. Figure 3 represents electrolytic cell Mn 2 Mn
as current flows from anode to cathode.
112. (d) According to an accepted convention anode is written En 0.9 V,
on the left side and cathode on the right while Cr 2 Cr
representing the galvanic cell.
113. (c) Because reduction potential of water is higher than En 0.44 V and
Fe2 Fe
that of Na+ so H2 will be evolved and no reduction of
metal ions occurs.
En 0.28 V.
114. (a) All statements given above are correct. Co 2 Co
115. (d) CaX2 is a strong electrolyte thus its molar conductivity
increases slowly on dilution. Th e correct order of E n 2 values without
M M
116. (c) We consider,
considering negative sign would be
96487Cmol 1 96500Cmol 1 for approximate Mn2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Co2+.
calculations not for accurate calculations.
0.591
117. (c) Reaction occurring at anode 131. (d) E red E ored log[M n ]
n
o 2Fe2 4e
2Fe s Lower the concentration of Mn+, lower is the reduction
Reaction occuring at cathode potential.
O 2 g 4H aq 4e
o 2H 2 O Hence order of reduction potential is :
Q> R>S >P

38 (/(&752&+(0,675<
132. (a) Cell reaction 136. (c) Using the relation,
1 2.303RT 0.0591
cathode : H 2O(A) O2 ( g ) 2e
o 2OH (aq) E°cell = log K c log K c
2 nF n
0.0591
anode : o 2H ( aq ) 2e
H 2 ( g ) ? 0.295 V = log K c
–––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––– 2
1 2 u 0.295
o 2H (aq) 2OH (aq )
H 2 O(A) O 2 ( g ) H 2 ( g ) or log Kc = 10
2 0.0591
Also we have or Kc = 1 × 1010
1 137. (a) Apply Nernst equation to the reaction
H 2 ( g ) O 2 ( g )
o H 2O(A) ; Pb + Sn2+ oPb2+ + Sn
2
0.059 [Sn 2 ]
'G Df 237.2 kJ / mole or E° + log Ecell
2 [Pb 2 ]
o H ( aq ) OH ( aq ); 'Gq 80 kJ / mole
H 2O(A) [Sn 2 ] 0.01 u 2
or log 0.3 (' Ecell 0)
Hence for cell reaction [Pb 2
] 0.059
'Gq 237.2 (2 u 80) 77.20 kJ / mole
[Sn 2 ]
'Gq 77200 or antilog (0.3)
? Eq 0.40V [Pb 2 ]
nF 2 u 96500
133. (b) (i) A3+ + e– ––––o A2+, 'G1 = – 1 F y2 138. (d) Ecell = 0; when cell is completely discharged.
(ii) A2+ + 2e– ––––o A, 'G2 = –2F(–y1) = 2Fy1 § ª Zn 2 º ·
Add, (i) and (ii), we get 0.059
Ecell = E°cell log ¨ ¬ ¼¸
A3+ + 3e– ––––o A ; 2 ¨ ª 2 º ¸
¨ Cu ¸
'G3 = 'G1 + 'G2 ©¬ ¼¹
–3FE° = –Fy2 + 2Fy1
–3FE° = –F (y2 – 2y1) § ª Zn 2 º ·
0.059
y 2 y1 or 0 = 1.1 log ¨ ¬ ¼¸
E° = 2 2 ¨ ª 2 º ¸
¨ Cu ¸
3 ©¬ ¼¹
134. (c) 2 Cu
o Cu 2 Cu
§ ª Zn 2 º ·
2 u 1.1
log ¨ ¬ ¼¸
º
2 e Cu 2
o Cu ; E1 0.34V; ... (i)
¨ ª 2 º ¸
37.3
¨ Cu ¸ 0.059
º ©¬ ¼¹
e Cu 2
o Cu ; E2 0.15V; ... (ii)
Cu e o Cu; E3º ? ... (iii) ª Zn 2 º

¬ ¼ 1037.3
?
Now, 'G1º nFE1º 2 u 0.34F ªCu 2 º
¬ ¼
'G2º 1 u 0.15F , 'G3º 1 u E3º F 139. (a) The Half cell reaction is Zn 2e
o Zn .
Again, 'G1º 'G2º 'G3º o 0.059 1
E cell E cell log
2 [Zn ]
0.68F 0.15F E3º F
= 0.763 0.059 log 1 0.822V
E3º 0.68 0.15 0.53V 2 0.01
º
Ecell º
Ecathode (Cu / Cu) Eanode
º
(Cu 2 / Cu ) Eoxi = 0.822 V
= 0.53 – 0.15 = 0.38 V. 140. (d) 2H 2e
o H 2
135. (a) Zn( s) 2H (aq) Zn 2 (aq) H 2 ( g ) 0.059 1
o
E Re d E Red log 2 ;
0.059 2
[Zn ][H 2 ] n [H ]
Ecell E qcell log
2 [H ]2 0.059 1
E Re d 0 log ; ERed = –0.059 V,,
Addition of H2SO4 will increase [H+]and Ecell will also 2 (0.1) 2
increase and the equilibrium will shift towards RHS. Eoxi = 0.059 V.

(/(&752&+(0,675< 39
141. (c) When the concentration of all reacting species kept 146. (d) /C /0 u D 8
unity, then Ecell Eqcell and the given relation will 1 A 1000
become /C u u
R A N
' r G nFEqcell 0.4 u 1000
R = 500 Ohms
142. (b) Here, R = 31.6 ohm 8 u 0.1
1 1 147. ( b)
? Conductance = ohm 1 = 0.0316 ohm–1 148. (d) Charge on Mg and Ca ion is greater than that of Na
R 31.6
Specific conductance = conductance × cell constant. and K, so Mg and Ca ions possess higher conductivity,
= 0.0316 ohm–1 × 0.367 cm–1 also solvation of metal ion decreases as we move down
the group, hence conductivity increases)
= 0.0116 ohm–1 cm–1
149. (d) The conductivity of electrolytic solution depends
Now, molar concentration = 0.5M (given)
upon all of the given factors.
= 0.5 × 10–3 mole cm–3
150. (c) Correct Nernst equation is
N 0.0116
? Molar conductance = 2.303RT
C 0.5 u 10 3 E Eo log a M n .
nF
= 23.2 S cm2 mol–1 151. (a) 2H+ + 2e– ¶ ¶l H2
143. (b) According to Kohlrausch’s law, molar conductivity of
2 22400
weak electrolyte acetic acid (CH3COOH) can be EH (Eq. wt) = =1 g = 11200 ml (STP)
calculated as follows: 2 2
/ DCH3COOH /DCH COONa /DHCl /DNaCl
3 Total charge passed =
96500q112
965
11200
? Value of / D NaCl should also be known for Q = It = 965
calculating value of /DCH 3COOH . 965
I= 1amp.
965
1 A
144. (a) N u 152. (c) Using Faraday’s second law of electrolysis,
R A
Weight of Cu deposited Equ. wt. of Cu
1 A
1.3 u Weight of Ag deposited Equ. wt. of Ag
50 A
w Cu 63.5 1
A u
65m1 0.18 2 108
A
63.5 u 18
N u 1000 wCu = = 0.0529 g.
/ 2 u108 u 100
molarity
153. (c) According to the definition 1 F or 96500 C is the charge
[molarity is in moles/litre but 1000 is used to convert carried by 1 mol of electrons when water is electrolysed
liter into cm3] 2H2O o 4H+ + O2 + 4e–
§ 1 · So, 4 Faraday of electricity liberate = 32 g of O2.
¨© u 65 m 1 ¸ u 1000 cm 3
260 ¹ Thus 1 Faraday of electricity liberate
0.4 moles 32
= g of O2 = 8 g of O2
4
650 m1 1
u m3 154. (b) ZZX H OH
H 2O YZZ
260 u 4 mol 1000
1
= 6.25 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1 H e ¶¶ l H2
2
145. (b) /q for CH3COOH
?0.5 mole of H2 is liberated by 1 F = 96500 C
= O qCH COO O qNa OqH OqCl O qNa OqCl 0.01 mole of H2 will be liberated by
3
O qCH COO q
OH 96500
= 3

= q0.01 = 1930 C
0.5
= 90 + 425 – 125 = 390 mho cm2 mol–1.
Q=I ×t
/ cm 7.8 Q 1930 C
Degree of dissociation (D) = 0.02 t 19.3q10 4 sec
/ qm 390
I 10 q103 A

40 (/(&752&+(0,675<
1 158. (a) The charge carried by 1 mole of electrons is one faraday.
155. (b) At Anode, Cl o Cl e Thus for a reaction
2 2
M n ne oM
35.5 u 2
Equivalent wt. of chlorine (ECl2 ) 35.5 nF = 1 mole of M
2
Al3 3e
o Al
ECl2 u I u t 35.5 u 2 u 30 u 60 3F 1 mol
WCl2 1.32 gm. 1F 1/3 mol
96500 96500
Cu 2 2e
o Cu
W Q 2F 1 mol
156. (a) By Faraday's 1st Law of electrolysis, 1F 1/2 mol
E 96500
Na e
o Na
(where Q it = charge of ion) 1F 1 mol
We know that no. of gram equivalent The mole ratio of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the
W it 1 u 965 1 1 1
respective cathode is : :1 or 2 : 3 : 6.
E 96500 96500 100 3 2
(where i= 1 A, t = 16×60+5 = 965 sec.) 159. (a)
Since, we know that 160. (b) Total of 6 electrons are required to form 2 moles of
Cr3+ therefore to form 1 mole 3F of charge is required.
1
Discharge
No. of gram equivalent 100 = 0.01 N 161. (d) ZZZZZZ
Pb PbO 2 2H 2SO 4 YZZZZZ X
Z 2PbSO 4 2H 2 O.
Normality Recharge
Volume (in litre) 1
Sulphuric acid is consumed on discharging.
157. (b) Quantity of charge passed = 0.5 × 30 × 60 = 900 coulomb 162. (d) This is because zinc has higher oxidation potential
900 coulomb will deposit = 0.2964g of copper than Ni, Cu and Sn. The process of coating of iron
? 96500 coulomb will deposit surface with zinc is known as galvanization. Galvanized
0.2964 iron sheets maintain their lustre due to the formation
= u 96500 = 31.75 g of copper of protective layer of basic zinc carbonate.
900
Thus, 31.75 is the eq. mass of copper 163. (c) At cathode reduction occurs according to following
At. mass = Eq. mass × Valency reaction.
63.56 = 31.75 × x 4 3
x = + 2. MnO 2 NH 4 e
o MnO OH NH3

4
CHEMICAL KINETICS
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 d[ NH 3 ] 3 d[H 2 ]

(b)
dt 2 dt
1. The term – dc/dt in a rate equation refers to :
(a) the conc. of a reactant d[ NH 3 ] d[H 2 ]
(c)
(b) the decrease in conc. of the reactant with time dt dt
(c) the velocity constant of reaction d[ NH 3 ] 1 d[ H 2 ]
(d) None of these (d)
dt 3 dt
2. The rate law for the single- step reaction 2A B o 2C, 8. For the reaction 2 A + B o 3C + D
is given by: which of the following does not express the reaction rate ?
(a) rate = k [A].[B] (b) rate = k [A]2.[B]
d[ B] d[ D]
(c) rate = k [2A].[B] (d) rate = k [A]2.[B]o (a) (b)
3. Rate of which reaction increases with temperature : dt dt
(a) of any type of reactions 1 d[A] 1 d[C]
(c) – (d)
(b) of exothemic reactions 2 dt 3 dt
(c) of endothemic reactions 9. Which of the following reaction does not occur fastly ?
(d) of none (a) Precipitation of AgCl by mixing aqueous solutions of
4. In a slow reaction, rate of reaction generally .......... with AgNO3 and NaCl.
time: (b) Burning of gasoline
(a) decreases (c) Rusting of iron
(b) increases (d) Burning of LPG for cooking
(c) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases. 10. Chemical kinetics is a study to find out
(d) remains constant (a) the feasibility of a chemical reaction
5. The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about, (b) extent to which a reaction will proceed
(a) the reactants taking part in reaction (c) speed of a reaction
(b) the products formed in the reaction (d) All of the above
(c) how slow or fast the reaction is taking place 11. Rate of a reaction can be defined as
(d) None of the above
(a) the rate of decrease in concentration of any one of the
6. For the reaction 2 A + B o 3C + D reactants
which of the following does not express the reaction rate ?
(b) the rate of increase in concentration of any one of the
d[ B] d[D] products
(a) (b)
dt dt (c) the rate of decrease in concentration of any one of the
1 d[A] 1 d[C] reactants or the rate of increase in concentration of
(c) – (d) any one of the products
2 dt 3 dt
7. Consider the reaction (d) the sum of rate of decrease in concentration of all the
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) o 2 NH3 (g) reactants or the rate of increase in concentration of all
the products
d[ NH 3 ] d[H 2 ]
The equality relationship between and 12. The rate of reaction
dt dt (a) increases as the reaction proceeds
is (b) decreases as the reaction proceeds
d[ NH 3 ] 2 d[ H 2 ] (c) remains the same as the reaction proceeds
(a)
dt 3 dt (d) may decrease or increase as the reaction proceeds

42 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
13. The unit of rate of reaction is 23. Order of reaction can be
(a) mole/dm3 (b) mole/pound (a) 0 (b) fraction
(c) mole/dm3 sec (d) mole/cm3 (c) whole number (d) integer, fraction, zero
14. In the rate equation, when the conc. of reactants is unity 24. Units of rate constant of first and zero order reactions in
then rate is equal to terms of molarity M unit are respectively
(a) specific rate constant (a) sec–1 , Msec–1 (b) sec–1, M
–1
(c) Msec , sec –1 (d) M, sec–1.
(b) average rate constant
25. A reaction involving two different reactants can never
(c) instantaneous rate constant
be
(d) None of above (a) bimolecular reaction (b) second order reaction
15. The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is (c) first order reaction (d) unimolecular reaction
called 26. 3A o B C , it would be a zero order reaction when
(a) instantaneous rate (b) average rate (a) the rate of reaction is proportional to square of
(c) specific rate (d) ordinary rate concentration of A
16. Instantaneous rate of a chemical reaction is (b) the rate of reaction remains same at any concentration
(a) rate of reaction in the beginning of A
(b) rate of reaction at the end (c) the rate remains unchanged at any concentration of B
(c) rate of reaction at a given instant and C
(d) rate of reaction between two specific time intervals (d) the rate of reaction doubles if concentration of B is
17. At the beginning the decrease in the conc. of reactants is increased to double
(a) slow (b) moderate 27. For the following homogeneous reaction,
(c) rapid (d) None of above k
A B oC
18. The average rate and instantaneous rate of a reaction are the unit of rate constant is
equal (a) sec –1 (b) sec–1 mol L–1
(a) at the start –1
(c) sec mol L –1 (d) sec–1 mol–2 L2
(b) at the end 28. Order of reaction is decided by
(c) in the middle (a) temperature
(d) when two rate have time interval equal to zero (b) mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration
19. The rate of reaction depends upon the of reactants
(a) volume (b) force (c) molecularity
(c) pressure (d) conc. of reactants (d) pressure
20. For the following reaction: NO2(g) + CO(g) oNO(g) + 29. Velocity constant k of a reaction is affected by
(a) change in the concentration of the reactant
CO2(g), the rate law is: Rate = k [NO2]2. If 0.1 mole of
(b) change of temperature
gaseous carbon monoxide is added at constant temperature
(c) change in the concentration of the product
to the reaction mixture which of the following statements is
true?
30. The rate constant for the reaction
(a) Both k and the reaction rate remain the same –5 –1
2N 2O5 o 4 NO 2 O 2 is 3.10 × 10 sec . If the rate is
(b) Both k and the reaction rate increase
(c) Both k and the reaction rate decrease 2.4 × 10–5 mol litre–1 sec–1 then the concentration of N 2 O 5
(d) Only k increases, the reaction rate remain the same (in mol litre–1) is :
21. Which one of the following statements for the order of a (a) 0.04 (b) 0.8
reaction is incorrect ? (c) 0.07 (d) 1.4
(a) Order can be determined only experimentally. 31. A zero order reaction is one whose rate is independent of
(b) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient (a) the concentration of the reactants
of the reactants. (b) the temperature of reaction
(c) the concentration of the product
(c) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration
(d) the material of the vessel in which reaction is carried
terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction.
out
(d) Order of reaction is always whole number. 32. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B
22. The rate of the reaction 2NO Cl2 o 2NOCl is is given by Rate = k [A]n [B]m
given by the rate equation rate = k [NO]2 [Cl2] On doubling the concentration of A and halving the
The value of the rate constant can be increased by: concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier
(a) increasing the concentration of NO. rate of the reaction will be as
(b) increasing the temperature. (a) (m + n) (b) (n – m)
(c) increasing the concentration of the Cl 2 1
(c) 2(n – m) (d) (m n )
(d) doing all of the above 2

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 43
33. In the reaction 2A B o A 2 B, if the concentration of A is 43. What is order with respect to A, B, C, respectively
[A] [B] [C] rate (M/sec.)
doubled and that of B is halved, then the rate of the reaction will:
(a) increase 2 times (b) increase 4 times 0.2 0.1 0.02 8.08 × 10–3
(c) decrease 2 times (d) remain the same 0.1 0.2 0.02 2.01 × 10–3
34. The order of a reaction, with respect to one of the reacting 0.1 1.8 0.18 6.03 × 10–3
component Y, is zero. It implies that: 0.2 0.1 0.08 6.464 × 10–2
(a) the reaction is going on at a constant rate (a) –1, 1, 3/2 (b) –1, 1, 1/2
(b) the rate of reaction does not vary with temperature (c) 1, 3/2, –1 (d) 1, –1, 3/2
(c) the reaction rate is independent of the concentration 44. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for
of Y the following reaction :
(d) the rate of formation of the activated complex is zero AB o C
35. If the rate of a gaseous reaction is independent of pressure,
Expt. No. (A) (B) Initial Rate
the order of reaction is:
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
(a) 0 (b) 1
2 0.024 0.070 0.80
(c) 2 (d) 3
36. If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the 3 0.024 0.035 0.10
order of the reaction is 4 0.012 0.070 0.80
(a) 3 (b) 0 (a) Rate = k[B]3 (b) Rate = k [B]4
(c) 1 (d) 2 (c) Rate = k [A] [B] 3 (d) Rate = k [A]2 [B]2
37. In a reaction, when the concentration of reactant is increased 45. The order of a reaction with rate equal to k[A]3/2 [B]–1/2 is
two times, the increase in rate of reaction was four times. :
Order of reaction is : 1
(a) zero (b) 1 (a) 1 (b)
2
(c) 2 (d) 3
3
38. For the reaction A + 2B o C, rate is given by R = [A] [B]2 (c) (d) 2
then the order of the reaction is 2
(a) 3 (b) 6 46. For the reaction,
(c) 5 (d) 7 H
CH3COCH3 + I2 o products
39. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is
The rate is governed by expression
(a) mol L–1 s–1 (b) L mol–1 s–1
2 –2 –1 (d) s – 1 dx
(c) L mol s k[acetone][H ]
40. Which one of the following reactions is a true first order dt
reaction? The order w.r.t. I2 is:
(a) Alkaline hydrolysis of ethyl acetate (a) 1 (b) 0
(b) Acid catalyst hydrolysis of ethyl acetate (c) 3 (d) 2
(c) Decomposition of N2O 47. The rate constant of a reaction is 3.00 × 103 L mol–1 sec–1.
(d) Decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum The order of this reaction will be:
surface (a) 0 (b) 1
41. For a reaction A + B o C + 2D, experimental results (c) 2 (d) 3
were collected for three trials and the data obtained are 48. During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B o C + D,
given below: following results were obtained:
Trial [A], M [B], M Initial Rate, M s–1 Run [A ](mol L–1 ) [B](mol L– 1 ) Initial rate of
–4 formation of
1 0.40 0.20 5.5 × 10 –1 –1
D (mol L min )
2 0.80 0.20 5.5 × 10–4 –3
I 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10
3 0.40 0.40 2.2 × 10–3 II 0.3 0.2 7.2 × 10
–2
The correct rate law of the reaction is III 0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10
–1
(a) rate = k[A]0 [B]2 (b) rate = k[A] [B]2 IV 0.4 0.1 2.40 × 10
–2
(c) rate = k[A] [B] (d) rate = k[A] [B]0

Based on the above data which one of the following is
42. The rate law for the reaction
correct?
xA + yB o mP + nQ is Rate = k [A]c [B]d. What is the
total order of the reaction? (a) rate = k [A]2 [B] (b) rate = k[A] [B]
(a) (x + y) (b) (m + n)
(c) rate = k [A] [B] 2 2
(d) rate = k [A] [B]2
(c) (c + d) (d) x/y

44 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
49. For the reaction H2(g) + Br2 (g) o 2HBr (g), the experimental 57. Half life of a first order reaction is 4s and the initial
data suggest, rate = k[H2][Br2]1/2. The molecularity and concentration of the reactant is 0.12 M. The concentration
order of the reaction are respectively of the reactant left after 16 s is
3 3 3 (a) 0.0075 M (b) 0.06 M
(a) 2, (b) , (c) 0.03 M (d) 0.015 M
2 2 2
1 58. The reaction A o B follows first order kinetics. The time
(c) 1, 1 (d) 1, taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hour.
2
50. The chemical reaction 2O 3 o 3O 2 proceeds as follows: What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to
produce 0.675 mole of B?
Fast Slow
O 3 o O 2 O ; O O 3 o 2 O 2 the rate law (a) 2 hours (b) 1 hour
expression should be (c) 0.5 hour (d) 0.25 hour
(a) r = k[O3]2 (b) r = k [O3]2[O2]–1 59. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 at
(c) r = k3 [O3][O2]2 (d) r = [O3][O2]2 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The half life of the reaction
51. Nitrogen monoxide, NO, reacts with hydrogen, H2, according is
to the following equation: (a) 0.383 min (b) 23.1 min
2NO(g) + 2H2(g) o N2(g) + 2H2O(g) (c) 8.73 min (d) 7.53 min
If the mechanism for this reaction were, 60. The rate constant for a first order reaction whose half-life, is
2NO(g) + H2(g) o N2(g) + H2O2(g) ; slow 480 seconds is :
H2O2(g) + H2(g) o 2H2O(g) ; fast (a) 2.88 × 10–3 sec–1 (b) 2.72 × 10–3 sec–1
Which of the following rate laws would we expect to obtain (c) 1.44 × 10 –3 sec–1 (d) 1.44 sec–1
experimentally?
61. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 6.9 u103 s 1 .
(a) Rate = k[H2O2][H2] (b) Rate = k[NO]2[H2]
How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration
(c) Rate = k[NO]2[H2]2 (d) Rate = k[NO][H2]
to its 1/8th value?
52. Which of the following is not a first order reaction ?
(a) 100 s (b) 200 s
(a) Hydrogenation of ethene
(c) 300 s (d) 400 s
(b) Natural radioactive decay of unstable nuclei
(c) Decomposition of HI on gold surface 62. A reaction proceeds by first order, 75% of this reaction
(d) Decomposition of N2O was completed in 32 min. The time required for 50%
53. The plot that represents the zero order reaction is : completion is
(a) 8 min (b) 16 min
(c) 20 min (d) 24 min
[R] [R] 63. Point out the wrong statement:
(a) (b)
t t For a first order reaction
(a) time for half-change (t 1/2) is independent of initial
concentration
[R] (b) change in the concentration unit does not change the
(c) (d) In[R]
t t rate constant (k)
54. The plot of concentration of the reactant vs time for a (c) time for half-change × rate constant = 0.693
reaction is a straight line with a negative slope. The reaction (d) the unit of k is mole–1 min–1
follows a rate equation 64. t 1 can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a
(a) zero order (b) first order 4
(c) second order (d) third order 3
reactant to drop to of its initial value. If the rate constant
55. The half-life of a reaction is inversely proportional to the 4
square of the initial concentration of the reactant. Then the t
order of the reaction is for a first order reaction is k, the 1 can be written as
4
(a) 0 (b) 1 (a) 0.75/k (b) 0.69/k
(c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 0.29/k (d) 0.10/k
56. The rate equation for a reaction,
65. In a first-order reaction A o B, if k is rate constant and
N2O o N2 + 1/2O2
inital concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-
is Rate = k[N2O]0 = k. If the initial concentration of the
life is
reactant is a mol Lit–1, the half-life period of the reaction is
a log 2 log 2
(a) t 1 (b) t 1 ka (a) (b)
2 k 2
k k 0.5
2
a k ln 2 0.693
(c) t1 (d) t1 (c) (d)
k a k 0.5k
2 2

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 45
66. Consider the reaction, 2A + B o products. When 74. A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward
concentration of B alone was doubled, the half-life did not and reverse reaction has :
change. When the concentration of A alone was doubled, (a) 'G = 0 (b) 'H = 0
the rate increased by two times. The unit of rate constant (c) 'H = 'G = 'S = 0 (d) 'S = 0
for this reaction is 75. In an exothermic reaction if 'H is the enthalpy then activation
(a) s – 1 (b) L mol–1 s–1 energy is
(c) no unit (d) mol L–1 s–1. (a) more than 'H (b) less than 'H
67. The decomposition of N2O5 occurs as (c) equal to 'H (d) none of the above
2N2O5 o 4NO2 + O2 and follows Ist order kinetics, 1
hence: 76. In the Arrhenius plot of ln k vs , a linear plot is obtained
T
(a) the reaction is unimolecular
with a slope of –2 × 104 K. The energy of activation of the
(b) the reaction is bimolecular
reaction (in kJ mole–1) is (R value is 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)
(c) t1/2 v a0
(a) 83 (b) 166
(d) None of these
68. In a first-order reaction A o B, if k is rate constant and (c) 249 (d) 332
inital concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half- 77. The rate of reaction is doubled for every 10°C rise in
life is temperature. The increase in reaction rate as a result of
temperature rise from 10°C to 100°C is
log 2 log 2 (a) 112 (b) 512
(a) (b)
k k 0.5 (c) 400 (d) 614
78. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with
ln 2 0.693
(c) (d) temperature (T) are given below. The plot that follows
k 0.5k Arrhenius equation is
69. For a first order reaction, a plot of log (a – x) against time is
a straight line with a negative slope equal to
k
(a) (b) – 2.303 k
2.303 (a) (b)
2.303 Ea
(c) (d)
k 2.303 R
70. In a reaction A o Products, when start is made from
8.0 × 10–2 M of A, half-life is found to be 120 minute. For the
initial concentration 4.0 × 10–2 M, the half-life of the reaction
(c) (d)
becomes 240 minute. The order of the reaction is :
(a) zero (b) one
(c) two (d) 0.5
79. If the activation energy for the forward reaction is 150 kJ
71. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order reaction
mol–1 and that of the reverse reaction is 260 kJ mol–1, what
_________.
is the enthalpy change for the reaction ?
(a) depends on the concentration of reactants present in
(a) 410 kJ mol–1 (b) –110 kJ mol–1
small amount. –1
(c) 110 kJ mol (d) – 410 kJ mol–1
(b) depends on the concentration of reactants present in
excess. 80. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined
(c) is independent on the concentration of reactants. by
(d) depends only on temperature. (a) evaluating rate constant at standard temperature
72. In the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia the (b) evaluating velocities of reaction at two different
following catalyst is used temperatures
(a) Platinized asbestos (c) evaluating rate constants at two different temperatures
(b) Iron with molybdenum as promoter (d) changing concentration of reactants
(c) Copper oxide 81. In respect of the equation k Ae Ea / RT in chemical
(d) Alumina kinetics, which one of the following statements is correct ?
73. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles (a) A is adsorption factor
when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C?
(b) Ea is energy of activation
(R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
(a) 269 kJ mol–1 (b) 34.7 kJ mol–1 (c) R is Rydberg’s constant
(c) 15.1 kJ mol –1 (d) 342 kJ mol–1 (d) k is equilibrium constant

46 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
82. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation (a) A catalyst changes the potential energies of the
as : k Ae Ea / RT reactants and products.
(b) A catalyst decreases the temperature of the reaction
In this equation, Ea represents
which leads to a faster rate.
(a) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a
(c) A catalyst lowers the activation energy for the reaction
temperature, T
by providing a different reaction mechanism.
(b) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the
(d) A catalyst destroys some of the reactants, which lowers
activation energy of the reaction
the concentration of the reactants.
(c) the energy below which all the colliding molecules will
90. In terms of the ‘Collision Theory of Chemical Kinetics’, the
react
rate of a chemical reaction is proportional to
(d) the energy below which colliding molecules will not
(a) the change in free energy per second
react
(b) the change in temperature per second
83. The minimum energy required for the reacting molecules to
(c) the number of collisions per second
undergo reaction is :
(d) the number of products molecules
(a) potential energy (b) kinetic energy
91. According to collision theory, which of the following is
(c) thermal energy (d) activation energy
NOT a true statement concerning a catalyst?
84. The reason for almost doubling the rate of reaction on
(a) A catalyst changes the temperature of reaction.
increasing the temperature of the reaction system by 10°C
(b) The mechanism of a reaction will change when a
is
catalyst is added.
(a) the value of threshold energy increases
(c) A catalyst provides a different activation energy for a
(b) collision frequency increases
reaction.
(c) the fraction of the molecule having energy equal to
(d) A catalyst changes the speed of a reaction, but not the
threshold energy or more increases
equilibrium constant.
(d) activation energy decreases
92. Which of the following influences the rate of a chemical
85. The slope in Arrhenius plot, is equal to:
reaction performed in solution?
Ea Ea (a) Temperature
(a) (b)
2.303 R R (b) Activation energy
R (c) Presence of a catalyst
(c) (d) None of these (d) All of the above influence the rate
2.303 Ea
93. How can be activation energy for a reaction be determined
86. The activation energy for a reaction is 9.0 kcal/mol. The graphically?
increase in the rate constant when its temperature is (a) Plot k versus T, the slope of the line will be equal to Ea
increased from 298K to 308K is
(b) Plot 1/[A]t versus t, the slope of the line will be equal
(a) 63% (b) 50% to Ea
(c) 100% (d) 10% (c) Plot ln [A]t versus t, the slope of the line will be equal
87. In a reversible reaction the energy of activation of the to – Ea
forward reaction is 50 kcal. The energy of activation for the (d) Plot ln k versus 1/T, the slope of the line will be equal
reverse reaction will be to – Ea / R
(a) < 50 kcal 94. The Arrhenius equation expressing the effect of temperature
(b) either greater than or less than 50 kcal on the rate constant of the reaction is
(c) 50 kcal
Ea
(d) > 50 kcal (a) k e E a / RT (b) k
RT
88. A catalyst
(a) increases the rate of reaction by decreasing 'G of a Ea
(c) k log e (d) k Ae E a / RT
reaction. RT
(b) increases the rate of reaction by increasing 'G of a 95. In Arrhenius plot, intercept is equal to
reaction. Ea
(c) increases the rate of reaction by decreasing activation (a) (b) ln A
R
energy of the forward reaction.
(c) ln k (b) log10 a
(d) increases the rate of reaction by providing an
96. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and 280 K. The
alternative pathway via an intermediate with lower
rate constants were found to be k1 and k2 respectively.
activation energy.
then
89. Which of the following statements best describes how a
(a) k1 = 4k1 (b) k2 = 2k1
catalyst works?
(c) k2 = 0.25 k1 (d) k2 = 0.5 k1

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 47
97. For a first order reaction, the plot of log K against 1/T is a (b) Eb Ef
straight line. The slope of the line is equal to
2.303 (c) E b ! Ef
Ea
(a) (b)
R Ea R (d) Eb Ef
Ea E a 106. The energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions
(c) (d) for A2 + B2 U 2AB are 180 kJ mol–1 and 200 kJ mol–1
2.303 2.303 R
respectively. The presence of a catalyst lowers the activation
98. Collision theory is applicable to
energy of both (forward and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ
(a) first order reactions (b) zero order reactions
mol–1. The enthalpy change of the reaction (A2 + B2 l
(c) bimolecular reactions (d) intra-molecular reactions
2AB) in the presence of a catalyst will be (in kJ mol–1)
99. According to the collision theory of reaction rates, the rate
of reaction increases with temperature due to (a) 20 (b) 300
(a) greater number of collision (c) 120 (d) 280
(b) higher velocity of reacting molecules 107. For the exothermic reaction A B o C D, 'H is the heat
(c) greater number of molecules having the activation of reaction and Ea is the energy of activation. The energy of
energy activation for the formation of A + B will be
(d) decrease in the activation energy (a) Ea (b) 'H
100. Which of the following has been used to explain the subject (c) Ea + 'H (d) 'H – Ea
of chemical kinetics
108. In most cases, for a rise of 10K temperature the rate constant
(a) Collision theory of bimolecular reactions
is doubled to tribled. This is due to the reason that
(b) The activated complex theory
(a) collision frequency increases by a factor of 2 to 3.
(c) Arrhenius equation
(b) fraction of molecules possessing threshold energy
(d) All of these
increases by a factor of 2 to 3
101. A catalyst increases rate of reaction by
(a) decreasing enthalpy (c) Activation energy is lowered by a factor of 2 to 3.
(b) decreasing internal energy (d) none of these
(c) decreasing activation energy 109. Consider Fig. and mark the correct option.
(d) increasing activation energy Activated complex
102. Activation energy of the reaction is
(a) the energy released during the reaction
(b) the energy evolved when activated complex is formed
E1
Energy o
(c) minimum amount of energy needed to overcome the

Products
potential barrier
(d) the energy needed to form one mole of the product E2
103. In a reaction, the threshold energy is equal to
Reactants
(a) activation energy + normal energy of reactants
(b) activation energy - normal energy of reactants Reaction coordinate o
(c) normal energy of reactants - activation energy
(d) average kinetic energy of molecules of reactants (a) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2 and
104. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a product is less stable than reactant.
chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, (b) Activation energy of forward reaction is E 1 + E2 and
product is more stable than reactant.
k = A . e E a Activation energy (Ea) of the reaction can be
(c) Activation energy of both forward and backward
calculated by plotting
reaction is E1 + E2 and reactant is more stable than
1 1 product.
(a) k vs. (b) log k vs
log T T (d) Activation energy of backward reaction is E 1 and
product is more stable than reactant.
1 110. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined
(c) log k vs. (d) k vs. T
log T by ___________
105. Consider an endothermic reaction X o Y with the (a) determining the rate constant at standard temperature.
activation energies E b and E f for the backward and (b) determining the rate constants at two temperatures.
forward reactions, respectively. In general (c) determining probability of collision.
(d) using catalyst.
(a) there is no definite relation between E b and E f

48 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
111. According to which theory activation energy and proper (ii) in fig. b, D represents average rate and C represents
orientation of the molecules together determine the criteria instantaneous rate
for an effective collision ? (iii) fig. a, A represents instantaneous rate and B represents
(a) Arrhenius theory average rate
(b) Activated complex theory (iv) fig. b, C represents average rate and D represents
(c) Collision theory instantaneous rate
(d) Both (a) and (c) (a) (i) and (ii) are correct (b) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct (d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 115. Choose correct option based on following statements. Here
T stands for true statement and F for false statement.
112. Consider the following reaction : (i) Molecularity is defined as the number of reacting
Pt(s) species taking part in a complex reaction,
4NH 3 (g) 5O 2 (g) o 4NO(g) 6H 2O(g)
(ii) Molecularity helps in understanding the mechanism
(i) Rate of reaction with respect to NH 3 will be
of reaction.
1 '[NH3 ] (iii) Reactions with the molecularity three are very rare and

4 't slow to proceed.
1 '[O2 ] 1 '[H 2O] (iv) Complex reactions involving more than three molecules
(ii) For the given reaction
take place in more than one step.
5 't 6 't
(a) TTTF (b) TFTF
1 '[NH3 ] 1 '[NO] (c) FTTF (d) FTTT
(iii) For the given reaction
4 't 4 't 116. Read the following statements
(iv) For the given reaction, (i) Order of reaction can be fractional or zero.
1 '[NH3 ] 1 '[O2 ] (ii) Molecularity of a reaction can be fractional but cannot
Rate =
be zero.
4 't 5 't
4'[NO] 6'[H 2O] (iii) Slowest step in the complex reaction is considered as
= a rate determining step.
't 't
(iv) Units of rate constant for second order reaction are
Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
mol L s–1.
above.
(v) Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex
(a) TTTT (b) TFTF
reactions whereas molecularity is applicable only for
(c) FTFT (d) TFFT
elementary reactions.
113. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Rate of reaction decreases with passage of time as the
above ?
concentration of reactants decrease. (a) TTFFT (b) TFTFT
(ii) For a reaction (c) FFFTT (d) FTTFF
pP qQ o rR sS 117. Consider the following statements with respect of zero order
Rate = k[P]x [Q]y where x = p and y = q reaction
(i) The rate of the reaction is independent of reactant
(iii) Rate law is the expression in which reaction rate is
concentration
given in terms of molar concentration of reactants with
(ii) The rate of the reaction is independent of temperature
each term raised to some power, which may or may not
(iii) The rate constant of the reaction is independent of
be same as the stichiometric coefficient of the reacting
temperature
species in a balanced chemical equation.
(iv) The rate constant of the reaction is independent of
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
reactant concentration
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) only
Choose the correct statement(s).
114. Study the following graphs and choose the correct option
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii) only
[R]0 (c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (iv)only
(P) 118. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) For a zero order reaction concentration [R] vs time (t)
Concentration
Concentration
c1 A c2 C gives a straight line plot

c2 B '[P]
c1 [R]0
't D (ii) For a first order reaction log does not vary linearly
[R]
t4 t2 t Time t4 t2 t Time with time.
(a) (b) (iii) Inversion of cane sugar is a pseudo first order reaction.
(i) in fig. a, A represents average rate and B represents (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) only
instantaneous rate (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) only

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 49
119. At high pressure the following reaction is of zero order. 123. Read the following statements.
1130 K (i) e E a /RT corresponds to the fraction of molecules that
2NH3 g
o N 2 g 3H 2 g
Platinum catalyst have kinetic energy greater than Ea.
Which of the following statements are correct for above (ii) Ea can be calculated as follows
reaction?
k E a ª T2 T1 º
(i) Rate of reaction = Rate constant log 1 « »
k2 2.303R ¬ T1T2 ¼
(ii) Rate of reaction depends on concentration of ammonia.
(iii) Rate of decomposition of ammonia will remain constant (iii) Catalyst can alter a reaction both ways means it can
until ammonia disappears completely. either decrease on increase rate of reaction
(iv) Further increase in pressure will change the rate of (iv) A catalyst always decreases the activation energy of
reaction. the reaction but does not alter Gibb’s energy.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (v) A catalyst does not alter equilibrium constant rather, it
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) helps in attaining the equilibrium faster.
120. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is the correct codes for above
(i) Increase in concentration of reactant increases the statements ?
rate of a zero order reaction. (a) TTTFF (b) TFFTT
(ii) Rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if (c) TFFTF (d) FTFTT
Ea = 0. 124. The following statement(s) is (are) correct :
(iii) Rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if (i) A plot of log kp versus 1/T is linear
Ea = f. (ii) A plot of log [X] versus time is linear for a first order
(iv) lnk vs T is a straight line. reaction, X o P
(v) lnk vs 1/T is a straight line. (iii) A plot of log p versus 1/T is linear at constant volume
Correct statements are (iv) A plot of p versus 1/V is linear at constant temperature
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (v) (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
121. According to collision theory, not all collisions between
molecules lead to reaction. Which of the following 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
statements provide reasons for the same ?
125. Match the columns
(i) The total energy of the two colliding molecules is less
than some minimum amount of energy. Column-I Column-II
(ii) Molecules cannot react with each other unless a (A) Mathematical expression for rate (p) rate constant
catalyst is present. of reaction
(iii) Molecules that are improperly oriented during collision (B) Rate of reaction for zero order (q) rate law
will not react. reaction is equal to
(iv) Molecules in different states of matter cannot react (C) Units of rate constant for zero (r) order of slowest
with each other. order reaction is same as that of step
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (D) Order of a complex reaction is (s) rate of reaction
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) determined by
122. Consider the following statements (a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(i) Rate constant for every physical and chemical change (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
gets doubled with 10°C rise in temperature (c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
(ii) On taking log both side Arrhenius equation will (d) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (r)
become 126. Match the columns
Ea Column-1 Column-II
log k log A (A) Zero order reaction (p) L mole–1 sec–1
RT
(iii) The energy required to form activated complex is known (B) First order reaction (q) mole L–1 sec–1
as activation energy (C) Second order reaction (r) sec –1
Which of the following is the correct code for statements (a) A – (q), B – (r) ,C – (p)
above? (b) A – (q), B – (p) ,C – (r)
(a) TTT (b) FTT (c) A – (p), B – (q) ,C – (r)
(c) FTF (d) TFT (d) A – (p), B – (r) ,C – (q)

50 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
127. Match the columns 130. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II Column - I Column - II
(A) The decomposition (p) Zero order reaction (A) Number of collisions per (p) Effective collisions.
of gaseous ammonia second per unit volume
on a hot platinum of the reaction mixture.
surface (B) Fraction of molecules (q) Collision frequency
(B) The thermal (q) Pseudo first order with energies equal to
decomposition of HI reaction. or greater than Ea
on gold surface
(C) All natural and (r) Zero order reaction at (C) Molecules for which (r) e Ea /RT
artificial radioactive high pressure
Rate = Z ABe Ea /RT
decay of unstable
nuclei shows significant deviations
(D) Inversion of cane sugar (s) First order reaction. (D) Collision in which molecules (s) Complex molecules
(a) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) collide with sufficient K.E.
(b) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p) and proper orientation.
(c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) (a) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
(d) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (p) (b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p)
128. Match the columns. (c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
Column-I Column-II (d) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
(A) Catalyst alters the rate (p) cannot be fraction or zero 131. Consider the energy diagram of a reaction : B o A, on the
of reaction basis of given diagram select the correct code for matching
(B) Molecularity (q) proper orientation is not Column-I and Column-II.
there always. X
(C) Second half life of first (r) by lowering the activation
order reaction enrgy
Energy
(D) Energetically favourable (s) is same as the first

reactions are sometimes B
slow
A
(a) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
(b) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
(c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) Progress of reaction
(d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q) Column-I Column-II
129. Match the columns (A) X – A (p) Enthalpy of reaction
Column - I Column - II (B) X – B (q) Energy of transition state
[R 0 ] [R] (C) A – B (r) Activation energy of
(A) k = (p) k = 2.303 log 2
t t1 2 forward reaction
2.303 [R 0 ] (D) X (s) Activation energy of
(B) k = log (q) Rate constant for zero backward reaction
t [R]
(a) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
order reaction
(b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
(C) Value of k for first (r) k = [R]0 (c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
2t1 2 (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
order reaction when
[R]0
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
t = t 1 and[R]
2 132. In the following reaction, how is the rate of appearance of
2
underlined product related to the rate of disappearance of
(D) Value of k for zero (s) Rate constant for first
the underlined reactant ?
order reaction when order reaction
BrO 3 (aq) 5Br (aq) 6H
o 3Br 2 (l) 3H 2 O(l)
[R]0
t = t1 2 and [R]
2 d[Br2 ] d[Br ] d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br ]
(a) (b)
(a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r) dt dt dt 5 dt
(b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br ] d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br ]
(c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) (c) (d)
(d) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (t) dt 5 dt dt 3 dt

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 51
133. For the reaction A + B o C + D. The variation of the Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with
concentration of the products is given by the curve the given information about the reaction?
(a) A and B both (b) Neither A nor B
Y (c) A only (d) B only
Z 137. The hypothetical reaction A 2 B 2 o 2 AB ; follows
Conc the following mechanism A 2 Fast

o A A ,
Slow
W A B 2 o AB B , A B Fast
o AB .
X The order of the overall reaction is
Time (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) Z (b) Y (c) 2 (d) 3/2
138. The initial rates of reaction
(c) W (d) X
3A + 2B + C o Products, at different initial
134. The rate of the reaction 2N2O5 o 4NO2 + O2 can be written
concentrations are given below:
in three ways :
Initial rate, [A]0, M [B]0, M [C]0, M
d[N 2O5 ] Ms–1
k [N 2O5 ]
dt 5.0 × 10–3 0.010 0.005 0.010
d[NO 2 ]
5.0 × 10–3 0.010 0.005 0.015
k c [N 2O5 ] 1.0 × 10–2 0.010 0.010 0.010
dt
1.25 × 10–3 0.005 0.005 0.010
d[O 2 ] The order with respect to the reactants, A, B and C are
k cc [N 2O 5 ]
dt respectively
The relationship between k and k' and between k and kcc (a) 3, 2, 0 (b) 3, 2, 1
are: (c) 2, 2, 0 (d) 2, 1, 0
(a) kc = 2k ; kc = k (b) kc = 2k ; kcc = k / 2 139. The rate law for the reaction 2X + Y o Z is Rate =
(c) kc = 2k ; kcc = 2k (d) kc = k ; kcc = k k[X][Y]. The correct statement with regard to this relation
is
135. CHCl3 Cl2
o CCl 4 HCl (a) the rate of the reaction is independent of [X] and [Y]
(b) for this reaction t1/2 is independent of initial
Rate law for above reaction will be
concentrations of reactant
1 (c) the rate of formation of Z is twice the rate of
Rate = k[CHCl3 ][Cl2 ]2 disappearance of X
On the basis of information provided which of the following (d) the rate of disappearance of X is equal to rate of
option will be correct ? disappearance of Y
140. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is
(a) Rate law for any chemical reaction can be predicted
represented by this equation.
accurately by looking at balanced chemical equation.
CH3COCH3 (aq) + Br2 (aq) o CH3COCH2Br (aq) + H+ (aq)
(b) Rate law for a chemical reaction has to determine
+ Br– (aq)
experimentally.
These kinetic data were obtained for given reaction
(c) Either determined experimentally or obtained from
concentrations.
balanced chemical reaction, rate law will be same.
(d) None of the above is correct. Initial Initial rate,
136. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given Concentrations, M disappearance of
as: Br2, Ms–1
[CH3 COCH3] [Br2] [H+]
H 2 (g) 2ICl(g)
o 2HCl(g) I 2 (g) 0.30 0.05 0.05 5.7×10–5
The reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) and ICI(g), 0.30 0.10 0.05 5.7 × 10–5
following mechanisms were proposed. 0.30 0.10 0.10 1.2 × 10–4
Mechanism A: 0.40 0.05 0.20 3.1 × 10–4
H 2 (g) 2ICl(g)
o 2HCl(g) I 2 (g) Based on given data, the rate equations is:
Mechanism B: (a) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][H+]
(b) Rate = k [CH3COCH3][Br2]
H 2 (g) ICl(g)
o HI(g);slow
(c) Rate = k [CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]2
HI(g) ICl(g)
o HCl(g) I 2 (g);fast (d) Rate = k [CH3COCH3][Br2] [H+]

52 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
141. Consider a reaction aG + bH o Products. When 147. If half-life of a substance is 5 yrs, then the total amount of
concentration of both the reactants G and H is doubled, the substance left after 15 years, when initial amount is 64 grams
rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration is
of G is doubled keeping the concentration of H fixed, the (a) 16 grams (b) 2 grams
rate is doubled. The overall order of the reaction is (c) 32 grams (d) 8 grams.
(a) 0 (b) 1 148. In a 1st order reaction, reactant concentration C varies with
(c) 2 (d) 3 time t as :
142. Diazonium salt decomposes as 1
(a) increases linearly with t
C6 H 5 N 2 Cl o C6 H5Cl N 2 C
(b) log C decreases linearly with t
At 0°C, the evolution of N2 becomes two times faster when
the initial concentration of the salt is doubled. Therefore, it 1
(c) C decreases with
is t
(a) a first order reaction 1
(d) log C decreases with
(b) a second order reaction t
(c) independent of the initial concentration of the salt 149. For the first order reaction
(d) a zero order reaction C 2 H 4 O(g) o CH 4 (g) CO(g) ,the initial pressure of
143. Consider the following reaction at 25°C:
C2H4O(g) is 80 torr and total pressure at the end of 20
(CH3)3COH(l) + HCl(aq) o (CH3)3CCl(l) + H2O(l)
minutes is 120 torr. The time needed for 75% decomposition
The experimentally determined rate law for this reaction of C2H4O would be :
indicates that the reaction is of first order in (CH3)3COH
(a) 20 minutes (b) 40 minutes
and that the reaction is of first order overall. Which of the
(c) 80 minutes (d) 120 minutes
following would produce an increase in the rate of this
150. Which of the following graph(s) is/are correct for a zero
reaction?
order reaction?
(a) Increasing the concentration of (CH3)3COH
(b) Increasing the concentration of HCl
Reaction rate o
(c) Decreasing the concentration of HCl

(d) Decreasing the concentration of (CH3)3CCl (i)
144. The following data pertains to reaction between A and B :
S. No. [A] mol L–1 [B] mol L–1 Rate (mol L–1 time–1)
1 1.0 × 10–2 2.0 × 10–2 2.0 × 10–4 Time o
2 2.0 × 10–2 2.0 × 10–2 4.0 × 10–4
2.0 × 10–2 4.0 × 10–2 8.0 × 10–4
of reactant rate o
3
Concentration
Which of the following inference(s) can be drawn from the

above data ? (iii)
(i) Rate constant of the reaction is 1.0 × 10–4.
(ii) Rate law of the reaction is : rate = k[A][B]
(iii) Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the Time o
concentration of both the reactants.
Reaction rate o
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) only (iii)
145. The decomposition of ammonia on tungsten surface at 500 K
follows zero order kinetics. The half-life period of this
reaction is 45 minutes when the initial pressure is 4 bar. The Time o
half-life period (minutes) of the reaction when the initial
pressure is 16 bar at the same temperature is
of reactant rate o
Concentration
(a) 120 (b) 60

slope = –k
(c) 240 (d) 180
146. A substance 'A' decomposes by a first order reaction starting (iv)
initially with [A] = 2.00 M and after 200 min, [A] becomes
0.15 M. For this reaction t1/2 is Time o
(a) 53.72 min (b) 50.49 min (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) 48.45 min (d) 46.45 min (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 53
151. The integrated rate equations can be determined for (a) The temperature of the system
(a) zero order reactions (b) The geometry or orientation of the collision
(b) first order reactions (c) The velocity of the reactants at the point of collision
(c) second order reactions (d) All of the above influence the rate
(d) Both (a) and (b) 158. The activation energy for a hypothetical
152. In a zero-order reaction for every 10° rise of temperature, reaction, A o Product, is 12.49 kcal/mole. If temperature is
the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from raised from 295 to 305, the rate of reaction increased by
10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become : (a) 60% (b) 100%
(a) 256 times (b) 512 times (c) 50% (d) 20%
(c) 64 times (d) 128 times 159. A reactant (A) froms two products :
153. For a first order reaction AoP, the temperature (T) 1 o B, k
dependent rate constant (k) was found to follow the A Activation Energy Ea
1
k
1 A o 2 C, Activation Energy Ea
equation log k = – (2000) 6.0 . The pre-exponential factor 2
T If Ea = 2 Ea , then k1 and k2 are related as :
2 1
A and the activation energy Ea, respectively, are
(a) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 9.2 kJ mol–1 (a) k2 k1e Ea1 / RT (b) k2 k1e Ea2 / RT
(b) 6.0 s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol–1 k1 Ak 2 e Ea1 / RT k1 2k 2 e Ea2 / RT
(c) (d)
(c) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol–1
(d) 1.0 × 106 s–1 and 38.3 kJ mol–1 160. Which of the following graph(s) represents exothermic
reaction?
154. The activation energies of two reactions are E 1 and
E2 (E1 > E2). If the temperature of the system is increased (A) Activated complex
from T1 to T2, the rate constant of the reactions changes
from k1 to k1' in the first reaction and k2 to k2' in the second
Energy o
reaction. Predict which of the following expression is

correct?
Reactants
k1' k '2 k1' k '2 Products
(a) (b) !
k1 k2 k1 k 2 Reaction coordinate o
k1' k '2 k1' k '2 (B) Activated complex

(c) (d) 1
k1 k 2 k1 k2
Energy o
155. A graph plotted between log k vs 1/T for calculating

activation energy is shown by
Products
Reactants
Reaction coordinate o
(a) log k (b) log k
(C) Activated complex
1/T 1/T
Energy o
(c) log k (d) log k Reactants Products
Reaction coordinate o
1/T 1/T
(a) (A) only (b) (B) only
156. The rate constant, the activation energy and the arrhenius
(c) (C) only (d) (A) and (B)
parameter of a chemical reaction at 25°C are 3.0 × 10–4s–1,
161. Which of the following statements is not correct for the
104.4 kJ mol–1 and 6.0 × 1014 s–1 respectively. The value of
catalyst?
the rate constant as T of is
(a) It catalyses the forward and backward reaction to the
(a) 2.0 × 1018 s–1 (b) 6.0 × 1014 s–1
same extent.
(c) Infinity (d) 3.6 × 1030 s–1
(b) It alters 'G of the reaction.
157. Collision theory is used to explain how chemical species
(c) It is a substance that does not change the equilibrium
undergo a reaction. Using this theory and the kinetic
constant of a reaction.
molecular model, which of the following does NOT influence
(d) It provides an alternate mechanism by reducing
the rate of a chemcial reaction?
activation energy between reactants and products.

54 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
162. Consider the reaction A f B. The concentration of both the
reactants and the products varies exponentially with time.
Which of the following figures correctly describes the [A]
Concentration o
change in concentration of reactants and products with
time?
[B]
(d)
Concentration o
[B]
Time o
(a)
[A] 163. During decomposition of an activated complex.
Time o (i) energy is always released
[B] (ii) energy is always absorbed
(iii) energy does not change
Concentration o
(iv) reactants may be formed

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(b) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
[A] 164. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Time o (a) Energy is always released when activated complex
[B] decomposes to form products.
(b) Peak of the energy distribution curve corresponds to
o
the most probable potential energy.

Concentration
(c) Peak of the energy distribution curve corresponds to

(c) the most probable kinectic energy.
[A] (d) When the temperature is raised maximum of energy
distribution curve moves to higher energy value and
Time o broadens out.

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 55
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 24. (a) For a zero order reaction.
rate =k[A]º i.e. rate = k
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) hence unit of k = M.sec–1
For a first order reaction.
6. (d) In the given options d[C] will not represent the rate = k [A]
3dt k = M.sec–1/M = sec–1
reaction rate. It should not have –ve sign as it is product. 25. (d) The reaction involving two different reactant can never
1 dC be unimolecular.
since show the rate of formation of product C
3 dt 26. (b) For reaction 3A o B C
which will be positive. If it is zero order reaction r = k [A]0, i.e the rate remains
7. (a) If we write rate of reaction in terms of concentration of same at any concentration of 'A'. i.e independent upon
NH3 and H2,then concentration of A.
1 d[ NH 3 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 27. (c) k = (mol lit –1 ) 1–n time –1 . For given reaction
Rate of reaction n = 2. ? k = mol–1 lit sec–1
2 dt 3 dt 28. (b) The order of a chemical reaction is given by
d[ NH 3 ] 2 d[H 2 ] concentration of reactants appearing in the lowest
So, step.
dt 3 dt
29. (b) Velocity constant ‘k’ is characteristic constant of a
d[C] reaction and depends only on temperature and catalyst.
8. (d) In the given options will not represent the
3.dt 30. (b) Given dx/dt = 2.400 × 10–5 mol litre–1 sec–1
k = 3.10 × 10–5 sec–1
reaction rate. It should not have –ve sign as it is product.
For first order reaction
1 dC 2N 2 O 5
o 2NO 2 O 2
since show the rate of formation of product C
3 dt
dx
which will be positive. k [N 2 O 5 ]
9. (c) Rusting of iron is a slow change. dt
10. (c) The feasibility of a chemical reaction can be predicted or 2.4 × 10–5 = 3.0 × 10–5 [N2O5]
by thermodynamics. Extent to which a reaction will 2.4 u 10 5
proceed can be determined from chemical equilibrium. or [N2O5] = = 0.8 mol. litre–1
Speed of a reaction i.e. time taken by a reaction to 3.0 u 10 5
reach equilibrium, can be predicted by chemical kinetics dx
31. (a) For zero order reaction, k [reactant]0
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) dt
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) Thus the rate of zero order reaction is independent of
19. (d) The rate of a reaction is the speed at which the concentration of reactants.
reactants are converted into products. It depends 32. (c) Rate1 = k [A]n [B]m; Rate2 = k [2A]n [½B]m
upon the concentration of reactants. e.g for the
reaction Rate 2 k [2A]n [½B]m
? = [2]n [½]m = 2n.2–m = 2n–m
A B ¶¶ l Product ; r r [A][B] Rate1 k [A]n [B]m
20. (a) k remains constant at constant temperature and CO 33. (a) 2A + B o A2B
does not effect the rate of reaction. r1 = k[A]2 [B] ...(i)
21. (d) order of reaction may be zero, whole number or
ª Bº
fractional. When, [A] = [2A], [B] = « »
¬2¼
22. (b) 2 NO (g) + Cl2(g) U 2 NOCl(g)
Rate = k [NO]2 [Cl] 2 ªBº 2 [B]
r2 = k > 2A @ « » = k 4[A]
The value of rate constant can be increased by ¬2¼ 2
increasing the temperature.
23. (d) Order of reaction is equal to the number of molecules
whose concentration is changing with time. It can be
= k 2[A]2[B] = 2r1 ' r1 k[A]2[B]
zero or in fractions or an integer. ? Rate of reaction is increased two times.

56 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
34. (c) Let us consider a reaction, 44. (a) Let the rate law be r = k [A]x[B]y
x X + y Y o aA+bB 0.10 [0.024]x [0.035] y
rate = [X]x [Y]y Divide (3) by (1)
0.10 [0.012]x [0.035] y
It is given that order of reaction w.r.t. component Y is
zero. ? 1 = [2]x, x = 0
Hence, rate = [X]x 0.80 [0.024] x [0.070] y
i.e., rate becomes independent of the concentration of Y. Divide (2) by (3)
0.10 [0.024] x [0.035] y
0
35. (a) rate v [preactant ] ? 8 = (2)y , y = 3
i.e., rate = k Hence, rate equation, R = k[A]0[B]3 =k[B]3
So, the order of reaction will be zero. 45. (a) Given r = k [A]3/2 [B]–1/2
36. (b) ' r k[A]n 3 1 2
Order = 3/2 – 1/2 = =1
2 2
if n = 0 46. (b) The order w.r.t. I2 is zero because the rate is not
r k [A]0 dependent on the concentration of I2.
47. (c) As we know that, units of rate constant.
or r = k thus for zero order reactions rate is equal to
= (unit of conc.)1–n (unit of time)–1
t h e
= (mol L–1)1–n (sec)–1
rate constant.
On comparing these units with the given units of rate
37. (c) Since rate of reaction becomes four times on doubling
constant, we get
concentration of reactant, it is second order
(mol L–1)1–n (sec)–1 = L mol–1 sec–1
reaction.
38. (b) Order is the sum of the power of the concentration º Ln–1 mol1–n sec–1 = L mol–1 sec–1
terms in rate law expression. On comparing the powers, we get
Hence the order or reaction is = 1 + 2 = 3 n–1=1 º n=2
39. (a) Rate = k[A]° So, reaction is of second order.
Unit of k = mol L–1 sec–1 48. (d) In case of (II) and (III), keeping concentration of [A]
constant, when the concentration of [B] is doubled,
1 the rate quadruples. Hence it is second order with
40. (c) N 2 O o N 2 O2
2 respect to B. In case of I & IV Keeping the
concentration of [B] constant. when the concentration
dx
v [N 2 O]1 of [A] is increased four times, rate also increases four
dt times. Hence, the order with respect to A is one. hence
i.e. order of reaction = 1
Rate = k [A] [B]2
41. (a) From the first set of data (i) and (ii) it is observed that
3
on keeping concentration of [B] constant and on 49. (a) The order of reaction is and molecularity is 2.
doubling the concentration of [A] rate does not 2
changes hence order of reaction with respect to A is 50. (b) O 3
Fast
o O 2 O; O O 3 o 2O 2
Slow
zero.
From the second set of data (i) and (iii) it is observed [O 2 ][O]
k (I) Rate = k' [O3][O] put [O] from (I)
that rate becomes 4 times on doubling the concentration [O 3 ]
of [B] keeping [A] constant hence order with respect to
k '[O 3 ]K[O 3 ]
[B] will be 2 r k[O 3 ]2 [O 2 ] 1
rate = k[A]0 [B]2 [O 2 ]
42. (c) Order is the sum of the powers to which the Note intermediates are never represented in rate law
concentration terms are raised in the rate equation. equation.
43. (d) If rate = k[A]x [B]y [C]z 51. (c)
From first two given data 52. (c) Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface is an
8.08 × 10–3 = k [0.2]x [0.1]y [0.02]z .... (1) example of zero order reaction.
2.01 × 10–3 = k [0.1]x [0.2]y [0.02]z .... (2) 53. (c) For zero order reaction,
Divide (1) by (2) we get, 4 = 2x (1/2)y rate, r = k[R]°
Similarly, from second and third data dR
(9)y (9)z = 3 k
dt
2y + 2z = 1 . R = kt + R0
From first and fourth data 4z = 8 = 23 where R0 is the concentration of reactant at time t = 0.
2z = 3. So z = 3/2, y = – 1, x = 1 Thus [R] increases with time

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 57
54. (a) Plots of conc. [A] Vs time, t n
§ 1·
61. (c) [A] [A]0 ¨ ¸
Zero First © 2¹
order order
log [A]
1 1 where [A]0 = initial concentration

[A] Second Third
[ A] [ A]2
order order n
t t t 1 § 1·
1¨ ¸ ; n = 3
8 © 2¹
1
55. (d) t1/2 v
a2 t1/ 2
0.693
= 100 sec
6.9 u 103
1
We know that t1/ 2 v n 1 ? T n u t1/ 2 = 3 × 100 = 300 sec.
a
i.e. n = 3 62. (b) Given: 75% reaction gets completed in 32 min
Thus reaction is of 3rd order. 2.303 a 2.303 100
56. (a) For a zero order reaction Thus, k = log = log
t (a x ) 32 (100 75)
a 2.303
t1/ 2 = log 4 = 0.0433 min–1
2k 32
57. (a) t1/2 = 4s T = 16s Now we can use this value of k to get the value of time
T 16 required for 50% completion of reaction
n 4 (? T = n × t½)
t1/ 2 4 2.303 a 2.303 100
t= log = log
k (a x ) 0.0433 50
1 ¬n 1 ¬4 0.12
[ A] [ A]o 0.12q 0.0075 M
2 ® 2 ® 16 =
2.303
log 2 = 16 min
0.0433
Where [A] o = initial concentration an d [A]
= concentration left after time t 63. (d) Unit of k for Ist order reaction is (Time)–1
58. (b) A o B For a first order reaction 2.303 1 2.303 4
64. (c) t1/ 4 log log
Given a = 0.8 mol, (a – x) = 0.8 – 0.6 = 0.2 k 3/ 4 k 3
2.303 0.8 2.303 2.303
k log or k = 2.303 log 4 (log 4 log 3) (2log 2 log 3)
1 0.2 k k
again a = 0.9, a – x = 0.9 – 0.675 = 0.225
2.303 0.29
2.303 0.9 (2 u 0.301 0.4771)
k log k k
t 0.225 65. (c) For a first order reaction
2.303 2.303 a
2.303log 4 log 4 k log
t t ax
Hence t = 1 hour when t = t½
59. (b) For a first order reaction, A o products
2.303 a
r k log
r k[A] or k t½ aa/2
[A]
2.303 ln 2
or t½ log 2
1.5 u 102 k k
k = 3 × 10–2
0.5 66. (b) Since doubling the concentration of B does not change
half life, the reaction is of 1st order w.r.t. B.
0.693 0.693
Further, t1/ 2 23.1 Order of reaction with respect to A = 1 because rate of
k 3 u 102 reaction doubles when concentration of A is doubled
0.693 keeping concentration of B constant.
60. (c) For first order reaction, k ? Order of reaction = 1 + 1 = 2 and units of second
t1/ 2
order reaction are L mol–1 sec–1.
where k = rate constant 67. (c) Half life time (t1/2) for nth order reaction is given by,
t1/2 = half life period = 480 sec. t1/2 v [a]1– n
0.693 where n is the order of reaction and a is concentration
? k = 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1 of reactant.
480

58 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
As decomposition of N2O5 follows 1st order kinetic. 77. (b) As the rate of reaction get doubled for every 10°C rise
So, in temperature. Hence the increase in reaction rate as a
t1/2 v [a]1 – 1 t1/2 v a0 result of temperature rise from 10°C to 100°C is equal
68. (c) For a first order reaction to = 29 = 512
2.303 a 78. (a) As per Arrhenius equation (k Ae Ea / RT ) , the rate
k log10
t ax constant increases exponentially with temperature.
when t = t½ 79. (b) For a reversible reaction,
2.303 a 'H = Ea (forward) – Ea (backward)
k log10 'H = 150 – 260 = –110 kJ mol–1
t½ aa/2
80. (c) We know that the activation energy of chemical
2.303 ln 2 r e a c t i o n
or t ½ log10 2
k k k2 Ea ª T2 T1 º
is given by formula = « » , where
2.303 a k1 2.303R ¬ T1T2 ¼
69. (a) t log
k ax k1 is the rate constant at temperature T1 and k2 is the
2.303 2.303 rate constant at temperature T2 and Ea is the activation
or t log a log(a x) energy. Therefore activation energy of chemical
k k
reaction is determined by evaluating rate constant at
n 1 n 1
(t1/ 2 )1 § a2 · 120 § 4 u 102 · two different temperatures.
70. (c) ¨© a ¸¹ ; ¨ ¸ ;n 2
(t1/ 2 )2 1 240 © 8 u 102 ¹ 81. (b) In equation k = Ae Ea / RT ; A = Frequency factor
71. (b) k = velocity constant, R = gas constant and Ea = energy
72. (b) In Haber’s process, ammonia is manufactured from N2 of activation
and H2 using iron as catalyst with molybdenum as 82. (d) In Arrhenius equation k = Ae Ea / RT , Ea is the energy
promoter at high temperature and pressure of activation, which is required by the colliding
2 3 Fe O (catalyst) molecules to react resulting in the formation of
N 2 3H 2
o 2NH3
Mo (catalytic promoter) products.
83. (d)
k Ea § 1 1·
73. (b) log 2 = ¸ 84. (b) When the temperature is increased, energy in form of
2.303R ¨ T
© 1 T
k1 2¹ heat is supplied which increases the kinetic energy of
the reacting molecules. This will increase the number
Ea ª 1 1 º of collisions and ultimately the rate of reaction will be
log 2 =
2.303 u 8.314 «¬ 293 308 »¼ enhanced.
85. (a) Arrhenius equation is given by
Ea 15
0.3 =
2.303 u 8.314
×
293 u 308 k = Ae Ea /(2.303 RT )
Taking log on both sides, we get
0.3 u 2.303 u 8.314 u 293 u 308
Ea = . Ea
15 log k = log A –
2.303 RT
= 34673 J mole–1
= 34.7 J mole–1 1
Arrhenius plot a graph between log k and whose
T
74. (b) 'H = Ea f Ea b = 0
Ea
75. (d) The activation energy depends upon the nature of slope is .
2.303 R
chemical bonds undergoing rupture during chemical
reaction and is independent of enthalpies of reactants k2 E a ª T2 T1 º
and products. 86. (a) 2.303log
k1 R «¬ T1T2 »¼
E /RT
76. (b) k = Ae– a
lnk = ln A – Ea/RT k2 9.0 u103 ª 308 298 º
log
For ln k vs 1/T k1 2.303 u 2 «¬ 308 u 298 »¼
ln A = intercept
– Ea/R = slope = –2 × 104 K k2
1.63; k 2 1.63k1;
? Ea = 8.3 × 2 × 104 J mol–1 k1
= 16.6 × 104 J mol–1 or 166 kJ mol–1

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 59
k 2 k1 108. (b) For a 10 K rise in temperature, collision frequency

Increase in k1 u 100 increases merely by 1 to 2% but the number of
k1
effective collisions increases by 100 to 200%.
1.63k1 k1
= u 100 63.0% 109. (a) 110. (b) 111. (c)
k1
87. (b) 'H Ea( f ) Ea (b) 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216

Thus energy of activation for reverse reaction depend 112. (b) For the given reaction
upon whether reaction is exothermic or pt(s)
endothermic. 4NH 3 (g) 5O 2 (g) o 4NO(g) 6H 2O(g)
If reaction is exothermic, 'H ve , Ea(b) ! Ea( f )
1 ' > NH 3 @ 1 ' > O 2 @ 1 ' > NO @ 1 ' > H 2 O @
Rate = =
If reaction is endothermic, 'H ve Ea(b) Ea( f ) 4 't 5 't 4 't 6 't
88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (c) 91. (a) 92. (d) 113. (a) For given reaction x and y may or may not be equal to
93. (d) p and q respectively.
114. (a) Average rate depends upon the chan ge in
94. (d) k Ae E a / RT concentration of reactants or products and the time
Ea taken for that change to occur. Average rate cannot
95. (b) ln k = ln A – , intercept is ln A.
RT be used to predict the rate of a reaction at a particular
96. (c) The rate constant doubles for 10º C rise in temperature. instant as it would be constant for the time interval for
For 20º C rise, the rate constant will be 4 times which it is calculated. So, to express the rate at a
? k1 = 4k2 or k2 = 0.25 K1 particular moment of time we determine the
Ea 1 instantaneous rate. It is obtained when we consider
97. (d) k Ae Ea / RT log k = log A – . the average rate at the smallest time interval say dt (
2.303R T
i.e. when it approaches zero).
Ea
Equation of straight line slope = . 115. (d) Molecularity is defined as the number of reacting
2.303R
species taking part in an elementary reaction,
98. (c) Applicable to bimolecular reactions. 116. (b) Molecularity cannot be fractional or zero. Correct units
99. (a)
of rate constant for second order reaction are mol–1 Ls–1.
100. (d) All the statements are correct (see text).
117. (d) For zero order reaction, rate of reaction as well as rate
101. (c) Activation energy is lowered in presence of +ve
constant are independent of reactant concentration.
catalyst.
102. (c) [R]0
103. (a) Threshold Energy = Energy of activation + Internal 118. (a) For a first order reaction log varies linearly with
[R]
energy
time as shown below.
E a / RT Ea 1
104. (b) k Ae log k = log A .
2.303R T
1 slop = k/2.303
[R]0
[R]
Plot of log k Vs.

T
log
Ea
Straight line Slope = 0
2.303R Time
105. (d) Enthalpy of reaction ('H) = Ea – Ea 119. (a)
(f) (b)
for an endothermic reaction 'H = +ve hence for 'H to 120. (b) According to Arrhenius equation, k = Ae–Ea/RT
be positive ?when Ea = 0, k = A
Ea < Ea
(b) (f)
106. (a) Presence of catalyst does not affect enthalpy change Also ln k Xs 1/T is a straight line with slope = –Ea/R.
of reaction 'H R E f E b = 180 – 200 = – 20 kJ/mol ?Statements (ii) and (v) are correct.
121. (b)
107. (c) For the exothermic reaction the energy of products is
always less than the reactants. If Ea is the energy of 122. (b) Rate constant gets doubled with every 10°C in
activation for the forward reaction, the energy of temperature for chemical change only not for physical
activation for backward reaction is Ea + 'H change.

60 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
123. (b) Correct formula for calculation of Ea is 137. (d) o 2AB ;
A 2 B2
k E a ª T2 T1 º
log 2 « » A2
o A A ( Fast );
k1 2.303R ¬ T1T2 ¼
The word catalyst should not be used when the added A B2
o AB B (Slow )
substance reduces the rate of reaction. The substance
is then called inhibiter. Rate law = k[A][B 2 ] put value of [A] from Ist reaction
124. (d) The relevant expressions are as follows.
since A is intermediate k[A 2 ] A
'H 1
log Kp = I
R T ? Rate law equation K k[A 2 ][B2 ]
log [X] = log [X]0 + kt
P/T = constant (V constant) 1 3
? Order 1
PV = constant (T constant) 2 2
138. (d) From 1st and 2nd sets of data - no change in rate is
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
observed with the change in concentration of ‘C’. So
125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (c) 129. (b) the order with respect to ‘C’ is zero.
130. (a) 131. (d) From 1st and 4th sets of data
Dividing eq. (4) by eq. (1)
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
x
1.25 u 10 3 ª 0.005 º
1 d[Br ] 1 d[Br2 ] «¬ 0.010 »¼
132. (c) 5.0 u 10 3
5 dt 3 dt
or 0.25 = (0.5)x or (0.5)2 = (0.5)x

d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br ] ?x = 2
?
dt 5 dt The order with respect to ‘A’ is 2 from the 1st and 3rd
133. (b) The curve Y shows the increase in concentration of sets of data dividing eq. (1) by eq. (3)
products with time.
y
134. (b) Rate of disappearance of reactants = Rate of appearance 5.0 u 103 ª 0.005 º
«¬ 0.010 »¼
of products 1.0 u 10 2
1 d(N 2 O5 ) 1 d(NO2 ) d(O 2 ) or (0.5)1 = (0.5)y y = 1

2 dt 4 dt dt The order with respect to ‘B’ is 1
1 1 So the order with respective the reactants A, B and C
k(N 2 O5 ) k c (N 2 O5 ) k cc (N 2 O5 )
2 4 is 2, 1 and 0.
k kc 139. (N) None of the given options is correct.
k cc
2 4 The given reaction is : 2X + Y —o Z
k d[X] d[Z]
kc = 2k, k cc –
2 2dt dt
135. (b) Rate law has to be determined experimentally as Cl2 is ? Rate of formation of Z is half of the rate of
1 disappearance of X.
raised to power in rate law whereas its stichiometric
2 d[X] d[Y]
coefficient in balanced chemical equation is 1. 2dt dt
136. (d) As the slowest step is the rate determining step thus
Rate of disappearrance of X is not equal to rate of
the mechanism B will be more consistent with the given
disappearance of Y.
information also because it involve one molecule of
H2 and one molecule of ICl it can expressed as 140. (a) Rewriting the given data for the reaction
r = k [H2][ICl] H
CH 3COCH 3 ( aq ) Br2 ( aq ) o
Which shows that the reaction is first order w.r.t. both
H2 & ICl. CH3COCH 2 Br(aq) H ( aq) Br ( aq)

&+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6 61
S. Initial concent Initialconcentr Initialconcentr Rate of

144. (c) Rate law : d [ A] k [ A]x [ B ] y
No. -ration of -ation of Br2 -ation of H disappearance
CH3COCH3 in M
dt
in M of Br2 in Ms 1
in M
Doubling [A], rate is doubled. Hence 2x = 2, x =1
d dx
i.e. [Br2 ]or d [ A]
dt dt Similarly y = 1; k [ A][ B ]
dt
1 0.30 0.05 0.05 5.7 u 10 5
2 0.30 0.10 0.05 5.7 u 10 5 rate 2.0 u 10 4
k 1
3 0.30 0.10 0.10 1.2 u 104 [ A][ B ] 1 u 10 2 u 2 u 10 2
4 0.40 0.05 0.20 3.1 u 104
(rate)2 k (2[ A])(2[b])
4
Actually this reaction is autocatalyzed and involves (rate)1 k[ A][ B ]
complex calculation for concentration terms.
145. (d) For a zero order reaction,
We can look at the above results in a simple way to t1/2 v a0 (initial concentration or initial pressure)
find the dependence of reaction rate (i.e., rate of (t1/2)1 v P1
disappearance of Br 2). (t1/2)2 v P2
From data (1) and (2) in which concentration of
CH3COCH3 and H+ remain unchanged and only the
t1/2 2 P2 t1/2 2 16
,
concentration of Br 2 is doubled, there is no change in t1/2 1 P1 45 4
rate of reaction. It means the rate of reaction is
16
independent of concentration of Br2. (t1/2)2 = u 45 180 min
Again from (2) and (3) in which (CH3CO CH3) and 4
146. (a) Given initial concentration (a) = 2.00 M; Time taken
(Br2) remain constant but H+ increases from 0.05 M to
(t) = 200 min and final concentration (a – x) = 0.15 M.
0.10 i.e. doubled, the rate of reaction changes from
For a first order reaction rate constant,
5.7×10–5 to 1.2 × 10–4 (or 12 × 10–5), thus it also
becomes almost doubled. It shows that rate of reaction 2.303 a 2.303 2.00
k log log
is directly proportional to [H+]. From (3) and (4), the t ax 200 0.15
rate should have doubled due to increase in conc of 2.303
[H+] from 0.10 M to 0.20 M but the rate has changed u (0.301 0.824) 1.29 u 10 2 min 1 .
200
from 1.2× 10–4 to 3.1×10–4. This is due to change in
Further
concentration of CH3COCH3 from 0.30 M to 0.40 M.
Thus the rate is directly proportional to [CH3 COCH3]. 0.693 0.693
(t1/ 2 ) 53.72 min .
We now get k 1.29 u 102
rate = k [CH3COCH3]1[Br2]0[H+]1 147. (d) t1/2 = 5 years, T = 15 years hence total number of half
= k [CH3COCH3][H+]. 15
life periods 3.
141. (d) Overall order = sum of orders w.r.t each reactant. 5
Let the order be x and y for G and H respectively
64
? Amount left 8g
[G]mole [H]mole rate(mole ( 2) 3
Exp.No.
litre1 litre 1 litre time 1 )
Slope k / 2.303
1 a b r
2 2a 2b 8r 148. (b)
log C
3 2a b 2r
' For (1) and (3), the rate is doubled when conc. of t
G is doubled keeping that of H constant i.e.,
149. (b) Let x torr of C2H4O decompose after 20 min. Then,
rate v [G] ? x = 1 80 – x + 2x =120 ; x = 40 torr = 50% of initial pressure.
From (2) and (3), y = 2 Hence t1/2 = 20 min. For 75% reaction, fraction left
? Overall order is 3. 2
25 1 §1·
142. (a) As doubling the initial conc. doubles the rate of = ¨ ¸
100 4 ©2¹
reaction, order =1
143. (a) No. of half lives = 2. Time needed for 75% reaction.,
2 × 20 = 40 min

62 &+(0,&$/.,1(7,&6
150. (d) 156. (b) T2 = T (say), T1 = 25°C = 298K,
151. (d) The integrated rate equations are different for the Ea = 104.4 kJ mol–1 = 104.4 × 103 J mol–1
reactions of different reaction orders. We shall k1=3 × 10 – 4, k2 = ?,
determine these equations only for zero and first order
chemical reactions. k2 Ea ª 1 1 º
log
k1 2.303 R «¬ T1 T2 »¼
r § T2 T1 · § 100 10 ·
100qC ©¨ 10 ¹¸ ©¨ 10 ¹¸
152. (b) 2 2 29 512 (where 2 is
r
10qC
k2 104.4 u 103 J mol1 ª 1 1º
log »
3 u10 4 «
1
2.303 u (8.314 J K mol ) ¬ 298 T ¼ 1
temperature coefficient of reaction)
Ea 1
153. (d) log k log A …(1) As To f, o0
2.303RT T
1 k2 104.4 u 103 J mol 1
Also given log k 6.0 (2000) …(2) ? log
T 3 u 10 4 2.303 u 8.314 u 298
On comparing equations, (1) and (2)
k2 k2
log A = 6.0 A = 106 s–1 log 4
18.297, 1.98 u 1018
3 u 10 3 u 104
Ea
and 2000 ;
2.303 R k2 (1.98 u 1018 ) u (3 u 104 ) 6 u 1014 s 1
Ea = 2000 × 2.303 × 8.314 = 38.29 kJ mol–1 157. (d)
154. (b) We know more will be activation energy lesser will be 158. (b) For 10°C rise of temperature the rate is almost doubled.
rate constant. Thus if E 1 > E 2 then k 1 < k2 . As Ea / RT
temperature increases, it will effect both rates in similar 159. (c) k1 A1e 1 .........(i)
way.
Ea / RT
k2 A2e 2 ........(ii)
1
155. (b) A graph plotted between log k vs for calculating
T On dividing eqn (i) from eqn. (ii)
activation energy is shown as
k1 A1
( Ea2 Ea1 ) / RT ........(iii)
k2 A2
log k
Given Ea2 = 2Ea1
1/T On substituting this value in eqn. (iii)
from Arrhenius equation Ea / RT
k1 k2 A u e 1
Ea
log k log A 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (b) 163. (b) 164. (b)
2.303 RT

5
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
(a) HCl (b) O2

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(c) CO2 (d) NH3
1. Adsorbed acetic acid on activated charcoal is: 10. Adsorption is accompanied by
(a) adsorber (b) absorber (a) decrease in enthalpy and increase in entropy
(c) adsorbent (d) adsorbate (b) increase in enthalpy and increase in entropy
2. Adsorption is always (c) decrease in enthalpy and decrease in entropy
(a) endothermic (d) increase in enthalpy and decrease in entropy
(b) exothermic 11. Choose the incorrect statement in respect of physisorption?
(c) exothermic in case of physical and endothermic in case (a) It is not specific in nature
of chemical (b) It arises because of van der Waal’s force
(d) Either (a) or (b) (c) It is reversible in nature
3. Which is not correct regarding the physical adsorption of a (d) Enthalpy of adsorption is in the range 80-240 kJ mol–1
gas on surface of solid ? 12. The term ‘sorption’ stands for ___________.
(a) On increasing temperature, adsorption increases (a) absorption
continuously (b) adsorption
(b) Enthalpy and entropy changes are negative (c) both absorption and adsorption
(c) Adsorption is more for some specific substance (d) desorption
(d) Reversible 13. Extent of physisorption of a gas increases with _______.
4. How many layers are adsorbed in chemical adsorption ? (a) increase in temperature.
(a) One (b) Two (b) decrease in temperature.
(c) Many (d) Zero (c) decrease in surface area of adsorbent.
5. Adsorption due to strong chemical forces is called (d) decrease in strength of van der Waal’s forces.
(a) Chemisorption (b) Physisorption 14. Extent of adsorption of adsorbate from solution phase
(c) Reversible adsorption (d) Both (b) and (c) increases with _________.
6. In physical adsorption, gas molecules are bound on the (a) increase in amount of adsorbate in solution.
solid surface by (b) decrease in surface area of adsorbent.
(a) chemical forces (b) electrostatic forces (c) increase in temperature of solution.
(c) gravitational forces (d) van der Waal’s forces (d) decrease in amount of adsorbate in solution.
7. Which of the following statements is not correct ? 15. Which of the following is not a favourable condition for
(a) Physical adsorption is due to van der Waal’s forces physical adsorption ?
(b) Chemical adsorption first decreases with increase in (a) High pressure
temperature. (b) Negative 'H
(c) Physical adsorption is reversible (c) Higher critical temperature of adsorbate
(d) Adsorption energy for a chemical adsorption is (d) High temperature
generally greater than that of physical adsorption. 16. Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may change to
8. Adsorption of gases on solid surface is exothermic reaction chemical adsorption with ________.
because (a) decrease in temperature
(a) free energy increases (b) enthalpy is positive (b) increase in temperature
(c) entropy increases (d) enthalpy is negative (c) increase in surface area of adsorbent
9. The gas which is least adsorbed on charcoal (under identical (d) decrease in surface area of adsorbent
conditions) is

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17. In physisorption adsorbent does not show specificity for 26. Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of a gas on
any particular gas because _________. surface of solid?
(a) involved van der Waal’s forces are universal. (a) On increasing temperature, adsorption increases
(b) gases involved behave like ideal gases. continuously
(c) enthalpy of adsorption is low. (b) Enthalpy and entropy changes are –ve
(d) it is a reversible process. (c) Adsorption is more for some specific substance
18. Which of the following is an example of absorption ? (d) This Phenomenon is reversible
(a) Water on silica gel . 27. Which of the following curves is in accordance with
(b) Water on calcium chloride. Freundlich adsorption isotherm ?
(c) Hydrogen on finely divided nickel.
(a) (b)
(d) Oxygen on metal surface.
log x/m o
log x/m o
19. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log x/m vs
log P is linear with slope equal to (n being whole number)
(a) k (b) log k
1 po po
(c) n (d)
n
20. The adsorption of a gas on a solid surface varies with (c) (d)
log x/m o
pressure of the gas in which of the following manner
log x/m o
(a) Fast o slow o independent of the pressure
(b) Slow o fast o independent of the pressure
(c) Independent of the pressure o fast o slow
(d) Independent of the pressure o slow o fast log pc o log p o
21. If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, 28. Which of the following is related to adsorption?
which of the following relations is not related to adsorption (i) 'H = – ve (ii) 'S = – ve
process ? (iii) –T'S = – ve (iv) 'G = – ve
(a) x / m = f (p) at constant T. (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(b) x / m = f (T) at constant p. (c) (iii) only (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) p = f (T) at constant (x / m). 29. The role of a catalyst in a reversible reaction is to
x (a) increase the rate of forward reaction
(d) p uT
m (b) decrease the rate of backward reaction
22. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is : (c) alter the equilibrium constant of the reaction
(a) between 0 and 1 in all cases (d) allow the equilibrium to be achieved quickly
(b) between 2 and 4 in all cases 30. Catalytic poisons act by :
(c) 1 in case of physical adsorption (a) making the products chemically inactive.
(d) 1 in case of chemisorption (b) increasing the rate of the backward reaction.
23. Which is adsorbed in maximum amount by activated charcoal (c) chemical combination with any one of the reactants.
? (d) preferential adsorption on the catalyst surface.
(a) N2 (b) CO2 31. A catalyst :
(c) Cl2 (d) O2 (a) lowers the activation energy
24. Freundlich equation for adsorption of gases (in amount of x g) (b) changes the rate constant
on a solid (in amount of m g) at constant temperature can be (c) changes the product
expressed as
(d) itself destroyed in the reaction
x 1 x 1 32. Active charcoal is a good catalyst because it
(a) log log p log K (b) log log K log p
m n m n (a) is made up of carbon atoms.
(b) is very reactive.
x x 1
(c) v pn (d) log p log K (c) has more adsorption power.
m m n (d) has inert nature toward reagents.
25. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the amount 33. Which of the following kind of catalysis can be explained
of gas adsorbed at very high pressure by the adsorption theory ?
(a) reaches a constant limiting value (a) Homogeneous catalysis
(b) goes on increasing with pressure (b) Acid - base catalysis
(c) goes on decreasing with pressure (c) Heterogeneous catalysis
(d) increase first and decreases later with pressure (d) Enzyme catalysis

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34. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed 43. What is the role of molybdenum in Haber’s process for
of the reaction increases because- manufacture of ammonia?
(a) Adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction (a) As catalytic poison (b) As a catalytic promoter
(b) The concentration of reactant molecules at the active (c) As a catalyst (d) As a reactant
centres of the catalyst becomes high due to strong 44. Which of the following step(s) is/are not involved in the
adsorption mechanism of adsorption theory of heterogeneous
(c) In the process of adsorption, the activation energy of catalyst?
the molecules becomes large (i) Diffusion of reactants to the surface of the catalyst.
(d) Adsorption produces heat which increases the speed (ii) Sorption of reactant molecules on the surface of the
of the reaction catalyst.
35. Catalyst increases the rate of reaction by (iii) Occurrence of chemical reaction on the catalyst’s
(a) decreasing threshold energy surface through formation of an intermediate.
(b) decreasing activation energy (iv) Desorption of reaction products from the catalyst’s
(c) increasing activation energy surface.
(d) decreasing equilibrium constant (v) Diffusion of reaction products away from the catalyst’s
36. A catalyst can affect reversible reaction by surface.
(a) changing equilibrium constant (a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iv)
(b) slowing forward reaction (c) (ii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (v)
(c) attaining equilibria in both directions 45. Which of the following equation does not represent
(d) None of these homogeneous catalysis?
37. Which one of the following is an example of homogeneous H 2SO 4 l
catalysis ? (a) CH3 COOCH3 l H 2 O l o
(a) Haber’s process of synthesis of ammonia
CH3COOH aq CH3OH aq
(b) Catalytic conversion of SO2 to SO3 in contact process
(c) Catalytic hydrogenation of oils Pt s
(b) 4NH3 g 5O 2 g o 4NO g 6H 2O g
(d) Acid hydrolysis of methyl acetate.
NO g
38. Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes (c) 2SO2 g O2 g o 2SO 3 g
(a) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot (d) Both (a) and (b)
be poisoned.
46. Milk is a colloid in which a
(b) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that
(a) liquid is dispersed in a liquid
are very specific in their action.
(b) solid is dispersed in a liquid
(c) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can
(c) gas is dispersed in a liquid
normally function at very high temperatures (T |
1000K). (d) sugar is dispersed in a liquid
(d) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess 47. Butter is a colloid formed when
well-defined active sites. (a) Fat is dispersed in water
39. A biological catalyst is (b) Fat globules are dispersed in water
(a) an enzyme (b) a carbohydrate (c) Water is dispersed in fat
(c) an amino acid (d) a nitrogenous base (d) None of the above
40. The action of enzymes in living system is to : 48. The size of colloidal particles is between
(a) supply energy to tissues (a) 10–7 – 10–9 cm (b) 10–9 – 10–11 cm
(b) enhance immunity (c) 10–5 – 10–7 cm (d) 10–2 – 10–3 cm
(c) circulate oxygen 49. An aerosol is a :
(d) enhance the rate of biochemical reactions. (a) dispersion of a solid or liquid in a gas
41. Hydrolysis of urea is an example of (b) dispersion of a solid in a liquid
(a) homogenous catalysis (b) heterogenous catalysis (c) dispersion of a liquid in a liquid
(c) biochemical catalysis (d) zeolite catalysis (d) solid solution
42. The efficiency of an enzyme in catalysing a reaction is due 50. An example of dispersion of a liquid in a gas is :
to its capacity (a) milk (b) vegetable oil
(a) to form a strong enzyme-substrate complex (c) foam (d) mist
(b) to decrease the bond energies of substrate molecule 51. Alloy is an example of
(c) to change the shape of the substrate molecule (a) gel (b) solidified emulsion
(d) to lower the activation energy of the reaction (c) solid solution (d) sol

66 685)$&(&+(0,675<
52. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is 66. Surface tension of lyophilic sols is
a solid, the colloid is known as (a) lower than that of H2O
(a) a sol (b) a gel (b) more than that of H2O
(c) an emulsion (d) a foam (c) equal to that of H2O
53. Hair cream is an example of (d) either less or more than H2O depending upon the
(a) gel (b) sol nature of disperse phase
(c) aerosol (d) foam 67. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid ?
54. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (a) Milk (b) Gum
(a) Emulsion-smoke (b) Gel-butter (c) Fog (d) Blood
(c) Aerosol-hair cream (d) Sol-whipped cream 68. Lyophobic colloids are :
55. Cheese is an example of (a) gun proteins (b) protective colloids
(a) solid sol (b) emulsion (c) irreversible colloids (d) reversible colloids
(c) gel (d) foam 69. Which one is an example of multimolecular colloid system
56. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution? (a) Soap dispersed in water
(a) Smoke (b) Ink (b) Protein dispersed in water
(c) Blood (d) Air (c) Gold dispersed in water
57. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is called (d) Gum dispersed in water
(a) gel (b) suspension 70. Example of intrinsic colloid is
(c) emulsion (d) true solution (a) glue (b) sulphur
58. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is (c) Fe (d) As 2 S 3
gas then the colloidal system is called 71. Associated colloid among the following is
(a) Smoke (b) Clouds (a) enzymes (b) proteins
(c) Jellies (d) Emulsions (c) cellulose (d) sodium stearate
59. Which one is a colloid? 72. The formation of micelles takes place only above
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Urea (a) inversion temperature
(c) Cane sugar (d) Blood (b) Boyle temperature
60. Suspensions are (c) critical temperature
(a) Visible to naked eye (d) Kraft temperature
(b) Not visible by any means 73. A precipitate is changed to colloidal solution by the
(c) Invisible under electron microscope following process :
(d) Invisible through microscope (a) dialysis (b) ultrafiltration
61. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of (c) peptization (d) electrophoresis
(a) Liquid dispersed in gas 74. Which of the following is used for neutralising charge on
(b) Gas dispersed in gas colloidal solution?
(c) Solid dispersed in gas (a) Electrons
(d) Solid dispersed in liquid (b) Electrolytes
62. A colloid always : (c) Positively charged ions
(a) Contains two phases (d) Compounds
(b) Is a true solution 75. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by
(c) Contains three phases (a) Centrifugation (b) Plasmolysis
(d) Contains only water soluble particles (c) Reverse osmosis (d) Sedimentation
63. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? 76. Blood may be purified by
(a) Emulsion - curd (b) Foam - mist (a) Dialysis (b) Electro-osmosis
(c) Aerosol - smoke (d) Solid sol - cake (c) Coagulation (d) Filtration
64. At the critical micelle concentration (CMC) the surfactant 77. During dialysis
molecules (a) only solvent molecules can diffuse
(a) decompose (b) solvent molecules, ions and colloidal particles can
(b) dissociate diffuse
(c) associate (c) all kinds of particles can diffuse through the semi-
(d) become completely soluble permeable membrane
65. How non-polar and polar part in micelle are arranged ? (d) solvent molecules and ions can diffuse
(a) Polar at outer surface and non-polar at inner surface 78. The electrolytic impurities of a sol can most easily be
(b) Polar at inner surface and non-polar at outer surface separated by
(c) Both polar and non-polar at inner surface (a) dialysis (b) electrosmosis
(d) Distributed all over the surface (c) electrophoresis (d) electrodialysis

