‫‪Microbiology‬‬

‫‪MCQ‬‬
‫خاص بامتحان الهيئه السعودية للتخصات الصحية‬
‫(للتحاليل الطبية )‬
‫الخصائى وفنى الميكروبيولوجى‬

‫جروب الجالية المصرية الخصائى التحاليل الطبية بالسعودية‬

‫جروب مذاكرة الميكروبيولوجى‬
‫‪Mohsen Haleem‬‬

‫‪1‬‬
 ‫‪-1‬امتحان بكالوريوس الميكروبيولوجى‪(.‬الاخصائى )‬

‫يوجد فى مصر و السعودية (بيكون الامتحان فى الميكروبيولوجى فقط ‪:‬‬

‫امتحان كمبيوتر اختيار من متعدد‬

‫‪ :‬مسمى الامتحان‬
‫‪SCHS microbiology Baccalaureate‬‬

‫‪ :‬مين بيدخل الامتحان دة‬

‫الحاصل على بكالوريوس ميكروبيولوجى ‪-‬‬

‫او الحاصل على ماجستير ميكروبيولوجى‬
‫او الحاصل على الدكتوراة فى الميكروبيولوجى‬

‫‪ :‬التصنيف بعد النجاح‬

‫لو المتقدم معاه بكالوريوس ميكروبيولوجى فقط هيتصنف بعد الامتحان فنى ميكروبيولوجى‬
‫لو المتقدم معاه دبلومة او ماجستير او دكتوراة فى الميكروبيولوجى بعد بكالوريوس الميكروبيولوجى هيصنف اخصائى‬
‫ميكروبيولوجى‬
‫لو المتقدم معاة ماجستير فى الميكروبيولوجى بعد بكالوريوس العلوم اى تخصص هيتصنف اخصائى ميكروبيولوجى‬

‫الملخص ‪ :‬الامتحان دة للى معة بكالوريوس ميكروبيولوجى وايضا للى معاه ماجستير وللى معاه دكتوراة‬
‫فى ناس هتدخل نفس الامتحان واحد هيتصنف اخصائى وواحد هيتصنف فنى وعرفنا الحاليتين‬
‫‪-2‬امتحان فنى ميكروبيولوجى‬
‫) بيكون فى الميكروبيولوجى فقط ( يوجد فى السعودية ومصر ‪:‬‬
‫امتحان كمبيوتر اختيار من متعدد‬

‫‪:‬مسمى الامتحان‬
‫‪microbiology technician‬‬

‫‪ :‬مين بيدخل الامتحان دة‬

‫الحاصل على دبلومة ميكروبيولوجى بعد بكالوريوس علوم ( اى تخصص ) غير بكالوريوس الميكروبيولوجى‬
‫‪-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬

‫‪2‬‬
 ‫طبيعة ومحتوي امتحان فني‪/‬اخصائى احياء دقيقة‬
‫)‪(70 MCQs, 2 hours‬‬
‫‪45%‬نسبة نجاح فنى الميكرو ( سواء بكالوريوس ميكروبيولوجى فقط بعد خبرة سنتين او اى بكالوريوس علوم اى قسم‬
‫اخر مع دبلومة ميكرو)‬
‫‪60%‬نسبة نجاح اخصائى الميكرو (اللى هو بكالوريوس ميكرو او ميكرو ‪ +‬كيمياء مع دبلومة ميكرو طبية او بكالوريوس‬
‫ميكرو طبى )‬

‫‪1-Growth Media, Staining Techniques, and Presumptive Identification 26%‬‬

‫‪2- Urinary and Genital Tract Infections‬‬ ‫‪11%‬‬

‫‪3- Respiratory Tract, TB, and CNS Infections‬‬ ‫‪24%‬‬

‫‪4-Blood Sepsis and Blood Asepsis‬‬ ‫‪6%‬‬

‫‪5-Gastrointestinal Tract Infections‬‬ ‫‪6%‬‬

‫‪6-Immunology and Diagnostic Virology‬‬ ‫‪20%‬‬

‫‪7-Mycology and Parasitology‬‬ ‫‪7%‬‬

‫‪Total‬‬ ‫‪100%‬‬

‫وصـــــــــــــــــــا يا الـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــهوارى‬

‫‪#‬أمين_الهوارى‬
‫أنا لو داخل إمتحان أخصائى‪/‬بكاليريوس ميكروبيولوجى أذاكر منين ؟؟‬
‫مرحلة المذاكرة‪:‬‬
‫حضر نوت بوك كويس وقلمين واحد احمر وواحد ازرق وطربيزة وكرسى‬
‫على الطربيزه الزم يكون فيه كتابين‪:‬‬
‫كتاب مونيكا الجزء التانى كله و كتاب مونيكا الجزء االول ‪ :‬باب الباراسيتولوجى فقط‬
‫هتذاكر كويس جدا ‪ ..‬بمعدل ‪ 3‬ساعات يوميا كل كلمة كل حرف كل اورجانيزم وكل صب سبيشيس كمان‬
‫هنبدأ بالكتاب الجزء التانى‬
‫‪..................................................‬‬
‫خطة المذاكرة‪:‬‬
‫‪.................................................‬‬
‫مقدمة الكتاب‪:‬‬
‫من صفحة ‪ - 1‬صفحة ‪ 07‬هتالقى االتى‪:‬‬
‫نبذه عن مع امل الميكروبيولوجى كمقدمة ثم تقسيمات وخواص الكائنات الدقيقه المهمه طبيا ‪ ..‬ثم طرق الفحص الميكروسكوبى ‪ ..‬وطرق الزرع‬
‫‪3‬‬
 ‫واالوساط الغذائيه ‪..‬واخيرا االختبارات التفريقيه للبكتريا‪.‬‬
‫الجزء دا مهم وبيجى منه اسئله كتير جدا ركز ومتدخلش ع اللى بعده اال لما تكون ذاكرته كويس‬
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫البكتريا‪:‬‬
‫‪1-‬هتبدأ من صفحة ‪ 150‬الى صفحة ‪432‬‬
‫دول فيهم كل ميكروب وتحته خواصه وكل مايدور حوله باختصار‬
‫بعد ماتخلص دا ‪ ..‬انت كدا راجعت كل البكتريولوجى نظرى‬
‫‪............‬‬
‫‪2-‬هتذاكر المزارع من صفحة ‪ 07‬الى صفحة ‪134‬‬
‫وبكدا انت لما هيقابلك اورجانيزم هتبقا عارف هو مين النك ذاكرت عنه ف الجزء االول‬
‫‪...........‬‬
‫‪3-‬المضادات الحيوية واختبارات الحساسية من صفحة ‪ 134‬الى صفحة ‪123‬‬
‫بعد ماتخلص دا ‪ ..‬انت كدا ذاكرت كل البكتريولوجى (المزارع) عملى‬
‫ملحوظة ‪:‬‬
‫لو انت شغال ف الميكروبيولوجى ف الفتره دى هيساعدك جدا النك كمان هتطبق الكالم دا ف شغلك وهيثبت المعلومه عندك‬
‫خلصت مذاكرة البكتريولوجى ومزارعه كدا انت تمام جدا‬
‫ــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫الفيروسات‪:‬‬
‫هتذاكر من صفحة ‪ 422‬الى صفحة ‪477‬‬
‫الجزء دا صعب لكن من رحمة ربنا ان اسئلته ف االمتحان مش كتير‬
‫ملحوظة‪:‬‬
‫فيه جداول ومخططات ف الكتاب متعديهاش الزم تتذاكر النها مهمه جدا وبتسهل عليك عملية الحفظ واسترجاع المعلومه‬
‫ــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫الفطريات‪:‬‬
‫من صفحة ‪ 435‬الى ‪ 422‬ف الكتاب هتالقى شرح للفطريات ذاكرهم كويس وركز ف االمراض والفرق بينهم ف الشكل‬
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫بكدا انت ذاكرت االساسيات ‪+‬البكتريا ‪ +‬الفيروسات ‪ +‬الفطريات‬
‫ملحوظه‪:‬‬
‫فيه جزء زى اطلس ملون ف الكتاب الزم تطلع عليه لتثبيت المعلومات‬
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫الباراسيتولوجى‪:‬‬
‫فى كتاب مونيكا الجزء االول شابتر الباراسيتولوجى‬
‫من صفحة ‪ 102‬الى صفحة ‪377‬‬
‫هتقسمهم براحتك وتبدأ فيهم واحده واحده لحد ماتخلصهم‬
‫ملحوظه‪:‬‬
‫اوعا تذاكر الجداول بس وتقول البارا مش يجى منها كتير ‪ ..‬خلى بالك اسئلة البارا صعبة خصوصا طفيليات الدم‬
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫الحدوتة دى كلها تاخد ‪ 27-37‬يوم بالظبط بمعدل ‪ 3-4‬ساعة ف اليوم‬

‫خلصت مذاكره خالص كله تمام ‪ ..‬عملت زى ماقولتلك بالحرف ‪ ..‬سجلت كل النقاط اللى محتاج ترجعلها تانى ‪ ..‬ايقنت انك عديت على كل شىء ف اللى‬
‫قولناه ‪ ..‬افكارك مترتبه ‪ ..‬عقلك شغال ‪ ..‬أحب اقولك اننا كنا بنأسسك بس ولسه هنبنى عليك‬
‫اوال ‪ :‬المراجعـــه‪:‬‬
‫مهم جدا انك تكون ذاكرت كويس قبل ماتدخل على االسئله اكبر غلط ممكن توقع فيه انك تذاكر االسئله بس الن لو حتى هتنجحك مع انى اشك ‪..‬‬
‫فاكيد ع مستوى عملك مش هتستفيد‬
‫‪1-‬الملخصات‪:‬‬
‫على النت وف الجروب هنا فيه ملخصات كلنا عارفينها اسمها ملخصات ابو شادى ملخص فيها الميكرو كاالتى‪:‬‬
‫‪1- Gram positive cocci‬‬
‫‪2- Gram positive bacilli‬‬
‫‪3- Gram negative cocci‬‬
‫‪4- Gram negative bacilli‬‬
‫‪4‬‬
 ‫‪5- Basic principle of microbiology‬‬
‫‪6- Viruses‬‬
‫‪7-Parasitology‬‬
‫‪8- Immunity‬‬
‫ملحوظة‪:‬‬
‫رقم اتنين فيها غلطة هو مكرر الــ ‪ Bacillus anthracis‬مرتين بس هو التانيه هى ‪ Cereus‬وليس‪Anthracis‬‬
‫حاول تشوف مصدر للمضادات الحيويه وتلخص بنفسك الفطريات واالكتينوميسيتس‬
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫ذاكر الملخصات دى كويس جدا جدا لحد ماتحس انها اتطبعت جوه هتالقى انواع من البكتريا هو مش ملخصها ‪ ..‬روح انت ع الكتاب واكتبها ف‬
‫ضهر الورق بنفس الطريقه ‪...‬‬
‫كدا انت خلصت مراجعة الملخصات‬
‫‪....................‬‬
‫ثانيا ‪ :‬االسئلة‬
‫اختار االسئله اللى ف الميكروبيولوجى فقط طبعا هتقدر تفرق النك مذاكر‬
‫اقرا وجاوب بنفسك‬
‫ملحوظه كل االسئله متجاوبه ياريت تحاول تدارى االجابه وتختبر نفسك الن يبانلك سهل وانت قدامك لكن ممكن تنساه ف االمتحان‬
‫االسئله كتير ولكن اهمهم اربع ملفات هنزلهملكم ف الملحقات ان شاء هللا‬
‫‪ -‬فيه كتب ف الميكروبيولوجى بتبقا عباره عن ان كلها اسئلة اختيارات زى كتاب االعداد للبورد مثال دا رائع وهيعمل مراجعه لمعلوماتك بطريقه‬
‫جميله‬
‫‪................................................................................................‬‬
‫خلصنا كل االسئله اختارنا المراجع والملفات الصح للمذاكره توكلنا ع هللا‬
‫نيجى بقا للجزء المهم وهو اهم االسئله اللى جاتنى ف االمتحان‪:‬‬
‫‪1-‬يفرز الــ ‪ CRP‬من‪ ..‬الكبد‪....‬‬
‫‪2-‬الفيروس الذى يشبه فيروس االيدز هو)‪ (FIV‬فيروس نقص المناعة في القطط‪....‬‬
‫‪3-‬المطهر المستخدم لمزارع الدم هو‪.....‬‬
‫‪4-‬هل الــ ‪ Pasteurization‬يعتبر ‪ Sterilization‬؟؟‬
‫‪5-‬ماهو الذى يحتوى على نقطتين مش عارف ايه كدا ف البالزموديوم‬
‫‪6-‬ماهو الوسط الغذائى للدفتيريا التيوليت‬
‫‪7-‬ماهى نوع الـ ‪ Bacillus‬الغير متحركه‬
‫‪8-‬عينة بول منذ ساعتين بالظبط هتقبلها وال ترفضها‬
‫‪9-‬ميكانيكية عمل البنسلين‬
‫‪10-‬ف المضادات الحيويه الــ‪Synergism and additive‬‬
‫‪11-‬العينه التى تفحص بمجرد وصولها المعمل‬
‫‪12-‬الــ ‪ S.pneum.‬تتبع جروب‪.....‬‬
‫‪13-‬نوع من الـ‪Tap worm‬‬
‫‪14-‬نووع الطفيل ع حسب عدد الــ‪Gravid segment‬‬
‫‪15-‬المالريا اللى بتعمل‪enlargement‬‬
‫‪16-‬صبغة الــ‪Feldensen‬‬
‫‪17-‬الــ‪Bacteroides‬‬
‫‪18-‬الــ‪Mucor‬‬
‫‪19-‬البروسيال والــ ‪URease‬‬
‫‪20-‬شكل النايسيريا ع المكانوكي‬
‫‪21-‬نوع من االنتاميبا اليوجد ف االمعاء‬
‫‪22-‬كيف يمكن التحكم ف النورمال فلورا‬
‫‪23-‬االورجانيزمات الـ‪Invasive‬‬
‫‪24-‬تعالج االنتيروكوكس بــ‪.....‬‬
‫‪25-‬كيف تفرق بين الــ ‪ D-enterococcus‬والـ‪enterococcus‬‬
‫‪26-‬نوع من الـ ‪ Tap worm‬يوجد ف االنسجه‬
‫‪27-‬حاله ع مااعتقد كانت‪liptospira‬‬
‫‪5‬‬
 ‫?? ‪28- IL 1&2 …..‬‬
‫‪29-‬ف سائل النخاع البكتريا تقلل‪.....‬‬
‫‪30-‬يفرز االفالتوكسين من‪.......‬‬
‫‪31-‬ميديا التستخدم لزراعة الهوائيات‪.....‬‬
‫– ‪32‬االذن الوسطى والنورمال فلورا‬
‫‪33-‬ملوثات مزرعة الدم ؟‬
‫– ‪34‬الــ‪Staph aureus‬‬
‫‪35-‬بكتيرويدس ميالنو ‪...‬‬
‫‪36-‬عينات اليتم عليها زراعه ال هوائى‬
‫‪37-‬البروتوزوا اللى تحتوى ع جزئين متماثلين‬
‫‪38-‬الـ ‪ Genetic variation‬ف فيروس البوريلال‬
‫‪39-‬الميكروبات والجروح البطنية‬
‫‪40-‬التجمع حلو جسم غريب كبويضات البلهارسيا يسمى‪....‬‬
‫‪41-‬طريقة الــ‪Zn sulphate‬‬
‫‪42-‬للتفرقه بين البروكاريوتيك وااليوكاريوتك‬
‫‪43 – intracellular cocci‬‬
‫??? … ‪44- S.faecalis‬‬
‫‪45- shape of micrococcus‬‬
‫‪46-‬خواص الهيموفيلس انفلونزا والتفرقه بينهم‬
‫‪47-‬صبغة اليورامين تستخدم لــ‬
‫‪48-‬وجود صديد ف البول مع عدم نمو بكتريا ؟؟‬
‫– ‪49‬بكتريا الدرن‬
‫– ‪50‬حالة مرضيه لطفل مصاب بفيروس معين‬
‫‪51-‬حالة مرضيه لمريض نقص مناعه‬
‫‪52-‬طرق نقل فيروسات عن طريق الحيوانات‬
‫‪53-‬ميكانيكية السيفالوسبورين واجياله‬
‫‪54-‬حالة لميكروب السالمونيال‬
‫‪55-‬كيفية امضاء نتيجه ومراجعتها‬
‫‪56-‬تقسيم عمل التيكنيشن حسب التخصص‬
‫‪57-‬حاله لعضة الذبابه السوداء‬
‫‪58-‬حالة ف جامايكا ولكن مش فاكر المرض كان ايه‬
‫‪59-‬حاله او اتنين ويديلك خيارات للعالج‬
‫‪60-‬حالة كانت تشخيص المرض‬
‫‪61-‬فترة حضانه وظهور المضادات‬
‫لحد هنا دا كل اللى فاكره او اللى كان سهل وافتكرته ‪ ...‬الباقى كان صعب وكان الفف جدا ‪ ...‬الخيارات بتبقا متشابهه جدا ف االسئله محتاجه‬
‫تركيز ‪ ...‬لكن الحمد هلل ربنا كرمنى وعديت بسكور عالى كمان ‪ ...‬احمد ربنا واشكره له المنه والفضل ‪ ..‬ومن بعده الجروب الممتاز دا بكل‬
‫اعضاءه كبيرهم وصغيرهم‬
‫‪#‬امين الهوارى‬
‫‪---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬

‫د‪.‬حمدى قطب‬
‫بالنسبة لالمتحان ممكن تمتحن عادي قبل تمام السنتين مفيش مشكلة‬

‫بس تعرف ان صالحية امتحان البروميتريك سنتين من تاريخه‬

‫المذاكره من‬

‫امتحانات الفنيين‬
‫ملخصات الفنيين في الميكروبيولوجي‬
‫‪6‬‬
 ‫كل الملفات اللي على الجروب‬

‫امتحان الفنى زى االخصائى عادى يعنى اسئله الفنيين هى بردو الى بتيجى لالخصائى بس الفرق فى نسبه النجاح‬
‫‪4-‬تذاكر اسئلة الباراسيتولوجي بتاعة الفنيين وتحفظها النها ‪ 17‬اسئلة مضمونة ان شاء هللا‬

‫‪5-‬والخالصة علشان ماتدورش كتيير وتالقي كل حاجة في كتاب واحد‬

‫مناعة ‪ +‬بكتريولوجي ‪ +‬فيرولوجي ‪ +‬مايكولوجي‬
‫تبعت تشتري كتاب الميكرو والمناعه بتاع تانيه طب اسكندريه‬
‫هيجيلك االمتحان بالنص من المعلومات اللي في الكتاب ده‬
‫‪-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬
‫‪Mohamed Hosien‬‬
‫تجربتي مع امتحان البرومترك‪:‬ميكروبيولوجى من الحجز وحتى النتيجه‬

‫تجربتي مع امتحان البرومترك‪:‬‬

‫السالم عليكم ‪ ...‬انا لما روحت احجز المتحان البرومترك حجزت من شركة االصدقاء فوق فرغلي بتاع العصير شارع‬
‫جامعة الدول ولما روحت قالولي انت اللي بتحدد نوع االمتحان بنفسك وبما اني قسم ميكرو ومعايا دبلومة ميكرو بس مش‬
‫معايا سنتين خبرة بعد الدبلومة اخترت اسم االمتحان ‪ microbiology technician‬و ذاكرت من كتاب مونيكا الجزء‬
‫الخاص بالبكتريا كويس والجزء الخاص بالبارا كويس جدا ومقدمة الفيروس والفطريات والمناعة علي اعتقاد مني بأن البكتريا‬
‫والبارا هم اكتر جزئين يتم السؤال عنهم في االمتحان ‪ ...‬المهم روحت في يوم االمتحان لالميديست في شارع محي الدين ابو‬
‫العز اللي هو متفرع من شارع الدقي وضروري تروح بدري ساعة مثال عن االمتحان علشان قبل ما تدخل تمتحن ب يدولك‬
‫ورقة تعليمات تقراها عبارة عن انك لما تيجي تدخل االمتحان هتخلع الساعة بتاعتك وتنفض جيوبك من الفلوس والمناديل‬
‫والمحفظة واي ورق وتحط الحاجات دي كلها في دوالب خاص بك ب يدولك مفتاحه بحيث انك مش هتدخل غير بطولك كده‬
‫بس والمفتاح ولما تطلع بتاخد حاجاتك تاني متقلقش مش هيقلبوك ‪ ...‬وما تنساش تاخد جواز السفر معاك الن هو ده اثبات‬
‫الشخصية اللي هيعتمدوا من خالله دخولك لالمتحان ومش بيعترفوا بالبطاقة ‪ ...‬المهم هتدخل االمتحان هتقعد خمس دقائق‬
‫االول قدام الجهاز يديلك شوية معلومات انهم ‪ 07‬سؤال اختياري وانك لو متأكد من اجابتك هتعمل ‪next‬علشان تروح للسؤال‬
‫اللي بعده ولو مش متأكد من االجابة وشاكك في اجابة تانية او انك مش عارف االجابة اصال هتختار ‪ mark‬و بكده تكون‬
‫حددت السؤال ده بحيث انك لما هتمر عاالسئلة كلها هيظهرلك في االخر ‪ sheet‬فيه االرقام بتاعة ال‪ 07‬سؤال بحيث هتشتمل‬
‫علي رقم السؤال وتعرف اذا كنت حليته مباشرة وال عملتله ‪ mark‬وبالتالي هتضغط عليه تاني علشان تفكر فيه بهدوء كده‬
‫وترسالك علي جواب ‪ ....‬المهم انا بعد الخمس دقائق بدأت تظهر االسئلة وما شاء هللا اول خمس اسئلة عملتلهم ‪ mark‬و كنت‬
‫في حالة ذهول انا مذاكر كويس امال فيه ايه بقي ؟؟؟ قلت مش مهم وكملت ولما وصلت للسؤال ال‪ 07‬لقيت نفسي حليت ‪47‬‬
‫سؤال بس حل نهائي متأكد منه وحددت علي ‪ 57‬سؤال ‪ ...‬بدأت اركز فيهم وحليت وراجعت تاني عاالسئلة كلها وضغطت له‬
‫‪end‬و طبعا وانا باضغط ‪ end‬قلت اني مش هنجح الن ال‪ 57‬سؤال اللي كنت عملت لهم تحديد كنت متخوف منهم جدا‬
‫وخالل ‪ 17‬ثوان بعد ما تضغط ‪ end‬بتبدأ النتيجة تظهر وطبعا اول خانة حاولت ابص عليها كانت الخانة بتاعة النجاح‬
‫والسقوط وكانت المفاجأة بالنسبة لي الحمد هلل لقيت مكتوب ‪ pass‬وفعال متتصوروش السعادة اللي كنت فيها ألني حسيت ان‬
‫مجهودي في مذاكرة ‪ 47‬يوم ما ضاعش عالفاضي ‪ ...‬ولما شوفت تقسيمة االسئلة عرفت ليه انا فيه اسئلة كتيرة ضاعت مني‬
‫وكانت التقسيمة كاالتي‬
‫‪ 81‬سؤال عن الميديا والصبغات و‬
‫‪ 1‬اسئلة عن ال ‪ UTI‬و‬
‫‪ 81‬سؤال عن ال ‪ respiratory tract‬و ال ‪ CNS infection‬و‬
‫‪ 4‬اسئلة عن ال ‪ blood sepsis,asepsis‬و‬
‫‪ 4‬اسئلة عن ال ‪GIT‬و‬
‫‪ 84‬سؤال عن المناعة والفيروسات و‬
‫‪ 5‬اسئلة عن الفطريات والبارا‬
‫‪7‬‬
 ‫‪ ............‬واالسئلة ليست مباشرة ولكنها عاملة زي الفوازير يعني مثال من نوعية انه يقولك بكتريا جرام نيجاتيف ديبلو‬
‫كوكاي وبتسبب ال ‪ cystitis‬وبعدين مش يقولك ايه هي البكتريا ال ده بيسأل عن ال ‪virulence factor‬بتاع البكتريا دي ‪....‬‬
‫وهكذا في معظم االسئلة ‪ ..‬المهم انا نجحت ب ‪ % 51‬و درجة النجاح من ‪ % 25‬و الحمد هلل عديت اما عن نصيحتي للناس‬
‫انها تركز علي مذاكرة البكتريا وتركز فيها علي اسم الميديا اللي بتنمو عليها البكتريا وااللوان اللي بتديها مع الميديا دي‬
‫واالختبارات التفريقية بين البكتريا دي وانواع تانية من البكتريا ممكن تنمو معاها علي نفس الميديا والمرض اللي بتسببه‬
‫البكتريا ووسائل االمراضية لديها واعراض المرض والصبغات التمييزية لها ‪ ...‬تاني حاجة تركز عليها هي الفيروسات‬
‫والمناعة ونفس الكالم برضه اللي قلناه عن البكتريا وبعدين تركز علي المناعة ‪ ...‬و بكده ان شاء هللا اضمنلك انك هتنجح ‪..‬‬
‫اما بقي لو عايز تذاكر اكتر فهتيجي في البارا هتالقي انه فيه جدول فيه تلخيص للبروتوزا والديدان اللي في البارا يتضمن اسم‬
‫الطفيل والطور المعدي والمرض اللي بيسببه وطرق العدوي والعائل االساسي واالخر الوسيط ‪ ...‬واقرا مقدمة الفطريات‬
‫واتكل علي هللا وما تقلقش لو لقيت نفسك بتقابلك اسئلة صعبة عليك في البداية بس متخرجش عن تركيزك واوعي تفكر انك‬
‫هتعرف تسال حد جنبك الن كل واحد بيبقي في حاله غير انك هتالقي اللي جنبك بيمتحن برومترك صيدلة والتاني هتالقيه‬
‫اسنان والتالت طب والرابع اسنان واشعة وتخدير وغيره وكمان المكان فيه كاميرات مراقبة ‪ .............‬ربنا يعينكم جميعا‬
‫ويوفقكم‬

‫‪================================================================-‬‬
‫‪Ahmed Shabaan‬‬
‫بصوا يا جماعه ترتيب اهميه المذاكره بتكون كالتالى ‪ .‬بكتيريولوجى ومناعه وباراسيتولوجى ‪ .‬دول ان شاء هللا يضمنوا‬
‫النجاح ‪ .‬بعدها الفيرولوجى والميكولوجى علشان تبقى فى السيف سايد‬

‫‪Ahmed Shabaan‬‬
‫ذاكرو المناعه كويس قوى ‪ .‬و البارا الفروق بين االوفا واشكالها والسيست والتروفوزويت يتحفظ اشكالها ووصفها كويس ‪.‬‬
‫واخيراا بالتوفيق وانا تحت امركم فى اى استفسارات اخرى‬

‫اكثر االسئلة عن البكتيريا طبعا ركزوا كثير ع حكاية جرام بوزتيف و ال نيجتيف باسالي او كوكاي يعني يعطيك بكتريا و‬
‫يسألك كيف شكلها‬
‫الصبغات برضو مهمه تعرفي كل بكتريا ايش فيه صبغه مميزة لها زي مثال الكورنيبكتير دفتيريا تنصبغ ب ألبرت‬
‫االختبارات البيوكيميائية للتفريق بين البكتريا جاني يمكن ‪ 3‬او اربع اسئلة عنها واحد عن تختبار اليوريز نستخدمه للتفريق بين‬
‫ايش و ايش ؟ و جاني سؤال ايش الميديا اللي نستخدمها في اختبار الريد ميثيل ‪ ..‬جلوكوز و ال بروتين و ال شو ؟ جاني كمان‬
‫ايش االختبار اللي نستخدمه لل انتيروكوكس ؟ و جاني سؤال رابع كمان برضو عن الرد ميثيل بس ناسية ايش كان و هللا‪:/‬‬
‫كمان سؤال عن ايش لون الكولوني حق الفايبرو كوليرا ع بيئة )‪ )tcbs‬؟‬
‫ايش المضاد الحيوي للمايكوبالزما !؟‬
‫طبعا في اسئلة تشخيصية زي مثال يجيك سؤال انو طفل مريض و عندو ‪ sore throat‬و البكتيريا كانت جرام بوزيتف‬
‫كوكاي و بيتا هيمواليتك ايش حتكون البكتيريا ؟ اللي هيا ستريبت بايجون‬
‫في سؤال ناسيه ايش كان بس برضو تشخيصي عن النيسيريا و اعتقد كان السؤال ايش من التيستات نعملو مع ذي البكتيريا و‬
‫كانت الخيارات فيها انو اكسيديز بوزيتيف‬
‫برضو في سؤال عن الستاف اوريوس و صفاتها و سؤال عن ايش البكتيريا الي تعمل كلوت للبالزما و طبعا االجابه كانت‬
‫ستاف اوريوس‬
‫جاء سؤال مافهمته بس كان يسأل ايش البكتيريا اللي نزرعها ع كوكيد ميت و انو العينة من الستول عند درجة حرارة ‪27‬‬
‫ناسيه السؤال لالسف‬
‫اسئلة البكتريا و صبغاتها و اختباراتها التفريقية و تشخيصاتها كانت اكثر االسئلة‬

‫‪8‬‬
‫يجي بعدها الفيروسات صراحة الفيروسات انا ذاكرتها بشكل عام يعني ايش الفيروسات الي تصيب الجهاز التنفسي بشكل عام‬
‫ماذاكرت بالتفصيل كل فايروس‬
‫و جاتني اسئلة تشخيصيه يعني اعراض االصابه كذا و كذا ايش الفايروس بالذات فايروسات الجهاز التنفسي ذاكريها كويس‬
‫جاتني رسمة لفايروس الهريبس و ماادري ايش كان السؤال مافهمته‬
‫بعدها اسئلة المناعة جاني كم سؤال ف التكنيك نفسو يعني مثال عن خطوات االليزا‬
‫سؤال عن سيتوتوكسين تي سيل ايش وظيفتها ؟ سؤالين سهله عن االنتي بدي ايش اللي يروح من االم للبيبي!‬

‫اسئلة الباراسايت و الميكولوجي يمكن ‪ 5‬اسئلة بس و سهله و مباشره جدا‬

‫لو تعرف تجيب كتاب الميكرو والمناعه بتاع تانيه طب اسكندريه جميل جدامعرفتش يبقى عليك بالبدائل التاليه‬

‫‪9‬‬
 Microbiology Revision By Dr.AboRashad Email.Dr_alganzory@hotmail.comMob.0598092704
‫البكتريا‬
1-Bacteria are
a) Prokaryotic ‫أولية النواة‬
b) Eukaryotic ‫حقيقية النواة‬
c) Animal
d) Protozoa
e) Helminthes

2- One is not a Romano sky stain:

a) Fields stain
b) Gram stain
c) Geimsa stain
d) Leishman stain

3- Romanowsky stain consists of:

a) Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue
b) Eosin only
c) Methylene blue only
d) Indian Ink
‫الفرق‬ ‫بين‬ ‫الموجب لصبغة جرام‬ ‫السالب‬
4- Difference between gram Positive and gram negative bacteria is
a) Cell membrane
b) Cell wall
c) Nucleus
d) Cytoplasm
‫الصبغة االبتدائية االولية‬
5- Primary stain of gram stain:-
a) Crystal violet
b) Iodine
c) Safranine
d) Malachite green

‫الصبغة الثانوية الثانية‬

5- Secondary stain of gram stain:-
a) Crystal violet
b) Iodine
c) Safranine
d) Malachite green
‫كل‬ ‫التالي‬ ‫يستخدم‬ ‫صبغة جرام‬ ‫ماعدا‬
6- All the following used in gram stain except:
a) Malachite green
b) Neutral red
c) Methyl violet
d) Iodine
e) Ethyl alcohol

‫البكتريا السالبة‬ ‫لون‬

7- Gram negative bacteria color appear :
a) Dark purple
b) Pale to dark red
c) Orange
d) Blue

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 Microbiology Revision By Dr.AboRashad Email.Dr_alganzory@hotmail.comMob.0598092704
‫الموجبة‬
8- Gram Positive bacteria color appear :
a) Yellow
b) Pale to dark red
c) Orange
d) Blue or violot
e) Black
‫فى البكتريا الموجبة للجرام‬ ‫يوجد بھا‬
9- In gram positive bacteria there is.
a) Peptidoglycan and teicholic acid.
b) Has no peptidoglycan.
c) Has no teicholic acid.
d) Non of above
‫ﺗصبغ‬ ‫ماعدا‬
10-In the lab gram stain use with the following except.
a) Bacteria smear‫فلم بكتيرى‬
b) Pus cell smear. ‫صديدى‬
c) Urethral discharge.‫افرازات الحالب‬
d) C.S.F ‫السائل النخاعى‬
e) Water culture‫ مزرعة الماء‬.
‫قاعدى‬
11-In gram stain, which of these is used as a basic:
a) Methyl violet / Crystal violet
b) Safranin /Neutral red
c) Gram iodine
d) Acetone / alcohol
‫ﺳلسلة‬
12- On gram staining one of the following bacteria form chain
a) Streptococci
b) Staphylococci
c) Bacillus
d) Mycobacterium
e) Diplococci
‫تترتب‬ ‫مجموعات‬
13- Gram +ve cocci arranged in groups (clusters):
a) Streptococci
b) Staphylococci
c) Cocci
d) spiral
‫يفحص‬
14-Which of the following microscope would you use to examine a smear of bacteria stained
by gram stain:-
a) Electron microscope
b) Dark field microscope
c) Fluorescent microscope
d) Bright field microscope
‫البكتريا السالبة‬ ‫جدار‬ ‫يتميز‬ ‫بوجود‬
15-Gram negative bacterial cell wall characterized by the presence of
a) Large amount of Glucose.
b) Large amount of glycogen
c) Large amount of Cellulose
d) Toxic lippolysaccharide molecules.

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 Microbiology Revision By Dr.AboRashad Email.Dr_alganzory@hotmail.comMob.0598092704

‫صبغة زيل نيلسن‬ ‫ﺗستخدم في صبغ‬

16- Ziel nelson stains use in?
a) Bacillus.sp
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) H.influnza.
d) Non of above

17- Mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid-fast because:-

a) It is easily stained by gram stain
b) Once stained, it can not be remove by acid
c) It is easily decolorizes after staining.
d) It is stained by an alkaline stain
e) None of the above
f) All of the above

‫الكل‬ ‫يستخدم‬ ‫فى صبغة الزيل نيلسون‬ ‫ماعدا‬

18- All are use in Zeilh Nelson stain except.
a) Carbon Fuchcin.
b) Acid alcohol.
c) Crystal violet.
d) Malachite green

‫صبغة البرت‬
19- Albert's stain use with which of the organism.
a) E.coli.
b) H. influenza.
c) C.tetani.
d) Corynebacterium diphtheria.

20-Stain required to demonstrate bacterial capsules

a) Gram stain
b) Giemsa stain
c) Leishman stain
d) India Ink stain
‫مناﺳب‬ ‫عد‬
21- Which of the following culture media is suitable for semi quantitative bacterial
count in urine samples :-‫عينة البول‬
a) MaCconkey agar
b) Blood agar
c) XLD medium
d) Mannitol salt agar
e) CLED medium
‫مزرعة البول‬
22- CLED agar use in urine culture because it?
a) It is transport media. ‫ميديا ناقلة‬
b) It is basic media. ‫ميديا أﺳاﺳية‬
c) Help in colonies count and prevent swarming of proteus . ‫ﺗساعد في عد المستعمرات وﺗمنع نمو البر وﺗيس‬
d) All above.

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 Microbiology Revision By Dr.AboRashad Email.Dr_alganzory@hotmail.comMob.0598092704
‫لعزل‬
23-Thayer-martin media is the choice for the isolation of the following organism:
a) Pseudomonas aeroginosa
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Nisseria gonorrhoea

24-Media use for tuberculosis:

a) Lewis Jensen media
b) Nutrient agar
c) Urease broth
d) Sabarous

25- Bordet gengou medium is best for isolation of :

a) Bordetella retusis
b) Moraxella catarrhalis
c) Haemophilus influenzae
d) S.pyogenes
‫ﺗنمو‬ ‫وجود‬ ‫أو عدم وجود‬
26- Bacteria that can grow in present or absent of O2 is called?
a) Facultative anaerobic.‫غير ھوائية اختيارية‬
b) Strict anaerobic ‫غير ھوائية إجبارية‬
c) Anaerobic. ‫غير ھوائية‬
d) None of above. ‫ليس مما ﺳبق‬

‫درجة الحرارة المثلى‬ ‫لنمو‬ ‫البكتريا‬

27- Optimum temperature for growth of bacteria is?
a) 50C.
b) 60C.
c) 37C.
d) None of above.

‫المسبب‬ ‫حمى‬
28- Cause of Q fever is?
a) Coxiella burnet.
b) Borrella.
c) Treponema.
d) Anopheles
‫الحمى الروماﺗيزمية‬
29- Indicative for rheumatic fever is?
a) CRP.
b) RF.
c) ASO.
d) None of above.

‫الغرغرينا‬
30- Gas gangrene cause by.
a) Clostridium. perfringers.
b) Clo. Tetani.
c) Clo. Botulism.
d) None of above.

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‫السعال الديكى‬
31- Whooping cough cause by.
a) Yersinia spp.
b) Strepto. Pneumonia.
c) Bordetella pertuss.
d) Staph. aureus.

‫عدوى فى قناة مجرى البول‬

32- In UTI the following is present:
a) Glucose.
b) Acetone.
c) Leukocyte. ‫( كرات الدم البيضاء‬WBCs)
d) Non of above

‫طفل‬ ‫شخص ب‬ ‫حمى قرمزية‬

33- A child diagnosis show scarlet fever the cause is:
a) Streptococcus Pyogenes
b) Staphylococci aureus
c) Bacillus anthracis
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

‫بكتريا‬ ‫تترتب‬ ‫حروف صينية‬

34- Bacteria arranged in Chinese litters:
a) Corynebacteria Diphtheria
b) Bacillus anthraces
c) Bacillu anthrax
d) E.coli
‫ﺗعريف‬ ‫العنقودية‬ ‫السبحية‬
35- Which test identifying staph from strepto it is.
a) Catalase.
b) Coagulase.
c) Oxidase.
d) Urease

‫اختبار‬ ‫لتعريف‬
36-Test for Identifying ◌Strepto
ٍ pneumonia is?
a) Catalase.
b) Oxidase.
c) Optichine.
d) None of the above.

‫االختبار التاكيدى‬ ‫النيومونيا‬

37- Confirmatory test of streptococcus pneumonia:
a) Catalase
b) Optochine disc
c) Coagulase
d) Bile solubility
e) Bacitracin

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‫المزرعة‬ ‫ﺗحفظ فى‬ ‫بعد الزراعة‬
38- Culture media kept in the following after plating.
a) Hot oven. ‫الفرن‬
b) Incubator. ‫الحضان‬
c) None of above.
d) All above.
‫الخلية البكتيرية‬ ‫ﺗحتوى‬ ‫ماعدا‬
39-Bacterial cell contain all the following except:
a) Ribosome
b) Plasmid
c) Mitochondria
d) Cell membrane
e) Pilli
‫اكتشاف‬ ‫التحلل‬
40- Media for detection of hemolysis is.
a) Blood agar.
b) Neutral agar.
c) MaCconky.
d) All above.
‫ﺗنتج‬ ‫اليورياز‬
41- Most common bacteria that produce urease are.
a) Proteus.
b) Pseudomonas.
c) E.coli.
d) None of above.

42- One is always oxidase +ve

a) Haemophilus Influenza
b) Pseudomonas aurogenase and Neisseria
c) E.coli
d) Yersinia
‫تعريف‬
43- Test help in Identification of Pseudomonas and Neisseria
a) Citrate test
b) Coagulase
c) Indole test
d) DNAse
e) Oxidase

‫مادة‬ ‫تستخدم‬ ‫فى تفاعل الكاتليز‬

44- Substance used in catalase reaction:
a) H2O2
b) CO2
c) H2O
d) HCO3
‫براز يشبه ماء األرز‬ ‫مخاط‬
45- Rice watery stool with mucous fakes occur in infectious with
a) Corynebacteria Diphtheria
b) Bacillus anthraces
c) Bacillu anthrax
d) E.coli
e) Vibro cholera

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‫قوة وضراوة‬
46- The Invasiveness of streptococcus pneumonia is due to the production of:-
a) Haemolsins
b) Endotoxins
c) Extotoxins
d) Polysaccharide Capsule
‫الطور‬ ‫ﺗنمو‬ ‫و ﺗتضاعف‬ ‫يسمى‬
47- Stage in which bacteria grow and multiply called
a) Lag phase
b) Log phase
c) Stationary phase
d) Decline phase
‫ﺗتكيف وﺗتالءم‬ ‫الوﺳط الغذائي‬
48- Stage in which bacteria make adaptation in media called
a) Lag phase
b) Log phase
c) Stationary phase
d) Decline phase

‫الكالميديا‬
49-Chlamydia cause
a) Trachoma
b) Neonatal ophthalmic
c) A&B
d) Diarrhea

‫مرض القطط‬ ‫يشخص ب‬

50- Toxoplasmosis is diagnoses by.
a) Serological test.
b) Blood film examination.
c) X-ray.
d) Skin scraping.

‫االنسان‬ ‫ليس‬ ‫العائل النھائى‬

51- Human is not definitive host
a) Entamoeba histolitica
b) Toxoplasma Gondii
c) Trypanosoma cruzi
d) E.coli
e) Giardia lamblia

‫العائل النھائي‬ ‫حيوان‬

52- The definitive host is an animal:
a) Entamoeba histolatica
b) Toxoplasma Gondii
c) Tainia saginata
d) E.coli
e) Giardia lamblia

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‫طفيل‬ ‫عدوى مخية مميتة‬
53- Parasite can cause fetal cerebral infection:
a) Taenia
b) Toxoplasma gondii
c) Trypanosoma
d) Schistosoma

‫بروتوزوا غير متحركة‬

54- Non motile protozoa:
a) Toxoplasma gondii or Plasmodium malaria
b) Trypanosoma cruzi
c) Giardia lamblia
d) Trichomonas vaginalis
‫طفيل داخلى‬
55- One of these organism multiply intracellular parasite:
a) Gardia lamblia
b) Entameba histolytica
c) E. coli
d) Tryponosoma Cruzi
e) Toxoplasma gondii

56-The intermediate host of toxoplasmosis is :-

a) Dog
b) Cat
c) Mouse
d) Human
e) None
‫يكتسب‬
57-Man may acquire toxoplasmosis from:-
a) Mice
b) Cats
c) Dogs
d) Pigs
‫الليشمانيا ب‬ ‫ﺗصبغ‬
58- Leishmania Stained by:
a) Fields stain
b) Geimsa stain
c) A or B
d) Leishman stain
e) Gram stain

‫الليشمانيا‬ ‫تنتقل بواسطة‬

59- Cutaneous leishmaniasis transmitted by:
a) Phlebotomus sand fly ‫دودة الرمل‬
b) Female anopheles mosquito
c) Male anopheline mosquito
d) Tse tse fly

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60- Oriental sore disease caused by
a) Trypanosome sp.
b) Plasmodium malaria
c) Leishmania donovani
d) Leishmania tropica*

61-Kala azar and black fever (Visceral leishmaniasis) caused by

a) Trypanosome sp.
b) Plasmodium malaria
c) Leishmania donovani
d) Leishmania tropica

‫الطور المعدى‬
62-Infective stage in leishmania :-
a) Cyst
b) Trophozoit
c) Larva
d) Worm

‫عدوى الليشمانيا‬ ‫تنتقل بواسطة‬

63- Leshmania infection transmitted by:
a) Male anopheles mosquito
b) Female anopheles mosquito
c) Sand fly
d) Tsetse fly

‫اكتشاف‬ ‫طفيل المال ريا‬

64- Detection of malaria parasite is by:
a) Thick blood film
b) Leishman stain
c) Gram stain
d) Geimsa stain

‫عدوى المال ريا‬ ‫تنتقل بواسطة‬

65- Malaria infection transmitted by:
e) Male anopheles mosquito
f) Female anopheles mosquito
g) Sand fly
h) Tsetse fly

66-Use Test VDRL For

a) Syphilis (T.pallidium)
b) Streptococci
c) Mycobacterium
d) E.coli
‫الزھرى‬
67- Syphilis causes
a) T. palidium
b) Gonorrhea
c) Staph.auru
d) Bacillus anthrax

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‫الزھري‬
68- Which of the following is use to determine syphilis.
a) VDRL.
b) ASO.
c) RF.
d) CRP.

‫الكابسولة‬
69-Capsule is
a) Polysaccharide ‫عديد السكريات‬
b) Lipid ‫دھن‬
c) Protein ‫بروﺗين‬
d) Cholesterol ‫كوليستيرول‬

‫اليعقم‬ ‫الفرن الحار‬

70-Which of the following stuff can not be sterilized in hot oven
a) Glass or aluminum Petri dishes
b) Glass tubes
c) Glass flask and cylinders
d) Metal needles and glass pipettes
e) Culture media
‫التعقيم‬ ‫فى الفرن الجاف‬ ‫عند‬
71- The sterilization in hot air oven performed at:
a) 121 c° for 15-30 min.
b) 160 c° for 45-60 min.
c) 121 c° for 10 min.
d) 160 c° for 10 min.

‫التعقيم‬ ‫عند‬
72- The sterilization in autoclave performed at:
a) 121 c° for 15-30 min.
b) 160 c° for 45-60 min.
c) 121 c° for 10 min.
d) 160 c° for 10 min.

‫ﺗسبب مرض لإلنسان‬

73- Bacteria can cause pathogenesis to human by:
a) Capsule
b) Secret enzymes
c) Endogenous toxins
d) Exogenous toxins
e) All of the above
‫وظيفة‬ ‫الزائدة‬
74- Function of pili of the bacteria:
a) Attachment to the host tissue ‫االلتصاق بالعائل‬
b) Movement ‫الحركة‬
c) Reproduction (multiplication) ‫التكاثر‬
d) Engulf of food ‫ابتالع الطعام‬
e) All of the above ‫كل ماﺳبق‬

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‫العينة من حول فتحة الشرج‬ ‫تشخص‬

75- Perianal specimen diagnose
a) Trichomonas vaginalis
b) Tainia saginata
c) Entrobius vermicularis
d) Enta.histolytica

‫الطور المعدى‬ ‫الدودة الدبوﺳية‬

76- Infective stage of Entrobius vermicularis is:
a) Larva
b) Cercaria
c) Egg
d) Cyst
e) Metacercaria

‫العدوى الذاﺗية‬
77- Autoinfection of human can caused in case of:
a) Entrobius vermicularis
b) Taenia Sp.
c) Anclystoma Dudenal
d) Ascaris Lumbercoidis

‫الفالريا‬
78- Blood of Microfilaria infection diagnosis with:
a) Wuchereia bancofti
b) Cercaria
c) Rhapditoform larva
d) Oocyst

79- Specimen suitable for microfilaria

a) Tissue
b) Blood
c) Fluid
d) Urine
e) ALL

‫المسبب‬ ‫الطفيل‬ ‫للبلھارسيا عند المصريين‬

80- The causative parasite of Egyptian bilharisiasis
a) Trichomonas vaginalis
b) Schitosoma haematobium
c) Schitosoma japonicum
d) Schitosoma mansoni

‫بلھارسيا المجارى البولية‬

81- Shistosoma hematobium diagnosis:
a) Egg in urine with terminal spine
b) Egg in Stool
c) Larva
d) Cyst

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‫ظھورالدم فى بول المصريين‬ ‫بسبب‬
82- Egyptian haematuria is caused by:-
a) Schitosoma japonicum
b) Schitosoma haematobium
c) Schitosoma mansoni
‫دودة‬
83- The worm that causes blood in urine?
a) Ascaris
b) Fasciola
a) Schistosoma haematobium
d) Tainia saginata

‫الطور التشخيصى‬ ‫االسكارس‬

84- Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis:
a) Finding of a typical fertilized egg in stool
b) Finding cyst in stool
c) Finding larva in Stool
d) Finding segment in Stool

‫الطور المعدى‬ ‫االسكارس‬

85-Infectivec stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis:
a) Ova
b) Cyst
c) Larva
d) Segment

‫طفيل‬ ‫يوجد‬ ‫االفرازات المھبلية‬

86- Parasite can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge:
a) Entamobia histolytica
b) Trichomonas Vaginalis
c) Leshmania
d) Schistosoma spp.

87-Protozoa in sexual reproduction

a) Trichomonas vaginalis
b) Tainia saginata
c) Echioccus granulosus
d) Enta.histolytica
‫يشخص بوجود‬
88- Strongyloids stercoralis diagnostic by finding
a) Egg in stool
b) Cyst in stool
c) larva in stool
d) Egg in Urine

‫صبغة االيودين‬
89- Iodine stains of Entamoeba cyst staining:
a) Chromatoidal bars
b) Cell wall
c) Nuclei
d) Cytoplasm
e) ALL

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90- A specific test for staphylococcus aureus is

a) Catalase test
b) Coagulase test
c) Optochin sensitivity test
d) Bacitracin sensitivity test
e) CAMP test
‫ميكروسكوب ذو حقل مظلم‬
91- Bacteria that need dark field microscope to detected
a) T.pallidium
b) Klebsiella
c) Streptocoocus pyogenes
d) Colistridia sp

92-Autoclave sterilize in temp:

a) ْ
121◌c-20min
b) 125-35min
c) 115-25min
d) 160c-45-60 min
‫ھوائية إجبارية‬
93-Strict aerobe bacteria
a) Mycobacterium
b) Klebsiella
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Colistridia sp.

94-Citrate test detect:

a) Mycobacterium
b) Klebsiella
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Colistridium sp

95-Capsulated bacteria
a) Mycobacterium
b) Klebsiella
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Colistridium sp

96- Growth of vibrio cholerae on TCBS medium produces colonies

a) Yellow colonies
b) Blue colonies
c) Green colonies
d) White colonies
e) Red colonies
‫دم بالبراز‬
97- Organism cause bloody stool:
a) Shigella sp.
b) E.coli
c) Salmonella
d) Cambylobacter
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‫تخمر الالكتوز‬
98-Media use for differentiate between L.F and N.L.F:
a) MacConkey agar
b) Chocolate
c) Blood agar
d) XLD
e) TCBS

99- Bacteriological media can be sterilized in:-

a) Oven
b) Filtration
c) Autoclave
d) Bunsen burner

100- All of the following are true about agar except:-

a) agar is inert(Non nutritive)
b) Nutritious
c) Solidity at 42c
d) Melts at 100c

101- The IMVIC Reaction of E. coli is

a) ++--
b) --++
c) +++-
d) -- + --

102- On DCA and maCconkey agar the salmonella/shigella give small

colonies, which colour of the following, appear
a) Black
b) pink
c) Brown
d) Pale yellow
e) Yellow-brown

103-In manual white blood cell count using haemocytometer the

dilution used is:
a) Normal saline
b) Sodium chloride
c) Glacial acetic acid
d) Water

104-Which of the following are sterilized in the oven:-

a) Media
b) Sand
c) Water
d) Blood
e) All of the above
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105-A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine:

a) Entrobius.vermicularis
b) Anchylostoma. Duodenale
c) Ascaris lumbricoides
d) T.saginata

106- Specimens from a polio victim for culture can be best made on
a) Blood
b) Urine
c) Feces
d) CSF
e) Throat / Nasal washing

107- Beta hemolytic is enhanced when group B streptococci are

streaked at an angle in blood agar plate with:-
a) Streptococci
b) Staph aureus
c) micrococcus
d) Streptococcus epiedermidis
e) Corynebacterim diphteriae

108- To obtain an isotonic media, sodium chloride content should be:-

a) 0.58 g %
b) 0.085 g%
c) 8.5 g%
d) 6.5 g%
e) 0.50 g%

109- Group B beta-hemolytic streptococci are differentiated by other

streptococcus groups by using:-
a) Optochine
b) CAMP
c) Niacin test
d) Catalase test.
e) Bacitracin sensitivity disc

110- Most of pathogenic strains of streptococcus belongs to group :-

a) Viridans
b) Beta-hemolytic
c) Alpha-hemolytic (pneumonia)
d) Group d
e) Micrococcaciae
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111- The trophozoite , which contains red blood cells in the

cytoplasm , brings to this parasite:-
a) Entamoeba histolytica
b) Entamoeba gingivalis
c) Entamoeba coli
d) Iodamoeba butschlii
e) None of the above

112- On EMB, the colour of the colonies of shigella – salmonella is:-

a) Black
b) Green
c) Pink
d) Yellow
e) Colorless

113- Micro-organisms that grow at 60 c are classified as:-

a) Psychophysics
b) Mesosphilic
c) Hemophilic
d) Thermophilic
e) Saprophilic

114- A diagnostic finding for giardia lambilia in stool:-

a) Cyst in stool
b) Cyst and trophozoite in stool
c) Characteristic ova
d) Trophozoite in stool
e) All of the above

115- The concentration of agar in the culture medium is:-

a) 10 – 11 %
b) 20 %
c) 50 %
d) 60 %
e) 1-2 %

116- Best for identification of parasite if you can not see it in stool
(negative in stool)
a) Concentration technique
b) Flotation technique
c) Wet mount technique
d) Kato technique

117- Streptococcus pneumonia are :

a) Beta hemolytic
b) alpha hemolytic
c) No hemolytic
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‫ممرضة‬
118- Some organisms are to said to be pathogenic if they are
containing the following features:-
a) Coagulase
b) Catalase
c) Sugar
d) Antibodies

119- Organism soluble the bile:-

a) Staph.aureus
b) Streptococci
c) Pneumococci (streptococcus pneumonia)
d) Haemophilous influenzae

120- Organism that exhibits satellitism along with staph aureus:-

a) Haemophilus influenzae
b) Shigella sp.
c) Clostiridium sp.
d) S.pneumoniae

121- To differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea & nisseria

meningitides
a) dextrose + lactose
b) dextrose + maltose
c) Glucose + Maltose
d) dextrose + Fructose

122- which of the following organisms is an anaerobic bacterium:-

a) Clostiridium spp.
b) Haemophilus
c) E.coli
d) Yersinia enterocolitica

123- What practical Cardiolipin is applicable in laboratory work?

a) FTA
b) VDRL&RPR
c) RPR only
d) VDRL only

124- Vi Ag is seen in:-

a) Capsule
b) Pili
c) Spore
d) Flagella
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125- Purine associated with

a) Adenine
b) Guanine
c) Uric acid
d) RNA

126- To Clean the lenses of microscope we used

a) Water
b) Ethyl alcohol
c) Xylene
d) Chloroform
e) HCL

127- The determination of ASO titer is used in the laboratory

diagnosis of:-
a) Toxic shock syndrome
b) Scarlet fever
c) Streptococcal pharyngitis and cellulitis
d) Rheumatic fever

128-Which of the following Enlarges RBCs

a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Plasmodium malariae
c) Plasmodium falciprum
d) All of the above

129-Which of the following neither lays eggs nor deposits larvae in

the intestinal canal:-
a) Hookworms
b) Pinworm (Entrobius vermicularis)
c) Trichinella spiralis
d) Trichuris trichura

130-Identified by finding mainly the Rhabditiform larvae in in fresh

stool:-
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Entrobius vermicularis
c) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) Trichinella spiralis

131-The resolution of the bright field microscope is:-

a) 2.0 um
b) 0.2 um
c) 0.02um
d) 0.002um
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132-When using a 10 x eye piece and a 10 x objective of a bright field

microscope, the total magnification will be:-
a) 10
b) 100
c) 1000
d) 10000

133-For blood culture the best anticoagulant is

a) Citrate
b) Oxalate
c) Sodium polyanesthol sulphonate(SPS)
d) Heparin
e) EDITA

134-Hydated disease caused by

a) Trichomonas vaginalis
b) Tainia saginata
c) Echioccus granulosus

135-- Ancylostoma duodenalis diagnostic stage is

a) Embryonated egg
b) Cyst
c) Filariform larva
d) Trophozoit

136- Ancylostoma duodenalis Infective stage stage is

a) Embryonated egg
b) Cyst
c) Filariform larva
d) Trophozoit

137- Preservation of Urine Sample used

a) Acetic acid
b) Boric acid
c) Phenol
d) Formalin

138- The antibiotic disc which differentiate between group A

streptococci and other groups is?
a) Neomycin
b) Tetracycline
c) Bacitracin
d) CAMP
e) Optichine
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‫الدودة القزمية‬
139- The dwarf worm is?
a) Schistosoma sp.
b) Tenia saginata
c) H.nana
d) Tainia saginata

140- When focusing a stained smear under oil immersion field the
magnification is?
a) 10
b) 40
c) 100
d) 15

141- A standard micro plates in ELISA test has?

a) 98 wells
b) 94 wells
c) 96 wells
d) 48 wells

142- The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in the?

a) Buffer
b) Micro plate
c) Conjugate

143- The label in ELISA tests is?

a) Radio active substance
b) Antibody
c) Enzyme
d) Buffer
e)
‫أفضل تعقيم‬ (‫للوسط الغذائي )الميديا‬
144- Best sterilization of Nutrient media done by:
a) Hot air oven
b) Autoclaving
c) Filtration
d) Radiation

H ‫االنتيجين‬
145- H Ag present in:
a) Pilli
b) Capsule
c) Flagella
d) Cell membrane
 ‫ا‪ٚ‬ال الذَ اعتزاسي ال ث‪ٛ‬سشبد الًٔ ٔششت اٌّزوشات ‪ٚ‬راٌه العجبة ‪:‬‬

‫‪-‬ا‪ٚ‬ال ٌبث‪ ٛ‬سشبد احٕب ِغٍٍّٓ ‪ٚ‬اخ‪ٛ‬اْ فً هللا لجً ِباعشفه ‪ٌٚ‬ىٓ أب‬ ‫‪1‬‬
‫الحظت أه ثذٌت فً االعتغالي ِع اٌعٍُ أ‪ ٛ‬االعئٍٗ اتغٍشت ‪ٚ‬أت تتذعً‬
‫ٌٍجٍّع أه عبسف االعئٍٗ ٌٍٗ وزا ً٘ حت اٌّبي طغى عٍى ِجبدئه ٌبث‪ٛ‬‬
‫ّيْ ‪ٚ‬تعشف هللا ِبظٍٕت أه تى‪ ْٛ‬ثزااالعٍ‪ٛ‬ة اثذا ‪.‬‬
‫سشبد أت أغبْ دي‬
‫‪-‬حبٍٔب ‪ٚ‬هللا اٌعظٍُ ِبٔششت اٌّزوشات اال ثعذ ِبعبٌت اوخش ِٓ شٍخ‬ ‫‪2‬‬
‫‪ ُِٕٙٚ‬اٌشٍخ ِحّذ إٌجًٍّ ‪ٚ‬اٌىً ٌعشفٗ ‪ٚ‬افت‪ ًٔٛ‬اْ ٘زا اعتغالي‬
‫ٌبث‪ ٛ‬سشبد ‪ٚ‬ال ٌج‪ٛ‬ص ٌه تغ‪ٛ‬ي ثبٌطالة وزا ارا وٕت تتعت اٌطٍجٗ ٌ‪ُٙ‬‬
‫عٍٕٓ ‪ٌ ُ٘ٚ‬تعج‪ٚ ْٛ‬اوخشُ٘ حبٌتٗ اٌّبدٌٗ ِبتغبعذٖ فٍٓ ِجذاء‬
‫االٔغبٍٔٗ عٕذن ‪.‬‬
‫‪-‬ارا ٌبث‪ ٛ‬سشبد ثتم‪ٛ‬ي ِ‪ ِٓ ٛ‬حمً أشش اٌّزوشات حك أً عبٌت لجً‬ ‫‪3‬‬
‫ِبع‪ٛ‬ي را االجشاء ‪ٚ‬غٍش وزا تذسي اْ اٌتذسٌظ ا‪ ٚ‬اٌّجّ‪ٛ‬عبت اًٌٍ‬
‫تغ‪ٌٙٛ‬ب غٍش ٔظبٍِٗ ِٕ‪ٙ‬ب أه اعتغٍٍت ِ‪ٓٙ‬تن ‪ٚ‬اعتغٍٍت اٌىٍٍٗ اًٌٍ‬
‫أت تذسط فٍ‪ٙ‬ب ‪.‬‬
‫‪ٌ-‬بث‪ ٛ‬سشبد دٌٕٕب االعالًِ حخٕب عٍى اٌتعٍُ ‪ٚ‬حج وً ِغٍُ اْ ٌٕفع‬ ‫‪4‬‬
‫غٍشٖ ثبٌعٍُ اًٌري تعٍّٗ‪.‬‬
‫‪-‬اتّٕى ٌبث‪ ٛ‬سشبد أً اعّع اخجبس صٌٕٗ عٕه لجً ِباتبخز االجشاء‬ ‫‪5‬‬
‫اٌخبًٔ ‪ٚ‬أب ِبثً الطع سصله ‪ٌٚ‬ىٓ خف عٍى اٌطٍجٗ ش‪ٛ‬ي ‪ٚ‬خز ِٕ‪ُٙ‬‬
‫ِجٍغ سِضي ِ‪ٚ 1500 ٛ‬الصَ ٌى‪ِ ٛٔٛ‬جّ‪ٛ‬عبت ٌعًٕ ٌ‪ ٛ‬وبْ ٌىً طبٌت ‪500‬‬
‫لاير ِعم‪ ٌٗٛ‬اِب ‪ 1500‬حشاَ ‪ٚ‬هللا ال تفىش ثٕفغه ‪ٚ‬جًٕ اٌّبي ‪ٚ‬ال تٕغً‬
‫أه تم‪ٛ‬ي أً ٍِّض ثششحً ‪ٚ‬ارا هللا وبتت ٌه سصق ثتبخزٖ‪.‬‬
‫‪-‬اخ‪ٛ‬أً ايطالة اعبي هللا اْ ٌٕفعىُ ث‪ٙ‬بٌّزوشات اًٌٍ وٍٓ ٌتىٍُ عٕ‪ٙ‬ب‬ ‫‪6‬‬
‫‪ٌٚ‬ىٓ ‪ٚ‬هللا اٌعظٍُ االختجبس ا‪ٚ‬ي لجً ِبتتغٍش االعئٍٗ ٌجً ِٕ‪ٙ‬ب اِب‬
‫اٌالْ صذل‪ٚ ًٔٚٚٚٚٚٚٚٚٚٚٚٛ‬هللا ِبفً شً ِجبشش ادسع‪ٚ ٛ‬اتعج‪ ٛ‬اٌذع‪ٖٛ‬‬
‫ٌجً ٌ‪ٙ‬ب ف‪ٚ ُٙ‬تشوٍض ِ‪ ٛ‬خجط ٌضق صي ِباعّع عٓ اٌىخٍش ٌم‪ٛ‬ي ًٌ‬
‫ٌ‪ ٍِٓٛ‬اراوش ٌعًٕ ِٓ اٌّعم‪ٛ‬ي اْ حصبد حالث عٕ‪ٛ‬ات ‪ٔٚ‬ص ٌجً ثٍ‪ٍِٓٛ‬‬
‫ِزاوشٖ فىش‪ ٚ‬ثبٌّٕطك ‪.‬‬
‫‪-‬تفبئٍ‪ ٛ‬ثبٌخٍش تجذ‪ ٖٚٚ‬اخ‪ٛ‬وُ اٌجشح اٌعٍّك ‪.‬‬ ‫‪7‬‬

‫‪Deep_wound_2010@hotmail.com‬‬
1- Solidifying agent for media is, B) 45c.
A) agar. C) 60C.
B) wax. D) 75C
C) starch.
D) non of above. 10- Anticoagulant that use in blood culture is?
A) fluoride.
2- Color of gram stain is. B) EDTA.
A)brown C) citrate.
B) red. D) Sodium polyanthol sulphat(SPS)
C) green.
D) black. 11- Which test help in identifying staph from
strepto it is.
3- Those are use In gram stain except. A) catalyase(H2O2)
A) crystal violet. B) coagulase.
B) malachite green. C) oxidase.
D) safranine. D) all above
E) non of above
12- Use to protect biohazard is?
4- Temperature for autoclave is. A) tube.
A) 121c for 30 min. B) Gloves.
B) 121C for 60min. C) syringe.
C) 131C for 20 min. D) non of above.
D) non of above.
13- Ziel nelson stain use in?
5- Microscope use in condition gram stain is. A) bacillus.
A) Bright field microscope. B) mycobacterium.
B) electronic microscope. C) H.influnza.
C) dark field microscope. D) non of above.
D) non of the above.
14- Bacteria that can grow in present or absent
6- Thayer martin medium is the media of choice of O2 is called?
for isolation of . A) facultative anaerobic.
A) E.coli. B) strict anaerobic.
B) neisseria. C) anaerobic.
C) bacillus. D) non of above.
D) vibrio.
15- Optimum temperature for growth of bacteria
7- Bacteria that has no flagella classified as ? is?
A) atrichon. A) 50C.
B) monotrichons. B) 60C.
C) keprotrichons. C) 37C.
D) peritrichons. D) non of above.

