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1. Gray to black colonies on Cystine -C.

diptheriae causative agent of diptheria (CTBA) produce gray to black


tellurite blood agar characterize which colonies
of the following gram (+) bacilli?
A. Listeria monocytogenes -Selective media for C. diptheriae and the inhibitor is potassium tellurite,
B. Bacillus anthracis -Tinsdale media can be used, black colonies with brown halo
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. none of these -Leoffler`s serum, enhance pleomorphism & granules formation specifically
babes ernts
-B. anthracis – PLET – polymyxin lysosome EDTA thallous acetate, Non
hemolytic and non motile
-Consider signifact, this is a bioterrorism agent.
-L. monocytogenes – can tolerate cold enrichment – grwth @ 4 degress
celcius for several week.

2. A gram (+), catalase positive beta -L. monocytogenes - tumbling motility is unique to this only, tumbling can
hemolytic organism that shows be called end over end. Hanging drop a presumptive test
tumbling motility in a wet preparation is
most -C. diptheriae (non motile) and L. monocytogenes – Beta hemolytic
likely -B. anthracis - gamma, non motile
A. Erysipelothrix thusiopathiae
B. Listeria monocytogenes -E. rhusiopathiae - alpha or gamma , non motile
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Bacillus anthracis
3. on Leoffler’s serum, C. diphtheriae >Aka kleb leoffler`s bacillus
produces:
A. black colonies with brown halo >x-y-v formation, pallisade (side by side arrangement), picket fence,
B. beta hemolytic colonies Chinese letter- pleomorphic, babes Ernst granules (stored food),
C. black colonies >much granules – m. tuberculosis
D. enhanced metachromatic granule
formation >black colonies – CTBA
>black colonies with brown halo – tinsdale media

4. Bacillus cereus has been implicated >Diarrheal type, more diarrhea than vomiting
in which of the following?
A. gastroenteritis >Emetic type, vice versa of diarrheal type.
B. home canned good intoxication >Home canned good intoxication caused by Clostridium botulinum
C. antibiotic associated diarrhea
D. meningitis >Antibiotic associated diarrhea or pseudomembranous colitis caused by C.
difficile
>Neonatal minigitis – s. agalactiae, grp b hemolytic strep
>Adult bacterial - s. pneumoniae
>Elderly meningitis and immunecomproised – L monocytogenes
>9 – 29yrs old N. minigitis
>Less than 5 yrs old. H. influenzae

5. The most popular egg-based >LJM, Wallenstein medium and petragani are conventional media,
medium used for growth of disadvantage is pro long time of growth,
Mycobacteria is
A. Lowenstein Jensen medium >Mycobacterium are slow growing,
B. Wallenstein medium
C. Petragnani >Non selectice are egg based and opaque media, cannot use to detect
D. Middlebrook 7H10 pigmentation
POWER SOURCE
6. The best procedure (s) to >Anthracis(most significant) causes anthrax that is an animal disease
differentiate B. anthracis from other transmitted to humans, cereus can caused food poisoning, contaminated
non-pathogenic Bacillus spp. include fried rice, and subtilis common lab contaminant, used as indicator of oven,
motility & subtilis varneger biological indicator of oven, are the significant sp.
hemolysis production because B.
anthracis is >Anthracis is a non motile and gamma hemolytic
A. Non-motile & beta hemolytic
B. motile & non-hemolytic >Cereus and subtilis are motile and beta hemolytic
C. motile & beta hemolytic
D. non-motile & non-hemolytic
7. Which of the following characteristics >Enterobacteriaceae family are glucose fermenter, lack oxidase and
apply to the Enterobacteriaceae nitrate reduction, gram negative enteric bacilli, facultative anaerobe,
family? cytochrome oxidase neg except plesiomonas. P. shigelloides oxidase pos.
A. Glucose fermentation nitrate reduction pos except erwinia and pantoea, positive blood agar large
B. lack of oxidase gray colonies with variable hemolysis, most are motile except klebsiella,
C. Nitrate reduction shigella and y. pestis
D. all of these

8. Infection with which of the following >cute appendicitis simulating is caused by y. enterocolitica
organisms is most likely to lead to a
condition simulating acute k. pneumoniae can cause UTI and community acquire pneumonia
appendicitis? y. pestis – plague (bubonic, septicemic and pneumonic) gram negative
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae bacilli, acquired thru flea bite
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Yersinia enterocolitica bubonic plague- swelling of axilla and groin lymph nodes, can progress to
D. Salmonella fatal bacterimia (septic plague)
pneumonic plague – consequence of bacteremic plague
>salmonella sp.
Gastroenteritis and diarrhea – s. serotype typhi and s. serotype enteritidis
Bacteremia – s. serotype cholerasuis
Enteric fever – s. serotyope typhi
Yersinia enterocolitica causes enterocolitis or pseudoappendicular
syndrome.

9. Spontaenous abortion or stillbirth >E. rhusiopathiae – skin infection called erysipeloid, occupational hazard,
during pregnancy may result from an can caused skin infection among those handling meat poulty and fish
infection with:
A. E. coli >S aureus – toxin (food poisoning , scalded skin syndrome, TSS) and non
B. S. aureus toxin (boils, carbuncles and bullous impetigo) mediated diseases
C. L. monocytogenes >E.coli – a normal flora of GIT, number 1 cause of UTI
D. E. rhusiopathiae
>L. monocytogenes
>Food poisoning – coleslaw and soft cheese
>Meningitis – fetus/newborn & immunocompromised adults
>Spontaneous abortion

POWER SOURCE
10. A gram positive, non-spore forming >A gram pos non spore forming rod, catalase neg, blackening along the
rod is isolated from a wound on a stab line in TSI and on gelatin media no liquefaction but pos bottle brush
farmer’s finger. Produced no change in growth is Erysipelothrix
Catalase test, Blackening along the
stab line in TSI and on gelatin media, >Lactobacillus is H2s neg, in implicated with any of the disease since it is a
no liquefaction but (+) “bottle brush” normal flora, highly pleomorphic (can assume different forms), with diff
growth. colony morphology, and alpha hemolytic. It is a catalase, indole neg.
This organism is identified as:
A. Erysipelothrix >Lactobacillus acidophillus a vaginal flora and can b notes in PAP`s
B. Lactobacillus stained smears
C. Pneumococci
D. Listeria >Pneumococci - is a gram pos cocci, dome shaped colonies after 24hrs
and crater like/ nail head colonies after 24hrs, bile solubility and Neufeld
quellung pos, optochin S, alpha hemolytic

>Listeria – umbrella like growth on agar surface, beta hemolytic, H2s neg,
and tumbling motility.

11. A key identification characteristic of  Clostridium perfringens a.k.a GAS GANGRENE BACILLUS- causes
C. perfrigens is its: gas gangrene & myonecrosis
A. Double hemolysis To detect
B. production of central spores  Demonstration of Target Hemolysis on BAP
C. (+) lipase reaction (colony surrounded by INNER BETA & OUTER ALPHA
D. ability to produce beta lactamase hemolysis)
 (+) REVERSE CAMP TEST
 media: BAP
known organism: S. agalactiae (+) result: arrow head zone
of enhanced beta hemolysis
 Stormy fermentation of Milk - LITMUS MILK TEST
 Lecithinase (+) - can be demonstrated using Nagler's plate or
EGG YOLK AGAR (+) EYA - opaque yellow halo around the
colonies (+) Nagler's. - zone of precipitation around the
colonies on the side of plate without antitoxin
 "Box car" morphology; subterminal spores
12. The pathogenicity of C. tetani and  Neurotoxic Clostridium:
C. botulinum is due to their ability to  C. tetani – “ Tetanospasmin” – blocks neurotransmitters causing SPASTIC
A. Produce neurotoxin PARALYSIS = LITTLE MOVEMENT
B. produce spores  LOCK JAW – Risus sardonicus
C. resist stomach acids  C. botilunum - Flaccid paralysis. = NO MOVEMENT OR UNRESPONSIVE
D. A & B only

13. ____ are slow growing  MOTT - Mycobacterium other than tuberculosis
Mycobactreia which may be pigmented  NTM - Non Tuberculous Mycobacterium
when grown in the dark and when  Runyoun's classification
exposed to light
and re-incubated, the pigment does not > PHOTOCHROMOGENS – pigmented when expose to light
intensify Mycobacterium marinum
A. Photochromogens Mycobacterium kansasii
B. Scotochromogens M. simiae
C. Non-photochromogens M. Asiaticum
D. rapid growers
> NON-PHOTOCHROMOGENS – non-pigmented

