1.

The goal of medical asepsis is to:*

A. Prevent progress of the disease
B. Treat existing disease condition
C. Control occurrence of a disease
D. Prevent transmission of infectious microorganisms

2. When isolating a patient with communicable disease, this information will be most helpful as a
basis for determining the period of isolation:*
A. Treatment regimen
B. Presenting signs and symptoms
C. Mode of transmission
D. Virulence of causative agent

3. Universal precautions are practiced by health care personnel to protect*

A. Himself
B. The patient
C. The patient & his family
D. All

4. An important goal for the Nurse to consider when teaching the patient medical asepsis is:*
A. To ensure the patient understands the need for basic methods of cleanliness

B. To ensure the patient does all procedures correctly

C. To ensure the patient completely understands the diagnosed infectious disease
D. To ensure the patient has no questions regarding aseptic procedure

5. Which organism usually causes self-limiting diseases and administration of antibiotics do not
alter the course of the disease*
A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Virus

D. Protozoan

6. To prevent contamination of the Nurse’s wrist watch in an isolation room the most practical way
to keep watch clean is:*
A. Leave it under the gown’s cuff

B. Clean with alcohol as soon as Nurse leave the room

C. Wrap in a transparent plastic bag before wearing it
D. Ask a friend to hold it for you

7. First and foremost in the prevention of disease transmission is concurrent disinfection. This
involves:*
A. Destruction of microorganisms including spores
B. Immediate destruction of secretions leaving the body that harbors the causative organism
C. Washing hands after contact with patient

D. B, C

8. When performing isolation technique which of the following situations require protective
barriers to be worn:*
A. Direct contact with blood or body fluids
B. When doing oral care
C. When infection is highly contagious
D. All

9. Which of the following is not a reason for the use of protective gown in isolation?*
A. To protect clothing from getting soiled while administering patient care
B. To protect a patient whose immune system is inadequate
C. To maintain good appearance while providing nursing care

D. To prevent clothing from droplet nuclei

SITUATION: Mrs. Bean recently gave birth to a baby boy. She recalled taking care of a sick relative in San
Lazaro Hospital on the 2nd month of pregnancy. You are a new graduate Nurse attending to the care of
Mrs. Bean.

10. To effectively assess Mrs. Bean’s feeling regarding her baby’s health condition, you will ask*
A. “Are you afraid your baby is abnormal?”
B. “Is your husband going to visit you today?”
C. “You seem to be worried, can I help?”

D. “What are you worried about?”

11. Further conversation revealed that Mrs. Bean was thinking of German Measles and its effect on
her child. You explain that exposure to this infection is worst during*
1/1
A. First trimester

B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Anytime during pregnancy

12. Had Mrs. Bean been exposed to German measles at the time of her pregnancy, as prophylaxis,
she received*
1/1
A. Rubella vaccine
B. Gamma globulin

C. Serum immunoglobulin
D. Serum antitoxin

13. Though Mrs. Bean underwent pre-natal check- ups and received required doses of tetanus
toxoid, still she asked how to identify beginning symptoms of tetanus neonatorum, which is*
0/1
A. Neonate will complain of low-lumber backache
B. Neonate will stop sucking at about 5 – 7 days with tight mouth that does not open
C. Neonate will be feverish with swollen eyelids
D. Stiffness of neck and muscular twitching will be noted

14. Mrs. Bean was instructed to go to the health center a week after delivery to submit her baby for
which of the following immunization?*
1/1
A. DPT
B. OPV
C. BCG

D. Measles

15. It is possible that several hours after immunization with DPT. Baby Bean will develop fever, the
Nurse will explain that:*
1/1
A. Fever is an expected outcome after DPT.

B. The newborn is allergic to DPT.

C. Infection developed as a result of vaccination.
D. Refer to doctor for possible assessment.

16. To protect the baby from TB, BCG will be given. As part of your health teaching regarding this
immunization, you explain to Mrs. Bean, that*
1/1
A. The wheal formed during BCG administration will disappear in about half an hour
B. A small, reddish, indurated nodule will appear after 2-3 weeks
C. Ulceration/abscess over site of immunization may develop
D. All

17. Which of the following biological agents will be given to Baby Bean within 24 hrs after birth in
the lying-in clinic/hospital?*
1/1
A. BCG
B. OPV
C. Hep B