685)$&(&+(0,675< 67
79. The formation of colloid from suspension is (a) Tyndall effect (b) Brownian movement
(a) Peptisation (b) Condensation (c) Electrodialysis (d) Measuring particle size
(c) Sedimentation (d) Fragmentation 92. Which of the following is most effective in causing the
80. The separation of colloidal particles from particles of coagulation of ferric hydroxide sol?
molecular dimensions is known as (a) KCl (b) KNO3
(a) sedimentation (b) dispersion (c) K2SO4 (d) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(c) pyrolysis (d) dialysis 93. The ability of an ion to bring about coagulation of a given
81. Which one of the following impurities present in colloidal colloid depends upon
solution cannot be removed by electrodialysis? (a) its size
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Potassium sulphate (b) the magnitude of its charge
(c) Urea (d) Calcium chloride (c) the sign of its charge
82. The migration of dispersion medium under the influence of (d) both magnitude and sign of its charge
an electric potential is called : 94. Which of the following electrolytes is least effective in
(a) Cataphoresis (b) Electroosmosis coagulating ferric hydroxide solution?
(c) Electrophoresis (d) Sedimentation (a) KBr (b) K2SO4
83. The movement of colloidal particles towards their respective (c) K2CrO4 (d) K4 [Fe(CN)6]
electrodes in the presence of an electric field is known as : 95. Which of the following acts as protective colloid?
(a) electrolysis (b) Brownian movement (a) Silica gel (b) Gelatin
(c) electrodialysis (d) electrophoresis (c) Sodium acetate (d) None of these
84. Peptization denotes 96. Tyndall effect shown by colloids is due to :
(a) Digestion of food (a) scattering of light by the particles
(b) Hydrolysis of proteins (b) movement of particles
(c) Breaking and dispersion into the colloidal state (c) reflection of light by the particles
(d) Precipitation of solid from colloidal dispersion (d) coagulation of particles
85. Colloidal gold is prepared by 97. Which of the following is not a property of colloidal
(a) Mechanical dispersion (b) Peptisation solution?
(c) Bredig’s Arc method (d) Hydrolysis (a) Heterogenity (b) Particle size > 100 nm
86. Peptization involves (c) Tyndall effect (d) Brownian movement
(a) precipitation of colloidal particles 98. Which of the following is most powerful to coagulate the
(b) disintegration of colloidal aggregates negative colloid?
(c) evaporation of dispersion medium (a) ZnSO4 (b) Na3PO4
(d) impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the (c) AlCl3 (d) K4[Fe(CN)6]
colloidal particles 99. The charge on colloidal particles is due to
87. Hardy-Schulze rule explains the effect of electrolytes on the (a) presence of electrolyte
coagulation of colloidal solution. According to this rule, (b) very small size of particles
coagulation power of cations follow the order (c) adsorption of ions from the solution
(a) Ba+2 > Na+ > Al+3 (b) Al+3 > Na+ > Ba+2 (d) None of these
+3
(c) Al > Ba > Na +2 + (d) Ba+2 > Al+3 > Na+ 100. The ion that is more effective for the coagulation of As2S3
88. Tyndall effect is shown by sol is
(a) sol (b) solution (a) Ba2+ (b) Na+
(c) plasma (d) precipitate (c) PO4 3– (d) AI3+
89. The cause of Brownian movement is 101. Which one of the following impurities present in colloidal
(a) heat changes in liquid state solution cannot be removed by electrodialysis?
(b) convectional currents (a) Sodium chloride (b) Potassium sulphate
(c) the impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on (c) Urea (d) Calcium chloride
the colloidal particles. 102. Brownian movement is found in
(d) attractive forces between the colloidal particles and (a) Colloidal solution (b) Suspension
molecules of dispersion medium. (c) Saturated solution (d) Unsaturated solution
90. When a strong beam of light is passed through a colloidal 103. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as
solution, the light will (a) Dialysis (b) Brownian movement
(a) be reflected (b) be scattered (c) Electroosmosis (d) Tyndall effect
(c) be refracted (d) give a rainbow 104. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed ?
91. The simplest way to check whether a system is colloidal or (a) Suspensions (b) Emulsions
not is by (c) Sugar solution (d) Gold sol

68 685)$&(&+(0,675<
105. Which of the following is not true about the emulsion? (a) Only (iv) is correct
(a) Emulsion can be broken into constituent liquids by (b) (i) and (ii) are correct
heat, freezing (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) Emulsion of oil in water is generally unstable (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Emulsion do not show the Tyndall effect 114. Read the following statements related to physisorption.
(d) They show brownian motion (i) Adsorbent shows preference for gases with high
106. Which of the following process is responsible for the molecular weight.
formation of delta at a place where rivers meet the sea? (ii) Easily liquefiable gases gets readily adsorbed.
(a) Emulsification (b) Colloid formation (iii) Adsorption varies with change in temperature and
(c) Coagulation (d) Peptisation pressure.
(iv) Finely divided and solid metals adsorb gases equally.
107. Which of the following colloid does not contain liquid as a
(v) It is exothermic with low value of enthalpy of
dispersion medium?
adsorption.
(a) Sol (b) Gel
(c) Emulsion (d) Foam above ?
108. Which of the following method is used for coagulation of (a) TFFTF (b) FTTFT
the sol? (c) TFFTT (d) FTTTF
(a) By mixing two oppositely charged sols. 115. Read the following statements related to chemisorption
(b) By electrophoresis. (i) It is highly specific.
(c) By addition of electrolytes. (ii) It increases with increase in temperature and pressure.
(d) All of the above. (iii) It is reversible.
109. Which of the following phenomenon occurs when the (iv) It increases with increase in surface area of adsorbent.
precipitate of Mg(OH)2 attains blue colour in presence of Which of the following is correct code for the statements
magneson reagent? above?
(i) Absorption of solvent (a) TTFT (b) TFFT
(ii) Adsorption of coloured substance (c) FTFT (d) FFTF
(iii) Absorption and adsorption both of solvent 116. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
(iv) Adsorption of solvent solid catalyst?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) only (i) Same reactants may give different product by using
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) only different catalysts.
110. Which of the following is not the condition for Tyndall (ii) Catalyst is required in large quantities to catalyse
effect? reactions.
(a) The refractive indices of dispersed phase and (iii) Catalyst does not change 'H of reaction.
dispersion medium should differ greatly in magnitude. (iv) Catalytic activity of a solid catalyst does not depend
upon the strength of chemisorption.
(b) The diameter of the dispersed particles is not much
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) only
smaller than the wavelength of light used.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(c) Tyndall effect is observed only when viewed from the
direction of the passage of light.
(i) Zeolites are good shape selective catalysts because
(d) All of these are required conditions for Tyndall effect. of their honeycomb-like structures.
111. Which of the following is not emulsifying agent for W/O (ii) All zeolites are naturally occurring substance.
emulsion? (iii) An important zeolite catalyst used in the petroleum
(a) Lampblack industry in ZSM-5.
(b) Long chain alcohol (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(c) Proteins (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
(d) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids 118. Read the following statements regarding enzyme catalysis
112. Emulsions can be broken into constituent liquid by ______. (i) Enzyme catalysis is highly specific in nature.
(a) heating (b) freezing (ii) Enzyme catalysis to work effectively requires optimum
(c) centrifuging (d) All of these temperature (298-310 K) and optimum pH (3-5)
(iii) Metal ions like Na+, Mn2+, Co2+, Cu2+ etc. increases
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 the activity of enzymes.
(iv) Catalyst used in Ostwald’s process is platinised
113. Read the following statements regarding adsorption and asbestos at 673 K.
choose the correct option. (v) Catalyst used in contact process is platinised asbestos
(i) It is a surface phenomenon. or V2O5 at 673-723 K.
(ii) The material which is adsorbed is termed as adsorbate. Which of the following is the correct coding for the above
(iii) The material on the surface of which the adsorption statements?
takes place is called adsorbent. (a) FTFTF (b) TFTFT
(iv) Adsorption is a bulk phenomenon. (c) TTFFF (d) FTTFT

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119. Which of the following statements are correct? 122. Match the columns
(i) Gelatine sol if evaporated off it can be reobtained Column-I Column-II
simply by mixing gelatine obtained on evaporation (Biochemical reactions) (Enzymes)
with suitable dispersion medium. (A) C6H12O6(aq) o (p) Zymase
(ii) Metal sulphide sols need stabilising agents for their 2C2H5OH(aq) + 2CO2(g)
preservation (B) NH2CONH2(aq) + H2O(l) o (q) Pepsin
(iii) S8 being a macromolecule forms macromolecular 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
colloid. (C) Proteinso Peptides (r) Urease
(iv) Starch and proteins are natural whereas polythene (D) C12H22O11(aq) + H2O(l) o (s) Invertase
and polystyrene are man-made macromolecules. C6H12O6(aq) + C6H12O6(aq)
(v) Micelles are formed above kraft temperature at any (a) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s)
concentration (b) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v) (d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q)
120. Read the following statements 123. Match the columns
(i) Tyndall effect is used to distinguish between a colloidal Column-I Column-II
(Catalyst) (Industrial product)
and true solution.
(A) V2O5 (p) High density
(ii) Values of colligative properties are same for true and
poly-ethylene
colloidal solutions.
(B) Ziegler-Natta (q) Polyacrylonitrile
(iii) Random bombardment of the colloidal particles by
(C) Peroxide (r) NH3
the molecules of the dispersion medium does not allow (D) Finely divided Fe (s) H2SO4
colloids to settle thereby providing stability to them. (a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
(iv) Most acceptable phenomena to account for the charge (b) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
of sol particles is electrodispersion. (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
Which of the following is the correct code for statements (d) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
above? 124. Match the columns
(a) TFTF (b) TTFF Column-I Column-II
(c) FTFT (d) TFFT (A) Oil in water emulsion (p) Clouds
(B) Aerosols containing (q) Vanishing cream
0$7&+,1*7<3(48(67,216 small droplets of water
121. Match the columns suspended in air
(C) When river water meets (r) Smoke
Column-I Column-II
the sea water
x
(A) kc1 n (p) Adsorption varies (D) Colloidal solution of (s) Formation of delta
m
directly with pressure carbon, arsenic
compounds, dust etc.
x 1 in air
(B) log log k log p (q) Adsorption from
m n (a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
§1 · solution phase (b) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (r)
¨ 0¸ (c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
©n ¹
(d) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s)
x 1 125. Match the columns
(C) log log k log p (r) Freudlich isotherm
m n Column-I Column-II
§1 · cannot be explained (A) As2S3 sol (p) Bredig’s Arc method
¨ 1¸ (B) Fe(OH)3 sol (q) Double decomposition
© n ¹
x (C) Colloidal sols of metals (r) Peptization
(D) kp1 n (s) Adsorption is like Au, Ag, Pt, etc.
m
independent of pressure (D) Conversion of freshly (s) Hydrolysis
(high pressure) prepared precipitate
into a colloidal sol
(a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) (a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) (b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) (c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
(d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q) (d) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)

70 685)$&(&+(0,675<
126. Match the columns (a) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
Column-I Column-II (b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
(A) In this process molecules (p) Dialysis (c) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q)
and ions diffuse through (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
membrane outside and 130. Match the columns
pure colloidal solution Column-I Column-II
is left behind. (A) Butter (p) dispersion of liquid in liquid
(B) This process is used (q) Ultrafilteration (B) Pumice stone (q) dispersion of solid in liquid
if the dissolved substance (C) Milk (r) dispersion of gas in solid
in the impure colloidal (D) Paints (s) dispersion of liquid in solid
solution is only an (a) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
electrolyte (b) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(C) In this process ordinary (r) Electro-dialysis (c) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
filter paper is soaked into (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
collodion (4% solution of 131. Match the columns
nitrocellulose in a mixture Column-I Column-II
of alcohol and ether)
(A) Argyrol (p) Kalazar
(a) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q)
(B) Antimony (q) Intramuscular injection
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q)
(C) Colloidal gold (r) Stomach disorders
(c) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r)
(D) Milk of magnesia (s) Eye lotion
(d) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p)
(a) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
Column-I Column-II
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s)
(A) Sulphur vapours passed (p) Normal electrolyte
through cold water solution (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
(B) Soap mixed with water (q) Molecular colloids
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
above critical micelle
concentration Directions : Each of these questions contains two statements,
(C) White of egg whipped (r) Associated colloid Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
with water alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(D) Soap mixed with water (s) Macro molecular have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
below critical micelle colloids (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
concentration explanation for assertion.
(a) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p) (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
(b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) correct explanation for assertion
(c) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q) (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p) (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
x
Column-I Column-II 132. Assertion : The relation k . p1/ n is known as Freundlich
m
(A) Protective colloid (p) FeCl3 + NaOH
(B) Liquid - liquid colloid (q) Lyophilic colloids adsorption isotherm, where x is the mass of gas adsorbed
(C) Positively charged colloid (r) Emulsion by m grams of adsorbate, p is the equilibrium pressure, k
(D) Negatively charged colloid (s) FeCl3 + hot water and n are constants for given system and temperature.
(a) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s) 1
Reason : When several substances have same value of ,
(b) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q) n
(c) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p) the lines by which their adsorption isotherms can be
(d) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) represented will meet at a point.
129. Match the columns 133. Assertion : The enthalpy of physisorption is greater than
Column-I Column-II chemisorption.
(A) Dialysis (p) Cleansing action of soap Reason : Molecules of adsorbate and adsorbent are held
(B) Peptisation (q) Coagulation by van der Waal’s forces in physisorption and by chemical
(C) Emulsification (r) Colloidal sol formatioin bonds in chemisorption.
(D) Electrophoresis (s) Purification

685)$&(&+(0,675< 71
143. On the basis of data given below predict which of the
x
134. Assertion : According to Freundlich: = K . p1/ n . following gases shows least adsorption on a definite amount
m
of charcoal?
Reason : The isotherm shows variation of the amount of Gas CO2 SO2 CH4 H2
gas adsorbed by the adsorbent with temperature.
Critical temp./K 304 630 190 33
135. Assertion: Detergents with low CMC are more economical
(a) CO2 (b) SO2
to use.
Reason: Cleansing action of detergents involves the (c) CH4 (d) H2
formation of micelles. These are formed when the 144. Which of the following statements regarding difference
concentration of detergents becomes equal to CMC. between adsorption and absorption is incorrect?
136. Assertion: An ordinary filter paper impregnated with (a) Adsorption is a surface whereas absorption is a bulk
collodion solution stops the flow of colloidal particles. phenomena.
Reason: Pore size of the filter paper becomes more than the (b) Water vapours are absorbed by anhydrous CaCl2 but
size of colloidal particle. adsorbed by silica gel.
137. Assertion : The value of colligative properties are of small (c) Adsorption and absorption take place individually.
order for colloids as compared to true solution. They can not occur simultaneously.
Reason : Number of particles in colloidal solution is (d) All of the above statements are correct.
comparatively smaller than true solutions. 145. Which of the following is not an application of adsorption?
(a) In metallurgy for concentration of sulphide ores.
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
(b) In heterogeneous catalysis involving solid catalyst.
138. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding (c) In homogeneous catalysis.
physisorptions? (d) Separation of inert gas.
(a) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily. 146. Which of the following statements regarding catalyst is not
(b) Under high pressure it results into multimolecular layer true ?
on adsorbent surface. (a) A catalyst remains unchanged in composition and
(c) Enthalpy of adsorption ( 'H adsorption) is low and quantity at the end of the reaction
positive. (b) A catalyst can initiate a reaction
(d) It occurs because of van der Waal’s forces. (c) A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium in a reversible
139. Which is correct about physical adsorption? reaction
(a) High temperature and high pressure favour adsorption (d) Catalysts are sometimes very specific in respect of
(b) High temperature and low pressure favour adsorption reaction
(c) Low temperature and high pressure favour adsorption
147. Which of the following statements about a catalyst is true ?
(d) Low temperature and low pressure favour adsorption
(a) A catalyst accelerates the reaction by bringing down
140. Which one of the following is not applicable to the
the free energy of activation
phenomenon of adsorption ?
(b) A catalyst also takes part in the reaction mechanism
(a) 'H > 0 (b) 'G < 0
(c) A catalyst makes the reaction more feasible by making
(c) 'S < 0 (d) 'H < 0
the 'Gº more negative
141. Methylene blue, from its aqueous solution, is adsorbed on
activated charcoal at 25°C. For this process, which of the (d) A catalyst makes the equilibrium constant of the
following statement is correct ? reaction more favourable for the forward reaction
(a) The adsorption requires activation at 25°C 148. Which one of the following, statements is incorrect about
(b) The adsorption is accompanied by a decrease in enzyme catalysis?
enthalpy (a) Enzymes are mostly protenious in nature.
(c) The adsorption increases with increase of temperature (b) Enzyme action is specific.
(d) The adsorption is irreversible (c) Enzymes are denaturated by ultraviolet rays and at
142. In the adsorption of a gas on solid, Freundlich isotherm is high temperature.
obeyed. The slope of the plot is zero. Then the extent of (d) Enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature.
adsorption is 149. Given below, catalyst and corresponding process/reaction
(a) directly proportional to the pressure of the gas are matched. The one with mismatch is
(b) inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas (a) [RhCl(PPh3)2] : Hydrogenation
(c) directly proportional to the square root of the pressure (b) TiCl4 + Al (C2H5)3 : Polymerization
of the gas (c) V2O5 : Haber-Bosch process
(d) independent of the pressure of the gas (d) Nickel : Hydrogenation

72 685)$&(&+(0,675<
150. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in the 161. Colloid of which one of the following can be prepared by
case of heterogeneous catalysis ? electrical dispersion method as well as reduction method ?
(a) The catalyst lowers the energy of activation (a) Sulphur (b) Ferric hydroxide
(b) The catalyst actually forms a compound with the (c) Arsenious sulphide (d) Gold
reactant
162. Which of the following ions can cause coagulation of
(c) The surface of the catalyst plays a very important role proteins ?
(d) There is no change in the energy of activation.
(a) Ag+ (b) Na+
151. In petrochemical industry alcohols are directly converted 2+
(c) Mg (d) Ca2+
to gasoline by passing over heated
(a) Platinum (b) ZSM-5 163. Which of the following will be most effective in the
(c) Iron (d) Nickel coagulation of Al(OH)3 sol ?
152. Which of the following feature of catalysts is described in (a) KCN (b) BaCl2
reactions given below? (c) NaCl (d) Mg3(PO4)2
Cu / ZnOCr O 164. Point out the false statement :
(i) CO g 2H2 g
2 3 o CH OH g
3
(a) The colloidal solution of a liquid in liquid is called gel
Cu
(ii) CO g H 2 g o HCHO g (b) Hardy Schulze rule is related with coagulation
Ni
(iii) CO g 3H2 g (c) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect are shown by
o CH4 g H2O g
colloidal system
(a) Activity (b) Selectivity
(d) Gold number is a measure of the protective power of
(c) Catalytic promoter (d) Catalytic poison
lyophilic colloid
153. The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather
are respectively 165. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide and
(a) gas and liquid (b) liquid and gas colloidal gold is positively and negatively charged,
(c) solid and gas (d) solid and liquid respectively. Which of the following statements is NOT
correct?
154. Which of the following is not a colloid ?
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Smoke (a) Coagulation in both sols can be brought about by
(c) Ruby glass (d) Milk electrophoresis
155. Which of the following forms a colloidal solution in water ? (b) Mixing the sols has no effect
(a) NaCl (b) Glucose (c) Sodium sulphate solution causes coagulation in both
(c) Starch (d) Barium nitrate sols
156. Which of the following forms cationic micelles above certain (d) Magnesium chloride solution coagulates, the gold sol
concentration? more readily than the iron (III) hydroxide sol.
(a) Sodium dodecyl sulphate 166. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electric field. The
(b) Sodium acetate particles move towards anode. The coagulation of same sol
(c) Urea is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 solutions. The order
(d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide of their coagulation power should be –
157. Which of the following does not contain a hydrophobic (a) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 (b) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl
structure ? (c) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl (d) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
(a) Linseed oil (b) Lanolin 167. Flocculation value of BaCl2 is much less than that of KCl
(c) Glycogen (d) Rubber for sol A and flocculation value of Na2SO4 is much less
158. Which one of the following is an example for multimolecular than that of NaBr for sol B. The correct statement among
colloid? the following is :
(a) Aqueous starch sol (a) Both the sols A and B are negatively charged.
(b) Aqueous enzyme sol (b) Sol A is positively charged arid Sol B is negatively
(c) Alcoholic polystyrene sol charged.
(d) Aqueous sol of sodium laurylsulphate
(c) Both the sols A and B are positively charged.
159. Bredig arc method cannot be used to prepare colloidal
(d) Sol A is negatively charged and sol B is positively
solution of which of the following
charged.
(a) Pt (b) Fe
(c) Ag (d) Au 168. In Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles
are
160. Colloidal solutions are not purified by
(a) Dialysis (b) Electrodialysis (a) Linear (b) Zig-zag
(c) Ultrafiltration (d) Electrophoresis (c) Uncertain (d) Curved

685)$&(&+(0,675< 73
169. How does a delta form at the meeting place of sea and river (c) Dispersed phase – Gas, Dispersion medium – Gas.
water? (d) Dispersed phase – Liquid, Dispersion medium – Gas.
(a) The electrolyte present in sea water coagulate the clay 173. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(b) the electrolyte present in sea water has no role (a) Colloidal gold is used for intramuscular injection.
(c) the electrolyte present in river water coagulate the clay (b) Colloidal solution of latex is used in preparation of
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct rubber.
170. .......... is a silver sol used as an eye lotion. Fill in the blank (c) Photographic films are prepared by coating an
with an appropriate answer.
emulsion of AgBr in gelatin over glass plate.
(a) Amytol (b) Argyrol
(d) Tannin used in leather industry contains positively
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Both (a) and (b)
charged colloidal particles.
171. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
174. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle
(a) Sulphur sol – Oxidation
concentration.
(b) Gold sol – Double decomposition
(b) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle
concentration. (c) Fe(OH)3 sol – Hydrolysis
(c) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride. (d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) Aqueous solution of sugar. 175. How many of the following are negatively charged sols?
172. Which of the following combinations of dispersed phase Eosin dye, sol of charcoal, haemoglobin, Al2O3.xH2O,
and dispersion medium will not form a colloid ? As2S3, TiO2.sol, copper sol
(a) Dispersed phase – Solid, Dispersion medium – Solid. (a) 3 (b) 4
(b) Dispersed phase – Solid, Dispersion medium – Gas. (c) 6 (d) All of these

74 685)$&(&+(0,675<
20. (a) Adsorption of a gas on solid is represented by

)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216
following equilibria,
1. (d) The substance which is adsorbed is called adsorbate. ZZX
Gas (Adsorbate) + Solid (Adsorbent) YZZ
2. (b) Adsorption is an exothermic process. Gas adsorbed on solid + Heat
3. (a) On increasing temperature physical adsorption of a Initially adsorption increases with increase in pressure
gas on surface of solid decreases. Solid adsorb greater at a particular temperature then got slow. After attaining
amount of gas at lower temperature. equilibrium adsorption become independent of
4. (a) Chemical adsorption involves formation of monolayer. pressure.
5. (a) Chemisorption involves strong chemical forces. 21. (d)
6. (d) In physisorption, gas molecules are held on the solid
22. (a) According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm
surface by weak van der Waal’s forces.
1
7. (b) x
8. (d) Adsorption is accompanied by evolution of heat as kP n
m
the residual forces acting along the surface of
adsorbent decrease i.e., adsorption is accompanied by 1
at low pressure =1
decrease in enthalpy. n
9. (b) The more readily soluble and easily liquefiable gases x
? v P1
such as NH3, HCl and SO2 are adsorbed more than the m
so called permanent gases like O2. This is due to the 1
van der Waals or intermolecular forces which are at high pressure =0
n
involved in adsorption.
x
10. (c) Adsorption is an exothermic process i.e. DH of v Pq
adsorption is always negative. When a gas is adsorbed, m
the freedom of movement of its molecules becomes i.e., the value of n varies between 0 to 1.
restricted i.e. DS is negative. Hence adsorption 23. (b) The gases having higher values for critical temperature
accompanied by decrease in enthalpy as well as are easily liquified and are adsorbed to the greater
decrease in entropy of the system. extent. CO2 has highest critical temperature of 304K.
11. (d) The heat evolved in physisorption is quite low varying 24. (b) According to Freundlich equation.
generally between 20-40 kJ mol–1. x x
v p1/ n or Kp1/ n
12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) m m
17. (a) 18. (b) x x 1
19. (d) According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm. or log log Kp1/ n or log log K log p
m m n
At intermediate pressure, extent of adsorption
25. (a) According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm
x x 1
kP1/ n or log log k log P; x
m m n kp1/n (wheren n > 1)
m
At very high pressure x/m = kp0
1 26. (a) On increasing temperature adsorption of a gas on
e = n surface of solid decreases. Solid adsorb greater amount
S lop of substances at lower temperature.
m
x
27. (c)
log
28. (a) For adsorption to occur 'G = –ve as in adsorption

'H = –ve, 'S = –ve. –T'S is positive for adsorption.
29. (d) For a reaction in equilibrium, the increase in rate of
reaction in forward direction by catalyst increases the
Intercept = log k concentration of product(s) and thus the rate of
log P backward reaction also increases with the same
magnitude and allow the equilibrium to be achieved
quickly.
plot of log x vs log P is linear with slope = 1
m n

685)$&(&+(0,675< 75
30. (d) The catalytic poisons decrease the activity of the 52. (b) Colloid Dispersed phase Dispersion medium
catalyst because they are preferentially adsorbed on Sol Solid Liquid
the surface of catalyst. Gel Liquid Solid
31. (a) A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing Emulsion Liquid Liquid
the activation energy. Foam Gas Liquid
32. (c) Active charcoal has more adsorption power due to 53. (d) Emulsions are liquid-liquid colloidal systems, Generally
greater surface area. one of the two liquids is water.
33. (c) Adsorption theory is applied to heterogeneous 54. (b) Butter is an example of gel.
catalysis. 55. (c) Cheese is a liquid dispersed in solid phase.
34. (a) According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the 56. (d) Air is a homogeneous mixture of gases, mainly nitrogen
activity of catalysis is due to the presence of free and oxygen.
valencies on its surface due to which surface of catalyst 57. (c) When the dispersed phase and dispersion medium both
has chemical force of altraction. When a gas comes in are liquid, the colloidal system is called as an emulsion
contact with this surface molecules get attached like milk, vasnishing cream etc.
attached through these valencies. Further the rate of 58. (b) Cloud consists of fine droplets of water suspended in
reaction is always increases by decreases in activation air.
energy. When any of the reactants is strongly 59. (d) Blood is a –vely charged colloidal system. Rest of the
adsorbed on the surface of catalyst, the rate becomes compounds, i.e., NaCl, urea & cane sugar form true
inversely proportional to the concentration of that solution in water.
reaction. The reaction is then said to be inhibited by 60. (a) Suspension particles are visible under a microscope
such reactant. The lowering of activation energy always and sometimes even to a naked eye.
leads to the increase in speed of reaction.
61. (a) Fog is a colloidal system consisting water droplets
35. (b) Catalyst decreases the activation energy of the dispersed in air.
reaction by forming an intermediate product. So no of
62. (a) A collidal solution is biphasic and heterogeneous. It is
molecules having activation energy increases hence
composed of two phases :
rate of reaction increases.
1. Dispersed phase; 2. Dispersion medium.
36. (c) A catalyst can affect reversible reaction by attaining
63. (c) Smoke is solid gas system, solid (D. P) and gas (D.M.)
equilibria in both directions.
Note : D.P. : Dispersed phase
37. (d) In acid hydrolysis of methyl acetate all are present in
D.M. : Dispersion medium
one phase (liquid).
64. (c) The critical micelle concentration is the lowest
38. (d) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts possessing
concentration at which micelle formation appears when
well - defined active sites.
surfactants are present above that CMC, they can act
39. (a) Enzymes are biological catalysts.
as emulsifiers that will solubilise a compound which is
40. (d) Enzymes are biological catalysts and enhance the rate normally insoluble in the solvent being used.
of biochemical reactions.
41. (c) Hydrolysis of urea can be represented as follows
Urease 65. (a) Polarhead
H 2 N C NH 2 H 2O o 2NH3 CO 2 Non-polar tail
|| (enzyme)
O (micelle)
Since it involves biological catalyst (enzyme) so it is
an example of biochemical catalysis. 66. (a) Surface tension of lyophilic sols is lower than water
42. (d) Efficiency of catalysing property of a catalyst is (dispersion medium).
inversely proportional to activation energy. 67. (b) Gum is lyophilic colloid.
43. (b) Molybdenum acts as a promoter for iron which is used 68. (c) Lyophobic colloids are irreversible colloids. They are
as a catalyst in Haber’s process. protected by lyophilic colloids.
44. (c) Second step involves adsorption of reactant 69. (c) Example of multimolecular colloid system is a gold
molecules on the surface of the catalyst. dispersed in water.
45. (b) 70. (a) On shaking with the dispersion medium, colloids
46. (a) Milk is a emulsion in which liquid is dispersed in liquid. directly form the colloidal sol. Hence they are called
47. (c) In butter (liquid – solid) water is dispersed in fat. intrinsic colloids. i.e., glue.
48. (c) Size of colloidal particles is 10–5 - 10–7 cm. 71. (d) Sodium stearate is a soap. Soaps and detergents are
49. (a) surface agents which when dissolved in a medium,
50. (d) Mist is a colloid (aerosol) in which liquid is dispersed forms aggregated particles, called associated colloids.
in gas. 72. (d) The formation of micelles takes place only above a
51. (c) Alloy is an example of solid solution. particular temperature called kraft temperature (TK).

76 685)$&(&+(0,675<
73. (c) 94. (a) Smaller the charge on anion, lesser will be its
74. (b) Electrolytes are used for neutralising charge on coagulating power.
colloidal particles. ? KBr have Br– with least charge of – 1 on Br thus
75. (c) The osmotic pressure of sea water is 25 atm at 15°C. KBr is least effective in coagulating Fe(OH)3.
When pressure greater than 26 atm is applied on sea 95. (b) 96. (a)
water separated by a rigid emipermeable membrane, 97. (b) The size of colloidal particles is between 1 nm and
pure water is obtained. 1000 nm i.e., it is not always greater than 100 nm. So (b)
76. (a) Blood is purified by dialysis. is not a property of colloidal solution. All others are
77. (d) The use of membrane for separating colloidal particles the properties of colloidal solution.
is termed as dialysis. Hence it is clear that colloidal 98. (c) According to Hardy-Schulze rule "The amount of
particle cannot pass through animal membrane. Hence electrolyte required to coagulate a fixed amount of a
only solvent molecules and ions (in case of sol depends upon the sign of charge and valency of
electrodialysis) can diffuse. the flocculating ion."
78. (d) Electrolytic (Ionic) impurities can be most easily Thus, the coagulating power vary in the order.
removed on application of electric field. Al3+ > Zn++ > Na+
79. (a) Formation of colloid from suspension is known as 99. (c)
peptization. 100. (d) A negative ion causes the precipitation of positively
80. (d) The separation of colloidal particles of molecular charged sol and vice-versa. Since As2S3 is a negative
dimension is known as dialysis. It is a purification sol so more will be the positive charge on cation more
method of colloid. effective it will be in causing coagulation of As2S3 sol.
81. (c) Electrodialysis involves movement of ions towards Among the given ions, Al3+ has the greatest valency
oppositely charged electrodes. and thus is the most effective coagulating agent.
Urea being a covalent compound does not dissociate 101. (c) Electrodialysis involves movement of ions towards
to give ions and hence it cannot be removed by oppositely charged electrodes.
electrodialysis.However all the other given compounds Urea being a covalent compound does not dissociate
are ionic which can undergo dissociation to give to give ions and hence it cannot be removed by
oppositely charged ions and thus can be separated. electrodialysis.However all the other given compounds
82. (b) The motion of a liquid through a membrane under the are ionic which can undergo dissociation to give
influence of an applied electric field is known as electro- oppositely charged ions and thus can be separated.
osmosis. 102. (a) Brownian movement is exhibited by colloidal system.
83. (d) 103. (b) Brownian movement is random motion.
84. (c) Peptization comes under dispersion methods of 104. (c) Sugar forms homogeneous solution hence no Tyndall
preparation of colloids. effect is exhibited.
85. (c) Colloidal gold is prepared by Bredig's arc method. 105. (c) Emulsion show the tyndal! effect. Refers to ans 280.
86. (b) Peptisation is disintegration of colloidal aggregate. 106. (c)
87. (c) According to this law the coagulating effect of an ion 107. (b) For gel dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion
on dispersed phase of opposite charge increases with medium is solid.
the increase in valency of the ion. The precipitating 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (c)
power of Al3+ , Ba++, Na+ ions is in order Al3+ > Ba2+ 111. (c) Protein is an emulsifying agent for O/W emulsion.
> Na+. 112. (d)
88. (a) Tyndall effect is shown by sols.
89. (c) It is due to impact of molecules of dispersion medium 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
on the colloidal particles.
113. (d) Adsorption is a surface phenomenon.
90. (b) It is due to Tyndall effect.
114. (b) Statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect. A given surface
91. (a) Tyndall effect is the simplest way to check colloidal of an adsorbent does not show any preference for a
system since path of light beam becomes visible due particular gas as the van der Waal’s forces are
to scattering of light. universal.
92. (d) Fe(OH)3 is positive sol. K3[Fe(CN)6 ] will provide Finely divided metals are better adsorbent as compared
[Fe(CN)6]3– for coagulation having highest magnitude to solid metals because they have large surface area
of –ve charge among given options. and extent of adsorption increases with surface area.
93. (d) According to the Hardy schulze rule the coagulating 115. (a) As chemisorption involves compound formation, it is
effect of an ion on dispersed phase of opposite charge usually irreversible in nature.
increases with the valency of the ion. Therefore more
116. (a)
the charge on oppositely charged ion higher is the
117. (c) Zeolites are found in nature as well as synthesised
coagulation value.
for catalytic selectivity.

685)$&(&+(0,675< 77
118. (b) Optimum pH for the enzyme catalysis is 5-7. Catalyst 139. (c) Physical adsorption involves weak forces, physical in
used in Ostwald’s process is platinised asbestos at nature with small heat of adsorption. Thus low
573 K. temperature and high pressure favours physical
119. (b) S8 forms a multimolecular colloid. Micelles are formed adsorption.
above kraft temperature and above a particular 140. (a)
concentration called Critical Micelle Concentration 141. (b) The adsorption of methylene blue on activated
(CMC). charcoal is an example of physiosorption which is
120. (a) Values of colligative properties for colloids are of small exothermic, multilayer and does not have energy barrier.
order as compared to values shown by true solution. 142. (d) Freundlich’s isothermal adsorption equation can be
Most acceptable phenomena to account for the charge given as
of sol particles in preferential adsorption.
x
kp1/n
0$7&+,1*7<3(48(67,216 m
121. (a) 122. (a) x 1 1

log log k log p; slope 0
123. (a) (A) V2O5 is used as a catalyst during the preparation m n n
of H2SO4
x
(B) Ziegler-Natta is used as a catalyst during the Thus, kp 0
m
preparation of HDPE.
(C) Peroxide is used as a catalyst durin g the 143. (d)
preparation of polyacrylonitrile. 144. (c) Both adsorption and absorption can take place
(D) Finely divided Fe is used as a catalyst during the simultaneously. The term sorption is used to describe
preparation of ammonia. both the processes.
124. (a) 125. (d) 126. (a) 127. (a) 128. (c) 145. (c) Homogenous catalysis does not involves adsorption.
129. (a) 130. (b) 146. (b) A catalyst can not initiate a reaction.
131. (d) Argyrol is used as an eye lotion. 147. (a)
Antimony is used in Kalazar. 148. (d) Enzymes are most reactive at optimum temperature.
Collidal gold is used in intramuscular injection. The optimum temperature for enzyme activity lies
Milk of magnesia is used in the stomach disorder. between 40°C to 60°C.
149. (c) V2 O 5 is used as catalyst in contact process of
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 manufacturing H2SO4.
150. (c) The theory of heterogeneous catalysis is based upon
132. (c) Assertion is true, reason is false. When several lines the phenomenon of adsorption. The activity of catalyst
1 is due to the presence of free valencies on its sufrace
have the same value of , then the lines by which due to which surface of catalyst has force of attraction.
n
151. (b) ZSM-5 is a shape selective catalyst. Zeolites are good
their adsorption isotherms can be represented will be
shape selective catalysts because of the honey comb
parallel and will not meet at a point.
like structure.
133. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. The enthalpy
152. (b) Given reactions shows that the selectivity of different
of chemisorption is of the order of 40 - 400 kJmol –1
catalysts for same reactants is different.
while for physical adsorption it is of the order of
20 - 40 kJmol–1. 153. (a) Soap lather is a colloid containing gas as a dispersed
phase and liquid as a dispersion medium.
134. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
154. (a) Chlorophyll. Smoke is an example of solid-gas colloid
Freundlich adsorption isotherm gives an empirical
system Ruby glass is an example of solid-solid colloid
relationship between the quantity of gas adsorbed by
system. Milk is an liquid -liquid colloid system.
unit mass of solid adsorbent and pressure at a particular
temperature. 155. (c) Starch molecules have colloidal dimensions whereas
NaCl, glucose and Ba(NO3)2 are crystalloids and
135. (a) 136. (c)
soluble in water.
137. (a) Colligative properties depend upon number of
156. (d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide,
particles.
[C16 H33 (CH3 )3 N Br ] is a cationic micelle.
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 157. (d) Linseed oil, lanolin and glycogen attract water hence
138. (c) Adsorption is an exothermic process, hence 'H will contain a hydrophilic structure but rubber does not
always be negative. attract water and thus does not contain a hydrophobic
structure.

78 685)$&(&+(0,675<
158. (a) Multimolecular colloids consist of aggregates of atoms 166. (c) As colloidal particles move towards anode so these
or small molecules. Sulphur sol is an example of particles are negatively charged and coagulated by
multimolecular colloids cations of electrolyte.
159. (b) Bredig’s arc method is suitable for the preparation of
According to Hardy Schulze rule,
colloidal solution of metals like gold, silver, platinum
etc. An arc is struck between the metal electrode under Coagulation power v charge of ion
the surface of water containing some stabilzing agent ? Order of coagulation power is Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
such as a trace of KOH. However, Fe does not react 167. (b) In first case the given compounds have same anion
with alkalies that is why it is not obtained by Bredig’s- but different cations having different charge hence
arc method. they will precipitate negatively charged sol i.e. ‘A’.
160. (d) Colloidal solutions are not purified by electrophoresis.
In second case the given compounds have similar
Movement of colloidal particles under the influence of
cation but different anion with different charge. Hence
electric field is called electrophoresis. So, it can make
easier. Electrophoresis is the property of colloids not they will precipitate positively charged sol. i.e. ‘B’.
the purification method. 168. (b) Brownian movement is zig zag motion of sol particles.
161. (d) Gold by Bredig’s method (Dispersion method) and by 169. (a) 170. (a) 171. (b)
reduction method 172. (c) A gas mixed with another gas forms a homogeneous
AuCl3 + Tannic acid o Gold sol mixture and hence is not a colloidal system.
162. (a) Proteins are coagulated by some heavy metal ions like
173. (d) Tannin used in leather industry contains negatively
Ag+, Hg2+ and Pb2+.
charged colloidal particles.
163. (d) Al(OH)3 is a positive sol so salt having anion with
maximum negative charged (i.e. phosphate ion) will be 174. (b) Gold sol is prepared by reduction as
most effective in coagulation. 2AuCl3 3HCHO 3H 2 O
o
Reduction
164. (a) Colloid of liquid in liquid is called emulsion. Colloid of
liquid in solid is gel. 2Au sol 3HCOOH 6HCl
165. (b) When oppositely charged sols are mixed their charges 175. (b) Eosin dye, sol of charcoal, As2S3 and copper sol are
are neutralised. Both sols may be partially or example of negatively charged sol.
completely precipitated.

6
GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS
12. Which one of the following is not a sulphide ore?
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(a) Magnetite (b) Iron pyrites
1. Which one of the following is an ore of silver ? (c) Copper glance (d) Sphalerite
(a) Argentite (b) Stibnite 13. The impurities associated with mineral used in
(c) Haematite (d) Bauxite metallurgy are called collectively?
2. Cinnabar is an ore of (a) Slag (b) Flux
(a) Hg (b) Cu (c) Gangue (d) Ore
(c) Pb (d) Zn 14. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust (by weight)
3. An example of an oxide ore is is
(a) Bauxite (b) Malachite (a) Si (b) Al
(c) Zinc blende (d) Feldspar (c) O (d) Fe
15. Malachite is an ore of
4. The natural materials from which an element can be extracted
economically are called (a) iron (b) copper
(c) mercury (d) zinc
(a) ores (b) minerals
16. Cassiterite is an ore of
(c) gangue (d) None of these
(a) Mn (b) Ni
5. The most abundant metal on the surface of the earth is
(c) Sb (d) Sn
(a) Fe (b) Al
17. Galena is an ore of
(c) Ca (d) Na (a) Pb (b) Hg
6. Which of the following is an ore of tin ? (c) Zn (d) None of these
(a) Carborundum (b) Epsomite 18. The metal always found in the free states is
(c) Cassiterite (d) Spodumene (a) Au (b) Ag
7. Which of the following is chalcopyrite? (c) Cu (d) Na
(a) CuFeS2 (b) FeS2 19. Matrix is defined as –
(c) KMgCl3.6H2O (d) Al2O3.2H2O (a) the unwanted foreign material present in the ore
8. Haematite is the ore of (b) the flux added to remove the unwanted impurities from
(a) Pb (b) Cu ore
(c) Fe (d) Au (c) the slag formed as a result of the reaction of flux with
9. Composition of azurite mineral is gangue
(d) the material used in the reduction of metal oxide to
(a) CuCO3CuO (b) Cu(HCO3)2. Cu(OH)2
metal
(c) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (d) CuCO3. 2Cu(OH)2
20. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched ?
10. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron ?
(a) Magnetite – Fe3O4 (b) Copper glance – Cu2S
(a) Malachite (b) Cassiterite (c) Calamine – ZnCO3 (d) Zincite – ZnS
(c) Pyrolusite (d) Magnetite 21. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by
11. All ores are minerals, while all minerals are not ores because froth-flotation method ?
(a) the metal can’t be extracted economically from all the (a) Galena (b) Cassiterite
minerals (c) Magnetite (d) Malachite
(b) minerals are complex compounds 22. Froth floatation process is used for the metallurgy of
(c) the minerals are obtained from mines (a) chloride ores (b) amalgams
(d) all of these are correct (c) oxide ores (d) sulphide ores

80 *(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176
23. Cassiterite is concentrated by 35. Main function of roasting is
(a) levigation (a) to remove volatile substances
(b) electromagnetic separation (b) oxidation
(c) floatation (c) reduction
(d) liquefaction (d) slag formation
24. While extracting an element from its ore, the ore is grounded
36. Roasting is generally done in case of the
and leached with dil. potassium cyanide solution to form
(a) oxide ores (b) silicate ores
the soluble product potassium argento cyanide. The element
is (c) sulphide ores (d) carbonate ores
(a) Lead (b) Chromium 37. Heating of pyrites in air for oxidation of sulphur is called
(c) Manganese (d) Silver (a) roasting (b) calcination
25. The method of concentrating the ore which makes use of (c) smelting (d) slagging
the difference in density between ore and impurities is called 38. The role of calcination in metallurgical operations is
(a) levigation (b) leaching (a) to remove moisture
(c) magnetic separation (d) liquifaction (b) to decompose carbonates
26. Leaching is a process of (c) to drive off organic matter
(a) reduction (b) concentration (d) to decompose carbonates and drive off moisture and
(c) refining (d) oxidation organic matter
27. Which one of the following ores is concentrated by chemical
39. General method for the extraction of metal from oxide ore is
leaching method?
(a) carbon reduction
(a) Galena (b) Copper pyrite
(c) Cinnabar (d) Argentite (b) reduction by aluminium
28. Electromagnetic separation is used in the concentration of (c) reduction by hydrogen
(a) copper pyrites (b) bauxite (d) electrolytic reduction
(c) cassiterite (d) cinnabar 40. Function of the flux added during smelting is
29. For which ore of the metal, froth floatation method is used (a) to make ore porous
for concentration? (b) to remove gangue
(a) Horn silver (b) Bauxite (c) to make reduction easier
(c) Cinnabar (d) Heamatite (d) to precipitate slag
30. Which of the following metal is leached by cyanide process ? 41. Process followed before reduction of carbonate ore is
(a) Ag (b) Na (a) calcination (b) roasting
(c) Al (d) Cu
(c) liquation (d) polling
31. Which one of the following ores is not concentrated by
42. Calcination is the process in which :
froth floatation process?
(a) Copper pyrites (b) Pyrargyrite (a) ore is heated above its melting point to expel H2O or
(c) Pyrolusite (d) Zinc blende CO2 or SO2
32. In froth flotation process many chemicals (frother , collector, (b) ore is heated below its melting point to expel volatile
activator, and depressant) are used. Which of the following impurities
is a frother ? (c) ore is heated above its melting point to remove S, As
(a) CuSO 4 (b) NaCN+ alkali and Sb as SO2 ,As2O3 and Sb2O3 respectively
(d) ore is heated below its melting point to expel H2O or
(c) Pine oil (d) Potassium xanthate
CO2
33. Froth flotation process is based on
43. When a metal is to be extracted from its ore and the gangue
(a) wetting properties of ore particle
(b) specific gravity of ore particles associated with the ore is silica, then
(c) magnetic properties of ore particles (a) an acidic flux is needed
(d) electrical properties of ore particles (b) a basic flux is needed
34. In the froth flotation process of concentration of ores, the (c) both acidic and basic fluxes are needed
ore particles float because they: (d) Neither of them is needed
(a) are light 44. Which of the following fluxes is used to remove acidic
(b) are insoluble impurities in metallurgical process?
(c) have the surface which is not wetted easily (a) Silica (b) Lime stone
(d) have a constant electrical charge (c) Sodium chloride (d) Sodium carbonate

*(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176 81
45. Which of the following reactions is an example for calcination 56. Furnaces are lined with calcium oxide because
process ? (a) it gives off oxygen on heating
(b) it gives strong light on heating
(a) 2Ag 2HCl O o 2AgCl H 2 O
(c) it is refractory and basic
(b) 2Zn O 2 o 2ZnO (d) it is not affected by acids
57. The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in
(c) 2ZnS 3O 2 o 2ZnO 2SO 2 the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction
(d) MgCO3 o MgO CO 2 pertaining to the formation of the slag.
(a) Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) o2 Fe (l) + 3 CO2 (g)
46. After partial roasting the sulphide of copper is reduced by
(b) CaCO3 (s) o CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
(a) cyanide process (b) electrolysis
(c) CaO (s) + SiO2(s) o CaSiO3(s)
(c) reduction with carbon (d) self reduction
(d) 2C(s) + O2 (g) o2 CO(g)
47. Hydro-metallurgical process of extraction of metals is based
on 58. Refractory materials are generally used in furnaces because
(a) complex formation (b) hydrolysis (a) they possess great structural strength
(c) dehydration (d) dehydrogenation (b) they can withstand high temperature
48. (c) they are chemically inert
2CuFeS2 O 2 o Cu 2 S 2FeS SO 2
(d) they do not require replacement
Which process of metallurgy of copper is represented by
59. Which of the following reactions taking place in the blast
above equation?
furnace during extraction of iron is endothermic?
(a) Concentration (b) Roasting
(c) Reduction (d) Purification (a) CaCO3 o CaO CO2
49. Which of the following is not used as a collector ? (b) 2C O 2 o 2CO
(a) Pine oil (b) Xanthates (c) C O 2 o CO 2
(c) Cresols (d) Fatty acids
50. Which of the following reaction represents calcination (d) Fe 2 O 3 3CO o 2Fe 3CO 2
process ? 60. Cast iron is
(a) 2PbS 3O 2 o 2PbO 2SO 2 (a) made by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke
(b) CaCO3.MgCO3 (s) o CaO(s) MgO(s) 2CO2(g) using hot air blast
coke, 1673K
(b) having slightly lower carbon content (about 3%) as
(c) ZnO C o Zn CO compared to pig iron
(d) Fe 2 O3 CO o 2FeO CO 2 (c) extremely hard and brittle
51. According to Ellingham diagram, the oxidation reaction of (d) All of the above statements are true
carbon to carbon monoxide may be used to reduce which 61. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is
one of the following oxides at the lowest temperature ? finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with :
(a) Al2O3 (b) Cu2O (a) Copper (I) sulphide (Cu2S)
(c) MgO (d) ZnO (b) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
52. Which of the following condition favours the reduction (c) Iron sulphide (FeS)
of a metal oxide to metal? (d) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(a) 'H = +ve, T'S = + ve at low temperature 62. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by
(b) 'H = +ve, T'S = – ve at any temperature (a) electrolytic reduction
(c) 'H = –ve, T'S = – ve at high temperature (b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(d) 'H = –ve, T'S = + ve at any temperature (c) roasting followed by reduction with another metal
53. Ellingham diagram normally consists of plots of (d) roasting followed by self-reduction
(a) 'Sº vs T (b) 'fGº vs 'Sº 63. In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the bessemer
(c) 'Gº vs T (d) 'Hº vs 'T converter due to the reaction :
54. ' G° vs T plot in the Ellingham’s diagram slopes downward (a) Cu2S + 2Cu2O o 6Cu + SO2
for the reaction (b) Cu2S o 2Cu + S
1 1 (c) Fe + Cu2O o 2Cu + FeO
(a) Mg O 2 o MgO (b) 2Ag O 2 o Ag 2O (d) 2Cu2O o 4Cu + O2
2 2
1 1 64. Aluminothermic process is used for the extraction of metals,
(c) C O2 o CO (d) CO O 2 o CO 2 whose oxides are
2 2 (a) fusible
55. In the blast furnace iron oxide is reduced by
(b) not easily reduced by carbon
(a) silica (b) CO
(c) not easily reduced by hydrogen
(c) carbon (d) limestone
(d) strongly basic

82 *(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176
65. Electrometallurgical process is used to extract 75. The main reactions occurring in blast furnace during
(a) Fe (b) Pb extraction of iron from haematite are________.
(c) Na (d) Ag (i) Fe2O3 + 3CO —o 2Fe + 3CO2
66. The electrolytic method of reduction is employed for the (ii) FeO + SiO2 —o FeSiO3
preparation of metals that
(iii) Fe2O3 + 3C —o 2Fe + 3CO
(a) are weakly electropositive
(iv) CaO + SiO2 —o CaSiO3
(b) are moderately electropositive
(c) are strongly electropositive (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(d) form oxides (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
67 Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3 ) by electrolysis 76. The process of zone refining is used in the purification of
of a molten mixture of (a) Si (b) Al
(a) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4 (c) Ag (d) Cu
(b) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4
77. Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves
(c) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2
converting the metal to a
(d) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6
68. In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process, (a) volatile stable compound
purified Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 to (b) volatile unstable compound
(i) lower the melting point of Al2O3. (c) non volatile stable compound
(ii) increase the conductivity of molten mixture. (d) None of the above
(iii) reduce Al3+ into Al(s). 78. The method not used in metallurgy to refine the impure
(iv) acts as catalyst. metal is
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (a) Mond’s process
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) Van–Arkel process
69. In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine______. (c) Amalgamation process
(a) oxidation of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs.
(d) Liquation
(b) reduction of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs.
79. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van
(c) For overall reaction 'G 4 has negative value.
Arkel method ?
(d) a displacement reaction takes place.
70. Brine is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The reaction (a) Ga and In (b) Zr and Ti
at anode is ________. (c) Ag and Au (d) Ni and Fe
80. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle
1
(a) Cl – (aq.)
o Cl 2 (g) e – ; E4
Cell 1.36V of
2
(a) greater solubility of the impurities in the molten state
4
(b) o O2 (g) 4 H 4e – ; ECell
2H 2 O(1) 1.23V than in the solid
(b) greater mobility of the pure metal than that of the
4
(c) Na (aq.) e –
o Na(s); ECell 2.71V impurite
1 (c) higher melting point of the impurities than that of the
(d) H (aq.) e – o H 2 (g); 4
ECell 0.00V pure metal
2
71. Blister copper is (d) greater noble character of the solid metal than that of
(a) Impure Cu (b) Cu alloy the impurities
(c) Pure Cu (d) Cu having 1% impurity 81. Method used for obtaining highly pure silicon which is
72. The furnace used to prepare commercial iron is lined with used as a semiconductor material, is
which of the following ? (a) oxidation (b) electrochemical
(a) Haematite (b) Magnetite (c) crystallization (d) zone refining
(c) Ironpyrites (d) Both (a) and (b) 82. What is anode mud?
73. Which form of the iron contains 4% carbon ? (a) Fan of anode
(a) Cast iron (b) Pig iron
(b) Metal of anode
(c) Wrought iron (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Impurities collected at anode in electrolysis during
74. Which of the following reaction takes place in blast furnace
during extraction of copper ? purification of metals
(a) 2Cu 2S 3O 2 o 2Cu 2O 2SO 2 (d) All of these
83. The process of zone refining is used in the purification of
(b) 2FeS 3O 2 o 2FeO 2SO 2
(a) Si (b) Al
(c) 2Cu 2O Cu 2S o 6Cu SO 2
(d) All of these (c) Ag (d) Cu

*(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176 83
84. Which of the following statements regarding 89. Read the following statements
chromatography is incorrect ? (i) The principle that the impurities are more soluble in
(a) It is based on the principle that different components the melt than in the solid state is used in the
of mixture gets adsorbed differently on an adsorbent manufacture of high purity semiconductors.
(b) Column chromatography involves column of Al2O3 in (ii) Van Arkel method of refining Zr involves heating of
a glass tube as a stationary phase. crude metal with Cl2 to form corresponding halide.
(c) The mobile phase may be a gas, a liquid or a solid. (iii) Mond process for refining of nickel involves formation
(d) Component which is more soluble is stationary phase of metal carbonyls as an intermediate.
takes longer time to travel. Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
85. Which of the following metal is used in the manufacture of above ?
dye-stuffs and paints ? (a) TTT (b) FFT
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) TFT (d) FTF
(c) Aluminium (d) Magnesium
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
86. Read the following statements Column - I Column - II
(i) Magnetic separation method is employed when one (A) Fe 2 O3 .xH 2O(s) o ' (p) Slag formation
component either ore or gangue is magnetic in nature.
Fe2O3 (s) xH 2O(g)
(ii) Depressant NaCN used in case of ore containing
mixture of ZnS and PbS allows ZnS to come with froth (B) FeO SiO2
o FeSiO3 (q) Reduction of
and prevents PbS from coming to the froth. iron oxide
(C) Discharge gas produced (r) Calcination
(iii) For concentration powdered bauxite ore is digested
during this process is utilised
with conc.NaOH at 473–523K and 35–36 bar pressure.
in manufacture of H2SO4.
(D) Fe2 O3 3C o 2Fe 3CO (s) Roasting
above ?
(a) A– (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(a) TFT (b) TTF
(b) A– (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q)
(c) FTF (d) FFT (c) A– (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
87. Which of the following statements related to Ellingham (d) A– (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
diagrams are correct ? 91. Match the columns
(i) It provides a sound basis for the choice of reducing Column - I Column - II
agent in the reduction of oxides. (A) According to 'r G 9 vsT (p) Sulphur oxide
(ii) Each Ellingham plot is represented by a straight line graph, oxide of this metal
untill unless there is some change in phase i.e. can be easily reduced to
solidoliquid, liquid o gas and gas o liquid occurs. corresponding metal by
(iii) Diagrams similar to Ellingham can be constructed for heating with coke
sulphides and halides which clearly indicates why (B) Substance responsible for (q) Copper
reduction of MxS is difficult in comparison to MxO. the blistered appearence
(iv) Ellingham diagrams predicts the tendency of reduction of the copper obtained as
with a reducing agent and kinetics of the reduction result of extraction of
process. copper from cuprous oxide
(C) Metal which during (r) Na3AlF6 or CaF2
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
purification is distilled
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) off and collected by
88. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? rapid chilling
(i) Cast iron is used in the manufacture of railway sleepers (D) On addition to Al2O3 its (s) Zinc
(ii) Wrought iron is used in the manufacture of anchors, melting point gets reduced
bolts, chains etc. and conductivity gets
enhanced
(iii) Nickel steel is used in making pendulums.
(a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (r)
(a) Only (i) (b) (i) and (ii) (b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iii) (c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(d) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s)

84 *(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176
92. Match the columns. (a) A – (r), B – (s), C – (t), D – (q), E – (p)
Column-I Column-II (b) A – (s), B – (r), C – (t), D – (q), E – (p)
(A) Blisterred Cu (p) Aluminium (c) A – (s), B – (t), C – (r), D – (q), E – (p)
(B) Blast furnace (q) 2Cu2O + Cu2S o 6Cu + SO2 (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q), E – (t)
(C) Reverberatory (r) Iron 97. Match the columns
furnace Column-I Column-II
(D) Hall-Heroult (s) FeO + SiO2 o FeSiO3 (A) This metal is used in (p) Zinc
process extraction of chromium
(t) 2Cu2S + 3O2 o2Cu2O + 2SO2 and manganese.
(a) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p) (B) Common metal in brass (q) Aluminium
(b) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (t) and bronze.
(C) Common metal in brass (r) Copper
(c) A – (t), B – (s), C – (r), D – (q)
and german silver.
(d) A – (s), B – (t), C – (r), D – (q)
(D) Substance used in making (s) Stainless steel
cycles, automobiles,
Column-I Column-II
utensils, etc.
(A) Coloured bands (p) Zone refining
(a) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
(B) Impure metal to volatile (q) Fractional (b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s)
complex distillation (c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s)
(C) Purification of Ge and Si (r) Mond Process (d) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
(D) Purification of mercury (s) Chromatography
(t) Liquation $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (t)
(b) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q) Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
(c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q) Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
(d) A – (t), B – (s), C – (r), D – (q) alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
94. Match the columns. have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
Column-I Column-II
explanation for assertion.
(A) Cyanide process (p) Ultrapure Ge
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
(B) Froth Floatation Process (q) Dressing of ZnS
(C) Electrolytic reduction (r) Extraction of Al
(D) Zone refining (s) Extraction of Au
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(t) Purification of Ni 98. Assertion : Levigation is used for the separation of oxide
(a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p) ores from impurities.
(b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (t) Reason : Ore particles are removed by washing in a current
(c) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s) of water.
(d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (t), D – (p) 99. Assertion : Zinc can be used while copper cannot be used
95. Match the columns in the recovery of Ag from the complex [Ag(CN)2]–.
Column-I Column-II Reason : Zinc is a powerful reducing agent than copper.
(A) Cyanide process (p) Ultrapure Ge 100. Assertion : Leaching is a process of reduction.
(B) Floatation process (q) Pine oil Reason : Leaching involves treatment of the ore with a
(C) Electrolytic reduction (r) Extraction of Al suitable reagent so as to make it soluble while impurities
(D) Zone refining (s) Extraction of Au remains insoluble.
(a) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) 101. Assertion : Coke and flux are used in smelting.
(b) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p) Reason : The phenomenon in which ore is mixed with
(c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) suitable flux and coke is heated to fusion is known as
(d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q) smelting.
96. Match the columns 102. Assertion : Copper obtained after bessemerization is known
Column-I Column-II as blister copper.
(A) Distillation (p) Zr Reason : Blisters are produced on the surface of the metal
(B) Electrolytic refining (q) Ga due to escaping of dissolved SO2.
(C) Liquation (r) Cu 103. Assertion : Lead, tin and bismuth are purified by liquation
(D) Zone refining (s) Hg method.
(E) Vapour phase refining (t) Sn Reason : Lead, tin and bismuth have low m.p. as compared
to impurities.

*(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176 85
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 114. Consider the following reactions at 1000°C
1
A. Zn(s) O (g) o ZnO(s); 'Gq 360kJ mol1
104. Copper can be extracted from 2
2
(a) Kupfernical (b) Dolomite
1
(c) Malachite (d) Galena B. C(gr) O 2 (g) o CO(g); 'Gq 460kJ mol –1
105. Which of the following metal is correctly matched with its 2
ore? Choose the correct statement at 1000°C
(a) zinc can be oxidised by carbon monoxide.
Metal Ore
(b) zinc oxide can be reduced by graphite
(a) Zinc Calamine
(c) carbon monoxide can be reduced by zinc.
(b) Silver Ilmenite (d) both statements (a) and (b) are true
(c) Magnesium Cassiterite 115. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of
(d) Tin Azurite roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?
106. Which ore contains both iron and copper?
(a) The 'G of of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2
(a) Cuprite (b) Chalcocite
and H2S.
(c) Chalcopyrite (d) Malachite
(b) The 'Gof is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to
107. Sulfide ores are common for the metals
oxide.
(a) Ag, Cu and Pb (b) Ag, Mg and Pb
(c) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermo-
(c) Ag, Cu and Sn (d) Al, Cu and Pb
dynamically feasible.
108. Which one of the following does not occur as sulphide
(d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for
ore?
reduction of metal sulphides.
(a) Zn (b) Cr
116. Which of the following statement is not correct about
(c) Ag (d) Fe
Ellingham diagram?
109. Pyrolusite is a/an
(a) 'G increases with an increase in temperature
(a) oxide ore (b) sulphide ore
(b) It consists of plots of 'fGº vs T for formation of oxides
(c) carbide ore (d) Not an ore
110. Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth (c) a coupling reaction can be well expressed by this
diagram
flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores
offer an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching? (d) It express the kinetics of the reduction process
(a) Galena (b) Copper pyrite 117. A coupled reaction takes place as follow–
(c) Sphalerite (d) Argentite A + B ––––o C + D, ' Gº = + x kj
111. Which of the following statements is correct ? D + E ––––o F ' Gº = – y kj
(a) Gangues are carefully chosen to combine with the slag for the spontaneity of reaction A + B + E –––o C+F,
present in the ore to produce easily fusible flux to carry which of the following is correct?
away the impurities (a) 2x = y (b) x < y
(b) Slags are carefully chosen to combine with the flux (c) x > y (d) x = (y)× T'S
present in the ore to produce easily fusible gangue to 118. The value of 'f Gº for formation of Cr2O3 is – 540 kJmol–1
carry away the impurities and that of Al2O3 is – 827 kJ mol–1 What is the value of
(c) Gangues are carefully chosen to combine with the flux 'rG° for the reaction?
present in the ore to produce easily fusible slag to 4 2 2 4
carry away the impurities Al(s) + Cr2 O 3 (s) o Al 2 O 3 (s) Cr(s).
3 3 3 3
(d) Fluxes are carefully chosen to combine with the gangue
present in the ore to produce easily fusible slag to (a) – 574 kJ mol–1 (b) –287 kJ mol–1
(c) + 574 kJ mol –1 (d) +287 kJ mol–1
carry away the impurities
112. Carbon and CO gas are used to reduce which of the following 119. Before introducing FeO in blast furnace , it is converted to
pairs of metal oxides for extraction of metals ? Fe2O3 by roasting so that
(a) FeO, SnO (b) SnO, ZnO (a) it may not be removed as slag with silica
(c) BaO, Na2O2 (d) FeO, ZnO (b) it may not evaporate in the furnace
113. In the cyanide extraction process of silver from argentite (c) presence of it may increase the m.pt. of charge
ore, the oxidising and reducing agents used are (d) None of these.
(a) O2 and CO respectively 120. The temperature in °C at which Fe2O3 is finally reduced to
(b) O2 and Zn dust respectively Fe in the blast furnace is
(c) HNO3 and Zn dust respectively (a) 993 (b) 797
(d) HNO3 and CO respectively (c) 897 (d) 1597

86 *(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176
121. When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a reverberatory 127. Which of the following reaction(s) occur in temperature
furnace copper matte is produced. The copper matte range 500 – 800 K in blast furnace.
contains________. (i) Fe2O3 CO o 2FeO CO2
(a) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II) (ii) Fe3O4 4CO o 3Fe 4CO2
(b) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III) (iii) FeO CO o Fe CO 2
(c) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)
(iv) C CO 2 o 2CO
(d) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
122. In the metallurgy of aluminium _________.
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv) only
(a) Al3+ is oxidised to Al (s). 128. In Hall-Heroult process how much carbon anode is burnt
(b) graphide anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and away to produce each 1kg of aluminium ?
carbon dioxide. (a) 0.3 kg (b) 0.5 kg
(c) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the reaction at (c) 1 kg (d) 0.1 kg
anode. 129. In electro-refining of metal the impure metal is used to make
(d) oxidation state of oxygen changes in the overall the anode and a strip of pure metal as the cathode, during
reaction involved in the process. the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of a complex metal
123. In the extraction of chlorine from brine_________. salt. This method cannot be used for refining of
(i) ' G 4 for the overall reaction is negative. (a) Silver (b) Copper
(ii) 'G 4 for the overall reaction is positive. (c) Aluminium (d) Sodium
(iii) E4 for overall reaction has negative value. 130. During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some
(iv) E4 for overall reaction has positive value. metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) Fe and Ni (b) Ag and Au
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (c) Pb and Zn (d) Sn and Ag
124. Cu 2S 2Cu 2O o 6Cu SO2 131. If the impurities in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen
In which process of metallurgy of copper, above equation and is more easily oxidised than the metal, then the
is involved? purification of metal may be carried out by
(a) Roasting (b) Self reduction (a) distillation (b) zone refining
(c) Refining (d) Purification (c) electrolytic refining (d) cupellation
125. Which of the following statements regarding metallurgy of 132. Germanium of very high purity is obtained by
iron is incorrect ? (a) liquation (b) vapour phase refining
(a) Reaction Fe3O 4 4CO o 3Fe 4CO 2 belongs to (c) distillation (d) zone refining
lower temperature range (500 – 800K) of the blast 133. Which of the following statements regarding electrolytic
furnace. refining of copper is incorrect ?
(b) Reaction FeO CO o Fe CO 2 belongs to (a) In this process anode is made up of impure copper and
higher temperature range (900 – 1500K) of the blast pure copper strips are taken as cathode.
furnace. (b) Acidic or basic solution of copper sulphate is used as
(c) The iron obtained from blast furnace is cast iron with electrolyte
3% carbon. (c) Antimony, tellurium, silver and gold are some of the
(d) For reduction of iron oxide to occur 'G of the couple metals deposits as anode mud during this process
of following reactions should be negative (d) Zinc can be also refined by electrolytic refining method.
1 134. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
FeO(s) o Fe(s) O 2 (g)
2 Metal Uses
1 (a) Wrought iron Casting stoves, gutter
C(s) O2 (g) o CO(g)
2 pipes, toys etc.
126. Extraction of which of the following is based on oxidation ? (b) Copper Coinage alloy
(a) Highly reactive metals (c) Aluminium Extraction of chromium and
(b) Moderately reactive metals
manganese
(c) Non-metals
(d) Nickel steel Measuring tapes
(d) Both (a) and (c)

*(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176 87
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 25. (a)

26. (b) Leaching is a process used for concentration of ore. In
1. (a) Argentite or silver glance (Ag 2S) is an ore of Ag. this process, a powdered ore is treated with a suitable
reagent (such as acids, bases or other chemicals)
2. (a) Cinnabar (HgS) is an ore of Hg.
which can selectively dissolve the ore, but not the
3. (a) Bauxite ore of aluminium is Al 2 O3.2H 2O . impurities.
4. (a) 27. (d) Au and Ag can be extracted from their native ores by
5. (b) Al is most abundant metal on the surface of the earth. leaching (Mac-Arthur Forrest cyanide process).
6. (c) Carborundum - SiC 28. (c)
Epsomite or Epsom salt - MgSO4.7H2O 29. (c) Cinnabar is sulphide ore (HgS). Hence purified by froth
Cassiterite - SnO2 floatation process.
Spodumene - Ore of lithium 30. (a) Ag is leached by cyanide process.
7. (a) Chalcopyrite : CuFeS2 31. (c) Pyrolusite is MnO2. Hence not concentrated by froth
Fool's gold : FeS2 floatation process.
Carnalite : KMgCl3.6H2O 32. (c) Froth reduces the surface tension of water and the
Bauxite : Al2O3.2H2O solution forms froth.
8. (c) Haematite is Fe2O3. Thus it is the ore of iron (Fe). 33. (a) Froth flotation process is based on wetting properties
9. (c) Azurite is a basic carbonate ore of copper. of ore particles.
2CuCO3. Cu(OH)2 34. (c) The surface of particles not wetted hence they float at
10. (d) Fe3O4 – Magnetite the surface
CuCO3·Cu(OH)2 – Malachite 35. (a) To remove moisture and non-metallic impurities like S,
Pyrolusite – MnO2 and Cassiterite – SnO2. P and As are oxidised and are removed as volatile
11. (a) substances.
12. (a) The formula of magnetite is Fe3O4. S8 8O 2 o 8SO 2 n ; P4 5O2 o P4 O10 n
13. (c) Impurities associated with minerals are called gangue
4As 3O2 o 2As2O3 n
or matrix.
36. (c) In this process sulphide ores are converted into oxide
14. (c)
ores.
15. (b) Malachite is an ore of copper Cu OH 2 .CuCO3 . 2ZnS + 3O2 o 2ZnO + 2SO2n
16. (d) Cassiterite is an ore of Sn also known as tin stone 37. (a) 38. (d)
SnO2. 39. (a) Carbon reduction, Fe2O3 + 3 C o 2Fe + 3CO
17. (a) Galena is an ore of lead. It is PbS. 40. (b) Flux + Gangue o Slag
18. (a) Gold being least reactive found native. 41. (a) Calcination is heating ore in absence of air to remove
19. (a) moisture and volatile impurities. Carbonate ores
20. (c) Zincite is ZnO. decomposed to corresponding oxides as a result of
21. (c) Galena is PbS and thus purified by froth floatation calcination.
method. 42. (d) Calcination is a process of heating a substance to a
Froth flotation method is used to concentrate sulphide high temperature but below the melting or fusion point,
ores. This method is based on the fact that the surface causing loss of moisture, reduction or oxidation and
of sulphide ores is preferentially wetted by oils while dissociation into simpler substances.
that of gangue is preferentially wetted by water. 43. (b) Since silica is acidic impurity the flux must be basic.
22. (d) Froth floatation process is used for the concentration CaO SiO2 o CaSiO3
of sulphide ores. 44. (b) To remove acidic impurities basic flux is added which
23. (b) Cassiterite contains the magnetic impurities of FeSO 4 is CaCO3 .
and thus concentrated by electromagnetic separation. 45. (d) Decomposition of carbonates and hydrated oxides.
24. (d) Cyanide process is used in the metallurgy of Ag 46. (d) 2CuO CuS o 3Cu SO 2 (Self - reduction)
2Ag 2S 8 NaCN O 2 2 H 2 O o 47. (a) For example, Ag2S is converted into Na[Ag(CN)2].
4 Na[ Ag (CN ) 2 ] 4 NaOH 2S When Zn is added, Ag is displaced.
48. (b)
2 Na [ Ag ( CN ) 2 ] Zn o Na 2 [ Zn (CN ) 4 ] 2 Ag p

88 *(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176
49. (c) Cresol is used as froth stabiliser. 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a)
50. (b) Calcination involves heating when the volatile matter 71. (d) Blister-Copper contains 1 – 2 % impurities. It is
escapes leaving behind the metal oxide. obtained after Bessemerisation of crude copper.
51. (b) In the graph of 'r G° vs T for formation of oxides, the 72. (a)
Cu2O line is almost at the top. So, it is quite easy to 73. (b) Pig iron contains 4% carbon and many impurities in
reduce oxide ores of copper directly to the metal by smaller amount.
heating with coke both the lines of C, CO and C, CO 2 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (a)
are at much lower temperature (500 - 600 K). 523K 1700K
77. (a) Ti 2I2 o TiI4
o Ti 2I 2
Cu 2 O C o 2Cu CO Volatile Pure metal
52. (d) Stable compound
53. (c) Ellingham diagram normally consists of plots of 'fGº 78. (c) Liquation process, Mond’s process and, van Arkel
Vs T for the formation of oxides of elements. process these are the refining processes that are applied
54. (c) depending upon the nature of the metal under treatment
55. (b) Fe2 O3 3CO o 2Fe 3CO 2 and nature of the impurities whereas amalgamation
56. (c) process is used for the extraction of noble metals like
gold, silver, etc, from native ores. The metal is
57. (c) In blast furnace at about 1270 K, calcium carbonate is
recovered from the amalgam by subjecting it to
almost completely decomposed to give CaO which acts
distillation, where the mercury distils over leaving
as a flux and combines with SiO2 present as impurity
behind the metal.
(gangue) in the ore to form calcium silicate (fusible
slag) Hg-vapours
CaO(s) (basic flux) + SiO2 (s) (acidic flux) o Ore + Hg oAmalgam Distilled
CaSiO3 (s) (slag) Metal
58. (b) These are the substances which can withstand very 79. (b) Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method.
high temperature without melting or becoming soft. 870K
Zr(s ) 2I2 ( g ) o ZrI4 ( g )
59. (a)
2075K
60. (d) Cast iron is different from pig iron and is made by ZrI4 ( g )
o Zr(s ) 2I 2 ( g )
Tugsten filament
melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air
523K
Ti(s) + 2I2(s)
blast. It has slightly lower carbon content (about 3%) o TiI4(g)
and is extremely hard and brittle.
1700K
61. (a) Cuprous oxide formed during roasting of cuprous
sulphide is mixed with few amount of cuprous sulphide Ti(s) + 2I2(g)
and heated in a reverberatory furnace to get metallic Pure titanium
copper. 80. (a) Zone refining is based on the difference in solubility
2Cu 2O Cu 2S o 6Cu SO2 of impurities in molten and solid state of the metal.
This method is used for obtaining metals of very high
62. (b) Extraction of Zn from ZnS (Zinc blende) is achieved
purity.
by roasting followed by reduction with carbon.
81. (d) Si obtained by reduction of SiCl4 with H2 is further
2ZnS + 3O2 o 2ZnO + 2SO2 purified by zone refining method to get Si of very high
ZnO + C o Zn + CO purity. Silicon is purified by zone-refining process
63. (d) Decomposition of carbonates and hydrated oxides. because the impurities present in it are more soluble in
64. (b) Aluminothermite process involves reduction of oxides the liquid phase than in the solid phase.
which are not satisfactorily reduced by carbon such 82. (c) 83. (a)
as Fe 2 O 3 , Mn 3 O 4 , Cr 2 O 3 , etc. to metals with 84. (c) Mobile phase cannot be solid.
aluminium. 85. (b) Zinc dust is used as a reducing agent in the manufacture
Cr2 O3 2Al o Al 2 O 3 2Cr 'H ve of dye-stuffs, paints etc.
65. (c) Because Na is very reactive and cannot be extracted
by means of the reduction by C, CO etc. So it is extracted 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
by electrolysis. 86. (a) For ore containing mixture of ZnS and PbS, depressant
66. (c) NaCN allows PbS to come with froth and prevents
67. (c) Fused alumina (Al2O3) is a bad conductor of electricity. ZnS from coming to the froth.
Therefore, cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF2) are 87. (b) Ellingham diagram represents plot between 'G and T
added to purified alumina which not only make alumina therefore with increase in temperature phase change
a good conductor of electricity but also reduce the Gas o Liquid is not possible. Ellingham diagram does
melting point of the mixture to around 1140 K. not give any information about kinetics of the reduction
reaction.

*(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176 89
88. (c) 110. (d) Leaching is the selective dissolution of the desired
89. (c) Van Arkel method involves heating crude Zr with mineral leaving behind the impurities in a suitable
iodine to form corresponding iodide. The metal iodide dissolving agent e.g.,
being more covalent volatilises. Argentitie or Silver glance, Ag2S is an ore of silver.
Silver is extracted from argentite by the mac-Arthur
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 and Forest process (leaching process).
90. (a) 91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) Ag 2S 4NaCN o 2Na[Ag CN 2 ] Na 2S
95. (b) Cyanide process is for gold (A - s); floatation process
- pine oil (B - q); Electrolytic reduction - Al (C - r); 4Au 8KCN 2H 2O O 2 o 4K[Au CN 2 ] 4KOH
Zone refining -Ge (D - p). 111. (d) 112. (d)
96. (b) 97. (a) 113. (b) The reactions involved in cyanide extraction process
are :
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
Ag 2 S + 4NaCN o 2Na [Ag(CN)2] + Na2S
98. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (argentite)
Oxide ores being heavier than the earthy or rocky
4Na2S + 5O 2 + 2H2O o 2Na2SO4 + 4NaOH + 2S
gangue particles, settle down while lighter impurities
Oxiding
are washed away. agent
99. (a)
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn o Na2 [Zn(CN)4] + 2
100. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true. Leaching is a (reducing
agent)
process of concentration.
101. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not Ag p
the correct explanation of assertion. Non fusible mass 114. (b)
present in ore in mixing with suitable flux are fused 115. (d) The sulphide ore is roasted to oxide before reduction
which are then reduced by coke to give free metal.
because the 'Gof of most of the sulphides are greater
102. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is
than those of CS2 and H2S, therefore neither C nor H
the correct explanation of assertion.
can reduce metal sulphide to metal. Further, the
103. (a) standard free energies of formation of oxide are much
less than those of SO2. Hence oxidation of metal
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
sulphides to metal oxide is thermodynamically
104. (c) Malachite is CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2 it is ore of copper. favourable.
105. (a) (a) Zinc Calamine is ZnCO3 116. (d) Ellingham diagrams are based on thermodynamic
(b) Silver Ilmenite is FeTiO3 concepts. It does not tell anything about the kinetics
(c) Magnesium Cassiterite is SnO2 of the reduction process.
(d) Tin Azurite is 117. (d) For a spontaneous reaction , ' Gº must be negative
and it can be possible only in this case when x < y
[2CuCO3.Cu (OH)2]
118. (b) The two equation are:
106. (c) Cuprite : Cu2O; Chalcocite : Cu2S; Chalcopyrite : CuFeS2;
Malachite: Cu(OH)2 .CuCO3. We see that CuFeS2 4 2
Al(s) O 2 (g) o Al2 O3 (s), ' f Gº 827kJ mol 1
contains both Cu and Fe. 3 3
107. (a) Silver, copper and lead are commonly found in earth's … (1)
crust as Ag2S (silver glance), CuFeS2 (copper pyrites) 4 2
and PbS (galena) Cr(s) O 2 (g) o Cr2 O3 (s), ' f Gº 540kJ mol 1
3 3
108. (b) Except chromium all the given metals exists as their
… (2)
sulphides.
Subtracting equation (ii) from equation (i) we have,
Zn exists as zinc blende ZnS.
Silver exists as silver glance Ag2S. 4 2 2 4
Al(s) Cr2O3 (s) o Al 2O 3 (s) Cr(s),
Iron exists as iron pyrites FeS2. 3 3 3 3
Mercury exists as mercuric sulphide HgS. ' r Gq 287kJ mol1
109. (a) MnO2 is pyrolusite (oxide ore).

90 *(1(5$/35,1&,3/(6$1'352&(66(62),62/$7,212)(/(0(176
119. (a) FeO is capable forming slag with SiO2 126. (c) Extraction of non-metals are based on oxidation. For
example extraction of chlorine from brine.
SiO 2 FeO o FeSiO 3
2Cl–(aq) + 2H2O(l) o 2OH–(aq) + H2(g) + Cl2(g)
120. (a) In blast furnace Fe2O3 is finally reduced to Fe at 993°C 127. (a) (iii) and (iv) reactions occur in the temperature range of
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (b) 900 – 1500K in blast furnace.
124. (b) This process is also called autoreduction process or 128. (b) For each kg of Al produced, about 0.5 kg of carbon
air reduction process. The sulphide ores of less anode is burnt away.
electropositive metals are heated in air to convert part 129. (d) Na reacts vigorously with water (exothermic process )
of the ore into oxide or sulphate which then react with 130. (b) During the process of electrolytic refining of copper
the remaining sulphide ore to give the metal and Ag and Au are obtained as anode mud.
sulphur dioxide. 131. (d)
2Cu 2S 3O2
o 2Cu 2O 2SO2 132. (d) Metals of high purity are obtained by zone refining
Cu 2S 2Cu 2O
o6Cu SO2 e.g., silicon, germanium, boron, gallium, indium.
133. (b) During electrolytic refining of copper electrolyte used
125. (c) The iron obtained from blast furnace is pig iron with
is acidified solution of copper sulphate.
4% carbon and impurities like S, P, Mn etc., in small
134. (a) Wrought iron is used in making anchors, wires, bolts
amount.
chains and agricultural implements.

