Itl v. 4

IT
ITIL Foundation V. 4 . No. Of Question 329 .

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ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 2
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
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A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
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C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

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D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 3
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Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?

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A. To identify patterns of business activity

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B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction

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C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services

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D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change

B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management

B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Correct Answer: C
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 6
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved
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significant cost and risk to the organization?

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A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
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C. Service request
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D. Risk register
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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 7
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident

2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

QUESTION 8
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities

B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
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Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
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A. Roles
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B. Inputs and outputs

C. Functions
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D. Metrics
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Correct Answer: C
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 10
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be
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expected of them?
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A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

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B. Perform an activity
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C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

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D. Manage an activity
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided

2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
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B. Incident management
C. Service level management
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D. Financial management
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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 13
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Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
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A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

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B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
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C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service
designs that are produced
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D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal

B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation:
QUESTION 15
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 16
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Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

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1. To automatically detect service-affecting events

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2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
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A. 1 and 2 only
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B. 2 and 3 only
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C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 17
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Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered

2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

QUESTION 18
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted
or not
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
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QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
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A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
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B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the
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momentum going?
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C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check
the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
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D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
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there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

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Correct Answer: D
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 20
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
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assessment and prioritization of changes?

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A. The change authorization board

B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their
targets?

A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
D. Availability management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service

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B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
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D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 23
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Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

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A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not

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B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset

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C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not

D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
QUESTION 24
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management

B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation:
QUESTION 25
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of
items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
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QUESTION 26
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Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

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A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

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B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
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C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening

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D. To detect security events and make sense of them

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Correct Answer: B
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 27
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Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

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1. ITIL is vendor neutral

2. It does not prescribe actions
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3. ITIL represents best practice

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A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 28
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

A. The Deming Cycle
B. The continual service improvement approach
C. The seven-step improvement process
D. The service lifecycle
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 29
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

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B. Service strategy
C. Service design
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D. Service transition
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Correct Answer: B
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 30
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Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?
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A. Service level management

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B. Service portfolio management

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C. Request fulfilment
D. Demand management
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Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
A. The service level management

B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation:
QUESTION 32
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
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QUESTION 33
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Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?

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1. Financial arrangements related to the contract

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2. Description of the goods or service provided

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3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

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A. 1 and 2 only
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B. 1 and 3 only
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C. 2 and 3 only
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D. All of the above

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Correct Answer: D
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 34
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Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

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A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 35
What should a release policy include?

A. The process owner and process manager for each type of release
B. The roles and responsibilities for incident and problem resolution
C. The naming convention and expected frequency of each type of release
D. The naming convention for all configuration items (CI) recorded in the configuration management system
(CMS)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
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2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
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Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
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A. Job descriptions
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B. Functions
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C. Teams
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D. Roles, people or groups

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Correct Answer: D
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 37
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
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A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident

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B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

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C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 38
Which process will regularly anal0yse incident data to identify discernible trends?

B. Problem management

D. Event management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?
A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers

B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail
C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement
D. A service not directly used by the business
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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 40
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Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?
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A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
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B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating
together for a common purpose
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C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities

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D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 41
Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?
A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement

B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

QUESTION 42
Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)

B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 43
The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions
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would be BEST to manage risk?

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A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks

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B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk

C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
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D. Training of all staff and investment of capital

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Correct Answer: B
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 44
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
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A. Standards
B. Technology
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C. Academic research
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D. Internal experience
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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 45
Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include Partners, People,
Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Products
D. Potential

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 46
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?
A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue

B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of market spaces
D. The design of the technology architectures
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 47
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Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

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A. A service level agreement (SLA)

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B. A request for change (RFC)

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C. The service portfolio

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D. A service description
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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 48
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Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
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1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customer's successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

QUESTION 49
Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?
A. Capacity management
B. Governance
C. Service design
D. Service level management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 50
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Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?
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1. The services
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2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
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4. The processes
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A. 1, 2 and 3 only
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B. 1, 3 and 4 only
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C. 2, 3 and 4 only
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D. All of the above

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Correct Answer: D
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 51
Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?
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A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources

B. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions
C. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes
D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 52
What are underpinning contracts used to document?
A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider

B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers
C. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customer
D. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 53
Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed
and documented standard?
A. The IT director
B. The process owner
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C. The service owner

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D. The customer
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Correct Answer: B
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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QUESTION 54
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Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?
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A. Knowledge management
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B. Release and deployment management

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C. Service asset and configuration management

D. Service level management
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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
QUESTION 55
Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above

B. 1 only
C. 2 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 56
Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service
Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Operation
D. Service Design
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 57
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Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?
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A. Internal
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B. External
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C. Service desk
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D. Shared services unit

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Correct Answer: C
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 58
Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?
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A. Incident management
B. Access management
D. Request fulfillment
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 59
What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver
customer facing services?

A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 60
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A. As many as necessary to complete the activity

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B. Only one - the process owner

C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor
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D. Only one - the process architect

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Correct Answer: B
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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QUESTION 61
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Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?

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1. The approach is pre-authorized

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2. The risk is usually low and well understood

3. Details of the change will be recorded
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4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process

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A. 1 only
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B. 2 and 3 only
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C. 1, 2 and 4 only
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D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 62
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
B. Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider
C. Reports should be produced weekly
D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 63
Which one of the following does service metrics measure?
A. Functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end-to-end service
D. Infrastructure availability
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 64
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Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
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A. Demand management
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C. Release and deployment management

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D. Request fulfillment
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Correct Answer: D
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 65
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Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?

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1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers
A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

QUESTION 66
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
A. Request fulfilment
C. Service desk
D. IT finance
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 67
Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
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A. Knowledge
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B. Information
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C. Wisdom
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D. Data
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Correct Answer: C
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Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 68
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Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

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A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
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B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
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C. To create and populate a service catalogue

D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
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Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 69
Which one of the following activities does application management perform?
A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be located

B. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
C. Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 70
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording configuration items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 71
The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
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A. Before the change is approved

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B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
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D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
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Correct Answer: A
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Section: (none)
Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 72
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Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
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A. Only changes that introduce new services

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B. It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity

C. Only changes to business critical systems
D. Any change that the organization believes could benefit
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 73
What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?
A. Service catalogue management


C. Service desk
D. Business relationship management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 74
What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. External customers
C. Valued customers
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D. Internal customers
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Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
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QUESTION 75
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In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information
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security management, and supplier management?