M. xenopi; M. ulcerans
Mycobacterium haemophilum ; Mycobacterium gastri
Mycobacterium avium - intracellulare complex (MAI)
Mycobacterium terrae complex (M. terrae, M. triviale & M.
chromogenicum)
Mycobacterium

>Scotochromogen – pigmented in the dark and when exposed


to light

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
POWER SOURCE
Mycobacterium szulgai
Mycobacterium gordonae
Mycobacterium thermoresistible
Mycobacterium flavescens

>Rapid Growers – can develop colonies to 3-5 days


M. fortuitum and M. chelonei are:
Mycobacterium smegmatis
Mycobacterium phlei
M. mucogenicum
14. Which biochemical test used in the  All are biochem test for genus Mycobacterium.
identification of Mycobcteria requires  Tellurite reduction – (+) development of Black
heavy growth of the test organism,  Nitrate reduction – initial (+) RED ; after addition of zinc : no color change
extraction of metabolite and the  Urease production - Red
generation of a yellow color as a
positive reaction?
A. Tellurite reduction
B. Nitrate reduction
C. Niacin test
D. Urease production

15. Growth on Mac Conkey agar  Mac Conkey agar – selective differential media for gram negative
without crystal violet may be enteric bacilli; contains crystal
suggestive of which of the following violet as inhibitor.
organsims?  M. fortuitum -chelonai complex = rapid growers
A. M. avium-intracellulare complex  + growth on Mac Conkey agar with crystal violet
B. M. fortuition-chelonae complex  Both are ARYLSULFATASE test +
C. M. terrae complex  M. foruitum - + iron uptake, Nitrate reduction
D. M. tubuerculosis-bovis complex  M. chelonai – (-) iron uptake, Nitrate reduction.

16. When examining an AFB smear, if NUMBER OF AFB seen | Report


8 AFB were noted in every field after 0 -----------------------------No AFB seen in 300 visual fields
examining at least 50 fields. How +n -----------------------------1-9/100 fields
should 1+ -----------------------------10-99/100 fields
we report this? 2+ -----------------------------1-10/IOF in at least 50 visual fields
A. 2+ 3+ -----------------------------More than 10 AFB/OIF in at least 20 visual fields
B. 3+
C. 1+
D. +n

17. In the Guinea Pig lethal test for  Inoculate to CTBA – cystine tellurite blood agar
toxin detection, which is reported as a  + grey to black colonies
(+) result?  Perform Toxigenecity test
A. Death of unprotected guinea pig  Animal Inoculation – In vivo test
B. Death of protected guinea pig  Modified Elek’s – In vitro test
C. Death of both protected &
unprotected guine pigs
D. Survival of both test animals
18. Which reagent(s) is(are) used to  VP test – IMVIC - to detect ability of organism to produce
detect end product of the Vogues acetyl methyl carbinol or “acetoin”
Proskauer test?  MEDIA – MRVP broth or Clark Lubbs broth
A. 10% ferric chloride  Reagents : 40% KOH and 5% alpha-naphthol ( Barritt’s
B. 5% alpha naphthol & 40% KOH method)
C. KOVAC’s or Ehrlich’s  40% KOH with creatine and 5% alpha-naphthol (Coblentz
D. methyl red method)
+ Pink to RED COLOR

 KOVAC’s or Ehrlich’s – use in INDOLE test (IMVIC)


 Chemical name of Kovac’s – paradimethylaminobenzaldehyde

 Methyl Red indicator – Methyl Red Test

POWER SOURCE
 10% Ferric Chloride – used in Deaminase test using
Phenylalanine agar or Tryptophan agar
 Deaminase test = for identification of Proteus-Providencia and
Morganella
 + result with Phenylalanine = green
 + result with Tryptophan agar – brown

19. non-fermenters produce what Carbohydrate fermentation test


reaction in TSI  Media : TSI dispensed as Butt and Slant
A. Alkaline slant, alkaline or neutral butt  Composition: 10 parts lactose, 10 parts sucrose, 1 part glucose
B. Alkaline slant, alkaline butt  pH indicator: Phenol Red
 H2S indicator: Sodium thiosulfate, Ferric ammonium sulfate
C. Acid slant, acid butt
D. Alkaline slant, acid butt Possible results:
 In an ACID pH ( YELLOW ) = A, in ALKALINE RED = K
 H2S production – Blackening
 Gas production: Splitting of media; pulling away of media;
cracks on media
 KLIGLER’s IRON AGAR – same components as TSI but no
sucrose.

Color: Slant/Butt Report Interpretation Classification of


result as inoculated
organism
RED/RED K/K No sugar was Non-fermenter
fermented
RED/YELLOW K/A Only 1 sugar Non-lactose
(glucose) was fermenter
fermented
YELLOW/YELLOW A/A 2-3 sugars were Lactose
fermented; fermenter
Glucose +,
Lactose and/or
sucrose +
20. If the (-) nitrate reduction test does
not change color following the addition  Nitrate Reduction
of powdered zinc, how is it reported  Sodium nitrate broth
A. Positive  After incubation we add: n-n dimethyl-l-naphthylamine
B. Doubtful sulfanilic acid
C. Negative  To confirm a (-) result we add: Zinc dust/powder
D. Do not report  Initial positive result (+) Red, (-) no color change
 After adding zinc (+) no color change, (-) RED
21. Which of the following tests best NOTE: Shigella & E. coli are both : H2S, Urease, MRVP, and Citrate (-)
differentiates Shigella species from E.
coli? Shigella E. coli
Lactose (-) NLF (+) LF (Rapid)
A. Hydrogen sulfide, VP, citrate, and Indole (-) (+)
urease ONPG (-) (+)
Motility NM M
B. Lactose, indole, ONPG, and
motility

C. Hydrogen sulfide, MR, citrate, and


urease

D. Gas, citrate, and VP

22. In the grouping of Shigella Species Lactose


organisms, agglutination by Group C A Shigella dysenteriae/ -
antisera indicates that the specie is Shiga Bacillus
A. S. dysenteriae B Shigella -
B. S. boydii
POWER SOURCE
C. S. flexneri flexneri/Strong’s
D. S. sonnei Bacillus
C Shigella boydii / New -
Castle Manchester
Bacillus
D Shigella sonnei / - / LLF
Duval’s Bacillus
NOTE: All Shigella species are NON-LACTOSE FERMENTER except for
Shigella sonnei/Duval’s Bacillus (LLF)

23. Which statement correctly They are pathogenic due to their plasmid (Confers resistance to
describes the antigens of antibiotics)
Enterobacteriaceae?
A. The O antigen is heat labile Some of them possess antigens that can be used to identify other groups
B. The O antigen is located on the
cell wall O or Somatic K or Envelope H Flagellar Antigen
C. The Vi antigen is an example of a Antigen / Cell wall Antigen / capsular
flagellar antigen Antigen antigen
D. The K antigen is also known as the Heat-stable Heat-labile Heat-labile
somatic antigen For E. coli there are Consist of capsular Protein in nature
164 types of O polysaccharide Found in the
antigen & specific flagellum; used for
types maybe With K antigens: Salmonella
associated with a  Klebsiella Serotyping
particular disease.  E. coli
Used for E. coli ad  Salmonella
Shigella Serotyping Vi antigen:
Serotype 0111  S. typhi
Causes diarrhea in
infants
Serotype 0157
Verotoxin production

24. Which of the following culture NOTE: Traditionally to do Kirby Bauer Test we use Mueller Hinton Agar
media can be utilized for antibiotic
susceptibility testing of  Middlebrook 7H10 – a clear media
Mycobacterium?  Wallenstein and ATS media – egg-based media, opaque media

A. Middlebrook 7H10
B. Wallenstein
C. ATS media
D. all of these

25. Uninoculated TSI and Simmon TSI – media used to detect carbohydrate fermentation = og. RED
Citrate agar appears ______________.
A. orange & yellow Indicator: PHENOL RED – Acid pH = YELLOW – Alkaline pH = RED
B. Red & green
POWER SOURCE
C. Red & yellow Simon Citrate Agar – media used for citrate utilization test = og. GREEN
D. Orange & green
(+) BLUE : (-) GREEN

Color change is due to the incorporated pH indicator = BROMTHYMOL


BLUE

26. The general characteristics of the NOTE: Members of family Enterobacteriaceae are cytochrome oxidase
members of the family NEGATIVE (Unable to produce enzyme oxidase)
Enterobacteriaceae include the
following except (+) for Endophenol Oxidase:
A. reduce nitrate to nitrite
B. ferment glucose  Moraxella catarrhalis – ability to produce endophenol oxidase
C. produce CO2 gas - Gram negative cocci, considered as normal flora
D. produce indophenol oxidase - It can cause Otitis Media
- Assacharolytic/Non-assacharolytic (Do not ferment any sugar)
- “Hockey Puck” colonies – colonies that can be pushed to the
other side of that plate but can still remain intact.