8- CLED agar use in urine culture because it? 16- Salmonella in the coming medium it gives?
A) it is transport media. A) on maccokey pink colonies.
B) it is basic media. B) XLD red black colonies.
C) Help in colonies count and prevent swarming C) SS pink colonies black center.
of proteus D) all are true
D) all above.
17- Satellite phenomenon seen in ?
9-Agar solidified at? A) influenza and staph. aureus.
A) 100C. B) influenza and strepto.
C) influenza and vibrio. D) Malachite green.
D) non of the above.
26- Color of gram negative bacteria is.
18- All are true about salmonella except. A) red.
A) somatic. B) blue.
B) oxidase positive. C) violet.
C) H2S produce. D) green.
D) produce acid and gas
27- Most common bacteria that produces urease
19- Quellung test is positive with the coming is.
except. A) proteus.
A) strepto pneumonia. B) pseudomonas.
B) H. influenza. C) E.coli.
C) klebsiella. D) non of above.
D) corynebacteria diphtheria.
28- Albert's stain use with which of the
20- In significance bacteria cfu/ml is. organism.
A) > 100. A) E.coli.
B) >1000. B) H. influenza.
C) >10000. C) C.tetani.
D) 100000. D) Corynebacterium diphtheria.

21- Agar use to solidify the medium in 29- Proteus mirabilis and proteus vulgaris all are
concentration of. true except:
A) 1- 2 %. A) produce H2S.
B) 3%. B) Non lactose ferment.
C) 2 – 4%. C) urease positive.
D) non of above. D) indole positive.

22-Which of the following is lactose ferment. 30- Gram stain smear see under:
A) klebsiella. A) Dark field microscope.
B) proteus. B) Bright field microscope.
C) shigella. C) Fluorescence microscope.
D) pseudomonas D) Electron microscope.

23- Culture media kept in the following after 31- Smear stain with fluorescence exam with:
plating. A) Bright field microscope.
A) hot oven. B) Fluorescence microscope.
B) incubator. C) Dark field microscope.
C) non of above. D) Electron microscope.
D) all above
32- An example for negative stain is:
24- Media for detection of hemolysis is. A) gram stain.
A) blood agar. B) Alberts stain.
B) neutral agar. C) methyl blue.
C) macconky. D) nigrocine stain.
D) all above
33- All of the following are non lactose ferment
25- All are use in Zeilh Nelson stain except. except:
A) Carbon Fuchcin. A) E.coli.
B) Acid alcohol. B) shigella.
C) Methyl blue. C) proteus.
D) salmonella. C) produce H2S.
D) man is reservoir and carrier host.
34- To differentiate between staph aureus and E) oxidase positive.
other staph spp:
A) catalyase test. 42- The primary stain of gram stain is.
B) Oxidase test. A) crystal violet.
C) Coagulase test(Clumping) B) safranine.
D) Dnase test. C) iodine.
D) eosin.
35- One of the following is an example for
enrichment media: 43-Mycobacterium named acid fast because?
A) Blood agar. A) stain easily.
B) CLED. B) once stained not decolorize by acid.
C) Nutrient agar. C) because of it is shape.
D) Selenite broth. D) non of above.

36- One of the following is an example for enrich 44- Infections may be caused by microorganisms
media: entering the body through:
A) Blood agar. A- Skin & mouth
B) N.A. B- Eyes
C) Selenite broth. C- Respiratory tract
D) Macconky. D- All of them

37- One of the following is an example for 45- Decontaminate culture s by autoclaving at
enrichment media: A- 121 C for 20 min
A) Blood agar. B- boiling water for 20 min
B) N.A. C- 100 C for 30 min
C) Selenite broth. D- non of these
D) Macconky.
46-Organisms can be picked up on the hands
38-All of the following affect gram stain except. from the
A) smear from old media. A- Benches and equipment
B) prolong decolorization. B- Contaminated splashes
C) staing smear stay for long time. C- Contaminated spills
D) All of above. D- All of them

39- The following are use in gram stain except. 47- Pipettes soaked after use for at least 1h in
A) iodine. A- 2500 ppm chlorine
B) crystal violet. B- 1000 ppm chlorine
C) safranine. C- 1 % w/v virkon
D) malachite green. D- boiling water for 20 min

40- All of the following belong to 48- Infected small airborne droplets into the
enterobacteracae except. atmosphere cause infection through
A) E.coli. A- Skin
B) Alcaligenes. B- Mouth
C) proteus. C- Respiratory tract
D) campylobacter. D-Eyes

41-All are true about salmonella except. 49- if the sterile tubes are needed autoclave it at
A) gram negative bacilli. A- 121 C for 20 min
B) non lactose ferments. B- boiling water for 20 min
C- 100 C for 30 min 56- Enriched media are required for the culture
D- non of these of
A- hemophilus influenza
50- The organisms in the risk group 3 present a B- Neisseria
…………. to the community C- streptococcus
A- No risk D- All of them
B- Low risk
C- Intermediate risk 57- Macroscopic appearance of faecal specimens
D- High risk A- Odour
B- Specific gravity
51- Loops & forceps are sterilized by C-Whether the specimen contain worms
A- Flaming until red hot D-All of them
B- boiling water for 20 min
C- soaked in 1 % w/v virkon 58- Differential media contain indicators or dyes
D- non of these such as
A- Bromothymol blue
52- Preventing laboratory infections depends on B- Methyl red
laboratory staff understanding C- crystal violet
A- The routes by which infections are acquired D- all of them
B- Which organisms are the most hazardous
C- Which techniques are the most hazardous 59-Pale colored faecal specimen is found in the
D- All of them following cases except
A- Giardiasis
53- Causes of presence of pus in feaces B- Infections associated with intestinal
A- amoebic dysentery malabsorption
B- intestinal schistosomiasis C- Obstructive jaundice
C- trichuris trichura D- E. Histolytica
D- all of them
60- In gram stain the first stain is
53- Most bacteria can be differentiated by their A- Crystal violet
Gram stain due t difference in: B- Iodine
A- Cell wall C- Safranine
B- Cell membrane D- Alcohol
C- Capsule
D- All of them 61- The first urine passed by the patient at the
beginning of the day shouldbe sent for
54- Culture media contain ingredients such as examination because the specimen is the
A- peptone A- Most suitable
B- carbohydrate B- Most concentration
C- Meat extract C-Lowest concentration
D-All of them D- Available one

55- Acquiring infection by mouth pipetting can 62 – Giemsa stain technique used in stain
occur when A- Bacteria
A- Aerosols are produced from fluid as it is being B- Virus
sucked up or expelled C- Parasites
B- A pipette with a contaminated end is put in the D- All of them
mouth
C- Pipette with a chipped end causes cuts to the 63- In case of urine specimen if a delay in
fingers or lips delivery of more than 1 hour anticipated ……..
D- All of them should be added to the urine:
A- Sulfuric acid
B- Boric acid
C- Acetic acid 71- These are media to which indicators or dyes
D- Nitric acid are added to differentiate microorganisms as
XLD agar
64- bacteria contain only one flagella called A- Basic
…….. B- Enriched
A- mono-trichous C- Selective
B- peri- trichous D- Differential
C- loph- trichous
D- ( a , b ) 72- Bacteria which can not retain with Gram
stain's called
65- Gastric washings should be …………… as A- Gram negative bacteria
soon as possible After collection B- Gram positive bacteria
A- Acidified C- Acid fast bacteria
B- Alkalinized D- no result.
C- Neutralized
D- None of these 73- Decontaminate sputum by autoclaving at
A- 121 C for 15 min
66- bacteriology is the science which study the B- boiling water for 20 min
A- bacteria & their characters C- 100 C for 30 min
B- virus& their characters D- non of these
C- fungi & their characters
D- no result 74- Organisms can penetrate the skin through
A- Cuts & scratches
67- If the specimen is for the isolation of M. B- Airborne droplets
tuberculosis , ensure that it is Delivered to the C- Contaminated fingers
laboratory D- Cigarettes
A- Within 2 hours
B- Kept at 4 ‘C until delivery is possible 75- Basic media are simple media such as
C- A & B is true A- Nutrient agar
D- A and B is false. B- Blood agar
C- XLD agar
68- in the ………..bacteria are divided at high D- TCBS agar
concentration
A- Lag phase 76- Direct finger to mouth infection as in
B- Log phase A- Eating food in the laboratory
C- stationary phase B- Contact with infected material
D- Decline phase C- Cigarettes or pipes
D-All of them
69-For 8 hours before swabbing , the patient
must not be treated with 77- Stainless steel lancets sterilized in autoclave
A- Antibiotics at
B- Antiseptic mouth washes A- 121 C for 15 min
C- A or B B- boiling water for 20 min
D- None of these C- 100 C for 30 min
D- non of these
70- in the ………..the rate of cell death increase
& bacterial growth stopped 78- The organisms in the risk group 2 present a
A- Lag phase A-No risk
B- Log phase B- Low risk
C- stationary phase C- Moderate risk
D- Decline phase. D- High risk
 B- Detection of the eggs of Taenia , cysts of Giardia
79- Decontaminate bench surface are sterilized C- To check whether treatment has been successful
by D-All of them
A- 1h in 2500 ppm chlorine
B- 5 % phenol 87- Selective media such as ………used for select
C- both A,B is true salmonellae & shigellae
D- 1h in 1000 ppm chlorine A- XLD
B- TCBS
80- The organisms offer a moderate risk can C- Blood agar
cause D- non of these
A- Human & animal disease
B- Serious human disease but not a serious 88-Blood and mucus may be found in feaces
hazard from patients with
C- Serious human disease are transmitted from one A- Amoebic dysentery
individual to another B- Intestinal schistosomiasis
D- No disease C- Severe T. trichiura
D- All of them
81- Causes of blood & mucus in feaces due to
A- amoebic dysentery 89- Mycobacteria can be stained with
B- intestinal schistosomiasis A- Gram stain
C- trichuris trichura B- Ziehl- Neelsen stain
D- all of them C- Giemsa stain
D non of these .
82-Special precautions need to be taken when
A- Collecting the specimens 90-A 24 hour urine is required for the
B-Testing the specimens quantitative analysis of substances such
C- Handling the infected material A- Hormones and phosphate
D-All of them. B- Steroids and calcium
C- Protein
83- Causes of pale colored specimen in feaces D- All of them.
A- Giardia lamblia
B- obstructive jaundice 91- In acid fast stain the first is
C- both A,B is true A- Carbol fuchsin
D- non of these B- Methelen blue
C- Malachite green
84- Aerosols can be formed through the D- non of these
following ways except
A- Using a suitable loop which is properly closed 92-If immediate delivery of the urine specimen to
B- Opening a centrifuge immediately th laboratory is not possible
C- Dropping or spilling a specimen or culture A- Refrigerated at 10 C
D- Mouth pipetting B- Cooled
C- Refrigerated at 40 C
85- Decontaminate culture s by autoclaving at D- None of these
A- 121 C for 20 min
B- boiling water for 20 min 93- In gram stain the last is
C- 100 C for 30 min A- Crystal violet
D- non of these B- Iodine
C- Safranine
86-Faecal concentration techniques is required D- Alcohol
in
A- Schistosoma species , few egg is produced in 94- Sputum is best collected in the
sever infections A- Morning
B- Soon after the patient wakes
C- Before any mouth- wash is used
D- All of them

95- bacteria contain tow flagella called ……..

A- mono-trichous
B- peri- trichous
C- loph- trichous
D- no result

96- Organisms such as S. pneumonia and H.

influenza require culturing A- As soon as
possible
B- After one hour
C- After 6 hours
D- After 12 hours

97- in the ……bacteria adapted on fresh medium

& have no multiplication
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase

98- With streptococcal sore throat, the tonsils

may inflamed & covered in
A- Yellow spots
B- Black & smelly
C- Grayish - yellow
D- Grayish – green

99- in the ………..no. of divided cells tended to

be equal to no of dead cells
A- Lag phase
B- Log phase
C- stationary phase
D- Decline phase

100- Preservation of foods can accomplished by

adding
A- Lowering the pH
B- Lowering the water activity
C-Chemicals & cold storage
D- All of them
 2010 ‫اﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﻟﮭﯿﺌﺔ‬ # haemophilus influenza

19- gas gangrene cause by :

1- rice watry stool can caused by : # clo.prefringers
# vibrio cholera
20- the cause of plague:
2- human scabies diagnosed by : # yersinia pestis
# skin scraping of lesion
21- lense near the slide in light microscope ;
3- lactobacilli isolated in: # objective
# stool
22- all the following estimation can be done on plasma
4- which of the following cathertes collect urine EDTA blood except ;
specimen in prolonged period: # calcium
# foley
23- most common method used to detect hormone :
5- nutrient agar is : # ELIZA
# basic media
24- growth hormone secretion by ;
6- albert stain is used to stain: # pituitary gland
# coryenbacterium diphtheria
25- variation in RBCs size:
7- which of the following organism oxidase positive : # aniso cytosis
# pseudomonas & neisseria
26- hormone replication of erythrocyte (RBCs)
8- which stain most commonly used in microbiology # erythropoietin
# gram
27- transmitted through sexual intercourse;
9- which of the following produced by staph.auerus & # trichomonas vaginalis
not produced byother staph:
# coagulase 28- which of the following enzymes related by the
kidney:
10- which of the following organism are capsulated: # criatenin
# klebsiella
29- strong antigen:
11- which of the following gram negative rod cause # carbohydrate
desentry:
# shigella 30- HIV or human immunodeficiency:
# aids
12- elek test used for:
# C.diphtheria 31- organ excrete the uric acid :
# kidney
13- gram positive stained more easy than gram
negative because: 32- for mean cell volume(MCV) measured:
# gram positive cell wall is thin while gram # fi
negative cell wall is thick
33- granulocyte cause leukemia:
14- XLD media is: # CML
# differential media
34- cell not have nucleus:
15- ……..can growth in aerobic and anaerobic # RBCs
# clostridium
35- which of the following transport by blood
16- the urease test done to diagnostic of: transfusion:
# proteus a- HIV
b- hepatitis
17- urine sample culture in: c- herpis
# CLED media d- #all of the above

18- which of the following bacteria can growth on 36- normal range of uric acid:
choclate agar:
 # 3-7 # 140-200

37- in maximeum store of platelet : 56- the antibodies are;

# 5 days # glycoprotein

38- which of the following can diagnose iron 57- in the lab the staff most;
deficiency; a- lab coat
# complete blood count (CBC ) b- wear gloves
c- #all above
39- which of the following of immunoglobulin un
flexible 58- aenemia cause;
# Ig A # microcytic

40- for malaria detection 59- malaria diagnosis by;

# blood smear # thick blood film

41- gram positive bacteria irregular in cluster; 60- teania saginata diagnosis by;
# staphylococci # egg in stool

42- in emergency case which of the following test do 61- ascaris lumbrcoid infection stage:
for glucose; # embrgonated egg
# random blood sugar
62-biochemistry test used sample except;
43- life spin of red blood cell is; # stool
# 120 days 63- leukocyte responsible for parasitic and allergic
reaction:
44- genital disease can caused by; # eosinophil
#gonorrhea & trichomonas
64- which of the following parasite cause cerepral
45- in the beta HCG urine : malaria
# positive or negative # plasmodium falcibarium

46- organ participate in billirubin ; 65- infective stage of ancylostoma is:

# liver #larva

47- in case blood clot occur that called ; 66- which of the following transmite malaria :
#blood coagulation #female anohlele mosquito

48- infective stage of sichtosoma mansoni : 67- in potential diabetic patient , the confirming test
# cercaria used :
# oral sugar tolerance
49- the cause of chagas diseases :
# trypansoma cruzi 68- which of the following immunoglobulin have five
molecule:
50- the cause of sleeping diseases: # Ig M
#trypansoma gambiense & trypansoma rhodesiense
69- deficiency of vitamin B12 cause :
51- cause of kala-azar; # anemia
# lishmania donovani
70- the thorompocytopoitein replication by ;
52- cause of oriental sore; # liver
# lishmania tropica

53- adrenal gland upside of:

# kidney

54- which of the following express of b-cell;

# plasma cell

55- nomal range of cholesterol :

 BACTERIOLOGY b- streptococcus
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except: c- neisseria
a- Fungi d- non of the above
b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia 127- Transfer of genetic information from one
d- Mycoplasma bacterium to another by
bacteriophages is:
119- Viruses: a. Transformation
a- Contain only DNA or RNA b. Tansduction
b - They Contain ribosome c. Conjugation
c- Did not affected by antibiotics d. Mutation
d- a+c
128- Salmonella are:
120- All of these are essential structure except: a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria
a- Nuclear body b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
b- Spores c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria
c- Cell wall d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
d- Plasma Membrane
129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
121- ________ is giving the shape to the a- Osmophilic bacteria
bacteria b- Basophilic bacteria
a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane c- Acidophilic bacteria
b- Capsule d- Neutrophilic bacteria
c- Cell Wall
d- All of the above 130- Staphylococci are:
a- Atrichous bacteria
122- One of its functions is selective b- Mono-trichous bacteria
permeability c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
a- Cell wall d- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule 131- During replication of DNA, copying errors
d- Spores may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation
123- They are responsible for b- Transduction
Haemagglutination Phenomenon c- Transformation
a- Flagella d- Mutation
b- Fimbria
c- Capsule 132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
d- Cell wall a- grow only in presence of oxygen
b- grow only in absence of oxygen
124- Clostridium Tetani is: c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
a- Atrichous bacteria d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10%
b- Mono-trichous bacteria CO2
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria
d- Peri-trichous bacteria 133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0
125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
single polar flagellum
a- spirochaeta c- pH 5.0 – 5.5
b- Vibrio d- pH 2.5 – 3.0
c- Escherichia
d- Lactobacillus 134- The rate of cell death increase and
bacterial growth stopped, this is
126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs a- Adaptation phase
a- staphylococcus b- Exponential phase .
1
c- Stationary phase. d- cephalosporins
d- Decline Phase
143- The color of gram positive bacteria is
135- Beta-hemolytic a- Yellow
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s b- Black.
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in c- Pink
RBC’s d- Violet
c- Do not cause hemolysis
d- None of them 144- Selective media for fungi
a- blood agar
146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at: b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar
a- 37°C
d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar
b- 14°C
c- 60°C 145- Histoplasma is a :
d- 120°C a- Systemic mycosis
b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in c- Cutaneous mycosis
blood d- Superficial mycosis
a- Pyaemia
b- Toxemia 146- All are asexual spores produced by mould
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins except
d- Septicemia a- Conidio – spores
b- Sporangio – spores
138- Disinfections that applied on living or c- Endospores
injured tissues: d- Arthro – spores
a- Sterilization
b- Antiseptic 147- They reproduce only by Asexual
c- Sanitation reproduction
d- Decontamination a- Blastomycosis
b- Deutromycosis
139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of c- Ascomycetes
a- Glass d- Zygomycetes
b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes 148- The functions of cell wall is all of the
d- Catheters following except:
a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal b- Carrying somatic antigen
infection c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes =
a- Phenol plasma membrane
b- Potassium permanganate d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis
c- Chlorine
d- Hypochlorite compounds 149- Atrichous Bacteria are:
a- Bacteria contain one flagellum
141- Rifampin b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis c- Bacteria without flagella
b- inhibit protein synthesis d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella
c- inhibit folic acid pathway
d- inhibit mRNA synthesis 150-__________ are essential for host cell
attachment:
142- Transacetylase inactivate a- Flagella
a- aminoglycosides b- Fimbria
b- chloramphenicol c- Spores
c- penicillin d- Capsules
2
 b- Formaldehyde
151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells: c- Chlorine
a- Streptococcus d- Hypochlorite compounds
b- Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus 160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:
d- Escherichia a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis
b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
152- Clostridium Botulinum is: c- inhibit folic acid pathway
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria d- inhibit protein synthesis
b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria 161- Sulfonamides:
d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria a- inhibit cell wall synthesis
b- inhibit protein synthesis
153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at: c- inhibit DNA synthesis
a- pH 8.5 – 9.0 d- inhibit folic acid pathway
b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5 162- Acetylase inactivates:
d- None of the above a- B – Lactam antibiotics
b- Aminoglycosides
154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate: c- Cloramphenicol
a- Decline Phase d- All of the above
b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase 163- Ringworm disease is caused by
d- Adaptation Phase a- Zygomycetes
b- Ascomycetes
155- The dominant bacterial species in dental c- Blastomycosis
plaque are: d- None of the above
a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci
b- Lactobacillus 164- For wet – mount technique we add:
c- Bacteroides a- NaoH
d- Streptococcus Sanguis b- K oH
c- H2 O2
156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood d- All of the above
stream to different organs & produce multiple
abscess is: 165- They are transmitted by arthropods
a- Septicemia a- Chlamydia
b- Bacteremia b- Spirochetes
c-Toxemia c- Mycoplasma
d- Pyaemia d- All of the above

157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms 166- In the past they were listed as large
a- Bacteriostatic viruses
b- Bactericidal a- Richettsia
c- Fungicidal b- Mycoplasma
d- Germicidal c- Chlamydia
d- None of the above
158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:
a- Gaseous Sterilization 167- Bacteria multiply by:
b- Heat Sterilization a- Replication cycle
c- Filtration b- Simple binary fission
d- Ionizing Radiation c- Sexual reproduction
d- All of the above
159- For water disinfection we use:
a- Hydrogen peroxide 168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics
3
a- Capsule 177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried
b- Cell membrane on
c- Flagella a- Messenger RNA ??
d- Fimbria b- Transfer RN|A
c- Transcript RNA
169- Vibro cholera is: d- Double – Stranded DNA
a- Mono –trichous bacteria
b- Atrichous bacteria 178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria a- 60 – 80 °C
d- Peri-trichous bacteria
b- 0 - 20°C
170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella c-. 37°C
a- Spirochaeta d- 100 - 120°C
b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli 179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at
d- Vibrio a- pH 7.2 – 7.4
b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
171- To take up soluble DNA fragments
derived from other, closely related species is: c- pH 8.5 – 9.0
a. Mutation d- None of the above
b. Transformation
c. Transduction 180- Mycoplasma is
d. Conjugation a- Neutrophilic bacteria
b- Acidophilic bacteria
172- Tuberculosis are c- Basophilic bacteria
a- micro-airophilic d- All of the above
b- Facultative anaerobic
181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh
c- Obligatory anaerobic
medium
d- Obligatory aerobic
a- Lag phase
b- Decline phase
173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is c- Logarithmic Phase
a- Neutrophlic bacteria
d- Stationary phase
b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria
182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
d- None of the above
a- Beta-Hemolytic
b- Alpha-Hemolytic
174- Bacteria without cell Wall c- Gama Hemolytic
a- Chlamydia
d- None of the above
b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma
183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of
d.- Spirochetes
the following except:
175- Brucella Melitensis is a- Staphylococci
a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria b- Diphtheroids
b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria c- Shigella
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria d- Lactobacillus
d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the
176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is following except:
a- Peri-trichous bacteria a- Cause a disease when the host defense are
b- Lopho-trichous bacteria suppressed.
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria b- Are normal flora of healthy body
d- Monotrichous bacteria c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.

4
185- For disinfection of mattresses : d- the prion
a- Hot air oven
b- Autoclave 194- …………………… may be seen under
c- Ethylene Oxide light microscope
d- Hydrogen Peroxide a- rota virus
b- influenza virus
186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at: c- herps virus
a- 10٠°C d- pox virus
b- 6٠°C
195- viruses may be:
c- 14°C a- monomorphic
d- 37°C b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic
187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll d- all of the above
a- Heterotrophic bacteria
b- Autotrophic bacteria 196- viral capside is formed of:
c- Photosynthetic bacteria a- protein
d- All of the above b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer
188- Tricophyton is one of d- glycoprotein
a- Yeast
b- Moulds 197- class III in Baltimor classification is:
c- Dermatophyte a- double stranded DNA viruses
d- Dimorphic Fungi b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses
189- Plastomyces is one of d- single stranded RNA viruses
a- Dermatophytes
b- Dimorphic Fungi 198- Hierarchial virus classification system use
c- Yeast the following characters except:
d- Moulds a- nature of nucleic acid
b- capside symmetry
190- Color of gram negative bacteria is c- diameter of viron & capside
a- Violet d- virus molecular weight
b- Green
c- Red 199- in viral replication which is true:
d- Black a- penetration is the 1st step
b- assembly is the last step
191- Acid Fast Bacteria c- relaease is the last step
a- Salmonella d- all of the above
b- Shigella
c- M. Tuberculosis 200- viron:
d- E – Coli a- may be extracellular phase of virus
192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in b- may be intracellular phase of virus
chains c- can grow and replicate
a- Staphylococci d- means “ virus – like “
b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus 201- pleomorphic viruses means :
d- Spiro chaeta a- virus which have constant shape
b- virus that may appear in 2 forms
193- ……………… carries the genetic c- virus that have not a constant morphology
information d- virus that have spherical shape
a- the envelope
b- the capsid 202- vapor of gold is used in :
c- the nucleic acid a- shadow casting technique
5
b- negative staining technique 211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of
c- positive staining technique virus culture in:
d- non of the above a- tissue wall
b- lab animals
203- direct diagnosis of virus : c- embryonated egg
a- ELISA Antibody d- non of the above
b- CFT
c- IFT 212- …………….. is an in vitro method
d- PCR virus amplification of a short sequence of target
DNA
204- all of the following are required in cell a- PCR
culture except: b- hyberdization
a- neutral PH c- finger printing
b- presence of buffer salts d- all of the above
c- presence of antibiotics
d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C)) 213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:
a- probe anneling or binding with it’s
205- all of the following are diagnostic complementary
molecular biological technique except: segment of NA
a- PCR b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
b- ELISA c- amplification of nucleic acid
c- nucleic acid hyperdization d- non of the above
d- DNA finger printing
206- PCR require all of the following except: 214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:
a- extracted DNA template a- primers
b- 2 specific primers b- DNA labeled probe
c- reation buffer c- restriction endonuclease
d- RNA polymerase d- non of the above
207- bacteriophage is : 215-PCR starts with :
a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic a- annealing
b- virus that act like a bacteria b- denaturation of DNA
c- bacteria that act like a virus c-extension of primers
d- virus that infect bacteria d- non of the above
208- all of the following viruses are transmitted 216- ……………….. is a piece of DNA
by blood except: fragment of a particular gene that can bind
a- HIV specially with it’s complementary piece of
b- HBV DNA:
c- HCV a- codon
d- herps virus b- probe
c- LCR
209-all of the following are RNA viruses d- code
except:
a- corona viridase 217- how many primers are used in PCR :
b- reoviridase a- non
c- picorona viridase b- one
d- pox viridase c- two
d- three
210- penetration of naked virus is by :
a- fusion 304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the
b- endocytosis isolation for:
c- translocation a- neisseria gonorrhea
d- all of the above b- mycobacterium tuberculosis

6
c- haemophilus influenza c- klebsiella
d- staphylococcus aureus d- proteus

305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media 313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :
for: a- salmonella
a- salmonella b- shigella
b- streptococcus c- E-coli
c- staphylococcus d- klebsiella
d- all of the above
314- the causative agent of enteric fever:
306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is: a- salmonella
a- S-S agar b- shigella
b- XLD agar c- klebsiella
c- sabouraud glucose agar d- proteus
d- Hekton-Enteric agar
315- the most common cause of urinary tract
307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter infection :
appearance: a- E-coli
a- mycobacterium tuberculosis b- salmonella
b- corynebacteria diphtheria c- shigella
c- clostridium tetani d- streptococcus
d- staphylococcus pneumonia
316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:
308- E lek test is done to diagnose : a- staphylococcus
a- streptococcus b- E-coli
b- staphylococcus aureus c- salmonella
c- clostridium tetani d- shigella
d- corynebacteria diphtheria
317- the most common causative agent for
309- all are lactose fermenter except: peptic ulcer :
a- E-COLI a- campylobacter
b- proteus b- H-pylori
c- klebsiella c- V-cholera
d- enterobacter d- all of the above
318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation
310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s of:
agar and have tendency to swarm on blood a- H-pylori
agar: b- V-cholera
a- salmonella c- E-coli
b- shigella d- H influenza
c- klebsiella
d- proteus 319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows
on simple media producing a characteristic
311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli greenish pigment:
with mucoid growth: a- campylobacter
a- salmonella b- pseudomonas
b- shigella c- pasterulla
c- klebsiella d- bordetella
d- proteus
320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:
312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli a- staphylococcus
produce H2S : b- streptococcus
a- salmonella c- salmonella
b- shigella d- shigella

7
321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for d- all of the above
the diagnosis of:
a- group A streptococcus 392- AIDS is transmitted through :
b- group B streptococcus a- food
c- staphylococcus aureus b- blood
d- staphylococcus albus c- semen
d- (b) & (c)
323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:
a- anthrax 393- bacteria which cause syphilis:
b- clostridium a- Neisseria gonorrhea
c- diphtheria b- Viencent angina
d- T.B c- Treponema palladium
d- Yersinia pestis
324- gas gangrene is caused by:
a- clostridium tetani 394- to diagnose syphilis:
b- clostridium botulinum a- RPR
c- clostridium welchii b- VDRL
d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges )) c- Wasserman
d- all of the above
325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella 395- streptococci secret:
b- shigella a- streptolysin O
c- cholera b- streptolysin S
d- all of the above c- streptokinase
d- all of the above
326- the cause of plague:
a- Y-enterocolitica 396- disease caused by streptococci:
b- Y-pestis a- scarlet fever
c- Y pseudotuberculsois b- purperal sepsis
d- non of the above c- rheumatic fever
d- all of the above
327- treponema palladium is the cause of :
a- T.B 397- staphylococci secrets:
b- gonorrhea a- coagulase enzyme
c- syphilis b- fibrinolysin
d- AIDS c- hyaluronidase
d- all of the above
328- the venereal disease research laboratory
test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis of: 398- gram positive bacilli:
a- T.B a- Klebsilla
b- gonorrhea b- Salmonella
c- syphilis c- Proteus
d- AIDS d- C-diphtheria

329- Trachoma is caused by: 399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted

a- mycoplasma by :
b- chlamydiae a- food
c-richettsia b- droplet
d- mycobacteria c- touch
d- all of the above
391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :
a- gram stain 400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :
b- Zheil Nelson stain a- T.B.
c- Gimesa stain b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea
8
d- AIDS
409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :
401- it cause food poisining with flacid a- blood
paralysis: b- sputum
a- clostridium tetani c- CSF
b- clostridium welchii d- urine
c- clostridium botulinium
d- all of the above 410- used to stain Chlamydia
a- gram stain
402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax : b- giemsa stain
a-merozoites c- wright stain
b- sporozoites d- all of the above
c- schizont 411-……….. is used as transport medium for
d- trophozoite sample in which cholera is suspected
a- Cary-Blair media
403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate b- Stuart media
host of: c- Alkaline peptone water
a- schistosoma haematobium d- glycerol
b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes 412- the color of XLD medium:
d- diphyllobothrium latum a- green
b- red
404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate c- yellow
host of : d- blue
a- fasciola hepatica
b- fasciola gigantica 413- CIN medium is used to isolate:
c- schistosoma haematobium a- E.coli
d- schistosoma mansonii b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia
405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture d- salmonella
the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou 414- to make wet mount preparation:
b- modified Thayer martin media a- 10 % KOH
c- Lowenstein Jensen media b- 10 % Na OH
d- all of the above c- 10 % Na CO3
d- 10% Na Cl
406- to isolate fungi :
a- Brain-Heart infusion media 415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal
b- tissue culture smear To diagnose:
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media a- T.vaginalis
d- chocolate agar b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci
407- to isolate H- influenza: d- staphylococci
a- blood agar
b- chocolate agar 416- to isolate viruses:
c- mac Conkey media a- Loeffler media
d- all of the above b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media
408- the bacteria which cause d- Brain- Heart infusion
pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :
a- N.gonorrhea 417- to diagnose whooping cough :
b- C. diphtheria a- Bordet –Gengou media
c- staphylococcus b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
d- Chlamydia c- modified Thayer martin media

9
d- New York city agar c- entrobacteria
d- enterococcus
418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :
a- urine culture 466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following
b- CSF culture biochemical tests:
c- blood culture a- catalase
d- sputum culture b- coagulase
c- indole
419- we give no growth for blood culture after: d- methyl red
a- 1 week
b- 8 weeks 467- positive results for H2S production appear
c- 6 weeks as …. Colour:
d- 3 weeks a- black
c- yellow
420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample : c- red
a- 10% NaOH d- green
b- 30 % NaOH
c- 10 % KOH 468-………. Give positive coagulase test:
d- 10% NaCl a- streptococci
b- staphylococcus aureus
421- mutualism means: c- staphylococcus saprophyticus
a- one partener benefits , other unaffected d- Escherichia coli
b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged 469- methyl red test is performed with:
d- living together a- Erlich reagent
b- Kovac's reagent
422- Commensalisms means: c- Voges proskaur
a- living together d- non of the above
b- one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit 470- ………… give positive result with urease
d- one partner benefits , other unaffected test:
a- salmonella
423- Balantidium coli moves by: b- shigella
a- flagella c- Y. enterocolitica
b- cilia d- all of the above
d- pseudopod
d- all of the above 471-…………. test is used to differentiate
between bacteroides & brucella:
424- Mouth inhabitant: a- indole
a- Trichomonas hominis b- methyl red
b- Trichomonas tenax c- H2S production
c- Trichomonas vaginalis d- nitrate reduction
d- giardia lamblia
472- DNAase test is positive with:
425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse: a- streptococcus pneumonia
a- toxoplasma b- E.coli
b- giardia lamblia c- staphylococcus aureus
c- Trichomonas vaginalis d- staphylococcus epidermis
d- all of the above
473- ………… solution used in the gram stain
465- citrate utilization test is done to assist technique acts as a mordant:
identification of: a- crystal violet
a- gram +ve bacteria b- safranine
b- gram –ve bacteria c- iodine
d- alcohol
10
 431- Its trophozite is shaped like a pear , has
474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is the 2 nuclei that resembles eyes and 4 pairs of
: flagella that look like hair:
a- malachite green a- Trichomonas vaginalis
b- methylene blue b- entameoba histolytica
c- iodine c- giardia lamblia
d- (a) & (b) d- endolimax nana

475- bile solubility test is positive with :

a- streptococcus viridans
b- streptococcus pneumonia
c- streptococcus agalectiae 432- Pear shaped trophozite with 4 anterior
d- streptococcus pyrogenes flagella and a 5th forming the outer edge of a
short undulating membrane:
476-litmus milk decolorization test assist the a- Trichomonas hominis
identification of : b- entameoba histolytica
a- entrobacteria c- entameoba coli
b- bacteroides d- endolimax nana
c- brucella
d- enterococci 433- sometimes it cause metastatic infection
which involve liver, lung, brain or other
PARASITOLOGY viscera:
a- giardia lamblia
b- Trichomonas vaginalis
426- Intermediate host of Trypansom:
c- entameoba histolytica
a- triatoma megista
d- balantidium coli
b- sand fly
c- tse tse fly 434- Intestinal ciliate:
d- anopheles a- entameoba histolytica
b- entameoba coli
427- The cause of chaga's disease: c- giardia lamblia
a- trypanosoma gambiense d- balantidium coli
b- trypansoma rhodesiense
c- trypansoma cruzi 435- Asexual multiplication of plasmodium
d- leishmania braziliense vivax takes place in:
a- anopheles
428- The cause of sleeping sickness:
b- sand fly
a- trypanosoma gambiense
c- human
b- trypanosoma cruzi
c- tse tse fly
c- trypanosoma rhodesiense
d- (a) & (c)
436- Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by
:
429- Cause Kala- azar:
a- triatoma megista
a- leishmania tropica
b- tse tse fly
b- leishmania braziliense
c- anopheles
c- leishmania donovani
d- sand fly
d- leishmania mexicana
437- Moves by pseudopods:
430-cause oriental sore:
a- giardia lamblia
a- plasmodium ovale
b- balantidium coli
b- leishmania tropica
c- entameoba histolytica
c- leishmania donovani
d- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- trypanosoma rhodesiense
438- it's one of the round worms:
a- schistosoma mansoni
11
b- schistosoma haematobium
c- ascaris lumbricoides 446- infection occur when infective filariform
d- fasciola hepatica larvae penetrate the skin:
a- ascaris lumbricoides
439- it's one of the tape worms: b- ancylostoma duodenal
a- ascaris lumbricoides c- fasciola hepatica
b- ancylostoma duodenal d- heterophyes heterophyes
c- trichuris tricura
d- taenia saginata 447- ……..lives in the liver and bile ducts of
sheep and cattle:
440- barrel shapped egg, yellow brown in color a- stronyloides stercoralis
with a colorless protruding mucoid plug in b- schistosoma mansoni
each end: c- fasciola hepatica
a- egg of ascaris lumbricoides d- ancylostoma duodenal
b- egg of ancylostoma duodenal
c- egg of trichuris tricura 448-segment found in stool which is white &
d- egg of taenia saginata opaque & measures 20 mm long by 6mm wide
with uterus that has a central stem and more
441- large oval egg ,pale yellow brown in color than 13 side branches on each side…the worm
has a characteristic side spine & contain a fully is :
developed a- fasciola hepatica
miracidium , the worm is: b- trichuris trichuris
a- S.mansoni c- heterophyes heterophyes
b- S. hematobium d- taenia saginata
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium 449- infection is by eating raw or under cooked
fish:
442- large oval egg , pale yellow brown in color a- fasciola hepatica
has an indistinct operculum and contains b- trichuris trichuris
unsegmented ovum: c- heterophyes heterophyes
a- S. hematobium d- taenia solium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- heterophyes heterophyes 450- …… is transmitted by eating raw or
d- taenia solium under cooked beef:
a- heterophyes heterophyes
443- round egg , embryo is surrounded by a b- taenia saginata
thick brown radially striated wall , hooklets are c- schistosoma mansoni
present in the embryo: d- ancylostoma duodenal
a- S. hematobium
b- fasciola hepatica
c- A. duodenal
d- T. solium

444-oval colorless egg,flattened on one side &

contains a larvae:
a- hymenelopis diminuta
b- dipylidium caninum
c- entrobius vermicularis
d- taenia saginata

445- the cause of malignant malaria:

a- plasmodium vivax
b- plasmodium ovale
c- plasmodium malaria
d- plasmodium falciparum
12
‫ھذي اﻻﺳﺋﻠﺔ اﻟﻲ ﺗذﻛرﺗﮭﺎ طﺑﻌﺎ‬ - Prolactineh
Clen The Microscope Lense : HCG
Xylene
49- Hyperglycemic hormone
Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis: a) Glucagon
- egg in stooL- b) Insulin
c) Amylase
One is gram +ve oval (cocci) d) Pepsine
: e) Trypsinogene
- 1- Bacillus anthracis
- 2- Meningococci 108- Na is the main?
- Pneumococci a) Intra cellular anion
b) Intra cellular cation
Entamoeba histolitica ‫ و‬E.coli ‫وﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال ﻛﯾف ﺗﻔرق ﺑﯾن‬ c) Extra cellular cation
‫ﺗﺣت اﻟﻣﺟﮭر‬ d) Extracellular anion
org cause blood in stool:
Shigella sp. 3- lactobacilli isolated in:
shistosoma hematobium # stool

‫ ﻟﻠﻛن ﻟﻼﺳف ﻧﺳﯾت اﻟﺳؤال واﻟﺧﯾﺎرت‬KALA-AZAR ‫وﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال ﻋن‬ 8- which stain most commonly used in
‫ اﻧﺗﻲ ﺑدي طﺑﻊ‬a ‫ واﻟرﺟل‬ab ‫وﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال اذا ﻛﺎن ﻋﻧد اﻟﻣرة‬ microbiology
‫اﻟطﻔل ﻻﯾﻛون ﻋﻧدة‬ # gram
A
B -which of the following gram negative rod cause
Ab desentry:
O # shigella

‫ ﻓﻲ اﻻﻧﺳﺎن‬uric acid ‫وﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال ﻛم ﻛﻣﯾﺔ‬ - granulocyte cause leukemia:

‫وﺳؤال‬ # CML

30) CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for: - in the beta HCG urine :
35 days 45 days # positive or negative
5 days
 15 days - infective stage of sichtosoma mansoni :
Non of the above # cercaria

4) One is always gram –ve rods: -biochemistry test used sample except;
1-Haemophilus Influenza #stool
2-Shigella 16) One is always non motile gram –ve rods:
3- E.coli 1- Haemophilus Influenza
4- Salmonella Shigella-2
6- Borditella Pertusis
21) Function of Thyroxin is:
24) in cardiac infraction one of the measurements 1- Increase Oogenesis
is not benefited: 2- Stimulate contraction of uterus
Creatinine 3- Increase basal metabolic
CK
LDH 48) Immunoglobulin pregnancy test related to:
GOT 1- IgG
2- IgM
3- Human chorionic Gonadotropin

in LIVAR infraction one of the measurements is not - Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
benefited: a- 30-45 seconds
Creatinine b- 30-45 minutes
CK d- 12-15 minutes
LDH e-10-16seconds
GOT
CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for:
The sterilization in hot air oven performed at: a) 35 days**
a) 121 c° for 15-30 min. b) 45 days
b) 160 c° for 60 min.c) 121 c° for 10 min. c) 5 days
d) 160 c° for 10 min. d) 15 days
e) Non of the above
while using the pregnancy test we are measuring?
- Progesterone. Prothrombin time detects:
a) Extrinsic pathway of coagulation* b- gonorrhea
b) Intrinsic pathway c- syphilis
c) Platelets activity d- AIDS
d) Bleeding time
2_ Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
Haemocytometer used in count of a- salmonella
a) White blood cells(WBCs) b- shigella
b) Red blood cell (RBCs) c- cholera
c) Platelets d- all of the above

d) ALL*
Megaloblastic anaemia caused by 3_all the following estimation can be done on
a) Iron deficiency plasma EDTA blood except:
b) Folic acid and B12 deficiency* a_glucose
c) Zinc deficiency b_cholestrol
d) Globin deficiency c_urea
d_calcium
In new born Hb F is up to
a) 20% 4- cell not have nucleus ?
b) 70%* RBC
c) 50%
d) 30% 5_ infection stage in tenia saginata:
1- autoclave work at => 121 c 20 min a_ cercaria
2- schistosoma hematobium causes => urinary b_cystcarcus
tract infection
Which of the following of immunoglobulin
3- netrophil is increased in => bacterial infection unflexible:6-
4- parasite is infected vagina and urethra => a_ IgG
trichomonas vaginals b_ Ig M
c_ Ig A
5- leishmania is transported by => sand fly d_Ig D

6- sleeping sickness is from this parasite => 7-Strong antigen

african [gambienes]trypansomosis 1-vitamin
7- taenia diagnosis by => eggs in stool 2-carbohydrate
3-proteins
8- CPD is => 21 days
9- CPD-A is => 35 days 8- if infant has RH+ve & mother RH-ve must give
A- Anti-D immunoglubin
10- who you differential between sallmonella and B- Anti-E immunoglubin
shegella => by motility C- Anti-C immunoglubin
D- Anti-e immunoglubin
11- adult hb is => hbA E- Anti-c immunoglubin
12- microcytic hypochromic anemia => iron
deficiency anemia 8- nuteint agar is
A- basic media
13- malaria come by => female mosquite B- diffrentioal media
14- reticulocytes from => RBCs C- sellective media
15- plasma contain 90 % water ,, 10% another D- enriched media
substance
9- which the following cathertes collect urine
16- Ig is have 5 chain => IgM specimen in prolonged period
17- Ig is have 4 chain => IgG B- hard
18- platelets store for => 5 days C- soft
D- italian
19- leucocytes responsible parasites => eosinophil E- foley
20- whitch WBCs give immunoglobin =>
lymphocytes 10- yellow brown barrel-shapped egg,colorless
producing plug polar is
21- ALT best for => liver test A- ascaris
22- heparin => protein B- tenia soliom
C- Trichuris trichiura
D- ------------

treponema palladium is the cause of : -1

a- T.B -Serious organism that causes food poisoning11
Staph. albus
Salmonella entreritidis The sterilization in hot air oven performed:25
Clostridium spelica 160 for 45-60
Salmonella typhi
Nutrient ager:
12- in case blood clot occur that is called Basic media
- heamolysis
- blood coagulation Media use for tuberculosis:26
- thrombsis Lewis Jensen media

13- all of bacteria cause pharnxitis ecxept Vi Ag is seen in27

Capsule
‫واذا ﻣو ﻏﻠطﺎﻧﮫ ﻛﺎﻧت اﻟﻛﺎﻟﺑﺳﻼ‬... ‫ﻧﺳﯾت اﻟﺧﯾﺎرات‬ Pili
Spore
:‫ﺗﺳﺗﺧدم ﺟﻣﯾﻊ اﻻﺧﺗﺑﺎرات اﻟﺗﺎﻟﯾﮫ ﻓﻲ ﻣﻌﻣل اﻟﻛﯾﻣﯾﺎء اﻻ‬14 Flagella
CBC
28Which of the following enzyme detect in the
15- ………….. can growth in an aeorobic condition liver and bone disease:
Chlostridium Alkaline phosphatase(ALP)
18- XLD media
- selective Prolactin in female:29
- diferentiat Milk hormone
- basic
30During reaction of two chemical substances,the
16- best media for sputum culture heamophilis color produced asses by:
- blood agar Spectorophotometer
- mac
- cled Alkali skin burn treatment by neutralization with:31
- chocolat Boric acid powder

mcv‫وﺣده ﻗﯾﺎس‬-17 Use to determined Kidney :32

- p/g Creatinin
- ml/ blood
- mg/dl
-fl 33All the following estimations can be done on
plasama EDITA blood except:
18. genital disease can caused by ? Calcium
Gonorrhea and trichomonas .
34Glycosated hemoglobin(HbA1c)give an idea for
19 - which of the following organ excrete the uric glucose conc.about :
acid 90 days
A- liver
B- kidney Monospot test is done to diagnose:35
Infectious mononucleosis
20-which of the following produce by staph.auerus &
not produced by other staph B deficiency lead to :36
A- DNA produce Megaloplastic hematopoieisi (anemia)
B- coagulase
C- catalase ‫ ﺧﺧﺦ ﻣﺎاذﻛر اﻟﺻﯾﻐﮫ ﺑﺎﻟﺿﺑط ﺑس ﻛﺎﻧت‬5‫ و‬2 ‫ﺳؤال ﻋن اﻟﺗﺧﻔﯾف ﻓﯾﮫ‬37
:‫اﻟﺧﯾﺎرات ﻛذا‬
21-CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for: 1:25
35 1:35
45 1:236
5 ‫اﺧﺗرت اول ﺧﯾﺎر‬
13

Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity:22-

T.lymphocyte ‫اﻻﺳﺋﻠﮫ ﻣﺎﺟﺎﺗﻧﻲ ﺑﻧﻔس اﻟﺻﯾﻐﮫ ھذي ﺑس ھذا ھو اﺳﺎس اﻟﺳؤال ﺣﺗﻰ ﻟو‬
B. lymphocyte ‫ﺗﻐﯾرت اﻟﺻﯾﻐﮫ ﯾﺿل اﻟﺟواب ﻧﻔﺳﮫ ﻓﻼ ﺗﺧﺎﻓون ﻟو ﺟﺎﻛم اﻟﺳؤال ﺑﺻﯾﻐﮫ‬
Monocyte ..‫ﻣﺧﺗﻠﻔﮫ‬

Least abundant leukocyte:23 Eosinophilia is seen in? -1

Basophils
2- AML different from ALL in ?
Test VDRL orRPR:24- Granule neutrophile
Syphilis(T.pallidium)
3- AB father and B mother give phenotype except : - glucose
A , AB , B ,O - calcium
- urea
4- blood collect in anticoagulant tub should be : - triglyceride
- Clot
-hemolysis 19- HbA1c give an idea for glucose conc.about :
-gently mix - 90 dayse
- 5 month
‫ﻣو ذاﻛره اﻟﺳؤال ﺑس اﻟﺟواب ﻛﺎن‬5- spherocytosis: - 20 dayes
Osmatic fragility - 4 weeks

7-CPD anticoagulant to store blood for : 20-while using the pregnancy test we are
-21 measuring ?
-35 - total HCG
-45 - Beta HCG & LH
- Beta HCG
8- blood collect in anticoagulant tub should be: - Alpha HCG
- Not clot
- hemolysis 21- in potential diabetic patient, the confirming test
- not gently mix used is
A- random blood sugar
9- the colonies of Mycobacteria in Lowenstein B- fasting blood sugar
Jensen medium " C- oral blood sugar tolerance (GTT)
Raised , dry cream D- all of the above

10- Zile-Neelsen stain for staining : 22- non streptococci:

mycobacteria -S.pyogenes
- S.agalatiate
12- in O blood group the Abin serum is : - S.aureus
- anti And B- anti A
- anti b 23- Hiv and hepatitis translate by :
- non of above - blood
- all of above -urin
- body fluid
13- in biochemistry test tube use are : All of above
- green
- blue 24- which of the following bacteria can growth on
- EDTA choclate agar:
-all of above a_ hemophilus influenza

14- all are blood function except : 25- bacteria arranged in chinese litters?
hormone ‫ﻣب ذاﻛره اﻟﺧﯾﺎرات ﺑس ذاﻛره اﻟﺟواب اﻟﻠﻲ اﺧﺗرﺗﮫ اﻻ ھو‬ C.diphteriae
production
15-the (u) unit use to evaluation? 26- the Organ responsible for maturiation of B-
-protein in serum lymphocyte :
-hemoglobin - liver
-hormone assay - kidney
-enzymatic activity - thyumus
- bone marrow
16- a semen specimen , contain source of the - spleen
spermatozoa energy is :
- glucose 27- one is motile gram -ve rod aerobeic:
- mannose - Hinfluenza
- fructose - B.anthracis
- sucrose - P.aerogenes-
vibro cholerae
17- during reaction of 2 chemical substances , the - yersinia pestis
color produced asses by :
- spectrophotometer 28- autoclave sterilize in ?
- flame photometer - 121c-20 min
- ELISA -125-35 min
- PCR - 115-35 min
-160c-45-60 min
18-all the following estimations can be done on
plasma EDITA blood except: 29- media use fo differentiate between L.F and
- cholestrerol N.L.F?
- MacConkey agar ‫اﻋذروﻧﻲ ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻓﺎﻛر اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات‬
- chocolate
- blood agar 7_normal rang of the uric acid is :
- XLD a_3-7
- TCBS

30- lactos (+ ) , Indol (+) , MR (+ ) , VP (-) , citrate (-) 8_ tranport by blood tranfision is
are :
- Escherichia a-HIV
-Klebsiella b - hepatitis
- salmonella c- .........
d- ........
which of the following organism is an anaerobic e - all of the bove
bacterium? 9_ 5. cell not have nucleus ?
- clostiriduium spp RBC
- haemophilus
- E.coli 10_ infection stage in tenia saginata:
- yersinia enteroclitica a_ cercaria
b_cystcarcus
31- Salmonella causes?
food poisoning‫ﻣو ذاﻛره اﻟﺧﯾﺎرات ﺑس اﻟﺟواب ﻛﺎن‬ ‫ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻓﺎﻛر اﻟﺳؤال ﺑس‬11_ granulocytes cause leukemia
‫ﻣﻌﻧﺎه ﺗﻘرﯾﺑﺎ زي ﻛذا واﻻﺟﺎﺑﮫ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد ﻣﻧﮭﺎ‬
CML
not found in spectrophotometer : ‫ﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال ﻋن‬
11-for mean cell volume(MCV) measured:
a_ mg/dl
..‫ھذي اﻻﺳﺋﻠﮫ اﻟﻠﻲ ﻗدرت اﺗذﻛرھﺎ‬ b_ fl
.‫اﻻﺟﺎﺑﮫ ھذي ﻣﺗﺎﻛد ﻣﻧﮭﺎ ﻣﻠﯾون ﻓﻲ اﻟﻣﯾﮫ‬
‫ ﺟﺎﻧﻲ اﻛﺛر‬aerobe , anaerobe ‫رﻛزوا ﻋﻠﻰ ﺗﺻﻧﯾف اﻟﺑﻛﺗﯾرﯾﺎ ﻣن ﺣﯾث‬
(- )‫ ( او‬+) ‫ﻣن ﺳؤال ﻋﻠﯾﮭم ﺳؤال ﻛﺎﻧت‬ 12_ . in the bate HCG urine use:
a- positive or negative
b_ mmol/l
‫ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻓﺎﻛﻲ ﺑﺎﻗﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات‬
1-Which of the following of immunoglobulin
unflexible: 13_ organ excrete the uric acid :
a_ IgG a_liver
b_ Ig M b_kidney
c_ Ig A
d_Ig D

14_ HIv or human immunodeficiency:

2 - gram +ve stained more easy than gram -ve 1-aids
because: 2-hepititis C
- gram +ve cell wall is thin while gram -ve is thicke 3-hepititis B
a
15- Strong antigen:
Hypoclacemia in patient occure if the level of 1-vitamin
calcium is: 3_ 2-carbohydrate
a_ 16 3-proteins
b_12
c_10 16_the thrmbocutopiotein:
d_7.5 1-liver
2-kidney
4_ one test in tha following can diagnose iron 3-adrnal
deficiency: 4-thymus
a_ cbc
..‫ﺑﺎﻗﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﻧﺎﺳﯾﮭﺎ ﺑس ھذا ﻣﺗﺎﻛد ھو اﻟﺻﺢ‬ 17_which of the following enzymes related by the
5_ in maximeum store of the platelet is : kidney:
a_ 35 days a_ ALP
b_7 days b_ AST
c_5 days c_ criatenin
d_120
18_to detect antigen in agglutination used test:
6_ the word "decontamination" what of the a_ soluble
following meaning is true: b_unsoluble
c_all of the above
d_non of the above

19_which of the following tubes used in serology

tests : mcv‫وﺣده ﻗﯾﺎس‬1-
a_ plan - p/g
b_ EDTA - ml/ blood
‫ﺑﺎﻗﻲ ﻓﯾﮫ ﺛﻼث اﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻓﺎﻛرھم‬ - mg/dl
20_ transmitt through sexual intercourse
a_ trichomonas vaginalis 2- leukocyte aboundant
- neutrophile