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A. Service strategy
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B. Service design
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C. Service transition
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D. Service operation
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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
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Explanation
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Explanation:
QUESTION 76
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 77
Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1. Things that were done correctly

2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
IT
D. All of the above

St
Correct Answer: D
ud
Section: (none)
Explanation
y
M
Explanation:
at
er
QUESTION 78
Which of the following are sources of best practice?
ia
ls
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
&
3. Industry practices
Pr
A. All of the above

ac
B. 1 and 3 only
tic
C. 1 and 2 only
al
D. 2 and 3 only
Q
Correct Answer: A
As
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 79
Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change

2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 80
Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
C. Eliminating recurring incidents
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
IT
Correct Answer: D
St
Section: (none)
Explanation
ud
y
Explanation:
M
QUESTION 81
at
Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
er
ia
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.
ls
&
A. 1 only
Pr
B. 2 only
ac

tic
Correct Answer: C
al
Section: (none)
Explanation
Q
As
Explanation:
QUESTION 82
In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?
A. In a service level agreement (SLA)

B. In a problem record
C. In the availability management information system
D. In the IT service plan
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation:
QUESTION 83
Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during
design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
IT
QUESTION 84
St
Which of the following BEST describes technical management?

ud
A. A function responsibilities for facilities management and building control systems

y
B. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to
M
customers
at
C. Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function
er
D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure
ia
Correct Answer: D
ls
Section: (none)
Explanation
&
Pr
Explanation:
ac
tic
QUESTION 85
Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?
al
A. Local
Q
B. Centralized
As
C. Outsourced
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 86
Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below
acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management

B. Event management

C. Service catalogue management
D. Problem management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 87
Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
IT
D. Less documentation
St
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
ud
Explanation
y
M
Explanation:
at
QUESTION 88
er
In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s
ia
contribution?
ls
A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated

&
B. Measures for optimization are identified

Pr
C. Service value is modeled

ac
D. Service value is visible to customers

tic
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
al
Explanation
Q
As
Explanation:
QUESTION 89
Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held

B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and
protected
C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation:
QUESTION 90
Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
A. Service level agreements (SLAs)

B. Third-party contracts
D. Operational level agreements (OLAs)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
IT
QUESTION 91
Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
St
ud
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room

2. Applications
y
3. Power and cooling equipment

M
4. Recovery sites
at
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
er
B. All of the above

ia
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
ls
D. 1 and 3 only
&
Correct Answer: C
Pr
Section: (none)
Explanation
ac
tic
Explanation:
al
QUESTION 92
Q
Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
As
A. Service design
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 93
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

A. The availability of a service or component
B. The level of risk that affects a service or process
C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
D. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 94
Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate

IT
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained

C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolio
St
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue
ud
Correct Answer: B
y
Section: (none)
M
Explanation
at
er
Explanation:
ia
QUESTION 95
ls
Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

&
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
Pr
B. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration
ac
management system (CMS)

C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
tic
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
al
Correct Answer: D
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 96
Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and
efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance

B. Performance, process, products, problems
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, perspective, partners
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation:
QUESTION 97
Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics

2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
IT
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
St
Explanation
ud
y
Explanation:
M
QUESTION 98
at
What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

er
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
ia
B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization

ls
C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
&
D. A document that describes business services to operational staff

Pr
Correct Answer: A
ac
Section: (none)
tic
Explanation
al
Explanation:
Q
As
QUESTION 99
Which one of the following generates demand for services?
A. Infrastructure trends
B. Patterns of business activity (PBA)
C. Cost of providing support
D. Service level agreements (SLA)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 100
Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components

of the IT infrastructure?

B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Service asset and configuration management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 101
Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?
IT
A. Act
St
B. Plan
C. Do
ud
D. Co-ordinate
y
M
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
at
Explanation
er
ia
Explanation:
ls
&
QUESTION 102
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
Pr
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party

ac
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization

tic
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier

al
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer

Q
Correct Answer: D
As
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 103
Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?
1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is

2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3. Defining how value is created
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 104
In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors

2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

B. Neither of the above
C. Option 1 only
IT
D. Option 2 only
St
Correct Answer: A
ud
Section: (none)
Explanation
y
M
Explanation:
at
er
QUESTION 105
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
ia
ls
A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
&
B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer

Pr
C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure

D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service
ac
tic
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
al
Explanation
Q
As
Explanation:
QUESTION 106
Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?
A. Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildings
B. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. Managing access to the service desk
D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

QUESTION 107
Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests

2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
A. All of the above

B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
Explanation:
St
ud
QUESTION 108
Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?
y
M
A. The change management process owner

at
B. The change advisory board (CAB)

er
D. The continual service improvement manager

ia
ls
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
&
Explanation
Pr
ac
Explanation:
tic
QUESTION 109
al
Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles
Q
defined in the vision'?

As
A. Where are we now?

B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 110
What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

A. Strategic service
B. Delivered service
C. Internal service
D. External service
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 111
What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?
A. Service management
IT
C. Resource management
St
D. Service support
ud
Correct Answer: A
y
Section: (none)
M
Explanation
at
er
Explanation:
ia
QUESTION 112
ls
Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?
&
A. Change management
Pr
B. Capacity management
ac
C. Service transition planning and support

D. Release management
tic
al
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Q
Explanation
As
Explanation:
QUESTION 113
Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?
A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the
lifecycle
B. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into them
C. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service
lifecycle
D. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation:
QUESTION 114
Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service
charters and change requests'?
A. Service transition planning and support

B. Design coordination
D. Change management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
Explanation:
St
ud
QUESTION 115
Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
y
M
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance

2. Identifying improvement opportunities
at
3. Appointing people to required roles

er
A. All of the above

ia
B. 1 and 3 only
ls
C. 1 and 2 only
&
D. 2 and 3 only
Pr
Correct Answer: A
ac
Section: (none)
tic
Explanation
al
Explanation:
Q
As
QUESTION 116
Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?
A. Process practitioner
B. Process manager
C. Service manager
D. Change manager
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 117
Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?

B. Service catalogue management
C. Supplier management
D. Release and deployment management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 118
Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
1. Service pipeline
IT
2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)

3. Service catalogue
St
ud
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
y
C. 1 and 3 only
M
D. All of the above

at
er
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
Explanation:
Pr
QUESTION 119
ac
A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?
tic
1. A new IT service
al
2. A major change to an IT service

3. An emergency change to an IT service
Q
4. An IT service retirement
As
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 120
Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources

2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 121
Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?
IT
A. Planning how to recover the cost of a change

St
B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful

ud
C. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change

y
D. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change

M
Correct Answer: B
at
Section: (none)
er
Explanation
ia
ls
Explanation:
&
QUESTION 122
Pr
Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

ac
A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available

tic
B. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be logged

al
C. All incidents must be fully logged

D. The service desk decide which incidents to log
Q
As
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 123
Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management
information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Detection
C. Prioritization
D. Escalation
Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 124
What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal

B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
Explanation:
ud
QUESTION 125
y
Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

M
A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
at
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in
er
one place
ia
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support

ls
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

&
Correct Answer: D
Pr
Section: (none)
Explanation
ac
tic
Explanation:
al
QUESTION 126
Q
Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
As
A. A capacity database
B. A definitive media library
C. A request for change
D. A known error database
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 127
Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?

A. Naming and numbering conventions
B. Entry and exit criteria of the release into testing
C. Roles and responsibilities for the release
D. The risk register for the release
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 128
Which of the following statements describes the objectives of service asset and configuration management?
1. To identify, control, report and verify service assets and configuration items (CIs)
2. To account for, manage and protect the integrity of service assets and configuration items
IT
3. To establish and maintain an accurate and complete configuration management system

4. To document all security controls together with their operation and maintenance
St
ud
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
y
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
M
D. All of the above

at
er
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
References:
Pr
http://www.ucisa.ac.uk/~/media/Files/members/activities/ITIL/servicetransition/service_asset/ITIL_guide%20to
%20SA%20and%20CM%20management%20pdf (see 'The purpose and objectives of service asset and
ac
configuration management; first and second bullet)

tic
QUESTION 129
al
Which Functions are included in IT operations management?