27. Which of the following organisms is ONPG TEST(O-nitrophenyl-beta-d-galactopyranoside)


ONPG negative?
A. Shigella dysenteriae - It is used to detect late lactose fermenters
B. Citrobacter freundii - To differentiate citrobacter which are ONPG (+) from Salmonella
C. Escherichia coli which are ONPG (-)
D. Enterobacter aerogenes - Salmonella are ONPG (-) except S. arizonae
- May be carried out using ONPG broth/disk (+) result : YELLOW

ONPG POSITIVE ONPG NEGATIVE


Escherichia coli Proteus spp.
Klebsiella spp Salmonella spp.
Yersinia enterocolitica Shigella spp.
Enterobacter spp. Providencia
Citrobacter spp. Yersinia pestis
Shigella sonei Morganella
Hafnia alvei Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Salmonella arizonae
28. When inoculated with Klebsiella Simmon Citrate agar/medium
pneumoniae and incubated for 24
hours, the Simmons citrate medium will – is the required media for citrate utilization test, it is part of a
appear biochemical test which is the IMViC TEST
A. green - It is a tube media dispensed as SLANT (Incubate, no reagent, only
B. yellow change in color
C. blue - Indicator BROMTHYMOL BLUE (Green to Blue)
D. purple - Result: (+) BLUE : (-) GREEN
- E.G. Klebsiella pneumonia (+)

29. The pH indicator in Christensen’s  BROMCRESOL PURPLE – indicator in Decarboxylase Test


urea agar is  NEUTRAL RED – indicator in Mac Conkey Agar (Selectiver media
A. bromcresol purple for Enterobacteriaceae) and CIN media (Selective for Yersinia
B. neutral red enterocolitica)
C. phenol red
 METHYL RED Indicator – used in Methyl Red Test (IMViC)
D. methyl red
 UREA AGAR- used to perform urease test to detect (PROTEUS,
PROVIDENCIA, & MORGANELLA) we do not use an indicator
because the media is already incorporated by PHENOL RED

30. Kovac’s reagent containing p-  Detection of AMMONIA – UREASE TEST which uses Urea Agar
dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is added w/ an indicator PHENOL RED
to detect the production of  Detection of ACETOIN – product in VOGUES PROSKAUER TEST
A. ammonia – uses MRVP broth w/ an indicator ALPHA NAPHTHOL & KOH
B. acetoin
 HYDROGEN PEROXIDE – required reagent in catalase test
C. H2O2
D. indole (Detect organism that produce enzyme catalase)
 Detection of INDOLE – INDOLE TEST – inoculates in SIM or
POWER SOURCE
Tryptophan broth with KOVAC’s or Erlich’s reagent

31. Sputum samples may contain Sputum is often submitted to the lab for MYCOBACTERIUM detection. It is
normal flora and other contaminating a NON-STERILE SPECIMEN.1st STEP upon receiving spp. sample:
organisms, so samples must be
A. digested with N-acetyl-L cysteine - classify if STERILE or NON-STERILE
B. decontaminated with 2% NaOH
C. digested with trisodium phosphate 2nd STEP:
D. decontaminated with dithiotreitol IF STERILE- centrifuge immediately

IF NON-STERILE- perform DIGESTION (to liquify mucus) and


DECONTAMINATION (to remove contaminants and normal flora)

* Kinanglan ta kakson gid una ang normal flora kay ang


MYCOBACTERIUM, SLOW GROWERS sila. Basi ma unahan pa sya
tubo sang normal flora thus causing erroneous results.

*N-acetyl-L-Cysteine (NALC) and 2% NaOH are the gold standard for


DIGESTION AND DECONTAMINATION

*Trisodium Phosphate and Benzalkonium Chloride (Zeniphran)-


recommended when Pseudomonas is present

*Dithiotreitol and 2% NaOH- commonly known as SPUTULYSIN

* 4% NaOH

- MUCOLYTIC and ANTIBACTERIAL

- Strongly ALKALINE

32. A required component in media for -Cysteine and Cystine is required for the growth of FRANCISELLA
Mycobacterium is (tularensis), isolated in BCGA (Blood Cystine Glucose Agar)
A. cysteine & cystine
B. whole egg - Hemoglobin is for ‘blood-loving’ spp, Haemophilus. Requires X and V
C. hemoglobin factors
D. none of these
- for Mycobacterium, we can use: Lowenstein-Jensen, Petragnani’s
Medium, ATS, Wallenstein, Dorset Egg Medium. The media should
contain WHOLE EGG.

33. Which of the following is not a Kligler Iron Agar is used to detect CARBOHYDRATE FERMENTATION,
component of Kligler iron agar? same as TSI, contains the same components with TSI except for 1%
A. ferrous ammonium citrate SUCROSE
B. 2% peptone
C. phenol red
D. 1% sucrose

34. The strain of Escherichia coli There are two SEROTYPES of E. coli
responsible for hemorrhagic colitis is
typically - UPEC/NPEC- Uro/Nephropathogenic E. coli-(causes UTI), uro/nephro-
A. lactose +, sorbitol 0 ihi
B. lactose 0, sorbitol +
C. lactose +, sorbitol + - Enterovirulent /Diarrheagenic E. coli- associated with diarrhea
D. lactose 0, sorbitol 0 DIARRHEAGENIC/ENTEROVIRULENT E. COLI

1. ETEC (ENTEROTOXIGENIC)- can cause PROFUSE/SEVERE diarrhea


that is CHOLERA LIKE due to production of TOXIN.

2. EIEC (ENTEROINVASIVE)- can cause bloody diarrhea that is


SHIGELLA LIKE due to its ability to invade the bowel mucosa

3. EPEC (ENTEROPATHOGENIC)- non-toxigenic and non-invasive but


POWER SOURCE
can CAUSE DIARRHEA in infants (INFANTILE DIARRHEA)

4. EAEC (ENTEROAGGREGATIVE)- acute and persistent diarrhea in


children and adults

5. EHEC (ENTEROHEMORRHAGIC), VEROTOXIC, SHIGA TOXIN


PRODUCING- can cause SEVERE BLOOD DIARRHEA due to its ability
to produce VEROTOXIN, example is E. coli 0157:H7

6. DAEC (DIFFUSELY ADHERENT)- constitutes the 6th grp in the


diarrheagenic E. coli, can cause diarrhea in otherwise healthy patients

* All E. coli are LACTOSE (+), pink purple colonies on Mac Conkey Agar

* Sa E. coli 0157:H7, we use SORBITOL MAC CONKEY AGAR, same as


the usual Mac Conkey but instead of LACTOSE, SORBITOL is used to all
serotypes of E. coli, SORBITOL (+) except 0157:H7.

* Positive sa SMAC, pink-purple colonies. (-) is colorless. All E. coli


serotypes kay pink-purple sa SMAC, except 0157:H7

35. Which of the following tests best SHIGELLA A. COLI


differentiate Shigella spp. from E. coli?
1. lactose LACTOSE - +
2. indole
3. motility INDOLE - +
4. citrate
MOTILITY - +
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4 CITRATE - -
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

36. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar CIN contains (Selective media for Yersinia)


is the best medium for the isolation of
A. Proteus spp. - Mannitol, Peptone, Yeast
B. Edwardsiella spp.
- NEUTRAL RED (INDICATOR)
C. Serratia spp.
D. Yersinia spp. - Crystal Violet; Cefsulodin; Irgasan; Novobiocin (INHIBITORS para nd
maka tubo iban, Yersinia lang gid)

- Y. enterocolitica- “bull’s eye colonies” (when inoculated sa CIN)

For A,B and C, we can use Mac Conkey, XLD, Hektoen, EMB, any media
intended for ENTEROBACTERICIAE

37. An isolate from a bloody stool - Campylobacter is incorrect kay MOTILE and OXIDASE (+) , not a
tested negative for oxidase, indole, member of ENTEROBACTERICIAE. Classified as STOOL PATHOGEN,
urea, motility, and H2S. The most likely shows DARTING MOTILITY.
identification is
A. Campylobacter spp. - Salmonella is incorrect kay MOTILE kag H2S positive sya.
B. B. Klebsiella spp.
C. Salmonella spp. - Klebsiella is incorrect, kay H2S, Non-motile, Indole negative, PERO
D. Shigella spp. IT WILL NOT CAUSE BLOODY DIARRHEA, UTI sya kag
PNEUMONIA.