21_which of the following bacteria can growth on 3- all of the following bacteria cell components
choclate agar: except
a_ hemophilus influenza - cell wall
22_hormone replication of RBCs: - cell membrane
A_ erythropoietin - neoclues
- cytoplasm
23_ Brucella Melitensis is
Obligatory aerobic bacteria a_ -pilli
Obligatory anaerobic bacteria b_ 4- after ensure from physical exam__ and history
Facultative anaerobic bacteria c_ record we measure
d_ micro-aerofhilic bacteria - Hb c-

24_ variation in RBCs size: - Hb anti a

a_ microcyrosis - Hb anti b
b_macrocytosis
c_aniso cytosis 5- sever case may occur between mother & her
25_ growth hormone secrtion by: fetus when mother is … and fetus is ...
a_ thyroid gland rh - & rh +
b_pitutary glandc_ adrenal gland
- -rh- & rh
26_most common method used to detect hormone: - -rh+& rh
a_ microscope - rh+ & rh +
b_ flamcytometer
c_ELIZA 6- we can diagnose w.bancrofti by investigate
- blood smear
27_all the following estimation can be done on
plasma EDTA blood except: - urine smear
a_glucose - stool smear
b_cholestrol
c_urea 7- elek test use for
d_calcium - neisseria
- diphtheria
- e.coli
- prodella
28_ lense near the slide in light microscope: - proteus
a_ objective
b_stage 8- to detect HMV we use :
c_eye lenses ELISA
d_arms ‫طﺑﻌﺎ اﺧﺗرت ھﺎﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎر ﻻﻧﮫ ﺑﺎﻟﻌﺎده ﯾﺳﺗﺧدم ﺑﺎﻟﻔﯾروﺳﺎت‬

29_gas gangrene cause by :

a_clo.botulism 9- gram +ve stained more easy than gram -ve
b_ clo.tetani because
c_clo.prefringers - gram +ve cell wall is thin while gram -ve is thicke
30_ Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
a- salmonella 10- to detect AML we use
b- shigella - suddan black
c- cholera
d- all of the above 11- flask shape parasite is
‫ﺑﺻراﺣﮫ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت ھذا ﺑس ﻣو ﻣﺗﺄﻛد اﺑد‬- giardia lambilia
31_ the cause of plague: - histolica
a- Y-enterocolitica - malaria
b- Y-pestisc- Y pseudotuberculsois
d- non of the above 12-infection of teania by
ingestion undercooked beef 24- ………….. can growth in aeorobic and an
aeorobic
13- heamophilia A & B are defected in Chlostridium
- x linked donated
- x linked receive salmonella‫طرﯾﻘﮫ اﻧﺗﻘﺎل‬25-
- Y linked ‫ﻧﻘل اﻟدم‬-
‫ﺑﺎﻗﻲ اﺧﺗﯾﺎرﯾن ﻣو ﻓﺎﻛرھم وﷲ‬ ‫اﻟﺟﻧس‬-
‫ﺗﻧﺎول اﻟطﻌﺎم اﻟﻣﻠوث‬-
14- gondotropic hormone )‫اﻟﺗﻧﻔس ( اﻻﺳﺗﻧﺷﺎق‬-
LH
26- bacteria cause pharnxitis
15- action of neutrophil is - staph . aueris
- antibody production - diphtheria
- antibody reaction - TB
- granule circulation - entrobacter

- IG production 27- all are true about platelet except

- can save for 7 days when added speciel fluid
16- parasite in urine
28- in case blood clot occur that is called
-schistosoma heamatbium…… - heamolysis
2 - blood coagulation
.Malaria . - thrombsis
3.Leishmania .
4.Toxoplasmosis ‫ﻣﺎدة ﻻﺗﻧﺗﻘل اﻻ اذا ﻛﺎﻧت ﻣﻠﺗﺻﻘﮫ ﺑﻧﺎﻗل‬29-
- iron
17- tioh is defined as
‫ھو اﺧﺗﺻﺎر ﺑس ﻧﺳﯾت اﻟﺧﯾﺎرات اذا اﺣد ﯾﻌرف او ﻣرت ﻋﻠﯾﮫ ﯾﻌﻠﻣﻧﺎ ﻋﺷﺎن‬ vitamin B12 -
‫ﯾﺳﺗﻔﯾدوا اﻻﺧرﯾن‬ - FOLIC ACID

18- XLD media 30- metabolism of billirubin

- selective liver
- diferentiat
- basic ‫ ﻓﻲ اﻟﺧﻠﯾﮫ ھو‬ATP ‫ﻣﺻدر‬31-
‫ﺟدار اﻟﺧﻠﯾﮫ‬-
19- best media for sputum culture ‫اﻟﻐﺷﺎء اﻟﺧﻠوي‬-
- blood agar ‫اﻟﺳﯾﺗوﺑﻼزم‬-
- mac
- cled ‫اﻟﻣﯾﺗوﻛﻧدرﯾﺎ‬-
- chocolat
‫ﻧﺳﺑﮫ اﻟﻠﯾﻣﻔوﺳﺎﯾت‬32-
:‫ اﻟﻧﺗﯾﺟﮫ ﺗﻔﺳر اﻟﺣﺎﻟﮫ ﻟﻔﺗره ﻣﺎﺑﯾن‬hba1c ‫ﺗﺷﺧﯾص‬20 – 10%
‫اﺳﺑوع‬1-2 25%
‫اﺳﺎﺑﯾﻊ‬2-4 50%
‫اﺳﺎﺑﯾﻊ‬4-6 75%
‫اﺳﺎﺑﯾﻊ‬6- 8 90%

21 –one test in tha following can diagnose anaemia 33- rice watery stool can coused by
: salmonella-A
- cbc B- vibrreo cholera
C- shigella
- pt D- E.coli
- ptt
- peletlet
- leukocyte 34- lactobacilli isolated in
A- throat swab
22- westrone test we use for B- Ear
- ESR C- urine
D- stool
- HB
- AG-AB reaction
- P.L 35- the test used to differntiate pathogenic staph
A- oxidase
:‫ﺗﺳﺗﺧدم ﺟﻣﯾﻊ اﻻﺧﺗﺑﺎرات اﻟﺗﺎﻟﯾﮫ ﻓﻲ ﻣﻌﻣل اﻟﻛﯾﻣﯾﺎء اﻻ‬23- B- catalase
CBC C- coagulase
 Serum
antibody))‫ﻛم رواﺑط ﺗوﺟد ﻓﻲ اﻟﺧﻼﯾﺎ اﻟﻣﺿﺎده‬ Stool
a-1 ‫ﺟﺎوﺑت ﻛذا ﻻﻧﻲ ﻣﺎﻋﻣري ﺷﻔت ﺳﺗول ﺑﺎﻟﻛﻣﺳﺗري ﺧﺧﺦ‬
b- 2
c- 3
d- 4
f- 5 17. transmitter through blood transfusion ?
AIDS
Malaria
Cytomegalovirus
‫ﯾﺣﺗوي ﻋﻠﻰ ارﺑﻊ ﺟزﯾﺋﺎت‬IG All above .
18. leukocytes responsible for parasitic and
IG M allergic reaction ?
IG A Eosinophile .
IG D
IG E ‫ھذا ﻣو اﻟﺳؤال ﺑس‬19. granulocytes cause leukemia ?
IGG ‫ﻣﻌﻧﺎه ؟‬
CML .‫ﺟﺎوﺑت‬
HDN‫ﯾﺳﺑب‬IG 20. organ participate in billrubin ?
IGG anti – d Liver
21. in the bate HCG urine use ?
Mmol/l
‫ﻋدد ﻛرﯾﺎت اﻟدم اﻟﺑﯾﺿﺎء‬ ‫اﻧﺎ ﺣطﯾت ھذا ﻻﻧﺔ ﻣﻛﺗوب ﺑول ﻣدري ﺻﺢ او‬Positive or negative
‫ﻻ‬
4000- 11000 22.organ excrete the uric acid ?
Kidney
23. genital disease can caused by ?
Gonorrhea and trichomonas .
1. urine samples culture in :-
‫إﻧﺎ ﺟﺎوﺑت ھذا‬Cleed ager 24. 36- hemolytic in normocytic normochromic
cleed ager and blood ager .‫ﺑس ﻛﺎن ﻓﯾﮫ ﺧﯾﺎر ﺣﯾرﻧﻲ ھو‬ anemia the test used is
2. Albert stain used to diagnoses :- A- ferritin
Coryenbactrium diphtheria . B- transferine
3. which the following produce by staph . auerus ‫ﺑس ﻣدري وش اﻷﺟﺎﺑﺔ‬
and not produce by other staph ?
Coagulas . ‫ﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال ﻣﺻدر اﻟطﺎﻗﺔ ﻟﻠﺣﯾواﻧﺎت اﻟﻣﻧوﯾﺔ اﻧﺎ ﺣطﯾب ﻓرﻛﺗوز ﺑس ﻣﺎﻧﻲ‬
4. the test used to differentiate pathogenic staph ? ‫ﻣﺗﺄﻛد‬
Coagulas test . ‫وﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال ﻋن اﻟﻘﻠب ﺣطﯾت ﻛرﺗﯾن ﻛﺎﯾﻧﯾز‬
5. cell not have nucleus ? ‫وﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺳؤال اﻟﺗﺣﻠل ﯾﺄﺛر ﻋﻠﻰ ﻧﺗﯾﺟﺔ ﻣﺎ ﻋدا اﻧﺎ ﺟﺎوﺑت اﻟﺑﯾﻠروﺑن ﺑس ﻣدري‬
RBC ‫وش اﻷﺟﺎﺑﺔ‬
6. Leukocytes normal rang ? ‫واﻟﻠﺔ ﯾوﻓﻘﻛم ﯾﺎرب‬
4000 – 11000
7. platelet store for ?
5 days .
‫ﻛﺎن ﻣﻌﻧﻰ اﻟﺳؤال ﻋﻠﻰ ﻣﺎ اﻋﺗﻘد ادﻧﻰ ﺣد ﻟﻣﻌدل‬8. platelet rang The following statements are true about insulin
‫اﻟﺻﻔﺎﺋﺢ ؟‬ except:
‫ اﻟف‬200 ‫اﻧﺎ ﺟﺎوﺑت‬
1-promots glucose uptake by muscle and fat
?‫ﺷﻲ زى ﻛذا‬9. anemia cause soluble.
microcytic .‫أﻧﺎ ﺟﺎوﺑت‬ 2-prevent glycolysis.
?‫ﻣﻌﻧﺎه ﻛذا‬10. sickle cell have 3-mobilizes transfer of plasma glucose from tissue
HB S‫ﺟﺎوب‬ to cell membrane of cells.
?‫ ﯾﻌﻧﻲ‬RH –ve ‫أذا ﻛﺎن‬11. 4-mobilizes transfer of plasma glucose from liver
not have D-Antigen .‫ﺟﺎوﺑت‬ ))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬to other tissues. ((
12. chaga disease caused by ? 5- non of above.
Trypanosome cruzi .
13. malaria diagnosis by ? The majority of the glycogen in the body is stored
Thick blood film . in the:
14. taenia saginate diagnosis by ? 1-muscle.
Egg in stool . 2-liver.
15. Ascaris lumbricoides infection stage ? 3-muscles and tissue.
Embeyonated egg . 4-heart.
)‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬5-A and B(
16. biochemistry test used sample except ?
Urine. The principle determinant of body water esmolality
Whole blood is:
 3-directly proportional to the concentration of the
))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬1-sodoum concentration.(( ))‫ﺻﺢ‬analyte.((
2-potassium concentration. 4-inversly proportional to the absorbance.
3-chloride concentration. 5-inversly proportional to the emitted color.
4-bicarbonate concentration.
5-glucose concentration.
Q1: Lap result of patient is high in all the parameters
The technician should inform the physician when these indicate:
blood glucose level is: Urea, Creatinine, Na, CL and K.
A) High or Low Proteins
1-60mg\dl. B) High or Low Carbohydrates
2-80mg\dl. C) High or Low Lipids
))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬3-50mg\dl.(( Q2: One of these is not anticoagulant:
4-110mg\dl. A) Phosphate
5-120mg\dl. B) Oxalate
C) Citrate
Which statement is true about chemical or latent Q3: Insulin is used to maintain glucose and with
diabetes: other hormone:
A) Growth hormone
1-the FBS exceeds 150mg\dl. B) Thyroxin
2-the oral glucose tolerance test is normal. C) Glucagons
3-the 2 HR post pradial exceeds 180 mg\dl. Q4: Test used for Bile Duct Obstruction:
)) ‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬4-presence of acedosis and ketosis.(( A) Total Bilirubin
5-presence of sugar in urine. B) Esterad Bilirubin
C) Urinobilirubin
A severe diabetes mellitus will bring about which Q5: One of these parameters is affected by
condition: Hemolysis:
A) LDH
1-electrolyte imbalance. B) AST (SGOT)
2-dehydration. C) K
3-acidosis and ketosis. Q6: One of these parameters used to indicate
))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬4-all above (( Pancreatis:
5-non of the above. A) ALP
B) GGT
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid fast C) Acid phosphatase
because : Q7: One of these parameters used to indicate
Myocardial Infraction:
1-its easily to stained by gram stain. A) CK
))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬2-once stained it cant be removed by acid.(( B) CK-MB
3-its easily decolorized after staining. C) CK-BB
4-its very easy to stain . Q8: ElecSystem 2010 incubator:
5-its stained by an alkaline stain. A) 30 C
B) 37 C
All of the following is a test for liver function C) 35 C
except: D) 40 C
1- bilirubin in urine. E) 50 C
2- Bilirubin in serum. Q9: Hitachi ElecSystem 2010 positions from 1 to 6
))‫ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد ﻣن اﻻﺟﺎﺑﮫ‬3- Excretory function test.(( is for:
4- Enzyme test . A) Controls
5- Non of the above. B) Emergency samples
Q10: ICIB 283 for determination of Co2 used:
A) Serum
Parasite which doesn’t deposit eggs in the B) Plasma
intestine: C) Whole Blood
1-E.vermicularis.
2-A.dudenale.
3-A.lumbricoides.
4-T.saginata. Section 2: Microbiology
))‫وﷲ اﻧﺎ ﺷﺎﻛك ﻓﻲ اﻻﺟﺎﺑﮫ‬5-T.spirali ((
Q1: The colonies of Salmonella Typhi appeared on
In spectrophotometer the amount of light absorbed the plate:
is: A) Colorless with black centre
B) --------------------------------
1-directley proportional to the amount of light C) -------------------------------
transmitted. Q2: One of these is Oxidase Positive:
2-inversly proportional to the amount of solute. A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) ------------------------------
C) ------------------------------ Q1: Lymph node with central germ end is:
Q3: Neisseria meningitis is: A) Deep cortex lymph node
A) Gram –ve Cocci B) Medulla of lymph node
B) ------------------- C) Red pulp of spleen
C) ------------------ D) White pulp of spleen
Q4: To differentiate between Staphylococcus and Q2: Satisfactory of Sputum is:
Streptococcus use: A) Present of Carbon laden
A) Catalyze B) Few leukocytes
B) ---------- C) Mucoid fibre
C) ---------- D) Few squamous cell
Q5: Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B E) All of the above
Streptococcus): Q3: Satisfactory of FNA is:
A) Inhibited by bacitracin A) Needle is in the centre of tumor
B) Against antibody A B) Needle penetrate the tumor
C) -------------------------- C) Needle is not close to the tumor
Q6: Error of Gram stain is: D) ------------------------------------
A) Crystal violet more than 1min Q4: Villa papilloma is affect:
B) Safranin 3min A) Skin
C) Over decolorizing B) Lip
Q7: MacConkey agar added crystal violet act as: C) Ureter
A) Indicator D) Vagina
B) Growth factor Q5: Causes of Necrosis is:
C) Inhibit Enterococcus Sp A) Chemical Toxins
Q8: Indian Ink used to stain: B) Heat
A) M. tuberculosis C) --------------------
B) ------------------ D) --------------------
C) ----------------- Q6: One of these is Cytology used:
Q9: Measles (rubeola) is: A) 95 % Ethanol
A) Koplik's spots marker B) 70 % Alcohol
B) Caused by paramyxovirus of the genus C) Methanol
Morbillivirus D) ---------------
C) Characteristic maculopapular, erythematous
D) Laboratory diagnosis Positive measles IgM
E) Children salivary measles specific IgA Section 4: Hematology & Immunohematology
F) Hyperplastic lymph nodes (Warthin-Finkeldey Q1: To differentiate between Hemoglobin C
cell,) disease and trait by:
G) All othem are correct A) Electrophoresis
Q10: Gram +ve with branch: B) Ruler
A) M. tuberculosis C) Meter
B) Actinomysis israli D) ------------------
C) ---------------------- Q2: Many of Target Cells seen in:
Q11: Skin affected with Pus: A) Hb C disease
A) M. tuberculosis B) Aplastic Anemia
B) M. leprosy C) Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
C) ------------------ D) -------------------------------------
Q3: Megakaryocyte – Low Platelets seen in:
Q12: Small RNA virus is: A) Aplastic Anemia
A) Adenovirus B) Pernicious Anemia
B) Retinavirus C) Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic
C) ------------- D) ---------------------------------
Q13: Latex virus: Q4: PCV (HCT) / RBC count is:
A) Affinity of latex for viral antibody A) MCV
B) Antigen antibody complex B) MCH
C) -------------------------------------- C) MCHC
D) ------------------------------------- D) --------
Q14: Gram +ve Cocci in cluster will be use median Q5: 107 fL Hb with normal VitB12 and Folate is:
sensitive (inhibited): A) Iron Deficiency Anemia
A) Penicillin G B) Aplastic Anemia
B) Erythromycin C) VitB12 deficiency
C) Vancomycin Q6: Prothrompin Time (PT) is affected by:
D) Methicillin A) Fibrenogen I
E) Oxacillin B) Factor VIII
F) --------------- C) Factor X
D) ---------------
Section 3: Histology & Cytology Q7: Reject the sample if it:
A) Hemolysis
B) Not written Correct request form
C) --------------
D) ------------
Q8: To Transfer Blood not use:
A) Heparin
B) CIP
C) CIA
D) 1% sodium
Q9: Blood Donor + Patient RBC indicate:
A) Cross-match
B) --------------
C) -------------

Section 5: Parasitology
Q1: Giardia lablia is the same of (watery stool-
diarrhea):
A) Shigella
B) Salmonella
C) ECT
D) V. Cholera

In AFB staining the very first stain we use:

1-malachite green .
2-crystal violet.
))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬3-carbol fuchsin.(
4-acrydine orange.

The reagent that we use to differentiate gram(-)and

gram(+)is:

1-acid.
2-crystal violet.
))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬3-alcohol.((

Hepatitis B virus is having the following nucleic

acid:

).‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬1-DNA(
2-RNA.
3-single dsDNA.
4-single DS RNA.

THE most suitable biochemical reaction TSI(-

)UREA(+) coliform:

1-klebsiella.
))‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬2-salmonella.((
3-E.coli.
4-shigelloa.
 a) 150.000 – 450.000*
All the following can be done by hemocytometer b) 250.000 – 500.000
except c) 150 - 400
d) 20 -80
a)RBCs

b)Semen
Viruses is
c)Lymphocyte
a-Can live by their own
d)Total White blood cells
b-Can not see by light microscope

c-can not affected by anti-body

To fixation of thin blood film we can used
d- can not transport by communicable diseases
a) aceton
b) acitic acid
c) acid -alchol Normal value of Lymphocyte
d) Not fixed
a) 55%
b) 25%
c) 70%
Refrance range of Platelets d) 10%

a) 100 x 10 (12)
b)10 x 10 (9)
c) 10 x 10 (9) Which of the following of immunoglobulin have five
d) 10 x 10 (9) molecules and heavy

‫ھذا اﻟﺳؤال ﺣﯾرﻧﻲ ﻛﺛﯾر‬

After collected blood on plain tube must be a_ IgG

b_ Ig D
a) no clot c_ Ig A
d_igE
keep on incubator (37) at 30 min

c- heamolysis
We can different gram –ve bacteria and +ve bacteria
d- mix gently differented by

a)capsule
b)cytoplasm
scotch-tap test used for d)cell wall

a- ascaris lumbricoides
b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- trichuris tricura antigen In O Positive person
d- taenia saginata
a) No presence of Ab
‫ﻣو ﻣﺗﺄﻛد ﻷﻧﻲ ﻣﺎ ﺳﻣﻌت ﺑﺎﻻﺧﺗﺑﺎر ھذا‬ b) No presence of Ag*
c) No Presence of Ab and Ag

The media can growth some bacteria and inhibition

another bacteria is In which normal presence appear in urin analysis

A- basic media a)Protein

b)Billrubin
B- diffrentioal media c)Chloride
d)Glucose
C- sellective media

D- enriched media
Rh negative patient means he dose not have

a) E antigen
Normal range of Platelets b) D antigen
c) B antigen
d) C antigen 4- Cyst
e) Non of the above 5- Metacercaria

In O blood group the Ab in serum is Immune system can called Adaptive system or

a) Anti A and B** 1- Lympohocyte system

b) Anti A 2-Acquired system
c) Anti B 3- Lympohocyte-immune system
d) Non of the above
e) All of the above
One is not true about acid:

it's one of the tape worms 1- Proton donor

: 2- Turn litmus paper to blue
a- ascaris lumbricoides 3- Sour taste
b- ancylostoma duodenal 4- React with alkaline to give water and salt
c- trichuris tricura
d- taenia saginata
Most common method (technique) used to detect
hormone amount in the laboratories
:
All following stained by gimsa stain except 1- Spectrophotometry
2- Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA)
a)Malaria
b)Leishmania
c)Schistosoma Strong antigen
d) trypanosoma
1-vitamin
2-carbohydrate
3-proteins

. Taenia saginate diagnosis by

the Elisa sensitive to light
A)Egg in stool :
1-conjugate only
b)larvae 2-substrate only
3-conjugate and substrate
C)oocyct

ESR mesure
The unit used in MCV
‫ﺗﻘﺎس ب‬
A)p/g
1-millimeters
b) ml/ blood 2-centimeter
3-miligram
C)mg/dl

C)-fl taenia saginate transmission

:
1-ingestion beef
2-ingestion pork
Normal range of MCV

a) 25-60 fl Gram positive chain

b) 75-85 fl 1-streptococci
2-staphyllococci
c) 75-96 fl 3-gonococci
4-meningococci

Infective stage of Entrobius Vermicularis is one is gram-motile rod earobic and oxidase possitve
:
1- Larva E.coli
2- Cercaria
3- Egg proteus
Pseudomonas

- gondotropic hormone
LH

25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:

a- 30-45 seconds
b- 30-45 minutes
d- 12-15 minutes
c : 13+-2 seconds

‫ وﻣﻣﻛن ﺗﻧﻘص‬2 ‫ﺑﺎﻟﻣوﺟب واﻟﺳﺎﻟب ﯾﻌﻧﻲ ﻣﻣﻛن ﺗزﯾد ﻋن‬

organism can live and effect urinary tract or vagina

a- toxoplasma
b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis
d- all of the above

2-lukuocte count become < 4000 in:-

a-bacteria infection
b- inflammation
c- malignant
c- non above

In blood group use:-

a-know cell with unkown serum

b- unkown cell with kown serum
c-know cell with unkown cell

chinse litter see in :-

a- C.diftteria b-………. C-……..

Anigen and Anti-body can bind on

AG on RBCs and Ab on plasma

E-coli

a)motile
b)indole +ve
c)lactose vermetive
d)produce gas and acid
e)all above

the result at added by 2 dillution on 6 tube <

‫أﺗوﻗﻊ ﺻﯾﻐﺔ اﻟﺳؤال زي ﻛذا و إﺟﺎﺑﺔ اﻟﺳؤال ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺄﻛد ﻣﻧﮭﺎ‬

a)125
b)132
c)164
d)225
 1 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
(1) 1- 3 ά chains and 2 γ chains
<< ‫طﺒﻌﺎ ﻋﻼﻣﺔ ﺻﺢ ﺻﺤﯿﺤﮫ اﻛﯿﺪ‬ 2- 2 ά chains and 2 β chains
‫ﺻﺢ وﻧﺠﻤﮫ ] ﺗﻘﺮﯾﺒﺎ ً [ او ﺑﺎﻷزرق‬
<< ‫ﻷن ﻓﯿﮭﺎ اﺧﻄﺎء وﺻﺤﺤﺔ ﺑﻌﻀﮭﺎ‬
√
3- 2 ά chains and 2 δ chains
1) The definitive host is an animal: 4- 2 ά chains and 3 δ chains
1-Entamoeba histolitica 5- 3 ά chains and 2 δ chains
9) The main (most) Hb found in adult is:
√
2- Toxoplasma Gondii
1- √Hb A
3-Trypanosoma cruzi
4-E.coli 2- Hb A2
5- Giardia lamblia 3- Hb F
2) One is not found (involve) in colorimetric: 10) Blood medium commonly used in blood
1- Cuvett bank:
2-light source
3- Photo sensor and analyzer
1- √* Citrate Phosphate Dextrose adenine
(CPD-A)
√
4- *fule source 2- EDTA anticoagulant
3- Heparin anticoagulant
5-Filter
3) The smallest molecular weight Ig is: 4- Saline alanin glucose maltose (SAGM)

√
1- IgG
2-IgM
3-IgD 11) Indirect anti-antibody test used to detect:
4-IgE 1- Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
5-IgA 2- IgG
4) Bacteria can cause pathogenesis to human 3- IgM
by:
1-Capsullar
4- √ Sensitized antibody in patient serum
2-Secret enzymes 5- Non of the above
3-Endogenous toxins 12) Direct anti-antibody test used to detect:
4-Exogenous toxins
√
1- Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
√
5- All of the above 2- IgG
3- IgM
5) Neutrophil count is high in:
4- Sensitized antibody in patient serum
1√* -Acute bacterial infection 5- Non of the above
13) Anti-Human Immunoglubin is:
2- Iron deficiency anemia
3-Megaloblastic anemia 1- Coombs reagent
6) One is not correctly paired: 2- Anti-Ab
1- α- cells→ glucagon 3- IgG
2- β- cells → insulin
3- Parathyroid → calcium
4- √All of the above
4- Corpus luteum → Progesterone 5- Non of the above
14) Rh-ve patient means he dose not have:
5- √ Estrogen → seminiferous tubules 1- E antigen
7) Function of pili of the bacteria:
2- √D antigen
√
1- Attachment to the host tissue 3- B antigen
4- C antigen
2- Movement
3- Reproduction (multiplication) 5- Non of the above
4- Engulf of food 15) Detection of malaria parasite is by:
5- All of the above
8) Hb A2 is consisting of:
√1- Thick blood film
1
 1 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬

√1- Increase Oogenesis

2- Stimulate contraction of uterus
3- Increase basal metabolic
16) One is always non motile gram –ve 24) Infective stage of Entrobius Vermicularis
rods: is:
1-Haemophilus Influenza 1- Larva
2- Cercaria
√2-Shigella
3- E.coli √3- Egg
4- Salmonella 4- Cyst
5- Borditella Pertusis 5- Metacercaria
17) One is motile gram –ve rods: 25) Infective stage of Taenia:
1- Haemophilus Influenza 1- Larva
2- Bacillus anthracis 2- Cercaria
3- Pseudomonas aerogenes
√3- Embryonated egg
√*4- Vibrio cholerae 4- Cyst
5- Yersinia Pestis 6- Metacercaria
18) One is gram +ve oval (cocci): 26) Autoinfection of human can caused in case
1- Bacillus anthracis of:
2- Meningococci
√1- Entrobius Vermicularis
√*3- Pneumococci 2- Taenia Sp.
19) A child diagnosis show scarlet fever the 3- Anclystoma Dudenal
cause is: 5- Ascaris Lumbercoidis
27) The leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and
√1- Streptococcus Pyogenes Acquired immunity:
2- Staphylococci aureus
√1- Lymphocyte
2- Neutrophil
3- Monocyte
20) Xylose lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) is: 4- Basophile
1- Selective media 5- Eosinophil
2- Simple media 28) The atomic mass of an atom is the number
of:
√3- Differential media
4- Enriched media √1- Protons and neutrons
6- Enrichment 2- Protons only
3- Neutrons only
4- Electrons
21) Function of Thyroxin is: 5- Non of the above
1- Increase Oogenesis 29) In case of obstructive jaundice one is
2- Stimulate contraction of uterus commonly not found:
1- Total bilirubin is elevated
√3- Increase basal metabolic 2- High bilirubin in urine
22) Increase in Thyroxin Stimulating Hormone
(TSH) causes: √3- Direct bilirubin is within the normal
1- Cushing disease 4- Dark color of urine
2- Gigantism 5- Clay color of stool
2- Exophthalamic goiter 30) In case of Hemolytic jaundice one is not
3- Hypoglycemia likely to be found:
23) Function of Estrogen: 1- Total bilirubin is elevated
2
 1 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬

√2- High bilirubin in urine 3-√ 2 ά chains and 2 β chains

3- No chaing in color of urine
4- Direct bilirubin is within the normal
5- Normal color of stool
31) One is not true about acid:
1- Proton donor
4- 2 ά chains and 3 β chains
5- 2 ά chains and 2 γ chains
39) Normal range of leukocyte is:
1- √4-11 X 10^9
40) Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis:

√
2- Turn litmus paper to blue 1- √Finding of a typical fertilized egg in stool
41) Life span of red blood cells in the
3- Sour taste
circulation (body):
4- React with alkaline to give water and salt
1- 80 days
5- Non of the above
32) Pentose phosphate metabolism cycle is 2- √120 day
important to the cell because it give: 3- 130 day
1- Acetyl CoA 4- 20 day
2- ADP 5- 7 days
3- ATP 42) Increase in growth hormone causes:
4- NADH 1- Cushing disease

*
5- √ NADPH 2- √Gigantism
3- Exophthalamic goiter
33) Hydrolysis of sucrose result:
4- Hypoglycemia
1- Only glucose
43) If you see this sign (symbol) in the lab it
2- Galactose
means:
√
3- Fructose + glucose 1- Flammable
4- Glucose + Glucose 2-√ Corrosive
5- Maltose + Glucose 3- Oxidizing
34) One is not a Romanowsky stain: 4- Explosive
1- Fields stain 5- Toxic
2-√ Gram stain 44) Reticulocyte is immature:
3- Geimsa stain 1-√ RBC
4- Leishman stain 2- WBC
35) Romanowsky stain consists of: 4- Platelet
1- √Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue
45) Best sterilization of Nutrient media done
2- Eosin only
by:
3- Methylene blue only
1- Hot air oven
4- Indian Ink
36) Deionization of impure water means: 2- √Autoclaving
1- Boiling 46) Most common method (technique) used to
2- Filtration detect hormone amount in the laboratories:
3-√ Exchange of protons and electrons 1- Spectrophotometry
37) Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst used to 2-√ Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay
detect (diagnose): (ELIZA)
1- Chromatoidal bars 47) Test should be kept away from light:
2- Cell wall 1-√ Serum bilirubin
3-√* Nuclei 48) Immunoglobulin pregnancy test related to:
1- √*IgG
38) Hb A consists of:
2- IgM
1- 2 ά chains and 2 δ chains
3- Human chorionic Gonadotropin
2- 3 ά chains and 2 β chains

3
 1 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
49) Leukocyte responsible for cellular 59) Confirmatory test of streptococcus
immunity: pneumonia:
1- √T-lymphocyte 1- Catalase
2- Optochine disc
2- B- lymphocyte
3- Coagulase
3- Monocyte
4- Basophile 4- √*Bile insolubility
5- Eosinophil 6- Bacitracin
50) Buffer solution is:
1- Chaing color when chaing pH 60) Most sever (serious) malaria infection
2- Resist acidic pH caused by:
3- Resist alkaline pH 1- √Plasmodium Falcibarum
4- Weak acid + weak base
2- Plasmodium Malaria
5- Strong acid + weak base
3- Plasmodium Ovale
51) An indicator is:
4- Plasmodium Vivax
1-√ Chaing color with chaing pH 5- All of the above
2- Resist acidic pH 61) Parasite can cause fetal cerebral infection:
3- Resist alkaline pH 1- Taenia
4- Weak acid + weak base 2- √Toxoplasma gondii
5- Strong acid + weak base
62) Gram +ve cocci arranged in groups
(clusters):
1- Streptococci
52) Target of prolactin in female:
1- Ovary 2- √Staphylococci
2- √Mammary glands 63) Non motile protozoa:
1- E.coli
53) Parasite can be detected in vaginal and
2- Entamoeba Histolytica
urethral discharge:
3- Trypanosoma cruzi
1- √Trichomonas Vaginalis
4- √*Giardia lamblia
54) Org. (bacteria) arranged in Chinese litters:
5- Trichomonas vaginalis
1- √Corynebacteria Diphtheria 64) One is always oxidase +ve
2- Bacillus anthraces 1- Haemophilus Influenza
55) Malaria infection transmitted by: 2- √Pseudomonas aurogenase
1- Male anopheles mosquito
65) Leukocyte responsible for response to
2- √Female anopheles mosquito parasitic and allergic infection:
56) Heparin is: 1- Lymphocyte
1-√ Protein 2- Nutrophile
3- Monocyte
2- Enzyme
4- Basophile
3- Polysaccharide
4- Oligosaccharide 5-√ Eosinophil
5- Non of the above
57) One stage prothrombin time used to detect
(diagnose) disorders in:
1-√ Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
58) Thrombin time is:
1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
3- √The conversion of prothrombin to
fibrinogen in addition of thrombin

4
 2 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
Methyl alcohol
(2) chloroform
5%phenol
1-Blood of Microfilaria infection 5% cresol
diagnostic with: 12-prolonged fast cause:
√Wuchereria bancrofti Hyperglycemia
2-Oocyst benefited to diagnose: √Keton in urine
E.histolytica 13-One is not correctly paired :
E.coli α- cells →glucagon
√Toxoplasma gondii β- cells → insulin
Giaradia lamblia √ Estrogen → seminiferous tubules
Typanosoma cruzi Corpus luteum → Progesterone
3-intracellular parasite: Parathyroid → calcium
E.coli 14- bacteria motile gram-rods:
Toxoplasma gondii Shigella
Giaradia lamblia Bordetela pertusis
Typanosoma cruzi √ Pseudomonas aeruginoea
√Trichomonas vaginalis Yersenia pestis
4- An animal is a definitive host:
E.histolytica
E.coli
√Toxoplasma gondii
Giaradia lamblia 15-presence one from this substance in
Typanosoma cruzi urine detect abnormal codition;
5-cosnider ketose: Calcium
Glucose Phosphates
√Fructose √ Glucose
Mannose Urates
6- non motile protozoa: 16-hypersecretion of cortisol cuase:
E.histolytica √ Cushing disease
E.coli 17-in cardiac infraction one of the
√Toxoplasma gondii
measurements is not benefited:
Giaradia lamblia
√ Creatinine
Typanosoma cruzi
7-cutaneous leishmaniasis transmitted 18-elevated in parasitic infection and
by: allergy :
√ IgE
√Phlebotomus sand fly
19- with romanowsky stain ,2-5 lobes
8-malaria transmitted by : and give violet or pinkish granules:
√Female anopheline mospuito √ Nutrophile
Male anopheline mospuito Eiosinophile
Basophile
9- shistosoma hematobium diagnosis:
Monocyte
√Egg in urine with terminal spine
10-not find in the flam photometry : 20-lense near the slid in light microscope
Burner :
Filter √ Objective
Fuel source Eye lenses
Cuvete for sample 21-one of the following has highest conc.
Photo Of cholesterol:
11-low effective sterilization with: Chylomicron
Ethyl alcohol 70% LDL
1
 2 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
HDL √ Decrease ca level
VLDL 36-use O cell tube on lab for:
Apolipoprtein √ As control
22-hypersecretion of insulin cause: To detect Ag
√ Hypoglycemia To detect Ab
23-hyperglycemia hormone 37-all cause false –v ABO blood
√ Glucagon grouping except
24- B-lymphocyte after attack foreign √ Too short incubation
bodies ,called 38-prothrompin time detect:
√ Plasma cell √ Extrinsic pathway of coagulation
25- technique used for detect Hormon 39-alkali skin burn treatment by
amount: neutralization with:
√ ELIZA Sodium bicarbonate powder
26-does not sterile with hot air oven: Boric acid
Dry glassware Acetic acid 1%
Oil √ Cold water
Powder Hot water
Waxes 40-acid skin burn treatment by
Rubber gloves neutralization with:
27-lymphocyte is elevated in : Sodium bicarbonate powder
√ Viral infection Boric acid
Acute bacterial infection Acetic acid 1%
Iron deficiency anemia √ Cold water
Megaloblastic anemia Hot water
non of the above 41-store RBC at -80◌c:
ْ
28- The smallest molecular weight Ig is: √ 1year
√ 1-IgG 1month
2-IgM 4 year
3-IgD 2 year
4-IgE 6year
29-gram-v bacteria colonies color : 42-deffenetial test for:
Dark purple √ Leukocyte
√ Pale to dark red 43- disease caused by pyogen
Orange stereptococcus:
30- bacteria need dark field to detect √ Scarlet fever.
√ T.pallidium 44- you do not take this stage for
31-Autoclave sterilize in temp: tratment small cut In emergency :
√ 121◌c-20min
ْ Clean with soap and water
32-strict aerobe bacteria Do pressure with piece
√ Mycobacterium Immediately rinse mouth well and water
33-citrate test assis : Cover it with water dressing
Mycobacterias Sterilize
Staph 45- org cause bloody in stool:
Strept √ Shigella sp.
Colistridia sp
46-sensitized Ab in serum detect by:
√ Indirect antiglublin test
34-nutrent agar: 47-thrombin time measure:
√ Basic media √ Convert fibrinogen to fibrin with activate of
35- hypoparathyrodism hormone cause: thrombin
Elevated ca level

2
 2 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
48- in presence of clotting defect one of Adenine
this not measure: Guanine
√ Leucocyte count √ Thymine
Uric acid
49-in Rh-v person , this Ag not found :
Urea
√ D-antigen
50-Z.N stain use for diagnose : 64- one use for measure abnormality in
√ Mycobateria kidney :
√ Creatinine
51-media use for differentiate between
L.F and N.L.F: 65- not romanowsky stain :
√ Gram stain
√ Maconky media
52-bleeding time test detect the 66-does not stimulate with slight
abnormality in : hemolysis:
√ Cholesterol
√ Defect in vessels and platelets
53- Immature RBC that is normally 67-one of them use for susceptible
presence in blood film: abnormality kidney:
√ Erythrocyte
√ Creatinin
54- erythrocyte is immature cell of: 68- in O+v person
√ RBC
√No presence of Ag
55-S hemoglobin is the same defect of √No presence of Ab
thalassemia but the different is : 69-one is stimulate on serum calcium
Long B chain
level:
√ Glutamic acid on B chain is substituted with
√Prolonged application of tourniquet on arm
valine
Glutamic acid on a chain is substitutes with 70-Eiosinphil is high in :
valine √Parasitic infection and allergic reaction.

56- hormone that cause replication of

RBC: By : Danotti
√ Erythropoietin .. ‫ﻻ ﺗﻨﺴﻮﻧﻲ ﻣﻦ دﻋﻮاﺗﻜـﻢ‬
57- use for clean slide: ‫ﺟﺰاﻛﻢ ﷲ ﺧﻲ‬
Ethyle alcohol
Methyle alcohol
58-oxytocine hormone function:
√ Contribtion of Uterus
59-regulation of calcium level in serum
by:
Calcitonine hormone only
Parathyroid hormone only
√ Calcionine with parathyroid hormone
Vitamin D
PTH+Vitamin D+calcitonin
60-the defect of thalassemia occur in:
Cycle of heme
√ Glubin chain
61-Normal range of WBCs:
√ 4000_11000
62-stain use for tuberculosis:
√ Lewis Jensen stain
63- pyrimidin base:
3
 3 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
(3)  Liver glycogen
 Heart glycogen
1.the infective stage of animal parasite  Unsaturated fat
 √Toxoplasma gondii  √* Triglyceride
2.the (u) unit used to evaluation of : 10.in Anti human globulin test do wash of RBC
 Protein in serum because all serum contain :
 Hemoglobin  Albumin
 Hormone assay  a_glubulin
 √ Enzymatic activity  b_ globulin
3.the following is ingredient of culture medium:  fibrinogen
 Meat extract  √ Immunoglobulin
 Minral salts 11. the most source of ATP in cell is :
 Agar  √*Mitochondria
 Peptone  Cytoplasm
 Non of the above  Nucleus
 √All of the above  Cell wall
4.a semen specimen, contain sugar source of 12 . H Ag present in :
the spermatozoa energy is:  Pilli
 Glucose  Capsule
 Mannose  √ Flagella
 Glactose  Cell membrane
 √ Fructose
 Sucrose
5.CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood 13. urea is final product of catabolism of:
for:  √ amino acid
 √35 days  triglyceride
 45 days  cholesterol
 5 days  polysaccharide
 15 days 14.Which of White blood cell give
 Non of the above immunoglobulin :
6During reaction of two chemical substances ,  √ lymphocyte
the color produced asses by  Neutrophil
 √Spectrophotometer  Basophile
 Flame photometer  Monocyte
 Eosinophil
15.Blood of Microfilaria infection diagnosis
with :
 √ Wuchereia bancofti
7.glycolysis done in : 16.one of the immunoglobulin present in trace
 Nucleus amount in serum :
 Endoplasmic reticulum  IgG
 √ Mitochondrion  IgE
 Cytoplasm  √* IgM
 Non of the above  IgD
8.one of the above not present in Diabetic  IgA
mellitus coma : 17.gram -_ve bacteria colonies color appear :
 Hyperglycemia  Dark purple
 √ Hypercholesterolemia  √ Pale to dark red
 High number of ketene in urine  Orange
 Non of the above 18. alkali burn treatment by neutralization
9.in which substance give blood glucose when with :
hydrolysis :  Sodium bicarbonate powder
 Muscle glycogen  Boric acid
1
 3 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
 √Acetic Acid  Micrometer
 Cold water 27. one of these organism multiply intracellular
 Hot water parasite:
19.reason of false positive ABO in  Gardia lamblia
compatibility:  Entameba histolytica
 √ Cold agglutination  E. coli
 Tryponosoma Cruzi
 √ Toxoplasma gondii
28.gram-ve rod non motile :
 Salmonella
20. selective and Differential medium of entero  Yersini pestis
pathogen is:  √ Shigella species
 Chocolate agar  Vibrio cholerae
 Blood agar 29. Leukocyte responsible for cellular
 √DCA medium immunity:
 Meat extract agar  √ T_ lymphocyte
 Non of the above  B- lymphocyte
21.in O blood group the Ab in serum is :  Monocyte
 Anti A1B  Basophile
 Anti A  Eosinophil
 Anti B 30.one of these org gram +ve cocci arranged in
 Non of the above pairs :
 √ All of the above  Staphylococci
22.Neutrophil is acommn White blood cell  Streptococci
present in blood and the percentage of presence  Meningococci
is :  √ entrococci
 90% 31. One is not a Romanowsky stain
 15%  Fields stain
 √75%  √ Gram stain
23.The leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and  Geimsa stain
Acquired immunity  Leishman stain
 √ Lymphocyte
 Monocyte
 Neutrophil
 Basophil
 Eosinophil 32. Hydrolysis of sucrose result:
24. one of these is prokaryotic cell:  Only glucose
 Fungi  Galactose
 Bacteria  √ Fructose + glucose
 Entameba histolytica  Glucose + Glucose
 All of the above  Maltose + Glucose
 √ Non of the above 32.method used to detect horomone in the
25.Most sever (serious) malaria infection laboratory :
caused by:  √ ELIZA
 √ Plasmodium faliceparm 33. one of the following has highest conc. Of
 Plasmodium Malaria cholesterol:
 Plasmodium Ovale  Chylomicron
 Plasmodium Vivax  LDL
 All of the above  √*HDL
 VLDL
26.To detect pH from solution use :  Apolipoprtein
 pH meter 34. oxytocine hormone function :
 √ Indicator  Increase Oogenesis
2
 3 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
 √ Stimulate contraction of uterus  Non of the above
 Increase basal metabolic 45. the defect of thalassemia occur in:
35. Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst used to  Cycle of heme
detect (diagnose):  √ Glubin chain
 Chromatoidal bars
 Cell wall
 √ Nuclei 46 This Symbol means, when you see in
36. function of Cortisol : laboratory :
 Increase Oogenesis  acute flammable
 Stimulate contraction of uterus  √Toxic
 √ Increase basal metabolic  Corrosive
37.infective stage of Ascaris lumbricodes :  Explosive
 Larva
 Cercaria
 √ Egg
 Cyst
 Metacercaria
38.substance used in catalyse reaction : By : Danotti
√ H2O2 .. ‫ﻻ ﺗﻨﺴﻮﻧﻲ ﻣﻦ دﻋﻮاﺗﻜـﻢ‬

39. Normal range of erythrocyte ‫ﺟﺰاﻛﻢ ﷲ ﺧﯿـﺮ‬

4,5- 6,5X 10^9√ -
40.one of these leukocyte have 2_5 lobes in
nucleus :
 √ Neutrophil
 Basophil
 Monocyte
 Lymphocyte
 Eosinophil
41. one of these cell the largest leukocyte cell:
 Neutrophil
 Basophil
 √ Monocyte
 Lymphocyte
 Eosinophil
42.Alkline phosphates is the important enzyme
to detect function in :
 Liver
 Bone
 √ Liver and bone
 Non of the above
43.one of the following anticoagulant used for
blood glucose :
 EDTA
 Heparin
 √ *Sodium oxalate
 Florida Oxalate
 Sodium citrate
44.AST important enzyme to detect
abnormality in:
 Liver disease
 Heart disease
 √ Liver and heart disease
3
 4 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
Choose the correct answer: *light microscope
(1) the best anti coagulant in blood culture is *brilliant microscope
*sodium oxalate florescent microscope√*
*sodium citrates (13) virus is similar to live organisms in?
sodium sulphate√* *growth
(2) all the following samples are stained using *movement
gram stain except? reproduction√*
*water culture (14) the largest resolution of the microscope is?
*sputum *0.02microns
stool√* *2.0microns
(3) the percentage of sodium chloride in agar 0.2microns√*
culture is? (15) which of the following is liver function
*0.058% test?
*58.0% *liver enzymes
0.58%√* *serum + urin billrubin
(4) agar is characterized by all the following all of the previous√*
except? (16) which of the following causing
*freezing point is 42c & melting point is 100c enlargement of RBCs?
*nutritive *reticulocytes
un-nutritive√* *leishmania
(5) the normal value of (Na) in serum is? plasmodium√*
*135-145 mg/dl
*135-145 mmol/dl
135-145 mmol/l√* (17) the best sample for the culture of children
(6) gram stain starts with? paralysis virus is?
*iodine *anal swab
*crystal green *blood culture
methyl violet √* *stool culture√
(7) the causative of toxoplasma is? (18) dry air oven is used to sterilize?
*flees *water
*dogs *culture media
*cats√ √*sand
(8) gram negative samples are stained with? (19) the diabetic patient is going to comma
*yellow color when blood glucose is?
*blue color *120 mg/dl
*red colonies *160 mg/dl
√ √*less than 50mg/dl
(9) the color of cholera when cultured on (20) to differentiate between the two
TCBS? streptococci group which enzyme is used?
*blue *coagulase
*green *kinase
yellow√* √*catalase
(10) the diameter of micro pore filter used in (21) the microscope which used in investigate
bacteria filtration is? syphilis is?
*0.033microns *light microscope
*2.2microns *ultra-violet microscope
.22microns√* *dark field microscope√
(11) leishmania is transported by? (22) the antibiotic disc which differentiate
*mosquitoes between group A streptococci and other groups
*pugs is?
sand fly√* *neomycin
(12) to investigate one sample containing floro- *tetracycline
carbon we use which microscope? *bacitracin√
1
 4 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
(23) all of the following is true for salmonella *pink√
except? (34) the oil emertion lens is
*motile *10
*produces H2S *40
*oxidase positive√ *100
(24) amylase value is high in the following (35) the dwarf worm is?
disease? *schistosoma
*salivary glands *tenia saginata
*pancreas diseases √*H.nana
√*all of the previous (36) all of the following are present in gram
stain except?
*safranine
(25) one jaundice patient has yellow skin, his *iodine
billrubin is: √*malachite green
*2.5mg/dl (37) the diagnostic stage of amoeba is?
*1.2mg/dl *cyst
*5.0mg/dl√ *trophozoite
(26) acute diabetic patient has? √*all previous
*blood sugar more than 150mg/dl (38) to check the intestinal efficacy the
*blood sugar more than 180mg/dl following test is done?
*glucose & acetone in urin√ *pepsin
(27) the normal value of billrubin is? *lipase
*0.2-2.0mg/dl √*stool fats
*less than 2.0mg/dl (39) the worm that causes blood in urin?
√*less than 1.0mg/dl *ascaris
(28) diabetic patient has one of the following *fasciola
symptoms? √*schistosoma haematobium
*acidosis (40) the significant count of bacteria to be
*alkalosis inflammation is?
√*dryness *less than 10^5
(29) insulin is regulating blood sugar by? *more than 10^3
*increase the influx of glucose into cells √*more than 10^5
*activate glycogensis
√*all the previous
(30) the nutritive substance in culture media (41) to investigate gram stained samples we use
is? the following microscope?
*sugar *double phase microscope
*starch *florescent microscope
√*agar *light microscope√
(31) the best media for urin culture is? (42) the most important buffer system in blood
*blood agar is?
*chocolate agar *acetic acid system
√*cled agar *hemoglobin system
(32) the sterilization of autoclave is? √*bicarbonates system
*85c for 30min (43) all the following bacteria are interobacter
*150c for 30min except?
√*121c for 15min *E.coli
*proteus
√*non of the previous
(33) shigella soni colored in maconkey & (44) in the microscope when using objective
EMB? lens 10 & eye lens 10 thee magnification power
*colorless of the microscope is?
*red *10
2
 4 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
*1000 *level of LHD high
√*100 *level of GOT high
(45) all the following parameters affecting √*level of CK-MB high
gram staning except?
*use H2SO4
*add absolute alcohol after washing (57) variation in RBCs size?
√*delaying the dryness of the slide *microcytosis
(46) glycogen is stored in? *macrocytosis
*liver √*aniso cytosis
*muscles (58) pretranfusion test that is performed using
√*all the previous the patient red cells and donor plasma?
(47) malaria chizonts are present in? *Anti body screen
*reticulo-endothelial *major x-matching
*leukocyte √*minor x-matching
√*RBCs (59) serum LDH is elevated in all the following
(48) comma of diabetic patient shows? except?
*glucose grater than 200mg/dl *skeletal disease
*glucose less than 200mg/dl *cardiac/ hepatic diseases
√*glucose grater than 500mg/dl √*renal disease
(60) elevated sodium &chloride is seen in?
(49) blood donor selection in KSA are all of the *shock
following except? *diabetic acidosis
*Hb% 12.5-16 *severe dehydration√
*free from syphilis (61) which test is better to diagnose chronic bile
√*one year after delivery duct?
(50) solidifying agent in culture media is? *total bilirubin
*wax *S-GOT
*starch √*ALP
√*agar (62) generally diagnosed by recovery &
(51) agar which used as a solidifying agent in identification of typical larva in stool?
culture media concentration is? *hook worms
*5-9% *t.trichura
*4-9% *s.stercoralis
*1-2%√ (63) enlarged RBCs are common in?
(52) to sterilize culture media we use? *p.malaria
*boiling *p.falciparum
*hot oven √*p.vivax
√*autoclave (64) which of the following is not laying eggs in
(53) bone matrix can also called? small intestine?
*vascular tissue *hook worm
*fibrous tissue *t.saginata
√*osteon √*pin worm
(54) unidirectional movement of WBCs directly
to its target is?
*sliding (65) blood sample is used to diagnose?
*phagocytes *C.tetani
√*chemo taxis *C.diphteria
(55) when focusing a stained smear under oil *non from them√
immersion field the magnification is? (66) how much water should we add to 500ml
*10 of a solution of 10% of NAOH to bring it to
*40 7.5%?
√*100 *666
(56) in myocardial infection? *250
3
 4 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
√*166 (78) plasma or serum should be separated at
(67) while using the pregnancy test we are the earliest time for estimation of glucose
measuring? because?
*total HCG *glucose value increases with time
*beta HCG &LH *lyses of blood will occur
√*beta HCG √*glucose value decreases with time
(68) with age the renal threshold for glucose? (79) sensitivity & specify are?
*increase *directly related
*decrease *they mean the same
√*does not change √*non of above
(69) calibrator sera are? (80) a dichromatic analysis is carried to
*secondary standards increase?
*internal standards *linearity
√*primary standards *specify
(70) a buffer made of? √*sensitivity
*a strong acid + a strong salt (81) causes of high serum bilirubin are?
*a weak acid + a weak salt *overload on liver
√*a weak acid + a strong salt *haemolysis
(71) a standard micro plates in ELISA test has? √*all of the previous
*98 wells (82) polio myeletis is transmitted through?
*94 wells *skin
√*96 wells *respiration
(72) the enzyme in ELISA testing is present in √*feco-oral
the? (83) malaria does not grow in?
*buffer *EDTA blood
*micro plate *heparin zed blood
√*conjugate √*plasma
(84) serious that causes food poisoning?
(73) antigen antibody complex are? *staph albus
*weakly bound *salmonella typhi
*no bounds √*salmonella enteritidis
*strongly bound√ (85) hemophilia man married to normal
(74) washing must be done in all heterogeneous woman the incidence of his children is?
ELISA technique because? *carrier male
*increase the specificity *diseased female
*increase the sensitivity *carrier female√
√*it removes the excess binding (86) which of the following causes UTI &
(75) the label in ELISA tests is? INDOL positive?
*radio active substance *klebsiella
*antibody *staphylococci
√*enzym *E.coli√
(76) the difference between plasma & serum is (87) blood transfusion can transmit?
that plasma? *HIV
*does not contain fibrinogen *CMV
*has more water √*all of the previous
√*contains fibrinogen (88) ADH is secreted from?
(77) five ml of colored solution has an *thyroid gland
absorbance of .500nm *anterior pituitary
The absorbance of 10ml of the same solution √*posterior pituitary
is?
*1.000nm
*0.250nm
√*0.500nm (89) one of the following enzymes is effected by
4
 4 ‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
hemolysis? *Ca
*SGOT *Mg
*SGPT √*k
√*LDH (101) the best kidney function test?
(90) HbA1C of diabetic patient is important *urea
for? *total protein
*he has to come fasting √*creatinine clearance
*short term follow up (102) for GGT in adults the dose of glucose is?
√*long term follow up *50gram
(91) for glucose tolerance test? *100gram
*collect 5 blood samples only √*75gram
*collect 5 urin samples only (103) for GGT in children the dose of glucose
√*collect 5 blood samples + 5 urin samples is?
(92) one of the following heart enzymes is *30mg
measured after 4-8hr of chest pain? *15gram
*GOT √*30gram
*LDH (104) random blood glucose gives an idea?
√*CPK *to justify blood glucose
(93) light effects one of the following? *fasting patient
*glucose √*blood glucose in urgent cases
*urea
√*billrubin (105) immunoglobulin is?
(94) one of the following is specific diagnostic *B globulin
liver enzyme? *Alfa globulin
*GOT √*Gamma globulin
(106) exogenous triglecride is carried on?
*LDH *VLDL
√*GPT *HDL
(95) one of the following is important before √*chylomicron
(107) endogenous triglecride is carried on?
anesthesia? *LDL
*alkaline phosphates *HDL
*acidic phosphates √*VLDL
(108) harmful cholesterol is carried on?
√*pseudocholine esterase *HDL
(96) acid phosphates is? *VLDL
*heart enzyme √*LDL
(109) useful cholesterol is carried on?
*liver enzyme *chylomicron
√*prostatic enzyme *LDL
√*HDL
(110) for lipid investigation patient has to fast?
(97) In uric acid estimation? *4-6hr
*its affected by carbohydrate meal *6-8hr
*no need for fasting √*12-14hr
√*the patient has to come fasting (111) to measure G6PD we use?
(98) all of the following are affected by meal *plasma
except? *serum
√*whole blood on EDTA
*glucose
(112) amoeba moves by?
*albumin *cilia
√*creatininine *flagella
(99) Na is the main? √*pseudopodia
*intra cellular anion (113) one of the following is capsulated bacteria?
*intra cellular cation *streptococci
√*extra cellular cation *E.coli
(100) one of the following electrolytes is √*klebsiella
effected by hemolisis?
5
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
( 5)
SAUDIA LICENSE EXAMINATION FOR HEALTH SPECIALIST
STRONG UREASE PRODUCERS (PROTEUS SPECIES
SELECTIVE AND DIFFERENTIAL MEDIUM FOR :-
ENTEROBACTER DCA (DEOXYCHOLATE CITRATE AGAR )
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THYROXINE (T4) ? ANSWER : IT IS USED IN METABOLISM
CHOCOLATE AGAR  ( CAP) IS BEST FOR HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE (THAYER MARTIN-
FOR NISSERIA GONORRHOEA)
PROLACTIN IS PRODUCED BY  ( ANTERIOR PITUTARY GLAND)
TARGET ORGAN OF PROLACTIN  (MAMARY GLAND)
ESTROGEN IS PRODUCED BY ( OVARY)
CAUSES OF CONJUCTIVITIS TRACHOMA/ CAUSATIVE AGENT ( CHLAMYDIA
TRACHOMATIS)
IDENTIFICATION OF ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS  (RECOVERY OF EGGS IN PERIANAL
SKIN )
ICAUSESWHOPPING COUGH  ( BORDETELA PERTUSIS) (BORDER
GONGOUR MEDIUM)
ALBERT STAIN IS GOOD FOR  ( CORYENBACTERIUM DIPHTERIA
ALKALI BURNS  ( WASH WITH 10 % CONC. ACETIC ACID )
AN INDICATOR MEANS  ( CHANGES OF COLOUR / PH RANGE )

WHEN IT BECOMES RED  ( ACIDIC )

WHEN IT BECOMES BLUE  (ALKALINE )
GRAM + BACTERIA ON GRAM STAIN ( COLOURED DARK PURPLE)
IODINE STAIN FOR ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA  ( FOR IDENTIFICATION OF
CHROMATOIDAL BODIES)
MEDIUM FOR MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS TB (LOWENSTEIN JENSEN MEDIUM LJ