7
THE p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
(GROUP 15, 16, 17 AND 18)
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 10. Pick out the wrong statement.
(a) Nitrogen has the ability to form pS-pS bonds with itself.
1. Ionic radii (in Å) of As3+, Sb3+ and Bi3+ follow the order (b) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental state.
(a) As3+ > Sb3+ > Bi3+ (b) Sb3+ > Bi3+ >As3+ (c) Catenation tendency is higher in nitrogen when
(c) Bi3+ > As3+ > Sb3+ (d) Bi3+ > Sb3+ > As3+ compared with other elements of the same group.
2. Which of the following statements is not correct for (d) Nitrogen has higher first ionisation enthalpy when
nitrogen? compared with other elements of the same group.
(a) Its electronegativity is very high 11. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorus is converted into P4
(b) d-orbitals are available for bonding from P, the reason is
(c) It is a typical non-metal (a) Triple bond is present between phosphorus atom
(d) Its molecular size is small (b) pS – pS bonding is strong
3. Collectively the elements of group 15 are called – (c) pS – pS bonding is weak
(a) pnicogens (b) pnicopens
(d) Multiple bond is formed easily
(c) nicopen (d) None of these
12. What causes nitrogen to be chemically inert ?
4. Which one of the following elements is most metallic ?
(a) P (b) As (a) Multiple bond formation in the molecule
(c) Sb (d) Bi (b) Absence of bond polarity
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect for group 15 (c) Short internuclear distance
elements ? (d) High bond energy
(a) Order of ionization enthalpies is 13. Among the 15th group elements, as we move from nitrogen
' i H1 ' iH2 ' i H3 to bismuth, the pentavalency becomes less pronounced
(b) The boiling point and melting point increases from top and trivalency becomes more pronounced due to
to bottom in the group (a) Non metallic character (b) Inert pair effect
(c) Dinitrogen is a gas while all others are solids (c) High electronegativity (d) Large ionization energy
(d) All statements are correct 14. Pentavalence in phosphorus is more stable when compared
6. Which of the follow group 15 element forms metallic bonds to that of nitrogen even though they belong to same group.
in elemental state ? This is due to
(a) As (b) P (a) dissimilar electronic configuration
(c) Sb (d) Bi (b) due to presence of vacant d-orbitals
7. The three important oxidation states of phosphorus are (c) reactivity of phosphorus
(a) –3, +3 and +5 (b) –3, +3 and –5 (d) inert nature of nitrogen
(c) –3, +3 and +2 (d) –3, +3 and +4 15. Which one has the lowest boiling point ?
8. Nitrogen is relatively inactive element because (a) NH3 (b) PH3
(a) its atom has a stable electronic configuration (c) AsH3 (d) SbH3
(b) it has low atomic radius 16. Most acidic oxide among the following is –
(c) its electronegativity is fairly high
(a) N2O5 (b) P2O5
(d) dissociation energy of its molecule is fairly high
(c) N2O4 (d) As 2 O 3
9. Which of the following has the highest pS – pS bonding
tendency ? 17. Which of the following species has the highest dipole moment?
(a) N (b) P (a) NH3 (b) PH3
(c) As (d) Sb (c) AsH3 (d) SbH3

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18. The correct decreasing order of basic strength is: 29. NH3 gas is dried over :
(a) AsH3 ! SbH3 ! PH3 ! NH3 (a) CaO (b) HNO3
(b) SbH 3 ! AsH 3 ! PH 3 ! NH 3 (c) P2O5 (d) CuSO4
30. The shape of ammonia molecule is
(c) NH 3 ! PH 3 ! AsH 3 ! SbH 3
(a) tetrahedral (b) pyramidal
(d) PH 3 ! AsH 3 ! SbH 3 ! NH 3
(c) planar triangle (d) octahedral
19. Which of the following fluorides does not exist? 31. When ammonia is heated with cupric oxide, a molecule of
(a) NF5 (b) PF5 ammonia will
(c) AsF 5 (d) SbF5 (a) gain 3 electrons (b) lose 3 electrons
20. The p-block element of group 15 that forms predominantly (c) gain 2 electrons (d) lose 2 electrons
basic oxide is
32. In which the NH3 is not used ?
(a) N (b) P
(a) Cold storage
(c) As (d) Bi
(b) Anaesthetic
21. With respect to protonic acids, which of the following
statements is correct ? (c) Manufacture of rayon and plastic
(a) PH3 is more basic than NH3 (d) None of these
(b) PH3 is less basic than NH3 33. Liquid ammonia bottles are opened after cooling them in ice
(c) PH3 is equally basic as NH3 for sometime. It is because liquid NH3
(d) PH3 is amphoteric while NH3 is basic (a) Brings tears to the eyes
22. PCl5 is possible but NCl5 does not exist : (b) Has a high vapour pressure
(a) in N, d-sub-shell is absent (c) Is a corrosive liquid
(b) ionization energy of N is very high (d) Is a mild explosive
(c) it does not like Cl 34. Ammonia is generally manufactured for fertilizers by the
(d) None of these reaction
23. Maximum covalency of nitrogen is __________. (a) 2 NH 4 Cl Ca (OH ) 2 o CaCl 2 2H 2 O 2 NH 3
(a) 3 (b) 5 (b) By passing an electric discharge in a mixture of N2 and
(c) 4 (d) 6 H2
24. Elements of group-15 form compounds in +5 oxidation state. (c) By passing a mixture of N2 and H2 under high pressure
However, bismuth forms only one well characterised and moderate temperature over a catalyst
compound in +5 oxidation state. The compound is (d) None of these
(a) Bi2O5 (b) BiF5 35. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating :
(c) BiCl5 (d) Bi2S5 (a) KNO3 (b) Pb(NO3)2
25. Pure nitrogen is prepared in the laboratory by heating a mixture (c) Cu(NO3)2 (d) AgNO3
of
36. Which of the following oxides is neutral ?
(a) NH4OH + NaCl (b) NH4NO3 + NaCl
(a) N2O3 (b) N2O4
(c) NH4Cl + NaOH (d) NH4Cl + NaNO2.
(c) N2O5 (d) N2O
26. On heating ammonium dichromate and barium azide
separately we get 37. The bonds present in N2O5 are :
(a) N2 in both cases (a) only ionic (b) covalent and coordinate
(b) N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium (c) only covalent (d) covalent and ionic
azide 38. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a coloured
(c) N2O with ammonium dichromate and N2 with barium gas?
azide (a) N2O (b) NO
(d) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with barium (c) N2O5 (d) NO2
azide 39. Which of the following shows nitrogen with its increasing
27. In Haber’s process for the manufacture of NH 3 : order of oxidation number?
(a) NO < N2O < NO2 < NO3– < NH4+
(a) finely divided nickel is used as a catalyst
(b) NH4+ < N2O < NO2 < NO3– < NO
(b) finely divided iron is used as a catalyst
(c) finely divided molybdenum is used as a catalyst (c) NH4+ < N2O < NO < NO2 < NO3–
(d) no catalyst is necessary (d) NH4+ < NO < N2O < NO2 < NO3–
28. Ammonia on reaction with hypochlorite anion can form : 40. In which one of the following oxides of nitrogen, one
(a) NO (b) N2H4 nitrogen atom is not directly linked to oxygen?
(c) NH4Cl (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) NO (b) N2O4
(c) N2O (d) N2O3

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41. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen reacts with FeSO4 53. The nitrogen oxides that contain(s) N–N bond(s) is /are
to form a dark brown compound (i) N2O (ii) N2O3
(a) N2O (b) NO (iii) N2O4 (iv) N2O5
(c) NO2 (d) N2O3 (a) (i) , (ii) (b) (ii) , (iii) , (iv)
42. Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained on heating ammonium (c) (iii) , (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
nitrate at 250ºC ? 54. Zinc on reaction with dilute HNO3 gives x and zinc on
(a) Nitric oxide (b) Nitrous oxide reaction with concentrated HNO3 gives y. Identify x and y.
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Dinitrogen tetraoxide (a) x = NO2 , y = N2O (b) x = N2O , y = NO
43. Which of the following can be used as an anaesthesia ? (c) x = NO , y = NO2 (d) x = N2O , y = NO2
(a) N2O (b) NO 55. Which of the following is incorrect for white and red
(c) NCl3 (d) NO2 phosphorus ?
44. A deep brown gas is formed by mixing two colourless gases (a) They are both soluble in CS2
which are (b) They can be oxidised by heating in air
(a) NO2 and O2 (b) N2O and NO (c) They consist of the same kind of atoms
(d) They can be converted into one another
(c) NO and O2 (d) NH3 and HCl
56. Which of the following phosphorus is most reactive ?
45. Which of the following elements does not form stable
diatomic molecules ? (a) Red phosphorus (b) White phosphorus
(c) Scarlet phosphorus (d) Violet phosphorus
(a) Iodine (b) Phosphorus
57. White phosphorus is
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
(a) a monoatomic gas (b) P4, a tetrahedral solid
46. The catalyst used in the manufacture of HNO 3 by (c) P8, a crown (d) a linear diatomic molecule
Ostwald’s process is : 58. Which property of white phosphorus is common to
(a) platinum gauze (b) vanadium pentoxide red phosphorous ?
(c) finely divided nickel (d) platinum black . (a) It burns when heated in air.
47. Concentrated nitric acid, upon long standing, turns yellow (b) It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to give
brown due to the formation of phosphine.
(a) NO (b) NO2 (c) It shows chemiluminescence.
(c) N2O (d) N2O4 (d) It is soluble in carbon disulphide.
48. Which of the following trihalide is unstable? 59. Which of the following statements regarding allotropic
(a) NF3` (b) AsCl3 forms of phosphorus is incorrect?
(a) White phosphorus is more reactive than red and black
(c) SbBr3 (d) NCl3
due to high angular strain.
49. What will be the A and B in the following equations.
(b) Red phosphorus on heating catches fire and give
8NH3 3Cl2
o 6NH 4Cl N 2 dense red fumes of P4O10.
A (c) Red phosphorus is polymeric in nature consisting of
NH3 3Cl 2 o NCl3 3HCl chains of P4 tetrahedral.
B (d) Black phosphorus has two forms D-black and E-black
(a) A = Excess, B = Excess phosphorus
(b) A = Limited, B = Excess 60. Which of the following is incorrect?
(c) A = Excess, B = Limited (a) M.p of monoclinic sulphur > m.p. of rhombic sulphur.
(d) A = Limited, B = Limited (b) Specific gravity of rhombic sulphur > specific gravity
of monoclinic sulphur.
50. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent ?
(c) Monoclinic sulphur is stable below 369 K.
(a) NH3 (b) PH3
(d) Both rhombic sulphur and monoclinic sulphur have
(c) BiH3 (d) SbH3 S8 molecules.
51. Which of the following element will form acidic oxides of 61. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess
type E2O3? water gives
(a) As (b) Sb (a) one mole of phosphine
(c) Bi (d) P (b) two moles of phosphoric acid
52. Which one of the following is not an use of ammonia ? (c) two moles of phosphine
(a) To produce various nitrogenous fertilizers. (d) one mole of phosphorus pentoxide
(b) In manufacture of nitric acid 62. PH3, the hydride of phosphorus is
(c) As a refrigerate (a) metallic (b) ionic
(d) In the pickling of stainless steel (c) non-metallic (d) covalent

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63. Phosphine is not obtained by which of the following reaction (a) zero (b) two
(a) White P is heated with NaOH (c) three (d) four
(b) Red P is heated with NaOH 75. Oxidation states of P in H4 P2O5 , H4 P2O6 , and H4 P2O7 ,
(c) Ca3P2 reacts with water
are respectively:
(d) Phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water
(a) + 3, + 5, + 4 (b) + 5, + 3, + 4
64. Phosphine is not evolved when
(c) + 5, + 4, + 3 (d) + 3, + 4, + 5
(a) white phosphorus is boiled with a strong solution of
76. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?
Ba(OH)2
(a) 5 (b) 6
(b) phosphorus acid is heated
(c) 4 (d) 2
(c) calcium hypophosphite is heated
77. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids
(d) metaphosphoric acid is heated.
of phosphorus?
65. Pure phosphine is not combustible while impure phosphine
(a) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of
is combustible, this combustibility is due to presence of
triple superphosphate.
(a) P2 H 4 (b) N2 (b) Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.
(c) PH 5 (d) P2 O5 (c) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated
phosphorus.
66. When orthophosphoric acid is heated to 600°C, the product
(d) All oxoacids contain atleast one P = O and one P —
formed is
OH group.
(a) PH3 (b) P2O5
78. What is hybridization of P in PCl5 ?
(c) H3PO3 (d) HPO3
(a) sp3 (b) sp3 d 2
67. P2O5 is heated with water to give
(c) sp3 d (d) sp2
(a) hypophosphorous acid(b) phosphorous acid
79. Which of the following is a cyclic phosphate ?
(c) hypophosphoric acid (d) orthophosphoric acid
(a) H3 P3 O10 (b) H6 P4 O13
68. Basicity of orthophosphoric acid is
(c) H5 P5 O15 (d) H7 P5 O16
(a) 2 (b) 3
80. P—O—P bond is present in
(c) 4 (d) 5
(a) H4P2O6 (b) H4P2O5
69. PCl3 reacts with water to form
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(a) PH3 (b) H3PO4 and HCl
81. Orthophosphoric acid is
(c) POCl3 (d) H3PO4
(a) monobasic (b) dibasic
70. H3PO2 is the molecular formula of an acid of phosphorus.
(c) tribasic (d) tetrabasic
Its name and basicity respectively are
82. The oxyacid of phosphorous in which phosphorous has
(a) phosphorus acid and two
the lowest oxidation state is
(b) hypophosphorous acid and two
(a) hypophosphorous acid
(c) hypophosphorous acid and one
(b) orthophosphoric acid
(d) hypophosphoric acid and two
(c) pyrophosphoric acid
71. The structural formula of hypophosphorous acid is
(d) metaphosphoric acid
O O 83. The number of P—O—P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric
P P acid is
(a) H (b) H (a) zero (b) two
OH OH
H OH (c) three (d) four
84. Among the oxyacids of phosphorus, the dibasic acid is
O O (a) H4P2O7 (b) H3PO2
P P (c) HPO3 (d) H3PO3
(c) HO (d) H
OH OOH 85. The basicity of pyrophosphorus acid is
OH OH (a) 2 (b) 4
72. Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is (c) 1 (d) 5
(a) 6 (b) 7 86. The oxidation state of phosphorus in
(c) 17 (d) 16. cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is
73. The number of hydrogen atom(s) attached to phosphorus (a) +3 (b) +5
atom in hypophosphorous acid is (c) –3 (d) +2
(a) three (b) one 87. Which acid has P – P linkage ?
(c) two (d) zero (a) Hypophosphoric acid (b) Pyrophosphoric acid
74. The number of P – O – P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric (c) Metaphosphoric acid (d) Orthophosphoric acid
acid is

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88. In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single 100. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
and double bonds are present? (a) SF4 – gas (b) SeF4 – liquid
(a) 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds (c) TeF4 – solid (d) SF6 – solid
(b) 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds 101. The compound which gives off oxygen on moderate heating
(c) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds is :
(d) Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds (a) cupric oxide (b) mercuric oxide
89. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to (c) zinc oxide (d) aluminium oxide
(a) Low oxidation state of phosphorus 102. Oxygen molecule is
(b) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H bond (a) diamagnetic with no-unpaired electron(s)
(c) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds (b) diamagnetic with two unpaired electrons
(d) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus (c) paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons
90. In solid state PCl5 is a ________. (d) paramagnetic with no unpaired electron(s)
(a) covalent solid 103. The number of electrons that are paired in oxygen molecule
are
(b) octahedral structure
(a) 16 (b) 12
(c) ionic solid with [PCl6 ]+ octahedral and [PCl 4] –
(c) 14 (d) 7
tetrahedra
104. On heating KClO3 we get
(d) ionic solid with [PCl4 ]+ tetrahedral and [PCl 6 ]–
(a) KClO2 + O2 (b) KCl + O2
octahedra
(c) KCl + O3 (d) KCl + O2 + O3
91. Electron affinity of sulphur is
105. Which of the following is not oxidized by O3 ?
(a) more than O and Se
(a) KI (b) FeSO4
(b) more than O but less than Se
(c) KMnO4 (d) K2MnO4
(c) less than O but more than Se
106. About 20 km above the earth, there is an ozone layer. Which
(d) equal to O and Se one of the following statements about ozone and ozone
92. All the elements of oxygen family are layer is true?
(a) non metals (b) metalloids (a) Ozone has a triatomic linear molecule
(c) radioactive (d) polymorphic (b) It is harmful as it stops useful radiation
93. Which shows maximum catenation property ? (c) It is beneficial to us as it stops U.V radiation
(a) S (b) Se (d) Conversion of O3 to O2 is an endothermic reaction
(c) Te (d) O 107. Oxygen gas can be prepared from solid KMnO4 by :
94. Oxygen and sulphur both are the members of the same group
in periodic table but H2O is liquid while H2S is gas because (a) treating the solid with H 2 gas
(a) molecular weight of water is more (b) strongly heating the solid
(b) electronegativity of sulphur is more (c) dissolving the solid in dil. H 2SO 4
(c) H2S is weak acid
(d) dissolving solid in dil. HCl
(d) water molecules are having weak hydrogen bonds
108. Which of the following statements is correct :
between them
(a) Ozone is a resonance hybrid of oxygen
95. Which of the following hydrides has the lowest boiling
(b) Ozone is an isomer of oxygen
point?
(c) Ozone has no relationship with oxygen
(a) H2O (b) H2S
(d) Ozone is an allotropic modification of oxygen
(c) H2Se (d) H2Te 109. Which of the following on thermal decomposition gives
96. Which of the following hydrides is most acidic ? oxygen gas ?
(a) H2Te (b) H2Se (a) Ag2 O (b) Pb3O4
(c) H2O (d) H2S (c) PbO2 (d) All of these
97. Which of the following hydrides shows the highest boiling 110. Which of the following is an acidic oxide?
point ? (a) Mn 2O7 (b) Na2O
(a) H2O (b) H2S (a) N2O (b) BaO
(c) H2Se (d) H2Te 111. Atomicity of sulphur in rhombic sulphur is
98. Which is the best oxidising agent among the following ? (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) S (b) O (c) 8 (d) 6
(c) Se (d) Te 112. Which of the following form of the sulphur shows
99. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric ? paramagnetic behaviour ?
(a) SnO2 (b) CaO (a) S8 (b) S6
(c) SiO2 (d) CO2 (c) S2 (d) All of these

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113. What is X in the following reaction ? 126. Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as moderately strong oxidising agent.
X It oxidises both metals and nonmetals. Which of the
2SO2(g) + O2(g) o 2SO3(g) following element is oxidised by conc. H2SO4 into two
(a) V2O5 (b) CuO gaseous products?
(c) CuCl2 (d) MnO2 (a) Cu (b) S
114. Which of the following oxo acid of sulphur has O–O bond ? (c) C (d) Zn
(a) H2S2O7 (b) H2S2O8 127. Caro’s acid is
(c) H2S2O6 (d) H2S2O5 (a) H2SO3 (b) H3S2O5
115. Carbohydrates on reaction with conc. H2SO4 becomes (c) H2SO5 (d) H2S2O8
charred due to
128. Sulphuric acid reacts with PCl5 to give
(a) hydrolysis (b) dehydration
(a) thionyl chloride (b) sulphur monochloride
(c) hydration (d) oxidation
(c) sulphuryl chloride (d) sulphur tetrachloride
116. Which of the following is the key step in the manufacture of
sulphuric acid ? 129. Which one of the following reacts with conc. H2SO4?
(a) Burning of sulphur or sulphide ores in air to generate (a) Au (b) Ag
SO2 (c) Pt (d) Pb
(b) Conversion of SO2 to SO3 by the reaction with oxygen 130. The number of dative bonds in sulphuric acid molecule is
in presence of catalyst. (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) Absorption of SO3 in H2SO4 to give oleum. (c) 2 (d) 4
(d) Both (b) and (c) 131. What is the number of sigma ( V ) and pi ( S ) bonds present
117. Hybridization of S in SO3 is in sulphuric acid molecule ?
(a) sp 2 (b) sp 3 (a) 6 V , 2 S (b) 6 V , 0 S
(c) sp d2 (d) sp 3 d 2 (c) 2 V , 4 S (d) 2 V , 2 S
118. By which of the following SO2 is formed ? 132. Which characteristic is not correct about H2SO4 ?
(a) Reaction of dil. H2SO4 with O2 (a) Reducing agent (b) Oxidising agent
(b) Hydrolysis of dil. H2SO4 (c) Sulphonating agent (d) Highly viscous
(c) Reaction of conc. H2SO4 with Cu 133. Among F, Cl, Br and I the lowest ionization potential will be
(d) None of these of
119. Number of bonds in SO2 are (a) fluorine (b) chlorine
(a) two V and two S (b) two V and one S (c) bromine (d) iodine
(c) two V and three S (d) None of these 134. The electronegativity follows the order
120. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its (a) F > O > Cl > Br (b) F > Cl > Br > O
(a) oxidising property (b) acidic property (c) O > F > Cl > Br (d) Cl > F > O > Br
(c) reducing property (d) basic property
135. The bond energies of F2 , Cl2, Br2 and I2 are 155, 244, 193
121. The acid which has a peroxy linkage is and 151 kJ mol–1 respectively. The weakest bond will be in
(a) Sulphurous acid (b) Pyrosulphuric acid
(a) Br2 (b) Cl2
(c) Dithionic acid (d) Caro’s acid
(c) F2 (d) I2
122. S – S bond is not present in
136. The outer electronic structure of 3s2 3p5 is possessed by
(a) S 2 O 24 (b) S2 O 52 (a) O (b) Cl
(c) S2 O 32 (d) S2 O 27 (c) Br (d) Ar
137. Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of fluorine is less
123. Oleum is
than that of chlorine due to :
(a) castor Oil (b) oil of vitriol
(a) High ionization enthalpy of fluorine
(c) fuming H 2SO 4 (d) None of them
(b) Smaller size of chlorine atom
124. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless
fumes are evolved but in case of iodide salt, violet fumes (c) Smaller size of fluorine atom
come out. This is because (d) Bigger size of 2p orbital of fluorine
(a) H2SO4reduces HI to I2 138. Which one of the following order is correct for the bond
(b) HI is of violet colour energies of halogen molecules ?
(c) HI gets oxidised to I2 (a) I2 > Cl2 > Br2 (b) Br2 > Cl2 > I2
(d) HI changes to HIO3 (c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 (d) Cl2 > Br2 > I2
125. Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur? 139. The correct order of reactivity of halogens with alkalies is
(a) H2SO5 and H2S2O8 (b) H2SO5 and H2S2O7 (a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) F < Cl > Br < I
(c) H2S2O7 and H2S2O8 (d) H2S2O6 and H2S2O7 (c) F < Cl < Br < I (d) F < Cl < Br > I

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140. The correct order of increasing oxidising power is 154. Cl2 reacts with hot and conc. NaOH to give –
(a) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 > I2 (b) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 (a) NaClO (b) NaClO3
(c) Cl2> Br2 > F2 > I2 (d) I2 < Br 2 < Cl2 < F2 (c) NaClO2 (d) NaClO4
141. Fluorine is a stronger oxidising agent than chlorine in 155. When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution of sodium
aqueous solution. This is attributed to many factors except hydroxide, the products obtained are
(a) heat of dissociation (b) ionisation potential (a) Cl– + ClO– (b) Cl– + ClO 2
(c) heat of hydration (d) electron affinity
142. Fluorine exhibits an oxidation state of only –1 because (c) Cl– + ClO3 (d) Cl– + ClO 4
(a) it can readily accept an electron 156. Chlorine is liberated when we heat
(b) it is very strongly electronegative (a) KMnO4 + NaCl (b) K2Cr2O7 + MnO2
(c) it is a non-metal (c) Pb(NO3)2 + MnO2 (d) K2Cr2O7 + HCl
(d) it belongs to halogen family 157. Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine?
143. Which of the following halogen does not exhibit positive (a) Only MnO2
oxidation state in its compounds? (b) Only KMnO4
(a) Cl (b) Br (c) Both MnO2 and KMnO4
(c) I (d) F (d) Either MnO2 or KMnO4
144. The halogen that is most easily reduced is 158. The reaction of KMnO4 and HCl results in
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (a) oxidation of Mn in KMnO4 and production of Cl2
(c) Br2 (d) I2 (b) reduction of Mn in KMnO4 and production of H2
145. Which one of the following elements shows more than one (c) oxidation of Mn in KMnO4 and production of H2
oxidation states ? (d) reduction of Mn in KMnO4 and production of Cl2
(a) Sodium (b) Fluorine 159. Bleaching powder on standing forms mixture of :
(c) Chlorine (d) Potassium (a) CaO Cl 2 (b) CaO CaCl 2
146. Which of the following halogens exhibit only one oxidation (c) HOCl Cl 2 (d) CaCl 2 Ca (ClO3 ) 2
state in its compounds ?
160. Hydrochloric acid at 25ºC is
(a) Bromine (b) Chlorine
(a) ionic and liquid (b) covalent and liquid
(c) Fluorine (d) Iodine
(c) ionic and gas (d) None of these
147. Which of the following is the best description for the
161. Gaseous HCl is a poor conductor of electricity while its
behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below ?
aqueous solution is a good conductor this is because
H 2 O Br2 o HOBr HBr
(a) H 2 O is a good conductor of electricity
(a) Proton acceptor only
(b) Both oxidized and reduced (b) a gas cannot conduct electricity but a liquid can
(c) HCl gas does not obey Ohm’s law, whereas the solution
(c) Oxidized only
does
(d) Reduced only
(d) HCl ionises in aqueous solution
148. Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent?
162. Which one is most stable to heat –
(a) Br2 (b) I2 (a) HClO (b) HClO2
(c) Cl2 (d) F2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4
149. The correct order of heat of formation of halogen acids is 163. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than the
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI individual halogen because
(c) HCl > HF > HBr > HI (d) HCl > HBr > HF > HI (a) two halogens are present in place of one
150. Which is the weakest out of HF, HCl, HBr and HI? (b) they are more ionic
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) their bond energy is less than the bond energy of the
(c) HBr (d) HI halogen molecule
151. Which of the following is most volatile ? (d) they carry more energy
(a) HI (b) HBr 164. Which of the following is not the characteristic of
(c) HCl (d) HF interhalogen compounds ?
152. At room temperature, HCl is a gas while HF is a low boiling (a) They are more reactive than halogens
liquid. This is because (b) They are quite unstable but none of them is explosive
(a) H- F bond is covalent (b) H- F bond is ionic (c) They are covalent in nature
(c) HF has metallic bond (d) HF has hydrogen bond (d) They have low boiling points and are highly volatile.
153. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to 165. The hybridization in ICl7 is
(a) reduction (b) hydrogenation (a) sp3 d 3 (b) d2 sp 3
3
(c) sp d (d) sp3
(c) chlorination (d) oxidation

98 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
166. In which of the following reactions chlorine is both reduced 180. The noble gas which was discovered first in the sun and
and oxidized? then on the earth
(a) 2KMnO4 + 16HCl o 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 8H2O + 5Cl2 (a) argon (b) xenon
(b) 6NaOH + 3Cl2 o 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O (c) neon (d) helium
(c) NH3 + 3Cl2 o NCl3 + 3HCl 181. A radioactive element X decays to give two inert gases X is
(d) I2 + 6H2O + 5Cl2 o 2HIO3 + 10HCl (a) 238 (b) 226
92 U 88 Ra
167. Which of the following is observed when Cl2 reacts with (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
hot and concentrated NaOH? 182. Which of the following noble gases has the highest positive
(a) NaCl , NaOCl (b) NaCl , NaClO2 electron gain enthalpy value?
(c) NaCl , NaClO3 (d) NaOCl , NaClO3 (a) Helium (b) Krypton
168. Which one of the following noble gases is not found in the (c) Argon (d) Neon
atmosphere
183. Which inert gas show abnormal behaviour on liquefaction
(a) Rn (b) Kr
(a) Xe (b) He
(c) Ne (d) Ar
(c) Ar (d) Kr
169. The last member of the family of inert gases is
184. The ease of liquefaction of noble gases increases in the
(a) argon (b) radon
order
(c) xenon (d) neon
(a) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe
170. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the noble
(b) Xe < Kr < Ne < Ar < He
gases in their group in the periodic table?
(c) Kr < Xe < He < Ne < Ar
(a) Ar, He, Kr, Ne, Rn, Xe (b) He, Ar, Ne, Kr, Xe, Rn
(c) He, Ne, Kr, Ar, Xe, Rn (d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn (d) Ar < Kr < Xe < Ne < He
171. Which of the following noble gases do not have an octet 185. The correct order of solubility in water for He, Ne, Ar, Kr,
of electrons in its outermost shell? Xe is
(a) Neon (b) Radon (a) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(c) Argon (d) Helium (b) Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xe
172. Number of unpaired electrons in inert gas is (c) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
(a) zero (b) 8 (d) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe
(c) 4 (d) 18 186. Which one of the following elements is most reactive ?
173. In the following four elements, the ionisation potential of (a) He (b) Ne
which one is the highest ? (c) Ar (d) Xe
(a) Oxygen (b) Argon 187. Noble gases are group of elements which exhibit very
(c) Barium (d) Cesium (a) high chemical activity
174. Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble gases (b) low chemical activity
causes a decrease in their (c) minimum electronegativity
(a) ionisation energy (b) atomic radius (d) much paramagnetic properties
(c) boiling point (d) density 188. In XeF2, XeF4, XeF6 the number of lone pairs on Xe are
175. Which of the following noble gas is least polarisable? respectively
(a) He (b) Xe (a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c) Ar (d) Ne (c) 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1.
176. In which of the following groups, when He is placed, its all 189. Total number of lone pair of electrons in XeOF4 is
the properties are satisfied (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) with alkali metals (b) with halogens (c) 2 (d) 3
(c) with inert gases (d) None of these 190. Noble gases do not react with other elements because
177. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is (a) they have completely filled valence shell (ns2np6)
(a) He (b) Ne (b) the sizes of their atoms are very small
(c) Ar (d) Kr (c) they are not found in abundance
178. The lowest boiling point of helium is due to its (d) they are monoatomic
(a) inertness 191. Which one of the following reactions of xenon compounds
(b) gaseous nature is not feasible?
(c) high polarisability (a) 3XeF4 + 6H 2 O o 2Xe + XeO 3 +12HF +1.5O 2
(d) weak van der Waal’s forces between atoms (b) 2XeF2 + 2H 2 O o 2Xe + 4HF + O 2
179. Which of the noble gas has highest polarisability?
(a) He (b) Ar (c) XeF6 + RbF
o Rb[XeF7 ]
(c) Kr (d) Xe (d) XeO3 + 6HF o XeF6 + 3H 2 O

S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1' 99
192. Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs 207. Which statement about noble gases is not correct?
associated with Xe ? (a) Xe forms XeF6
(a) XeF4 (b) XeF6 (b) Ar is used in electric bulbs
(c) XeF2 (d) XeO3 (c) Kr is obtained during radioactive disintegration
193. The shape of XeO2F2 molecule is (d) He has the lowest b.pt among all the noble gases
(a) trigonal bipyramidal (b) square planar 208. The geometry of XeF6 is
(c) tetrahedral (d) see-saw (a) planar hexagon (b) regular octahedron
194. XeF4 on partial hydrolysis produces (c) distorted octahedron (d) square bipyramid
(a) XeF4 (b) XeOF2 209. Trigonal bipyramidal geometry is shown by :
(c) XeOF4 (d) XeO3 (a) XeO3F2 (b) XeO3F2
(c) FXeOSO2F (d) [XeF8]2–
195. Which element out of He, Ar, Kr and Xe forms least number
210. Which has trigonal bipyramidal shape ?
of compounds ?
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO3
(a) He (b) Ar
(c) XeO3F2 (d) XeOF2
(c) Kr (d) Xe
211. Argon is used
196. The element which has not yet been reacted with F2 is
(a) in filling airships
(a) Ar (b) Xe (b) to obtain low temperature
(c) Kr (d) Rn (c) in high temperature welding
197. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives (d) in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer
(a) Xe (b) XeO2 212. Noble gases are used in discharge tubes to gives different
(c) XeO3 (d) XeO4 colours. Reddish orange glow is due to
198. XeF4 involves which hybridization (a) Ar (b) Ne
(a) sp (b) sp 2 (c) Xe (d) Kr
(c) sp 2 d (d) sp 3 d 2 213. Which one of the following statements regarding helium is
199. Shape of XeOF4 is incorrect ?
(a) octahedral (b) square pyramidal (a) It is used to produce an d sustain powerful
(c) pyramidal (d) T-shaped superconducting magnets.
200. The hybridization of Xe in XeF2 is (b) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out
(a) sp 3 (b) sp 2 experiments at low temperatures.
(c) sp d3 (d) sp 2 d (c) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen
201. Which is a planar molecule ? because it is lighter and non-inflammable.
(a) XeO4 (b) XeF4 (d) It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors.
(c) XeOF4 (d) XeO2F2 214. The coloured discharge tubes for advertisement mainly
202. Which of the following has sp3 hybridization ? contain
(a) XeO3 (b) BCl3 (a) xenon (b) helium
(c) neon (d) argon
(c) XeF4 (d) BBr3
215. Sea divers go deep in the sea water with a mixture of which
203. The number of lone pair of electrons present on Xe in XeF 2
of the following gases
is
(a) O2 and He (b) O2 and Ar
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) O2 and CO2 (d) CO2 and Ar
(c) 2 (d) 1 216. Which of the following is the life saving mixture for an
204. Hybridization and structure of XeF4 is asthma patient ?
(a) sp3d, trigonal bipyramidal (a) Mixture of helium and oxygen
(b) sp3, tetrahedral (b) Mixture of neon and oxygen
(c) sp3d2, square planar (c) Mixture of xenon and nitrogen
(d) sp3d2, hexagonal (d) Mixture of argon and oxygen
205. Number of lon e pairs of electrons on Xe atoms 217. Which of the following statements are true?
XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 molecules are respectively (i) Only type of interactions between particles of noble
(a) 3, 2 and 1 (b) 4, 3 and 2 gases are due to weak dispersion forces.
(c) 2, 3 and 1 (d) 3, 2 and 0 (ii) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close
206. Which one of the following is correct pair with respect to to that of xenon.
molecular formula of xenon compound and hybridization (iii) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is redox reaction.
state of Xenon in it? (iv) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
(a) XeF4, sp3 (b) XeF2, sp (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) XeF2, sp3d (d) XeF4, sp2 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

100 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
218. Which of the following element has the property of diffusing (iii) All hydrides of oxygen family possess reducing
through most commonly used laboratory materials such as property which increases from H2S to H2Te.
rubber, glass or plastics. (iv) Among hexahalides of group 16 hexafluorides are the
(a) Xe (b) Rn onlys table halides.
(c) He (d) Ar (v) Dimeric monohalides of group 16 un dergo
219. Which of the following is used to produce and sustain disproportionation.
powerful superconducting magnets to form an essential (a) TFFTT (b) FTTFF
part of NMR spectrometer ? (c) FTFTF (d) TFTFT
(a) Ar (b) Ne 224. The correct statement(s) about O3 is(are)
(c) Rn (d) He (i) O—O bond lengths are equal
(ii) Thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 (iii) O3 is diamagnetic in nature
220. Which of the following statements are correct? (iv) O3 has a bent structure
(i) Arsenic and antimony are metalloids. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(ii) Phosphorus, arsenic and antimony are found mainly (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
as sulphide minerals. 225. Consider the following statements
(iii) Covalent redii increases equally from N to Bi.
(iv) Elements of group 15 have extra stability and higher (i) Reaction 2Fe3+ + SO2 + 2H2O o 2Fe2+ + SO24 + 4H+
ionisation energy due to exactly half filled ns2np3 shows reducing character of sulphur dioxide
electronic configuration. (ii) H2S2O8 contains four S = O, two S – OH and one O–
(v) In group 15 elements only nitrogen is gas whereas all O bond
others are solids. (iii) NH3 gas can be dried effectively by using conc.
(a) (i), (iv) and (v) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) H2SO4.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (v) (iv) One of the major use of H2SO4 is in the manufacture
221. Read the following statements regarding chemical reactivity of fertilizers.
of group 15 elements. Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
(i) Only compound of Bi with +5 oxidation state is BiF5. above?
(ii) Intermediate oxidation states for both nitrogen and (a) TTFF (b) TTFT
phosphorus disproportionate in both acid and alkali. (c) FTFT (d) TFFT
(iii) Nitrogen due to absence of d-orbitals in its valence
226. Which of the following statements regarding properties of
shell cannot form dS-pS bond as the heavier elements
halogens are correct?
thus R3P = O exists but R3N = O does not exists.
(i) Due to small size electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is
(iv) BiH3 is the strongest reducing agent amongst the
less than that of chlorine.
hydrides of nitrogen family.
(v) P2O3 is more acidic than P2O5. (ii) Iodine has same physical state but different colour as
Which of the following is the correct code for the statements compare to other members of the group.
above? (iii) Fluorine shows no positive oxidation state.
(a) FTFFT (b) FFTTF (iv) In X2(g) + H2O(l) o HX(aq) + HOX(aq)
(c) TFTTF (d) TFTFT (where X2 = Cl or Br)
222. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(i) All the three N—O bond lengths in HNO3 are equal. (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(ii) All P—Cl bond lengths in PCl5 molecule in gaseous 227. Consider the following statements regarding interhalogen
state are equal. compounds
(iii) P4 molecule in white phohsphorus have angular strain (i) For all types of interhalogen compounds
therefore white phosphorus is very reactive.
(iv) PCl5 is ionic in solid state in which cation is tetrahedral XX1, XX13 , XX15 and XX17 X is the halogen of
and anion is octahedral. lesser electronegativity in comparison to X1.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv) (ii) At 298 K all interhalogen compounds are either
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) only
volatile solids or liquids.
223. Which of the following is the correct code for statements
(iii) ClF undergoes hydrolysis as below,
below ?
(i) Due to small size oxygen has less negative electron ClF + H2O o HF + HOCl
gain enthalpy than sulphur. (iv) Fluorine containing interhalogen compounds are very
(ii) Oxygen shows only –2 oxidation state whereas S, Se useful as fluorinating agents.
and Te shows +4 O.S in their compounds with oxygen (a) TTFF (b) TFTT
and +6 with fluorine. (c) FTFT (d) TFFT

S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1' 101
228. Which of the following statements are correct? 232. Match the columns.
(i) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and Column-I Column-II
fluorine is maximum. (Oxyacid) (Materials for
(ii) Leaving F—F bond, all halogens have weaker X—X preparation)
bond than X—Xc bond in interhalogens. (A) H3PO2 (p) Red P + alkali
(iii) Among interhalogen compounds maximum number of (B) H3PO3 (q) P4O10 + H2O
atoms are present in iodine fluoride.
(C) H3PO4 (r) P2O3 + H2O
(iv) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than
(D) H4P2O6 (s) White P + alkali
halogen compounds.
(a) (A) – (s), (B) – (r), (C) – (q), (D) – (p)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (A) – (p), (B) – (r), (C) – (q), (D) – (s)
229. Which of the following statements are correct? (c) (A) – (s), (B) – (r), (C) – (p), (D) – (q)
(i) Natural abundance of noble gases is ~ 1% by volume (d) (A) – (q), (B) – (r), (C) – (p), (D) – (s)
of which Ar is the major constituent. 233. Match the columns
(ii) Noble gases have high positive values of electron Column - I Column - II
gain enthalpy. (A) POCl3 (p) Contains four P – OH
(iii) Preparation of XeF2 requires F2 in excess amount. two P = O and one
(iv) Complete hydrolysis of all three XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 P–O–P
gives Xe as one of product. (B) H4P2O5 (q) Yellowish white
chloride of phosphorus
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
reacts with moist air
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 (C) H4P2O6 (r) Contains four P – OH,
two P = O and one P – P
230. Match the columns bond
Column-I Column-II
(D) H4P2O7 (s) Colourless oily chloride
(A) 2Pb(NO3)2 o 673K (p) High pressure favours of phosphorus reacts
4NO2 + 2PbO + O2 the formation of with orthophosphoric
product acid
(B) N2(g) + O2(g) U (q) Product formed is acidic (a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
2NO(g) brown gas (b) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p)
(c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(C) NH4NO3 ' (r) This reaction occurs at
o (d) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
N2O + 2H2O a high temperature 234. Match the columns
about 2000 K Column - I Column - II
(D) N2(g) + 3H2(g) U (s) Product formed is a (A) Metal that shows no (p) Platinum
2NH3(g) neutral colourless gas reaction with dioxygen
(a) A – (r, s), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) (B) Metal forms strong (q) Nitrogen
(b) A – (q), B – (r,s), C – (s), D – (p) acidic oxide with oxygen
(c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r, s), D – (p) (C) A non-metal discharge (r) Manganese
(d) A – (q), B – (r, s), C – (p), D – (s)
of whose oxide might
be slowly depleting the
Column - I Column - II
concentration of the
(A) Used in manufacture (p) Ammonia
of calcium cyanamide ozone layer
(B) Used in manufacture (q) Nitric acid (D) Metal which forms (s) Aluminium
of nitric acid amphoteric oxide
(C) Used in pickling of (r) Dinitrogen (a) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s)
stainless steel (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(a) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q) (b) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q) (c) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
(c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p) (d) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r) (d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q)

102 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
235. Match the columns. (a) A – (p), B – (r, s), C – (p, q), D – (p, s)
Column-I Column-II (b) A – (r, s), B – (p), C – (r, s), D – (p, s)
(A) Pb3O4 (p) Neutral oxide (c) A – (p), B – (p, q), C – (r, s), D – (p, s)
(B) N2O (q) Acidic oxide (d) A – (p), B – (r, s), C – (p, s), D – (p, q)
(C) Mn 2O7 (r) Basic oxide 240. Match the columns.
(D) Bi2O3 (s) Mixed oxide Column-I Column-II
(a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s) (A) Partial hydrolysis of the (p) He
(b) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r) compound does not change
(c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) oxidation state of central atom
(d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q) (B) It is used in modern diving (q) XeF6
236. Match the columns. apparatus
Column-I Column-II (C) It is used to provide inert (r) XeF4
(A) SF4 (p) Tetrahedral atmosphere for filling electrical
(B) BrF3 (q) Pyramidal bulbs
(C) BrO3– (r) Sea-saw shaped (D) Its central atom is in sp3d2 (s) Ar
(D) NH4+ (s) Bent T-shaped hybridisation
(a) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s) (a) A – (p), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
(b) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p) (b) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
(c) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s) (c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(d) A – (p), B – (s), C – (r), D – (q) (d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s)
Column-I Column-II
(A) HClO2 (p) Contains all different
(A) XeF6 (p) sp3d3– distorted octahedral
bonds
(B) XeO3 (q) sp3d2 – square planar
(B) HClO3 (q) Contains maximum
(C) XeOF4 (r) sp3 – pyramidal
Cl = O bond
(D) XeF4 (s) sp3d2 – square pyramidal
(C) HClO (r) Contains Cl with lowest
O.S. (a) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q)
(D) HClO4 (s) Contains three types of (b) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (r)
bonds (c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(a) A – (s), B – (p, s), C – (p, r), D – (q, s) (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(b) A – (p, s), B – (s), C – (p, r), D – (q, s)
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(c) A – (s), B – (p, r), C – (p, s), D – (q, s)
(d) A – (p, s), B – (s), C – (q, s), D – (p, r) Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
238. Match the columns. Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
Column - I Column - II alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(Oxides of halogens) (Uses) have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(A) O2F2 (p) in water treatment (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
(B) ClO2 (q) in estimation of CO explanation for assertion.
(C) I2O5 (r) for removing plutonium (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
from spent nuclear fuel. correct explanation for assertion
(a) A – (q) , B – (p), C – (r) (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q) (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(c) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q) 242. Assertion : Dinitrogen is inert at room temperature.
(d) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p) Reason : Dinitrogen directly combines with lithium to form
239. Match the columns ionic nitrides.
Column - I Column - II 243. Assertion : N2 is less reactive than P4.
(A) XeF4 (p) Contains similar types Reason : Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than
of bonds phosphorus.
(B) XeOF4 (q) Contains maximum lone 244. Assertion : When a metal is treated with conc. HNO3 it
pair generally yields a nitrate, NO2 and H2O.
(C) XeF2 (r) Square pyramidal Reason : Conc. HNO3 reacts with metal and first produces
geometry a metal nitrate and nascent hydrogen. The nascent hydrogen
(D) XeO3 (s) Contains one lone pair then further reduces HNO3 to NO2.

S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1' 103
245. Assertion : White phosphorus is more reactive than red 256. What is the change observed when AgCl reacts with NH3?
phosphorus. (a) White ppt is formed
Reason : Red phosphorus consists of P4 tetrahedral units (b) Solution become colourless
linked to one another to form linear chains. (c) Yellow ppt is formed
246. Assertion : Bond angle of H2S is smaller than H2O. (d) No change is observed
Reason : Electronegativity of the central atom increases, 257. In which of the following equations the product formed
bond angle decreases. has similar oxidation state for nitrogen?
247. Assertion : Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as '
(i) NH4NO3 o N2O + 2H2O
S8 but oxygen exists as O2.
Reason : Oxfygen forms pS – pSmultiple bond due to small 673K
(ii) 2Pb(NO3)2 o 4NO2 + 2PbO + O2
size and small bond length but pS – pS bonding is not
possible in sulphur. (iii) 4HNO3 + P4O10
o 4HPO3 + 2N2O5
248. Assertion : SF6 cannot be hydrolysed but SF4 can be.
Reason : Six F atoms in SF6 prevent the attack of H2O on Cool
ZZZZX N O
(iv) 2NO2 YZZZZ
sulphur atom of SF6. 2 4
Heat
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
(c) (i) and (v) (d) (iii) and (iv)
249. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hydrides 258. What is Z in following reaction
gradually becomes closer to 90º on going from N to Sb. This CuSO4 + Z oCu3P2 +H2SO4
shows that gradually HgCl2 + Z oHg3P2 +HCl
(a) The basic strength of the hydrides increases (a) White phosphorus (b) Red phosphorus
(b) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H bonding (c) Phosphine (d) Orthophosphoric acid
(c) The bond energies of M-H bonds increase 259. Electronegativity of oxygen is more than sulphur yet H2S is
(d) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to the acidic while water is neutral. This is because
central atom (a) water is highly associated compound
250. Bond dissociation enthalpy of E—H (E = element) bonds is (b) molecular mass of H2S is more than H2O
given below. Which of the compounds will act as strongest (c) H2S is gas while H2O is a liquid
reducing agent? (d) H–S bond is weaker than H–O bond
Compound NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3 260. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by fractional
'diss (E—H)/kJ mol–1 389 322 297 255 distillation because
(a) NH3 (b) PH3 (a) oxygen is in a different group of the periodic table
(c) AsH3 (d) SbH3 from nitrogen
251. The deep blue colour produced on adding excess of (b) oxygen is more reactive than nitrogen
ammonia to copper sulphate is due to presence of (c) oxygen has higher b.p. than nitrogen
(d) oxygen has a lower density than nitrogen.
(a) Cu 2 (b) Cu ( NH 3 ) 24 261. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and
(c) Cu ( NH 3 ) 26 (d) Cu( NH3 ) 22 hence of lowest energy for SO3 ?
252. Blue solid which is obtained on reacting equimolar amounts O

of two gases at . is? S
S
(a) N2O (b) N2O3 (a) (b) O O
O O
(c) N2O4 (d) N2O5
253. Concentrated nitric acid, upon long standing, turns yellow
brown due to the formation of O O
(a) NO (b) NO2 S S
(c) N2O (d) N2O4 (c) (d)
254. In the reaction O O O O O
4HNO 3 P4 O10 o 4HPO 3 X , the product X is 262. Which one of the following arrangements does not give
(a) N2O5 (b) N2O3 the correct picture of the trends indicated against it ?
(c) NO2 (d) H2O (i) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidizing power
255. Ammonia on catalytic oxidation gives an oxide from which (ii) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electron gain enthalpy
nitric acid is obtained. The oxide is : (iii) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond dissociation energy
(iv) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electronegativity.
(a) N 2 O3 (b) NO
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) NO 2 (d) N 2 O5 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

104 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
263. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides 268. Which pair gives Cl 2 at room temperature :
(H–X) is
(a) HI > HCl < HF > HBr (b) HCl< HF > HBr < HI (a) NaCl + Conc. H 2SO 4 (b) Conc. HCl + KMnO4
(c) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (d) HI < HBr > HCl < HF
264. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases (c) NaCl + Conc. HNO 3 (d) NaCl + MnO2
in the order: 269. The elements which occupy the peaks of ionisation energy
(a) MF > MCl > MBr > MI (b) MF > MCl > MI > MBr curve are
(c) MI > MBr > MCl > MF (d) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
(a) Na, K, Rb, Cs (b) Na, Mg, Cl, I
265. Which of the following order is/are incorrect regarding the
property indicated against it? (c) Cl, Br, I, F (d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
(i) HF > HI > HBr > HCl : Thermal stability 270. End-product of the hydrolysis of XeF6 is
(ii) Cl2O7 > Cl2O6 > ClO2 > Cl2O : Acidic character (a) XeF4O (b) XeF2O2
(iii) SbCl3 > SbCl5 : Covalent character (c) XeO3 (d) XeO3 –
(iv) MCl > MBr : Ionic character + –
271. The formation of O2 [PtF6] is the basis for the formation of
(a) (iii) only (b) (ii) only
xenon fluorides. This is because
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
266. What is X and Y in the given reactions ? (a) O2 and Xe have comparable sizes
2X2 (g) + 2H2O (l) o4H+ (aq) + 4X– (aq) + O2 (g) (b) both O2 and Xe are gases
Y2 (g) + H2O (l) oHY(aq) + HOY(aq) (c) O2 and Xe have comparable ionisation energies
(a) X = Cl , Y = F (b) X = Cl , Y = Br (d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) X = F , Y = Cl (d) X = I , Y = F
272. What are the products formed in the reaction of xenon
267. Which of the following is correct about the reaction?
hexafluoride with silicon dioxide ?
heat
3NaClO o NaClO3 2NaCl (a) XeSiO4 + HF (b) XeF2 + SiF4
(a) It is disproportionation reaction (c) XeOF4 + SiF4 (d) XeO3 + SiF2
(b) Oxidation number of Cl decreases as well as increases 273. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral having :
in this reaction
(a) Two pS – dS bonds (b) One pS – dS bonds
(c) This reaction is used for the manufacture of halates
(d) All of these (c) Four pS – dS bonds (d) Three pS– dS bonds

S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1' 105
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 20. (d) Bi forms basic oxides whereas N and P form acidic and
As and Sb form amphoteric oxides.
1. (d) Ionic radii increases down the group 21. (b) The basic character decreases from NH3 to BiH3. The
2. (b) In case of nitrogen, d-orbitals are not available. basic nature is due to the presence of lone pair of
3. (a) Collectively these elements are called pnicogens and electrons on the central atom. NH3 is the strongest
their compound pniconides. electron pair donor due to its small size as the electron
4. (d) Metallic character increases down the group, Bi is density of the electron pair is concentrated over a small
most metallic region. As the size increases the electron density gets
5. (b) The melting point in group 15 increases upto arsenic diffused over a large region and hence the ability to
and then decreases upto bismuth. donate the electron pair (basic nature) decreases.
6. (d) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental state. 22. (a) NCl5 in not possible because N does not contain
7. (a) –3, +3, +5 d-orbitals.
8. (d) N2 molecule contains triple bond between N atoms
Only nitrogen has a tendency to form pS – pS multiple
having very high dissociation energy (946 kJ mol–1)
due to which it is relatively inactive. bonds. Other forms dS – pS multiple bonds easily..
9. (a) Nitrogen due to small size is able to show pS-pS lateral 23. (c) 24. (b)
overlap forming N {N, rest elements due to bigger size
Heat
are not able to show pS-pS lateral overlap. 25. (d) NH 4 Cl NaNO 2
o NH 4 NO 2
NaCl
10. (c) Catenation tendency is higher in phosphorus when
Heat
compared with other elements of same group. o N 2 2H 2O.
11. (c) Nitrogen form N2 (i.e. N { N) but phosphorus form 26. (a)
P4, because in P2, pS — pS bonding is present which
is a weaker bonding. 27. (b) In Haber’s process for manufacture of NH3, finely
12. (d) The cause of inert nature of N2 is the presence of divided iron is used as catalyst and molybdenum is
.. .. used as catalytic promoter
triple bond N { N Fe Mo
13. (b) N2 ( g ) 3H2 ( g )
800K, High P
o 2NH 3 ( g )
14. (b) Phosphorous can achieve coordination number 5 due
28. (d) N2H4 and NH4Cl are obtained by reaction of ammonia
to vacant d atomic orbitals in valence shell which is
with hypochlorite anion.
not possible in nitrogen
15. (b) The order of boiling points of the group 15 hydrides 3NH 3 NaOCl o N 2 H 4 NH 4 Cl NaOH
is : BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 29. (a) HNO3 and CuSO4 are not drying agents, while P2O5
16. (a) Oxide in which central atom has higher charge and reacts with NH3. The moisture present in NH3 is
more electronegativity is more acidic, i.e. removed by passing it through a tower packed with
N2O5 > N2O4 > P2O5 > As2O3. quicklime (CaO).
17. (a) Order of dipole moment 30. (b) Ammonia has pyramidal shape with sp3 hybridisation.
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
31. (b) 3CuO 2 NH 3 o 3Cu 3H 2 O N 2 ,
(Based upon electronegativity)
18. (c) As the size of central atom increases the lone pair of O.S. of N in NH3 is –3 and in N2 is zero. Hence loss of
electrons occupies a larger volume. In other words 3 electrons
electron density on the central atom decreases and 32. (b) NH3 is not used as anaesthetic
consequently its tendency to donate a pair of electrons 33. (b) Liquid ammonia has high vapour pressure which is
decreases along with basic character from NH3 to
lowered down by cooling, otherwise the liquid will
BiH3.
bump.
19. (a) NF 5 does not exist because N does not form
pentahalides due to the absence of d-orbital in its 34. (c) By Haber’s process
valence shell. While P, As and Sb form pentahalides of 35. (a) Only nitrates of heavy metals and lithium decompose
the general formula MX5 (where, M = P, As and Sb) on heating to produce NO2.
due to the presence of vacant d-orbitals in their 36. (d) N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5 are acidic oxides. Only N2O is
respective valence shell. neutral oxide.

106 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
56. (b) White phosphorous is most reactive
O O
57. (b) White phosphorous is P4 and tetrahedral
37. (b) N–O–N 58. (a) Except (a) all other properties are shown by white
phosphorous.
O O 59. (b) White phosphorus on heating readily catches fire in
The structure clearly shows the presence of covalent air to give dense white fumes of P4O10.
and co-ordinate bonds. P4 + 5O2
38. (d) NO2 is reddish brown coloured gas. Rest of the oxides o P4O10.
are colourless. 60. (c) Monoclinic sulphur is stable above 369 K.
39. (c) Compound O.S. of N 61. (c) Ca3P2 + 6H2O o 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3 ; i.e 2 moles of
N2O +1 phosphine are produced from one mole of calcium
NO +2 phosphide.
NO2 +4 62. (d) PH3 is covalent hydride
NO3– +5 63. (b) Red P does not react with NaOH to give PH3.
NH4+ –3 64. (d) PH3 is not obtained when metaphosphoric acid is
Therefore increasing order of oxidation state of N is: heated.
65. (a) The combustibility of PH3 is due to presence of P2H4.
NH 4 < N2O < NO < NO2 < NO3 . The pure PH3 is not combustible.
40. (c) In N2O (nitrous oxide) two N atoms are covalently 600qC
bonded through triple bond 66. (d) 2H 3 PO 4
o 2 HPO 3
2H 2O
[ N { N o O ]
'
41. (b) FeSO 4 NO o FeSO 4 .NO 67. (d) P2 O 5 3H 2 O o 2 H 3 PO 4
42. (b) 68. (b) Orthophosphoric acid, H 3PO 4 contains three P – OH
43. (a) N2O is used as anaesthetic bonds and is therefore, tribasic.
44. (c) 2NO O 2 o 2 NO 2 brown O
||
45. (b) Phosphorus from stable P4 molecule.
P
|
Pt. gauge | OH
46. (a) 4NH 3 5O 2 o 4NO 6H 2 O OH
47. (b) The slow decomposition of HNO3 is represented by orthophosphoric acid
the eqn. 69. (b) PCl3 + H2O o POCl3 + 2HCl
4HNO3 o 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 POCl3 + 3H2O o H3PO4 + 3HCl
(yellow-brown)
70. (c) H 3PO 2 is named as hypophosphorous acid. It is
48. (d) For nitrogen, only NF3 is known to be stable.
monobasic as it contains only one P – OH bond, its
49. (a) 8NH3 3Cl2 o 6NH 4Cl N 2
basicity is one.
(excess)
NH3 3Cl 2
o NCl3 3HCl O
excess
||
P
H | OH
|
50. (c) BiH3 is the strongest reducing agent while NH3 is the
weakest reducing agent. H
51. (d) The oxides of the type E 2 O 3 of nitrogen and 71. (a) We know that empirical formula of hypophosphorus
phosphorus are purely acidic. acid is H3PO2. In this only one ionisable hydrogen
52. (d) NH3 is not used in the pickling of stainless steel. atom is present i.e. it is monobasic. Therefore option
O (a) is correct structural formula of it.
=
O O
53. (d) N{1 o O N–N =
=
(i) (ii) O ||
O O P
O O
= o
= o
N–N o N–O–N o O
O
=
=
O O O O 72. (d)
(iii) (iv) O
O
||
P P O
||
54. (d) 4 Zn + 10 HNO3 (dil.) o 4 Zn(NO3)2 + 5H2O + N2O

Zn + 4 HNO3 (conc.) o Zn(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO2 O
O P
55. (a) Both white and red phosphorus are not soluble in CS2
|| O
only white phosphorus is soluble in CS2.
O

S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1' 107
73. (c) Structure of hypophosphorous acid O
O
H
| P
HO P o O (b) (c) HO P O
| HO H
HPO3
H H
H3PO2
Two H-atoms are attached to P atom.
74. (c) In cyclic metaphosporic acid number of P–O–P bonds O O
is three.
O OH (d) P (e) P
P HO OH H OH
O O
O OH OH
O
P P H 3PO 4 H3PO3
O OH
HO The H–atom of the –OH group is ionisable whereas
75. (d) H–atom which is directly linked to P–atom is non-
76. (b) O ionisable. Thus H3PO3 is dibasic acid.
85. (a) Pyrophosphorous acid (H4P2O5) is a dibasic acid as it
bridging P bridging contains two P—OH bonds.
O
O O
O ~~ ~~
O
H—P—O—P—H
P O ~ ~
OH OH
O P
O 86. (b) Formula of cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is (HPO3)3
O P O Oxidation state of ‘P’ is 3(+ 1 + x + 3 (– 2)) = 0
bridging
O bridging x+ –6+1 =0 x= +5
oxygen
87. (a) O O
O HO — P — P — OH
HO OH
77. (b) H P H Hypophosphorous acid (H3PO2) is a Hypophosphoric acid
O
OH OH
H
monobasic acid. i.e., it has only one ionisable hydrogen O P O P O

atom or one OH is present. OH OH
1 Pyrophosphoric acid
78. (c) Hybridisation in PCl5 = 5 5 0 0 5 sp3d
2
HO O OH
79. (c) H5P5O15 (HPO3)5. It is metaphosphoric acid which is P P
a cyclic phosphate. O O O
80. (b) H4P2O5 is pyrophosphorous acid it contains P–O–P Metaphosphoric acid
bond
O
81. (c) H3PO4 is tribasic
82. (a) Hypophosphorous acid is H3PO2 in which O.S. of P HO P OH
is +1
83. (c) OH
84. (d) Structures of given oxyacids are following Orthophosphoric acid
88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (d)
O O
91. (a) Electron affinity increases from left to right in period
and decreases from top to bottom in a group but
P P
electron affinity of O is less than S due to small size.
(a) HO O OH
OH 92. (d) All exhibit polymorphism
OH
H4P2O7
93. (a)

108 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
94. (d) H2O is liquid but H2S is a gas. This can be attributed 120. (c) SO 2 2H 2 O o H 2SO 4 2H . Bleaching action is
to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding
due to reduction.
in case of H2O.
95. (b) 121. (d) Caro’s acid is H 2SO 5 which contains one S – O
96. (a) – O – H peroxy linkage. It is also known as
97. (a) H2O (due to intermolecular H - bonding) permonosulphuric acids.
98. (b) Oxygen being more electronegative
99. (a) SnO2 is an amphoteric oxide because it reacts with O
||
acids as well as with bases to form corresponding salts. H – O – O – S – OH
SnO2 + 2H2SO4(conc) o Sn(SO4)2 + 2H2O ||
SnO2 + 2NaOH o Na2SnO3 + H2O O
100. (d) All hexafluorides of group 16 elements are gaseous in Caro's acid
nature. 122. (d)
101. (b) Oxygen can be prepared by heating oxides of Hg, Pb,
Ag, Mn and Ba. 123. (c) Oleum is H 2S2 O 7 ( H 2SO4 SO3 ) which is obtained
' by dissolving SO3 in H2SO4 and is called fuming
2HgO o 2Hg + O2 sulphuric acid.
102. (c) It is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (c)
103. (c) Total number of electrons in O2 is 16. It has 2 unpaired 127. (c) It is H2SO5.
electrons, the rest 14 are paired.
128. (c) HO.SO 2OH 2PCl5 o ClSO2Cl 2POCl3 2HCl
104. (b) '
2KClO 3 o 2 KCl 3O 2 Sulphuryl chloride
105. (c) In KMnO4 manganese is already present in its highest 129. (b) 2Ag 2H 2SO 4 o 2H 2 O SO 2 Ag 2SO 4 .
possible oxidation state i.e. +7.So no further oxidation
Au, Pt does not react. Pb forms insoluble PbSO4
is possible.
130. (c)
106. (c) Ozone layer is beneficial to us, because it stops
harmful ultraviolet radiations from reaching the earth. O
||
' 131. (a) H O S O H ; 6V & 2S
107. (b) 2KMnO 4 o K 2 MnO4 4MnO 2 O 2
||
108. (d) Ozone is an allotrope of oxygen. O
109. (d) 2Ag2O (s) o4Ag (s) + O2 (g)
2Pb3O4 (s) o6PbO (s) + O2 (g) 132. (a) In H 2SO 4 , the S atom is present in its highest
2PbO2 (s) o2PbO (s) + O2 (g) oxidation state of +6. Hence H 2SO 4 can act an oxidant
110. (a) Mn2O7 is an acidic oxide. BaO and Na2O are basic only by gain of electrons
oxides while N2O is a neutral oxides. 133. (d) Ionisation potential decreases down the group.
111. (c) It is 8 134. (a)
112. (c) S2 is paramagnetic. It contains two unpaired electrons 135. (d) The lesser the bond energy, the weaker is the bond
in the antibonding S* orbital 136. (b) 3s2 3p5 is electronic configuration of Cl
V2O5 137. (c) The electron gain enthalpy order for halogens is
113. (a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) o 2SO3(g)
Cl > F > Br > I
O O Due to small size of fluorine the extra electron to be
=
114. (b) O = S–O–O–S=O added feels more electron-electron repulsion.

OH OH Therefore fluorine has less value for electron affinity
than chlorine.
Peroxodisulphuric acid
138. (d)
(H2S2O8)
139. (a) Reactivity follows the order F > Cl > Br > I
115. (b) Conc. H2SO4 is a strong dehydrating agent due to
140. (d)
which carbohydrates becomes charred on reaction with
141. (b) Except ionisation potential other factors are true to
conc. H2SO4 acid.
116. (b) The key step in the manufacture of H2SO4 is catalystic explain the oxidising (strong) behaviour of F2 .
oxidation of SO2 with O2 to give SO3 in presence of 142. (b)
V2O5 . 143. (d) Fluorine exhibit -ve oxidation state
117. (a) In SO3, sp2 hybridisation 144. (a) Since F2 is most oxidising, it is easily reduced
118. (c) Cu 2H 2SO 4 (conc) o CuSO 4 SO 2 2H 2O 145. (c) Chlorine shows O.S. from –1,+1 to +7, whereas others
show O.S. as Nao+1 ; Ko+1 ; Fo–1
119. (b) 2V, one S see structure

S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1' 109
146. (c) Fluorine always exhibit –1 oxidation state. 0 1 +5
0 1 1
166. (b) 6NaOH + 3Cl2
o 5NaCl + NaCl O3 + 3H 2O
147. (b) H 2O Br2
o HOBr HBr 167. (c) 6NaOH + 3Cl2 o5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O
Thus here oxidation number of Br increases from 0 to (hot and conc.)
+1 and also decreases from 0 to –1. Thus it is oxidised 168. (a) Rn because it is radioactive element obtained by the
as well as reduced. disintegration of radium
148. (d) Since all the halogens have a strong tendency to 226
88 Ra o86 Rn 222 2 He4
accept electrons. Therefore halogens act as strong
oxidising agents and their oxidising power decreases 169. (b) Radon is the last member of family
from fluorine to iodine. 170. (d)
149. (b) On moving from top to bottom of halogen group the 171. (d) Electronic configuration of He is 1s2
bond dissociation energy of hydrogen h alides 172. (a) Inert gases do not contain unpaired electrons
decreases and so the heat of formation of halogen 173. (b) Ionization potential of inert gases is highest in periodic
acids also decreases. table due to stable electronic configuration.
150. (a) HF, due to intermolecular H-bonding is weakest among 174. (a) Ionisation energy decreases as we move away from
HX acids nucleus due to less electrostatic attraction between
151. (c) Volatile character HCl > HBr >HI > HF electrons and nucleus
152. (d) Due to hydrogen bonding HF is a liquid 175. (a) The smaller the size the least is the polarisability
153. (d) Bleaching action of chlorine is due to oxidation in 176. (c) The differentiating electron enter in s subshell in case
presence of moisture. of He, hence it is s- block element. Its electronic
Cl 2 H 2O o HCl HClO configuration l s2 makes it inert in nature hence it is
HClO o HCl O placed with inert gases.
Colouring matter + | O | o Colourless matter 177. (c) Ar is the most abundant in atmosphere
154. (b) Cl2 + 2NaOH oNaCl + NaClO + H2O 178. (d) Due to weak van der Waal’s forces, He has lowest
(cold & dil) boiling point
3Cl2 + 6NaOH o5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O 179. (d) The larger the size the more is the polarisiability
(hot & conc.)
180. (d) He was observed in the spectrum of the sun
155. (a) 2NaOH Cl2 o NaCl NaOCl H 2 O
226
181. (b) 88 Ra o86 Rn 222 2 He 4 . Both are inert gases
hence Cl and OCl
182. (d) Electron gain enthalpy for noble gases is positive and
156. (d) K 2 Cr2O 7 conc.HCl o Cl2 it becomes less positive with increase in size of atom.
157. (d) MnO2 or KMnO4 with conc HCl give Cl2. Value of electron gain enthalpy
He – 48 kJ mol–1, Ne – 116 kJ mol–1
7 2
158. (d) 2 KMnO 4 16HCl o 2 MnCl 2 2 KCl 8H 2 O 5Cl 2 Ar, Kr – 96 kJ mol–1, Xe – 77 kJ mol–1
O.S of Mn changes from +7 to +2 hence reduction Hence, Ne has highest positive electron gain enthalpy.
occurs and Cl2 is formed. 183. (b)
184. (a) As size increases, van der Waal's forces of attraction
159. (d) 6CaOCl 2 o Ca (ClO3 ) 2 5CaCl 2
between n oble gas atoms also increases.
It is autooxidation. Consequently, ease of their liquefaction increases.
160. (d) HCl acid at 25º C is a gas and polar in nature 185. (c) Solubility increases from He to Rn
161. (d) In gaseous state the HCl is covalent in nature while in
186. (d) Xe forms maximum compounds hence it is most
aqueous solution it ionises to give H+ and C l ions reactive
162. (d) As the oxidation state of the central halogen atom 187. (b) Noble gases exhibit low chemical activity
increases, the halogen-oxygen bond becomes more 188. (d)
and more covalent. As a result the thermal stability of 189. (b) In XeOF4, Xenon is sp3d 2 hybridised and has one
the oxoacid increases. Thus, HClO4 is most stable to
heat, whereas HClO is least stable to heat. lone pair of electrons.
163. (c) The bond energy of interhalogen compounds is less 190. (a)
than the bond energy of halogens. 191. (d) The products of the concerned reaction react each
164. (d) Interhalogen compounds are not highly volatile other forming back the reactants.
1 XeF6 3H 2 O o XeO3 6HF .
165. (a) ICl7. The hybridisation is 7 7 0 0 7 (sp3d3 )
2

110 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
198. (d) Hybridisation in
F 1
XeF4 (8 4 0 0) 6 sp3d 2
2
199. (b) XeOF4 square pyramidal
200. (c) Hybridisation of XeF2 is sp3d
192. (c) XeF2 : Xe 201. (b) XeF4 is planar
202. (a) In XeO3 the hybridisation is sp3
F
F 203. (a) XeF2 has Xe structure hence number of lone
3lp
F
pair of electrons 3
F F 204. (c) Hybridisation of XeF4 is sp3d2 and structure is square
planar
XeF4 : 205. (a) XeF2 XeF4 XeF6
Xe
Valence electrons of Xe 8 8 8
F F Electrons involved 2 4 6
in bond formation
2lp Lone pairs left 3 2 1
206. (c) Hybridisation in each case is XeF4sp3d2, XeF2sp3d,
207. (c) He is obtained during radioactive decay
F
208. (c) The geometry of XeF6 is distorted octahedral in which
F all the six positions are occupied by fluorine atoms
and the lone pair of electrons of Xe atom is present at
XeF6 : F Xe F the corner of one of the triangular faces.
F
F F
F F
Xe
F F
F
209. (b) The hybridization of XeO3F2 is sp3d and its structure
XeO3 : Xe is trigonal bipyramidal in which oxygen atoms are
situated on the plane and the fluoride atoms are on the
top and bottom.
O O
O F
O
1 lp
Hence XeF2 has maximum no. of lone pairs of electrons.

O Xe
193. (d) XeO2F2 has trigonal bipyramidal geometry, but due to
presence of lone pair of electrons on equitorial position,
its actual shape is see-saw. O
F
F 210. (b) The shape of XeO3 is Trigonal Pyramidal.
O
Xe
Xe (Trigonal Pyramidal Structure)
O O O
F O
194. (b) XeF4 H 2O o 2HF XeOF2 211. (c) Argon is used in high temperature welding and other
operations which require a non-oxidising atmosphere
195. (a) No compound of He as yet been reported and the absence of nitrogen.
196. (a) No compound of Ar as yet been reported with F2 212. (b) Neon gives a distinct reddish glow when used in either
197. (c) XeF6 3H 2 O o 6HF XeO 3 low-voltage neon glow lamps or in high voltage
discharge tube.

S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1' 111
213. (c) Helium is twice as heavy as hydrogen it is inflammable 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
but not lighter than hydrogen. Helium has the lowest
melting and boiling point of any element which makes 230. (b) 231. (a) 232. (a) 233. (c) 234. (a)
liquid helium an ideal coolant for many extremely low 235. (b) 236. (b) 237. (b) 238. (b) 239. (a)
temperature application such as super conducting 240. (c) 241. (a)
magnet and cryogenic research where temperature
close to absolute zero are needed. He is used in gas $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
cooled atomic reactors as a heat transfer agent.
242. (c) At higher temperatures, dinitrogen combines with
214. (c) Coloured discharge tubes mainly contain Neon metals to form ionic nitrides.
215. (a) Breathing mixture is (O2 + He) 243. (c)
216. (a) Mixture of (He + O2) is used for asthma patient 244. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
217. ( b) 218. (c) 219. (d) correct explanation of assertion.
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 M HNO3

(metal)
o MNO3 H
(conc.) (metal nitrate) (nascent hydrogen)
220. (a) Phosphorus occurs in minerals of the apatite family,

2HNO3 2H
o 2NO2 2H 2 O
Ca9(PO4)6, CaX2 (X = F, Cl or OH) which are main (nascent hydrogen)
components of phosphate rocks whereas arsenic and 245. (b) White phosphorus exists as P4 tetrahedral molecule
antimony are found as sulphide minerals. The increase having P-P-P bond angle 60º. Hence the molecule is
in covalent radii from N to P is greater in comparison under strain and more reactive. On the other hand red
to increase from As to Bi. phosphorus exists as P4 tetrahedra which are joined
221. (c) For nitrogen oxidation states from +1 to +4 together through covalent bonds giving polymeric
disproportionate in acidic solution only. Oxidation structure.
state of phosphorous in P2O5 is + 5 whereas in P2O5 246. (c) Bond angle of H2 S (92°) < H2O (104°31). As the
is +3 thus P2O5 is more acidic than P2O3. electronegativity of the central atom decreases, bond
222. (b) angle decreases. In the present case, S is less
electronegative than oxygen. Thus bond pairs in H2S
223. (a) Oxygen shows oxidation state of +2 in OF2. H2O which
are more away from the central atom than in H2O and
is a hydride of oxygen element of group 16 is neutral
thus repulsive forces between bond pairs are smaller
in nature.
producing smaller bond angle.
224. (c) 247. (a) 248. (a)
O O
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
O O– –O O
Ozone is diamagnetic in nature (due to presence of 249. (b) With the decrease in the electronegativity of central
atom the bond angle decreases
paired electron) and both the O – O bond length are
equal. It has a bent structure. 250. (d)
251. (b) CuSO 4 4NH 3 o [Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ] SO 4
225. (b) NH3 being basic reacts with acidic H2SO4 thus H2SO4
cannot be used for drying NH3. Blue complex due to Cu(NH 3 ) 2
226. (b) Physical state of iodine is different from other halogens 4
as iodine is solid, bromine is a liquid whereas fluorine 252. (b) 2NO + N2O4 250K
o 2N O
2 3
and chlorine are gases. 253. (b) The slow decomposition of HNO3 is represented by
227. (b) At 298K, ClF exits as a gas. the eqn.
228. (d) 4HNO3 o 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2
229. (c) For statement (iii) preparation of XeF2 requires Xe in (yellow-brown)
excess amount 254. (a)
255. (c) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ ion is formed
673K,1 bar 256. (b) Ag+ (aq) + Cl– (aq) o AgCl(s)
Xe g F2 g o XeF2 s
excess Colourless White ppt
AgCl (s) + 2NH3 (aq) o [Ag(NH3 )2] Cl (aq)
For statements (iv)
White ppt Colourless
2XeF2(s) + 2H2O(l)
o 2Xe(g) + 4HF(aq) + O2(g)
257. (b) NO2 and N2O4 has + 4 oxidation state for nitrogen.
6XeF4 + 12H2O
o 4Xe + XeO + 24HF + 3O
3 2 258. (c) 3CuSO4 + 2PH3 oCu3P2 + 3H2SO4
XeF6 + 3H2O o XeO3 + 6HF 3HgCl2 + 2PH3 oHg3P2 + 6HCl

112 7+(S%/2&.(/(0(176*5283$1'
259. (d) SH–bond is weaker than, O–H bond. Hence H2S will 266. (c) 2F2 (g) + 2H2O (l) o4H+ (aq) + 4F– (aq) + O2 (g)
furnish more H+ ions Cl2 (g) + 2H2O (l) oHCl (aq) + HOCl
260. (c) Air is liquified by making use of the joule-Thompson 1 5 1
effect (cooling by expansion of the gas) Water vapour 267. (d) NaClO o NaClO3 2NaCl All statements are
and CO2 are removed by solidification. The remaining correct as evident from the reaction
major constituents of liquid air i.e., liquid oxygen and
liquid nitrogen are separated by means of fractional 268. (b) 2KMnO 4 16HCl o 2KCl 2MnCl 2 8H 2 O 5Cl 2
distillation (b.p. of O2 = –183°C : b. P. of N2 = – 195.8°C) 269. (d)
261. (d) Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest 270. (c) XeF6 + 3H2O o XeO3 + 6HF
energy structure from a number of possible Lewis ? Complete hydrolysis of XeF6 gives XeO3 (an
structures for a given compound. The lowest energy
explosive).
structure means the structure with the smallest formal
271. (d) (i) The first ionization energy of xenon (1, 170 kJ mol–
charge on each atom of the compound. A Lewis dot 1) is quite close to that of dioxygen (1,180 kJ mol–1).
structure is preferable when all formal charges are zero.
262. (c) From the given options we find option (a) is correct. The (ii) The molecular diameters of xenon and dioxygen are
oxidising power of halogens follow the order almost identical.
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. Option (b) is incorrect because it in Based on the above similarities Barlett (who prepared
not the correct order of electron gain enthalpy of O2+[PtF6]– compound) suggested that since oxygen
halogens. combines with PtF6, so xenon should also form similar
The correct order is Cl2 > F2 > Br 2 > I2. The low value compound with PtF6.
of F2 than Cl2 is due to its small size. 272. (c) 2XeF6 SiO 2 o SiF4 2XeOF4
Option (c) is incorrect. The correct order of bond
273. (c) Xenon undergo sp3 hybridization.
dissociation energies of halogens is
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2. (ground
Option (d) is correct. It is the correct order of state)
5s 5p 5d
electronegativity values of halogens. Thus option (b)
and (c) are incorrect. (third excited
263. (c) The H–X bond strength decreases from HF to HI. i.e. state)
HF > HCl > HBr > HI. Thus HF is most stable while HI 5s 5p 5d
is least stable. The decreasing stability of the hydrogen In the fourth excited state xenon atom, has 8 unpaired
halide is also reflected in the values of dissociation electrons
energy of the H–X bond
HF H Cl H Br HI
135kcal mol 103kcal mol 87 kcal mol 71kcal mol 5s 5p 5d
264. (c) MI > MBr > MCl > MF. As the size of the anion 3
One s and three p orbital undergo sp hybridization.
decreases covalent character also decreases. Four sp3 hybrid orbitals form four V bonds with oxygen
265. (a) Metal halides with higher oxidation state are more atoms. They are Vsp3 – p. Four pS– dS bonds are also
covalent than the one in lower oxidation state. formed with oxygen atoms by the unpaired electrons.

8
THE d-AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 9. An atom has electronic configuration

1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p6 3d 3 4s 2 in which group would it be
1. The transition elements have a general electronic
configuration placed?
(a) Fifth (b) Fifteenth
(a) ns 2, np 6, nd 1 10
(c) Second (d) Third
(b) ( n 1) d 1 10, ns 0 2, np 0 6 10. In 3d-series atomic number (Z) varies from
(c) (n 1) d110, ns1 2 (a) Z 21 30 (b) Z 22 30
(d) n d110, ns1 2 (c) Z 20 30 (d) Z 31 40
2. Correct electronic configuration of Cr (Z = 24) is 11. The valence shell of transition elements consists of
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d 7 4s1 (a) nd orbitals (b) (n-1) d orbitals
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d 5 4s1 (c) ns np nd orbitals (d) (n-1) d ns orbitals
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d 7 4s2 12. Number of unpaired electrons in Ni2+(Z=28) is
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d 6 4s2
(a) 4 (b) 2
3. Which of the following configuration is correct for iron ?
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 1s2 ,2 s2 2 p6 ,3s2 3 p6 3d 4 13. Which of the following element is not a member of transition
2 2 6 2
(b) 1s , 2s 2 p ,3s 3 p 3d 4s
6 6 2 elements ?
(a) Zn (b) Pt
(c) 1s2 ,2s2 2 p6 ,3s2 3 p6 3d 2 (c) Ce (d) Mo
2 2 6 2 6 2 2
(d) 1s , 2s 2 p ,3s 3 p 3d 4s 14. The number of unpaired electrons in gaseous species of
4. Which one of the following ions has electronic Mn3+, Cr 3+ and V3+ respectively are.
configuration [Ar] 3d 6 ? (a) 4, 3 and 2 (b) 3, 3 and 2
(a) Ni3+ (b) Mn 3+ (c) 4, 3 and 2 (d) 3, 3 and 3
(c) Fe3+ (d) Co3+ 15. The first element in the 3d-transition series is
(At. Nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28) (a) Sc (b) Ti
5. Which of the following element does not belong to first (c) V (d) Ca
transition series? 16. Which of the following has more unpaired d-electrons?
(a) Fe (b) V
(c) Ag (d) Cu
(a) Zn (b) Fe 2
6. n 1d 10 ns 2 is the general electronic configuration of (c) Ni (d) Cu
(a) Fe, Co, Ni (b) Cu, Ag, Au 17. The number of unpaired electrons in a nickel atom in ground
(c) Zn, Cd, Hg (d) Se, Y, La state are At. No. of Ni 28
7. The last electron in d-block elements goes to
(a) (n-1) d (b) nd (a) 2 (b) 5
(c) np (d) (n-1) s (c) 3 (d) 7
8. The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal 18. Which one of the following is an example of non-typical
similarites are transition elements ?
(a) inert gas elements (b) representative elements (a) Li, K, Na (b) Be, Al, Pb
(c) rare elements (d) transition elements (c) Zn, Cd, Hg (d) Ba, Ga, Sr.

114 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
19. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired 32. Iron exhibits +2 and + 3 oxidation states. Which of the
electrons? following statements about iron is incorrect ?
(a) Ti2+ (b) Fe2+ (a) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than the ferric
(c) Cr+ (d) Cu+ oxide.
20. The outer electronic configuration of Ag is 4d 10 5s1, it (b) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic than the
belongs to corresponding ferric compounds.
(a) 5th period, group 4 (b) 4th period, group 5 (c) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the
(c) 5 period, group 11 (d) 6th period, group 9
th
corresponding ferric compounds.
21. Manganese belongs to (d) Ferrous compounds are more easily hydrolysed than
(a) 1st transition series (b) 2nd transition series the corresponding ferric compounds.
rd
(c) 3 transition series (d) 4th transition series 33. Four successive members of the first row transition
22. The no. of unpaired electrons in Mn7+ ions elements are listed below with their atomic numbers.
(At. no. of Mn = 25) is Which one of them is expected to have the highest third
(a) 0 (b) 1 ionization enthalpy?
(c) 2 (d) 3 (a) Vanadium (Z = 23) (b) Chromium (Z = 24)
23. Which one of the following species is paramagnetic? (c) Manganese (Z = 25) (d) Iron (Z = 26)
(a) N2 (b) Co 34. Of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms,
(c) Cu+ (d) Zn the highest oxidation state is achieved by which one of
24. Which of the following species is/are paramagnetic? them ?
Fe2+, Zn0, Hg2+, Ti4+ (a) (n – 1)d 3 ns2 (b) (n – 1)d 5 ns1
(a) Fe2+ only (b) Zn 0 and Ti4+ 8
(c) (n – 1)d ns 2 (d) (n – 1)d 5 ns2
(c) Fe2+ and Hg2+ (d) Zn 0 and Hg2+ 35. For d block elements the first ionization potential is of the
25. In first transition series, the melting point of Mn is low order
because (a) Zn > Fe > Cu > Cr (b) Sc = Ti < V = Cr
(a) due to d10 configuration, metallic bonds are strong (c) Zn < Cu < Ni < Co (d) V > Cr > Mn > Fe
(b) due to d7 configuration, metallic bonds are weak 36. Which of the following does not represent the correct order
(c) due to d5 configuration, metallic bonds are weak of the properties indicated ?
(d) None of these (a) Ni2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+ (size)
26. The transition metals have a less tendency to form (b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (size)
ions due to
(c) Mn2+ > Ni2+ < Co2+ <Fe2+ (unpaired electron)
(a) high ionisation energy
(d) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+ (unpaired electron)
(b) low heat of hydration of ions
37. Zinc and mercury do not show variable valency like d-block
(c) high heat of sublimation
elements because
(d) All of these
27. The common oxidation states of Ti are (a) they are soft
(a) + 2 and + 3 (b) + 3 and + 4 (b) their d-shells are complete
(c) – 3 and – 4 (d) + 2, + 3 and + 4 (c) they have only two electrons in the outermost subshell
28. Maximum oxidation state is shown by (d) their d-shells are incomplete
(a) Os (b) Mn 38. Which of the following transition element shows the
(c) Co (d) Cr highest oxidation state ?
29. Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital (a) Mn (b) Fe
configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation (c) V (d) Cr
states? 39. Which of the following elements does not show vari able
(a) 3d 54s1 (b) 3d 54s2 oxidation states?
(c) 3d 4s 2 2 (d) 3d 34s2 (a) Copper (b) Iron
30. Which of the following pairs has the same size? (c) Zinc (d) Titanium
40. Which one of the following transition elements does not
(a) Fe 2+ , Ni 2+ (b) Zr 4+ , Ti 4+
exhibit variable oxidation state?
(c) Zr 4+ , Hf 4+ (d) Zn 2+ , Hf 4+ (a) Ni (b) Cu
31. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and (c) Fe (d) Sc
Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which 41. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3
of the following order? oxidation state is [Ar]3d5. What is its atomic number ?
(a) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co (b) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (a) 25 (b) 26
(c) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr (d) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe (c) 27 (d) 24

7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176 115
42. Metallic radii of some transition elements are given below. 51. What is wrong about transition metals?
Which of these elements will have highest density ? (a) Diamagnetic
Element Fe Co Ni Cu (b) Paramagnetic
Metallic radii/pm 126 125 125 128 (c) Form complexes
(a) Fe (b) Ni (d) Shows variable oxidation state
(c) Co (d) Cu 52. Which of the following ions has the maximum magnetic
43. Transition metals mostly are moment?
(a) diamagnetic (a) Mn +2 (b) Fe+2
(b) paramagnetic (c) Ti 3+ (d) Cr+2.
(c) neither diamagnetic nor paramagnetic 53. Four successive members of the first row transition elements
(d) both diamagnetic and paramagnetic are listed below with atomic numbers. Which one of them is
44. Transition metals usually exhibit highest oxidation states in
expected to have the highest Eq value ?
their M3 / M 2
(a) chlorides (b) fluorides (a) Cr(Z = 24) (b) Mn(Z = 25)
(c) bromides (d) iodides (c) Fe(Z = 26) (d) Co(Z = 27)
45. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 54. Which one of the following ions exhibit highest magnetic
(a) Zn,Cd and Hg due to presence of completely filled moment?
d-orbitals [(n–1)d10ns2] are not studied along with
(a) Cu 2 (b) Ti3
other transition metals.
(b) Zn, Cd and Hg have low m.p and are comparitively (c) Ni 2 (d) Mn 2
softer than other transition metals.
(c) Metallic bond made by elements with d 5 configuration 55. A compound of a metal ion M x Z 24 has a spin
is stronger as compared to metalic bond made by only magnetic moment of 15 Bohr Magnetons. The
elements with d 3 configuration. number of unpaired electrons in the compound are
(d) Metals of 5d series forms strong metallic bonds as (a) 2 (b) 4
compared with metals of 3d series.
(c) 5 (d) 3
46. Which of the following is incorrect?
56. Titanium shows magnetic moment of 1.73 B.M. in its
(a) Mn shows oxidation state of +7 in MnF7 compound. What is the oxidation number of Ti in the
(b) Fe and Co shows +3 oxidation state in FeX3 and CoF3. compound?
(c) V shows oxidation state of + 5 in VF5. (a) +1 (b) +4
(d) Cu does not shows +2 oxidation state with I–. (c) +3 (d) +2
47. Which of the following is not correct about transition 57. Which of the following ions having following electronic
metals? structure would have maximum magnetic moment?
(a) Their melting and boiling points are high
(a) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 3d 3
(b) Their compounds are generally coloured
(c) They can form ionic or covalent compounds (b) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 3d 5
(d) They do not exhibit variable valency (c) 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 3d 7
48. Transition elements
(a) have low melting point (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 3d 9
(b) exhibit variable oxidation states 58. If n is the number of unpaired electrons, the magnetic
(c) do not form coloured ions moment (in BM) of transition metal/ion is given by
(d) show inert pair effect (a) n n 2 (b) 2n n 1
49. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in
aqueous solution? n n 2 2n n 1
(c) (d)
(a) V3+ (b) Ti3+
(c) Mn 3+ (d) Cr3+ 59. Which one of the following ions has the maximum
(At.No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25) magnetic moment?
50. Which one of the following does not correctly represent (a) Sc3+ (b) Ti3+
the correct order of the property indicated against it? (c) Cr3+ (d) Fe3+
(a) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation 60. The magnetic nature of elements depend on the presence
states of unpaired electrons. Identify the configuration of
(b) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : increasing magnetic moment transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.
(c) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points (a) 3d 7 (b) 3d 5
(c) 3d 8 (d) 3d 2
(d) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

116 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
61. Transition elements show magnetic moment due to spin 73. Bronze is an alloy of
and orbital motion of electrons. Which of the following (a) Pb + Sn + Zn (b) Cu + Sn
metallic ions have almost same spin only magnetic moment ? (c) Pb + Zn (d) Cu + Zn
(i) Co2+ (ii) Cr2+ 74. An alloy of transition metal containing a non transition
(iii) Mn 2+ (iv) Cr3+ metal as a constituent is
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (a) invar (b) bronze
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) (c) chrome steel (d) stainless steel
62. The aqueous solution containing which one of the
75. Choose the correct increasing order of the oxidation state
following ions will be colourless? (Atomic number:
of the central metal atom in the following oxoanions.
Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)
(a) Sc3+ (b) Fe2+ VO2 , VO2 , TiO 2 , CrO 24
(c) Ti 3+ (d) Mn 2+
63. Transition elements form coloured ions due to (a) VO2 VO2 TiO 2 CrO 24
(a) d-d transition (b) fully filled d-orbitals
(c) smaller atomic radii (d) availability of s-electrons (b) VO2 TiO 2 VO 2 CrO 42
64. The catalytic activity of transition metals and their
compounds is mainly due to
(c) CrO 24 TiO 2 VO2 VO2
(a) their magnetic behaviour
(d) TiO 2 VO 2 VO 2 CrO 24
(b) their unfilled d-orbitals
(c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation state 76. Which of the following ion(s) is/are oxidising in nature?
(d) their chemical reactivity
65. Which of the following is colourless in water? (i) q
V2+ EM 2 / M 1.18
Ti3 V 3
(a) (b)
(ii) Mn3 Eq M3 / M 2
1.57
(c) Cu 3 (d) Sc3
66. Which group contains coloured ions out of (iii) Cr 2 Eq M2 / M
0.91
(i) Cu 2 (ii) Ti 4
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) only (ii)
2 2 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) only (iii)
(iii) Co (iv) Fe
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (iii), (iv) 77. Which of the following transition metal ion is colourless in
(c) (ii), (iii) (d) (i), (ii) aqueous solution?
67. Which of the following statements about the interstitial (a) Ti4+ (b) Zn 2+
compounds is incorrect ? (c) V 4+ (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) They are chemically reactive. 78. Transition metals show catalytic activity
(b) They are much harder then the pure metal. (a) Due to their ability to form complexes.
(c) They have higher melting points than the pure metal. (b) Due to their ability to show multiple oxidation state.
(d) They retain metallic conductivity. (c) Due to availabiltiy of d orbitals for bond formation.
68. Formation of interstitial compound makes the transition (d) Both (a) and (b).
metal
79. Which of the following transition metal on catalysis the
(a) more soft (b) more ductile
reaction between iodide and persulphate ion?
(c) more metallic (d) more hard
(a) Fe2+ (b) Fe3+
69. If a non metal is added to the interstital sites of a metal, then 2+
(c) Ni (d) Both (a) and (c)
the metal becomes
(a) softer (b) less tensile 80. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation
(c) less malleable (d) more ductile reactions ?
70. Gun metal is an alloy of (i) Cu
o Cu 2 Cu
(a) Cu and Al (b) Cu and Sn
(c) Cu, Zn and Sn (d) Cu, Zn and Ni (ii) 3MnO 4 4H
o 2MnO4 MnO 2 2H 2 O
71. Brass is an alloy of
(a) Zn and Sn (b) Zn and Cu (iii) 2KMnO 4
o K 2 MnO4 MnO 2 O 2
(c) Cu, Zn and Sn (d) Cu and Sn
(iv) 2MnO 4 3Mn 2 2H 2O
o 5MnO 2 4H
72. Which one of the following is coinage metal ?
(a) Zn (b) Cu (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Sn (d) Pb. (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176 117
81. In the form of dichromate, Cr (VI) is a strong oxidising agent 91. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, thiosulphate is
in acidic medium but Mo (VI) in MoO3 and W (VI) in WO3 quantitatively oxidized by KMnO4 to
are not because ____________ . (a) SO32– (b) SO42–
(i) Cr (VI) is more stable than Mo(VI) and W (VI). (c) SO2 (d) SO52–
(ii) Mo (VI) and W(VI) are more stable than Cr(VI). 92. KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the reaction:
(iii) Higher oxidation states of heavier members of group-
6 of transition series are more stable. 3MnO 24 2H 2 O 2MnO24 MnO2 + 4OH
(iv) Lower oxidation states of heavier members of group-6 The reaction can go to completion by removing OH– ions
of transition series are more stable. by adding.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) KOH (b) CO2
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) (c) SO2 (d) HCl
82. K2Cr2O7 on heating with aqueous NaOH gives 93. In the laboratory, manganese (II) salt is oxidised to
permanganate ion in aqueous solution by
(a) CrO 24 (b) Cr(OH)3
(a) hydrogen peroxide (b) conc. nitric acid
(c) Cr2O 72 (d) Cr(OH)2 (c) peroxy disulphate (d) dichromate
94. The starting material for the manufacture of KMnO4 is
83. CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give
(a) pyrolusite (b) manganite
(a) Cr2O72– (b) CrO42–
(c) magnatite (d) haematite
(c) Cr(OH)3 (d) Cr(OH)2 95. An explosion take place when conc. H2SO4 is added to
84. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed KMnO4. Which of the following is formed?
by the reaction between KI and acidified potassium
dichromate solution is (a) Mn 2O7 (b) MnO 2
(a) + 3 (b) + 2 (c) MnSO4 (d) M 2O3
(c) + 6 (d) + 4 96. If KMnO4 is reduced by oxalic acid in an acidic medium
85. The bonds present in the structure of dichromate ion are then oxidation number of Mn changes from
(a) four equivalent Cr – O bonds only (a) 4 to 2 (b) 6 to 4
(b) six equivalent Cr – O bonds and one O – O bond (c) +7 to +2 (d) 7 to 4
(c) six equivalent Cr – O bonds and one Cr – Cr bond 97. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium. When
(d) six equivalent Cr – O bonds and one Cr – O – Cr bond alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI, iodide ion is oxidised to
86. Potassium dichromate when heated with concentrated ________ .
sulphuric acid and a soluble chloride, gives brown-red
vapours of
(a) I2 (b) IO
(a) CrO3 (b) CrCl3 (c) IO3 (d) IO4
(c) CrO2Cl2 (d) Cr2O3
98. On the basis of data given below,
87. The acidic, basic or amphoteric nature of Mn2O7, V2O5 and
CrO are respectively E9

0.37 , E 9

1.57
Sc3 /Sc2 Mn 3 /Mn 2
(a) acidic, acidic and basic
(b) basic, amphoteric and acidic E9

2 0.90 , E 9

0.34
Cr /Cr Cu 2 /Cu
(c) acidic, amphoteric and basic
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(d) acidic, basic and amphoteric
(a) Sc 3+ has good stability due of [Ar]3d 0 4s 0
88. Which of the following oxides of Cr is amphoteric configuration.
(a) CrO2 (b) Cr2O3 (b) Mn3+ is more stable than Mn 2+.
(c) CrO5 (d) CrO3 (c) Cr2+ is reducing in nature.
89. Which of the following is amphoteric oxide ? (d) Copper does not give H2 on reaction with dil. H2SO4.
Mn 2 O7 , CrO3 , Cr2O3 ,CrO, V2 O5 , V2 O4 99. Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) Mn 2O7 (b) V2O5
(a) V2 O5 , Cr2 O3 (b) Mn 2 O7 , CrO3
(c) Fe2O3 (d) Cr2O3
(c) CrO, V2 O5 (d) V2O5 , V2 O 4 100. Which of the following is the use of potassium
permanganate?
90. When acidified K 2Cr2 O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts
(a) Bleaching of wool, cotton and silk fibers.
then Sn2+ changes to (b) decolourisation of oils.
(a) Sn (b) Sn3+ (c) In analytical chemistry.
(c) Sn 4+ (d) Sn+ (d) All of these.

118 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
101. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 110. Lanthanum is grouped with f-block elements because
Compound of Use (a) it has partially filled f-orbitals
transition metal (b) it is just before Ce in the periodic table
(a) TiO Pigment industry (c) it has both partially filled f and d-orbitals
(d) properties of lanthanum are very similar to the elements
(b) MnO2 Dry battery cell
of f-block
(c) V2O5 Manufacture of H2SO4
111. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is
(d) PdCl2 Manufacture of polyethylene a characteristic of elements of
102. A series1 metal ion , M(II) aqueous solution react with the (a) high atomic masses (b) d-block
KI to form iodine and a precipitate is formed, this M(II) can (c) f-block (d) radioactive series
be: 112. Which of the following oxidation states is the most common
(a) Zn2+ (b) Mn 2+ among the lanthanoids?
(c) Cu 2+ (d) Ni2+ (a) 3 (b) 4
103. Total number of inner transition elements in the periodic (c) 2 (d) 5
table is 113. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
(a) 10 (b) 14 (a) 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded.
(c) 28 (d) 30 (b) d-Block elements show irregular and erratic chemical
104. Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous properties among themselves.
solutions? (c) La and Lu have partially filled d-orbitals and no other
partially filled orbitals.
(a) La 3+ (Z = 57) (b) Ti3+ (Z = 22) (d) The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very similar.
114. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following
(c) Lu 3+ (Z = 71) (d) Sc3+ (Z = 21) statements is not correct?
105. The lanthanoide contraction is responsible for the fact that (a) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members
(a) Zr and Y have about the same radius with increasing atomic number in the series.
(b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state (b) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation state.
(c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius (c) Because of similar properties the separation of
(d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state lanthanoids is not easy.
(d) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of
(Atomic numbers : Zr = 40, Y = 39, Nb = 41, Hf = 72, Zn = 30)
compounds in +4 state for all the members of the series.
106. Which one of the following elements shows maximum
115. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (Atomic No. : 64) is
number of different oxidation states in its compounds?
(a) 4f 3 5d5 6s2 (b) 4f 8 5d 0 6s2
(a) Eu (b) La 4
(c) 4f 5d 6s 4 2 (d) 4f 7 5d 1 6s2
(c) Gd (d) Am 116. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+
107. Lanthanoids are is
(a) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 90 to 103)
that are filling 4f sublevel
(a) La 3 Eu 3 Lu 3 Y 3
(b) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no. = 90 to (b) Y 3 La 3 Eu 3 Lu 3
103) that are filling 5f sublevel
(c) Y 3 Lu 3 Eu 3 La 3
(c) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 58 to 71)
that are filling 4f sublevel (d) Lu 3 Eu 3 La 3 Y 3
(d) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no. = 58 to (Atomic nos. Y =39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71)
71) that are filling 4f sublevel 117. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic ?
108. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the main (At nos. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
cause of lanthanoide contraction? (a) Sm2+ (b) Eu2+
(a) Greater shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons (c) Yb 2+ (d) Ce2+
(b) Poorer shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons 118. Lanthanide contraction can be observed in
(c) Effective shielding of one of 4f electrons by another in (a) At (b) Gd
the subshell (c) Ac (d) Lw
(d) Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by another in the 119. The approximate percentage of iron in mischmetal is
subshell (a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 50 (d) 5
109. Lanthanoid which has the smallest size in +3 state is
120. The most common lanthanide is
(a) Tb (b) Er
(a) lanthanum (b) cerium
(c) Ce (d) Lu (c) samarium (d) plutonium

7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176 119
121. Non-lanthanide atom is 133. The increasing order of the shielding of electrons by the
(a) La (b) Lu orbitals ns,np,nd,nf is
(c) Pr (d) Pm (a) ns,np,nd,nf (b) np,ns,nd,nf
122. In which of the following lanthanides oxidation state +2 is (c) nd,nf,np,ns (d) nf,nd.np,ns
most stable? 134. Which of the following in its oxidation state shows the
(a) Ce (b) Eu paramagnetism ?
(c) Tb (d) Dy (a) Tb(IV) (b) Lu(III)
123. Actinoides
(c) Ce(IV) (d) La(III)
(a) are all synthetic elements
(b) include element 104 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
(c) have any short lived isotopes
135. Mark the correct statement(s).
(d) have variable valency
124. Which of the following exhibit only + 3 oxidation state ? (i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state
(a) U (b) Th (ii) Zinc forms coloured ions
(c) Ac (d) Pa (iii) [CoF6]3– is diamagnetic
125. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the (iv) Sc forms +4 oxidation state
actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, the main reason (v) Zn exhibits only +2 oxidation state
being (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (v)
(a) 4f orbitals more diffused than the 5f orbitals (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(b) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than 136. Which of the following statements are correct ?
between 4f and 5d orbitals
(i) The maximum oxidation state of Mn with the oxygen is
(c) more energy difference between 5f and 6d than between
+VII while with fluorine is +IV.
4f and 5d orbitals
(ii) Fluorine is more oxidizing in nature than oxygen.
(d) more reactive nature of the actionids than the
lanthanoids (iii) Fluorine exhibit an oxidation state of –1.
126. The maximum oxidation state exhibited by actinide ions is (iv) Seven fluorine cannot be accommodated around Mn.
(a) +5 (b) +4 (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) +7 (d) +8 (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
127. There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the (c) (i) and (iv)
following elements does not belong to this series ? (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(a) U (b) Np 137. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(c) Tm (d) Fm (i) Chromium has the highest melting point among the
128. Which of the following actinoids show oxiation states upto series 1 metals.
+7 ?
(ii) Number of unpaired electrons is greater in Cr than other
(i) Am (ii) Pu
elements of series 1.
(iii) U (iv) Np
(iii) In any row the melting point of transition metal
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
increases as the atomic number increases.
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
129. Which of the following lanthanoid element is steel hard in
nature? (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(a) Eu (b) Pm 138. Read the following statements?
(c) Sm (d) Ce (i) Aqueous solutions formed by all ions of Ti are
130. What is the percentage of lanthanoid metal in mischmetall? colourless.
(a) 90% (b) 20% (ii) Aqueous solution of ferrous ions is green in colour.
(c) 5% (d) 95% (iii) Small size and presence of vacant d-orbitals make
131. Which of the following is the use of mischmetall ? transition metal ions suitable for formation of complex
(a) In bullets compounds.
(b) In lighter flint (iv) Catalytic action of transition metals involves the
(c) As catalyst in petroleum cracking increase of reactant concentration at catalyst surface
(d) Both (a) and (b) and weakening of the bonds in the reacting molecules.
132. Which of the following actinoid element has 5f 7 6d1 7s2 Which of the following is the correct code for above
configuration? statements?
(a) Bk (b) Cm (a) FTTT (b) TFFT
(c) Pa (d) No (c) TFTT (d) FFTT

120 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
139. Which of the following statements are correct? Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
(i) Interstitial compounds contain non-metal atoms above?
trapped inside the metal crystal whereas alloys are (a) FTTT (b) TFTT
homogeneous blend of metals. (c) TFFT (d) FFTT
(ii) Steel and bronze are alloys of transition and non- 144. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Hf and Zr
transition metals. is/are correct ?
(iii) Some boride containing interstitial compounds are very (i) Hf has greater density than Zr.
hard comparable to that of diamond. (ii) Lanthanoid contraction is responsible for such radii.
(iv) Interstitial compounds are chemically more reactive (a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
than parent metal. (b) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) Statement (i) is correct only
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Statement (ii) is correct only.
140. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) As a result of lanthanoid contraction members of 4d 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
and 5d series exhibit similar radii.
(ii) IE2 is high for Cr and Cu whereas IE3 is very high for
Zn. Column-I Column -II
(iii) Heavier members of d-block elements like p-block (A) Metal of the 3d-series which (p) Manganese
elements favours lower oxidation states. does not form MO type oxide.
(iv) In any transition series maximum number of oxidation (B) Metal of the 3d-series which (q) Vanadium
states is shown by middle elements or elements near forms most covalent oxide.
middle elements. (C) Metal of the 3d-series which (r) Scandium
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) forms the amphoteric oxide.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) (a) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q)
141. Consider the following statements (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q)
(i) La(OH)3 is the least basic among hydroxides of (c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p)
lanthanides. (d) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r)
(ii) Zr4+ and Hf4+ posses almost the same ionic radii. 146. Match the columns
(iii) Ce4+ can as an oxidizing agent. Column-I Column-II
Which of the above is/are true ? (Ion) (M calculated)
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (A) Ti2+ (p) 2.84
(c) (ii) only (d) (i) and (ii) (B) Zn2+ (q) 5.92
142. Read the following statements. (C) Mn 2+ (r) 0
(i) Chemistry of actinoids is complex in comparsion to (D) Sc3+ (s) 4.90
chemistry of lanthanoids. (a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r).
(ii) Ce4+ is very good reducing agent. (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s).
(iii) Eu2+ is a strong reducing agent. (c) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s).
(iv) Out of all lanthanides Ce,Pr,Nd,Dy and Ho shows +4 (d) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r).
oxidation state. 147. Match the columns
Which of the following is the correct code for the statements Column-I Column-II
above? (A) Compound formed when (p) acidified
(a) TTFF (b) TFTF yellow CrO24 is acidified. MnO4
(c) FTFT (d) FTTF
143. Read the following statements? (B) reagent oxidises Fe2+ to Fe3+ (q) Cr2 O72
(i) Only Pu show maximum oxidation state of +7 in
(C) Compound produced when (r) K2MnO4
actinoids.
MnO2 is fused with KNO3
(ii) M4+ ion of Th is the only diamagnetic M4+ ion of
(D) Compound having dark (s) KMnO4
actinoid series.
purple crystals isostructural
(iii) Electrons present in the 5f orbitals of actinides can
with KClO4
participate in bonding to a firm greater extent as
compared to electrons present in 4f orbitals of (a) A – (q),B – (p), C – (r), D – (s)
lanthanides. (a) A – (p),B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
(iv) Magnetic properties of actinoids are more complex (a) A – (q),B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
than lanthanoids (a) A – (q),B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)

7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176 121
148. Match the columns 154. The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d9 whereas that
Column-I Column-II of Cu(I) is 3d10. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Lanthanide hard as steel. (p) Lu (a) Cu (II) is more stable
(B) Lanthanide with maximum (q) Tb (b) Cu (II) is less stable
paramagnetic character in (c) Cu (I) and (II) are equally stable
Ln4+ state. (d) Stability of Cu (I) and Cu (II) depends on nature of
(C) Lanthanide with maximum (r) Sm copper salts
value of E° for reaction 155. Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is +4
(MnF4) but highest oxidation state in oxides is +7 (Mn2O7)
Ln3+(aq)+3e– o Ln(s). because _______.
(D) Lanthanide whose Ln 3+ ion is (s) Eu (a) fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.
diamagnetic in nature (b) fluorine does not possess d-orbitals.
(a) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q) (c) fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state.
(b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) (d) in covalent compounds fluorine can form single bond
(c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p) only while oxygen forms double bond.
(d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p) 156. Four successive members of the first series of the transition
metals are listed below. For which one of them the standard
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
º

potential E M 2 / M value has a positive sign?
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four (a) Co (Z = 27) (b) Ni (Z = 28)
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You (c) Cu (Z = 29) (d) Fe (Z = 26)
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. 157. The standard redox potentials for the reactions
Mn2+ + 2e– o Mn and Mn3+ + e– o Mn2+ are –1.18 V and
1.51 V respectively. What is the redox potential for the
reaction Mn3+ + 3e– o Mn?
(a) 0.33 V (b) 1.69 V
(c) – 0.28 V (d) – 0.85 V
158. Which one of the following transition metal ions shows
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. magnetic moment of 5.92 BM?
149. Assertion : Cuprous ion (Cu+) has unpaired electrons while (a) Mn 2+ (b) Ti3+
cupric ion (Cu++) does not. (c) Cr3+ (d) Cu2+
Reason : Cuprous ion (Cu+) is colourless whereas cupric 159. In the following salts the lowest value of magnetic moment
ion (Cu++) is blue in the aqueous solution is observed in
150. Assertion : Transition metals show variable valency. (a) MnSO4. 4H2O (b) CuSO4.5H2O
Reason : Transition metals have a large energy difference (c) FeSO4.6H2O (d) ZnSO4.7H2O
between the ns2 and (n – 1)d electrons. 160. In which of the following pairs both the ions are coloured in
151. Assertion : Transition metals are good catalysts. aqueous solutions ?
Reason : V2O5 or Pt is used in the preparation of H2SO4 by (a) Sc3+, Ti3+ (b) Sc3+, Co2+
contact process. (c) Ni2+, Cu+ (d) Ni2+, Ti3+
152. Assertion : Magnetic moment values of actinides are lesser (At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)
than the theoretically predicted values. 161. For the ions Zn2+, Ni2+ and Cr3+ which among the following
Reason : Actinide elements are strongly paramagnetic. statements is correct?
(atomic number of Zn = 30, Ni = 28 and Cr = 24)
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 (a) All these are colourless
(b) All these are coloured
153. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the
(c) Only Ni2+ is coloured and Zn2+ and Cr3+ are colourless
one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration
(d) Only Zn2+ is colourless and Ni2+ and Cr3+ are coloured
is (At. nos. Ti = 22; V = 23; Cr = 24; Mn = 25)
162. Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured
(a) Ti 3 , V 2 , Cr 3 , Mn 4 because
(a) both have half filled p-and d-orbitals
(b) Ti , V 4 , Cr 6 , Mn 7 (b) cuprous ion has incomplete d-orbital and cupric ion
has a complete d-orbital
(c) Ti 4 , V 3 , Cr 2 , Mn 3 (c) both have unpaired electrons in the d-orbitals
(d) cuprous ion has complete d-orbital and cupric ion has
(d) Ti 2 , V 3 , Cr 4 , Mn 5
an imcomplete d-orbital.