38. The Shiga-like toxin is produced ETEC (ENTEROTOXIGENIC)- can cause PROFUSE/SEVERE diarrhea
mainly by which E. coli serotype? that is CHOLERA LIKE due to production of TOXIN.
A. ETEC
B. EHEC EIEC (ENTEROINVASIVE)- can cause bloody diarrhea that is SHIGELLA
C. EPEC LIKE due to its ability to invade the bowel mucosa
D. EAEC
EPEC (ENTEROPATHOGENIC)- non-toxigenic and non-invasive but can
CAUSE DIARRHEA in infants (INFANTILE DIARRHEA)

EAEC (ENTEROAGGREGATIVE)- acute and persistent diarrhea in


children and adults

POWER SOURCE
EHEC (ENTEROHEMORRHAGIC), VEROTOXIC, SHIGA TOXIN
PRODUCING- can cause SEVERE BLOOD DIARRHEA due to its ability
to produce VEROTOXIN, example is E. coli 0157:H7

DAEC (DIFFUSELY ADHERENT)- constitutes the 6th grp in the


diarrheagenic E. coli, can cause diarrhea in otherwise healthy patients

39. Given the following results, which is Key biochem results are GELATINASE and DNASE
the most likely organism? IMViC =
00++; H2S = 0; urease = 0; LOA = ++0; - All of the choices are included in the family of ENTEROBACTERICIAE,
PAD = 0; gelatinase = +; DNAse = + and sa dira na family, ISA LANG ANG DNASE (+) and that is Serratia
A. Enterobacter cloacae marcescens.
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae - Besides pa sna, ang isa ka unique characteristic pagid sa Serratia kay ga
D. Serratia marcescens produce sya RED PIGMENT “PRODIGIOSIN”

A. Cloacae P. Vulgaris K. pneumoniae

H2S - + -

PAD - + -

LOA -/+/+ -/-/- +/-/-

Urease +/- + +

40 Which of the following biochemical ONPG TEST- O-nitrophenyl-beta-d-galactopyranoside


reactions would differentiate
Citrobacter spp. from most Salmonella * used to detect late lactose fermenters
spp.?
* to differentiate Citrpbacter which are ONPG (+) from Salmonella which
A. ONPG +, LDC 0
B. ONPG 0, LDC 0 are ONPG (-)
C. ONPG +, LDC + * Salmonella are ONPG (-) except arizonae
D. ONPG 0, LDC +
* may be carried out using ONPG broth/disk (+) result: YELLOW

41. Which of the following is not a Genus Salmonella


characteristic of Salmonella serotype - Species: S. enterica (human pathogen) & S. bongori (animal
typhi? pathogen)
A. produces H2S
B. LDC positive - S. enterica has several subspecies ; S. enterica subsprecies
C. citrate negative enterica
D. produces gas from glucose
- S. enterica subsp enterica has several serotypes, the primary
indentifiable serotype is S. serotype typhi
- S. serotype typhi has Vi antigen - typhoid fever

42. Which of the following E. Coli - rapid lactose fermenter ; marker for fecal contamination
characteristics is typical for Escherichia >Mac Conkey:
coli?
A. colorless colonies on MacConkey -CHO: lactose;
agar
B. pink, nonhemolytic colonies on BAP -inhibitor: crystal violet & bole salts;

C. yellow colonies on XLD agar -indicator: neutral red


-Lactose fermenter: pink-purple
D. green colonies with black centers on -Non lactose fermenter: colorless
HEA > XLD:
-contains CHO: xylose, lactose, sucrose ;

-nhibitor: socium deoxycholate & bile salts;

-indicator: phenol red


-Fermenter: yellow
POWER SOURCE
-Non fermenter: colorless or red (produced by those that do not
ferment any sugar)
>HEA:
- CHO: lactose, salicin, sucrose

- inhibitor: Bile salts

- Indicator: bromthymol blue

- Fermenter: yerllow

- non fermenter: green


- E. coli, Klebsiella & Enterobacter: Yellow

- Most pathogens ferment 1 or 2 sugars: bright orange to salmon pink


- Yersinia spp. : salmon colored colonies

Corrections for choices above:


A. colorless colonies on MacConkey agar -it is a lactose fermenter so it will
produce pink - purple colonies
B. pink, nonhemolytic colonies on BAP - on BAP they develop Large gray
colonies with varid hemolysis
D. green colonies with black centers on HEA - E. coli is a lactose
fermenter ; Produces yellow colonies

43. A gram negative enteric bacilli part of bacterial cells responsible for mucoid colonies is the capsule,
whose colonies tend to “string” when
lifted using inoculating loop K. pneumoniae has a polysaccharide capsule. String test (+) hyperviscous
A. E. coli
B. K. pneumoniae
C. E. aerogenes
D. none of these

44. Which of the following does not Citrate utilization test is part of IMVIC test. It is utilized to test the ability of
produce a positive citrate reaction? organism to use citrate as the only carbon source.
A. Shigella boydii
B. Citrobacter freundii - Positive result: Blue
C. Serratia marcescens - Negative result: Green
D. Enterobacter aerogenes

45. A positive indole reaction is P. vulgaris - indole (+)


characteristic of - indole test - SIM media, Tryptophan broth
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae - KOVAC’s - paradimethyl aminobenzaldehyde
B. Serratia marcescens - to detect enzyme “tryptophanase”
C. Proteus vulgaris - Positive REsult: REd ring
D. Yersinia pestis - Negative REsilt : no color development

46. Which Enterobacter species Yellow pigment (+)


produces a yellow pigment?
A. E. taylorae - Necrotizing colitis often due to powdered milk formula
B. E. aerogenes
C. E. gergoviae
D. C. sakazakii

47. Which of the following organisms is > Urease test


urease negative? - useful in the identification of PPM (proteus-providencia-morganella)
A. Providencia rettgeri
B. Salmonella typhi - based on the ability of the organism to convert urea to ammonia thru the
C. Proteus mirabilis action of the enzyme urease
D. Enterobacter gergoviae
- PPM are regarded as RAPID UREASE PRODUCERS
- slow urease (+) ; (+) after 4 hours are (KEY-SC) = Klebsiella,
Enterobacter, Yersinia, Serratia, Citrobacter
- media is Christensen Urea Agar/ Urea Broth

POWER SOURCE
- indicator: phenol red

(+) result: pink/red


(-) result: yellow

48. The selective nature of bismuth -Bismuth sulfate agar - selective for salmonella spp.
sulfite agar is attributed to -Inhibitor: bismuth sulfite & brilliant green
A. ammonium sulfite -Salmonella - Black
B. sodium metabisulfate
C. bile salts
D. brilliant green

49. The ability of an organism to > Deaminase test


deaminate phenylalanine in - useful in the indication of PPM, these are the only deaminase (+) enterica
phenylalanine agar is determined using
A. 1% alpha naphthol - uses lysine, tryptophan or phenilalanine
B. 2N sodium carbonate - PAD + overnight cultire + 10% Ferric Chloride
C. 2% sulfanilamide - (+) result with phenylalanine agar: Green
D. 10% ferric chloride
- (+) result with tryptophan agar: Brown

>correction for choices :


A. 1% alpha naphthol - VP test (5% alpha naphthol)

B. 2N sodium carbonate - used in arylsulfatase test (to identify species


under mycobacterium)

C. 2% Sulfanilamide - used in nitrate reductioon test

50. A K/A TSI reaction with gas and -all choices are non lactose fermenters
H2S production would be produced by -shigella is H2S (-)
the following organisms except
A. Salmonella enterica >TSI reactions:
B. Proteus spp. -K/K H2S (-) - Pseudomonas, Burkholderia (non fermenters)
C. Shigella spp. -K/A H2S (-) - Providencia, Morganella, Shigella
D. Citrobacter spp.
-K/A H2S & Gas (+) - Salmonella, Proteus, Arizonae, S. freundii, E. tarda