Q
A. Network management and application management

As
B. Technical management and change management

C. IT operations control and facilities management
D. Facilities management and release management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 130
Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action plans
have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?
A. Availability management

B. Capacity management
C. Business relationship management
D. Service catalogue management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 131
The definitive media library is the responsibility of:
A. Facilities management
B. Access management
IT
C. Request fulfillment
St
Correct Answer: D
ud
Section: (none)
y
Explanation
M
at
Explanation:
er
QUESTION 132
ia
What are the three service provider business models?

ls
A. Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore party

&
B. Internal service operations provider, external service operations provider, shared service unit
Pr
C. Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3rd party

ac
D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit

tic
Correct Answer: D
al
Section: (none)
Explanation
Q
As
Explanation:
QUESTION 133
Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
A. Only changes that introduce new services are included

B. All changes are mandated to be included
C. Only changes to business critical systems are included
D. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:

QUESTION 134
Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes

2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes
A. All of the above

B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
Explanation:
St
ud
QUESTION 135
What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function
y
when required?
M
A. Serviceability
at
B. Availability
er
C. Capacity
ia
D. Continuity
ls
Correct Answer: B
&
Section: (none)
Pr
Explanation
ac
tic
Explanation:
al
QUESTION 136
Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
Q
As
1. Incident model
2. Known error record
A. 1 only
B. 2only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 137
Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?

1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
IT
QUESTION 138
St
Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

ud
A. CSI register
y
B. Known error database

M
C. Capacity management information system

at
D. Configuration management database

er
Correct Answer: A
ia
Section: (none)
ls
Explanation
&
Pr
Explanation:
ac
QUESTION 139
tic
Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?
al
A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other

Q
B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority

As
C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority

D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 140
Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which
stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Service strategy
C. Service operation

D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 141
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed

B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
IT
Correct Answer: B
St
Section: (none)
Explanation
ud
y
Explanation:
M
QUESTION 142
at
What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract
er
known as?
ia
A. Strategic customers
ls
B. External customers
&
C. Valued customers
Pr
D. Internal customers
ac
Correct Answer: B
tic
Section: (none)
Explanation
al
Q
Explanation:
As
QUESTION 143
What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?
A. It keeps the communication going within the business

B. It helps the business in making decisions on improvement initiatives
C. It helps the stakeholders understand their customers
D. It dictates the way the business interacts with external suppliers
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
References: https://www.cherwell.com/blog/7-steps-to-continual-service-improvement-csi-success

QUESTION 144
Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?
A. It contains targets that underpin those within an SLA to ensure that targets will not be breached by failure
of the supporting activity.
B. It is an agreement between a supplier and another part of the same organization that assists with the
provision of services.
C. It is a written agreement between a supplier and the IT customer(s), defining the key service targets and
responsibilities of both parties.
D. It is a legally binding contract outlining services delivered to an IT service provider that underpin a service
that provider delivers to its customers.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
References: http://wiki.en.it-processmaps.com/index.php/Service_Level_Management
St
QUESTION 145
ud
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?

y
A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT operations failures that occur

M
B. Delivering operational improvements to achieve reduced costs

at
C. Management of the definitive media library (DML)

er
D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities
ia
Correct Answer: C
ls
Section: (none)
Explanation
&
Pr
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Definitive_Media_Library
ac
tic
QUESTION 146
What is the BEST description of an external customer?
al
A. Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the service provider
Q
B. Anyone who gets charged for the delivered services

As
C. Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider
D. Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
References: http://smallbusiness.chron.com/internal-customer-external-customer-11698.html
QUESTION 147
How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?
A. Internal service
B. External service
C. Mission critical service

D. Organizational service
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 148
What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services

B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C. It provides quick and effective access to standard services
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change
IT
Correct Answer: B
St
Section: (none)
Explanation
ud
y
M
QUESTION 149
at
Which is an objective of access management?

er
ia
A. To efficiently respond to requests for granting access to services

ls
B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service

C. To assist with general information, complaints or comments
&
D. To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

Pr
ac
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
tic
Explanation
al
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=GuVgAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA147&lpg=PA147&dq=access
Q
+management+efficiently+respond+to+requests+for+granting+access+to+services&source=bl&ots=re4-
As
bPLfZs&sig=DSxe6nTYMiYpr3k8Lxzgq05k-
nE&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7vrvrzIXOAhXHMo8KHXo0BSMQ6AEIJzAD#v=onepage&q=access%
20management%20efficiently%20respond%20to%20requests%20for%20granting%20access%20to%
20services&f=false
QUESTION 150
Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being
transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?
A. Service portfolio management

B. Service level management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Service capacity management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

Explanation
QUESTION 151
What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?
A. It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT services

B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action
C. It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and products
D. It has responsibility for creating policies
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 152
What is an objective of event management?
y
M
A. To maintain user satisfaction with the quality of IT services

at
B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service

C. To provide a channel for users to receive standard services that they are expecting
er
D. To minimize the impact of incidents due to service failures that cannot be prevented
ia
ls
Correct Answer: B
&
Section: (none)
Explanation
Pr
ac
tic
QUESTION 153
al
Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?

Q
A. The definitive media library

As
B. The configuration management system

D. The service catalogue
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 154
Which is used to assess business demand for services?
A. Premium business assets

B. Patterns of business activity

C. Provider business assets
D. Predicted business architecture
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 155
What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?
A. Human resource model

B. Configuration baseline
C. Service model
IT
D. RACI matrix
St
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
ud
Explanation
y
M
Reference: http://www.thecqi.org/Documents/community/South%20Western/Wessex%20Branch/CQI%
at
20Wessex%20-%20RACI%20approach%207Sep10.pdf (page 9)
er
QUESTION 156
ia
Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the
ls
transition stage of the service lifecycle?

&
A. Testing the tool and training process managers on using the process
Pr
B. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the tools

C. Training tool administrators how to manage tools and monitoring tool performance in operational
ac
environment
tic
D. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process

al
Correct Answer: AD
Q
Section: (none)
Explanation
As
QUESTION 157
Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?
A. Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics
B. Process metrics, software metrics and financial metrics
C. Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics
D. Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=h8q-ceduUGsC&pg=PA61&lpg=PA61&dq=types+of+metric
+support+Continual+Service
+Improvement&source=bl&ots=0hdWRAC4Fn&sig=Zc2JAODvh3osWZUTBaAFM-
b1fck&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjf_N3E0oXOAhXKq48KHYlcCGoQ6AEIJjAC#v=onepage&q=types%20of
%20metric%20support%20Continual%20Service%20Improvement&f=false
QUESTION 158
Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services

