Answer A) Job Analysis: You May Also Like

1.
This gives details about the name of the job, qualification, qualities
required and work conditions etc
A) Job Analysis B) Job selection C) Job specification

D) Job description
Answer A) Job Analysis
2. On the date of joining the employee is introduced to the company and

other employees this process is called as
A) Training B) Induction C) Introduction

D) Fresher welcome
Answer B) Induction
3. Environmental uncertainties is one of the factors that affects
A) HRM B) SHRM C) HRP D) HRD
Answer C) HRP
4. The human resource planning is done based on the
A) Market condition B) Financial condition C) External

environment D) Organisational Plan
Answer D) Organisational Plan
5. Resistance from employees is __________ to HRP
A) Objective B) advantage C) scope

D) Disadvantage
Answer D) disadvantage
6. Which one of the following is not a part of Process of Human resource

planning
You may also Like: New Revised MMS HRM Syllabus Mumbai University
A) Analyzing existing HR B) Implementation of HR
plan
C) recruitment D) Analysing organisational

objective
Answer C) Recruitment
7. ___________________ is process by which an organization should move from

it current manpower position to its desired manpower position
A) HRP B) HRM C) SHRM D) All of the above
Answer A) HRP
8. Collection or aggregation of tasks, duties & responsibilities is known as
A) HRIS B) JOB C) Role D) Designation
Answer B) Job
9. ____________ involves a collection of job related information
A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job designing

D) None of the above
Answer B) Job analysis
10. _________________ Detailed & systematic study of information relating to

operations & responsibilities of a specific job
A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job designing

11. _______________ is a statement of human qualifications necessary to do

the job
A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job specification

Answer C) Job specification
12. ____________ is a Process of obtaining all Pertinent Job Facts
A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job specification

You may also Like: MCQ's on HR Audit with Answers
13. Job Description doesn’t contain detail about
A) Educational qualification B) Job summary C)

Location D) Working Condition
Answer A) Educational qualification
14. Job Description includes information regarding supervision

______________
A) given B) Received C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B
Answer C) Both A & B
15. Working condition and Hazards involved in a job is included in
A) Job Analysis B) Job Description C) Job Design D) none of

the above
Answer B) Job Description
16. Techniques of collecting Job Analysis Data does not include
A) Personal observe B) Training C) Maintenance of log records

D) Sending out questionnaires
Answer B) Training
17. Methods of Collecting Job Data for job analysis does not include
A) Diary B) Check list C) Score card D) Observation
Answer C) Score card
18. The activities in HRP doesn’t includes
A) Forecasting future HR needs B) Analysing existing

HR
C) Recruitment D) Evaluate &

redesign of HR plan
19. Process of forecasting, developing & controlling human resource in an

enterprise is _________________
A) HRP B) HRD C) HRM D) SHRM
Answer A) HRP
20. _________ is a process which enables the organization to run smoothly

by supplying required and desired work force at the right time.
A) HRP B) HRD C) HRM D) SHRM
Answer A) HRP
21. The human resource planning is done based on the ____________
You may also Like: Contract Act MCQ's in Business Law
A) HRM functions B) organizational Plan. C) HRM Scope D)

Market situation
Answer B) organizational Plan.
22. The first step of HRP is

A) Forecasting future HR needs B) Analysing existing HR
C) Implementation of HR plan D) Evaluate & redesign of HR plan
Answer A) Forecasting future HR needs
23. A group of positions that have similar duties, tasks & responsibilities is
called ____________
A) Job B) Duty C) Designation D) Grade
Answer A) Job
24. ______________ can be derived from Job Analysis
A) Job Description B) Job Specification C) Both A & B D)

Neither A nor B
25. A written summary of content & context of job is called

_______________________
A) Job Analysis B) Job Description C) Job Specification D) Job
Design
Answer B) Job Description
26. A written summary of KSA required to perform a job is

______________________
A) Job Analysis B) Job Description C) Job Specification D) Job

Design
Answer C) Job Specificatio
27. KSA represents
A) Knowledge, Skill, Aptitude B) Knowledge, System, Aptitude
C) Knowledge, Skill, Approach D) Knowledge, Skill, Attitude

Answer D) Knowledge, Skill, Attitude
28. This gives details about the name of the job, qualification, qualities
A) Job Analysis B) Job selection C) Job specification

D) Job description
1. This gives details about the name of the job, qualification, qualities
 A) Job Analysis
 B) Job selection
 C) Job specification
 D) Job description
hide answer
2. On the date of joining the employee is introduced to the company and

other employees this process is called as
 A) Training
 B) Induction
 C) Introduction
 D) Fresher welcome
hide answer
Answer B) Induction
3. Environmental uncertainties is one of the factors that affects
 A) HRM
 B) SHRM
 C) HRP
 D) HRD
hide answer
Answer C) HRP
4. The human resource planning is done based on the
 A) Market condition
 B) Financial condition
 C) External environment
 D) Organisational Plan
hide answer
Answer D) Organisational Plan
5. Resistance from employees is __________ to HRP
 A) Objective
 B) advantage
 C) scope
 D) Disadvantage
hide answer
Answer D) disadvantage
6. Which one of the following is not a part of Process of Human resource

planning
 A) Analyzing existing HR
 B) Implementation of HR plan
 C) recruitment
 D) Analysing organisational objective
hide answer
7. ___________________ is process by which an organization should

move from it current manpower position to its desired manpower
position
 A) HRP
 B) HRM
 C) SHRM
 D) All of the above
hide answer
Answer A) HRP
8. Collection or aggregation of tasks, duties & responsibilities is known as
 A) HRIS
 B) JOB
 C) Role
 D) Designation
hide answer
Answer B) Job
9. ____________ involves a collection of job related information
 A) Job Description
 B) Job analysis
 C) Job designing
 D) None of the above
hide answer
10. _________________ Detailed & systematic study of information

relating to operations & responsibilities of a specific job
 B) Job analysis
 C) Job designing
hide answer
11. _______________ is a statement of human qualifications

necessary to do the job
 B) Job analysis
hide answer
Answer C) Job specification
12. ____________ is a Process of obtaining all Pertinent Job Facts
 B) Job analysis
hide answer
13. Job Description doesn’t contain detail about

 A) Educational qualification
 B) Job summary
 C) Location
 D) Working Condition
hide answer
Answer A) Educational qualification
14. Job Description includes information regarding supervision

______________
 A) given
 B) Received
 C) Both A & B
 D) Neither A nor B
hide answer
1. __________ is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand

for, and supply of, the right type of people in the right number.
a. Human Resource Planning

b. Recruitments
c. Human Resource Management
d. Human Capital Management
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: a. Human Resource Planning
2. Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource
Planning?
a. Creating highly talented personnel

b. International strategies
c. Resistance to change and move
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above

3. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with
the potential to fill key business leadership positions in the company is called
______.
a. Highly talented personnel creation

b. Investing in human resources
c. Succession planning
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. Succession planning
4. State true or false
i. Human Resource Planning facilitates international expansion strategies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
5. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders with the human
resource planning process?
a. Type and quality of forecasting information

b. Time horizons
c. Environmental uncertainties
d. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers
ANSWER: d. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers
6. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?
a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts

b. Types of people to be hired
c. Multiple positions to be filled
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts
7. Rearrange the following steps involved in the Human resource planning

process in proper order.
A. HR Programming
B. HR Demand Forecast
C. Environmental Scanning
D. Control and evaluation of programme
E. Surplus - restricted hiring
F. HRP implementation
G. HR supply forecast
H. Organisational objectives and Policies
I. Shortage - Recruitments and Selection
a. ABCDEFGHI
b. CHBGAFDEI
c. IHDEBCAFG
d. IHGFEDCBA
ANSWER: b. CHBGAFDEI
8. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
a. Political and legislative issues

b. Economic factors
c. Technological changes
ANSWER: d. None of the above
9. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people

required to meet future needs of the organisation.
a. Demand forecasting
b. Supply forecasting
c. Environmental forecasting
ANSWER: a. Demand forecasting
10. Which of the below given options are the forecasting techniques used?
A. Ration Trend Analysis