-A/A H2s (-) & Gas (+) - Klebsialla, Escherichia, Enterobacter

51. In general, the Enterobacter ODC - Ornithine Decarboxylase (+)


species are
A. ODC positive ADH - Arginine Dihydrolase (+)
B. ADH positive
Enterobacter:
C. urease positive
D. H2S positive  (+) Lactose, Capsule (Mucoid colonies), plasmid
 HEA and XLD - Yellow colonies
 Infection is usually associated with contaminated medical devices

Capsule - Antiphagocytic

Plasmid - Carries or encodes antibiotic resistance genes

52. Which of the following is noted for a Niacin test - Required media is LJ medium
positive result for niacin accumulation?
A. M. tuberculosis Reagent: Strip impregnated with cyanogen bromide
B. M. bovis
(+) yellow
C. M. fortuitum-chelonae
D. M. avium-intracellulare

53. What is the ratio of lactose/sucrose TSI ingredients: used in CHO fermentation test
to glucose in triple sugar iron agar?
A. 1:10 Enzymatic digest of casein
B. 1:1
Enzymatic digest of animal tissue
C. 10:1
D. 2:1
POWER SOURCE
Yeast enriched peptone

Dextrose - 1 part

Lactose - 10 parts

Sucrose - 10 parts (not present in KIA)

54. Which of the following is not a Anaerogenic E. coli - also known as inactive E. coli; lactose (-)
characteristic of the anaerogenic E. coli
(Alkalescens dispar)?
A. does not produce gas
B. H2S negative
C. lactose positive
D. non-motile
55. Which of the following Shigella Shigella - Shigellosis or Bacillary Dysentery; Intestinal pathogen
species does not ferment mannitol?
A. S. dysenteriae  (+) endotoxin and invasive - Bloody diarrhea
B. S. flexneri
C. S. sonnei S. dysenteriae produces neurotoxin in addition to the endotoxin
D. S. boydii
 (-) Catalase test and manitol

S. sonnei - LLF; ONPG (+)

56. Which of the following C. ulcerans - Bovine mastitis


Corynebacterium species is associated
with chronic urinary tract infections C. pseudotuberculosis - Lymphadenitis
bacteremia in
C. pseudodiphtheriticum (Hoffman's Bacillus) - Throat flora, Endocarditis
immunocompromised host?
A. C. urealyticum C. minutissimun - Erythrasma
B. C. pseudodiphtheriticum
C. C. pseudotuberculosis C. urealyticum - UTI; Catalase and urease (+)
D. none of these
C. jeikium (JK bacillus) - Prosthetic heart valve infection

57. The Corynebacterium species Non-lipophilic:


whose growth is enhanced in the
presence of lipids  C. ulcerans
1. C. jeikeium  C. pseudotuberculosis
2. C. diphtheriae  C. pseudodiphtheriticum
3. C. urealyticum
4. C. pseudotuberculosis Lipophilic:
A. 1 & 3
B. 2 & 4  C. urealyticum
C. 1,2 & 3  C. jeikium
D. 1,2,3 & 4
E. none of
these

58. Which of the following tests detects Indole test - detect enzyme tryptophanase
the production of pyruvic acid from
glucose fermentation? Malonate test - detect ability of organism to use malonate as carbon
A. indole source
B. methyl red
C. malonate  Indicator: Bromthymol blue
D. oxidase  (+) Blue
 (-) Yellow

Oxidase test - detect presence of cytochrome activity in organisms; for


identification of oxidase (-) Enterobacteriaceae

 (+) Purple
 (-) Absense of color

POWER SOURCE
MR - detect ability of organism to produce acid when glucose is
metabolized

59. The following media can be used to H2S indicator: Ferric ammonium citrate
detect hydrogen sulfide production
except LIA - H2S production, deamination and decarboxylation
A. LIA
HEA - Selective differential media
B. HEA
C. SIM SIM - H2S production, Indole production and Motility
D. MAC CONKEY
Mac Conkey agar - selective differential media

60. A positive Decarboxylase test - ability of the organism to remove carboxyl group from
decarboxylation/dihydrolation reaction specific amino acid through the release of the enzyme decarboxylase
is indicated by what color on Moeller’s
broth? There are 3 amino acids that can be used:
A. red
B. yellow Amino Acid: Carboxyl
C. purple
 Lysine - Cadaverine
D. pink
 Ornithine - Putrescine
 Arginine - Citrulline

Media: Moeller's broth

 Bromcresol purple (indicator) + amino acid + 1% glucose


 Tubes are overlaid with mineral oil
 (+) Purple
 (-) Yellow
 Use of mineral oil - Act as oxygen barrier

61. Choose the LDC, ODC, and ADH Genus Klebsiella:


reactions of Klebsiella species.
A. +++
B. ++0 -Rapid Lactose Fermenter = TSI A/A
C. +00 - Non-Motile
D. 0++ - Inhabitation of nasopharynx and GIT
- Can cause a variety of infections i.e. UTI, pneumonia
- Species:
 K. pneumoniae – encapsulated
 K. oxytoca
 K. rhinscleromatis & K. ozanae
 Chronic infections: atrophic rhinitis & rhinoscleroma
DECARBOXYLASE TEST
1. Use of Moeller’s broth
 Uses bromcresol purple as indicator and 1% glucose as CHO
 (+) result: purple while (-) result: yellow
 Use of mineral oil – to act as oxygen barrier
2. LIA – Lysine Iron Agar
LIA contains:
Bromcresol purple, Glucose, Lysine, Ferric ammonium sulfate and
sodium thiosulfate

POWER SOURCE
(SLANT) DEAMINASE TEST: (+) red/burgundy; (-) purple

(BUTT) DECARBOXYLASE TEST: (+) purple; (-) yellow

DEAMINASE TEST

1. Use of tryptophan agar on phenylalanine agar and use of 10%


ferric chloride
Phenylalanine (+) GREEN
Tryptophan (-) BROWN
Color of Report it Interpretation Possible
Slant/ Butt as: Organism
Purple/Purple K/K (-) DEAM/ (+) Salmonella
DECAR
Purple/Yellow K/A (-) DEAM & Shigella
DECAR
Red/ Yellow A/A (+) DEAM/ (-) P-P-M
DECAR

62. Which LIA reaction correlates with  Brown color in Tryptophan agar ( Deaminase Test) = POSITIVE
a brown color in tryptophan agar and a
 Yellow in Moeller’s broth ( Decarboxylase Test ) = NEGATIVE
yellow color in Moeller’s broth
containing lysine?
A. K/K
B. R/A
C. K/A
D. A/A

63. Which of the following biochemical Genus Providencia


reactions characterize Providencia  Most commonly associated with UTI
stuartii?
A. urease +, citrate 0  Deaminase (+); NLF; both are citrate (+)
B. urease 0, citrate 0  Species:
C. urease +, citrate + Providencia rettgeri: urease (+)
D. urease 0, citrate +
Providencia stuartii: urease (V) greater probability of (+)

64. Which of the following does not Morganella morganii:


characterize Morganella morganii?  Normal GIT flora
A. lactose negative
B. LDC positive  Deaminase and Urease (+)
C. citrate negative  Isolated from stools of patients with diarrhea
D. PAD positive  Lysine & Arginine (-);Ornithine (+)
 NLF and Motile

65. The agent of plague is transmitted Plague


to man through bites of  Bubonic – septicemic/bacteremia – Pneumonic
A. rodents
B. ticks
C. fleas
D. mites

POWER SOURCE
66. Which of the following genera is Genus Yersinia:
characterized by rapid urease activity  Slow urease (+)
and typical swarming motility on BAP?
A. Proteus  Mac Conkey agar: colorless – peach
B. Providencia  HEA: salmon
C. Yersinia  XLD: yellow/colorless
D. Hafnia
 Can grow at 4-43 degC
Genus Hafnia:
 NLF and delayed citrate activity