2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
IT
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
St
ud
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
y
Explanation
M
at
Reference: https://www.ucisa.ac.uk/~/media/Files/members/activities/ITIL/servicedesign/ITIL_Introducing%
er
20Service%20Design%20pdf.ashx
ia
QUESTION 159
ls
Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services between
service providers?
&
Pr
A. Service transition
ac
tic
D. Service design
al
Correct Answer: A
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
Explanation:
ITIL Service Transition provides guidance for the development and improvement of capabilities for
transitioning new and changed services to supported environments, which includes release planning, building,
testing, evaluation and deployment. The publication will consider service retirement and transfer of services
between service providers. This Service Transition provides access to prove best practices based on the skill
and knowledge of experienced industry practitioners in adopting a standardized and controlled approach to
service management.
Reference: https://www.greycampus.com/opencampus/itil-foundation/two-strategies-in-itil
QUESTION 160
What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library?
A. It is a secure library in which the latest versions of authorized software items are stored and protected.
B. It is a structured document with definitive information regarding all live IT services, including those

available for deployment.
C. It is a secure library in which all definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items are stored
and protected.
D. It is a set of tools and databases that is used to manage knowledge, information and data.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation:
A Definitive Media Library is a secure Information Technology repository in which an organization’s definitive,
authorized versions of software media are stored and protected. Before an organization releases any new or
changed application software into its operational environment, any such software should be fully tested and
quality assured.
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Definitive_Media_Library
IT
QUESTION 161
Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
St
A. To ensure service design packages are handed over to service transition

ud
B. To ensure that all changes are assessed for their impact on service designs
y
C. To document the initial structure and relationship between services and customers
M
D. To handover new service level requirements to the service level management process
at
er
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=fZK3CwAAQBAJ&pg=PA419&lpg=PA419&dq=design
Pr
+coordination+process+ensure+service+design+packages+are+handed+over+to+service
+transition&source=bl&ots=XdTvivK1W2&sig=9buDegc-
ac
fJu8hovnHDEmlWd8meU&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiB8MHF1IXOAhWIQ48KHc-
kAJgQ6AEIJjAB#v=onepage&q=design%20coordination%20process%20ensure%20service%20design%
tic
20packages%20are%20handed%20over%20to%20service%20transition&f=false
al
QUESTION 162
Q
What BEST defines IT service management?

As
A. An organization supplying services to only external customers

B. The customer of an IT service provider who defines and agrees the service targets
C. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
D. The resources that are utilized to provide value to customers through services
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IT_service_management
QUESTION 163
Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?
A. The process practitioner

B. The process owner
D. The process manager
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://en.wikiversity.org/wiki/ITIL/Foundation/Service_Management/
Processes_functions_and_roles
QUESTION 164
What are the two MAJOR activities in problem management?
A. Technical and service

B. Resource and proactive
IT
C. Reactive and technical

St
D. Proactive and reactive

ud
Correct Answer: D
y
Section: (none)
Explanation
M
at
er
Reference: http://advisera.com/20000academy/knowledgebase/itil-reactive-proactive-problem-management-
two-sides-coin/
ia
ls
QUESTION 165
Which is an example of improving service utility using service management automation?
&
Pr
A. Pre-determined routing of a service request

B. Reducing the time to compile service data
ac
C. Monitoring service availability

tic
D. Faster resource allocation

al
Correct Answer: D
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
QUESTION 166
Which is an example of an internal customer?
A. A customer who has a contract with an internet service provider for a broadband connection
B. The HR department whose payroll service is provided by their organization’s IT department
C. An IT department that uses a network service obtained from a supplier
D. A retail bank that outsources its infrastructure to a third-party supplier
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 167
Which stage of service lifecycle has the purpose of aligning IT services with the changing business needs by
identifying improvements to IT services?

B. Service operation
C. Service strategy
D. Service design
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
Reference: https://kohi10.wordpress.com/2011/04/06/itil-service-lifecycle-overview/
St
QUESTION 168
ud
Where should all master copies of controlled software and documentation be stored?
y
A. In the definitive capacity library

M
B. In the definitive media library

at
C. In the definitive security library

er
D. In the definitive production library

ia
Correct Answer: B
ls
Section: (none)
Explanation
&
Pr
Reference: https://www.ucisa.ac.uk/-/media/files/members/activities/itil/servicetransition/service_asset/
ac
itil_guide%20to%20sa%20and%20cm%20management%20pdf.ashx?la=en (page 3)
tic
QUESTION 169
al
Which is one of the five aspects of service design?

Q
A. Management information systems and tools

As
B. Risk analysis and management approach

C. Management policy for business case creation
D. Corporate governance and policy
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: http://www.bmc.com/guides/itil-service-design.html
QUESTION 170
Which tool helps with defining accountability and responsibility within processes?
A. A CSI register
B. A project charter

C. A RACI model
D. A communications plan
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Reference: https://advisera.com/20000academy/blog/2016/01/12/itil-iso-20000-raci-matrix-how-to-use-it-to-
clarify-responsibilities/
QUESTION 171
What is the type of notification that should be sent when a threshold has been reached, something has
changes or a failure has occurred?
A. an emergency change
B. an alert
IT
C. an emergency event
St
D. a request for change

ud
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
y
Explanation
M
at
Reference: http://www.itskeptic.org/does-itil-explain-difference-between-alert-and-eve#comment-8564
er
ia
QUESTION 172
ls
Which is a reason why incident management interfaces with service level management?
&
A. To ensure that problem records are circulated to all customers

Pr
B. To ensure that the status of faulty configuration items (CI) is recorded

C. To ensure that incident resolution times are aligned with business needs
ac
D. To ensure that incident workarounds are acceptable to the customers

tic
Correct Answer: C
al
Section: (none)
Q
Explanation
As
QUESTION 173
Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE?
A. Customers, users and suppliers are examples of stakeholders, who may be external to the service provider
organization
B. External customers are those who work for the same organization as the IT service provider
C. Internal customers are always charged for the IT services they receive from the IT service provider
organization
D. Internal customers purchase services from third-party suppliers by means of a legally binding contract or
agreement
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

Explanation
Reference: http://itilexampreparation2011.blogspot.com/2012/10/01-8-define-and-explain-concept-of.html
QUESTION 174
Which is NOT an example of a pattern of business activity (PBA)?
A. The seasonal variation in customer purchases from a supermarket

B. The peak period usage of counter services in a retail bank
C. The capacity usage of the network supporting service
D. The tendency for a government agency to submit its regulatory reports just before the deadline
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 175
Which stage of the service lifecycle has the purpose of looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost
y
effectiveness?
M
A. Service operation
at
er
C. Continual service improvement

ia
D. Service strategy
ls
Correct Answer: C
&
Section: (none)
Pr
Explanation
ac
tic
al
QUESTION 176
Which is the correct combination of items that makes up an IT service?
Q
As
A. Customers, providers and documents

B. Information technology, people and processes
C. Information technology, networks and people
D. People, processes and customers
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 177
Which process analyzes services that are no longer viable and determines when they should be retired?

D. Business relationship management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 178
Which statement BEST describes the purpose of release and deployment management?
A. To deliver the functionality required by the business while protecting the integrity of existing services
B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and
service components
IT
C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate.
St
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
ud
Correct Answer: A
y
Section: (none)
Explanation
M
at
er
ia
QUESTION 179
ls
The value created by a service is defined in terms of business outcomes, customer preferences, and which
other element?
&
Pr
A. Customer assets
B. Customer perceptions
ac
C. Business activity
tic
D. Business vision
al
Correct Answer: B
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which is NOT within the scope of service transition?
A. Managing major changes or new services into the operational environment.