122 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
163. The colour of the following ions V2+, V3+, V4+, Fe2+, Fe3+ 172. Which of the following oxidising reaction of KMnO4 occurs
are respectively in acidic medium?
(a) green, violet, blue, green, yellow (i) Fe2+ (green) is converted to Fe3+ (yellow).
(b) yellow, green, violet, green, blue (ii) Iodide is converted to iodate.
(c) violet, green, yellow, green, blue (iii) Thiosulphate oxidised to sulphate.
(d) yellow, green, blue, green, violet (iv) Nitrite is oxidised to nitrate.
164. Which of the following arrangements does not represent (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
the correct order of the property stated against it ? (c) (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iv)
(a) V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ : Paramagnetic behaviour 173. Arrange the following increasing order of acidic character?
(b) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : Ionic size Mn2O7(A), Mn2O3(B), MnO(C)?
(c) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr 3+ < Sc3+ : Stability in aqueous (a) C, A, B (b) A, C, B
solution (c) B, A, C (d) C, B, A
(d) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : Number of oxidation states 174. Solution of oxalate is colourless. It is made acidic by adding
165. Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is excess of H+, then titrated with KMnO4. Now at a moment
added to it. This is due to the formation of : if someone has added large amount of KMnO4, in it then
(a) Cr2(SO4)3 (b) CrO42– no. of possible products are
(c) Cr2(SO3)3 (d) CrSO4 (a) CO2, Mn2+, H2O (b) CO2, MnO2, H2O
166. Which of the statements is not true? (c) MnO2, H2O, CO2 (d) CO2, MnO2, H2O, Mn2+
(a) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, 175. Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids(Ln) is dominated
a milky colour is observed. by its + 3 oxidation state, which of the following statements
(b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric is incorrect?
analysis. (a) The ionic size of Ln (III) decrease in general with
(c) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange. increasing atomic number
(d) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the (b) Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless.
pH beyond 7. (c) Ln (III) hydroxide are mainly basic in character.
167. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide ? (d) Because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions the bonding
(i) Mn 2O7 (ii) CrO in its compounds is predominantly ionic in character.
(iii) V2O4 (iv) Cr2O3 176. The +3 ion of which one of the following has half filled 4f
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) subshell?
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) (a) La (b) Lu
168. Among the oxides, Mn 2O7 (I), V2O3 (II), V2O5 (III), CrO (c) Gd (d) Ac
(IV) and Cr 2O3 (V) the basic oxides are 177. Although + 3 is the characteristic oxidation state for
(a) I and II (b) II and III lanthanoids but cerium also shows + 4 oxidation state
(c) III and IV (d) II and IV because _________ .
169. When a small amount of KMnO4 is added to concentrated (i) it has variable ionisation enthalpy
H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained which is highly (ii) it has a tendency to attain noble gas configuration
explosive in nature. Compound may be (iii) it has a tendency to attain f 0 configuration
(a) MnSO4 (b) Mn 2O7 (iv) it resembles Pb4+
(c) MnO2 (d) Mn 2O3 (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
170. Identify the product and its colour when MnO2 is fused (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
with solid KOH in the presence of O2. 178. Dichromate [Cr(VI) ] is a strong oxidizing agent whereas
(a) KMnO4, purple (b) K2MnO4, dark green Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found to be not. This is due to
(c) MnO, colourless (d) Mn2O3, brown (a) Lanthanoid contraction
171. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the (b) Down the group metallic character increases
decolourisation is slow in the beginning but becomes (c) Down the group metallic character decreases
instantaneous after some time because (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) CO2 is formed as the product. 179. Which of the following conversions can be carried out by
(b) reaction is exothermic. both acidified K2Cr2O4 and acidified KMnO4?
(c) MnO4 catalyses the reaction.
(i) Fe2+ o Fe3+ + e– (ii) I– o
(iii) I– o I2 (iv) H2S o S
(d) 2 acts as autocatalyst.
Mn (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176 123
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 16. (b) Zn [Ar]3d10 4s1,Fe 2 [Ar]3d 6 4s0 , Ni [Ar]3d 8 4s1,
1. (c) General electronic configuration of transition elements
Cu [Ar]3d10 4s 0 ;
is ( n 1) d 1 10 ns1 2
Fe 2 contain maximum number of unpaired electrons.
2. (b) Cr (24) = 1s 2 , 2 s2 2 p 6 , 3s 2 3 p 6 , 3d 5 , 4 s1 ,
3. (b) Configuration of Fe ( Z = 26) 17. (a) Ni 28 Ni > Ar @3d8 4s 2 contain 2 unpaired electrons.
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d 6, 4s2 18. (c) Zn, Cd, Hg do not show properties of transition
4. (d) Ni 3+
: [Ar] 3d 7 elements hence they are known as non typical
transition elements.
3+
Mn : [Ar] 3d 4 19. (c) The outer electronic configuration of the given ions is
as
Fe3+ : [Ar] 3d 5
Co3+ : [Ar] 3d 6 d s
5. (c) Ag belongs to second transition series. Ti2+
6. (c) 7. (a) d s
8. (d) Transition elements due to similar (almost) sizes exhibit Fe2+
both vertical and horizontal similarities. d s
9. (a) Group number is given by >ns n 1d @ electrons. Cr+
? >2 3@ 5 d s
Cu+
10. (a) 3d series starts from ScZ 21 and ends with
Zn(Z –30).
20. (c) 21. (a)
11. (d) Since transition metals can lose electrons from
22. (a) Mn7+ = 25 – 7 = 18e– = [Ar]
n 1d ns orbitals hence they are valence orbitals. ? 0 unpaired electrons.
12. (b) Atomic no. of Ni = 28
23. (b) Co o [Ar]3d 7 4s 2
Ni (Ground state) = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d 8, 4s2,
2 2 6 2 6 8 0
Ni 2 = 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 3d , 4s
Since it contains three unpaired electrons. Hence it is
3d
paramagnetic.
24. (a) The outermost electronic configuration of Fe is
? It has 2 unpaired electrons Fe = [Ar] 3d6 4s2
13. (c) Cerium (Ce) belongs to lanthanide series and is member Fe2+ = [Ar] 3d6 4s0
of inner-transition metals.
14. (c) Mn3+ = [Ar]3d4
= [Ar] Since Fe2+ has 4 unpaired electrons it is paramagnetic
in nature.
Number of unpaired electrons = 4 Zn = [Ar] 3d10 4s2 —— no unpaired e–
Cr3+ = [Ar]3d3
Hg2+ = [Ar] 4f 14 5d10 —— no unpaired e–
= [Ar] Ti4+ = [Ar] 3d0 4s0 —— no unpaired e–
No. of unpaired electrons = 3 25. (c) Due to d 5 configuration, Mn has exactly half filled
V3+ = [Ar]3d2 d-orbitals. As a result the electronic configuration is
stable means 3d electrons are more tightly held by the
= [Ar] nucleus and this reduces the delocalization of electrons
No. of unpaired electrons = 2 resulting in weaker metallic bonding.
15. (a) 26. (d) All statements are correct.

124 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
27. (d) The minimum oxidation state in transition metal is equal 37. (b) 30Zn and 80Hg have their d orbitals completely filled
to the number of electrons in 4s shell and the maximum so they do not show any variable valency.
oxidation state is equal to the sum of the 4s and 3d 38. (a) Highest O.S. by Mn (+7)
electrons. 39. (c) Zinc does not show variable oxidation state due to
Ti = [Ar] 3d24s2 completely filled d-orbitals.
Hence minimum oxidation state is +2 and maximum 40. (d) Sc does not show variable valency.
oxidation state is +4. Thus the common oxidation states 41. (b) 42. (d)
of Ti are +2, +3 and +4 43. (b) Transition metals are generally paramagnetic since they
28. (a) Os shows maximum oxidation state of +8. contain unpaired electrons.
44. (b) Since reduction potential of fluorine is highest
29. (b) Mn - 3d 5 4s2
transition metals exhibit highest oxidation state with
The no. of various oxidation states possible are + 2, fluorine.
+ 3, + 4, + 5, + 6 and + 7. 45. (a) Zn, Cd and Hg due to presence of completely filled
30. (c) Due to lanthanide contraction, the size of Zr and Hf d-orbitals in ground state as well as in their common
(atom and ions) become nearly similar. oxidation states are not regarded as a transition metals
31. (a) but they are studied along with the transition metals.
32. (d) Fe3+ is easily hydrolysed than Fe2+ due to more 46. (a) The +7 oxidation state of Mn is not represented in
positive charge. simple halides but MnO3F is known
33. (c) Electronic configuration 47. (d) Transition metals exhibit variable valency
3d 4s 48. (b) In transition metals d electrons also take part in
V2+ –3d 3 4s0 bonding, so they show variable oxidation states.
49. (d) For chromium ion + 3 oxidation state is most stable.
Cr – 3d 4 4s0 50. (c) The melting points of the transition element first rise
Mn – 3d 5 4s0 to a maximum and then fall as the atomic number
increases manganese have abnormally low melting
Fe – 3d 6 4s0 point.
For third ionization enthalpy Mn has stable 51. (a) They may or may not be diamagnetic
configuration due to half filled d-orbital. 52. (a) Mn++ –5 unpaired electrons
34. (d) (n – 1)d 5ns2 attains the maximum O.S. of + 7. Fe++ – 4 unpaired electrons
35. (a) The ionisation energies increase with increase in Ti++ – 2 unpaired electrons
atomic number. However, the trend is some irregular Cr++ – 4 unpaired electrons
among d-block elements. On the basis of electronic Hence maximum no. of unpaired electron is present in
configuration, the Mn++.
Zn : 1s 2 2s 2 p 6 3s 2 p6 d 10 4s 2 Magnetic moment r number of unpaired electrons
53. (d) E q 3 2 = – 0.41 V E q 3 2 = + 0.77 V
Cr / Cr Fe / Fe
Fe : 1s 2 2s 2 p 6 3s 2 p 6 d 6 4s 2
Eq Eq 3
Mn3 / Mn 2 = + 1.57 V,, Co / Co 2 = + 1.97 V
Cu : 1s 2 2s 2 p6 3s 2 p 6 d 10 4s1 2+
54. (d) Since Mn contains maximum number of unparied
Cr : 1s 2 2s 2 p6 3s 2 p 6 d 5 4s1 electrons hence it has maximum magnetic moment
IE1 follows the order : Zn > Fe > Cu > Cr 55. (d) Magetic moment P n n 2 where n = number of
36. (a) In a period on moving from left to right, ionic radii
decreases. unpaired electrons 15 nn 2 ? n = 3
(a) So order of cationic radii is
Cr2+ > Mn2+ > Fe2+ > Ni2+ and 56. (c) Magnetic moment P n n 2 BM
(b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (correct order of atomic radii)
1.73 n n 2 ? n 1 , it has one unpaired electron
(c) For unpaired electrons
Mn 2 (Five) ! Ni 2 (Two) hence electronic configuration is >Ar@3d 1 and
Co 2 (Three) Fe2 (Four) electronic configuration for Z = 22 is > Ar @ 3d 2 4s2 .

(d) For unpaired electrons > Hence charge on Ti is +3
2 2 57. (b) The more the number of unpaired electrons, the more
Fe (Four) ! Co (Three) >
is magnetic moment.Therefore the answer is (b).
Ni2 (Two) ! Cu 2 (One) 58. (a)

7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176 125
59. (d) Fe3+(d5) has 5 unpaired electrons therefore magnetic
79. (b) 2Fe3+ + 2I– 2+
o 2Fe + I2
moment n(n 2) 5(5 2) 5.91 which is
maximum among given options. As Sc3+, Ti3+, Cr 3+, 2Fe 2 S2 O82
o 2Fe3 2SO 24
V3+ contains 0, 1, 3, and 2 number of unpaired electrons 80. (a)
respectively. 81. (b)
60. (b) 61. (b)
82. (a) o 2CrO 42 H 2 O
Cr2 O 72– 2OH –
62. (a) Sc3+o 3d 04s 0
Hence CrO 24 ion is obtained.
Fe2+o 3d 6 4s 0
83. (b) CrO3 2NaOH o Na 2CrO 4 H 2 O
Ti3+o 3d 14s 0
2 +
84. (a) Cr2O 7 + 6I + 14H o 3I 2 + 7H2 O + 2Cr 3+

Mn2+ o 3d 5 4s 0 oxidation state of Cr is +3.
In Sc3+ there is/are no unpaired electrons. So the 2–
aqueous solution of Sc3+ will be colourless. 85. (d) O O
63. (a) Transition elements form coloured ions due to d-d
transitions. In the presence of ligands, there is splitting Cr Cr
of energy levels of d-orbitals. They no longer remain O O O
O O
degenerated. So, electronic transition may occur Dichromate ion
between two d-orbitals. The required amount of energy There are six equivalent Cr — O bonds and one
to do this is obtained by absorption of light of a Cr — O — Cr bond.
particular wavelength in the region of visible light. 86. (c) Solid potassium dichromate when heated with
64. (c) The transition metals and their compounds are used concentrated sulphuric acid and a soluble chloride
as catalysts. Because of the variable oxidation states gives orange red vapours of a volatile oily liquid
they may form intermediate compound with one of the CrO2Cl2
readtants. These intermediate provides a new path with K2Cr2O7 + 4NaCl + 6H2SO4
lowe activation energy. V2O5 + SO2 oV2O4 + SO3 o2KHSO4 + 4NaHSO4 + 2CrO2Cl2
2V2O4+ O2 o2V2O5 chromyl chloride
65. (d) Since Sc3+ does not contain any unpaired electron it 87. (c) Mn2O7 is acidic, V2O5 is amphoteric acid and CrO is
is colourless in water. basic.
88. (a) CrO2 is amphoteric in nature
66. (b) Cu 2 > Ar @ 3d 9 , Ti 4 > Ar @3d 0 , Co 2 > Ar @3d 7 , Fe 2 > Ar @3d 6
89. (a) 90. (c)
1, 3, 4 are coloured ions hence the answer is b. 91. (b) In neutral or faintly alkaline medium thiosulphate is
67. (a) In interstitial compounds small atoms like H, B and C quantitatively oxidized by KMnO4 to SO42–
enter into the void sites between the packed atoms of 8KMnO4 + 3Na2S2O3 + H2O o
crystalline metal. They retain metallic conductivity and 3K2SO4 + 8MnO2 + 3Na2SO4 + 2KOH
are chemically inert. 92. (b) HCl and SO2 are reducing agents and can reduce
68. (d) A covalent bond is formed between small interstial MnO4–. CO2 which is neither oxidising and nor
non-metal and transition metal which make it hard reducing will provide only acidic medium. It can shift
69. (c) If non metal is added to the interstital site the metal reaction in forward direction and reaction can go to
becomes less malleable due to formation of covalent completion.
bond between metal and non metal 93. (c) In laboratory, manganese (II) ion salt is oxidised to
70. (c) Gun metal is an alloy of Cu, Zn and Sn. It contains 88% permagnate ion in aqueous solution by
Cu, 10% Sn and 2% Zn. peroxodisulphate.
71. (b) Brass is an alloy of Cu and Zn 2
2Mn 2 S2O82 8H 2O o 2MnO4 10SO4 16H

72. (b) Cu, Ag and Au are called coinage metals. peroxodisulphate ion
73. (b) Bronze is an alloy of Cu and Sn.
74. (b) Bronze - 10% Sn, 90% Cu 94. (a) Pyrolusite (It is MnO 2 )
(Sn is a non transition element) 95. (a) 2KMnO4 H 2SO4 Conc
o
4 4 5 6 K 2SO 4 Mn O H 2 O
75. (b) VO2 Ti O2 VO2 Cr O42 2 7
Explosive
76. (b)
96. (c) In acid medium MnO4 8H 5e o Mn 2 4H 2O
77. (d) Ti4+ (3d0) and Zn2+ (3d10) are colourless.
78. (d) (O.S. of Mn changes form +7 to +2)

126 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
97. (c) [Xe]4f7 6s2 – 7 unpaired e–
98. (b) Mn2+ (d5)is more stable than Mn 3+ (d4), thus Yb2+(Z = 70)
[Xe]4f14 6s2 – 0 unpaired e–
E ve
Mn 3 /Mn 2 Ce2+(Z = 58)
99. (a) As the oxidation state of metal associated with oxygen [Xe]4f1 5d1 6s2 – 2 unpaired e–
increases, the acidic character of oxide increases. Only Yb2+ is diamagnetic.
100. (d) 118. (b) Amongst the given elements, only Gd is a lanthanide .
101. (d) PdCl2 is used as a catalyst in Wacker’s process. 119. (d) Mischmetal is an alloy which contains rare earth
102. (c) Only Cu in its +2 oxidation state is able to oxidizes the elements (94-95%), iron (5%) and traces of sulphur,
I– to I2 carbon, silicon, calcium and aluminium. It is used in
103. (c) The number is 28(14 lanthanide +14 Actinides) gas lighters, tracer bullets and shells.
120. (b) Cerium is the most common lanthanide
104. (b) La 3+ : 54 e– = [Xe] 121. (a) La ( lanthanum ) is non lanthanide atom
Ti3+ : 19 e– = [Ar] 3 d 1 (Coloured) 122. (b) Eu 2 has electronic configuration > Xe@ 4f 7 hence
Lu 3+ : 68 e– = [Xe] 4 f 14 stable due to half filled atomic orbitals.
123. (d) Actinides have variable valency due to very small
Sc3+ : 18 e– = [Ar] difference in energies of 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals. Actinides
105. (c) A regular decrease in the size of the atoms and ions in are the elements from atomic number 89 to 103.
lanthanoid series from La3+ to Lu3+ is called lanthanide 124. (c) Ac (89) = [Rn] [6d1] [7s2]
contraction. The similarity in size of the atoms of Zr 125. (b) The main reason for exhibiting larger number of
and Hf is due to the lanthanide contraction. oxidation states by actinoids as compared to
106. (d) We know that lanthanides La, Gd shows +3, oxidation lanthanoids is lesser energy difference between 5 f and
state, while Eu shows oxidation state of +2 and + 3. Am 6d orbitals as compared to that between 4f and 5d
shows +3, +4, +5 and +6 oxidation states. Therefore orbitals.
Americium (Am) has maximum number of oxidation In case of actinoids we can remove electrons from 5f
states. as well as from d and due to this actinoids exhibit larger
107. (c) Lanthanides are 4 f-series elements starting from cerium number of oxidation state than lanthanoids.
(Z= 58) to lutetium (Z = 71). These are placed in the 126. (c) Actinoids exhibit variable oxidation states, which vary
sixth period and in third group. from +3 to +7.
108. (b) In lanthanides, there is poorer shielding of 5d electrons 127. (c) 128. (b ) 129. (c)
by 4 f electrons resulting in greater attraction of the 130. (d) Mischmetall consists of a lanthanoid metal
nucleus over 5 d electrons and contraction of the atomic (~95%) and iron (~ 5%) and traces of S,C,Ca and Al.
radii. 131. (d)
109. (d) On going from left to right in lanthanoid series ionic, 132. (b) Curium (Cm) has configuration 5f 7 6d1 7s2.
size decreases i.e. 133. (d)
Ce+3 > Tb+3 > Er+3 > Lu+3. 134. (a) Tb4+ = 4f 7 — 3 unpaired e–
110. (d) 3+
Lu = 4f 14 — 0 unpaired e–
111. (c) Lanthanide contraction results into decrease in atomic 4+
Ce = 4f 0 — 0 unpaired e–
and ionic radii. 3+ 0
La = 4f — 0 unpaired e–
112. (a)
113. (a) 4f orbital is nearer to nucleus as compared to 5 f orbital 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
therefore, shielding of 4 f is more than 5 f.
114. (d) 135. (b) (i) Outer electronic configuration of Mn is 3d54s2 and
115. (d) The configuration of Gd is [xe] 4f 7 5d1 6s2. hence exhibits +7 oxidation state.
116. (c) In lanthanide series there is a regular decrease in the (ii) Zinc does not form coloured ions as it has
atomic as well as ionic radii of trivalent ions (M3+) as completely filled 3d104s7 configuration.
the atomic number increases. Although the atomic radii (iii) In [CoF6]3–, Co3+ is a d7 system. Fluoride is a weak
do show some irregularities but ionic radii decreases field ligand and hence does not cause pairing of
from La(103 pm) to Lu (86pm). Y3+ belong to second electrons.
transition series there fore have greater ionic radii then Co3+ np np n n n ; Paramagnetic
other ions of third transition series.
(iv)Sc can form a maximum of +3 oxidation state as it
117. (c) Sm2+(Z = 62)
has an outer electronic configuration of 3d14s2.
[Xe]4f6 6s2 – 6 unpaired e–
(v) Zn exhibits only +2 oxidation state as this O.S. is
Eu2+(Z = 63)
the most stable one.

7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176 127
136. (d) Thus options (a) and (c) are discarded; now let us
137. (b) In any row the melting points of transition metals rise observe the second point of difference.
to a maximum at d5 except for anomalous values of 4
:1s 2 2s 2 p6 3s 2 p 6 d1
23 V
Mn and Tc and falls regularly as the atomic number
Thus option (b) is discarded
increases.
3
138. (a) Aqueous solution formed by Ti3+ ions has purple 23 V :1s 2 2 s 2 p 6 3s 2 p 6 d 2
colour. 4
24 Cr :1s 2 2s 2 p6 3s 2 p 6 d 2
139. (a) Steel is an alloy of Fe and C (non-metal). Interstitial
5
compounds are chemically inert. 25 Mn :1s 2 2 s 2 p 6 3s 2 p 6 d 2
140. (b) Heavier members of d-block elements unlike p-block 154. (a) 155. (d)
elements shows higher oxidation states. For example
156. (c) E o 2 = 0.34 V
W(VI) is more stable than Cr(VI). Cu / Cu
141. (b) As a result of lanthanide contraction Zr 4+ and Hf4+ other has – ve E oR.P.
possess almost the same ionic radii. Ce4+ is an
oxidising agent. Ce4+ gains electron to acquire more Eo
Co / Co = – 0.28 V
stable Ce3+state. La(OH)3 is the most basic among
lanthanide hydroxides. E o = – 0.25V
Ni / Ni
142. (b) Ce4+ is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3
state. Eo = – 0.44V
Fe / Fe
Ho does not show oxidation state of +4. Lanthanoids
157. (c) Eq nE q
showing +4 oxidation state are Ce, Pr, Nd, Dy and Tb.
2
143. (a) Both Np and Pu shows oxidation state of +7. Mn 2e o Mn 1.18 2.36 V
3 2
144. (a) Atomic mass of Hf is greater than that of Zr, Hf is a Mn e o Mn 1.51 1.51 V
series 3 metal, so for almost similar radius Hf has greater Mn 3 3e o Mn 0.28 0.85 V
density, Lanthanoid contraction is responsible for
158. (a) Given magnetic moment of transition metal
almost similar radii.
= n n 2 5.92
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 i.e., n = 5
145. (b) 146. (c) 147. (a) 148. (d) Number of unpaired electrons in Mn2+ = 5
Number of unpaired electrons in Ti3+ = 1
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 Number of unpaired electrons in Cr3+ = 3
Number of unpaired electrons in Cu2+ = 1
149. (d) Number of unpaired electrons in Co2+ = 3
150. (c) The assertion is correct but the reason is false. Actually Thus Mn2+ have magnetic moment = 5.92 BM
transition metal show variable valency due to very 159. (a) Mn++ = 3d5 i.e. no. of unpaired e– = 5
small difference between the ns2 and (n – 1)d electrons. Cu++ = 3d9 i.e. no. of unpaired e– = 1
151. (b) Due to larger surface area and variable valencies to Fe++ = 3d6 i.e. no. of unpaired e– = 4
form intermediate absorbed complex easily, transition Zn++ = 3d10 i.e. no. of unpaired e– = 0
metals are used as catalysts. Ni++ = 3d8 i.e. no. of unpaired e– = 3
152. (b) The magnetic moments are lesser than the fact that 5f Higher the number of unpaired electrons higher will be
electrons of actinides are less effectively shielded the magnetic moment. Hence Mn ++ having maximum
which results in quenching of orbital contribution. unpaired electrons will have the maximum magnetic
moment.
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 160. (d) Sc3+ : 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2p6d0, 4s0; no unpaired electron.
Cu+ : 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2p6d 10, 4s0; no unpaired electron.
153. (d) The electronic configuration of different species given
Ni2+: 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2p6d 8, 4s0;
in the question are unpaired electrons are present.
(a) 22 Ti3 :1s2 2s2 p6 3s2 p6 d1 Ti3+ : 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2p6d 1, 4s 0;
unpaired electron is present
(b) 22 Ti :1s 2 2s 2 p6 3s 2 . p6 d 2 4s1
Co2+ : 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2p6d 7, 4s0;
(c) 22 Ti4 :1s2 2s2 p6 3s 2 p6 unpaired electrons are present
2 So from the given options the only correct combination
(d) 22 Ti :1s 2 2 s 2 p 6 3s 2 p 6 d 2
is Ni2+ and Ti3+.

128 7+(d$1'f%/2&.(/(0(176
161. (d) The ions with unpaired electrons are colourled and 165. (a) The green colour appears due to the formation of
those with paired electrons are colourless. Cr+++ion
Zn 2 = 1s 2, 2s2p6, 3s2 p6 d10 Cr2 O72– 3SO32– 8H
o 3SO 2–
4 2Cr
3
4H 2 O
(No. of e s 28)
166. (b) Na2Cr2O7 is hygroscopic.
Cr 3 = 1s 2, 2s2p6, 3s2 p6 d3 167. (c) Mn2O7 o acidic
(No. of e s 21) CrO o basic
V2O4 o amphoteric
Ni 2 = 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2 p6 d8 Cr2O3 o amphoteric
(No. of e s 26)
168. (d) Oxide Mn2O7 : Oxidation state of metal + 7
Thus Zn 2 , Cr 3 and Ni 2 have zero, 3 and 2 Oxide V2O3 : Oxidation state of metal + 3
unpaired electrons respectively. Oxide V2O5 : Oxidation state of metal + 5
10 Oxide CrO : Oxidation state of metal + 2
162. (d) In Cu > Ar @ 3d there is no unpaired electron,
Oxide Cr 2O3 : Oxidation state of metal + 5
Cu 2 > Ar @ 3d 9 contains one unpaired electron hence 169. (b) KMnO4 reacts with H2SO4 to form Mn2O7 which is
coloured. highly explosive substance.
163. (d) V2+ – violet, V3+ – green V4+ – blue 2KMnO4 + H2SO4 o K2SO4 + Mn2O7 + H2O
Fe2+ – green Fe3+ – yellow 170. (b) 2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2
o 2K 2 MnO4 2H 2O
164. (a) dark green
(a) V = 3d 3 4s 2 ; V2+ = 3d 3 = 3 unpaired electrons 171. (d)

Cr = 3d 5 4s 1 ; Cr 2+ = 3d 4 = 4 unpaired electrons
172. (b) 5Fe2+ + MnO4 +8H+
o Mn2+ +4H2O + 5Fe3+
Mn = 3d 5 4s2 ; Mn2+ = 3d 5 = 5 unpaired electrons
Fe = 3d 6 4s 2 ; Fe2+ = 3d 6 = 4 unpaired electrons 5NO 2 2MnO 4 6H o 2Mn 2 5NO 3 3H 2O
Hence the correct order of paramagnetic behaviour
173. (d) As the oxidation state increases the acidity increases.
V2+ < Cr 2+ = Fe2+ < Mn2+
174. (d) If KMnO4 was added slowly than option a was correct,
(b) For the same oxidation state, the ionic radii generally
but at a moment due to addition of large amount of
decreases as the atomic number increases in a
KMnO4, reduction of whole KMnO4 added does not
particular transition series. hence the order is
take place, it also react with Mn2+ which had formed
Mn++ > Fe++ > Co++ > Ni++
in the solution to give MnO2.
(c) In solution, the stability of the compound depends
2MnO4 + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O o 5MnO2 + 4H+
upon electrode potentials, SEP of the transitions metal
ions are given as 175. (b) Most of the Ln 3+ compounds except La3+ and Lu3+
Co3+ / Co = + 1.97, Fe3+ / Fe = + 0.77 ; are coloured due to the presence of f-electrons.
Cr3+ / Cr2+ = – 0.41, Sc 3+ is highly stable as it does not 176. (c) 177. (a)
show + 2 O. S. 178. (b) Down the group metallic character increases hence
tendency to loose electron increases.
(d) Sc – (+ 2), (+ 3)
Ti – (+ 2), (+ 3), (+ 4) 179. (c) I– is converted to IO3 by neutral or faintly alkaline
Cr – (+ 1), (+ 2), (+ 3), (+ 4), (+ 5), (+ 6) MnO 4 as shown below..
Mn – (+ 2), (+ 3), (+ 4), (+ 5), (+ 6), (+ 7) 2MnO 4 H 2 O I
o 2MnO 2 2OH IO 3
i.e. Sc < Ti < Cr = Mn

9
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 (a) CrCl3. 6H2O

(b) [ Cr (H2O)3 Cl3]. (H2O)3
1. According to the postulates of Werner for coordination
compounds (c) [ CrCl2 (H2O)4 ] Cl . 2H2O
(a) primary valency is ionizable (d) [ CrCl (H2O)5 ] Cl2 . H2O
(b) secondary valency is ionizable 7. K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] is a :
(c) primary and secondary valencies are non-ionizable
(a) double salt (b) complex compound
(d) only primary valency is non-ionizable.
(c) acid (d) base
2. Which of the following postulates of Werner’s theory is
incorrect? 8. The number of ions formed on dissolving one molecule of
(a) Primary valencies are satisfied by negative ions. FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O in water is:
(b) Secondary valencies are satisfied by neutral molecules (a) 4 (b) 5
or negative ions. (c) 3 (d) 6
(c) Secondary valence is equal to the coordination 9. The solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] in water will
number and it depends upon the nature of ligand (a) give a test K+ (b) give a test Fe2+
attached to metal. (c) give a test of CN– (d) give a test of [Fe(CN)6]4–
(d) The ions/ groups bound by the secondary linkages 10. In the coordination compound, K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation
to the metal have charecteristic spatial arrangements. state of nickel is
3. CrCl3 has primary valence of (a) 0 (b) +1
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) +2 (d) –1
(c) 2 (d) 1 11. The coordination number of a central metal atom in a
4. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3)5Cl3, gives 3 complex is determined by
moles of ions on dissolution in water. One mole of the same (a) the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by
complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 solution to yield sigma and pi-bonds both
two moles of AgCl (s). The structure of the complex is (b) the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]. 2 NH3 pi-bonds
(b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl . NH3 (c) the number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl] Cl2. NH3 sigma bonds
(d) [Co(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 (d) the number of only anionic ligands bonded to the metal
5. When AgNO3 is added to a solution of Co(NH3)5Cl3, the ion.
precipitate of AgCl shows two ionisable chloride ions. This
means : 12. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] is
(a) Two chlorine atoms satisfy primary valency and one (a) 0 (b) + 1
secondary valency (c) + 2 (d) + 3
(b) One chlorine atom satisfies primary as well as 13. In Ni(CO)4– , oxidation number of Ni is :
secondary valency (a) 4 (b) – 4
(c) Three chlorine atoms satisfy primary valency (c) 0 (d) + 2
(d) Three chlorine atoms satisfy secondary valency
6. Which one is the most likely structure of CrCl3. 6H2O if 1/ 14. [EDTA]4 is a :
3 of total chlorine of the compound is precipitated by adding (a) monodentate ligand (b) bidentate ligand
AgNO3 (c) quadridentate ligand (d) hexadentate ligand

130 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
15. The compound having the lowest oxidation state of iron is: 26. NH2-NH2 serves as
(a) K 4 Fe(CN ) 6 (b) K 2 FeO 4 (a) Monodentate ligand (b) Chelating ligand
(c) Bridging ligand (d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) Fe 2O 3 (d) Fe(CO)5 27. Which one of the following is NOT a ligand ?
16. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the (a) PH3 (b) NO+
element ‘E’ in the complex (c) Na+ (d) F–
[E (en)2 (C2O4)]NO2 (where (en) is ethylene diamine) are, 28. Glycinato ligand is:
respectively,
(a) 6 and 2 (b) 4 and 2 NH2
(c) 4 and 3 (d) 6 and 3 (a) CH 2 –
17. Some salts although containing two different metallic COO
elements give test for only one of them in solution. Such (b) bidentate ligant
salts are (c) two donor sites N and O–
(a) complex (b) double salts (d) All of the above
(c) normal salts (d) None of these 29. Which one does not belong to ligand?
18. Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– is (a) PH3 (b) NO+
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) BF3 (d) Cl–
(c) 4 (d) 5 30. Which ligand is expected to be bidentate?
19. According to Lewis, the ligands are
(a) acidic in nature (a) C2 O42 (b) CH3C { N
(b) basic in nature (c) Br – (d) CH3NH2
(c) some are acidic and others are basic 31. Which one of the following ligands forms a chelate
(d) neither acidic nor basic (a) Acetate (b) Oxalate
20. Ligand in a complex salt are (c) Ammonia (d) Cyanide
(a) anions linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal 32. Choose the correct statement.
atom or ion (a) Coordination number has nothing to do with the
(b) cations linked by coordinate bonds to a central metal number of groups or molecules attached to the central
or ion atom
(c) molecules linked by coordinate bonds to a central (b) Coordination number is the number of coordinating
metal or ion sites of all the ligands connected to the central atom
(d) ions or molecules linked by coordinate bonds to a or the number of coordinate bonds formed by the metal
central atom or ion atom with ligands
21. The ligand N(CH2CH2NH2)3 is (c) Werner’s coordination theory postulates only one type
(a) tridentate (b) pentadentate of valency
(c) tetradentate (d) bidentate (d) All the above are correct
22. An example of ambidentate ligand is 33. O2 is a
(a) Ammine (b) Aquo (a) Monodentate ligand (b) Bidenate ligand
(c) Chloro (d) Thiocyanato (c) Tridentate ligand (d) Hexadenate ligand
23. Which of the following does not form a chelate ? 34. The stabilisation of cooordination compounds due to
(a) EDTA (b) Oxalate chelation is called the chelate effect. Which of the following
(c) Pyridine (d) Ethylenediamine is the most stable complex species ?
24. A bidenate ligand always
(a) has bonds formed to two metals ions (a) [Fe(CO)5 ] (b) [Fe(CN)6 ]3
(b) has a charge of +2 or – 2
(c) forms complex ions with a charge of +2 or –2
(c) [Fe(C2 O 4 )3 ]3 (d) [Fe(H 2 O)6 ]3
(d) has two donor atoms forming simultaneously two 35. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to
sigma (V) bonds. bind to a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a
25. An ambident ligand is one which chelating agent ?
(a) is linked to the metal atom through two donor atoms (a) thiosulphato (b) oxalato
(b) has two donor atoms, but only one of them has the (c) glycinato (d) ethane - 1, 2-diamine
capacity to form a coordinate bond [or a sigma (V) 36. Which of the following species is not expected to be a
bond] ligand?
(c) has two donor atoms, but either of two can form a
(a) NO (b) NH 4
coordinate bond
(d) forms chelate rings. (c) NH 2 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 (d) Both (a) and (b)

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37. Which of the following complexes are homoleptic ? 47. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex
3 [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is :
(i) [Co(NH3 )6 ] (ii) [Co(NH3 )4Cl] (a) Tetraaquadiaminecobalt (III) chloride
(iii) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 (iv) [Ni(NH 3 ) 4Cl 2 ] (b) Tetraaquadiamminecobalt (III) chloride
(c) Diaminetetraaquacoblat (II) chloride
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (d) Diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) 48. The IUPAC name of the complex [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 is
38. Which of the following complexes are heteroleptic ? (a) aquatetramminechloridocobalt (III) chloride
(b) chloridoaquatetramminechloridocobalt (III) chloride
(i) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3 (ii) [Fe(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]
(c) chloridoaquatetramminechloridocobalt (III) chloride
(iii) [Mn(CN)6 ]4 (iv) [Co(NH3 )4Cl2 ] (d) tetrammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride
49. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex
(a) (i), (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv) [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is :
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iv) (a) Tetraaquadiaminecobalt (III) chloride
39. Central atoms/ions in coordination compounds are. (b) Tetraaquadiamminecobalt (III) chloride
(a) Lewis acid (b) Lewis bases (c) Diaminetetraaquacobalt (II) chloride
(c) Neutral molecules (d) All of these (d) Diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
40. What is the denticity of the ligand ethylenediaminetetra 50. Chemical formula for iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (II) is
actetate ion? (a) Fe[Fe(CN)6] (b) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4 (d) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(c) 6 (d) 1 51. The IUPAC name of K3[Ir(C2O4)3] is
(a) potassium trioxalatoiridium (III)
41. K 3[Al(C 2O 4 )3 ] is called
(b) potassium trioxalatoiridate (III)
(a) Potassium aluminooxalate (c) potassium tris (oxalato) iridium (III)
(b) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III) (d) potassium tris (oxalato) iridate (III)
(c) Potassium aluminium (III) oxalate
52. IUPAC name of Na 3[Co(ONO) 6 ] is
(d) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (VI)
(a) Sodium cobaltinitrite
42. The hypothetical complex chlorodiaquatriamminecobalt (III)
(b) Sodium hexanitrito cobaltate (III)
chloride can be represented as
(c) Sodium hexanitrocobalt (III)
(a) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2
(d) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate (II)
(b) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3]
53. Which of the following is the correct name of compound.
(c) [Co(NH2)3(H2O)2 Cl] [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2
(d) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 (a) Tetraamineaqua chloride cobalt (III) chloride
43. The IUPAC name of the coordination compound (b) Tetraamineaqua chlorido cobalt (II) chloride
K 3[Fe(CN ) 6 ] is (c) Tetraamineaqua chloride cobalt (II) chloride
(a) Tripotassium hexacyanoiron (II) (d) Tetraamineaqua chlorido cobalt (III) chloride
(b) Potassium hexacyanoiron (II) 54. The number of geometrical isomers for [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is
(c) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III) (a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 4
(d) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
55. Which of the following will give maximum number of
44. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(ONO)(NH3)5]Cl2 is
isomers?
(a) pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(II) chloride (a) [Ni(C2O4) (en)2]2– (b) [Ni(en) (NH3)4]2+
(b) pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride (c) [Cr(SCN)2 (NH3)4] + (d) [Co(NH3)4 Cl2]
(c) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt(III) chloride 56. Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not
(d) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt(II) chloride show geometric isomerism? (A and B are monodentate
45. The IUPAC name of K2[PtCl6] is ligands)
(a) hexachloroplatinate potassium (a) [MA5B] (b) [MA2B4]
(b) potassium hexachloroplatinate (IV) (c) [MA3B3] (d) [MA4B2]
(c) potassium hexachloroplatinate 57. Which of the following coordination compounds would
(d) potassium hexachloroplatinum (IV) exhibit optical isomerism?
46. The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH3)4] [NiCl4] is (a) pentamminenitrocobalt(III) iodide
(a) Tetrachloronickel (II) - tetraamminenickel (II) (b) diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
(b) Tetraamminenickel (II) - tetrachloronickel (II) (c) trans-dicyanobis (ethylenediamine) chromium (III)
(c) Tetraamminenickel (II) - tetrachloronickelate (II) chloride
(d) Tetrachloronickel (II) - tetrachloronickelate (0) (d) tris-(ethylendiamine) cobalt (III) bromide

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58. The type of isomerism present in Pentaminenitrochromium 70. Which one of the following has an optical isomer?
(III) chloride is (a) [Zn(en) (NH3)2]2+ (b) [Co(en)3]3+
(a) optical (b) linkage (c) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+ (d) [Zn(en)2]2+
(c) ionisation (d) polymerisation. (en = ethylenediamine)
59. Which of the following compounds shows optical 71. Which one of the following complex ions has geometrical
isomerism? isomers ?
(a) [Ni(NH3)5Br]+ (b) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(a) [ Co (CN ) 6 ]3 (b) [ Cr ( C 2 O 4 ) 3 ]3 3+
(c) [Cr(NH3)4(en)2] (d) [Co(en)3]3+
(d) [Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ]2 (en = ethylenediamine)
(c) [ ZnCl4 ]2
72. The ionisation isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is
60. Which of the following ions can exhibit optical isomerism– (a) [Cr(H2O)4(O2N)]Cl2
(a) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (b) [Co(NH3)2Cl4]– (b) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2](NO2)
(c) Cis-[Co(en)2Cl2] + (d) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(ONO)]Cl
61. Which would exhibit co-ordination isomerism (d) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2(NO2)].H2O
(a) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] (b) [Co(en)2Cl2] 73. Isomerism exhibited by [Cr(NH3)2(H2O)2Cl2]+ are –
(c) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (d) [Cr(en)2Cl2]+ (a) ionization, optical (b) hydrate, optical
62. [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2 are related to (c) geometrical, optical (d) coordinate, geometrical
each other as 74. Type of isomerism which exists between [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2]
(a) geometrical isomers (b) optical isomers and [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] is :
(c) linkage isomers (d) coordination isomers (a) Linkage isomerism (b) Coordination isomerism
63. Coordination isomerism is caused by the interchange of (c) Ionisation isomerism (d) Solvate isomerism
ligands between the 75. Which of the following complex will show geometrical as
(a) cis and trans structure well as optical isomerism (en=ethylenediammine)
(b) complex cation and complex anion (a) Pt(NH3)2Cl2 (b) [Pt(NH3)Cl4]
(c) inner sphere and outer sphere (c) [Pt(en)3]4+ (d) [Pt(en)2Cl2]
(d) low oxidation and higher oxidation states 76. The number of geometrical isomers from [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
64. Change in composition of co-ordination sphere yields which is
type of isomers (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) optical (b) geometrical (c) 4 (d) 0
(c) ionisation (d) None of these 77. The number of isomers exhibited by [Cr(NH3)3Cl3] is
65. Which of the following does not show optical isomerism? (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]0 (b) [Co (en) Cl2 (NH3)2]+
3+ 78. For the square planar complex [M (a) (b) (c) (d)] (where M
(c) [Co (en)3] (d) [Co (en)2Cl2]+
= central metal and a, b, c and d are monodentate ligands),
(en = ethylenediamine) the number of possible geometrical isomers are
66. The complexes [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6 ] (a) 1 (b) 2
[Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism? (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) Linkage isomerism 79. Which of the following will exhibit optical isomerism ?
(b) Ionization isomerism (a) [Cr(en) (H2O)4]3+
(c) Coordination isomerism (b) [Cr(en)3]3+
(d) Geometrical isomerism (c) trans-[Cr(en)(Cl2)(NH3)2]+
67. The complex, [Pt(py)(NH3)BrCl] will have how many (d) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
geometrical isomers ? 80. Which of the following will give maximum number of
(a) 3 (b) 4 isomers?
(c) 0 (d) 2 (a) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (b) [Ni(en)(NH3)4]2+
68. Which of the following has a square planar geometry? (c) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2] (d) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]2+
(a) [PtCl4]2– (b) [CoCl4]2– 81. The compounds [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2
(c) [FeCl4] 2– (d) [NiCl4]2– constitutes a pair of
(At. nos.: Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Pt = 78) (a) coordination isomers (b) linkage isomers
69. Which of the following pairs represent linkage isomers? (c) ionization isomers (d) optical isomers
(a) [Pd(PPh3)2(NCS)2] and [Pd ( PPh3)2 (SCN)2] 82. Which one of the following will not show geometrical
(b) [Co(NH3)5NO3] SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3 isomerism ?
(c) [PtCl2(NH3)4] Br2 and [Pt Br 2 (NH3)4] Cl2 (a) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (b) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(d) [Cu(NH3)4][Pt Cl4] and [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4] (c) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ]

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83. A similarity between optical and geometrical isomerism is (c) Ni(CO)4and [NiCl4]2–are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4]2–
that is paramagnetic
(a) each gives equal number of isomers for a given (d) [NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic and Ni(CO)4
compound is paramagnetic
(b) if in a compound one is present then so is the other 92. Which of the following species represent the example of
(c) both are included in stereoisomerism dsp2 - hybridisation ?
(d) they have no similarity (a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (b) [Ni(CN)4]2–
84. The type of isomerism present in n itropenta- (c) [Ag(CN)2] – (d) [Co(CN)6]3–
amminechromium (III) chloride is 93. Which one of the following will show paramagnetism
(a) optical (b) linkage corresponding to 2 unpaired electrons?
(c) ionization (d) polymerization (Atomic numbers : Ni = 28, Fe = 26)
85. What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H 2 O)6 ]Cl3 (a) [FeF6]3– (b) [NiCl4]2–
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3– (d) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(violet) and [Cr(H 2O)5Cl]Cl 2 H 2O (greyish-green) ? 94. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 25 and 26,
(a) linkage isomerism (b) solvate isomerism which of the following is paramagnetic?
(c) ionisation isomerism (d) coordination isomerism (a) [Cr(CO)6] (b) [Fe(CO)5]
86. Which of the following type of isomerism is shown by (c) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (d) [Cr(NH3)6]+3
given complex compound? 95. CN– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that
(a) it carries negative charge
NH3
H3N NO2 (b) it is a pseudohalide
(c) it can accept electrons from metal species
Co
(d) it forms high spin complexes with metal species
O2N NO2 96. Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit
NH3
the lowest value of paramagnetic behaviour ?
(a) Facial (b) Meridional
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ]3 (b) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3
(c) Cis (d) Both b and c
87. Due to the presence of ambidentate ligands coordination (c) [Mn (CN) 6 ]3 (d) [Cr (CN) 6 ]3
compounds show isomerism. Palladium complexes of the
(At. Nos : Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2] and [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are
97. [Sc(H2O)6]3+ ion is :
(a) linkage isomers (b) coordination isomers (a) colourless and diamagnetic
(c) ionisation isomers (d) geometrical isomers (b) coloured and octahedral
88. The geometry of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPh 3)2Cl2 are (c) colourless and paramagnetic
(a) both square planar (d) coloured and paramagnetic
(b) tetrahedral and square planar 98. Which has maximum paramagnetic nature ?
(c) both tetrahedral 2
(d) None of these (a) [Mn (H 2 O) 6 ]2 (b) [Cu( NH 3 ) 4 ]
89. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex 4 2
(c) [Fe(CN) 6 ] (d) [Cu(H 2 O) 4 ]
[Cr(NH3)6]Br3 is (Atomic number Cr = 24)
(a) 4 (b) 1 99. The compound which is not coloured is
(c) 2 (d) 3 (a) K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (b) K3[Fe(CN)6 ]
90. Which of the following facts about the complex
(c) Na 2> CdCl 4 @ (d) Na 2> CuCl 4 @
[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is wrong?
(a) The complex involves d 2 sp3 hybridisation and is 100. Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest
octahedral in shape. paramagnetic behaviour ?
(b) The complex is paramagnetic. (a) [V(gly)2(OH)2(NH3)2]+ (b) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+
(c) The complex is an outer orbital complex (c) [Co(ox)2(OH)2]2– (d) [Ti(NH3)6]3+
where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and bpy =
(d) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate
solution. bipyridyl moities)
(At.nosTi = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
91. Which of the following statements is correct ?
101. Which of the following complex ion is not expected to absorb
(Atomic number of Ni = 28)
visible light ?
(a) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CN)4]2–
are paramagnetic (a) > Ni(CN)4 @2 (b) >Cr(NH3 )6 @3
(b) Ni(CO)4and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2–
is paramagnetic
(c) > Fe(H2 O)6 @2 (d) > Ni(H 2O)6 @2

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102. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature? 111. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) [NiCl4]2– (b) [Ni(CN)4]2– (a) [MnCl6]3– is more paramagnetic than [Mn(CN)6]3–
(c) [CuCl4]2– (d) [CoF6]3– (b) Both [Co(C2O4)3]3– and [CoF6]3– are paramagnetie.
103. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and (c) [Fe(CN)6]3– forms inner orbital complex whereas
exhibits paramagnetic behaviour ? [FeF6]3– forms outer orbital complex.
(a) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (b) [Zn(NH3)6)]2+ (d) Both (a) and (b).
(c) [Cr(NH3)6] 3+ (d) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 112. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
104. Atomic number of Mn, Fe, Co and Ni are 25, 26, 27 and 28 Coordination polyhedron Shape
respectively. Which of the following outer orbital octahedral (A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ Octahedral
complexes have same number of unpaired electrons ? (B) [Ni(CO)4] Square planar
(C) [PtCl4]2– Tetrahedral
(i) [MnCl6 ]3 (ii) [FeF6 ]3
(a) C (b) B and C
(iii) [CoF6 ]3 (iv) [Ni(NH 3 )6 ]2 (c) A and C (d) B
113. Which of the following are inner orbital complex (i.e.,
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
involving d2sp3 hybridisation) and is paramagnetic in
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iii)
nature?
105. Which of the following options are correct for [Fe(CN)6 ]3 (a) [Mn(CN)6]3– , [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(C2O4)3]3–
complex ? (b) [MnCl6]3–, [FeF6]3–, [CoF6]3–
(i) Possess d2sp3 hybridisation (c) [Mn(CN)6]3–, [Fe(CN)6]3–
(ii) Possess sp3 d2 hybridisation (d) [MnCl6]3– , [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(iii) It is paramagnetic 114. Which of the following is the limitation of valence bond
(iv) It is diamagnetic theory?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) It does not distinguish between weak and strong
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) ligands.
106. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3– is true ? (b) It does not give quantitative interpretation of magnetic
(a) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will be in data.
a low-spin configuration. (c) It does not explain the colour exhibited by
(b) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will be in coordination compounds
a high spin configuration. (d) All of these
(c) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will be in a 115. Which complex of Co2+ will have the weakest crystal field
high-spin configurtion. splitting –
(d) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will be in a (a) [CoCl6]4– (b) [Co(CN)6]4–
(c) [Co(NH3)6] 2+ (d) [Co(en)3]2+
low-spin configuration.
107. The complex ion which has highest magnetic moment among 116. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is the highest
the following is for
(a) [CoF6]3– (b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (a) [CoF4]2– (b) [Co(NCS)4]2–
2+ (c) [Co(NH3)6] 3+ (d) [CoCl4]2–
(c) [Ni(NH3)4] (d) [Ni(CN)4]2–
108. Which of the following complex ions is diamagnetic? 117. In which of the following complexes of the Co (at. no. 27),
(a) [FeF6]3– (b) [CoF6]3– will the magnitude of 'o be the highest?
(c) [Co(C2O4)3] 3– (d) [Fe(CN)6]3– (a) [Co(CN)6]3– (b) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(c) [Co(H2O)6] 3+ (d) [Co(NH3)6]3+
109. Which of the following has square planar structure?
(a) [Ni(CO)4] (b) [NiCl4]2– 118. Among the ligands NH3, en, CN– and CO the correct order
of their increasing field strength, is :
2
(c) [Ni(CN)4]2– (d) ª Ni H 2O º (a) NH3 en CN CO
¬ 6¼
110. Which of the following correctly explains the fact that
[Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex whereas [CoF6]3– (b) CN NH3 CO en
is an outer orbital complex?
(c) en CN NH3 CO
(a) NH3 being a strong ligand results into pairing of 3d
orbital electrons in Co3+. (d) CO NH3 en CN
(b) F– being a strong ligand results into pairing of 3d 119. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero
orbital electrons in Co3+. crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE):
(c) F– being a weak ligand cannot cause the pairing of (a) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
electrons present in 3d orbital of Co3+. 2+
(c) [Co(H2O)6] (d) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(d) Both (a) and (c).

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 135
120. The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral ('0) and (iii) It does not explain how colour of coordination
tetrahedral ('t) complexes is related as compounds depends on ligand attached to central
metal atom/ion.
1 4
(a) 't – '0 (b) 't – '0 (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
2 9
(c) (ii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3 2 128. If magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2– is 5.9 BM. Predict the
(c) 't – '0 (d) ' t – ' 0
5 5 number of electrons?
121. Which one of the following is the correct order of field (a) 2 (b) 3
strength of ligands in spectrochemical series? (c) 6 (d) 5
(a) I – < Cl– < F – < H2O < CN– 129. Arrange the following complexes in increasing order toward
(b) F – < H2O < I – < CN – < Cl– the wavelength of light they absorb? Where M is metal ion.
(c) CN – < I – < F – < Cl– < H2O [M(NH3)]3+ = a, [M(CN)6]3– = b, [M(C2O4)3]3– = c,
[MF6]3– = d,
(d) H2O < F – < CN – < Cl– < I–
(a) d, c, a, b (b) d, a, c, b
122. The colour of the coordination compounds depends on the
crystal field splitting. What will be the correct order of (c) b, a, c, d (d) a, b, c, d
absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region, for 130. Which of the following does not have a metal- carbon bond?
the complexes, (a) Al(OC 2 H 5 ) 3 (b) C 2 H 5MgBr
[Co(NH3 )6 ]3 ,[Co(CN)6 ]3 ,[Co(H 2 O)6 ]3 (c) K[Pt (C 2 H 4 )Cl 3 ] (d) Ni(CO) 4
131. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe – C bond possesses
(a) [Co(NH)6 ]3 ! [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 ! [Co(H 2O)6 ]3 (a) ionic character (b) V-character only
(c) S-character (d) both V and S characters
(b) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 ! [Co(H 2O)6 ]3 ! [Co(CN)6 ]3
132. The charge on the central metal ion in the complex [Ni(CO)4]
(c) [Co(H 2 O)6 ]3 3
! [Co(NH3 ) 6 ] ! [Co(CN)6 ] 3 is
(a) + 2 (b) + 4
(d) [Co(CN)6 ]3 ! [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 ! [Co(H 2 O)6 ]3 (c) 0 (d) + 3
123. Which of the following statements related to crystal field 133. The unpaired electrons in Ni(CO)4 are
splitting in octahedral coordination entities is incorrect? (a) zero (b) one
(a) The dx2 –y2 and dz2 orbitals has more energy as (c) three (d) four
compared to dxy, dyz and dxz orbitals. 134. The correct structure of Fe(CO)5 is (Z=26 for Fe)
(b) Crystal field spitting energy ('o) depends directly on (a) octahedral (b) tetrahedral
the charge of the metal ion and on the field produced (c) square pyramidal (d) trigonal pyramidal
by the ligand. ZZX ML 4
135. For the reaction of the type M 4L YZZ
(c) In the presence of Br– as a ligand the distribution of
(a) larger the stability constant, lower the proportion of
electrons for d4 configuration will be t 32 g , eg1, ML4 that exists in solution
(d) In the presence of CN– as a ligand 'o < P. (b) larger the stability constant, higher the proportion of
124. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ML4 that exists in solution
spectrochemical series? (c) smaller the stability constant, higher the proportion of
ML4 that exists in solution
(a) NH3 > H2O (b) F ! C2O 24 (d) None of the above
(c) NCS– > SCN– (d) en > edta4– 136. Coordination compounds have great importance in
125. For which of the following ligands magnitude of the crystal biological systems. In this context which of the following
field splitting ('o)will be greater than pairing energy (P)? statements is incorrect ?
(a) Cl– (b) SCN– (a) Cyanocobalamin is B12 and contains cobalt
(c) CO (d) S2– (b) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains
126. Violet colour of [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 on heating changes to___. iron
(a) Green (b) Colourless (c) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain
(c) White (d) Red calcium
127. Which of the following is the limitation of crystal field (d) Carboxypeptidase - A is an exzyme and contains zinc.
theory? 137. Which one of the following coordination compounds is
used to inhibit the growth of tumours?
(i) Ligands are assumed as point charges.
(a) Trans-platin (b) EDTA complex of calcium
(ii) It does not accounts for the covalent character of
bonding between the ligand and the central atom. (c) [(Ph3P)3RhCl] (d) Cis-platin

136 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
138. For [Co2(CO)8], what is the total number of metal – carbon (i) During nomenclature names of neutral ligands are kept
bonds and number of metal–metal bonds. same except for H2O, NH3 and CO.
(a) 10 ,1 (b) 8, 2 (ii) If the complex is anion, the name of the metal ends
(c) 8, 1 (d) 10, 0 with the suffix–ate.
139. Consider the following reactions.
(iii) While writing formula of coordination compounds
[XY] polydentate ligands are listed alphabeticaly.
X Y U XY K1=
[X][Y] (iv) The cation is named first in both positively and
[XY2 ] negatively charged coordination entities.
XY Y U XY2 K2 = (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
[XY][Y]
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
> XY3 @ 144. Which of the following statements are correct?
XY2 Y U XY3 K3 = XY Y
> 2 @> @ (i) Square planar complexes of MABXL type show three
On the basis of reactions above which of the following is isomers-two cis and one trans.
incorrect? (ii) Complexes of Ma3B3 type show three isomers-two
(a) Overall stability constant = K1K2K3 cis and one trans.
[XY3 ] (iii) Optical isomerism is common in octahedral complexes
(b) K1K2K3 = involving bidentate ligands.
[X][Y]3
(iv) [Co(NH3)4Cl (NO2)]Cl show linkage isomerism.
1 (v) Hydrate isomerism is another name of solvate
(c) Dissociation constant = .
Formation constant isomerism.
(d) All of the above are correct. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
140. Calculate the value of log K3 when log values of K2, K1, K4 (c) (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
and E4 respectively are 4.0, 3.20, 4.0 and 11.9 ? 145. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 2.0 (b) 2.7 (i) When light of wavelength 600nm is absorbed by
(c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
complex [Ti(H2O)6]3+ its configuration changes from
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 t12g e0g
o t 02g e1g and it appears violet in colour..
141. Identify the correct statements for the behaviour of
(ii) Anhydrous CuSO4 is white but CuSO4 .5H2O is blue
ethane- 1, 2-diamine as a ligand.
in colour as presence of H2O as a ligand causes crystal
(i) It is a neutral ligand.
field spitting.
(ii) It is a didentate ligand.
(iii) It is a chelating ligand. (iii) Ruby is aluminum oxide containing 0.5 – 1% Cr 3+
(iv) It is a unidentate ligand. ions with d3 configuration.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (iv) Crystal field theory predict correctly that anionic
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) ligands should exert the greater splitting effect.
142. Read the following statements (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(i) Macromolecules cannot behave as a ligand. (c) (i), and (ii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(ii) [EDTA]4– can bind through two oxygen and four 146. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
nitrogen atom.
(i) In metal carbonyls M–C V bond is formed by the
(iii) Chelate complexes are more stable than similar
donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl
complexes containing unidentate ligands.
carbon into a vacant orbital of metal.
(iv) Coordination number of the central atom/ion is
determined only by the number of sigma bonds formed (ii) M—C S bond is formed by the donation of a pair of
by the ligand with central atom/ion electrons from a filled d orbital of metal into the vacant
Which of the following is the correct code for statements antibonding S* orbital of CO.
above? (iii) Bonding in metal carbonyls is called synergic
(a) FFTT (b) FTFT bonding.
(c) TFTF (d) FFFT (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) only
143. Which of the following statements regarding formulas and (c) (ii) only (d) None of these
naming of coordination compounds are correct?

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 137
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 151. Match the columns.

Column-I Column-I
(A) Estimation of (p) [Ag(CN)2]–
Column-I Column-II
water hardness.
(Ligand) (Type of ligand)
(B) Extraction of silver. (q) [Ni(CO)4]
(A) Triphenylphosphine (p) Unidenate
(C) Hydrogenation of (r) Na2EDTA
(B) BF3 (q) Didentate
alkenes.
(C) Ethylenediamine (r) Not a ligand
(D) Photography (s) [(Ph3P)3RhCl]
(D) Ethylenediaminetetracetateion (s) Hexadenate
(E) Purification of (t) [Ag(S2O3)2]3–
(a) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s)
(b) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s) Nickel.
(c) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s) (a) A – (r) , B – (p), C – (s), D – (t), E– (q)
(d) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p) (b) A – (p) , B – (r), C – (s), D – (t), E– (q)
148. Match the complex species given in Column-I with the (c) A – (r) , B – (s), C – (p), D – (t), E– (q)
isomerism exhibited in Column-II and assign the correct (d) A – (r) , B – (p), C – (s), D – (q), E– (t)
code: 152. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(Complex species) (Isomerism) (Coordination compound) (Central metal atom)
(A) [Co[NH3)4Cl2]+ (p) optical (A) Chlorophyll (p) Rhodium
(B) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (q) ionisation (B) Blood pigment (q) Cobalt
(C) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 (r) coordination
(C) Wilkinson catalyst (r) Calcium
(D) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] (s) geometrical
(D) Vitamin B12 (s) Iron
(a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
(t) Magnesium
(b) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s)
(a) A – (t), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
(c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
(b) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
(d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q)
(c) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
(d) A – (r), B – (t), C – (p), D – (q)
Column-I Column-II
(A) [Ni(CN)4]2– (p) Ti4+
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(B) Chlorophyll (q) sp3; paramagnetic
(C) Ziegler - Natta (r) Non-planar Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
catalyst Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
(D) [NiCl4]2– (s) Mg2+ alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(E) Deoxyhaemoglobin (t) Planar have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(u) dsp2; diamagnetic (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
(a) A – (u), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q), E – (r)
(b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (u), E – (r) (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
(c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (u), E – (t)
(d) A – (u), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q), E – (t) (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
150. Match the columns. (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Column-I Column-II 153. Assertion : NF3 is a weaker ligand than N(CH3)3.
(Complexes) (Absorbed Light) Reason : NF3 ionizes to give F– ions in aqueous solution.
(A) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+(aq) (p) Yellow Orange 154. Assertion : [Fe(CN)6]3– is weakly paramagnetic while
(B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)2]2+(aq) (q) Blue–Green [Fe(CN)6]4– is diamagnetic.
(C) [Ni(en)3]2+(aq) (r) Red Reason : [Fe(CN)6 ]3– has +3 oxidation state while
(a) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p) [Fe(CN)6]4– has +2 oxidation state.
(b) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q) 155. Assertion : [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is
(c) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p) colourless.
(d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q) Reason : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+.

138 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
163. The total number of possible isomers for the complex
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
compound [CuII (NH3)4] [PtII Cl4]
156. A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the (a) 3 (b) 6
molecular formula containing five ammonia molecules, one (c) 5 (d) 4
nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. 164. Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
One mole of this compound produces three mole ions in an (a) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] (b) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
aqueous solution. On reacting this solution with excess of (c) [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl6] (d) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
AgNO3 solution, we get two moles of AgCl precipitate. The (en =NH2CH2CH2NH2)
ionic formula for this complex would be
165. The existence of two different coloured complexes with the
(a) [Co(NH3)4 (NO2) Cl] [(NH3) Cl]
(b) [Co (NH3)5 Cl] [Cl (NO2)] composition of [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]+ is due to :
(c) [Co (NH3)5 (NO2)] Cl2 (a) linkage isomerism (b) geometrical isomerism
(d) [Co (NH3)5] [(NO2)2Cl2] (c) coordination isomerism(d) ionization isomerism
157. What is the secondary valence of following compounds 166. Which of the following has an optical isomer
PtCl2.2NH3, CoCl3.4NH3 and NiCl2.6H2O (a) [Co(en) (NH3)2]2+ (b) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+
if moles of AgCl precipitated per mole of the given (c) [Co(en)2 (NH3)2]3+ (d) [Co(NH3)3Cl] +
compounds with excess AgNO3 respectively are: 0, 1 and 2 167. Among the following complexes, optical activity is possible
(a) 6, 4, 4 (b) 4, 6, 6 in
(c) 4, 4, 6 (d) 2, 4, 6 (a) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ]3
158. C63H88CoN14O14P is the formulae of the Cyanocobalamine, (b) [ Co ( H 2 O) 2 ( NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]
(vitamin B12) it contain CN– and CN– is very poisonous,
than why this compound does not prove to be fatal for (c) [ Cr ( H 2 O) 2 Cl 2 ]
us? (it inhibit the electron transport chain ? (d) [ Co ( CN ) 5 NC ]
(a) CN– forms covalent bond 168. [Co(NH3)4 (NO2)2] Cl exhibits
(b) CN– is coordinating to the cobalt as the ligand (a) linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and
(c) CN– hydrolysis immediately geometrical isomerism
(d) All of these (b) ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical
159. Suppose someone made aqueous solution of NiCl2 and isomerism
recrystallized its aqueous solution in excess of water and (c) linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical
if two moles of precipitate AgCl was formed on treatment isomerism
with AgNO3, what is the most probable structure of the (d) linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical
compound ? isomerism
(a) [Ni(Cl)2(H2O)4] (b) [Ni (H2O)6]Cl2 169. Which of the following compounds exhibits linkage
(c) [Ni(H2O)5Cl] (d) [Ni (H2O)4Cl2].2H2O isomerism ?
(a) [Co(en)2]Cl3 (b) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(en)3]
160. Total number of electron count in Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5
respectively are. (c) [Co(en)2NO2Cl]Br (d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Br2
170. Among the following coordination compounds/ions
(a) 36, 36 (b) 34, 36
(c) 36, 34 (d) 34, 34 3
(i) ª Fe CN º (ii) ª Pt NH3 Cl 2 º
¬ 6¼ ¬ 2 ¼
161. The formula for the complex, dichlorobis (urea) copper (II)
is 3
(a) [Cu{O = C (NH2)2}] Cl2 (iii) ª Co NH 3 º (iv) ª¬ Cr H 2 O 6 º¼ Cl3
¬ 6¼
(b) [Cu{O = C (NH2)2}Cl]Cl Which species exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(c) [CuCl2 {O = C(NH2)2}2] (a) (ii) only (b) (i) and (ii)
(d) [CuCl2] [{O = C (NH2)2}]2 (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
162. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is 171. Identify the optically active compounds from the following :
named as
(i) [Co(en)3 ]3 (ii) trans [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]
(a) Sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (III)
(b) Sodium nitroferrocyanide
(iii) cis [Co(en)2 Cl2 ] (iv) [Cr(NH3 )5 Cl]
(c) Sodium nitroferricyanide (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(d) Sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 139
172. For which value of the x, and y, the following square (a) sp3, sp3 (b) sp3, dsp2
planar compound shows geometrical isomers [Pt (Cl)x (c) dsp2, sp3 (d) dsp2, sp2
(Br)y]2– 180. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex
(a) 1, 3 (b) 3, 1 as well as diamagnetic in behaviour? (Atomic number:
(c) 2, 2 (d) 1, 1 Zn = 30, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
173. How many geometrical isomers are possible for following (a) [Zn(NH3 )6]2+ (b) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
square planar compound [M (Cl) (Br) (I) (F)] (where M is (c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
a metal ion)
181. The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the
(a) 2 (b) 3 following configurations is 2.84 BM. The correct one is
(c) 9 (d) 8
174. The terahedral complex [M(A)(B)(X)(Y)], where A,B,X and (a) d 5 (in strong ligand field)
Y are different ligands and M is a metal ion is
(b) d 3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
(a) optically inactive
(b) rotate plane polarized light (c) d 4 (in weak ligand fields)
(c) incomplete information
(d) d 4 (in strong ligand fields)
(d) can’t be said
175. The complex given is 182. The d electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Ni2+
are 3d 4, 3d 5, 3d 6 and 3d 8 respectively. Which one of the
en 3+ following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum
paramagnetic behaviour?
(a) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(c) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
Co
(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)
en 183. According to valence bond theory which of the following
en statement is correct about the complexes Ni(CO)4 and
(i) non-superimposable on its mirror images [Ni(CN)4]2– if both are diamagnetic in nature
(ii) optically inactive (a) both are tetrahedral
(iii) rotate plane polarised light (b) both are square planar
(iv) planar (c) one is square planar and other is tetrahedral
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (d) one is tetrahedral and other is square planar
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) only 184. Correct statements about the following complexes
176. The correct statement with respect to the complexes Ni(CO)4 [MnCl6]3– and [Mn(CN)6]3– respectively are.
and [Ni(CN)4]2– is (a) Magnetic moment is 4.8 and 2.8
(a) nickel is in the same oxidation state in both (b) inner sphere and outer sphere complexes.
(b) both have tetrahedral geometry (c) sp3d2 and d2sp3 complexes.
(c) both have square planar geometry (d) Both (a) and (c).
(d) have tetrahedral and square planar geometry 185. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude
respectively '0 (CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum?
177. Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital (a) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Co(NH3)6]3+
complex ? (c) [Co(CN)6] 3– (d) [Co (C2O4)3]3–
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Mn(CN)6]4– (At. No. Co = 27)
(c) [Fe(CN)6] 4– (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ 186. Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb
(Atomic nos. : Mn = 25; Fe = 26; Co = 27, Ni = 28) visible light?
178. The d-electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Co2+ (a) [Ti (en)2(NH3)2]4 + (b) [Cr (NH3)6]3 +
are d 4 , d 5, d 6 and d 7, respectively. Which one of the (c) [Zn (NH3)6] 2 + (d) [Sc (H2O)3 (NH3)3]3+
following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
(At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)
(a) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(c) [Co(H2O)6] 2+ (d) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ 187. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d 4 octahedral
(At, nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27) complex is:
179. Both [Ni(CO)4 ] and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic. The (a) – 1.8 ' 0 (b) – 1.6 ' 0 + P
hybridisations of nickel in these complexes, respectively,
are (c) – 1.2 ' 0 (d) – 0.6 ' 0

140 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
188. Low spin complex of d 6 -cation in an octahedral field will
have the following energy : (a) Cu 2 4NH3 YZZ
ZZX[Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]2 , log K = 11.6
12 12 (b) Cu 2 4NH YZZ

ZZX[Cu(NH) 4 ]2 , log K = 27.3
(a) '0 P (b) ' 0 3P
5 5
2 2
(c) Cu 2 2en YZZ
ZZX[Cu(en)2 ]2 , log K = 15.4
(c) ' 0 2P (d) '0 P
5 5
(d) Cu 2 4H 2O YZZ
ZZX[Cu(H 2O)4 ]2 , Log K = 8.9
('0= Crystal Field Splitting Energy in an octahedral field,
P = Electron pairing energy) 191. Atomic number of Mn, Fe and Co are 25, 26 and 27
189. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest respectively. Which of the following inner orbital octahedral
C – O bond ? complex ions are diamagnetic ?
(a) [Mn (CO)6]+ (b) [Cr (CO)6] (i) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3 (ii) [Mn(CN)6 ]3
(c) [V (CO)6] – (d) [Fe (CO)5]
(iii) [Fe(CN)6 ]4 (iv) [Fe(CN)6 ]3
190. Which of the following complexes formed by Cu 2 ions is
most stable ? (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 141
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 14. (d) [EDTA]4– is a hexadentate ligand, because it has six
donor atoms and donate 6 pairs of electrons to central
1. (a) The primary valencies are ionisable and represented metal atom in the complex.
by dotted line. 15. (d) In Fe(CO)5, Fe is in minimum oxidation state (zero).
2. (c) 16. (d) In the given complex we have two bidentate ligands
3. (a) CrCl3 has primary valence of 3. (i.e en and C2O4), so coordination number of E is 6
4. (d) Co (NH3)5 Cl3 [Co(NH3)5Cl]+2 + 2Cl- (2 × 2 + 1 × 2 = 6)
? Structure is [Co (NH3)5 Cl] Cl2. Let the oxidation state of E in complex be x, then
Now [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 2AgNO3 [x + (–2) = 1] or x – 2 = 1
or x = + 3, so its oxidation state is + 3
o [Co(NH3 )5 Cl](NO3 )2 2AgCl Thus option (d) is correct.
5. (a) Since the precipitate of AgCl shows two ionisable 17. (a) Salt may be complex salt. Metal atom present in the
chloride ion the complex must have the structure. coordination sphere appears in the form of complex
ion and not as simple cation
[Co( NH 3 ) 5 Cl]Cl 2 2AgNO 3 o
18. (b) Coordinate number is = 2 (number of bindentate ligands
[Co( NH 3 )5 Cl]( NO 3 ) 2 2AgCl ? C.N. of Ni = (2 × 3) = 6
Hence two chlorine atoms satisfy the primary valency 19. (b) In the complex formation the ligands whether negative,
and one, secondary valency neutral or positive always donate electrons to the
6. (c) The ions present in the ionisation sphere are precipited central metal atom hence they act as Lewis bases.
20. (c) K[Co(CN)4] let the O. N. of Co be x then
Hence [CrCl 2 (H 2O) 4 ]Cl.2H 2 O contains 1/3 Cl in
1 × (+1) + 1(+x) + 4(–1) = 0 x = + 3
ionisation sphere to be precipited by AgNO3 as AgCl 21. (c) Number of donor atoms (N) in N(CH2CH2NH2)3 are
7. (b) Complex compounds do not dissociate into constituent four.
ions. So, N(CH2CH2NH2)3 is a tetradentate ligand.
K4[Fe(CN)6] o 4K+ + [Fe(CN6)]4– 22. (d) Ambidentate ligands are those unidentate ligands
? It is a complex because no CN– is formed on which contain more than one coordinating atoms.
dissociation. Thiocyanate is an example of such a ligand.
8. (b) It is a double salt: M m SCN M m NCS
Thiocyanato Isothiocyanato
FeSO 4 . NH 4 2 SO 4 .6H 2 O
o
23. (c) 24. (d)
Fe2 2SO24 2NH 4 25. (c) Ambident ligand has two donor atoms, either of two
9. (a) can form a coordinate bond.
10. (a) Let the o.s. of Ni in K4[Ni(CN)4] be = x then 26. (c)
4 (+ 1) + x + (–1) × 4 = 0 4 + x – 4 = 0 27. (c) Na+ is not a ligand.
28. (d) These are facts about glycinato ligand.
x=0
29. (c) BF3 has incomplete octet and is Lewis acid; it cannot
11. (c) The coordination number of central metal atom in a
donate electron pair.
complex is equal to number of monovalent ligands,
twice the number of bidentate ligands and so on, COO
30. (a) It has two donor atoms, i.e., |
around the metal ion bonded by coordinate bonds. COO
Hence coordination number = no. of V bonds formed 31. (b) 32. (b)
by metals with ligands 33. (b) O2 is a bidentate ligand.
12. (d) Oxidation state of Cr in [Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] . 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b)
39. (a)
Let it be x, 1 × x + 4 × 0 + 2 × (–1) = 1 Therefore x =3.
40. (c) EDTA4– can bind through two nitrogen and four
13. (c) The oxidation state of metal in metal carbonyls is always
oxygen atoms to a central metal ion.
zero.

142 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
– 57. (d) The optical isomers are pair of molecules which are
CH2COO non superimposable mirror images of each other.
H2C N –
CH2COO en en
–
CH2COO
H2C N –
CH2COO
en Co Co en
41. (b) IUPAC name is Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III).
42. (a) Chlorodiaquatriamminecobalt (III) chloride is
[CoCl( NH 3 )3 (H 2O) 2 ]Cl 2 . en en
43. (c) K 3[Fe(CN ) 6 ] is Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III). [Co(en)3]3+ [Co(en)3]3+

Mirror
(dextro) (laevo)
44. (b) [Co(ONO)(NH3)5]Cl2
pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride The two optically active isomers are collectivity called
45. (b) K2[Pt Cl6] enantiomers.
Potassium hexachloroplatinate (IV) 58. (b) The chemical formula of Pentaminenitrochromium (III)
Oxidation state of Pt is + 4 in the complex and anion is chloride is
present in form of complex.
¬
ªCr NH3 NO2 º Cl2
46. (c) The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is 5 ¼
tetramminenickel (II) - tetrachloronickelate (II) thus (c) It can exist in following two structures
is the correct answer.
¬
ª Cr NH 3 NO 2 º Cl2 and
5 ¼
47. (d) [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3
= Diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride. ª Cr NH3 ONO º Cl 2
¬ 5 ¼
48. (d)
Therefore the type of isomerism found in this
49. (d) [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3
compound is linkage isomerism as nitro group is linked
= Diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride.
through N as –NO2 or through O as – ONO.
50. (d) Chemical formula of iron (III) hexacynaoferrate (II) is
59. (b)
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
51. (b) IUPAC name of K3[Ir(C2O4)3] is 60. (c) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+: cis-[M(aa)2b2] can show optical
potassium trioxalato iridate (III) isomerism.
61. (a)
52. (b) Na 3[Co(ONO) 6 ] IUPAC name is
sodium hexanitritocobaltate (III) 62. (c) NH3 NH3
53. (d) According to IUPAC nomenclature anionic ligands H3N ONO H3N NO2
will end with – ido so that chloro would become Co Co
H3N NH3 H3N NH3
chlorid.
NH3 NH3
54. (a) Pt(NH3)2Cl2 is a disubstituted complex and shows only
cis-& trans-isomers Here more than one atom function as donor, as oxygen
Cl NH3 NH3 Cl in first one and nitrogen in second, so they show
linkage isomerism.
Pt Pt 63. (b) Co-ordination isomerism is caused by the interchange
Cl of ligands between cation and anion complexes.
Cl NH3 NH3
cis trans 64. (c) Change in composition of co-ordination sphere yield
55. (c) [Cr(SCN ) 2 ( NH 3 ) 4 ] shows linkage, geometrical and ionisation isomers.
[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [CrCl3(H2O)3].3H2O
optical isomerism. Hence produces maximum no. of
65. (a) The octahedral coordination compounds of the type
isomers.
MA3B3 exhibit fac-mer isomerism.
56. (a) MA3B3 – 2 geometrical isomers
66. (c) Coordination isomerism occurs when cationic and
MA2B4 – 2 geometrical isomers
anionic complexes of different metal ions are present
MA4B2 – 2 geometrical isomers
in a salt. The two isomers differ in the distribution of
The complexes of general formula MA6 and MA5B ligands in cation and anion e.g.,
having octahedral geometry do not show geometrical [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] is an isomer of [Co (CN)6]
isomerism.
[Cr (NH3)6]

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 143
67. (a) Complexes of the type MABCD may exist in three

3+
isomeric forms. NH 3
A B A C
en Co en
M M
D C D B NH 3
(I) (II)
trans-
A C 72. (b) Ionisation isomer of [Cr(H2 O) 4 Cl(NO 2 )]Cl is
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]NO2.
73. (c) Ma 2 b2 c 2 can show both optical & geometrical
M isomerism.
74. (a) The compound shows linkage isomerism because the
ligand in the compound is an ambidenate ligand that
B D can bond at more than one atomic site.
(III)
i.e., NCS and SCN
Similarly, [Pt (py) (NH3) BrCl] may exist in three isomeric 75. (d) [Pt(en)2Cl2] is a complex of the type M(AA)2 B2 which
form in which is octahedral Such compounds exhibit optical and
M = Pt, A = Py, B = NH3, C = Br, D = Cl. geometrical isomerism both
68. (a) Complexes with dsp2 hybridisation are square planar. 76. (a) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] is of the type MA3B3. They give
So, [PtCl4]2– is square planar in shape. two geometrical Isomers
69. (a) The SCN– ion can coordinate through S or N atom 77. (d) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3] is of the type MA3B3 and exists in two
giving rise to linkage isomerism isomeric forms.
M m SCN thiocyanato 78. (d) Square planar complex of the formula Mabcd give three
geometrical isomers
M m NCS isothiocyanato.
79. (b)
70. (b) Option (b) shows optical isomerism [Co(en)3]3+
80. (d) The complex ion [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]2+ can exhibit
3+ 3+ geometrical and linkage isomerism
en en
81. (c) [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2 are ionisation
isomers
en Co Co en 82. (c) Octahedral complex of the type MA5B do not show
en
geometrical isomerism
en
83. (c) Similarity between optical and geometrical isomerism
d–form Mirror –form is that both are included in stereo isomerism
Complexes of Zn++ cannot show optical isomerism as 84. (b) The compound is [Cr(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and can exhibit
they are tetrahedral complexes with plane of symmetry. O
3 linkage isomerism due to NO2 group (– N or
>Co(H2 O)4 (en)@ have two planes of symmetry
O
hence it is also optically inactive.
O – N= O)
[Zn(en)2]2+ cannot show optical isomerism
85. (b)
en 3+ 86. (b) Given compound shows meridional isomerism.
71. (b)
NH3 87. (a)
88. (c) Ni(CO)4 Ni(PPh3)2 Cl2
Co O.S. Ni0 Ni2+
E.C. [Ar]3d84s2 [Ar]3d84s0
NH3
en Pairing of e– No pairing of e–
cis Hybridization sp3 (tetrahedral) sp3 (tetrahedral)

144 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
89. (d) In [Cr (NH3)6]Br3, Cr is in +3 oxidation state 98. (a) Paramagnetic species has unpaired electron. More the
3d 4s 4p no. of unpaired electrons, more will be paramagnetic
Cr character.
24 Complex O. S. of metal
d2sp3 hybridized
2
ª Mn H 2 O º Mn 2+
3d 4s 4p ¬ 6¼
+3
Cr
21 2
ªCu NH3 º Cu2+
Its ion is octahedral in nature. Due to the presence of ¬ 4¼
three unpaired electrons it is paramagnetic. 4
90. (c) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is an inner orbital complex, because in ª Fe CN º Fe2+
¬ 6¼
this complex inner d-orbital is used for hybridisation
2
(d2 sp3 ) ªCu H 2 O º Cu2+
¬ 4¼
91. (b)
Electronic configuration of the ion present in complex
No. of
Atom/Ion Configuration
unpaired
Magnetic 3d 4s 4p
Complex nature
electrons Mn2+
3d 4s 4p
2+ 8
Ni (d ) 2 No. of unpaired electrons = 5
2–
[NiCl4]
2 Cu2+
sp3
[Ni(CN)4]
2–
0 No. of unpaired electron = 1
Rearrangement 2 Fe2+
dsp
8 2 2
Ni (d s )
[Ni(CO)4]
However, CN– is a strong ligand, so pairing of electrons
0
will occur in the complex having CN– ions.
Rearrangement
sp
3 ? Fe2+ in presence of CN–
92. (b)
93. (b) As in [NiCl4]–2 chloride ion being a weak ligand is not ? No. of unpaired electron = 0
able to pair the electrons in d orbital. Thus [Mn (H2O)6]2+ having maximum no. of unpaired
94. (d) Cr 3+ has 4so 3d3 electronic configuration with 3 electrons has maximum paramagnetic nature.
unpaired electrons, hence paramagnetic. In other cases 99. (c) In Na2[CdCl4], Cd has oxidation state +2.
pairing of d-electrons take place in presence of strong So, its electronic configuration is 4d105s0
field ligands such as CO or CN–. or all the 4d orbitals are fully filled.
In Cr(CO)6 molecule 12 electrons are contributed by Hence, there will be no d-d transition. So, it is
CO group and it contain no odd electron colourless.
95. (b) CN– is a strong field ligand as it is a pseudohalide ion. 100. (c)
These ions are strong coordinating ligands and hence
have the tendency to form V-bond (from the pseudo 101. (a) > Ni(CN)4 @2 : Number of unpaired electrons = 0
halide to the metal) and S-bond (from the metal to
pseudo halide) >Cr(NH3 )6 @3 : Number of unpaired electrons = 3
96. (a) Co3+ : > Fe(H 2 O)6 @2 : Number of unpaired electrons = 4
[Co(CN)6]3– :
> Ni(H 2O)6 @2 : Number of unpaired electrons = 2
CN– is a strong field ligand and it causes pairing of
102. (b) Ni++ = 3d 8 4s0
electrons as a result number of unpaired electrons in
Co3+ becomes zero and hence it has lowest value of
paramagnetic behaviour.
97. (a) Sc = [Ar] 3d 1, 4s2 Since, the coordination number of Ni in this complex is
Oxidation state of Sc in [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is Sc3+ 4, the configuration of Ni++ at first sight shows that
Sc3+ = [Ar] 3d 0, 4s0. the complex is paramagnetic with two unpaired
' It does not have unpaired electron electron. However, experiments show that the complex
? Sc3+ is diamagnetic and colourless.

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 145
is diamagnetic. This is possible when the 3d electrons 109. (c) Electronic configuration of Ni2+
is [Ar] 3d8 4s0 4p0.
rearrange against the Hund’s rule as shown below. CN– is strong ligand and will do pairing of electrons
This is in accordance with the fact that the ligand so will have one d orbital left empty. C.N. is 4 so dsp 2
involved here is strong i.e., CN– ion. hybridisation will take place which is square planar,
Ni++ (after rearrangement) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2– are tetrahedral.
4s 4p 110. (d)
111. (b) [Co(C2O4 )3]3– is dimagnetic as oxalate is a strong
ligand causing pairing of 3d electrons in Co3+thereby
leading to d2sp3 hybridisation.
Hence, now dsp2 hybridization involving one 3d, one
4s and two 4p orbitals, takes place leading to four dsp2 3d 4s 4p
hybrid orbitals, each of which accepts four electron Orbitals of
3+
pairsfrom CN– ion forming [Ni (CN)4]2– ion. Co ion
[Ni (CN)4]2– 2 3 3d 4s 4p
d sp hybridised
3+
×× ×× ×× ×× ×× oribitals of Co
2 3
d sp hybrid
four dsp2 hybrid bonds
Thus, the complex is diamagnetic as it has no unpaired 112. (b) [Ni(CO4)] o tetrahedral
electron.
[PtCl4]2– o square planar
103. (a) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
113. (c) [Mn(CN)6 ]3– and [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3– are inner orbital
Ni2+ = 3d 8, according to CFT = t 62g eg2 therefore, complexes and paramagnetic while [Co(C2O4)3]3– is
hybridisation is sp3d 2 and complex is paramagnetic. diamagnetic in nature.
104. (d) 105. (a) 114. (d)
106. (d) In [Co(CN)6]3– O.N. of Co is +3 115. (a) Cl– is a weak field ligand.
? Co+3 = 3d6 4s0 116. (c) Higher the oxidation state of the metal, greater the
CN– is a strong field ligand crystal field splitting energy. In options (a), (b) and
? Pairing of electrons occurs so in this complex no (d), Co is present in + 2 oxidation state and in (c) it is
unpaired electron is present and it is low spin present in + 3 oxidation state and hence has a higher
complex. value of CFSE.
107. (a) 117. (a) In octahedral complex the magnitude of 'o will be
Complex Configuration No. of unpaired highest in a complex having strongest ligand. Out of
electrons the given ligands CN– is strongest. So, 'o will be
[CoF6] 3– 4 highest for [Co(CN)6]3–. Thus option (a) is correct.
[Co(NH3)6]3+ 0 118. (a) Ligands can be arranged in a series in the orders of
increasing field strength as given below :
[Ni(NH3)4]2+ 0
Weak field ligands :
[Ni(CN)4]2– : : : : : 0
I Br S2 SCN Cl N3 , F
2
Rearrangement dsp < Urea, OH– < oxalate
Magnetic moment = n n 2 , Strong field ligands
where n = no. of unpaired electrons O H 2O NCS EDTA Py, NH3 <

[CoF6]3– has highest magnetic moment (4.8) due to
en = SO3– < bipy, Phen NO2 CH3
the presence of 4 unpaired electrons.
108. (c) [Co(C2O4)3]3– has Co3+ (d6 system) C6 H 5 CN CO
due to presence of stronger C2O42– chelating ligand
pairing of electrons occurs in this case. Such a series is termed as spectrochemical series. It is
an experimentally determined series based on the
Co3+ :
absorption of light by complexes with different ligands.
; Diamagnetic. 119. (b) Due to d5 configuration CFSE is zero.

146 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
120. (b) The crystal field splitting in tetrahedral complexes is 137. (d)
lower than that in octahedral complexes, and 138. (a) Structure of [Co2(CO)8]
4
't '0 . O
9
121. (a) 122. (c)
CO C CO
123. (d) CN– is a strong field ligand and form low spin
complexes thus 'o > P. CO Co Co CO
124. (b) According to spectrochemical series C2 O24 ! F . CO C CO
125. (c) CO is a strong field ligand and for strong field ligands
'o > P. O
126. (b) In the absence of ligand , crystal field splitting does Total M – C bonds = 10, Total M – M bonds = 1
not occur and hence the substance is colourless.
127. (a) 1 [X][Y]3
128. (d) Magnetic moment can be calculated by using the 139. (a) Overall stability constant = =
K1K 2 K 3 [XY3 ]
relation n(n 2)B.M. Where n = number of
140. (b) E = K1K2K3K4
electrons and B.M. is Bohr magneton.
log E = log (K1 K2 K3 K4)
?5.9 = n(n 2)
? n=5 log E = logK1 + logK2 + logK3 + logK4
129. (c) Energy for excitation (') = hc /wavelength. logK3 = 11.9– (3.20 + 2.0 + 4.0)
Therefore lower the wavelength of light higher will be logK3 = 2.7
the energy for excitation, (') i.e crystal field splitting
energy. 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
? correct order will be b < a < c < d
141. (a)
130. (a) Triethoxyaluminium has no Al – C linkage
142. (a) Macromolecules like proteins can acts as ligand.
O CH 2 CH 3 [EDTA]4– can bind through two nitrogen and four
Al O CH 2 CH 3 oxygen atoms.
O CH 2 CH 3 143. (d)
144. (b) Complexes of Ma3B3 type shows fac– meridional
131. (d) Due to some backbonding by sidewise overlapping isomerism.
between d-orbitals of metal and p-orbital of carbon, Solvate isomerism is refered to as a hydrate isomerism
the Fe–C bond in Fe(CO)5 has both V and S character. when solvent is water.
132. (c) In case of [Ni(CO)]4, the ligand CO, is neutral thus the
charge on Ni is zero. 145. (b) [Ti(H 2O)6 ]3 gives violet colour if light
133. (a) Ni(CO) 4 . The O. S. of Ni is Zero. Electronic corresponding to the energy of blue-green region of
configuration is [Ar] 3d8 4s2 4p0 . In presence of wavelength 498 nm is absorbed by it.
strong ligand CO the paring of electrons take place Irrespective of prediction of crystal field theory on
and electronic configuration will be [Ar] 3d10 4s0 4p0.
the basis of experimental observation shows that
Hence unpaired electrons is zero .
anionic ligands are found at the low end of the
134. (d) Fe(CO)5 (Z=26) O. S. of Fe is zero . Electronic
spectrochemical series.
configuaration is [Ar]] 3d6, 4s24p0. After pairing of
electrons of d and s orbitals, we have one d atomic 146. (d)
orbital empty. C. N. is 5 so hybridisation is dsp3 which
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
is trigonal bipyramidal.
147. (c)
ZZX ML4 , larger
135. (b) For the reaction of the type M 4L YZZ
148 (d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q)
the stability constant, the higher the proportion of 149. (a) [NiCl4]2– is sp3 hybridised and paramagnetic in nature
ML4 that exists in solution. [Ni(CN)4 ]2– is square planar and diamagnetic.
136. (c) The chlorophyll molecule plays an important role in Chlorophyll contains Mg2+ Ziegler – Natta catalyst
photosynthesis, contain porphyrin ring and the metal contains Ti4+ Deoxyhaemoglobin is nonplanar and
Mg not Ca.
oxyhaemoglobin planar.