D. Varivax

18. As Baby Bean reaches 9 months, he was brought to the clinic for his due immunization, which
is*
1/1
A. BCG
B. DPT
C. OPV
D. Measles

19. The following are true of your answer in no. 18*

1/1
A. Given 0.5 ml, deltoid muscle
B. Given 0.5 ml, SQ, upper arm
C. Given 0.5 ml, vastus lateralis
D. Given 0.05 ml, ID right deltoid area

20. An expected outcome from no. 18 is:*

0/1
A. Fever several hours after administration

B. Fever and/or rash after 6-10 days of vaccination

C. Rash lasting for one to two days
D. None

SITUATION: Schistosomiasis, which is endemic in some rural areas, is an important tropical disease
problem in the Philippines. Farmers are mostly affected thereby hampering agricultural productivity due
to huge manpower losses as it is a chronic disease.

21. Which of the following is not an early manifestation of schistosomiasis?*

1/1
A. Bulging of the abdomen

B. On and off dysentery

C. Low grade fever and abdominal pain
D. Pallor

22. The disease is caused by a*

0/1
A. Blood fluke
B. Nematode

C. Cestode
D. Roundworm

23. Which of the following factors favor transmission of schistosomiasis? 1. Absence of safe
facilities for bathing and laundering 2. Unsanitary habits 3. Wading and bathing and swimming
infested streams 4. Poverty and ignorance*
0/1
A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

24. Which of the following general measures can be implemented to prevent and control
schistosomiasis? 1. Case finding 2. Snail control 3. Health education 4.
Treatment of cases*
0/1
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

25. A drug used for treatment of schistosomiasis is:*

1/1
A. Hetrazan
B. Praziquantel

C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Mebendazole

26. To diagnose Schistosomiasis, which of the following tests will be used? 1. Stool exam
2. Rectal swab 3. COPT 4. Tape test*
1/1
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3

C. 2, 4
D. 3, 4

SITUATION: It is rainy season again. We can expect frequent storms and possible flooding. Thus,
incidence of Leptospirosis, Typhoid fever and other water-borne diseases may increase.

27. Which of the following is not a synonym of Leptospirosis?*

0/1
A. Swineherd's disease

B. Ictero-hemorrhagica
C. Catarrhal jaundice
D. Trench fever

28. Which of the following group of people is least susceptible to Leptospirosis?*

0/1
A. Veterinarians

B. Joggers
C. Farmers
D. Sewage workers

29. Which of the following examinations will be used for diagnosing Leptospirosis?*
0/1
A. COPT

B. LAAT
C. RPR
D. ELISA

30. Which of the following is a dangerous complication of Leptospirosis?*

0/1
A. Diarrhea
B. Encephalitis

C. Renal failure
D. Blindness

31. Leptospirosis can be prevented thru:*

0/1
A. Eradication of rats
B. Immunization
C. Destruction of breeding places of flies
D. Building foot bridges

32. Organ of the body initially affected in typhoid fever is:*

0/1
A. Intestines
B. Stomach
C. Peyer’s patches
D. Blood

33. Which of the following food preparation will be contraindicated to a client with typhoid fever?*
1/1
A. Boiled egg and champorado

B. Sauteed vegetables
C. Fish sinigang
D. Pork adobo

34. Factors in the transmission of typhoid fever include the following except:*
1/1
A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
B. Infection of blood through insect bites

C. Lack of sanitary toilet facilities

D. Contamination of flies

35. Typhoid fever is an infection caused by an organism that is*

0/1
A. Airborne
B. Waterborne
C. Vector borne

D. Blood borne

36. When is a patient with typhoid fever still considered communicable?*

1/1
A. When he is still highly febrile
B. When the causative organism is still present in his stool

C. When he is complaining of melena

D. When the patient’s body malaise is still highly pronounced

37. Which of the following is the purpose of fecalysis for occult blood? *
1/1
A. Determine whether there is blood in the stool

B. Detect presence of Salmonella typhi in the blood

C. Determine whether the patient is still communicable
D. Confirm whether the patient has already peritonitis

38. Which of the following laboratory tests is definitive of typhoid fever?*

0/1
A. Hemoculture
B. Fecalysis for occult blood

C. Rectal swab
D. Complete blood count

39. The separation of a person with communicable disease from others during the period of
communicability*
1/1
A. Isolation