INCREASED K LEVEL SLIGHT HAEMOLYSIS CAUSE (

(LEISHMANYA DONOVANI ) VISCERAL LEISHMANYIASIS CAUSED BY
KALA ZAR
PTT DETECTS (INTRINSIC FACTOR ABNORMALTIES).
PROTHROMBINE TIME DETECTS (EXTRINSIC FACTOR ABNORMALTIES )
FOUND IN HYPERGLYCEMIC COMA (KETONES IN URINE ).
CITRATE TEST DIFFERENTIATES ( GRAM NEGATIVE ENTEROBACTERIACEAE).
EXAMPLE SALMONELLA IS CITRATE +
INDIRECT ANTIGLOBULIN TEST (IDAT) -
DETECT ANTIBODY/ ANTIBODY SCREENING OF SENSITIZING PATIENT'S Rbcs
INTERMEDIATE HOST OF LEISHMANYA SPECIES-
- PHLEBOTOMUS SAND FLY
INTERMEDIATE HOST OF TRYPANOSOMA TSE TSE Fly
IDENTIFICATION OF MALARIAL PARASITES & Rbcs MORPHOLOGY  THIN SMEAR.
RH NEGATIVE PATIENTS  HAS NO D ANTIGEN .
STORAGE FORM OF GLUCOSE  GLYCOGEN.
PREVENT ATHEROSCLEROSIS  HDL CHOLESTEROL.
ALBERT STAIN  BEST FOR CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPHTERIAE.
BEST FOR STERILIZING MEDIA  AUTOCLAVE
OXIDASE +  PSEUDOMONAS AEROGINOSA
FUNCTION OF CORTISOL Metabolsim
BEST FIXATIVE FOR BLOOD FILM  ETHYL ALCOHOL
BEST FIXATIVE FOR THIN SMEAR  ETHYL ALCOHOL
1
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
CAUSES ORIENTAL SCAR  LEISHMANYA(CUTANEOUS)
NORMAL Rbcs COUNT FOR MALE 4.5 - 6.5
NORMAL GLUCOSE LEVEL  70 - 140 (RANDOM )
H ANTIGEN  FLAGELLAR ANTIGEN
CAUSES SCARLET FEVER  STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENE
CAUSES SCALDED SKIN SYNDROME  STAPH AUREUS
ZIEHL NELSON STAIN IS USED FOR  MYCOBACTERIUM SP.
CELLULAR / CELL IMMUNITY  T-LYMPHOCYTE/LYMPHOCYTES
MONOCYTE  ALSO MACROPHAGE
OPTOCHIN TEST IS USED TO  DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIA +
FROM VIRIDANS SPECIES OPTOCHIN
CHINESE LETTER LIKE BACTERIA  CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPHTERIAE
AST/SGOT  BEST FOR DIAGNOSING BOTH LIVER
DAMAGE & MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION
ALT/SGPT  INCREASE ONLY IN LIVER DAMAGE, NOT IN MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION ( MI )

b-blue colonies
mcqs ( multiple choice questions c-green colonies
which of the following culture media is suitable for d-white colonies
semi quantitative bacterial count in urine samples e-red colonies
a-mc conkey agar on emb /mc conkey agar the salmonella/shigella
b- blood agar give small colonies , which colour of the following
c-xld medium appear
d-mannitol salt agar a-black
b-pink
√e-cled medium c-yellow
the following organisms are lactose fomenters d-brown
except √e-colorless
a-e. coli
f-yellow-brown
b-enterobacter cloacae
which color do gram negative appear:-
√c-shigella sonnei a-blue
√ d-proteus spp. b-green
bacteriological media can be sterilized in :- c-yellow
a-oven √d-red
b-filtration all is true about enterobacteriaceae except :-
√c-autoclave a-they are …… hemolytic and sorbitol
b-ferments mannitol
all of the following are true except :- √c-grow in methylene blue medium
d-inhibited growth with 6.5 % nacl and/or at
√b-nutritious temperature
c-solidity at 42c 60 %
d-melts at 100c which of the following is sterilized in the
primary stain of gram stain :- oven :
√a-crystal violet √a-media
b-iodine b-sand
c-water
d-blood
e-all of the above
the following are used in gram staining except:-
a-crystal violet
b-iodine all are component of gram stain procedure except
c-safranine :-
√d-malachite green a-safranine
growth of vibrio cholerae on tcbs medium produces √b-malachite green
colonies :- c-iodine
√a-yellow colonies d-crystal violet
2
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
all are lactose fomenters except :- √d-positive to indole test
a-e.coli to obtain an isotonic media, sodium chloride
b-enterobacter cloaceae content should be :-
√ c-proteus spp. √a- 0.85 g %
√d-shigella b-0.085 g%
all are true of campylobacter jejuni or c- 8.5 g%
which of the following statements about d- 6.5 g%
campylobacter all is true about salmonella organism except:-
is false:- a- the main reservoir is human
a-gram negative curved bacilli b-contains o and h antigen
b-slow growth c-urease , kcn and phenylalanine (negative )
√c-grow on xld medium d-h2s positive with gas
d-arranged in pairs √e-indole +
a parasite which does not deposit eggs in the mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid-fast
intestine because :-
√a- e. vermicularis a-it is easily stained by gram stain
b-a. duodenale √b-once stained , it can not be remove by acid
c-a. lumbricoides c-it is easily decolorizes after staining.
d-t.saginata d-it is very easy to stain
e-t. spiralis e-it is stained by an alkaline stain
specimens from a polio victim for culture can be f-none of the above
best made on :- g-all of the above
a-blood group b beta-hemolytic streptococci are
b-urine differentiated by other streptococcus groups by
√c-feces using :-
d-csf a-optochin
e- throat / nasal washing b-neufeld quelling reaction.
the best anticoagulant for blood culture specimen c-niacin test
is:- d-catalase test.
a-heparin √e-bacitracin sensitivity disc
b-edta most of pathogenic strains of streptococcus belongs
c-oxalate to group :-
√d-sps a-viridans
e-acd √b-beta-hemolytic
c-alpha-hemolytic
d-group d
e-micrococcaciae
the vector for leishmanya infection is :- bacterial sterilization of serum can be accomplished
by the filtration using a porosity of : -
√b-sand fly √a- 0.22 u
c-housefly b- 0.80 u
d-anopheles mosquito c- 0.60 u
e-reduvid bugs d- 4.0 u
beta hemolysis is enhanced when group b f- 5.0 u
streptococci is streaked at an angle in blood agar
plate with
a-streptococci
√b-staph aureus select the letter of the best answer
c-micrococcus the trophozoite , which contains red blood cells in
d-streptococcus epiedermidis the cytoplasm , brings to this parasite:-
e-corynebacterim diphteriae √a-entamoeba histolytica
all statements are true about proteus mirabilis and b-entamoeba gingivalis
proteus vulgaris except :- c-entamoeba coli
oxidase negative & liquefies gelatin d-iodamoeba butschlii
a-exhibits swarming on bap and mc conkey's agar e-none of the above
b-urease positive sterilization by the autoclave is best accomplished
c-kcn and n2s positive at

3
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
a -1oo c/ 30 minute which of the following is an enrichment medium :-
b-100c/10 minute a-cled
c-200c/30 minute b-bap
√d-121c/30 minute c-mac
e-121c/10 minute √d-thiocyanate broth
e-chocolate agar
which of the following indicates a blood agar plate?
a-corynebacterium diphteriae
b-mycobacterium tuberculosis
the causative parasite of egyptian bilharisiasis c-bordetella pertusis
a-trichomonas vaginalis d-francisella tularensis
b-schitosoma haematobium √e-none of the above
c-schitosoma japonicum all are member of the family enterobacteriaceae
√d-schitosoma mansoni except :-
e-all of the above a-klebsiella pneumonia
on emb and mc conkey's agar , the colour of the b-yersinia pestis
colonies of shigella – salmonella is : c-pseudomonas aeroginosa
a-black d-shigella dysentriae
b-green √e-campylobacter jejuni
c-pink a specific test for staphylococcus aureus is
d-yellow a-catalase test
√e-colourless √b-coagulase test
the imvic reaction of e. coli is c-optochin sensitivity test
√a/ + + - - d-bacitracin sensitivity test
b/ - - + + e-camp test
c/+ + + - the concentration of agar in the culture medium is
d/+ - + - a- 10 - 11 %
dwarf tapeworm is known as :- b- 20 %
a-tania saginata c- 50 %
b-taenia solium d-60 %
√c-hymenolepis nana √e- 1-2 %
d-diphilidium caninum

the solidifying content of the best for identification of parasite if you can not see
culture media is it in stool ( negative in stool )
a-wax concentration technique
b-litmus milk identification of fertilized eggs in feces
c-peptone broth ascaris lumbricoides
√d-agar causes false negative abo incomparability/ cross
e-meat extract matching :-
micro-organisms that grow at 60 c are classified as a- deteriorated reagent
:- b-not putting antisera c-under incubation
a-psychrophilic false positive abo incompatibility/cross matching
b-mesophilic cold agglutinin
c-halophilic why do we have to wash red blood cells
√d-thermophilic in cross matching
e-saprophilic to remove an excess antibody present in the sample
ivy method of bleeding time
for vascular and platelets abnormalities(function )
identification of leishmanya parasite
a diagnostic finding for giardia lamblia in lymph node aspirate.
stool :- klebsiella pneumonia
a-cyst in stool capsulated
√b-cyst and trophozoite in stool neutrophil
c-characteristic ova most abundant in wbcs
d-trophozoite in stool hba
e-all of the abov ( adult haemoglobin ) for adult, dominant in adul

4
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
hbf √a- anti-a
( infant heamoglobin) fetal haemo b-anti-ab
neutrophil c-anti-b
d-non infections
firstly increased in bacterial
prolonged application of tourniquet egyptian haematuria is caused by :-
venous stasis  increased calcium level a-schitosoma japonicum
√what is the meaning of this sighn √b-schitosoma haematobium
highly flmmable c-schitosoma mansoni
some organisms are to said to be pathogenic if they significant bacteriuria :-
are containing the following features :- > ten to the power of five cfu/ ml
√a- coagulase test used to diagnose obstructive bile duct
b-catalase √a-bilirubin
c-sugar b-biliverdin
c-urobilinogen
d-none of the above
to differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea &
sterilization is best done by nisseria meningitidis
121c 15 psi for 15-20 minutes a-dextrose + lactose
most common pathogenic streptococci b-dextrose + maltose
a- group a in emb & mc conkey , salmonella & shigella give
√b- beta-haemolytic the colour of the following :-
c-alpha-haemolytic a-pink
b-green
bordet gengou medium is best for √c-colourless
a- √bordetella retusis d-red
b-moraxella catarrhalis thayer-martin media is the choice for the isolation
c-haemophilus influenzae of the following organism : -
organism soluble in bile :- a-pseudomonas aeroginosa
a-staph b-haemophilus influenzae
b-streptococci √c-nisseria gonorrhoea
c-pneumococci confirmatory test for strept. pneumoniae :-
√ ( streptococcus pneumonia ) a-optochin sensitivity disc
d-haemophilous influenzae b-bacitracin disc sensitivity
best time for collection of blood for malaria :- √c-bile solubility
a-before and after paroxsym d-catalase test
√b-shortly after paroxsym
c-later paroxsym
d-just before paroxsym
elevated serum cortisol may indicate in folic acid deficiency what happens to rbcs :-
cushing syndrome a-enlarged rbcs ( megaloblastic anaemia )
sugar can not be detected in urine using copper b-crenated rbcs
reduction test c-haemolyzed rbcs
a-fructose in iron deficiency anaemia :
b-galactose rbcs are smaller than normal = microcytic
c-arabinose hypochromic anaemia
√d-sucrose specimen suitable for microfilariae
wave length visible to naked eye a-tissue
400-700 nm. √b-blood
organism that exhibits satellitism along with staph c-fluid
aureus :- which of the following organisms is an anaerobic
√a-haemophilus influenzae bacterium :-
b-shigella sp. a-clostiridium spp.
c-clostiridium sp. b-haemophilus
d-s. pneumoniae c-e. coli
d-yersinia enterocolitica
ig ( immunoglobulin ) increased in case of
antibody found inparasitic infection
blood group & allerg :
ab individuals
5
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
a- igg c-alp
b-iga √d-creatinine
c-igm substance present in any agar plate that promotes
√d-ige the bacterial growth :-
the infective stage of ancylostoma duodenale is :- a-water ( h2o )
√a-eggs in stool b-nitrogen
b-larva in stool √c-minerals
c-larva in tissue c-o2
d-cysticercous bovis organisms produce gas gangrene :-
nuitrient agar is :- a-bacillus anthracis
a-selective media √b-clostiridium perfringens
b-differential media c-streptococcus pneuoniae
c-special media d-haemophilos influenzae
√d-basic medium purine associated with
purpose of standard deviation : a-adenine
a-to measure external quality control b-guanine
b-to measure internal quality control √c-uric acid
c-precise & accuracy d-rna
√d-both a & b ig can cause hdn :-
the following organisms are encpsulated except :- a-igm
a-pseudomonas aeroginosa b-iga
b-e. coli c-ige
√c-haemophilous influenzae √d-igg
√d-streptococcus pneumoniae ig not part of acquired immunity :-
which of the following is protected from light :- a-igm
√a-bilirubin √b-iga
b-cholesterol c-ige
c-total protein (tp.) d-igg
d-bun ( blood urea nitrogen ) protozoa that is not motile
to differentiate anti i from anti i a-entamoeba histolytica
a-a1 cells b-e. coli
b-a2 cells c-gardia lamblia
√c-cord cells √d-trypanosoa cruzi
d-none of the above all cells are nucleated except :-
what practical cardiolipin is applicable in a-lymph
laboratory work ? b-monocytes
a-fta √c-rbcs
√b-vdrl & rpr d-neutrophil
c-rpr only
d-vdrl only
vi ag is seen in :- the intermediate host of toxoplasma is :-
√a-capsule a-dog
b-pili √b-cat
c-spore c-mouse
d-flagella d-all
infective stage of ascaris :- e-none
a-fertilized egg cross-matchin
b –rhabditiform larva donour cells +patient seru
viruses resemble living things in that they :-
a-igm (heavier ) 1st a-are motile
b-iga b-are crystalline
c-ige c-grow
√d-reproduce
all of the following can asses the liver function all are true about enterococci except :-
except :- a-have carbohydrate antigen of group d streptococci
a-ast b-positive aesculin hydrolysis
b-alt c-grow in the prescence of bile salts
6
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
d-do not grow in the prescence of 6.5 % nacl nor at 45 c-entamoeba gingivalis
c d-none of the above
the determination of aso titre is used in the the most favourable time to find malarial parasite
laboratory diagnosis of :- in blood is :-
a-toxic shock syndrome a-the period just before or at the beginning of a
b-scarlet fever paroxsym
c-streptococcal pharyngitis and cellulitis b-during the late paroxsymal stage
√e-rheumatic fever c-the period just following paroxsym
significant bacteruria , puria , and alkaline urine d-all of the above
:probably indicate urinary tract infection due to: the diagnostic stage for the identification of giardia
a-staphylococcus epidermidis lamblia in stool sample is :-
b-e. coli a-cyst
c-proteus vulgaris b-trophozoite
√d-pseudomonas aerginosa c-cyst and/ or trophozoite
e-enterococcus faecalis d-all of the above
the only enrichment medium of the following is :- e-none of the above
a-blood agar the malarial sporozoite in man invades:-
b-chocolate agar a-white blood cells
c-cled ( cystine lactose electrolyte deficient ) b-rbcs
√ d-selenite-f-broth. c-reticulo-endothelial cells
d-all of the above
which of the following enlarges rbcs:
a-plasmodium vivax
b-plasmodium malariae
streptococci responsible for the majority of human
c-plasmodium falciprum
infections are :-
d-all of the above
√a-group a
man may acquire toxoplasma from :-
b-beta-haemolytic streptococci
a-mice
c-bacitracin-s and camp ( - )
b-cats
d-all of these
c-dogs
e-none of these
d-pigs
to differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea and
all leishmanyal infections are transmitted by
nisseria meningitidis :
a-tse tse fly
a-fermentation of dextrose and lactose
b-sand fly
b-fermentation of dextrose and maltose c-house fly
c-fermentation of maltose and lactose
d-horse fly
d-fermentation of maltose and sucrose
which of the following neither lays eggs nor
the best specimen for recovery of poliomyelitis
deposites larvae in the intestinal canal :-
virus for culture is :-
a-hookworms
a-csf
b-pinworm
b-blood clot
c-trichinella spiralis
c-throat swab
d-trichuris trichura
d-buffy coat
identified by finding mainly the rhabditiform
e-stool
larvae in in fresh stool :-
f-none of the above
a-ascaris lumbricoides
g-all of the above
b-entrobius vermicularis
the finding of ingested rbcs in a trophozoite
√c-strongyloides stercoralis
identifies :-
d-trichinella spiralis
a-entamoeba coli
the resolution of the bright field microscope is :-
b-endolimax nana
a-2.0 um
c-entamoeba histolytica
b-0.2 um
d-iodamoeba butschlii
c-0.02um
e-none of the above
d-0.002um
f-all of the above
bacteriological culture media are generally
the chromatoid bodies resemble cigar-shaped or
sterilized using :-
sausage-shaped in the cyst of :-
a-entamoeba coli √a-the autoclave
b-entamoeba histolytica b-the oven
c-filteration
7
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬
d-bunsen burner e-fluorescent microscope
serum can be sterilized using membrane filter of which of the following would you use to examine a
porosity :- smear stained with a fluorochrome
a-0.22 um a-brightfield microscope
b-2.3um b-dark field microscope
c-0.6 um c-polarizing microscope
d-0.8 um √d-fluorscent microscope
the temperature-time cycle when using the
autoclave to sterilize is :- quellung test is positive with the following
√a-121 c for 15 - 20 minutes organisms except :-
b-112 c for 30 - 40 minutes a-streptococcus pneumoniae
c-135 c for 25 - 40 minutes b-haemophilous influenzae
d-100 c for15 - 35 minutes c-klebsiella pneummoniae
which of the following statements about d-corynebacterium diphteriae
campylobacter jejuni is false
a-gram negative curved bacilli
√ b-arranged in pairs ( see-gull )
c-slow growth growth of vibrio cholerae on tcbs medium produces
d-grows on xld medium :-
e-incubation temperature at 42 c a-blue colonies
direct gram-staining is routinely performed on the b-yellow colonies
following specimens except :- c-green colonies
a-pus d-orange colonies
b-aspirated fluids and disharges e-white colonies
c-csf the following organisms are lactose fermenters
d-sputum except :-
e-urine a-e. coli
f-stool b-enterobacter colacae
√c-shigella sonnei
√ d-proteus spp.
the invasiveness of streptococcus pneumoniae is due
to the production of :-
blood culture is indicated in the following bacterial a-haemolsins
diseases except b-endotoxins
a-meningitis c-extotoxins
b-endocarditis d-polysaccharide capsule
c-gastroenteritis the following are members of the family
d-pyelonephritis enterobacteriaceae except :-
e-pneumonia a-klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
all are true about both proteus mirabilis and b-serratia liquefaciens
proteus vulgaris c-providencia alcalifaciens
a-swarming on nuitrient agar d-yersinia pseudotuberculosis
b-h2s positive √e-campylobacter fetus
c-urease positive in significant bacteriuria the cfu/ml is :-
d-indole positive √a-more than ten to the power of five
when using a 10 x eye piece and a 10 x objective of a b-less than ten to the power of five
brightfield microscope , the total magnification will c-more than ten to the power of three
be :- d-lessthan ten to the power of three
a-10 the test used to differentiate pathogenic
b-100 staphylococci is
c-1000 a-catalase
d-10000 b-oxidase
which of the following microscope would you use to √c-coagulase
examine a smear of bacteria stained by gram stain d-aso titre
:-
√a-brightfield microscope
b-darkfield microscope
c-dissecting microscope
8
 5‫ ﳕﻮذج‬، ‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﳍﻴﺌﺔ‬

group a streptococci are differentiated from other

beta-haemolytic streptococci by :-
disc containing :-
a-neomycin
b-optochin
√c-bacitracin
d-novobiocin
for blood culture the best anticoagulant is
a-citrate
b-oxalate
√c-sodium polyanesthol sulphonate
d-heparin
the organism which shows satellitism around staph
aureus on blood agar is
√a-haemophilous influenzae
b-haemophilous ducreyi
c-bordetella pertusis
d-moraxella acunat
the imvic reaction of e. coli are :-
a- + + - -
b- - - + +
c- + + + -
d- - - - +
blood culture may be indicated for :-
a-clostiridium tetani
b-corynebacterium diphteriae
c-sgigella dysentriae
d-mycobacterium tuberculosis
e-none of these

9
1) KLEBSIELLA IS 8) SEXUALLY ACTIVE WOMEN, CAME TO
A) AEROBIC THE DERMATOLOGY CLINIC
B) ANAEROBIC COMPLANING FROM PAINLESS ULCER
C) FACULITATIVE AN AROBE IN THE GENITAL AREA, RPR RESULT
D) SRTRICT AEROBIC WAS REACTIVE (1/16), THE CULTRE AND
GRAME STAIN WERE NEGATIVE. THE
2) CAPSULATED ORGANISM CAUSATIVE AGENT IS:
A) KLEBSIELLA A) C. TRACHOMATIS
B) SHIGELLA. B) T. PALIDIUM
C) STAPH. C) H. DUCARY
D) BACILLUS D) R. RICKITSSIA

3)URINE SAMPLE MUST REACH THE LAB 10) CLOSTREDIUM BEST GROW IN:
& PROCEED WITH IN: A) 10 0C
A) 2 MIN. B) 15 0C
B) 24 HOUR C) 25 0C
C) 2 HOUR D) 35 0C
D) 72 HOUR
11) HEMOLYSIS IS OBSERVED IN:
3)WHAT IS THE COMPLEMENT A) C. TETANI
RESPONSIBLE FOR ANAPYLATOXIN: B) C. PERFRINGENS
A) C1 C) C. BOTULINUM
B) C7 D) C.
C) C3
D) C8 12) GAS GANGREN IS CAUSED BY:
A) C. TETANI
4)WHAT IS THE ORGANISM PRODUCING B)C. PERFRENGENS
FOOD POISONING MOST C) C. BOTULINUM
COMMENALLY FROM RICE: D) C. DIFFICILE
A) B.CERUS
B) SALMONEELA TYPHI 13) CULTURE MEDIA FOR
C) EHEC TUBERCULOSIS:
D) STAPH. AUREUS A) MAC CONKY AGAR
B) BLOOD AGAR
5) H. INFLUENZAE REQUIRED : C) L.J MEDIUM
A) X FACTOR D) CHOCOLATE AGAR
B) W FACTOR
C) V FACOR 14) ENRICHMENT MEDIUM FOR FEACAL
D) X & V FACTOR SPECEMIN:
A) S.F BROTH
6) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING B) MAC CONKY AGAR
ORGANISM REQUIR FACTOR X ONLY C) CHOCOLATE AGAR
FOR GROWTH: D) THAYER MARTIN AGAR
A) H. INFLUENZAE
B) H. PARA INFLUENZAE 15) TIME IS TAKEN FOR Z –N STAIN:
C)H. DEUCARY A) 2 MIN
D) NON B) 5 MIN
C) 20 MIN
7) SOUCE OF ENEREGY: D) 20 HOURS
A) CARBON
B) ATP 16) P. FALCIPARUM IS TRANSMITTED
C) BY:
D) A) FEMALE ANOPHELES
B) MECHANICAL A) K. PNEUMONIA
C) BLOOD TRANSFUSION B) N. ASTREODS
D) A & C C) M. TUBERCULOSIS
D) S. AUREUS
17) FOR THE DIAGNOSIS OF GARDIASIS,
THE SPECIMEN IS: 24) VIRUS PARTICLE:
A) FATTY STOOL A) VIROID
B) GASTRIC ASPIRATION B) VIROIN
D) PREANAL SWAB C) ENVELOPE
D) NON OF THE ABOVE D) MRNA

18) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING 25) HEV DIAGNOSED BY:

RESEMBLE PUS CELL UNDER THE A) BIOCHEMICAL TEST
MICROSCOPE IN THE URINE ANALYSIS: B) PCR
A) E. COLI C) ELISA TEST
B) STAPH. AUREUS D) CULTUR
B) YEAST CELL E) ALL
D) T. VAGINALIS
26) EGG WITH LATERAL SPINE: (IN
19) EGG WHICH IS FLATTENED IN ONE ACASE)
SIDE: A) S. HEMATOBIUM
A) H. NANA B) S. MANSONI
B) D. LATUM D) S. JAPONICUM
C) A. LAMBERCOID D) H. NANA
D) E. VERMACULARIS
27)THE MAIN IMMUNOGLOBULIN IN
20) URGENT SPECIMEN FOR SECRETION:
ANTIMICROBIAL TEST: A) IgM
A) URINE B)IgG
B) CSF D) IgA
C) STOOL D) IgE
D) SPUTUM 28) DIAGNOSIS OF ACUTE
TRICHOMONAS VAGINALIS:
21) WHAT IS THE ORGANISM A) IgG
PRODUCING BLUE GREEN PIGMENT ON B) IgM
THE AGAR: C) IgA
A) STAPH. AUREUS D) IgD
B) E.COLI
C) P. AEROGINOSA 29) STAPH. IS THE COMMENEST CAUSE
D) S. PYOGEN OF :
A) WOUND INFECTIONS
22) PASTIRIZATION OF MILK B) UTI
(CONVENTIONAL METHOD): C) GASTEROENTERITIS
A) 1200C D) PNEUMONIA
B) 630C
C) 550C 30) BETA HEMOLYTIC:
D) 370C A ) GROUP A
B) GROUP B
23) 35 YEARS OLD MAN , WITH C) GROUP D
PNEUMONIA. Z N STAIN REVEALED D) GROUP F
WEAK ACID FAST BRANCHING
THREADS……………… THE CAUSATIVE 31) CHLYMIDIA PNEUMONIA IS THE
AGENT IS: CAUSITIVE AGENT OF:
A) TRACHOMA VARIATION FROM ONE GENERATION
B) CONJUNCTIVITIS TO THE OTHER:
C) LGV ( LYMPHOGRANULOMA A) L. DONOVANI
VENEREUM )( CAUSED BY C.L1,L2,L3 B) T. CRUZI
SEROTYPE ). C) T. GAMBIENES
D) NON D) T. SAGINATA
Antigenic variation of surface antigens occurs only in
32) FINGER PRINTING REQUIRE: Plasmodium falcibarum and in in african
A) POLYMERASE trypanosomes (Trybanosoma bruci bruci).and T.
B) RESTRICTION ENDONUCLEASE gambiense.
C)TRANSCRIPTASE
D) LIGASE 39) BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS IS THE
CAUSATIVE AGENT OF:
33) CONTROLLING OF NORMAL FLOARA A) ENDOCARDITIS
IN THE SMALL INTESTINE: B) WHOOPING CUOGH
A) LOW PH C) DIARRHEA
B) ANTIBODY C) ALL OF THE ABOVE
C) MICROVILLI MOVMENT
D) NON OF THE ABOVE 40) BUBONIC PLAGUE IS TRANSMITTED
34) ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISM BY:
CAN BE FOUND IN THE URINE EXCEPT: A) SEXUAL
A) E. COLI B) FLEA
B) ENTEROCOCCI C) AIRBORN
C) H . INFLEUNZA D) NON
D) S. SAPROPYTICUS
41) FOR BLOOD CULTURE, WHAT IS THE
35) ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE USED ANTISEPTIC USED BEFOR
IN VIROLOGY DIAGNOSIS COLLECTING BLOOD SAMPLE:
EXCEPT: A) FORMALDEHYDE
A) ELISA B) CHLORINE
B) PCR C) ALCOHOL
C) GRAM STAINING D) PHENOL
D) TISSUE CULTURE
42) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TEST IS
36) SPECIFIC TEST FOR SYPHILIS: NOT OF A VALUE IN
A) VDRL DIFFERENTIATION BETWEEN V.
B) TPHA CHOLERA & V. PARAHEMOLYTICUS:
C) RPR A) GROWTH IN NACL
D) A & C B) OXIDASE TEST
C) FERMINTATION ON TCBS
37) PATIENT WITH STRONGYLOIDES C) ALL
STERCORALIS WAS NEGATIVE FOR THE
LARVA IN THE STOOL FOR THREE 43) THE LOWEST INFECTIVE DOSE
SAMPLES, WHAT IS THE OTHER TYPE OBSERVED IN:
OF SPECIMEN YOU WILL TAKE TO A) EHEC
CONFIRM THE INFECTION: B) S. DYSENTERIS
A) GASTRIC ASPIRATION C) S. ENTEROCOLITIS
B) ANAL SWAB D) S. AUREUS
C) PRETONIAL FLUID
D) SMALL INTESTINE BIOBSY  Escherichia coli : very large (106 - 108 of
organisms)
38)THE FOLLOWING ORGANISM HAS  Salmonella : quite large in order to
THE ABILITY OF ANTIGENITIC definitely establish infection (e.g. > 105 of
 organisms) but infection may also be C) HDV
established by lower numbers (e.g. 10s of D) HSV I
organisms).
 Cholera : relatively large (104 - 106 of 49) WHAT TOXIN BLOKS THE FUNCTION
organisms) OF THE INHIBITORY
 Bacillus anthracis : relatively large (104 NEUROTRANSMITTER AT SYNAPES IN
spores) SPINAL CORD LEADING TO
 Campylobacter jejuni: low (500 SPASM:
organisms) A) B. PERTUSSIS
 Francisella tularensis: very low (10-50 B) CHOLERA
organisms) C) C. BOTULINUM
 Shigella : very low (10s of organisms) D) C. TETANUS
 C.parvum : very low (10 to 30 oocysts)
 Escherichia coli O157:H7 : very low ( < 50)WITH AN APPROPRIATELY
10 organisms) PERFORMED ACID-FAST STIANING
 Entamoeba coli : extremely low (from 1 PROCEDURE, S. EPIDERMIDIS WILL
cyst) APPEAR:
A. BLUE
The likelihood of infection in all cases is also B. RED
linked to the immune status of the individual C. PURPLE
(immunocompromised individuals may become D. COLORELESS
infected more readily).

44) MEDICALLY IMPORANT FUNGI IS/

ARE:
A) MYCOSIS
B) MYCOTOXICOSIS
C) SUPERFECIAL MYCOSIS
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

45) MAST CELL GRANLULES RICH IN:

A) INTERFERON
B) HISTAMIN
C) IL
C)TNF

46) CYTOTOXIC T CELLS (CD8)

RECOGNIZE Ag BOUND TO :
A) MCH I
B) MCH II
C) CD4
D) ALL

47) PROTECTION FROM AMEOBA BY:

A) MEDICATION
B) PERSONAL HYAGEN
C) DISINFECTION OF SEWAGE
D) B & C

48) DEFECTIVE VIRUS:

A) CMV
B) HBV
 ‫ھـذه اﻷﺳﺋﻠﮫ ﺟﺎت ﻣن ﺧﺎرج اﻟﻧﻣﺎذج اﻟﺧﻣﺳـﮫ‬ Anti -c immune
Hemolisis Bacteria see in the : One of the answers wrong :
Xld agar Placenter:Estrogen
Blood agar Pancreas :Cortisol
Chocolate Agar Thyriod :T4
Hemolytic Anemia in newborn : Pituitary Gland :Growth Hormone
Mother +Rh
Father +Rh
Baby –Ve
B and C ‫ﻧـﺟﻲ ﻟﺗرﺟﻣﮭﺎ ﻋﺷﺎن ازا ﻛﺎﻧت ﻣش واﺿﺣـﮫ ﻧوﺿﺣﮭﺎ‬
Infections stage of lishemania : Eye Glasses -1
Larva Gloves -2
Cyst Labcoat -3
Egg Face Mask -4
Hypersercration the insulin: Hand wash tape -5
Hypoglycemia Eye Wash tape -6
Not found in prokaryotic : Ambulance Emergency -7
Bactiria Pressed gase -8
Sprozoa Oxidizing -9
Chlamydia Flammable -10
Spirochetes ‫ﻟــم ﯾﺗرﺟﻣﮭﺎ‬
Rickettsia Corrosive -11
The End of The production Carbohydrates High Voltage -12
: Dangerans reactive -13
Glucose Lizer -14
Glactose Explsive -15
Clen the Microscope Lense : Toxic -16
Xylene Radiochan Substances -17
Bio-hazard -18
More solution in Chemicals Containing :
Flammable
Corrosive * ‫ اﻹﺟــــﺎﺑﺔ اﻟﺻﺣﯾﺣﮫ‬: ‫أﺣﻣـــــــــر‬
Oxidizing
Explosive
Toxic
+Ve Has :
No Abo group
No Rh
If the child was+ and the mother –The
Antibiotic :<<
‫دي ﻣﺎﺟﺎوب ﻋﻠﯾﮭﺎ‬
Anti -D immune
Anti -E immune
Anti -e immune
Anti -C immune
 Parasitology - this organism multiply intracellular
parasite.
- parasite in blood :-
- can cause fetal cerebral infection .
1.Trypanosoma .
- the definitive host is animal.
2.Malaria .
- human is not definitive host .
3.Leishmania .
4.Toxoplasmosis .
- parasite in blood :-
1.Trypanosoma :-.
- trypanosome habitat blood .
- parasite in urine :-
- Intermediate = the bite tse tse flay .
- infection stage = stum by trypanosome .
1. schistosoma haematobium :-
- Diagnostic by = trypanosome in blood .
- habitat pelvic plexus .
- trypanosome move by flagella .
- infection stage = cercaria .
- trypanosome type :-
- Diagnostic stage = egg in urine .
1. trypanosome cruzi : cause chagas disease
- mode of infection = cercaria penetrates
.
skin .
2. trypanosome gambienes : cause sleeping
- cause Egyption haematuria .
sickness .
3. trypanosome rhodesienes : cause sleeping
2.Trichomonas vaginalis :-
sickness .
- habitat = vagina , urethra , prostate .
- infection stage = trophozoite .
2.Malaria :-
- diagnosis by = trophozoite in vagina ,
- Malaria habitat blood .
prostatic secretion , and urine .
- Intermediate = female mosquito .
- can be detected in vaginal and urethral
- infection stage = sporozoites .
discharge .
- in malaria RBC are lysis .
- protozoa in sexual reproduction .
- malaria detection by Thick blood film .
- type of malaria :-
- parasite in stool :-
1. plasmodium vivax = cause Enlarges RBC .
1. schistosoma masoni :-
2. plasmodium falciparum = cause malignant
- habitat = Mesernteric plexus .
malaria . is most abundant prevalence.
- infection stage = cerecaria .
3. plasmodium malariae .
- mode of infection = cercaria
4. plasmodium ovale.
penetrates skin .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
3.Leishmania :-
- Leishmania is intercellular parasite .
- Leishmania cause tow disease :-
Visceral Leishmania and cutaenous Leishmania .
- transmits by = sand flay .
- infection stage = larva . 2. Taenia saginta :-
- use stain fields stain and gimsa stain . - habitat = small intestine .
- Leishmania tropica cause oriental sore - infection stage = cysticercus bovies .
disease. - mode of infection = ingestion
- Leishmania donovani { Visceral undercooked beef .
Leishmania } cause kala-azar and black - diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
fever .
3. Giardia lamblia :-
4.Toxoplasmosis :- - habitat = duodenum .
- diagnosis by = serology test . - infection stage = cyst .
- intermedia host = human . - diagnostic stage = trophozopte and cyst
- man may acquire from cats . in faeces .

* - Toxoplasma gondii :- 4. hymenolepis nana { dworf worm } :-

- non motile protozoa . - habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = cysticercoid .
- mode of infection = ingestion of egg or
inseet .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
5. Entamoeba histplytica :-
- habitat = large intestine .
- infection stage = mature cyst .
- mode of infection = ingestion of mature
cyst .
- diagnostic stage = trophozopte and cyst
in faeces .
6. Enterobius vermicularis :-
- habitat = large intestine .
- infection stage = Embrgonated egg .
- Diagnostic stage = Egg on perianal
region.
7. Ascaris lumbricoides :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = Embrgonated egg or
larva
- mode of infection = swallowing water or
vegetables .
- diagnostic stage = fertilized Egg in
Faeces.
8.Diphylobthrium latum :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = plerocercoid larva in
fish muscle .
- mode of infection = ingestion of
undercooked fish .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
8. fasciola :-
- habitat = bile duct of man .
- infection stage = encysted metacercaria
on grass or in water .
- mode of infection = ingestion of raw
vegetation or water .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
9. Heterophyes heterophyes :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = encysted metacercaria
in fish muscle .
- mode of infection = ingestion
undercooked fish .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
10.Trichuris trichiura :-
- habitat = large intestine { caecum } .
- infection stage = Embryonated egg .
- mode of infection = swallowing water or
vegetables .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
10. Hookworms :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = filariform larva .
- mode of infection = when the filaiform
larva penetrates his intact skin or mucous
membrane of the mouth .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
11. strongyloids stercoralis :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = Embryonated egg .
- mode of infection = when the filaiform
larva penetrates his intact skin or mucous
membrane of the mouth .
- diagnostic stage = Rhabdpitiform larva in
Faeces .
2010 ‫أﻫﻢ اﻷﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﻟﻠﻲ ﺟﺎت ﺑﺎﻟﻬﻴﺌﺔ‬
1. . chagas disease caused by ?
Trypanosome cruzi .
2. . malaria diagnosis by ?
Thick blood film .
3. taenia saginate diagnosis by ?
Egg in stool .
4. Ascaris lumbricoides infection stage ?
Embeyonated egg .
5. Rice water stool can cused by ?
Vibrreo cholera .
6. lactobacilli isolated in ?
Stool .
7. yellow brown barrel-shapped egg ,
coloeless produce plug polar is ?
Trichuris trichiura
8. parasite cause cerevral malaria ?
plasmodium falciparum .
9. infection stage of ancytlostoma ?
 Larva

10. transmitte through sexual intercourse

?
Trichomonas vaginalis .

12. human scabies diagnose by ?

skin scraping of lesion .

13 - Cause Kala- azar:

a- leishmania tropica
b- leishmania braziliense
c- leishmania donovani
d- leishmania mexicana

14- cause oriental sore:

a- plasmodium ovale
b- leishmania tropica
c- leishmania donovani
d- trypanosoma rhodesiense

15- infective stage of S.mansoni

A- embrynoated egg
B- larva
C- cercaia
D- oocyst

16- The cause of sleeping sickness:

a- trypanosoma gambiense
b- trypanosoma cruzi
c- trypanosoma rhodesiense
d- (a) & (c)

‫أﺧﻮﻛﻢ ﺿﺎﻣﻲ إﺣﺴﺎس‬

T055t@hotmail.com
1. Chaga's disease is caused by
__________________ 10. Storate bo----- disease is associated
a- Trypanosoma crusi. with the defect of which
______________
2. In a diagnostic picture of acute a- Glycoprotein IB.
leukemia _______________ [CBC + Bone b- Glycoprotein IB-IIa.
Marrow exam..] c- A granulate.
a- Sudan d- Denst- granulate.
b- Common all Ag GT10. e- Both a + d.
c- T-cell res..
d- More 20% platelet are NBW. 11. Poikilocytosis means _______________
a- Variation of RBCs shape.
3. Medium that inhibits growth of some
organisms and support others is 12. What is the most common type of
__________ anemia ?
a- Selective medium. a- Macrocytic anemia.
b- Normocytic anemia.
4. Which of the following components of c- Microcytic anemia.
ELISA is sensitive to light ? d- Dimorphic anemia.
a- Conjugate only.
b- +ve control. 13. Visceral Leishmaniasis caused by
c- Substrate only. _________________
d- Conjugate + Substrate. a- Trypanosoma cruzi.
b- Leishmania donovani
5. In the fratility of erythrocytes sBH c- Tryp….
erocytic …??? d- Leishmania …….
6. Method of choice for sterilization of e- Plasmodium …..
nutrient agar ?
a- Hot oven. 14. Anisocytosis means ______________
b- Steaming 100 Co. a- Variation of RBCs size.
c- Tantalization.
d- Autoclave. 15. What is the organ that responsible for
producing 90% of body's
7. What is the life spin of RBCs? erythropoietin?
a- 120 days. a- Kidney.

8. Blood donor which is 2 weeks old 16. Which of the following chemical
donation, blood does not contain substance is normal finding in urine?
adequate _______ a- Protein.
a- Protein. b- Chloride.
b- Fibrin. c- Glucose
c- pH. d- Bilirubin.
d- Hb e- Hb.
e- Anticoagulant.
17. Which of these parasites can cause
9. If a serial dilution is prepared in 2 fold cerebral malaria?
dilution final dilution in tube 5 is a- P. falcibarum.
__________ b- P. vivax.
a- 1/32 c- P. oval.
 d- P. malaria. 28. Mycobacteria tuberculosis is best
cultured on __________________
18. ___________ is the sample comes from a- L J medium.
emergency or ICUH considerate a(an)
a- Urgent state test. 29. Enterococci are typically arranged
b- General test. and can be differentiated from
c- Specialized test. ____________.
d- Hor… a- Staph. aureus.
b- N. gonorrhea.
19. Double zone haemolysis _________ c- Strep. neumonia.
a- Clostridium perfringens. d- Strep. verdia.

20. Number of light chains in each Ab is 30. In the lab. an individual must wear
_________2_______ ________________
21. When Na concentration is higher than a- a coat.
the normal range this is called b- Eye glasses.
__________ c- Gloves.
a- Hypernatremia. d- All.

22. The pH indicator used in TCBS agar is 31. The etiology of neutropenia includes
______________ __________________
a- Bromo thymol blue. a- Hyper spleenish.
b- Tissue injury.
23. Substance that increased in blood in c- Myelodroliserati.
gout disease is ___________ d- All.
a- Uric acid.
32. Which of the following statements is
24. Which of the following is test used for false regarding Bacillus anthrax ?
average blood sugar measure over 3 a- They are large G+ve bacilli.
months? b- They are non-motile.
a- Hemoglobin A1c blood test. c- They form non-hemolytic
colonies.
25. Which of the following is a true d- They are motile.
statement regarding Bacillus anthrax?
a- ???????????? 33. If a woman is a blood type AB and her
husband is blood type B they can not
26. All of the following are considered have child of blood type
blood parasite EXCEPT ___________ ______________
a- Schistosoma. a- AB.
b- Trypanosoma. b- A.
c- Leishmania. c- B.
d- Plasmodium. d- O.
e- None of the above.
34. Permanent deferral of a donor occur
27. Schistosoma hematobium is caused in ____________
by __________________. a- Diarrhea.
a- Ingestion of oocyst. b- HCV +ve.
b- Penetration of skin by cercaria. c- Iron deficiency anemia.
d- Fever.
 a- Alpha hemolytic strep.
35. Another type of adaptive immunity is b- Beta hemolytic strep.
______________ c- Gamma hemolytic strep.
a- Ag immunity. d- All.
b- Acquired immunity.
c- Lymphocyte reactive immunity. 42. Estimation of blood urea is considered
d- Phagocytes. what type of tests ?
a- Heart function.
36. Oocyst of toxoplasma gondii is found b- Liver function.
in __________________ c- Kidney function.
a- Blood sample of patient.
b- Brains of chronic patient. 43. Staph. aureus can a sever food
c- Feces of infected cats. reaction that results from ingestion of
d- Urine sample of patient. _________
e- All. a- Entero-toxin.
b- Exo-toxin.
37. Humeral component of adaptive c- Hemolysin.
immune system include d- Streptolysin.
________________
a- T-lymphocytes. 44. Iodine stool preparation is used to
b- B-lymphocytes. detect which part of E. histolytica cyst ?
c- Ab. a- Nuclei.
d- Saliva. b- Chromatic.
c- Cyst wall.
38. Which of the following is blood sample d- None of the above.
used in biochemistry lab. ? e- All.
a- Na or Li heparin (green stopper)
b- EDTA tube (lavender stopper) 45. Arterial blood sample is usually
c- Citrate tube (blue stopper) collected for the assay of ____________
d- All. a- Lipid.
b- Enzyme.
39. the process of erythropoiesis c- Blood gases.
_______________ d- Bilirubin.
a- Takes place in spleen. e- Glucose.
b- Requires Vit B12 and folic acid.
c- It is inhibited by erythropoietin. 46. The secondary immune response (2nd
d- Stimulated when there is low attack of an Ag) is supported by
oxygen in blood. ______
e- B +D. a- Ig G.
b- Ig D.
40. Black water fever mostly occurs with c- Ig M.
______________ d- Ig A.
a- Plasmodium oval.
b- Plasmodium vivax. 47. Some organism can grow only when
c- Plasmodium falcibarum. another organism is growing on blood
d- Plasmodium malaria. agar this type of growth is known as
_______________
41. Streptococci consists of a- Parasitism.
_______________ b- Antagonism.
 c- Synergism. d- All.
d- Satelatism.
e- Synchronism. 54. What is the test performed in the initial
evaluation of anemia after the patient
48. Which of the following is gonadotropin history and physical examination ?
hormone secreted by the anterior a- Bleeding time.
pituitary gland ? b- Platelet count.
a- LH. c- CBC.
b- ACTH. d- PT.
c- TSH. e- PTT.
d- Prolactin.
49. An individual with which of the 55. Hypocalcemia defined when patient
following characteristics can not Ca level is ____________
donate blood ? a- 15 mg/dl.
a- Individual age 17-60 years. b- 12 mg/dl.
b- Individual weight >50 Kgm. c- 10 mg/dl.
c- Individual is pregnant. d- 7.5 mg/dl.
d- Individual is a man with Hb 17.
56. chocolate agar culture
50. Color of blood group Anti-A sera is ________________
___________ a- Beta-hemolytic strep..
a- Yellow. b- Hemolytic staph.
b- Blue. c- Fungi.
c- Colorless. d- Hemophilus influenza.
d- Red. e- Chlamydia.
e- Green.

51. Which of the following can be define

as the distribution of values around
mean ?
a- Standard deviation.
b- Coefficient of variance.
c- Mean of variance.
d- All.

52. Ab which is not flexible is _____________

a- Ig G
b- Ig D.
c- Ig E.
d- Ig A.

53. Strains of E. coli that cause

gastroenteritis are subdivided into
__________
a- Entero-toxigenic.
b- Entero-pathogenic and Entero-
aggregative.
c- Entero-invasive and Entero-
hemorrhagic.
A-Choose the correct statement : D) Trophozoit
( 30 marks )
9. The following are diagnostic features of
1. The complication of hook worms is Strongyloides stercoralis except
A) iron deficiency anemia A) epigastric pain
B) hyperglycemia B) eosinophlia
C) hypertension C) mucus diarrhea
D) non of the above D) fever

2. The rhabditiform larva of Strongyloides 10. All those organism belong to nematodes
stercoralis can detected in except
A) stool A) Trichuris trichiura
B) sputum B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) urine C) Hook worms
D) A&B D) Schistosoma mansoni

3. The laboratory diagnosis of trichuris trichiura is 11. The parasites that may case life threatening
made by finding with AIDS patient are
A) barrel shape egg A) Isospora
B) Larva B) Cryptosporidium
C) Cyst C) G. lambilia
D) Trophozoit D) A&B

4. We can differentiate between Taenia solium 12. Which disease transmitted by Lice?
and Taenia saginata by A) relapsing fever
A) eggs B) typhus
B) gravid segment C) malaria
C) length of worm D) A&B
D) width of worm
13. Taenia solium is belong to
5. Taenia saginata is A) cestodes
A) beef tapworm B) trematodes
B) pork tapworm C) nematodes
C) chicken tapworm D) protozoa
D) fish tapworm
14. All those organism belong to trematodes
except
6. The control of Trichuris trichiura is by A) Schistosoma hematobium
A) sanitary disposal of feses B) Ascaris lumbricoides
B) education C) Fasciolopsis buski
C) treatment D) Schistosoma mansoni
D) all the above
15. G. lambilia moved by
7. The egg of Echinococus granulosis hatch to A) pseudopodia
give B) cilia
A) oncospheres C) flagella
B) adult worm D) non of the above
C) hydatid cyst
D) Cysticercus Larva

8. The infective stage of Schistosoma 16. A diagnostic finding for Diphylobothrium

A) eggs latium
B) larva A) ovoid, operculated eggs in stool
C) cercaria B) rosette shape segment

1
C) cyst
D) A&B 25. The laboratory diagnosis of G. lambilia done
by finding
17. The infective stage of Enterobius vemicularis A) cyste
is B) trophozoite
A) larva C) oocyst
B) eggs D) a&b
C) cyst
D) non of the above 26. The Trophozoit which contain red blood cell
in its cytoplasm is
18. The infective stage of the Taenia worms is A) Entamoeba coli
A) cysticercus larva B) Entamoeba histolytica
B) cercaria C) Entamoeba gingivalis
C) cyst D) Iodamoeba
D) trophzoite
27. Steatorrhea is associated with
19. The infective stage of the Schistosoma worms A) Trichomam vaginalis
is B) G. lambilia
A) cysticercus larva C) Entamoeba histolytica
B) free living cercaria D) Trichomam homnis
C) cyst
D) Trophozoit 28. Blantidium coli is a
20. All this parasites are pathogenic except A) largest human protozoa
A) Entamoeba histolytica B) tapeworm
B) Isospora C) sexual transimited disease
C) G. lambilia D) non of the above
D) Trichomama tenax

21. All this parasite are not pathogenic except

A) Trichomama tenax
B) Trichomam homnis
C) Chilomastic Mesnil
D) Trichomam vaginalis 29. Amoeba move by
A) pseudopodia
B) cilia
C) flagella
22. To collect feces from patient infected with D) non of the above
Enterobius vemicularis we used
A) syringe 30. A diagnostic finding for Taenia solium is
B) scotch tape A) ova in stool
C) pipette B) gravid segment
D) non of the above C) larva in stool
D) A&B
23. Which one is belong to hexapoda?
A) bugs 31 medical parasitology study include:
B) mites a- protozoa
C) ticks b- helminthes
D) Entamoeba coli c- arthropods
d- all of the above
24. Echinococus granulosis is 32- parasites are
A) tapeworm a- all harmful
B) protozoa b- all benefit
C) trematodes c- a& b
D) nematodes d- non of the above

2
33- infection with protozoa can be: 42. Which disease transmitted by Lice?
a- asymptomatic E) relapsing fever
b- life threatening F) typhus
c- a & b G) malaria
d- non of the above H) A&B
34- morphology of protozoa currently classified
into: 43. Taenia solium is belong to
a- 6 phyla A) cestodes
b- 10 phyla B) trematodes
c- 20 phyla C) nematodes
d- 100 phyla D) protozoa
35- actively feed and multiply stage of parasite
called: 14. All those organism belong to trematodes
a- cyst except
b- trophozoites A) Schistosoma hematobium
c- egg B) Ascaris lumbricoides
d- non of the above C) Fasciolopsis buski
36- stage with a protective membrane or thickened D) Schistosoma mansoni
wall called:
a- cyst 45. G. lambilia moved by
b- trophozoites A) pseudopodia
c- egg B) cilia
d- non of the above C) flagella
37- binary fission: D) non of the above
a- most common form of reproduction
b- asexual 45. A diagnostic finding for Diphylobothrium
c- a& b latium
d- non of the above A) ovoid, operculated eggs in stool
38- protozoa can be found in: B) rosette shape segment
a- water C) cyst
b- soil D) A&B
c- air
d- all of the above 46. The infective stage of Enterobius vemicularis
9- carriers: is
a- his defenses able to control but not E) larva
eliminate parasitic F) eggs
b- constitute source of infection for other G) cyst
c- a & b H) non of the above
d- non of the above
40- pneumocystis carinii: 47. The infective stage of the Taenia worms is
a- found in low number in lung of the E) cysticercus larva
healthy people F) cercaria
b- produces frequently fatal pneumonia in G) cyst
AIDS patients H) trophzoite
c- a & b
d- non of the above 48. The infective stage of the Schistosoma worms
is
41. The parasites that may case life threatening A) cysticercus larva
with AIDS patient are B) free living cercaria
A) Isospora E) cyst
B) Cryptosporidium F) Trophozoit
C) G. lambilia
D) A&B 49. Which disease transmitted by Tabanus?
A) malaria

3
 B) anthrax C) Entamoeba histolytica
C) leshmania D) Trichomam homnis
D) typhoid fever
58. Blantidium coli is a
A) largest human protozoa
B) tapeworm
50. All this parasites are pathogenic except C) sexual transimited disease
E) Entamoeba histolytica D) non of the above
F) Isospora
G) G. lambilia 59. Amoeba move by
H) Trichomama tenax A) pseudopodia
B) cilia
51. All this parasite are not pathogenic except C) flagella
E) Trichomama tenax D) non of the above
F) Trichomam homnis
G) Chilomastic Mesnil 60. A diagnostic finding for Taenia solium is
H) Trichomam vaginalis A) ova in stool
B) gravid segment
52. To collect feces from patient infected with C) larva in stool
Enterobius vemicularis we used D) A&B
E) syringe 61- actively feed and multiply stage of parasite
F) scotch tape called:
G) pipette a- cyst
H) non of the above b- trophozoites
c- egg
53. Which one is belong to hexapoda? d- non of the above
A) bugs 62- stage with a protective membrane or thickened
B) mites wall called:
C) ticks a- cyst
D) Entamoeba coli b- trophozoites
c- egg
54. Echinococus granulosis is d- non of the above
A) tapeworm 63- binary fission:
B) protozoa a- most common form of reproduction
C) trematodes b- asexual
D) nematodes c- a& b
d- non of the above
55. The laboratory diagnosis of G. lambilia done 64- protozoa can be found in:
by finding a- water
E) cyste b- soil
F) trophozoite c- air
G) oocyst d- all of the above
H) a&b 65- carriers:
a- his defenses able to control but not
56. The Trophozoit which contain red blood cell eliminate parasitic
in its cytoplasm is b- constitute source of infection for other
A) Entamoeba coli c- a & b
B) Entamoeba histolytica d- non of the above
C) Entamoeba gingivalis 66- pneumocystis carinii:
D) Iodamoeba a- found in low number in lung of the
healthy people
57. Steatorrhea is associated with b- produces frequently fatal pneumonia in
A) Trichomam vaginalis AIDS patients
B) G. lambilia c- a & b

4
 d- non of the above
67- apicomplexa reproduction by: 76. The laboratory diagnosis of trichuris trichiura
a- sexual only is made by finding
b- asexual only E) barrel shape egg
c- sexual and asexual F) Larva
d- non of the above G) Cyst
68- asexual form of reproduction in toxoplasma is: H) Trophozoit
a- endodyogeny
b- binary fission 77. We can differentiate between Taenia solium
c- schizogony and Taenia saginata by
d- non of the above A) eggs
69- asexual form of apicomplexa reproduction in B) gravid segment
is: C) length of worm
a- endodyogeny D) width of worm
b- binary fission
c- schizogony 78. Taenia saginata is
d- non of the above A) beef tapworm
70- actively feed and multiply stage of B) pork tapworm
heamoflagellates called: C) chicken tapworm
a- amastigote D) fish tapworm
b- promastigote
c- epimastigote
d- all of the above 79. The control of Trichuris trichiura is by
71- actively feed and multiply stage of toxoplasma E) sanitary disposal of feses
called: F) education
a- tachyzoit G) treatment
b- trophozoites H) all the above
c- egg
d- non of the above 80. The egg of Echinococus granulosis hatch to
give
72- All this parasites are pathogenic except A) oncospheres
I) Entamoeba histolytica B) adult worm
J) Isospora C) hydatid cyst
K) G. lambilia D) Cysticercus Larva
L) Trichomama tenax
81. The infective stage of Schistosoma
73- All this parasite are not pathogenic except A) eggs
I) Trichomama tenax B) larva
J) Trichomam homnis C) cercaria
K) Chilomastic Mesnil D) Trophozoit
L) Trichomam vaginalis
82. The following are diagnostic features of
74. The complication of hook worms is Strongyloides stercoralis except
A) iron deficiency anemia E) epigastric pain
B) hyperglycemia F) eosinophlia
C) hypertension G) mucus diarrhea
D) non of the above H) fever

75. The rhabditiform larva of Strongyloides 10. All those organism belong to nematodes
stercoralis can detected in except
E) stool A) Trichuris trichiura
F) sputum B) Ascaris lumbricoides
G) urine C) Hook worms
H) A&B D) Schistosoma mansoni

5
83. The parasites that may case life threatening 90. The infective stage of the Schistosoma worms
with AIDS patient are is
A) Isospora A) cysticercus larva
B) Cryptosporidium B) free living cercaria
C) G. lambilia G) cyst
D) A&B H) Trophozoit
91. All this parasites are pathogenic except
84. Which disease transmitted by Lice? M) Entamoeba histolytica
I) relapsing fever N) Isospora
J) typhus O) G. lambilia
K) malaria P) Trichomama tenax
L) A&B
92. All this parasite are not pathogenic except
85. Taenia solium is belong to M) Trichomama tenax
A) cestodes N) Trichomam homnis
B) trematodes O) Chilomastic Mesnil
C) nematodes P) Trichomam vaginalis
D) protozoa

86. All those organism belong to trematodes

except 93. To collect feces from patient infected with
A) Schistosoma hematobium Enterobius vemicularis we used
B) Ascaris lumbricoides I) syringe
C) Fasciolopsis buski J) scotch tape
D) Schistosoma mansoni K) pipette
L) non of the above
87. G. lambilia moved by
A) pseudopodia 94. Which one is belong to hexapoda?
B) cilia A) bugs
C) flagella B) mites
D) non of the above C) ticks
D) Entamoeba coli

95. Echinococus granulosis is

88. A diagnostic finding for Diphylobothrium A) tapeworm
latium B) protozoa
A) ovoid, operculated eggs in stool C) trematodes
B) rosette shape segment D) nematodes
C) cyst
D) A&B 96. The laboratory diagnosis of G. lambilia done
by finding
89. The infective stage of Enterobius vemicularis I) cyste
is J) trophozoite
I) larva K) oocyst
J) eggs L) a&b
K) cyst
L) non of the above 97. The Trophozoit which contain red blood cell
in its cytoplasm is
18. The infective stage of the Taenia worms is A) Entamoeba coli
I) cysticercus larva B) Entamoeba histolytica
J) cercaria C) Entamoeba gingivalis
K) cyst D) Iodamoeba
L) trophzoite

6
98. Steatorrhea is associated with
A) Trichomam vaginalis
B) G. lambilia
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Trichomam homnis

99. Blantidium coli is a

A) largest human protozoa
B) tapeworm
C) sexual transimited disease
D) non of the above
100. The laboratory diagnosis of trichuris trichiura
is made by finding
I) barrel shape egg
J) Larva
K) Cyst
L) Trophozoit

7
 [A] Phagocytosis
[B] TL - II
Clinical Pathology Answer [A]
9. Renal impairment may be due to all except
[A] Glactosaemia
1. Malaria does not grow in Answer [A]
[A] Puked RBCs 10. Diffusion in semi solid is used to
[B] EDTA blood [A] Detection amount of Ab. to neutral Ag
[C] Plasma Answer [A]
Answer [C]
11. Goiter is
2. Polio myelitis is transmitted through [A] Enlargement of kidney because oh
[A] Feco-oral high intake of sodium
Answer [A] [B] Enlargement of the prostate gland
[C] Increased levels of calcium in the body
3. serious organism that cause food poisoning [D] Enlargement of thyroid gland due to
[A] Staph. albus iodine deficiency
[B] Salmonella enteritidis [E] Deficiency of iron
[C] Clostridium septica Answer [D]
[D] Salmonella Typhi 12.Cholesterol is present in
Answer [A] [A] Corn oil
[B] Sesame oil
4. Vitamin A deficiency causes [C] Olive oil
[A] Kwashiorkor [D] Palm oil
[B] Night blindness [E] Butter
[C] Goiter Answer [E]
[D] Hepatomegaly 13. Iron containing protein is
[E] Steatorrhea [A} Thyroglbulin
Answer [B] [B] Albumin
[C] Hemoglobin
[D] Globulin
5. For absorption of calcium the body need [E] Insulin
[A] Vitamin C Answer [C]
[B] Vitamin B2 14. Excess carbohydrate in the body
[C] Vitamin D [A] Stored as glycogen and fats
[D] Vitamin A [B] Can be used in repairing damaged
[E] Vitamin B6 tissue and growth
Answer [C] [C] It will increase the motility of the
intestine and facilitates defecation
6. Yaws disease is caused by [D] Can be stored as cellulose
[A] Treponema pallidium [E] Can be stored as casein
[B] Trep. Pseudopallidium Answer [A]
[C] Trep. Peretenu
15. In N.gonorrhea the best growth media is
Answer [C] [A] Thayer martin
[B] Blood agar
7. Action of Strept. Pyogene is through Answer [B]
[A] Hyalurinidase
[B] Streptokinase 16. Vaginal discharge occur with all except
[C] Staf kinase [A] Gardenella
[D] Coagulase [B] Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer [B] [C] Cryptococcus
8. First line of body defense against Staphylococci [D] Candida
is [E] N.gonorrhea

