08/06/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 10 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
 
1. Two vectors P and Q are of same magnitude 4. The diagram shows the part of Vernier scale.
and inclined at angle 64°. The angle of vector Which reading is correct?
  
P  Q with P is (least count = 0.1 mm)
(1) 32° (2) 58°
(3) 64° (4) 116°
2. If initial velocity of an object is ( 2jˆ ) m/s and it
moves with constant acceleration  iˆ  jˆ m/s ,
2
(1) 3.9 mm
then the velocity of particle at the end of 2 s is (2) 3.93 mm
(1)  2iˆ  4 ˆj  m/s (2)  2iˆ  m/s (3) 3.87 mm
(4) 3.97 mm
(3)  4iˆ  m/s (4)  2iˆ  4 ˆj  m/s 5. A particle moving in the positive x direction has
3. The mass of a cylindrical body depend on density initial velocity u. The particle undergoes a
d of material, its diameter D and length L as retardation v3, where v is instantaneous velocity
M  dx Dy Lz. If maximum percentage error in and  is a positive constant. The velocity of
measurement of density, diameter and length are particle as a function of time t is
m% n% and l% respectively, then maximum
u u
percentage error in calculation of mass is (1) (2)
(1) (m + l + n)% (2) (mx + yn + lz)% 1  2ut 2ut

m n l  u t
(3)     % (4) (mx + ly + nz)% (3) (4)
2
 x y z 1  2u t 2u 2  1

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Test-10 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

6. The horizontal range and maximum height (1) 5 (2) 10

attained by a projectile are R and H respectively. 5 10
If a constant horizontal acceleration a = g/4 is (3) (4)
 
imparted to the projectile due to wind, then its
10. A force F = (40 + 0.5x) acts on a particle in the
new horizontal range will be
x direction where F is in N and x in m. The work
(1) 2R (2) R + H done by this force during a displacement from
H x = 0 to x = 4m is
(3) R + 2H (4) R  (1) 160 J (2) 4 J
2
7. In the figure, three blocks A, B and C of mass m (3) 156 J (4) 164 J
each, have acceleration a1 a2 and a3 11. A ball hits the floor with speed v making an angle
respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of of incidence  with the normal. If the coefficient of
magnitude 4mg and 3mg respectively then restitution is e, then angle of reflection of the ball
is
 tan    cot  
(1) tan1   (2) cot 1  
 e   e 
 sin    sin  
(3) sin1   (4) cot 1  
 e   e 
12. Four particles each of mass 2 kg are kept at the
four corners of a square of edge length 2 m. The
(1) a1 > a2 > a3 (2) a1 = a2 = a3 moment of inertia of the system about an axis
(3) a1 > a3 > a2 (4) a1 < a3 < a2 which is perpendicular to the plane of the square
8. A block is placed on a rough horizontal floor and and passing through centre of square is
a horizontal force F is applied on it. The force of (1) 4 kg m2 (2) 8 kg m2
friction f by the floor on the block is measured for (3) 16 kg m2 (4) 8 2 kg m2
different values of F and a graph is plotted
13. A uniform solid sphere placed on a fixed rough
between them. Then the graph will be a horizontal surface is pulled horizontally by a force
(1) Straight line of slope 45° F as shown in the figure. If it undergoes pure
(2) Straight line of slope 0° rolling, then the frictional force acting on sphere
is
(3) Straight line of slope 90°
(4) Straight line of slope 45° for small F and a
straight line with slope 0° for larger F.
9. Two blocks each of mass 5 kg are connected to
the ends of a light rod as shown in the figure.

2 3
(1) F (2) F
5 5
3 2
(3) F (4) F
7 7
14. If the radius of earth’s orbit around the sun is
R and the time period of revolution of earth
around sun is T, then mass density of sun is
(Rs is radius of sun)

The rod is rotated about a vertical line of 3R 3 4R 3

(1) (2)
symmetry. The rod breaks if the tension in it GT 2Rs3 GT 2
exceeds 500 N. The maximum frequency (in
rotation per second) with which the rod may be 4R 3 R3
(3) (4)
rotated without breaking, is GT 2Rs3 GT 2Rs3