B. Quarantine
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization

40. Direct contact through coughing, sneezing, talking constitute*

1/1
A. Primary infection
B. Airborne transmission
C. Droplet infection

D. Vehicle transmission

41. What type of immunity is provided with the administration of anti-diphtheria serum?*
1/1
A. Acquired active immunity
B. Acquired passive immunity

C. Natural active immunity

D. Natural passive immunity
42. Eruption in the skin is referred to as:*
1/1
A. Enanthem
B. Exanthem

C. Maculo-papular eruptions
D. Vesiculo-pustular lesions

43. Which of the following is not correct about shingles?*

1/1
A. Pain relievers may be given
B. Rashes follows peripheral nerve pathway
C. Rashes are in clusters
D. Exposure to chicken pox means immunity to shingles

44. Which of the following immunologic agents will provide active immunity to a person bitten by a
dog?*
0/1
A. Purified chick embryo vaccine
B. Equine rabies immuneglobulin
C. Human rabies immuneglobulin
D. Anti-rabies serum

45. Children walking bare-footed and not washing hands before eating are potential for parasite
infections like: 1. Ascaris 2. Pinworms 3. Schistosoma 4. Tapeworm*
0/1
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

46. According to research, which age-groups are commonly affected by parasitism in the
Philippines?*
1/1
A. Toddlers and pre-schoolers

B. Pre-schoolers and school-age children

C. Infants and toddlers
D. Elderly

47. A client who is to be treated with anti-TB drugs must undergo which of the following laboratory
tests before start of the therapy?*
0/1
A. Serum electrolytes
B. Serum enzymes
C. Sputum examination

D. Chest x-ray

48. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis is still considered communicable when*

0/1
A. Treatment regimen has not been completed yet

B. His sputum exam yielded a negative result

C. He is still positive for tubercle bacilli
D. He is no longer coughing

49. Anti-TB drugs are usually administered*

1/1
A. Before meals
B. After meals
C. In the morning with meals
D. In the morning before meals

50. Which of the following manifestations if complained by the patient taking Ethambutol needs
referral to the MD? *
1/1
A. Blurring of vision

B. Ringing in the ears

C. Orange-colored urine
D. Tingling sensation and numbness of extremities
51. Which of the following is a cause for concern when expressed by a patient who is to receive
Strep SO4 ?*
1/1
A. Severe dizziness
B. Difficulty of hearing
C. Joint pains
D. The client is pregnant

52. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is contraindicated to young children?*

1/1
A. Isoniazide
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

53. The client with pulmonary TB had an episode of hemoptysis. Which of the following
interventions would be the Nurse’s highest priority to help the patient?*
0/1
A. Refer to the attending physician

B. Request for ABG analysis

C. Administer oxygen inhalation
D. Administer tranexamic acid

54. The client with tetanus has an episode of spasm. Which of the following would be the Nurse’s
highest concern when administering nursing care?*
0/1
A. Secure safety of the patient
B. Regulate diazepam drip to a faster rate
C. Increase flow rate of oxygen inhalation
D. Observe strict aspiration precaution

55. Which of the following activities can be considered as the best preventive measure fortetanus?*
1/1
A. Proper wound care

B. Avoid getting wounds

C. Treat wound with hydrogen peroxide
D. Comply with treatment regimen prescribed by the doctor

56. Which of the following will be contraindicated to a patient with active spasm?*
0/1
A. Instruct watcher not to leave the patient alone
B. Provide sips of warm soup or juice at intervals
C. Do not take the temperature per orem
D. Cluster nursing interventions

57. Which of the following nursing interventions will not be appropriate for a client with lockjaw?*
0/1
A. Take temperature using tympanic thermometer
B. Observe strict aspiration precaution when giving sips of liquid
C. Raise side rails when there is spasm

D. Avoid jarring the bed when providing nursing care

58. The causative organism of tetanus, Clostridium tetani, will best thrive in which of the following
environment?*
1/1
A. Decaying organic materials like vegetables and fruits
B. Bloody secretions and purulent exudates
C. Untreated puncture wounds

D. Post-surgical wound

59. Young children can easily acquire tetanus thru which of the following means?*
0/1
A. Getting infected with otitis media
B. Decaying temporary teeth
C. Any untreated lacerations or wounds

D. Scratches
60. Koplik’s spots is to measles as which of the following characterizes Rubella?*
0/1
A. Forscheimer’s spots
B. Waterhouse-Friedrichsen
C. Herman sign

