DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY

FACULTY OF LIFE SCIENCES

UNIVERSITY OF BENIN, BENIN CITY

FIRST SEMESTER EXAMINATION 2006/2007 SESSION

MCB210: Introduction to Microbiology Time: 2½hr

1. After the addition of alcohol during the process of preparing a Gram stain, the Gram –
negative cell becomes (a) blue (b) pink (c) brown (d) colourless
2. Which of the following Gram negative bacteria would BEST be isolated on an alkaline
medium (pH 8.4)? (a) vibrio comma (b) Escherichia coli (c) Neisseria gonorrhea (d)
citrobacter freundil
3. A yeast – like organism that is easily identified by its large capsule is (a) streptococcus
(b) Pseudomonas (c) Corynebacteria (d) salmonella
4. The most effective method of sterilization of bacteriological media is to (a) heat in a hot
air oven at 1600C for 30 minutes (b) boil the media for 30 minutes (c) autoclave at 121 0C
for 20 minutes (d) autoclave at 1150C for 20 minutes
5. All pathogenic bacteria can be classed as (a) aerobes (b) anaerobe (c) psychrotrophs (d)
mesotrophs
6. Which of the following pathogenic organisms can be grown on blood agar? (a)
salmonella typhi, Rabies virus and streptococcus (b) staphylococcus aureas,
pseudomonas aeruginosa and mycobacterium leprae (c) neisseria meningitides salmonella
typhi and staphylococcus aureus (d) diplococcus pneumoniae, influence virus and
hemophilus influenza
7. The most definite test for pathogenic staphylococci is (a) hemolysis of erythrocytes (b)
mannitol fermentation (c) tellurite reduction (d)production of coagulase
8. Which one of the following would be a satisfactory Enrichment medium for suspected
salmonella infected stool specimen? (a) blood agar (b) EMB plate (c) selenite broth (d)
MacConkey agar
9. The best staining procedure for the identification of mycobacterium tuberculosis would
be not (a) gram stain (b) acid fast stain (c) spore staine (d) capsule stain
10. Which species of bacteria would be the least likely to be killed by boiling in water for
15minutes? (a) staphylococcus (b) Escherichia (c) Clostridium (d) Streptococcus
11. Which of the following is TRUE of hepatitis B and tuberculosis? (a) both are easily
detected in dential patient (b) the causative organisms appear to be sensitive to most
disinfectants (c) undiagnosed carriers presents no problem of cross infection to the dentist
and his patients (d) neither can produce a debilitating infection with present therapeutic
methods
12. Abscess formation of particularly characteristics of (a) viral infection (b) ricketisial
infection (c) streptococcal infection (d) straphylococoal infection
13. The most active cellular structure in controlling the intake of solutions into bacteria is the
(a)capsule (b) flagella (c) cell wall (d) cytoplasmic membrane
14. The enzymes responsible for breaking fat and fat – like substances into glycerol and fatty
acids (a) amylase (b) coagulase (c) lipid (d) oxidase
15. The immunity found in individuals who have recovered from meaches is termed (a)
artificially acquired active immunity (b) artificially acquired passive immunity (c)
naturally acquired active immunity (d) naturally acquired passive immunity
16. Decomposition of fresh or cold storage meats can be detected best by (a) noting absence
of surface moisture (b) noting presences of ‘off’ orders (c) noting warmth when touched
(d) observing discolouration
17. Proper cleaning of dairy utensils entails rinsing with (a) old or lukewarm water followed
by scrubbing with hot soapy water (c) hot water followed by scrubbing with detergent
solution (d) hot water followed by serual being with hot soapy water
18. Of the following the most accurate statement regarding the use of chlorine in the
purification of public water supplies is (a) a small amount of residual chlorine in the
water is desirable (b) chlorine will destroy most bacterial the water with the exception of
the coliform organisms (c) the amount of chlorine added to water should be less than the
“chlorine demand” of the water (d) the use of chlorine in public supplies should be
resorted to only it cases of emergency
19. Pasteurization entails the heating of milk at leasi (a) 143 0F for 15minuts (b) 1430 F for
30 minutes (c) 1610F for 14 minutes (d) 1610F for 30minutes
20. Some year ago the city experienced an outbreak of food poisoning from potato salad,
which was kept in an enameled utensil. The vinegar present in the potato salad, which
was kept in an enameled utersil. The vinegar present in the potato salad dissolved a
sufficient quantity of ascertain substance found in the enamelware to cause poisoning.