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

15. If a simple pendulum based clock is taken to 20. The thermodynamic state of an ideal gas varied
deep inside earth surface, then it through different processes as shown in the
(1) Runs fast figure. The change in internal energy of the
process A, B and C respectively will be
(2) Runs slow
(3) Stops
(4) Runs as usual
16. If two wire of same material and of same length
have ratio of their radii 1 : 3, then under the effect
of same stretching force, their respective
elongation will be in ratio
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(1) +, –, +
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 3 :1 (2) +, 0, –
17. Water flows through a frictionless tube with a (3) +, –, 0
varying cross section as shown in the figure.
(4) –, 0, +
21. Mean free path of O2 gas molecules in rigid
container is . The temperature of gas is
doubled, then new mean free path of O2 gas
The variation of pressure P at point x along axis
molecules is
is best represented by s
(1)  (2) 2
 
(3) (4)
2 4
22. All the surfaces are smooth and springs are
(1) (2)
ideal. If a block of mass m is given the velocity v0
to the left direction, then the time period of block
as shown in the figures is

(3) (4)

18. Reynold number for which flow of water through

a pipe will be turbulent is
(1) 200
m 3 m
(2) 500 (1) 3 (2)
K 2 K
(3) 665
3 m 2  l1  l 2  m 2  l1  l 2 
(4) 4000 (3)  (4) 3  
2 K v0 K v0
19. A cube of a substance of coefficient of cubical
expansion 1 is floating in a liquid of coefficient of 23. An open and a closed organ pipe have same
length. The ratio of frequency of their 4th overtone
cubical expansion  2 (  2  1 ), such that 50% of
is
its volume is inside the liquid. If temperature of
the system is now increased, the percentage of 10
(1) (2) 2
volume of cube inside the liquid may be 9
(1) 50% (2) 52% 8 2
(3) (4)
(3) 45% (4) 55% 7 7

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Test-10 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

24. A dog is barking at a power of 40 mW. Its

intensity level of sound emitted at a distance 1 m
from the dog is
(1) 90 dB
(2) 100 dB
(3) 120 dB
(4) Zero
25. A long thin wire is charged such that charge per
unit length is +. The wire is inserted in a hollow
sphere of radius 2R. The maximum electric flux (1) 0.5  (2) 1.0 
coming out of the sphere is (3) 1. 5  (4) 2.5 
2R R 29. The current flown through the battery connected
(1) (2) with infinite network as shown in the figure is
0 0

4R
(3) (4) Zero
0

26. If energy stored by capacitor C2 is 40 J, then

charge stored by capacitor C1, as shown in the
figure is (C = 10 F)
(1) 5 A
(2) 10 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 4 A
30. A proton is accelerated in a cyclotron where the
applied magnetic field is 0.5 T. If the potential
gap is 10 kV, then how much revolutions the
(1) 40 C proton has to make between the dee’s to acquire
a kinetic energy of 12 MeV?
(2) 20 C
(1) 600 (2) 1200
(3) 10 C
(3) 300 (4) 500
(4) 30 C
31. The ratio of magnetic length and geometric
27. A charge q is placed on a solid metallic object of length of a bar magnet is about
irregular shape. Charge q will distribute itself.
(1) 0.21
(1) Uniformly inside the metal
(2) 1
(2) Uniformly on the surface of metal
(3) 0.84
(3) Non uniformly inside the metal
(4) 0.63
(4) Non uniformly on the surface of metal
32. Choose the incorrect statement
28. As shown in the figure, A 4V potentiometer is (1) Susceptibility of diamagnetism substance is
used for determination of internal resistance of a almost independent of temperature
2.5 V cell. The balance point of cell in open
(2) Eddy currents are used in induction furnace
circuit is 75 cm. when a resistor of 4  is used in
the external circuit of the cell, the balance point (3) The current through pure inductor is watt less
shifts to 60 cm length of potentiometer wire. The (4) When a current i = (1 + 2sint) A flows in a
internal resistance of the cell is wire, d. c ammeter reads 2A.