D. Ghon complex

61. The rashes in chicken pox are described as*

1/1
A. Maculo-papular
B. Vesiculo-pustular

C. Scabs with honey-colored exudates

D. Painful vesicles on peripheral nerve pathways

62. Considering the nature of chicken pox, which isolation technique will be most appropriate for
this diisease?*
0/1
A. Droplet precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Standard precaution
D. Contact isolation

63. Which of the following nursing care is not appropriate for a client with chicken pox?*
1/1
A. Cut fingernails short and use mittens
B. Use of “kolantro” to relieve itchiness
C. Use of baking soda as rinsing solution after bath
D. Use of topical antibiotic to prevent secondary infection

64. Blackwater fever may occur in some clients infected with malaria. The Nurse will expect the
client with this condition to manifest:*
0/1
A. Dark urine
B. Melena
C. Low-grade fever
D. Severe chills and fever

65. Which of the following is the vehicle of transmission of Rabies?*

0/1
A. Dog bite

B. Brain
C. Saliva
D. Lick of a dog or scratch of a cat

66. Organ of predilection of the Rhabdovirus?*

1/1
A. CNS

B. Blood
C. Saliva
D. Lungs

67. Which of the following laboratory examination will be used to diagnose Rabies?*
0/1
A. Direct fluorescent test
B. Darkfield illumination test
C. ELISA

D. COPT

68. What laboratory finding will confirm infection with Rabies?*

0/1
A. Presence of antibodies to the bacteria
B. Positive for negri bodies
C. Presence of rhabdovirus

D. Aerophobia and hydrophobia

69. Rabies is both preventable and curable?*

0/1
A. True

B. False

70. What is the pathophysiological basis of hydrophobia in Rabies?*

1/1
A. Fear of water
B. Respiratory spasm
C. Increase intracranial pressure
D. Pharyngeal spasm

71. Where is the passive agent for immunization against Rabies administered ?*
0/1
A. Dorso-gluteal muscle
B. Deltoid muscle

C. Ventro-gluteal muscle
D. Forearm

72. A client with meningitis will be placed in which type of isolation technique?*
0/1
A. Airborne precaution
B. Droplet precaution
C. Blood and body fluid precaution
D. Reverse isolation

73. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis among young children
?*
0/1
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Neisseria meningitidis

D. Listeria monocytogenes

74. Which of the following neurologic signs is suggestive of meningitis?*

0/1
A. Babinski reflex
B. Nuchal rigidity

C. Moro reflex
D. Kernig’s sign

75. A patient with meningitis is said to be positive for Brudzinski’s sign when*
1/1
A. He cannot bend his head
B. He manifests doll’s eyes
C. He cannot extend his legs when his thighs are flexed towards the abdomen
D. His lower extremities involuntarily flex as he bends his neck

76. The attending physician ordered for lumbar puncture. Which of the following nursing
responsibilities must be accomplished first so that the MD can proceed with the procedure?*
1/1
A. Prepare all the necessary materials that will be used by the doctor
B. Do sensitivity test for xylocaine
C. Secure an informed consent

D. Ask the patient to void first before placing him in proper position for the procedure

77. Which of the following symptoms is a contraindication for the doctor to proceed with the
lumbar puncture?*
1/1
A. Presence of nuchal rigidity
B. (+) babinski reflex
C. Body malaise
D. High BP and vomiting

78. In which position will the patient for lumbar puncture be placed?*
0/1
A. Dorsal recumbent position
B. Lateral recumbent position
C. Knee-chest position
D. Trendelenburg position

79. What is the important instruction to the client after lumbar puncture?*
1/1
A. Maintain supine position with one pillow support
B. Instruct watcher to observe and report any unusual manifestations such as headacheand vomiting
C. Lie flat on bed for 6-8 hours

D. Observe for respiratory difficulty

80. An important nursing consideration prior to administration of Mannitol will be to*

1/1
A. Check the drug that will be administered for right dose, right route, right patient
B. Check whether the patient is vomiting, with unbearable headache and restless
C. Check for doctor’s order
D. Check for hypotension

81. A client with meningitis complained of severe headache and vomiting. BP was elevated 30mm
Hg above his usual reading. In which position will the patient be placed to resolve his health problem?*
1/1
A. Fowler’s position

B. Supine position
C. Dorsal recumbent position
D. Trendelenburg position

82. A client with TB meningitis is receiving phenytoin. What nursing instruction will be emphasized
regarding this drug?*
1/1
A. Observe aspiration precaution
B. Place client in fowler’s position
C. Provide oral care regularly