The name of the offending substance was (a) Antimony (b) arsenic (c) cyanids (d) zinc
21. Bacteria were discovered by Leeuwenhork in the (a) 15th century (b) 17th century (c) 19th
century (d) 20th century
22. The usual way of multiplication of bacteria is by (a) binary fission (b) branching (c)
conjugation (d) formation of endospores
23. The optimum temperature range for mesophilic organisms is (a) 10 -200C (b) 25 -350C
(c) 40 - 500C (d) 55 – 650C
24. Most pathogenic microorganisms grow best at a pH of (a0 4 (b) 6.5 (c) 7.5 (d) 10
25. The temperature generally used for the growth of pathogenic bacteria is approximately
(a) 350F (b) 1000F (c) 1400F (d) 1800F
26. The sterilization temperature in the dry oven is approximately (a) 100 0C (b) 1200C
(c)1400C (d) 1600C
27. Pasteurization of milk results in the destruction of (a) 10% of the bacteria (b) 50% of the
bacteria (c) almost all the bacteria (d) all bacteria
28. The initial step in the recommended procedure of cleaning glassware containing
infectious material is (a) scrubbing (b) soaping (c) sterilizing (d) washing
29. Bacteriological asepsis may be defined as (a) arresting the growth of microorganisms (b)
freeing materials from microorganisms (c) destroying microorganisms (d) preventing the
access of microorganisms to material
30. Most pathogenic bacteria are (a) anaerobes (b) facultative anaerobes (c)micro –acrophiles
(d) obligate anaerobes
31. The antibiotic Penicillin is obtained from (a) actinomycetes (b) algae (c) fungi (d) higher
plants
32. Of the following, the one that is an enteric, Gram negative bacteria is (a) actinomyces
bovis (b) diplococcus peneumoniae (c) Escherichia coil (d) streptococcus pyogenes
33. The term used to describe an organism have a single flagellum at one pole is (a)
amphitrichous (b) atrichous (c) monotrichous (d) pertrichous
34. Of the following, the one that is NOT generally considered to be a water borne diseases is
(a) amebaisis (b) dengue (c) diarrhea (d) dynentery
35. Cholera is an example of (a0 insect – borne disease (b) intestinal disease (c) respiratory
diseases (d) venereal disease
36. The disease of man usually caused by a wound infection is (a) amebiasis (b)anthrax (c)
dengue (d) tetanus
37. Of the following the disease which is usually transmitted from animals to man is (a)
chancoid (b) measles (c) rabies (d) typhoid fever
38. Of the following the disease caused by an aerobic spore bearing bacillus is (a) anthrax (b)
botulism (c) dysentery (d) tetanus
39. Diabetes is considered to be a (a) communicable disease (b) contagious disease (c)
infectious diseases (d) noninfectious diseases
40. The etiologic agent of whooping cough is (a) diplococcus penumoniae (b) hemophilus
pertussis (c) malleomyces mallei (d) mycobacterium tuberculosis
41. In sterilization by boiling in water, sodum carbonate is added in order to (a) destroy
vegetative forms (b) prevent injury to glass ware (c) prevent rusting of metal objects (d)
reduce the boiling point
42. Bacterial spores are destroyed MOST readily by means of (a) desiccation (b) hot air (c)
live steam at atmospheric pressure (d) live steam under pressure higher than atmosphere
43. The MOST commonly used ingredient in artificial media used in bacteriology
laboratories is (a) dextrose(b) glycerol (c) peptone (d) starch
44. BCG vaccine is used to produce relative immunity against (a) anthrax (b) foot- and –
mouth diseases (c) tuberculosis (d) typhoid fever
45. The immunity found in individuals who have recovered from measles is termed (a)
artificially acquired active immunity (b) artificially acquired passive immunity (c)
naturally acquired active immunity (d) naturally acquired passive immunity
46. Substances which have the property of stimulating the production of specific antibodies
are termed (a) antigens (b) complements (c) globulins (d) regains
47. An IMPORTANT characteristics of exotoxins in their (a) relative stability (b) specific
toxic (c) weak antigenic property (d) weak toxicity
48. The appearance of colonies of streptococci surrounded by a clear zone of hemolysis is
characteristics of the (a) Gramma group (b) Beta hemolytic ground (c) norihemolytic