Genus Proteus & Providencia – Rapid Urease (+) and Deaminase (+)
Genus Proteus:
 NLF; colorless colonies with burnt chocolcate/ burnt gun powder
odor
 “swarming on BAP”
 Source of antigens for Weil Felix Test
(OX2, OX19- P. vulgaris and OXK – P. mirabilis)
67. Which of the following Enterobacter Y. pestis
species produces bull’s eye colonies  Stalactite pattern on broth – clumps of cells adhering to 1 side of
on CIN medium?
A. Y. pestis tube
B. Y. enterocolitica  5% SBA – pinpoint colonies (24hrs); cauliflower app at 48hrs
C. Y. pseudotuberculosis  “hammered copper colonies”
D. Plesiomonas spp
Plesiomonas shigelloides – a fresh water inhabitant, gastroenteritis in
children
 TRIO profile of Lysine Ornithine and Arginine
 (-) Dnase
68. The organism known for its stormy Botulism/ Home Canned Good Intoxication = Clostridium botulinum
fermentation and double zone of beta Tetanus = Clostridium tetani
hemolysis under anaerobic conditions
causes Dx: observation of terminal swollen spores & observation of
A) Botulism clinical symptom “Risus Sardonicus”
B) Gas gangrene
C) Pseudomembranous colitis
 Toxins: Toxin A: Enterotoxin and Toxin B – Cytotoxin
D) Tetanus
E) None of these  Diagnose is usually thru: Cytotoxin detection thru immunoassays
 Specimen:
Freshly passed stool- liquid/unformed stools for culture & toxin
assay
Formed stool/rectal swab: to detect carrier state
 Media: (CCFA) Cycloserine Cefoxitine Fructose agar
 On CCFA, C. difficile develops colonies with Horse Stable or Barn
Yard odor
 On BAP – the organism is said to fluoresce CHARTREUSE
C. perfringes – Gas gangrene/ Myonecrosis
 Double/target hemolysis
 Reverse CAMP test
 Lecithinase (+)
 Litmus milk-stormy fermentation milk
69. Which of the following amino acids DECARBOXYLASE TEST
are used in the test for decarboxylase - Based on the ability of the organisms to remove carboxyl group
A) Cadaverine, putrescine, ornithine
B) Ornithine, arginine, cadaverine from specific amino acid thru release of the enzyme
C) Lysine, arginine, ornithine decarboxylase
D) Arginine, putrescine, cadaverine - There are 3 amino acids that can be used:

POWER SOURCE
AMINO ACID CARBOXYL

LYSINE CADAVERINE
ORNITHINE PUTRESCINE
ARGININE CITRULLINE
70. The biochemical test performed on C & D are correct because we do staining to detech the organism.
gram (+) bacillus were consistent with  Staining is a preliminary step to identify a particular organism.
C. Diphtheriae. As a definitive test, the  If presence of organism is suspected we place it in gram stain the
laboratory scientist should now isolate (to place in a suitable media to allow suitable growth)
B is incorrect because CTBA (Cystine Tellurite Blood Agar) is used as
A) perform an ELEK to determine primary isolation media.
whether the organism produce  B C D is not definitive test for C.diphtheriae
exotoxin Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) subculture the organism on Cystine  Gram (+), non-spore forming bacilli, pleomorphic rod (can assume
tellurite blood agar and examine for different forms),
black colonies  Microscopy: “palisade (organism is arrange side by side), picket-
C) prepare a methylene blue stain and fence, Chinese letter & xyv formation”
examine for metachromatic granules  Beta hemolytic on BAP
D) gram stain the isolate and observe  CTBA - appears gray to black colonies
for its pleomorphic morphology Tinsdale – appears black colonies with gray halo
Leoffler’s serum – used to enhance granules
Note! if (+) growth on all selective media. TOXIGENECITY test) must be
done (to detech if the organism that is isolated is the toxigenic type)
 Causes Diphtheria due to diphtheria toxin
 Toxigenecity Test
 Modefied Elek’s – In Vitro Test
1. Prepare agar/plated media
2. Place strip that contains antitoxin
3. Allow media to solidify
4. Inoculate for negative control single streak? (1 on the
picture)
5. Inoculate for test organism single streak (number 2 on
the pic).
Came from the growth on CTBA, Tinsdale
Take note! Inoculate organism parallel to the negative control.
6. Inoculate for positive control (number 3 on pic)
7. Positive result shows development of lines of
precipitation
 Animal Inoculation – In Vivo Test (discuss on previous slide)
If all biochem test is positive for C. diphtheriae next step is to perform
toxigenicity test.
Types of C. diphtheriae
A. Toxigenic – responsible for the disease diphtheria due to
diphtheria toxin
Non toxigenic - do not cause diphtheria

71. All of the following growth Bacillus anthracis


characteristics are true of Bacillus  Considered most significant specie in the genus bacillus because
anthracis except: it is a bioterrorism agaent
A. inverted fir tree pattern on gelatin  Non-motile & Gamma hemolytic (uniquec to B. anthracis)
media  Microscopy: Disjointed bamboo fishing rod
POWER SOURCE
B. colonies appearing like “comet tail”  Gram stain: Box Car morphology because of the square ends (not
C. colonies with beaten egg white unique to B. anthracis including C. perfringens)
consistency  BAP: Medusa/Lion head colonies. Also describe as comet tail
D. none of these appearing or “cut glass appearance”
 On plated medias it produces tenacious (malapot) “beaten egg
white” consistency
 On tube/gelatin media (semi solid media) it forms “inverted Fir
Tree or Inverted Pine tree pattern”
 Selective media is PLET (Polymyxin lysosome EDTA Thallous
acetate)
 Shows “string like pattern” because of its resistance to Penicillin
(observe under microscope)
 (+) Lecithinase test – Egg yolk agar (media)
 (+) Opaque zone around the colonies
- B. anthracis can produce enzyme lecithinase.
- Cause anthrax due to virulence factors
 Virulence factors
a. D-agglutimate capsule (capsule not polysaccharide in
nature)
b. Ability to produce exotoxin with 3 components:
1. Lethal factor
2. Edema factor
3. Protective antigen

72.Which of the following set of Clostridium perfingens


tests/procedures must be done to - Organism that causes Gas gangrene/Myonecrosis
positively identify the agent of Gas - Causative agent of gas gangrene is the spore forming c.
Gangrene? perfingens
1. Perform litmus milk test – Stormy fermentation of milk
A. Litmus milk test; CAMP test; 2. Demonstration of target/double hemolysis – done by inoculating
Demonstration of target hemolysis on BAP
B. Reverse CAMP test; Observation of 3. Reverse CAMP Test (+)
subterminal spores; demonstration of 4. Lecithinase (+)
target hemolysis a. Nuglers plate?
C. Litmus Milk test; Demonstration b. Egg yolk agar
of double hemolysis; Reverse CAMP  Camp test - to detect s. agalactiae
test  Observation of subterminal spores – not definitive for c. perfingens
D. Lecithinase test; Reverse CAMP
test; demonstration of terminal spores
73. Which of the following anaerobic Motility Lecithinase Lipase Lactose Glucose
gram + spore forming rods are motile C. - + - + +
but lecithinase and lipase negative? perfingens
1. C. perfringens C. + - + - +
2. C. tetani botulinum
3. C. botulinum
4. C. difficile C. tetani + _ _ _ _
+ - - - +
A. 1 & 3 C. difficile
B. 2 & 4 All are saccharolytic (+ for sugars) except: C tetani & C.
C. 1,2 & 3 septicum.
D. 1,2,3 & 4 Swarming (+) Anaerobe: C. tetani & C. septicum.
E. none Note!
 Proteus produces swarming but it is facultative
anaerobe & gram (-) bacilli
 C. tetatni produces swarming anaerobe & gram (+)
74. All of the following are saccharolytic Clostridium tetani
anaerobic gram + spore forming rods - Nonsaccharolytic (-) for sugars
EXCEPT
A. C. perfringens
B. C. tetani
C. C. botulinum
D. C. difficile

POWER SOURCE
75. An unknown isolate that had  Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
developed umbrella like growth on agar - If inoculated on gelatin media it show bottle brush like/test tube
surface of gelatin medium is likely to be brush like or pipe cleaner pattern of growth
A. B. anthracis - ability to produce large amounts of H2S on TSI (H2S +)
B. L. monocytogenes  Listeria monocytogenes
C. E. rhusiopathiae - Develop umbrella like growth on agar surface of gelatin medium
D. none of these (not distinct)
- Tumbling /end over end motility at room temp. (distinct)