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

33. A conducting rod of length L rotating (in x – z 37. A longsighted person has a minimum distance of
plane) with constant angular velocity  about an distinct vision of 75 cm. He wants to reduce it to
axis yy in an uniform magnetic field B as shown 25 cm. The person should use a
in the figure. The emf. Induced between the ends (1) Converging lens with power 2 D
P and Q at the instant shown, will be
(2) Converging lens with power 2.67 D
(3) Diverging lens with power –2 D
(4) Diverging lens with power –2.67 D
38. In a microscope orange light is used for
resolution. The resolving power of microscopes
can be increased by using
(1) Red light
(2) Blue light
BL2  (3) Oil between objective lens and object
(1) Zero (2)
4
(4) Both (2) and (3)
2
BL  5 2 39. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation
(3) (4) BL 
2 10 between 4th maxima and 3rd minima is n times as
34. The primary and secondary coils of an ideal that of fringe width. The value of 2n is
transformer have 100 and 500 turns respectively. (1) 1.5 (2) 2
The magnetic flux linking the primary coil is given
(3) 3 (4) 4.5
by  = 40t + 5. The output voltage across the
secondary coil is (all the quantities are in SI 40. For a proton accelerated through V volts, de
units) Broglie wavelength is given as
(1) 2000 V (2) 400 V 12.27
(1) Å
(3) 200 V (4) 100 V V
35. The speed of light of the electromagnetic wave in 0.286
a medium which has relative permeability 2 and (2) Å
V
relative permittivity 8, is
(1) 1.5 × 108 m/s (2) 1 × 108 m/s 0.101
(3) Å
V
(3) 2.5 × 108 m/s (4) 7.5 × 107 m/s
36. Two identical thin lenses are kept one beside 0.202
(4) Å
other on same optical axis as shown in the figure. V
The right surface of the right lens is silvered focal 41. The absorption transition lines between ground
length of each lense is 20 cm and radius of the
state and nth state of hydrogen atom is 4. The
silvered surface is 20 cm. the focal length of the
emission transition lines between these energy
combined system is
states will be
(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) 8
42. In one average life
(1) –10 cm (1) Half the active nuclei will decay
(2) – 5 cm (2) Less than half the active nuclei will decay
(3) – 2 cm (3) More than half the active nuclei will decay
(4) –3.33 cm (4) All the nuclei will decay

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Test-10 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

43. During  decay

– 45. The truth table for the circuit shown in the figure
is
(1) An atomic electron is ejected
(2) An electron which is already present in the
nucleus is ejected
(3) A proton in the nucleus decays, emitting an
electron
(4) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an
electron A B Y A B Y
44. The input resistance of a common emitter 0 0 0 0 0 1
amplifier is 5 kand current gain is 25. If the (1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 0
load resistance used is 10 k, then 1 0 0 1 0 0
transconductance of the transistor used is 1 1 1 1 1 1

(1) 5 × 10–3 –1 A B Y A B Y

0 0 0 0 0 0
(2) 2 × 10–3 –1
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 1
(3) 1 × 10–2 –1 1 0 1 1 0 1
(4) 5 × 10–2 –1 1 1 0 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following aqueous solution have 50. In the electrochemical cell,
highest specific conductance? A(s) + B2+( aq)  A2+(aq) + B(s)
(1) 0.01 M K2SO4 Increase in the concentration of A2+
(2) 0.01 M CH3COOH (1) Decreases EMF of the cell
(3) 0.01 M KCl (2) Increases the standard EMF of the cell
(4) 0.01 M Glucose (3) Decreases the standard EMF of the cell
47. The value of rate constant of a reaction depends (4) Increases EMF of the cell
upon 51. Milk is an example of
(1) Temperature (2) Concentration (1) Emulsion (2) Gel
(3) Catalyst (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) True solution (4) Suspension

48. The potential difference between fixed charged 52. The number of formula units per unit cell (Z) is
layer and the diffused layer having opposite same for which lattices?
charge in a colloidal system is known as (1) CsCl and Na2O (2) NaCl and CsCl
(1) Beta potential (3) CaF2 and NaCl (4) ZnS and CsCl

(2) Zeta potential 53. The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aq. glucose
solution at 27°C is
(3) Gamma potential
(1) 1.64 atm (2) 2.46 atm
(4) Alpha potential
(3) 3.12 atm (4) 4.81 atm
49. For the elementary reaction, A + B products, 54. The number of nearest neighbours atom in an fcc
the unit of rate constant (k) is lattice of an element is
(1) s–1 (2) mol l–1 s–1 (1) 6 (2) 8
–1 –1 2 –2 –1
(3) l mol s (4) mol l s (3) 4 (4) 12