B. Defining how the service provider will meet the customer's required business outcomes.
C. Ensuring that emergency changes are assessed for impact before implementation.
D. Creating a logical model between the individual components and the overall service.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 181
What are the two MAIN types of activity in problem management?
A. Technical and service

B. Resource and proactive
C. Reactive and technical
D. Proactive and reactive
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
QUESTION 182
St
Which service transition process provides guidance about converting data into information?
ud
A. Change evaluation
y
B. Knowledge management
M
C. Service validation and testing

at

er
Correct Answer: B
ia
Section: (none)
ls
Explanation
&
Pr
ac
QUESTION 183
tic
Which of the following form part of the five major aspects of service design?
al
1. Service solutions for new or changed services

2. Management policies and guidelines
Q
3. Business and governance requirements

As
4. Technology architectures and management architectures
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 184
Which is NOT an objective of the change management process?

A. To ensure that all changes to configuration items are recorded in the configuration management system
B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
C. To respond to the business and IT requests for change that will align the services with the business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 185
What is NOT within the scope of service catalogue management?
A. Contribution to the definition of services

IT
B. Interfaces between all services and supporting services

C. Interfaces between the service catalogue and service portfolio
St
D. Fulfillment of business service requests

ud
Correct Answer: D
y
Section: (none)
M
Explanation
at
er
ia
QUESTION 186
ls
Which statement about internal customers is CORRECT?

&
A. Services are provided to internal customers under contractual agreements

Pr
B. Internal customers have different organizational objectives from their service provider
ac
C. Agreed levels of service are not as important to internal customers

D. Internal customers are part of the same organization as the service provider
tic
al
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Q
Explanation
As
QUESTION 187
Which stage of the service lifecycle includes catalogue management, information security management, and
supplier management?
A. Service strategy
B. Service design
C. Service transition
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 188
A known IT service stops performing during normal business hours, then the user of the IT service calls the
service desk.
What should the service desk open?
A. A problem record
B. A service request
C. An incident record
D. An emergency request
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 189
y
Which CSI step would define metrics be appropriate for?

M
A. Where do we want to be?

at
B. Did we get there?

er
C. How do we keep the momentum going?

ia
D. Where are we now?

ls
Correct Answer: D
&
Section: (none)
Pr
Explanation
ac
tic
al
QUESTION 190
What term describes actions taken to recover after a failed change or release?
Q
As
A. Remediation
B. Restoration
C. Reactivation
D. Reassurance
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 191
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. Service Catalogue Management

B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Capacity Management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?
A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance

B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer
IT
C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer
St
Correct Answer: C
ud
Section: (none)
y
Explanation
M
at
er
QUESTION 193
ia
Which of the following are objectives of Supplier Management?

ls
1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts

&
2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database

Pr
3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts

4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers
ac
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
tic
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
al
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
Q

As
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 194
Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions

B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability
Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 195
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?
A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action
B. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents
C. A complaint by the business about a missed service level.
D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 196
y
Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that projects the
M
likely consequences of a business action"?

at
A. A Problem model
er
B. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP)

ia
C. A Request for Change (RFC)

ls
D. A Business Case
&
Correct Answer: D
Pr
Section: (none)
Explanation
ac
tic
al
QUESTION 197
Q
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
As
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve

B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 198
What is the definition of an Alert?

A. An error message to the user of an application
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. A type of Incident
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 199
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software
media)
IT
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval
St
and qualification process exists

C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
ud
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for
y
obtaining them
M
Correct Answer: C
at
Section: (none)
er
Explanation
ia
ls
&
QUESTION 200
Pr
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

ac
A. Data
tic
B. Wisdom
al
C. Information
D. Knowledge
Q
As
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 201
Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. IT Designer/Architect
B. Process Manager
C. Service Catalogue Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

Explanation
QUESTION 202
What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out a risk response action or actions to respond to a
particular risk or set of risks?
A. Risk Manage
B. Risk Coordinator
C. Risk Actionee
D. Risk Owner
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 203
y
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
M
A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
at
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and effectiveness
er
C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology metrics
ia
include availability and capacity

ls
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics measure the
infrastructure
&
Pr
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
ac
Explanation
tic
al
Q
QUESTION 204
As
Which of the following describes risk proximity?
A. The timeframe over which the risk mitigation actions should be implemented
B. The schedule for the risk management activities related to a plan
C. The timeframe over which a risk will be monitored by the risk owner
D. The timeframe for when the risk might materialize
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 206
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
IT
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
St
D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of
ud
achieving Best Practice"

y
Correct Answer: D
M
Section: (none)
Explanation
at
er
ia
ls
QUESTION 207
A Service Level Agreement is?
&
Pr
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party

ac
B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
tic
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization

al
Correct Answer: B
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
QUESTION 208
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

B. Only requirements needed and agreed
C. Only capabilities needed and agreed
D. Only resources and capabilities needed
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 209
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the
agreed and documented process?
A. The Service Desk Manager

B. The Service Manager
C. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
D. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
QUESTION 210
ud
Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?

y
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
M
B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application

at
C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application

er
D. Assisting in the design of the application

ia
Correct Answer: A
ls
Section: (none)
Explanation
&
Pr
ac
tic
QUESTION 211
In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of
al
responsiveness to customer needs?

Q
A. Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with fewer
As
failures to disrupt timely delivery

B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on responsiveness of over-
emphasis on stability
C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be made fully
aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
D. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business
timescales
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 212
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture,
processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organization
B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the
service designs that are produced
C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 213
IT
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What
imbalance does this represent?
St
ud
A. Excessive focus on quality

B. Excessively reactive
y
C. Excessively proactive
M
D. Excessive focus on cost

at
er
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 214
ac
“Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the
tic
form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
al
A. Functions and Processes

Q
B. Markets and Customers

As
C. Applications and Infrastructure

D. People, products and technology
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 215
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
B. Incident Management
C. Request Fulfillment
D. Change Management

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 216
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
Correct Answer: D
IT
Section: (none)
Explanation
St
ud
y
M
QUESTION 217
Which of the following would be carried out as part of a post-project benefits review?
at
er
A. An assessment of whether the project fulfilled its original objectives

ia
B. A review of the performance of the project's products in operational use and identification of whether there
have been any side-effects
ls
C. An assessment of the project's risk management procedure

&
D. A review of the performance of the project management method and the project management team
Pr
Correct Answer: B
ac
Section: (none)
tic
Explanation
al
Q
As
QUESTION 218
Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance
with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value through which part of
the service lifecycle?
A. Service Transition
B. Risk Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Availability Management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 219
Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?
A. The IT Executive
B. The ISO27001 Standard
C. The Business
D. The Service Level Manager
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 220
Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?
IT
A. A change to a contract with a supplier