group (d)viridians group
49. In the Ziehi –Neelsen method, acid – fast organism are stained (a) black (b) blue (c)
green (d) red
50. The Widal test is used as an aid in the diagnosis of (a) brucellosis (b) gonorrhea (c)
syphilis (d) typhoid fever
51. The underlying mechanisms of the acid – fat staining technique is based upon (a)
difficulty of staining and decolourizing acid – fast bacteria (b) difficulty of staining and
case of decolourzing acid – fast bacteria
52. In water anlaysis for fecal contamination, the demonstration of gram – negative non spore
forming rods is a phase of the (a) colony count test (b) completed test (c) confirmed test
(d) presumptive test
53. In water analyses, the presumptive test for fecal contamination consists of (a) inoculating
brilliant –green lactose bile (b) inoculating lactose both fermentation tubes (c) plating on
EMB plates (d) plating on Endo’s medium
54. One of the following is NOT a theory of virus origin (a) regressive evolution (b) cellular
origin (c) independent entity (d) generation of metabolic energy
55. Proteins in virus are usually (a) structural protein (b) structural protein and enzymes (c)
glycoprotein’s (d) nucleic acids
56. All of the following are Koch’s postulates except (a) the agent causing disease must be
present in every case of the disease (b) the agent causing disease must be isolated from
the host and grown in culture (c) the diseases may not be reproduced when the pure
culture of the agent is inoculated into a healthy host (d) the same agent must be re-
siolated from the experimentally infected animals
57. The modern idea of virus was referred to as (a) contagium (b) vivium (c) contagium
fluidum (d) contagium vivium fluidum
58. One of the following was the first human disease to be recognized as having a viral case
(a) AIDS (b) small pox (c) poliomyeltitis (d) influenza
59. Nuclear mannetic resonance is used (a) to determine structure of particles (b) to
determine atomic structure of all particles (c) to determine only minute parcels (d) to
determine structure of bacteria
60. How many types of electron microscope do we have (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
61. One of the following is not a fundamental information that can be obtained with the use
of an electron microscope in viewing virus (a) the absolute number of viral particles
present in any preparation (b) the appearance of the viral particle (c) the structure of the
viral particle (d) the position of the viral nucleic acid
62. (a) Microbial growth is an increase in the quantity of cellular components (b) microbial
growth is an increase in the quantity of cellular components followed by multiplication
(c) microbial growth is an increase in the quantity of cellular components followed by
replication (d) microbial growth is an increase in the quantity of cellular components
followed by death
63. (a) balanced growth is an orderly increase of cell weight (b) balanced growth is an
orderly increase of all cellular components (c) balanced growth is an orderly increases of
cell number (d) balanced growth is an orderly increase of cell growth
64. (a) Generation time is the time it takes a cell to multiply (b) generation time is the time it
takes a cell to grow (c) generation time is the time it takes a cell to divide (d) generation
time is the time it takes a cell of assimilate nutrient
65. Generation time is not a property of (a) environmental conditions (b) available nutrient
(c) types of organisms (d) none of the above
66. If we plot the log of the number of bacteria cell against time, we will end up with (a)
growth phase (b) bar chart (c) linear plot (d) curve linear
67. The techniques for detecting soluble antigens that react with bodies called precipitins is
refered to as (a) immunofluorescences (b) fluoreseein (c) antigens (d)
immunoprecipitation
68. Radioimmunoassy is an important tool in biomedical research and clinical practices
except (a) cardiology (b) blood banking (c) diagnosis of allergies (d) none
69. The complement fixation test can be used to detect (a) extremely small amounts of