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

55. When HgI2 is added to an aqueous solution of KI 62. Incorrect match among the following is
(1) The vapour pressure of solution increases (1) Dead burnt plaster : CaSO4
(2) The freezing point of solution is lowered (2) Quick lime : CaO
(3) The boiling point of solution is unaffected (3) Gypsum : CaSO4.2H2O
(4) Precipitation takes place (4) Hydrolith : NaH
56. The major product (A) of the following reaction is 63. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is
HBr (1) 10 (2) 4
CH3 – CH = CH – CHO   A
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH – CHO (3) 8 (4) 6
|
Br 64. Which of the following compounds can act as
both oxidising and reducing agent w.r.t central
(2) atom?
(1) SO3 (2) NO2
(3)
(3) Cl2O7 (4) CO2
65. Maximum covalency of Al is
(4)
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 8 (4) 7
57. Secondary pollutant among the following is
66. Maximum covalent character is shown by
(1) PAN (2) NO2
(1) BeCl2 (2) MgCl2
(3) CO (4) SO2
(3) NaCl (4) RbCl
58. on reaction with H2O
67. Organosilicon polymers (silicones) have
produces repeating unit as
(1)  R2 SiO2  (2)  RSiO2 
(1) (2)
(3)  R3 Si  (4)  R3SiO2 
(3) (4)
68. Neutral oxide among the following is
59. IUPAC name of NH2CHO is (1) N2O (2) PbO2
(1) Aldoamine (3) GeO2 (4) SiO2
(2) Amino aldehyde 69. Intensive property among the following is
(3) Methanamide (1) Heat capacity (2) Entropy
(4) Amino carbaldehyde (3) Temperature (4) Volume
60. Most stable carbocation among the following is
70. In which of the following process, there is an
increase in temperature take place?
(1) Isothermal compression
(1) (2)
(2) Isothermal expansion
(3) Adiabatic compression
(4) Adiabatic expansion
(3) (4)
71. Which of the following salt of water form acidic
61. Moisture is not absorbed by solution?
(1) NaCl (2) LiCl (1) NaCl (2) NaCN
(3) CaCl2 (4) SrCl2 (3) CH3COOK (4) NH4Cl

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Test-10 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

72. When Ne(g) is added to the equilibrium 81. The hydrogen obtained from 9 kg of water is


 (1) 8 kg (2) 1 kg
 SO2 (g)  Cl2 (g) ,
SO2Cl2 (g)  at constant
(3) 2 kg (4) 4 kg
temperature and pressure, then the degree of
dissociation of SO2Cl2 82. 100 ml of 1 N H2SO4 is required to dissolve 0.9 g
of a metal. The equivalent weight of the metal is
(1) Decreases
(1) 9 (2) 5.4
(2) Increases
(3) 18.5 (4) 37.5
(3) First increases and then decreases
83. When electrons of H-atom sample jumps from
(4) Remains constant
n = 4 to n = 1 state, the maximum number of

 spectral lines obtained will be
 B(s)  2C(g) The
73. For the equilibrium, 2A(s) 
correct relationship is (1) 3 (2) 10

(1) KP = KC(RT) (2) KP = KC(RT)2 (3) 8 (4) 6

(3) KP = KC(RT)3 (4) KP = KC(RT)–1 84. Which of the following compounds give positive
Iodoform test?
74. The Ionic product of water at T K is 10–16. The
(1) Acetone (2) Acetic acid
pOH of the neutral solution at this temperature is
(3) Acetamide (4) Methanol
(1) 7 (2) 16
85. Which of the following is not a biodegradable
(3) 4 (4) 8
polymer?
75. d-orbital involved in sp3d hybridized orbitals is
(1) Bakelite (2) PHBV
(1) dxy (2) dx2  y2
(3) Polythene (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) dxz (4) dz2 86. DDT is obtained by the reaction between

76. Symbol of element having atomic number 118 is (1) C6H6 + C6H5Cl
(2) CCl3CHO + C6H5Cl
(1) Uue (2) Uuo
(3) CHCl3 + C6H6
(3) Uun (4) Uub
(4) C6H5Cl + C6H5OH
77. Hybridisation of P-atom in solid PCl5 is
87. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fastest with
(1) sp3d (2) sp3
(1) CH3OH (2) CH3CH2OH
(3) sp3d2 (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) (CH3)2CHOH (4) (CH3)3COH
78. Which of the following species has highest bond
order? 88. Antiseptic among the following is
(1) Barbituric acid (2) Aspirin
(1) CO (2) N 2
(3) Dettol (4) Heroin
(3) O 2 (4) H2
89. The number of possible stereoisomers of
79. If an orbital can accommodate three electrons Glucose is
then the number of elements in first period of (1) 16 (2) 8
periodic table would be
(3) 5 (4) 12
(1) 2 (2) 6
90. Which of following is most basic in nature?
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) (2)
80. The ratio of Boyle temperature to Inversion
temperature of a gas is
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) (4)
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