76. Bovine mastitis can be attributed to Corynebacterium diphtheriae is considered significant


which of the following Corynebacterium  C. ulcerans – acquired through contact with infected animal or
species? consumption of unpasteurized milk/milk products
A. C. minutissimum  C. minutissimum - Erythrasma
B. C. pseudotuberculosis Corynebacterium Bovine mastitis
C. C. ulcerans ulcerans
D. C. jeikeium Corynebacterium Lymphadenitis
pseudotuberculosis
Corynebacterium Throat flora
pseudoodiphtherinticum Endocarditis
Aka Hoffman’s Bacillus
Corynebacterium Erythrasma (skin
minutissimum infection affecting
inguinal in axillary
region
Corynebacterium UTI
urealyticum Catalase &
urease (+)
Corynebacterium Prosthetic heart
jeikium valve infection
Aka JK Bacillus
77. Which genera is likely if the Non- spore forming & non-branching bacilli
following results are obtained: Motility Catalase Motility Esculin H2S
(+); H2S (-); Catalase & Esculin (+) test in
A. Corynebacterium TSi
B. Erysipelothrix Corynebacterium + - V -
C. Listeria Listeria + + + -
D. Gardnerella Erysipelothrix - - - +
Gardenella - - - -
vaginalis
78. In which of the following media that  Lowenstein media & Wallenstein medium
when used will allow observation of - Classified as egg-based medium (opaque media cannot detect
pigment production? pigment production)
A. Middlebrook 7H10  Middlebrook 7H10
B. Wallenstein Medium C. Lowenstein - Agar based is a clear media used to detect pigment production
Media > All three are used in isolating Mycobacterium
D. All of these

79. Which of the following differential T2H/TCH susceptibility (Thiopene-2-carboxylic hydrazide)


tests may be done for M. tuberculosis  M. tuberculosis – resistant
and M. bovis?  M. bovis – susceptibe
1. T2H susceptibility Nitrate reduction
2. Niacin Test - M. tuberculosis (+)
3. Nitrate Reduction - M. bovis (-)
Niacin test
A. 1 & 2 - M. tuberculosis (+)
B. 2 & 3 - M. bovis (-)
C. 1 & 3 All three test is useful in differentiating M. tuberculosis (+) & M. bovis (-)
D. 1,2 & 3
E. none of these

POWER SOURCE
80. The color change that may indicate  Rusty brown color ((+) result)
a positive Niacin accumulation - Iron uptake test
A. rusty brown color - Uses ferric ammonium citrate
B. pink - Lowenstein media
C. black  Pink
D. yellow a. Arylsulfatase test (uses Phenolphthalein media; 2N sodium
carbonate)
b. Tween 80 hydrolysis test (uses neutral red as indicator)
- Rapid tween (+) M. kansaii
10 days (+) M. tuberculosis
 Black
- Tellurite Reduction Test (based on the ability of certain
mycobacteria to reduce tellurite salts to metallic tellurium (good
test to detech M. Aviium?)
 Yelow
- Niacin test
> All three are biochem test are used to detech Mycobacterium genus

81. All of the following are true M. leprae “Hansen’s bacillus”


concerning M. leprae except
A. non-cultivable but viability can be  cigar packet appearance
maintained using testicular chancre  Fite Faraco method – hematoxylin (counter stain)
of rabbits  Leprosy (chronic disease) lasts for several years
B. Microscopically forms the so-called
“cigar packet” arrangement 2 types of leprosy:
C. can be best visualized using Acid
 Tuberculoid type/paucibacillary- usually benign & least contagious
Fast Staining using Fite Faraco method
 Lepromatous type/multibacillary- the type that becomes malignant
D. can infect skin, mucous membranes
and peripheral nerves Basis of diagnosis clinical symptoms

 Skin sores or lesions that do not heal after several weeks


 Skin lumps and bumps that can be disfiguring
 Numbness of the skin because of damage to the nerves under the
skin
 Muscle weakness

M. leprae is non-cultivable/cultureable but..

To maintain viability of M. leprae we use:

 Mice foot pads or foot pads of Armadillo

T. pallidum (syphilis) – testicular chancre of rabbits (culture)

82. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) may E. coli 2 major serotypes:


produce infection similar to which of the
following?  UPEC- uropathogenic E.coli
A. Bacillary Dysentery  NPEC- non-pathogenic E.coli
B. typhoid fever
C. typhus fever Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) – bloody diarrhea (shigella like)(comparable
D. none of these to)(shigellosis)

 Typhoid fever- Salmonella serotype typhi


 Typhus fever- Rickettsia spp.

83. Bacillus anthracis is a medically


important spore-forming rod that may
EXTERNAL
cause the disease "anthrax" in animals
INTERNAL
and humans. What are the two
Cutaneous Anthrax Pulmonary Anthrax Intestinal Anthrax
important virulence factors of this
(most common, least (least common, most
organism?
severe) severe)
A. capsule & enterotoxins
Black Eschar Woolsorte’s disease Ingestion of
B. exotoxins & enterotoxins
Ragpicker’s disease improperly cooked
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C. endotoxin & capsule Hide Porter’s disease infected meat
D. capsule & exotoxin (Acquired thru)
Inhilation of spores
while handling wool.
Bacillus anthracis

 most significant bacillus (agent of bioterrorism)


 named as such because it can cause ANTHRAX acquired thru
contact with infected animals & animal products

VIRULENCE FACTORS are:

1) D-glutamate capsule
2) Ability to produce exotoxin with 3 components (a lethal factor, an
edema factor, and protective antigen)

84. Which of the following can cause Clostridium tetani – (tetanus) symptoms is risus sardonicus triggered by
infections in humans through a lockjaw
puncture wound and ultimately enter
the CNS Bacillus cereus – sporeformer implicated in cases of food poisoning
releasing a potent neurotoxin that could
later cause muscle paralysis? Clostridium botulinum
A. Bacillus anthracis  neurotoxic organism and can cause paralysis but not implicated in
B. Clostridium botulinum
cases of wound infection.
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Bacillus ceresu  Causes fatal type of food poisoning

85. A 50 years old patient who had his  M.leprae – not classified under Runyon’s causes leprosy- a
kidney transplant 6 months ago visited disease affecting the skin, mucuos membrane & peripheral nerves
the hospital with pneumonia like  M.ulcerans – classified as NON-PHOTOCHROMOGEN; causes
symptoms for 2 months, the infection BURULI ULCERS
was similar to tuberculosis. The chest
 M.avium non-photochromogen but regarded as #1 NTM to cause
x-ray examination revealed a typical
feature of tuberculosis infection. A TB in immunocompromised host i.e HIV(+) patients
photochromogenic (orange pigment  M.kansasii - PHOTOCHROMOGEN; #2 NTM to cause TB in
when exposed to UV light) acid-fast rod those with AIDS ; Rapid Tween Hydrolysis (+)
bacterium was isolated from the
RUNYON’S CLASSIFICATION
sputum sample. The identified bacteria
is:  Photochromogens – pigmented when exposed to light
A. M. avium
 Scotochromogens – pigmented in the dark and when exposed to
B. M. kansasii
C. M. ulcerans light
D. M. leprae  Nonphotochromogens – unable to develop pigment
 Rapid Growers – can produce colonies/growth in 3-5 days

86. The nitrate reduction test is one of Niacin test & Arylsulfatase test- negative in M.kansasii
the primary biochemical tests in
identifying M. tuberculosis, which of the Tellurite Reduction- variable result in M.kansasii
following biochemical test is useful in
Tween 80 Hydrolysis Test – (rapid) M.kansasii can be noted in 3-6 days
the identification of lipase producing M.
kansasii?
A. Tween 80 Hydrolysis Test
B. Niacin test
C. Tellurite Reduction
D. Arylsulfatase test

87. Which type of E. coli infection can All choices are classified as diarrhea genic or enterovirulent E. coli.
be severe with life-threatening all can cause diarrhea
consequences such as hemolytic ETEC
uremic  Causes profuse/severe watery diarrhea cholera like
syndrome?  “Traveller’s diarrhea
A. ETEC  Can produce toxin
B. EPEC EPEC
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C. EHEC  causes diarrhea in infant (non-toxigenic & non-invasive)
D. EIEC  Infantile diarrhea
EIEC
 causes bloody diarrhea similar to some shigella specie because it
is invasive (can invade bowel/intestinal mucosa)
EHEC/Vero Toxic E. coli (VTECT/STEC)
 shiga toxin like producing E. coli that causes severe blood
diarrhea due to production of potent toxin Vero Toxin.
 Infection can lead to hemorrhagic colitis & hemolytic uremic
syndrome
 Life threatening
 Most significant
88. Which of the following members of Serratia
Family Enterobacteriaceae is noted for  Procude a red pigment called prodigiosin
its production of a red pigment called  Genus is noted to produce number of enzyme
prodigiosin? a. Dnase (+)
A. Klebsiella b. Lipase (+)
B. Enterobacter c. Gelatinase (+)
C. Serratia Klebsiella
D. Shigella  Unique is the deposition of capsule
 Known to produce mucoid colonies
 Non motile
& Shigella
 Non motile (unique)
 Intestinal pathogen
 Invasive that results to bloody diarrhea
Enterobacter sakazakii/Chronobacter sakazakii
 Produce yellow pigment that intensifies at room temp.