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 147
150. (d) Crystal field splitting energy increases with increase 161. (c) [CuCl2{(O = C(NH2)2}2]
in ligand field strength i.e., with increase in no. of ‘en’ 162. (a) IUPAC name of sodium nitroprusside Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
groups and wavelength of absorbed light decrease is sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (III) because in it
with increase in ligand field strength NO is neutral ligand. Hence
? [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+(aq) will absorb light of higher 2×O.N. of Na + O.N. of Fe + 5×O.N. of CN
wavelength i.e., Red. 1×O.N. of NO = 0
[Ni(en)3]2+ will absorb light of lower wavelength i.e., 2×(+1) + O.N. of Fe + 5 ×(–1) +1×0 = 0
blue-green and [Ni(H2O)4(en)2]2+ will absorb yellow O.N. of Fe = 5 – 2 = +3, Hence ferrate (III)
orange light. 163. (d) The total number of isomers for the complex compound
151. (a) 152. (a)
[Cu II ( NH 3 ) 4 ][Pt II Cl 4 ] is four..
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 These four isomers are
153. (c) It is correct statement that NF3 is a weaker ligand than [Cu ( NH 3 )3 Cl] [Pt ( NH 3 )Cl 3 ],
N(CH3 ) 3 , the reason is that fluorine is highly
[Cu ( NH 3 )Cl 3 ] [Pt ( NH 3 ) 3 Cl] ,
electronegative therefore, it with draw electrons from
nitrogen atom. Hence, the lone pair of nitrogen atom [CuCl 4 ][Pt ( NH 3 ) 4 ]
cannot be ligated. While N(CH3)3 is a strong ligand
because CH3 is electron releasing group. and ¬ª Cu(NH3 )4 ¼º ª¬ PtCl4 ¼º .
154. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not The isomer [Cu (NH3)2 Cl2][Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] does not
the correct explanation of statement-1. [Fe(CN)6]3– is exist due to both parts being neutral.
weakly paramagnetic as it has unpaired electrons while 164. (b) Non superimposable mirror images are called optical
[Fe(CN)6]2– has no unpaired electron. isomers and may be described as “chiral’. They are
? It is diamagnetic. also called enantiomers and rotate plane polarised light
155. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the in opposite directions.
correct explanation of statement-1. [Sc(H2O6]3+ has
Cl Cl
no unpaired electron in its d subshell and thus d–d
Cl Cl
transition is not possible whereas [Ti(H2O)6]3+ has
one unpaired electron in its d subshell which gives
en Co Co en
rise to d–d transition to impart colour.
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216

en en
156. (c) As it forms two moles of silver chloride thus it has two
moles of ionisable Cl. 165. (b)
[Co(NH 3 )5 NO 2 ]Cl 2 o [Co(NH 3 )5 NO 2 ] 2Cl

2Cl 2AgNO3 o 2AgCl 2NO 3
157. (b) Pt Cl2.2NH3= [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
CoCl3.4NH3= [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl
NiCl2.6H2O = [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2.
158. (b) CN– is coordinated to cobalt as the ligand and trans (green)
coordinated compounds have different properties
than the individual species. Cl +
HN
3 Cl
159. (b) Since complex compound gives 2 moles of AgCl on
treatment with AgNO3.
? most probable structure is (b). Co
160. (a) Total number of electron count in Ni(CO)4
= Atomic number – oxidation state + 2 × no. of ligands HN
3 NH3
NH3
= 28 – 0 + 2 × 4 = 36
Similarly for Fe(CO)5, cis (violet)
= 26 – 0 + 10 = 36

148 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
NH3 NH3 F Cl
166. (c) NH3
NH3
en en M
Co Co
Br I
en en 174. (b) Non –superimposable mirror images are optically
active, hence rotate plane polarized light.
Enantiomers of cis- ª¬ Co(en) 2 (NH 3 ) 2 º¼ 3
a a
167. (b) It is optically active.
168. (a) The given compound may have linkage isomerism due
M M
to presence of NO2 group which may be in the form d
b d b
–NO2 or –ONO. c c
It may have ionisation isomerism due to presence of
175. (c) Complex is not superimposable on its mirror image
two ionisable group –NO2 & –Cl. It may have
hence optically active i.e., rotate plane polarized light.
geometrical isomerism in the form of cis-trans form as
follows : 180°
[Co(NH3)4Cl(NO2)]NO2 & [Co(NH3) (NO2)2]Cl 3+ 3+
––– Ionisation isomers. en en
[Co(NH3)5(NO2)2]Cl & [Co(NH3)5(ONO)2]Cl
––– Linkage isomers en Co Co en
NO2 NO2
en en
H3N H3N
180°
NH3 NO2 cannot be
Co Co superimposed en 3+
NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3 non-superimposable en Co

en
NO2 NH3
Trans-form Cis-form
Geometrical isomers 176. (d) Nickel in Ni(CO)4 is sp3 hybridised therefore geometry
169. (c) The complex compound [Co(en)2NO2Cl] Br can have of Ni(CO)4 is tetrahedral whereas in [Ni(CN)4]2– nickel
NO2 group differently linked to central metal atom – is dsp2 hybridised therefore geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2–
O is square planar.
N or O – N = O 177. (d) Hybridisation
O
170. (a) Geometrical isomerism is possible only in square planar [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 ,[Mn(CN)6 ]4 ,
complexes of the type MA2B2 and MA2BC and for d 2 sp3 d 2 sp 3
octahedral complexes of the type MA4B2 and MA4BC.

[Co(NH 3 ] 3 ,[Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] 2
Hence only (ii) will show geometrical isomerism.
d 2 sp 3 sp 3d 2
171. (a)
172. (b) Geometrical isomers of following type of square Hence [ Ni( NH 3 ) 6 ]2 is outer orbital complex.
planar complexes is possible. Ma2b2 type, Ma2bc
type and Mabcd type. 178. (c) Cr2+ d4 4
173. (b) Three isomer are possible.
Mn2+ d5 5
F Cl F I
Fe2+ d6 4
M M
Co2+ d7 3
I Br Br Cl
Minimum paramagnetic behaviour = [Co (H2O)6]2+

&225',1$7,21&203281'6 149
179. (b) In carbonyls O.S. of metal is zero

In [Ni(CO)4], the oxidation state of nickel is zero. Its P = 3(5) = 15 = 3.87 B.M.
configuration in Ni(CO)4 is d 4– in weak ligand field
3d 4s 4p
[Ni(CO)4] ; t2g eg
sp3 hybridisation P = 4(4+2) = 24 = 4.89

d 4– in strong ligand field
In [Ni(CN)4]2– the oxidation state of Ni is 2+ and its
configuration is
3d 4s 4p t2g eg
2
[Ni(CN)4]
P = 2(4) = 8 = 2.82.
182. (b) Lesser is the number of unpaired electrons smaller will
dsp2 hybridisation
be the paramagnetic behaviour. As Cr ++, Mn++, Fe++
Thus the hybridisations of nickel in these compounds and Ni++ contains.
are sp3 and dsp2 respectively.
Cr++ (3d 4) =
Hence (b) is the correct answer.
180. (c) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ , Co3+ (27 –3 = 24) = 4 unpaired e–.
Mn++ (3d 5) =
2
d sp3 o (inner octahedral = 5 unpaired e–.
complex & diamagnetic)
Fe++ (3d 6) =
[Cr(NH3 )6]3+ , Cr 3+ (24 –3 = 21)
= 4 unpaired e–.
2 Ni++ (3d 8) =
d sp3 o (inner octahedral
complex & paramagnetic) = 2 unpaired e–.
[Ni(NH3 )6]2+ , Ni2+ (28 – 2 = 26) As Ni++ has minimum no. of unpaired e– thus this is
least paramagnetic.
183. (d) In case of diamagnetic complexes the electrons are
2 paired. In case of Ni (CO)4 3d orbital is fully filled give
sp3d o(outer octahedral
complex & paramagnetic) rise to sp3 hybridisation while in case of [Ni(CN)4]2–
nickel is in +2 oxidation state, so one d-orbital is vacant
[Zn(NH3)6]2+ , Zn 2+ (30 – 2 = 28) give rise to dsp2 hybridization which is square planar
in nature.
184. (d) Number of unpaired electrons in [MnCl 6]3– and
sp3d 2 o (outer octahedral [Mn(CN)6]3– respectively are 4 and 2
complex &diamagnetic) ? Magnetic moment will respectively be 4.8 and 2.8
181. (d) d 5 –––– strong ligand field [MnCl6]3– is sp3d2 hybridised and [Mn(CN)6]3– will
be d2sp3 hybridised.
185. (c) In octahedral field the crystal field splitting of d- orbitals
t2g eg of a metal ion depends upon the field produced by the
ligands. In general ligands can be arranged in a series
P = n(n 2) = 3 = 1.73BM in the order of increasing fields and splittings which
d 3–– in weak as well as in strong field they produce around a central metal ion. A portion of
the series is given below.
cyanide > ethylene - diamine > ammonia > pyridine >
t2g eg thiocyanate > water > oxalate > hydroxide > fluoride >
chloride > bromide > iodide.

150 &225',1$7,21&203281'6
Out of the given ligands water, ammonia, cyanide and Where, x o electrons in t2g orbital
oxalate, we can find from the above series of ligands that y o electrons in eg orbital
the maximum splitting will occur in case of cyanide (CN–)
i.e. the magnitude of '0 will be maximum in case of CFSE = [0.6 × 1] + [–0.4 × 3] = – 0.6 ' 0
[Co(CN)6]3+. 188. (b) d 6 – t2g 2, 2, 2 e 0,0 (in low spin)
g
186. (b) Since Cr3+ in the complex has unpaired electrons in
the d orbital, hence it will absorb visible light and will
C.F.S.E = – 0.4 × 6'0 + 3P
be coloured
Ti = [Ar]3d 2 4 s2 ; Ti4 + = 3d 0 12
Cr = [Ar] 3d 5 4s1; Cr3+ = 3d 3 = ' + 3P
5 0
Zn= [Ar] 3d 10 4s2; Zn2+= 3d 10
189. (a) As positive charge on the central metal atom increases,
Sc = [Ar] 3d 1 4s2; Sc3+ = 3d 0
the less readily the metal can donate electron density
187. (d) d 4 in high spin octahedral complex
into the S* orbitals of CO ligand (donation of electron
eg — density into S* orbitals of CO result in weakening of
C – O bond). Hence, the C – O bond would be
t 2g strongest in [Mn(CO)6]+.
CFSE = (–0.4x + 0.6y)'0 190. (b) 191. (b)

10
HALOALKANES AND
HALOARENES
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 9. Which of the following halide is 2° ?
(a) Isopropyl chloride (b) Isobutyl chloride
1. Which of the following is a primary halide? (c) n-propyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
(a) Isopropyl iodide (b) Secondary butyl iodide 10. Benzene hexachloride is
(c) Tertiary butyl bromide (d) Neohexyl chloride (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 - hexachlorocyclohexane
(b) 1, 1, 1, 6, 6, 6 - hexachlorocyclohexane
2. When two halogen atoms are attached to same carbon atom
(c) 1, 6 - phenyl - 1, 6 - chlorohexane
then it is : (d) 1, 1 - phenyl - 6, 6 -chlorohexane
(a) vic-dihalide (b) gem-dihalide 11. Phosgene is a common name for
(c) D, Z -halide (d) D , E -halide (a) phosphoryl chloride
3. Gem-dibromide is (b) thionyl chloride
(a) CH3CH(Br)CH2(Br) (b) CH3CBr2CH3 (c) carbon dioxide and phosphine
(d) carbonyl chloride
(c) CH2(Br)CH2CH2 (d) CH2BrCH2Br
12. C – X bond is strongest in
4. How many structural isomers are possible for a compound
(a) CH 3Cl (b) CH 3Br
with molecular formula C3H7Cl ?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) CH 3F (d) CH 3I
(c) 7 (d) 9 13. Which of the following will have the maximum dipole
5. The compound which contains all the four 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° moment?
carbon atoms is (a) CH 3F (b) CH 3Cl
(a) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
(b) 3-chloro-2, 3-dimethylpentane (c) CH 3Br (d) CH 3I
(c) 2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane 14. The decreasing order of boiling points of alkyl halides is
(d) 3, 3-dimethylpentane (a) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (b) RBr > RCl > RI > RF
6. IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl (c) RI > RBr > RCl > RF (d) RCl > RF > RI > RBr
(a) 3-Chlorobutane 15. C 3 H 8 Cl 2 Light
o C 3 H 7 Cl HCl is an example of
(b) 2-Chloro-2-methylpropane (a) substitution (b) elimination
(c) t-butyl chloride (c) addition (d) rearrangement reaction
(d) n-butyl chloride
16. The reaction conditions leading to the best yields of C2H5Cl
7. IUPAC name of
are :
CH3CH 2C(Br) CH — Cl is
UV light
(a) 2-bromo-1-chloro butene (a) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2 o
(b) 1-chloro-2-bromo butene dark
(c) 3-chloro-2-bromo butene (b) C2H6 + Cl2 room
o
temperatur e
UV light
8. The IUPAC name of CH 2 CH CH 2Cl is (c) C2H6 + Cl2 (excess) o
(a) Allyl chloride (b) 1-chloro-3-propene UV light
(c) Vinyl chloride (d) 3-chloro-1-propene (d) C2H6 + Cl2 o

152 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
17. Halogenation of alkanes is CS2 o. The main product of this
27. Silver acetate Br2
(a) a reductive process (b) an oxidative process
reaction is
(c) an isothermal process (d) an endothermal process
(a) CH3 Br (b) CH 3COI
18. Ethylene dichloride can be prepared by adding HCl to
(c) CH 3COOH (d) None of these
(a) Ethane (b) Ethylene
28. Which of the following reactions is an example of
(c) Acetylene (d) Ethylene glycol nucleophilic substitution reaction?
19. In which of the following conversions, phosphorus (a) 2 RX + 2 Na o R – R + 2 NaX
pentachloride is used as the reagent? (b) RX + H2 o RH + HX
(a) H 2 C CH 2 o CH 3CH 2 Cl (c) RX + Mg o RMgX
(d) RX + KOH o ROH + KX
(b) CH 3CH 2 OH
o CH 3 CH 2 Cl
29. Which one is most reactive towards SN 1 reaction ?
(c) H 3 C O CH 3 o CH 3Cl (a) C6 H5 CH(C6 H 5 )Br
(d) CH { CH o CH2 = CHCl (b) C6 H5 CH(CH3 )Br
20. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an (c) C6 H 5 C(CH 3 )(C6 H 5 )Br
alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
(a) PCl5 (d) C6 H 5 CH 2 Br
(b) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 30. A Grignard reagent may be made by reacting magnesium
(c) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine with
(d) None of these (a) Methyl amine (b) Diethyl ether
21. Which of the following is liquid at room temperature (b.p. is (c) Ethyl iodide (d) Ethyl alcohol
shown against it) ? 31. Which one of the following halogen compounds is difficult
to be hydrolysed by SN1 mechanism?
(a) CH3I 42ºC
(a) Tertiary butyl chloride (b) Isopropyl chloride
(b) CH3Br 3ºC
(c) Benzyl chloride (d) Chlorobenzene
(c) C2H5Cl 12ºC
32. The order of reactivity of the given haloalkanes towards
(d) CH3F –78ºC
nucleophile is :
22. The catalyst used in the preparation of an alkyl chloride by
(a) RI > RBr > KCl (b) RCl > RBr > RI
the action of dry HCl on an alcohol is
(c) RBr > RCl > RI (d) RBr > RI > RCl
(a) anhydrous AlCl3 (b) FeCl3
33. Most reactive halide towards SN1 reaction is
(c) anhydrous ZnCl2 (d) Cu
(a) n-Butyl chloride (b) sec-Butyl chloride
23. Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by
(c) tert-Butyl chloride (d) Allyl chloride
(a) Raschig process 34. In SN1 reaction, the recemization takes place. It is due to
(b) Wurtz Fittig reaction (a) inversion of configuration
(c) Friedel-Craft’s reaction (b) retention of configuration
(d) Grignard reaction (c) conversion of configuration
24. In the preparation of chlorobenzene from aniline, the most (d) Both (a) and (b)
suitable reagent is 35. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl halides for a
(a) Chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light SN2 reaction is
(b) Chlorine in the presence of AlCl3 (a) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (b) RF > RBr > RCl > RI
(c) Nitrous acid followed by heating with Cu2Cl2 (c) RCl > RBr > RF > RI (d) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(d) HCl and Cu2Cl2 36. Which of the following is an example of SN2 reaction?
25. Which of the following possesses highest melting point? (a) CH 3 Br OH o CH 3OH Br
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) m-dichlorobenzene
(b) CH 3 C H CH 3 OH o CH 3 C H CH 3
(c) o-dichlorobenzene (d) p-dichlorobenzene | |
26. Conant Finkelstein reaction for the preparation of alkyl Br OH
iodide is based upon the fact that (c) H O
2o CH
CH 3CH 2 OH 2 CH 2
(a) Sodium iodide is soluble in methanol, while sodium
(d) (CH3 )3 C Br OH o(CH3 )3COH Br
chloride is insoluble in methanol
37. SN2 mechanism proceeds through intervention of
(b) Sodium iodide is soluble in methanol, while NaCl and
(a) carbonium ion (b) transition state
NaBr are insoluble in methanol
(c) free radical (d) carbanion
(c) Sodium iodide is insoluble in methanol, while NaCl
38. Which among MeX, RCH2X, R2CHX and R3CX is most
and NaBr are soluble
reactive towards SN2 reaction?
(d) The three halogens differ considerably in their
(a) MeX (b) RCH2X
electronegativity
(c) R2CHX (d) R3CX

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 153
39. Isopropyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis by 47. Which of the following will have a mesoisomer also?
(a) SN1 mechanism (a) 2, 3- Dichloropentane
(b) SN2 mechanism (b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane
(c) SN1 and SN2 mechanisms (c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) Neither SN1 nor SN2 mechanism (d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
40. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by 48. Which of the following compounds is optically active ?
SN2 mechanism because of (a) CH3CHClCOOH (b) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(a) steric hindrance (b) inductive effect (c) (CH3)2CHOH (d) (CH3)3CCl
(c) instability (d) insolubility 49. Racemic compound has
41. Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing (a) equimolar mixture of enantiomers
SN2 reactivity? (b) 1 : 1 mixture of enantiomer and diastereomer
(a) R2CHX > R3CX > RCH2X (c) 1 : 1 mixture of diastereomers
(b) RCHX > R3CX > R2CHX (d) 1 : 2 mixture of enantiomers
(c) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX 50. An organic molecule necessarily shows optical activity if it
(d) R3CX > R2CHX > RCH2X. (a) contains asymmetric carbon atoms
(X is a halogen) (b) is non-polar
42. The reaction is described as (c) is non-superimposable on its mirror image
CH3 (CH2 )5 OH
–
(CH2)5CH3 (d) is superimposable on its mirror image
C – Br HO – C 51. Optically active isomers but not mirror images are called
H H (a) enantiomers (b) mesomers
CH3 CH3 (c) tautomers (d) diastereomers
(a) SE2 (b) SN1 52. Which of the following alkyl halides is used as a methylating
(c) SN2 (d) SN0 agent?
43. Which of the following is an optically active compound ? (a) C 2 H 5 Br (b) C6 H 5Cl
(a) 1-Butanol (b) 1-Propanol
(c) 2-Chlorobutane (d) 4-Hydroxyheptane (c) CH3I (d) C 2 H 5Cl
44. An important chemical method to resolve a racemic mixture 53. Mg reacts with RBr best in
makes use of the formation of (a) C2H5OC2H5 (b) C6H5OCH3
(a) a meso compound (b) enantiomers (c) C6H5N(CH3)2 (d) Equally in all the three
(c) diasteromers (d) racemates 54. 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in
45. The process of separation of a racemic modification into ethanol. The major product obtained is
d and A -enantiomers is called (a) 2-ethoxypentane (b) pentene-1
(a) Resolution (b) Dehydration (c) trans-2-pentene (d) cis-pentene-2
(c) Revolution (d) Dehydrohalogenation 55. An alkyl halide reacts with metallic sodium in dry ether. The
46. Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers? reaction is known as :
(a) Frankland’s reaction (b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
CH3 CH3
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) Kolbe’s reaction
(a) HO H HO H
and 56. When 2-bromobutane reacts with alcoholic KOH, the
H OH HO H
CH3 CH3
reaction is called
(a) halogenation (b) chlorination
CH3 CH3 (c) hydrogenation (d) dehydrohalogenation
(b) H OH HO H 57. An alkyl halide by formation of its Grignard reagent and
and
HO H H HO
heating with water yields propane. What is the original alkyl
CH3 CH3
halide ?
CH3 CH3 (a) Methyl iodide (b) Ethyl iodide
(c) H OH HO H
and (c) Ethyl bromide (d) Propyl bromide
HO H HO H
CH3 CH3 58. An organic compound A (C4H9 Cl) on reaction with
Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on
CH3 CH3 monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative, then A
H OH H OH is
(d) and
HO H H OH (a) tert-butyl chloride (b) sec-butyl chloride
CH3 CH3 (c) isobutyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride

154 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
59. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane results in the >AlCl 3 @
(c) C6H5Cl + CH3CH2Cl o C6H5C2H5 + Cl2
formation of –
(a) predominantly 2-butyne 3 o >AlCl @
(d) C6H5CH3+CH3CH2Cl
C6H5C2H5 + CH3Cl
(b) predominantly 1-butene
68. On sulphonation of C6 H 5Cl
(c) predominantly 2-butene
(d) equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene (a) benzene sulphonic acid is formed
60. Isobutyl magnesium bromide with dry ether and ethyl (b) metachlorobenzene sulphonic acid is formed
alcohol gives : (c) orthochlorobenzene sulphonic acid is formed
(a) CH3 CHCH 2 OH and CH3CH 2 MgBr (d) ortho and para chlorobenzene sulphonic acids are
| formed
CH3
69. C – Cl bond of chlorobenzene in comparison to C – Cl bond
(b) CH3 CHCH3 and MgBr(OC2 H5 ) in methyl chloride is
| (a) Longer and weaker (b) Shorter and weaker
CH3 (c) Shorter and stronger (d) Longer and stronger
(c) CH3 CHCH CH 2 and Mg(OH)Br 70. Which of the following is not used in Friedel-Crafts reaction?
| (a) N–Phenyl acetanilide (b) Bromobenzene
CH3
(c) Benzene (d) Chlorobenzene
(d) CH3 CHCH3 and CH3CH 2OMgBr 71. Which one of the following is most reactive towards
| nucleophilic substitution reaction?
CH3
(a) CH 2 CH Cl (b) C6 H 5Cl
61. Reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is
(a) R – F > R – Cl > R – Br > R –I (c) CH 3CH CH Cl (d) ClCH 2 CH CH 2
(b) R –I > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F 72. Which one is most reactive towards SN1reaction ?
(c) R –I > R – Cl > R – Br > R – F (a) C6 H5CH(C6 H5 )Br
(d) R – F > R –I > R – Br > R – Cl
(b) C6 H5CH(CH3 )Br
62. Arrange the following alcohols in increasing order of their
reactivity towards the reaction with HCl. (c) C6 H5C(CH3 )(C6 H5 )Br
(CH3)2CH-OH (1), (CH3)3C-OH (2), (C6H5)3C-OH (3) (d) C6 H5CH 2 Br
(a) 1 < 2 < 3 (b) 2 < 1 < 3 73. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with :
(c) 3 < 1 < 2 (d) 2 < 3 < 1 (a) hydrochloric acid
63. Which of following can be used as solvent for grignard (b) cuprous chloride
reagent ? (c) chlorine in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride
(a) H2O (b) C2H5OH (d) nitrous acid followed by heating with cuprous chloride
(c) CH3OH (d) C2H5OC2H5 74. Aryl halides can not be prepared by the reaction of aryl
64. Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous alcohols with PCl3, PCl5 or SOCl2 because
AlCl3 to form : (a) phenols are highly stable compounds.
(a) chlorobenzene (b) benzylchloride (b) carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has a partial double
(c) xylene (d) toluene bond character.
65. Chlorobenzene reacts with Mg in dry ether to give a (c) carbon-oxygen bond is highly polar
compound (A) which further reacts with ethanol to yield (d) all of these
(a) Phenol (b) Benzene 75. Haloarenes are ortho and para directing due to
(c) Ethylbenzene (d) Phenyl ether (a) Resonance in aryl halide
66. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of (b) – I effect of halogen atom
anhydrous AlCl3 to give (c) + I effect of halogen atom
(a) 3 – Propyl – 1 – chlorobenzene (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) n-Propylbenzene 76. Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of
(c) No reaction (a) steam on carbon tetrachloride
(d) Isopropylbenzene (b) nitric acid on chlorobenzene
67. Which of the following is the example of Friedal Craft (c) chlorine on picric acid
reaction ? (d) nitric acid on chloroform
AlCl 77. Which of these can be used as moth repellant
(a) 3
C6 H6 CH3CH 2 Cl o C6 H5 C 2H5 HCl
(a) Benzene hexachloride (b) Benzal chloride
AlCl3
(b) C6H5OH + CH3CH2Cl o C6H5C2H5 + HOCl (c) Hexachloroethane (d) Tetrachloroethane

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 155
78. CFxCly [where x + y = 4]. These compounds are not used 86. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of the
because ozone layer in the upper strata of the atmosphere?
(a) these are fluorocarbons (a) Polyhalogens (b) Ferrocene
(b) these are difficult to synthesise (c) Fullerenes (d) Freons
(c) they deplete ozone layer 87. Haloforms are trihalogen derivatives of
(d) None of the these (a) Ethane (b) Methane
79. Freon (dichlorodifluoro methane) is used (c) Propane (d) Benzene
(a) as local anaesthetic 88. Which of the following compounds is used as a refrigerant ?
(b) for dissolving impurities in metallurgical process (a) Acetone (b) CCl4
(c) in refrigerator (c) CF4 (d) CCl2F2
(d) in printing industry 89. Chloroform is used as :
80. Use of chlorofluorocarbons is not encouraged because (a) Fire extinguisher (b) Industrial solvent
(a) They are harmful to the eyes of people that use it (c) Refrigerant (d) Insecticide
(b) They damage the refrigerators and air conditioners 90. AgNO3 does not give precipitate with CHCl3 because
(c) They eat away the ozone in the atmosphere (a) CHCl3 does not ionise in water
(d) They destroy the oxygen layer (b) CHCl3 does not react with AgNO3
81. Which of the following is used in fire extinguishers (c) CHCl3 is chemically inert
(a) CH4 (b) CHCl3 (d) None of these
(c) CH2Cl2 (d) CCl4 91. When chloroform is exposed to light and air, it forms
82. Solvent which is used in the synthesis of chlorofluorocarbons (a) chlorine gas (b) methyl chloride
(a) iodoform (b) chloroform (c) phosgene gas (d) carbon tetrachloride
(c) carbon tetrachloride (d) methylene chloride
83. Uses of dichloromethane is 92. Cl
(a) paint remover C–CCl3
(b) solvent in drugs manufacturing
(c) metal cleansing and finishing solvent Cl H
(d) All of the above
84. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene The above structural formula refers to
in presence of sulphuric acid and produces: (a) BHC (b) DNA
(c) DDT (d) RNA
Cl 93. If chloroform is left open in air in the presence of sunlight, it
gives
(a) carbon tetrachloride (b) carbonyl chloride
(c) mustard gas (d) lewisite
(a) Cl C Cl 94. Full name of DDT is
(a) 1, 1, 1-trichloro-2, 2-bis(p-chlorophenyl) ethane
H
(b) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trimethylethane
OH (c) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trichloroethane
(b) Cl (d) None of these
C Cl
95. Freon(s) is/are :
Cl (a) CClF3 (b) CFCl3
(c) CCl2F2 (d) All of these
(c) Cl CH Cl 96. Freon-12 is commonly used as
CCl3 (a) insecticide (b) refrigerant
(c) a solvent (d) a fire extinguisher
Cl 97. Freon used as refrigerant is
(a) CF2 == CF2 (b) CH2F2
(d) Cl C Cl
(c) CCl2F2 (d) CF4
CH2Cl 98. Methylene chloride can be used as
(a) paint remover
85. Chloroform on treatment with conc. HNO3 gives
(b) propellant in aerosols
(a) Chloropicrin (b) Nitromethane (c) solvent in manufacturing of drugs
(c) Picric acid (d) Acetylene (d) All of these

156 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
99. Which of the following are the harmful effects of methylene (ii) Among isomeric dihalobenzenes the para-isomers
chloride? have higher melting point than their ortho and meta-
(a) Impaired hearing and vision isomers.
(b) Dizziness, nausea and tingling (iii) The isomeric dihalobenzene have large difference in
(c) Skin burning their boiling and melting points
(d) All of these (iv) The isomeric dihalobenzene have nearly same boiling
point.
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
100. Read the following statements and choose the correct (b) (i) and (iii) are correct
option. (c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(i) The general formula of alkyl halides is CnH2n+1 X (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(ii) The general formula of aryl halides is Cn Hn–1 X 104. Read the following statements and choose the correct code
(iii) In alkyl halides halogen atom(s) is attached to sp2 (i) SN2 reactions follows a second order kinetics whereas
hybridised carbon atom SN1 reactions follows the first order kinetics
(iv) In aryl halides halogen atom(s) is attached to sp2 (ii) SN1 reactions follows the second order kinetics
hybridised carbon atom. whereas SN2 follows the first order kinetics
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (iii) SN2 reactions take place in a single step whereas
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct SN1 reactions take place in a two steps
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (iv) Tertiary alkyl halides are least reactive towards SN2
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct reactions but we show high reactivity towards SN1
101. Following statements are given regarding the preparation reaction.
of aryl halides from toluene. Read the following statements (a) (ii) and (iv) are correct
and choose the correct option. (b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(i) Aryl chlorides and bromides can be easily prepared (c) (i), (ii) and are correct
by this method. (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(ii) The ortho and para isomers formed in the reaction can 105. Read the following statements and choose the correct
not be separated easily due to small difference in their option.
melting point. (i) SN1 reactions are carried out through formation of
(iii) Reactions with iodine are reversible in nature and carbocation as an intermediate.
require the presence of an oxidising agent. (ii) SN1 reactions are two step reactions in which step 1 is
(iv) Fluoro compounds are not prepared by this method fast and irreversible.
due to low reactivity of fluorine. (iii) Step 1 involves breaking of C–Br bond which obtain
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct energy through solvation of halide.
(b) (ii) and (iv) are correct (iv) SN1 reactions are two step reactions in which step 2 is
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct slow and reversible.
(d) All statements are correct (v) Allylic and benzylic halides show high reactivity
102. Read the following statements and choose the correct toward SN1 reactions.
option. (a) (i), (iii) and (v) are correct
(i) For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl (b) (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct
halides decreases in the order. (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
RI > RBr > RCl > RF (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(ii) With the increases in size and mass of halogen atom, 106. Read the following statements and choose the correct code
the magnitude of van der Waal’s forces increases. (i) SN2 reaction proceed with complete stereochemical
(a) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct inversion.
(b) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect (ii) SN1 reaction proceed with recimisation.
(c) Statement (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect (iii) A dextrorotatory compound rotate the plane polarised
(d) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect light to the left.
103. Read the following statements and choose the correct (iv) A laevorotatory compound rotate the plane polarised
answer light to the right
(i) The boiling points of isomeric haloalkanes decrease (a) TFTT (b) TTFF
with increase in branching. (c) FFTT (d) TFTF

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 157
C2H5 C2H5 C2H5 Column - I Column - II
Y H Y H
107. H 2 Cl / UV light
Y X CH3 Y CH3 (A) C2H6 o (p) Finkelstein reaction
CH3
C2H5Cl
B A
(B) C6H5NH2 (q) Free radical substitution
Y
NaNO HCl/Cu Cl
2 2 2
o
A+B 273 278K
C6H5Cl
For the reaction scheme given above some statements are
given. Read the statements and choose the correct option. (C) CH3Cl + NaI
o (r) Swarts reaction
(i) If (A) is the only compound obtained, the process is CH3I + NaCl
called retention of configuration. (D) CH3 – Br + AgF
o (s) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(ii) If (B) is the only compound obtained, the process is CH3F + AgBr
called inversion of configuration. (a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
(iii) If a 50 : 50 mixture of the above two is obtained then (b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
the process is called racemisation (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(iv) The product A + B is optically active (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(a) TTTF (b) TFTF 111. Match the columns
(c) TTFF (d) TFFT
(A) Chloroform (p) Antiseptic
108. Which of the statement(s) is/are true, regarding following (B) Iodoform (q) Insecticide
reaction? (C) Trichloromethane (r) Anesthetic
(D) DDT (s) Propellant
R R
Nu – –
(a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q)
R' CBr R' CNu + Br (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
R'' R'' (c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
(i) The reaction involves the formation of transition state. (d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
(ii) Higher the nucleophilic character of the nucleophile,
faster will be the reaction.
(Haloalkane/arene) (Applications)
(iii) The product is always optically inactive. (A) Iodoform (p) CF4
(a) (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) (B) BHC (q) Antiseptic
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Neither (i), (ii) nor (iii) (C) Freon - 14 (r) Moth repellant
(D) Halothanes (s) Inhalative anesthetic
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 (E) p-dichlorobenzene (t) Termite pesticide
(a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (t), D – (r), E – (p)
109. Match the columns (b) A – (q), B – (t), C – (p), D – (s), E – (r)
Column - I Column - II (c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p), E – (t)
(A) CH2 = CH – CH2Cl (p) Gem-dichloride (d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (t), D – (q), E – (s)
(B) CH2 = CHX (q) Vinylic halide 113. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II
(C) CH3CHCl2 (r) Dichloride
(A) Chloramphenicol (p) Goiter
(D) CH2Cl CH2Cl (s) Allylic halide (B) Thyroxine (q) Surgery
(a) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s) (C) Chloroquine (r) Typhoid
(b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) (D) Halothane (s) Malaria
(a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q) (c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
(d) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r)

158 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 122. The catalyst used in the preparation of an alkyl chloride by
the action of dry HCl on an alcohol is
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, (a) Anhydrous AlCl3 (b) FeCl3
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four (c) Anhydrous ZnCl2 (d) Cu
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. 123. CH 3 CH 2 C H CH 3 obtained by chlorination of
|
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct Cl
explanation for assertion. n-butane, will be
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a (a) l-form (b) d-form
(c) Meso form (d) Racemic mixture
124. The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can be
produced during monochlorination of 2-methylbutane is
114. Assertion : SN2 reaction of an optically active aryl halide
(a) 2 (b) 3
with an aqueous solution of KOH always gives an alcohol
with opposite sign of rotation. (c) 4 (d) 1
Reason : SN2 reactions always proceed with inversion of 125. The number of structural and configurational isomers of a
configuration. bromo compound, C5H9Br, formed by the addition of HBr
115. Assertion : Alkylbenzene is not prepared by Friedel-Crafts to 2-pentyne respectively are
alkylation of benzene. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
Reason : Alkyl halides are less reactive than acyl halides. (c) 4 and 2 (d) 2 and 1
116. Assertion : Exposure of ultraviolet rays to human causes 126. Which of the following reagent produces pure alkyl halides
the skin cancer, disorder and disrupt the immune system. when heated with alcohols?
Reason : Carbon tetrachloride is released into air it rises to (a) PCl5 (b) PCl3
atmosphere and deplets the ozone layer. (c) SOCl2 (d) dry HCl
117. Assertion : CHCl3 is stored in dark bottles.
127. If C5H12 undergoes reaction with chlorine in the presence
Reason : CHCl3 is oxidised in dark. of sunlight, only one product is formed, than reactant is
118. Assertion : CCl4 is not a fire extinguisher. (a) 3, 3-dimethylpropane (b) 2, 3-dimethylpropane
Reason : CCl4 is insoluble in water.
(c) 1, 3-dimethylpropane (d) 2, 2,-dimethylpropane
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 128. Hydrocarbon (CH3)3CH undergoes reaction with Br2 and
Cl2 in the presence of sunlight, if the reaction with Cl is
119. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is highly reactive and that with Br is highly selective so
Cl no.of possible products respectively is (are)
(a) 2, 2 (b) 2, 1
(c) 1, 2 (d) 1, 1
129. Possible major product formed in the reaction of
neopentylalcohol with HCl is
Br
(a) 2 -chloro-2-methylbutane
(a) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene (b) 2, 2 -dimethyl 1-chloropropane
(b) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene (c) 2 -chloro -3-methylbutane
(c) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene (d) 3, chloro -3-methylbutane
(d) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
130. Fluorobenzene (C6H5F) can be synthesized in the laboratory
120. A compound is formed by substitution of two chlorine for
(a) by direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas
two hydrogens in propane. The number of possible isomeric
compounds is (b) by reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) by heating phenol with HF and KF
(c) 5 (d) 2 (d) from aniline by diazotisation followed by heating the
121. Which one of the following is not an allylic halide? diazonium salt with HBF4
(a) 4-Bromopent-2-ene 131. Which chloride is least reactive with the hydrolysis point
(b) 3-Bromo-2-methylbut-1-ene of view?
(c) 1-Bromobut-2-ene (a) CH3Cl (b) CH3CH2Cl
(d) 4-Bromobut-1-ene (c) (CH3)3CCl (d) CH2 = CH – Cl

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 159
132. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type (a) Primary < secondary < Tertiary
DMF
R Br Cl o R Cl Br (b) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary
which one of the following has the highest relative rate ? (c) Primary > Secondary < Tertiary
(d) Primary < Secondary > Tertiary
(a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2Br (b) CH3 CH CH 2 Br
| 139. The correct order of reactivity of the halides, ethyl
CH3 chloride (I) iso-propyl chloride (II) and benzyl chloride
(III) in SN1 reaction is
CH (a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I
| 3
(c) II > I > III (d) I > III > II
(c) CH3 C CH 2 Br (d) CH3CH2Br
| 140. Which of the following represents correct set of ambident
CH3 nucleophiles?
(a) CN– and NH3 (b) CN–, NO2
133. Which will undergo SN2 reaction fastest among the following
halogen compounds? (c) OH–, RO– (d) CN–, OH–
(a) CH3CH2F (b) CH3CH2Cl 141. Which of the following statements is correct?
(c) CH3CH2Br (d) CH3CH2I (a) S N 2 reactions of optically active halides are
134. Consider the following bromides : accompanied by inversion of configuration.
(b) S N 1 reactions of optically active halides are
Me Me
Me Br Me accompanied by racemisation.
Br Br (c) Carbocation formed in SN1 reaction is sp2 hybridized.
(A) (B)
(d) All of the above.
The correct order of SN1 reactivity is 142. The replacement of chlorine of chlorobenzene to give phenol
(a) B > C > A (b) B > A > C requires drastic conditions, but the chlorine of 2,
(c) C > B > A (d) A > B > C 4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced since,
135. Which one is most reactive towards SN 1 reaction ? (a) nitro groups make the aromatic ring electron rich at
(a) C 6 H 5 CH(C 6 H 5 )Br ortho/para positions
(b) nitro groups withdraw electrons from the meta position
(b) C6 H5CH(CH3 )Br
of the aromatic ring
(c) C6 H5C(CH3 )(C6 H5 )Br
(c) nitro groups donate electrons at meta position
(d) C6 H5CH 2 Br
(d) nitro groups withdraw electrons from ortho/para
136. Consider the reactions : positions of the aromatic ring
(i) 2 5C H OH
(CH 3 )2 CH CH 2Br o 143. A set of compounds in which the reactivity of halogen atom
(CH 3 )2 CH CH 2OC 2H 5 HBr in the ascending order is
C 2H 5O (a) chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride, chloroethane
(ii) (CH 3 ) 2 CH CH 2 Br
o
(b) chloroethane, chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride
(CH 3 )2 CH CH 2OC 2 H 5 Br (c) vinyl chloride, chlorobenzene, chloroethane
The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively : (d) vinyl chloride, chloroethane, chlorobenzene
(a) SN1 and SN2 (b) SN1 and SN1 144. Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic
(c) SN2 and SN2 (d) SN2 and SN1 substitution than alkylhalides. Which of the following
137. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete accounts for this ?
stereochemical inversion during a SN2 reaction, is (i) Due to resonance in aryl halides.
(a) (C2H5)2CHCl (b) (CH3)3CCl
(ii) In alkyl halides carbon atom in C–X bond is sp2
(c) (CH3)2 CHCl (d) CH3Cl hybridised whereas in aryl halides carbon atom in C–X
138. Under certain conditions an alkyl halide reacts with base to bond is sp3 hybridized.
give an alkene and HCl [Elimination Reaction] for example
(iii) Due to stability of phenyl cation.
R – CH2 – CH2 – Cl o R – CH = CH2 + HCl
(iv) Due to possible repulsion there are less chances of
The extent of these reactions depends on the structure of
nucleophile to approach electron rich arenes.
alkyl halides (e.g. primary, secondary or tertiary). The relative
extent to which such reactions take place is in the order (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(of haloalkanes) : (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

160 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
145. The organic compound used as feedstock in the synthesis 149. Exposure of CCl4 causes
of chlorofluorocarbons is (a) Liver cancer in human
(a) CH2Cl2 (b) CHCl3 (b) Damage to nerve cells
(c) CH3Cl (d) CCl4 (c) Coma, unconsciousness
146. CCl4 is well known fire extinguisher. However after using it (d) All of these
to extinguish fire, the room should be well ventilated. This
150. Chloroform cannot be prepared from which of the following?
is because
(a) CH3OH (b) C2H5OH
(a) It is flammable at higher temperatures
(c) CH3CHO (d) (CH3)2CO
(b) It is toxic
151. Which one of the following has antiseptic property?
(c) It produces phosgene by reaction with water vapour
at higher temperatures (a) Dichloromethane (b) Trifluoromethane
(d) It is corrosive (c) Triiodomethane (d) Tetrachloromethane
147. In which part of the atmosphere, does the freon remain 152. Chronic chloroform exposure may cause damage to liver
unchanged ? and kidney, due to the formation of
(a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (a) phosgene (b) methylene chloride
(c) Mesosphere (d) Thermosphere (c) methyl chloride (d) carbon tetrachloride
148. Natural ozone layer is unbalanced due to 153. The spatial arrangement of four groups around a central
carbon atom is tetrahedral and if all the substituents
(a) cloudiness of poisonous gases
attached to that a carbon are different. Such a carbon is
(b) presence of rain in the atmosphere called ______.
(c) initiation of radical chain by freon (a) asymmetric carbon (b) stereocentre
(d) All of the above (c) chiral (d) All of these

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 161
14. (c) For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216
halides decrease in the order :
1. (d) Neohexyl chloride is a primary halide as in it Cl-atom is RI ! RBr ! RCl ! RF
attached to a primary carbon. This is because with the increase in size and mass of
halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waal's forces
CH3
increases.
CH3 C CH2 CH2Cl 15. (a)
16. (a) C2H6 Cl2 UV light
o C2 H5Cl+HCl
CH3
17. (b)
2. (b) CHCl 2 CH 2 Cl 18. (d) Ethylene dichloride can be prepared by adding HCl to
| | ethylene glycol (CH2OH. CH2OH).
CH3 CH 2 Cl
19. (b) When ethyl alcohol is treated with PCl 5 , then ethyl
(gem-dihalide) (vic-dihalide)
3. (b) Gem-dihalides are those in which two halogen atoms chloride is formed.
are attached on the same carbon atom. CH 3 CH 2 OH + PCl 5 o '
4. (a)
CH 3 CH 2 Cl + HCl + POCl 3
1q 1q 20. (c) The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into
CH3 CH3
1q | | 2q 1q an alkyl chloride is reaction of the alcohol with thionyl
5. (b) CH3 CH C CH 2 CH 3 chloride (SOCl2) in the presence of pyridine.
3q
4q
|
Cl R – OH + SOCl2 Pyridine RCl + SO n + HCln
o 2
3-chloro-2-3-dimethylpentane SO2 and HCl being gases escape leaving behind pure
1 alkyl halide.
CH 3
| 21. (a) Boiling point of CH3I is 42°C which indicates that it is
6. (b) H 3C 2C Cl liquid at room temperature. CH3 I is larger molecule so
| it has stronger vander Waal’s force of attraction than
3 CH
3
others.
IUPAC name : 2-Chloro-2-methylpropane. 22. (c) In preparation of an alkyl chloride by the action of dry
Br HCl, the catalyst generally used is anhydrous ZnCl2.
| 23. (a)
7. (a) CH3 CH 2 C CH Cl
2 24. (c)
4 3
2 - bromo - 1 - chloro but - 1 - ene + –
NH2 N { NCl Cl
8. (d) CH 2 CH CH 2Cl
(3 chloro 1 propene)
HNO2 Cu2Cl2
2q
9. (a) Isopropyl chloride CH3 CH CH3 chlorine atom is HCl Sandmeyer’s reaction
(Diazotization)
|
Cl 25. (d) Para-di-chlorobenzene has most symmetrical structure
attached to 2° carbon atom. than others. It is found as crystalline lattice form,
10. (a) 11. (d) therefore, it has highest melting point (52°C) due to
12. (c) Because of the small size of F, the C–F bond is strongest symmetrical structure.
in CH3F. Cl
13. (b) CH3Cl has higher dipole moment than CH3F due to
much longer C–Cl bond length than the C–F bond.
The much longer bond length of the C–C bond
outweighs the effect produced by lower
electronegativity of Cl than that of F. Cl

162 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
Para-chlorobenzene 39. (c) Isopropyl chloride, being 2° alkyl halides, can undergo
SN1 as well as SN2 mechanism.
acetone
26. (b) RX NaI
o 40. (b) Due to steric hindrance tertiary alkyl halide do not
Soluble in react by S N2 mechanism they react by S N 1
(CH 3OH, Me 2CO)
mechanism. SN2 mechanisam is followed in case of
primary and secondary alkyl halides of
R I NaX p
CH3 – X !CH3 – CH2X !(CH3)2 – CH.X !(CH3)3– C–X
Insoluble in
(CH 3OH, Me 2CO) 41. (c) In SN2 mechanism transition state is pentavalent. Thus
bulky alkyl group will be sterically hindered and smaller
(where X = Cl or Br) alkyl group will favour the SN2 mechanism. So the
27. (a) CH3COOAg Br2
CS
2 o CH Br AgBr CO decreasing order of reactivity of alkyl halides is
3 2
RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
28. (d) In nucleophilic substitution, a nucleophile provides
42. (c) Inversion in configuration occurs in SN2 reactions.
an electron pair to the substrate and the leaving group
departs with an electron pair. H
|
43. (c) H3C CH 2 C* CH3
|
These are usually written as S N (S stands for Cl
substitution and N for nucleophilic) and are common
in aliphatic compounds especially in alkyl halides and The compound containing a chiral carbon atom i.e., (a
acyl halides. carbon atom which is attached to four different atoms
29. (c) SN1 reactions involve the formation of carbocations, is known as a chiral carbon atom) is optically active.
hence higher the stability of carbocation, more will be A s
reactivity of the parent alkyl halide. Thus tertiary 2-chlorobutane contains a chiral C* atom hence it is
carbocation formed from (c) is stabilized by two phenyl
optically active.
groups and one methyl group, hence most stable.
44. (c) Diastereomers since they have different melting points,
Dry
30. (c) CH3 CH 2 I Mg o CH 3 CH 2 MgI boiling points, solubilities etc.
Ether
Ethyl magnesium
iodide 45. (a)
46. (b) Compound which are mirror image of each other and
31. (d) Chlorobenzene does not undergo hydrolysis by SN1
are non superimposable are termed as enantiomers.
mechanism because in this halogen is present on sp2
hybridised carbon atom, such halogens are relatively CH3 CH3
inert. H OH HO H
32. (a) For a given alkyl group, the order of reactivity is HO and H OH
H
R – I > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F CH3 CH3
increasing bond energy
These are enantiomers
decreasing halogen reactivity. 47. (b) The compound has two similar assymmetric
This order depends on the carbon-halogen bond C-atoms. It has plane of symmetry and exist in meso
energy; the carbon-fluorine bond energy is maximum form.
and thus fluorides are least reactive while carbon-
iodine bond energy is minimum hence iodides are most
reactive. Plane of symmetry
33. (c) More stable the carbocation, more reactive will be the
parent alkyl halide towards SN1 reaction.
3° > Benzyl > Allyl > 2° > 1° > methyl Meso - 2, 3 dichlorobutane
34. (d) SN1 reaction involves carbocation which are planar 48. (a) Compounds having chiral carbon atom are optically
(sp2 hybridised) and thus can be attacked on either active.
face of the carbon.
H
35. (d) Weaker the C–X bond, greater is the reactivity. |
36. (a) Only 1° alkyl halides (i.e. CH3Br) undergo SN2 reaction. CH3 C* COOH (* is chiral carbon atom)
37. (b) |
Cl
38. (a) 1° Alkyl halides (having least steric hindrance at
D-carbon atom) are most reactive towards SN2 reaction. 49. (a) A mixture of equal amounts of the two enantiomers is
called a racemic mixture.

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 163
50. (c) 51. (d) Br
52. (c) C2H5Br and C 2 H5Cl are ethylating agents, while |
Alc. KOH
C6H5Cl is inert. 59. (c) CH3 CH CH 2 CH3
o
53. (a) Although all the three compounds can be used for CH3 CH CH CH3 HBr
preparing Grignard reagents, diethyl ether is
The formation of 2-butene is in accordance to
considered as the best because it provides electron
Saytzeff’s rule. The more substituted alkene is formed
pairs to Mg of the reagent fully for coordination, in
in major quantity.
case of C6H5OCH3 and C6H5N(CH3)2 electron pair
on O and N are partialy delocalised over the benzene 60. (b) (CH3)2CHCH2MgBr C H5OH
2 o (CH3)2CHCH3
and hence are less available for coordination with Mg.
OC2H5
R O(C2H5)2
Mg + Mg
X O(C2H5)2 Br
61. (b) The order of atomic size of halogens decrease in the
54. (c) Potassium ethoxide is a strong base, and 2- bromopentane order I > Br > Cl > F. On moving down a group atomic
is a 2º bromide, so elimination raction predominates size increases. Further the bond length of C-X bond
2 5 OC H decreases in the order
CH 3 CH (Br )CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 o
C – I > C – Br > C – Cl > C – F
CH 3 CH CHCH 2 CH 3 CH 2 CHCH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and hence the bond dissociation energy decreases in
Pentene - 2(major) trans Pentene 1(min or ) cis
the order
Since trans- alkene is more stable than cis. Thus R – F > R – Cl > R – Br > R – I
trans-pentene -2 is the main product. hence R – I being a weakest bond break most easily.
55. (c) Wurtz reaction : It involves the interaction of two hence R – I is most reactive.
molecules of an alkyl halide (preferably bromide or 62. (a) Alkylhalide formation in the reaction of alcohol with
iodide) with metalic sodium in presence of dry ether to HCl undergoes SN1 reaction in which formation of
form symmetrical alkanes containing double the number the carbocation as intermediate occurs. Stability of
of carbon atoms present in the alkyl halide. For example, carbocation is greatest for (C6H5)3 C+ due to
Dry ether resonance effect, and stability of tertiary carbocation
R X 2Na X R o R R 2NaX
Alkyl halide Alkane is greater than the secondary carbocation hence the
option (a) shows the correct order.
Br 63. (d) Except (d) all contain abstractable proton
|
56. (d) alc KOH CH3
CH 3 CH CH 2 CH 3 o
CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 3 Anhyd.
64. (d) + CH3Cl + HCl
In this reaction both hydrogen and halogen atom has AlCl3
been removed so it is known as dehydro halogenation Toluene
reaction. Mg
65. (b) C6 H 5 Cl
o C6 H 5 MgBr
57. (d) CH3CH 2 CH 2 Br Mg o CH3CH2CH2MgBr CH CH OH
(Pr opyl Bromide)
3
2 o C6 H 6 CH 3CH 2OMgBr
CH3CH 2CH 2 MgBr + H2O
o CH3CH2CH3 + CH 3
Anhyd.
|
OH 66. (d) C6 H 6 CH3CH 2 CH 2Cl o C6 H 5 CH CH 3
AlCl3 Isopropyl benzene
Mg 67. (a) Friedel-Craft’s reaction is mainly applied on benzene.
Br AlCl
C6H6 + CH3CH2Cl 3 o C6H5C2H5 + HCl
CH3 CH3 68. (d) On sulphonation of chlorobenzene, ortho and para
58. (a) CH3 – C – Cl + 2Na + Cl – C – CH3 chlorobenzene is formed because – Cl group is para
CH3 CH3 and ortho directing.
t-Butyl chloride
Cl Cl Cl
Wurtz
Rxn
SO3 H
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3 – C – C –CH2Cl Mono
CH3– C – C – CH3
H 2S 2O 7
o +
Clorination
Fuming H 2SO4
CH3CH3 CH 3
CH3
SO3 H

164 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
69. (c) Due to resonance in chlorobenzene.
70. (a) N-Phenylacetanilide, C6H5N(C6H5)COCH3, Cl
Cl
precipitates out to a complex with anhydrous AlCl3. 84. (c) Cl 3C–C=O + conc. H2SO4
Cl3C–CH
71. (d) More the stability of the carbocation, higher will be H Cl
Cl Cl
the reactivity of the parent chloride. Allyl chloride >
Vinyl chloride > Chlorobenzene DDT
72. (c) SN1 reactions involve the formation of carbocations,
hence higher the stability of carbocation, more will be 85. (a) Cl3C H HO NO 2
o Cl3C NO 2
reactivity of the parent alkyl halide. Thus tertiary Chloropicrin (used
as an insecticide)
carbocation formed from (c) is stabilized by two phenyl
groups and one methyl group, hence most stable. 86. (d) Chlorofluorocarbons, e.g. CF 2 Cl 2 , CHF 2 Cl 2 ,
HCF2CHCl2. These are non-inflammable colourless
HONO CuCl
73. (d) C6H5NH2 o C6H5N2Cl o C6H5Cl and stable upto 550ºC. These are emitted as propellants
HCl
74. (b) This method is not applicable for the preparation of in aerosol spray, cans refrigerators, fire fighting reagents
aryl halides because the C–O bond in phenol has a etc. They are chemically inert and hence do not react
partial double bond character and is difficult to break with any substance with which they come in contact
being stronger than a single bond. and therefore float through the atmosphere and as a
result enter the stratosphere. There they absorb UV-rays
75. (d) Due to resonance, the electron density increases more
at ortho- and para-positions than at meta-positions. and due to this they produce free atomic chlorine which
results decomposition of ozone which cause depletion
Further, the halogen atom because of its – I effect has
of ozone layer.
some tendency to withdraw electrons from the benzene
ring. As a result, the ring gets somewhat deactivated 87. (b) Haloform compounds with the formula CHX3, where
as compared to benzene and hence the electrophilic X is a halogen atom.
substitution reactions in haloarenes occur slowly and Haloforms are trihalogen derivatives of methane.
require more drastic conditions as compared to those Example : Chloroform CHCl3.
in benzene. 88. (d) Under ordinary conditions freon is a gas. Its boiling
76. (d) Chloropicrin is nitrochloroform. It is obtained by the point is –29.8°C. It can easily be liquified. It is chemically
nitration of chloroform with HNO3. intert. It is used in air-conditioning and in domestic
HNO
refrigeratiors for cooling purposes (as refrigerant)
HCCl 3
3 o O NCCl
2 3 89. (b) Chloroform (CHCl3) is used as industrial solvent.
Chloroform Chloropicr in
90. (a) Chloroform is an organic compound which does not
Chloropicrin is a liquids, poisonous and used as an ionise in water. Since it can not provide Cl–, therefore,
insecticide and a war gas it is not precipitated with AgNO3.
77. (c) 78. (c) 91. (c) When chloroform is exposed to light it is oxidised to a
79. (c) Freon (CCl2F2) is an odourless, non-corrosive, non poisonous gas known as phosgene.
toxic gas which is stable even at high temperatures
2 CHCl 3 2O 2
o 2 COCl 2 Cl 2
and pressures. It has low b.p. low specific heat and
can be easily liquified by applying pressure at room 92. (c) 93. (b)
temperature. It is therefore, widely used as refrigerant
(cooling agent) in refrigerators and air conditioners. Cl
80. (c) Chlorofluorocarbon is used in air-conditioners and in
94. (a) CCl3CH
domestic refrigerators for cooling purposes. Its main
drawback is this, it is responsible for ozone depletion. Cl
81. (d) Its vapours are non-inflammable (i.e. do not catch fire). (DDT)
Hence used as fire extinguishers under the name
pyrene. 95. (d) Freons are chlorofluorocarbons.
82. (c) Tetrachloromethane (carbon tetrachloride) is also used ? CClF3, CFCl3 and CCl2F2, all are freons.
as feedstock in the synthesis of chlorofluorocarbon 96. (b)
and other pharmaceutical manufacturing and general 97. (c) Freons are chlorofluorocarbon.
solvents etc. 98. (d) 99. (d)
83. (d) Dichloromethane is widely used as solvent as a paint
remover, as a propellant in aerosols and as a process 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
solvent in the manufacture of drugs. It is also used as
100. (b) In alkyl halides halogen atom(s) is attached to sp3
a metal cleaning and finishing solvent. hybridised carbon atom.

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 165
101. (a) Aryl chlorides and bromides can be easily prepared 108. (d) tert-Alkyl halides undergo SN1 reactions, hence they
by electrophilic substitution of arenes with chlorine involve the formation of quite stable carbocations, and
and bromine respectively in the presence of Lewis not the transition state. In S N1 reactions, the
acid catalysis like iron or iron (III) chloride. nucleophile is not involved in rate determining (first)
The ortho and para isomers can be easily separated step, hence its stronger or weaker nature does not
due to large difference in their melting points. influence the reaction rate. In SN1, the product has
Reactions with iodine are reversible in nature and more percentage of the inverted configuration than
require the presence of an oxidising agent (HNO3, the retained configuration, i.e. only partial racemization
HIO4) to oxidise the HI formed during iodination. takes place, hence the product will be having some
Fluoro compounds are not prepared by this method optical activity.
due to high reactivity of fluorine.
102. (a) 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
103. (d) The boiling points of isomeric haloalkanes decrease
with increase in branching. For example, 2-bromo-2- 109. (c) In allylic halides hydrogen atom is bonded to sp3
methylpropane has the lowest boiling point among hybridized carbon atom. Whereas in vinylic halide,
the three isomers. hydrogen atom is bonded to sp2 hybridized carbon
CH3 atom.
CH3CHCl2 CH 2 CH 2
| | |
CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2Br CH3CH 2CH CH3 H3C C CH 3 Ethylidene chloride Cl Cl
| | (gem-dihalide) Ethylene dichloride (vic-dihalide)
Br Br
b.p. / K 375 364 346 110. (a) Alkyl iodides are often prepared by the reaction of
Boiling points of isomeric dihalobenzenes are very alkyl chlorides/bromides with NaI in dry acetone. This
nearly the same. However, the para-isomers are high reaction is known as Finkelstein reaction.
melting as compared to their ortho and meta-isomers. R X NaI o R I NaX
It is due to symmetry of para-isomers that fits in crystal X = Cl, Br
lattice better as compared to ortho- and meta-isomers. NaCl or NaBr thus formed is precipitated in dry
Cl Cl Cl acetone.
It facilitates the forword reaction according to le
Cl
chatelier’s principle. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides
is best accomplished by heating an alkyl chloride/
Cl bromide in the presence of a metallic fluoride such as
Cl AgF, Hg2F2, CoF2 or SbF3. The reaction is termed as
Swarts reaction.
b.p/K 453 446 448
H 3C Br AgF o H 3C F AgBr
m.p.K 256 249 323
111. (b) 112. (b)
104. (b) SN2 reaction follow a 2nd order kinetic ie the rate
depends upon the concentration of both the reactants, 113. (b) Chloramphenicol, produced by soil microorganism is
where in SN1 reactions rate depends only upon the very effective for the treatment of typhoid fever. Our
concentration of only one reactants. body produces iodine containing hormone thyroxine,
The order of reactivity order of alkyl halides for SN2 the deficiency of which causes a disease called goiter.
reaction 3° > 2° > 1° and for SN1 reactions 3° < 2° < 1° Synthetic halogen compounds, viz chloroquine is used
105. (a) In SN1 reactions step 1 is slow and reversible and the for the treatment of malaria; halothane is used as an
slowest step is the rate determining step anaesthetic during surgery. Certain fully fluorinated
106. (b) If the compound rotates the plane polarised light to compounds are being considered as potential blood
the right, i.e., clockwise direction, it is called substitutes in surgery.
dextrorotatory (Greek for right rotating) or the d-form
and is indicated by placing a positive(+) sign before $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
the degree of rotation. If the light is rotated towards
114. (d) Assertion is false, because aryl halides do not undergo
left (anticlockwise direction), the compound is said to
nucleophilic substitution under ordinary conditions.
be laevorotatory or the l-form and a negative (–) sign
This is due to resonance, because of which the carbon–
is placed before the degree of rotation.
chlorine bond acquires partial double bond character,
107. (a) If a 50 : 50 mixture of the (A) and (B) is obtained then
hence it becomes shorter and stronger and thus cannot
the process is called racemisation and the product is
optically inactive, as one isomer will rotate light in the be replaced by nucleophiles. However Reason is true.
direction opposite to another. 115. (c) Alkyl halides give polyalkylation products.

166 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
116. (b) Carbon tetrachloride rises to atmosphere and deplete 124. (d) First draw possible different structures obtained on
the ozone layer. This depletion of ozone layer increases monochlorination of 2-methylbutane,
exposure of UV rays to human being which lead to CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH3.
increase of skin cancer, eye diseases and disorder with CH3
CH3
discruption of the immune system. | |
*
117. (c) CHCl3 is stored in dark bottles to prevent oxidation of (i) ClCH 2 C HCH 2 CH3 (ii) CH 3 C CH 2 CH 3
CHCl3 in presence of sunlight. |
Optically active Cl
118. (d) CCl4 is used as a fire extinguisher. The dense, non
combustible vapours cover the burning substance and Optically inactive
prevents the availability of oxygen around burning CH 3 Cl CH 3
material. | |* |
(iii) CH 3 CH CH CH 3 (iv) CH 3 CH CH 2 CH2 Cl
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 Optically active Optically inactive
Thus structures (i) and (iii) are optically active, each
Cl
has one chiral carbon; so each structure will give one
1 enantiomeric pair; thus total enantiomeric pairs will
2 be two.
119. (c)
125. (b) Addition of HBr of 2-pentyne gives two structural
3 Br isomers (I) and (II)
HBr
120. (c) The compound is C3H 6Cl 2 and the number of CH3 C { C CH 2 CH 3
o
possible isomeric compunds is 5 CH3C(Br) CHCH 2 CH 3 CH3CH C(Br)CH 2CH3
asymmetric carbon atom (I) (II)
H H H H H H Each one of these will exist as a pair of geometrical
| | | | | | isomers. Thus, there are two structural and four
HCCCH H C C* C H
| | | | | | configurational isomers.
Cl H Cl Cl Cl H 126. (c) Thionyl chloride is preferred because the other two
(d.l pair)
products formed in the reaction are escapable gases.
H H H H Cl H Hence the reaction gives pure alkyl halides
| | | | | |
Cl C C C H H CCC H
ROH + SOCl2 o R–Cl + SO2n + HCl n
| | | | | | 127. (d) This compound have only one type of hydrogen
Cl H H H Cl H available.
121. (d) 4-Bromobut-l-ene is not an allylic halide 128. (b) Chlorine atom is highly reactive so it will react with
all type of hydrogen available while the Br atom is
BrH 2C —CH 2 —CH CH 2
4 Bromobut 1ene highly selective so it will react with that hydrogen
122. (c) Primary and secondary alkyl chlorides are prepared which give the highly stabilize tertiary alkyl radical
from the respective alcohols by using HCl gas and so only one product is formed.
anhydrous ZnCl2 (Groove’s process). CH3 CH3
– –
– –
123. (d) Chlorination of n-butane taken place via free radical 129. (a) CH3 – C – CH2OH HCl CH3 – C – CH2 – OH2+
hQ
formation i.e., Cl2 o • • CH3 CH3
Cl Cl
Neopentyl alcohol
Cl 2 / hQ CH3
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3 o
– –
–H2O
CH3 – C – CH2
CH3 CH3 CH3
H — C — Cl + Cl — C — H 1, 2 shift
C2H5 C2H5 +
d l CH3 – C – CH2.CH3
–
Racemic mixture CH3

50% d form + 50% l form
Cl• may attack on either side and give a racemic mixture CH3 – C = CH – CH3 Cl
– –
–
of 2 chloro butane which contain 50% d form and 50% CH3 CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3
l-form. 2-methyl-2-butene CH3
2, chloro-2-methyl butane

+$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6 167
+ Since S N 1 reactions involve the formation of
NH2 N2 Cl–
carbocation as intermediate in the rate determining
•
Na NO HCl HBF step, more is the stability of carbocation higher will
130. (d) 2 o 4o
be the reactivity of alkyl halides towards SN1 route.
0 5º diazotisation
Now we know that stability of carbocations follows
N2+BF4– F the order : 3° > 2° > 1°, so SN1 reactivity should also
follow the same order.
' 3° > 2° > 1° > Methyl (SN1 reactivity)
o + BF3+ N2
135. (c) SN1 reactions involve the formation of carbocations,
Benzene diazonium (Balz-Schiemann order of stability of carbocation is 3° > 2° > 1° hence
tetrafluoroborate reaction)
higher the stability of carbocation, more will be the
131. (d) CH 2 CH Cl reactivity of the parent alkyl halide. Moreover the
(Vinyl Chloride) tertiary carbocation formed from (c) is stabilized by
The halogen atom in vinyl chloride is not reactive as in two phenyl groups.
other alkyl halides. The non-reactivity of chlorine atom 136. (a) A strong nucleophile favours the SN2 reaction and a
is due to resonance stabilisation. The A.p. on Cl-atom weak nucleophile favours the SN1 reaction.
can participate in delocalisation (Resonance) to give First reaction is SN1 reaction because C2H5OH is used
two canonical structure. as solvent which is a weak nucleophile.
Second reaction is SN2 reaction because C2H5O– is
2
CH 2 CH Cl ¶¶
l CH 2 CH C l strong nucleophile.
137. (d) SN2 reaction is favoured by small groups on the carbon
132. (d) The rate of SN2 substitution reaction is maximum in atom attached to halogen.
case of CH3CH2Br because SN2 mechanism is followed So, the order of reactivity is
in case of primary and secondary halides i.e., SN2 CH 3 Cl ! (CH 3 ) 2 CHCl ! (CH 3 )3CCl
reaction is favoured by small groups on the carbon
atom attached to halogens so ! (C 2 H 5 )2CHCl
CH3 CH2 Br > CH3 CH2 CH2 Br > SN2 reaction is shown to maximum extent by primary
halides. The only primary halides given is CH3Cl so
CH3 the correct answer is (d).
|
CH3– CH – Br > CH3 – C – Br 138. (a) Primary halide < Secondary halide < Tertiary halide.
| | 139. (b) Since SN1 reaction involve the formation of carbocation
CH3 CH3 as intermediate in the rate determining step. More stable
133. (d) Smaller the R group reactivity will be higher towards the carbocation, more is the reactivity of the halide
SN2 reaction. For alkyl halides containing similar alkyl toward SN1 route. As we know that the stability of the
group better will be the leaving group, more facile is carbocations decreases in the order :
the nucleophilic substitution reaction. Benzyl 2º > 1°.
Amongst the halide ions, the order in which the leaving Hence the correct order of stability is
groups depart follows the sequence : III > II > I
I– > Br – > Cl– > F– 140. (b) Cyanides and nitrites possess two nucleophilic
centres and are called ambident nucleophiles. Actually
It is because of this reason that the order of reactivity
cyanide group is a nucleophile in two different ways
of haloalkanes follows the sequence :
iodoalkanes > bromoalkanes > chloroalkanes > [4 C { N l : C N 4 ] . Similarly nitrite ion also
fluoroalkanes represents an ambident nucleophile with two different
134. (a) <<
+ –
points of linkage [ O N O]. The linkage through
Me Br ionisation +Br
Me oxygen results in alkyl nitrites while through nitrogen
(A) atom, it leads to nitroalkanes.
141. (d) In case of optically active alkyl halides, the product
Me Me formed as a result of SN2 mechanism has the inverted
ionisation Me
+ + Br – configuration as compared to the reactant. This is
Br
because the nucleophile attaches itself on the side
(B)
opposite to the one where the halogen atom is present.
Me In case of optically active alkyl halides, SN1 reactions
ionisation Me – are accompanied by racemisation. The carbocation
Me + Br
Me +
Br formed in the slow step being sp2 hybridised is planar
(C) (achiral).

168 +$/2$/.$1(6$1'+$/2$5(1(6
142. (d) —NO2 group is electron attractive group, so it is able SbCl
145. (d) 5
3CCl4 2 SbF5 o 2SbCl3 3CCl 2 F2
to deactivate the benzene ring.
freon 12
Cl C,FeCl3
CCl 4 2H o 2HCl CCl 2 F2
NO2 146. (c) Carbon tetrachloride vapours react with steam above
500° C to from phosgene, a poisonous gas.
500q C
NO2 CCl 4 H 2O o COCl2 2HCl
phosgene
hence withdrawl of electrons from ortho and para 147. (a) In stratosphere, freon is able to initiate radical chain
position cause easy removal of –Cl atom due to reaction that can upset the natural ozone balance.
development of +ve charge on o- and p positions. 148. (c) In stratosphere freon is able, to initiate radical chain
143. (a) On the same basis as above reactions that can upset the natural ozone balance.
CH3CH2Cl > CH2 = CHCl > C6H5Cl 149. (d) Exposure of carbon tetrachloride causes liver cancer
in humans. The most common effects are dizziness,
144. (c) The carbon-halogen bonds of aryl halides are both
light headedness, nausea and vomiting which cause
shorter and stronger (due to possibility of resonance)
permanent damage to nerve cells. In severe cases,
than the carbon-halogen bonds of R–X and in this these effects can lead rapidly to stupor, coma,
respect as well as in their chemical behaviour, they unconsciousness or death.
resemble vinyl halides (CH2= CHX) more than alkyl oxidation
halides. 150. (a) CH 3CH 2OH + Cl2 o CH 3CHO + 2HCl
Ethanol Ethanal
X CH 3CHO + 3Cl2 oCCl 3 CHO + 3HCl

Ethanal Chloral
2CCl3CHO + Ca(OH)2 o
2CHCl 3 + (HCOO) 2 Ca
CH2= CH–X Chloroform Cal. formate
Aryl halides Vinyl halides CH 3COCH3 + 3Cl2 o CCl 3COCH 3 + 3HCl
Acetone Trichloroacetone
Halogen attached to C is sp2 hybridised C, 2CCl3CO.CH3 + Ca(OH)2 o
C–X bond is shorter and stronger because of 2CHCl3 + (CH3COO)2Ca
partial double bond character due to
delocalisation of electrons on halogens 151. (c) Triiodomethane (CHI3) when comes in contact with
organic matter decomposes easily to free iodine which
CH2– X has antiseptic property.
152. (a) Cl Cl Cl Cl
C Light and air
Cl H +[O] C
OH
Cl
R–CH 2–X CH2 = CH–CH2–X Chloroform
Alkyl halides Allyl halides Benzyl halides Cl

HCl+ C=O
Cl Phosgene
Phosgene is an extremely poisonous gas.
153. (d)

11
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND
ETHERS
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 CH 3
|
1. The characteristic grouping of secondary alcohols is 9. The IUPAC name of CH 3 CH CH 2 C CH 3 is
(a) CH 2OH (b) CHOH | |
OH OH
| OH
(c) C OH (d) C (a) 1, 1-dimethyl-1, 3-butanediol
| OH (b) 2-methyl-2, 4-pentanediol
2. The compound HOCH 2 CH 2 OH is (c) 4-methyl-2, 4-pentanediol
(a) ethane glycol (b) ethylene glycol (d) 1, 3, 3-trimethyl-1, 3-propanediol
(c) ethylidene alcohol (d) dimethyl alcohol 10. Number of metamers represented by molecular formula
3. The structural formula of cyclohexanol is C4H10O is
(a) 4 (b) 3
CH 2 CH 2 (c) 2 (d) 1
11. Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?
H2 C CHOH H2 C CHOH
(a) (b) OH CH2OH CH2OH OH
H2 C CH 2 H2 C CH 2
CH 2 CH 2
CH3 CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH 2 OH
(a) A, B, C, D (b) A, D
(c) (d) (c) B, C (d) A
12. How many alcohol(s) with molecular formula C4H10O are
4. Which of the following is dihydric alcohol ? chiral in nature?
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethylene glycol (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) Catechol (d) Resorcinol (c) 3 (d) 4
5. An example of a compound with functional group – O – is : 13. Give IUPAC name of the compound given below
(a) acetic acid (b) methyl alcohol
CH3 –CH – CH 2 – CH 2 –CH – CH 3
(c) diethyl ether (d) acetone | |
6. Butane-2-ol is Cl OH
(a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol (a) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane
(c) tertiary alcohol (d) aldehyde (b) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane
7. Cresol has (c) 5-Chlorohexane-2-ol
(a) Alcoholic – OH (b) Phenolic – OH (d) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol
(c) – COOH (d) – CHO
14. IUPAC name of m-cresol is ___________
8. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohols ?
(a) 2-methylphenol (b) 3-chlorophenol
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 3-methoxyphenol (d) benzene-1, 3-diol

170 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
15. IUPAC name of the compound CH3 – CH – OCH3 is 23. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by
| (a) Permanganate oxidation
CH3 (b) Catalytic reduction
_______________ . (c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis
(a) 1-methoxy-1-methylethane (d) All the three
(b) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane 24. Sodium salt of benzene sulphonic acid on fusion with caustic
(c) 2-methoxypropane soda gives
(d) isopropylmethyl ether (a) Benzene (b) Phenol
16. Which of the following are benzylic alcohols? (c) Thiophenol (d) Benzoic acid
(i) C6 H5 – CH 2 – CH 2OH 25. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to
the formation of
(ii) C6 H5 – CH 2 OH (a) primary alcohol
(b) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(iii) C 6 H5 – C H – OH
| (c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
CH3 (d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
26. Ethyl alcohol can be prepared from Grignard reagent by the
(iv) C6 H5 – CH 2 – C H – OH reaction of :
|
CH3 (a) HCHO (b) R2CO
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) RCN (d) RCOCl
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) 27. Isopropyl alcohol is obtained by reacting which of the
17. In which of the following structures hydroxyl group is following alkenes with concentrated H2SO4 followed by
attached to sp2 carbon atom? boiling with H2O?
(a) Ethylene (b) Propylene
OH (c) 2-Methylpropene (d) Isoprene
CH2OH CH
OH 28. Alkenes convert into alcohols by
(a) (b) (a) hydrolysis by dil. H 2SO 4
(b) hydration of alkene by alkaline KMnO4
OH CH(CH3)OH (c) hydrolysis by water vapours and conc. HNO3
CH3 (d) hydration of alkene by aqueous KOH
(c) (d) 29. Which of the following reacts with NaOH to give an alcohol?
(a) Propene (b) Butene
18. Which of the following is an example of unsymmetrical (c) Ethanal (d) Methanal
ether? 30. By which of the following methods alcohol can be prepared
(a) C2H5OC2H5 (b) C6H5OC6H5 in excellent yield?
(c) C6H5OC2H5 (d) CH3OCH3 (a) From alkenes
19. Which of the following will not form phenol or phenoxide ? (b) By hydroboration-oxidation
(a) C6H5N2Cl (b) C6H5SO3Na (c) From carbonyl compounds
(c) C6H5Cl (d) C6H5CO2H (d) From Grignard reagent
20. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by 31. Which of the following are used to convert RCHO into
(a) Fittig’s reaction (b) Cannizzaro’s reaction RCH2OH?
(c) Kolbe’s reaction (d) Wurtz’s reaction (i) H2/Pd
21. In the reduction (ii) LiAlH4
(iii) NaBH4
R CHO H 2
o RCH 2 OH
(iv) Reaction with RMgX followed by hydrolysis
the catalyst used is : (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(a) Ni (b) Pd (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
(c) Pt (d) Any of these 32. Commercially carboxylic acids are reduced to alcohols by
22. Ethylene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to give converting them to the ______.
(a) ethane (b) ethyl alcohol (a) esters (b) aldehydes
(c) ethylene glycol (d) None of these (c) ketones (d) amines

$/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56 171
33. The hydrocarbon which produce phenol and acetone as a 42. Which of the following is correct ?
by product in the large quantity is (a) On reduction of any aldehyde, secondary alcohol is
formed
CH2CH3
CH3 (b) Reaction of vegetable oil with H2SO4 gives glycerine
(c) Sucrose on reaction with NaCl gives invert sugar
(a) (b) (d) Alcoholic iodine gives iodoform with NaOH
43. Which of the following is not true in case of reaction with
heated copper at 300°C?
CH3 CH3 (a) Phenol o Benzyl alcohol
(b) Secondary alcohol o Ketone
(c) H3C C CH3 (d) CH3 CH
(c) Primary alcohol o Aldehyde
(d) Tertiary alcohol o Olefin
44. Phenol is more acidic than alcohol because
(a) phenol is more stable than water
HNO
2 o ROH H O C n;
(b) phenol is aromatic and alcohol is aliphatic
34. In the reaction, RNH 2 2
273 278K (c) phenoxide ion is resonance stabilised
C is (where R = C6H5) (d) None of these
(a) NH3 (b) N2 45. Acidity of phenol is due to
(c) O2 (b) CO2 (a) hydrogen bonding
35. The correct order of boiling points for primary (1º), (b) phenolic group
secondary (2º) and tertiary alcohol (3º) is (c) benzene ring
(a) 1º > 2º > 3º (b) 3º > 2º > 1º (d) resonance stabilisation of its anion
(c) 2º > 1º > 3º (d) 2º > 3º > 1º 46. Which one of the following compounds has the most acidic
36. Alcohols of low molecular weight are nature?
(a) soluble in water
CH2OH OH
(b) soluble in water on heating (a) (b)
(c) insoluble in water
(d) insoluble in all solvents
OH
37. Which of the following has lowest boiling point ?
(a) p-Nitrophenol (b) m-Nitrophenol OH CH
(c) o-Nitrophenol (d) Phenol (c) (d)
38. Which statement is not correct about alcohol?
(a) Molecular weight of alcohol is higher than water 47. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of
(b) Alcohol of less no. of carbon atoms is less soluble in ethanol because :
water than alcohol of more no. of carbon atoms (a) phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide
(c) Alcohol evaporates quickly (b) phenoxide ion is stronger base than ethoxide
(d) All of the above (c) phenoxide ion is stabilized through delocalization
39. Which one of the following alcohols is least soluble in (d) phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide
water? 48. Which one of the following on oxidation gives a ketone ?
(a) CH 3 OH (b) C 3 H 7 OH (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) All of these
(c) C 4 H 9 OH (d) C10 H 21OH 49. Primary and secondary alcohols on action of reduced copper
40. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to give
(a) covalent character (a) Aldehydes and ketones respectively
(b) hydrogen bonding character (b) Ketones and aldehydes respectively
(c) oxygen bonding character (c) Only aldehydes
(d) None of these (d) Only ketones
41. If ethanol dissolves in water, then which of the following 50. When ethyl alcohol reacts with acetic acid, the products
would be observed formed are
(a) absorption of heat and contraction in volume (a) Sodium ethoxide + hydrogen
(b) emission of heat and contraction in volume (b) Ethyl acetate + water
(c) absorption of heat and increase in volume (c) Ethyl acetate + soap
(d) emission of heat and increase in volume (d) Ethyl alcohol + water

172 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
51. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to prepare 64. Ethyl alcohol exhibits acidic character on reacting it with
methyl ethyl ketone? (a) acetic acid (b) sodium metal
(a) 2-Propanol (b) l-Butanol (c) hydrogen chloride (d) acidic K2Cr2O7
(c) 2-Butanol (d) t-Butyl alcohol 65. For the reaction,
52. HBr reacts fastest with ZnCl
2oC H X H O
(a) 2-Mehtylpropan-1-ol C 2 H 5 OH HX
2 5 2
(b) 2-Methylpropene-2-ol the order of reactivity is
(c) propan-2-ol (a) HBr > HI > HCl (b) HI > HCl > HBr
(d) propan-1-ol (c) HI > HBr > HCl (d) HCl > HBr > HI
53. n-Propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be chemically 66. In the following reaction,
distinguished by which reagent? Conc . H SO 4
(a) PCl5 C 2 H 5 OH 2 o Z identify Z:
443 K
(b) Reduction
(a) CH2 = CH2 (b) CH3CH2OCH2CH3
(c) Oxidation with potassium dichromate
(c) CH3CH2–HSO4 (d) (CH3CH2)2SO4
(d) Ozonolysis
67. Chemical name of salol is
54. Lucas reagent is
(a) acetylsalicyclic acid (b) sodium salicylate
(a) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2
(c) phenyl salicylate (d) methyl salicylate
(b) Conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2
68. Aspirin is an acetylation product of
(c) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2
(a) p-Dihydroxybenzene (b) o-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(d) Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2
(c) o-Dihydroxybenzene (d) m-Hydroxybenzoic acid
55. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at
room temperature is 69. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid
and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives
(a) Butan-1-ol (b) Butan-2-ol
(a) 2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene (b) o-nitrophenol
(c) 2-Methyl propan-1-ol (d) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(c) p-nitrophenol (d) nitrobenzene
56. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water, it gives:
70. 3 moles of ethanol react with one mole of phosphorus
(a) m-Bromophenol (b) o- and p-Bromophenol
tribromide to form 3 moles of bromoethane and one mole of
(c) 2, 4-Dibromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol
X. Which of the following is X?
57. When phenol is heated with CHCl3 and alcoholic KOH when
(a) H3PO4 (b) H3PO2
salicyladehyde is produced. This reaction is known as
(c) HPO3 (d) H3PO3
(a) Rosenmund’s reaction (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
71. Methanol and ethanol can be distinguished by the following:
(c) Friedel-Crafts reaction (d) Sommelet reaction
(a) By reaction with metallic sodium
58. On distilling phenol with Zn dust, one gets :
(b) By reaction with caustic soda
(a) Toluene (b) Benzaldehyde + ZnO
(c) By heating with iodine and washing soda
(c) ZnO + benzene (d) Benzoic acid
(d) By heating with zinc and inorganic mineral acid
59. Phenols do not react with one of the following :
72. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by
(a) Alkali metals (b) Sodium hydroxide
hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields.
(c) Potassium hydroxide (d) Sodium bi-carbonate
(a) o-Cresol (b) m-Cresol
60. In the reaction
(c) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene (d) Benzyl alcohol
NaOH CO2 HCl 73. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the
Phenol o (A) o
140q
(B), here B is
following reaction?
(a) benzaldehyde (b) chlorobenzene
2 ZnCl
(c) benzoic acid (d) salicylic acid R – OH HCl o R – Cl H 2O
61. Dehydration of 2-butanol yields (a) 1° > 2° > 3° (b) 1° < 2° > 3°
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-butene (c) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) 3° > 1° > 2°
(c) 2-butyne (d) Both (a) and (b) 74. CH3CH2OH can be converted into CH3CHO by ________
62. Lucas test is done to differentiate between (a) catalytic hydrogenation
(a) alcohol and ketone (b) treatment with LiAlH4
(b) alcohol and aromatic ketones (c) treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate
(c) 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols (d) treatment with KMnO4
(d) None of these 75. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium
63. To distinguish between salicylic acid and phenol, one can hydroxide solution in water?
use (a) C6H5OH (b) C6H5CH2OH
(a) NaHCO3 solution (b) 5% NaOH solution (c) (CH3)3COH (d) C2H5OH
(c) neutral FeCl3 (d) bromine water

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76. Phenol is less acidic than_______________ . 82. Which enzyme converts glucose and fructose both into
(a) ethanol (b) o–nitrophenol ethanol ?
(c) o-methylphenol (d) o-methoxyphenol (a) Diastase (b) Invertase
77. Which of the following is most acidic? (c) Zymase (d) Maltase
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Cyclohexanol 83. An industrial method of preparation of methanol is :
(c) Phenol (d) m-Chlorophenol (a) catalytic reduction of carbon monoxide in presence of
78. Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the ZnO–Cr2O3
following compounds with HBr/HCl (b) by reacting methane with steam at 900ºC with a nickel
catalyst
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH (c) by reducing formaldehyde with lithium aluminium
hydride
(d) by reacting formaldehyde with aqueous sodium
hydroxide solution
84. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by
NO2 Cl (a) Permanganate oxidation
(A) (B) (C) (b) Catalytic reduction
(c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis
(a) A < B < C (b) B < A < C (d) All the three
(c) B < C < A (d) C < B < A 85. ‘Drinking alcohol’ is very harmful and it ruins the health.
79. Arrange the following in increasing order of their acidity? ‘Drinking alcohol’ stands for
o–cresol(a), salicyclic acid(b), phenol(c) (a) drinking methyl alcohol
(a) c < a < b (b) b < c < a (b) drinking ethyl alcohol
(c) a < b < a (d) a < c < b (c) drinking propyl alcohol
80. In the reaction (d) drinking isopropyl alcohol
OH ONa 86. The fermentation reactions are carried out in temperature
range of
+ NaOH + H2O (a) 20-30°C (b) 30-40°C
o
(c) 40-50°C (d) 50-60°C
87. Ethanol is prepared industrially by
Phenol behaves as (a) hydration of ethylene (b) fermentation of sugar
(a) Bronsted base (b) Bronsted acid (c) Both the above (d) None of these
(c) Lewis acid (d) Lewis base 88. The fermentation of starch to give alcohol occurs mainly
81. In the given reaction with the help of
OH (a) O2 (b) air
(c) CO2 (d) enzymes
89. In the commercial manufacture of ethyl alcohol from starchy
o A
Na 2 Cr2O 7
substances by fermentation method. Which enzymes
H 2SO 4
slipwise complete the fermentation reaction
(a) Diastase, maltase and zymase
A is (b) Maltase, zymase and invertase
(c) Diastase, zymase and lactase
OH O
(d) Diastase, invertase and zymase
90. Methyl alcohol is toxic. The reason assigned is
(a) (b) (a) it stops respiratory track
(b) it reacts with nitrogen and forms CN– in the lungs
OH O (c) it increses CO2 content in the blood
(d) it is a reduction product of formaldehyde
O CHO 91. In order to make alcohol undrinkable pyridine and methanol
are added to it. The resulting alcohol is called
(a) Power alcohol (b) Proof spirit
(c) (d) (c) Denatured spirit (d) Poison alcohol
92. Wine (alcoholic beverages) contains
CH2 (a) CH3OH (b) Glycerol
(c) C2H5OH (d) 2-propanol

174 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
93. Tonics in general contain (a) H-bonding in ethanol
(a) Ether (b) Methanol (b) H-bonding in dimethyl ether
(c) Ethanol (d) Rectified spirit (c) CH3 group in ethanol
94. Widespread deaths due to liquor poisoning occurs due to (d) CH3 group in dimethyl ether
(a) presence of carbonic acid in liquor 103. Ether which is liquid at room temperature is
(b) presence of ethyl alcohol in liquor (a) C2H5OCH3 (b) CH3OCH3
(c) presence of methyl alcohol in liquor (c) C2H5OC2H5 (d) None of these
(d) presence of lead compounds in liquor 104. Ether can be used
95. Select the incorrect statement about the fermentation.
(a) as a general anaesthetic
(a) When grapes are crushed, sugar and the enzyme come
in contact and fermentation starts (b) as a refrigerant
(b) Fermentation takes place in anaerobic conditions (c) in perfumery
(c) Carbon monoxide is released during fermentation (d) all of the above
(d) If air gets into fermentation mixture, the oxygen of air 105. Which of the following compound is soluble in ether?
oxidises ethanol to ethanoic acid which in turn (a) Oils and fats (b) Water
destroys the taste of alcoholic drinks (c) NaCl (d) PCl5
96. Denaturation of alcohol is the 106. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same
(a) mixing of CuSO4 (a foul smelling solid) and pyridine molecular formula. This is due to
(to give the colour) to make the commercial alcohol (a) dipolar character of ethers
unfit for drinking (b) alcohols having resonance structures
(b) mixing of CuSO4 (to give the colour) and pyridine (a (c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
foul smelling solid) to make the commercial alcohol (d) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
unfit for drinking 107. Which of the following has strongest hydrogen bonding?
(c) mixing of Cu(OAc)2 and ammonia to make the
(a) Ethyl amine (b) Ethanal
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking
(c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Diethyl ether
(d) mixing of Cu(OAc) 2 and pyridine to make the
108. Oxygen atom in ether is
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking
97. Which one is formed when sodium phenoxide is heated (a) very active (b) replaceable
with ethyl iodide ? (c) comparatively inert (d) active
(a) Phenetole (b) Ethyl phenyl alcohol 109. The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution
(c) Phenol (d) None of these reactions is
98. Williamson’s synthesis is used to prepare (a) CH3OC2H5 (b) C6H5OCH3
(a) acetone (b) diethyl ether (c) CH3OCH3 (d) C2H5OC2H5
(c) P.V.C. (d) bakelite 110. Diethyl ether on heating with conc. HI gives two moles of
99. The reaction of sodium ethoxide with ethyl iodide to form (a) ethanol (b) iodoform
diethyl ether is termed (c) ethyl iodide (d) methyl iodide
(a) electrophilic substitution 111. Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by reacting
(b) nucleophilic substitution (a) phenolate ions and methyl iodide
(c) electrophilic addition
(b) methoxide ions and bromobenzene
(d) radical substitution
100. Which of the following cannot be made by using (c) methanol and phenol
Williamson’s synthesis? (d) bromo benzene and methyl bromide
(a) Methoxybenzene 112. Diethyl ether can be decomposed by heating with
(b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether (a) HI (b) NaOH
(c) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (c) Water (d) KMnO4
(d) Di-tert-butyl ether 113. The major organic product in the reaction,
101. The reaction given below is known as CH3 — O — CH(CH3)2 + HI o Product is
C 2 H 5 ONa IC 2 H 5
o C 2 H 5 OC 2 H 5 NaI (a) ICH2OCH(CH3)2 (b) CH 3O C( CH 3 ) 2
(a) Kolbe’s synthesis |
I
(b) Wurtz synthesis
(c) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH (d) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI
(c) Williamson’s synthesis
114. An aromatic ether is not cleaved by HI even at 525 K. The
(d) Grignard’s synthesis
compound is
102. Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional isomers.
The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl (a) C6H5OCH3 (b) C6H5OC6H5
ether, due to the presence of (c) C6H5OC3H7 (d) Tetrahydrofuran

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115. When 2-methoxypropane is heated with HI, in the mole (iii) Only primary alcohols on dehydration give ethers.
ratio 1 : 1, the major products formed are (iv) Secondary and tertiary alcohols on dehydration give
(a) methanol and 2-iodopropane ethers having 2° and 3° carbon attached with O atom.
(b) methyl iodide and 2-propanol (a) TTFF (b) TFTF
(c) methyl iodide and 2-iodopropane (c) TTTF (d) FTTF
(d) methanol and 2-propanol 123. Which of the following statements are correct ?
116. Formation of diethyl ether from ethanol is based on a (i) In phenols, the —OH group is attached to sp 2
(a) dehydration reaction hybridised carbon of an aromatic ring
(b) dehydrogenation reaction (ii) The carbon – oxygen bond length (136 pm) in phenol
(c) hydrogenation reaction is slightly more than that in methanol
(d) heterolytic fission reaction (iii) Partial double bond character is due to the
117. The cleavage of an aryl-alkyl ether with cold HI gives : conjugation of unshared electron pair of oxygen with
(a) alkyl iodide and water the aromatic ring.
(b) aryl iodide and water (iv) sp2 hybridised state of carbon to which oxygen is
(c) alkyl iodide, aryl iodide and water attached.
(d) phenol and alkyl iodide (a) (i), (ii) and (v) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
118. Which of the following compounds is resistant to (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions? 124. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) Methyl acetate (b) Acetonitrile (i) Ethanol mixed with methanol is called denatured
(c) Acetamide (d) Diethyl ether alcohol.
(ii) Excess of methanol in body may cause blindness.
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 (iii) In the body methanol is oxidised to methanoic acid.
119. When an alcohol is prepared by reaction of ethylmagnesium- (iv) A methanol poisoned patient is treated by giving
bromide with 2–pentanone, product formed does not rotate intravenous injections of ethanoic acid.
plane polarised light. For this reaction which of the following (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
statement(s) is/are correct ? (c) (i) and (v) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(i). Product formed is achiral.
(ii) Racemic mixture is formed. 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
(a) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct. 125. Match the columns
(b) Statement (i) is correct only. Column-I Column-II
(c) Statement (ii) is correct only. OH
(d) Both statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
120. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) (p) Quinol
(i) Alcohols react as nucleophiles in the reactions
involving cleavage of O–H bond.
(ii) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions OH
involving cleavage of O–H bond. OH
(iii) Alcohols react as nucleophile in the reaction involving (B) (q) Phenol
cleavage of C–O bond.
(iv) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions OH
involving C–O bond.
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) only (C) (r) Catechol
121. Which of the following are correct statement(s) ?
OH
(i) Polar nature of O–H bond is responsible for acidic OH
character of alcohols.
(ii) Acidic strength of alcohols follow the order 1° > 2° > 3°.
(iii) Alcohols are stronger acids than water.
(iv) Alcohols also react as Bronsted base. (D) (s) Resorcinol
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) OH
(a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
122. Read the following statements and choose the correct
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
option.
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)
(i) Ethanol on dehydration at 443 K gives ethene
(d) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
(ii) Ethanol on dehydration at 413 K gives diethyl ether

176 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
126. Match the columns 132. Assertion : In case of phenol, bromination takes place
Column-I Column-II even in absence of Lewis acid whereas bromination of
(A) Methanol (p) Conversion of phenol benzene takes place in presence of Lewis acid like FeBr 3.
to o-hydroxysalicylic Reason : – OH group attached to benzene ring is highly
acid deactivating.
(B) Kolbe’s reaction (q) Wood spirit 133. Assertion : ter - Butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the
(C) Williamson’s synthesis (r) Heated copper at 573 K reaction of ter-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide.
(D) Conversion of 2° alcohol (s) Reaction of alkyl halide Reason : Sodium methoxide is a strong nucleophile.
to ketone with sodium alkoxide 134. Assertion : Ethers behave as bases in the presence of
(a) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p) mineral acids.
(b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) Reason : Due to the presence of lone pairs of electrons on
(c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) oxygen.
(d) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s) 135. Assertion : With HI, anisole gives iodobenzene and methyl
127. Match the columns alcohol.
Column-I Column-II Reason : Iodide ion combines with smaller group to avoid
(A) Antifreeze used in (p) Methanol steric hindrance.
car engine 136. Assertion : With HI at 373 K, ter-butyl methyl ether gives
(B) Solvent used in (q) Phenol ter-butyl iodide and methanol.
perfumes Reason : The reaction occurs by SN2 mechanism.
(C) Starting material for (r) Ethleneglycol 137. Assertion : Ethyl phenyl ether on reaction with HBr form
picric acid phenol and ethyl bromide.
(D) Wood spirit (s) Ethanol Reason : Cleavage of C–O bond takes place on ethyl-
(a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r) oxygen bond due to the more stable phenyl-oxygen bond.
(b) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p) &5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
(d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s) 138. Vinyl carbinol is
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 (a) HO CH 2 CH CH 2
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, (b) CH 3C(OH ) CH 2

(c) CH 3 CH CH OH
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. (d) CH 3 C(CH 2 OH) CH 2
139. Propene, CH 3CH CH 2 can be converted into 1-propanol
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a by oxidation. Indicate which set of reagents amongst the
correct explanation for assertion. following is ideal to effect the above conversion ?
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. (a) KMnO4 (alkaline)
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (b) Osmium tetraoxide (OsO4/CH2Cl2)
128. Assertion : The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less (c) B6H6 and alk. H2O2
than the tetrahedral angle. (d) O3/Zn
Reason : In alcohols, the oxygen of –OH group is attached 140. The product of the following reaction is
to sp3 hybridized carbon atom. (i ) BH 3 / THF
129. Assertion : In Lucas test, 3º alcohols react immediately.

o
(ii ) H 2 O 2 , OH
Reason : An equimolar mixture of anhyd. ZnCl2 and conc.
(a) 1-Pentanol (b) 2-Pentanol
HCl is called Lucas reagent.
130. Assertion : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with CCl4 (c) Pentane (d) 1,2-Pentanediol
in NaOH at 340 K gives salicyclic acid as the major product. 141. C6 H5 CH CHCHO X
o C6 H5 CH CHCH 2 OH .
Reason : The reaction occurs through intermediate
In the above sequence X can be
formation of dichlorocarbene.
131. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards (a) H 2 / Ni (b) NaBH 4
electrophilic substitution reaction.
(c) K 2 Cr2 O7 / H (d) Both (a) and (b)
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation
is more resonance stabilized.