B. Delphi Technique
C. Staffing projections
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. A & B
ANSWER: d. A & B
1. Which of the forecasting technique is the fastest?
a. Work study technique

b. Flow models
c. Ratio trend analysis
d. HR demand Forecast
ANSWER: c. Ratio trend analysis
2. What does the ratio trend analysis studies for forecasting?
a. Profits and loss

b. Retirements and requirements
c. Past and future ratios of workers and sales
ANSWER: c. Past and future ratios of workers and sales

i. The Delphi technique is named after the ancient Greek Oracle at the city of Delphi.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. What does the Delphi technique use to do the forecasting?
a. Personal needs
b. Emotional needs
c. Social needs
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Personal needs
5. Which is the simplest flow model used for forecasting?
a. Semi - Markov Model

b. Resource based Model
c. Markov Model
d. Vacancy Model
ANSWER: c. Markov Model
6. ___________ is a systematic procedure for collecting, storing, maintaining,

retrieving and validating data needed by an organisation about its human
resources.
a. Data collection
b. Human Resource Information System
c. Management Information System
d. Maintenance of records
ANSWER: b. Human Resource Information System
7. Choose the correct option, where Human Resource Information System can
be used.
a. Succession planning
b. Retirement
c. Designing jobs
d. Inducting new hires
ANSWER: a. Succession planning
8. How many steps are involved in implementing Human Resource Information

System?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 14
d. 15
ANSWER: c. 14
9. At what stage does vendor analysis step â€“ in while implementing human
resource information system?
a. 5
b. 14
c. 1
d. 3
ANSWER: a. 5
10. What techniques are used while analysing the internal supply?
a. Inflows and outflows

b. Turnover rate
c. Conditions of work and absenteeism
d. All of the above
11. Complete the following formula to calculate turnover rate.
(Number of separations during one year / ______) X 100

_________
a. Average number of persons X number of working days
b. Average number of working days
c. Average number of employees during the year
d. Average number of leaves
ANSWER: c. Average number of employees during the year
12. Which of the below mentioned option is not a retention plan?
a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation plan
c. Induction crisis
d. Voluntary retirement Scheme
ANSWER: d. Voluntary retirement Scheme
13. Which of the following is a barrier while doing human resource planning?
a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in strategy

formulation
b. Implementing human resource information system
c. Managing inventories
d. Supply forecast
ANSWER: a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in

strategy formulation
14. What are the pre- requisites for successful human resource planning?
a. Backing of top management

b. Personal records must be complete
c. Techniques of planning should be the best
d. All of the above
15. Which of the following is requisite for a typical succession planning?
a. Career counselling
b. Performance appraisal
c. Compensation plan
d. Employees quitting
ANSWER: a. Career counselling

i. Human Resource Management (HRM) functions are not confined to business

establishments; they are applicable to non-business organisations as well.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
2. Which of these activities are not included in the scope of human resource
management?
a. Job analysis and design
b. Motivation and communication
c. Safety and health
d. Organizational structure and design
ANSWER: d. Organizational structure and design
3. HRM differs from PM both in ____ and ____
a. Definitions and functions

b. Scope and orientation
c. Functions and objectives
ANSWER: b. Scope and orientation
4. Which of the following is not an objective of the Human Resource

Management Function?
a. Societal objectives
b. Political objectives
c. Personal Objectives
d. Organisational Objectives
ANSWER: b. Political objectives
5. Match the following objectives and functions:
I. Functional ------------- A. Union - Management Relations

II. Organisational --------- B. Compensation
III. Societal -------------- C. Employee Relations
IV. Personal --------------- D. Assessment
a. I-D, II-C, III-a, IV-B

b. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
ANSWER: a. I-D,II-C,III-a,IV-B
6. __________ is the process by which employers transfer routine or peripheral

work to another organisation that specialises in that work and can perform it
more efficiently.
a. Farming out
b. Production Management
c. Compensation
d. Outsourcing
ANSWER: d. Outsourcing
7. Which of the following companies were awarded as the best employers in

2006 - 2007 by Hewitt?
a. Agilent Tech
b. ICICI Bank
c. HCL
d. Videocon
ANSWER: a. Agilent Tech
8. Organisations need to evolve HR policies as they ensure _____ and _____ in

treating people.
a. Constancy and similarity

b. Intention and safety
c. Consistency and uniformity
ANSWER: c. Consistency and uniformity

i. Sound policies do not help in resolving intrapersonal, interpersonal and intergroup

conflicts.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Sound policies reflects established principles of fair play and justice,
hence they do help in resolving all the types of conflicts arising in an
organisation.
10. Which of these are the principle sources for determining the content and
meaning of policies?
a. Knowledge and experience gained from handling problems on a day to day basis
b. Past practices in the organisation
c. Attitudes and philosophy of the founders, top management, middle and lower
management
d. Prevailing practices in rival companies
e. All of the above
ANSWER: e. All of the above
11. Which of these is a HR Model?
a. The Guest Model

b. Open - System Theory
c. Mc Gregor's theory X and theory Y

ANSWER: a. The Guest Model
12. Which of these is the first HR model which dates back to 1984?
a. The Harvard Model

b. The Guest Model
c. The Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna Model
d. The Warwick Model
ANSWER: c. The Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna Model
13. Who developed the Guest Model in 1997?
a. Hendry
b. David Guest
c. Pettigrew
ANSWER: b. David Guest
14. The two researchers Hendry and Pettigrew belonged to which institute?
a. Warwick University
b. Harvard University
c. Cambridge University
d. Stanford University
ANSWER: a. Warwick University
15. Match the following models with their respective functions/ components.
1. The Harvard Model ----- A. Selection, Appraisal, Development and Rewards
2. The Warwick Model ----- B. Stakeholders interests,Situational Factors, HRM Policy

choices
3. The Guest Model ------ C. Strategy, Practices, Outcomes, Performance results
4. The Fombrun Model ----- D. Outer & Inner Context, Business strategy Content,
HRM Content and context
a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

b. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
c. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
d. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
ANSWER: a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
16. In which year did the term HRM emerge?
a. 1970
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1999
ANSWER: a. 1970
17. What is the role of a Human Capital Manager?
A. Unlearn old skills and acquire new skills
B. He or she seeks to fine-tune HR policies and practices to fir the culture
C. It is the responsibility of a centralised or a decentralised department.
a. Both A & C
b. A, B and C
c. Both A & B
d. B & C
ANSWER: c. Both A & B