antibody in an individual serum (b) small amounts of antibody in an individual serum (d)
 extremely large amounts of antibody in an individual serum (d) large amounts of
antibody in an individual serum
70. The lag phase of a growing bacterium depends on the following except (a0 physiological
nature of the medium (b) size of the inoculums (c) nature of the medium (d) A &C only
71. A usually fatel, although fortunately rare form of food poisoning is caused by(a)
clostridium perfingens (b) clostridium botulinum (c) staphylococcus aurens (d) E.coli
72. Food poisoning beginning about 3 hours of the eating and marked by nausea with
vomiting, diarrhea is caused by (a) salmonella typhi (b) clostridium botulinum (c)
staphylococcus aurens (d) staphylococcus epidermidis
73. A flatoxins are just one of (a) class of substances called my cotoxins called mycotoxins,
all produced by fungi (b) are not great problem since they effect lifestocks only (c) are
heat sensitive (d) are in all mouldy foods
74. Which of the following is correct for S.aurens (a) causes food poisoning (b) food
infection (c) food intoxication (d) food spoilage
75. Which of the following is a selective medium (a) nutrient agar (b) nutrient broth (c) baird
parker agar (d) blood agar
76. Which is not an indiator organisms (a) S. aurens (b) salmonella (c) E. coli (d) S. feacalis
77. Which of the following is a neurotoxin (a) vomitoxin (b)saxitoxin (c) aflatoxin (d)
ochratoxin
78. Which is most unlikely way of contracting bird flu (a) fecal contact of infected bird (b)
nasal droppings of infected birds (c) contaminated cages (d) eating chickens
79. The target organs of aflatoxin is (a) intestine (b) spleen (c) liver (d) heart
80. Microorganisms that lack the means of detoxifying organic peroxides aldehydes and free
radical are (a) microaerophiles (b) anaerobes (c) aerobes (d) mesophiles
81. When an organisms infects the body, the defense system already in place is referred to as
(a) adaptive immunes system (b) innate immune system (c) both a and b are correct (d)
none of the above
82. The first individual to see microorganisms through a microscope was (a) A.V.
leewenhoeck (b) A.U. Leweenhock (c) A.W. Leewenhoek (d) A.C. Lecwenhock
83. The study of microscopic forms of life is known as (a) microscopic search
(b)microscopic study (c) microbiology (d) microbial study
84. The cellular form of microorganisms studied in microbiology is (a) A, V, F, P, A, (b) B,
V, F, P (c) B, V, (d) B, V, F
85. The two name designations for cellular organisms are (a) G, S, (b) P, S, (c) G, D (d) H, S
86. The instrument used for inoculation is (a) forcep (b) slap stick (c) wire loop (d) petri dish
87. The concept that microorganisms can invade other forms of life and causes disease is
known as the (a) Germ theory of infection (b) Germ (c) bacteria theory (d) Germ theory
of disease
88. For polar arrangement, of bacteria flagella is situated at (a) one or both ends (b) around
(c) insidex (d) on the surface
89. The swab stick could be used sometimes for (a) mixing (b) inoculation (c) culture (d)
growths
90. Growth in broth is evident when it appears (a) turbid (b) bright (c) dark (d) dull
91. The concept that living organisms can arise from nonliving matter is known as (a)
spontaneous survival (b) spontantcous existences (c) spontaneous generational (d)
spontaneous generation conflict
Shade true = A false = 5 for NOS 92 - 96
92. Bacteria owe their strength to the cell wall? A
93. The apparatus used for broth culture is Petri dish A
94. Circular areas of growth on a Petri dish are called colonies A
95. The wire loop is used for preparing media B
96. Enriched media is used in the laboratory A
97. Variety in bacteria shape is? (a) pleomorphism (b) coccobacillus (c) diplococcus (d) mix
culture
98. Some bacilli taper at each end and are called? (a) Bacilli or rod – shaped (b) spirulla (c)
coccobacillus (d) fusiform bacilli
99. Which of the following is unique to bacteria and blue – green algae? (a) Nucleus (b)
membrane (c) Capsule (d) cell wall
100. Spore form bacteria are mainly found in? (a) water (b) warm foods (c) soil (d) polluted
environment