$/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56 177
142. Which of the following reactions will yield phenol? 147. Mechanism of acid catalysed hydration reaction involves
Cl (i) Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by
electrophilic attack of H3O+
(i) fusion with NaOH at 300 atm (ii) Nucleophilic attack of water on carbocation.
(i)
o
(ii)H 2O/H (iii) Deprotonation to form alcohol.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
NH2
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
(i)NaNO /HCl
2
148. Phenol is less acidic than
(ii) o
(ii)H 2O(Warming) (a) acetic acid (b) p-methoxyphenol
(c) acetylene (d) ethanol
(i)Oleum 149. The correct order of acid strength of the following
(iii) o
(ii)NaOH,(Heating)
compounds :
(iii)H
(A) Phenol (B) p–Cresol
Cl (C) m–Nitrophenol (D) p–Nitrophenol
(i)NaOH(aq.).298K/1atm (a) D > C > A > B (b) B > D > A > C
(iv)
o
(ii)HCl (c) A > B > D > C (d) C > B > A > D
150. Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) acidity :
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
143. Hydration of styrene is carried out in presence of acid as OH OH OH OH
catalyst. The major product is.
(a) 1–hydroxy–2–phenylethane. ; ; ; ;
(b) 1–hydroxy–1–phenylethane.
(c) 2–hydroxy–1–phenylethane.
(d) 2–hydroxy–2–phenylethane. Cl CH3 NO2 OCH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
144. Which of the following reagents can be used for preparation
of cumene ? (a) II > IV > I > III (b) I > II > III > IV
(i) C6H6, Cl2, hv; Mg.THF; acetone. (c) III > I > II > IV (d) IV > III > I > II
(ii) C6H6, CH3CH2CH2Cl, AlCl3. 151. ClCH2CH2OH is stronger acid than CH3CH2OH because
(iii) C6H6, CH3CHClCH3, AlCl3. of:
(iv) C6H6, CH3CH2Cl, AlCl3;
(a) – I effect of Cl increases negative charge on O atom of
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
alcohol
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
145. The hydroboration of an alkene is carried out, then on (b) – I effect of Cl disperses negative charge on O atom to
oxidation with hydrogen peroxide, the alcohol so obtained produce more stable cation
is achiral. Possible structure of alkene is (are) : (c) – I effect of Cl disperses negative charge on O atom to
(i) 2, 3– dimethylbut–2–ene. produce more stable anion
(ii) 3, 4–dimethylbut –3–ene. (d) None of these
(iii) 2–methyl–but–2–ene. 152. Which one of the following compounds will be most readily
(iv) 2–methylpropene. attacked by an electrophile ?
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (a) Chlorobenzene (b) Benzene
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
(c) Phenol (d) Toluene
146. Which of the following shows structure of allylic alcohol?
153. Consider the following reaction:
(i) CH 2 CH CH 2OH
Zn dust
3 CH Cl
(ii) CH 2 CH OH Phenol
o X
oY
Anhydrous AlCl3
(iii) CH 2 CH CH CH3 OH Alkaline KMnO

4oZ

(iv) CH 2 CH C CH3 2OH The product Z is
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (a) benzaldehyde (b) benzoic acid
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) benzene (d) toluene

178 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
154. When phenol is reacted with CHCl3 and NaOH followed by 162. Which one of the following will show the highest pH value ?
acidification, salicylaldehyde is obtained. Which of the (a) m–nitrophenol. (b) p–nitrophenol.
following species are involved in the above mentioned (c) o–nitrophenol. (d) Both (b) and (c).
reaction as intermediate? 163. Which of the following is most reactive towards aqueous
O OH HBr ?
(a) 1-Phenyl-1-propanol
H CHCl2
+ (b) 1-Phenyl-2-propanol
(a) CCl2 (b) (c) 3-Phenyl-1-propanol
(d) All are equally reactive
164. The major product of the reaction between tert-butyl chloride
and sodium ethoxide is
(c) (d) (a) 2-methylprop-1-ene (b) 1-butene
(c) 2-butene (d) ethene
155. The reagent used for dehydration of an alcohol is 165. In Williamson synthesis if tertiary alkyl halide is used than
(a) phosphorus pentachloride (a) ether is obtained in good yield
(b) calcium chloride (b) ether is obtained in poor yield
(c) aluminium oxide (c) alkene is the only reaction product
(d) sodium chloride (d) a mixture of alkene as a major product and ether as a
156. The alcohol which does not give a stable compound on minor product forms.
dehydration is 166. In the reaction:
(a) ethyl alcohol (b) methyl alcohol
(c) n-Propyl alcohol (d) n-Butyl alcohol CH3
|
157. A compound of the formula C4H10O reacts with sodium Heated
CH3 CH CH 2 O CH 2 CH3 HI o
and undergoes oxidation to give a carbonyl compound
which does not reduce Tollen’s reagent, the original Which of the following compounds will be formed?
compound is
(a) CH3 CH CH3 CH3CH 2 OH
(a) Diethyl ether (b) n-Butyl alcohol
|
(c) Isobutyl alcohol (d) sec-Butyl alcohol CH3
158. Which of the following fact(s) explain as to why
p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol? (b) CH3 CH CH 2 OH CH3CH3
I. –I Effect of nitro group. |
II. Greater resonance effect of p-nitrophenoxy group CH3
III. Steric effect of bulky nitro group
CH3
(a) I and II (b) I and III |
(c) II and III (d) II alone (c) CH3 CH CH 2 OH CH3 CH 2 I
159. In the following sequence of reactions,
P I
2 o A Mg HCHO CH3
CH 3CH 2 OH o B
o |
ether
H O
2 oD (d) CH3 CH CH 2 I CH3CH 2OH
C
the compound D is
HBr
(a) propanal (b) butanal 167. In the reaction OCH3 the products are
(c) n-butyl alcohol (d) n-propyl alcohol.
160. Which of the following species can act as the strongest
base? (a) OBr and CH4
(a) OH (b) OR
(c) OC6H5 (d) (b) Br and CH3Br
O
NO2
(c) Br and CH3OH
161. Which of the following reagents can be used to oxidise
primary alcohols to aldehydes?
(i) CrO3 in anhydrous medium.
(d) OH and CH3Br
(ii) KMnO4 in acidic medium.
(iii) Pyridinium chlorochromate. 168. An aromatic ether is not cleaved by HI even at 525 K. The
(iv) Heat in the presence of Cu at 573K. compound is
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (a) C6H5OCH3 (b) C6H5OC6H5
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) C6H5OC3H7 (d) Tetrahydrofuran

$/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56 179
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 19. (d) Benzoic acid (C 6 H 5COOH) will not form phenol or
phenoxide.
1. (b) 2. (b)
20. (b) By heating benzaldehyde with conc. NaOH or KOH
CH 2 (Cannizzaro reaction).
H2 C CH OH
OH C6 H5 CHO NaOH o
3. (a) or Benzaldehyde
H2 C CH 2 C6 H 5 CH 2 OH C6 H 5 COONa
Benzyl alcohol Sod. benzoate
CH 2
21. (d) Any one of Ni, Pt or Pd can be used in the reduction of
4. (b) Glycols are dihydric alcohols (having two hydroxyl aldehydes.
groups). Ethylene glycol is the first member of this
KMnO4
series. 22. (c) CH 2 CH 2 o CH 2 CH 2
OH | |
CH 2OH
| Baeyer’s OH OH
CH 2 OH reagent Glycol
(Ethylene glycol)
This reaction is known as Baeyer’s test for unsaturation.
5. (c) Ethers contain the functional group – O – 23. (c) Ethylene is passed into concentrated sulphuric acid at
6. (b) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 – a secondary alcohol 75–80°C under pressure when a mixture of ethyl
7. (b) Cresol has phenolic group – OH hydrogen sulphate and diethyl sulphate is formed.
8. (b) Four primary alcohols of C5H11OH are possible. These 100qC
H 2C CH 2 H 2SO 4
o C2 H5 HSO 4
are: Ethylene
(i) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH '
o C 2 H 5 OH H 2SO 4
H 2O
(ii) CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 OH
| SO 3 Na O Na
CH 3
24. (b) NaOH + Na2SO3.H2O
(iii) CH 3 CH CH 2CH 2 OH 300°
|
CH 3 HCl
CH 3 OH
|
(iv) CH 3 C CH 2 OH
+ NaCl
|
CH 3 25. (b)
CH3 H H
| | CH3MgBr
|
9. (b)
5 4 3 2 1 26. (a) H C O o H C OMgBr
CH3 CH CH 2 C CH3
| | |
OH OH CH 3
2-methyl- 2, 4-pentanediol. H
10. (b) C4H10O : (i) C2H5OC2H5 (ii) CH3OC3H7 H3O |
(iii) CH3OCH(CH3)2 o H C OH
|
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) CH 3
16. (b)
27. (b) Since the compound is formed by hydration of an
17. (c) In this structure –OH group is directly attached to
alkene, to get the structure of alkene remove a molecule
double bonded carbon atom i.e. sp2 hybridized carbon
of water from the alcohol.
atom.
H O
18. (c) If two groups attached to the oxygen atom are CH3 C H CH3 2o CH 2 CHCH 3
|
different then ethers are known as unsymmetrical or OH
Propylene
mixed ethers. Isopropyl alcohol

180 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
alk. KMnO CH2–CH2 G– G G– G G– G

28. (b) CH 2 4
CH 2 H 2 O [O] o 40. (b) Hydrogen bonding : O – H} O – H}O – H
OH OH | | |
Glycol
R H R
Alcohol Water Alcohol
Conc. H SO
2 4 o CH CH OH
41. (b) When ethanol dissolves in water then there is emission
CH 2 CH 2 H 2 O 3 2 of heat and contraction in volume.
Ethane Ethanol
42. (d) C 2 H 5 OH 4 I 2 6 NaOH o
29. (d) The aldehydes which do not have D -hydrogen atom
react with NaOH when half of molecules are reduced CHI 3 p HCOONa 5 NaI 5H 2O
Iodoform
to alcohol and other half of molecules are oxidised to
43. (a) When primary (1°) alcohols are treated with copper at
acid (Cannizzaro reaction).
300°C, then aldeh ydes are obtained by
NaOH dehydrogenation of alcohols. Similarly secondary (2°)
2 HCHO
o CH3OH + HCOONa
Methanal Methyl Sod. formate alcohols form ketone and alkene is obtained by
alcohol dehydration of tertiary (3°) - alcohols. But phenol does
30. (b) 31. (b) not respond to this test.
32. (a) Commercially, acids are reduced to alcohols by
converting them to the esters, followed by their Cu
R CH 2 CH2 OH o R CH 2 CHO + H 2
reduction using hydrogen in the presence of catalyst 1° alcohol 300qC Aldehyde
(catalytic hydrogenation).
H
R'OH H
RCOOH o

RCOOR c
2 o RCH OH R cOH
2 Cu
H Catalyst R C OH o R – C – R + H2
300qC
33. (d) O
R
34. (b) A diazonium salt is formed by treating an aromatic
2° alcohol Ketone
primary amine with nitrous acid (NaNO2 + HCl) at
273-278 K. Diazonium salts are hydrolysed to phenols CH 3
by warming with water or by treating with dilute acids. Cu
R OH o R C CH 2 + H 2 O
C
300qC |
NH2 N2 Cl OH CH3 CH 3
NaNO2 H2O 3° alcohol Alkene
+ N2 + HCl
+HCl Warm
C 6 H 5 – OH Cu
o No reaction
Aniline Benzene diazonium 300qC
chloride –
O O O
35. (a) Among isomeric alcohols surface area decreases from –
..
1º to 2º to 3º alcohols and hence the boiling point. 44. (c) etc.

36. (a) The lower alcohols are readily soluble in water and the
. .–
solubility decreases with the increase in molecular Resonance stabilisation of phenoxide ion
weight. The solubility of alcohols in water can be (conjugate base of phenol)
explained due to the formation of hydrogen bond
Conjugate base of ethyl alcohol, i.e., C2H5O– does
between the highly polarised —OH groups present
not show resonance.
both in alcohol and water.
.. .. –
(c) o-Nitrophenol has intramolecular H-bonding. OH
..
37.
..
O
..
38. (b) The solubility of alcohols depend on number of

C-atoms of alcohols. The solubility of alcohols in water
o
45. (d) + H+
is decreased by increasing number of C-atoms of
alcohol. As resulting molecular weight increases, the Phenol Phenoxide ion
(resonance not (resonance stabilised)
polar nature of O – H bond decreases and hence significant)
strength of hydrogen bond decreases.
46. (b) Phenol is most acidic because its conjugate base is
39. (d) Solubility of alcohol in water decreases with increase stabilised due to resonance, while the rest three
in molecular mass due to increase in water repelling compounds are alcohols, hence, their corrosponding
alkyl part in alcohol. conjugate bases do not exhibit resonance.

$/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56 181
[O]
47. (c) ZZX C 6 H 5 O H 3O
C6 H 5 OH H 2 O YZZ CH 3CH 2 CH 2 OH o

Phenoxide ion n propyl alcohal
The phenoxide ion is stable due to resonance. [O]

CH 3 CH 2 CHO o
CH 3 CH 2 COOH
–
O O O H3C [O] H3C
– CH – OH C=O
•• isopropyl alcohal Ketone
54. (a) Lucas reagent is conc. HCl + anhyd. ZnCl 2.

••
– 55. (d) The rates of reaction with lucas reagent follows the
order.
3° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 1° alcohol
OH O– O since carbocations are formed as intermediate, more
– –
G G
•• stable the carbocation, higher will be the reactivity of
– the parent compound (alcohol). 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
G
– generates a 3º carbocation, so it will react fastest; other
three generates either 1º or 2º carbocations.
The negative charge is delocalized in the benzene ring CH3
which is a stabilizing factor in the phenoxide ion and |
H
because of this reason ionization constant of phenol CH3 C OH o
|
is higher whereas no resonance is possible in alkoxide CH3
ions (RO–)derived from alcohol. The negative charge 2-Methyl-2-propanol
is localized on oxygen atom in case of alcohols.
48. (b) Secondary alcohols on oxidation give ketones. CH3 CH3
| |
Note : – Primary alcohols from aldehydes. Br
CH3 C o CH3 C Br
| |
R R CH3 CH3
[O]
CHOH C=O
R R 56. (d) OH OH
Isopropyl | Br Br
Ketone
alcohol 3Br2 (aq.)
49. (a) Alcohols are oxidized by removal of H2 in presence

of a heated metal catalyst (Cu) Br
2, 4,6-Tribromophenol
Cu
CH3CH 2OH
o CH3CHO H 2 Note : The –OH group in phenol, being activating
300q
1q alcohol Aldehyde
group, facilitates substitution in the o- and p-positions.
H3 C OH OH
CH
Cu
OH o
CHCl2
300q CH3CCH3 H 2
||
57. (b) + CHCl3
H3 C
2° Alcohol O
Ketone
OH OH
50. (b) o CH 3 COO.C 2 H 5 H 2 O
C 2 H 5 OH CH 3 COOH CH(OH)2 CHO
51. (c) Secondary alcohols oxidise to produce kenone. 2KOH
–H2O
( O)
CH3CHOHCH2CH3 o CH3COCH2CH3
Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
2-Butanol Ethyl methyl ketone 58. (c) When phenol reacts with Zinc dust, then benzene and
52. (b) Greater the stability of the intermediate carbocation, zinc oxide are formed
more reactive is the alcohol. Since 2-methylpropan-2-ol
OH
generates 3° carbocation, therefore, it reacts fastest
with HBr.
53. (c) Primary alcohol on oxidation give aldehyde which on + Zn o + ZnO
further oxidation give carboxylic acid whereas
secondary alcohols give ketone.
Phenol Benzene

182 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
59. (d) Phenol does not react with NaHCO3.
70. (d) 3C 2 H 5OH PBr3
o 3C 2 H 5Br H 3PO 3
OH ONa [X ]
71. (c) Methanol and ethanol can be distinguished by heating
NaOH with iodine and washing soda
60. (d) o
2 I
Phenol C 2 H 5 OH o CHI 3 HCOONa
Na 2 CO 3
Iodoform
(yellow ppt)
OH
COOH NaI 2NaOH H 2O
CO 2 HCl
o I
2
CH3OH o No reaction
140q C Na 2CO3
Salicylic acid
This is also called iodoform test.
72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (b)
2 H O
61. (d) CH3CH 2 CHOH o 77. (d) 78. (c)
|
CH3 OH OH OH
CH3 COOH
CH3 CH = CHCH3 + CH3CH2 CH = CH2
79. (d)
(Major product) (Minor product)
62. (c) Lucas test is used to distinguish between 1°, 2° and 3° o-cresol Salicylic acid Phenol
alcohols. Lucas reagent is anhy. ZnCl2 and HCl. Electron releasing groups (–CH3, –OCH3, –NCH3 etc)
3° alcohol + Lucas reagent o turbidity immediately intensify the negative charge of phenoxide ion, i.e.,
2° alcohol + Lucas reagent o turbidity after destablises it hence decrease ionization of parent
5 minutes phenol. Therefore decreases acidity while electron
1° alcohol + Lucas reagent o No turbidity at donating groups (–NO2, –COOH, –CHO etc.) increases
room temperature. acidity.
63. (a) OH OH 80. (b) Alcohols and phenols are acidic in nature. In fact they
are Bronsted acids i.e., they can donate a proton to a
COOH stronger base (B:)
Salicyclic acid Phenol
(evolves CO 2 with NaHCO3) (No reaction with NaHCO3 )
– –
B+H–O–R B–H+ O–R
64. (b) Other options are acids, only Na metal is a base. Base Acid Conjugate Conjugate
65. (c) Reactivity increases as the nucleophilicity of the halide acid base
ion increases, i.e. I– > Br– > Cl–. 81. (b) Oxidation of phenol with chromic acid produces a
66. (a) In presence of acid, alcohols always form carbocations conjugated diketone known as benzoquinone. In the
as intermediates. presence of air, phenols are slowly oxidised to dark
67. (c) 68. (b) coloured mixtures containing quinones.
69. (b) Phenol on reaction with conc. H2SO4 gives a mixture 82. (c) Glucose and fructose obtained by hydrolysis of
of o- and p- products (i.e., –SO3H group, occupies sucrose, are converted into alcohol by enzyme zymase.
o-, p- position). At room temperature o-product is more
zymase
stable, which on treatment with conc. HNO3 will yield C 6 H12 O 6
o 2C 2 H 5 OH 2CO 2
o-nitrophenol. Cr2O3 – ZnO
OH OH OH 83. (a) CO + H2 + H2 300ºC
CH3OH
SO3H water gas
Methanol
Conc.H2SO4
+ 84. (c) Ethylene is passed into concentrated sulphuric acid at
o-product 75–80°C under pressure when a mixture of ethyl
SO3H hydrogen sulphate and diethyl sulphate is formed.
p-product 100qC
At room temperature o- product is more stable H 2C CH 2 H 2SO 4
o C2 H5 HSO4
Ethylene
OH OH
SO3H NO2 '
o C2 H5 OH H 2SO 4
Conc. HNO 3 H 2O
85. (b) 86. (a)
o- nitrophenol

$/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56 183
87. (c) Hydration of alkenes 101. (c) Preparation of ethers by reacting sodium ethoxide with
– alkyl halide is called Williamson synthesis.
CH 2 CH 2 H HSO 4 o CH 3 – CH 2 HSO 4 102. (a) Due to H-bonding, the boiling point of ethanol is much
H O
2 o CH – CH OH H SO
higher than that of the isomeric diethyl ether.
CH3 CH 2 HSO 4 3 2 2 4
Boil 103. (c) CH3OCH3 and C2H5OCH3 are gases while C2H5OC2H5
Fermentation of sugar : (b. p. 308 K) is low boiling liquid.
Invertase 104. (d) Ether is used (i) as a general anaesthetic, (ii) as
C12 H 22O11 H 2O o C2H12O6 C6H12O6 refrigerant since it produces cooling on evaporation,
Glucose Fructose
(iii) as solvent for oils, fats, resins etc. (iv) for providing
C6H12O 6
Zymase

o 2C2H 5OH 2CO 2 inert medium in Wurtz reaction, (v) for preparing
Glucose or Fructose Grignard reagent, (vi) in perfumery.
105. (a) Like dissolves like. Oils and fats, being covalent,
88. (d) Enzymes
Starch o Alcohol dissolve in ether, a non-polar solvent.
Diastase 106. (d) Due to inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
89. (a) 2(C6H10O5 )n nH 2O
(from germinated barley)
o boiling point of alcohols is much higher than ether.
Starch
107. (c) 108. (c)
n(C12H 22O11 ) 109. (b) Only alkyl aryl ethers e.g., C6 H5OCH3 undergoes
Maltose electrophilic substitution reactions.
Maltase '
C12 H 22 O11 H 2 O
(from yeast)
o 2C6 H12 O6 110. (c) C2H5OC2H5 + 2 HI o 2 C2H5I + H2O
Glucose
Zymase
111. (a) C6 H5O CH3 I o C6 H5 OCH3 I
C6 H12 O6 o 2C 2 H 5 OH 2CO 2
(from yeast) 112. (a) Ethers are readily cleaved by HI as follows :
90. (b)
H I
91. (c) Denaturing can also be done by adding 0.5% pyridine, ZZZX
R O R YZZZZ R O R o ROH + RI.
Z
petroleum naptha, CuSO4 etc. |
92. (c) H
93. (c) Tonics contain ethyl alcohol. 113. (c) In case of unsymmetrical ethers, the site of cleavage
94. (c) Due to presence of methyl alcohol in liquor. depends on the nature of alkyl group e.g.,
95. (c) The quantity of sugar increases and yeast grows on 373K
CH3O CH(CH 3 ) 2 HI o CH 3I (CH 3 )2CHOH
the outer skin as grapes ripen. When grapes are Methyl Isopropyl
iodide alcohol
crushed, sugar and the enzyme come in contact and
fermentation starts. Fermentation takes place in The alkyl halide is always formed from the smaller alkyl
anaerobic contidions i.e., in absence of air CO2 is group.
released during fermentation. If air gets into 114. (b) Due to greater electronegativity of sp2-hybridized
fermentation mixture the oxygen of air oxidises ethanol carbon atoms of the benzene ring, diaryl ethers are not
to ethanoic acid which in turn destroys the taste of attacked by nucleophiles like I–.
alcoholic drinks. CH3 CH3
96. (b) The commercial alcohol is made unfit for drinking by 115. (b)
CHOCH3 + HI CH3I + CHOH
mixing in it some copper sulphate (to give it colour) CH3 CH3
2-propanol
and pyridine (a foul smelling liquid). It is known as
denaturation of alcohol. 116. (a) Dehydration of alcohols gives ethers
' 117. (d) R – O – Ar + HI o Ar – OH + RI
97. (a) C 6 H 5 ONa C 2 H 5 I o C6 H 5OC 2 H 5 NaI Aryl-alkyl ether Phenol Alkyl iodide
Phenetole
Due to steric hinderance, smaller alkyl group is always
98. (b) C2 H 5 Br C 2 H 5ONa
o C2 H5 O C2H 5 attached to iodine.
NaBr
Sod. ethoxide diethyl ether
118. (d) Diethyl ether, being a Lewis base, is not attacked by
99. (b) Reaction of sodium ethoxide with ethyl iodide to nucleophiles, while all others contain electrophilic carbon,
produce diethyl ether is known as Williamson hence attacked by nucleophiles like OH– ions.
synthesis.
It is a nucleophilic substitution reaction and proceeds OG
| G G
via SN2 mechanism. CH3 C OCH3 CH3 C { N
100. (d) The two components should be (CH3 )3 CONa + G
(CH3)3CBr. However, tert-alkyl halides tend to undergo
elimination reaction rather than substitution leading OG
|| ..
to the formation of an alkene, Me2C = CH2 CH 3 C NH 2 C2H5 O
. . C 2 H5
G

184 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216

119. (c) Product formed is 2–methyl–pentan–2–ol hence :O :
carbon is attached to four different group therefore 128. (a) The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less
C H
the molecule is chiral but because the carbonyl group than the tetrahedral angle (109°-28c). It is due to the
is planar so attack of methyl group can take place either repulsion between the unshared electron pairs of
ways above and below the plane of the of molecule oxygen.
hence equal number of enantiomers are formed and 129. (b) The correct explanation is : In Lucas test, tertiary
hence the racemic mixture is formed. alcohols react immediately because of the formation
120. (b) Alcohols are versatile compounds. They react both of the more stable tertiary carbocations.
as nucleophiles and electrophiles. The bond between 130. (c) The correct reason is : Nucleophilic attack of phenolate
O—H is broken when alcohols react as nucleophiles. ion through the ortho-carbon atom occurs on CCl4 (a
neutral electrophile) to form an intermediate which on
Alcohols as nucleophiles
hydrolysis gives salicylic acid (ArSE reaction).
H
131. (a) R is the correct explanation of A. Due to +M effect of
..
(i) R–O–H+ +C – R –+O
.. – C – o R–O– C– +H
+
O.. H , its intermediate carbocation is more stable than
the one in benzene.
(ii) The bond between C — O is broken when they 132. (c) The usual halogenation of benzene takes place in the
react as electrophiles. Protonated alcohols react presence of a Lewis acid, such as FeBr 3, which
in this manner. polarises the halogen molecule. In case of phenol, the
Protonated alcohols as electrophiles polarisation of bromine molecule takes place even in

the absence of Lewis acid. It is due to the highly
R CH 2 OH H o R CH2 OH 2 activating effect of –OH group attached to the benzene
ring.
133. (b)
Br– + CH2 – OH2+ Br – CH2 + H2O 134. (a) R is the correct explanation of A.
135. (d) 136. (c)
R R
137. (c) Alkyl aryl ethers are cleaved at the alkyl-oxygen bond
121. (b) Alcohols are, weaker acids than water. This can be due to the more stable aryl-oxygen bond. The reaction
illustrated by the reaction of water with an alkoxide. yields phenol and alkyl halide
– – O–R OH
: :
: :
: :
R – O: + H – O – H R – O – H + :OH
Base Acid Conjugate Conjugate
acid base +H–X +R–X
This reaction shows that water is a better proton donor Ethers with two different alkyl groups are also cleaved
(i.e., stronger acid) than alcohol. Also in the above in the same manner.
reaction, we note that an alkoxide ion is a better proton R O R ' HX o R X R ' OH
acceptor than hydroxide ion, which suggests that
alkoxide are stronger bases (sodiumethoxide is a &5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
stronger base than sodium hydroxide).
138. (a) Methyl alcohol (CH3OH) is also known as carbinol.
122. (c) The dehydration of secondary and tertiary alcohols Hence vinyl carbinol is CH2 = CH – CH2OH.
to give corresponding ethers is unsuccessful as 139. (c) KMnO4 (alkaline) and OsO4 / CH2Cl2 are used for
elimination competes over substitution and as a hydroxylation of double bond while O3 /Zn is used for
consequence, alkenes are easily formed. ozonolysis. Therefore, the right option is (c), i.e.,
123. (c) The C — O bond length (136 pm) in phenol is slightly 3CH 3CH CH 2 o BH 3 in THF
(CH 3CH 2 CH 2 )3 B
less than that in methanol (142 pm). 3H O
2 2o
3CH 3CH 2CH 2OH + H3BO3
124. (a) A methanol poisoned patient is treated by giving NaOH
intravenous injection of ethanol. 1-propanol
140. (a) Hydroboration-oxidation leads to anti-Markownikoff’s
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 hydration, thus
125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (b)

$/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56 185
–
141. (b) NaBH4 and LiAlH4 attacks only carbonyl group and O
reduce it into alcohol group.
O
–
CH3– C–O > >
NaBH 4
C6 H5 CH CHCHO
o Most stable because
cinnamic aldehyde resonating structures
are equivalent
O–
C6 H 5 CH CH.CH 2 OH
cinnamic alcohol
CH { C
> Least stable
142. (a) (resonance not
possible)
143. (b) Carbocation is formed as intermediate which is most
OCH3
stabilized when protonation occurs on terminal carbon. –OCH3 group intensifies
144. (b) Reaction of 1–chloropropane leads to the formation of –ve charge due to + M effect
the primary carbocation which rearranges to more OH OH OH OH
stable secondary carbocation, hence (ii) and (iii) give
similar products.
149. (a)
145. (a) In case of (ii) and (iii), the alcohol so obtained contain
carbon which is attached to four different groups i.e., NO2
chiral carbon while in case of (i) and (iv) achiral alcohol CH3 NO 2
is obtained. +I –I – M, – I
146. (a) CH 2 CH OH represents vinylic alcohol. In vinylic (A) (B) (C) (D)
alcohols –OH group is attached to sp2 hybridized Electron withdrawing substituents increases the
acidity of phenols; while electron releasing substituents
carbon whereas in allylic alcohols – OH group is
decreases acidity. Further the particular effect (acidity
attached to sp3 hybridized carbon. increasing or decreasing) is more when a substituent
147. (c) The mechanism of the reaction involves the following is present in o-ortho position to phenolic group. Thus
three steps: the correct order will be D > C > A > B.
Step 1: Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by 150. (c) Electron withdrawing substituents like –NO2 , Cl
electrophilic attack of H3O+ increase the acidity of phenol while electron releasing
substituents like – CH3, – OCH3 decreases acidity.
H2O + H+ o H3O+ hence the correct order of acidity will be
H H OH OH OH OH
+ +
C=C . . — H — C — C
+H—O + H2O
> > >
H
Step 2: Nucleophilic attack of water on carbocation. NO2 Cl CH3 OCH3
H H H III I II IV
+ + (–M, –I) (–I > +M) (+I, + HC) (+ M)
—C—C + H2O — C — C — O — H
151. (c) ClCH 2 CH 2 OH is stronger acid than CH3CH 2 OH due
H H to – I effect of Cl.
Step 3: Deprotonation to form an alcohol. o Cl m CH 2CH 2O H
Cl m CH 2CH 2OH
Stronger acid ve charge on O
dispersed hence
.. conjugate base, stable
H H H OH
..
+ .. + o CH3 o CH 2O H
CH3CH 2OH
— C — C — O — H + H2O o— C — C — +H3 O
Weaker acid ve charge intensified,
hence conjugate
H H base unstable
148. (a) More the stability of the conjugate base, higher is the 152. (c) Due to strong electron-donating effect of the OH
acidic character of the parent acid. Stability order of group, the electron density in phenol is much higher
than that in toluene, benzene and chlorobenzene and
the four conjugate bases is arranged below.
hence phenol is readily attacked by the electrophile.

186 $/&2+2/63+(12/6$1'(7+(56
OH 163. (a) Here also, carbocation is formed as an intermediate,
hence the species capable of forming most stable
Zn CH3Cl carbocation will be most reactive.
153. (b) anhy + + +
AlCl3 CHCH2CH3 CH2CHCH3 CH2CH2CH2
Phenol X
CH3 COOH
alc. > >

KMnO 4
Y Z Benzyl carbocation 2º carbocation 1º carbocation
154. (d) Riemer-Tiemann reaction involves electrophilic 164. (a) In Williamson’s synthesis the reaction of alkyl halides
substitution on the highly reactive phenoxide ring. with sodium alkoxides give ethers. However, if the alkyl
HCCl3 + OH– o H2O + – :CCl3 halide is 3°, it undergoes elimination to give an alkene.
o Cl– + : CCl 2 CH3
| +–
Note the C has only a
H3C – C – Cl + NaOC2H5 '
sextet of electrons
|
sod. cthoxide
CH3
tert-butyl chloride
CH2
– – ||
O O CH3 – C – CH3 + C2H5OH + NaBr
CHCl2 – CHO 2-Methyl-1-propene
OH
165. (c) If a tertiary alkyl halide is used, an alkene is the only
reaction product and no ether is formed. For example,
A benzal chloride the reaction of CH3 ONa with (CH3)3C–Br gives
Al O Al O exclusively 2-methylpropene.
155. (c) CH 2 CH 2 m2
3 CH 3 CH 2 OH 2
3o
650 K 525 K CH3
o CH3CH2 OCH2CH3 | + –
: :
156. (b) Dehydration of CH3OH gives carbene (methylene), an CH3 C Br + NaO – CH3
o
unstable intermediate. |
CH3
H SO
CH 3OH 2
4 o [: CH ] H O
2 2
Carbene CH3 C CH 2 NaBr CH 3OH
157. (d) Since the compound (C4H10O) react with sodium, it |
must be alcohol (option b, c, or d). As it is oxidised to CH3
carbonyl compound which does not reduce Tollen’s 2-Methylpropene
reagent, the carbonyl compound should be a ketone It is because alkoxides are not only nucleophiles but
and thus C4H10O should be a secondary alcohol, i.e. strong bases as well. They react with alkyl halides
sec-butyl alcohol; other two given alcohols are 1º. leading to elimination reactions.
158. (a) 166. (c) In the cleavage of mixed ethers having two different
P I2 Mg alkyl groups, the alcohol and alkyl iodide that form
159. (d) CH3CH 2 OH o CH3CH 2 I o depend on the nature of alkyl group. When primary or
Ether
A
secondary alkyl groups are present, it is the lower alkyl
CH 2 CH 3 group that forms alkyl iodide therefore
|HCHO '
CH 3CH 2 MgI
o H C OMgI CH3 CH CH 2 O CH 2 CH 3 HI o
|
(B) | CH3
H CH3
(C) |
CH 2 CH3 CH3 CH CH 2 OH CH 3CH 2 I
H2 O
|
o H C OH H+ + Br –
167. (d) OCH3 O–CH3
|
H H
(D)
n propyl alcohol OH + CH3Br
160. (b) 161. (c)
162. (a) In case of m–nitrophenol operational effect of nitrogroup 168. (b) Due to greater electronegativity of sp2-hybridized
is electron withdrawing inductive effect while in case of carbon atoms of the benzene ring, diaryl ethers are not
b and c, both –R and –I effect are operational. attacked by nucleophiles like I–.

12
ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 8. Which of the following is correct for carbonyl compounds?
R R G+ G–
G– G+
1. Choose the correct IUPAC name for (a) C=O (b) C=O
CH3 C H CHO Rc Rc
|
CH2 CH 3 (c) G+ G– (d) G+ G–
R–C=O R–C=O
(a) Butan - 2- aldehyde
(b) 2- methylbutanal Rc Rc
(c) 3- methylisobutyraldehyde 9. Which of the following contain an aldehyde?
(d) 2- ethylpropanal (a) Vanilla beans (b) Meadow sweet
2. The IUPAC name of the compound having the molecular (c) Cinnamon (d) All of these
formula Cl3C –CH2CHO is 10. Which of the following have pleasant smell?
(a) 3, 3, 3- trichloropropanal (a) Methanal (b) Propanal
(b) 1, 1, 1- trichloropropanal (c) Ethanal (d) Hexanal
(c) 2, 2, 2- trichloropropanal 11. Which one of the following can be oxidised to the
(d) Chloral corresponding carbonyl compound?
3. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is (a) 2-hydroxy-propane
(a) 2-methyl-3-butanone (b) 4-methylisopropyl ketone (b) Ortho-nitrophenol
(c) 3-methyl-2-butanone (d) Isopropylmethyl ketone (c) Phenol
4. IUPAC name of following will be (d) 2-methyl-2 hydroxy-propane
CHO 12. Which one of the following on oxidation gives a ketone ?
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
CH3 (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) All of these
13. What is formed when a primary alcohol undergoes catalytic
dehydrogenation ?
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
(c) Alkene (d) Acid
OH 14. Primary and secondary alcohols on action of reduced copper
(a) 4-formyl 3-methyl 1-hydroxy benzene give
(b) 4-formyl 3-methyl phenol (a) Aldehydes and ketones respectively
(c) 4-hydroxy 2-methyl benzaldehyde (b) Ketones and aldehydes respectively
(d) 4-hydroxy 2-methyl carbaldehyde (c) Only aldehydes
5. IUPAC name of ethyl isopropyl ketone is (d) Only ketones
(a) 4-methyl pent-3-one (b) 2-methyl pent-3-one 15. Which alkene on ozonolysis gives CH3 CH2CHO and
(c) 4-methyl pent-2-one (d) 2-methyl pent-2-one CH3CCH3
6. In > C = O group sigma bond is formed by ||
(a) sp2-p-overlapping (b) sp3-p-overlapping
O
CH3
(c) sp-p-overlapping (d) s-p-overlapping (a) CH3CH2CH = C (b) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2CH3
7. The S-bond in carbonyl group is formed by CH3
(a) s-s-overlapping (b) p-p-overlapping (c) CH3CH2CH = CH CH3 (d) CH 3 C CHCH 3
(c) s-p-overlapping (d) p-d-overlapping |
CH3

188 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
16. The catalyst used in Rosenmund's reduction is 24. Find out B in the given reactions
(a) HgSO4 (b) Pd/BaSO4
(c) anhydrous AlCl3 (d) anhydrous ZnCl2 AlCl3 CrO3 in (CH3CO)2O
+ CH3 – X A B
+
SnCl 2 / HCl H3O
17. C 6 H 5C { N + [H] o C 6 H 5CHO + NH 3 .
(a) acetophenone
The above reaction is
(b) benzaldehyde
(a) Mendius reaction (b) Sandorn's reaction
(c) cyclohexyl carbaldehyde
(c) Rosenmund's reaction (d) Stephen’s reaction (d) benzoic acid
18. Benzaldehyde can be prepared by oxidation of toluene by 25. The reaction
(a) Acidic KMnO4 (b) K2Cr2O7 / H+
CHO
(c) CrO2Cl2 (d) All of these AlCl3
19. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl + CO + HCl
chloride is called
(a) Rosenmund reaction (b) Wurtz reaction (a) Rosenmund’s reaction (b) Stephen’s reaction
(c) Etard reaction (d) Fittig reaction (c) Cannizzaro’s reaction (d) Gatterman-Koch reaction
20. An aldehyde group can be present 26. Which aldehyde cannot be obtained by Rosenmund’s
(a) in between carbon chain reaction?
(b) at any position in carbon atom (a) CH3CHO (b) HCHO
(c) only at the end of carbon chain (c) CH3CH2CHO (d) All of these
(d) at the second carbon atom of the carbon chain 27. The conversion PhCN o PhCOCH 3 , can be achieved
21. Benzaldehyde is obtained from Rosenmund’s reduction of most conveniently by reaction with
(a) CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis
O O
(b) I2 – NaOH, CH3I
(c) Dil. H2SO4 followed by reaction with CH2N2
(a) CH3 (b) X (d) LiAlH4 followed by reaction with CH3I
28. Which of the following is used to prepare ketone from acyl
chloride ?
(a) R-MgX (b) R2Cd
O (c) CO + HCl (d) CrO3
Cl 29. Which of the following forces explain the boiling point of
aldehydes and ketones?
(c) (d) OH (a) Hydrogen bonding (b) van der Waal’s forces
Cl
(c) Dipole-dipole attraction(d) None of these
30. Which is highly soluble in water?
22. Which of the following is not used in the preparation of (a) Methanal (b) Propanal
ketone? (c) Propanone (d) Butanone
(a) Oxidation of secondary alcohols 31. Propanal and propanone, both have same molecular
(b) Dehydrogenation of 2° alcohol formula(C3H6O), what do you expect about their boiling
(c) Pyrolysis of calcium acetate points?
(d) Acid hydrolysis of alkyl cyanide (a) Both have same boiling point
23. Product of the following reaction is (b) Boiling point of propanal is higher than the boiling
CN point of propanone.
(c) Boiling point of propanal is lower than the boiling point
SnCl 2 + HCl
+ 2(H) ? of propanone
+
H3O (d) Nothing can be predicted
32. Less reactivity of ketone is due to
COOH CHO (a) + I inductive effect decrease positive charge on
carbonyl carbon atom
(a) (b) (b) steric effect of two bulky alkyl groups
(c) sp2 hybridised carbon atom of carbonyl carbon atom
(d) Both (a) and (b)
O 33. Acetaldehyde reacts with
NH2
(a) Electrophiles only
C–CH3 (b) Nucleophiles only
(c) (d) (c) Free radicals only
(d) Both electrophiles and nucleophiles

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34. Carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophilic addition (a) Cu (b) CuO
because of (c) Cu2O (d) Cu(OH)2
(a) electronegativity difference of carbon and oxygen 45. Aldol condensation would not occur in :
atoms (a) CH3COCH3 (b) CH3CH2CHO
(b) electromeric effect (c) HCHO (d) CH3CHO
(c) more stable anion with negative charge on oxygen 46. Cannizzaro reaction occurs with
atom and less stable carbonium ion
(a) CH 3 CH 2 OH (b) C 6 H 5 CHO
35. Which of the following statement is false ? (c) CH 3 CHO (d) CH 3 CO CH 3
(a) Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes in presence 47. Which of the following compound will show positive silver
of alkali mirror test ?
(b) Aldol condensation is given by aldehydes in presence
(a) HCOOH (b) CH 3 (CHOH ) 3 CHO
of alkali
(c) Aldol condensation is given by aldehydes and ketones (c) CH 3CO(CHOH )CH 3 (d) Both (a) and (b)
in presence of acids 48. Aldehydes and ketones are distinguished by which of the
(d) None of the above following test ?
36. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get (a) Lucas test
(a) methane (b) methyl alcohol (b) Tollen’s test
(c) ethyl formate (d) acetylene (c) KMnO4 solution (Baeyer’s test)
37. The reagent which can be used to distinguish acetophenone (d) None of these
from benzophenone is 49. Aldehydes and ketones are generally reduced by :
(a) 2,4- dinitrophenylhydrazine
(a) Clemmensen reduction (b) H2S
(b) aqueous solution of NaHSO3
(c) H2/Ni (d) None of these
(c) benedict reagent
50. In which reaction, > C = O can be reduced to > CH2?
(d) I2and Na2CO3
(a) Wolf-Kishner reaction (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
38. Benzaldehyde reacts with ethanoic KCN to give
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) None of these
(a) C6H5CHOHCN (b) C6H5CHOHCOC6H5
51. A compound does not react with 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine,
(c) C6H5CHOHCOOH (d) C6H5CHOHCHOHC6H5
the compound is :
39. Acetone reacts with iodine (I2) to form iodoform in the
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehdye
presence of
(c) CH3OH (d) CH3CH2COCH3
(a) CaCO3 (b) NaOH
52. Which gives lactic acid on hydrolysis after reacting with
(c) KOH (d) MgCO3
HCN ?
40. (CH3)3C–CHO does not undergo aldol condensation due
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO
to
(a) three electron donating methyl groups (c) C6H5CHO (d) CH3COCH3
(b) cleavage taking place between —C— CHO bond 53. The most appropriate reagent to distinguish between
(c) absence of alpha hydrogen atom in the molecule acetaldehyde and formaldehyde is :
(d) bulky (CH3)3C—group (a) Fehling’s solution
41. Acetaldehyde reacts with semicarbazide and forms (b) Tollen’s reagent
semicarbazone. Its structure is (c) Schiff’s reagent
(a) CH3CH = NNHCON = CHCH3 (d) Iodine in presence of base
(b) CH3CH = NNHCONH2 54. Aldehydes can be oxidised by :
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Fehling solution
(c) CH 3 CH N — N — CONH 2
| (c) Benedict solution (d) All the above
OH 55. 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone can be distinguished by :
(d) CH3CH = N—CONHNH2 (a) Cannizaro's reaction (b) Aldol condensation
42. Iodoform test is not given by (c) Iodoform reaction (d) Clemmensen's reduction
(a) 2-Pentanone (b) Ethanol 56. Cross aldol condensation occurs between
(c) Ethanal (d) 3-Pentanone (a) two same aldehydes
43. Phenylmethyl ketone can be converted into ethylbenzene (b) two same ketones
in one step by which of the following reagents? (c) two different aldehydes and ketones
(a) LiAlH4 (b) Zn-Hg/HCl (d) None of these
(c) NaBH4 (d) CH3MgI 57. Ketone upon treatment with Grignard Reagent gives
44. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution it gives (a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol
a precipitate of (c) tertiary alcohol (d) aldehyde

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58. When acetaldehyde reacts with alcohol then produce 67. Schiff’s reagent gives pink colour with
(a) Acetal (b) Ketal (a) acetaldehyde (b) acetone
(c) Acetone (d) None (c) acetic acid (d) methyl acetate
59. The product formed in Aldol condensation is 68. Benzophenone can be converted into benzene by using
(a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone (a) fused alkali
(b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone (b) anhydrous AlCl3
(c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester (c) sodium amalgam in water
(d) a beta-hydroxy acid (d) acidified dichromate
60. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the 69. In the reaction of NaHSO3 with carbonyl compounds to
presence of which of the following ? form bisulphite product, the nucleophile is
(a) Glycol with KOH (b) Zn-Hg with HCl (a) HSO3– (b) SO3Na
(c) LiAlH4 (d) H2 and Pt as catalyst (c) SO3– – (d) None of the above
61. Which of the following products is formed when 70. Wolf-Kishner reduction is
benzaldehyde is treated with CH3MgBr and the addition (a) reduction of carbonyl compound into alcohol
product so obtained is subjected to acid hydrolysis ? (b) reduction of carbonyl compound into alkene
(a) A secondary alcohol (b) A primary alcohol (c) reduction of carboxyl compound into alkane
(c) Phenol (d) tert-Butyl alcohol (d) reduction of nitro compound into aniline
62. During reduction of aldehydes with hydrazine and 71. Tollen’s reagent is
potassium hydroxide, the first step is the formation of (a) ammonical CuSO4
(a) R — CH — — N — NH 2 (b) R — C { N (b) ammonical AgNO3
(c) R — C — NH (d) R — CH — — NH (c) alkaline solution containing complex of copper nitrate
2
|| (d) none of these
O R OR
63. A and B in the following reactions are
72. Compound of general formula C are called
OH
HCN B
R–C–R' A R– C H OR
KCN
R' CH2NH2 (a) diester (b ) acid anhydride
O
(c) hemiacetal (d) acetal
CN 73. Imine derivatives of aldehyde and ketone is called as
(a) A = RR'C , B = LiAlH4 (a) Schiff’s reagent (b) Fehling’s reagent
OH
(c) Schiff’s base (d) Schiff’s acid
OH 74. Which reaction is used for detecting the presence of
(b) A = RR'C , B = NH3 carbonyl group?
COOH (a) Reaction with hydrazine
CN (b) Reaction with phenyl hydrazine
(c) A = RR'C , B H 3O (c) Reaction with hydroxylamine
OH (d) All of the above
(d) A = RR'CH2CN, B = NaOH 75. The difference between aldol condensation and
64. The product obtained by the reaction of an aldehyde and Cannizzaro’s reaction is that:
hydroxylamine is (a) the former takes place in the presence of D-H-atom.
(a) hydrazone (b) aldoxime (b) the former takes place in the absence of D-H-atom.
(c) primary amine (d) alcohol (c) the former takes place in the presence of E-H-atom.
65. Which one gives positive iodoform test ? (d) none of the above
(a) (CH 3 ) 2 CHCH 2 OH X
76. C6H5CH=CHCHO o C6H5CH=CHCH2OH
(b) C 6 H 5 OH In the above sequence X can be :
H (a) H2/Ni (b) NaBH4
| (c) K2Cr2O7/H+ (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) CH 3 CH 2 C CH 2 CH 3 77. Which of the following pairs of compounds will undergo
| aldol and Cannizzaro reaction respectively ?
OH
(i) acetone; benzaldehyde
(d) CH 3CH 2 OH (ii) acetaldehyde; butan–2–one
66. The compound that neither forms semicarbazone nor oxime (iii) propanone; formaldehyde.
is (iv) cyclopentanone, benzaldehyde
(a) HCHO (b) CH3COCH2Cl (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) CH3CHO (d) CH3CONHCH3 (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

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78. Two compounds benzyl alcohol and benzoic acid are formed 88. In the given reaction
from this compound, when this compound is heated in the CH3 CHO
presence of conc.NaOH, this compound is. Cl2/hX H2O
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Benzylalcohol A
373K
(c) Acetophenone (d) Benzophenone
79. The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and A is
benzaldehyde.
CH2Cl CHCl2
(a) Sodium hydrogensulphite
(b) Phenyl hydrazine (a) (b)
(c) Fehling’s solution
(d) Grignard reagent CCl3 CH3
80. Which of the following compounds will give butanone on (c) (d)
oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 solution? Cl
(a) Butan-1-ol (b) Butan-2-ol
89. R HCl gas R O CH2
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
C = O +A C + H2O
81. Which of the following compounds is most reactive towards R dil HCl R O CH2
nucleophilic addition reactions?
A is
O O
|| || (a) CH3OH (b) CH3COOH
(a) CH3 – C– H (b) CH3 – C– CH3 CH 2COOH CH 2OH
O O (c) (d)
(c) C–H (d) C–CH3 CH 2COOH CH2OH
90. In the reaction
82. Which of the following does not represent the natural source
CHO
of the corresponding acids ?
(a) Formic acid : Red ant HNO /H SO
3 2 4oA

(b) Acetic acid : Vinegar 273 283K
(c) Butyric acid : Rancid butter
(d) Isobutyric acid : Automobile exhausts Benzaldehyde
83. Vinegar is a solution of acetic acid which is : A is
(a) 15 – 20% (b) 20 –25%
CHO
(c) 6 – 8% (d) 2 – 4%
CHO
84. Methyl cyanide can be converted into acetic acid by one of
the following reactions. NO2
(a) (b)
(a) Reduction (b) Hydrolysis
(c) Electrolysis (d) Decarboxylation NO2
85. Toluene can be oxidised to benzoic acid by
(a) KMnO4 (alk.) (b) K2Cr2O7 (alk.) CHO
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
86. Which of the following does the best represent the structure
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
of the carboxylate ion ?
– – NO2
G G
O O 91. Which of the following can not be oxidised to give carboxylic
(a) R–C (b) R – C acid?
O+ O– CH2CH2CH3
G G CH3
+
G (a) (b)
O
(c) R–C (d) None of these
CH3
O+ CH3
G HC CH3 C CH3
87. Select the acid(s) which cannot be prepared by Grignard CH3
reagent.
(c) (d)
(a) Acetic acid (b) Succinic acid
(c) Formic acid (d) All of the above

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92. Lower carboxylic acids are soluble in water due to 100. Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation
(a) low molecular weight (b) hydrogen bonding constant ?
(c) dissociation into ions (d) easy hydrolysis (a) CH3CHFCOOH (b) FCH2CH2COOH
93. Dimerisation of carboxylic acids is due to (c) BrCH2CH2COOH (d) CH3CHBrCOOH
(a) ionic bond 101. Which one of the following esters is obtained by the
(b) covalent bond esterification of propan-2-ol with ethanoic acid ?
(c) coordinate bond (a) (CH3)2CHCOOCH3 (b) CH3COOCH2CH3
(d) intermolecular hydrogen bond (c) CH3COOCH(CH3)2 (d) (CH3)2CHCOOCH2CH3
94. Boiling points of carboxylic acids are 102. The major product of nitration of benzoic acid is
(a) lower than corresponding alcohols (a) 3- Nitrobenzoic acid (b) 4- Nitrobenzoic acid
(b) higher than corresponding alcohols (c) 2- Nitrobenzoic acid (d) 2, 4- dinitrobenzoic acid
(c) equal to that of corresponding alcohols
103. Among the following acids which has the lowest pK a
95. MgBr value?
(a) CH 3 CH 2 COOH (b) (CH3 ) 2 CH COOH
(c) HCOOH (d) CH 3COOH
( i ) CO
2o
P 104. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is
( ii ) H 3O __________
(a) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
In the above reaction product 'P' is
(b) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
CHO COOH
(c) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
(d) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol
(a) (b) 105. Which reagent can convert acetic acid into ethanol ?
(a) Na + alcohol (b) LiAIH4 + ether
(c) H2 + Pt (d) Sn + HCl
OH 106. Which is false in case of carboxylic acids?
O (a) They are polar molecules
||
(c) (d) C 6 H 5 C C 6 H 5 (b) They form H-bonds
(c) They are stronger than mineral acids
(d) They have higher b.p. than corresponding alcohols
96. In the anion HCOO– the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found 107. The elimination of CO2 from a carboxylic acid is known as
to be of equal length. What is the reason for it? (a) hydration (b) dehydration
(a) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised (c) decarboxylation (d) carboxylation
(b) The C=O bond is weaker than the C–C bond 108. The reaction of carboxylic acid gives effervescences of
(c) The anion HCOO– has two reasonating structures CO2 with NaHCO3. The CO2 comes from.
(d) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the (a) R – COOH (b) NaHCO3
acid molecule (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
97. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol 109. Acetic anhydride is obtained by the reaction of
because of (a) sodium and acetic acid
(a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(b) ammonia and acetic acid
(b) formation of dimers
(c) ethanol and acetic acid
(c) highly acidic hydrogen
(d) P2O5 and acetic acid
(d) resonance stabilization of their conjugate base
110. Benzoic acid may be converted to ethyl benzoate by reaction
98. Which of the following has the maximum acidic strength ?
with
(a) o- nitrobenzoic acid (b) m-nitrobenzoic acid
(a) sodium ethoxide (b) ethyl chloride
(c) p-nitrobenzoic acid (d) p-nitrophenol
(c) dry HCl—C2H5OH (d) ethanol
99. Which of the following is the weakest acid ?
111. Propionic acid with Br2 /P yields a dibromo product. Its
OH
structure would be:
Br
(a) (b) CH3COOH |
(a) H– C – CH COOH (b) CH2Br – CH2 – COBr
2
COOH |
Br
Br
|
(c) HCOOH (d) (c) CH3– C – COOH (d) CH2 Br – CHBr – COOH
|
Br

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112. The product obtained when acetic acid is treated with 119. The strongest acid among the following is –
phosphorus trichloride is (a) Salicylic acid (b) m-hydroxybenzoic acid
(a) CH3COOPCl3 (b) ClCH2COCl (c) p-hydroxybenzoic acid (d) Benzoic acid
(c) CH3COCl (d) ClCH2COOH 120. Among the following, the most acidic is :
113. The reaction (a) CH3COOH (b) ClCH2COOH
Red P
RCH 2 CH 2 COOH o R CH 2 CH COOH
(c) Cl2CHCOOH (d) Cl2CHCH2COOH
Br2 | 121. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of
Br
acidic strength of
is called as
(i) Methanoic acid (ii) Ethanoic acid
(a) Reimer- Tiemann reaction
(iii) Propanoic acid (iv) Butanoic acid
(b) Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (b) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(c) Cannizzaro reaction
(c) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii) (d) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(d) Sandmeyer reaction
122. Among the following the strongest acid is
114. Benzoic acid reacts with conc. HNO3 and H2SO4 to give :
(a) CH 3COOH (b) CH 2 ClCH 2COOH
(a) 3-Nitrobenzoic acid
(b) 4-Benzene sulphonic acid (c) CH 2 ClCOOH (d) CH3CH 2COOH
(c) 4-Nitrobenzoic acid 123. Arrange the following carboxylic acid in their decreasing
(d) 2-Nitrobenzoic acid acidity.
115. In the following reaction
1. COOH Oxalic acid
Br2 / P excess NH 3
RCH 2 COOH
o X o Y
COOH
The major compounds X and Y are
2. HOOC – CH2 – COOH Malonic acid
(a) RCHBrCONH2 ; RCH(NH2)COOH
(b) RCHBrCOOH ; RCH(NH2)COOH 3. CH2– COOH Succinic acid
(c) RCH2COBr ; RCH2COONH4
(d) RCHBrCOOH ; RCH2CONH2 CH2– COOH
116. The yield of ester in esterification can be increased by (a) 3 > 2 > 1 (b) 1 > 2 > 3
CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O (c) 2 > 3 > 1 (d) 2 > 1 > 3
(a) removing water
(b) taking ethanol in excess 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
(c) taking acetic acid in excess 124. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
(d) all the above factors (i) The carbonyl carbon atom is sp2 -hybridised
117. A carboxylic acid can best be converted into acid chloride (ii) The carbonyl carbon is an electrophilic (Lewis acid)
by using centre
(a) PCl5 (b) SOCl2 (iii) The carbonyl oxygen is a nucleophilic (Lewis base)
(c) HCl (d) ClCOCOCl centre
118. Arrange the following four acids in their decreasing order (iv) Carbonyl compounds are non- polar in nature.
of acidity (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
COOH COOH (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
CH3 (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
125. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding
preparation of aldehydes and ketones?
I II
(i) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of the concerned
COOH COOH alcohol with copper at about 250ºC.
CMe3 H3C CH3 (ii) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of the concerned
alcohol by Oppenauer oxidation.
(iii) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of respective
alcohol with acidic dichromate.
III IV
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iii)
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) IV > III > II > I (c) (i) and (iii) (d) All the three
(c) II > IV > III > I (d) III > IV > II > I

194 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
126. Which of the following statements are false? (i) It is carried out in presence of a strong acid which acts
(i) No aldehyde can be prepared by the oxidation of as a catalyst.
primary alcohol with acidic KMnO4. (ii) The strong acid makes the carbonyl carbon more
(ii) Aldehydes having a boiling point less than 100°C can electrophilic, and hence causes the alcohol, a strong
be prepared by the oxidation of primary alcohol with nucleophile to attack on the carbonyl carbon.
acidic dichromate. (iii) The strong acid makes the carbonyl group more
(iii) Secondary alcohols on oxidation with PCC in electrophilic which is thus attacked easily by an
dichloromethane give carboxylic acids having lesser alcohol, a weak nucleophile.
number of carbon atoms (iv) Esterification can be done even in absence of a strong
(iv) Tertiary alcohols can't be oxidised at all acid.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) only (d) (iv) only
127. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
(i) The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
than those of alcohols of similar molecular masses
(ii) Alcohols show intermolecular hydrogen bonding
Column-I Column-II
whereas aldehydes and ketones do not show
(Common names) (IUPAC names)
intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
(A) Cinnamaldehyde (p) Pentanal
(iii) The lower members of aldehydes and ketones are
miscible with water in all proportions, because they (B) Acetophenone (q) Prop-2-enal
form hydrogen bond with water. (C) Valeraldehyde (r) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
(iv) The solubility of aldehydes and ketones increases (D) Acrolein (s) 3-Phenylprop-2-enal
rapidly on increasing the length of alkyl chain (E) Mesityl oxide (t) 1-Phenylethanone
(a) TTFF (b) TFFT (a) A – (s), B – (t), C – (p), D – (q), E – (r)
(c) FTTT (d) TTTF (b) A – (p), B – (q), C – (s), D – (t), E – (r)
128. Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones in (c) A – (t), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r), E – (q)
nucleophilic addition reactions. Which of the following (d) A – (q), B – (t), C – (r), D – (s), E – (p)
statements accounts for this ? 132. Match the columns
(i) Sterically, the presence of two relatively large Column-I Column-II
substituents in ketones hinders the approach of (A) R CO CH 3 Zn Hg / HCl
o (p) Friedel-Craft’s
nucleophile to carbonyl carbon reaction
(ii) Aldehydes show resonance whereas ketones do not R CH CH 2 3
(iii) Electronically, the presence of two alkyl groups reduce NaOH
(B) 2C6 H5 CHO o (q) Kolbe’s reaction
the electrophilicity of the carbonyl carbon more
C6 H5 COONa C6 H5 CH 2 OH
effectively.
(iv) Electronically carbonyl carbon atom in ketones is more (C) C6 H 6 CH 3 COCl
Anhyd.
o (r) Clemmensen’s
electrophilic than in aldehydes AlCl3
reaction
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) C6 H5 COCH3
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
(D) C 6 H 5 OH CO 2 NaOH o (s) Cannizzaro’s
OH
129. 2C6 H5CHO o C6 H5CH 2OH C6 H5COO HOC6 H 4COONa reaction
H 2O
Which of the following statements are correct regarding (a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
the above reduction of benzaldehyde to benzyl alcohol? (b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s)
(i) One hydrogen is coming from H2O as H+ and another (c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
from C6H5CHO as H– (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(ii) One hydrogen is coming from H2O as H– and another 133. Match the columns
from C6H5CHO as H+ Column-I Column-II
(iii) One hydrogen from H2O and another from C6H5CHO, (A) Etard reaction (p) Alcoholic KOH
both in the form of H– (B) Hydroxylation (q) Anhydrous AlCl3
(iv) The reduction is an example of disproportionation (C) Dehydrohalogenation (r) Chromyl chloride
reaction (D) Friedel-Crafts reaction (s) Dilute alkaline KMnO4
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (q)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (b) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
130. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding (c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
esterification of a carboxylic acid with an alcohol ? (d) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)

$/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6 195
134. Match the columns 137. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(Reactions) (Reagents) COOH
(A) Benzophenone o (p) LiAlH4 (A) CH2 (p) Glutaric acid
Diphenylmethane COOH
(B) Benzaldehyde o (q) DIBAL–H
CH2 COOH
1-Phenylethanol
(B) (q) Adipic acid
(C) Cyclohexanone o (r) Zn(Hg)/Conc HCl CH2 COOH
Cyclohexanol
(D) Phenyl benzoate o (s) CH3MgBr (C) CH2 COOH (r) Succinic acid
Benzaldehyde
CH2
(a) A – (p), B – (s), C – (r), D – (q)
(b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) CH2 COOH
(c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
(d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q) (D) CH2 COOH (s) Malonic acid
Column-I Column-II CH2
R CH2
(A) C = NH (p) Oxime
R
CH2 COOH
R
(B) C = NOH (q) Semicarbazone (a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
R (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
R (c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(C) C = N – NH2 (r) Imine (d) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p)
R
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
O
R Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
(D) C = N – NH – C – NH 2 (s) Hydrazone Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
R
(a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C– (s), D– (q) (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
(c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D– (q) explanation for assertion.
(d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D– (p) (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
136. Match the acids given in Column-I with their correct IUPAC correct explanation for assertion
names given in Column-II. (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
Column-I Column-II (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(Acids) (IUPAC names) 138. Assertion : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones
are higher than hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable
(A) Phthalic acid (p) Hexane-1, 6-dioic acid
molecular masses.
(B) Oxalic acid (q) Benzene-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid Reason : There is a weak molecular association in aldehydes
(C) Succinic acid (r) Pentane-1, 5-dioic acid and ketones arising out of the dipole-dipole interactions.
(D) Adipic acid (s) Butane-1, 4-dioic acid 139. Assertion : Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.
(E) Glutaric acid (t) Ethane-1, 2-dioic acid Reason : It contains sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
(a) A – (t), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p), E – (s) 140. Assertion : Compounds containing –CHO group are easily
(b) A – (p), B – (s), C – (t), D – (q), E – (r) oxidised to corresponding carboxylic acids.
(c) A – (q), B – (t), C – (s), D – (p), E – (r) Reason : Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by
(d) A – (r), B – (t), C – (p), D – (s), E – (q) treatment with LiAlH4.

196 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
141. Assertion : The molecular mass of acetic acid in benzene is O
120 instead of 60.
Reason : The carboxylic acids exist as cyclic dimers in which
the two molecules of the acid are held together by two (a) (b) OH
strong hydrogen bonds.
O
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
142. IUPAC name of the following compound is
(c) (d)
O
146. Which of the following reagent reacts in different ways
with CH3CHO, HCHO and C6H5CHO ?
H (a) Fehling solution (b) C6H5NHNH2
(c) Ammonia (d) HCl
147. A new carbon - carbon bond is formed in
(a) 2-(2-propenyl) butanal
(i) Aldol condensation (ii) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) 2-(1-propenyl) butanal
(iii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) 4-formyl 4-ethyl but-2-ene
(iv) Wurtz Fittig reaction
(d) 2-ethyl pent-3-en-l-al
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
143. Observe the following structures and pick up the correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iiv) (d) All the four
statement.
148. Which of the following is an example of nucleophilic
+
C=O C = OH addition ?
I II O NNH 2
(a) Carbonyl carbon of I is more electrophilic than that
|| NH 2 NH 2 ,H ||
(a) C 6 H 5 C CH 3 o C 6 H 5 C CH 3
of II
(b) Carbonyl carbon of I is less electrophilic than that O OH
|| |
of II (b)
LiAlH 4
C6 H 5 CCH 3
o C6 H5CHCH 3
(c) Carbonyl carbon of both structures have equal
electrophilic character (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It depends upon the complete structure of the (d) None of the two
compound 149. Acetal formation is a reversible reaction
+
144. The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones lie in between R H R OH R'OH, H +
alkanes and alcohols of comparable masses because C = O + R'OH C
(a) alkanes are polar H H OR'
(b) aldehydes and ketones are non-polar R OR'
C + H2O
(c) alkanes are non-polar and aldehydes and ketones H OR'
Under what conditions, the reaction can be forced to proceed
contain polar C = O group and lower alcohols only in right (forward) direction ?
(a) Using excess of alcohol
have H-bonding. (b) Using high temperature
(d) alkanes are held together by weak van der Waal’s (c) Using dilute acid and excess of alcohol
forces (being non-polar), aldehydes and ketones (d) Using dry acid and excess of alcohol
150. In the crossed Cannizzaro reaction involving HCHO as one
of the components
contain polar C = O group and held together by (a) HCHO is always oxidised because of electronic effect
(b) HCHO is always oxidised because of steric effect
strong dipole-dipole attraction and lower alcohols (c) both of the above statements are true
have H-bonding, which is stronger than dipole-dipole (d) none of the above statement is true
attraction. 151. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile in the aldol
145. Product of the following reaction is condensation of ethanal?
CN MgX (i) OH– (ii) H2O
dry ether (iii) –CH2CHO
+
H3O
+ (a) Only (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All the three

$/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6 197
152. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile in the 161. Cannizaro’s reaction is not given by _____________
Cannizzaro reaction involving benzaldehyde ? CHO
–
(i) OH– (ii) C6H4CHO (a) (b) CHO
CH3
(iii) C6H5CH(OH)O– (iv) H2O
(c) HCHO (d) CH3CHO
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
162. Benzophenone can be obtained by_____________.
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) Only (i)
(i) Benzoyl chloride + Benzene + AlCl3
153. Which of the following undergoes haloform reaction ? (ii) Benzoyl chloride + Diphenyl cadmium
(i) CH3CH2COCH2Cl (ii) C6H5COCH3 (iii) Benzoyl chloride + Phenyl magnesium chloride
(iii) C6H5COCHCl2 (iv) CH3CH2COCCl3 (iv) Benzene + Carbon monoxide + ZnCl2
(a) Only (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) All the four (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
154. When ethanal reacts with propanal in the presence of a 163. Which of the following conversions can be carried out by
base, the number of products formed is Clemmensen Reduction ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (i) Benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol
(c) 4 (d) 5 (ii) Cyclohexanone into cyclohexane
155. Aldehydes and ketones will not form crystalline derivatives (iii) Benzoyl chloride into benzaldehyde
with (iv) Benzophenone into diphenyl methane
(a) sodium bisulphite (a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
(b) phenylhydrazine (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(c) semicarbazide hydrochloride 164. Benzaldehyde is less reactive than propanal because
(d) dihydrogen sodium phosphate. (i) the carbon atom of the carbonyl group of benzaldehyde
is less electrophilic as in propanal.
156. Which of the following compound will undergo self aldol
(ii) the carbon atom of the carbonyl group of benzaldehyde
condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali ?
is more electrophilic as in propanal.
(a) CH2 CH CHO (b) CH {C CHO (iii) carbonyl group in benzaldehyde is more polar due to
(c) C 6 H 5 CHO (d) CH 3 CH 2 CHO . resonance
157. Which of the following is an example of aldol condensation? (iv) carbonyl group in benzaldehyde is less polar due to
resonance
CH 3
| (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
dil NaOH
(a) 2CH3COCH3
o CH 3 C(OH)CH 2 COCH 3 (c) (i) only (d) (iv) only
165. Addition of hydrogen cyanide to aldehydes and ketones
dil NaOH
(b) 2HCHO
o CH3OH occurs in presence of a base.The role of base is to
dil NaOH
(i) catalyse the reaction
(c) C6H5CHO + HCHO
o C6H5CH2OH (ii) generate CN– ion
(d) None of the above (iii) slow down the reaction
158. Identify X, (iv) to stabilize the cyanohydrins
H3C (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
CH MgI
3 (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
C = O o Intermediate
H 2O
oX
H3C dry ether 166. Addition of alcohols to aldehydes and ketones takes place
in presence of dry HCl gas because it
(a) CH3OH (b) Ethyl alcohol (i) Protonates the oxygen of the carbonyl compounds
(c) Methyl cyanide (d) tert-Butyl alcohol (ii) Increases the electrophilicity of the carbonyl carbon
159. An organic compound of formula, C3H6O forms phenyl (iii) Removes the excess moisture from the reaction
hydrazone, but gives negative Tollen’s test. The compound is (iv) Helps the reaction to move in the forward direction
(a) CH3CH2COCH3 (b) CH3CH2CHO (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) CH3COCH3 (d) Both (a) and (c) (c) (ii) ,(iii), and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
167. When benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde undergoes reaction
R NH Hydrolysis
160. C = O HCN (A) 3
(B) (C) with the 2, 4–DNP ?
R (a) Benzaldehyde reacts slowly than acetaldehyde
Compound (C) in above reaction is (b) Acetaldehyde reacts slowly than benzaldehyde
(a) D-hydroxy acid (b) D-amino acid (c) Both reacts equally
(c) D-amino alkanol (d) D-amino E-hydroxy acid (d) Both do not react with 2, 4-DNP

198 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
168. Suppose the reaction of compound containing ketone as Identify the product(s) formed in the given reaction.
functional group is carried in basic medium of NaOH. Which I II
of the following will one use to protect the unwanted (a) 2 molecules of benzoic acid 2 molecules of ethanoic acid
reaction due presence of carbonyl moiety.
(b) 2 molecules of benzoic acid 1 molecules of benzoic acid
(a) NaHSO3
(b) HCN and 1 molecule of ethanoic acid
(c) ethylene glycol and HCl (c) 1 molecule of ethanoic acid 1 molecule of benzoic acid
(d) None of these (d) 1 molecule of benzoic acid 1 molecule of butanoic acid
169. A compound C5H10O forms orange–red precipitate upon 175. Ethanoic acid can’t be obtained by which of the following
reaction with 2,4–DNP, but does not give positive Tollen’s reaction ?
test and iodoform test. Possible compound is (i) KCN
(a) 2, 2–dimethylpropanal (b) 3–methylbutan–2–one (i) C2 H5Cl
o
(ii) H3O
(c) Pentan–3–one (d) None of the above
170. Nitration of the compound is carried out, this compound (i) AgCN
(ii) CH3Cl

o
gives red–orange ppt. with 2,4–DNP, this compound (ii) H3O
undergoes Cannizzaro reaction but not aldol, than possible
product due to nitration is 4 KMnO / OH
(iii) CH 3CH CH 2 o
(a) 3–nitroacetophenone heat
(b) (2–nitro)–2–phenylethanal
(i) Mg
(c) (2–nitro)–1–phenylpropan–2–one (iv) CH3Br o
(ii) CO2
(d) 3–nitrobezaldehyde (iii) H3O
171. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-ethyl-
2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is : (a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
OH
OH 176. Primary alcohols can be readily oxidised to carboxylic acids
COOH by.
(a) COOH (b)
(i) KMnO4 in neutral medium.
(ii) KMnO4 in acidic or alkaline medium.
OH (iii) K2Cr2O7 in alkaline medium.
(iv) K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium.
(c)
COOH
(d) COOH (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
OH
177. Which of the following is correct order of acidity?
172. The end product B in the sequence of reactions,
(a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > C2H5 COOH
CN NaOH
R X o A o B is (b) ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH > C2H5COOH
(a) an alkane (c) CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH > C2H5COOH
(b) a carboxylic acid (d) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH
(c) sodium salt of carboxylic acid 178. An organic compound A upon reacting with NH3 gives B.
(d) a ketone On heating B gives C. C in presence of KOH reacts with Br2
173. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following to given CH3CH2NH2. A is :
conversion? (a) CH3COOH (b) CH3CH2CH2COOH
O
|| (c) CH3 CH COOH (d) CH3CH2COOH
CH3 – CH CH – CH 2 – C– CH 3
o |
CH3
O
||
CH3 – CH CH – CH 2 – C– OH 179. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the
compounds
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Benzoyl peroxide
(A) CH3CO2H (B) MeOCH2CO2H
(c) I2 and NaOH solution (d) Sn and NaOH solution
174. In the given reaction, Me
(C) CF3CO2H (D) CO2H is
H O
2 oI Me
(C 6 H 5 CO) 2 O
H O
2 o II
(a) D < A < B < C (b) A < D < B < C
C 6 H 5 COOCOCH 3
(c) B < D < A < C (d) D < A < C < B

$/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6 199
180. Through which of the following reactions number of carbon 184. Kolbe’s electrolytic method can be applied on
atoms can be increased in the chain?
(i) CH 2 COONa (ii) CHCOONa
(i) Grignard reaction (ii) Cannizzaro’s reaction | ||
(iii) Aldol condensation (iv) HVZ reaction CH 2 COONa CHCOONa
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only (iii) and (i) (b) Only (iii) and (ii) (iii) C6 H5COOK (iv) CH3COOK
(c) Only (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
181. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
product C. 185. Which of the following represents the correct order of the
6 6 C H acidity in the given compounds?
CH3COOH PCl5
o A o B
Anh.AlCl3 (a) FCH 2 COOH > CH 3 COOH > Br CH 2 COOH >
C2H5MgBr ClCH2COOH
oC
Ether (b) BrCH2 COOH > ClCH2 COOH > FCH2 COOH >
Product C would be CH3COOH
C2 H 5 (c) FCH2 COOH > ClCH2 COOH > BrCH2 COOH >
| CH3COOH
(a) CH 3 C (OH)C 6 H 5 (b) CH 3 CH (OH) C 2 H 5
(d) CH3 COOH > BrCH2 COOH > ClCH2 COOH >
(c) CH 3 COC 6 H 5 (d) CH 3 CH (OH ) C 6 H 5 FCH2COOH
186. The correct order for the acidic character of the following
K 2Cr2O 7+H2SO4
182. Z. Here Z is carboxylic acids is
COOH COOH COOH
(a) HOOC OH
(b) (CH3)3CCOOH I II OH
(c) Both (a) and (b)
III
(d) HOOC COOH COOH

COOH
HO OH
183. RCOOH can be reduced to RCH2OH by OCH3
(i) NaBH4 (ii) LiAlH4
(iii) Na/C2H5OH (iv) H2/Catalyst IV
V
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(a) IV > I > II > III > V (b) V > II > III > I > IV
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) V > II > IV > III > I (d) V > II > IV > I > III

200 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 H CH3 H O CH3

O3
15. (a) CH3– CH2– C C CH3– CH 2– C– C
2 1 CH3
1. (b) CH3 – CH – CHO CH3 O O
O O
3 4
CH2 – CH3 CH3– C – CH 3+ CH3 – CH2 – CHO (–H2O)
2. (a) 16. (b) Catalyst used in Rosenmund reduction is Pd/BaSO4.

O CH3 Rosenmund reduction is used for reduction of acid
1 2 || 3| 4 chloride.
3. (c) CH 3 C C H CH 3 ; 3- methyl-2-butanone
O O
4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) Pd / BaSO4
R C Cl o R C H
8. (b) O is more electronegative than C.
17. (d) Phenyl cyanide is reduced into benzaldehyde in the
9. (d) Vanillin -vanilla beans
presence of SnCl2 / HCl reagent. This reaction is
Salicylaldehyde - meadow sweet
Cinnamaldehyde -from cinnamon. known as Stephen’s reaction.
10. (d) The lower aldehydes have sharp pungent odours. As C 6 H 5C { N 2[H]
2o SnCl
the size of the molecule increases, the odour becomes HCl
less pungent and more fragrant.
H O / H
11. (a) Carbonyl compounds (aldehydes and ketones) are C 6 H 5CH NH 2
o C 6 H 5CHO NH 3
obtained by the oxidation of 1° and 2° alcohols 18. (c)
respectively. Among the given options, only (a) is 2°
alcohol hence it can be oxidized to ketone. COOH CH3 CHO
acidic K Cr O
2 2 7 CrO Cl
2 2
OH O m o
or KMnO 4
| ||
oxidation
H3CCHCH3 o H3CCCH 3
(Etard reaction)
2 hydroxypropane Acetone
Acidic KMnO4 and K2Cr 2O7 oxidise toluene to
12. (b) Secondary alcohols on oxidation give ketones. benzoic acid but CrO2Cl2 oxidises it to benzaldehyde.
Note : Primary alcohols form aldehydes. 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b)
24. (a) 25. (d)
R R
[O] 26. (b) Formyl chloride is unstable at room temperature.
CHOH C=O 27. (a) Alkanenitriles (other than methanenitrile) and
R R benzonitrile give ketones with Grignard reagents.
Isopropyl Ketone
alcohol 28. (b)
13. (a) 1° Alcohols on catalytic dehydrogenation give + –
29. (c) C=O C – O ; the polarity exists in
aldehydes.
Cu
carbonyl group due to resonance.
RCH2OH RCHO + H2 30. (a) Solubility decreases with increase in mol. wt.
300°C
1° alcohol Aldehyde 31. (c) Propanone has symmetrical structure.
14. (a) Alcohols are oxidized by removal of H2 in presence 32. (d)
of a heated metal catalyst (Cu) 33. (b) Acetaldehyde reacts only with nucleophiles. Since the
mobile p electrons of carbon–oxygen double bond are
Cu
CH3CH 2OH
o CH3CHO H 2 strongly pulled towards oxygen, carbonyl carbon is
300q
1q alcohol Aldehyde electron-deficient and carbonyl oxygen is electron-rich.
The electron deficient (acidic) carbonyl carbon is most
H3 C susceptible to attack by electron rich nucleophilic
Cu
CH o CH3CCH3 H2
OH reagents, that is, by base. Hence the typical reaction
300q
H3 C || of aldehydes and ketones is nucleophilic addition.
2° Alcohol O 34. (c)
Ketone

$/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6 201
35. (d) Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes having no 44. (c) CH3CHO + 2Cu2+ + OH– o CH3COOH + Cu2O p
D-hydrogen atom in the presence of conc. alkali, aldol Fehling solution (red)
condensation is given by aldehydes and ketones 45. (c) Aldol condensation is given by carbonyl compounds
having at least one D-atom in presence of alkali or in which have D-hydrogen atoms.
presence of acids ' HCHO does not have any D-hydrogen atom, so it
36. (b) Aldehydes containing no D-hydrogen atom on does not give aldol condensation.
warming with 50% NaOH or KOH undergo 46. (b) Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes and ketones
disproportionation i.e. self oxidation - reduction known which do not have D -hydrogen atom. Benzaldehyde
as Cannizzaro’s reaction. (C6H5CHO) does not have D -H atom and hence gives
50% NaOH
2 HCHO o HCOONa CH 3OH
Cannizzaro reaction.
47. (d) Compounds having – CHO group reduce Tollen’s
37. (d) I2 and Na2CO3 react with acetophenone (C6H5COCH3)
reagent to silver mirror. It is called silver mirror test.
to give yellow ppt. of CHI 3 but benzophenone
(C6H5COC6H5) does not and hence can be used to O O
|| ||
distinguish between them. H C OH CH3 (CHOH) 3 C H
38. (b) When benzaldehyde is refluxed with aqueous alcoholic
(a) (b)
potassium cyanide, two molecules of benzaldehyde
condense together to form benzoin O
H O Both (a) and (b) have – C – H group so both of them
KCN (alc)
—C +C— give positive silver mirror test.
'
O H 48. (b) Tollen’s reagent is ammonical AgNO3. Aldehydes form
H O silver mirror with it and ketones do not show any
— C– C — change. So Tollen’s reagent is used to distinguish
OH between aldehydes and ketones.
Benzoin 49. (a) Aldehydes and ketones are reduced to alkanes by
39. (b) CH 3 COCH 3 3I 2 4 NaOH o Clemmensen reduction.
Acetone
Zn–Hg/HCl H
CHI 3 3NaI CH 3COONa 3H 2 O C=O C + H2O
Iodoform H
Thus acetone reacts with iodine to form iodoform in 50. (a) Wolf- Kishner reduction
the presence of NaOH. (i) NH2 – NH2 H
40. (c) Aldol condensation is given by the compounds which C=O C
(ii) KOH H
contain D hydrogen atom. As the given compound
51. (c) Only aldehydes and ketones react with
does not contain D hydrogen atom. Hence it does not
2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine.
undergo aldol condensation.
O OH
O || |
( H O ) HCN
41. (b) 2o
CH3–C=O + H2N–NH–C–NH2 52. (b) CH3 C H o CH3 C H
acetaldehyde |
H CN
O OH
CH3–CH=N–NH–C–NH2 Hydrolysis
|
acetaldehyde semicarbazone o CH3 C H
|
42. (d) Iodoform test is exhibited by ethyl alcohol, COOH
acetaldehyde, acetone, methyl ketone and those Lactic acid
alcohols which possess CH3 CH(OH)-group. As 53. (d) HCHO does not undergo iodoform test, while
3-pentanone does not contain CH3CO-group therefore
acetaldehyde undergoes iodoform test ( I 2 in presence
it does not give iodoform test.
of base) to form yellow precipitate of iodoform.
O
54. (d) Aldehydes can be oxidised by all the three given
C–CH3 CH2–CH3 reagents.
55. (c) Iodoform test is given by compounds which have
43. (b) Zn-Hg/HCl CH3CO group.
o
O
Phenyl methyl Ethyl ||
ketone benzene CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 C CH 3
This reaction is known as Clemmensen's reduction. 2-pentanone

202 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
O 59. (a) Aldehydes and ketones having at least one D-hydrogen

|| atom in presence of dilute alkali give E-hydroxy
CH 3 CH 2 C CH 2 CH 3 aldehyde or E-hydroxy ketone
3-pentanone
O
' 2-pentanone has CH3CO group, so it gives iodoform ||
test, while 3-pentanone does not have CH3CO group, CH3 C HCH 2 CHO
|
so it does not give iodoform test. H
56. (c) In cross aldol condensation aromatic aldehydes or Acetaldehyde
ketones (with or without D-hydrogen) react with
aldehydes, ketones or esters having D-hydrogen atoms OH
in the presence of dilute alkali to form a E-unsaturated |
dil.NaOH

o CH3 C CH 2 CHO
carbonyl compound. |
Example, H
Aldol
OH
(i) C6 H5CHO CH3CHO o '
o CH3 CH CH.CHO
Benzaldehyde Acetaldehyde H 2O Crotonaldehyde
C6 H5CHOHCH 2 CHO 60. (b) Clemmensen reduction is
– H2O Zn–Hg/HCl
C=O CH 2
C6 H 5 CH CHCHO 61. (a) Aldehydes, other than formaldehyde, when treated
Cinnamaldehyde with RMgX give 2º alcohols.
CH3 O
O
| & 62. (a) R C H + NH2 NH2 R C N NH2
(ii) C6 H 5 C O H 3C C C6 H 5 H
Acetophenone Aldehyde Hydrazine Aldehyde hydrazone
CH3 O O OH
| & || |
Aluminium HCN
o C6 H 5 C CH C C 6 H5 63. (a) R– C –R c o R-– C — CN
t-butoxide KCN |
Dyprone
R c (A)
R R OMgX
57. (c) C = O + R'MgX C OH
R R R' |
Reduction by
HOH

o R – C – CH 2 NH 2
LiAlH 4 (B) |
R Rc
R C – OH + Mg(OH)X 64. (b)
R'
3° alcohol 65. (d) Iodoform test is given by compounds having CH3CO–
group or secondary alcohols having CH3– as one of
58. (a) When acetaldehyde is treated with alcohol in the alkyl groups, i.e., CH3CHOHR or CH3CH2OH because
presence of dry HCl , then acetal is formed it is readily oxidised by halogen (present in reagent) to
H
CH 3 CH 3 OR |
dry HCl CH3CHO which has CH C O group.
C= O + ROH o C 3
66. (d)
H H OH 67. (a) Aldehydes (e.g. CH3CHO) restore the pink colour of
Hemiacetal Schiff’s reagent.
68. (a) fusion
CH 3 OR C 6 H 5 COC 6 H 5 KOH
o
ROH
H2O + C C6 H 6 C 6 H 5COO K
H OR 69. (c) The nucleophile is SO3– – not HSO3– , SO3Na
Acetal 70. (c) Wolf-Kishner reduction is reduction of carboxyl
compound into alkane.
Hence, option (a) is correct. 71. (b) Ammonical AgNO3 is Tollen’s reagent.

$/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6 203
72. (d) 73. (c) O
74. (d) These reactions lead to replacement of oxygen atom C OMgBr
MgBr
of carbonyl group to form hydrazones and oximes.
+
75. (a) Cannizzaro’s reaction is shown by aldehydes lacking (i) CO2 H3O
D-H-atom. Aldol condensation reactions are shown
by aldehydes having D-H-atoms.
O
76. (b) NaBH4 selectively reduces the aldehyde group to
alcohol without affecting double bond in a organic C O H
compound. So, X is NaBH4.
NaBH + Mg(OH)Br
4o
C6 H5 CH = CHCHO C6 H5 CH = CHCH2OH
77. (a) All ketones in (i), (ii) and (iii) contain abstractable 'P'
Benzoic acid
alpha–proton while all aldehydes do not contain
alpha–hydrogen. 96. (c)
97. (d) In carboxylates (conjugate base of carboxylic acids),
78. (a) Benzaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction, which
resonance is more significant because the two
forms benzoic acid and benzylalcohol as the product.
resonating structures are similar, while in phenoxide,
79. (c) 80. (b) 81. (a) the resonating structures are not equivalent, alkoxide
82. (d) Automobile exhausts are artificial source of isobutyric ions do not show resonance.
acid. 98. (a) 99. (a)
83. (c) Vinegar is 6 - 8% solution of acetic acid. 100. (c) Bromine is less electronegative than F, further in
84. (b) The overall reaction involved is BrCH2CH2COOH, Br is more away from the –COOH
H O
2 o CH CONH
2 o H O group than in CH3CHBrCOOH.
CH 3 CN 3 2
O CH3
HCl || |
CH3 COO NH 4 o CH3COOH + NH 4 Cl 101. (c) CH 3 C OH HO– CHCH 3
o
Ethanoic acid Propan-2-ol
On reduction cyanides yield 1q amines. They do not
undergo decarboxylation or electrolysis.
O CH3
R || |
COOH CH3 C O– CHCH3
85. (a) 4 KMnO / OH – 102. (a)

o
K 2Cr2O7 or dil. HNO3 103. (c) pKa = –logKa; HCOOH is the strongest acid and hence
R = Any alkyl group it has the highest Ka or lowest pKa value.
Benzoic acid
104. (c)
86. (b) Both C–O bonds are identical and each O possesses 105. (b) LiAlH4 in presence of ether can be used to convert
partial negative charge. acetic acid into ethanol.
87. (c) Formic acid cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent.
ether
88. (b) CH3COOH + 3LiAlH4 o
acetic acid
CH3 CHCl2 CHO [CH3CH2O]4AlLi + 2LiAlO2 + 4H2
H 2O
Cl 2 / hX
373 K
[CH3CH2O]4AlLi H
o CH3CH2OH

Toluene Benzal chloride Benzaldehyde ethanol
89. (d) 106. (c) Carboxylic acids are weak acids.
90. (c) Carbonyl group acts as a deactivating and 107. (c) Removal of CO2 from carboxylic acid is called
metadirecting group. decarboxylation.
91. (d) Primary and secondary alkyl groups oxidised to give 108. (b) It is a test for –COOH gp.;
carboxylic acid while tertiary alkyl group remain R–COOH+NaHCO3 o RCOONa + H2O + CO2 n.
unaffected. 109. (d)
92. (b) 93. (d) COOH COOC2H5
94. (b) Due to H-bonding.
HCl
95. (b) Grignard reagent forms addition product with bubbled 110. (c) + C2H5OH + H2O
Ethanol
dry
carbondioxide which on hydrolysis with HCl yields
benzoic acid. This process is known as esterification.