1
Answer [A] [E] Pantothenic acid
17. Hemophilia "A" man married to normal female Answer [A]
the incidence of his children will be
[A] Male carrier 24. Which of the following is rich in cholesterol
[B] Female carrier [A] Egg
[C] Disease male [B] Apple
[D] Disease girls [C] Corn oil
[E] Normal all [D] Bread
Answer [B] [E] Honey
18. Which of the following is an essential fatty Answer [A]
acid
[A] Aspartic acid 25. Which of the following cause U.T.I and it is
[B] Acetic acid indole positive
[C] Alpha Linolenic acid [A] Kleb.
[D] Myristic acid [B] Staph.
[E] Palmitic acid [C] E.Coli
Answer [C] [D] Salmonella
Answer [c]
19. The best useful test to differential between
Hemophilia "A" from Hemophilia "B" 26. Enzyme required to digest milk sugar is
[A] PTT [A] Lipase
[B] PT [B] Lactase
[C] Inheritance studies [C] Amylase
Answer [C] [D]Maltase
[E] Sucrase
20. In electronic coulter the total count was 22 x Answer [B]
10*9 the nucleated cell was
200/100WBCs How much will be the 27. Phenylketonuria is caused by the lack of an
accurate leucocytic count enzyme to metabolize
[A] 7,500 [A] Leucine
[B] 11,00 [B] Tyrosine
[C] 4,00 [C] Alanine
[D] 20,00 [D] Phenylalanine
Answer [A] [E] Histidine
21. Vitamin C deficiency can cause Answer [D]
[A] Anemia
[B] Osteoporosis
[C] Marasmus 28.Rota virus : which is not correct
[D] Goiter [A] Has 4 serotype
[E] Scurvy [B] Cause diarrhea
Answer [E] Answer [B]

22. Beri Beri is caused by the deficiency of 29. Good source of omega 3 fatty acid is
[A] Vitamin B12 [A] Fatty fish
[B] Vitamin D [B] Palm oil
[C] Vitamin B1 (thiamine) [C] Butter
[D] Riboflavin [D] Orange
[E] Biotin [E] Parboiled rice
Answer [C] Answer [A]

23. Vitamin required for blood coagulation 30. Dietary factor blamed to cause Caries is
[A] Vitamin K [A] Simple carbohydrates
[B] Pyridoxine [B] Proteins
[C] Vitamin E [C] Fats
[D] Vitamin D
2
 [D] Vitamin C deficiency 38. All the following samples are stained with
[E] Complex carbohydrates Gram stain except
A [A] Sputum
nswe [B] Bacteria
r [A} [C] Urine and stool
31. Chromosomal abnormality of t ( 8 , 21 ) [D] Water cultures
associated with Answer [C]
[A] CML , ALL 39. Sodium chloride percentage in agar culture is
[B] M1 [A] 0.58 %
[C] M2 [B] 0.058 %
[D] M4 with oesonophelia [C] 0.0058 %
[E] M5 b [D] 58.0 %
Answer [B] Answer [A]
40. Agar is characterized by all the following
32. Chromosomal abnormality in M3 is except
[A] t ( 15 , 17 ) [A] Nutritive
Answer [C] [B] Un-nutritive
[C] Freezing point is 42 ° C
33. ITP ( Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpra ) [D] Melting point is 100 ° C
occur in all except Answer [B]
[A] Hyper splenism
[B] Sarcoidosis 41. The normal value of sodium in serum is
[C] S.LE [A] 135 – 145 mmol/ml
[D] Quinidine [B] 135 – 145 mg/dl
Answer [A] [C] 135 – 145 mmol/dl
[D] 135 – 145 mg/ml
34. In factor XIII deficiency what will be affected Answer [C]
[A] PTT 42.Gram stain start with
[B] PT [A] Iodine
[C] Thrombin time [B] Safranine
Answer [C] [C] Methyl violet
[D] Crystal green
35. For absorption of calcium the body need Answer [C]
[A] Vitamin C 43. The causative organism of Toxoplasma is
[B] Vitamin B2 [A} Cats
[C] Vitamin D [B] Dogs
[D] Vitamin A [C] Flees
[E] Vitamin B6 [D] Lice
Answer [C] Answer [A]

36. In purpura 44. Gram negative samples are stained with

[A] Hge in deep muscles [A] Blue color
[B] He in mucus membrane [B] Yellow color
[C] Haemarthrosis [C] Red color
Answer [A] [D] Violet color
Answer [c]
37. The best anti-coagulant in blood cultures is 45. The color of Cholera when cultured on TCBS
[A] Sodium oxalates is
[B] Sodium citrates [A] Blue
[C] Sodium sulphonates [B] Yellow
[D] Heparin [C] Green
Answer [C] [D] Black
Answer [B]

3
46. The diameter of micro pore filter used in [B] CSF culture
bacteria filtration is [C] Anal culture
[A] 0.22 microns [D] Blood culture
[B] 0.033 microns Answer [A]
[C] 2.2 microns 54. Dry air oven is used to sterilize
[D] 0.45 microns [A] Sand
Answer [A] [B] Culture media
[C] Water
[D] Micro-pore filters
47. Leishmania is transported by Answer [A]
[A] Sand fly 55. The diabetic patient is going to comma when
[B] Mosquitoes blood glucose is
[C] Flees [A] 75 – 95 mg/dl
[D] Pugs [B] Less than 50 mg/dl
Answer [A] [C] 120 mg/dl
48. To investigate one sample containing floro- [D] 160 mg/dl
carbon we used which microscope Answer [B]
[A] Light microscope 56. To differentiate between the two streptococci
[B] Brilliant microscope group which enzyme is used
[C] Florescent microscope [A] Co-amylase
[D] Electron microscope [B] Catalase
Answer [C] [C] Amylase
49. Virus is similar to live organisms in [D] Kinase
[A] Crystallization Answer [b]
[B] Movement
[C] Growth 57. The microscope which used in investigate
[D] Reproduction syphilis is
Answer [D] [A] Light microscope
[B] Dark field microscope
50. The lowest resolution of a microscope is [C] Brilliant microscope
[A] 0.2 microns [D] Ultra violet microscope
[B] 0.02 microns Answer [B]
[C] 0.002 microns 58.The antibiotic disc which differentiate between
[D]2.0 microns group A streptococci & other groups is
Answer [A] [A] Neomycin
[B ] Bacitracin
51. Which of the following is liver function test [C] Tetracycline
[A] Liver enzyme [D] Erythromycin
[B] Serum bilirubin Answer [B]
[C] Urine bilirubin 59. All of the following is true for salmonella
[D] All of the previous except
Answer [D] [A] Contain cilia
[B] Produce H2 gas
52. Which of the following causing enlargement [C] Oxygen positive
of RBCs [D] Does not ferment lactose
[A] Reticulocytes Answer [C]
[B] Platelets 60. Amylase value is high in the following
[C] Plasmodium disease
[D] Leishmania [A] Liver
Answer [C] [B] Muscles
[C] Salivary glands
53. The best sample for the culture of children [D] Pancreas diseases
paralysis virus is [E] C and D
[A] Stool culture

4
 A [B] 121 º C for 15 minutes
nswe [C] 150 º C for 30 minutes
r [E} [D] Non of the above
Answer [B]
61. One jaundice patient has yellow skin and eye 69. Shigella soni color on MacConkey and EMB
led his bilirubin is is
[A] 0.1 mg/dl [A] Red
[B] 2.5 mg/dl [B] Pink
[C] 1.2 mg/dl [C] Colorless
[D] 5.0 mg/dl [D] Black
Answer [B] Answer [C]

62. Acute diabetic patient has 70. The oil emersion lens is
[A] Blood sugar more than 150 mg/dl [A] 1000 º
[B] Blood sugar more than 180 mg/dl [B] 10 º
[C] Glucose and acetone in urine [C] 100 º
[D] Non of the previous [D] 40 º
Answer [C] Answer [C]
63. The normal value of bilirubin is
[A] Less than 1.0 mg/dl
[B] 0.2 – 2.0 mg/dl 71. The dwarf worm is
[C] Less than 2.0 mg/dl [A] Tenia saginata
[D] Non of 2.0 mg/dl [B] Fasciola
Answer [A] [C] H.nana
[D] Schistosoma
64. Diabetic patient has one of the following Answer [C]
symptoms 72.All the following compounds are present in
[A] Acidosis gram stain except
[B] Alkalosis [A] Safranine
[C] Dryness [B] Methyl violet
[D] All of the previous [C] Malachite green
Answer [D] [D] Iodine
65. Insulin is regulating blood sugar by Answer [C]
[A] Increase the influx of glucose into
cells 73. The diagnostic stage of amoeba is
[B] Increase the out flux of glucose from [A} Cyst
cells [B] Trophozoite
[C] Activate glycogensis [C] A and B
[D] A & C [D] Non of the previous
Answer [D] Answer [C]
66. The nutritive substance in culture media is
[A] Sugar 74. To check the intestinal efficacy the following
[B] Agar test is done
[C] Ratings [A] Amylase
[D] Starch [B] Stool fats
Answer [b] [C] Lipase
67. The best media for urine culture is [D] Pepsin
[A] Agar agar Answer [B]
[B] Nutrient agar 75. The worm which cause blood in urine is
[C] Chock let agar [A] Schistosoms haematobian
[D] Clad [B] Fasciola
Answer [E] [C] H.nana
68. The sterilization temperature of autoclave is [D] Ascaris
[A] 85 º C for half an hour Answer [A]

5
76. The significant count of bacteria to be [A] Leucocytes
inflammation is [B] RBCs
[A] More than 10 [C] Platelets
[B] Less than 10³ [D] Reticulo-endothelial
[C] More than 10³ Answer [B]
[D] Less than 10³ 84. Comma of diabetic patient shows
Answer [A] [A] Glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
77. To investigate gram stained sample we used [B] Glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
the following microscope [C] Glucose less than 200 mg/dl
[A] Light microscopy [D] Glucose less than 50 mg/dl
[B] Brilliant microscope Answer [D]
[C] Florescent microscope 85. Blood donor in K.S.A. are all of the following
[D] Double phase microscope except
Answer [A] [A] Hb% 12.5 - 16
78. The most important buffer system in the blood [B] Free from syphilis
is [C] Jundice free
[A] Haemoglobin [D] One year after delivery
[B] Phosphate system Answer [D]
[C] Bicarbonate system 86. Solidifying agent in culture media is
[D] Acetic acid system [A] Wax
Answer [C] [B] Starch
[C] Agar
[D] Non of the above
79. All the following bacteria are interobacter Answer [C]
except
[A] E.coli 87. Agar which used as a solidifying agent in
[B] Klapsiella culture media concentration is
[C] Proteus [A] 1 – 2 %
[D] Non of the previous [B] 4 – 9 %
Answer [B] [C] 5 – 9 %
80. In the microscope when using objective lens [D] Non of the above
10 º and eye lens 10 º , Answer [a]
the magnification power of the microscope is 88.To sterilizing culture media we use
[A] 10 [A] Autoclave
[B] 1000 [B] Oven
[C] 100 [C] Boiling
[D] 10000 [D] Hot plate
Answer [C] Answer [A]

81. All the following parameters affecting Gram 89. Bone matrix can also called
staining except [A] Osteon
[A] Use conc.H2SO4 [B] Fibrous tissue
[B] Add absolute alcohol after washing [C] Vascular tissue
[C] Delaying the dryness of the slide [D] Non of the above
[D] Non of the previous Answer [A]
Answer [A]
82. Glycogen is stored in 90. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly
[A] Liver to its target is
[B] Muscles [A] Chemotaxis
[C] A & B [B] Phagocytosis
[D] Non of the previous [C] Sliding
Answer [C] [D] Non of the above

83. Malaria Schizonts are present in

6
 A [A] S.stercoralis
nswe [B] Hook worm
r [B} [C] E.vermicularis
[D] T.trichura
91. When focusing a stained smear under oil Answer [B]
immersion field the used magnification is
[A] 10 X 99. Enlarged RBCs is common in
[B] 20 X [A] P.vivax
[C] 40 X [B] P.malaria
[D] 100 X [C] P.falciparum
Answer [D] [D] P.ovate
Answer [A]
92. In myocardial infection 100. Which of the following is not laying eggs in
[A] Level of LDH is high small intestine
[B] Level of Alkaline phosphatase is high [A] Hook worm
[C] Level of CK-MB is high [B] Pin worm
[D] Level of GOT is high [C] T.trichura
Answer [C] [D] T.saginata
93. Variation in RBCs size is Answer [C]
[A] Macrocytosis 101. Blood culture is used to diagnose
[B] Amisocytosis [A] C.tetani
[C] Microcytosis [B] C.diphteria
[D] Polychromasia [C] M.tuberculosis
Answer [B] [D] Non of the above
94. pretransfusion test that is performed using the Answer [A]
patient red cells and donor plasma 102.How much of water should be added to 500
[A] Major x-matching ml of a solution of 10 % of NaOH to
[B] Minor x-matching bring it to 7.5%
[C] Antibody screen [A] 666 ml
[D] Non of the above [B] 125 ml
Answer [b] [C] 166 ml
95. Serum LDH is elevated in [D] 250 ml
[A] Cardiac disease Answer [D]
[B] Hepatic disease 103. Ten micro liters are
[C] Renal disease [A} 0.01 L
[D] Skeletal disease [B] 0.001 L
Answer [A] [C] 0.0001 L
96. Elevated sodium is increased in [D] Non of the above
[A] Severe dehydration Answer [D]
[B] Shock 104. While using the pregnancy test we are
[C] A & B measuring
[D] Non of the above [A] Beta HCG
Answer [C] [B] Total HCG
[C] Beta HCG and LH
97. Which test is better to diagnose chronic [D] Beta HCG and FSH
common bile duct Answer [A]
[A] SGPT
[B] SGOT 105. Abnormal constitutes of urine include
[C] Total bilirubin [A] Urea
[D] ALP [B] Glucose
Answer [C] [C] Cholesterol
[D] Proteins
98. Generally diagnosed by recovery and Answer [B]
identification of larva in stool 106. With age the renal threshold for glucose

7
 [A] Increased [D] Non of the above
[B] Decreased Answer [A]
[C] Does not changed
[D] Non of the above 114. The label in ELISA tests is
Answer [D] [A] Enzyme
107. Most of the concentrations are calculated [B] Antibody
using a factor this factor is [C] Antigen
[A] Standard absorption / standard [D] Radio active substance
concentration Answer [A]
[B] Standard concentration / standard
absorption 115. The difference between plasma and serum is
[C] Standard concentration x standard that plasma
absorption [A] Contains fibrinogen
[D] Non of the above [B] Does not contain fibrinogen
Answer [D] [C] Has more water
[D] Has less water
108. Calibrator sera are Answer [A]
[A] Primary standards
[B] Secondary standards 116. Five ml of colored solution has an
[C] Tertiary standards absorbance of 0.500 nm , the absorbance of 10 ml
[D] Internal standards of the
Answer [B] same solution is
109. A buffer made of [A] 1.000 nm
[A] A strong acid with a strong salt [B] 0.500 nm
[B] A strong acid with a weak salt [C] 0.250 nm
[C] A weak acid with a weak salt [D]0.250 nm
[D] A weak acid with a strong salt Answer [B]
Answer [C] 117. Plasma or serum should be separated at the
110. A standard micro plates in ELISA test has earliest for estimation of glucose because
[A] 96 wells [A] The glucose value decreases with time
[B] 98 wells [B] Glucose value increases with time
[C] 92 wells [C] Lysis of blood will occur
[D] 94 wells [D] Non of the above
Answer [A] Answer [A]
118. Sensitivity and specificity are
[A] Directly related
111. The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in [B] Reversely related
the [C] They mean the same
[A] Conjugate [D] Non of the above
[B] Micro plate Answer [B]
[C] Buffer 119. A dichromatic analysis is carried to increase
[D] Non of the above [A] Specificity
Answer [A] [B] Sensitivity
112. Antigen antibody complex are [C] Linearity
[A] Weak bound [D] Non of the above
[B] Strong bound Answer [ ]
[C] Not bound at all 120. Cause of high serum bilirubin are
[D] Non of the above [A] Overload on liver
Answer [B] [B] Cholestasis
113. The washing is a must in all heterogeneous [C] Haemolysis
ELISA technique because [D] All of the above
[A] It removes the excess binding A
[B] Increase the specificity nswe
[C] Increase the sensitivity r [D]

8
121. Polio myeletis is transmitted through 129. Glycosylated hemoglobin of diabetic patient
[A] Feco-oral is important for
[B] Respiration [A] Long term follow up
[C] Skin [B] Short follow up
[D] All of the above [C] Patient has to come fasting
Answer [A] [D] Non of the above
Answer [A]
122. Malaria does not grow in 130. For glucose tolerance test
[A] Packed RBCs [A] You have collect 5 blood samples only
[B] EDTA blood [B] You have collect 5 urine samples only
[C] Plasma [C] You have collect 5 blood samples and
[D] Heparinized blood 5 urine samples
Answer [C] [D] You have collect 4 blood samples and
4 urine samples
123. Serious organism that causes food poisoning Answer [C]
[A] Staph. albus
[B] Salmonella entreritidis 131. One of the following heart enzymes is
[C] Clostridium spelica measured after 4 – 8 hours of chest pain
[D] Salmonella typhi [A] GPT
Answer [B] [B] GOT
124. Vaginal discharge occur with except [C] CPK
[A] Gardenella [D] LDH
[B] Trichomonous vaginalis Answer [C]
[C] Candida 132.Cardiac LDH can be substituted by one of the
[D] Gonorrhea following
Answer [C] [A] GOT
125. Haemophilia man married to normal woman [B] GPT
the incidence of his children is [C] HBDH
[A] Carried male [D] CPK
[B] Carried female Answer [D]
[C] Diseased male 133. Light affects one of the following
[D] Diseased female [A} Glucose
[E] Normal [B] Bilirubin
Answer [B] [C] Urea
126. Which of the following cause UTI and it is [D] All of the above
indole positive [E] Non of the above
[A] Klebsiella Answer [B]
[B] Staphilococcus 134. One of the following is specific diagnostic
[C] E.coli liver enzyme
[D] Salmonella [A] GPT
Answer [C] [B] GOT
127. Blood transfusion can transmit [C] LDH
[A] HIV [D] CPK
[B] CMV [E] Alkaline phosphatase
[C] Hepatitis B virus Answer [A]
[D] All of the above 135. One of the following is specific diagnostic
Answer [D] enzyme
128. ADH is secreted from [A] GGT
[A] Posterior pituitary [B] GOT
[B] Anterior pituitary [C] LDH
[C] Hypothalamus [D] CPK
[D] Thyroid gland Answer [C]
Answer [C]

9
136. Alkaline phosphatase is 144. All the following biochemical tests are
[A] Liver enzyme affected by meal except
[B] Bone enzyme [A] Uric acid
[C] Placental enzyme [B] Creatinine
[D] All of the above [C] Albumin
[E] Non of the above [D] Glucose
Answer [D] Answer [B]
145. Sodium is the main
137. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme [A] Intracellular anion
[A] CPK [B] Extracellular cation
[B] Lipase [C] Intracellular cation
[C] GOT [D] Extracellular anion
[D] Acid phophatase Answer [B]
Answer [B]
138. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme 146. Potassium is the main
[A] Amylase [A] Intracellular anion
[B] GOT [B] Extracellular cation
[C] LDH [C] Intracellular cation
[D] CPK [D] Extracellular anion
Answer [A] Answer [C]
139. Salive is rich in
[A] LDH 147. One of the following electrolyte is more
[B] GPT affected by hemolysis
[C] Amylase [A] Calcium
[D] Alkaline phosphatase [B] Sodium
Answer [C] [C] Magnesium
140. The following enzyme is important before [D] Potassium
anesthesia Answer [D]
[A] Alkaline phosphatase 148.In blood glucose estimation the following is
[B] LDH required
[C] Acid phosphatase [A] Fasting blood glucose
[D] Pseudocholine esterrase [B] Glycosylated Hb
Answer [ d ] [C] Post prandial blood glucose
[D] Fructoseamine
141. Acid phosphatase is [E] All of the above
[A] Liver enzyme Answer [E]
[B] Prostatic enzyme 149. The best kidney function test is
[C] Heart enzyme [A] Total protein
[D] All of the above [B] Urea
Answer [B] [C] Creatinine
142. In uric acid estimation [D] Creatinine clearance
[A] Patient has to come fasting Answer [D]
[B] Uric acid is affected by carbohydrate 150. For GGT in a child , the dose of glucose is
meal [A] 50 gm
[C] Non need for fasting [B] 100 mg
[D] Non of the above [C] 75 gm
Answer [A] [D] Non of the above
143. Metabolic gout is different from renal gout in A
[A] Serum uric acid level nswe
[B] Blood urea level r [D]
[C] Urine uric acid level
[D] Plasma total protein level 151. For GGT in a child , the dose of glucose is
Answer [A] [A] 30 mg
[B] 15 gm

10
 [C] 30 gm [B] GOT
[D] 75 gm [C] Total CPK
Answer [ ] [D] Alkaline phosphatase
152. Random blood glucose Answer [A]
[A] Is used to justify blood glucose
[B] Give an idea about blood glucose in 160. For lipid investigation patient has to come
urgent cases fasting for
[C] Patient to fast [A] 4 – 6 hours
[D] Non of the above [B] 12 – 14 hours
Answer [A] [C] 6 – 8 hours
[D] No need for fasting
153. Immunoglobulin is Answer [B]
[A] Synthesized in liver 161. Chylomicron is
[B] γ - globulin [A] The diameter of RBCs
[C] α - globulin [B] Size of one lipid molecule
[D] β - globulin [C] One of lipoproteins
Answer [A] [D] All of the above
Answer [C]
154. Ig-M is 162.Glucose-6-phosphatase dehydrogenase is
[A] Acute immunoglobulin [A] Cardiac enzyme
[B] Immunoglobulin in allergic condition [B] Pancreatic enzyme
[C] Chronic immunoglobulin [C] AMB pathway enzyme
[D] α - globulin [D] Prostatic enzyme
Answer [A] Answer [C]
163. Estimation of G6PDH is a test to
155. Exogenous triglyceride is carried on [A} Measure blood glucose
[A] VLDL [B] To diagnose hemolytic anemia
[B] Chylomicron [C] To diagnostic myocardial infraction
[C] LDL [D] To diagnostic pancreatic disease
[D] HDL Answer [B]
Answer [A] 164. To measure G6PDH we use
156. Harmful cholesterol is carried on [A] Plasma
[A] VLDL [B] Whole blood
[B] Chylomicron [C] Serum
[C] LDL [D] All of the above
[D] HDL Answer [B]
Answer [C]
165. At what temperature degree blood is stored in
157. Useful cholesterol is carried on blood bank
[A] VLDL [A] 2 – 4 º C
[B] Chylomicron [B] 4 – 8 º C
[C] LDL [C] 8 – 12 º C
[D] HDL [D] Non of the above
Answer [D] Answer [A]
158. Intramuscular injection increase the activity
of the following enzyme 166. Amoeba move by
[A] GPT [A] Pseudopodia
[B] CPK [B] Cilia
[C] CPK-MB [C] Flagella
[D] LDH [D] Non of the above
Answer [C] Answer [A]
159. Muscular exercise increase the activity of the
following enzyme 167. Trypanosoma move by
[A] CPK-MB [A] Pseudopodia

11
 [B] Cilia [B] Filaria
[C] Flagella [C] Trypanosoma
[D] Non of the above [D] Lishmania
Answer [C] Answer [A]
168. Giarda move by
[A] Pseudopodia 176. Female anopheles transmits which disease
[B] Cilia [A] Lishmaniasis
[C] Flagella [B] Filariasis
[D] Non of the above [C] Amoebaiasis
Answer [B] [D]Malaria
169. Entamoeba histolytica cyst is appear in Answer [D]
which part of gastrointestinal tract
[A] Stomach 177. Imric reaction of E.coli is
[B] Small intestine [A] + + - -
[C] Large intestine [B] - - + +
[D] Non of the above [C] + - + -
Answer [B] [D] + - - +
Answer [A]
170. Sand fly transmits which disease 178.Trophozoite of amoeba which engulfs RBCs
[A] Lishmaniasis is
[B] Filariasis [A] E.coli
[C] Amoebaiasis [B] H.nana
[D] Non of the above [C] E.histolytica
Answer [A] [D] Giardia lamblia
Answer [C]
171. By eating uncooked meet a person can 179. Diagnosis of G.lambilia is by
infected with [A] Cyst
[A] Tap worm [B] Trophozoite
[B] Hook worm [C] A & B
[C] Round worm [D] Non of the above
[D] Non of the above Answer [C]
Answer [A] 180. Tuberculosis is acid fast because
172. One of the following is capsulated bacteria [A] Stained in acid media
[A] Klibsiella [B] Can not be discolored in acid media
[B] E.coli [C] A & B
[C] Streptococcus [D] Non of the above
[D] Staphylococcus aureus A
Answer [C] nswe
r [C]
173. One of the following is Gram positive bacilli
[A] Anthrax 181. Na , K and CL are best measures with
[B] Niesseriae [A] Spectrophotometer
[C] E.coli [B] Flame photometer
[D] Non of the above [C] Elisa
Answer [A] [D] RIA
174. The following parasite can seen in the blood Answer [B]
[A] Malaria
[B] Filaria 182. When using normal saline that is mean the
[C] Trypanosoma concentration of sodium chloride is
[D] Lishmania [A] 0.85 gm %
[E] All of the above [B] 0.95 gm %
Answer [E] [C] 1.0 GM %
175. The following parasite can seen in urine [D] Non of the above
[A] Schistosoma hematobium Answer [A]

12
 - non motile protozoa .
Parasitology - this organism multiply intracellular parasite.
- parasite in blood :- - can cause fetal cerebral infection .
1.Trypanosoma . - the definitive host is animal.
2.Malaria . - human is not definitive host .
3.Leishmania .
4.Toxoplasmosis . - parasite in urine :-
- parasite in blood :-
1.Trypanosoma :-.
- trypanosome habitat blood . 1. schistosoma haematobium :-
- Intermediate = the bite tse tse flay . - habitat pelvic plexus .
- infection stage = stum by trypanosome . - infection stage = cercaria .
- Diagnostic by = trypanosome in blood . - Diagnostic stage = egg in urine .
- trypanosome move by flagella . - mode of infection = cercaria penetrates skin .
- trypanosome type :- - cause Egyption haematuria .
1. trypanosome cruzi : cause chagas disease .
2. trypanosome gambienes : cause sleeping sickness .
3. trypanosome rhodesienes : cause sleeping sickness . 2.Trichomonas vaginalis :-
- habitat = vagina , urethra , prostate .
- infection stage = trophozoite .
2.Malaria :- - diagnosis by = trophozoite in vagina , prostatic
- Malaria habitat blood . secretion , and urine .
- Intermediate = female mosquito . - can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge .
- infection stage = sporozoites . - protozoa in sexual reproduction .
- in malaria RBC are lysis .
- malaria detection by Thick blood film .
- type of malaria :- - parasite in stool :-
1. plasmodium vivax = cause Enlarges RBC .
2. plasmodium falciparum = cause malignant malaria . is 1. schistosoma masoni :-
most abundant prevalence. - habitat = Mesernteric plexus .
3. plasmodium malariae . - infection stage = cerecaria .
4. plasmodium ovale. - mode of infection = cercaria penetrates skin .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .

3.Leishmania :-
- Leishmania is intercellular parasite .
- Leishmania cause tow disease :- Visceral Leishmania 2. Taenia saginta :-
and cutaenous Leishmania . - habitat = small intestine .
- transmits by = sand flay . - infection stage = cysticercus bovies .
- infection stage = larva . - mode of infection = ingestion under****ed beef .
- use stain fields stain and gimsa stain . - diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
- Leishmania tropica cause oriental sore disease.
- Leishmania donovani { Visceral Leishmania } cause
kala-azar and black fever . 3. Giardia lamblia :-
- habitat = duodenum .
- infection stage = cyst .
4.Toxoplasmosis :- - diagnostic stage = trophozopte and cyst in faeces .
- diagnosis by = serology test .
- intermedia host = human .
- man may acquire from cats . 4. hymenolepis nana { dworf worm } :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = cysticercoid .
* - Toxoplasma gondii :- - mode of infection = ingestion of egg or inseet .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
5. Entamoeba histplytica :-
- habitat = large intestine .
- infection stage = mature cyst .
- mode of infection = ingestion of mature cyst .
- diagnostic stage = trophozopte and cyst in faeces .
6. Enterobius vermicularis :-
- habitat = large intestine .
- infection stage = Embrgonated egg .
- Diagnostic stage = Egg on perianal region.
7. Ascaris lumbricoides :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = Embrgonated egg or larva
- mode of infection = swallowing water or vegetables .
- diagnostic stage = fertilized Egg in Faeces.
8.Diphylobthrium latum :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = plerocercoid larva in fish muscle .
- mode of infection = ingestion of under****ed fish .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
8. fasciola :-
- habitat = bile duct of man .
- infection stage = encysted ****cercaria on grass or in
water .
- mode of infection = ingestion of raw vegetation or
water .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
9. Heterophyes heterophyes :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = encysted ****cercaria in fish muscle .
- mode of infection = ingestion under****ed fish .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
10.Trichuris trichiura :-
- habitat = large intestine { caecum } .
- infection stage = Embryonated egg .
- mode of infection = swallowing water or vegetables .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
10. Hookworms :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = filariform larva .
- mode of infection = when the filaiform larva
penetrates his intact skin or mucous membrane of the
mouth .
- diagnostic stage = Egg in Faeces .
11. strongyloids stercoralis :-
- habitat = small intestine .
- infection stage = Embryonated egg .
- mode of infection = when the filaiform larva
penetrates his intact skin or mucous membrane of the
mouth .
- diagnostic stage = Rhabdpitiform larva in Faeces .
0202 ‫ةﺋﯾﮭﻼب ﺗﺎج ﯾﻠﻼ ةﻟﺋﺳﻸا ﻣﮭﺄ‬
1. . chagas disease caused by ?
Trypanosome cruzi .
2. . malaria diagnosis by ?
Thick blood film .
3. taenia saginate diagnosis by ?
Egg in stool .
4. Ascaris lumbricoides infection stage ?
Embeyonated egg .
5. Rice water stool can cused by ?
Vibrreo cholera .
6. lactobacilli isolated in ?
Stool .
7. yellow brown barrel-shapped egg , coloeless produce
plug polar is ?
Trichuris trichiura
8. parasite cause cerevral malaria ?
plasmodium falciparum .
 - What practical cardilipin is applicable in laboratory
9. infection stage of ancytlostoma ? work:
Larva - Amaylase value is high in the following disease:
- Miligram >>> 10^-3 g
- Rbcs male normal value is:
10. transmitte through sexual intercourse ? - Anti-coagulante is better for blood agar:
Trichomonas vaginalis . - One is not found (involve) in colormetric:
- The smallest molecular weight Ig is:
- Function of pili of bacteria:
12. human scabies diagnose by ? - Hb A is consisting of:
skin scraping of lesion . - Direct ant-antibody test used to detect:
- Detection of malaria parasite with persent at RBCs:
- A child diagnose show scarlet fever the cause is :
13 - Cause Kala- azar: - Increase of hemolytic jaundice one is not likely to be
a- leishmania tropica found:
b- leishmania braziliense c- leishmania donovani - One is not true about acid: Turn limus paper to blue
d- leishmania mexicana - One is not true about alkaline: Turn limus paper to red
- Iodine stain entamobae cyst used to detect (diagnose):
Nuclei
- Most common method (technique) used to detect
14- cause oriental sore: hormone amound in the laboratory:
a- plasmodium ovale b- leishmania tropica - Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity:
c- leishmania donovani - One stage prothrombin time used to detect (diagnose)
d- trypanosoma rhodesiense disorders in:
- Leukocyte responsible for response to parasite &
allergic infection:
15- infective stage of S.mansoni
A- embrynoated egg
B- larva
C- cercaia
D- oocyst

16- The cause of sleeping sickness:

a- trypanosoma gambiense b- trypanosoma cruzi
c- trypanosoma rhodesiense d- (a) & (c)

- Blood of microfilaria infection diagnostic with:

- Intracellular parasite
- Not find in the flam photometer: Photo
- Presence one from this substance in urine detect
abnormal
condition
- Use for clean slide
- Meaning of calcitionin
- Pyrimdin base
- One of the above not present in Diabetic Mellitus
coma
- In a blood group the Ab in serum is
- Most sever (serious) malaria infection caused by:
- Alkline phosphates is the important enzme to detect
function in:
- Steilization by the oven is best accomplished at:
100 Question in Advance Bacteriology b- which organisms are the most hazardous
Chose the best answer c- which techniques are the most hazardous
1- infection my be caused by microorganisms d- all of the above
through: 12- working safely done by:
a- hair a- good technique
b- nail b- good practice
c- mouth c- good personal hygiene
d- all of the above d- all of the above
2- organisms can penetrate the skin through 13- careless handling of specimens can result in the:
a- cuts a- un contaminated fingers
b- teach b- contamination of working surfaces
c- a & b c- formation of good smile
d- non of the above d- all of the above
3- infection through the mouth caused by 14- acquiring infection by mouth- pipetting can
a- eating food in the laboratory occur when:
b- inhalation a- pathogen in fluid accidentally sucked up into
c- playing food boll mouth
d- all of the above b- a pipetting with a contaminated end is put in the
4- infection of the general public caused by mouth
a- escape of m.o during the transport of c- a pipetting with a chipped end causes cuts to the
infectious specimens fingers or lips
b- incineration infectious waste from laboratory d- all of the above
c- autoclaving bacterial culture 15- disposal of sputum done by
d- non of the above a- using autoclaving at 121Ċ for 15 minutes
5- pathogens are accidentally ingested through: b- boiling 2 minutes
a- contaminated fingers c- a & b
b- hands are washed and clean after handling d- non of the above
specimen 16- disposal of swabs done by
c- clean water a- immerse in 5% phenolic disinfection
d- non of the above b- put it under the sun
6- pathogen are accidentally injected through: c- a & b
a- uncontaminated needle stick d- non of the above
b- close covered skin wounds. 17- disposal of cultures done by
c- injury from broken contaminated glassware. a- autoclaving at 121Ċ
d- all of the above b- boiling
7- pathogen are inhaled when: c- incineration
a- vigorously dispensing or pouring infectious d- non of the above
fluid. 18- container of stool specimen must be
b- eating food in the laboratory a- clean
c- ingested microorganisms during mouth-pipetting b- dirty
d- non of above c- full of antiseptics
8- infective microorganisms one of its classification d- all of the above
is:
a- risk group 10 19- dysenteric and watery stool must reach
b- risk group 6 laboratory within
c- risk group 4 a- 15 minutes
d- a & c b- 30 minutes
9- risk group 1 present as: c- 90 minutes
a- moderate risk d- 50 minutes
b- low risk 20- stool concentration techniques need for:
c- high risk a- a few eggs of Schistosoma species
d- non of the above b- detect Strongloid larva
10- risk group 4 is high risk to the : c- whether treatment has been successful
a- laboratory worker only d- all of the above
b- community only 21- macroscopical appearance of stool specimens
c- a & b are:
d- non of the above a- presence of virus
11- prevention of laboratory infection depends on b- presence of fungal
understanding of : c- presence of blood, mucus, and pus
a- routes by which infections are acquired d- all of the above
22- causes of blood and mucus in stool may be a- refrigerated at 4C0
found in: b- discard the urine
a- amoebic dysentery c- boiling it
b- fugal infection d- non of the above
c- malaria infection 32- sputum best collected in the ---
d- non of the above a- evening
b- midnight
23- causes of presence of pus in stool found when: c- morning
a- there is inflammation of the intestinal d- midday
b- patients with bacillary dysentery 33- young child when it is not possible to obtain
c- patients with intestinal schistosomiasis sputum we do----
d- a & b a- gastric wash
2- mouth swab
24- - causes of pale colored of stool specimens are c- eye biopsy
a- patients with obstructive jaundice d- stool sample
b- patients with bacillary dysentery 34- if pneumonia is suspected, deliver the sputum as
c- patients with intestinal schistosomiasis little delay because:
d- non of the above a- organism can infected community
b- organism such as S.pneumoniae require
25- type of urine collect for microbiology lab is: culturing as soon as possible
a- fresh, cleanly midstream urine c- sample may contaminated by urine of the patient
b- fresh, cleanly first stream urine d- non of the above
c- fresh, cleanly last stream urine 35- refrigeration of M.tuberculosis sample can
d- fresh, cleanly all stream urine cause:
a- increase multiplication of commensals
26- report the larva and egg found in the stool by b- slow down the multiplication of commensals
scanty means: c- kills the commensals
1- 11- 20 per preparation d- non of the above
2- 21-40 per preparation 36- M.tuberculosis diagnosis by make a smear of
3- 1-3 per preparation sputum stain by:
4- over 40 per preparation 1- ziehl-neelsen stain
27- urine sample should passed at early morning 2- gram stain
because: 3- negative stain
1- urine contain highest concentration of bacteria 4- capsule stain
and substances 37- always part of sputum selected :
2- urine contain lowers concentration of bacteria and a- ready part
substances b- black part
3- better of diagnosis in lab c- purulent part
4- non of the above d- slivery part
28- 24 hour urine sample collect for diagnosis of: 38- patient with streptococcal sore throat, the
1- eye infection tonsils may be covered with----
2- skin infection a- red spots
3- hormones and protein b- green spots
4- mouth infection c- white spots
29- method of collection 24 hour urine sample: d- yellow spots
a- start at 08.00 hour 39- patient with infectious mononucleosis, tonsils
b- give patient large 2 liter capacity bottle may be covered with -------
c- a & b a- red exudates
d- non of the above b- white exudates
30- female patient should be instruct to collect c-green exudates
urine by: d- yellow exudates
a- dose not clean the area around the urethra opening 40- patient with Vincent's angina, there is ------------
with clean water of the mouse, throat, or lips
b- clean the area around the urethra opening with a- ulceration
clean water b- exudates
c- pass first stream urine c- purulent part
d- non of the above d- spots
Chose the best answer 41- collection of throat sample done by using:
31- if immediate delivery to the laboratory is not a- serial cotton swab
possible, urine should be: b- needle
c- forceps b- prevent or slow down grows of bacteria
d- non of the above c- dose not effect grows of bacteria
42- patient with throat infection must not be treated 53- example of selective media is:
------ hour before a- blood agar
a- 2 hour b- XLD agar
b- 3 hour c- nutrant agar
c- 6 hour d- non of the above
d- 4 hour 54- differential media use to differentiate
43- microorganism cause spoiling to the food by:' microorganism by add------ to the media
a- cause various type of organoleptic a- water
b- cause blacking of food b- protein
c- multiplication on food c- dyes & indicator
d- non of the above d- lipid
44- role of microorganism in food production: 55- transport media used to:
a- replication in food a- prevent over grows of commensals
b- certain type of food are made by microorganisms b- ensure survival of pathogen
c- production toxin in food c- a & b
d- non of the above d- non of the above
45- role of microorganism in food in food borne 56- the forms of culture media are:
diseases: a- solid, semisolid and fluid
a- when pathogenic microorganisms in the food are b- gas and fluid
ingested c- solid and gas
b- when toxic product of pathogenic microorganism in d- non of the above
the food are ingested 57- grows and multiplication of bacteria in fluid
c- a & b describe in------ stage
d- non of the above a- 10
46- presence of pathogens in foods can determined b- 4
by using: c- 100
a- stain d- 8
b- biochemical test 58- inculcation of culture media must be in aseptic
c- standard plate count technique to:
d- serological test a- prevent contamination
47- culture techniques used to: b- prevent grows of pathogenic bacteria
a- isolate bacteria c- increase number of bacteria
b- distraction of bacteria d- non of the above
c- staining of bacteria 59- provide of single colonies when inoculation of
d-non of the above media in Petri dishes used to:
48- ingredients which can be found in culture media a- identification of bacteria
are b- see whether a culture is pure or mixed
a- peptone c- a & b
b-meat extracts d- non of the above
c-yeast extract 60- pathogenic bacteria incubated in:
d- all of the above a- 50C0
49- there are -------- type of culture media: b- 60 C0
a- seven c- 37 C0
b- five d- 90 C0
c- ten
d- two 61- type of urine collect for microbiology lab is:
50- basic media use to: a- fresh, cleanly midstream urine
1- support the grow of microorganism b- fresh, cleanly first stream urine
2- slow down grow of microorganism c- fresh, cleanly last stream urine
3- dose not effect grow of microorganism d- fresh, cleanly all stream urine
4- non of the above 62- dysenteric and watery stool must reach laboratory
51- media are enriched by using: within
a- water a- 15 minutes
b- lipid b- 30 minutes
c- whole blood c- 90 minutes
d- non of the above d- 50 minutes
52- selective media contain substance that: 63- causes of presence of pus in stool found when:
a- increase grows of bacteria a- there is inflammation of the intestinal
b- patients with bacillary dysentery d- spots
c- patients with intestinal schistosomiasis 74- disposal of swabs done by
d- a & b a- immerse in 5% phenolic disinfection
64- if immediate delivery to the laboratory is not b- put it under the sun
possible, urine should be: c- a & b
a- refrigerated at 4C0 d- non of the above
b- discard the urine 75- infection through the mouth caused by
c- boiling it a- eating food in the laboratory
d- non of the above b- inhalation
65- sputum best collected in the --- c- playing food boll
a- evening d- all of the above
b- midnight 76- presence of pathogens in foods can determined by
c- morning using:
d- midday a- stain
66- young child when it is not possible to obtain b- biochemical test
sputum we do---- c- standard plate count
a- gastric wash‫اﻟﺼﺢ‬ d- serological test
2- mouth swab 77- culture techniques used to:
c- eye biopsy a- isolate bacteria
d- stool sample b- distraction of bacteria
67- if pneumonia is suspected, deliver the sputum as c- staining of bacteria
little delay because: d-non of the above
a- organism can infected community 78- ingredients which can be found in culture media
b- organism such as S.pneumoniae require are
culturing as soon as possible a- peptone
c- sample may contaminated by urine of the patient b-meat extracts
d- non of the above c-yeast extract
68- refrigeration of M.tuberculosis sample can cause: d- all of the above
a- increase multiplication of commensals 79- there are -------- type of culture media:
b- slow down the multiplication of commensals a- seven
c- kills the commensals b- five
d- non of the above c- ten
69- M.tuberculosis diagnosis by make a smear of d- two
sputum stain by: 80- basic media use to:
1- ziehl-neelsen stain 1- support the grow of microorganism
2- gram stain 2- slow down grow of microorganism
3- negative stain 3- dose not effect grow of microorganism
4- capsule stain 4- non of the above
70- always part of sputum select: 81- media are enriched by using:
a- ready part a- water
b- black part b- lipid
c- purulent part c- whole blood
d- slivery part d- non of the above
71- patient with streptococcal sore throat, the tonsils 82- selective media contain substance that:
may be covered with---- a- increase grows of bacteria
a- red spots b- prevent or slow down grows of commensally
b- green spots bacteria
c- white spots c- dose not effect grows of bacteria
d- yellow spots 23- example of selective media is:
72- patient with infectious mononucleosis, tonsils may a- blood agar
be covered with ------- b- XLD agar
a- red exudates c- nutrant agar
b- white exudates d- non of the above
c-green exudates 84- - causes of pale colored of stool specimens are
d- yellow exudates a- patients with obstructive jaundice
73- patient with Vincent's angina, there is ------------ of b- patients with bacillary dysentery
the mouse, throat, or lips c- patients with intestinal schistosomiasis
a- ulceration d- non of the above
b- exudates
c- purulent part 85- type of urine collect for microbiology lab is:
a- fresh, cleanly midstream urine a- cause various type of organoleptic
b- fresh, cleanly first stream urine b- cause blacking of food
c- fresh, cleanly last stream urine c- multiplication on food
d- fresh, cleanly all stream urine d- non of the above
94- role of microorganism in food production:
86- report the larva and egg found in the stool by a- replication in food
scanty means: b- certain type of food are made by microorganisms
1- 11- 20 per preparation c- production toxin in food
2- 21-40 per preparation d- non of the above
3- 1-3 per preparation 95- role of microorganism in food in food borne
4- over 40 per preparation diseases:
87- urine sample should passed at early morning a- when pathogenic microorganisms in the food are
because: ingested
1- urine contain highest concentration of bacteria b- when toxic product of pathogenic microorganism in
and substances the food are ingested
2- urine contain lowers concentration of bacteria and c- a & b
substances d- non of the above
3- better of diagnosis in lab 96- presence of pathogens in foods can determined by
4- non of the above using:
a- stain
b- biochemical test
c- standard plate count
d- serological test
88- 24 hour urine sample collect for diagnosis of: 97- culture techniques used to:
1- eye infection a- isolate bacteria
2- skin infection b- distraction of bacteria
3- hormones and protein c- staining of bacteria
4- mouth infection d-non of the above
89- method of collection 24 hour urine sample: 98- ingredients which can be found in culture media
a- start at 08.00 hour are
b- give patient large 2 liter capacity bottle a- peptone
c- a & b b-meat extracts
d- non of the above c-yeast extract
90- female patient should be instruct to collect urine d- all of the above
by: 99- there are -------- type of culture media:
a- dose not clean the area around the urethra opening a- seven
with clean water b- five
b- clean the area around the urethra opening with c- ten
clean water d- two
c- pass first stream urine 100- basic media use to:
d- non of the above 1- support the grow of microorganism
2- slow down grow of microorganism
90- patient with Vincent's angina, there is ------------ of 3- dose not effect grow of microorganism
the mouse, throat, or lips 4- non of the above
a- ulceration
b- exudates
c- purulent part
d- spots
91- collection of throat sample done by using:
a- serial cotton swab
b- needle
c- forceps
d- non of the above
92- patient with throat infection must not be treated ---
--- hour before
a- 2 hour
b- 3 hour
c- 6 hour
d- 4 hour
93- microorganism cause spoiling to the food by:'
 General

Microbiology MCQs

General
1. ****The difference between plasma and serum is 1. (a) Plasma contains fibrinogen which is
that plasma: consumed during the clot formation to
a. Contains fibrinogen. separate serum.
b. Doesn’t contain fibrinogen.
c. Has more water.
d. Has less water.

2. ******Best way to separate the serum? 2. (a) leave the blood to clot at R.T for I hr,
a. leave the blood to clot at R.T for I hr, then then centrifuge
centrifuge
b. by adding citrate.
c. by adding EDTA

3. **Point of care testing means? 3. (c) Take care in testing

a. Complete a test & make a point[interpret],
b. Testing the patient at bed side
c. Take care in testing
4. ****Error in the result is expected in which case? 4. (c) Oxalate is a divalent cation chelator.
a. Glucose on fluoride.
b. Glucose on EDTA
c. Calcium on oxalate

5. **Cardiac anatomical anomalies associated with 5. (b) Fallot's tetralogy is composed of

Fallot tetralogy include all of the following except: PS+VSD + Rt aorta + RVH.
a. VSD
b. ASD

6. Hemolysed blood is unsuitable for performing which 6. Hemolysis is visible at Hb> 3.1 μmol/L
tests? It increases LDH, K, ACP, cholesterol, ALT
and AST.
Hemolysis don’t increase serum albumin,
bilirubin, ALP, amylase, lipase, Ca, Cl, P,
Mg, Na, creatinine, glucose, UA or urea.

7. ****Hemolysis causes? 7. a.
a. Increased serum K
b. Increased serum Na
c. Increased HCO3-
d. Decreased K

8. After hemolysis: 8.
a. Sodium leaks out of RBCs.
b. K leaks into cells.
c. Bicarbonate gets into RBCs.

9. Effects of fasting 9. Prolonged fasting increase TG, glycerol,

FFA but not cholesterol.
 General
10. ****Fluoride is used to get samples for? 10. a. Blood sugar
a. Blood sugar
b. Coagulation
c. Electrolyte
d. CBC.

11. ***Anticoagulant used for glucose is: 11. Fluoride

12. **Changes in blood stored more than 5 hrs at room 13. (a) Storage of blood has the following
temp. include? effects:
a. Decreased glucose & increased lactate. 1- ↓CO2, ACP & Glucose
b. Increased glucose & decreased lactate 2- ↑pH & ammonia
c. Failure of Na & K pump, 3- Changes in RBC permeability →↑K,P
&Mg
4- Na-K pump is inhibited at 4 °c but not at
25°c. leading to ↑K in refrigerated samples.
5- Phosphorylation→↑P released from
organic P.
6- Loss of enzyme activity.
7- Light→↓ bilirubin, δALA and
porphyrins.

14. Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest 14.
for the estimation of glucose because:
a. The glucose values decreases with time.
b. Glucose value increases with time.
c. Lysis of blood occurs.
a. Continued glycolysis cause glucose
values to decreases with time unless cells
are separated.

 Best place to put a needle for blood collection is puncture proof container.
 Immunology

Immunology
1. **Antigen & antibody reaction is? 1. b. Immunodiffusion is the process of
a. Agglutination diffusion in semisolid media to detect
b. precipitation amount of antibody to neutralize antigen.
c. immunodiffusion, Agglutination necessitates an indicator
system e.g. RBCs or latex particles.
2. **Hook effect in immune assay occurs because the 2. b. The hook effect is the result of very high
concentration of antibodies in the well is? antigen levels giving lower than expected
a. Too low result in a double antibody sandwich assay.
b. Too high
c. Optimum

3. **Antigen & antibody complex are? 3. a. weakly bound

a. Weakly bound
b. strongly bound
c. no bound at all.

4. ***Reaginic antibody is: 4. d. Reagenic or anaphylactic mechanism

a. IgG refers to events following combination of
b. IgM antigen with IgE molecule specific for it
c. IgD upon the surface of mast cells.
d. IgE

5. Arthus phenomenon results from: 5. ??b. Antibody excess.

a. Antigen excess. In arthus phenomenon, a high antigen
b. Antibody excess. concentration is attacked by a high antibody
c. Antigen and antibody in equal proportions. concentration→ excess antigen antibody
complexes followed by local tissue damage.

6. **Lysis in complement fixation test means the test 6. b. In CFT, absence of hemolysis indicates
is? that complement was fixed in antigen
a. Positive antibody reaction so specific antibody was
b. negative present.
c. invalid.

7. **All tube for serial dilution for CRP test contain 7. None (something missed in the question).
0.5ml of saline & 0.5ml of serum is added to Tube 1 The titer in the 7th tube = 27 = 128
& 0.5ml is transferred through the row of tubes & So, the concentration of CRP= 128x6=
agglutination is demonstrate in tube 7, If sensitivity 768mg.
of the test is 6mg/l the concentration of CRP in
serum is?
a. 36mg
b. 42mg
c. 6mg
d. 48mg
e. 384mg..
 Immunology
8. **CRP is tested because it is increased in? 8. b. CRP is a sensitive non specific indicator
a. Bacterial infection of acute injury, bacterial infection or
b. viral infection inflammation.
c. other infection.

9. In infectious monopnucleosis antibodiesare? 9. Anti (I)

.________

10. ******Which of the following reagin test for 10. a. Reagin = Antibody against cardiolipin.
syphilis? Reagenic tests are VDRL, RPR and
a. VDRL Wassermann (CFT).
b. TPHA
c. TPT

11. **Antigenic detection is useful in diagnosis of all of 11. c. Because L. monocytogens is an

the following escept: intracellular organism.
a. B hemolytic Streptococci.
b. H. influenza.
c. Listeria monocytogenes.

.31 ****Antigenic methods are useful in diagnosis of 31.

all of the following cuases of meningitis except:
a. Strept B hemolyticus.
b. H. influenza
c. E. coli
e. listeria

12. **Autoimmune disease contain all except? 12. d. In AI diseases there is ↑ autoantibodies →
a. Lesion in B/M immune complex formation → complement
b. low complement level in serum fixation → ↓ complement.
c. immune complex in serum Also there is cell death or altered function.
d. low Ig in serum.

13. ***Tuberculine test is type. 13. IV hypersensitivity

14. Cell mediated immunity = 14. Candida

Defective CMI → candidiasis.

15. ****Which of the following detects type IV cell 15. Tuberculin

mediated immunity?

16. ***Mantox test is a method for 16. Tuberculin

17. Immune complex deposits. 17.

 Microbiology

Microbiology

ANTIBIOTICS, ANTIMICROBIALS, STERILIZATION AND DISINFECTION

.1 **Antibiotic used for each organism are 1. .
a. Pneumonia a.-penicillin
b. Legionella b-erythrocin
c. S. pyogens c. penicillin
d. H.infuenza. d-ceftriaxone
e. P. enterocolitis e- vancomycin
.2 **Tetracycline is identical in action with – 2. Aminoglycoside
Aminoglycosides act on 30s ribosomal
subunit.as tetracyclines.

.3 **Which is effective against penicillinase producing 3. Nfcillin or dicloxacillin.

organism.

.4 The best chemical disinfectant in a TB lab? 4. a. Phenol, although effective against TB,
a. Gluteraldehyde is rarely used being too caustic. Ethanol is
b. ethanol not effective (TB are alcohol resistant).
c. phenol Glutaraldehyde is used to sterilize
d. hypochlorate, respiratory equips and is effective against
TB.

.5 ***What is lab safety level you will employ for the 5. d. Biosafety levels are designed according
culture of brucella? to risk group of the lab;
a. Routine precaution Risk Description Biosafety
b. bio safety level 1, grou level
p
c. bio safety level 2 1 Organisms are low risk to 1
d. bio safety level 3 lab workers and
e. no specific measure community (common
organisms)
2 Moderate risk to lab 2
workers limited risk to
community e.g. staph,
strept., vibrio
3 High risk to labo workers, 3
low risk to community
(don’t spread rapidly) e.g.
brucella, TB, Salmonella
4 Viruses, high risk to lab 4
and community
.6 β-lactamase resistant penicillin for staph 6. Cloxacillin.

.7 *****Sterility is achieved by: 7. c. Sterilization means killing or removal

a. Pasteurization. of all microorganisms including spores
b. Disinfection. e.g. autoclaving, ethylene oxide, filtration.
c. asepsis. Disinfection means killing of many (not
d. All of the above. all) microorganisms e.g. phenol, ethanol,
e. None of the above iodine (antiseptics).

.8 ***Intrinsic resistance for vancomycin is present in: 8.
a. Penicillin-resistant bacteria
b. C. deficile.
c. Staph sensitive to cloxacin.
Microbiology
a. Penicillin-resistant bacteria (both act on
cell wall)
Most important use of vancomycinis
against staph aureus that are resistant to
penicillinase resistant penicillin e.g.
nafcillin.

.9 ***Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside? 9. b. Erythromycin.

a. amykacin.
b. Erythromycin.
c. Neomycin.
d. Sissomycin

10 **Pasteurization gives guarantee of: 10 a. Kills spores sterilization.

a. Kills spores sterilization.
b. Disinfection.
c. Saponification.
d. None of the above

.11 For penicillin resistant pneumococci, which is used? 11. b. Ceftriaxone.

a. Ampicillin.
b. Ceftriaxone.
c. Cefuroxime + Rifampicin.
d. Ampicillin + Rifampicin

.12 Cephalosporin resistant bacteria producing beta 12. a. β lactamases are produced by;
lactamase is: B. fragilis.
a. E.coli. N. gonorrhoea.
b. Y. Enterocolitica H. influenza.
Legionella
Enterobactereceae

.13 Which of the following denote sterilization? 13.

.14 TB contamination can be disinfected by 14. Glutaraldehyde.

Or phenolic

.15 **A pre-operative medication of antibiotics is 15. b. Gangerous obstructed loop.

indicated in:
a. Acute appendicitis.
b. Gangerous obstructed loop.
c. Abdominal hernia.

.16 Bronchoscope 16. Glutaraldehyde

.17 ***- Which is the best way to sterilize a 17. a. Autoclave.is used for heat resistant
bronchoscompe? parts but ethylene-oxide may be used for
a. Autoclave. heat labile parts.
b. Ethylene-oxide.
c. Gamma rays.
d. None
 Microbiology
BASIC TECHNIQUES
.18 **Castanida medium for blood culture contain? 18. Both liquid & solid media in same bottle.

.19 **Medium for each: 19.

a. TB a. L.J medium
***b. Gonoccoci b. Chocolate agar or Thayer martin
c. C. Diphtheria media
d. Staph. Aureus c. Löefflers media
d. Blood agar
.20 **If you forget iodine step in gram stain staph 20. Red
aureus will be seen?

.21 **Significant bacterial count is 21. 100,000. (105)

104-105 = Equivocal
<104 and mixed = probable contamination

.22 ***Anti-coagulant for blood culture ? 22. Na-phosphonaphthol sulpfonate

Also known by abbreviation SPS

.23 ***In CLED all bacteria grow except? 23. None

a. Enterobacter, On CLED;
b. salmonella Salmonella gives flat blue colonies.
c. klebsiella Klebsiella gives mucoid yellow colonies.
d. enterococci. Enterococci give yellow translucent
colonies.
.24 ***Gram stain best done in? 24. b. Growth of bacteria on media follows
a. Lag phase the following phases;
b. log phase - Lag phase; phase of accommodation to
c. static phase medium. No net growth
d. death phase. - Log phase; phase of maximum growth.
- Stationary phase; growth equilibrates
death
- Decline phase; phase of exhaustion of
medium components. Growth declines.

.25 ***Microaerophilic atmosphere means? 25. c. trace of free O2

a. 10% CO2
b. anaerobic
c. trace of free O2

.26 **Which agar concentration is the best to detect 26. b. 0.5%

bacterial mobility? For solid medium 1.5-2% concentration is
a. 0.01% used.
b. 0.5%
c. 1.5%
d. 2%
e. 4%
 Microbiology
.27 ***Best time to read oxidase test is within: 27. b. 10 seconds
a. 5 seconds.
b. 10 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 2 minutes.
e. 5 minutes.

.28 ***In ZN staining used for M. leprae, the 28. d. None of the above.
decolorizing agent used is: 1% acid alcohol.for dec. M. labrae
a. 5% acetone. 3% acid alchol is used for M.
b. 5% acid alcohol. Tuberculosis
c. 5% hydrochloric a.
d. None of the above

.29 ***Which of the following is a chemical fixative? 29. c. Methyl alcohol

a. Formalin.
b. Mercuric chloride
c. Methyl alcohol
d. All of the above

.30 ****When urine is preserved for culture it should
be:
a. preserved at room temperature.
b. Preserved in refrigerator.
c. preserved with nitric acid.
d. Preserved with sulfuric acid.
e. Preserved with boric acid.
30. e. (check also for b.) If a delay > 1-2
hours is unavoidable multiplication of
bacteria can be prevented by;
- Storage in refrigerator at 4°c
- Collected and transported in a container
of boric acid at a concentration of 1.8%

31. Suitable medium for many pathogenic bacteria 31. Brain heart infusion.

.32 Blood culture is indicated in the following: 32. ??d. None of the above
a. Mycobacterium ?? c. Staph. aureus may cause septicemia.
b. Diphtheria
c. Staph. Aureus
d. None of the above

.33 Solid media include: 33. d. All of the above

a. Slant.
b. Streak plates.
c. Pour plates.
d. All of the above

BASIC BACTERIOLOGY
.34 **Cell wall is absent in? 34. a. Mycoplasma is the smallest organism
a. mycoplasma capable of self replication. It possesses
b. bacteria cell constituents of bacteria except cell
c. fungi wall. Instead, there is a triple layer
c. viruses cytoplasmic membrane.
 Microbiology
.35 **Sterol is the main constituent of cell wall of: 35. a. Unlike the cell wall of bacteria,
a. Mycoplasma. mycoplasma cell membrane contains
b. Rickettsia. cholesterol or carotenol in addition to the
c. Chlamydia. usual mural and phospholipids.
d. Leptospira.
e. Staph.