1. Which of these is the purpose of recruitment?
a. Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit

b. Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of
visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
c. Help the firm create more culturally diverse work - force
ANSWER: b. Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing
the number of visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
Reason: Rest all the alternatives are the ways in which a recruit programme helps
the firm.
2. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and
supervision.
a. Training
b. Recruitment
c. Work quality
ANSWER: a. Training
3. Which of these is the most important external factor governing

recruitments?
a. Sons of soil
b. Labour market
c. Unemployment rate
d. Supply and demand
ANSWER: d. Supply and demand
4. While recruiting for non - managerial, supervisory and middle - management

positions which external factor is of prime importance?
a. Political - Legal
b. Unemployment rate
c. Labour market
d. Growth and Expansion
ANSWER: c. Labour market
5. Which of the following act deals with recruitment and selection?
a. Child labour act

b. The apprentices act
c. Mines act
d. All of the above
6. A major internal factor that can determine the success of the recruiting
programme is whether or not the company engages in ______.
a. HRP
b. Selection
c. Induction
ANSWER: a. HRP
7. _________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so

as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.
a. Selection
b. Training
c. Recruitments
d. Induction

ANSWER: c. Recruitments
8. How many stages does the recruitment process comprise of?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 9
d. 5
ANSWER: d. 5
9. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.
I. Searching
II. Evaluation and control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development
a. III, II, I, V, IV
b. III, V, I, IV, II
c. IV, V, III, I, II
d. II, I, IV, V, III
ANSWER: b. III, V, I, IV, II
10. ___________ express the relationship of applicant inputs to outputs at

various decision points.
a. Number of contacts
b. Yield Ratios
c. Type of contacts
d. Technological sophistication
ANSWER: b. Yield Ratios

11. Which of the following are the decisions to be made while devising the
strategies to hire?
a. Geographic distribution of labour markets comprising job seekers

b. Make or buy employees
c. Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
d. All of the above
12. Which decision in strategy development relates to the methods used in

recruitment and selection?
a. Sources of recruitment
b. Technological sophistication
c. Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
d. â€˜makeâ€™ or â€˜buyâ€™ employees
ANSWER: b. Technological sophistication
13. Choose the odd man out.
a. Acquisitions and mergers

b. Radio and television
c. Former employees
d. Advertisements
ANSWER: c. Former employees
Reason: Except for option â€˜câ€™ all the other options are external sources of
recruitment
14. What is the natural perception of people on the process of recruitment and
selection?
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both positive and negative
ANSWER: a. Positive
15. What is the main objective of the recruitment and selection process?
a. Recruit the right candidates

b. Meet the high labour turnover
c. To reduce the costs of recruiting
ANSWER: b. Meet the high labour turnover
1. What is the full form of AIDA - a four point guide used by experienced
advertisers?
a. Create abstract, develop industrious ads, defiant and acceptable
b. Being accessible, should be inexpensive, detailed and alluring
c. Attract attention, develop interest, create desire and instigate action
ANSWER: c. Attract attention, develop interest, create desire and instigate action
2. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and

want ads?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. On payroll

ANSWER: b. Indirect
3. Which is the least expensive method for recruitments?
a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins

b. Campus placements
c. Employment exchanges
d. Consultants
ANSWER: a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins
4. What is the general fee charged by consultants?
a. 10 - 20 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed

b. 20 - 50% of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
c. 20 - 30 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
ANSWER: b. 20 - 50% of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
5. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms
and luring them away is popularly called as __________.
a. Competition
b. Acquisition
c. Poaching
ANSWER: c. Poaching
6. Which of the following are general costs incurred in the recruitment

process?
a. Costs of material
b. Costs of overtime and outsourcing while the vacancies remain unfilled
c. Costs of property
ANSWER: b. Costs of overtime and outsourcing while the vacancies remain

unfilled
7. Which philosophies of recruiting have been mentioned by K. Ashwathappa

in his book Human Resource Management?
A. Realistic job previews

B. Job compatibility questionnaire
C. Temporary employment
a. Both A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
ANSWER: a. Both A & B
8. _______ provides complete job related information (both positive and

negative) to the applicants so that they can make right decisions before taking
the job.
a. Job Compatibility Questionnaire

b. Realistic job preview
c. Market survey
ANSWER: b. Realistic job preview
9. Which of these is an alternative to recruitments?
a. Employee leasing
b. Contractors
c. Trade associations
ANSWER: a. Employee leasing
10. ______ is the process of differentiating between applicants in order to

identify and hire those with a greater likelihood of success in
a job.
a. False negative error

b. Training
c. Selection
ANSWER: c. Selection
1. Selection is ______ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as

many unqualified applications as possible in order to identify the right
candidates.
a. Both negative and positive

b. Positive
c. Negative
ANSWER: c. Negative
2. Rejection of an applicant who would have succeeded is _____.
a. False positive error

b. True positive
c. True negative
d. False negative error
ANSWER: d. False negative error

3. Which is the type of error in which failure is predicted and it happens?
a. False positive error

b. True negative
c. False negative error
d. True positive
ANSWER: b. True negative
4. Selection is now ____ and is handled by the human resource department.
a. Unplanned
b. Outsourced
c. Centralised
ANSWER: c. Centralised
5. Rearrange the following steps involved in the selection process.
i. External environment
ii. Internal environment
iii. Preliminary interview
iv. Selection test
v. Employment interview
vi. Reference and background analysis
vii. Selection decision
viii. Physical examination
ix. Job offer
x. Employment contract
xi. Evaluation
a. xi, x, ix, viii, vii, vi, v, iv, iii, ii, i

b. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii, viii, ix, x, xi
c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
d. i, iii, iv, v, vii, ix, xi, ii, vi, viii, x

ANSWER: c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
6. Which test assesses an individual's achievement and motivational levels?
a. Thurstone Temperament Survey

b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
c. Thematic Apperception Test
d. Guilford - Zimmerman Temperament Survey
ANSWER: c. Thematic Apperception Test
7. A test that seeks to predict success or failure through oneâ€™s handwriting

is ____
a. Polygraph
b. Graphology
c. Grammatologist
ANSWER: b. Graphology
8. Which country uses the graphology test to select candidates?
a. U.S
b. India
c. Germany
d. China
ANSWER: a. U.S
9. Which tests are designed to ensure accuracy of the information given in the
applications?
a. Graphology test
b. Interest test
c. Grammatology test
d. Polygraph test
ANSWER: d. Polygraph test
10. Who used the graphology technique first and in which year?
a. Jean - Hippolyte in 1830

b. Elaine Quigley in 1893
c. Jean Charles Gille in 1907
d. Alfred Binnet in 1920
ANSWER: a. Jean - Hippolyte in 1830
11. In __________, the interviewer uses pre-set standardised questions which

are put to all applicants.
a. Unstructured interview
b. Structured interview
c. Behavioural interview
d. Mixed interview
ANSWER: b. Structured interview
12. _______ occurs when an interviewer judges an applicant's entire potential

for job performance on the basis of a single trait, such as how the applicant
dresses or talks.
a. Stress producing
b. Halo - effect
c. Unstructured
ANSWER: b. Halo - effect