St
B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes
ud
C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident

y
D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services

M
Correct Answer: D
at
Section: (none)
er
Explanation
ia
ls
&
QUESTION 221
Pr
There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes.
Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
ac
tic
(1) Progress
(2) Effectiveness
al
(3) Efficiency
(4) ?
Q
As
A. Cost
B. Conformance
C. Compliance
D. Capacity
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 222
What is the objective of Access Management?
A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings

B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. To manage access to the Service Desk
D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 223
Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
(1) Known Error Data

(2) Change Schedules
(3) Service Knowledge Management System
IT
(4) The output from monitoring tools

St
A. 1,2 and 3 only

ud
B. 1,2 and 4 only

C. 2,3 and 4 only
y
D. All of the above

M
at
Correct Answer: D
er
Section: (none)
Explanation
ia
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 224
"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part
ac
of the Service Lifecycle?

tic
A. Service Operation
al
B. Service Strategy
Q
C. Service Transition
D. Continual Service Improvement
As
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 225
Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?
A. Something that won't happen

B. Something that will happen
C. Something that has happened
D. Something that might happen

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 226
What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?
A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books

B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
C. The Service Support and Service Delivery books
D. Pocket Guides
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
IT
Explanation
St
ud
y
QUESTION 227
M
Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?

at
(1) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed
er
levels to the business

(2) The successful release of services into the live environment
ia
ls
A. 1 only
&
B. 2 only
Pr

ac
tic
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
al
Explanation
Q
As
QUESTION 228
Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A. The Service Level Manager

B. The Business Relationship Manager
C. The Service Owner
D. The Service Continuity Manager
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 229
Which of the following is commonly found in a contract underpinning an IT service?Financial arrangements
related to the contract Description of the goods or service provided Responsibilities and dependencies for both
parties
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
QUESTION 230
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
St
ud
A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur

B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs
y
C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users

M
D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities
at
er
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 231
ac
As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the
tic
following service provider types?

al
(1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit

(2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
Q
(3) An external service provider

As
A. All of the above

B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 232
What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

A. Rapid, one-off improvement
B. Return on investment within 12 months
C. Quick wins
D. Steady, ongoing improvement
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 233
What is the Service Pipeline?
A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage

IT
B. All services except those that have been retired

C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
St
D. All complex multi-user services

ud
Correct Answer: A
y
Section: (none)
M
Explanation
at
er
ia
QUESTION 234
ls
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

&
A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been
Pr
established
ac
B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form
the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
tic
C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same
al
time
D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider
Q
As
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 235
Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both
elements of what larger entity?
A. The Asset Register

B. The Service Knowledge Management System
C. The Known Error Database
D. The Information Management System
Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 236
What are Request Models used for?
A. Capacity Management
B. Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or
remote
D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
IT
Explanation
St
ud
y
QUESTION 237
M
A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
at
A. The RACI Model

er
B. A Release Package
ia
C. A Request Model
ls
D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

&
Correct Answer: B
Pr
Section: (none)
Explanation
ac
tic
al
QUESTION 238
Q
Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?
As
A. The Service Level Manager

B. The IT Service Continuity Manager
C. The Service Catalogue Manager
D. The Supplier Manager
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 239
Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?

A. Demand Management
B. Supplier Management
C. Service Desk
D. Request Fulfillment
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 240
The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as
what?
A. The utility of a service

IT
B. The warranty of a service

St
C. The economic value of a service

ud
D. Return on investment
y
Correct Answer: A
M
Section: (none)
Explanation
at
er
ia
ls
QUESTION 241
Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?
&
Pr
A. Define the time and cost needed to produce the product

ac
B. Define the quality skills required to check the product

C. Define the function and appearance of the product
tic
D. Define the development skills required to produce the product

al
Correct Answer: B
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
QUESTION 242
Identify the input to the Problem Management process.
A. Request for Change

B. Problem Resolution
C. Incident Records
D. New Known Errors
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 243
Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and
Deployment?
A. Early Life Support

B. Service Test Manager
C. Evaluation
D. Release Packaging and Build Manager
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
QUESTION 244
ud
Service Design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these
'Four Ps'?
y
M
A. People, Products, Partners, Profit

at
B. People, Process, Products, Partners

C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit
er
D. People, Potential, Products, Performance

ia
ls
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
&
Explanation
Pr
ac
tic
QUESTION 245
al
Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
Q
A. The Service Provider

As
B. The Service Level Manager

C. The Customer
D. The Finance department
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 246
Where should the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) be stored and
protected?
A. Definitive Media Library

B. Definitive Software Store
C. Service Knowledge Management System
D. Software Secure Library
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 247
Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
(1) Architectures
(2) Technology
(3) Service Management processes
IT
(4) Metrics
St
A. 1 only
ud
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
y
D. All of the above

M
at
Correct Answer: D
er
Section: (none)
Explanation
ia
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 248
Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?
ac
A. Incident Model
tic
B. Problem Model
al
C. Configuration Model
Q
D. Change Model
As
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 249
The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
A. Carried out by Service Operations

B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood
Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 250
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work

B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner
C. They deliver specific results
D. They respond to specific events
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 251
y
Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?

M
(1) Roles
at
(2) Activities
er
(3) Functions
(4) Responsibilities
ia
ls
A. 1 and 3 only
&
B. All of the above

C. 2 and 4 only
Pr
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
ac
tic
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
al
Explanation
Q
As
QUESTION 252
The Supplier Management process includes:
(1) Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements
(2) Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
(3) Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the
business
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

Explanation
QUESTION 253
Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of
what?
A. Service level requests

B. Changes and Releases
C. Password resets
D. Incidents and Problems
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 254
y
Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a
M
service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during
development?
at
er
A. Service Design
ia
B. Service Strategy
ls
C. Service Operation
D. Continual Service Improvement
&
Pr
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
ac
Explanation
tic
al
Q
QUESTION 255
As
In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
A. IT Infrastructure and Applications

B. Services, technology and tools
C. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services
D. All assets belonging to the Service Provider
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 256
Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:

A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B. People, Process, Products, Technology
C. People, Process, Products, Partners
D. People, Products, Technology, Partners
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 257
Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are
all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Service Operation
IT
B. Capacity Management
St
C. Service Design
ud
D. Availability Management
y
Correct Answer: A
M
Section: (none)
Explanation
at
er
ia
ls
QUESTION 258
Which process or function is responsible for the Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares?
&
Pr
A. Facilities Management
ac
B. Access Management
C. Request Fulfillment
tic
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management

al
Correct Answer: D
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
QUESTION 259
Which is the CORRECT description of an outcome?
A. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, or delivering an IT service

B. The inputs that trigger an action for an activity, process or IT service
C. The prediction of the future demand requirements for an activity, process or IT service
D. The design and development of the activities that make up a process or IT service
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 260
A configuration model can be used to help
(1) Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems

(2) Assess the impact of proposed changes
(3) Plan and design new or changed services
(4) Plan technology refresh and software upgrades
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: B
IT
Section: (none)
Explanation
St
ud
y
M
QUESTION 261
Which of the following is NOT defined as part of every process?
at
er
A. Roles
ia
B. Inputs and outputs

ls
C. Functions
D. Metrics
&
Pr
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
ac
Explanation
tic
al
Q
QUESTION 262
As
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help lo define what?
A. The value off a service

B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 263
Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?