204 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
111. (c) This reaction is an example of Hell - Volhard Zelinsky 122. (c) Chlorine is electron withdrawing group. Further
reaction. In this reaction acids containing D– H on inductive effect is stronger at D position than
treatment with X2 /P give di-halo substituted acid. E-position. i.e.,
Br /P
2 o CH CBr COOH D E D
CH 3 – CH 2 COOH 3 2 CH 2ClCOOH ! CH 2 ClCH 2 COOH
112. (c) o CH 3 COCl +
3CH 3COOH PCl3 H3PO3 123. (b)
Acetyl Phosphorous
Chloride acid 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
113. (b) 124. (b) Carbonyl compounds have substantial dipole moments
114. (a) –COOH group when attached to benzene ring and are polar in nature. The high polarity of the
deactivates the ring and substitution occurs at carbonyl group is due to resonance.
m-position. (HNO3 + H2SO4) is a source of + NO2 125. (a) Primary alcohols on oxidation give carboxylic acids as
(electrophile) which attacks at m-position. the final product, of course through aldehydes.
COOH COOH Oppenauer oxidation involves oxidation of 2º alcohols
to ketones, and not for the oxidation of 1º alcohols.
H2SO4
+ HNO3 126. (c) If the aldehyde has a boiling point less than 100°C, it
o
can be prepared by the oxidation of 1° alcohols with
NO2
3- nitrobenzoic acid
regular oxidising agents like acidic permanganate or
dichromate. Since the aldehyde has a lower boiling
115. (b) 2 Br / P point than the alcohol, it is distilled off as soon as it is
RCH 2 COOH
o R CH COOH
HVZ reaction | formed ; so further oxidation to a carboxylic acid is
Br minimized.
'X' 127. (d) The solubility of aldehydes and ketones decreases
rapidly on increasing the length of alkyl chain.
NH 3 o R CH COOH
128. (a) Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones
(Excess) | in nucleophilic addition reactions due to steric and
NH 2 electronic reasons. Sterically, the presence of two
'Y' relatively large substituents in ketones hinders the
116. (d) The yield of product in a reversible reaction can be approach of nucleophile to carbonyl carbon than in
increased by (i) removing one of the products, (ii) aldehydes having only one such substituent.
taking either of the reactant in excess. Electronically, aldehydes are more reactive than
117. (d) Use of SOCl2 and ClCOCOCl forms gaseous by- ketones because two alkyl groups reduce the
products which can be easily removed, giving better electrophilicity of the carbonyl carbon more effectively
yield of RCOCl. Further, oxalyl chaloride is particularly than in former.
easy to use becasue any excess of it can be easily 129. (b) The hydrogen atom that is added to the carbonyl
evaporated due to its low b.p. (62ºC) carbon of the aldehyde in the reduction is derived
O O O directly from the other aldehyde molecule as a hydride
|| || || ion. The second hydrogen that is added to the
R C OH Cl C C Cl
o negatively charged oxygen is coming from the solvent
O (consult mechanism of Cannizzaro reaction). Oxidation
|| of one molecule of the compound at the expense of
R C Cl HCl n CO n CO 2 n other molecule of the same compound is known as
118. (b) disproportionation.
119. (a) Salicylic acid, because it stabilizes the corresponding 130. (b) First two steps of the esterification make the question
salicylate ion by intramolecular H-bonding. clear
120. (c) Cl 2CHCOOH is most acidic because it has two +
O OH
chlorine at D-position. H
+
R–O–H
121. (a) An electron releasing substituent (+I) intensify the CH3 — C — OH CH3 — C — OH
negative charge on the anion resulting in the decrease Protonated acid
(carbonyl C is more
of stability and thus decreases the acidity of the acid. electrophilic than
Hence acid character decreases as the + I-effect of the that of parent acid)
alkyl group increases as OH
CH3– < CH3CH2– < CH3CH2CH2– < CH3CH2CH2CH2–
Hence the order becomes : (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) CH3 — C — OH
+
HO R

$/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6 205
+ +
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 148. (c) (a) C = O + H2NNH2 H
C – OH
H
C = NNH2
131. (a) 132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (b) NHNH2
136. (c) 137. (c) (b) In the reduction of carbonyl group with LiAlH4 or
NaBH4, a hydride ion is transferred from the metal
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 to the carbonyl carbon (nucleophilic addition)
138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (b) H
141. (a) The molecular mass of acetic acid in benzene is 120 – –
C = O + H– AlH3 C – OAlH3
instead of 60 because the carboxylic acids exists as
cyclic dimers in which two molecules of the acid are 149. (d) Being reversible reaction, the backward reaction i.e.
held together by two strong hydrogen bond. acetal -hemiacetal step can be restricted by minimizing
water content, i.e. by using dry HCl. The step hemiacetal
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 - aldehyde can be restricted by using excess of alcohol.
150. (c) First step in Cannizzaro reaction is the nucleophilic
142. (d) addition of OH– on the carbonyl carbon.
143. (b) In structure II, presence of positive charge on oxygen
causes the displacement of S electrons toward oxygen, H –
H
OH –
making carbon more electron deficient than that in R–C=O R–C–O
(fast)
unprotonated carbonyl group.
144. (c) It is the reason for the given fact. OH
145. (d) Higher the electron deficiency on cabonyl carbon, more
146. (c) With ammonia, HCHO forms hexamethylenetetramine, easier will be the attack of the nucleophile
CH3 CHO gives acetaldehydeammonia addition (OH–) on its carbon. Futher, the attack of OH– on the
product, while C6H5CHO gives hydrobenzamide. carbonyl carbon is more easy in case of HCHO because
147. (d) Aldol condensation : its carbon is least hindered having two hydrogens
(steric effect). Thus the intermediate I is formed very
OH New C–C bond
easily which donates hydride ion to another aldehyde
–
OH
2CH3CHO H3C–C–CH2CHO and thus itself oxidised.
H H
|
Ist
Kolbe reaction : HC O OH step
o
Easier because of electronic
ONa OH New C–C bond and steric effects
COOH H H H
CO2,140ºC – –
R–C=O
Pressure H–C–O 2nd Step
H–C=O +R–C –O
(slow)
OH OH H
OH I
151. (c) OH– and –CH2CHO act as nucleophile in the first two
steps.
CHCl3
Reimer-Tiemann reaction : O
3KOH
|
OH CH 3CHO
CH3 CHO o C H 2 CHO
o CH 3 C H
|
New C–C bond CH 2CHO
OH
CHO OH
|
+ 3KCl + 2H2O H 2O

o CH3 CH
(as an acid) |
CH2CHO
Wurtz Fittig reaction :
Na
H3CCl + 2Na + Cl
152. (c)
H3C + 2NaCl H
C6 H5CHO –
o C6H5 – C – O + C6H5 – C = O
New C–C bond
H OH

206 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
153. (d) If we observe the haloform reaction carefully, we see 157. (a) Aldol condensation involves an aldehyde or ketone
that –COCH3 group is first halogenated to the trihalo having an D–hydrogen atom. This type of
–COCX3 through monohalogeno and dihalogeno condensation occurs in presence of dilute base (i.e.,
compound. It is the –COCX 3 part which then dil NaOH).
undergoes nucleophilic addition. The product easily Only CH3COCH3 will give aldol condensation (Both
loses –CX3 since it is a very good leaving group. HCHO and C6H5CHO lack D-hydrogen).
O O 158. (d) H3 C G G
–
X2, OH C = O + CH 3 MgI o
CH3 – C – CH3 CH3 – C – CH2Cl
H 3C
I II
H3 C
O O H OH H O
2 o
C O MgI
CH3 – C – CHCl2 CH3 – C – CCl3 H3 C
III IV CH3
– CH3
O O
OH
– |
CH3 – C – CCl3 CH3 – C – CCl3 H3C COH + Mg(OH)I
|
OH CH3
Tert butyl
O alcohol
–
CH3 – C + CCl3 159. (d) Ketones do not respond to Tollen’s test. Aldehydes
respond to Tollen’s test.
OH
160. (b) R R OH
Thus all compounds (I to IV) are ultimately converted NH3
to CHCl3 (chloroform). C = O HCN C
R R CN
154. (c) 2CH3CHO o 1st Product,
2 CH 3CH 2CHO o 2 nd Product R NH2 R NH2
HOH
D C C
o 3rd Product;
CH3CH 2CHO CH3CHO R CN R COOH
D
o 4 th Product
CH3 C H 2 CHO CH 3CHO 161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (a)
164. (b) The car bon atom of the carbonyl group of
155. (d) Dihydrogen sodium phosphate (NaH2PO4) does not
benzaldehyde is less electrophilic than carbon atom of
have a lone pair of electrons on the P atom. As such it the carbonyl group present in propanal. The polarity
can not act as a nucleophile and hence does not react of the carbonyl group is reduced in benzaldehyde due
with aldehydes and ketones. to resonance as shown below and hence it is less
156. (d) Aldehydes which contain a D -hydrogen on a reactive than propanal.
saturated carbon, i.e., CH 3CH 2CHO undergo aldol 165. (b) Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrogen cyanide
condensation. (HCN) to yield cyanohydrins. This reaction occurs
very slowly with pure HCN. Therefore, it is catalysed
H CH3 by a base and the generated cyanide ion (CN– ) being
| |
a stronger nucleophile readily adds to carbonyl
CH3CH 2 – C O H C CHO
propanol |D compounds to yield corresponding cyanohydrins
H 166. (b) Dry hydrogen chloride protonates the oxygen of the
carbonyl compounds and therefore, increases the
H CH3 electrophilicity of the carbonyl carbon facilitating the
OH E| D| nucleophilic attack by the alcohol molecule. Dry HCl
o CH3CH 2 C CHCHO
| gas also absorbs the water produced in these reactions
OH thereby shifting the equilibrium in the forward
3-hydroxy-2-methylpentanal
direction.

$/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6 207
167. (a) Because of resonance in benzaldehyde which is not

O
possible in case of acetaldehyde the positive charge &
3 l CH CH COO NH
CH3CH 2 C OH ¶¶¶
NH
on the carbonyl carbon decreases and hence there is 3 2 4
decrease in reactivity.
(A) (B)
168. (c) Acetal formed upon reaction of ethylene glycol and
%
HCl, which is unaffected by base hence unwanted ¶¶l CH 3CH 2 CONH 2
reaction does not occur due to presence of carbonyl (C)
group.
169. (c) 2, 2-dimethyl propanal gives Tollen’s test and KOH Br2
3-methylbutan-2-one gives iodoform test. CH 3CH 2 NH 2
170. (d)
179. (a) The correct order of increasing acid strength
OH CF3COOH > MeOCH2COOH > CH3COOH
3 1 > (Me)2CH.COOH
H3C 2 COOH
171. (a) Electron withdrawing groups increase the acid strength
6 4
and electron donating groups decrease the acid
5 CH 3
strength.
IUPAC name of the structure is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy 180. (a) Grignard reagents and nitriles are useful for converting
-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid. alkyl halide into corresponding carboxylic acids having
one carbon atom more than that present in alkyl halides.
172. (c) CN NaOH
R X o R CN
o RCOONa
COCH3
173. (c) C6H 6
181. (a) CH COOH +PCl CH3COCl
3 5 AnhydAlCl 3
H 2O [A]
(C 6 H5CO)2 O
o 2C 6 H5 – COOH Friedle Craft
174. (b)
benzoic anhydride benzoic acid reaction
H O
2 o C H COOH CH COOH OH OMgBr
C6 H5COOCOCH3 6 5 3 H
+
MgBrC2H5
bezoyl ethanoic benzoic acid ethanoic acid C2H5 – C – CH3 ether C2H5 – C – CH3
anhydride
hydrolysis
175. (b) 176. (a)
177. (b) Recall that presence of electron-withdrawing group (C)
increases, while presence of electron-releasing group
decreases the acidity of carboxylic acids. 182. (c) An alkyl group attached to benzene ring can be
oxidised only when it contains at least one D-hydrogen
O O atom. Thus here –CH3 group is oxidised and Me3C–
|| || group not. However, Me 3 C– group may cause
ClCH 2COOH ! H C OH ! CH3 C OH !
(electron-withdrawing gp.)
oxidation of the benzene ring to –COOH.
(Electron-releasing character
increasing from Left to Right) 183. (a) 184. (a)
185. (c) Electron withdrawing substituent (like halogen, —NO2,
O C6H5 etc.) would disperse the negative charge and
|| hence stabilise the carboxylate ion and thus increase
C2H5 C OH acidity of the parent acid. On the other hand, electron-
releasing substituents would intensify the negative
charge, destabilise the carboxylate ion and thus
NH
3 o B '
2 o CH CH NH Br
178. (d) A o C 3 2 2 decrease acidity of the parent acid.
(I) II KOH,(III)
Electronegativity decreases in order
Reaction (III) is a Hofmann bromamide reaction. Now F > Cl > Br
formation of CH3CH2NH2 is possible only from a and hence –I effect also decreases in the same order,
compound CH3CH2CONH2(C) which can be obtained therefore the correct option is
from the compound CH3CH2COO– NH+4 (B). [FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH >
Thus (A) should be CH3CH2COOH CH3COOH]

208 $/'(+<'(6.(721(6$1'&$5%2;</,&$&,'6
186. (d) V is most stable because its anion is stabilized to a COOH COOH
greater extent through H – bonding with H atom of OH OH OH
HO
present on both ortho-positions ; followed by II in > >
which one OH group is present. Compound IV comes
next to II because here –OCH3 group is present in ortho V II
position which although is not capable of forming

COOH COOH COOH
H–bonding yet more acidic than p-HOC6H4COOH (III)
due to ortho effect. Compound III is less acidic than OCH3
benzoic acid because of electron-releasing group in > >
the para position. Thus IV I
OH
III

13
AMINES
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 7. The correct IUPAC name for CH2 = CHCH2NHCH3 is
(a) Allylmethylamine
1. A secondary amine is (b) 2-amino-4-pentene
(a) a compound with two carbon atoms and an –NH2 (c) 4-aminopent-1-ene
group. (d) N-methylprop-2-en-1-amine
(b) a compound containing two –NH2 groups. 8. Amines play an important role in the survival of life.
(c) a compound in which hydrogens of NH3 have been Naturally they are found in
replaced by two alkyl groups. (a) proteins (b) vitamins
(d) a compound with an –NH2 group on carbon atom in (c) alkaloids (d) All of these
number two position. 9. Intermediates formed during reaction of RCONH2 with Br 2
2. The general formula of quaternary ammonium compound and KOH are
is (a) RCONHBr and RNCO (b) RNHCOBr and RNCO
(a) R–NH2 (b) R3N (c) RNHBr and RCONHBr (d) RCONBr2
10. Which of the following reactions will not give a primary
(c) R4N+ X– (d) NH4X
amine?
3. The total number of electrons around the nitrogen atom in
(a) Br / KOH
amines are CH 3 CONH 2 2
o
(a) 8 (b) 7 (b) LiAlH
4o
CH 3CN
(c) 4 (d) 3 LiAlH
(c) 4o
CH 3 NC
4. The IUPAC name of the compound having formula,
(d) 4oLiAlH
O C CH CH2 is CH 3CONH 2
11. Propionamide on Hofmann degradation gives –
OH NH2 OH (a) methyl amine (b) ethyl amine
(a) 3-amino-hydroxy propine acid (c) propyl amine (d) ethyl cyanide
12. Secondary amines could be prepared by
(b) 2-amino-propan-3-oic acid
(a) reduction of nitriles
(c) amino hydroxy propanoic acid
(b) Hofmann bromamide reaction
(d) 2-amino-3-hydroxy propanoic acid
(c) reduction of amides
5. The number of primary amines of formula C4H11N is : (d) reduction of isonitriles
(a) 1 (b) 3 13. Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation
(c) 4 (d) 2 of
6. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound ? (a) Primary aromatic amines
(b) Secondary amines
NH 2
(c) Primary aliphatic amines
(d) Tertiary amines
14. Ethyl amine can be obtained by the
(a) 2-methyl-4-hexanamine (a) Action of NH3 on ethyl iodide.
(b) 5-methyl-3-hexanamine (b) Action of NH3 on ethyl alcohol.
(c) 2-methyl-4-amino hexane (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) 5-methyl-3-amino hexane (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

210 $0,1(6
15. Treatment of ammonia with excess of ethyl iodide will yield 24. Which of the following will give primary amine only ?
(a) diethylamine (i) ammonia + propylchloride
(b) ethylamine (ii) potassium pthalimide + ethylchloride
(c) triethylamine (iii) potassium pthalimide + chlorobenzene
(d) tetraethylammonium iodide (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
16. For alkylation of ammonia which of the following is not (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
used ? 25. Amines have
(a) CH3–X (b) CH3–CH2–X (a) Garlic odour (b) Fishy odour
(c) (CH3)2CH–X (d) (CH3)3C–X (c) Jasmine odour (d) Bitter almonds odour
17. Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel 26. Aniline is less soluble in water than ethyl amine due to
method ? (a) resonance stablization of benzene ring
(i) CH3CH2NH2 (ii) (CH3)2CHNH2 (b) resonance stabilization of anilium ion
(iii) (CH3)3CNH2 (iv) C6H5NH2 (c) more hydrophobic nature of C6H5 group than C2H5
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) group
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii) (d) more hydrophobic nature of C6H5 group than C2H5
18. Amongst the given set of reactants, the most appropriate group
for preparing 2° amine is ___________. 27. Which of the following should be most volatile?
(a) 2°R–Br + NH3 (I) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (II) (CH3)3N
(b) 2°R–Br + NaCN followed by H2/Pt CH3CH2
(c) 1°R–NH2 + RCHO followed by H2/Pt (III) NH (IV) CH3CH2CH3
(d) 1°R–Br (2 mol) + Potassium phthalimide followed by CH3
H3O+/heat (a) II (b) IV
19. The best reagent for converting 2 – phenylpropanamide (c) I (d) III
into 2-phenylpropanamine is ___________. 28. Amines behave as
(a) excess H2 (a) lewis acids (b) lewis bases
(b) Br2in aqueous NaOH (c) aprotic acids (d) amphoteric compounds
(c) iodine in the presence of red phosphorus 29. The basic character of amines is due to
(d) LiAlH4in ether (a) presence of nitrogen atom
20. Which of the following methods of preparation of amines (b) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom
will give same number of carbon atoms in the chain of (c) tetrahedral structure
amines as in the reactant? (d) high electronegativity of nitrogen
(a) Reaction of nitrite with LiAlH4. 30. Aliphatic amines are.....basic than NH3 but aromatic amines
(b) Reaction of amide with LiAlH4 followed by treatment are......basic than NH3.
with water. (a) more, less (b) less, more
(c) Heating alkylhalide with potassium salt of phthalimide (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
followed by hydrolysis. 31. Substitution of one alkyl group by replacing hydrogen of
(d) Treatment of amide with bromine in aquesous solution primary amines
of sodium hydroxide. (a) increases the base strength
21. The reduction of nitro compounds is most preferred in the (b) decreases the base strength
presence of (c) remains the same
(a) Pd/H2 in ethanol (b) Sn + HCl (d) None of the above
(c) finely divided Ni (d) iron scrap and HCl. 32. Which of the following is not characteristic of amines?
22. An alkyl or benzyl halide on reaction with an ethanolic (a) They smell like ammonia
solution of ammonia undergoes (b) They are inflammable in air
(a) electrophilic substitution reaction (c) They show the property of hydrogen bonding
(b) nucleophilic substitution reaction. (d) They are amphoteric in nature
(c) free radical mechanism. 33. The correct order of basicity in amines
(d) nucleophilic addition reaction. (i) C2H5NH2 (ii) CH3NH2
23. In the ammonolysis of alkyl halides the halogen atom is (iii) (CH3)2NH (iv) (CH3)3N
replaced by an amino(–NH2) group which of the following (a) (i) < (iv) < (ii) < (iii) (b) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
represent the correct order of reactivity of halides with (c) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (d) (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (i)
amines. 34. The conjugate base of (CH3)2NH+2 is
(a) RBr > RI > RCl (b) RI > RCl > RBr (a) (CH3)2NH (b) (CH3)2N+
(c) RI > RBr > RCl (d) RCl > RBr > RI (c) (CH3)3N + (d) (CH3)2N–

$0,1(6 211
35. High basicity of Me2 NH relative to Me3N is attributed to: 42. Which statement is not true among the following?
(a) effect of solvent (b) inductive effect of Me (a) Amines are bases
(c) shape of Me2NH (d) shape of Me3N (b) They turn red litmus blue
36. The correct order of basicity of the following compounds (c) Trimethyl amine is less basic than dimethyl amine
NH 2 NH 2 NH 2 (d) Amines yield alcohols on aqueous hydrolysis.
43. Aniline is used
(a) in crimping of wool (b) in dyeing industry
A B C (c) in making of glue (d) in fast drying vanish
44. Which of the following statements about primary amines is
NO 2 ‘False’ ?
(a) B > A > C (b) A > B > C (a) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines
(c) C > A > B (d) C > B > A (b) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce
37. Which of the following statement is correct ? alcohols
(a) Ammonia is more basic than methylamine. (c) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
(b) Methylamine is more basic than ammonia. (d) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia
(c) Dimethylamine is less basic than methylamine.
45. Mark the correct statement
(d) Dimethylamine is less basic than trimethylamine.
(a) Methylamine is slightly acidic
38. Which of the following compounds is most basic?
(b) Methylamine is less basic than ammonia
(a) O2N NH2 (c) Methylamine is a stronger base than ammonia
(d) Methylamine forms salts with alkalies.
46. For carbylamine reaction, we need hot alcoholic KOH and
(b) CH2NH2 (a) any primary amine and chloroform
(b) chloroform and silver powder
(c) a primary amine and an alkyl halide
(c) N – COCH3
(d) a monoalkylamine and trichloromethane.
H 47. The compound obtained by heating a mixture of a primary
amine and chloroform with ethanolic potassium hydroxide
(d) NH2 (KOH) is
(a) an alkyl cyanide (b) a nitro compound
39. Which of the following compounds is the weakest Bronsted
base? (c) an alkyl isocyanide (d) an amide
NH2 NH 48. R NH 2 CH3COCl
oA
2
(excess)
(a) (b) The product (A) will be –
(a) RNHCOCH3 (b) RN(COCH3)2
OH OH
(c) RN(COCH3 )3 Cl (d) R – CONH2
(c) (d) 49. Carbylamine reaction is used for the detection of
(a) aliphatic 2° amines (b) aliphatic 1° amines
40. The correct decreasing order of basic strength of the (c) aromatic 1° amines (d) Both (b) and (c)
following species is __________ H2O, NH3, OH–, NH2– 50. In the reaction,
(a) NH2– > OH– > NH3 > H2O RNH 2
HNO2
o ROH H 2O C n ; C is
(b) OH– > NH2– > H2O > NH3 (a) NH3 (b) N2
(c) NH3 > H2O > NH2– > OH–
(c) O2 (d) CO2
(d) H2O > NH3 > OH–> NH2–
51. An organic amino compound reacts with aqueous nitrous
41. Which of the following factors affect the basic strength of
amine? acid at low temperature to produce an oily nitrosoamine.
(i) Inductive effect The compound is
(ii) Steric hinderance (a) CH3NH2 (b) CH3CH2NH2
(iii) Solvation effect (c) CH3CH2NHCH2CH3 (d) (CH3CH2)3N
(iv) Solubility in organic solvents. 52. Ethylamine reacts with HNO2 giving :
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (a) C2H5OH (b) C2H5NO2
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) (c) NH3 (d) C2H6

212 $0,1(6
53. Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary and (b) benzene sulphonic acid
tertiary amines by reacting with (c) ethyl oxalate
(a) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH (d) acetyl chloride
(b) Methyl iodide 66. The reaction,
(c) Chloroform alone C6H5NH2+ ClCOC6H5 o C6H5NHCOC6H5 is called:
(d) Zinc dust (a) Friedel-crafts reaction
54. Which of the following is not correct ? (b) Claisen condensation
(a) Ethyl amine and aniline both have – NH2 group (c) Benzoylation or Schotten Baumann reaction
(b) Ethyl amine and aniline dissolve in HCl (d) None of these
(c) Ethyl amine and aniline both react with CHCl3 and 67. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
KOH to form unpleasant smelling compound aniline?
(d) Ethyl amine and aniline both react with HNO2 in cold (a) It is less basic than ethylamine
to give hydroxy compounds (b) It can be steam-distilled
55. Hinsberg reagent is (c) It reacts with sodium to give hydrogen
(a) C6H5SO3H (b) C6H5NO (d) It is soluble in water
(c) C6H5SO2Cl (d) C6H5N2Cl 68. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following
56. Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is equation:
(a) substitution (b) addition C6 H5 CH 2 NH 2 R – X o C 6 H5CH 2 NHR
(c) condensation (d) polymerization
Which of the following alkylhalides is best suited for this
57. The amine that does not react with acetyl chloride is
reaction through SN1 mechanism?
(a) CH3NH2 (b) (CH3)2NH (a) CH3Br (b) C6H5Br
(c) (CH3)3N (d) None of these (c) C6H5CH2Br (d) C2H5Br
58. Which of the following compounds cannot be identified
69. The product of the following reaction is _________.
by carbylamine test?
NHCOCH3
(a) CH3CH2NH2 (b) CHCl3
(c) C6H5NH2 (d) C6H5–NH–C6H5
59. (CH3)2CHNH2 is reacted with excess acetic anhydride, the + Br2/CH3COOH
o
compound formed is
NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
(a) (CH3)2CHNCOCH3 (b) (CH3)2CN(COCH3)2
(c) (CH3)2CHOH (d) (CH3)2CN(COOCH3)2 Br
(i) (ii)
60. In order to distinguish between C2H5–NH2 and C6H5–NH2,
which of the following reagent is useful
(a) Hinsberg’s reagent (b) HNO2 Br
(c) CHCl3 + KOH (d) NaOH NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
61. All three amines 1°, 2°, 3° react with Br Br
1. H2O 2. R–X (iii) (iv)
3. HCl 4. (CH3CO)2O Br
(a) 1, 2 (b) 4 only Br
(c) 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
62. –NH2 group in aniline is (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(a) only o-directing (b) only p-directing 70. Aniline and other arylamines are usually colourless but
(c) only m-directing (d) o-and p-directing get coloured on storage due to___________.
63. Strong activating effect of –NH2 group is reduced by using (a) hydrolysis (b) dehydration
(a) CH3COCl (b) CH3Cl (c) reduction (d) atmospheric oxidation
(c) CH3ONa (d) CH3–CHO 71. The acylation reaction of amines is carried out in presence
64. When bromination of aniline is carried out by protecting of pyridine because
–NH2. The product is (i) pyridine is stronger base than amine.
(a) o-bromoaniline (ii) pyridine is weaker base than amine.
(b) 2, 4, 6 tribromoaniline (iii) pyridine removes HCl formed and shifts the equilibrium
(c) p-bromoaniline to the right hand side.
(d) mixture of o-and p-bromoaniline (iv) pyridine removes HCl formed and shifts the equilibrium
65. Hinsberg’s method to separate amines is based on the to the left hand side.
use of (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(a) benzene sulphonyl chloride (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)

$0,1(6 213
72. N– ethyl benzene sulphonyl amide is strongly acidic and 81. In the chemical reactions,
soluble in alkali due to presence of
NH2
(a) strong electron donating sulphonyl group.
(b) strong electron withdrawing sulphonyl group. NaNO2 HBF 4
HCl, 278 K
A B
(c) weak electron donating sulphonyl group.
(d) weak electron withdrawing sulphonyl group. the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are
73. Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic (a) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
strength? (b) phenol and benzene
p–nitroaniline(1); m–nitroaniline (2); 2,6–trimethylaniline(3); (c) benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
3–methylanline(4). (d) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 82. In the chemical reactions :
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3
NH 2
NH2
NaNO CuCN
NaNO /HCl CuBr 2 o A o B,
2

o (P) o (Q)
74. HCl, 278K '
0q C HBr
The compound Q is – the compounds A and B respectively are :

(a) bromobenzene (b) chlorobenzene (a) benzene diazonium chloride and benzonitrile
(c) benzyl bromide (d) benzyl chloride (b) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
75. Diazonium salt is obtained when aniline reacts with : (c) phenol and bromobenzene
(a) cold NaOH (b) NaNO2 and HCl (0–5°C) (d) fluorobenzene and phenol
(c) SnCl2 at 10°C (d) N2O at (0 – 5°C) 83. Replacement of N 2 Cl from benzene diazonium chloride
76. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and
by iodine can be done by using
(a) diazonium chloride (b) o-nitroaniline
(a) HI (b) NaOI
(c) benzoic acid (d) chlorobenzene (c) PI3 (d) KI
77. In the reaction sequence 84. Product of the following reaction is
NH2 C6H5–N2Cl+C6H5–NH2 o
NaNO ,HCl
2 CuCN
4 o C, LiAlH NH2
o A
o B
0q C
N=N
the product ‘C’ is:
(a)
(a) benzonitrile (b) benzaldehyde
(c) benzoic acid (d) benzylamine
– NH2
N2+Cl Cl
Conc. HCl + N2 N=N

78. Cu2Cl2
o
(b)
Chlorobenzene
Above reaction is known as:

(a) Strecker's reaction (b) Sandmeyer's reaction N=N NH2
(c) Wohl-Ziegler reaction (d) Stephen's reaction
(c)
79. Which of the following reagents will convert
p-methylbenzenediazonium chloride into p-cresol?
(a) Cu powder (b) H2O NH2
(c) H3PO2 (d) C6H5OH
80. When phenol and benzene diazonium chloride are coupled, N=N
the main product is :
(a) aniline (b) p-hydroxyazobenzene (d)
NH2
(c) azobenzene (d) chlorobenzene

214 $0,1(6
85. Which of the following are intermediates in Sandmeyer (iii) The angle C–N–C or C–N–H is slightly more than
reaction ? 109.5°.
(i) C6 H 5 N { NCl (ii) C6 H5 N { N (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
< (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
(iii) C 6 H 5 (iv) C6H5Cl 94. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (i) Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in water.
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (ii) Solubility increases with decrease in molar mass of
86. In the diazotization of arylamines with sodium nitrite and amines.
hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is used (iii) Higher amines are insoluble in water.
primarily to (iv) Amines are soluble in organic solvents.
(a) Supress the concentration of free aniline available for (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
coupling (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(b) Supress hydrolysis of phenol 95 Which of the following statements are correct ?
(c) Ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid (i) Primary amines show more intermolecular association
(d) Neutralise the base liberated than secondary amines.
87. Which of the following reagent can be used to convert (ii) Tertiary amines do not show intermolecular
benzenediazonium chloride into benzene? association.
(a) CH3OH (b) H3PO2 (iii) Boiling points of isomeric alkenes follow the order
(c) Br2–H2O (d) LiAlH4 3° > 2° > 1°
88. When benzenediazonium chloride in hydrochloric acid (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
reacts with cuprous chloride, then chlorobenzene is formed. (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
The reaction is called 96. Which of the following is/are correct regarding nitration of
(a) Gattermann reaction (b) Perkin reaction aniline with conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 ?
(c) Etard reaction (d) Sandmeyer reaction
NH2 NH2 NH2
Cu/HCl
89. The reaction ArN 2Cl – o ArCl N 2 CuCl is NO2
conc. HNO
3
named as _________ . (i) o +
conc. H 2SO4
(a) Sandmeyer reaction (b) Gatterman reaction
(c) Claisen reaction (d) Carbylamine reaction NO2
90. Which of the following compound will not undergo azo
coupling reaction with benzene diazonium chloride. + +
(a) Aniline (b) Phenol NH3 NH3
(c) Anisole (d) Nitrobenzene
91. Which of the following cannot be prepared by Sandmeyer’s (ii)
o
reaction? NO2
(i) Chlorobenzene (ii) Bromobenzene
(iii) The substitution can be explained on the basis of
(iii) Iodobenzene (iv) Fluorobenzene
inductive effect (– I)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(iv) The substitution can be influenced by +M and +E
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) effects.
92. The reagents that can be used to convert benzenediazonium (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
chloride to benzene are _________. (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
(i) SnCl2/HCl (ii) CH3CH2OH 97. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(iii) H3PO2 (iv) LiAlH4 (i) In Sandmeyer reaction nucleophiles like Cl–, Br– and
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) CN– are indroduced in benzene ring in the presence of
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii) Cu+ ion
(ii) In Gattermann reaction nucleophiles are introduced in
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216 benzene ring in the presence of copper powder and
HCl.
93. Read the following statements and choose the correct (iii) The yield in Gattermann reaction is found to be better
option. than Sandmayer reaction.
(i) Nitrogen atom in amines is sp3-hybridised. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(ii) The geometry of amines is pyramidal. (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)

$0,1(6 215
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 (a) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)

(b) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
(c) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
Column-I Column-II
(d) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(A) Gabriel phthalimide (p) C6H5CH2NH2
reaction $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(B) Reduction with (q) C6H5NH2
LiAlH4 Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
(C) Reaction with (r) C6H5CN Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
alc. KOH + CHCl3 alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(D) 1° Amide with (s) CH3CH2NH2
Br2 + KOH (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
(a) A – (p, s); B – (p, s); C – (p, q, s); D – (p, q, s)
(b) A – (s); B – (p); C – (q); D – (p, q) (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
(c) A – (p, s); B – (r); C – (q); D – (s)
(d) A – (p, q); B – (p); C – (p, q); D – (s) (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
99. Match the columns (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Column-I Column-II 102. Assertion : Aromatic 1°amines can be prepared by Gabriel
(A) Ammonolysis (p) Amine with lesser number phthalimide synthesis.
of carbon atoms Reason : Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution
(B) Gabriel phthalimide (q) Detection test for primary with anion formed by phthalimide.
synthesis amines. 103. Assertion : Only a small amount of HCl is required in the
(C) Hoffmann bromamide (r) Reaction of Phthalimide reduction of nitro compounds with iron scrap and HCl in
the presence of steam.
reaction with KOH and R–X
(D) Carbylamine reaction (s) Reaction of alkylhalides Reason : FeCl2 formed gets hydrolysed to release HCl
during the reaction.
with NH3
(a) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q) 104. Assertion : Amines are basic in nature.
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s) Reason : Amines have lone pair of electrons on nitrogen
(c) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p) atom.
(d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r) 105. Assertion : Acetanilide is less basic than aniline.
100. Match the columns Reason : Acetylation of aniline results in decrease of
Column-I Column-II electron density on nitrogen.
(A) Benzene sulphonyl (p) Zwitter ion 106. Assertion : Nitration of aniline can be conveniently done
chloride by protecting the amino group by acetylation.
(B) Sulphanilic acid (q) Hinsberg reagent Reason : Acetylation increases the electron-density in the
(C) Alkyl diazonium salts (r) Dyes benzene ring.
(D) Aryl diazonium salts (s) Conversion to alcohols 107. Assertoin : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
(a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p) reaction.
(b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) Reason : –NH2 group of aniline reacts with AlCl3 (Lewis
acid) to give acid-base reaction.
(c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
(d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q) 108. Assertion : Acylation of amines gives a monosubstituted
product whereas alkylation of amines gives
polysubstituted product.
Column-I Column-II
Reason : Acyl group sterically hinders the approach of
(A) ArN 2 Cl
o ArOH (p) HBF4 / NaNO 2 further acyl groups
(B) ArN 2 Cl
o ArNO 2 (q) H2O 109. Assertion : Nitrating mixture used for carrying out nitration
of benzene consists of conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4.
(C) ArN2 Cl
o ArH (r) HBF4
Reason : In presence of H2SO4, HNO3 acts as a base and
(D) ArN 2 Cl
o ArF (s) CH3CH2OH produces NO2+ ions.

216 $0,1(6
118. What is the decreasing order of basicity of primary,
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
secondary and tertiary ethylamines and NH3 ?
110. The IUPAC name of diethyl isopropyl amine is (a) NH3 ! C2H5 NH 2 ! (C 2 H5 )2 NH ! (C2H5 )3N
(a) N, N-diethylpropan-2-amine
(b) N, N-diethylpropan-1-amine (b) (C2 H 5 )3 N ! (C2 H 5 )2 NH ! C2 H5 NH 2 ! NH 3
(c) N, N-diethylisopropylamine (c) (C2 H 5 )2 NH ! C2 H 5 NH 2 ! (C 2 H 5 )3 N ! NH 3
(d) N, N-diethylaminopropane (d) (C2H5)2 NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3 NH > NH3
111. IUPAC name of the following compound is 119. The correct order of the increasing basicity of methyl amine,
ammonia and aniline is
NH2 (a) methyl amine < aniline < ammonia
Cl (b) aniline < ammonia < methyl amine
(a) 2-chloro pentanamine (c) aniline < methyl amine < ammonia
(b) 4-chloro pentan-1-amine (d) ammonia < aniline < methyl amine
(c) 4-chloro pent-2-en-1-amine 120. Arrange the following amines in the decreasing order of
(d) 2-chloro pent-3-en-5-amine their basicity
112. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the
compound ? NH2
N (CH 3 ) 2 (1) (2)

NH2
CH2 – CH2 – NH2

Cl
Cl (3)
(a) 1, 2-dichloro-4-(N, N-dimethyl) aniline

(b) Dimethyl – (3, 4-dichlorophenyl) amine (a) 1 > 3 > 2 (b) 3 > 2 > 1
(c) 3, 4-dichloro - N, N-dimethyl aniline (c) 1 > 2 > 3 (d) 2 > 1 > 3
(d) N, N-dimethylamino - 3, 4-dichlorobenzene
113. Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. 121. 3 2 (CH CO) O,Pyridine
NH2 o
Which one of these would yield methylamine?
(a) NaOH – Br2 (b) Sodalime (I)
(c) Hot conc. H 2SO4 (d) PCl5
(i) LiAlH
4 o III
114. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide (II)
(ii) H2O
synthesis is
(a) aniline (b) benzylamine The basicity order of I, II and III is –
(c) methylamine (d) iso-butylamine (a) III > I > II (b) I > II > III
115. A primary amine is formed by an amide on treatment with (c) III > II > I (d) II > III > I
bromine and alkali. The primary amine has
122. Which of the statement is true regarding the basicity of the
(a) 1 carbon atom less than amide
following two primary amines ?
(b) 1 carbon atom more than amide
(c) 1 hydrogen atom less than amide CH2NH2 CH2NH2
(d) 1 hydrogen atom more than amide
116. High basicity of Me 2 NH relative to Me3N is attributed to:
(a) effect of solvent (b) inductive effect of Me I II
(c) shape of Me2NH (d) shape of Me3N
(a) Both are equally basic because both are 1º amines
117. Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous
(b) I > II because it is an aromatic amine
solution ?
(a) Methylamine (b) Trimethylamine (c) II > I because it is an aliphatic amine
(c) Aniline (d) Dimethylamine (d) I < II because of difference in the nature of E-carbon

$0,1(6 217
123. The correct order of decreasing basic character is
NO2 NO2
C 6 H 5 NH 2 C 6 H 5CH 2 NH 2
, ,
I II
(c) (d)
C6 H5 2 NH , C 6 H11 NH 2
III IV NO2
(a) II > I > III > IV (b) IV > II > I > III NO2
(c) IV > III > II > I (d) IV > II > III > I
124. Aniline when treated with conc. HNO3 gives NH2
(a) p-Phenylenediamine (b) m-Nitroaniline
(c) p-Benzoquinone (d) Nitrobenzene 128. 3 CH COCl
2 Br H O
2 o B
3 oC H O

o A
125. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the
following compounds is __________.
C (major product) is –
NH2 NH2 NH2
NH2 NH2
Br
(a) (b)
NO2 CH3 Br
(I) (II) (III)
NH2
(a) II < III < I (b) III < I < II
(c) III < II < I (d) II < I < III (c) (d) None of these
126. Which of the following compounds is most basic?
Br
(a) O2N NH2
129. Towards electrophilic substitution, the most reactive will
be
(b) CH2NH2 (a) Nitrobenzene
(b) Aniline
(c) Aniline hydrochloride
(c) N – COCH3 (d) N-Acetylaniline
H 130. The most reactive amine towards dilute hydrochloric acid
is _________ .
(d) NH2 H3C
(a) CH3–NH2 (b) NH
H3C
NH2
NH2
127. (CH 3CO) 2 O HNO 3 H H3C

o ( X )
o (Y )
o (Z ) N–CH3
H 2SO 4 H 2O (c) (d)
H3C
Product Z of the reaction
131. Nitration of nitrobenzence is carried out than obtained
NH2 NH2 product is reduced with Fe/HCl, product so formed on
reaction with HNO2 and than with H2O, forms
(a) 1,3–dihydroxybenzene
(a) (b)
(b) 3–nitrophenol
NO2
(c) 2– nitrophenol
NO2
(d) 1,2–dihydroxybenzene

218 $0,1(6
132. A compound of molecular formulae C3H6N shows following The structure of C would be :
characteristics
(i) Get dissolved in acidic medium. (a) – N = N – CH2– N –
(ii) Does not react with benzoylchloride CH3
(iii) Does not give carbylamine test
(iv) Does not evolute nitrogen gas on reacting with HNO2 CH3 CH3
than structure of the compound is
–N=N–
(a) trimethylamine (b) isopropylamine (b)
(c) propylamine (d) None of these
133. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained. CH3
– NH – NH – –N
CH 3 (c) CH3
NH2 –N
NaNO2 CH3
B C CH3
HCl Cold
(d) –N=N– –N
A CH3

$0,1(6 219
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 14. (c) C2 H5I NH3

o C2 H5 NH 2 HI
Ethyl
1. (c) RNH 2 R 2 NH R3N iodide
Primary amine Secondary amine Tertiary amine C 2 H 5 OH NH 3
o C 2 H 5 NH 2 H 2 O
2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d)
5. (c) 1° amines have –NH2 group in their structure. 4 primary 17. (d) For the preparation of Me3CNH2, the required alkyl
amines are possible by C4H11N. halide is Me3CX which will react with potassium
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 phthalimide, a strong base, to form alkene rather than
(i) substituted product. For preparing C6H5NH2, C6H5Cl
CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 3 will be the starting halide in which Cl is non-reactive.
| 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
NH 2
21. (d) Reduction with iron scrap and hydrochloric acid is
(ii) preferred because FeCl2 formed gets hydrolysed to
CH3 CH3 release hydrochloric acid during the reaction. Thus,
| |
CH3 C CH3 only a small amount of hydrochloric acid is required
CH3 C CH 2 NH 2
| | to initiate the reaction.
H NH 2 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a)
(iii) (iv) 25. (b) Amines possess fishy smell.
6. (b) The compound contains longest chain of 6C atoms 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b)
and amino group. Hence it is an alkanamine. 29. (b) Basic nature of amines arises due to presence of lone
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) pair of e–1s on the N-atom, which can be shared with
10. (c) CH3NC (methyl isocyanide) on reduction with LiAlH4 an electron deficient species.
gives secondary amine 30. (a)
O 31. (a) Secondary amine is more basic than primary amine.
||
11. (b) CH 3 CH 2 C NH 2 Br2 KOH 32. (d) Amines are basic in nature
' <<

o CH3 CH 2 NH 2 33. (b) (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2 NH < C2H5NH2
4[H] 34. (a)
12. (d) RN{C o RNH CH3
alkyl isocyanide secondary amine 35. (a) Secondary amines are more basic than tertiary amines
O O due to stabilisation of 2° amine by hydrogen bonding
with solvent molecule.
KOH –+
13. (c) NK 36. (c) Aliphatic amines are more basic than aromatic amines.
NH
Resonance decreases the basic character due to
delocalisation of shared pair of electrons on nitrogen
O O within benzene nucleus
Phthalimide N-Potassium phthalimide 37. (b) Basic character of amines is
(a nucleophile)
2° > 1 ° > 3° > NH3
O
RX / DMF RNH 2 38. (b) CH2–NH2 compound is most basic due

NR
SN 2 rxn
to localized lone pair of electron on nitrogen atom while
O other compounds have delocalized lone pair of electron.
N-alkyl phthalimide 39 (c) 40. (a) 41. (b)
O 42. (d) Amines give alcohols only on reaction with HNO2
and not on hydrolysis.
OH
+ H2NR 43. (b) Aniline gives dyes on coupling reaction with phenols
OH Primary and p-amines.
amine 44. (c) Aryl amines do not produce phenol on treatment with
O
Phthalic acid
nitrous acid

220 $0,1(6
45. (c) Methyl amine is a stronger base than ammonia due to 54. (d) Nitrous acid reacts differently with aliphatic and
+I effect. The alkyl groups which are electron releasing aromatic amines in cold.
groups increase the electron density around the
C2 H5 NH 2 HONO
o C2 H5OH N 2
nitrogen thereby increasing the availability of the lone 1q Amine Alcohol
pair of electrons to proton or lewis acid and making
the amine more basic

NH3 CH3NH2 NH 2 N N
Kb = 1.8 × 10–5 44 × 10–5
+ Cold
46. (a) Any primary amine means both aliphatic as well as HONO o Cl
aromatic but monoalkylamines means only 1° aliphatic n
amines. Therefore, option (a) is correct while (d) is (NaNO 2 HCl) Benzene diazonium
wrong. chloride
RNH2+ CHCl3+ 3KOH

o RNC 3KCl 3H 2 O 55. (c)
alkyl
isocyanide NH2 OHC
47. (c) We know that
CH 3CH 2 NH 2 CHCl 3 3KOH o 56. (c) +
o N = CH
CH 3CH 2 NC 3KCl 3H 2O
In this reaction, bad smelling compound ethyl 57. (c) The compounds containing active H-atoms (H atoms
isocyanide (CH 3CH 2 NC) is produced. This equation attached to N, O or S) react with CH3COCl to form
acetyl derivatives.
is known as carbylamine reaction.
48. (a) Acylation occurs in one step only because lone pair 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (d)
of nitrogen is delocalized with acyl group. 63. (a) 64. (d)
65. (a) Hinsberg’s method is based on the use of benzene
O O–
.. sulphonyl chloride.
R – NH – C – CH 3 R – NH – C – CH 3 66. (c) The inclusion of C6H5CO gp.in a molecule is called
benzoylation
49. (d) R – NH2 + CHCl3 alc. KOH –
o R N { C 67. (d) Aniline is insoluble in water, because its –NH2 group
can’t form H- bond with water due to bulky phenyl
group.
NH2 + CHCl3
68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (d)
71. (a) Pyridine is a stronger base than the amine, pyridine
+ – removes HCl formed in acylation reaction of amines
alc. KOH N{C
o and shifts the equilibrium to the right hand side.
72. (b) The hydrogen attached to nitrogen in sulphonamide
HNO2 is strongly acidic due to the presence of strong
50. (b) RNH2
o ROH + H2O + N2 n
electron withdrawing sulphonyl group. Hence, it is
(A) (B) (C)
soluble in alkali.
51. (c) Since the organic amino compound on reaction with
nitrous acid at low temperature produces an oily 73. (d) In case of substituted aniline, electron releasing groups
nitrosoamine so the organic amino compound is a like –OCH3, –CH3 increase basic strength whereas
secondary aliphatic amines. electron withdrawing groups like –NO2 , –SO3H,
–COOH, –X decrease it.
273278K
52. (a) C 2 H 5 NH 2 + HNO 2
o
Ethyl amine Nitrous acid .. –
NH2 N { NCl
C2 H5OH + N2 + H2O
Ethanol 74. (a) 2 NaNO /HCl

o
Note : This reaction is used as a test for aliphatic amines 0qC
Diazotisation
since no other class of amines liberates N2 gas on
treatment with HNO2. Br
53. (a) 1° amines (aliphatic and aromatic) react with
CHCl3/KOH to yield isocyanide (foul smelling) This is CuBr/HBr

o
known as carbylamine test which is not given by 2° Sandmeyer reaction
and 3° amines.

$0,1(6 221

81. (c) Primary aromatic amines react with nitrous acid to
NH2 N2 Cl yield arene diazonium salts.
cold
NaNO2 ,HCl
ArNH2 + NaNO2 + 2HX
o
75. (b) ¶¶¶¶¶l 1° Aromatic amine
(05nC) Ar—N = N+X– + NaX + 2H2O
aniline diazonium Arene diazonium salt
chloride The diazonium group can be replaced by fluorine by
treating the diazonium salt with fluoroboric acid
76. (a) Azo dye is prepared by diazo coupling reaction of
(HBF4). The precipitated diazonium fluoroborate is
phenol with diazonium salt.
isolated, dried and heated until decomposition occurs
N+2Cl
– to yield the aryl fluoride. This reaction is known as
OH Balz-Schiemann reaction.
HBF heat
Ar—N2+X– o
4 Ar—N2+BF4–p o
+ N=N
Ar—F + BF3 + N2
Benzene NH 2 + –
diazonium
p–hydroxyazobenzene N 2 Cl
chloride
(– N = N –) group is called azo – group. 82. (a) NaNO2 CuCN

HCl, 278K
+
NH2 N{NCl Diazotization Benzene diazonium
chloride
77. (d) NaNO2 ,HCl CuCN (A)
C {N
0°C
Aniline (diazotisation) (A)
benzene
diazonium
chloride Benzonitrile
(B)
Sandmeyer reaction
83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (a)
86. (a) Excess of HCl is used to convert free aniline to aniline
hydrochloride otherwise free aniline would undergo
coupling reaction with benzenediazonium chloride.
87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d) 91. (b)
92. (b)
78. (b) The given reaction is known as Sandmeyer’s reaction. 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
–
N2+Cl OH 93. (b) The fourth orbital of nitrogen in all amines contains an
unshared pair of electrons. Due to the presence of
H O
unshared pair of electrons, the angle C–N–E, (where E
79. (b) 2o + N2+HCl is C or H) is less than 109.5°.
94. (b) Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in water solubility
decreases with increase in molar mass of amines.
CH3 CH3
p- cresol
Higher amines are essentially insoluble in water.
95. (b) Primary and secondary amines are engaged in
intermolecular association due to hydrogen bonding
+ – between nitrogen of one and hydrogen of another
80. (b) N NCl + OH
molecule. This intermolecular association is more in
Benzene diazonium chloride Phenol primary amines than in secondary amines as there are
two hydrogen atoms available for hydrogen bond
formation in it. Tertiary amines do not have

o N= N OH intermolecular association due to the absence of
hydrogen atom available for h ydrogen bond
p-Hydroxyazobenzene formation. Therefore, the order of boiling points of
(orange dye)
isomeric amines is as follows :
Primary > Secondary > Tertiary

222 $0,1(6
96. (b) 115. (a) The reaction is Hoffmann bromamide reaction
97. (a) The yield in Sandmayer reaction is found to be better O
than Gattermann reaction. ||
R C NH 2 Br2 4NaOH
o
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
R NH 2 2NaBr Na 2CO3 2H 2O
98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (b) 101. (c)
O
R – NH2 contains one carbon less than ||
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 R C NH 2
102. (a) 103. (d) 116. (a) Secondary amines are more basic than tertiary amines
104. (a) Amines are basic due to the presence of a lone pair of due to stabilisation of 2° amine by hydrogen bonding
electrons on nitrogen atom. The lone pair can be easily with solvent molecule.
donated. 117. (d) Aromatic amines are less basic than aliphatic amines.
Among aliphatic amines the order of basicity is
105. (d)
2° > 1° > 3°. The electron density is decreased in 3°
106. (c) Acetylation decreases the electron-density in the amine due to crowding of alkyl group over N atom
benzene ring thereby preventing oxidation. which makes the approach and bonding by a proton
107. (a) 108. (c) relatively difficult. Therefore the basicity decreases.
Further Phenyl group show – I effect, thus decreases
109. (a) HNO3 2H 2SO4 2HSO4 NO2 H3O the electron density on nitrogen atom and hence the
basicity.
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 ? dimethylamine (2° aliphatic amine) is strongest base
among given choices.
CH3 ? The correct order of basic strength is
110. (a) C2H5
Dimethylamine > Methyl amine > Trimethyl amine >
HC – N
Aniline.
CH3 C2H5
118. (d) All aliphatic amines are stronger bases than NH3 and
among different ethylamines order of basictity is
N, N- diethyl propan - 2-amine
2° > 1° > 3°. Thus, the correct order is (d) i.e.,
111. (c) (C2H5)2 NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > NH3
112. (c) The compound is derivative of aniline. The positions This anomolous behaviour of tertiary ethyl amine is
of groups are shown by numbering the nuclear C- due to steric factors i.e., crowding of alkyl groups cover
atoms. nitrogen atom from all sides and thus makes the
approach and bonding by a lewis acid relatively
NaOH
113. (a) CH3CONH2 o CH3 NH 2 difficult which results the maximum steric strain in
Br2
tertiary amines. The electrons are there but the path is
(Hofmann bromamide reaction) blocked resulting the reduction in its basicity.
114. (a) Aniline cannot be prepared by this method because 119. (b) In aniline the lone pair on N is involved in delocalization
aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with benzene ring and is not available for protonation.
with potassium phthalimide under ordinary conditions Methyl amine is a stronger base than ammonia because
to give N-phenyl phthalimide (i.e., cleavage of C–X +I effect of methyl group increases electron density
bond in haloarenes is quite difficult). on N making it more basic than NH3.

CO alc CO NH 2 NH 2
KOH
NH N+K–
CO CO
CO
RX
'
N–R Cannot be protonated. least basic
CO
' H+/H2O CH3 o– NH 2
I Effect increases
COOH basicity.
+ RNH2
COOH 120. (a)

$0,1(6 223
125. (d)
121. (a) 3 2 (CH CO) O,Pyridine
NH2 o
126. (b) CH2–NH2 compound is most basic due
(I)
4o (i) LiAlH to localized lone pair of electron on nitrogen atom while
NH – C – CH3 other compounds have delocalized lone pair of electron.
(ii) H 2 O
(II) O NH2 NH – CO – CH3
NH – CH2 – CH3 (CH CO) O

127. (b) 3 2 o

(III)
Product (II) is NH – C – CH3 and (III) is

NH – CO – CH3
O
(II)
HNO
3o

NH – CH2 – CH3 H2SO4
(III) NO2
?III > I > II, As + I effect increases the basic strength +
and – R, – I effect shown by – COCH3 reduces the H3O
basic strength.
122. (d) Here again the two amines differ in the nature of
E-carbon atom NH2
E CH2NH2 E CH2NH2
3 2
sp C > sp C
II I
123. (b) Greater the delocalisation of electron pair on N, lesser
is its availability for protonation leading to lesser basic NO2
NH2
character.
.. H
: NH2 CH2NH2 :NH2 :N CH COCl
128. (c) 3

o
> > >
IV II I III O O
Delocalisation not Delocalisation not Delocalisation possible, more
possible, cyclohexyl gp. possible, phenyl gp. is
in III than in I. Further C6H 5– gp. is NH – C – CH3
is electron-releasing electron-withdrawing NH – C – CH3
electron-withdrawing
124. (b) Although – NH2 group is o,p - directing but in
presence of conc. HNO3 it undergoes protonation to Br H O
2 2 o

form – N H3 which, being electron - deficient, becomes
m- directing. Br
+
: NH2 NH3
(A) (B)
conc. HNO3 conc. HNO3
NH2
– NH2 group is – NH+ group is
3
o, p - directing m - directing H O
3 o

+
N H3
Br
(C)
NO2
Protonated
m - nitroaniline

224 $0,1(6
.. 131. (b)
NO2 NH2
129. (b) NO2 NO2 NO2
HNO3 Fe/HCl
H2SO4
NO2 NH2
nitrobenzene Aniline
O HNO2
+ – ..
NH3Cl H–N–C–CH3
NO2 NO2
–N2
H2 O + –
Aniline hydrochloride N- Acetylaniline OH N2Cl
Nitrobenzene and aniline hydrochloride have electron- 132. (a) It is a tertiary amine hence shows above observations.
133. (d) The reaction can be completed as follows:
withdrawing (–NO2 and – N H3 ) groups, hence these
NH2
will undergo electrophilic substitution with difficulty. NaNO2 /HCl CH3
Aniline and N– acetylaniline (acetanilide) have N2Cl + N
(diazotisation) CH3
electron– releasing groups, however –NHCOCH3 is ‘A’ ‘B’ N, N-dimethylaniline
less electron- releasing than – NH 2 due to (Aniline) Benzene
delocalisation of lone pair of electron on N toward diazonium chloride
cold
carbonyl group. Hence aniline (having – NH2) will
undergo electrophilic substitution most easily. CH3
N =N N
130. (b) CH3
‘C’
p-dimethylaminoazobenzene

14
BIOMOLECULES
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 11. Reducing sugars reduce.

(a) only Fehling’s solution
1. Biomolecules are (b) only Tollen’s solution.
(a) aldehydes and ketones (c) both (a) & (b)
(b) acids and esters (d) neither (a) nor (b)
(c) carbohydrates, proteins and fats 12. Which among the following is the simplest sugar?
(d) alcohols and phenols (a) Glucose (b) Starch
2. Which of the following is a disaccharide ? (c) Cellulose (d) None of these
(a) Lactose (b) Starch 13. Glucose can’t be classified as
(c) Cellulose (d) Fructose
(a) hexose (b) carbohydrate
3. The sugar that is characteristic of milk is
(c) aldose (d) oligosaccharide
(a) maltose (b) ribose
14. Which of the following properties of glucose cannot be
(c) lactose (d) galactose explained by its open chain structure?
4. Which one is a disaccharide ?
(i) Glucose does not form hydrogen sulphite with NaHSO3
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(ii) On oxidation with HNO3 glucose gives saccharic acid.
(c) Xylose (d) Sucrose
(iii) Glucose is found to exist in two different crystalline
5. Which of the following monosaccharide is pentose ? forms which are named as D and E.
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose (a) (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) Arabinose (d) Galactose
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
6. The commonest disaccharide has the molecular formula
15. Which of the following gives positive Fehling solution test?
(a) C10 H18 O9 (b) C10 H20 O10
(a) Protein (b) Sucrose
(c) C18 H22 O11 (d) C12 H22 O11
(c) Glucose (d) Fats
7. Monosaccharides usually contains ... carbon atoms.
16. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
(a) C3 to C10 (b) C1 to C6
glucose?
(c) C4 to C10 (d) C5 to C8
(a) It is an aldohexose.
8. Which one of th e following compounds is found
(b) It is also known as dextrose
abudnantly in nature?
(c) It is monomer of cellulose.
(a) Fructose (b) Starch
(d) It is the least abundant organic compound on earth.
(c) Glucose (d) Cellulose
17. Glucose gives silver mirror test with Tollen’s reagent. It
9. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed into simpler
units is called shows the presence of
(a) polysaccharides (b) trisaccharides (a) acidic group (b) alcoholic group
(c) disachharides (d) monosaccharides (c) ketonic group (d) aldehyde group
10. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? 18. The symbols D and L represents
(a) Maltose gives two molecules of glucose only. (a) the optical activity of compounds.
(b) Cellulose and sucrose are polysaccharide. (b) the relative configuration of a particular stereoisomer.
(c) Polysaccharides are not sweet in taste. (c) the dextrorotatory nature of molecule.
(d) Polysaccharides are also known as non-sugars. (d) the levorotatory nature of molecule

226 %,202/(&8/(6
19. Glucose is found to exist in two different D and E crystalline 31. A solution of D-glucose in water rotates the plane polarised
forms. These forms can be obtained by. light
(i) The D form of glucose is obtained by crystallisation (a) to the right (b) to the left
from concentrated solution of glucose at 303 K. (c) to either side (d) None of these
(ii) The E form of glucose is obtained by crystallisation 32. The number of chiral carbon atoms present in cyclic
from concentrated solution of glucose at 303 K. structure D-D(+) glucose
(iii) The E form is obtained by crystallisation from hot and (a) 3 (b) 4
saturated aqueous solution at 371 K. (c) 5 (d) 6
(iv) The D form is obtained by crystallisation from hot and 33. The D-D glucose and E-D glucose differ from each other
saturated aqueous solution at 371 K. due to difference in carbon atom with respect to its
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (a) conformation (b) configuration
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) only (c) number of OH groups (d) size of hemiacetal ring
20. The function of glucose is to 34. The two forms of Dglucopyranose obtained from the
(a) provides energy (b) promote growth solution of Dglucose are called
(c) prevent diseases (d) perform all above (a) isomers (b) anomers
(c) epimers (d) enantiomers
21. Which one of the following compounds is different from
35. Which of the following carbohydrates are branched polymer
the rest?
of glucose?
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose
(i) Amylose (ii) Amylopectin
(c) Lactose (d) Glucose
(iii) Cellulose (iv) Glycogen
22. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
are: (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(a) – CHO and – COOH (b) > C = O and – OH 36. The number of chiral carbon atoms present in cyclic
(c) – OH and – CHO (d) – OH and – COOH structure D-D(+) glucose
23. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product (a) 3 (b) 4
is (c) 6 (d) 5
(a) gluconic acid (b) glyceraldehyde 37. Which of the following reagent cannot distinguish between
(c) saccharic acid (d) acetic acid glucose and fructose?
24. Glucose does not react with (a) Fehling’s solution (b) Tollen’s reagent
(a) Br2/H2O (b) H2NOH (c) Benedict’s solution (d) All of these
(c) HI (d) NaHSO3 38. Maltose and glucose are
25. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form (a) oxidising sugar
(a) monoacetate (b) tetra-acetate (b) reducing sugar
(c) penta-acetate (d) hexa-acetate (c) first is oxidising and second is reducing sugar
26. Reduction of glucose by HI suggest that (d) both are non-reducing sugar
(a) presence of OH groups 39. Choose the correct relationship for glucose and fructose
(b) presence of –CHO group (a) these are functional isomers
(c) cyclic structure of glucose (b) these are chain isomers
(d) six carbon atoms are arranged in straight chain (c) these are position isomers
27. The reaction of glucose with red P + HI is called (d) All of these
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction (b) Reformatsky reaction 40. The pair of compounds in which both the compounds give
positive test with Tollen’s reagent is
(c) Gattermann’s reaction (d) Reduction
(a) Glucose and Sucrose
28. Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained
(b) Fructose and Sucrose
only by its cyclic structure?
(c) Acetophenone and Hexanal
(a) Glucose forms pentaacetate
(d) Glucose and Fructose
(b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime 41. The letter D and L in carbohydrates represent
(c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with (a) its optical rotation (b) its mutarotation
hydroxylamine (c) its direct synthesis (d) its configuration
(d) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic acid 42. Which of the following statement is correct about fructose?
29. Which is the least stable form of glucose ? (a) It is dextrorotatory compound
(a) D-D-Glucose (b) E-D-Glucose (b) It exists in the two cyclic forms which is obtained by
(c) Open chain structure (d) All are equally stable the addition of OH at C-5 to the >C=O group
30. Isomerization of glucose produces (c) It exists as six membered ring
(a) galactose (b) fructose (d) It is named as furanose as it contain one oxygen and
(c) mannose (d) allose six carbon atom

%,202/(&8/(6 227
43. Fructose is (i) Ribose (ii) Glucose
(a) a hemiacetal (b) an acetal (iii) Fructose (iv) Galactose
(c) a hemiketal (d) a ketal (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
44. The sugar present in fruits is (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
(a) fructose (b) glucose 56. Invert sugar is
(c) sucrose (d) galactose (a) chemically inactive form of sugar
45. Three cyclic structures of monosaccharides are given below (b) equimolecular mixture of glucose and fructose
which of these are anomers (c) mixture of glucose and sucrose
(d) a variety of cane sugar
HO H 57. Which one of the followin g does not exhibit the
H OH HO H
HO H phenomenon of mutarotation ?
H OH H OH
O (a) (+) – Sucrose (b) (+) – Lactose
O HO O HO H
HO H H
H OH
(c) (+) – Maltose (d) (–) – Fructose
H OH H OH 58. Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of D-D-glucose units
HO H
H H in which chain is formed by C1–C4 glycosidic linkage
H
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH whereas branching occurs by the formation of C1-C6
(I) (II) (III) glycosidic linkage. Structure of glycogen is similar to
______.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (a) Amylose (b) Amylopectin
(c) I and III (d) III is anomer of I and II (c) Cellulose (d) Glucose
46. The sugar present in honey is 59. Which of the following correctly represents the cyclic
(a) sucrose (b) glucose structure of E–D–(–)– fructo furanose.
(c) fructose (d) maltose
47. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar? 12
(a) Sucrose (b) Glucose (a) HOH2C–C–OH
(c) Fructose (d) Maltose 3
HO——H O
48. Cellulose is a polymer of 4
H ——OH
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
5
(c) Ribose (d) Sucrose H 6
49. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives CH2OH
(a) fructose+ribose (b) glucose + fructose
(c) glucose+glucose (d) fructose + fructose
2 1
50. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon (b) HO–C–CH2OH
atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA? 3
(a) 1st (b) 2nd HO——H O
rd 4
(c) 3 (d) 4 th H——OH
51. Carbohydrates are stored in the body as 5
H
(a) sugars (b) starch 6
CH2OH
(c) glucose (d) glycogen
52. A carbohydrate insoluble in water is
(a) glucose (b) fructose 6 O 1
(c) cellulose (d) sucrose (c) HOH2C CH2OH
53. Which of the following carbohydrate does not correspond 5 2
to the general formula Cx(H2O)y ? H OH
H OH
(a) Glucose (b) 2-Deoxyribose 4 3
(c) Fructose (d) Arabinose
OH H
54. Lactose is made of
(a) D-D-glucose only
6 O
(b) D-D-glucose and E-D-glucose
(d) HOH2C OH
(c) D-D-galactose and E-D-glucose
5 2
(d) E-D-galactose and E-D-glucose H CH2OH
55. Which of the following monosaccharides are present as H OH 1
five membered cyclic structure (furanose structure)? 4 3
OH H

228 %,202/(&8/(6
60. Sucrose which is dextrorotatory in nature after hydrolysis 72. Which of the following is not an optically active amino
gives glucose and fructose, among which acid?
(i) Glucose is laevorotatory and fructose is dextrorotatory. (a) Valine (b) Glycine
(ii) Glucose is dextrorotatory and fructose is laevorotatory (c) Leucine (d) Arginine
(iii) The mixture is laevorotatory. 73. In aqueous solution, an amino acid exists as
(iv) Both are dextrorotatory. (a) cation (b) anion
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) dianion (d) zwitter ion
(b) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) only 74. Which one of the following statements is correct?
61. Chemically amylose is a _________ with 200–1000 (a) All amino acids except lysine are optically active
D-D-(+)-glucose units held by ______ glycosidic linkage (b) All amino acids are optically active
(a) long unbranched chain, C1– C6. (c) All amino acids except glycine are optically active
(b) branched chain, C1 – C4. (d) All amino acids except glutamic acids are optically
(c) long unbranched chain, C1– C4. active
(d) branched chain, C1– C6. 75. Amino acids generally exist in the form of Zwitter ions. This
62. Amylopectin is a ________ polymer of D-D-glucose units means they contain
in which chain is formed by _______ glycosidic linkage (a) basic—NH2 group and acidic —COOH group
whereas branching occurs by ________ glycosidic linkage.
(b) the basic— NH3 group and acidic —COO– group
(a) branched chain, C1– C6, C1– C4.
(b) branched chain, C1– C4, C1– C6. (c) basic—NH2 and acidic —H+ group

(c) unbranched chain, C1– C4, C1– C6. (d) basic–COO– group and acidic — N H 3 group
(d) unbranched chain, C1– C6, C1– C4. 76. Which of the following molecules is capable of forming
63. Which of the following is incorrect about cellulose? Zwitter ion?
(a) It is a major constituent of cell wall of plant cells. (a) NH2CH2COOH (b) CH3CH2NH2
(b) It is a branched chain disaccharide (c) CH3CH2COOH (d) All of these
(c) It is composed of only E-D-glucose units. 77. The structural feature which distinguishes proline from
(d) The glycosidic linkage between two units is found natural D-amino acids?
between C1 of one unit and C4 of next unit. (a) Proline is optically inactive
64. Which of the following is also known as animal starch? (b) Proline contains aromatic group
(a) Glycine (b) Glycogen (c) Proline is a dicarboxylic acid
(c) Amylose (d) Cellulose (d) Proline is a secondary amine
65. Select the uses of carbohydrates. 78. The linkage present in proteins and peptides is
(a) Honey is used as instant source of energy by vaids in
ayurvedic system of medicine O O
|| ||
(b) These are used as storage molecules (a) C NH (b) C O
(c) They are used in furniture, cotton fibre, lacquers
(d) All of the above O O
|| ||
66. The number of essential amino acids in man is (c) (d) – NH –
C O C
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 18 (d) 20 79. Which one of the following structures represents the
67. An acidic amino acid among the following is peptide chain?
(a) glycine (b) valine H O
(c) proline (d) leucine | | ||
(a) N C N C NH C NH
68. Amino acids are the building blocks of || | |
(a) fats (b) proteins O H
(c) vitamins (d) carbohydrates H H
69. Which one of the amino acids can be synthesised in the | | | | | | | |
body? (b) N C C C C N C C C
(a) Alanine (b) Lysine || | | | | | |
(c) Valine (d) Histidine O
70. One of essential D-amino acid is H H H O
(a) lysin (b) serine | | | | | | ||
(c) glycine (d) proline (c) N C C N C C N C C
| || | || |
71. Two functional group that are present in all amino acids are O O
the H O H
(a) hydroxy, amine (b) hydroxy, amide | | | || | | | | |
(c) carboxyl, amino (d) carboxyl, amide (d) N C C C N C C N C C C
| | | | | || | |
H O

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80. Simplest proteins has one peptide linkage. It is 93. Primary structure of a protein is
(a) tripeptide (b) dipeptide (a) sequence in which D-amino acid are linked to one
(c) tetrapeptide (d) oligopeptide another
81. A nanopeptide contain how many peptide bond (b) sequence in which amino acids of one polypeptide
(a) 7 (b) 9 chain are joined to other chain
(c) 8 (d) 10 (c) the folding patterns of polypeptide chains
82. Proteins are polypeptide of (d) the pattern in which the polypeptide chain are arranged
(a) E-amino acid (b) D-hydroxy acid 94. The protein that transport oxygen in the blood stream is
(c) D-D-amino acid (d) L-D-amino acid (a) haemoglobin (b) insulin
83. Globular proteins are present in (c) collagen (d) albumin
(a) blood (b) eggs 95. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by
(c) milk (d) all of these (a) dipeptide bonds (b) hydrogen bonds
84. In fibrous proteins, polypeptide chains are held together (c) ether bonds (d) peptide bonds
by 96. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) van der waals forces (a) In D-helix structure a polypeptide chain forms all
(b) electrostatic forces of attraction possible hydrogen bonds by twisting into a right
(c) hydrogen bonds handed screw.
(d) covalent bonds (b) In E-structure of proteins all peptide chains are
85. Which of the following is not a function of proteins? stretched out to nearly maximum extension.
(a) Formation of hair, wool, skin and nails (c) During denaturation 1° and 2° structures are destroyed
(b) As a biological catalysts in the form of enzymes. but 3° structure remains intact.
(c) As food in the form of meat, eggs (d) All the above statements are incorrect.
(d) As energy provider for metabolism 97. Which of the following indicates the order in which amino
86. Which of the following is not a fibrous protein? acids are linked together in a protein ?
(a) Keratin (b) Myosin (a) Primary structure (b) Secondary structure
(c) Insulin (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Tertiary structure (d) Quaternary structure
87. A polypeptide with more than hundred amino acid residues,
98. Which of the following statement is not true about
having molecular mass higher than 10,000 u is called_____.
secondary structure of protein ?
(a) nucleic acid (b) hormone
(a) The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are
(c) protein (d) enzyme examples of secondary structure of protein.
88. An insulin is a ______ which contains _____ amino acids.
(b) The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular
(a) protein, 74 (b) protein, 51
hydrogen bonds is important to secondary structure.
(c) hormone, 51 (d) hormone, 74
(c) The steric influence of amino acid residues is important
89. Which of the following is an example of globular proteins? to secondary structure.
(a) Glycine (b) Albumin
( d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of amino acid
(c) Alanine (d) Both (a) and (b)
residues is important to secondary structure.
90. Which of the following is not a characteristics of fibrous
99. Which of the following terms indicates to the arrangement
proteins?
of different protein subunits in a multiprotein complex ?
(a) In the fibrous proteins polypeptide chains are held
(a) primary structure (b) secondary structure
together by hydrogen and disulphide bonds.
(c) tertiary structure (d) quaternary structure
(b) These have fibre like structure.
100. Secondary structure of protein is mainly governed by
(c) These are generally soluble in water.
(d) These have elongated shape. (a) hydrogen bonds (b) covalent bonds
91. Which of the following statements is true about a peptide (c) ionic bonds (d) disulphide bonds
bond (RCONHR)? 101. The secondary structure of a protein refers to
(a) It is non planar. (a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone
(b) It is capable of forming a hydrogen bond. (b) D helical backbone
(c) The cis configuration is favoured over the trans (c) hydrophobic interactions
configuration. (d) sequence of D amino acids
(d) Single bond rotation is permitted between nitrogen 102. Tertiary structure of protein arises due to
and the carbonyl group. (a) folding of polypeptide chain
92. Proteins are condensation polymers of (b) folding, coiling and bonding of polypeptide chain
(a) D-amino acids (b) E-amino acids (c) linear sequence of amino acid in polypeptide chain
(c) D-hydroxy acids (d) E-hydroxy acids (d) denatured proteins

230 %,202/(&8/(6
103. Denaturation of proteins leads to loss of its biological 114. Insulin production and its action in human body are
activity by responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs
(a) Formation of amino acids to which of the following categories?
(b) Loss of primary structure (a) An enzyme (b) A hormone
(c) Loss of both primary and secondary structures (c) A co-enzyme (d) An antibiotic
(d) Loss of both secondary and tertiary structures 115. Enzymes are essential as biocatalysts. They function in
104. Coagulation of protein is known as (a) aqueous medium, temp = 30–35ºC; pH=7
(a) dehydration (b) decay (b) organic medium
(c) deamination (d) denaturing (c) aqueous medium under extreme pH conditions
105. Which of the following terms refers to the overall three (d) None of these
dimensional shape of a protein. 116. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Primary structure (b) Secondary structure (a) Enzymes are organic catalysts
(c) Tertiary structure (d) Quaternary structure
(b) Enzymes have a very large turnover number
106. Which of the following indicates to ‘regions of ordered
(c) Enzymes action is specific
structure within a protein’.
(d) Enzymes always require a coenzyme in their catalytic
(a) Primary structure (b) Secondary structure
action.
(c) Tertiary structure (d) Quaternary structure
107. The strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could 117. Among the following vitamins the one whose deficiency
be formed involving the residue of the amino acid serine is. causes rickets (bone deficiency) is :
(a) ionic bond (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
(b) hydrogen bond (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin C
(c) van der Waals interactions 118. The vitamin that is not soluble in water is
(d) None of the above (a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin B2
108. Which of the following protein destroy the antigen when it (c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin D
enters in body cell? 119. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease
(a) Antibodies (b) Insulin (a) Convulsions (b) Beri-Beri
(c) Chromoprotein (d) Phosphoprotein (c) Cheilosis (d) Sterility
109. Which of the following is incorrect regarding enzymes? 120. Anaemia is caused by the deficiency of vitamin
(a) Most of them are globular proteins. (a) B6 (b) B1
(b) They are very specific for a particular reaction but not (c) B2 (d) B12
for a particular substrate. 121. Vegetable oils like wheat gram oil, sunflower oil etc. are the
(c) They are generally named after the compound or class good source of
of compounds upon which they work. (a) vitamin K (b) vitamin E
(d) All the above statements are incorrect. (c) vitamin D (d) vitamin A
110. Enzymes take part in a reaction and 122. Which is a fat soluble vitamin?
(a) decrease the rate of a chemical reaction (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B6
(b) increase the rate of a chemical reaction (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B2
(c) both (a) and (b) 123. Vitamin B2, a water soluble vitamin is also known as
(a) ascorbic acid (b) riboflavin
(d) None of these
(c) thiamine (d) pyridoxine
111. Enzymes are made up of
124. Which of the following statements about vitamin B12 is
(a) Edible proteins
(b) Proteins with specific structure incorrect ?
(c) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates (a) It has a cobalt atom
(d) Carbohydrates (b) It also occurs in plants
112. The enzyme which hydrolyses triglycerides to fatty acids
(c) It is also present in rain water
and glycerol is called
(a) Maltase (b) Lipase (d) It is needed for human body in very small amounts
(c) Zymase (d) Pepsin 125. The couplings between base units of DNA is through :
113. Which one of the following, statements is incorrect about (a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Electrostatic bonding
enzyme catalysis? (c) Covalent bonding (d) van der Waals forces
(a) Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature.
126. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in
(b) Enzyme action is specific.
nucleotide?
(c) Enzymes are denaturated by ultraviolet rays and at
(a) A --- A and T --- T (b) G --- T and A --- C
high temperature.
(c) A --- G and T --- C (d) A --- T and G --- C
(d) Enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature.

%,202/(&8/(6 231
127. In DNA, the complimentary bases are: 140. Which of the following structures represents thymine ?
(a) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine O NH2
(b) Adenine and thymine ; guanine and uracil
(c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine HN N
(d) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine (a) (b)
O N O N
128. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual H H
for the synthesis of the protein is:
(a) ribose (b) gene NH2 OH
(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide N N CH3
(c) (d)
129. In DNA the linkages between different nitrogenous bases
are : HO N HO N
(a) peptide linkage (b) phosphate linkage 141.When adenine is attached to ribose sugar, it is called
(c) H-bonding (d) glycosidic linkage adenosine. To make a nucleotide from it, it would require
130. DNA multiplication is called as (a) oxygenation (b) addition of a base
(a) translation (b) transduction (c) addition of phosphate (d) hydrogenation
(c) transcription (d) replication 142.Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide?
131. Chromosomes are made from (a) Guanine (b) Cytosine
(a) proteins (c) Adenine (d) Tyrosine
(b) nucleic acids 143.The function of DNA in an organism is
(c) proteins and nucleic acids (a) to assist in the synthesis of RNA molecule
(d) carbohydrates and nucleic acids (b) to store information of heredity characteristics
132. The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by (c) to assist in the synthesis of proteins and polypeptides
(a) Watson and Crick (b) Meichers (d) All of these
(c) Emil Fischer (d) Khorana 144. Which of the following statements regarding DNA
133. D- Helix is found in fingerprinting is incorrect?
(a) DNA (b) RNA (a) It is used in forensic laboratories for identification of
(c) lipid (d) carbohydrates criminals.
134. Which of the following compounds is responsible for the (b) It cannot be altered by surgery.
transmission of heredity characters? (c) It is different for every cell and cannot be altered by
(a) RNA (b) DNA any known treatment.
(c) Glucose (d) Haemoglobin (d) It is used to determine paternity of an individual.
135. The latest discovery in cytology is that of
(a) respiration (b) genetic code 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
(c) enzyme (d) None of these
145. Read the following statements and choose the correct
136. Energy is stored in our body in the form of answer?
(a) ATP (b) ADP (i) All monosaccharides are reducing sugars.
(c) fats (d) carbohydrates (ii) All monosaccharides are not reducing sugars.
137. The chemical change in DNA molecule that could lead to (iii) In disaccharides if aldehydic or ketonic groups are
synthesis of protein with an altered amino acid sequence bonded, these are non– reducing sugars.
is called (iv) In disaccharides if aldehydic or ketonic groups are
(a) replication (b) lipid formation free, these are reducing sugars.
(c) cellular membrane (d) mutation (a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
138. DNA has deoxyribose, a base and the third component which (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
is 146. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) phosphoric acid (b) ribose (i) Glucose is reducing sugar
(c) adenine (d) thymine (ii) Sucrose is reducing sugar
139. The process by which synthesis of protein takes place based (iii) Maltose is non reducing sugar
on the genetic information present in m-RNA is called (iv) Lactose is reducing sugar
(a) Translation (b) Transcription (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) Replication (d) Messenger hypothesis (c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All of these

232 %,202/(&8/(6
147. Which of the following statements regarding carbohydrates (iv) Fructose contains a ketonic functional group at C–2
are correct? carbon atom.
(i) Lactose is the carbohydrate found in milk. Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
(ii) More than 25 monosaccharides occur naturally. above?
(iii) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives one molecule each of (a) FTTT (b) FFTT
glucose and fructose. (c) TFFT (d) FTFT
(iv) Maltose is a non-reducing sugar whereas sucrose is a 151. Read the following statements and choose the correct–
reducing disaccharide sugar. option?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) (i) Starch is a polymer of D – glucose.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (ii) Starch consists of amylose and amylopectin.
148. Read the following statements. (iii) Amylose is insoluble in water.
(i) Pyran is a cyclic organic compound with one oxygen (iv) Amylopectin is soluble in water.
atom and five carbon atom. (a) (i) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(ii) The cyclic structure of glucose is correctly represented
152. Which among the following statements are true for glycine?
by Haworth strucure.
(i) It exists in crystalline form
(iii) Five membered cyclic structure of glucose is called
(ii) It is optically active
pyranose structure. (iii) It is soluble in water
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (iv) It can form Zwitter ions
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) Only (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
149. Consider the following statements. 153. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Linkage between two monosaccharide units through (i) Proteins on hydrolysis gives only D-amino acids.
oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage. (ii) Gln stands for glutamic acid.
(ii) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives an equimolar mixture of (iii) Amino acids with equal number of amino and carboxyl
fructose and glucose which is dextrorotatory. groups are neutral.
(iii) Lactose consists of linkage between C1 of galactose (iv) All naturally occuring D-amino acids are optically
and C4 of glucose. active.
(iv) Out of two components of starch the component (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
present in greater proportion is insoluble in water. (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(v) Glycogen is also known as animal starch because it is 154. Which of the statements about "Denaturation" given below
structurally similar to amylose a component of starch. are correct ?
Which of the following is the correct code for statements (i) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and
above? tertiary structures of the protein.
(a) FFFTT (b) FTTTF (ii) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand
(c) TFTFT (d) TFTTF of DNA into single strand
150. Read the following statements. (iii) Denaturation affects primary strucrture which gets
distorted
(i) Haworth structure of D–D– glucose will be .
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
6 (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
CH2OH
O 155. Of the following statements about enzymes which ones
5 are true?
H H OH (i) Enzymes lack in nucleophilic groups
4 1 (ii) Enzymes are highly specific both in binding chiral
HO OH H H substrates and in catalysing their reactions
3 2 (iii) Enzymes catalyse chemical reactions by lowering
OH the energy of activation
H
(iv) Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme
(ii) Fructose belongs to D–series and is a laevorotatory (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
compound. (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i)
(iii) Haworth structure for E–D–fructose will be. 156. Which of the following statements are correct ?
6 O (i) Vitamins A, D, E and K are insoluble in water.
HOH2C (ii) Vitamins A, D, E and K are stored in liver and adipose
OH
5 2 tissues.
H CH2OH (iii) Vitamin B and vitamin C are water soluble.
H OH 1 (iv) Water soluble vitamins should not be supplied
4 3 regularly in diet.
OH H (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

%,202/(&8/(6 233
157. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) A – (p), B – (r), C – (s), D – (q)
(i) Information regarding the sequence of nucleotides in (b) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
the chain of a nucleic acid is called its primary structure.
(c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(ii) In secondary structure of DNA adenine forms
hydrogen bonds with guanine whereas cytosine forms (d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
hydrogen bonds with thymine. 160. Match the columns
(iii) RNA molecules are of three types m-RNA, r-RNA and
t-RNA and they all perform different functions.
(a) (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) (Enzymes) (Reactions)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) only (A) Invertase (p) Decomposition of urea into
158. Consider the following statements. NH3 and CO2
(i) Nucleic acids are long chain polymers of nucleotides.
(B) Maltase (q) Conversion of glucose into
(ii) Sugar moiety in DNA molecules is E-D-ribose whereas
in RNA molecules it is E-D-2-deoxyribose. ethyl alcohol
(iii) RNA contains four bases viz. adenine (A), guanine (C) Pepsin (r) Hydrolysis of maltose into
(G), cytosine (C) and uracil (U)
glucose
(iv) Nucleotide is a nucleoside linked to phosphoric acid
at 4 – position of sugar moiety. (D) Urease (s) Hydrolysis of cane sugar
Which of the following is the correct code for the statements (E) Zymase (t) Hydrolysis of proteins into
above? peptides
(a) TFFT (b) TFTF
(a) A – (s), B – (r), C – (t), D – (p), E – (q)
(c) FFTT (d) FTFF
(b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p), E – (t)
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 (c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s), E – (t)
159. Match the columns. (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (t), D – (q), E – (r)
Column - I Column - II 161. Match the columns
Reaction of glucose Characteristic of
glucose molecule Column - I Column - II
CHO (A) Vitamin B6 (p) Fat soluble
HI, ' (B) Vitamin K (q) Xerophthalmia
(A) (CHOH)4 CH3 (CH2) 4 CH3 (p) Presence of
(C) Vitamin D (r) Convulsions
CH2OH
(D) Vitamin A (s) Delayed blood clotting
C = O group
(a) A – (p,q), B – (p,s), C – (p), D – (r)
CN
H–C (b) A – (r), B – (p,s), C – (p), D – (p, q)
(B) CHO OH (q) Presence of
(i) NH2OH (CHOH)4
(c) A – (p,s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (p,q)
(CHOH)4 aldehydic group
(ii) HCN
CH2OH
(d) A – (r), B – (p,s), C – (p,q), D – (p)
CH2OH 162. Match the columns
CHO O
(C) CHO (r) All six carbon (A) Vitamin A (p) Scurvy
(CH–O–C–CH3)4
(CH3COO)2O (B) Vitamin B12 (q) Hemorrhagic condition
(CHOH)4 atoms are linked
CH2–O–C–CH3 in a straight (C) Vitamin C (r) Sterility
CH2OH chain.
O
(D) Vitamin E (s) Xerophthalmia
(E) Vitamin K (t) Pernicious anaemia
(a) A – (t), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r), E – (r)
(D) CHO COOH (s) Presence of five
Br2water
(b) A – (s), B – (t), C – (p), D – (q), E – (r)
(CHOH)4 (CHOH)4 —OH groups
(c) A – (s), B – (t), C – (p), D – (r), E – (q)
CH2OH (d) A – (t), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r), E – (q)
CH2OH

234 %,202/(&8/(6
171. Select the false statement about the cyclic glucose.
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(a) If the OH group is added to CHO group it will form
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, cyclic hemiacetal structure
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four (b) Glucose form six-membered ring in which –OH is at
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You C–5 position
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. (c) Melting point of D-glucose is 423 K and of E-glucose
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct is 419 K
explanation for assertion. O
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a 1 1 1
correct explanation for assertion H C OH H C HO C H
H 2 OH H 2 OH H 2 OH
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect HO 3 H O HO 3 H HO 3 H O
4 4
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. H OH H OH H 4 OH
(d) H 5 H 5
OH H 56
163. Assertion : D(+)– Glucose is dextrorotatory in nature. 6 6
Reason : ‘D’ represents its dextrorotatory nature. CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
D-D(+)-glucose D-D(+)-glucose
164. Assertion : Sucrose is called an invert sugar.
Reason : On hydrolysis, sucrose bring the change in the 172.When D-D-glucose and E-D-glucose are dissolved in water
sign of rotation from dextro (+) to laevo(–). in two separate beakers I and II respectively and allowed to
165. Assertion : E-glycosidic linkage is present in maltose, stand, then –
(a) specific rotation in beaker I will decrease while in II will
CH2OH CH2OH increase upto a constant value
H O H OH (b) the specific rotation of equilibrium mixture in two
H H beakers will be different
OH H O OH H
HO H OH (c) the equilibrium mixture in both beakers will be
H OH H OH leavorotatory
(d) the equilibrium mixture in both beakers will contain
Reason : Maltose is composed of two glucose units in which only cyclic form of glucose
C–1 of one glucose unit is linked to C–4 of another glucose 173. In disaccharides, if the reducing groups of monosaccharides
unit. i.e., aldehydic or ketonic groups are bonded, these are non-
166. Assertion : At isoelectric point, the amino group does not reducing sugars. Which of the following disaccharide is a
migrate under the influence of electric field. non-reducing sugar?
Reason : At isoelectric point, amino acid exists as a CH2OH CH2OH
zwitterion. H OH H OH
H H
167. Assertion : Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body O
(a) OH H OH H
Reason : Vitamin D is fat soluble vitamin and is excreted HO OH
from the body in urine. H OH H OH
CH2OH
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 O H HOH2C O
H H
H
168. Which one of the following is the reagent used to identify O
glucose? (b) HO OH H H HO CH2OH
(a) Neutral ferric chloride H OH OH H
(b) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH
(c) Ammoniacal silver nitrate CH2OH CH2OH
HO O HO O OH
(d) Sodium ethoxide H H
169. Glucose molecule reacts with 'X' number of molecules of OH H O OH H
(c)
H H H
phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of 'X' is
H OH H OH
(a) four (b) one
(c) two (d) three CH2OH CH2OH
H O H O OH
170. In the acetylation of glucose, which group is involved in H H
the reaction OH H O OH H
(d)
(a) CHO group (b) >C = O group
HO H H
(c) alcoholic OH group (d) all of these H OH H OH

%,202/(&8/(6 235
174. Which of the following pairs represents anomers? f
CH2OH a
CHO CHO e O H HOH2C O
H H
H OH HO H d
H a b e
OH H O
HO H HO H HO c b
H HO CH 2OH
f
c d
H OH H OH H OH OH H
(a)
H OH H OH (a) ‘a’ carbon of glucose and ‘a’ carbon of fructose.
CH2OH CH2OH (b) ‘a’ carbon of glucose and ‘e’ carbon of fructose.
(c) ‘a’ carbon of glucose and ‘b’ carbon of fructose.
CHO CHO (d) ‘f’ carbon of glucose and ‘f’ carbon of fructose.
H OH HO H 177. Cyclic structure of fructose resembles with
HO H H OH (a) pyran (b) furan
(c) pyridine (d) oxiran
(b) H OH HO H 178. Sucrose in water is dextro-rotatory, [D]D= + 66.4º. When
H OH HO H boiled with dilute HCl, the solution becomes leavo-rotatory,
CH2OH CH2OH [D]D= –20º. In this process the sucrose molecule breaks
into
(a) L-glucose + D-fructose
H OH HO H
(b) L-glucose + L-fructose
H OH H OH (c) D-glucose + D-fructose
HO H O HO H O (d) D-glucose + L-fructose
179. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding
(c) H OH H OH (+) Lactose ?
H H (a) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+)
CH2OH CH2OH glucose and D(+) galactose.
(b) (+) Lactose is a E-glycoside formed by the union of a
H OH HO H molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+)
galactose.
H OH HO OH (c) (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit
HO H O H OH O mutarotation.
(d) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups.
(d) H OH HO H
180. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms
H H
sucrose?
CH2OH CH2OH (a) D–D-Galactopyranose and D–D-Glucopyranose
175. Optical rotation of some compound along with their (b) D–D-Glucopyranose and E–D-Fructofuranose
structures are given below which of them have D (c) E–D-Glucopyranose and D–D- Fructofuranose
configuration. (d) D–D-Glucopyranose and E–D-Fructopyranose
181. Which of the following statements is correct?
CHO CH2OH (a) Only the compounds following general formula
H OH Cx(H2O)y are carbohydrates.
CHO C=O (b) Acetic acid (CH3COOH) having general formula
HO H HO H C2(H2O)2 falls in this category.
H OH
H OH H OH (c) Rhamnose having formula C6H12O5 is a carbohydrate.
Though this is not according to general formula of
CH2OH H OH H OH
carbohydrates.
CH2OH CH2OH
(+) rotation (+) rotation (–) rotation (d) Chemically the carbohydrates may be defined as
(I) (II) (III) optically inactive polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones.
182. The strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III be formed involving the residue of the amino acid valine is
(c) I, II (d) III (a) ionic bond
176. Structure of a disaccharide formed by glucose and fructose (b) hydrogen bond
is given below. Identify anomeric carbon atoms in (c) van der Waals interactions
monosaccharide units. (d) none of the above

236 %,202/(&8/(6
183. Which functional group participates in disulphide bond 186. The function of enzymes in the living system is to
formation in proteins? (a) transport oxygen
(a) Thioester (b) Thioether (b) provide energy
(c) provide immunity
(c) Thiol (d) Thiolactone
(d) catalyse biochemical reactions
184. Glycosidic linkage is actually an 187. Vitamin C must be supplied regularly in diet because
(a) Carbonyl bond (b) Ether bond (a) it is water soluble hence excreted in urine and can’t be
(c) Ester bond (d) Amide bond stored in the body
(b) it is fat soluble hence stored in the body and cannot
O be used on regular basis
|| x x
185. For C N H (peptide bond ) (c) it is required in a large amount by the body hence
supplied regularly
Which statement is incorrect about peptide bond? (d) it is water soluble hence used by the body on daily
(a) C — N bond length in proteins is longer than usual basis and is to be supplied regularly.
bond length of the C — N bond 188. In both DNA and RNA, heterocylic base and phosphate
ester linkages are at –
(b) Spectroscopic analysis shows planar structure of the
(a) C5' and C1' respectively of the sugar molecule
— C — NH — group
||
O (b) C1' and C5' respectively of the sugar molecule
(c) C — N bond length in proteins is smaller than usual (c) C '2 and C5' respectively of the sugar molecule
bond length of the C—N bond
(d) None of the above (d) C5' and C '2 respectively of the sugar molecule

%,202/(&8/(6 237
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 16. (d) It is the most abundant organic compound on earth.
17. (d) Tollen’s reagent is reduced by glucose due to aldehydic
1. (c) Carbohydrates, proteins and fats are biomolecules. group and gives grey colour as silver metal.
2. (a) Lactose is a disaccharide. 18. (b) The letter ‘D’ or ‘L’ before the name of any compound
3. (c) It is found in the milk of all animals and imparts indicate the relative configuration of a particular
sweetness to milk (hence named milk sugar). stereoisomer.
4. (d) The disaccharides are sugars which on hydrolysis give 19. (a) 20. (a)
two moles of the same or different monosaccharides. 21. (d) Glucose is a monosaccharide, others are disaccharides.
Sucrose, maltose and lactose (C12H22O11 ) are the Sucrose is a combination of glucose and fructose.
common examples. Maltose is a combination of two glucose units. Lactose
5. (c) Aldo-(keto) pentoses having 5 carbon (or milk sugar) is a combination of glucose and
Aldo-(keto) hexoses having 6 carbon galactose (a hexose sugar).
is an example of Pentose Sugar, arabinose 22. (c) Glucose is considered as a typical carbohydrate which
(aldopentose) glucose, galactose and fructose are contains –CHO and –OH group.
important examples of hexose sugar. 23. (a) Glucose contains an aldehyde group. It is oxidised
6. (d) The most common disaccharide, Lactose has the into acidic group by bromine water and gluconic acid
molecular formula C12H22O11. is formed
7. (a) 8. (d) (O)
CH 2 OH (CHOH) 4 CHO
o
9. (d) Monosaccharides cannot be hydrolysed to simpler
molecules. CH 2OH (CHOH ) 4 COOH
10. (b) Sucrose is an oligosaccharide and cellulose is a
polysaccharide. o 2HBr O ob
Br2 H 2 O
11. (c) All those carbohydrates which reduce Fehling’s 24. (d) Weak reagent like NaHSO3 is unable to open the chain
solution and Tollens’ reagent are referred to as reducing and can’t react with glucose. This explains the inability
sugars. of glucose to form aldehyde bisulphite compound.
12. (a) Glucose (C 6 H12O 6 ) is the simplest molecule which 25. (c) Glucose has 5 hydroxyl groups, hence it reacts with
is monosaccharide while others are polysaccharides acetic anhydride to form a penta-acetate
which on hydrolysis give monosaccharides. 26. (d)
Option (a) is correct. 27. (d) Red P + HI is reducing agent.
13. (d) Glucose is aldohexose. Glucose is a monosaccharide, 28. (c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with
i.e. it can not be hydrolysed further to simple sugars. hydroxylamine
Oligosaccharides on hydrolysis give 2-10 molecules 29. (c) Open chain structure is unstable and converted to
of monosaccharides. cyclic.
14. (b) To explain the properties which can not be explained 30. (b)
by open chain structure of glucose it was proposed 31. (a) Natural glucose is dextrorotatory and thus, glucose is
that one of the –OH groups may add to the –CHO also known as dextrose.
group and form a cyclic hemiacetal structure as shown
32. (c)
below. 1
H OH
O
2
1
H—C—OH 1 1
HO —C—H H OH
H —C
2 2 2 3 O
H OH H OH H OH HO H
HO 3 H HO 3 H HO 3 H 4
H OH
H 4 OH H 4 OH H 4 OH 5
H
H 5 H 5 H 5
6 OH CH2OH
6CH2OH
6CH2OH 6CH2OH D -D-(+) - Glucose
D – D – (+) – Glucose E – D – (+) – Glucose
15. (c) Glucose contain aldehyde group. Hence it give positive (Fischer formula)
Fehling solution test.