89. Green colonies with black center Hektoen Enteric Agar


developing on Hektoen Enteric Agar is  Selective (gram (-) enteric bacilli)
most likely which of the following  Differential media differentiates fermenter (develops yellow
species? colonies) to non-fermenters (develops green colonies) due to
A. E. coli bromthymol blue as indicator
B. Salmonella spp. E. coli
C. Shigella spp.  Lactose fermenter
D. K. pneumoniae  Yellow colonies on HEA
 H2S (-) do not produce blackening on media
K. pneumoniae
 Lactose fermenter
 Yellow colonies on HEA
 H2S (-) do not produce blackening on media
Salmonella
 Non lactose fermenter
 Green colonies on HEA
 H2S (+)
Shigella
 Non lactose fermenter
 Green colonies on HEA
 H2S (-)

90. Choose the incorrect pair between Malonate utilization test


biochemical test & positive result  Blue (+)
A. Malonate utilization Test – blue  Green (-)
B. Vogues-Proskauer Test – pink to red  Bromthymol blue as an indicator
color Vogues-Proskauer Test
C. Phenylalanine Deaminase Test –  Pink to red color (+)
yellow  Part of IMViC
D. Lysine Decarboxylase test – purple  Use alpha-naphthol & KOH
Lysine decarboxylase test
 Purple (+)
 2 medias use in decarboxylase test
1) LIA
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2) Moeller’s broth
Deaminase Test
 To detect Proteus-Providencia & Morganella
 3 medias used
1) Phynelalanine agar – green (+)
2) Tryptophan – brown (+)
3) LIA – burgundy/red (+)

91. Cold enrichment of feces 4 types of bacteria (temperature)


(incubation at 4°C) in phosphate- Psychrophilic – COLD LOVING – able to grow between 0-20 degC
buffered saline prior to subculture Mesophilic – Able to grow at MODERATE temperature 20-40 degC
onto enteric media enhances the Thermophilic – HEAT LOVING
recovery of: Thermoduric – Not growing well at high temperature but can withstand
A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli exposure to high temperature
B. Salmonella paratyphi
Many bacteria are MESOPHILIC, it is the reason why the incubator is
C. Hafnia alvei
set at 35 to 37 degC
D. Y. enterocolitica
Listeria monocytogenes – Gram (+) bacilli that can also tolerate cold
enrichment

92. Bromthymol blue is used as XLD – Phenol red


indicator in which of the following Mac Conkey and SSA – Neutral red
media? TSI – Phenol red
1. XLD
Bromthymol blue is used as indicator in HEA, Malonate and Citrate
2. Mac Conkey Agar
3. SSA utilization test
4. TSI

A. 1 & 3
B. 2 & 4
C. 1,2 & 3
D. 1,2,3 & 4
E. none of these

93. Members of Family Mannitol fermentation – To classify species in the Genus Staphylococcus
Enterobacteriaceae are primarily S. aureus Mannitol (+) while S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus (CoNS)
classified on the basis of are Mannitol (-)
A. Mannitol fermentation
B. Lactose fermentation Catalase and Oxygen – To differentiate the SPORE FORMING GENERA:
C. catalase & Oxygen reaction Bacillus and Clostridium
D. B & C only
Catalase (+) and Aerobic – Genus Bacillus
Catalase (-) and generally Anaerobic – Genus Clostridium

94. Which of the following enteric bacilli Y. enterocolitica – BULL’S EYE COLONIES (pink colonies with red center)
can produce growth appearing as on CIN
clumps of cells adhering to one side of K. pneumoniae – Mucoid colonies that tend to STRING because of
the
capsule
tube forming the so-called “stalactite
pattern”? Proteus mirabilis – colonies with BURNT GUN/BURNT CHOCOLATE
A. Yersinia pestis odor; swarming on BAP
B. Yersinia enterocolitica Y. pestis – FLOCCULENT GROWTH or STALACTITE growth in Liquid
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Proteus media
mirabilis - hammered copper colonies (shiny or glistening colonies) on BAP in 48
hours, bioterrorism agent, plague agent

95. Which of the following can be used MAC – SOR – Mac Conkey – Sorbitol is a Mac Conkey agar without
as selective enrichment for growth of LACTOSE but with SORBITOL; used to detect E. coli serotype O157:H7
Salmonella spp? (specific example of EHEC) is said to be Lactose (+) but Sorbitol (-)
A. MAC-SOR
BGA (Brilliant Green Agar) – Selective isolation media for Salmonella
B. BGA
C. Alkaline Peptone water except S. typhi
D. Selenite Broth Indicator (BGA) – Phenol Red
Alkaline Peptone Water – Enrichment media for the genus Vibrio

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Selenite Broth – Selective enrichment media for Salmonella and Shigella

96. CIN medium contains XLD – May contain lactose as one of the fermentable CHO and phenol
_____________as fermentable CHO red as indicator
and ______________as indicator. MSA – contains mannitol and phenol red
A. lactose; phenol red Mac Conkey Agar – Contains Lactose as CHO and neutral red as
B. mannitol; phenol red indicator
C. mannitol; neutral red *XLD and Mac Conkey are SELECTIVE – DIFFERNTIAL MEDIA for
D. Lactose; neutral red
gram negative enteric bacilli
*MSA – Is for Staphylococcus aureus
CIN – contains mannitol, neutral red as indicator and novobiocin

97. Clostridium difficile is most C. difficile is classified as gram (+), spore former
commonly identified thru -Causes Pseudomembranouscolitis/antibiotic associated diarrhea
A. demonstration of cytotoxin -Produces Toxin A (Enterotoxin) and Toxin B (Cytotoxin)
B. isolation of organism in stool culture
-Detection is usually thru CYTOTOXIN DETECTION (Toxin b) thru
C. detection of hemolysis on BAP
D. all of these immunoassays
BAP – Fluorescence chartreuse – Yellow fluorescence
CCFA – Colonies with horse stable or barn yard odor
C. difficile is culturable but seldom use

98. Colorless growth on Mac Conkey Morganella spp. Providencia spp.


agar and colonies with burnt gun Mac Conkey NLF and COLORLESS NLF and COLORLESS
powder odor characterize which of the HEA COLORLESS COLORLESS
following
species? XLD RED/COLORLESS YELLOW/COLORLESS
A. Providencia rettgeri Plesiomonas shigelloides – BAP Shiny, opaque colonies, non – hemolytic
B. B. Proteus vulgaris Mac Conkey – LF or NLF (not commonly used)
C. Morganella morganii
D. Plesiomonas shigeloides

99. All of the following Mycobacterium M. kansasii – potentially pathogenic; can cause chronic pulmonary
species can cause skin infections disease
EXCEPT: M. marinum – cause skin infection (swimming pool granuloma/fish tank
A. M. marinum granuloma)
B. M. ulcerans M. ulcerans – cause skin infection (buruli ulcer)
C. M. haemophilum M. haemophilum – also an agent of skin infection
D. M. kansasii

100. The Mycobacterium species most M. marinum – swimming pool granuloma/fish tank granuloma = classified
likely to be isolate from hot water as photochromogen
system of hospital and can grow when M. ulcerans – Buruli ulcer/Bairnsdale ulcer = classified as Non –
incubated at 42 degC.
photochromogen
A. M. marinum
B. M. ulcerans M. haemophilum – Disseminated disease, cutaneous disease in
C. M. haemophilum immunocompromised
D. M. xenopi M. xenopi – “bird’s nest appearing colonies” on cornmeal agar (media for
fungi particularly candida albicans)
- causes pulmonary disease
- this is the mycobacterium species that can be isolated or most likely to be
recovered from hot water systems of hospitals
- transmitted via aerosols

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