13. Which of the selection steps is the most critical?
a. Physical examination
b. Selection decision
c. Reference and background checks
d. Employment interviews
ANSWER: b. Selection decision
1. ___________ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their

jobs, their co-workers and the organisation.
a. Job evaluation
b. Investiture orientation
c. Orientation
d. Placement
ANSWER: c. Orientation
2. Which type of information is conveyed by orientation?
a. Training and education benefit

b. Job location
c. Job safety requirements
d. General information about the daily work routine
ANSWER: d. General information about the daily work routine
Reason: All the other options except "d" are topics covered in employee
orientation programme.
3. In which country and year was orientation first developed?
a. U.S in 1970
b. U.K in 1970
c. India in 1970
ANSWER: a. U.S in 1970
4. Which strategic choices a firm needs to make before designing its

orientation programme?
a. Formal or informal
b. Individual or collective
c. Serial or disjunctive
d. Investiture or divestiture
e. All of the above
5. _________ seeks to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics that the

person brings to the new job.
a. Divestiture orientation
b. Individual or collective
c. Investiture orientation
ANSWER: c. Investiture orientation
6. Which of these is a stage while conducting formal orientation?
a. Employee is given only menial tasks that discourage job interest and company
loyalty
b. Employee is overloaded with forms to complete
c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically

given by the employee's supervisor
d. Employee's mistakes can damage the company

ANSWER: c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by
the employee's supervisor
Reason: Rest all the other options are problems of orientation
7. Which of the below options are the topics covered in employee orientation
programme?
a. Training and education benefit

b. To employee counsellor
c. Relationship to other jobs
d. Disciplinary regulations
e. All of the above
8. ______ refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial

assignment of new employees, and promotion, transfer, or demotion of
present employees.
a. Recruitment
b. Placement
c. Selection
ANSWER: b. Placement
9. Which of these is a job in the context of placement problems and employee

works?
a. Group health
b. Early departures
c. Independent
d. All of the above

ANSWER: c. Independent
10. Which of these is mentioned in the orientation checklist?
A. Parking
B. Equal employment opportunity
C. Complete form B
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: d. A, B & C
1. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against

well-defined benchmarks.
a. Performance Appraisal
b. HR Planning
c. Information for goal identification
ANSWER: a. Performance Appraisal
2. What is linked with performance appraisal?
a. Job Design
b. Development
c. Job analysis
ANSWER: c. Job analysis
3. Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?

a. Quality and quantity of output
b. Job knowledg e
c. Employee assessment
ANSWER: c. Employee assessment
4. Match the following general applications of performance assessment with

their specific purposes
I. Administrative Uses/ Decisions ----- A. Performance Feedback
II. Documentation --------------------- B. Lay - offs
III. Organisational Maintenance/ Objectives ---- C. Helping to meet legal

requirements
IV. Developmental Uses ----- D. Evaluation of HR systems
a. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

b. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
ANSWER: b. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
5. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?
a. Making correct decisions

b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
c. Establish job expectations
ANSWER: b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
Reason: Rest all the options are the competitive advantage of performance
appraisal
6. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive
advantage?
a. Ensures legal compliances

b. Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
c. Improves performance
d. All of the above
7. From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an

organisation be grouped?
a. Defenders
b. Prospectors
c. Analysers
d. All of the above
8. Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying

____________.
a. Staffing needs
b. Job behaviour
c. Training needs
ANSWER: c. Training needs
9. Analysers tend to emphasise both ______ and _______ and employee

extensive training programmes.
a. Skill building and skill acquisition

b. Current performance and past performance
c. Strategy and behaviour
ANSWER: a. Skill building and skill acquisition
10. What do successful analysers tend to examine?
a. Division and corporate performance evaluation

b. Current performance with past performance
c. Ideal appraisal process
ANSWER: b. Current performance with past performance
1. Rearrange the steps in appraisal process.
A. Objectives of performance appraisal

B. Establish job expectations
C. Design in appraisal programme
D. Performance Management
E. Appraise performance
F. Performance interview
G. Archive appraisal data
H. Use appraisal data for appropriate purposes
a. DCHGFABE
b. HGFEDBCA
c. ABCFGHDE
d. ABCDEFGH
ANSWER: d. ABCDEFGH
2. Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?
a. Quality
b. What methods of appraisal are to be used
c. Quantity
d. Cost of effectiveness
ANSWER: b. What methods of appraisal are to be used
Raters can be immediate supervisors, specialists from the HR department,

subordinates, peers, committees, clients and self - appraisals or a combination of all.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients

then it is called ____.
a. 360 degree feedback

b. 180 degree feedback
c. Self - appraisal
ANSWER: a. 360 degree feedback
5. Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal?
a. Wipro in 1990
b. Godrej Soaps in 1991
c. General Electric, US in 1992
ANSWER: c. General Electric, US in 1992
6. Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater?

a. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their
effect
b. Performance factors are properly defined
c. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
ANSWER: d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and

unambiguously
Reason: Rest all the options are factors that increase the accuracy rate of a rater
7. Which of these is one of the seven criteria for assessing performance?
a. Community service
b. Interpersonal contact
c. Need for supervision
d. All of the above
8. Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee
performance?
a. Rating Scales
b. Critical Incident
c. Cost accounting
d. BARS
ANSWER: a. Rating Scales
i. In the forced choice method the rater is forced to select statements which are
readymade.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
10. Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?
a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal

distribution
b. Work is reliable
c. The error of central tendency
ANSWER: a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a

normal distribution
1. How many components are there in remuneration?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
ANSWER: b. 5
2. Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?
a. Fringe Benefits
b. Commitment
c. External equity
d. Motivation

ANSWER: a. Fringe Benefits
Reason: Rest of the options are dimensions of equity
3. What is the alternate name for incentives?
a. Gratuity
b. Paid holidays
c. Payments by result
ANSWER: c. Payments by result
4. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions -
I. Fringe Benefits ------- A. Stock option

II. Job Context ---------- B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites --------- C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ----------- D. Medical Care
a. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

b. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
c. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
d. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
ANSWER: a. I-D,II-B,III-A,IV-C
5. Which of these is a theory of remuneration?
A. Reinforcement
B. Labour Market
C. Agency
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C

ANSWER: c. A & C
6. Which importance is emphasised by the reinforcement and expectancy

theory?
a. Person actually experiencing award

b. Seeking to restore equality
c. Holding identical jobs in the organisation
ANSWER: a. Person actually experiencing award
7. Which are the three types of equities mentioned in the equity theory?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Individual
d. All of the above
8. _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials
a. External equity
b. Individual equity
c. Internal equity
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Internal equity
9. Who are the two main stakeholders in an organisation?
a. CEO and top management

b. Employers and employees
c. Executives and owners
ANSWER: b. Employers and employees
10. Which of these is a consequence of pay dissatisfaction?
a. Strikes
b. Grievances
c. Turnover
d. Job dissatisfaction
ANSWER: d. Job dissatisfaction
11. Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?
a. Business strategy
b. Cost of living
c. Legislations
d. Society
ANSWER: a. Business strategy
12. Rearrange the steps mentioned in a remuneration model.
A. Pay survey
B. Job evaluation
C. Pricing jobs
D. Job hierarchy
E. Job description
a. ABCDE
b. DCBEA
c. EBDAC
d. EACDB

ANSWER: c. EBDAC
13. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?
a. Employee participation
b. Pay secrecy
c. Comparable worth
d. All of the above
14. Under which conditions does skill - based pay system work well?
a. Employee turnover is relatively high
b. To set minimum wages for workers whose bargaining position is weak
c. To abolish malpractices and abuses in wage and salary payments
ANSWER: a. Employee turnover is relatively high
15. Which of the wage concept is higher than fair wage?
a. Minimum wage
b. Living wage
c. Team based pay
ANSWER: b. Living wage
1. Which of these is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while

performing performance appraisal?
a. Minimise inventory costs
b. Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
ANSWER: c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
2. What is the full form of "BARS"?
a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

b. Baseline Accounting and Reporting System
c. Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System
ANSWER: a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
3. What do behaviourally anchored scales represent?
a. The scales are anchored by descriptions of actual job behaviour
b. Superiors would feel comfortable to give feedback
c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most
effective
ANSWER: c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least

to the most effective
4. Who conducts the field review method?
a. Peers
b. Supervisor
c. Subordinates
d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department
ANSWER: d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department
5. Which of these is mentioned in a typical confidential report?
A. Leadership
B. Ability to reason
C. Integrity
a. A & B
b. A & C
c. A, B & C
d. B & C
ANSWER: c. A, B & C
6. Which performance appraisal methods consumes a lot of time?
a. Essay method
b. Rating Scales
c. Critical incident
d. Tests And Observation
ANSWER: a. Essay method
7. On what parameter does the cost accounting method measures

performance?
a. Based on merit
b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation
c. Comparing workers performance with his colleagues
d. Based on confidential report of the employee