BOTANY
91. The orange colour of carrot roots is due to which 98. Select the incorrect match
of the given plastids? (1) Potato spindle tuber – Viroids
(1) Amyloplast (2) Chloroplast disease
(3) Chromoplast (4) Leucoplast (2) Chrysanthemum stunt – Virusoids
92. Which of the given regions/ structure(s) of (3) Small pox – Variola virus
chromosomes prevents their shortening? (4) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease – Prion
(1) Centromere 99. Which of the given is medicinal plant of family
(2) Primary constriction Fabaceae?
(3) Kinetochore (1) Muliathi (2) Belladonna
(4) Telomere (3) Aloe (4) Ashwagandha
93. If the initial amount of DNA is 30C in a diploid cell 100. Flower is epigynous and ovary is said to be
with 12 chromosomes then the number of inferior in
chromosomes and amount of DNA respectively (1) Rose (2) Petunia
in S-phase of cell cycle will be
(3) Bittergourd (4) Brinjal
(1) 12 and 30 C (2) 24 and 60 C
101. The gritty texture of pulp of guava is due to the
(3) 12 and 60 C (4) 24 and 30 C presence of
94. In karyokinesis, the best stage to study the (1) Sclereids
shapes and morphology of the chromosomes
(2) Sclerenchymatous fibres
respectively are
(3) Parenchyma
(1) Prophase and metaphase
(4) Collenchyma
(2) Metaphase and anaphase
102. All of the given functions of epidermal tissue
(3) Metaphase and prophase
system are facilitated by trichomes, except
(4) Anaphase and metaphase
(1) Protection
95. Statement A : Growth is an extrinsic property of
(2) Secretion of sticky substances
living organisms.
(3) Control of transpiration
Statement B : Reproduction can be regarded as
(4) Absorption of water and minerals
characteristic of living organisms but it is not their
exclusive defining characteristic. 103. The smallest angiosperm is
(1) Only A is correct (1) Wolfia (2) Eucalyptus
(2) Only B is correct (3) Teak (4) Mustard
(3) Both A and B are correct 104. Vascular bundles are absent in which of the
given plant groups?
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Bryophyta (2) Pteridophyta
96. Which of the given organisms reproduces by
fragmentation? (3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm
(1) Bacteria (2) Amoeba 105. What will be pressure potential for a turgid cell?
(3) Hydra (4) Spirogyra (1) Positive (2) Zero
97. Mycelium is septate and branched in all of the (3) Negative (4) Negligible
given classes of fungi, except 106. Find the correct expression for a fully flaccid cell
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Phycomycetes (1) DPD = OP (2) DPD = 0
(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Basidiomycetes (3) w = 0 (4) DPD = TP

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Test-10 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

107. Match the column I and column II w.r.t elements 113. Richmond Lang effect is associated with which of
and their physiological role. the given plant hormones?
A. Nitrogen (i) Formation of (1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
chlorophyll (3) Ethylene (4) Gibberellin
B. Calcium (ii) Major constituent of
114. Both A and B promote cell division
protein, nucleic acid
which show their synergistic effect on cell
C. Magnesium (iii) Activates ATPase
division.
D. Iron (iv) Binding of ribosome
subunits during protein Select the option which correctly fills A and B.
synthesis (1) A–Auxin, B–Cytokinin
A B C D (2) A–Auxin, B–Ethylene
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) A–Cytokinin, B–ABA
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) A–GA3, B–IAA
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 115. Embryogenesis is absent in which of the given
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) plant groups?
108. Which of the given bacteria is associated with (1) Algae (2) Gymnosperm
legumes? (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia 116. Which of the given algae produces
(3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter heterogametes?
109. How many ATPs are consumed to fix three (1) Cladophora
molecules of CO2 w.r.t C3 pathway? (2) Ulothrix
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) Chara
(3) 9 (4) 2
(4) Chlamydomonas debaryana
110. Law of limiting factors was given by
117. Cells of which of the given layer of anther
(1) Priestley (2) J. V. Sachs nourishes the developing pollen grains?
(3) Blackman (4) T. W. Engelmann (1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium
111. Which of the given is raw material for amino acid (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum
synthesis?
118. How many meiotic divisions are required to
(1) -ketoglutaric acid (2) OAA produce 200 seeds in a typical angiosperm?
(3) Acetyl CoA (4) Succinyl CoA (1) 50 (2) 200
112. Read the following statements stating them as
(3) 250 (4) 100
true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
119. How many types of gametes are possible in a
A. From one glucose molecule 36 or 38 ATP
plant with genotype AaBBccDdEe?
molecules are released during aerobic
respiration. (1) 4 (2) 8