.36 ***Which of the following contains more 36. a. The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker
peptidoglycan? in Gram positive than in Gram negative
a. G+ve bacilli. bacteria. Richetsia cell wall similar to that
b. G-ve bacilli. of Gram negative bacteria. Chalmydia cell
c. Chlamydia. wall is similar to that of Gram negative
d. Richetsiae. bacteria but no muramic acid.

.37 ***Sedimentation constant of bacterial ribosomes is: 37. c. 70s

a. 40s Bacteria has 70s ribosomes with 30s &50s
b. 60s subunits.
c. 70s Mammalian ribosome has sedimentation
d. 80s coefficient of 80s with 60&40s subunits.

.38 ***Endotoxins are chemically: 38. c. Endotoxins are integral part of G-ve
a. Mucopeptides. bacteria. They are LPS whereas exotoxins
b. Proteins. are polypeptides.
c. Lipopolysaccharides.
d. Polysaccharides.

.39 ***L forms differ from parent cells in all of the 39. c.
following except:
a. Lack rigid cell wall.
b. Lack regular shape.
c. Cannot grow and multiply on nutrient medium.
d. Lack regular size.

40 ***Bacterial genes are transferred by all of the 40 c. The transfere of genetic information
following means except: between bacterial cells can occur by 3
a. Transformation. methods: conjugation, transduction and
b. Transduction. transformation (see table p16 Jawetz
c. Mutation. review).
d. Conjugation.

.41 **Sepsis cause 41. Toxic granulomas.

41. Which is not a super antigen? 41. b. Psuedomonas exotoxin A.

New a. TSSA New
b. Psuedomonas exotoxin A.
c. Tetanus toxin.
d. Diphtheria toxin.
 Microbiology
GRAM POSITIVE COCCI
.42 Cell wall of staph. 42. Teichoic acid
Gram posititve cell wall is composed of
peptidoglycan and teichoic acid (no lipid
A or polysaccharide as in gram negative
cell wall)

.43 **Food poisoning by staph aureus is due to. 43. Enterotoxin

This acts by stimulating relase of IL1 and
IL2.

.44 **Enterotoxin of staph. Aureus is heat. 44. stable

.45 ***Differentiate between pathogenic & non 45. coagulase test. Pathogenic staph is aureus
pathogenic staphylococci use species.

.46 **Most streptococcus infection to human is 46. A & B hemolyticus.

.47 ***To differentiate A & B hemolytic streptococci we 47. a. Group A strept is bacitracin sensitive
use while group B is bacetracin resistant.
a. bacitracin Optochin is used to differentiate
b. optochin αhemolytic strept (pneumococci are
c. ampicillin sensitive and strept viridans is resistant)

.48 **Commonest disease caused by streptococcus 48. sore throat

pyogenes is. Strept pyogenes cause three types of
diseases;
- Pyogenic (pharyngitis and cellulites)
- Toxigenic (TSS and scarlet fever)
- Immunogenic (Rheumatic fever and
AGN)

.49 **Food poisoning symptom [vomiting] 4 hrs after 49. b. staph aureus enterotoxin
ingestion of food seen in?
a. E.coli
b. staph aureus enterotoxin
c. salmonella typhi
d. vibrio cholera

.50 ***Strept pyogenes cause all except: 50. Toxic shock syndrome (check this answer
118. Streptococcus cause all except: because pyrogenic exotoxin A of strept
pyogenes is similar to TSST of staph).

.51 Pneumococci are typed by 51. Optochin, bile solubility, Quellung test
Pneumococci are optichin sensitive, bile
soluble and Guellung test positive.

.52 Antigen protective for pneumococci is 52. Capsular polysaccharides.

The capsular polysaccharides is antigenic.
Other protective mechanisms of
pneumococci include enzyme IgA
protease, toxin and SSS.
 Microbiology
.53 **Diagnosis of metastatic staphylococcal lesions: 53. a. Staph don’t produce endotoxins (being
a. Protein A Ab. gram positive). Anti Dnase is used mainly
b. Anti DNase. for strept. Protein A antibody methods are
c. Endotoxins diagnostic for staph disseminated lesions.

.54 *****The following differentiates between staph. 54. Novobiocin.

Pyogenes and strept epidermidis: Novobiocin is used to differentiate staph
epidermidis (sensitive) from staph
saprophyticus (resistant). To differentiate
staph pyogenes
.55 ***The epidemiological marker used most 55. a. Phage typing.
frequently in strain differentiation of Staph. aureus
is:
a. Phage typing.
b. Biotyping.
c. Serotyping.
d. Bacteriocin typing

.56 **All of the following species of streptococcus are B 56. b. Strept. pyogenes is β hemolytic, Strept.
hemolytic except: avium is α hemolytic, Strept. salivarius is
a. Strept. Pyogenes. non-hemlytic.
b. Strept infrequens.
c. Strept. avium
d. Strept. salivarius

.57 **Which organism grow on NaCl concentration 57. Streptococcus.

6gm/L? Strept fecalis grows on 6% NaCl while
strept bovis don’t.

.58 Staph. 58. Catalase test

Staph is catalase positive.

.59 Test used to differentiate staph. aureus 59. b. Coagulase is used to diagnose staph
a. Catalase aureus (positive) from other staph and
b. Coagulase strept. Catalase is used to differentiate
c. Dnase staph from strept., Dnase and ASOT are
d. ASOT used to diagnose strept.

.60 **ASOT is used to detect: 60. Strept. pyogenes.

GRAM NEGATIVE COCCI

.61 ***Differenciation of N. gonorrhaea from N. 61. N. Gono
Meningitis by sugar fermentation? N.Menin
Maltose -
+
Glucose + +
Sucrose - -
 Microbiology
.62 ****In N. gonorrhoea causing dissiminated lesion 62. a. Oral penicillin, cirprofloxacin or
(systemic manifestation), which of the following is doxycycline are used in gonococal
incorrect. arthritis.
a. Sensetive to penicillin (G+ve only)
b. Resistant to ampicillin

.63 Meningococcemia causes: 63. Waterhouse Fredrichson syndrome.

.64 Neisseria gonorrhoea can cause which of the 64. b. N. gonorrhoea may cause septicemia
following? and suppurativeartheritis and hemorrhagic
a. Osteomyelitis. skin papules.
b. Artheritis.
c. Septicemia.

GRAM POSITIVE BACILLI

.65 **Gm +ve bacilli arrange in Chinese letter pattern is 65. Diptheria bacilli,

.66 **Pseudomembrane cause by a 66. diphtheria

.67 *******Which test is used to ascertain toxigenicity of 67. b. Elick's test is in vitro plate test for toxin
C. 12iphtheria? production. Schick test in an ID test for
a. Dick test. susceptibility to diphtheria, if immune →-
b. Elick's test. ve (no reaction).
c. Schick test.
d. None of the above.

.68 ******A memberane on the pharynx on removal it 68. a. Diphtheria.

leaves a bleeding surface occurs with:
a. Diphtheria.
b. IMN
c. Vincent's angina.
d. candida.
e. streptococcal infection.
f. All of the above.
g. None of the above

.69 ***A CSF culture revealed an organism that is G+ve 69.
at 37◌ْ c and no growth at room temperature. This is
most likely to be:
Listeria.
Something missed in this question;
Listeria is motile at 25°c not at 37°c. It
grows on a wide range of temperature (3-
43°c)

.70 Neonatal meningitis G+ve rods. 70. L. monocytogens.

.71 Listeria monocytogens. 71.

.72 **Growth of actinomyces israeli on gram stain shows 72. gm +ve branching rods with club ends.

.73 **Actinomycosis is caused by? 73. Actinomyces israelii

& arachnia propionica

.74 **Madura foot have all except?
a. Fever.
b. bone involvement
c. Draining sinus tract
d. granules in discharge
e. Caused by fungus or bacteria.
Microbiology
74. a. Madura food is a subcutaneous
infection with fungi (e.g. eumycates) or
actinomyces. There is discharge from
sinus tract, bone involvement follow.
Systemic symptoms are uncommon, and
so is LN.

ENTEROBACTERECIAE & PSEUDOMONAS

75. **Mobile bacilli are? 75. E.coli, V.cholera, salmonella,
pseudomonas, proteus,
.76 **Proteus is 76. Motile gm –ive bacilli, NLF, produce
swarming on BA.

.77 **Most common agent causing UTI is? 77. a.

a. E.coli
b. klebsiella
c. proteus
d. 13seudomonas,

.78 **IMViC reaction of E.coli & klebsella are? 78. E. coli is ++-- Klebsiella is --++

.79 **Example of NLF colonies on MacConkey agar ? 79.
28. Examples of LF colonis on MacConkey agar?
NLF (produce pale colored colonies):
Salmonella, shegella, 13seudomonas,
proteus
LF (produce pink colored colonies):E.coli,
Klebsiella.

.80 **The following proteous are indole +ive except 80. P. mirabilis
While M. morganii, P. vulgaris, and
13seudomonas13 are all positive.

.81 **Klebsiella pneumoniae produces. 81. mucoid colonies

.82 **IMViC reaction of E.coli is 82. .[++--]

.83 **Which of the following is urease +ve 83. proteus.

Also, Klebsieall and pseudomonas.
.84 Urease present in all except? 84. c. Not only sh. Sonni, but also Shigella
a. Brucella.abortus, A,B and C.
b. Brucella.melitensis,
c. shigella sonni,

.85 **Which strain of E. coli cause HUS? 85. a. EHEC 157 = VTEC 157
a. VTEC O157, H7
b. EPEC O157:H7

.86 E. coli, Klebsiella and proteus are 86. Commensals of GIT

.87 E.coli is indole? 87. Positive

Also proteus is indole positive.
 Microbiology
.88 **Psuedomonas infections include? 88. May cause UTI, otitis media & eye
infection, Bed sore, burns,
.89 **Psuedomonas is? 89. Motile gm –ive bacilli, NLF, produce
pigmented colonies
.90 **Psuedomonas aerogenosa produce? 90. Blue green pigments,
Pyocyanin & biovirdin.

.91 Contamination of sterile fluid is 91. pseudomonas.

.92 **An abscess with bluish green discharge caused by? 92. c.
a. Staphlococcus
b. proteus
c. 14seudomonas.

.93 ****Hospital fluids are usually contaminated by: 93. a. Pseudomonas are able to grow in water
****120. Organism of medical fluids is: with traces of nutrients.
a. Pseudomonas.
b. Staph.
c. Strept.

.94 Pigments of pseudomonas aerogenosa 94. Both Fluorescin (pyovirdin) and

pyocyanin

.95 **Widal test used in the diagnosis of? 95. a. Typhoid fever
a. Typhoid fever
b. malaria
c. malta fever
d. brucellosis

.96 **Enriched medium for salmonella is? 96. Salenite broth

.97 **On Wilson Blair media salmonella produce? 97. S.typhi large black colonies with metallic
sheen after 24hours, S.paratyphi produce
green colonies after 48hours.

.98 **Media used for the isolation of salmonella are? 98. MacConkey, DCA, Wilson blair,
Also XLD and selenite broth.

.99 ***Culture of choice in the first week of typhoid 99. c. Blood culture are usually positive 90%
fever? in the first week of fever, thereafter rate of
a. Feces. posistivity decreases. Stool culture are
b. urine. positive throughout the course of disease.
c. blood. However, it is of less significant being
d. CSF positive in carriers and dignose
gastroenteritis not enteric fever.

.100 **Color of salmonella & shigella on MacConkey 100. NLF

agar is?

.101 *******Salmonella & shigella are differentiated by? 101. Motility

.102 Seroprofile of salmonella typhi? 102. O-9,12, H-1,2

 Microbiology
.103 Diagnosis of typoid fever in 1st week is done by 103. blood culture

.104 Differentiate between E. coli and salmonella 104. Salmonella is NLF and E.coli is LF

.105 ****All of the following is correct regarding enteric 105. Localized gut disease.
fever except:

.106 **Microscopic appearance of Yersinia pestis is? 106. G-ve coccobacilli.

.107 ******Dog bite G-ve bacilli isolated is propably: 107. a. Pasteurella multucida
a. Pasteurella multucida
b. H. influenza.
c. B. Abortus
d. toxocara cannis

.108 **Cholera is caused by? 108. a. V. cholera

a. V. cholera
b. E.coli
c. proteus
d. 15seudomonas.

.109 ***Enriched media for V.cholera is ? 109. Alkaline peptone water [pH8.6],

.110 ****Loss of fluid in cholera is due to? 110. Adenyl cyclase system activation
This leads to ++cAMP → Chloride and
water loss.

.111 ***Mode of action of vibrio is by: 111. c. stimulation of membrane bound

a. irritation of intestinal mucosa by vibrio. adenylecyclase
b. attack of intestinal mucosa by the toxin.
c. stimulation of membrane bound adenylecyclase

.112 Vibrio vulnificus. 112. This is halophilic cholera i.e. lives in

salted water, infects wounds of shellfish
handlers causing cellulistis (may cause
septicemia in immunocompromized
patients).

RICHETTSIAE, CHLAMYDIA AND MYCOPLASMA

.113 **Rickettsial pox is transmitted by 113. mites.
Causative organism is R. akari.

.114 **Stain for rickettsia is. 114. Giemsa stain

Giemsa gives rickettsia blue to purple
color, Gimenes stain it red, Machiavillo
stain it red inside blue cells and IF gives
better sensitivity and specificity.

.115 Organism associated with atherosclerosis: 115. Richetssia (x)

Chlamydia pneumoniae (see Kumar 686).
 Microbiology
.116 **Lymphogranuloma venerum is caused by. 116. Chlamydia
Sero D-K 16hlamydia trachomatis

.117 **Mycoplasma are resistant to action of 117. antimicrobial.

SPIROCHETES
.118 **Specific or non specific test for syphilis? 118. Non-specific- RPR, VDRL
Specific- TPI, FTA-ABS, TPHA, MHA-
TP

.119 **Treponema pallidum is a? 119. Spirochate, can be demonstrate by dark

field microscopy.
.120 **Treponema pallidum causes? 120. a. Syphilis
a. Syphilis
b. TB
c. meningitis
d. AIDs

.121 ***Bejel is characterized by all except? 121. Both are OK. Bejel is non venereal
a. Non veneral transmission disease caused by T. pallidum
b. Caused by 16ariant of Treponema pallidum. endemicum. It is a highly infectious skin
in fection.
.122 *****Which of the following accurately don't 122. a. Ulcerative skin lesions.
describe 3ry syphilis:
a. Ulcerative skin lesions.
b. Gummas in internal organs.
c. Rare spirochetes in lesions with limited tissue
damage..

.123 **Yaws disease 123. Caused by Treponema pertenue

Characterized by ulcerating papule, scar
forming and may cause bone destruction.

HEMOPHILUS
.124 **Hemophilus grows 16uxuriantly on? 124. Chocolate media.

.125 ****Satellitism is exhibited by? 125. Hemophilus influenza around staph.

a. H. influenza. Aureus
b. N. meningitides.
c. mycobacteria

.126 **Hemophelus influenza require? 126. X & V factors for their growth

.127 **H Ducrii causes. 127. soft chancre

Soft chancre is also called chancroid. H.
Ducreii don’t require V factor

.128 **Bacteria shows satellism. 128. H. Influnzae

.129 **Factor V & X are essential for growth of. 129. H. Influenza
 Microbiology
.130 H. influenza meningitis occurs most frequently in : 130. children.
1/2 to 4 years old.

.131 Satellism helps to diagnose? 131. H.influenza

BORDETELLA & BORRELIA

.132 **Bordetella pertusis are? 132. Strictly aerobes.

.133 Bordetella exotoxin = 133. Single Ag previously termed Islet activity

protein.
It resembles cholera toxin in structure and
action.

.134 ***What type of fever caused by borrelia? 134. a. B. recurrentis and duttoni casue
a. Relapsing fever. replapsing fever. B. burgdorferi cause
b. Q fever lyme disease and Q fever is caused by
c. Rheumatic fever. coxiella burnetti.
d. enteric fever.

ANEROBIC BACTERIA
.135 **Gm +ve bacilli with terminal round spores 135. Clostridium welchii,
resembling match stick are Also called perfrengins.

.136 **Nagler reaction used for - Rapid identification of Cl. Welchii

Lecithena L G
se
(Negler's)
C. deficile & - - + Lecithinase –
botulinum ve
Saccharolytic
NLF
C. + + + Lecithinase
perfringens +ve
Saccharolytic
LF
C. tetani - - - Lecithinase –
ve
asaccharolyti
c NLF
.137 **Clostridia are 137. Gm +ve anaerobic bacilli
.138 **Bacteroid is resistant to? 138. c. aminoglycoside. Also to penicillin (a),
a. Penicillin neomycin and kanamycin.
b. metronidazole Chloramphenicol is highly effective.
c. aminoglycoside
d. chloramphenicol.

.139 **Stormy fermentation is seen in? 139. b. Cl. Perfringens in litumus milk medium
a. Cl. Histolyticum produces A&G, the acid clots milk and the
b. Cl.prefrenges gas breaks the clot producing stormy
c. Cl.septicum. fermentation.
 Microbiology
.140 **Bacteria that can be best identified best by direct 140. a. Vincent bacillus
Gram's film is?
a. Vincent bacillus
b. campylobacter

.141 *****The following combination is isolated from pus 141. a. B. fragilis.and streptococcus.
from deep pyonidal sinus:
a. B. fragilis.and streptococcus milits.
b. B. fragilis and B. abortus.
c. Strept B.hymolitic and streptococcus.

.142 Suitable medium for anerobic bacteria 142. Blood

(selective or non selective), others
include;
- Cooked meat broth (CMB)
- Thyoglycolate.
- BHI

.143 **Which one has non clostridium crepitation? 143. Cl. perfrengens (X)
Clostridia producing gas gangarene are;
- .Cl. perfringens (mainly).
- Cl. Novyi.
- Cl. septicum
- Cl. histolyticum.

.144 Crepitant cellulites is caused by: 144. Clostridia.

BRUCELLA
.145 **Malta fever is caused by? 145. Brucella species
Also called undulant fever.

.146 A young Saudi male came with fever & myalgia your 146. a. Other symptoms and signs include;
diagnosis is? - Arthralgia
a. Brucella - Sweating
b. staphylococcus - Heptatosplenomegally.
c. streptococcus
d. gonorrhea

.147 **Bacteremia is seen in: 147. a. Both tetanus and shigellosis are
a. Brucella. localized infections. Brucella enters
b. Tetanus. through the mouth, lung or skin to local
c. shigellosis lymph nodes to blood to liver, spleen and
bone marrow to cause type IV
hypersensitivity.

MYCOBACTERIA
.148 **Mycobacterium Leprae 148. can not be culture artificially in the
laboratory
.149 **L.J medium is used for culturing? 149. T.B,
 Microbiology
.150 **Mycobacterium Leprae are? 150. Acid fast [5% H2SO4]

.151 **Mycobacterium .T.B is? 151. Acid fast [20% H2SO4], alcohol fast,

.152 ***TB culture takes 152. d. 3-6 weeks.

a. 2-4 days.
b. 12 days.
c. 3-6 weeks.
d. 6-10 weeks.
.153 **Most sever form of leprosy is 153. Lepromatous

.154 **Mycobacteria are acid-alcohol fast because 154. they resist to decolorized by acid &
alcohol.
.155 **In lepromatous leprosy immunity is 155. very low.
Almost nil

.156 *******Which of the following mycobacteria is 156. a. MTB complex include TB, M.
related to MTB complex? africanum, M. bovis, BCG and M.
a. Mycobacterium Africanum. microtti..
b. M. leprae

.157 Acid fast bacilli in stool = 157. TB

.158 *****Diagnosis by direct staining: 158. a. Acid fast smear is number one rapid test
a. TB for mycobacterium TB. Positive smear has
b. Hemophylus a predictive value of 96%.

.159 Which of the following belongs to PTB family? 159. a. MOTT (mycobacteria other than TB)
a. M. Kanasasi. are classified into;
b. M. Bovis. - Photochromogens: M. kansasii, M.
c. M. intracellulare. marinum.
d. M. africanum. - Scotochromogens: M.scrofulucian, M.
szulgai.
- Nonpigmented:
M. avium cellular complex (MAC)
M. phlei, M. fortuitum

MISCELLANEOUS
.160 **Malignant pustule is caused by. 160. Bacillus anthracis

.161 **Plague is by 161. rat flea.

.162 ****Vaginal discharge is absent in?
a. Gardnerella infection
b. trichomonas vaginalis
c. Chlamydia
d. 19ryptococcus.
162. d. G.vaginalis produce fishy smelling
discharge, TV produce thin bubbly fishy
smelling discharge, Chlamydia produce
thin discharge. Cryptococcus is a lung
infection.
 Microbiology
.163 **Sterile pyuria not seen in? 163. c. Causes of sterile pyuria;
a. TB TB
b. non specific urithritis Mycoplasma
c. urine collection by suprepubic puncture Leptospirosis
d. prior treatment with antibiotic Vaginal contamination
Antibiotics, L forms
Abacterial cystitis
Non infectious disease e.g. tumour, FB

.164 **Diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis? 164. b. blood culture

a. Urine culture
b. blood culture

.165 *****Aspergelloma: All correct except: 165. b. Aspergelloma is a ball of aspergillous

a. Lungs are the most common site. growth. It may affect children with
b. no organism is present in lesion. preexisting pulmonary condition.
c. Affect children.

.166 **Which combination is wrong? 166. Non-specific urethritis: Penicillin.

.167 Zoonotic disease 167.

 Microbiology

MYCOLOGY
.168 ******Candida is identified by 168. germ tube test.

.169 **An oval to spherical budding cause by. 169. C neoformans

.170 **Tinea versicolor is caused by. 170. M.Furfur

.171 *****Tenia capitis is caused by: 171. a. Microsporum ausdonii cause tenia
a. Microsporum. capitis. Trychophyton causes tenia pedis
b. Trichophyton. or unguium.
c. Candida

.172 *****T. vaginalis may be mistaken for: 172. a. White cells.

a. White cells.
b. RBCs.
c. Candida.
 Microbiology
PARASITOLOGY
.173 **Malaria affecting large RBC- 173. P.vivax.
In P. vivax, infected cells are enlarged
with schuffner's dots. In P. ovale infected
RBCS are enlarged without Schuffner's
dots.
P. malariae cause normal or even reduced
sized RBCs. In P. falciparum cells are
normal with Maurer's clefts.

.174 **Leishmania id transmitted by 174. Sand fly.

.175 ****Dwarf tape worm is. 175. H.Nana

.176 ***Hematuria in Egyption Patient think of, 176. Schistosoma hematobium.

.177 **Sporozoites are present in 177. reticuloendothelial system (X).

Sporozoits are the infective stage in the
mosquito. The merozoit is the form inside
the infected RBC. Such RBC is called
schizont.

.178 **A parasite can ingest RBC & present in stool- 178. E.Histolytica.

.179 ***Entrobius vermicularis is diagnosed by. 179. anal swab

.180 **Larva is present in fresh stool? 180. Strongyloid stercoralis.(rhabdatiform

larva)
.181 **Malaria with multiple infection? 181. P. Falciparum (X).
Vivax and ovale due to preerythrocytic
schizogony cause multiple infection.

.182 **Anchovy sauce pus is ? 182. E. Histolytica

.183 **Visceral leishmaniasis best diagnosed by? 183. a. B//M biopsy

a. B//M biopsy
b. Serology

.184 **Cutaneous leishmaniasis diagnosis by? 184. a. Skin biopsy

a. Skin biopsy
b. Culture,

.185 The following parasite doesn’t not involve GIT in 185. b. cysticercosis
man?
a. Ascaris
b. cysticercosis
c. H.nana
d. Tenia

.186 The cigar glycogen is in 186. I. buchlii, but if cigar shaped chromatoid
it is E. histolytica (immature cyst)
 Microbiology
.187 **The arthropod vector of malaria is: 187. a. Female anopheles mosquito.
a. Female anopheles mosquito.
b. Culex mosquito.
c. Tsetse fly.
d. None of the above

.188 Cryptosporidium 188. Intestinal coccidian infection with AIDS

.189 A warm that infects man and pass eggs around the 189. Oxyurius vermicularis.
anus is

.190 Giardia lamblia is diagnosed in stool by the presence 190. Cysts or trophozoit
of
.191 **Which is caused by skin penetration: 191. Schistosoma hematobium.
Also ankylostoma duodenal, strongyloides
and N. americanus.

.192 Serology of E.H except 192. IFAT

Also, CFT, IHA & ELISA.

.193 Stains for stool include: 193. d. All of the above

a. Iodine.
b. Fluorescent.
c. Trichrome
d. All of the above
 Microbiology

VIROLOGY
.194 *******HAV all are correct except: 194. b. There is chronic carrier state in young
a. Infection in adults is more severe than children, children.
b. There is chronic carrier state in young children.
c. Vaccination is recommended for high risk group.
.195 **Best sample for the diagnosis for recovery of polio 195. feaces.
is Also from throuat and spinal fluid.

.196 **Virus & living cells resemble in 196. reproduction.

.197 **Latent infection seen in all except? 197. a. Herpes virus (?? HS causes latent
a. Herpes virus infection)
b. adeno virus
c. coxsackie virus
d. retorvirus.

.198 **Which of the following virus causes systemic 198. There may be a missing "except" in this
effect? question because adeno cause RTI and
a. Poliovirus hemorrhagic cystitis and GE. Influenza
b. adenovirus and polio also cause systemic effect.
c. rhinovirus Rhino is an exception.
d. Influenzea virus.

.199 ***Which is not correlating? 199. RSV keratitis in AIDS patients.

.200 ****Which combination is wrong? 200. b. Antigenic shift is a character of

a. Rubella: arthritis in young women. influenza virus
b. Mumps: Antigenic shift
c. Coxsackie: Meningitis.
d. EBV: Heterophil Abs.

.201 *****Which of the following can pass to fetus 201. c. CMV

transplacentally?
a. HSV.
b. VZV.
c. CMV

.202 ***Who of the following is supposed to transmit 202. d. Neonate with congenital defect due to
CMV infection to hospital staff? CMV infection.
a. pregnant woman having a skin rash in second
trimester.
b. HIV patient
c. HCV patient.
d. Neonate with congenital defect due to CMV infection
 Microbiology
.203 **All diagnose viral infection except: 203. a. IgM Ab is one serum only.
**Which diagnose viral infection? A high IgG titre in serum in acute and
a. IgM Ab is one serum only. convalescent stage may be due to
b. High IgG titre in serum in acute and convalescent immunization. 2 fold increase in IgG ??.
stage. IgE is regain of allerty not infection.
c. 2 fold increase in IgG
d. 4 fold increase in viral specific IgE in acute and
convalescent stage.
e. All of the above

.204 ****RSV all correct except:
a. Rectal sample gives the highest yield of the virus.
b. Form a syncetium in tissue.
c. Causes lower respiratory illness in children.
d. Related to paramyxoviruses.
204. a. RSV is a paramyxovirus. It is the most
important cause of pneumonia and
bronchiolitis in infants.

.205 **In a patient with rabies infection, the main 205. c. Negri bodies.
histological characteristic in the brain is:
a. Lewi bodies.
b. Durel bodies.
c. Negri bodies.
d. Amyloid plague

.206 Enteroviruses cannot be isolated from which of the 206. d. enteroviruses isolated from throat e.g.
following specimens? polio, from feces e.g. polio and hepatitis,
a. Throat swab. from CSF e.g. coxsachie virus.
b. Fecal specimens. Enteroviruses resist gastric acidity.
c. Gastric fluid.
d. Urine.
e. CSF.

.207 Herpes zoster 207. Localised

.208 Regarding rotavirus, all are correct except: 208. None

a. DS-RNA virus Rota virus is a dsRNA virus, it is
b. cause majority of infant diarrohea diagnosed in feces by ELISA. It causes a
c. diagnosed in feses by ELISA significant proportion of infant diarrohea.

.209 Ebola virus causes 209. Fever, myalgia, diarrhea, rash,

lymphadenitis, complicated with
hemorrhage, encephalitis.

.210 Polio virus is transmitted by which rout? 210. Feco-oral

.211 **Which of these is not dangerous in contact with 211.

AIDS patient?
 Microbiology
If glucose is fermented , TSI reaction is: KIA
 Fungus with acid fast bacilli stain positive: Nocardia.
 Plague causative agent: Yersinia pestis
 Disinfection: Partial destruction of living organisms:
 All sporocidal except: Ethanol.
 Trophozoites on Wright's stained film: Signet ring.
 Ring form with gametocytes seen in F. falciparum.
 Best for collecting urine is dewling catheter, aseptically aspirate 5ml of urine from the catheter tubing.
 Best to disinfect tables contaminated with blood is: Phenol.
 70% alcohol cause protein denaturation and cell membrane damage.
 Transmission of HIV: All
 Fungal infection is not diagnosed by culture because etiologic agent is difficult to grow
 Malaria donot grow in plasma
 Food poisoning is caused by S. enteretidis.
 Strept through all
 First line of body defence against strept is phagocytosis
 Renal impairment except galactosemia
 Don not produce B hemolysis on blood agar: Klebsiella and strept viridans.
 N. gonorrhea infect other than genital tract: vaginintis.
 UTL with indole +ve: E. coli
 Rota: not correct is hemorrhagic conjunctivitis and cardiac disease.
 Respiratury infection cause by: Coxacki B and parainfluenza.
 All G+ve except: Neisseria and mycobacterium
 Specimen examined directly: CSF
 BR that differentiate Neisseria species is sugar fermentation.
 Bacillary dysentery: Shigella.
 Transport media for stool: Carry Blair.
 For nosocomial outbreaks of pseudomonas: pyocin typing.
 Organism that gives metallic sheen on EMB
 Specimen for anerobic culture: Pleural fluid and --- abscess.
 Destruction of microbes except by: Centrifugation.
 Cause of opthalmia neonatorum: N. gonorrheae
 G+ve in cuboidal packages: Sarciniae
 For bacterial motility except: H*E
 BHI with addition of antibiotics for: N (histo.plasma and fungi)
 Choice of media depend on except: one selective plating medium
 TSI gives the following reactions: All (Provedentia K/AG, E. coli K/AG, Citrobacter K/AG, Proteus K/A
 In SS agar, source of carbon is lactose
 Tryptophan is the basis of Indole test.
 Antibiotic sensitivity tes commonly by disc diffusion
 Meningitis in neonates: L. monocytogens.
 New world hook worm: Necator americanus.
 High concentration of liquid or gaseous germicidal chemical sterilization.
 Routine bacterial culture is examined after 5-10 hr, 18-24 hr.
 Routine bacterial culture is incubated at 35◌ْ C.
 Rapid method for detecting significant bacteria is by microscopy.
 Mycoplasma media is PPLO
 Flukes = Trematodes
 Ribbon like worms = Nematodes
 Most common helminthes are nematodes.
 Largest protozon = B. coli
 Microbiology
 Tape worm = cestodes.
 Asexual forms of malaria= Merozoite, asexual cycle in man, sexual cycle in Mosquito
 Ascaris egg migrate from lung to small intestine
 Parasite in blood smear = plasmodium
 Thrush= C. Albicans.
 Flagellates except: S. mansoni.
 Toxo diagnosed by: Fluorescent antibody sera
 Swarming G+ve bacilli = Clostridium
 Protozoa of endemic and epidemic disease = G. lamblia.

 Entrobius diagnosed by Scotch tape method
 Schffner's dots = P. vivax
 Hemoflagellates = Leishmania and trypanosomes
 General term of worms = Helmenth
100 Question in General Bacteriology 9. Acidophilic bacteria grow at
1. Bacteria without cell Wall a. pH 7.2 – 7.4
a. Chlamydia b. pH 5.0 – 5.5
b. Rickettsia c. pH 8.5 – 9.0
c. Mycoplasma d. None of the above
d. Spirochetes
10. Mycoplasma is
2. Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria a. Neutrophilic bacteria
a. Grow in presence of oxygen traces b. Acidophilic bacteria
and 5 – 10% CO2 c. Basophilic bacteria
b. Grow in either presence or absence d. All of the above
of oxygen.
c. Grow only in presence of oxygen 11. It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh
d. Grow only in absence of oxygen medium
a. Lag phase
3. Brucella Melitensis is b. Decline phase
a. Obligatory aerobic bacteria c. Logarithmic Phase
b. Obligatory anaerobic bacteria d. Stationary phase
c. Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d. Micro-aerophilic bacteria
12. Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is
4. Function of cell membrane a. Beta-Hemolytic
a. Giving the shape to bacteria b. Alpha-Hemolytic
b. Carrying somatinc antigen c. Gama Hemolytic
c. Excretion of hydrolytic exo- d. None of the above
enzymes and toxins
d. Protect the bacteria from 13. Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of
plasmolysis the following except:
a. Staphylococci
5. Pseudomonas aeroginosa is b. Diphtheroids
a. Peri-trichous bacteria c. Shigella
b. Lopho-trichous bacteria d. Lactobacillus
c. Amphi-trichous bacteria
d. Monotrichous bacteria 14. Opportunistic pathogens are all of the
following except:
6. Short rods, motile by single polar a. Cause a disease when the host
flagellum : defense are suppressed.
a. Lactobacillus b. Are normal flora of healthy body
b. Spirochaeta c. Are greatly harmful
c. Vibrio d. Do not invade the body or tissue.
d. Streptococcus
15. It is circulation of bacterial toxins in blood
7. Genetic information of bacteria is carried a. Pyaemia
on b. Toxemia
a. Messenger RNA c. Bacteremia
b. Transfer RN|A d. Septicemia
c. Transcript RNA
d. Double – Stranded DNA 16. Inhibit the growth of micro-organisms
a. Germicidal
8. Thermophilic bacteria grow at b. Germistatic
a. 60 – 80°C c. Pathogenicity
b. 0 - 20°C d. Virulence
c. 37°C
d. 100 - 120°C 17. For disinfection of mattresses :
a. Hot air oven
 b. Autoclave 26. Antibiotics which inhibit DNA synthesis:
c. Ethylene Oxide a. Rifampin
d. Hydrogen Peroxide b. Quinolones
c. Sulfonamides
d. Tetracylines
18. For sterilization of serum :
a. Autoclave 27. Color of gram negative bacteria is
b. Boiling a. Violet
c. Steaming b. Green
d. Filtration c. Red
d. Black
19. Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria:
a. Clostridium Tetani 28. Acid Fast Bacteria
b. Salmonella a. Salmonella
c. M. Tuberculosis b. Shigella
d. E-coli c. M. Tuberculosis
d. E – Coli
20. Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:
a. 100°C 29. Vibrio Cholera is:
b. 60°C a. Neutrophilic Bacteria
c. 14°C b. Acidophilic Bacteria
d. 37°C c. Basophilic Bacteria
d. All of the above
21. Bacteria which contain chlorophyll
a. Heterotrophic bacteria
b. Autotrophic bacteria 30. Spherical or avoid cells occurring in
c. Photosynthetic bacteria chains
d. All of the above a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
22. Selective media for fungi is: c. Lactobacillus
a. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar d. Spiro chaeta
b. Lowenstein – Jensen Media
c. Loeffler’s media 31. All are Prokaryotic cells except:
d. Chocolate agar a. Fungi
b. Bacteria
23. Tricophyton is one of c. Chlamydia
a. Yeast d. Mycoplasma
b. Moulds
c. Dermatophyte 32. Viruses:
d. Dimorphic Fungi a. Contain only DNA or RNA
b. They Contain ribosome
c. Did not affected by antibiotics
24. Plastomyces is one of d. a+c
a. Dermatophytes
b. Dimorphic Fungi 33. All of these are essential structure except:
c. Yeast a. Nuclear body
d. Moulds b. Spores
c. Cell wall
25. Mechanism of action of penicillin: d. Plasma Membrane
a. Inhibit protein synthesis 34. ______________ is giving the shape to the
b. Inhibit Folic acid pathway bacteria
c. Inhibit peptidoglycan cross – a. Cytoplasmic Membrane
linking b. Capsule
d. Block peptidoglycan synthesis c. Cell Wall
d. All of the above
 d. Neutrophilic bacteria

43. Staphylococci are:

a. Atrichous bacteria
35. One of its functions is selective b. Mono-trichous bacteria
permeability c. Amphi-trichous bacteria
a. Cell wall d. Peri-trichous bacteria
b. Plasma membrane
c. Capsule 44. During replication of DNA, copying errors
d. Spores may occur and this is called
a. Conjugation
36. They are responsible for b. Transduction
Haemagglutination Phenomenon c. Transformation
a. Flagella d. Mutation
b. Fimbria
c. Capsule 15. Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
d. Cell wall a. grow only in presence of oxygen
b. grow only in absence of oxygen
37. Clostridium Tetani is: c. grow either in presence or absence of
a. Atrichous bacteria oxygen
b. Mono-trichous bacteria d. grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5
c. Amphi-trichous bacteria – 10% CO2
d. Peri-trichous bacteria
46. Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at
38. Short curved or straight rods, motile by a. pH 8.5 – 9.0
single polar flagellum b. pH 7.2 – 7.4
a. spirochaeta c. pH 5.0 – 5.5
b. Vibrio d. pH 2.5 – 3.0
c. Escherichia
d. Lactobacillus

39. Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs

a. staphylococcus 47. The rate of cell death increase and
b. streptococcus bacterial growth stopped, this is
c. neisseria a. Adaptation phase
d. non of the above b. Exponential phase .
c. Stationary phase.
40. Transfer of genetic information from one d. Decline Phase
bacterium to another by bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation 48. Beta-hemolytic
b. Tansduction a. Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
c. Conjugation ‫اﻟﺼﺢ‬
d. Mutation b. Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin
in RBC’s
c. Do not cause hemolysis
d. None of them
41. Salmonella are:
a. Obligatory Aerobic bacteria 49. Mesophilic bacteria grow at:
b. Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria a. 37°C
c. Facultative Anaerobic bacteria b. 14°C
d. Micro-aerophilic bacteria c. 60°C
42. According to pH, vibrio cholera is d. 120°C
a. Osmophilic bacteria
b. Basophilic bacteria 50. Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in
c. Acidophilic bacteria blood
 a. Pyaemia c. Cutaneous mycosis
b. Toxemia d. Superficial mycosis
c. Bacteremia
d. Septicemia

51. Disinfections that applied on living or

injured tissues: 59. All are asexual spores produced by mould
a. Sterilization except
b. Antiseptic a. Conidio – spores
c. Sanitation b. Sporangio – spores
d. Decontamination c. Endospores
d. Arthro – spores
52. Hot air oven is used for sterilization of
a. Glass
b. Rubber Gloves 60. They reproduce only by Asexual
c. Plastic Syringes reproduction
d. Catheters a. Blastomycosis
b. Deutromycosis
c. Ascomycetes
d. Zygomycetes

53. Disinfectant for superficial fungal 61. The functions of cell wall is all of the
infection following except:
a. Phenol a. Giving the shape to the bacteria
b. Potassium permanganate b. Carrying somatic antigen
c. Chlorine c. Selective permeability and transport of
d. Hypochlorite compounds solutes
d. Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis
54. Rifampin
a. inhibit cell wall synthesis 62. Atrichous Bacteria are:
b. inhibit protein synthesis a. Bacteria contain one flagellum
c. inhibit folic acid pathway b. Bacteria contain 2 flagella
d. inhibit mRNA synthesis c. Bacteria without flagella
d. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella
55. Transacetylase inactivate
a. aminoglycosides 63. ________________ are essential for host
b. chloramphenicol cell attachment:
c. penicillin a. Flagella
d. cephalosporins b. Fimbria
c. Spores
56. The color of gram positive bacteria is d. Capsules
a. Yellow
b. Black. 64. Irregular clusters of spherical cells:
c. Pink a. Streptococcus
d. Violet b. Staphylococcus
c. Lactobacillus
57. Selective media for fungi d. Escherichia
b. blood agar
b. Mac Conkey agar 65. Clostridium Botulinum is:
c. Nutrient agar a. Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria
d. Sabourand’s dextrose agar b. Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c. Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria
58. Histoplasma is a : d. Micro- aerophilic Bacteria
a. Systemic mycosis 66. Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:
b. Sub – Cutaneous mycosis a. pH 8.5 – 9.0
 b. pH 7.2 – 7.4 75. Acetylase inactivates:
c. pH 5.0 – 5.5 a. B – Lactam antibiotics
d. None of the above b. Aminoglycosides
c. Cloramphenicol
67. Cells are divided at high & constant rate: d. All of the above
a. Decline Phase
b. Stationary Phase 76. Ringworm disease is caused by
c. Log Exponential Phase a. Zygomycetes
d. Adaptation Phase b. Ascomycetes
c. Blastomycosis
68. The dominant bacterial species in dental d. None of the above
plaque are:
a. Coagulase Negative Staphylococci 17. Histoplasm is one of
b. Lactobacillus a. Superficial Mycosis
c. Bacteroides b. Cutaneous Mycosis
d. Streptococcus Sanguis c. Sub – Cutaneous Mycosis
d. Systemic Mycosis
69. The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood
stream to different organs & produce
multiple abscess is: 78. For wet – mount technique we add:
a. Septicemia a. NaoH
b. Bacteremia b. K oH
c. Toxemia c. H2 O2
d. Pyaemia d. All of the above

70. Inhibit the growth of micro organisms 79. Eukaryotic cells:

a. Bacteriostatic a. Bacteria
b. Bactericidal b. Spirochetes
c. Fungicidal c. Protozoa
d. Germicidal d. Mycoplasma

71. To sterilize fluid damaged by heat: 80. All of these about viruses is correct except:
a. Gaseous Sterilization a. Obligatory intracellular parasites
b. Heat Sterilization b. Did not contain ribosomes.
c. Filtration c. Contain DNA and RNA
d. Ionizing Radiation d. Can pass through bacterial filter

72. For water disinfection we use: 81. They are transmitted by arthropods
a. Hydrogen peroxide a. Chlamydia
b. Formaldehyde b. Spirochetes
c. Chlorine c. Mycoplasma
d. Hypochlorite compounds d. All of the above

73. Mechanism of action of penicillin: 82. In the past they were listed as large viruses
a. Block peptidoglycan synthesis4 a. Richettsia
b. Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking b. Mycoplasma
c. inhibit folic acid pathway c. Chlamydia
d. inhibit protein synthesis d. None of the above

74. Sulfonamides: 23. Bacteria multiply by:

a. inhibit cell wall synthesis‫اﻟﺼﺢ‬ a. Replication cycle
b. inhibit protein synthesis b. Simple binary fission
c. inhibit DNA synthesis c. Sexual reproduction
d. inhibit folic acid pathway d. All of the above
84. One of the accessory structures 93- capsules staining done by:
a. Cell wall a- Indian ink
b. Plasma Membrane b- polychrome methylene blue:
c. Flagella c- a & b
d. Cytoplasm d- non of the above

85. It protects bacteria from antibiotics 94- function of bacterial capsule is:
a. Capsule a- essential for bacterial virulence
b. Cell membrane b- help in diagnosis of bacteria
c. Flagella c- protection bacteria
d. Fimbria d- all of the above

86. Vibro cholera is: 95- function of bacterial flagella is:

a. Mono –trichous bacteria a- essential for motility
b. Atrichous bacteria b- important for diagnosis
c. Lopho-trichous bacteria c- carrying flagellar antigen
d. Peri-trichous bacteria d- all of the above

87. Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella 96- bacteria classification according to bacterial
a. Spirochaeta flagella:
b. Lactobacillus a- atrichous
c. Escherichia coli b- mono-trichous
d. Vibrio c- amphi- atrichous
d- all of the above
88. To take up soluble DNA fragments
derived from other, closely related species
is:
a. Mutation
b. Transformation 97- types of bacterial motility:
c. Transduction 1- motility by flagella
d. Conjugation 2- motility by cell body
3- giliding motility
89. Tuberculosis are 4- all of the above
a. micro-airophilic
b. Facultative anaerobic 98- fimbriae are differing from flagella in the:
c. Obligatory anaerobic a- shorter
d. Obligatory aerobic b- more number
c- present in motile and non-motile bacteria
90. According to pH, Lactobacillusis d- all of the above
a. Neutrophlic bacteria
b. Acidophilic bacteria 99- function of fimbriae:
c. Basophilic bacteria a- essential for host cell attachment
d. None of the above b- responsible for heamagglutination
91- function of the cell wall is: c- a & b
a- support plasma membrane d- non of the above
b- cell division
c- Replication 100- bacterial endospores use to resistant of:
d- Non of the above a- disinfection
e- b- dryness
92 - function of cytoplasmic membrane is: c- heat
a- transport of solutes into the cell d- all of the above
b- excretion of hydrolytic
c- a & c
d- all of the above
Lab 1 – Gram Reactions 4) In the hemolysis test on a blood agar plate, an
1) Which of the following is NOT Gram-positive? incomplete hemolysis will show streaks of what
a) Listeria monocytogenes color?
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae a) Blue
c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus b) Clear
d) Klebsiella pneumonia c) Green
e) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Yellow
e) Black
2) Which of the following is rod shaped?
a) Staphylococcus aureus 5) Which of the following Gram-positive cocci is
b) Niesseria gonorrhoeae catalase positive and coagulase positive?
c) Bacillus anthracis a) Staphylococci epidermidis
d) Borrelia burgdorferi b) Staphylococci saprophyticus
e) Moraxella catarrhalis c) Staphylococci aureus
d) Streptococci pyogenes
3) Which of the following is the best description of e) Streptococci agalactiae
listeria monocytogenes?
a) Gram-negative spirals 6) Which of the following Gram-positive cocci is _
b) Gram-negative cocci (gamma) hemolytic?
c) Gram-negative rods a) Streptococci pneumonia
d) Gram-positive cocci b) Viridans strep
e) Gram-positive rods c) Streptococci pyogenes
d) Streptococci agalactiae
4) Which of the following would be the best e) Enterococcus
magnification power for viewing bacteria such as
Echerichia coli with an oil immersion microscope? Lab 3 – Gram-negative Bacteria
a) 1x 1) Which of the following Gram-negative rods does
b) 10x not ferment glucose and is oxidase positive?
c) 100x a) E. coli
d) 1,000x b) P. vulgaris
e) 10,000x c) P. aeruginosa
d) Salmonella
Lab 2 – Gram-positive Cocci e) Shigella
1) Which of the following tests would involve
looking for “bubbling” after application of the test 2) In the lactose fermentation MacConkey test,
agent? what color would indicate a positive test?
a) Catalase a) Black
b) Coagulase b) Pink
c) Bile esculin c) Blue
d) Bacitracin d) Purple
e) Optochin e) Green

2) If a bacteria ferments mannitol salt, which is a 3) Which of the following Gram-negative rods
peachy red color, what color will it change to if the ferments glucose, is oxidase negative, ferments
test is positive? lactose, and is indole positive (tryptophan
a) Blue metabolizing)?
b) Red a) E. coli
c) Green b) Shigella
d) Yellow c) K. pneumoniae
e) Black d) Salmonella
e) P. vulgaris
3) Streptococci pneumoniae is the number one
cause of all of the following EXCEPT: 4) A child presents with vomiting and bloody stools.
a) Adult meningitis A bacterial culture yields Gram negative rods that
b) Neonatal meningitis are H2S negative. Which of the following is most
c) Community acquired pneumonia likely?
d) Otitis media in children a) E. coli
b) Shigella
c) K. pneumoniae
d) Salmonella
e) P. vulgaris c) Heme and NAD (X and V)
d) Cysteine
5) Which of the following can swarm on a plate, e) Cysteine and heme (X)
making it difficult to distinguish colonies? 5) Which of the following describes Moraxella
a) E. coli catarrhalis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in regards to
b) Shigella Trio-tube (CHO) fermentation, where yellow is
c) K. pneumoniae positive and peach is negative?
d) Salmonella a) Yellow for dextrose, peach for maltose, peach for
e) P. vulgaris sucrose
b) Yellow for dextrose, yellow for maltose, peach for
6) What is the primary virulence factor for E. coli? sucrose
a) Inflammatory response c) Yellow for dextrose, yellow for maltose, yellow for
b) cAMP inducing toxin sucrose
c) Toxin inhibits protein synthesis d) Peach for dextrose, yellow for maltose, yellow for
d) LPS sucrose
e) Superantigen e) Peach for dextrose, peach for maltose, yellow for
7) What is the primary virulence factor for P. sucrose
aeruginosa?
a) cAMP inducing toxin 6) What is the primary virulence factor for N.
b) Capsule gonorrhea?
c) Spore a) Capsule
d) Teichoic acid b) Teichoic acic
e) Type III secretion system c) Pili
d) Toxin
Lab 4 – Chocolate Agar and CHO Fermenters e) M protein
1) Bacteria are cultured and found to be Gram-
negative diplococci that grow on chocolate agar but 7) What is the primary virulence factor for H.
not blood agar. Which of the following is the most influenza?
likely? a) Capsule
a) Staphylococci b) Teichoic acic
b) Streptococci c) Pili
c) Mycoplasma d) Toxin
d) Haemophilus e) M protein
e) Neisseria
8) A 1-year-old infants presents with a fever after
2) Which of the following is a dextrose (glucose) her parents noticed she was unusually drowsy. The
fermenter and is a maltose and sucrose non- physician notices neck rigidity and occasional
fermenter? seizures. Bacterial culture reveals Gram-negative
a) H. influenza coccobacilli that grow on chocolate agar but not
b) H. parainfluenza blood agar.
c) S. pyogenes a) H. parainfluenza
d) N. gonorrhea b) H. influenza
e) N. meningitis c) N. gonorrhea
d) S. pyogenes
3) A sexually active male presents with a painful e) N. meningitis
sore (ulcer on his penis) and inguinal
lymphadenopathy. Culture reveals Gram-negative 9) What is the required growth factor associated
coccobacilli that grow on chocolate agar but not with the bacteria in the previous question?
blood agar. Which of the following is the most a) Heme (X)
likely? b) NAD (V)
a) C. trachomatis c) Heme and NAD (X and V)
b) T. pallidum d) Cysteine
c) N. gonorrhea e) Cysteine and heme (X)
d) H. ducreyi
e) H. influenza 1 – Introduction to Medical Microbiology
1.1) Which of the following is smallest in physical
4) What is the required growth factor associated size?
with the bacteria in the previous question? a) Viruses
a) Heme (X) b) Bacteria
b) NAD (V) c) Fungi
d) Parasites
1.2) The bacterial cell wall is complex, consisting of 1.2) Which of the following uses antibodies to detect
one of two basic forms: a Gram positive cell wall bacterial antigens?
with a ____ peptidoglycan layer, and a Gram-____ a) Serotyping
cell wall with a ____ peptidoglycan layer and an b) Biotyping
overlying outer membrane. c) Phage typing
a) Thick; Neutral; Thin d) DNA hybridization
b) Thin; Negative; Thin e) Antibiogram patterning
c) Thick; Negative; Thick
d) Thin; Negative; Thick 1.3) Which of the following is NOT a use for
e) Thick; Negative; Thin serotyping?
a) Identify organisms that are inert in biochemical
1.3) Bacteria is ____ and fungi is ____. testing
a) Prokaryotic; Prokaryotic b) Identify organisms that are difficult or impossible to
b) Prokaryotic; Eukaryotic grow
c) Eukaryotic; Eukaryotic c) Identify organisms that are associated with specific
d) Eukaryotic; Prokaryotic disease syndromes
d) Identify organisms that need to be identified rapidly
1.4) Which of the following is NOT a virus? e) Identify organisms that are susceptible to viral
a) Common cold infections
b) Ebola
c) Gastroenteritis 2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding
d) Malaria DNA hybridization?
e) Rabies a) It was used initially to determine the relationship
among bacterial isolates
2) Which of the following is NOT considered a b) It can determine whether two isolates are in the
sterile location in which an exogenous infection same genus or species
could take place? c) Molecular probes can be used with it to confirm an
a) Brain organism’s identity
b) Lungs d) It requires growing the organism, even in clinical
c) Mouth specimens
d) Peritoneum e) It can aid in the rapid detection of slow-growing
organisms
3) Which of the following is commonly endogenous as
opposed to exogenous? 3.1) Of the following aerobic, Gram-positive cocci,
a) Clostridium tetani (causes tetanus) which is catalase-positive?
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (causes gonorrhoea) a) Aerococcus
c) Coccidioides immitis (causes valley fever) b) Enterococcus
d) Entamoeba histolytica (causes amoebic dysentery) c) Staphylococcus
e) Clostridium perfringens (in normal flora) d) Lactococcus
e) Streptococcus
4) Which of the following does NOT limit the ability
of the laboratory to provide a definitive answer as 3.2) Which of the following is NOT an aerobic
to the cause of a disease? Gram-positive rod?
a) Gram reactivity of specimen a) Bacillus
b) Quality of specimen collected b) Listeria
c) Specimen transport from patient to lab c) Micrococcus
d) Techniques used to demonstrate the microbe in d) Turicella
sample e) Mycobacterium

2 – Bacterial Classification 3.3) Which of the following is Gram-positive?