ANSWER: b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation
8. Who was the first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives?
a. Edwards Deming
b. D.W. Cheetham
c. Peter F. Drucker
ANSWER: c. Peter F. Drucker
9. Rearrange the steps involved in the management by objective process.
A. Setting the performance standard for the subordinates

B. Establishing new goals and new strategies
C. The actual level of goal attainment
D. Establish the goals
a. ABCD
b. DCBA
c. BCDA
d. DACB
ANSWER: d. DACB
10. The focuses of psychological appraisals are on _____.
a. Future potential
b. Actual performance
c. Past performance
ANSWER: a. Future potential

1. Which method is used for evaluating the performance of executives or
supervisory positions?
a. Psychological Appraisals
b. Assessment Centres
c. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
d. 360 degree feedback
ANSWER: b. Assessment Centres
2. In which country was the assessment centre first build?
a. US and UK
b. India
c. China
d. Japan
ANSWER: a. US and UK
3. What does the 360 degree feedback assess?
a. Communication Skills
b. Behavioural Aspect
c. Team - building skills
d. Soft skills
ANSWER: d. Soft skills
4. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of
performance management?
a. Performance interview
b. Archiving performance data
c. Use of appraisal data
d. All of the above

5. Which is the biggest challenge faced while conducting performance

appraisal?
a. Evaluating performance of self - managed teams

b. Presence of a formal appeal process
c. Appraisals based on traits are to be avoided
ANSWER: a. Evaluating performance of self â€“ managed teams
Reason: Rest of the options are the legal issues involved while conducting
performance appraisal
6. What is the main objective of job evaluation?
a. Job is rated before the employee is appointed to occupy

b. It is not compulsory
c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials
ANSWER: c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials
7. Which of these options is one of the non - analytical methods of job

evaluation?
a. Job - grading method

b. Point ranking method
c. Factor comparison method
ANSWER: a. Job - grading method
Reason: Rest of the options are of analytical methods of job evaluation

8. Which of these is an alternate to job evaluation?
a. Wage survey
b. Employee classification
c. Decision Bank Method
ANSWER: c. Decision Bank Method
1. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees

grow.
a. Training
b. Development
c. Education
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. Development
2. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an

organisation?
a. Removing performance decencies

b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
ANSWER: a. Removing performance decencies
3. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?
a. Improves morale
b. Helps people identify with organisational goals
c. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination

ANSWER: b. Helps people identify with organisational goals
Reason: Rest of the options are benefits in personnel and HR
4. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving

training?
a. Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication

b. Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
ANSWER: c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
Reason: Rest all the options are benefits of employee training
5. Which of this is a step in training process?
a. KSA deficiency
b. Provide proper feedback
c. Obstacles in the system
d. Use of evaluation models
ANSWER: d. Use of evaluation models
6. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training

needs assessment?
a. Consideration of current and projected changes

b. Rating scales
c. Interviews
d. Questionnaires

ANSWER: a. Consideration of current and projected changes
Reason: rest all the other options are individual training needs assessment
7. _________ seeks to examine the goals of the organisation and the trends
that are likely to affect these goals.
a. Organisational Support
b. Organisational analysis
c. Person analysis
d. Key skill abilities analysis
ANSWER: b. Organisational analysis
8. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment?
a. Assessment makes training department more accountable

b. Higher training costs
c. Loss of business
d. Increased overtime working
ANSWER: a. Assessment makes training department more accountable
Reason: Rest all the options are consequence of absence of training needs
assessment
9. Rearrange the steps in training programme.
A. What should be the level of training

B. What principles of learning
C. Who are the trainees?
D. What methods and techniques?
E. Where to conduct the programme?
F. Who are the trainers?
a. ABCDEF
b. DECAFB
c. CADFBE
d. CFDABE
ANSWER: d. CFDABE
10. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?
a. Television
b. Job rotation
c. Orientation training
d. Coaching
ANSWER: a. Television
Reason: Rest all other options are on - the job training method.
11. State true or false.
i. Vestibule training utilises equipment which closely resemble the actual ones used
on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
12. Match the following techniques of training with their correct description.
1. Tag Teams --------- A. Games to get team members know each other
2. Outward - bound training ----- B. Games to test ability to plan ahead
3. Mirroring ------ C. Training with an external perspective
4. Strategic planners ----- D. Adventure sports for teams
5. Ice breakers ----- E. one role played alternately by two participants

a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A
b. 1-A,2-D,3-E,4-C,5-B
c. 1-D,2-A,3-C,4-E,5-B
d. 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A,5-E
ANSWER: a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A
13. Which of the following is a learning principle?
a. Recognition of individual differences

b. Schedules of learning
c. Transfer of learning
d. All of the above
14. Which of the following is a technique of evaluation?
a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis

b. Transfer validity
c. Inter - organisational validity
ANSWER: a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis
15. Which of these is a hindrance to effective training?
a. Career planning workshop

b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate
c. Mentoring
d. Career counselling
ANSWER: b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate

1. Rearrange the six steps of motivation logically.
A. Engages in goal - directed behaviour

B. Reassess needs deficiencies
C. Performs
D. Identifies needs
E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
F. Receives either rewards or punishment
a. DFCAEB
b. BCDEAF
c. DEACFB
d. ABCDEF
ANSWER: c. DEACFB
2. ___________ is the name given to a philosophy and set of methods and

techniques that stressed the scientific study and organisation of work at the
operational level.
a. Scientific Management
b. Human Relations Model
c. Two factor theory
d. Achievement motivation theory
ANSWER: a. Scientific Management
3. Rearrange the steps of Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory.
A. Self - Actualisation Needs

B. Physiological needs
C. Belongingness and love needs
D. Self - esteem needs
E. Safety needs
a. ABCDE
b. ADCBE
c. DCBEA
d. ADCEB

ANSWER: d. ADCEB
4. Which of the following is a content theory?
a. Expectancy theory
b. ERG Theory
c. Equity theory
ANSWER: b. ERG Theory
i. Needs reflect either physiological or psychological deficiencies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
6. Who propounded the Need's Theory
a. Frederick Herzberg
b. Alderfer
c. Abraham Harold Maslow
ANSWER: c. Abraham Harold Maslow
7. The two factor theory is based on which factors?
a. Hygiene and behavioural

b. Safety and self - esteem
c. Self - actualisation and status quotient
ANSWER: a. Hygiene and behavioural
8. What does "E", "R" and "G" stand for in the ERG theory?
a. Export, Risk and Guarantee

b. Exponential, Reliability and Growth
c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth
ANSWER: c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth
9. Which of the following is a need that motivates human behaviour as per the
achievement motivation theory?
a. Power
b. Affiliation
c. Achievement
d. All of the above
10. Which of the following is a process theory?
a. Achievement Motivation theory

b. Performance - satisfaction model
c. ERG theory
d. Two factor theory
ANSWER: b. Performance - satisfaction model
11. What are the alternate names used for the expectancy model?
a. Instrumentality theory
b. Path - goal theory
c. Valence - instrumentality - expectancy theory
d. All of the above
i. First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and instrumentalists
are the four important variables of the achievement motivation theory.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and
instrumentalists are the four important variables of the Expectancy Model.
13. Which of the following option, is an important term used in the theory?
a. Inputs
b. Promotion
c. Working condition
d. Responsibility
ANSWER: a. Inputs
Reason: Rest all the other options are examples of outcomes in an organisation.
14. _________ and ___________ came out with a comprehensive theory of

motivation called the performance - satisfaction model.
a. Festinger and Heider

b. Jacques and Patchen
c. Porter and Lawler
d. Weick and Adams
ANSWER: c. Porter and Lawler
15. Which of the following options is a factor which the equity theory is not
clear about?
a. How does a person choose the comparison other?