B. RQ of oxalic acid is 1.33 (3) 5 (4) 6

C. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is known as 120. Substitution of a purine base with a pyrimidine
pacemaker enzyme of glycolysis. base or vice versa is called

D. Yeasts poison themselves to death when (1) Transition (2) Transversion

the concentration of alcohol reaches about (3) Addition (4) Insertion
13%. 121. Which of the given disorders is due to
A B C D monosomy?
(1) T T F T (1) Down’s syndrome
(2) T F T F (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) T F T T (3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) F T T T (4) Myotonic dystrophy

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

122. During translation, enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA 129. Barnacles growing on the back of a whale is an
synthetase is responsible for example of which of the given population
interactions?
(1) Activation of amino acid
(1) Commensalism
(2) Charging of tRNA
(2) Competition
(3) Peptide bond formation
(3) Amensalism
(4) Sliding of ribosome on mRNA
(4) Mutualism
123. Select the incorrect match w.r.t genes and their
130. Which of the given is not correct w.r.t
functions in lac operon
characteristics of anthropogenic ecosystem, like
(1) Lac z – Permease crop fields?
(2) Promoter gene – Provides attachment (1) Have little diversity
site for RNA polymerase
(2) Low productivity
(3) Regulator gene – Repressor protein (3) Simple food chain
(4) Lac a – Transacetylase (4) Do not possess self-regulatory mechanisms
124. From 1960 to 2000 wheat production in India 131. Which of the given is least productive
increased from A million tonnes to B ecosystem?
million tonnes (1) Coral reefs (2) Deep sea
Select the option which correctly fills A and B. (3) Tropical rain forest (4) Agroecosystem
A B 132. How many biosphere reserves are there in India?
(1) 11 75 (1) 14 (2) 26
(2) 35 89.5 (3) 6 (4) 43
(3) 11 89.5 133. Which of the following is an example of
organisms with recent extinction in Africa?
(4) 35 75
(1) Quagga
125. Pusa komal is bred by hybridisation and selection
for disease resistance to bacterial blight is a (2) Thylacine
variety of which of the given crop? (3) Dodo
(1) Wheat (2) Brassica (4) Steller’s sea cow
(3) Cauliflower (4) Cowpea 134. Montreal protocol was signed at Montreal
(Canada) in
126. Which of the given bacteria play very beneficial
role in checking disease causing microbes in our (1) 1989 (2) 1987
stomach? (3) 1992 (4) 2002
(1) Lactic acid bacteria (2) Propionibacterium 135. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct option.
(3) Streptococcus (4) Leuconostoc
a. Chipko movement (i) Pandurang Hegde
127. Select the incorrect match
b. Appiko movement (ii) Ahmed Khan
(1) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma polysporum
c. Wildlife protection (iii) Chandi Prasad
(2) Streptokinase – Streptococcus award Bhatt
(3) Statins – Aspergillus d. Remedy for plastic (iv) Amrita Devi
(4) Lipase – Candida lipolytica waste
128. The number of deaths in the population during a (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
given time period is (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Natality (2) Mortality (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Immigration (4) Emigration (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

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Test-10 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