238 %,202/(&8/(6
33. (b) D -D glucose and E–D glucose are the isomers which H H
H
differ in the orientation (configuration) of H and OH ROH
groups around C1 atom. 43. (c) – C = O + ROH – C – OH – C – OR + H2O
OR OR
1 1 An aldehyde A hemiacetal An acetal
H —C —OH HO —C —H
2
H —C —OH H —C2—OH – C = O + ROH – C – OH
ROH
– C – OR + H2O
O O
HO —C3—H HO —C3—H OR OR
A ketone A hemiketal A ketal
H —C4—OH H —C4—OH
5 5
In cyclic structure of fructose, ketonic group has
H —C H —C reacted with an alcoholic group, it is said to be an
6 6
CH2OH CH2OH example of an intramolecular cyclic hemiketal.
D– D - glucose E– D - glucose 44. (a) Sweet taste of fruits is due to fructose.
45. (a)
34. (b) T h e t wo i somer i c for m s (D – a n d E –) of
46. (c) Honey is collected from flowers by honey bee which
D-glucopyranose differ in configuration only at
contains fructose.
C–1; hence these are called anomers.
47. (c) Fructose is the sweetest sugar.
35. (b)
48. (a) We know that cellulose (C 6 H12 O 6 ) n is the chief
36. (d) constituent of cell walls of plants. It is the most
1
H OH abundant organic substance found in nature. It is a
2 polymer of glucose with 3500 repeat units in a chain.
H OH 49. (b) Sucrose is a disaccharide which on hydrolysis gives
3 O one molecule of glucose (monosaccharide) and
HO H
fructose (monosaccharide).
4
H OH
H
5 o C6 H12 O 6 C6 H12 O 6
C12 H 22 O11 H 2 O
H sucrose glucose fructose
CH2OH 50. (b) RNA has D (–) – Ribose and the DNA has 2–Deoxy
D -D-(+) - Glucose D (–) – ribose as the carbohydrate unit.
O 5 O
(Fischer formula) HOCH2 OH HOCH2 OH
H H 4 H H 1
37. (b) Glucose and fructose both are reduced by Fehling’s
solution, Tollen’s reagent and Bendict’s solution. H H H H
3 2
Therefore, these three reagents can not be used to OH OH OH H
distinguish between glucose and fructose. ribose 2-deoxy ribose
38. (b) Maltose and glucose are reducing sugars. From the structures it is clear that 2nd carbon in DNA
do not have OH group.
39. (a) Glucose contains -CHO group and fructose contains
> C = O group,. Hence these are functional isomers. 51. (d) Carbohydrates are stored in the body as glycogen.
40. (d) Glucose being an aldose responds to Tollen’s test 52. (c)
while fructose, although a ketose, undergoes 53. (b) CH2OHCH2CHOHCHOHCH2OH does not correspond
rearrangement in presence of basic medium (provided to Cx(H2O)y.
by Tollen’s reagent) to form glucose, which then 54. (d) Lactose (milk sugar) is a disaccharide, it is made of
responds to Tollen’s test. E-D-galactose and E-D-glucose
41. (d) CH2OH
CH2OH H O H
42. (b) Fructose has the molecular formula C6 H12 O6. It HO O H
H OH H
belongs to D-series and is laevorotatory compound. It OH H OH
H H H OH
also exists in two cyclic forms which are obtained by
H OH
the addition of –OH at C-5 to the >C=O group. The
ring thus formed is a five membered ring and is named 55. (b) 56. (b)
as furanose with analogy to the compund Furan. Furan 57. (a) Sucrose does not have free — CHO or CO group, hence
is a five membered cyclic compound with one oxygen it does not undergo mutarotation.
and four carbon atoms. 58. (b) 59. (d)

%,202/(&8/(6 239
60. (b) Sucrose is dextrorotatory but after hydrolysis gives 73. (d) In neutral solution, amino acids exists as dipolar ion (also
dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose. known as zwitter ions or inner salts) where the proton of
Since the laevorotation of fructose (–92.4°) is more –COOH group is transferred to the – NH2 group to form
than dextrorotation of glucose (+52.5°), the mixture is inner salt, known as dipolar ion.
laevororatory. R R
61. (c) Chemically amylose is a long unbranched chain with .. | H 2O .. |
H2N–CH–COOH H2N–CHOO–+H+
200-1000 D-D-(+ -glucose units held by C1-C4 D-Amino acid
glycosidic linkage. R
+ |
62. (b) It is a branched chain polymer of D-D-glucose units in H3N–CH–COO–
which chain is formed by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage Zwitter ion
whereas branching occurs by C1-C6 glycosidic linkage. 74. (c) With the exception of glycine all the 19 other common
63. (b) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide. amino acids have a uniquely different functional group
64. (b) The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as on the central tetrahedral alpha carbon.
glycogen. It is also known as animal starch because
H
its structure is similar to amylopectin and is rather more |
highly branched. H — C — COOH
|
65. (d) Carbohydrates are essential for life in both plants and
NH 2
animals. Honey has been used for a long time as an
instant source of energy by ‘Vaids’ in ayurvedic system glycine
of medicine. Carbohydrates are used as storage 75. (d) Zwitter ion contains both +ve and –ve charge. Proton
molecules as starch in plants and glycogen in animals. of –COOH group is transferred to the –NH2 group.—
Cell wall of bacteria and plants is made up of cellulose. NH3+ group is acidic since it can donate a proton and
We build furniture etc., from cellulose in the form of —COO– group is basic since it can accept a proton.
wood and cloth ourselves with cellulose in the form of 76. (a) Amino Acids are amphoteric in nature. So for it a special
cotton fibre. They provide raw materials for many term is coined called Zwitter ion.
important industries like textiles, paper lacquers and They have following structure in solution
breweries. R
66. (b) There are 20 amino acids in man out of which 10 amino + –
acids are essential amino acids. These essential amino H3N–C–COO
acids are supplied to our bodies by food which we H
take because they cannot be synthesised in the body. [Zwitter Ion]
These are (1) valine (2) leucine (3) Isoleucine (4) Phenyl 77. (d) Proline is a secondary amine
alanine (5) Threonine (6) Methionine (7) Lysine (8) 78. (a) Proteins and peptides are linked by peptide linkages
Tryptho phone (9) Arginine (10) Histidine.
67. (N) All the given options are example of neutral amino O
||
acids. ( C NH) .
68. (b) D- Amino acid is the building block unit of protein
79. (c) The bond formed between two amino acids by the
which is formed by polymerisation of amino acid
elimination of a water molecule is called a peptide
through peptide linkage.
linkage or bond. The peptide bond is simply another
ª NH C º name for amide bond.
« »
« || » C OH H — N—
o — C– N— H 2 O
«¬ O »¼ | | || |
O H O H
Carboxyl group Amine group of Peptide bond
69. (a) Except alanine, all amino acids are essential amino acids of one amino acid other amino acid
which cannot be synthesised in the body and must be
The product formed by linking amino acid molecules
obtained through diet.
through peptide linkages. —CO—NH—, is called a
70. (a)
peptide.
71. (c) Amino acids are the compounds having one or more 80. (b) 81. (c)
amino groups and one or more carboxyl groups in the 82. (d) Proteins are highly complex, natural compounds,
same molecule. composed of a large number of different D-amino-acids
72. (b) Except glycine, all other naturally occurring joined together with peptide linkage, i.e., they are
D- amino acids are optically active, since the D-carbon naturally occuring polypeptides.
atom is asymmetric. 83. (d) All these are the examples of globular proteins. These
are soluble in water.

240 %,202/(&8/(6
84. (c) Polypeptide chains in fibrous proteins are held together 102. (b) In this structure of protein atoms are highly coiled
by disulphide and hydrogen bonds. and form a spherical form.
85. (d) Proteins are building blocks of the body but they do 103. (d)
not provide energy for metabolism. 104. (d) When a protein, in its native form, is subjected to a
86. (c) Insulin is an example of globular protein. physical change like change in temperature, or a
87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (b) chemical change like change in pH, the native
90. (c) These are generally insoluble in water. conformation of the molecule is disrupted and proteins
91. (b) The NH of the amide can act as a hydrogen bond donor so formed are called denaturated proteins.
and the carbonyl group can act as a hydrogen bond The denaturation may be reversible or irreversible. The
acceptor. Statements (a), (c) and (d) are false. The coagulation of egg on boiling is an example of
peptide bond has double bond character due to the irreversible protein denaturation.
interaction of the nitrogen lone pair with the carbonyl However, it has been shown now that in some cases,
group. This prevents bond rotation and makes the bond the process is actually reversible. The reverse process
planar. The trans isomer is favoured over the cis isomer. is called renaturation.
92. (a) 105. (c) Tertiary structure indicates the overall structure of the
93. (a) The sequence in which the D-amino acids are linked to protein.
one another in a protein molecule is called its primary 106. (b)
structure. 107. (b) Serine contains a hydroxyl functional group on its side
94. (a) chain and so the strongest possible interaction will be
95. (b) The D-helix structure is formed when the chain of hydrogen bonding where the hydroxyl group could
D-amino acids coils as a right handed screw (called act as a hydrogen bond donor or hydrogen bond
D-helix) because of the formation of hydrogen bonds acceptor.
between amide groups of the same peptide chain, i.e., 108. (a) When antigens enter in to the body cells and destroy
NH group in one unit is linked to carbonyl oxygen of them, then antibodies being proteins are synthesised
the third unit by hydrogen bonding. This hydrogen in the body and combine with antigens and destroy
bonding between different units is responsible for these antigens by forming inactive complexes.
holding helix in a position. Therefore antibodies protein destroy antigens.
96. (c) During denaturation 2° and 3° structures are destroyed 109. (b) Enzymes are highly specific for a particular reaction
but 1° structure remains intact. and also for a particular substrate.
97. (a) Primary structure refers to the order of the amino acids
in a protein. 110. (b) Enzymes being biocatalyst can increase the rate of a
98. (d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of amino acid reaction upto 10 million times. Even very small amount
residues is important to tertiary structure of protein can accelerate a reaction.
rather than to secondary structure. In secondary 111. (b) Enzymes are made up of protein with specific structure.
structure, it is the steric size of the residues that is 112. (b) Triglycerides are lipids, hence these are hydrolysed
important and residues are positioned to minimise by lipases to glycerol and fatty acids.
interactions between each other and the peptide chain. 113. (d) Enzymes are most reactive at optimum temperature.
99. (d) Quaternary structure refers to the overall structure of The optimum temperature for enzyme activity lies
a multiprotein complex where as primary, secondary between 40°C to 60°C.
and tertiary structure refer to the different structural 114. (b) Insulin is a biochemically active peptide harmone
levels of a single protein. secreted by pancreas.
100. (a) The arrangement of polypeptide chains formed as a 115. (a)
result of hydrogen bonding is called secondary 116. (d) Enzymes may or may not require a coenzyme for their
structure of proteins. catalytic action.
D-helix is formed by intramolecular H-bonding. 117. (c) Deficiency of vitamin D causes rickets.
E-pleated sheet is formed by intermolecular H-bonding. 118. (d) Vitamin D is a fat soluble vitamin.
101. (b) The secondary structure of a protein refers to the
119. (b) Beri-Beri.
shape in which a long peptide chain can exist. There
120. (d) Vitamin Disease caused by deficiency
are two different conformations of the peptide linkage
B6 Dermatitis
present in protein, these are D-helix and E-conformation.
The D-helix always has a right handed arrangement. In B1 Beri-beri
E-conformation all peptide chains are streched out to B2 Photophobia, glossitis
nearly maximum extension and then laid side by side B12 Pernicious anaemia
and held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds. 121. (b) Vitamin E is mainly present in vegetable oils like wheat
The structure resembles the pleated folds of drapery gram oil, sunflower oil, etc.
and therefore is known as E-pleated sheet. 122. (a) Vitamin A or retinol.

%,202/(&8/(6 241
123. (b) 140. (d) The correct structure of thymine is
124. (c) It is found in liver, egg, milk, meat, and fish. Minute OH
amounts are probably present in all animal cells.
N CH3
Peculiarly, unlike other vitamins, B12 is not found in
significant amounts in green plants.
HO N
125. (a) DNA consists of two polynucleotide chains, each Thymine (T)
chain forms a right handed helical spiral with ten bases
in one turn of the spiral. The two chains coil to double 141. (c)
helix and run in opposite direction held together by 142. (d) Tyrosine is an D-amino acid, and not a purine
143. (d)
hydrogen bonding.
144. (c) DNA fingerprinting is same for every cell and cannot
126. (d) O Deoxyribose-Adenine ... Thymine -Deoxyribose O be altered by any known treatment.
OH P P OH
O Deoxyribose-Guanine ... Cytosine -Deoxyribose
O 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
P P
OH OH
O Deoxyribose-Guanine ... Cytosine -Deoxyribose O 145. (a)
OH P Deoxyribose-Adenine ... Thymine -Deoxyribose
P OH 146. (c) Sucrose is non-reducing in nature. It does not contain
a free aldehydic or ketonic group. Maltose is a
The hydrogen bonds are formed between the base reducing sugar.
(shown by dotted lines). Because of size and 147. (b) Naturally occurring monosaccharides are 20 only.
geometrics of the bases, the only possible pairing in Sucrose is a non–reducing sugar whereas maltose is a
DNA and between G(Guanine) and C(Cytosine) reducing sugar.
through three H-bonds and between A (Adenosine) 148. (b) The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called
and T (Thymine) through two H-bonds. pyranose structure (D or E), in analogy with pyran.
127. (a) In DNA the complimentary base are Adenine and Pyran is a cyclic organic compound with one oxygen
thymine. atom and five carbon atoms in the ring. The cyclic
Guanine and cytosine structure of glucose is correctly represented by
The genetic information for cell is contained in the Haworth structure.
sequence of bases A, T, G and C in DNA molecule. 149. (d) Sucrose is a dextrorotatory but on hydrolysis gives
128. (b) The DNA sequence that codes for a specific protein is dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose.
called a Gene and thus every protein in a cell has a Since the laevorotation of fructose (–92.4°) is more
corrosponding gene. than dextrorotation of glucose (+52.5°), thus the
129. (c) The base pairs of the two strands of DNA are linked resulting mixture is laevorotatory. Glycogen is
together through H-bonds. structurally similar to amylopectin not amylose.
130. (d) DNA has the property of self - replication . It is therefore 150. (a) For statement (i) correct Haworth structure for D–D
a reproducing molecule. This unique property of DNA glucose will be.
is at the root of all reproduction. Through its 6
replication, DNA acts as the key to heredity. In the CH2OH
replication of DNA, the two strands of a double helix 5 O
unwind and separate as a template for the formation of H H H
a new complementary strand. 4 1
131. (c) Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled OH OH OH
H
many times around proteins called histones that 3 2
supports its structure.
H OH
132. (a) 151. (c) Amylose is water soluble component which constitutes
133. (a) DNA has double stranded D-helical structure. about 15-20% of strach. Amylopectin is insoluble in
134. (b) DNA is responsible for transmission of heredity and constitutes about 80-85% of starch.
character. 152. (c) Glycine is optically inactive.
135. (b) 153. (a) Gln stands for glutamine. Except glycine, all other
136. (a) Energy is stored in our body in the form of A.T.P. naturally occurring D–amino acids are optically active.
137. (d) 154. (c) When the proteins are subjected to the action of heat,
138. (a) Phosphoric acid is the third component in DNA. mineral acids or alkali, the water soluble form of globular
139. (a) Synthesis of polypeptide is known as translation. For protein changes to water insoluble fibrous protein. This
this process three type of RNA are essential. is called denaturation of proteins. During denaturation
secondary and tertiary structures of protein destroyed
but primary structures remains intact.

242 %,202/(&8/(6
155. (c) group, the third molecule of phenylhydrazine condenses

156. (b) Water soluble vitamins must be supplied regularly in to glucosazone. Therefore the value of X is 3
diet because they are readily excreted in urine and
cannot be stored (except vitamin B12) in our body.
157. (b) In secondary structure of DNA adenine forms CHO + H2NNHC6H5 CH = NNHC6H5
hydrogen bonds with thymine whereas cytosine forms
CHOH CHOH
hydrogen bonds with guanine. warm
158. (b) The sugar moiety in DNA molecule is E-D-2- (CHOH)3 CH(OH)3
deoxyribose whereas in RNA molecule, it is E-D-ribose.
CH2OH CH2OH
Nucleotide is a nucleoside linked to phosphoric acid
Glucose Glucose Phenylhydrozone
at 51– position of sugar moiety.
H2NNHC6 H5
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 H2NNHC6 H5
CH = NNHC6H5 CH = NNHC6H5
– H2 O
159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (b)
162. (c) Vitamin A - Xerophthalmia C = NNHC6H5 C=O
Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anaemia
CH(OH)3 (CHOH)3
Vitamin C - Scurvy
Vitamin E - Sterility CH2OH CH2OH
Vitamin K - Haemorrhage Glucosazone keto compound of glucose
phenyle hydra zone
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
163. (c)
164. (a) The hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in 2o Au.ZnCl
170. (c) OHC.(CHOH)4.CH2OH + 5Ac2O
the sign of rotation from dextro (+) to laevo (–) and the
Glucose Acetic anhydride
product is named as invert sugar.
165. (d) Maltose is compound of two D-D - glucose units in OHC. (CHOAc) 4 . CH2 OAc
Glucose penta-acetate
which C1 of one glucose is linked to C4 of another
or penta-acetyl Glucose
glucose unit.
171. (c) Melting point of D-glucoseo 419 K and E-glucose is
6
CH2OH 6
CH2OH 323 K.
H 5 OH H 5 OH 172. (a) D-D-glucose or E-D-glucose when dissolved in water
H H
4 1 O 4 1 and allowed to stand, following equilibrium is
OH H OH H
HO 3 2 3 2 OH stablished, which is called mutarotation.
H OH H OH D-D-glucose U Open chain form U E-D-glucose
I II
D-D-glucose D-D-glucose (+111°) (+19°)
Specific rotation of D-form falls until a constant value
166. (a) R is the correct explanation of A. of +52.5° is reached. On the other hand, specific
167. (d) Vitamin D is a fat soluble vitamin and can be stored in rotation of E form increases. Specific rotation of
the body since it is not excreted out of the body. equilibrium mixture is 52.5°.
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 173. (b) The two monosoccharides are held together by a
glycosidic linkage between C1 of D-glucose and C2 of
168. (c) Glucose contains aldehyde group due to which it gives E-fructose. Since the reducing groups and glucose and
positive test with ammoniacal silver nitrate. fructose are involved in glycosidic bond formed.
169. (d) We know that glucose reacts with one molecule of Sucrose is non-reducing sugar.
phenyl hydrazine to give phenyl hydrazone. When
174. (c) Cyclic hemiacetal forms of monosaccharide which differ
warmed with excess of phenylhydrazine, the
only in the configuration of the hydroxyl group at C1
secondary alcoholic group adjacent to the aldehyde
are anomers.
group is oxidised by another molecule of
phenylhydrazine to a ketonic group. With this ketonic 175. (a) 176. (c)

%,202/(&8/(6 243
Sucrose is a disaccharide of D–D-Glucopyranose and

6 O 1 E–D-Fructofuranose.
177. (b) HOH2C CH2OH 181. (c) Most of the carbohydrates have a general formula,
5 2 Cx(H2O)y, and were considered as hydrates of carbon.
H OH
4 3 All the compounds which fit into this formula may not
H OH
be classified as carbohydrates. Acetic acid (CH3COOH)
OH H fits into this general formula, C2(H2O)2 but is not a
D-D-(–)-Fructofuranose carbohydrate. Similarly, rhamnose, C6H12O5 is a
carbohydrate but does not fit in this definition. A large
number of their reactions have shown that they contain
6 O specific functional groups. Chemically, the
HOH2C OH carbohydrates may be defined as optically active
5
H OH
2 polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or the compounds
4 3 which produce such units on hydrolysis.
H CH2OH
1 182. (c) Valine has no functional groups on its side chain. There
OH H is only an alkyl group and so only van der Waals
E-D-(–)-Fructofuranose interactions are possible.
178. (c) The hydrolysis of sucrose by boiling with mineral acid 183. (c) 2R S H R SS R
Thiol Disulphide
or by enzyme invertase or sucrase produces a mixture
Example :
of equal molecules of D(+) glucose and
D(–) Fructose.
2HO 2C CHC H 2SH
|
HCl NH2
C12 H 22O11 H 2O
o C 6 H12O 6 C 6 H12O 6
sucrose D glu cos e D Fructose Cystine
[D D ] 66.5º [D D ] 52.5º [D D ] 92 º

Invert sugar ,[DD ] 20º HO 2CCHC H 2S SCH 2 CHC O 2 H

| |
NH 2 NH2
CH2OH H OH Cystine
O
HO OH H
179. (c) H H 184. (b) Glycosidic linkage is actually an ether bond as the
O
OH H H
H H H O OH linkage forming the rings in an oligosaccharide or
H OH CH2OH polysaccharide is not just one bond, but the two bonds
(Lactose) sharing an oxygen atom e.g. sucrose
All reducing sugar shows mutarotation.
HO
180. (b) CH2 OH
O CH2 O
OH + OH
OH HO
OH H2C
OH OH OH
D-D-Glucopyranose E-D-Fructofuranose
HO
CH2 OH
O CH2 O
OH HO + H2O
O
OH CH2
OH OH
OH
Fructose

244 %,202/(&8/(6
185. (a) Due to resonance C — N bond in protein acquires 187. (a) Vitamin C is water soluble. Therefore, it is readily
double bond character and is smaller than usual excreted in urine and cannot be stored in our body and
C — N bond. is supplied regularly in diet.
–
O O 188. (b) In DNA and RNA heterocyclic base and phosphate
C NH C NH ester are at C1' and C5' respectively of the sugar

molecule.
186. (d) The function of enzymes in the living system is to
catalyse biochemical reactions which occur in living
HO N
systems. e.g. invertase, pepsin, amylase. | 5
N
HO – P – O – C H 2 4c O N
Sucrose Invertase || N
o glucose + fructose O
C
Cc
H H
(polymer) (monomer) H | |
C3––– C2 H
amylase
Starch o glucose | |
OH OH
(polymer) (monomer)

15
POLYMERS
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 12. A polymer is formed when simple chemical units
(a) combine to form long chains
1. Which is not true about polymers? (b) combine to form helical chains
(a) Polymers do not carry any charge (c) break up
(b) Polymers have high viscosity (d) become round
(c) Polymers scatter light 13. Polymer formation from monomers starts by
(d) Polymers have low molecular weight (a) condensation reaction between monomers
2. Which of the following belongs to the class of natural (b) coordinate reaction between monomers
polymers? (c) conversion of monomer to monomer ions by protons
(d) hydrolysis of monomers.
(a) Proteins (b) Cellulose
14. On the basis of mode of formation, polymers can be
(c) Rubber (d) All of these
classified?
3. Which of the following natural products is not a polymer?
(a) as addition polymers only
(a) DNA (b) Cellulose (b) as condensation polymers only
(c) ATP (d) Urease (c) as copolymers
4. Among the following a natural polymer is (d) both as addition and condensation polymers
(a) cellulose (b) PVC 15. In addition polymer monomer used is
(c) teflon (d) polyethylene (a) unsaturated compounds
5. Which of the following is not a biopolymer ? (b) saturated compounds
(a) Proteins (b) Rubber (c) bifunctional saturated compounds
(c) Cellulose (d) RNA (d) trifunctional saturated compounds
6. Rayon is : 16. Nylon 66 belongs to the class of
(a) synthetic plastic (b) natural rubber (a) Addition polymer
(c) natural silk (d) artificial silk (b) Condensation polymer
7. Protein is a polymer of: (c) Addition homopolymer
(d) Condensation heteropolymer
(a) glucose (b) terephthalic acid
17. A polymer made from a polymerization reaction that
(c) amino acids (d) None of these
produces small molecules (such as water) as well as the
8. Natural silk is a
polymer is classified as a/an ..... polymer.
(a) polyester (b) polyamide (a) addition (b) natural
(c) polyacid (d) polysaccharide (c) condensation (d) elimination
9. Polymers are: 18. In elastomer, intermolecular forces are
(a) micromolecules (b) macromolecules (a) strong (b) weak
(c) sub-micromolecules (d) None of the above (c) nil (d) None of these
10. Which of the following is/are a semisynthetic polymers? 19. A thermoplastic among the following is
(a) Cellulose acetate (b) Polyvinyl chloride (a) bakelite (b) polystyrene
(c) Cellulose nitrate (d) Both (a) and (c) (c) terylene (d) urea-formaldehyde resin
11. Which of the following is not linear polymer ? 20. Which is an example of thermosetting polymer?
(a) Bakelite (b) Polyester (a) Polythene (b) PVC
(c) Cellulose (d) High density polyethene (c) Neoprene (d) Bakelite

246 32/<0(56
21. Which of the following is thermoplastic ? 32. Fibres that have good resistance to stains, chemicals,
(a) Bakelite (b) Polyethylene insects and fungi is
(c) Terylene (d) All of these (a) Acrylic (b) Terylene
22. Thermosets are: (c) Nylon (d) All of these
(a) cross-linked polymers 33. Which of the following statements is not true about low
(b) don’t melt or soften on heating density polythene?
(a) Tough
(c) cross-linking is usually developed at the time of
(b) Hard
moulding where they harden reversibly
(c) Poor conductor of electricity
(d) all of the above
(d) Highly branched structure
23. Which is/are true for elastomers? 34. Low density polythene is prepared by
(a) These are synthetic polymers possessing elasticity (a) Free radical polymerisation
(b) These possess very weak intramolecular forces or (b) Cationic polymerisation
attractions between polymer chains (c) Anionic polymerisation
(c) Vulcanised rubber is an example of elastomer (d) Ziegler-Natta polymerisation
(d) All of the above 35. The monomer of teflon is
24. Among the following polymers the strongest molecular (a) CHF == CH2 (b) CF2 == CF2
forces are present in (c) CHC1 == CHCl (d) CHF == CHC1
(a) elastomers (b) fibres 36. The monomer(s) used in the preparation of Orlon, a
(c) thermoplastics (d) thermosetting polymers substitute for wool is/are
25. Three dimensional molecular structure with cross links are (a) caprolactam
formed in the case of a (b) tetrafluoroethene
(a) thermoplastic (b) thermosetting plastic (c) styrene and 1, 3-butadiene
(d) acrylonitrile
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
37. Orlon is a polymer of
26. Which of the following polymer is an example of fibre ?
(a) styrene (b) tetrafluoroethylene
(a) Silk (b) Dacron (c) vinyl chloride (d) acrylonitrile
(c) Nylon-66 (d) All of these 38. Which of the following polymer is used for manufacturing
27. Which of the following statements is not correct for fibres? of buckets, dustbins, pipes etc ?
(a) Fibres possess high tensile strength and high (a) Low density polythene
modulus. (b) High density polythene
(b) Fibres impart crystalline nature. (c) Teflon
(c) Characteristic features of fibres are due to strong (d) Polyacrylonitrile
intermolecular forces like hydrogen bonding. 39. Which of the following catalyst is used in preparation of
(d) All are correct. high density polythene ?
28. Which of the following is/are examples of fibres? (a) Peroxide catalyst
(a) Polyesters (b) Polyamide (b) Ziegler - Natta catalyst
(c) Polythene (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Wilkinson’s catalyst
29. Which of the following can be repeatedly soften on (d) Pd - catalyst
heating? 40. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Artificial silk is derived from cellulose.
(i) Polystyrene (ii) Melamine
(b) Nylon-66 is an example of elastomer.
(iii) Polyesters (iv) Polyethylene
(c) The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene.
(v) Neoprene (d) Both starch and cellulose are polymers of glucose.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) 41. Melamine plastic crockery is a copolymer of:
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (iv) (a) HCHO and melamine (b) HCHO and ethylene
30. Which of the following does not undergo addition (c) melamine and ethylene (d) None of these
polymerization? 42. Caprolactam polymerises to give
(a) Vinylchloride (a) terylene (b) teflon
(b) Butadiene (c) glyptal (d) nylon-6
(c) Styrene 43. Nylons, polysters and cotton, all posses strength due to:
(d) All of the above undergoes addition polymerizations (a) intermolecule H-bonding
31. Which of the following is a cross linked polymer? (b) van der Waals’ attraction
(a) PVC (b) Bakelite (c) dipole-dipole interaction
(c) Polyethylene (d) Rubber (d) None of the above

32/<0(56 247
44. Nylon 66 is a polyamide obtained by the reaction of 55. Which of the following polymer is a polyamide ?
(a) COOH(CH2)4 COOH + NH2C6H4NH2 (a) Terylene (b) Nylon
(b) COOH(CH2)4 COOH + NH2 (CH2)6 NH2
(b) Rubber (d) Vulcanised rubber
(c) COOH (CH2)6 COOH + NH2 (CH2)4 NH2
(d) COOHC6H4 COOH–(p) + NH2 (CH2)6 NH2 56. Which of the following compound is used for preparation
45. Interparticle forces present in nylon-66 are of melamine formaldehyde polymer ?
(a) van der waal’s NH2
(b) hydrogen bonding
(c) dipole-dipole interactions (a)
(d) None of these
46. The plastic household crockery is prepared by using
(a) melamine and tetrafluoroethane N
N N
(b) malonic acid and hexamethyleneamine
(c) melamine and vinyl acetate
(d) melamine and formaldehyde (b)
H2N NH2
47. Which of the following is currently used as a tyre cord ? NH2
(a) Terylene (b) Polyethylene
(c) Polypropylene (d) Nylon - 6
48. Of the following which one is classified as polyester H2N NH2
N
polymer ?
(a) Terylene (b) Bakelite
N N
(c) Melamine (d) Nylon-66 (c)
49. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer ?
(a) Melamine (b) Glyptal NH2
(c) Dacron (d) Neoprene
50. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with NH2
(a) (CH2OH)2 (b) CH3CHO
(c) CH3 COCH3 (d) HCHO
51. The polymer containing strong intermolecular forces e.g. (d)
N
hydrogen bonding, is H2N
(a) teflon (b) nylon 6, 6
(c) polystyrene (d) natural rubber 57. Acetic acid is added in the preparation of Nylon-6 due to
52. Nylon threads are made of (a) initiate polymerisation
(a) polyester polymer (b) polyamide polymer (b) avoid polymerisation at first step
(c) polyethylene polymer (d) polyvinyl polymer (c) avoid oxidation
53. Which compound/set of compounds is used in the (d) removal of water
manufacture of nylon 6? 58. The bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The
initial reaction between the two compounds is an example
(a) CH = CH2 of:
(a) aromatic electrophilic substitution
(b) HOOC(CH2)4COOH + NH2(CH2)6 NH2 (b) aromatic nucleophilic substitution
(c) free radical reaction
CH3 (d) aldol reaction
| 59. Melamine plastic crockery is a codensation polymer of
(c) CH 2 CH C CH 2
(a) HCHO and melamine
O (b) HCHO and ethylene
(c) melamine and ethylene
(d) None of these
(d) 60. Which of the following polymer is used for making
phonograph records ?
54. The repeating unit present in Nylon 6 is (a) Bakelite (b) Dacron
(a) — [NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4CO] — (c) Teflon (d) PVC
(b) — [CO(CH2)5NH] — 61. Novolac is
(c) — [CO (CH2)6NH] — (a) cross-linked polymer (b) linear polymer
(d) — [CO (CH2)4NH] — (c) addition polymer (d) synthetic rubber

248 32/<0(56
62. Dacron is a – 67. Which of the following is an use of butadiene – styrene
(a) crease resistant copolymer?
(b) polyamide (a) Manufacture of autotyres
(c) addition polymer (b) Footwear components
(d) polymer of ethylene glycol and phthalic acid (c) Cable insulation
(d) All of these
63. The monomeric units of terylene are glycol and which of
the following 68. A homopolymer is obtained by polymerisation of:
(a) one type of monomer units
OH (b) two types of monomer units
OH (c) either of the above
(a) (b) (d) None of the above
OH OH 69. A copolymer of isobutylene and isoprene is called:
(a) align butyl rubber (b) buna-S
OH (c) buna-N (d) thiokol
(c) COOH COOH (d) OH 70. Which one is a homopolymer?
OH (a) Bakelite (b) Nylon
(c) Terylene (d) Neoprene
64. Which of the following is novolac ?
71. Polymerisation in which two or more chemically different
CH3 CH3 monomers take part is called:
(a) addition polymerisation
–O O–
(a) (b) copolymerisation
(c) chain polymerisation
(d) homo polymerisation
72. Natural rubber is a polymer of
OH (a) butadiene (b) isoprene
–H2C CH3 (c) 2-methylbutadiene (d) hexa-1, 3-diene
73. Which one of the following statement is not true?
(b) (a) In vulcanization the formation of sulphur bridges
between different chains make rubber harder and
stronger.
(b) Natural rubber has the trans -configuration at every
OH double bond
CH2 – (c) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene
(c) (d) Natural rubber is a 1, 4 - polymer of isoprene
74. Natural rubber is polymer of
(a) CH2 = CH – Cl
CH2 – CH3
|
(b) cis CH 2 C CH CH 2
OH OH
CH2 CH3
CH2 – |
(d) (c) trans CH 2 C CH CH 2
CH3 CH3
65. Soft drinks and baby feeding bottles are generally made up | |
of (d) cis CH 2 C C CH 2
(a) Polystyrene (b) Polyurethane
75. Which of the following is not the property of natural rubber
(c) Polyurea (d) Polyamide
66. Which is not an example of copolymer ? (a) Low tensile strength
(b) High water absorption capacity
(a) SAN (b) ABS
(c) Soft and sticky
(c) Saran (d) PVC
(d) High elasticity

32/<0(56 249
76. Natural rubber is 86. Which of the following polymer is formed on reaction of
(a) all trans polyisoprene (b) all cis-polysioprene 1,3–butadiene and acrylonitrile?
(c) chloroprene (d) Buna-N (a) Buna–S (b) Buna – N
77. The process involving heating of rubber with sulphur is (c) Neoprene (d) Dacron
called 87. Which of the following monomers form biodegradable
(a) Galvanisation (b) Vulcanization polymers?
(c) Bessemerisaion (d) Sulphonation (a) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid + 3-hydroxypentanoic acid
78. Isoprene is a valuable substance for making (b) Glycine + amino caproic acid
(a) propene (b) liquid fuel (c) Ethylene glycol + phthalic acid
(c) synthetic rubber (d) petrol (d) both (a) and (b)
79. Synthetic polymer which resembles natural rubber is : 88. The polymer which undergoes environment degradation
by microoganism is known as
(a) neoprene (b) chloroprene
(a) chain-growth polymer
(c) glyptal (d) nylon
(b) chain step polymer
80. Synthetic rubber is:
(c) biodegradable polymer
(a) polyester (b) polyamide (d) non-biodegradable polymer
(c) polysaccharide (d) poly (halodiene) 89. Generally, molecular mass of a polymer is over
81. Which of the following are example of synthetic rubber? (a) 100 (b) 500
(i) Polychloroprene (ii) polyacrylonitrile (c) 1,000 (d) 10,000
(iii) Buna-N (iv) cis-polyisoprene 90. For natural polymers PDI is generally
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) (c) 100 (d) 1000
82. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of :
(a) H2C = CH – CH = CH2 and H5C6 – CH = CH2 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
(b) H2C = CH – CN and H2C = CH – CH = CH2
(c) H2C = CH – CN and H 2 C = CH – C = CH 2 (i) Macromolecules have high molecular mass of order
|
CH3 103 – 107u.
(ii) Monomeric units are joined together by ionic or
Cl covalent bond.
|
(d) H 2 C = CH – C = CH 2 and H 2C = CH – CH = CH 2 (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
83. Which of the following structures represents neoprene (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
polymer? 92. Consider the following statements.
(i) Polystyrene is a homopolymer whereas Buna–N is a
(a) –(CH 2 – C = CH – CH 2 –) n copolymer.
| (ii) Condensation polymers can be obtained by
Cl condensation between two similar bi–functional
monomeric units.
CN
(iii) Elastomers are the polymers in which the polymeric
|
(b) –(CH 2 – CH –) n
chains are held together by the weakest intermolecular
forces.
(iv) Buna–S and Buna–N consist of close packing of chains
Cl which impart them crystalline nature.
| Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
(c) –( CH 2 – CH –)n above?
(a) TTFF (b) TFTF
(d) –( CH – CH 2 –)n (c) FTFT (d) TFFT
| 93. Two condensation polymers are made
C6 H5 (1) ethylene diamine + ethane–1, 2– dicarboxylic acid
(2) trimethylenediamine + ethane–1, 2– dicarboxylic acid
84. Which of the following is not a copolymer?
if both polymers of same molecular weight are obtained
(a) Buna–S (b) Baketite
then which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(c) Neoprene (d) Dacron
(i) Polymer (1) is found to melt at lower temperature.
85. In the manufacture of tyre rubber, the percentage of sulphur (ii) Polymer (2) is found to melt at lower temperature.
used as a crosslinking agent is (iii) H-bonding is major factor.
(a) 2% (b) 5% (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) 10% (d) 0.5% (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)

250 32/<0(56
94. Which of the following statements are correct? 98. Match the columns.
(i) A polyamide nylon 6,6 prepared by the condensation Column-I Column-II
polymerisation of hexamethylene diamine with adipic (A) Highly branched (p) Teflon
acid is used in the manufacture of tyre cords. chemically inert polymer
(ii) Terylene is crease resistant and is blended with cotton used in the insulation of
and wool fibres for various applications.
electric wires.
(iii) Condensation reaction of phenol and formaldehyde
(B) Linear polymer (q) Polyacrylonitrile
to form novolac can be catalysed either by acid or
base. prepared in presence of
(iv) Melamine formaldehyde polymer is mainly used in the Al(C2H5)3 and TiCl4.
manufacture of electrical switches (C) Corrosion resistant (r) HDPE
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) polymer used in
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) manufacture of non–stick
95. Read the following statements. surface coated utensils.
(i) Rubber latex is a colloidal dispersion of rubber in water. (D) Addition polymer (s) LDPE
(ii) Natural rubber is a cis –1, 4–polyisoprene having used as a substitute for
elastic properties due to coiled structure and weak wool.
van der Waal’s forces. (a) A–(s), B–(r), C–(q), D–(p)
(iii) Vulcanisation of natural rubber with sulphur and an (b) A–(s), B–(p), C–(r), D–(q)
appropriate additive is carried out above 415K. (c) A–(s), B–(r), C–(p), D–(q)
(iv) In the manufacture of tyre rubber, 5% of sulphur is (d) A–(r), B–(s), C–(p), D–(q)
used as a cross-linking agent.
99. Match Column-I (Monomer) with Colum-II (Polymer) and
(v) Synthetic rubbers are homopolymers.
select the correct answer using the codes given below the
Which of the following is the correct code for the lists:
statements above?
Column-I Column-II
(a) FFTFT (b) TTFTF
(A) Hexamethylenediamine (p) Bakelite
(c) TTFFF (d) FFTTF
(B) Phenol (q) Dacron
96. Which of the following statements are correct?
(C) Phthalic acid (r) Glyptal
(i) Buna–N being resistant to the action of petrol,
lubricating oil and organic solvents is used in making (D) Terephthalic acid (s) Melamine
oil seals. (t) Nylon
(ii) Biodegradable polymers are manufactured because (a) A – (t), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
of low chemical resistance, strength and durability of (b) A – (t), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q)
conventional polymers. (c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(iii) PHBV is a copolymer used in the manufacture of (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
orthopaedic devices. 100. Match the columns
(iv) Nylon 2–nylon 6 is a biodegradable polymer. Column-I Column-II
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (A) Polyester of glycol and (p) Novalac
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) phtalic acid
(B) Copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene (q) Glyptal
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
and styrene
97. Match the columns. (C) Phenol and formaldehyde (r) Buna-S
Column-I Column-II resin
(A) Linear polymer (p) Melamine (E) Polyester of glycol and (s) Buna-N
(B) Semisynthetic polymer (q) Polyvinyl chloride terephthalic acid
(C) Branched chain polymer (r) LDPE (F) Copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene (t) Dacron
(D) Network polymer (s) Cellulose nitrate and acrylonitrile
(a) A– (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p) (a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (t), E – (r)
(b) A– (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p) (b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (t), E – (s)
(c) A– (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p) (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (t), D – (s), E – (q)
(d) A– (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) (d) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (t), E – (r)

32/<0(56 251
101. Match the polymers given in Column-I with their chemical 104. Assertion : Olefinic monomers undergo addition
names given in Column-II polymerisation.
Column-I Column-II
Reason : Polymerisation of vinylchloride is initiated by
(A) Nylon 6 (p) Polyvinyl chloride
peroxides/ persulphates.
(B) PVC (q) Polyacrylonitrile
(C) Acralin (r) Polycaprolactum 105. Assertion : Teflon has high thermal stability and chemical
(D) Natural rubber (s) Low density polythene inertness.
(E) LDP (t) cis-polyisoprene Reason : Teflon is a thermoplastic.
(a) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (t), E – (s) 106. Assertion : Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer.
(b) A – (s), B – (q), C – (t), D – (r), E – (p) Reason : Bakelite can be melted again and again without
(c) A – (t), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q), E – (r) any change.
(d) A – (s), B – (t), C – (r), D – (q), E – (p)
107. Assertion : In vulcanisation of rubber, sulphur cross links
are introduced.
Column-I (Polymers) Column-II (Uses)
(A) Nylon 6,6 (p) Fabrics and ropes Reason : Vulcanisation is a free radical initiated chain
(B) Nylon 6 (q) Electrical switches reaction.
(C) Dacron (r) Bristles for brushes 108. Assertion : The time of vulcanisation and temperature is
(D) Bakelite (s) As glass reinforcing increased by adding accelerators.
materials in safety Reason : By vulcanising, a material of high tensile strength
helmets.
can be obtained.
(a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
109. Assertion : Most of the Synthetic polymers are not
(b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p)
biodegradable.
(c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(d) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s) Reason : Polymerisation process induces toxic character in
103. Match the columns organic molecules.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Polymer of styrene (p) used in making handles &5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
of utensils and computer
110. The polymer containing strong intermolecular forces e.g.
discs
hydrogen bonding, is
(B) Polymer of ethylene (q) used as an insulator
glycol and phtalic acid (a) teflon (b) nylon 6, 6
(C) Polymer of phenol (r) used in making paints (c) polystyrene (d) natural rubber
and formaldehyde and lacquers.
111. Among cellulose, poly (vinyl chloride), nylon and natural
(D) Polymer of vinyl (s) used in manufacture of
rubber, the polymer in which the intermolecular force of
chloride rain coats and flooring.
attraction is weakest is
(a) A – (q), B – (r), C– (p), D – (s)
(b) A – (r), B – (q), C– (p), D – (s) (a) nylon (b) poly (vinyl chloride)
(c) A – (q), B – (p), C– (r), D – (s) (c) cellulose (d) natural rubber
(d) A – (q), B – (r), C– (s), D – (p) 112. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by
condensation polymerisation?
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(a) Teflon (b) Natural rubber
(c) Styrene (d) Nylon-66
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You 113. When condensation product of hexamethylenediamine and
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. adipic acid is heated to 525K in an atmosphere of nitrogen
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct for about 4-5 hours, the product obtained is
(a) solid polymer of nylon 66
correct explanation for assertion (b) liquid polymer of nylon 66
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect (c) gaseous polymer of nylon 66
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (d) liquid polymer of nylon 6

252 32/<0(56
114. Identify A, B and C in the following sequence of reactions O O

O O O (c) Nylon-66 –NH–(CH2)6–NH–C–(CH2)4–C–O–n
C6H5–C–O–O–C–C6H5 2 C6H5–C–O 2A
CH3
A + CH2 = CH2
oB (d) PMMA – CH2–C
B + nCH2 = CH2
o C COOCH3 n
C + C
o C6H5–(CH2– CH2)n—CH2– CH2 – CH2 118. In which of the following polymers ethylene glycol is one
of the monomer units?
–(CH2–CH2)n– C6H5
x x (a) (
—OCH 2–CH2OOC CO)n
(a) A = C 6H5, B = C6H5 – CH2– CH 2 and
x x
C = C 6H5 –(CH2 – CH2)n—CH2 – CH 2 .
x x
(b) A = C6H5 CO, B = C6H5 – CH2– CH 2 and (
(b) —CH 2–CH2 —
n (
x
C = C6H5 –(CH2–CH2)n—CH2– CH 2
x x
(c) A = C 6H5, B = C6H5 – CH – CH3 and
x
(c) (
—CH2–CH=CH–CH2 –CH–CH2—n (
C = C6H5—(CH2 –CH2)n—CH2 CH 2
x x
(
(d) —O–CH–CH 2–C–O–CH–CH2–C—n (
(d) A= C 6H5, B=C6H5 –CH2– CH 2 and CH3 O CH2CH3 O
C = C6H5 –(CH2– CH2)n—C6H5 119. Arrange the following in increasing order of their melting
115. In which of the following the formation of radical was found point. Nylon 2,2 (1); Nylon 2,4 (2), Nylon 2,6 (3), Nylon
to be more stable; the formation of radical of (acrylonitrile) 2,10(4)
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1
or > CH 2 CH 2 @n (ethene).
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
(a) Both are equally stable (b) Acrylonitrile. 120. Which of the following rubber is not a polydiene?
(c) Ethene (d) Cannot say (a) Polyisoprene (b) Polychloroprene
116. Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer (c) Thiokol rubber (d) Nitrile rubber
121. Which of the following polymer is biodegradable?
neoprene on polymerization ?
(a) CF2 = CF2 (a) (
—CH 2–C=CH–CH2—n (
(b) CH2 = CHCl Cl
(c) CCl2 = CCl2 CN
Cl (b) —CH
( 2–CH=CH–CH2–CH 2–CH —n (
|
(d) CH 2 C — CH CH 2 (c) (
—O–CH–CH 2–C–O–CH–CH2–C—n (
CH3 O CH2CH3 O
117. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
O O H H O O
(a) Terylene –OCH2–CH2– C– –C – (

(d) —N–(CH2)6–N–C–(CH2)4–C—n (
n 122. The mass average molecular mass & number average
molecular mass of a polymer are 40,000 and 30,000
— CH 2 — C = CH — CH 2 — respectively. The polydispersity index of polymer will be
(b) Neoprene
(a) < 1 (b) > 1
Cl (c) 1 (d) 0
n

32/<0(56 253
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 26. (d) Silk is protein fibre. Dacron is polyester fibre and
Nylon-66 is polyamide fibre.
1. (d) 27. (d) All the given statements about fibres are correct.
2. (d) All these are natural polymers and exist in nature. 28. (d) Both polyesters and polyamides are examples of fibres.
3. (c) ATP is a monomer molecule. 29. (b) Polystyrene and polyethylene belong to the category
4. (a) It is present in the cell wall of plant cell. of thermoplastic polymers which are capable of
5. (b) Since proteins, cellulose and RNA control various repeatedly softening on heating and harden on cooling.
activities of plants and animals, they are called 30. (d) Vinyl chloride, butadiene and styrene being
biopolymers. unsaturated undergoes addition polymerization.
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c)
6. (d) Rayon is a manufactured from regenerated cellulosic
fiber. Rayon is produced from naturally occurring 34. (a) Ethene on free radical polymerisation gives low density
polymers and therefore it is not a truly synthetic fiber, polythene.
nor is it a natural fiber. It is known by the names viscose 35. (b) Monomer of teflon is to Tetrafluoro ethylene C2F4.
rayon and artificial silk in the textile industry. So, 36. (d) Acrylonitrile is the monomer used in the preparation of
option (d) is the correct choice. orlon.
7. (c) Protein is a natural polymer of amino acids. 37. (d) Orlon is a trade name of polyacrylonitrile
8. (b) 38. (b) High density polythene is used for manufacturing of
9. (b) Polymers are substances of high molecular weight buckets, dustbins, pipes etc.
(usually more than a few thousand) formed by the union 39. (b) High density polythene is formed when addition
of small molecular weight substances by covalent polymerisation of ethene takes place in a hydrocarbon
bonds. solvent in presence of catalyst such as ziegler-natta
10. (d) Cellulose acetate also known as rayon and cellulose catalyst.
nitrate are semisynthetic polymers. 40. (b) Nylon-66 is an example of first synthetic fibres produced
11. (a) 12. (a) from the simple molecules. It is prepared by
condensation polymer-isation of adipic acid and
13. (a) Polymerisation starts either by condensation or addition
haxamethylene diamine.
reactions between monomers. Condensation polymers
41. (a) Melamine plastic crockery is a copolymer of HCHO
are formed by the combination of monomers with the
and Melamine.
elimination of simple molecules.Whereas the addition
42. (d) 43. (a)
polymers are formed by the addition together of the
molecules of the monomer or monomers to form a large 44. (b) nHOOC(CH 2 )4 COOH nH 2 N(CH 2 )6 NH 2
molecule without elimination of any thing. adipic acid Hexamethylene
diamine
14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c)
18. (b) Elastomers are the polymers having very weak O O
intermolecular forces of attraction between the polymer 525K
o [– C – (CH 2)4 – C –NH–(CH2) 6 – NH –]n
chain. The weak forces permit the polymer to be Polymerisation Nylon 6, 6
streched.
45. (b)
19. (b) Those polymers in which process of heat softening
46. (d) The unbreakable plastic household crockery is made
and cooling can be repeated as many times as desired.
from copolymer of formaldehyde (HCHO) and melamine.
Example : polystyrene PVC, teflon, etc.
20. (c) Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer. On heating it is N
H2N NH2
infusible and cannot be remoulded.
21. (b) Polymerisation
HCHO o Melamine
22. (d) These are characteristics of thermosets. N N formaldehyde polymer
23. (d) All these are characteristics of elastomers.
NH2
24. (d) Thermosetting polymers have strongest molecular Melamine
forces. These are crosslinked polymers.
25. (b) Thermosetting plastics have three dimensional cross 47. (d) Nylon tyre cord is made from high tenacity continuous
linked structure. filament yarn by twisting and plying.

254 32/<0(56
48. (a) Polyesters are condensation polymers of a dibasic acid 53. (d) Nylon–6 can be manufactured from
and a diol. e.g., Terylene O
NH2OH
Ethylene glycol Terephthalic acid

O
NOH C
conc H2SO4
NH
(Beckmann
rearrangement) C
Terylene H
49. (d) Neoprene is an addition polymer of isoprene. H
caprolactum
Cl H2O, '
|
nCH 2
O 2 or peroxides
CH C CH 2 o O¯
¡ || °° (n1)H 2O
Chloroprene ¡ polymerization
–¡¢ NH (CH 2 )5 C –°± k¶¶¶ ¶¶¶
§ Cl · Nylon6
¨ | ¸ ¯
—¨© CH 2 C CH CH2 —
¸ ¡ H 3 N (CH 2 )5 COO °
¹ ¢ ±
Neoprene 54. (b) Nylon 6 is
50. (d) Phenol and formaldehyde undergo condensation O O
polymerisation under two different conditions to give ~~ ~~
—(NH(CH 2 )5 —C— NH— (CH2)5 —C— )n
a cross linked polymer called bakelite.
Hence (b) is the correct option.
OH OH OH 55. (b) Nylon is a polyamide fibre. It is prepared by the
–
CH2OH condensation polymerisation of adipic acid
OH (HOOC.(CH2)4COOH) and hexamethylene diamine
+ HCHO +
(H2N.(CH2)6.NH2).
CH2OH 56. (c) 57. (b)
o & p-hydroxymethylphenol 58. (a)
(intermediate) OH OH
OH OH CH2OH
OH OH
CH2OH
Polymerisation
+ HCHO + ;
n CH2
– (n – 1) H2 O
Linear Polymer (Novalac) CH2OH

59. (a) Melamine plastic crockery is a copolymer of HCHO
OH OH
and Melamine.
CH2OH
Polymerisation 60. (a) Bakelite is used for making phonograph records.
n + n
– H2O 61. (b) Novolac is a linear polymer.
62. (a) Dacron is a polyester and is the condensation polymer
CH2OH of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid. It is crease
resistant
63. (c) Terylene is made from glycol and Terephthalic acid
HO CH2 CH2 OH and HOOC COOH

(Glycol)
(Terephthalic acid)
64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d)

67. (d) Butadiene – styrene copolymer is used for the
manufacture of autotyres, floortiles, footwear
components, cable insulation etc.
68. (a) This is definition of homopolymer.
51. (b) Nylon 6, 6 has amide linkage capable of forming
69. (a) Butyl rubber is a copolymer of isobutylene and
hydrogen bonding.
isoprene.
52. (b) Nylon is a polyamide polymer.

32/<0(56 255
70. (d) Neoprene is a homopolymer of 2-chloro-buta-1, 3-diene 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
or chloroprene.
71. (b) It is the definition of copolymerisation. 91. (a) Monomeric units in polymers are joined together by
covalent bonds only.
72. (b) n CH2=CH–C=CH2 Polymerisation 92. (b) Condensation polymers are formed by repeated
condensation reaction between two different bi-
CH3 functional or tri–functional monomeric units.
Isoprene
–CH2–CH=C–CH2 – Buna–S and Buna–N being elastomeric consists of
n polymeric chains held together by weak intermolecular
CH3
Polyisoprene forces thus they are elastic in nature.
(Natural rubber) 93. (d) Number of hydrogen bonds is greater in polymer (1)
than in (2) as the density of amide bond is greater in (1)
73. (b)
therefore the chain links to each other strongly in (1)
CH3 H CH2 CH2 CH3 H than in (2) hence (1) melts at higher temperature.
C=C C=C C=C
– CH 2 CH2 CH 3 H CH 2
94. (d) Nylon–6 is used in the manufacturing of tyre cords
CH2–
not nylon–6,6 this is used in making sheets, bristles
Natural rubber
for brushes and in textile industry. Melamine –
(All cis configuration) formaldehyde polymer is used in the manufacture of
All statements except (b) are correct unbreakable crockery.
74. (b) Natural rubber is a linear 1, 4-addition polymer of 95. (b) Vulcanisation of natural rubber with sulphur and an
isoprene (2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene). appropriate additive is carried out within temperature
range of 373K to 415K. Synthetic rubbers are either
75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (b)
homopolymersof 1, 3– butadiene derivatives or
78. (c) Rubber is a polymer of isoprene. Its chemical formula is copolymers of 1, 3–butadiene or its derivatives with
(C5H8)n. another unsaturated monomer.
79. (a) Neoprene is a synthetic polymer that resembles natural 96. (c) Biodegradable polymers are manufactured because
rubber. Neoprene is a polymer of chloroprene which conventional polymers are quite resistant to the
polymerises 700 times faster than the isoprene environmental degradation which leads to accumulation
(monomer of natural rubber) and no specific catalyst is of polymeric solid waste materials causing acute
environmental problems.
needed for this purpose.
CH 2 C CH CH 2 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216

|
o 97. (b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
Cl
Chloroprene
98. (c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(2 chloro 1,3 butadiene) 99. (b) A – (t), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q)
100. (b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (t), E – (s)
101. (a) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (t), E – (s)

( CH 2 C CH CH 2 C CH CH 2
)n
| | 102. (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
Cl Cl 103. (a)
Neoprene (A) Polystyrene is used as insulator.
(B) Glyptal a polymer of ethylene glycol and phthali acid
80. (d) Synthetic rubber (neoprene) is a polymer of is used in manufacture of paints and lacquers.
Cl (C) Bakelite, a polymer of phenol & formal dehyde is used
|
for making electrical switches, handles of utensils and
CH 2 CH C CH 2 or chloroprene.
computer disc’s.
81. (a) (D) PVC, a polymer of vinyl chloride is used in manufacture
82. (b) Buna – N is a copolymer of butadiene of raincoat and flooring.
(CH2=CH–CH=CH2) and acrylonitrile (CH2 = CHCN).
83. (a) Neoprene is a polymer of chloroprene $66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216
(2 – chloro – 1, 3 – butadiene). 104. (a)
84. (c) Neoprene is a homopolymer of chloroprene. 105. (b) Due to the presence of strong C–F bonds, teflon has
85. (b) 5% of sulphur is used as a crosslinking agent in the high thermal stability and chemical inertness.
manufacture of tyre rubber. 106. (c) Bakelite can be heated only once.
86. (b) Buna – N is obtained by copolymerisation of 107. (b) Vulcanisation is a process of treating natural rubber
with sulphur or some compounds of sulphur under
1, 3–butadiene and acrylonitrile.
heat so as to modify its properties. This cross-linking
87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (b) give mechanical strength to the rubber.

256 32/<0(56
108. (d) The time of vulcanisation is reduced by adding 115. (b) Considering the resonance structure, the radical of
accelerators and activators. acrylonitrile is found to be more stable.
109. (d)
H
H
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 CH = CH – C { N C=C H
H
110. (b) Nylon 6, 6 has amide linkage capable of forming + C 6H 5
hydrogen bonding. + C6H5
111. (d) Nylon and cellulose, both have intermolecular
hydrogen bonding, polyvinyl chloride has dipole- p p
dipole interactions, while natural rubber has van der
Waal forces which are weakest.
112. (d) Copolymer of adipic acid (6C) and hexamethylene C6H5 – CH – CH – C { N C 6H5 – CH 2 –CH 2
diamine (6C).
n HOOC(CH 2 ) 4 COOH nH 2 N (CH 2 ) 6 NH 2 o
Adipic acid Hexamethyl ene diamine
O O
|| || C6H5 – CH – CH C N
( C (CH 2 ) 4 C NH (CH 2 ) 6 NH) n
Nylon 66 (Resonance stabilised)
It has high tenacity and elasticity. It is resistant to
abrasion and not affected by sea water. It is used for Cl
reinforcement of rubber tyres, manufacture of |
O or peroxides
nCH 2 CH C 2
CH 2
o
parachute, safety belts, carpets and fabrics. 116. (d)
113. (b) The condensation polymerisation of hexamethylene Chloroprene
diamine and adipic acid is done in solution form by
interface technique. In this liquid nylon polymer is Cl
|
obtained. ( CH 2 CH C CH 2 )n
n.H 2 N (CH 2 )6 NH 2 + Neoprene
Polymerisation 117. (a) Terylene is prepared by condensing terephthalic acid

nHOOC – (CH 2 ) 4 – COOH o
nH O 2 and ethylene glycol
[ HN CH 2 6 NHCO CH 2 4 CO ]n
Nylon nHOOC COOH + nHOCH 2CH 2OH
Terephthalic acid Ethylene glycol
O O O
< || || || <
114. (a) C6 H5 C O O C C6 H5
o 2C6 H5 C O O O
|| ||
< C C – OCH2–CH2–O n

o 2C6 H5
Terylene
(A)
Phenyl radical
118. (a)
< x
C6 H5 CH2 CH 2
o C6 H5 CH2 CH 2 CH 2 C H 2 119. (d) As the amide density along the chain increases the
(A) (B) melting point increases.
x 120. (c) Thiokol is polymer of CH2ClCH2Cl and sodium
C6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 C H 2 nCH 2 CH 2
o polysulphide Na–S–S–Na and thus, not polydiene
(B) rubber.
x 121. (d)
C6 H 5 (CH 2 CH 2 ) n CH 2 C H 2 .
(C) 122. (b) Average number molecular weight M n 30,000
x x
C6 H 5— (CH 2 CH 2 )n—CH 2 C H 2 C6 H—(CH Average mass molecular weight M w 40,000
5 2 CH 2 ) n—CH 2 C H 2

o C6 H5 (CH 2— CH 2 )n—CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Mw 40,000
Polydispersity index (PDI) = 1.33
Mn 30,000
(CH 2 CH 2 )—C
n 6 H5

16
CHEMISTRY IN
EVERYDAY LIFE
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 8. Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer
drug?
1. The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as (a) Promethazine (b) Valium
(a) isothermotherapy (b) angiotherapy (c) Naproxen (d) Mifepristone
(c) physiotherapy (d) chemotherapy 9. Terfenadine is commonly used as a/an
2. Which of the following statements is not true aboult enzyme (a) tranquilizer (b) antihistamine
inhibitors? (c) antimicrobial (d) antibiotic
(a) Inhibit the catalytic activity of the enzyme. 10. Which one of the following is not a tranquilizer?
(b) Prevent the binding of substrate. (a) Equanil (b) Veronal
(c) Generally a strong covalent bond is formed between (c) Salvarsan (d) Serotonin
an inhibitor and an enzyme 11. Tranquillizers are substances used for the treatment of
(d) Inhibitors can be competitive or non-competitive. (a) cancer (b) AIDS
3. Which of the following is not a target molecule for drug (c) mental diseases (d) physical disorders
function in body? 12. Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Lipids drug?
(c) Vitamins (d) Proteins (a) Promethazine (b) Valium
4. Which of the following comounds are administered as (c) Naproxen (d) Mifepristone
antacids? 13. Which of the following drugs is a tranquilizer and sedative
(i) Sodium carbonate (a) Sulphadiazine (b) Papaverine
(ii) Sodium hydrogencarbonate (c) Equanil (d) Mescaline
(iii) Aluminium carbonate 14. Drug which helps to reduce anxiety and brings about
(iv) Magnesium hydroxide calmness is
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (a) tranquillizer (b) diuretic
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these (c) analgesic (d) antihistamine
5. The drug H is used as 15. The drug used as an antidepressant is
N (a) Luminol (b) Tofranil
(c) Mescaline (d) Sulphadiazine
16. Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known
N CH2 (a) antipyretics (b) analgesics
(c) antiseptics (d) traquillizers
CH2 NH2
17. Which of the following is a hypnotic drug?
(a) Antacid (b) Analgesic (a) luminal (b) salol
(c) Antimicrobial (d) Antiseptic (c) catechol (d) chemisol
6. The function of enzymes in the living system is to 18. Which of the following is used for inducing sleep?
(a) transport oxygen (a) Paracetamol
(b) provide energy (b) Chloroquine
(c) provide immunity (c) Bithional
(d) catalyse biochemical reactions (d) Barbituric acid derivatives
7. Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer? 19. Aspirin is
(a) Naproxen (b) Tetracycline (a) antibiotic (b) antipyretic
(c) Chlorpheninamine (d) Equanil (c) sedative (d) psychedelic

258 &+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)(
20. An antipyretic is 33. Sulpha drugs are used for
(a) quinine (b) paracetamol (a) precipitating bacteria
(c) luminal (d) piperazine (b) removing bacteria
21. The following compound is used as (c) decreasing the size of bacteria
O (d) stopping the growth of bacteria
O – C – CH3 34. Streptomycin is effective in the treatment of
(a) tuberculosis (b) malaria
(c) typhoid (d) cholera
COOH
35. An antibiotic with a broad spectrum
(a) an anti-inflammatory compound
(a) kills the antibodies
(b) analgesic
(b) acts on a specific antigen
(c) hypnotic
(d) antiseptic (c) acts on different antigens
22. Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known (d) acts on both the antigens and antibodies
(a) antipyretics (b) analgesics 36. Which of the following is not an antiseptic drug?
(c) antiseptics (d) traquillizers (a) Iodoform (b) Dettol
23. The drug used for prevention of heart attacks is (c) Gammexane (d) Genation violet
(a) aspirin (b) valium 37. Penicillin was first discovered by
(c) chloramphenicol (d) cephalsoprin (a) A. Fleming (b) Tence and Salke
24. Sulpha drugs are used for (c) S.A. Waksna (d) Lewis Pasteur
(a) precipitating bacteria 38. Veronal, a barbiturate drug is used as
(b) removing bacteria (a) anaesthetic (b) sedative
(c) decreasing the size of bacteria (c) antiseptic (d) None of these
(d) stopping the growth of bacteria 39. A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, bronchitis,
25. Aspirin falls under which class of drugs ? etc, is
(a) Analgesic (b) Antibiotic (a) streptomycin (b) chloramphenicol
(c) Antifertility (d) antacid
(c) penicillin (d) sulphaguanidine
26. Which of the following term means pain killer
40. Commonly used antiseptic 'Dettol' is a mixture of
(a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic
(a) o-chlorophenozylenol + terpeneol
(c) Antipyretic (d) Penicillin
27. Which one of the following can possibly be used as analgesic (b) o-cresol + terpeneol
without causing addiction and mood modification ? (c) phenol + terpeneol
(a) Diazepam (d) chloroxylenol + terpeneol
(b) Morphine 41. Chloroamphenicol is an :
(c) N-Acetyl-para-aminophenol (a) antifertility drug
(d) Tetrahydrocannabinol (b) antihistaminic
28. Aspirin is known as (c) antiseptic and disinfectant
(a) acetyl salicylic acid (b) phenyl salicylate (d) antibiotic-broad spectrum
(c) acetyl salicylate (d) methyl salicylic acid 42. The drug which is effective in curing malaria is
29. Which one among the following is not an analgesic? (a) quinine (b) aspirin
(a) Ibuprofen (b) Naproxen (c) analgin (d) equanil
(c) Aspirin (d) Valium
43. An antibiotic contains nitro group attached to aromatic
30. Which of the following statements about aspirin is not true? nucleus. It is
(a) It is effective in relieving pain.
(a) penicillin (b) streptomycin
(b) It is a neurologically active drug.
(c) tetracycline (d) chloramphenicol
(c) It has antiblood clotting action.
44. The structure given below is known as
(d) It belongs to narcotic analgesics.
31. Salol can be used as O
& H H S CH3
(a) antiseptic (b) antipyretic
CH 2 C NH
(c) analgesic (d) None of these CH3
32. Various phenol derivatives, tincture of iodine (2 – 3%) I2 N COOH
in (water / alcohol) and some dyes like methylene blue are O H
(a) antiseptics (b) disinfectants (a) Penicillin F (b) Penicillin G
(c) analgesics (d) antipyretics (c) Penicillin K (d) Ampicillin

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45. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of 57. Which of the following method of classification of drugs is
(a) Jaundice (b) Typhoid useful for medicinal chemists?
(c) Syphilis (d) Cholera (a) On the basis of molecular targets.
46. Bithional is an example of (b) On the basis of chemical structure.
(a) disinfectant (b) antiseptic (c) On the basis of drug action.
(c) antibiotic (d) analgesic (d) All of these.
47. Penicillin is an :
58. Which of the following statements is true about the catalytic
(a) antibiotic (b) anaesthetic activity of enzyme?
(c) antiseptic (d) antipyretic
(a) Enzyme holds the substrate for a biochemical reaction.
48. Which of the following is a broad spectrum drug?
(b) En zyme binds substrate through a variety of
(a) Plasmoquine (b) Chloroquine
interactions such as ionic bonding, hydrogen bonding,
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) D.D.T.
van der Waal’s interaction or dipole – dipole
49. Bithional is added to soap as an additive to function as a/an
interaction.
(a) softener (b) hardener
(c) Enzyme provides functional group that will attack the
(c) dryer (d) antiseptic
substrate and carry out biochemical reaction.
50. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth
of microorganisms. Identify which of the following (d) All of the above.
statements is not true: 59. Drug tegamet is used as
(a) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants. (a) Antacid (b) Antimalarial
(b) Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen Peroxide (c) Analgesic (d) Antiseptic
are strong antiseptics. 60. Which of the following is an essential component of sleeping
(c) Disinfectants harm the living tissues. pills?
(d) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% (a) Analgesics (b) Tranquilizers
solution acts as a disinfectant. (c) Antihistamines (d) Both (b) and (c)
51. Arsenic containing medicine used for the treatment of 61. Which type of drugs inhibit the enzymes which catalyse
syphilis, is the degradation of noradrenaline?
(a) erythromycin (b) ofloxacin
(a) Narcotic analgesics (b) Antacids
(c) tetracycline (d) salvarsan
(c) Antidepressant (d) Non–narcotic analgesic.
52. Novestrol is an
(a) antibiotic (b) analgesic 62. Which of the following is/are example(s) of narcotic
(c) antacid (d) antifertility drug analgesics?
53. Which is the correct statement about birth control pills? (a) Morphine (b) Heroin
(a) Contain estrogen only (c) Codeine (d) All of these
(b) Contain progesterone only 63. Which of the following was the first effective treatment
(c) Contain a mixture of estrogen and progesterone discovered for syphilis?
derivatives. (a) Penicillin (b) Arsphenamine
(d) Progesterone enhances ovulation. (c) Chloramphenicol (d) Sulphanilamide
54. Compounds with antiseptic properties are ____________ 64. Which of the following is an example of narrow spectrum
(i) CHCl3 antibiotic?
(ii) CHI3 (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Penicillin G
(iii) Boric acid (c) Ampicillin (d) Ofloxacin
(iv) 0.3 ppm aqueous solution of Cl2 65. Antibiotic that can be given orally in case of typhoid, acute
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) fever, dysentery, meningitis and pneumonia is_______.
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
(a) vancomycin (b) salvarsan
55. Which of the following is not a function of aspirin?
(c) ofloxacin (d) chloramphenicol
(a) Relief from arthritic pain
(b) Relief from postoperative pain. 66. Veronal and luminal are derivatives of barbituric acid which
(c) Prevents platelet coagulation. are______.
(d) Prevention of heart attacks. (i) Tranquilizers
56. Which of the following method of classification of drugs is (ii) Non– narcotic analgesic.
useful for doctors? (iii) Antiallergic drug
(a) On the basis of drug action. (iv) Neurologically active drug.
(b) On the basis of chemical structure. (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) On the basis of molecular targets. (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) only
(d) On the basis of pharmacological effect.

260 &+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)(
67. Which is correct about saccharin? 81. Washing soap can be prepared by saponification with alkali
O of which of the following oil
(a) Rose oil (b) Paraffin oil
C
(a) It is NH (c) Groundnut oil (d) Kerosene oil
SO2 82. Palmitic acid and stearic acid are used as :
(b) It is 600 times sweeter than sugar (a) medicine (b) soap
(c) It is used as sweetening agent (c) antiseptic cream (d) pickle
(d) All of these 83. Soaps can be classified as :
68. Which of the following acts as an antioxidant in edible oils (a) esters (b) salts of fatty acids
(a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin C (c) alcohols (d) phenols
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E 84. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a popular
69. Salts of sorbic acid and propionic acid are used as (a) anionic detergent (b) cationic detergent
(a) antioxidants (b) flavouring agents (c) non-ionic detergent (d) sweetener
(c) food preservatives (d) nutritional supplements 85. The cationic detergent that is used in hair conditioners is
70. Which of the following add nutritive value to food? (a) sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(a) Sweeteners (b) Antioxidants (b) sodium lauryl sulphate
(c) Fat emulsifiers (d) None of these (c) tetramethyl ammonium chloride
71. Arrange the following artificial sweeteners in increasing (d) cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
order of their sweetness value? 86. Which of the following enhances leathering property of
(a) Sucralose < Saccharin < Alitame < Aspartame soap?
(b) Aspartame < Saccharin < Sucralose < Alitame (a) Sodium carbonate (b) Sodium rosinate
(c) Aspartame < Sucralose < Saccharine < Alitame (c) Sodium stearate (d) Trisodium phosphate
(d) Saccharine < Aspartame < Sucralose < Alitame 87. Polyethyleneglycols are used in the preparation of which
72. Which of the following artificial sweetener does not provide type of detergents?
calories? (a) Cationic detergents (b) Anionic detergents
(a) Alitame (b) Aspartame (c) Non-ionic detergents (d) Soaps
(c) Sucralose (c) Both (b) and (c) 88. Which of the following are anionic detergents?
73. Sodium benzoate is used as (i) Sodium salts of sulphonated long chain alcohol.
(a) food preservative (b) analgesic (ii) Ester of stearic acid and polyethylene glycol.
(c) filler in detergents (d) antiseptic (iii) Quarternary ammonium salt of amine with acetate ion.
74. Structuraly biodegradable detergent should contain (iv) Sodium salts of sulphonated long chain hydrocarbons.
(a) normal alkyl chain (b) branched alkyl chain (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) phenyl side chain (d) cyclohexyl side chain (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
75. Detergents are prepared by the action of H2SO4 on which 89. Which type of detergent is formed when stearic acid reacts
of the following? with polyethylene glycol?
(a) Cholesterol (b) Lauryl alcohol (a) Cationic detergent (b) Anionic detergent
(c) Cyclohexanol (d) p-Nitrophenol (c) Non– ionic detergent (d) None of these
76. Sodium alkyl benzene sulphonate is used as 90. Glycerol is added to soap. It functions ___________
(a) soap (b) fertilizers (a) as a filler.
(c) pesticides (d) detergents (b) to increase leathering.
77. Which of the following represents a synthetic detergent? (c) to prevent rapid drying.
(a) C15H31COOK (d) to make soap granules.
(b) CH3[CH2]16COONa
67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
(c) C12H25 SO3Na 91. Which of the following statements are incorrect about
receptor proteins?
(d) None of these (i) Majority of receptor proteins are embedded in the cell
78. Which of the following represents soap membranes.
(a) C17H35COOK (b) C17H35COOH (ii) The active site of receptor proteins opens on the inside
(c) C15H31COOH (d) (C17H35COO)2Ca region of the cell.
79. Alkaline hydrolysis of esters is known as : (iii) Chemical messengers are received at the binding sites
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification of receptor proteins.
(c) dehydration (d) alkalination (iv) Shape of receptor doesn’t change during attachment
80. Commercial detergent contains mainly of messenger.
(a) RCOONa (b) RONa (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) RSNa (d) RSO3Na (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

&+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)( 261
92. Which of the following statements are incorrect about Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
penicillin? above ?
(i) An antibacterial medicine. (a) TFTT (b) FTTT
(ii) Ampicillin is its synthetic modification. (c) FTFT (d) TTTT
(iii) It has bacteriostatic effect. 97. Which of the following statements are correct?
(iv) It is a broad spectrum antibiotic. (i) Detergents give foam easily even in hard water.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (ii) Anionic detergents are used in toothpastes.
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (iii) Cationic detergents being inexpensive are extensively
93. Which of the following statements are correct? used as germicide.
(i) Before 1970 for treatment of stomach acidity Al(OH)3 (iv) Detergents with linear alkyl chains are more polluting
is a better antacid in comparison to NaHCO3 . as compared to detergents having branched alkyl
(ii) Discovery of cimetidine was a major break through in chains.
the treatment of hyperacidity. Which of the following is the correct code for the statements
(iii) Terfenadine is a drug which competes with histamine above?
for binding sites of receptor. (a) TFTF (b) TFFT
(iv) Antidepressant drugs like equanil inhibit the enzymes (c) FFFT (d) TTFF
which catalyze the degradation of noradernaline.
(v) Veronal and luminal belongs to the class of tranquilizers 0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
called barbiturates.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (v) 98. Match the columns
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v) Column-I Column-II
94. Consider the following statements. (A) Sodium Perborate (p) Disinfectant
(i) Antiseptics are not ingested like antibiotics. (B) Chlorine (q) Antiseptic
(ii) 1% solution of iodine in alcohol–water mixture is known (C) Bithional (r) Milk bleaching agent
as tincture of iodine. (D) Potassium stearate (s) Soap
(iii) SO2 in low concentrations are used as antiseptics (a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
whereas in higher concentration are used as (b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
disinfectants.
(c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(iv) Birth control pills essentially contain a mixture of
synthetic estrogen and progesterone derivates. (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
Which of the following is the correct code for the statements 99. Match the columns
above ? Column-I Column-II
(a) FTFT (b) TTTF (A) Ranitidine (p) Tranquilizer
(c) TFFT (d) FFTT (B) Furacine (q) Antibiotic
95. Which of the following statements are correct? (C) Phenelzine (r) Antihistamine
(i) Cationic detergents have germicidal properties (D) Chloramphenicol (s) Antiseptic
(ii) Bacteria can degrade the detergents containing highly (a) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
branched chains. (b) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
(iii) Some synthetic detergents can give foam even in ice (c) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
cold water.
(d) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p)
(iv) Synthetic detergents are not soaps.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Column – I Column – II
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(A) First antibacterial (p) Broad spectrum
96. Consider the following statements.
drug antibiotic
(i) Potassium soaps are soft to the skin than sodium
(B) Protosil (q) Arsphenamine
soaps.
(ii) Shaving soaps contain ethanol to prevent rapid drying. (C) Chloramphenicol (r) 1932
(iii) Builders like Na2CO3 and Na3PO4 make soaps act more (D) Ofloxacin (s) 1947
rapidly. (a) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p, s), D – (p)
(iv) Hard water contains Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions which forms (b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p, s), D – (p)
insoluble Ca2+ and Mg 2+ soaps separates out as (c) A – (q), B – (p, s), C – (r), D – (p)
scum. (d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (p, s), D – (q)

262 &+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)(
101. Match the columns 105. Assertion : Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic.
Column-I Column-II Reason : Tetracyclin is effective against a number of types
+ of bacteria, large viruses and typhus fever.
CH3 106. Assertion : Antiseptics are applied to living tissues.
–
(A) CH3(CH2)15–N–CH3 Br (p) Dishwashing Reason : Iodine is a powerful antiseptic.
107. Assertion : Sedatives are given to patients who are mentally
CH3 powder agitated and violent.
Reason : Sedatives are used to suppress the activities of
central nervous system.
– +
(B) CH3– (CH2)11 SO3 Na (q) Laundry soap 108. Assertion : Non-competitive inhibitor inhibits the catalyic
activity of enzyme by binding with its active site.
(C) C17H35COO–Na+ + Na2CO3 + Rosin (r) Hair Reason : Non-competitive inhibitor changes the shape of
conditioners the active site in such a way that substrate can’t recognise
(D) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2 CH2OH (s) Toothpaste it.
(a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s) 109. Assertion : Sodium chloride is added to precipitate soap
(b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s) after saponification.
(c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p) Reason : Hydrolysis of esters of long chain fatty acids by
(d) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s) alkali produces soap in colloidal form.
Column -I Column -II &5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216
(A) Toilet soap (p) Made by beating
110. Which of the following are sulpha drugs?
tiny air bubbles before
(i) Sulphapyridine (ii) Prontosil
their hardening.
(iii) Salvarsan (iv) Nardil
(B) Transparent soap (q) Contain glycerol
to prevent rapid drying. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(C) Shaving soaps (r) Prepared by (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
using better grades of 111. Among the following antihistamines, which are antacids
fats and oils. (i) Ranitidine (ii) Brompheniramine
(D) Soaps that float in (s) Made by dissolving (iii) Terfenadine (iv) Cimetidine
water the soap in ethanol (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
and then evaporating (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
excess alkali. 112. Which one of the following is an antihistamine?
(a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r) (a) Iproniazid (b) Salvarsan
(b) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p) (c) Zantac (d) Chloramphenicol
(c) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s) 113. Morphine is
(d) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) (a) an alkaloid (b) an enzyme
(c) a carbohydrate (d) a protein
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 114. H1 – Receptor antagonists is a term associated with :
(a) Antiseptics (b) Antihistamins
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, (c) Antacids (d) Analgesics
115. Amoxillin is semi-synthetic modification of
(a) penicillin (b) streptomycin
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(c) tetracycline (d) chloroampheniol
116. Which of the following is used as an antibiotic ?
(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Paracetamol
(c) Ibuprofen (d) Tocopherol
117. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Equanil is used to control depression and hypertension.
(b) Mifepristone is a synthetic steroid used as “morning
103. Assertion : The drugs which act on the central nervous
after pill”.
system and help in reducing anxiety are called antibiotics.
Reason : Pencillin is an antibiotic. (c) 0.2 percent solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its
1.0 percent solution is a disinfectant.
104. Assertion : Equanil is a tranquilizer.
(d) A drug which kills the organism in the body is called
Reason : Equan il is used to cure depression and
bacteriostatic.
hypertension.

&+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)( 263
118. A large number of antibiotics have been isolated from (c) X = Narrow spectrum antibiotics.
(a) Bacteria actinomycetes Y = Limited spectrum antibiotics.
(b) Acids (d) X = Narrow spectrum antibiotics.
(c) Alkanals Y = Broad spectrum antibiotics.
(d) Bacteria rhizobium 125. Which of the following is an example of synthetic
119. Antiseptic chloroxylenol is progesterone derivative which is most widely used as
(a) 4-chloro-3, 5-dimethylphenol antifertility drug?
(b) 3-chloro-4, 5-dimethylphenol (a) Norethindrone (b) Novestrol
(c) 4-chloro-2, 5-dimethylphenol (c) Ethynylestradiol (d) All of these
(d) 5-chloro-3, 4-dimethylphenol 126. Substance used for the preservation of coloured fruit juices
120. Which of the following is not correctly matched? is
(i) Proteins that are – Receptors (a) benzene (b) benzoic acid
crucial to body’s communication (c) phenol (d) sodium meta bisulphite
process. 127. The artificial sweetener containing chlorine that has the
(ii) Drugs that mimic – Antagonists appearance and taste as that of sugar and is stable at cooking
the natural messenger by temperature is
switching on the receptor. (a) Aspartame (b) Saccharin
(iii) Drugs that binds to – Agonists (c) Sucrolose (d) Alitame
the receptor site and inhibit 128. Benzalkonium chloride is a
its natural function. (a) cationic surfactant and antiseptic
(a) (ii) only (b) (iii) only (b) anionic surfactant and soluble in most of organic
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) solvents
121. Which of the following drug inhibits the synthesis of (c) cationic surfactant and insoluble in most of organic
chemicals known as prostaglandins which stimulate solvents
inflammation in tissue and cause pain? (d) cationic surfactant and antimalarial
(a) Barbiturates (b) Aspirin 129. Which one of the following is not used as a filler in laundry
(c) Seldane (d) Iproniazid soaps?
122. Bactericidal antibiotics are those which (a) Sodium silicate (b) Glycerol
(a) have inhibitory effect on microbes. (c) Sodium rosinate (d) Borax
(b) have killing effect on microbes. 130. Which of the following is an example of liquid dishwashing
(c) have both inhibitory and killing effect on microbes. detergent?
(d) intervene in metabolic process of microorganism. (a) CH3(CH2)10–CH2OSO3–Na+
123. Which of the following antibiotics is not correctly classified?
Bactericidal Bacteriostatic (b) C9H19 — (
—O—CH )5 –CH2CH2OH
2–CH2–O—
(A) Penicillin Erythromycin

(B) Aminoglycosides Tetracycline – +
(C) Chloramphenicol Ofloxacin (c) CH3— —SO3 Na
(a) A and B (b) C only
(c) B and C (d) B only +
CH3
124. Antibiotics that are effective mainly against Gram-positive –
or Gram-negative bacteria X. Antibiotics that are effective (d) CH3(CH2)15–N–CH3 Br
against a single organism or disease are Y CH3
What is X and Y ?
(a) X = Broad spectrum antibiotics. 131. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Y = Narrow spectrum antibiotics. (a) Saccharin is about 550 times as sweet as cane sugar.
(b) X = Broad spectrum antibiotics. (b) Aspartame is used in the manufacture of baked sweets.
Y = Limited spectrum antibiotics. (c) Alitame is more sweet than saccharin and aspartame.
(d) Sodium benzoate is commonly used preservative.

264 &+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)(
)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 O–COCH3
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) COOH

28. (a) Aspirin (Acetyl salicylic acid)
5. (a) Given drug is used as Antacid.
6. (d) The function of enzymes in the living system is to
29. (d) Valium is a tranquilizer and not an analgesic. It is used
catalyse biochemical reactions which occure in living
systems. e.g. invertase, pepsin, amylase. for treatment of stress, fatigue, mild and severe mental
diseases.
Sucrose Invertase
o glucose + fructose 30. (d) Aspirin is an non-narcotics analgesic.
(polymer) (monomer) 31. (a) Salol is phenyl salicylate used as antiseptic.
amylase
32. (a) Antiseptic drugs cause destruction of micro-organism
Starch o glucose that produce septic disease e.g. Dettol, Savlon, Boric
(polymer) (monomer) acid, Phenol, Iodoform, KMnO4 and some dye such
7. (d) Equanil is an important medicine used in depression as methylene blue, genation violet.
and hypertension. 33. (d) Sulpha drugs (antibacterial and antibiotic) are group
8. (b) of drugs which are derivative of sulphanilamide.
9. (b) Terfenadine is commonly used as antihistamine. 34. (a) It is the very effective antibiotic for tuberculosis.
10. (c) Salvarsan is an organoarsenic compound, used in the 35. (c) Broad spectrum antibiotics act on different antigens.
treatment of syphilis. It was the first modern 36. (c) It is an insecticide.
chemotherapeutic agent. 37. (a) A. Fleming discovered penicillin in 1929.
11. (c) 12. (b) 38. (b)
13. (c) Tranquilizers reduce anxiety and tension they are also 39. (c) Penicillin is an effective medicine for pneumonia
called psychototropic drugs. These are two type disease.
(i) Sedative the drugs used for violent and mentaly 40. (d) The mixture of chloroxylenol and terpenol is dettol
agitated patient e.g.., Equanil and diazepam. which is used as antiseptic.
(ii) Antidepressant- The drug are used to patients who 41. (d) Chloroamphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic.
are highly depressed and lose self confidence e.g. 42. (a) Substances used for the treatment of malaria are
tofranil vitalin, amphetamine etc. antimalarial e.g. Quinine, chloroquine.
14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 43. (d) Chloramphenicol is
17. (a) These drugs induce sleep and are habit forming O
common example of hypnotic drugs are Luminal and ||
NO2 CH CH NH C – CHCl 2
Saconal. | |
18. (d) OH CH 2OH
19. (b) Aspirin is antipyretic i.e., a drug which is responsible 44. (b) It is the known structure of Penicillin G
for lowering the temperature of feverish organism to 45. (c) Arsenic drugs are poisonous for syphilis.
normal, other antipyretic drugs are Paracetamol, 46. (b) Bithional is a well known antiseptic, added in soaps to
Phenacetin. reduce odours produced by bacterial decomposition
20. (b) Paracetamol is an antipyretic of organic matter of skin.
21. (b) It is acetyl salicylic acid i.e., aspirin, analgesic and
antipyretic. Cl OH HO Cl
22. (d)
23. (a) Due to anti-blood clotting action of aspirin, it is used S
to prevent heart attack. Cl
Bithional
Cl
24. (d) Sulpha drugs (antibacterial and antibiotic) are group
of drugs which are derivative of sulphanilamide. 47. (a) Penicillin is an antibiotic.
25. (a) Analgesic are pain killers. 48. (c) Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum drug.
26. (b) Analgesic means painkiller. [Broad spectrum antibiotics are medicines effective
27. (c) We know that N-acetyl-para-aminophenol (or against gram positive as well as gram negative bacteria,
paracetamol) is an antipyretic which can also be used e.g., tetracycline, chloramphenicol, etc.]
as an analgesic to relieve pain.

&+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)( 265
49. (d) Bithional is another well known antiseptic which is 78. (a) Soaps are the sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty
added to good quality soaps to reduce the odours acids e.g., C17H37COOK (Potassium stearate). These
produced by bacterial decomposition of organic matter are obtained by alkaline hydrolysis of oils and fats.
on the skin. The reaction is called saponification.
50. (b) Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide 79. (b) Alkaline hydr olysis of esters is known as
are weak antiseptics. saponification.
51. (d) R COOR ' NaOH o R 'OH RCOONa
52. (d) Novestrol is an antifertility drug. 80. (d) Commercial detergent are the sodium salts of long chain
53. (c) 54. (b) (linear) alkyl substituted benzene sulphonic acids
55. (b) Morphine narcotics are chiefly used for the relief of (LAB) and are most widely used. The most common is
post operative pain. sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate.
56. (d) Classification of drugs on the basis of pharmacological
effect is useful for doctors because it provides them – +
CH3(CH2)10 CH2 SO2O Na
the whole range of drugs available for the treatment of
a particular type of problem.
81. (c) Any oils which are good for eating or cooking, can be
57. (a) 58. (d)
used in making soap. One of the best is said to be
59. (a) Drug tegamet was designed to prevent the interaction
coconut oil. Groundnut, Shea butter, Cocoa butter, Sun
of histamine with the receptors present in the stomach
flower and many other vegetable oils are also used.
wall. This resulted in release of lesser amount of acid.
60. (b) 82. (b) Sodium or potassium salts of palmitic acid
61. (c) Antidepressant drugs inhibit the enzymes which (CH 3 (CH 2 ) 14 COO – Na + ) and stearic acid
catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline. (CH3(CH2)16COO–Na+) are used as soaps.
62. (d) 83. (b) Soaps are actually salts of higher fatty acids.
63. (b) Arsphenamine also known as salvarsan was the first Example ; C17 H 35 COONa
effective treatment discovered for syphilis. (sodium stearate)
64. (b) Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum, while all other
options have broad spectrum. 84. (b)
ª CH 3 º
65. (d) Chloramphenicol is rapidly absorbed from the « | »
gastrointestinal tract and hence can be given orally in « CH (CH ) N CH » Br
« 3 2 15
|
3»
case of typhoid, acute fever, meningitis, pneumonia « »
etc. CH3
¬« ¼»
66. (a) cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
67. (d) All are characteristics of Saccharin.
68. (d) Vitamin E is an antioxidant present in edible oils. 85. (d) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide possess germicidal
69. (c) Salts of sorbic acid and propionic acid are used as properties. Thus it is used as a cationic detergent in
food preservatives because these chemicals inhibit the hair conditioners.
growth of yeast bacteria or moulds. 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (a)
70. (d) Neither any of the substances among given options 89. (c) Non– ionic detergent is formed when stearic acid reacts
possess nutritive value. with polyethylene glycol.
71. (b) Artificial sweetener Sweetness value 90. (c)
Aspartame 100
Saccharin 550 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216
Sucralose 600 91. (b) 92. (c)
Alitame 2000
93. (b) For statement (ii), drug which brings major change in
72. (c) Sucralose does not provide calories.
the treatment of hyperacidity was histamine. For
73. (a) Sodium benzoate is used as a food preservative.
statement (iv), antidepressant drugs like iproniazid and
74. (b) Structurally biodegradable detergents should contain
phenelzine inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the
branched alkyl chain.
degradation of noradrenaline when the enzyme is
75. (b)
inhibited, this important neurotransmitter is slowly
76. (d) It is used as detergent.
metabolised and can activate its receptor for longer
77. (c) The most widely used domestic detergent is the
periods of time, thus counteracting the effect of
sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate (SDS).
depression.
94. (c) For statement (ii), 2–3% solution of iodine in alcohol
CH3 – (CH2)11 SO3Na water mixture is known as tincture of iodine. For
statement (iii), SO2 in very low concentrations are used
(Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate) as disinfectants.

266 &+(0,675<,1(9(5<'$</,)(
95. (b) 117. (d) Bacteriostatic drugs inhibit the growth of organism
96. (a) Shaving soaps contain glycerol to prevent rapid drying. while bactericidal drugs kill the microorganisms.
97. (d) For statement (iii), cationic detergents are expensive 118. (a)
and thus have limited use. For statement (iv), 119. (a) OH
detergents having unbranched chains can be
biodegraded more easily thus are less polluting as
compared to detergents having branched chains. H3C CH3
Cl
0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 Chloroxylenol
98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (a) 101. (c) 102. (b) (4-chloro-3, 5-dimethylphenol)
120. (d) Drugs that mimic the natural messenger by switching
$66(57,215($621 7<3( 48(67,216 on the receptor are called agonists. While drugs that
binds to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function
103. (d) The drugs which act on the central nervous system are called antagonists.
and help in reducing anxiety are called tranquilizers. 121. (b)
104. (a) Tranquilizers are chemicals which are used to cure 122. (b) Bactericidal have killing effect on microbes while
mental diseases. bacteriostatic have inhibitory effect on microbes.
105. (a) Broad spectrum antibiotics are those medicines which 123. (b) Chloramphenicol is bacteriostatic antibiotic while
are effective against several different types of harmful ofloxacin is bactericidal type antibiotic.
micro organisms. 124. (c) Narrow spectrum antibiotics are effective against
106. (b) Antiseptics are those chemical which kill or prevent Gram–positive or Gram-negative bacteria. Limited
the growth of micro organism. Antiseptics do not harm spectrum antibiotics are effective against a single
the living tissues and can be applied on cuts and organism or disease.
wounds. They help to reduce odour resulting from the 125. (a) Norethindrone is an example of synthetic progestrone
bacterial decomposition in the mouth and on the body. derivative most widely used as antifertility drug.
107. (a) A small quantity of sedative produces a feeling of 126. (b) Benzoic acid used as preservative as sodium benzoate.
relaxation, calmness and drowsiness. 127. (c) HO OH
108. (d) 109. (b) Cl HO Cl
O
&5,7,&$/ 7+,1.,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 HO O O
OH Cl
110. (a) 111. (c) Sucrolose
112. (c) Iproniazid o Tranquilizer 128. (a) Benzalkonium chloride, also known as
Salvarsan o Antimicrobial alkyldimethylbenzylammonium chloride is nitrogenous
Zantac (ranitidine) o Antihistamine cationic surface active agent belonging to the
Chloramphenicol o Antibiotic quaternary ammonium group. It is used as antiseptic.
–
113. (a) It is an alkaloid, a class of organic compound which is Cl
basic in nature and of plant origin containing atleast +
N
one nitrogen atom in a ring structure of molecule.
CnH2n+1
114. (b) The term “antihistamine” refers only to H1 antagonists,
which is also known as H1-receptor antagonists and n = 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18
H1-antihistamine. 129. (b) Laundry soaps contain fillers like sodium rosinate,
115. (a) Amoxillin is semisynthetic modification of Penicillin sodium silicate, borax and sodium carbonate.
116. (a) Ciprofloxacin is used as antibiotic while paracetamol, 130. (b)
ibuprofen and tocopherol are respectively antipyretic, 131. (b) Aspartame cannot be used in baked food as it is
pain killer and Vit. E. unstable at cooking temperature thus its use is limited
to cold foods and soft drinks.

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MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

pure solvent at the same temperature.

Mole fraction of gas Mole fraction of gas

54. Which is an application of Henry’s law? p Total II

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

)$&7  '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 Number of moles

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

1000 33. (a)

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

Pq  P n2 0.1 u180 u100

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

134. (d) No. of moles of A

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

? PT2 = 500 + 25 = 525 mm Hg Number of moles of the solute

1 3 Number of moles of solute

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

7. Which one is not called a anode reaction from the following?

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

0$7&+,1* 7<3( 48(67,216 121. Match the columns.

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

0.059 [Fe 2 ]2 1000 u 0.01

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

/ qBa(OH) 2 524 u 10 4 Sm 2 mol 1.

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

Cu   e o Cu; E3º ? ... (iii) ª Zn 2  º

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

)$&7  '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 d[ NH 3 ] 3 d[H 2 ]

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

(c) rate = k[A] [B] (d) rate = k[A] [B]0

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

MAHARAJA AGRASEN MODEL SCHOOL, CD-BLOCK, PITAM PURA, NEW DELHI-110034

)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 Number of moles

Pq P n2 0.1 u180 u100

0.059 [Fe 2 ]2 1000 u 0.01

/ qBa(OH) 2 524 u 10 4 Sm 2 mol 1.

Cu e o Cu; E3º ? ... (iii) ª Zn 2 º

)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 d[ NH 3 ] 3 d[H 2 ]

Conc the following mechanism A 2 Fast

k 2 k1 108. (b) For a 10 K rise in temperature, collision frequency

87. (b) 'H Ea( f ) Ea (b) 67$7(0(17 7<3( 48(67,216

)$&7 '(),1,7,21 7<3( 48(67,216 25. (a)