b. Carefully explaining to the employees what their roles are
c. Making sure the rewards dispersed are valued by the employees
ANSWER: a. How does a person choose the comparison other?
1. The ____________ refers incentives to variable pay.
a. National Tribunal
b. International Labour office
c. Labour Court
ANSWER: b. International Labour office
2. _______ are variable rewards granted to employees according to variations

in their performance.
a. Remuneration
b. Perks
c. Fringe Benefits
d. Incentives
ANSWER: d. Incentives

i. Incentives lead to corruption and conspicuous consumption.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. Which of the below given options is a pre - requisite for an effective

incentive system?
a. Increased need for planning

b. Co-operation of workers
c. Management's commitment to the cost and time necessary to administer incentive
schemes
d. All of the above
5. The four categories of incentives are listed by _______.
a. The International Labour Organisation

b. The International Labour Office
c. World Health Organisation
ANSWER: a. The International Labour Organisation
6. Match the following types of incentives with respective incentive schemes.
1) Earnings vary in the same proportion as output ---- A. High Piece Rate
2) Earnings vary less proportionately than output ---- B. Merrick Differential Piece
Rate
3) Earning vary proportionately more than output ---- C. Standard Hour
4) Earnings differ at different levels of output ---- D. Barth Scheme
a. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
b. 1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B
c. 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A
d. 1-B,2-C,3-D,4-A
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
7. In ________, bonus paid to a worker is equal to 50% of time saved multiplied

by rate per hour.
a. Rowan Plan
b. Barth Scheme
c. Bedaux Plan
d. Hasley Plan
ANSWER: d. Hasley Plan
i. The standard time under the Bedaux Plan varies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The standard time in the Bedaux plan is fixed.
9. What is the percentage of bonus received by a worker against the number of

points earned?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%

ANSWER: b. 75%
10. In Taylor's differential piece rate system an inefficient worker is paid only
___ of the piece rate.
a. 120%
b. 75%
c. 80%
ANSWER: c. 80%
1. Which of the following options is an important issue in the definition of

communication?
a. Transmission and reception of messages

b. Involvement of people
c. Process of communication
d. All of the above
2. Effective communication helps the managers in carrying out which of the

basic function?
A. Leading
B. Controlling
C. Power
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. A & C
ANSWER: a. A & B
3. _____ is attributing our own thoughts and feeling to others.
a. Stereotyping
b. Halo effect
c. Projection
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Projection
i. Role of communication facilitates managerial functions and changes people's

attitudes and enabling social behaviour.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
5. Rearrange the steps in the process of interpersonal communication.
A. Decoding
B. Message
C. Receiver
D. Sender
E. Encoding
F. Feedback
G. Channel
a. ABCDEFG
b. GFEDCBA
c. DCBAEFG
d. DEBGACF
ANSWER: d. DEBGACF
6. Which of these is an electronic mode of communication?
a. Letter
b. Manuals
c. Fax
d. Circulars
ANSWER: c. Fax
7. Match the following categories of barriers with their classification
I. Sender - related barrier -------- A. Non-verbal signals
II. Situation-related barriers ----- B. Noise
III. Receiver - related barriers -- C. Perceptions
a. 1-A,2-B,3-C
b. 1-B,2-A,3-C
c. 1-A,2-C,3-B
ANSWER: a. 1-A,2-B,3-C
i. The message is clearly conveyed and the sender receives the desires results in
interpersonal sensitivity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: In interpersonal sensitivity, the message is conveyed clearly but due to

insensitivity of the sender desired results are not achieved.
9. Which of these is one of the six habits that distorts the communication
process?
a. Dismissing a subject prematurely as uninteresting

b. Message can be understood in different ways
c. Failure of mechanical equipment
ANSWER: a. Dismissing a subject prematurely as uninteresting
1. ________ makes us from opinion on an individual based on one element.
a. Noise
b. Halo effect
c. Distance
d. Time pressure
ANSWER: b. Halo effect
2. _____________ means an additional idea accompanying every idea that is

expressed.
a. Mechanical Failure
b. Information Overload
c. Perceptions
d. Metacommunication
ANSWER: d. Metacommunication
3. Which of the following is an option to overcome communication barriers?
a. Using pictures
b. Practising empathic communication
c. Setting communication goals
d. All of the above

4. Which of the following is a barrier to effective listening?
a. Setting communication goals

b. Using correct amount of redundancy
c. Partial listening and distractions
d. Improving communicator's credibility
ANSWER: c. Partial listening and distractions
Reason: Rest all the other options are solutions to overcome communication
barriers.
5. Which of the factors influence organisational communication?
A. Information Ownership
B. Avoid evaluative judgement
C. Job specialisation
a. Only C
b. Only A
c. A & C
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: c. A & C
6. Which of these is an example of formal channel of communication?
a. Reports
b. Text messaging
c. Indirect communication

ANSWER: a. Reports
i. The term information ownership means that individuals possess unique information
and knowledge about their jobs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
8. In how many directions does a communication flow in an organisational

setup?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 7
d. 5
ANSWER: d. 5
i.Communication flows from superiors to subordinates in downward flow of

communication.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
10. What is the reason for downward communication to be ineffective?
a. Distortions
b. Procedures
c. Filtering
ANSWER: a. Distortions
1. What is lateral communication?
a. Communication flows from superiors to subordinates

b. Communication flows between manager and members of other work - groups
c. Communication flows between peers
ANSWER: c. Communication flows between peers
2. When communication flows between manager and outside groups like

suppliers, creditors, banks, etc. is called _________.
a. Grapevine communication
b. External communication
c. Horizontal communication
d. Upward communication
ANSWER: b. External communication
3. ______________ is a tool for auditing communication policies, networks and

activities.
a. Communication audits
b. Informal communication
c. Formal communication
ANSWER: a. Communication audits

4. Which of the following is a communication network that needs to be
audited?
a. Information - instructive network

b. Innovative network
c. Regulative network
d. All of the above
i. Informal communication is also called as grapevine.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
6. How many types of grapevine communication is there?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 3
d. 9
ANSWER: c. 3
7. ___________ is that part of grapevine which is inaccurate.
a. Chain system
b. Gossip system
c. Cluster system
d. Rumour