(1) Marketing information
(2) Contract description and scope
(3) Responsibilities and dependencies
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 264
IT
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

St
A. Any detectable or discernible occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT infrastructure
ud
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service

C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
y
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem

M
at
Correct Answer: A
er
Section: (none)
Explanation
ia
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 265
Which of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
ac
tic
A. Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a service has
been disrupted
al
B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service.
Q
This includes technical staff

As
C. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity
D. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff manages
infrastructure devices not services
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 266
Which of the following is an example of self-help capabilities?
A. Menu-driven range of facilities used to access service requests

B. Calls to the service desk to register standard changes
C. A software update downloaded automatically to all laptops in an organization

D. Software to allow programmers to debug code
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 267
The goal of which process is: "To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that
reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the lifecycle"?
A. Knowledge Management
B. Availability Management
C. Service Asset and Configuration Management
D. Change Management
IT
Correct Answer: A
St
Section: (none)
ud
Explanation
y
M
at
QUESTION 268
er
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?

ia
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests

ls
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests

&
C. Web front-end
Pr
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software

ac
Correct Answer: A
tic
Section: (none)
Explanation
al
Q
As
QUESTION 269
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 270
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)

B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 271
IT
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
St
ud
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
y
C. Service Strategy
M
D. Service Operation
at
er
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 272
ac
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
tic
al
Q
As
A. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

B. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
C. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
D. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 273
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 274
Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
IT
A. RACI model
St
B. Service Model
ud
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.

y
D. The Deming Cycle

M
Correct Answer: A
at
Section: (none)
er
Explanation
ia
ls
&
QUESTION 275
Pr
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
ac
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

tic
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

al
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk

D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Q
As
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 276
Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
(1) Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements

(2) Designing the service so it can meet the targets
(3) Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 277
Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration

Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration
Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager
IT
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control

board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
St
ud
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
y
Explanation
M
at
er
ia
QUESTION 278
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
ls
&
It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

Pr
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line

ac
B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line

C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
tic
D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line

al
Correct Answer: D
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
QUESTION 279
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 280
The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Business Value
B. Functionality
C. IT Assets
D. Service Level Requirements
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
QUESTION 281
ud
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
y
A. Whether to buy an application or build it

M
B. Should application development be outsourced

at
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be

er
D. Where the vendor of an application is located

ia
Correct Answer: A
ls
Section: (none)
&
Explanation
Pr
ac
tic
QUESTION 282
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
al
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle

Q
B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place

As
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service

D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 283
(1) The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation
(2) All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services

B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 284
How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems

IT
B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution

C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
St
D. By working with users to change their IT configurations

ud
Correct Answer: C
y
Section: (none)
M
Explanation
at
er
ia
QUESTION 285
ls
Which function is responsible for the closure of an incident record?

&
A. Event management
Pr
B. The service desk

ac
C. Either the service desk or an appropriate third party engineer

D. Any appropriate function
tic
al
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Q
Explanation
As
QUESTION 286
Which describes a proactive trigger for problem management?
A. Automated detection of an infrastructure or application fault, using event/alert tools automatically to raise
an incident
B. Analysis of an incident by a technical support group which reveals that an underlying problem exists, or is
likely to exist
C. Suspicion or detection of a cause of one or more incidents by the service desk
D. Trending of historical incident records to identify one or more underlying causes
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 287
What should the IT service continuity process primarily support?
A. Critical IT processes
B. All the services in the service portfolio
C. Business continuity strategy
D. Mission critical services at peak business periods
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
QUESTION 288
ud
What BEST describes the customers and users of an IT service provider?

y
A. Customers buy IT services; users use IT services

M
B. Customers design IT services; users test IT services

at
C. Customers sell IT services; users improve IT services

er
D. Customers agree the service levels; users buy IT services

ia
Correct Answer: A
ls
Section: (none)
&
Explanation
Pr
ac
tic
QUESTION 289
Which is the BEST definition of a supplier?
al
A. It is a third party responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services
Q
B. It is a shared services unit that is responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT
As
services
C. It is a third party with responsibility for supplying goods or services that is agreed through an operational
level agreement
D. It is a mixture of internal and external parties that are responsible for providing goods and services to its
customer group
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 290
What is the pre-authorized change known as?

A. A normal change
B. A retrospective change
C. A standard change
D. An ordinary change
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 291
What is the BEST description of a change proposal?
A. Any request for change (RFC) submitted to change management

IT
B. An authorized change submitted to release and deployment

C. An RFC that must be implemented as soon as possible
St
D. A justification for a change with significant cost or risk

ud
Correct Answer: D
y
Section: (none)
M
Explanation
at
er
ia
QUESTION 292
ls
What is the CORRECT definition of service management?

&
A. A set of specialized assets for transitioning services into the live operational environment
Pr
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for delivering value to customers in the form of services
ac
C. A group of events that meet the demand from customers for services that they receive
D. A group of people that manages services to fulfill the needs of users and customers
tic
al
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Q
Explanation
As
QUESTION 293
How are groups, teams, departments and divisions classified?
A. Processes
B. Functions
C. Roles
D. Technicians
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 294
Which one of the following is a correct definition of a supplier category?
A. Strategic-for suppliers of operational products or services

B. Tactical-for relationships involving significant commercial activity and business interaction
C. Operational-for suppliers providing low value and/or readily available products and services
D. Commodity-for significant partnering relationships that involve senior managers
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
QUESTION 295
Which groups of people would work according to an operational level agreement?
St
ud
A. Business units
B. All stakeholders
y
C. External IT teams
M
D. Internal IT teams
at
er
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 296
ac
Which process monitors and improves the performance of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
tic
A. Transition planning and support

al
B. Design co-ordination
Q
As
D. Service transition management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 297
How is a service delivered between departments of same organization classified?
A. Internal Service
B. External Service
C. Mission Critical service
D. Organizational service.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 298
Which statement is CORRECT?
A. A function is a set of responsibilities allocated to a service manager

B. A process is a team or group of people and the tools they use to perform one or more activities
C. A function is a set of specialized organizational capabilities
D. A process is a structured set of activities designed to accomplish a specific objective
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
IT
Explanation
St
ud
y
QUESTION 299
M
What is the BEST description of the CSI register?

at
A. It is a record of all authorized changes and their planned implementation dates

er
B. It is a record of proposed improvement opportunities and the benefits that will be achieved
ia
C. It is a record of new services to be approved by a customer, including proposed implementation dates

ls
D. It is a record of completed improvements and the relevant customer satisfaction metric

&
Correct Answer: B
Pr
Section: (none)
Explanation
ac
tic
al
QUESTION 300
Q
The configuration management system is part of which system?

As
A. The availability management information system

B. The capacity management information system
C. The information security management system
D. The service knowledge management system
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 301
Why is ITIL successful?