1.1) Which of the following determines whether a a) Neisseria
group of organisms that is from the same genus and b) Enterobacteriaceae
species arises from a common source or from c) Helicobacter
distinct sources? d) Legionella
a) Serotyping e) Thermophilic actinomycetes
b) Biotyping
c) Phage typing 3.4) Which of the following is aerobic?
d) DNA hybridization a) Anaerococcus
e) Antibiogram patterning b) Cardiobacterium
c) Peptostreptococcus d) Diplococcus
d) Bifidobacterium e) Filamentous
e) Eubacterium
3.3) Hepatitis B is a virus that is capable of showing
3.5) Which of the following would be unsusceptible variable appearance. Which of the following terms
to penicillin? best describes this?
a) Mycoplasma (lacks cell wall) a) Pleomorphic
b) Borrelia (causes Lyme disease) b) Coccus
c) Leptospira (causes yellow fever) c) Diplococcus
d) Chlamydia (sexually transmitted disease) d) Filamentous
e) Rickettsia (causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever) e) Pseudococcus

3 – Bacterial Structure 4) Which of the following structures is used in

1) Comparing eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, determining if an organism will be Gram positive
which of the following is NOT true? (G+) or Gram-negative (G-)?
a) Eukaryotes are larger than prokaryotes a) Mitochondria
b) Prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane b) Flagella
c) Eukaryotes have a diploid genome and prokaryotes c) Cell wall
have a haploid genome d) Ribosomal structure
d) Prokaryotes have cytoplasm rich in 70S ribosomes e) Chromosomes
e) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes reproduce sexually and
have cell walls 5) Which of the following would be found in Gram-
2) In general, Gram-negative bacteria are more negative bacteria? (best answer)
pathogenic and Gram-positive bacteria are more a) Teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids
susceptible to _B-lactam antibiotics such as b) Periplasmic space and LPS
penicillin. Which of the following best describes the c) Teichoic acids and porins
steps, in order, of Gram staining for peptidoglycan? d) Teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids, and porins
a) Apply crystal violet stain => Add mordant => Add e) Periplasmic space, LPS, and porins
alcohol or acetone => Counterstain with safranin or
basic fuchin 6.1) Which of the following best describes Gram-
b) Apply mordant stain => Add crystal violet => Add negative bacteria?
alcohol or acetone => Counterstain with safranin or a) Thick layer of peptidoglycan and no outer
basic fuchin membrane
c) Apply crystal violet stain => Add alcohol or acetone b) Thick layer of peptidoglycan and an outer
=> Add mordant => Counterstain with safranin or membrane
basic fuchin c) Thin layer of peptidoglycan and no outer membrane
d) Apply safranin or basic fuchin stain => Add d) Thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane
mordant => Add alcohol or acetone => Counterstain
with crystal violet 6.2) The peptidoglycan forms a meshlike layer
e) Apply safranin or basic fuchin stain => Add alcohol around the cell, consisting of a polysaccharide
or acetone => Add polymer cross-linked by what kind of bonds?
mordant => Counterstain with crystal violet a) Van der Waals
b) Peptide
3.1) Which of the following best describes the shape c) Electrostatic
of Streptococcus pneumoniae, Moraxella d) Sulfide
catarrhalis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Neisseria e) Hydrogen
meningitidis?
a) Coccus 6.3) The cross-linked bonds are between a terminal
b) Bacillus D-____ from one chain and a diamino amino acid
c) Spirillum from the other chain. A pentaglycine bridge (gly5)
d) Diplococcus expands the cross-link in Staphylococcus aureus.
e) Pleomorphic a) Alanine
b) Valine
3.2) Which of the following best describes the shape c) Proline
of nocardia and actinomyces (subfamily d) Arginine
streptomyces produce about 70% of all known e) Tryptophan
antibiotics)?
a) Coccus 7.1) Which of the following functions in mating and
b) Bacillus adhesion to host cells?
c) Spirillum a) Pili
b) Capsules
c) Flagella 9) What bacterial cell component is affected by
d) Plasmids cephalosporin, penicillin, and other B-lactam
e) Outer membrane antibiotics?
a) Lipopolysaccharide
7.2) Which of the following, along with M protein, b) DD-Carboxypeptidase
allows organisms to escape from host immune c) Transpeptidases (PBPs)
recognition? d) B-Lactamase
a) Pili e) Autolysins
b) Capsule
c) Flagella 10) Some G+, but never G-, bacteria form spores.
d) Plasmid These include members of the genera:
e) Outer membrane a) Bacillus and Clostridium
b) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
7.3) Which of the following can contains genes to c) Bacillus and Streptococcus
make an organisms antibiotic resistant? d) Clostridium and Staphylococcus
a) Pili e) Bacillus and Staphylococcus
b) Capsule
c) Flagella 11) Which of the following is NOT true regarding
d) Plasmid spores?
e) Outer membrane a) They can allow bacteria to exist in suspended
animation for centuries
7.4) Which of the following is an exception in that b) It contains a high concentration of calcium bound to
they are acid-fast staining in regards to their dipicolinic acid
peptidoglycan layer? c) It contains a complete copy of the chromosomes
a) Bacillus d) It contains high concentrations of the essential
b) Listeria proteins and ribosomes
c) Micrococcus e) It protects the DNA from intense heat, radiation, and
d) Turicella attack by most enzymes
e) Mycobacterium
4 – Bacterial Metabolism and Growth
8.1) In the first phase of peptidoglycan synthesis,
glucosamine is enzymatically converted to N- 1) What is the initial phase of bacterial growth (on
acetylmuramic acid (MurNAc), then energetically the bacterial growth curve) called?
activated to form what pentapeptide precursor? a) Decline
a) GTP-MurNAc-pentapeptide b) Stationary phase
b) ATP-MurNAc-pentapeptide c) Log phase
c) GDP-MurNAc-pentapeptide d) Exponential phase
d) UTP-MurNAc-pentapeptide 2) Clostridium perfringens cannot grow with
e) UDP-MurNAc-pentapeptide oxygen present and thus is a(n) ____ while
Mycobacterium tuberculosis requires oxygen and
8.2) In the second phase of peptidoglycan synthesis, thus is a(n) ____.
the pentapeptide is attached to the bactoprenol a) Obligate anaerobe; Obligate aerobe
“convey or belt” in the cytoplasmic membrane. b) Obligate aerobe; Obligate anaerobe
What is then added to make the disaccharide c) Obligate anaerobe; Obligate anaerobe
building block of the peptidoglycan? d) Obligate aerobe; Obligate aerobe
a) AlaNAc e) Facultative anaerobe; Facultative anaerobe
b) AlaNAla
c) GlcNAc 3) At the onset of bacterial transcription, what
d) GluNAc allows for the recognition of a particular sequence
e) GluNAla of nucleotides in the DNA (promoter)? Some
bacteria encode several of these to allow
8.3) In the third phase of peptidoglycan synthesis, transcription of a group of genes under special
where is the disaccharide:peptide precursor moved conditions, such as heat shock, starvation, special
to? nitrogen metabolism, or sporulation.
a) Cytoplasm a) Operon
b) Mitochondria b) Epsilon factor
c) Ribosomes c) Alpha factor
d) Outside of the cell d) Sigma factor
e) Inside the nucleus e) Delta factor
 3.2) Which of the following results in one-way
4) Which of the following best describes the transfer of DNA from a donor (or male) cell to a
function of fMet-tRNA? recipient (or female) cell through the sex pilus?
a) Protein folding into the tertiary structure a) Conjugation
b) Initiating transcription allowing for RNA copying b) Transformation
c) Attaching to P-site during translation allowing for c) Generalized transduction
70S assembly d) Specialized transduction
d) Attaching to A-site during translation allowing for
30S binding 3.3) Which of the following genetic transfer
e) Attaching to the stop codon during translation to mechanisms is mediated by bacterial viruses where
release the protein the selection of the sequences is random because of
accidental packaging of host DNA into the phage
5 – Bacterial Genetics Match the following capsid?
descriptions with their terms: a) Conjugation
b) Transformation
1.1) Replication of bacterial DNA begins at this c) Generalized transduction
chromosome sequence d) Specialized transduction
d) Ori C 4.1) In which of the following is competency
required?
1.2) Linear plasmids that can autonomously a) Conjugation
replicate b) Transformation
f) Replicon c) Transduction

1.3) Small genetic elements that replicate 4.2) Which of the following does NOT always
independently require homologous recombination to stabilize
e) Plasmid DNA?
a) Conjugation
1.4) Groups of one or more structural genes from b) Transformation
promoter to terminator c) Transduction
a) Operons
1.5) Operons with many structural genes 5) Which of the following best describes a lysogen,
c) Polycistronic such as the E. coli bacteriophage lambda?
a) Causes the host cell to lyse
1.6) Plasmids, such as E. coli F, that can integrate b) Causes the bacteriophage to lyse
into host chromosome c) Integrates into host and lyses the host
g) Episome d) Integrates into the host without killing the host
e) Integrates into the host and starts a programmed
1.7) Mobile genetic elements; jumping genes death cycle
h) Transposons
6 – Viral Classification
1.8) Coding genes
b) Cistrons 1) Which of the following depends on the
biochemical machinery of the host cell for
2) By what mechanism do pathogenicity (virulence) replication and reproduction occurs by assembly of
islands coordinate the expression of a system of the individual components rather than by binary
virulence factors? fission?
a) Replicons a) Bacteria
b) Cistrons b) Fungi
c) Polycistronic c) Viruses
d) Transposons d) Parasites
e) Episomal
2) Which of the following is NOT a property of
3.1) Which of the following is the process by which viruses?
bacteria take up fragments of naked DNA and a) Viruses are filterable agents
incorporate them into their genomes? b) Viruses cannot make energy independently of a host
a) Conjugation cell
b) Transformation c) Viral genomes may be RNA or DNA but not both
c) Generalized transduction d) Viral components must self-assemble
d) Specialized transduction e) Viruses are living organisms
3) Which of the following is NOT a means of c) It has the glycoprotein hemagglutinin (HA)
classification (naming) of viruses? d) It has the glycoprotein neuraminidase (NA)
a) Structure e) Like bunyaviruses, it does not have matrix proteins
b) Color
c) Biochemical characteristics 9.1) What viral replication step takes place after the
d) Disease caused attachment and penetration phase?
e) Means of transmission a) Transcription
4) What consists of a nucleic acid genome packaged b) Uncoating
into a protein coat (capsid) or a membrane c) Replication
(envelope)? d) Protein synthesis
a) Virus e) Assembly
b) Virion
c) Bacteriophage 9.2) The protein synthesis step of viral replication is
d) Capsomere sensitive to which of the following antiviral drugs?
e) Pentamer a) Interferon
b) Amantadine
5.1) Which of the following is NOT solely a c) Arildone
structure of enveloped viruses; being a structure of d) Rimantadine
non-enveloped viruses as well? e) Tromantadine
a) Nucleocapsid
b) Lipid bilayer 10.1) What is the phase in which an extracellular
c) Structural proteins infectious virus is NOT detected?
d) Glycoproteins a) Early phase
b) Late phase
5.2) Viruses with naked capsids (non-enveloped) c) Eclipse period
are generally resistant to drying, acid, and d) Latent period
detergents, including the acid and bile of the enteric e) Infection period
tract. Many of these viruses are transmitted by the
fecal-oral route and can endure transmission even 10.2) Which of the following best describes burst
in sewage. size?
a) True a) Number of viruses entering a cell to cause infection
b) False b) Number of viruses that can enter a cell
c) Neither true nor false c) Yield of infectious viruses per cell
d) Yield of viral particles per cell (including defective
Match the following descriptions with their term: particles)
6.1) Bind to erythrocytes and adenovirus penton e) Maximum physical yield of viruses per cell
c) Hemagglutinin (HA)
10.3) What is the normal process used by the cell
6.2) A long fiber attached to each adenovirus for the uptake of receptor-bound molecules such as
penton to bind to target cells hormones, low-density lipoproteins, and
a) Viral attachment protein (VAP) transferrin?
a) Exocytosis
6.3) Asparagine-linked (N-linked) carbohydrate b) Endocytosis
that extends through the envelope c) Pinocytosis
b) Viral glycoprotein d) Osmosis
e) Viropexis
7) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RDRP)
associates with the (____) RNA genome of the 10.4) How do picornaviruses and papovaviruses
orthomyxoviruses, paramyxoviruses, and enter the host cell, in which hydrophobic structures
rhabdoviruses to form helical nucleocapsids and of capsid proteins may be exposed after viral
uses ____ as a template. binding to the cells, and these structures help the
a) +; RNA virus or the viral genome slip through (direct
b) -; RNA penetration) the membrane?
c) +; DNA a) Exocytosis
d) -; DNA b) Endocytosis
c) Pinocytosis
8) Which of the following is NOT true regarding d) Osmosis
Influenza A (orthomyxovirus)? e) Viropexis
a) It is a (-) RNA virus
b) It has a segmented genome
11) Which of the following is true for RNA viruses a) Normal flora
(not DNA viruses)? b) Resident (commensal) flora
a) Not transient or labile (adaptable) c) Transient flora
b) Viral genomes remain in the infected cell
c) Are prone to mutation 1.2) Which of the following describes microbes that
d) Viral genes must interact with host transcriptional are permanent in a particular place in the body,
machinery but may change with stages of life?
e) Viral gene transcription is temporarily regulated a) Normal flora
b) Resident (commensal) flora
12) Viruses can escape antibody detection via ____ c) Transient flora
of the genome and ____ can merge cells into
multinucleated giant cell (syncytia), which become Match the following descriptions with their terms:
huge virus factories. 1.3) Causes most human infections
a) Traversal of cell-cell bridges; Virus-induced cell- a) Opportunistic pathogens
cell fusion
b) Virus-induced cell-cell fusion; Vertical transmission 1.4) Organisms always associated with disease
c) Virus-induced cell-cell fusion; Traversal of cell-cell c) Strict pathogens
bridges
d) Vertical transmission; Traversal of cell-cell bridges 1.5) Avirulent organism replacement in a hospital
e) Vertical transmission; Virus-induced cell-cell fusion b) Nosocomial pathogens
2) Which of the following is NOT considered a
13.1) All of the following are DNA viruses sterile area?
EXCEPT: a) Fetus
a) Parvovirus b) Brain
b) Papovavirus c) Sinuses and middle ear
c) Hepadnavirus d) Larynx, trachea, bronchioles, lower airway
d) Adenovirus e) GU tract including anterior urethra, vagina, and
e) Bunyavirus cervix

13.2) All of the following are RNA viruses 3) Which of the following is NOT a function of
EXCEPT: normal flora to the host?
a) Orthomyxovirus a) Metabolizes food products
b) Paramyxovirus b) Provides essential growth factors
c) Poxvirus c) Protects against infection with highly virulent
d) Rhabdovirus microorganisms
e) Filovirus d) Maintains sterile environments
e) Stimulates immune responses
13.3) Which of the following is enveloped (not a
naked capsid)? 4) Which of the following is defined as what occurs
a) Herpesviridae when the interaction between microbe and human
b) Polyoma viridae leads to a pathologic process characterized by
c) Papilloma viridae damage to the host?
d) Parvoviridae a) Colonization
e) Adenoviridae b) Infection
c) Disease
13.4) Which of the following has a naked capsid d) Microbiology
(not enveloped)? e) Thrush
a) Paramyxoviridae
b) Picornaviridae 10 – Sterile Techniques/Disinfection
c) Togaviridae
d) Flaviviridae 1.1) Which of the following would NOT be a
e) Orthomyxoviridae sterilant, meant to destroy all microbes?
a) Ethylene oxide
9 – Commensal & Pathogenic Microbial Flora b) UV radiation
c) Microwave radiation
1.1) Which of the following describes microbes that d) Glutaraldehyde and peracetic acid
are normally in and on the human body that is in a e) Hydrogen peroxide
continual state of flux determined by age, diet,
hormonal state, health, personal hygiene, and other
factors?
1.2) Which of the following would NOT be an a) Fimbriae
antiseptic agent, meant to safely reduce the number
of microbes on skin surfaces? 2.3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
a) Alcohol d) Protein P1
b) Iodophors
c) Chlorhexidine 2.4) Vibrio cholerae
d) Plasma gas b) Type 4 pili
e) Triclosan
3) Which of the following cause cell lysis via
2.1) Alcohol (ethyl, isopropyl) at 70%-95% degradative enzymes, cause reactions in specific
b) intermediate target tissues via specific receptor-binding proteins,
and cause system responses via the release of
2.2) Hydrogen peroxide at 3%-25% cytokines?
a) high a) Adhesion
b) Colonization
2.3) Quaternary ammonium compounds at 0.4%- c) Invasion
1.6% d) Immune response inhibitor
c) low level e) Toxins

2.4) Chlorine compounds at 100-1000 ppm of free 4) Which of the following activate T-cells by
chlorine binding simultaneously to a T-cell receptor and a
a) high major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II)
molecule on another cell, leading to the release of
2.5) Glutaraldehyde, chlorine dioxide, and large amounts of interleukins and an autoimmune-
peracetic acid like response?
a) high a) Degradative enzymes
b) Cytotoxic proteins
19 – Mechanisms of Bacterial Pathogenesis c) Endotoxin
d) Superantigen
1.1) Which bacterial virulence mechanism does e) Capsule
superantigen fall into?
a) Adhesion 5.1) The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) produced by
b) Colonization what kind of organism is an even more powerful
c) Invasion activator of acute phase and inflammatory
d) Immune response inhibitor reactions (endotoxin)?
e) Toxins a) G+ bacteria
b) G- bacteria
1.2) Which bacterial virulence mechanism does c) DNA viruses
capsid fall into? d) RNA viruses
a) Adhesion e) Fungi
b) Colonization
c) Invasion 5.2) An exotoxin can cause damage to the host by
d) Immune response inhibitor destroying cells or disrupting normal cellular
e) Toxins metabolism. An exotoxin is a soluble protein that
can be excreted by all of the following organisms
1.3) Helicobacter pylori is able to survive in the EXCEPT:
acidic environment of the human stomach by a) Viruses
producing the enzyme urease. This is an example of b) Bacteria
which of the following? c) Fungi
a) Adhesion d) Algae
b) Colonization e) Protozoa
c) Invasion
d) Immune response inhibitor 6) Which of the following would be a response to
e) Toxins high concentrations of endotoxin and not just low
concentrations?
Match the following bacteria with their adherence a) Fever
mechanism: b) Vasodilation
2.1) Escherichia coli c) Hypotension
c) Type 1 fimbriae, P fimbriae, CFA fimbriae d) Inflammatory response
2.2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae e) Immune response
 a) Antigenic mimicry
7) Dimetric toxins, such as Corynebacterium b) Antigenic masking
diphtheriae, have the ____ subunit binding to a c) Resistance to lysosomal enzymes
specific cell receptor while the ____ subunit is d) Encapsulation
transferred into the cell. C. diphtheriae ____ e) Destruction of phagocyte
elongation factor-2, resulting in cell death.
a) B; A; Inhibits Match the following descriptions with their terms:
b) A; B; Inhibits 11.1) Two different strains of influenza combine to
c) B; A; Activates form a new subtype having a mixture of the surface
d) A; B; Activates antigens of the two original strains
b) Antigenic shift
8.1) What is the gene location for the botulinum
toxin? 11.2) Organisms alters its surface proteins to evade
a) Plasmid a host immune response
b) Chromosomal a) Antigenic variation
c) Phage
11.3) Random accumulation of mutations in viral
8.2) What is the gene location for the tetanus toxin? genes recognized by the immune system
a) Plasmid c) Antigenic drift
b) Chromosomal
c) Phage
49 – Mechanisms of Viral Pathogenesis
8.3) What is the biological effect of the botulinum
toxin? 1) Which of the following best describes tropism?
a) Activation of adenylate cyclase, increase in cAMP a) Tissue preference of a virus
level, secretory diarrhea b) Encoded activities that promote the efficiency of
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis, cell death viral replication
c) Block of signal transduction mediated by target G c) Loss of virulence factors
proteins d) Antiviral immune response
d) Decrease in neurotransmitter release from inhibitory e) Viral disease at the population level
neurons, spastic paralysis
e) Decrease in peripheral, presynaptic acetylcholine 2) In what viral replication phase does secondary
release, flaccid paralysis viremia occur, which can lead to viral delivery to
the liver, brain, skin, and other tissues?
8.4) What is the biological effect of the tetanus a) Contagion
toxin? b) Acquisition
a) Activation of adenylate cyclase, increase in cAMP c) Primary site replication
level, secretory diarrhea d) Secondary site replication
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis, cell death e) Target tissue
c) Block of signal transduction mediated by target G
proteins 3) Which of the viral infection outcomes involves
d) Decrease in neurotransmitter release from inhibitory infection without cell death?
neurons, spastic paralysis a) Abortive infection
e) Decrease in peripheral, presynaptic acetylcholine b) Lytic infection
release, flaccid paralysis c) Persistent infection

9) What is the biological effect of the cholera toxin? Match the following descriptions with their terms:
a) Activation of adenylate cyclase, increase in cAMP 4.1) Restricts the machinery for transcribing all the
level, secretory diarrhea viral DNA genes
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis, cell death c) Latent infection
c) Block of signal transduction mediated by target G
proteins 4.2) Multinucleated giant cells
d) Decrease in neurotransmitter release from inhibitory a) Syncytia
neurons, spastic paralysis
e) Decrease in peripheral, presynaptic acetylcholine 4.3) Makes cells undergo uncontrolled proliferation
release, flaccid paralysis d) Transformation

10) Which of the following functions in shielding 4.4) Immortalization of the cell
the bacteria from immune and phagocytic e) Oncogenic virus
responses via polysaccharides (poor immunogen)?
4.5) Occurs in an infected cell that is not killed by 8) Which of the following is the correct order from
the virus the smaller affected population to the largest?
b) Persistent infection a) Epidemic < Pandemic < Outbreak
b) Pandemic < Epidemic < Outbreak
4.6) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic c) Pandemic < Outbreak < Epidemic
of a transformed cell? d) Outbreak < Pandemic < Epidemic
a) Continued growth without senescence e) Outbreak < Epidemic < Pandemic
b) Alterations in cell morphology and metabolism
c) Decreased sugar transport 68 – Role of Viruses in Disease
d) Increased cell growth rate and ability to grown into
foci in semisolid agar 1.1) Which of the following common sites of viral
e) Lost of cell-contact inhibition of growth infection and disease is mostly involved in
stomatitis?
Match the inclusion bodies formed with the causative a) Eyes
agent: b) Nose
5.1) Negri bodies (intracytoplasmic) c) Mouth
e) Rabies d) Throat
e) Lower respiratory tract
5.2) Owl's eye (intranuclear)
c) Cytomegalovirus 1.2) Which of the following common sites of viral
infection and disease is mostly involved in
5.3) Cowdry type A (intranuclear) conjunctivitis?
f) Herpes simplex virus a) Eyes
b) Brain
5.4) Intranuclear basophilic c) Throat
a) Adenoviruses d) Enteric
e) Liver
5.5) Intracytoplasmic acidophilic
b) Poxviruses 1.3) Which of the following common sites of viral
infection and disease is mostly involved in
5.6) Perinuclear cytoplasmic acidophilic meningitis?
d) Reoviruses a) Eyes
b) Brain
6) Regarding mechanisms of viral cytopathogenesis, c) Throat
____ viruses use glycoprotein insertion and ____ d) Enteric
viruses use disruption of the cytoskeleton and e) Liver
require cell-mediated immunity for lysis of the
target cell. 1.4) Which of the following common sites of viral
a) Enveloped; Enveloped infection and disease is mostly involved in
b) Nonenveloped; Nonenveloped mononucleosis?
c) Enveloped; Nonenveloped a) UG tract
d) Nonenveloped; Enveloped b) Enteric
c) Lymphoid
Match the following descriptions with their terms: d) Liver
7.1) Viral disease shared with animals or insects e) Heart
and humans
c) Zoonoses 1.5) Which of the following common sites of viral
infection and disease is mostly involved in infantile
7.2) Anthropod spreading of viruses such as rotavirus diarrhea?
togavirus and reovirus a) UG tract
d) Arbovirus b) Enteric
c) Lymphoid
7.3) Spreads viral disease to other animals; e.g. d) Liver
mosquitoes e) Skin and mucous membranes
a) Vector
2) Which of the following is NOT a classic flulike
7.4) Maintains and amplifies viruses in the symptom associated with viral infections?
environment a) Fever
b) Reservoir b) Malaise
c) Headache
d) Body aches 2.4) Prevents antibody-mediated immune clearance
e) Binging of organisms
a) Protein A
Match the following descriptions with their terms:
3.1) Large, raised areas of skin 2.5) Dermatitis; scalded skin syndrome
c) Nodules c) Exfoliative toxins

3.2) Slightly raised areas of the skin Match the enzymes and their description:
(immune/inflammatory) 3.1) Converts hydrogen peroxide to water and
b) Papules oxygen
b) Catalase
3.3) Blisters that are likely to contain viruses
d) Vesicular lesions 3.2) Converts fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin,
protects organism
3.4) Flat, colored spots a) Coagulase
a) Macules
3.3) -lactamase, allows for organisms resistance to
4.1) Which of the following is NOT an effective an antibiotic
means to prevent viral transmission? d) Penicillinase
a) Education
b) Universal precautions 3.4) Can dissolve fibrin clots (fibrinolysin)
c) Improved hygiene c) Staphylkinase
d) Antibiotics
e) Ensuring all personnel are immunized against 4) What is the most common reservoir site of S.
common diseases aureus?
a) UG tract
4.2) According to the U.S. Center of Disease b) Enteric
Control and Prevention (CDC), what is the “single c) Lymphoid
most important means of preventing the spread of d) Liver
infection?” e) Skin and mucous membranes
a) Gloves
b) Gown 5.1) A patient undergoes a procedure to implant a
c) Mask cardiac pacemaker and prosthetic heart valve. One
d) Hand washing month later, the patient returns with a high fever.
e) The “five second rule” Infection is found in the pacemaker pocket, along
the pathway of the electrical lead, and near the
22 – Staphylococcus prosthetic valve. Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
1) Which of the following describes the Gram a) Staphylococcus aureus
reaction and morphology of Staphylococcus? b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
a) G- rods c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b) G- cocci d) Viridans Streptococci
c) G+ rods e) E. Coli
d) G+ cocci
e) G- spirals 5.2) Which of the following diseases would be
causes by the toxic activity of Staphylococcus
Match the virulence factors with its biological effect: aureus and not the proliferation activity?
2.1) Cytokine release (superantigen), emesis, loss of a) Food poisoning
brush border b) Meningitis
d) Enterotoxins c) Osteomyelitis
d) Septic arthritis
2.2) Toxic for many cells including leukocytes, e) Acute endocarditis
macrophages, and platelets
b) Cytotoxins 5.3) Which of the following is associated with Ritter
syndrome in neonates, where it colonizes the cut
2.3) Vaginal infection, hypovolemia, cytokine umbilicus and releases ET-A,B systematically?
release a) Staphylococcus aureus
e) TSST-1 b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d) Viridans Streptococci
e) E. Coli Match the following Streptococcal pathogens with
their hemolytic pattern:
5.4) A sexually active woman develops dysuria, 3.1) S. pyogenes
pyuria, and fever suggestive of urinary tract b) 
infection. Urine cultures show G+ bacteria in
clusters that are catalase positive and coagulase 3.2) S. agalactiae
negative. E. Coli is ruled out as a cause of the e) but occasionally 
cystitis. Which of the following would be the most
likely cause of the cystitis? 3.3) S. pneumoniae
a) Viridans Streptococci a) 
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Staphylococcus aureus 3.4) S. mutans (Viridans)
d) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) or , and very rarely 
e) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
3.5) Enterococcus faecalis
Match the following descriptions with their terms: c) but occasionally or 
5.5) Coalescence of large, painful, pus-filled
cutaneous nodules Match the following Streptococcal pathogens with
d) Carbuncles their serologic classification:
3.6) S. pyogenes
5.6) Large, painful, pus-filled cutaneous nodules a) A
c) Furncles/Boils
3.7) S. agalactiae
5.7) A pus-filled cutaneous vesicle on an b) B
erythematous base
a) Impetigo 3.8) S. pneumoniae
e) Nongroupable (no antigen)
5.8) Pus-filled cutaneous vesicle involving hair
follicles 3.9) S. mutans (Viridans)
b) Folliculitis e) Nongroupable (no antigen)

6) Which of the following would be the best choice 3.10) Enterococcus faecalis
of antibiotic (currently) for a strain of d) D
Staphylococcus aureus that has acquired the mecA
gene? 4.1) A middle-aged woman presents with low-grade
a) Methicillin fever and general malaise. Physical exam reveals
b) Nafcillin Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots, and
c) Oxacillin splinter hemorrhages under her fingernails.
d) Dicloxacillin Echocardiogram indicates vegetations on the mitral
e) Vancomycin valve. In the doctor’s office, she recounts a dentist
appointment a few weeks ago and several bouts of
23 – Streptococci sore throat as a child. Which of the following is the
most likely cause?
1) Which of the following tests would differentiate a) Streptococcus pyogenes
between Staphylococci and Streptococci, where the b) Streptococcus agalactiae
former is positive and the later is negative? c) Enterococcus faecalis
a) Gram reaction d) Streptococcus bovis
b) Bile esculin e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Catalase f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
d) Coagulase
e) Optochin 4.2) A young child presents with fever and a skin
rash localized around the lips on his arms. The rash
2) Which of the following is NOT a classification appears pustular with yellow crusts. Cultures from
schema used to identify Streptococci? the impetigo show Gram-positive cocci in chains
a) Teichoic acids that are -hemolytic. The doctor administers
b) Hemolytic patterns penicillin G and warns the parents that the child
c) Biochemical (physiologic) properties may develop transient smokey-colored urine soon.
d) Serologic properties (Lancefield groupings) Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.3) An old man develops a UTI five-days after
admission to the hospital. His record indicates that
he is receiving antibiotic treatment including
cephalosporins for an unrelated infection. In
treating the patient, physicians check for resistance
to vancomycin. Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.4) An elderly man develops low-grade fever and
signs of endocarditis over a period of 2 weeks.
Following blood culture, his doctor also becomes
concerned about possible colon cancer. Which of
the following is the most likely cause?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.5) An elderly woman presents with a cough
producing rusty-colored sputum. She complains of
sharp right-sided chest pains, chills, and fevers.
Physical exam reveals increased fremitus, dullness
to percussion, and bronchial breath sounds on the
lower right side. CXR shows right lower lobe
consolidation, and Gram stains of sputum show
Grampositive diplococci. Physicians begin
treatment with cephalosporins. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.6) Soon after birth, an infant develops seizures, a
marked rritability, poor feeding, and fever. The
infant’s birth records note a prolonged labor with
premature rupture of membranes. A lumbar
puncture was done and the infant was started on
antibiotics. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.7) Which of the following is the most common
cause of pneumonia in adults (40-65 years), the
most common causes of pneumonia in the elderly (>
65 years), and the most common cause of meningitis
in the elderly (> 60 years)?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.8) Which of the following is the most common
cause of neonatal meningitis?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.9) Which of the following is associated with
glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever (Jones
Criteria for Diagnosis)?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
4.10) Of the following five most common pediatric
diseases with a rash, which one is associated with
Streptococcus pyogenes?
a) Measles (fever of three days with cough, coryza, or
conjunctivitis)
b) Rubella (Forchheimer sign, fever, swollen glands)
c) Scarlet fever (“strawberry tongue”, “sandpaper
rash”)
d) Roseola (high fever, “rose red rash”)
e) Erythema infectiosum (bright red cheeks)
5) M Protein is a virulence factor that binds to H
factor, causing C3B to be degraded, and protecting
the organism from being phagocytized. Which of
the following is associated with M Protein?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
f) Streptococcus mutans (Viridans Streptococci group)
6) Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (Spes) act as
superantigens and are associated with which of the
following?
a) Dental caries and brain abscesses
b) Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE)
c) Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) and Scarlet fever 10.4) Which of the following is beta-hemolytic,
d) Pharyngitis and impetigo Bacitracin resistant, Optichin resistant, positive for
e) Glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever Hippurate hydrolysis, and positive for the CAMP
reaction?
7) The measurement of antibodies against a) S. pyogenes
streptolysin O (the ASO test) is useful for b) S. agalactiae
confirming which of the following streptococcal c) S. pneumoniae
infection symptoms, 3 to 4 weeks or more after the d) Enterococcus
initial exposure to the organism?
a) Dental caries and brain abscesses 11) Which of the following groups of people is the
b) Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE) mostly likely to acquire a Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) and Scarlet fever infection?
d) Pharyngitis and impetigo a) Elderly men
e) Glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever b) Elderly women
c) Teenage boys
Match the following biological effects with the d) Teenage girls
virulence factor: e) Neonates
8.1) Reduces viscosity of abscess material; organism
spreads easier 12) Patient at risk for Subacute Bacterial
b) DNase Endocarditis (SBE) from Viridas Streptococci
should be given penicillin G prior to what type of
8.2) Reduces blood clots; organism spreads easier medical procedure?
a) Streptokinase a) Pacemaker implant
b) Renal stenting
8.3) Disrupts the recruiting and activating of c) Dental procedures
phagocytic cells d) Joint surgery
c) C5a peptidase e) Skin abscess lancing

9) What group of streptococci are suppressed by Match the following biological effects with their
antibiotic-like bacteriocins? virulence factor:
a) A 13.1) Prevents ciliated epithelial cell bacterial
b) B removal
c) C c) Secretorey IgA protease (sIgA)
d) D
e) Nongroupable (no antigen) 13.2) Activates classic complement pathway
b) Pneumolysin
10.1) Which of the following is alpha-hemolytic,
Bacitracin resistant, Optochin resistant, and bile 13.3) Antiphagocytic
esculin negative? a) Capsule
a) S. pyogenes
b) S. agalactiae 14) The C-reactive protein (CRP) test is used to test
c) S. pneumoniae for which of the following?
d) Enterococcus a) Decreased white blood cell count
b) Urinary tract infection
10.2) Which of the following is beta-hemolytic, c) Sepsis
Bacitracin sensitive, Optochin resistant, and bile d) Inflammation
soluble? e) Impetigo
a) S. pyogenes
b) S. agalactiae 24 – Enterococcus
c) S. pneumoniae 1.1) Which of the following is NOT a common
d) Enterococcus disease caused by Enterococcus sp.?
a) Bacteremia
10.3) Which of the following is alpha-hemolytic, b) Endocarditis
Bacitracin resistant, Optochin sensitive, and bile c) Breast abscess
esculin negative? d) Urinary tract infection
a) S. pyogenes e) Wound infection
b) S. agalactiae
c) S. pneumoniae 1.2) Which of the following is NOT a common
d) Enterococcus disease caused by Abiotrophia sp.?
a) Eye infection
b) Oral infection 3) In non-industrial countries, what is the most
c) Endocarditis likely place to find B. anthracis?
d) Urinary tract infection a) Skin/fur of carnivores
e) Bacteremia b) Skin/fur of herbivores
c) Fresh water lakes
2) Vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) are d) Desert sand
troublesome because the resistance is mediated by e) Rainforest trees
which of the following, allowing it to be transferred
to other bacteria? 4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
a) Flagellum B. anthracis that makes it a good choice for mass
b) Ribosomes (continental) biological warfare?
c) Cytoplasm a) Can form resistant spores that can remain viable for
d) Plasmid very long periods of time
e) Capsule b) Is very deadly and cannot always be easily
recognized and treated in time
3) Abiotrophia and Granulicatella, formerly called c) It is non-communicable and won’t spread beyond a
nutritionally deficient streptococci, are problematic specific target
because they will initially grow in blood culture d) Spores are easy to isolate worldwide
broths or in mixed cultures but do not grow when e) Spores can easily be prepared from liquid cultures
subcultured onto sheep blood agar media, unless
the media is supplemented with pyridoxal, a Match the following resulting biological effect with
natural form of what vitamin? their form of anthrax:
a) Vitamin A 5.1) Dysentery
b) Vitamin B6 b) Ingestion
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin D 5.2) 100% mortality
e) Vitamin K c) Inhalation

5.3) Malignant pustules

a) Cutaneous abrasion
25 – Bacillus
6) A young man enters the Emergency Room
1) Bacillus are ____ spore formers and Clostridium dehydrated, afebrile, and complaining of nausea
are ____ spore formers. and vomiting. Since he began vomiting one hour
a) Aerobic; Anerobic ago, he has been “hugging the toilet” nearly every
b) Aerobic and facultative anaerobic; Anerobic ten minutes. He remembers eating a dish with fried
c) Aerobic; Facultative anaerobic and anerobic rice at an Asian restaurant several hours ago.
d) Anerobic; Aerobic Which of the following is most likely the cause?
e) Anerobic; Aerobic and facultative anaerobic a) C. tetani
b) C. botulinum
2.1) Which of the following is/are the toxic form(s) c) C. difficile
of proteins on the large plasmid (virulence factor) d) B. anthracis
of B. anthracis, which lead to the damage of a large e) B. cereus
range of tissues?
a) Protective antigen (PA) - binds cell membranes 26 – Listeria
b) Edema factor (EF) - adenylate cyclase activity
c) Lethal factor (LF) - causes cell death 1) Which of the following is NOT a useful feature in
d) PA + EF + LF identifying Listeria?
e) PA + EF and PA + LF a) Facultative anaerobe coccobacilli often arranged in
pairs
2.2) Which of the following is a virulence factor of b) Only Gram-positive bacteria with an endotoxin
B. anthracis that inhibits phagocytosis of c) Motile at room temperature
replicating cells? d) -hemolytic (non-hemolytic)
a) M Protein e) Capable of growth in high-salt concentrations
b) O polysaccharide
c) Chemotaxis prevention 2.1) A mother brings her 2-month-old infant to the
d) Capsule hospital because he exhibits fever, convulsions,
e) K antigen irritability, and poor eating. The pediatrician-in-
training notes a widespread rash and a stiff neck on
physical exam. She orders a spinal tap, which
reveals low glucose, increased PMNs, increased
proteins, and Gram-positive rode with “tumbling”
motility in cultures. Upon further questioning, the
pediatrician discovers that the mother does not
breast feed and feeds her baby fresh cow milk.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a) C. diphtheriae
b) S. pneumoniae
c) S. aureus
d) L. monocytogenes
e) S. pyogenes
2.2) Which of the following groups of people would
be the least susceptible to Listeria?
a) AIDS patients
b) Neonates
c) Elderly
d) Pregnant women
e) Immunocompromised patients
3.1) Which of the following is caused by early-onset
(acquired transplacentally in utero) Listeria
monocytogenes?
a) Disseminated abscesses and granulomas in multiple
organs
b) Meningitis or meningoencephalitis with septicemia
c) Painful, pruritic inflammatory skin lesion
d) Endocarditis
e) Osteomyelitis
3.2) Which of the following is caused by late-onset
(acquired shortly after birth) Listeria
monocytogenes?
a) Disseminated abscesses and granulomas in multiple
organs
b) Meningitis or meningoencephalitis with septicemia
c) Painful, pruritic inflammatory skin lesion
d) Endocarditis
e) Osteomyelitis
28 – Nocardia
1) Which of the following describes clinical
diagnosis for Nocardiosis?
a) Weakly Gram-positive, beaded filaments, not acid
fast, obligate anaerobe
b) Weakly Gram-negative, beaded filaments, weakly
acid fast, obligate anaerobe
c) Weakly Gram-positive, beaded filaments, weakly
acid fast, obligate anaerobe
d) Weakly Gram-negative, beaded filaments, weakly
acid fast, obligate aerobe
e) Weakly Gram-positive, beaded filaments, weakly
acid fast, obligate aerobe
2) Which of the following groups of people would
be the least susceptible to Nocardiosis?
a) AIDS patients
b) HIV infected patients
c) Patients implanted with cardiac devices (e.g. Left
Ventricular Assist Device)
d) Bone marrow transplant patients
e) Solid organ transplant patients
29 – Mycobacteria
1) Which of the following describes bacteria that
are acid-fast?
a) Are decolorized with acidic solutions
b) Are decolorized with basic solutions
c) Cannot be decolorized with acidic solutions
d) Cannot be decolorized with basic solutions
2.1) Which of the following would have diffuse
infiltration of the skin by multiple nodules of
varying size, each with many bacteria? (weak
immune response)
a) Lepromatous leprosy
b) Tuberculoid leprosy
c) Tuberculosis
d) Herpes simplex virus type 2
e) MRSA skin infection
2.2) Which of the following would have lesions
characterized by anesthetic macules with
hypopigmentation? (strong immune response)
a) Lepromatous leprosy
b) Tuberculoid leprosy
c) Tuberculosis
d) Herpes simplex virus type 2
e) MRSA skin infection
3) Which of the following is the natural habitat for
mycobacteria? (best answer)
a) Food
b) Plants
c) Infected animals
d) Water
e) Soil
4.1) Which of the following is spread by close
person-to-person contact through the inhalation of
infectious aerosols and infects a third of the world’s
population according to the World Health
Organization (WHO) in 2002?
a) M. leprae
b) M. avium-intracellulare
c) M. tuberculosis
4.2) Which of the following is spread by person-to-
person contact, has fallen in prevalence by almost
90% since 1985, and is endemic in armadillos?
a) M. leprae
b) M. avium-intracellulare
c) M. tuberculosis
4.3) Which of the following primarily affects
immunocompromised patients, has not shown
person-to-person transmission, is acquired through
ingestion of contaminated water or food, is seen
most commonly in countries where tuberculosis is a) Xylose-Lysine-Deoxycholate agar (XLD)
less common? b) MacConkey agar (MAC)
a) M. leprae c) Thayer-Martin (TM)
b) M. avium-intracellulare d) Bile Esculin agar (BEA)
c) M. tuberculosis e) Blood agar plate (BAP)

Match the following clinical diagnosis method with the 2.4) Neisseria grows at 35-37 degrees Celsius in a
Mycobacteria: humid atmosphere, with Neisseria gonorrhea
5.1) Microscopy/culture are sensitive and specific, requiring what additional supplement that
AIDS status Neisseria meningitidis does not need?
b) M. avium-intracellulare a) Fructose
b) Glucose
5.2) Skin/nerve biopsy, Acid-fast stain, skin test c) Oxygen
a) M. leprae d) Carbon monoxide
e) Carbon dioxide
5.3) Acid-fast stain, PPD (Mantoux), Ghon complex
on CXR 3.1) Pili in Neisseria allow for attachment of the
c) M. tuberculosis bacteria to what kind of cells?
a) Non-ciliated epithelial cells
30 – Neisseriae b) Ciliated epithelial cells
c) Cuboidal cells
1.1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding d) Transitional cells
Neisseria meningitidis? e) Simple squamous cells
a) Gram-negative
b) Diplococci 3.2) Pili in Neisseria allow for motility, transfer of
c) Does not oxidized maltose genetic material, and provide resistance to killing of
d) Oxidizes glucose the bacteria by which of the following?
e) Second common cause of community-acquired a) Basophils
meningitis in adults b) Monocytes
c) Lymphocytes
1.2) Which of the following is found as a disease d) Neutrophils
mostly in African Americans, aged 15- 24, with e) Eosinophils
multiple sexual partners, and who live in the
southeastern United States? 3.3) Which of the following cells together form a
a) Neisseria gonorrhea class known as polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)?
b) Neisseria meningitidis a) Basophils and Neutrophils
c) Staphylococcus aureus b) Neutrophils and Eosinophils
d) Staphylococcus saprophyticus c) Basophils, Neutrophils, and Eosinophils
e) Staphylococcus pyogenes d) Monocytes and Lymphocytes
e) Eosinophils and Basophils
2.1) Which of the following sugar assimilation tests
(production of acid by oxidation) would yield 4) Opa proteins (opacity proteins) are a family of
different results between Neisseria gonorrhea and membrane proteins that mediate intimate binding
Neisseria meningitidis? to epithelial and phagocytic cells and are
a) Glucose important for cell-to-cell signaling. Neisseria
b) Dextrose gonorrhea expressing the Opa proteins appear ____
c) Fructose when grown in culture and Neisseria meningitidis
d) Maltose expressing the Opa proteins appear ____.
e) Galactose a) Transparent; Transparent
b) Opaque; Opaque
2.2) Neisseria are oxidase positive bacteria. What c) Transparent; Opaque
media is used for isolation of Neisseria? d) Opaque; Transparent
a) Chocolate (CHOC)
b) Thayer-Martin (TM) 5) Which of the following virulence factors for
c) Blood agar plate (BAP) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the reason penicillin is no
d) Bile Esculin agar (BEA) longer used as the drug of choice for gonorrhea?
e) MacConkey agar (MAC) a) Pilin (protein)
b) -lactamase
2.3) Chocolate agar (CHOC) is used to create which c) Opa protein
of the following agars? d) Por protein
e) IgA1 protease 2.3) What is the most prevalent Enterobacteriaceae
found in bloodstream infections?
6) Phase variation along with antigenic variation a) Escherichia
account for the ineffectiveness in treating Neisseria b) Klebsiella
infections. Which of the following virulence factors c) Salmonella
has a variable region at the carboxyl terminus d) Yersinia
(immunodominant portion of the molecule) leading e) Morganella
to antigenic variation?
a) Pilin (protein) 2.4) What is the most prevalent Enterobacteriaceae
b) -lactamase found in gastrointestinal tract infections?
c) Opa protein a) Escherichia
d) Por protein b) Klebsiella
e) IgA1 protease c) Salmonella
d) Yersinia
7) What is the importance of the capsule in the e) Morganella
pathogenesis of Neisseria meningitides infections?
a) Mediates initial attachment to nonciliated human 2.5) What is the most prevalent Enterobacteriaceae
cells found in urinary tract infections?
b) Mediates firm attachment to eukaryotic cells a) Escherichia
c) Mediate acquisition of iron for bacterial metabolism b) Klebsiella
d) Destroys immunoglobulin A1 c) Salmonella
e) Prevents phagocytosis by the host d) Yersinia
e) Morganella
8) The action of which of the following found on the
outer membrane is the most responsible for 3.1) Which of the following is oxidase positive?
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), also a) E. coli
called consumptive coagulopathy, seen in b) P. vulgaris
meningococcal infections? c) K. pneumoniae
a) LOS endotoxin d) Salmonella
b) IgA1 protease e) Shigella
c) Hemoglobin-binding proteins f) P. aeruginosa
d) Por protein
e) Pillin 3.2) Which of the following ferment lactose?
a) P. vulgaris, Salmonella, and Shigella
31 – Enterobacteriaceae b) E. coli and K. pneumoniae
c) P. vulgaris and Salmonella
1) Which of the following describes enteric d) Shigella, E. coli, and P. vulgaris
bacteria? e) P. aeruginosa only
a) Gram-positive cocci
b) Gram-negative cocci 3.3) Which of the following is identified in the
c) Gram-positive rods laboratory based on production of indole?
d) Gram-negative rods a) E. coli
e) Gram-positive spirals b) P. vulgaris
c) K. pneumoniae
2.1) What is the most prevalent Enterobacteriaceae d) Salmonella
found in central nervous system infections? e) Shigella
a) Escherichia
b) Klebsiella 3.4) Which of the following is urease positive,
c) Salmonella produces hydrogen sulfide, and is motile?
d) Yersinia a) E. coli
e) Morganella b) P. vulgaris
c) K. pneumoniae
2.2) What is the most prevalent Enterobacteriaceae d) Salmonella
found in lower respiratory tract infections? e) Shigella
a) Escherichia
b) Klebsiella 3.5) Which of the following is urease negative,
c) Salmonella produces hydrogen sulfide, and is motile?
d) Yersinia a) E. coli
e) Morganella b) P. vulgaris
c) K. pneumoniae
d) Salmonella
e) Shigella
3.6) Which of the following does not produce
hydrogen sulfide and is motile?
a) E. coli
b) P. vulgaris
c) K. pneumoniae
d) Salmonella
e) Shigella
4) Which of the following would NOT be caused by
endotoxin?
a) Activation of complement
b) Release of cytokines
c) Phagocytotic inhibition
d) Thrombocytopenia
e) Fever and leukocytosis
5.1) Which of the following is a used by bacteria
such as Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella,
enteropathogenic Escherichia, Pseudomonas, and
Chlamydia to deliver their virulence factors into
targeted eukaryotic cells, acting like a molecular
syringe?
a) Endotoxin
b) Capsule
c) Type III secretion system
d) Antigenic phase variation
e) Sequestering of growth factors
5.2) In the process of sequestering of growth factors
by bacteria, some bacteria produce chelating
compounds (e.g., enterobactin, aerobactin) that
bind which of the following?
a) Magnesium
b) Calcium
c) Phosphate
d) Sodium
e) Iron
6.1) Which of the following is an important cause of
hemorrhagic colitis (HC) and hemolytic uremic
syndrome (HUS) in the United States?
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
e) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
6.2) Proper cooking of beef products can help
reduce the risk of what kind of infections?
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
e) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
6.3) Which of the following is most associated with
infant diarrhea in underdeveloped countries;
watery diarrhea and vomiting, and non-bloody
stools?
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
e) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
6.4) Which of the following is most associated with
Traveler diarrhea; infant diarrhea in developing
countries; watery diarrhea, vomiting, cramps,
nausea, and low-grade fever?
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
e) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
6.5) Which of the following has pathogenesis
mediated by cytotoxic Shiga toxins as opposed to
plasmid-mediated?
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
e) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
6.6) Which of the following is associated with
dysentery with leukocytes in stool, similar to
shingellosis?
a) Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
d) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
e) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
7.1) Which of the following toxins disrupts protein
synthesis causing damage to the intestinal
epithelium, and in a small subset of patients causes
damage to the glomerular endothelial cells,
resulting in renal failure?
a) Vibrio cholerae
b) EHEC
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) ETEC
7.2) Which of the following expresses a Shiga toxin
which disrupts protein synthesis, leading to
destruction of intestinal villus and decreased
absorption with an increase in fluid secretion?
a) Vibrio cholerae
b) EHEC
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) ETEC
7.3) Which of the following produces heat-labile
(LT-I and LT-II) and heat-stabile (STa and STb)
enterotoxins that stimulate hypersecretion of fluids
and electrolytes?
a) Vibrio cholerae
b) EHEC
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) ETEC
7.4) Which of the following interacts with G
proteins that control adenylate cyclase, leading to
the catabolic conversion of adenosine triphosphate
(ATP) to cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP),
resulting in a hypersecretion of water and
electrolytes?
a) Vibrio cholerae
b) EHEC
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) ETEC
8) What virulence factor of E. coli is associated with
adhesion in the urinary and gastrointestinal tracts
and also binds to a blood group antigen?
a) Colonizing factor antigens
b) Aggregative adherence fimbriae
c) P. pili
d) Intimin
e) Ipa protein
Use the following key (a-f) to match the bacteria to
the illness it causes:
a) Salmonella typhi
b) Salmonella enteritidis
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Yersinia enterocolitica
e) Yersinia pestis
9.1) A photographer for National Geographic
returning from Thailand develops a fever and
abdominal cramps on the plane. By the time the
plane lands, he suffers from bloody diarrhea. His
fever peaks at 40ºC. The doctor decides to do an
endoscopy exam and makes a diagnosis based on
the hemorrhagic mucosa and ulcerations observed
in the distal colon. Which of the options is the most
likely cause?
c) Shigella dysenteriae
9.2) A traveler from New Mexico presents to the
ER with fever, dark black skin patches, and
enlarged, painful lymph nodes in his groin. He
maintains an awkward pose with extremities
extended, which he says lessens his pain. Doctors
begin treatment immediately and inquire about
possible flea bites. They then call local authorities
in New Mexico and ask about similar recent
incidents. Which of the options is the most likely
cause?
e) Yersinia pestis
9.3) A woman who recently returned form a trip to
South America complains of a persistent high fever,
malaise, and constipation that has lasted for over a
week. She recalls that the fever began slowly and
climbed its way up to the current 41ºC. A physical
exam reveals that she has an enlarged spleen and a
generally tender abdomen with red
macules. The physician asks for a stool sample to
complete the diagnosis. Which of the options is the
most likely cause?
a) Salmonella typhi
9.4) A man and his two sons just returned from a
vacation on their relative’s farm. All three arrived
complaining of bloody diarrhea. The youngest son
becomes well spontaneously. The older son
complains of right flank pain, while the father
starts to notice tenderness in his joints. One
surgeon, worried about appendicitis in the older
son, performs the initial incision and discovers a
normal appendix but an inflamed colon. After also
observing swollen mesenteric lymph nodes during
surgery, he makes a diagnosis explaining the
symptoms in all 3 patients. Which of the options is
the most likely cause?
d) Yersinia enterocolitica
9.5) A veterinary school student complains to the
doctor of diarrhea and abdominal tenderness. He is
certain these symptoms followed nausea and
vomiting the day before. He admits that he may
have caused himself this misery by excessively
playing with his turtle.
b) Salmonella enteritidis
9.6) Which of the following is NOT a route of
transmission for Shigella dysenteriae?
a) Fingers
b) Flies
c) Farms
d) Food
e) Feces
9.7) Which of the following can be transmitted in
raw milk along with the fecal-oral routh?
a) Salmonella typhi
b) Salmonella enteritidis
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Yersinia enterocolitica
e) Yersinia pestis
9.8) Which of the following is commonly
transmitted by uncooked chicken?
a) Salmonella typhi
b) Salmonella enteritidis
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Yersinia enterocolitica
e) Yersinia pestis
10) After ingestion and passage through the
stomach, salmonellae are able to invade and
replicate in the M (microfold) cells that are located
in Peyer patches of the terminal portion of the
small intestine. Which of the following mediates the
initial invasion into the intestinal mucosa?
a) cAMP inducing toxin
b) Capsule
c) Spore
d) Teichoic acid
e) Type III secretion system
Match the following descriptions with the term:
a) Gastroenteritis b) Septicemia c) Enteric fever
11.1) Gradually increasing fever 10-14 days from
ingestion with nonspecific complaints such as
headache, myalgias, malaise, and anorexia.
c) Enteric fever
11.2) Nausea, vomiting, and non-bloody diarrhea 6-
48 hours after consumption.
a) Gastroenteritis
11.3) From Salmonella and risk is higher in
pediatric, geriatric, and AIDS patients
b) Septicemia
12) Which of the following is NOT true regarding
the epidemiology of bacillary dysentery (Shigella)?
a) Primarily a pediatric disease
b) Endemic in adult homosexual males
c) Epidemic outbreaks can occur in daycare centers
and nurseries
d) Primary transmission is by people with
contaminated hands
e) Spreads rapidly even in communities where sanitary
standards are high
13.1) Which of the following is the natural reservoir
for urban plague (Y. pestis)?
a) Cows
b) Rabbits
c) Turtles
d) Rats
e) Mosquitoes
13.2) Which of the following is NOT a natural
reservoir for sylvatic plague (Y. pestis)?
a) Squirrels
b) Rabbits
c) Livestock
d) Rats
e) Domestic cats
14) Bubonic plagues (Y. pestis) is characterized by
____ and pneumonic plague (Y. pestis) is
characterized by ____.
a) A 7-day incubation period; A 3-day incubation
period
b) A > 90% mortality rate; A >75% mortality rate
c) Pulmonary disease; A painful bubo (inflammation
of the lymph nodes)
d) Aerosol spreading from person-to-person; Flea bites
e) Septicemia; Cutaneous hemorrhagic necrosis
32 – Vibrios
1) Aside from the presence of polar flagella, which
of the following laboratory tests can differentiate
Vibrionaceae from Enterobacteriaceae?
a) Oxidase reaction
b) Urease reaction
c) Glucose/Dextrose fermentation
d) Sucrose fermentation
e) Lactose reaction
2) Cholera toxin causes an increase in which of the
following, leading to severe “ricewater” diarrhea?
a) [cGMP]
b) [cAMP]
c) [GTP]
d) [ADP]
e) [NADH]
3) V. cholerae O1 and 0139 produce cholera toxin
and are associated with epidemics of cholera. The
O1 serogroup is divided into ____ (Inaba, Ogawa,
and Hikojima) and ____ (classical and el tor).
a) Phenotypes; Serotypes
b) Serotypes; Phenotypes
c) Biotypes; Serotypes
d) Serotypes; Biotypes
e) Phenotypes; Biotypes
4) Which of the following is the natural
environment where V. cholerae grows?
a) Fresh water lakes and streams
b) Saltwater marine and estaurine
c) Soil, especially in underdeveloped countries
d) Naturally flora in human GI tract
e) Livestock skin and fur
Match the following clinical descriptions with the
bacteria that causes them:
a) V. parahaemolyticus b) V. vulnificus c) V. cholerae
5.1) Begins with an abrupt onset of watery diarrhea
and vomiting and can progress to severe
dehydration, metabolic acidosis and hypokalemia,
and hypovolemic shock.
c) V. cholerae
5.2) Self-limited gastroenteritis (explosive onset of
watery diarrhea) with low-grade fever or wound
infection associated with exposure to contaminated
water.
a) V. parahaemolyticus
5.3) Severe, potentially fatal wound infections
characterized by erythema, pain, bullae formation,
tissue necrosis, and septicemia.
b) V. vulnificus
6) In epidemiology, this term refers to an infection b) C. jejuni
in a population where that infection is maintained c) Rotovirus
in the population without the need for external d) H. pylori
inputs (e.g. V. cholerae and chickenpox). Each e) S. aureus
person who becomes infected with the disease must
pass it on to exactly one other person, on average. 3.3) What disease may be confused with C. jejuni
a) Outbreak because Campylobacter is difficult to detect?
b) Epidemic a) Crohn disease
c) Pandemic b) Kawasaki disease
d) Syndemic c) Hodgkin disease
e) Endemic d) Huntington disease
e) Alzheimer disease
33 – Campylobacter and Helicobacter
4.1) Multiple factors contribute to the gastric
1.1) Which of the following can help differentiate inflammation, alteration of gastric acid production,
Campylobacter jejuni from Helicobacter pylori in and tissue destruction that are characteristic of H.
the laboratory? pylori disease. The virulence factor Heat shock
a) Gram reaction protein (HspB) enhances the expression of which of
b) Oxidase reaction the following?
c) Catalase reaction a) Mucinase
d) Urease reaction b) Phospholipase
e) Nitrate reduction c) Catalase
d) Superoxide dismutase
1.2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding e) Urease
Campylobacter?
a) Gram-negative rods 4.2) Which of the following H. pylori virulence
b) Low DNA guanosine plus cytosine base ration factors induces hypochlorhydria during acute
c) Inability to ferment or oxidize carbohydreates infection by blocking secretion from parietal cells?
d) Microaerophilic growth requirements a) Urease
e) Inability to grown on Campy agar b) Heat shock protein
c) Acid-inhibitory protein
2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding d) Flagella
the epidemiology of C. jejuni? e) Adhesins
a) It is a zoonotic infection (cattle, dogs, domestic
animals, etc.) 4.3) Which of the following H. pylori virulence
b) Improperly prepared poultry is a common source of factors disrupt gastric mucus?
human infections a) Urease
c) Person-to-person spread is very common b) Mucinase
d) The dose required to establish infection is high c) Phospholipase
e) Enteric infections most commonly seen in warm d) Mucinase and phospholipase
months e) Mucinase and urease

3.1) Which of the following is NOT one of the most 4.4) Which of the following H. pylori virulence
common causes of diarrhea in the world? factors prevent phagocytosis?
a) ETEC a) Superoxide dismutase
b) C. jejuni b) Phospholipase
c) Rotovirus c) Catalase
d) H. pylori d) Phospholipase and catalase
e) Catalase and superoxide dismutase
3.2) A man with fever, muscle pains, and headache
feels no need to go to the doctor until about 1 day 4.5 ) Which of the following H. pylori virulence
later, when he develops bloody diarrhea and factors neutralizes gastric acids and stimulates
abdominal pain as well. The abdominal pain is so production of inflammatory cytokines?
severe that his physician fears appendicitis until a) Acid-inhibitory protein
learning that the man may have had unpasteurized b) Urease
milk in the past week. A definitive diagnosis is c) Adhesins
made by growth on stool cultures at 42ºC, d) Mucinase
microaerophilic conditions. Which of the following e) Catalase
is the most likely cause?
a) ETEC
5) Which of the following is the etiologic agent in 3) Which of the following is a health care associated
virtually all cases of type B gastritis, accounting for infection that is typically more virulent and drug
up to 80% of gastic ulcers and more than 90% of resistant?
duodenal ulcers? a) Opportunistic
a) ETEC b) Nosocomial
b) C. jejuni c) Strict
c) Rotovirus d) Endogenous
d) H. pylori e) Exogenous
e) S. aureus
4.1) Which of the following P. aeruginosa virulence
6.1) Which of the following laboratory test for H. factors impairs ciliary function, stimulates
pylori is the diagnostic test of choice and measures inflammatory response, and mediates tissue
antibody titers to document exposure to the damage through toxic oxygen radicals?
bacteria? a) Capsule
a) Microscopy b) Pili
b) Urease test c) Lipopolysaccharide
c) Antigen detection d) Pyocyanin
d) Culture e) Cytotoxin (leukocidin)
e) Serology
4.2) Which of the following P. aeruginosa virulence
6.2) Which of the following laboratory test for H. factors is toxic to eukaryotic membranes, which
pylori requires a biopsy and identifies the bacteria disrupts leukocyte function and produces
if the result is positive? pulmonary microvascular injury?
a) Microscopy a) Endotoxin A
b) Urease test b) Endotoxin S
c) Antigen detection c) Cytotoxin
d) Culture d) Elastase
e) Serology e) Pyocyanin

7) The greatest success in curing gastritis or peptic 4.3) P. aeruginosa is inherently resistant to many
ulcer disease has been accomplished with the antibiotics and can mutate (porin proteins) to even
combination of antibiotics and which of the more resistant strains during therapy.
following? a) True
a) Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) b) False
b) Cyclooxygenase (COX) blocker
c) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 4.4) The P. aeruginosa virulence factor ____ is a
d) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) heat-labile hemolysin and the virulence factor ____
e) Protease inhibitor is a heat-stable hemolysin.
a) Phospholipase C; Rhamnolipid
34 – Pseudomonas b) Rhamnolipid; Cytotoxin
c) Cytotoxin; Pyocyanin
1) Which of the following locations is the least likely d) Pyocyanin; Elastase
for non-fermenters to exist? e) Elastase; Alkaline protease
a) High oxygen
b) Low oxygen 5.1) In beta hemolysis, a green pigmentation grows
c) Plants in red blood agar. This is due to the ____ pyocyanin
d) Soil and the ____ fluorescein.
e) High moisture a) Green; Green
b) Green; Red
2) Pseudomonas are ubiquitous organisms found in c) Red; Green
soil, decaying organic matter, vegetation, and d) Blue; Yellow
water. Which of the following locations within the e) Yellow; Blue
hospital environment would Pseudomonas likely
NOT be found? 5.2) Which of the following is NOT a featured used
a) Disinfectant solutions to identify P. aeruginosa?
b) Cut flowers a) Lactose non-fermenter
c) Oxygen tanks b) Oxidase negative
d) Floor mops c) Glucose non-fermenter
e) Respiratory therapy equipment d) Sweet grape-like odor
e) Beta hemolysis
 c) Heme and NAD (X and V)
5.3) Which of the following is NOT oxidase d) Cysteine
positive? e) Cysteine and heme (X)
a) Vibrio
b) Psudomonas 3) The “type B” in Haemophilus influenzae refers
c) Campylobacter to which of the following, which identifies them by
d) Heliobacter their surface antigens?
e) Enterobacteriaceae a) Biotype
b) Phenotype
6) Which of the following treatment plans would be c) Serogroup
used for P. aeruginosa infection? d) Serotype
a) Penicillin throughout treatment e) Organism
b) A single mix of active antibiotics throughout
treatment 4) Which of the following was NOT a result of the
c) Multiple mixes of active antibiotics changed conjugated Haemophilus influenzae type B
throughout treatment vaccine?
d) A single protease inhibitor throughout treatment a) Systemic disease in children younger than 5 years
e) Multiple protease inhibitors changed throughout has been virtually eliminated in the United States
treatment b) Most of the H. influenzae type B infections now
occur in children who had incomplete vaccination or
7) Which of the following patient populations is at poor response to the vaccine
high risk for Burkholderia cepacia infections of the c) Outside of the United States, influenza type B
respiratory tract? remains the most significant pediatric pathogen in
a) AIDS patients many countries of the world
b) Catheterized patients d) Elderly patients in the United States are unlikely to
c) Cystic fibrosis patients get influenza type B because they are vaccinated
d) Elderly patients e) Ear and sinus infections caused by these organisms
e) Neonates are primarily pediatric diseases

8.1) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is resistant to 5) Which of the following is NOT true for
which of the following? Pasteurella multocida?
a) -lactam antibiotics a) Oxidase positive
b) Aminoglycoside antibiotics b) Catalase positive
c) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole c) Gram-negative
d) Chloramphenicol and ceftazidime d) Coccobacilli
e) -lactam and aminoglycoside e) Non-fermentive