ANSWER: d. Rumour
Reason: Rest all the options are the types of grapevine communication.
i. Innovative network includes pertaining to policies, procedures and rules.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: innovative network includes problem solving, meeting and suggestions.
1. ___________ is the process of collecting job related information.
a. Job analysis
b. Job design
c. Methods of collecting job data
ANSWER: a. Job analysis
2. Which two broad aspects of work are mentioned in the HRM book by
Ashwathappa?
a. Political and Environmental

b. Psychological and sociological
c. Behavioural and Sociological
ANSWER: b. Psychological and sociological

i. Job description and job specification are the two sets of data in the job analysis
process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. Which of the following details is mentioned in job specification?
a. Materials and forms used

b. Location
c. Hazards
d. Physical skills
ANSWER: d. Physical skills
Rest all the options are mentioned in the job description.
5. Which of the following is a benefit of job analysis?
a. Laying the foundation for performance appraisal

b. Laying the foundation for safety and health
c. Laying the foundation for employee hiring
d. All of the above
6. Arrange the following steps in the job analysis process in a chronological

order.
A. Gather information
B. Job specification
C. Strategic choices
D. Process information
E. Job description
a. ABCDE
b. CADEB
c. CBADE
d. EDCBA
ANSWER: b. CADEB
i. The focus of job analysis is on the individual and not on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The focus of job analysis is on the job and not on the individual
8. Match the following categories of work with the type of information

mentioned in job analysis.
1. Job context ---------- A. Physical characteristics
2. Work activities ------- B. List of machines and tools used
3. Machines, tools and equipments used ----- C. Behaviours required on the jobs
4. Personal requirements --------- D. Social Context
a. 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
b. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
c. 1-A,2-D,3-C,4-B
d. 1-B,2-C,3-D,4-A
ANSWER: a. 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
9. Match the following persons responsible for data collection with the
advantages attached to them.
1.Trained Analyst ----------- A. Objectivity is maximised
2. Supervisor -------------- B. Fast data collection
3. Job holder -------------- C. Less expensive
a. 1-A, 2-B,3-C
b. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
c. 1-C, 2-B,3-A
ANSWER: a. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
10. Which of the following is not a method of collecting job data?
a. Checklists
b. Interviews
c. Case study
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Case study
1. What does MPDQ stand for?
a. Mutual Psychological Development Questionnaire

b. Multi - Priority Dual Queue
c. Management Position Description Questionnaire
ANSWER: c. Management Position Description Questionnaire
2. Which of the following questions are included in a management position

description questionnaire?
a. Autonomy of actions
b. Complexity and stress
c. Public and customer relations
d. All of the above
i. Total Quality Management is inconsistent with job analysis.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. Which of this is an essential feature of Total Quality Management?
a. Creation of customer centric mentality
b. Jobs are performed in relation to data
c. An ordinary scale can represent the levels of difficulty required in dealing with data
and people
ANSWER: a. Creation of customer centric mentality
5. ________ involves conscious efforts to organise tasks, duties and

responsibilities into a unit of work to achieve certain objectives.
a. Training needs analysis

b. Job design
c. Job analysis
ANSWER: c. Job analysis
i. Job analysis is followed by job design.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Job design is followed by job analysis.
7. Which are the factors by which the process of job design can be affected?
a. Organisational
b. Environmental
c. Behavioural
d. All of the above
8. Which of the following is an organisational factor affecting the process of

job design?
a. Social and cultural expectations

b. Ergonomics
c. Feedback
ANSWER: c. Feedback
9. ___________ is concerned with designing and shaping jobs to fit the
physical abilities and characteristics of employees.
a. Ergonomics
b. Autonomy
c. Technostress
ANSWER: a. Ergonomics
10. ___________ refers to the use of micro â€“ computers, networks and other
communication technology such as fax machines.
a. Task revision
b. Telecommuting
c. Technostress
ANSWER: b. Telecommuting
1. What is the classical view of management's social responsibility?
a. To create specific environment in work place

b. To maximise profits
c. To protect and improve society's welfare
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. To maximise profits
2. What does the socio - economic view of social responsibility talk about?
a. Social responsibility goes beyond making profits to include protecting and

improving society's welfare
b. Encourage business
c. Financial return
ANSWER: a. Social responsibility goes beyond making profits to include

protecting and improving society's welfare
3. Who was the most outspoken advocate of the classical view of

management's responsibility?
a. Wieck and Adams

b. Jacques and Patchen
c. Milton Friedman
ANSWER: c. Milton Friedman
4. What is the only concern of stock holders?
a. Financial return
b. Make profits
c. Encourage business to take up social responsibility
ANSWER: a. Financial return
5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of social responsibility?
a. Possession of resources
b. Ethical obligation
c. Public image
d. Violation of profit maximisation
ANSWER: d. Violation of profit maximisation
Rest all the options are advantages of social responsibility

6. __________ is when a firm engages in social actions because of its
obligation to meet certain economic and legal responsibilities.
a. Social obligation
b. Social responsibility
c. Social responsiveness
ANSWER: a. Social obligation
7. When social criteria is applied on investment decisions it is called ____
a. Social responsiveness
b. Ethical obligation
c. Social screening
d. Financial return
ANSWER: c. Social screening
8. The recognition of the close link between an organisation's decisions and

activities and its impact on the natural environment is called __________.
a. Global environment
b. Greening of management
c. Social actions
ANSWER: b. Greening of management
9. Which of these is called a light green approach?
a. Market approach
b. Activist
c. Stakeholder approach
d. Legal
ANSWER: d. Legal
i. Activist approach is also called as the dark green approach.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
1. Which of these is a purpose of shared organisational values?
a. Build Team Support

b. Influence marketing efforts
c. Guide managers' decisions and actions
d. All of the above
2. Which of these is a factor that affects ethical and unethical behaviour?
a. Ethical dilemma
b. Diversity
c. Teamwork
d. Open communication
ANSWER: a. Ethical dilemma
Reason: Rest all the options are the stated values of organisations
3. The term ___________ refers to principles, values and beliefs that define
right and wrong behaviour.
a. Customer satisfaction
b. Empowerment
c. Innovation
d. Ethics
ANSWER: d. Ethics
4. Which of this is a second stage of moral development?
a. Principled
b. Conventional
c. Pre conventional
ANSWER: b. Conventional
5. A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called

_________.
a. Locus of control
b. Ego
c. Ego Strength
ANSWER: c. Ego Strength
6. _________ is a personality attribute that measures the degree to which

people believe they control their own fate.
a. Locus of control
b. Culture
c. Values

ANSWER: a. Locus of control
7. Which of these is one of the six characters that determine issue intensity?
a. Probability of harm
b. Immediacy of consequences
c. Proximity to victims
d. All of the above
8. ____________ are those individuals who raise ethical concerns or issues to

others inside or outside the organisation.
a. Entrepreneur
b. Whistle blowers
c. Social entrepreneur
d. Social impact management
ANSWER: b. Whistle blowers
1. Rearrange the steps in the decision- making process logically.
A. Identification of a problem
B. Identification of decision criteria
C. Allocation of weights to criteria
D. Development of alternatives
E. Analysis of alternatives
F. Selection of an alternative
G. Implementation of the alternative
a. GFEDCBA
b. CDBAFEG
c. ABCDEFG
d. GCDABEF
ANSWER: c. ABCDEFG
i. Managers when plan, organise, lead and control are called decision makers.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
3. Which of the following is an assumption of rationality to rationale decision

making?
a. Preferences are clear

b. Final choice will maximise payoff
c. The problem is clear and unambiguous
d. All of the above
4. ___________ is accepting solutions that are "good enough".
a. Bounded rationality
b. Satisficing
c. Escalation of commitment
ANSWER: b. Satisficing
5. Making decisions on the basis of experience, feelings and accumulated