A. It always guarantees cost savings
B. Its practices are applicable to any IT organization
C. It makes technology architecture easy to design
D. It can be fully implemented in 30 days
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 302
What BEST describes the value of service design to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

IT
B. It reduces total cost of ownership (TCO) of services

C. It improves the control of service assets and configurations
St
D. It provides quick and effective access to standard services

ud
Correct Answer: B
y
Section: (none)
M
Explanation
at
er
ia
QUESTION 303
ls
What BEST describes the value of continual service improvement to the business?
&
A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

Pr
B. It results in gradual improvement in cost effectiveness

ac
C. It improves governance by building controls into service designs

D. It provides quick and effective access to standard services
tic
al
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Q
Explanation
As
QUESTION 304
What service could include a differentiation as an "excitement factor"?
A. A core service
B. An enabling service
C. A packaged service
D. An enhancing service
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 305
Access management is responsible for implementing policies defined in which process?
A. Service portfolio management

B. Information security management
D. Problem management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
QUESTION 306
Where are the details of core and enhancing service provided?
St
ud
A. The definitive media library.

B. The configuration management system.
y
C. The service portfolio.

M
D. The service catalogue.

at
er
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
ia
Explanation
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 307
ac
When should a known error be raised?

tic
A. Only when the root cause is found and a workaround exists

al
B. As soon as it becomes useful to do so

Q
C. Only when the error in the IT Service is found

As
D. As soon as the major problem procedure is executed
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 308
Which process has the objective to identify changes to the customer environment that could potentially impact
the type, level or utilization of services provided?
A. Business relationship management

C. Availability management
D. Change management

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 309
Which formal agreement minimizes the risk of disputes that can occur between an IT service provider and an
external supplier?
A. Operational contract
B. Underpinning contract
C. Serviceability contract
D. Service level contract
IT
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
St
Explanation
ud
y
M
QUESTION 310
at
Which service lifecycle stage provides the following values to the business?
er
ia
A. Service transition
B. Service strategy
ls
&
D. Service design
Pr
Correct Answer: C
ac
Section: (none)
tic
Explanation
al
Q
As
QUESTION 311
Which process is responsible for managing all service requests from users?
A. Change fulfillment
C. Request fulfillment
D. Event management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 312
What must a service level agreement (SLA) define?

A. Legally binding contractual responsibilities or both parties
B. Legally binding contractual responsibilities of just the IT service provider
C. Key service targets and responsibilities of both the IT service provider and customer
D. Key service targets and responsibilities of just the IT service provider
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 313
What do customers NOT have ownership of when receiving value from services?
A. Specific costs and outcomes

IT
B. Specific costs and risks

St
C. Specific risks and impacts

ud
D. Specific outcomes and impacts

y
Correct Answer: C
M
Section: (none)
Explanation
at
er
ia
ls
QUESTION 314
&
Which list includes information that would be collected when any incident is first logged?
Pr
A. Unique reference number, escalation activity, incident priority

ac
B. Unique reference number, incident priority, description of symptoms

C. Escalation activity, closure category, resolution date and time
tic
D. Closure category, description of symptoms, resolution date and time

al
Correct Answer: B
Q
Section: (none)
As
Explanation
QUESTION 315
Which statement BEST describes a service request?
A. A request from a customer for a new service

B. A generic description for the many types of request for change (RFC) that are received by the IT
organization
C. A high priority RFC from a senior manager
D. A generic description for the many different types of demands that are placed upon the IT organization by
the users
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

Explanation
QUESTION 316
Which is a supplier category?
A. Technical
B. Commodity
C. Customer
D. Resource
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
IT
St
ud
QUESTION 317
Which statement BEST describes the value of the service transition stage to the business?
y
M
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services?

at
B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality

C. It ensures the production of more successful service designs
er
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change

ia
ls
Correct Answer: D
&
Section: (none)
Explanation
Pr
ac
tic
QUESTION 318
al
What does the ‘C’ in ‘RACI’ refer to?

Q
A. Communicate
As
B. Configure
C. Customer
D. Consult
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 319
Which is NOT a sub-process of capacity management?
A. People capacity management

B. Component capacity management

C. Business capacity management
D. Service capacity management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 320
Which is the correct explanation of the ‘R’ role in a RACI matrix?
A. This role ensures that activities are executed correctly

B. This role has ownership of the end result
C. This role is involved in providing knowledge and input
IT
D. This role ensures the flow of information to stakeholders

St
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
ud
Explanation
y
M
at
QUESTION 321
er
Which statement about the ‘four Ps” of service design is CORRECT?

ia
ls
A. Processes refers to skills and training

B. Partners refers to suppliers and vendors
&
C. People refers to technology and tools

Pr
D. Products refers to procedures and metrics

ac
Correct Answer: B
tic
Section: (none)
Explanation
al
Q
As
QUESTION 322
Which is NOT a structure of service desk that is described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
A. Local
B. Centralized
C. Outsourced
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 323
Which service catalogue view is considered beneficial when constructing relationship between services, SLAs,
OLAs, and other underpinning agreements?
A. Service-based SLA view

B. Wholesale customer view
C. Retail customer view
D. Supporting services view
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 324
IT
Which is an important principle of communication in service operation?

St
A. Information should always be communicated

ud
B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action

C. Meetings are always the best method of communication
y
D. It is stored in the configuration management system

M
at
Correct Answer: B
er
Section: (none)
Explanation
ia
ls
&
Pr
QUESTION 325
Which statement about metrics is CORRECT?
ac
tic
A. Process metrics can be used to measure end-to-end service performance

B. Technology metrics can be used to measure component performance and availability
al
C. Process metrics can be used to measure the utilization of a supplier’s network

Q
D. Technology metrics can be used to determine the overall health of a process

As
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 326
What takes place in the “Did we get there?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. An initial baseline assessment

B. The production of a detailed CSI plan
C. Verifying that improvement targets have been achieved
D. Understanding priorities for improvement
Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 327
Which are phases of the release and deployment process?
1. Release build and test

2. Review and close
3. Categorize and record
4. Change authorization and schedule
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
IT
D. 3 and 4
St
Correct Answer: A
ud
Section: (none)
Explanation
y
M
at
er
QUESTION 328
Which are the elements of process control?
ia
ls
A. Inputs, outputs and triggers

&
B. Work instructions, procedures and roles

C. Resources, capabilities and metrics
Pr
D. Process owner, policy and objectives

ac
tic
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
al
Explanation
Q
As
QUESTION 329
Which process works with incident management to ensure that security breaches are detected and logged?
C. Access management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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IT

ITIL Foundation V. 4 . No. Of Question 329 .

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?

A. To identify patterns of business activity

B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction

C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services

D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist

A. Allows higher volumes of successful change

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. Incident and financial management

significant cost and risk to the organization?

1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities

B. Inputs and outputs

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

A. Informational, scheduled, normal

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

1. To automatically detect service-affecting events

2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

1. Those planned to be delivered

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

assessment and prioritization of changes?

A. The change authorization board

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. The value of a service

D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not

B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset

C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not

A. Service catalogue management

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening

D. To detect security events and make sense of them

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

1. ITIL is vendor neutral

3. ITIL represents best practice

A. All of the above

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

A. Continual service improvement

A. Service level management

B. Service portfolio management

A. The service level management

ITIL FND V 4. IT Study Materials & Practical QAs

Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?

1. Financial arrangements related to the contract

2. Description of the goods or service provided

3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

D. All of the above