ZOOLOGY
136. Choose the incorrectly matched pair. 140. Proenzyme pepsinogen is converted into active
(1) Endocrine glands – Epithelial tissue enzyme pepsin on exposure to secretions of
(2) Tendon – Dense connective (1) Parietal cells
tissue (2) Goblet cells
(3) Blood – Loose connective
(3) Brunner’s glands
tissue
(4) Peptic cells
(4) Cartilage – Specialised
141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
connective tissue
137. Smooth muscle cells are not (1) Carrier proteins help in absorption of glucose
and amino acids in alimentary canal
(1) Spindle shaped (2) Uninucleated
(3) Contractile (4) Striated (2) Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble are
incorporated into small droplets called
138. Which one of the following structural formulae of
chylomicrons in intestinal lumen which move
the organic compound is incorrectly identified
along with its related feature? into the intestinal mucosa.
(3) Active transport of nutrients occurs against
the concentration gradient and hence
(1) requires energy
(4) Absorption of substances takes place in
different parts of alimentary canal, like mouth,
stomach, small intestine and large intestine
(2)
142. The amount of air which remains in lungs even
after forcible expiration in a healthy adult man
averages
(1) 500 ml
(2) 1100-1200 ml
(3) (3) 2500-3000 ml
(4) 6000 ml
143. Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t mode
of transport of respiratory gases

Gases Mode of Percentage

(4) transport of gas
transported

(1) O2 As 97
oxyhaemoglobin

(2) O2 Dissolved state 3

139. A non-reducing sugar among the following is through plasma
(1) Glucose (3) CO2 As carbamino- 70
(2) Lactose haemoglobin
(3) Sucrose (4) CO2 Dissolved state 7
(4) Maltose through plasma

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

144. Match the items given in column I with those in 150. Select the option which contains only the
column II and select the correct option given incorrect statements w.r.t sliding filament theory
below w.r.t. humans of muscle contraction.
Column-I Column-II a. Acto-myosin cross bridge breaks as a new
ATP binds to the myosin head
a. Erythrocytes (i) Release heparin
and histamine b. Binding of Ca++ to troponin results in masking
of myosin binding site on actin
b. Basophils (ii) Engulf bacteria
c. A-bands get reduced during shortening of
and cell debris
the sarcomere
c. Monocytes (iii) Enucleated
d. Actin filaments slide past myosin filaments
d. Lymphocyte (iv) Spherical shaped (1) a and b (2) b and c
nucleus
(3) c and d (4) a and d
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) 151. Blind spot in the human eye is correctly
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) described as
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) Part of the eye ball where optic nerve leaves
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) the eye.
(2) Thinned-out portion of the retina where only
145. The relation between the duration of one cardiac
the cones are densely packed.
cycle and heart rate is
(3) Space between the lens and cornea
(1) Direct (2) Inverse
(4) A yellowish pigmented spot where visual
(3) Irregular (4) Constant acuity is the greatest
146. A person belonging to blood group ‘AB’ can 152. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
donate blood to individuals belonging to blood option
group Medulla oblongata : Homeostatic control ::
(1) O (2) A, B, O Cerebellum : _______
(3) AB (4) A and B only (1) Thermoregulation
147. Human body in a severely dehydrated state (2) Long-term memory
would not (3) Coordinating locomotor activities
(1) Actively reabsorb sodium from PCT (4) Language comprehension
(2) Decrease aldosterone levels 153. Select the option which matches correctly w.r.t.
endocrine gland, hormone secreted by it and its
(3) Activate juxta glomerular cells to release
associated function.
renin
Endocrine Hormone Function
(4) Stimulate ADH release gland
148. Glomerular filtration rate in a healthy adult is
(1) Pancreas Glucagon Glycogenesis,
approximately promotes glucose
(1) 125 ml/hour uptake by cells

(2) 180 litres per day (2) Adrenal Adrenaline Development and
cortex maintenance of
(3) 12500 ml/ minute
secondary sex
(4) 18 litres per hour characters in males
and females
149. Synovial joint is present between/at
(3) Anterior TSH Controls release of
(1) Parietal and frontal bone
pituitary thyroid hormones
(2) Pubic symphysis
(4) Parathyroid Calcitonin Checks concentration
(3) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb of calcium in blood
(4) Sternum and ribs plasma

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Test-10 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

154. An important general characteristic that reptiles (1) Four (2) Five
share with aves is (3) Six (4) Seven
(1) Poikilothermy
160. Choose the odd one w.r.t sexuality of organisms
(2) Branchial respiration
(1) Roundworm
(3) Oviparity
(2) Earthworm
(4) Pneumatic bones
(3) Leech
155. Match the following genera with their respective
phylum: (4) Tapeworm
a. Cucumaria (i) Chordata 161. In human females, completion of second meiotic
b. Salpa (ii) Echinodermata division in secondary oocyte is induced by
c. Ancylostoma (iii) Aschelminthes (1) Ovulation
d. Dentalium (iv) Mollusca (2) Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of ovum
Select the correct option (3) Puberty
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) Menstruation
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) 162. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t the method
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) of contraception shown in the figure below.
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
156. Which pair of animals show all the below listed
features (a to e)?
a. Ctenoid scales on skin
b. Direct development
c. Streamlined body
d. Air bladder is present
e. Marine
(1) Labeo and Clarias
(2) Scoliodon and Pristis (1) Sperms are absent in epididymis