judgement is called as __________.
a. Decision making
b. Structured problems
c. Intuitive decision making
ANSWER: c. Intuitive decision making
6. Who is the CEO of Nike?
a. D. Perez's
b. John. T. Chambers
c. Phil Knight
ANSWER: a. D. Perez's
7. Which of this is not mentioned in decision-making matrix?
a. Analytic
b. Behavioural
c. Directive
d. Performance management
ANSWER: d. Performance management
8. Which software provides key performance indicators to help managers

monitor efficiency of projects and employees?
a. Management Information System

b. Business Performance Management
c. Enterprise Application Software
d. Online analytical Processing
ANSWER: b. Business Performance Management
9. ___________ is a rule of thumb that managers use to simplify decision

making.
a. Sunk - costs
b. Framing
c. Heuristics
ANSWER: c. Heuristics
i. Availability bias is when decisions makers tend to remember events that are most
recent.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
1. _____________ is a performance measure of both efficiency and

effectiveness.
a. Organisational behaviour
b. Organisational citizenship
c. Employee productivity
ANSWER: c. Employee productivity
2. The voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organisation is

called ___________.
a. Turnover
b. Behaviour
c. Misbehaviour

ANSWER: a. Turnover
3. Discretionary behaviour that is not part of an employee's formal job

requirements, but that promotes the effective functioning of the organisation.
a. Behaviour
b. Organisational behaviour
c. Workplace misbehaviour
d. Organisational citizenship behaviour
ANSWER: c. Workplace misbehaviour
4. _____________ is that part of an attitude that's made up of the beliefs,

opinions, knowledge or information held by a person.
a. Behavioural component
b. Cognitive component
c. Affective component
ANSWER: b. Cognitive component
5. The emotional part of an attitude is called _______.
a. Affective component
b. Attitude
c. Behavioural component
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Affective component
6. Employee's general belief that their organisation values their contribution

and cares about their well - being is called __________.
a. Behaviour
b. Workplace misbehaviour
c. Organisational behaviour
d. Perceived organisational support
ANSWER: d. Perceived organisational support
7. Any compatibility or inconsistency between attitudes or between behaviour

and attitudes is called _____.
a. Attitude surveys
b. Personality
c. Cognitive dissonance
ANSWER: c. Cognitive dissonance
8. Which is the most popular approach to classifying personality traits?
a. MBTI
b. Style of making decisions
c. Social interaction
ANSWER: a. MBTI
9. Match the following personality types with their respective descriptions
1) Introvert, Intuitive, Feeling & Judgemental------ A. Blunt and sometimes insensitive

2) Extrovert, Intuitive, Thinking & Judgemental----- B. Warm, friendly, candid and
decisive
3) Extrovert, Sensing, Thinking & Perceptive-------- C. Quietly forceful, conscientious
& concern
4) Introvert, Sensing, Feeling & Perceptive--------- D. Sensitive, Kind, Modest, Shy
and Quiet
a. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

b. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
c. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
d. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-D
10. Which of these is one of the five personality traits in the Big - Five Model?
a. Emotional stability
b. Openness to experience
c. Extraversion
d. All of the above
1. The degree to which people are pragmatic, maintain emotional distance and
believe that ends justify means is called __________.
a. Impression Management
b. Machiavellianism
c. Locus of control
ANSWER: b. Machiavellianism
2. Match the following personality types with their characters
1) Realistic -------------- A. Self - confident

2) Investigative ---------- B. Idealistic
3) Social ----------------- C. Persistent
4) Conventional------------ D. Unimaginative
5) Enterprising ----------- E. Curious
6) Artistic --------------- F. Co - operative
a. 1-C, 2-E, 3-F, 4-D, 5-A, 6-B

b. 1-E, 2-C, 3-F, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E, 6-F
D. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-F, 5-D, 6-E
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-E,3-F,4-D,5-A,6-B
3. The ability to notice and to manage emotional cues and information is called
_________.
a. Perception
b. Emotions
c. Emotional Intelligence
ANSWER: c. Emotional Intelligence
4. Which is the theory that explains how we judge people differently depending
on the meaning we attribute to a given behaviour?
a. Attribution Theory
b. X and Y theory
c. Fundamental attribution theory
ANSWER: a. Attribution Theory
5. _____________ is a type of learning in which desired voluntary behaviour

leads to a reward or prevents a punishment.
a. Self - serving bias

b. Assumed similarity
c. Stereotyping
d. Operant conditioning
ANSWER: d. Operant conditioning

6. What is fundamental attribution theory?
a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the

influence of internal factors when judging other's behaviour
b. Tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors while
putting the blame for failures on external factors
c. General impression of an individual based on a single

characteristic
ANSWER: a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and

overestimate the influence of internal factors when judging other's behaviour
7. Which of these is one of the four processes that influence social learning
theory?
a. Motor reproduction processes

b. Reinforcement processes
c. Attentional processes
d. All of the above

Answer A) Job Analysis: You May Also Like

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Answer A) Job Analysis: You May Also Like

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1.

A) Job Analysis B) Job selection C) Job specification

Answer A) Job Analysis

2. On the date of joining the employee is introduced to the company and

A) Training B) Induction C) Introduction

3. Environmental uncertainties is one of the factors that affects

A) HRM B) SHRM C) HRP D) HRD

4. The human resource planning is done based on the

A) Market condition B) Financial condition C) External

Answer D) Organisational Plan

5. Resistance from employees is __________ to HRP

A) Objective B) advantage C) scope

6. Which one of the following is not a part of Process of Human resource

C) recruitment D) Analysing organisational

7. ___________________ is process by which an organization should move from

A) HRP B) HRM C) SHRM D) All of the above

8. Collection or aggregation of tasks, duties & responsibilities is known as

A) HRIS B) JOB C) Role D) Designation

9. ____________ involves a collection of job related information

A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job designing

Answer B) Job analysis

10. _________________ Detailed & systematic study of information relating to

A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job designing

Answer B) Job analysis

11. _______________ is a statement of human qualifications necessary to do

A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job specification

12. ____________ is a Process of obtaining all Pertinent Job Facts

A) Job Description B) Job analysis C) Job specification

You may also Like: MCQ's on HR Audit with Answers

Answer B) Job analysis

13. Job Description doesn’t contain detail about

A) Educational qualification B) Job summary C)

Answer A) Educational qualification

14. Job Description includes information regarding supervision

A) given B) Received C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B

Answer C) Both A & B

15. Working condition and Hazards involved in a job is included in

A) Job Analysis B) Job Description C) Job Design D) none of

Answer B) Job Description

16. Techniques of collecting Job Analysis Data does not include

A) Personal observe B) Training C) Maintenance of log records

Answer C) Score card

18. The activities in HRP doesn’t includes

A) Forecasting future HR needs B) Analysing existing

C) Recruitment D) Evaluate &

19. Process of forecasting, developing & controlling human resource in an

A) HRP B) HRD C) HRM D) SHRM

20. _________ is a process which enables the organization to run smoothly

A) HRP B) HRD C) HRM D) SHRM

21. The human resource planning is done based on the ____________

You may also Like: Contract Act MCQ's in Business Law

A) HRM functions B) organizational Plan. C) HRM Scope D)

Answer B) organizational Plan.

22. The first step of HRP is

Answer A) Forecasting future HR needs

A) Job B) Duty C) Designation D) Grade

24. ______________ can be derived from Job Analysis

A) Job Description B) Job Specification C) Both A & B D)

Answer C) Both A & B

25. A written summary of content & context of job is called

Answer B) Job Description

26. A written summary of KSA required to perform a job is

A) Job Analysis B) Job Description C) Job Specification D) Job