D. Encourage small frequent feedings

83. German measles is clinically different from measles by which of the following manifestation?*
0/1
A. Fever and body malaise
B. Maculo-papular rashes all over the body
C. Presence of bluish-white spots over the buccal cavity

D. Palpable post-auricular and post-cervical lymph node enlargement

84. A pregnant woman exposed to German measles will undergo which test to determine her
susceptibility or resistance to the disease.*
1/1
A. Serologic examination
B. Rubella titer test

C. Polymerase chain reaction

D. Complete blood count

85. Which of the following abnormalities is not a result of being afflicted with German measles
during pregnancy? *
0/1
A. Microcephaly and mental retardation
B. Deafness and mutism
C. Malformation of the teeth
D. Abortion and stillbirth

86. A client who is to receive MMR must first be checked for which of the following?*
1/1
A. Allergy to antibiotics
B. Allergy to eggs

C. History of chicken pox infection

D. (+) for PPD test

87. Which of the following characterizes the stool of a patient with cholera?*
1/1
A. Acholic
B. Rice-watery
C. Mucoid, blood-streaked
D. Greenish, mushy to watery

88. Priority medical and nursing concern when managing a patient with cholera is*
1/1
A. Control episodes of diarrhea and vomiting
B. Replace fluids and electrolytes lost

C. Monitor I and O including vital signs

D. Monitor and report possible hypovolemic shock

89. Which of the following measures can be applied to prevent cholera?*

0/1
A. Control of flies and proper disposal of feces
B. Ensure drinking water is safe for consumption

C. Screening of blood donors

D. Maintain environmental sanitation

90. Which of the following diseases will not give lifetime immunity after infection?*
1/1
A. Measles
B. Herpes zoster

C. German measles
D. Chicken pox

SITUATION: Betty, 18 y/o, is admitted in the hospital with a diagnosis of Hepatitis. Bedrest and
diagnostic studies were prescribed as part of her care.

91. On admission a nursing assessment of Betty would reveal this early objective symptom of
Hepatitis?*
1/1
A. Loss of appetite
B. Jaundice

C. Left upper quadrant pain

D. Abdominal distention
92. Betty was instructed to rest. The Nurse should explain that the main goal of bedrest is to*
1/1
A. Control spread of the disease
B. Minimize liver damage

C. Reduce the breakdown of fats for metabolic needs

D. Decrease the circulatory load to reduce cardiac effort

93. To identify the type of hepatitis Betty is sick with, her doctor requested for which laboratory
test?*
1/1
A. SGPT
B. Total bilirubin determination
C. Antigen-antibody test

D. Liver biopsy

94. When taking care of a patient with infectious hepatitis the Nurse should take special precaution
to *
1/1
A. Place patient on standard precaution.
B. Observe caution when bringing food to the client‘s room.
C. Prevent droplet spread of infection
D. Use gloves when removing the client‘s bedpan

95. To provide rest for her ailing liver, Betty was prescribed with a diet composed of*
0/1
A. Low fat, low CHON, high CHO

B. Low fat, high CHON, high CHO

C. Sweets and candies
D. Avoid fatty foods

96. Serum hepatitis cannot be clinically distinguished from infectious hepatitis, but which laboratory
result will distinguish serum hepatitis from infectious hepatitis?*
0/1
A. HBsAg
B. Anti-HAV
C. SGPT
D. Anti-HCV

97. The stool of the patient with hepatitis is described as*

1/1
A. Rice-watery stool
B. Blood-streaked mucoid stool
C. Acholic stool

D. Coated with pus

98. When caring for a patient with serum hepatitis, this statement will indicate further instruction*
0/1
A. Recap needles after IM injections
B. Members of the health team are at risk of acquiring serum hepatitis
C. Encourage small frequent feedings

D. Administer Essentiale phospholipid capsule three times a day

99. Microorganisms are transmitted to a client when a contaminated stethoscope touches his skin.
The stethoscope is a*
1/1
A. Vehicle of transmission

B. Portal of exit
C. Portal of entry
D. Route of transmission

100. A Nurse demonstrates awareness of the single most important infection control technique
when the Nurse does which of the following?*
1/1
A. Uses gloves when giving a bed bath
B. Washes hands before & after every client contact

C. Uses sterile gloves to provide perineal care

D. Uses sterile technique for an abdominal dressing change