(3) Exocoetus and Hippocampus (2) It is also called sterilisation

(4) Exocoetus and Pterophyllum (3) This technique is highly effective
157. Sexual dimorphism in cockroach can be (4) Reversibility of this procedure is very poor
established by the presence of 163. Progestasert and LNG -20 are
(1) Anal styles (2) Anal cerci
(1) Non-medicated IUDs
(3) Tegmina (4) Antennae
(2) Hormone releasing IUDs
158. Choose the set of hormones which cannot be
found in a female unless she is pregnant. (3) Hormonal implants
(1) Estrogens and Progestogens (4) Non-steroidal pills
(2) hCG and hPL 164. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,
(3) Glucocorticoids and Estrogens an allele W occurs with a frequency of 0.8 in a
population of white sheep. The frequencies of
(4) Prolactin and Progesterone
genotype WW, Ww and ww are
159. How many of the following are diploid cells?
WW Ww ww
Spermatogonium Ovum
(1) 64 32 4
Primary spermatocyte Primary oocyte
(2) 32 4 64
Oogonium Sperm (3) 4 32 64
Secondary spermatocyte Sertoli cell (4) 64 4 32

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-10 (Code-A)

165. All of the following are a result of divergent 173. Fusion of gametes of Plasmodium takes place in
evolution except (1) Human liver
(1) Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and (2) Mosquitos’ salivary glands
Cucurbita respectively (3) Human RBCs
(2) Sweet potato and potato (4) Mosquito’s gut
(3) Hearts of vertebrates 174. Reduction in fertility and productivity of animals
(4) Forelimbs of bat and man due to increased homozygosity is termed as
166. Highest cranial capacity among the following was (1) Inbreeding depression
of (2) Interspecific hybridisation
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus (3) Artificial breeding
(3) Cro Magnon man (4) Neanderthal man (4) Herd improvement
167. Drug commonly called ‘crack’ is obtained from 175. Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the
(1) Papaver somniferum nucleus of animal cell in the technique known as
(2) Cannabis sativa (1) Biolistics (2) Microinjection
(3) Erythroxylum coca (3) Heat shock (4) Elution
(4) Datura 176. After successful ligation of foreign genes at
Pst I and Bam HI sites of pBR322, the plasmid
168. Select the autoimmune disease among the would lose resistance to
following
(1) Tetracycline and Kanamycin
(1) Gout
(2) Ampicillin and Tetracycline
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
(3) Asthma
(4) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
(4) Alzheimer’s disease 177. Flush ends are produced by
169. The placental transfer of antibodies from mother (1) Eco RV and Sma I
to fetus during pregnancy provides
(2) Sal I and Hind III
(1) Natural active immunity
(3) Pvu II and Sal I
(2) Natural passive immunity
(4) Eco RI and Hind III
(3) Artificial active immunity
178. DNA molecules are a and b . Here ‘a’
(4) Artificial passive immunity
and ‘b’ are
170. A viral disease whose pathogen is transmitted by
a b
a mosquito bite is
(1) Hydrophilic Negatively charged
(1) Malaria (2) Filariasis
(2) Hydrophobic Negatively charged
(3) Psoriasis (4) Chikungunya
(3) Hydrophilic Positively charged
171. NACO, a nationwide organisation makes people
(4) Hydrophobic Positively charged
aware about
179. RNAi technique is used to protect tobacco roots
(1) Cancer
from infestation by
(2) AIDS
(1) Fungus (2) Virus
(3) Drug and alcohol addiction
(3) Bacteriophage (4) Nematode
(4) TB 180. Which of the following crop is nutritionally
172. An antibody molecule with light chains (L) and enhanced using gene from daffodil plant to help
heavy chains (H) is represented as overcome diseases such as night blindness?
(1) H1 L1 (2) H2L1 (1) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato (2) Bt- brinjal
(3) H1L2 (4) H2L2 (3) Golden rice (4) Bt-corn

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Edition: 2020-21