8.2) Which of the following patient populations is at 6) How would a person typically acquire a P.
high risk for opportunistic Acinetobacter multocida infection?
infections? a) Mosquitoes bite
a) AIDS patients b) Cat bite
b) Catheterized patients c) Unpasteurized milk
c) Patients receiving penicillin d) Person-to-person via aerosols
d) Patients receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics e) Sexual contact
e) Patients receiving aminoglycoside antibiotics
36 & 37 – Bordetella, Francisella and Brucella
35 – Haemophilus and Related Bacteria
1.1) Which of the following describes laboratory
1) Which of the following best describes characteristics of Bordetella pertussis?
Haemophilus? a) Oxidase positive, urease positive, non-motile,
a) Gram-positive cocci growth on sheep blood agar, no growth on MacConkey
b) Gram-positive rods agar
c) Gram-negative cocci b) Oxidase negative, urease negative, motile, no
d) Gram-negative rods growth on sheep blood agar, no growth on MacConkey
e) Gram-negative spirals agar
c) Oxidase positive, urease negative, non-motile, no
2) What are the growth factor requirements for growth on sheep blood agar, no growth on MacConkey
Haemophilus on chocolate agar? agar
a) Hemin (Heme, X) d) Oxidase positive, urease negative, motile, growth on
b) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD, V) sheep blood agar, growth on MacConkey agar
e) Oxidase negative, urease negative, non-motile, expiration followed by a deep inspiration. The
growth on sheep blood agar, growth on MacConkey cough produces copious greenish phlegm. Further
agar history reveals that the infant has not been
vaccinated. The physician fears that erythromycin
1.2) Which of the following differentiates B. therapy will not be helpful at this stage of the
pertussis from both B. parapertussis and B. illness. Which of the following is the most likely
bronchiseptica? cause?
a) Oxidase and urease a) S. pneumoniae
b) Urease and motility b) P. aeruginosa
c) Motility and growth on sheep blood agar c) B. pertussis
d) Urease and growth on sheep blood agar d) F. tularensis
e) Oxidase and motility e) L. pneumophila
Match the following biological effects with the
virulence factors for B. pertussis: 4) The ____ version of the pertussis vaccine is
a) Filamentous hemagglutinin associated with unacceptable levels of
b) Pertussis toxin complications. The ____ version of the vaccine
c) Adenylate cyclase/hemolysin toxin contains inactivated bacteria and the ____ version
d) Tracheal cytotoxin of the vaccine contains the pertussis toxin and one
(or more) bacterial components, which mediate
2.1) Increases intracellular level of adenylate immune response in the host.
cyclase and inhibits phagocytic killing and a) Whole cell; Whole cell; Acellular
monocyte migration Microbiology Quiz
c) Adenylate cyclase/hemolysin toxin Version: 03Jun2008 Page 47 of 66
b) Whole cell; Acellular; Whole cell
2.2) A peptidoglycan fragment that kills ciliated c) Acellular; Whole cell; Acellular
respiratory cells and stimulates the release of d) Acellular; Acellular; Whole cell
interleukin-1 (fever)
d) Tracheal cytotoxin 5) Brucella and Francisella are examples of what
kind of disease, where they can be transmitted from
2.3) Binds to sulfated glycoproteins on ciliated cell animal to human?
membranes; binds to CR3 surface of a) Nosocomial
polymorphonuclear leukocytes and initiates b) Water-borne
phagocytosis c) Blood-borne
a) Filamentous hemagglutinin d) Zoonosis
e) Opportunistic
2.4) S2 subunit binds to glycolipid on surface of
ciliated respiratory cells; S3 subunit binds to 6) What is the primary virulence factor of the
ganglioside on surface of phagocytic cells intracellular parasite F. tularensis?
b) Pertussis toxin a) cAMP inducing toxin
b) Capsule
3.1) In the clinical presentation of B. pertussis c) Spore
disease, at what state does the characteristic d) Teichoic acid
whopping cough develop? e) Type III secretion system
a) Incubation (7-10 days)
b) Catarrhal (1-2 weeks) 7.1) Which of the following carriers of F. tularensis
c) Paroxysmal (2-4 weeks) is the most common for transmission to a human
d) Convalescent (3-4 weeks or longer) host?
a) Domestic cats
3.2) In B. pertussis infection, where is the number b) Birds
of organisms the highest? c) Ticks
a) CSF d) Domestic cats and dogs
b) GI tract e) Rabbits and ticks
c) UG tract
d) Respiratory tract 7.2) Which of the following locations is the least
e) Skin likely for F. tularensis (tularemia) to be found?
a) Arkansas
3.3) An infant born in a rural area is brought to the b) Oklahoma
ER with severe bouts of coughing throughout the c) Missouri
day. During the visit, the baby appears cyanotic d) Pennsylvania
and suffers an attack of many coughs on a single e) Australia
 a) Chocolate (CHOC)
7.3) What growth factors are required for F. b) Blood agar plate (BAP)
tularensis? c) Bile Esculin agar (BEA)
a) Heme (X) d) MacConkey agar (MAC)
b) NAD (V) e) Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BCYE)
c) Heme and NAD (X and V)
d) Cysteine 2.2) What growth factors are required for
e) Cysteine and heme (X) Legionella?
a) Heme (X)
Match the clinical presentation with the species of b) NAD (V)
Brucella: c) Heme and NAD (X and V)
d) Cysteine and iron
8.1) Severe, acute disease with complications e) Cysteine and heme (X)
common a) B. canis (dogs)
d) Francisella tularensis 2.3) Which of the following laboratory tests for
Legionella uses indirect fluorescent antibody
8.2) Mild disease with animal loss of fetus b) B. suis (IFA)?
(hogs) a) Culture
c) Bordetella pertussis b) Urine antigen test
c) Nucleic acid amplification assay
8.3) Chronic, suppurative, destructive disease c) B. d) Serology
abortus (cattle) e) Identification (microscopy)
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Match the following clinical illness with the
8.4) Mild disease with suppurative complications d) organism:
B. melitensis (goats/sheep)
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae 3.1) Periodontitis, endocarditis, bacteremia from
dog or cat bites
8.5) A doctor is struggling to diagnose a woman’s b) Capnocytophagia
flulike illness. She complains of a fever that rises 3.2) Rat-bite fever (irregular fever)
during the day and peaks after dinner (undulant a) Streptobacillus
fever), fatigue, spinal tenderness, and loss of
appetite. Her lymph nodes are enlarged in physical 3.3) Subacute endocarditis
exam. The doctor has trouble narrowing down the c) Cardiobacterium
possible etiologies until he hears that the woman
tasted goat cheese at a French village a month 3.4) Trench fever (severe headache), cat-scratch
before the onset of her symptoms. Which of the disease, angiomatosis
following is the most likely cause? d) Bartonella
e) Brucella species
40 – Anaerobic, Spore Forming, Gram-positive
38 – Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli Rods

1.1) Which of the following is most likely caused by 1) Which of the following is NOT true (in general)
Legionella? for Clostridium?
a) Bloody diarrhea a) Gram-negative
b) Fever lasting less than 24 hours b) Bacilli shaped
c) Atypical pneumonia c) Spore-forming
d) UTI d) Obligate anaerobes
e) Meningitis e) Unable to reduce sulfate to sulfite

1.2) Which of the following is the most likely 2.1) A teenage girl enters the emergency room
location to find Legionella pneumophila? suffering painful muscle spasms. Throughout her
a) Water examination, she sustains a facial sneer, a stiff
b) Soil arched back, and clamped palms. Her father is
c) Food anxious about the fact that she has also experienced
d) Plants difficulty eating, probably due to a stiff jaw. The
e) Desert father affirms that her daughter is usually quite
active and boasts how, a week ago, she continued a
2.1) What kind of media is most commonly used to soccer game even after falling on a nail in the field.
grow Legionella? Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a) C. difficile patients with occult colon cancer, acute leukemia,
b) C. perfingens or diabetes?
c) C. septicum a) C. difficile
d) C. botulinum b) C. perfingens
e) C. tetani c) C. septicum
d) C. botulinum
2.2) A woman straggles into the emergency room e) C. tetani
with a marked paralysis of her upper body. She
describes the paralysis as a weakness that began in 2.6) Which of the following is associated with
her neck and spread to her arms. She also Floppy Baby Syndrome?
complains of blurred double vision and requests a) C. difficile
water to soothe her dry throat. Though she has no b) C. perfingens
fever, she appears quite dizzy and her eyelids are c) C. septicum
drooping. The day before, she returned from a d) C. botulinum
camping trip where she insists she maintained good e) C. tetani
hygiene, limiting her diet to canned food only.
Which of the following is the most likely cause? 2.7) Which of the following is associated with
a) C. difficile Pseudomembrane Colitis (PMC)?
b) C. perfingens a) C. difficile
c) C. septicum b) C. perfingens
d) C. botulinum c) C. septicum
e) C. tetani d) C. botulinum
e) C. tetani
2.3) An old woman comes to the doctor with a fever
and loose bowels. Her diarrhea occurs in 3.1) Which of the following describes the effect of
tremendous volumes, she complains, though she tetanus toxin?
doesn’t remember seeing blood. She has an a) Unregulated excitatory synaptic activity in the
unremarkable recent past medical history, except motor neurons
for an infection a few weeks earlier that was treated b) Blocks neurotransmission at peripheral cholinergic
with clindamycin. Sigmoidoscopy of her colon synapses
reveals c) Induces depolymerization of actin with loss of
yellow-white plaques which the doctor predicted cellular cytoskeleton
after analyzing her stools for toxins. Which of the d) Produces chemotaxis; induces cytokine production
following is the most likely cause? with hypersecretion of fluid; produces hemorrhagic
a) C. difficile necrosis
b) C. perfingens e) C and D
c) C. septicum
d) C. botulinum 3.2) Which of the following describes the effect of
e) C. tetani botulinum toxin?
a) Unregulated excitatory synaptic activity in the
2.4) A man enters the emergency room claiming to motor neurons
have been stabbed two days earlier. Muscles in his b) Blocks neurotransmission at peripheral cholinergic
arm hurt, and on palpation small air bubbles are synapses
felt below the skin. The wound area exudes a c) Induces depolymerization of actin with loss of
blackish, ill-smelling fluid that generates a cellular cytoskeleton
crackling sound when touched. The patient has a d) Produces chemotaxis; induces cytokine production
fever, a low blood pressure, marked tachycardia, with hypersecretion of fluid; produces hemorrhagic
and urinated very little since his injury. The doctor necrosis
decides to amputate the arm, as well as monitor the e) C and D
patient for shock and renal failure Which of the
following is the most likely cause? 3.3) Which of the following describes the effect of
a) C. difficile C. difficile toxin?
b) C. perfingens a) Unregulated excitatory synaptic activity in the
c) C. septicum motor neurons
d) C. botulinum b) Blocks neurotransmission at peripheral cholinergic
e) C. tetani synapses
c) Induces depolymerization of actin with loss of
2.5) Which of the following is a cause of cellular cytoskeleton
nontraumatic myonecrosis and often exists in
d) Produces chemotaxis; induces cytokine production Match the following descriptions with the
with hypersecretion of fluid; produces hemorrhagic anaerobic gram-negative bacilli:
necrosis
e) C and D 1.1) Small, spindle-shaped rod
d) Fusobacterium
41 – Anaerobic, Non Spore Forming, Gram-positive
Rods 1.2) Pigmented, asaccharlytic (carbohydrate
metabolizing) rods
1.1) What is the best description of the shape of b) Porphyromonas
Actinomyces?
a) Coccus 1.3) Pigmented and non-pigmented saccharolytic
b) Bacillus rods
c) Spirillum c) Prevotella
d) Diplococcus
e) Filamentous 1.4) Rod-shaped, growth in 20% bile
a) Bacteroides
1.2) Actinomyces grow ____ in culture and are
facultatively anaerobic or strictly ____. 2) Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor
a) Quickly; Aerobic of Bacteroides fragilis?
b) Quickly; Anaerobic a) Polysaccharide capsule allow for adhesion
c) Slowly; Aerobic b) Capsule protects from phagocytosis
d) Slowly; Anaerobic c) Superoxide dismutase prevent oxygen toxicity
d) Diarrheal disease caused by heat-labile toxin
2) Comparing the two, Acinomyces ____ sulfur e) LPS causes shock
granules and Nocardia is ____.
a) Form; Acid-fast 3) Which of the following is NOT a difficulty
b) Form; Not acid-fast associated with laboratory diagnosis of anaerobic
c) Does not form; Acid-fast bacteria?
d) Does not form; Not acid-fast a) Contamination of sample with normal bacterial
population
3) Which of the following would lead to a clinical b) Drying of the sample causes significant bacterial
diagnosis for Actinomyces? loss
a) Gram-negative, beaded filaments, not acid fast, c) Slow growth of over two weeks causes delay
obligate anaerobe d) Staining is faint and irregular
b) Gram-positive, beaded filaments, not acid fast, e) Transport must be in oxygen free environment
obligate anaerobe
c) Gram-negative, rods, acid fast, obligate anaerobe 4.1) Which of the following is NOT one of the most
d) Gram-positive, rods, acid fast, obligate aerobe common anaerobes found in brain abscess
e) Gram-negative, cocci, not acid fast, obligate infections?
anaerobe a) B. fagillis
b) Prevotella
4.1) Which of the following forms of actinomycosis c) Porphyromonas
(painful abscesses, growing larger as the disease d) Fusobacterium
progresses) is the most common? e) Peptostreptococcus
a) Cervicofacial
b) Thoracic 4.2) Which of the following is most commonly seen
c) Abdominal in intraabdominal infections and bacteremia?
d) Pelvic a) B. fagillis
e) Central nervous system b) Prevotella
c) Porphyromonas
4.2) Which of the following disease is often confused d) Fusobacterium
with actinomycosis? e) Peptostreptococcus
a) Endocarditis
b) Herpes 5.1) What growth media is used to help
c) Neoplasms differentiate B. fragilis?
d) Osteomyelitis a) Chocolate (CHOC)
e) Chagas disease b) Thayer-Martin (TM)
c) Blood agar plate (BAP)
42 – Anaerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli d) Bile Esculin agar (BEA)
e) MacConkey agar (MAC)
 d) Congenital
5.2 Bacteroides are the only Gram-negative
bacteria without typical: 4.2) Children born with congenital syphilis often
a) Capsule exhibit Hutchinson Triad, which includes deafness,
b) Endotoxin blindness, and centrally notched teeth. If the
c) Adhesins mother has been exposed to Chlamydia, syphilis, or
d) Catalase gonorrhea, the newborn may receive a prophylactic
e) Fimbriae antibiotic for their:
a) Ears
43 – Treponema, Borrelia and Leptospira b) Eyes
c) Nose
Match the spirochetal bacteria and the disease d) Mouth
caused by each: e) Systemic antibiotic (via IV)

1.1) Treponema pallidum 4.3) What is characteristic of primary syphilis?

d) Syphilis a) Painful chancre
b) Painless chancre
1.2) Leptospira interrogans c) Several painful ulcers in genital region
a) Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola d) Several painless ulcers in genital region
fever e) Disseminating rash on entire body, soles, and palms

1.3) Borrelia burgdorferi 4.4) Of the following organisms that can cross the
c) Lyme disease placenta, which of the following is associated with
congenital CN VIII deafness, mulberry molars,
1.4) Borrelia recurrentis saddle nose, blindness, deafness, and
b) Endemic relapsing fever cardiovascular problems?
a) Toxoplasma gondii
2) Which of the following is true for visualizing b) Rubella
spirochete? c) Cytomegalovirus
a) They can be viewed without significant d) Herpes, HIV
magnification (e.g. 10x) e) Syphilis
b) They can be viewed with Gram stain
c) They can be viewed with Giemsa stain 5) Which of the following is/are used to confirm
d) They require special analysis such as dark field nontreponemal assays?
illumination or silver stain a) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
b) Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
3.1) Which of the following groups of people is most c) Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-
at risk for contracting T. pallidum? ABS) test
a) Pregnant mothers d) Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA)
b) Cystic fibrosis patients test
c) Sexually active patients e) C & D
d) Elderly patients
e) Anyone (spread through contact with inanimate Match the modes of transmission with the
objects, such as toilet seats) spirochete:
6.1) Sexual contact
3.2) The tissue destruction and lesions observed in a) Treponema pallidum
syphilis are primarily a consequence of which of the
following? 6.2) Ticks
a) Bacterial capsule c) Borrelia burgdorferi
b) Bacterial endoflagellum
c) Bacterial overgrowth 6.3) Rodents, Dogs, Fish, Birds
d) Bacterial hyaluronidase d) Leptospiras interrogans
e) Host immune response
6.4) Human-to-human louse
4.1) What stage of syphilis is characterized by b) Borrelia recurrentis
disseminating rash, alopecia, lymphadenopathy,
and flulike symptoms. 7) Which of the following is an early clinical sign of
a) Primary Lyme Disease and not a late sign?
b) Secondary a) Musculoskeletal disease (e.g. migratory myalgias,
c) Tertiary transient arthritis)
b) Nervous system disease (e.g. Bell palsy, b) Middle-aged adults
encephalopathy) c) School-age children
c) Cardiovascular involvement (e.g. AV nodal block) d) Neonates
d) Erythema chronicum migrans (ECM) e) Pregnant mothers
e) Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans (ACA)
4) Which of the following tests is the most useful
8.1) Which of the following locations within the currently as an initial laboratory test, has about
United States has the highest reported cases of 65% sensitivity, and has specificity that cross-reacts
Leptospira infection each year? to other organisms (e.g., Epstein-Barr virus,
a) Minnesota cytomegalovirus, adenovirus)?
b) Pennsylvania a) Microscopy
c) New York b) Molecular diagnosis
d) Wisconsin c) Complement fixation
e) Hawaii d) Enzyme immunoassays
e) Cold hemagglutination
8.2) A farmer comes to the ER with a 1-week
history of flu-like symptoms with photophobia. His 45 – Rickettsia
severe headache, cough, and myalgias suggest to the
physician some kind of respiratory infection. 1.1) Which of the following is an organism that
However, more careful physical exam reveals prefers to live inside a host cell but may live outside
conjunctival suffusion and macular rash. Lab a host cell?
findings include elevated serum bilirubin, alkaline a) Extracellular pathogen
phosphatase, aminotransferase, and creatine b) Intracellular pathogen
phosphokinase. With this clinical picture and lab c) Obligate intracellular parasite
results, the physician prescribes penicillin G d) Obligate extracellular parasite
immediately. His suspicions are confirmed later e) Facultative intracellular parasite
when a spirochete is isolated from the patient’s
blood. Which of the following is the most likely 1.2) Rickettsia, an aerobic Gram-negative rod, is
cause? which of the following?
a) Treponema pallidum a) Extracellular pathogen
b) Leptospira interrogans b) Obligate intracellular parasite
c) Borrelia burgdorferi c) Obligate extracellular parasite
d) Borrelia recurrentis d) Facultative intracellular parasite

44 – Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma Match the following Rickettsia with the disease and
location:
1) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Eaton agent) are
unique among bacteria because their cell 2.1) Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Western
membrane contains sterols and they do not have hemisphere)
which of the following? c) Rickettsia rickettsii
a) -lactam antibiotic resistance
b) Flagella 2.2) Epidemic typhus (Worldwide)
c) Endotoxin d) Rickettsia prowazekii
d) Capsule
e) Cell wall 2.3) Scrub typhus (Asia, Oceania)
a) Orientia tsutsugamushi
2) Which of the following is associated with
Ureaplasma? 2.4) Q fever (Worldwide)
a) Genitourinary tract infection b) Coxiella burnetii
b) Atypical pneumonia
c) Tracheobronchitis Match the following Rickettsia with the vector:
d) Influenza-like illness 2.5) Cattle, sheep, goats
e) Upper respiratory tract infection b) Coxiella burnetii

3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a common cause of 2.6) Flying squirrels, louse

atypical pneumonia (walking pneumonia) and chest d) Rickettsia prowazekii
x-ray often looks worse than symptoms suggest.
Which of the following groups of people is the most 2.7) Dogs, rodents, wood/dog tick
commonly affected? c) Rickettsia rickettsii
a) Elderly
2.8) Chiggers, red mites
a) Orientia tsutsugamushi
2.9) A 10-year-old boy in Virginia presents with a
rash, fever, and severe headache that began several
days ago. The rash began on his palms and soles
and has now spread to his trunk. His pediatrician
also notes conjunctival redness, and lab studies
show proteinuria. The boy’s history is significant
for a hike in the woods a week ago. The child is
given tetracycline and his diagnosis is confirmed by
a Weil-Felix test. Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
a) Orientia tsutsugamushi
b) Coxiella burnetii
c) Rickettsia rickettsii
d) Rickettsia prowazekii
2.10) A cattle farmer goes to the doctor
complaining of mild cough and fever. He says that
the fever began abruptly several days ago. His
occupation as cattle slaughterer leads the doctor
towards a diagnosis, and tetracycline is
administered. The diagnosis is
confirmed by serology and a negative Weil-Felix
test. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
a) Orientia tsutsugamushi
b) Coxiella burnetii
c) Rickettsia rickettsii
d) Rickettsia prowazekii
2.11) A Kosovo refugee sees a volunteer camp
doctor complaining of a rash spreading outward
from his trunk but sparing his palms and soles.
Two days ago, he experiences abrupt onset of fever,
headaches, and confusion. On physical exam, the
doctor discovers lice in the man’s hair. The doctor
treats with a delousing regimen and tetracycline.
Were he at a hospital, he might confirm the
diagnosis with a Weil-Felix test. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
a) Orientia tsutsugamushi
b) Coxiella burnetii
c) Rickettsia rickettsii
d) Rickettsia prowazekii
47 – Chlamydia
1.1) The Chlamydiaceae life cycle has elemental
bodies (EBs) that are ____ and reticulate bodies
(RBs) that are ____.
a) Metabolically active and infection; Metabolically
inactive and noninfectious
b) Metabolically inactive and infection; Metabolically
active and noninfectious
c) Metabolically active and noninfection;
Metabolically inactive and infectious
d) Metabolically inactive and noninfection;
Metabolically active and infectious
1.2) In the life cycle of Chlamydiaceae, ____ bind to
cell receptors triggering endocytosis. ____ inhibit
lysosome fusion and form ___, which replicate by
binary fission and form ____ that cause the cell to
lyse.
a) EBs; EBs; RBs; EBs;
b) EBs; RBs; RBs; EBs;
c) RBs; EBs; EBs; RBs;
d) RBs; RBs; EBs; RBs;
e) RBs; RBs; EBs; EBs;
2) Chlamydia uses ATP for energy in order to
construct DNA and proteins as well as encoding
their own ribosomes. This makes Clamydia which
of the following?
a) Extracellular pathogen
b) Obligate intracellular parasite
c) Obligate extracellular parasite
d) Facultative intracellular parasite
3.1) A woman is brought to the ER complaining of
vaginal discharge and RUQ abdominal pain. On
history, the patient reports having many sexual
partners. Pelvic exam reveals cervical motion
tenderness, and labs of vaginal discharge detect
numerous PMNs but no organisms on Gram stain.
The doctor makes a diagnosis based on these
findings and administers doxycycline and
ceftriaxone. Later, surgeons, concerned about the
patient’s abdominal pain, rule out cholecystitis by
imaging, but laparoscopy reveals adhesions around
the patient’s liver capsule. Which of the following is
the most likely cause?
a) Chlamydia psittaci
b) Clamydia trachomatis
c) Clamydia pneumoniae (TWAR)
3.2) A bird shop owner visits his doctor
complaining of a headache, fever, and dry cough
that has worsened over the last few days. The
patient also complains of a sore throat and muscle
aches. A physical exam reveals bilateral rales upon
auscultation and mild splenomegaly. The doctor
orders a CXR that reveals a patchy pneumonitis.
Diagnosis is confirmed with serological tests. The
patient is administered tetracycline and the fever
diminishes within 2 days. Which of the following is
the most likely cause?
a) Chlamydia psittaci
b) Clamydia trachomatis
c) Clamydia pneumoniae (TWAR)
3.3) A 22-year-old student presents with a
nonproductive cough, fever, and sore throat. CXR
demonstrates diffuse interstitial infiltrate. Sputum
Gram stain shows many PMNs but no organism,
and a Giemsa stain reveals intracytoplasmic
inclusions in epithelial cells. Doxycycline treatment
is begun. Which of the following is the most likely e) VZV
cause?
a) Chlamydia psittaci 2.8) Cold sores, gingivostomatitis
b) Clamydia trachomatis b) HSV-1
c) Clamydia pneumoniae (TWAR)
2.9) Mononucleosis heterophile + (“kissing
4.1) Which of the following is NOT used for disease”)
laboratory diagnosis of C. trachomatis? a) EBV
a) Microscopy of Gram-negative rods with no
peptidoglycan cell wall 2.10) Mononucleosis heterophile -, cytomegalic
b) Molecular amplification (e.g. PCR) inclusion disease
c) Cell culture using certain cell lines (e.g. nonciliated d) CMV
columnar, cuboidal) 2.11) Which of the following uses giant cells with
d) Antigen test (e.g. ELISA, fluorescence) “owl’s eye” intranuclear inclusion bodies for
e) Vaginal specimen cytology laboratory diagnosis?
a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
4.2) C. trachomatis would iodine stain ____ and b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
Giemsa stain ____. c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
a) Positive; Positive d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
b) Positive; Negative e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
c) Negative; Negative
d) Negative; Positive 2.12) The Tzank smear, characteristic
cytopathologic effects in a scraping of the base of a
54 – Herpesviruses lesion, is used for laboratory diagnosis of all of the
following EXCEPT:
1) Which of the following describes the structure of a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
herpes viruses? b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
a) Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
enveloped d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
b) Double-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non-
enveloped 2.13) In which of the following do T cells appear as
c) Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, atypical lymphocytes (Downey cells)?
enveloped a) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
d) Single-stranded DNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, non- b) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
enveloped c) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
e) Single-stranded RNA, icosahedral 162 capsid, d) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
enveloped e) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)

Match the site of latency with the virus: 2.14) Which of the following has spurious
2.1) Sacral ganglia production of an IgM antibody to the Paul- Bunnell
b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) antigen (heterophile antibody)?
a) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
2.2) Dorsal root ganglia b) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) c) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
d) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
2.3) B cells e) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
2.15) A vaccine (live attenuated) only currently
2.4) Trigeminal ganglia exists for which of the following?
a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
2.5) Mononuclear cells c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) & HHV-6 d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Match the clinical presentation of recurrent
infection with the virus: 2.16) Cancer (Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal
2.6) Genital herpes, neonatal herpes carcinoma, Hodgkin disease) is only associated with
c) HSV-2 which of the following?
a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
2.7) Shingles, chickenpox b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
3.1) A 2-year-old child experiences a rapid onset of
high fever that lasts for 3 days and then suddenly
returns to normal. Two days later, a
maculopapular rash appears on the trunk and
spreads to other parts of the body. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
f) Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human
herpesvirus 7 (HHV- 7)
g) Kaposi sarcoma-related virus (HHV-8)
3.2) A Jewish AIDS patient from Isreal presents to
the ER with red-brown raised nodules on the lower
limbs, face, and genitalia. Lymphodema is found
upon palpation. The patient complains about
difficulty eating and dark growths are found along
the gum line.
Which of the following is the mostly likely cause?
a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
f) Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human
herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)
g) Kaposi sarcoma-related virus (HHV-8)
3.3) A 34-year-old kidney transplant patient
currently on immunosuppressants complains of
shortness of breath and coughing. Physical exam
reveals fever and abnormal lung sounds while chest
x-ray indicates interstitial infiltrates in the lungs.
No cysts are detected on silver stain of
bronchoalveolar lavage fluid, ruling out
Pneumocysitic carinii infection. The doctor makes a
diagnosis after viewing a sample of the patient’s
lung tissue, which shows abnormal giant cells.
Which of the following is the mostly likely cause?
a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
f) Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human
herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)
g) Kaposi sarcoma-related virus (HHV-8)
3.4) A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for a recent
onset of high fever, headaches, and sporadic
sensations of smelling sausages. Physical exam
reveals neck stiffness, prompting the physician to
perform a lumbar puncture. CSF values indicate
elevated lymphocytes, elevated proteins, and
normal glucose. A CT image confirms encephalitis
localized to the temporal lobes. A diagnosis is
confirmed by PCR of the CSF. The physician
begins treatment with acyclovir and informs the
patient that he may suffer permanent neurological
abnormalities from the infection. Which of the
following is the mostly likely cause?
a) Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1)
b) Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2)
c) Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
d) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
f) Herpes lymphotropic virus (HHV-6) and Human
herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)
g) Kaposi sarcoma-related virus (HHV-8)
60 – Orthomyxoviruses
1.1) Which of the following is NOT true for
influenza viruses?
a) Envelope contains hemagglutinin (HA)
b) Envelope contains neuraminidase (NA)
c) Envelope lined with two M proteins
d) Capsid symmetry is pleomorphic (spherical or
tubular)
e) Influenza A, B, and C have 8 genomic segments
1.2) Which of the following is true for influenza
viruses?
a) Double-stranded DNA
b) Double-stranded RNA
c) Single-stranded positive-sense RNA
d) Single-stranded negative-sense RNA
e) Not a DNA or RNA virus
2) Which of the following is true in comparing
influenza A to influenza B?
a) A has antigenic drift and shift, affects a mixture of
animal and human
b) A has antigenic shift, affects only humans
c) B has antigenic drift and shift, affects a mixture of
animal and human
d) B has antigenic shift, affects only humans
e) A has antigenic drift, affects only humans
3.1) Given an influenza virus
A/Bangkok/1/79/(H3N2), what does 1/79 stand for?
a) The type of influenza virus
b) The location it was originally isolated
c) The date it was originally isolated (January, 1979)
d) The virulence ration (one person can infect 79
others)
e) The antigens present
3.2) Given an influenza virus
A/Bangkok/1/79/(H3N2), what does (H3N2) stand
for?
a) The type of influenza virus
b) The location it was originally isolated (latitude,
longitude)
Microbiology Quiz
Version: 03Jun2008 Page 61 of 66
c) The date it was originally isolated (January, 1979)
d) The virulence ration (one person can infect 79
others)
e) The antigens present
4) Influenza virus B ____ accomplish antigenic shift
and therefore ____ cause pandemics, unlike
Influenza virus A.
a) Can; Can
b) Can; Cannot
c) Cannot; Cannot
d) Cannot; Can
5) How is influenza transmitted?
a) Aerosols from cold, dry air such as outdoors in the
winter
b) Aerosols from person-to-person such as from
coughing
c) Fecal-oral such as from a cook that does not wash
their hands
d) Vector-borne such as from lice
e) Water-borne such as from drinking contaminated
fluids
6.1) Which of the following is the least likely clinical
syndrome associated with influenza viral
infections?
a) “Seal bark” cough in children (croup)
b) Fever persisting for 3-8 days
c) Otitis media in children
d) Malaise, headache, and myalgia
e) Secondary bacterial pneumonia
7.2) Which of the following is true regarding the
drugs zanamivir and oseltmivir?
a) Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus
but do not affect the influenza B and C viruses
b) Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of the
neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does not
affect the influenza B and C viruses
c) Inhibit an uncoating step of both influenza A and B
virus but do not affect the influenza B and C viruses
d) Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzyme inhibitors
of the neuraminidase, preventing virus release
8.1) The influenza vaccine (killed, formulin-
inactived) is available annually and contains the
most likely strain(s) to be present for the upcoming
season. How many strains of influenza are included
in common vaccinations?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) Tens
e) Hundreds
8.2) Due to the growth process of the influenza
vaccine, people allergic to which of the following
should avoid the vaccine due to possible allergic
reaction?
a) Peanuts
b) Shellfish
c) Wheat
d) Soy
e) Eggs

6.2) Which of the following increases the risk of

Reye syndrome, which is acute encephalitis
affecting children after acute febrile viral
infections?
a) Aspirin
b) Tylenol
c) Ibuprofen
d) Antibiotics
e) Influenza vaccination

7.1) Which of the following is true regarding the

drugs amantidine and rimantidine?
a) Inhibit an uncoating step of the influenza A virus
but do not affect the influenza B and C viruses
b) Inhibit influenza A as enzyme inhibitors of the
neuraminidase, preventing virus release but does not
affect the influenza B and C viruses
c) Inhibit an uncoating step of both influenza A and B
virus but do not affect the influenza B and C viruses
d) Inhibit both influenza A and B as enzyme inhibitors
of the neuraminidase, preventing virus release
 Saudi council examination ( bacteriology *pugs
questions ) *sand fly
Choose the correct answer:
(11) to investigate one sample containing floro-
(1) the best anti coagulant in blood culture is? carbon we use which microscope?
*sodium oxalate *light microscope
*sodium citrates *brilliant microscope
*sodium sulphate *florescent microscope

(2) all the following samples are stained using (12) virus is similar to live organisms in?
gram stain except? *growth
*water culture *movement
*sputum *reproduction
*stool
(13) the largest resolution of the microscope is?
(3) the percentage of sodium chloride in agar *0.02microns
culture is? *2.0microns
*0.058% *0.2microns
*58.0%
*0.58% (14) which of the following causing enlargement
of RBCs?
(4) agar is characterized by all the following *reticulocytes
except? *leishmania
*freezing point is 42c & melting point is 100c *plasmodium
*nutritive
*un-nutritive (15) the best sample for the culture of children
paralysis virus is?
(5) gram stain starts with? *anal swab
*iodine *blood culture
*crystal green *stool culture
*methyl violet /
(16) dry air oven is used to sterilize?
(6) the causative of toxoplasma is? *water
*flees *culture media
*dogs *sand
*cats
(17) to differentiate between the two streptococci
(7) gram negative samples are stained with? group which enzyme is used?
*yellow color *coagulase
*blue color *kinase
*red color *catalase

(8) the color of cholera when cultured on TCBS? (18) the microscope which used in investigate
*blue syphilis is?
*green *light microscope
*yellow *ultra-violet microscope
*dark field microscope
(9) the diameter of micro pore filter used in
bacteria filtration is? (19) the antibiotic disc which differentiate
*0.033microns between group A streptococci and other groups is?
*2.2microns *neomycin
*0.22microns *tetracycline
*bacitracin
(10) leishmania is transported by?
*mosquitoes (20) all of the following is true for salmonella
except? *schistosoma haematobium
*motile
*produces H2S (31) the significant count of bacteria to be
*oxidase positive inflammation is?
*less than 10^5
(21) the nutritive substance in culture media is? *more than 10^3
*sugar *more than 10^5
*starch
*agar (32) to investigate gram stained samples we use
the following microscope?
(22) the best media for urin culture is? *double phase microscope
*blood agar *florescent microscope
*chocolate agar *light microscope
*cled agar
(33) all the following bacteria are interobacter
(23) the sterilization of autoclave is? except?
*85c for 30min *E.coli
*150c for 30min *proteus
*121c for 15min *non of the previous

(24) shigella soni colored in maconkey & EMB? (34) in the microscope when using objective lens
*colorless 10 & eye lens 10 the magnification power of the
*red microscope is?
*pink *10
*1000
(25) the oil emertion lens is *100
*10
*40 (35) all the following parameters affecting gram
*100 staning except?
*use H2SO4
(26) the dwarf worm is? *add absolute alcohol after washing
*schistosoma *delaying the dryness of the slide
*tenia saginata
*H.nana (36) malaria chizonts are present in?
*reticulo-endothelial
(27) all of the following are present in gram stain *leukocyte
except? *RBCs
*safranine
*iodine (37) solidifying agent in culture media is?
*malachite green *wax
*starch
(28) the diagnostic stage of amoeba is? *agar
*cyst
*trophozoite (38) agar which used as a solidifying agent in
*all previous culture media concentration is?
*5-9%
(29) to check the intestinal efficacy the following *4-9%
test is done? *1-2%
*pepsin
*lipase (39) to sterilize culture media we use?
*stool fats *boiling
*hot oven
(30) the worm that causes blood in urin? *autoclave
*ascaris
*fasciola (40) when focusing a stained smear under oil
immersion field the magnification is? (50) the label in ELISA tests is?
*10 *radio active substance
*40 *antibody
*100 *enzyme
(51) polio myeletis is transmitted through?
(41) generally diagnosed by recovery & *skin
identification of typical larva in stool? *respiration
*hook worms *feco-oral
*t.trichura
*s.stercoralis (52) malaria does not grow in?
*EDTA blood
(42) enlarged RBCs are common in? *heparin zed blood
*p.malaria *plasma
*p.falciparum
*p.vivax (53) serious that causes food poisoning?
*staph albus
(43) which of the following is not laying eggs in *salmonella typhi
small intestine? *salmonella enteritidis
*hook worm
*t.saginata (54) which of the following causes UTI & INDOL
*pin worm positive?
*klebsiella
(44) blood sample is used to diagnose? *staphylococci
*C.tetani *E.coli
*C.diphteria
*non from them (55) blood transfusion can transmit?
*HIV
(45) how much water should we add to 500ml of a *CMV
solution of 10% of NAOH to bring it to 7.5%? *all of the previous
*666
*250 (56) amoeba moves by?
*166 *cilia
*flagella
(46) a standard micro plates in ELISA test has? *pseudopodia
*98 wells
*94 wells (57) one of the following is capsulated bacteria?
*96 wells *streptococci
*E.coli
(47) the enzyme in ELISA testing is present in *klebsiella
the?
*buffer
*micro plate
*conjugate

(48) antigen antibody complex are?

*weakly bound
*no bounds
*strongly bound

(49) washing must be done in all heterogeneous

ELISA technique because?
*increase the specificity
*increase the sensitivity
*it removes the excess binding
2012/1/21 ‫اﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﺧﺘﺒﺎر ﯾﻮم‬ c. Ova
‫اﻻﺳﺋﻠﺔ‬ d. Sporozoites
7. B- cell produce e. Larva
a. Antibodies
b. Cytokines 96. Hypoglycemic hormones
c. Sugar a. Amylase
d. Toxic b. Insulin
e. Interferon c. Lipase
d. Glycogene
11. Fixed tissue macrophages are e. Trypsin
a. Basophiles
b. Monocyts ‫ھذا اﻟﺳؤال ﻟﻌب ﻓﻲ ﺣﺳﺑﺗﮫ ﻏﯾر ﻓﻲ اﻟﺳؤال واﻻﺟوﺑﺔ‬
c. Lymphocytes 99 ‫اﻓﮭﻣوا ﺗﻣﺎﻣﺎ ﺳؤال‬
d. Neutrophils 99. A cervical not a vaginal swab is required for the
e. Eosinophils. most successful isolation from women’s
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
16. Gram positive rods give gray colony color b. N.gonorrhoea
a. Bacillus anthraces c. S.hematobium
b. E.coli d. Ascaris lumbercoid
10
c. Shigella ‫ ﺳﺎﻟﻧﻲ اﯾش ﻟون اﻟﺗﯾوب اﻟﻠﻲ ﯾﺳﺗﺧدم ﻓﻲ اﻟﻛﻣﯾﺳﺗري ﺷﺎﯾﻔﯾن‬102 ‫ﺳؤال‬
d. Mycobacterium ‫ﻛﯾف اﻟﻠف‬
102. Heparin tube color
17. Anticoagulant used in W.B.Cs counting
a. Red
a. Sodium citrate
b. Blue
b. Ammonium oxalate
c. Green
c. SPS
d. Yellow
d. EDITA
e. Heparin
‫ ﺧﻠﻰ اﻟﺳؤال ﺟواب وﺧﻠﻰ اﻟﺟﺎﺑﺔ ﻓﻲ اﻟﺳؤال وﻏﯾر ﻓﻲ‬108 ‫ﺳؤال‬
‫اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات‬
31. Infective stage of Taenia:
108. HAV virus transmitted
a. Larva
a. Blood
b. Cercaria
b. Sexually
c. Embryonated egg
c. Feco-oral
d. Cysticercus
d. ALL
e. Metacercaria

‫ ﺛﺎﻧﯾﺔ‬50-40 ‫ ﻏﯾر ﻓﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎر ﯾﻌﻧﻲ ﻗﺎل ﻣن‬111 ‫ﺣﺗﻰ ﺳؤال‬

57. Taenia saginata diagnostic by
111. Normal plasma clot APTT
a. Gravid segment
a. 36 – 50 Sec.
b. Ova in stool
b. 1 – 16 Sec.
c. Cyst
c. 12 – 15 Sec.
d. Trophozoite
d. 1 – 4 min
e. Larva in stool.

‫ ﺟﺎﺑﮫ ﺑطرﯾﻘﺔ ﻏرﯾﺑﺔ‬128 ‫ﺣﺗﻰ ﺳؤال‬

60. Infective stage in malaria
Cells not contain nucleus.128
a. Cyst
a. Erythrocyte=RBC
b. Trophozoit
b. Leukocyte d. leishmania Mexicana
c. Platelets
d. blast cell 180. Eosinphil raised in the following except?
a. Allergic
137. Which the following catheters collect urine b. Parasitic disease
specimen in prolonged period c. Hodgkin disease
a. Hard d. Bacterial disease
b. Soft
c. Italian 183. Factor I of blood clotting is:
d. Foley a. Christmas factor
b. Fibrinogen
c. Prothrombin
‫ ﺟﺎب ﻣﻧﮫ ﺳؤاﻟﯾن وﻏﯾر ﻓﻲ اﻻﺟوﺑﺔ وﺻراﺣﺔ اﻧﺎ ﻣرة ﺣﺳت‬151 ‫ﺳؤال‬ d. Thromboplastin
‫ﻟﻛن اﺗب ﻟﻛم ﻛﯾف ﺟﺎﺗﻧﻲ اﻻﺟوﺑﺔ‬
151. Genital disease can caused by the following 220. Westrgren test used for
a. Gonorrhea only a. ESR
b. Trichomonas only b. HB
c. Gonorrhea & trichomonas c. AG-AB reaction
d. Non of the above d. PT
‫ﺑس ﻓﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﺑﺎر ﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﻛذا‬
151. Genital disease can caused by the following 228. The main site of production of ATP in the cell is the
a. Gonorrhea only 66
b. Trachomatis only a. Cell wall
c. Gonorrhea & trachomatis b. Cell membrane
d. Non of the above c. Cytoplasm
‫ وﷲ اﻋﻠم‬a ‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت‬ d. Mitochondria

238. A pheresis is the collection of

161. Transmit through sexual intercourse a. CSF
a. Tricurus tricura b. Bone marrow aspiration
b. N.gonorrhoea& Trichomonas vaginalis c. Blood component
c. Sternglyoids stercuralis d. 24 h. urine
d. S.hematobium
‫ﺣﺗﻰ ھذا اﻟﺳؤال اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﺟﺎﺗﻧﻲ ﻛذا‬ 241. Bordetalla pertussis is the cause of
a. Gonorrhea only e. Scarlet fever
b. Trachomatis only a. Whopping chough
c. Gonorrhea & trachomatis b. Rheumatic fever
d. Non of the above c. Pneumonia
‫ وﷲ اﻋﻠم‬a ‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت‬
243. Blood collected on plain tube (without
‫ﻓﻲ ھذا اﻟﺳؤال ﺟﺎﺑﻠﻲ اﺳم اﻟﻣرض اﻟﺗﺎﻧﻲ اﻟﻠﻲ ﯾﺳﺑﺑﮫ ﻧﻔس اﻟطﻔﯾل اﻟل ھو‬ anticoagulant) must
cause of visceral a. Be incubate at 37c for 30 min
176. Cause Kala- azar: b. Not be clotted
a. leishmania tropica c. Be hemolysed
b. leishmania braziliense d. Be mixed
c. leishmania donovani
‫ﻏﯾر ﻓﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات‬
251. Thrombocytopenia sees in: 334. Tubes used in sugar analysis
a. Megaloplastic anemia a. Brown
b. APlastic anemia b. Blue
c. Iron deficiency c. Red
d. Pernicious anemia d. Green

269. In the formol-ether technique the parasite found 342. All of the following bacteria cell components
in: except
a. ether layer a. Cell wall
b. formol layer b. Cell membrane
c. sediment c. Cytoplasm
d. Fecal deprise d. Pilli
e. Mitochondria
‫ ﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﻧﻔس اﻟﺻﯾﻐﺔ ﺗﻣﺎﻣﺎ‬304 ‫ﺳؤال‬
304. Pathogen should do:- 345. Eye swab cultur in
a. Infect-transmitted-Reproduce a. MaCconky
b. Reproduce- Infect-Tans b. CLED
c. transmitted – Infect – Reproduce c. Chocolate
d. ALL d. XLD
e. Non above
350. Heprenized syringe use to collect __________
‫ھذا اﻟﺳؤال ﺟﺎﻧﻲ ﺑﺎﻟﺗﻣﺎم‬ sample
307. In chemistry lab use:- a. Synovial
a. Green tube b. CSF
b. Red tube c. Venous
c. Blue tube d. Arterial
d. Lavender
400. The (u) unit use to evaluation?
315. We done the following exam for donor except:- a. Protein in serum
a. HIV b. Hemoglobin
b. HCV c. Hormone assay
c. H BV d. Enzymatic activity
d. H AV
403. Non streptococci:
335. To differentiate between hemophilia A and B a. S.pyogenes
a. Leukocyte count b. S.agalatiate
b. Factor assay c. S.aureus
c. PT and PTT assay d. S.pneumonia
d. All of the above

349. Food poisoning caused by

a. Closteridium tetani 2012/9/17 ‫اﺧﺘﺒﺎر اﺧﺼﺎﺋﻲ ﻣﺨﺘﺒﺮات طﺒﯿﺔ‬
b. E.coli
c. Cambylobacter ‫ﺑﺳم ﷲ اﻟرﺣﻣن اﻟرﺣﯾم‬
d. Closteridium perfringens ‫وﺑﮫ ﻧﺳﺗﻌﯾن‬
‫اﻟﻠﮭم وﻓﻘﻧﺎ ﻓﻲ اﻣﺗﺣﺎﻧﻧﺎ وأﻟﮭﻣﻧﺎ ﻓﯾﮫ اﻟﺻواب واﺟز ﻋن ھذا اﻟﻌﻣل ﺑﻔﺿﻠك‬ organisms to appear different than other colonies.
‫ﺧﯾر اﻟﺟزاء ﻷھﻠﮫ وأﺻﺣﺎﺑﮫ‬
Media that contains agents that inhibit all but one
specific organism.
All of the following are sources of serum alkaline
phosphatase except: Encourages the growth of specific types of organisms.
Liver Feedback
Placenta Enrichment- Media which encourages the growth of
Intestine specific types of organisms.
Differential- Media which contains certain factors that
Brain allow colonies of specific organisms to appear different
Feedback than other colonies.
The source of elevated alkaline phosphatase can be Selective- Media that contains agents that inhibit all but
identified by electrophoresis of tissue specific one specific organism.
isoenzymes at alkaline pH. Liver and bone are the most --------------------------------------------------------------------------
commonly identified isoenzymes ------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- Expected life span of a neutrophil in the peripheral
------------------------- blood of an adult is:
A patient with atypical (reactive) lymphocytes in his 3 days
peripheral blood smear should be tested for: 1 day
Herpes simplex virus infection 2 hours
Epstein-Barr virus infection 6 hours
Bacterial meningitis Feedback
Acute leukemia Neutrophil reside in the peripheral circulation for only a
Feedback few hours ( approx. 2 hours) before entering the tissues
Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis, and body cavities
which is associated with atypical (reactive) ---------------------------------------------------------------------
lymphocytosis Bacteria which require oxygen for proper growth are
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- termed:
------ Obligate anaerobes
If greater than 50% lymphocytes were found on the Obligate aerobes
peripheral blood smear of a 5 month old child you Facultative anaerobes
would suspect which of the following conditions: Microaeropiles
Acute viral infection Feedback
Immune deficiency syndrome Bacteria which require oxygen for proper growth are
Normal finding termed obligate aerobes. These organisms will only
Infectious hepatitis grow in the presence of oxygen, usually because their
Feedback metabolic processes require it.
45 to 75% of the WBCs normally seen in the peripheral Which one of the following organisms do not typically
blood of infants are lymphocytes stain with an acid-fast stain, or one of its variants:
-------------------------------------------------------------(1)---------- Mycobacterium
---------- Cryptosporidium
Match the type of media from the drop down box with Actinomyces israelii
the phrase listed below that best describes that media: Nocardia
Feedback
Contains certain factors that allow colonies of specific Mycobacterium, Cryptosporidium, and Nocardia each
stain with a form of acid-fast stain. The only choice
listed that does not is Actinomyces israelii; therefore
this is the correct answer.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------
Which one of the following statements about TSH is
true:
It is decreased in primary hyperthyroidism
It is decreased in primary hypothyroidism
A sensitive TSH assay is not a good screening test for
thyroid function
Diffuse toxic goiter is associated with elevated TSH
levels.
Feedback
A sensitive TSH assay is now considered the most cost
effective method of screening for thyroid disorders. In
the absence of pituitary and hypothalamic disease, TSH
is decreased in hyperthroidism. and increased in
hypothyroidism, with few exceptions. Diffuse toxic
goiter is a cause of primary hyperthyroidism, and would
be associated with decreased TSH.
-----------------------------------------------------------------
Match deficiency states with their respective vitamins.
Night blindness
Beriberi
Rickets
Scurvy
Feedback
Thiamine deficiency can cause Beriberi. Vitamin C
deficiency can cause Scurvy. Vitamin A deficiency can
cause night blindness. Vitamin D deficiency can cause
rickets.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------
Rh immune globulin therapy in postpartum women
provides:
Long term protection
Antibody blocking
Passive protection
Active immunity
Feedback
Protection against alloimmunization is only for the
recent pregnancy. There is of course no long term
protection against the development of Rh antibodies if
the patient is exposed again in the future.
-------------------------------------------------------------
The classification of Du refers to:
Weakly reacting antigen forms of D
Weakly reacting anti-D antibodies
Rh(D) negative blood
Other subgroups of the Rh system (i.e. C, E)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
Which one of the following tests would be positive in
the presence of Klebsiella:
Methyl red test
Coagulase test
CAMP test
Voges-Proskauer test
Feedback
A positive Voges-Proskauer test indicates the
production of acetoin. It is converted to diacetyl, which
is subsequently converted to a red complex in the
presence of creatine and naphthol. An organism which
is Voges-Proskauer positive is usually methyl-red
negative and vice versa. Enterobacter, Klebsiella,
Serratia and Hafnia are usually Voges-Proskauer
positive.
-----------------------------------------------------------
The INR (international normalized ratio) is calculated
using the following formula: INR=(PT patient / PT
normal) raised to the _____.
ISI
Feedback
The correct answer is the ISI, or the International
Sensitivity Index. Manufacturers assign an ISI to each
batch of thromboplastin reagent after comparing it to a
"working reference" reagent preparation. This working
reference has been calibrated against an internationally
accepted standard reference preparations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
---
The red/pink color of the colonies seen on this
MacConkey agar plate is an indication of:
gram positive bacilli
non-lactose fermenters Factor X

gram negative bacilli Factor VIII

√√
lactose fermenters Factor VII
Feedback √√
On MacConkey agar, lactose fermenters will produce a Factor IX
pink-colored pigment which is present in the image Feedback
below. The gram stain status of these organisms cannot Hemophilia B is a sex-linked recessive disorder
be established with the growth on the plate. characterized by deficiency of Factor IX. It is much less
---------------------------------------------------------- common that Factor VIII deficiency.
Which of the following is most commonly associated ----------------------------------------------------------
with febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions: TIBC (total iron-binding capacity) is an indirect
measurement of which of the following:
Bacterial contamination of the blood
Ferritin
I.V. tubing contaminants
Hemoglobin
Reaction to plasma proteins
√√ Ceruloplasmin
Immune response to leukocytes √√
Transferrin
Feedback Feedback
The immune response in the recipient to donor Transferrin binds iron in the serum, and is proportional
leukocytes present in a blood product is most to total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Transferrin(mg/dl)
commonly associated with febrile, non-hemolytic = 0.7 X TIBC (ug/dl)
transfusion reactions Materials such as strong acids and bases are classified
---------------------------------------------------------- as:
Match each virus with its appropriate nucleic acid √√
content. Corrosives

Paramyxovirus Chemical irritants

Rhabdovirus Flammable liquids

Poxvirus Carcinogens
Feedback
Orthomyxovirus Corrosives are any liquid or solid that causes visible
Feedback destruction or irreversible alteration in human skin
Paramyxovirus: RNA tissue at the site of contact, or a liquid that has a severe
Rhabdovirus: RNA corrosion rate on steel. The term “corrosive” includes
Poxvirus: DNA all items commonly referred to as acids and most strong
Orthomyxovirus: RNA bases as well.
---------------------------------------------------------- Sheep blood agar contains inhibitors to which of the
Hemophilia B or Christmas disease is the result of a following organisms:
hereditary deficiency in which coagulation factor: √√
Haemophilus Alpha-fetoprotein

Staphylococcus Beta HCG

Streptococcus Feedback
PSA, or prostate specific antigen = Prostate
Listeria CEA, or Carcinoembryonic Antigen = Colon
Feedback beta hCG, or Human chorionic gonadotropin = Testicles
Sheep Blood Agar contains NADase which destroys the AFP, or Alpha-fetoprotein = Liver
NAD (V factor) required by Haemophilus for growth. All of the following are benefits of autologous donation
except:
Identify the cell in this illustration indicated by the
arrow: Reduces exposure to infectious agents
√√
Metamyelocyte Are always on hand in case of an unexpected
emergency
Segmented neutrophil
√√ Reduces demand for homologous blood
Lymphocyte
Eliminates sensitization to cellular blood components
Monocyte Feedback
Feedback Autologous units must be drawn before they are
Lymphocytes are generally the smallest normal WBC needed, and must be readily available, therefore are
seen in the peripheral blood. generally not of use in emergencies.
Which of the following cells is the most common
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best nucleated cell in normal adult bone marrow?
characterized by which of the following:
Myeloblast
Positive cAMP test
Promyelocyte
Optochin sensitivity
Myelocyte
Bile esculin-hydrolysis √√
√√ Metamyelocyte
Bacitracin sensitivity Feedback
Feedback Metamyelocytes constitute 15 - 20% of the nucleated
Group B streptococci are characterized by a positive cells in the normal bone marrow.
cAMP test. Streptococcus pneumoniae is characterized Myeloblasts constitute <3% of the nucleated cells;
by Optochin susceptibility Enterococci are positive by promyelocytes, <2% of the nucleated cells; ; and
the bile-esculin test. myelocytes constitute approximately 10% of the
Match the tumor markers below with their nucleated cells in a normal bone marrow.
corresponding sites of tumor origin. Which of the following factors is not involved in the
initial contact phase of the intrinsic pathway:
CEA
Factor XII
PSA
Fitzgerald Factor (high-molecular weight kininogen)
 √√
Fletcher Factor (prekallikrein) Parkinson's disease
√√
Factor X CVAcerebrovascular accedent
Feedback ----------------------------------------------------------
Fitzgerald and Fletcher Factors are required to complete The disk diffusion method of measuring antimicrobial
activation of Factor XII during the contact phase. sensitivity is also termed:
----------------------------------------------------------
Tube dilution
Which of the following conditions is associated with √√
elevated serum uric acid levels: Kirby-Bauer

Cushing's syndrome Gel diffusion

Pancreatitis Tube titer

Hyperthyroidism Feedback
√√ Still widely used, the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion
Gout technique is a rapid, inexpensive method of testing
Feedback several antibiotics against a single isolate.
Gout is a disease manifested by the deposition of ----------------------------------------------------------
crystalline uric acid in joints and soft tissues, with Adult (normal) Hemoglobin is made up of the following
secondary inflammation and pain. composition:
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following terms would be used to express >90% HbA, 5%HbF, 1% HbA2
the middle value in a series of results: √√
>95% HbA, <3.5% HbA2, <1-2% HbF
Mean
√√ <90% HbA, 10% HbA2, 5% HbF
Median
>90% HbA, 1% HbA2, 5-10% HbF
Mode Feedback
Adult Hemoglobin is made up predominantly of HbA
Standard error with only small amounts (< 1-2 %) of HbF (fetal
Feedback hemoglobin).
Median is the middle value in a series of numbers. ----------------------------------------------------------
The lecethin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) is used to
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- assess:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- Fetal neurological development
-------- √√
Elevation in CSF total protein may be seen in all of the Fetal lung maturity
following conditions except:
Fetal viability
Brain tumors Fetal liver development
Feedback
Bacterial meningitis An L/S ratio above 2:1 indicates mature lung
development, whereas a ratio below 1.5:1 indicates with patient serum to detect antibodies circulating in
pulmonary immaturity the patient which can react with the reagent cell
---------------------------------------------------------- antigens.
Which of the following antibodies is predominantly ----------------------------------------------------------
associated with the secondary antibody response: Which one of the following is not a system for
√√ incubation of anaerobic bacteria:
IgG √√
Candle jar
IgA
Glove box anaerobic chamber
IgM
Anaerobic jar - gaspak
IgD Anaerobic jar - evacuation replacement
Feedback ----------------------------------------------------------
IgG - Secondary immune response IgM - Primary The normal range for urine pH is:
immune response
---------------------------------------------------------- 4.6 to 5.0
5.0 to 6.0
Choose the term that describes the most prominent
finding in this peripheral smear: 7.0 to 8.0
√√
Rouleaux All of the Above
Feedback
Normal RBCs Normal urine pH varies from 4.6 to 8.0. After meals,
√√ urine becomes more alkaline due to gastric acid
Anisocytosis secretion (alkaline tide). At night due to shallow
Feedback breathing, it becomes more acid. A high meat diet
Anisocytosis is a variation in the size of the red blood results in a more acid urine than a vegetarian diet, due
cells. This slide shows poikilocytosis, but anisocytosis is to excretion of phosphates and sulfates
more prominent here. ----------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------- The most frequent genotype among Rho (D) -negative
Match the correct components with their appropriate persons is:
grouping:
r' r
Patient Red Cells
r' r"
Reagent Red Cells √√
Rr
Reagent Antisera √√
r'r'
Patient Serum Feedback
Feedback rr is the most frequent genotype among Rh-negative
In the forward grouping, patients red cells are combined individuals. The genotype symbolized a lack of the D
with reagent antisera to detect antigens present on the (Rh) gene.
patient's red cells. ----------------------------------------------------------
In the reverse grouping, reagent red cells are combined Which of the following observations would best explain
why a peripheral blood smear is exhibiting Hematuria indicates the presence of red blood cells in
polychromasia: the urine
----------------------------------------------------------
Lower RBC count Which factor(s) are important to consider in the
√√ validation of test results on acutely intoxicated patients:
Increased reticulocyte count √√
Condition of the specimen
Decreased hematocrit √√
Increased hemoglobin concentration Quantity of specimen available
Feedback √√
Reticulocytes contain residual RNA which gives a bluish Timing of the specimen
hue to RBCs when they are stained. √√
Type of specimen submitted
---------------------------------------------------------- ----------------------------------------------------------
The most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in older False negative results may occur with both the direct
adults is: and indirect antiglobulin tests as a result of all of the
√√ following except:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis Undercentrifugation
Delay in adding antiglobulin reagent
Haemophilus influenzae
Failure to adequately wash cells
Escherichia coli √√
Feedback Agglutination of red cells prior to addition of
H. influenzae type b usually causes meningitis in infants antiglobulin reagent
and children. N. meningitidis usually causes meningitis Feedback
in children and young adults. Streptococcus Agglutination of red cells prior to addition of
pneumoniae usually causes meningitis in adults. Other antiglobulin reagent due to cold autoantibodies would
organisms can also cause bacterial meningitis, give a "false" positive result, not a false negative. In this
particularly Group B streptococci, and Listeria case, the washed red cell sample will agglutinate prior
monocytogenes in infants and adults, and E. coli in to addition of antiglobulin.
infants. ----------------------------------------------------------
To prepare 500 ml of a 5 % NaOH Solution how many
---------------------------------------------------------- grams of NaOH is required:
5 grams
An increased number of these cells, when found upon
microscopic examination of urine is termed: 10 grams
√√
Glycosuria 25 grams
√√
Hematuria 50 grams
Feedback
Uremia A percent solution is prepared by combining grams of
material (i.e NaOH) per 100ml of solvent
Normal urine ----------------------------------------------------------
Feedback Which of the following would be the most characteristic
finding in synovial fluid in a case of pseudogout:
CAP
Monosodium urate crystals
√√ JCAHO
Calcium pyrophosphate crystals Feedback
The centers of disease control (CDC) develops
Macrophage infiltration guidelines and public health policy. It does not directly
Mixed RBC/WBC infiltration regulate laboratories
Feedback ----------------------------------------------------------
Calcium pyrophosphate crystals are characteristic of Match type of media on the right with media on the
pseudogout. left:
----------------------------------------------------------
Gram positive organisms Blood agar
√√
resist acetone-alcohol decolorization Phenylethylalcohol agar

are always decolorized by acetone-alcohol Selenite broth

Feedback
resist staining by crystal violet Blood agar- Nonselective media
readily stain with safranin in the Gram stain Phenylethylalcohol agar- Selective media
Feedback Selenite broth- Enrichment media
Gram positive organisms resist decolorization with ----------------------------------------------------------
acetone-alcohol. Gram negative organisms are Which of the following cells are capable of producing
decolorized, and subsequently stain with safranin. antibodies and lymphokines:
----------------------------------------------------------
A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the Thrombocytes
following:
Macrophages
Ferrous iron and four globin chains √√
√√ Lymphocytes
Four heme and four globin chains
Four heme and one globin chains Granulocytes
Feedback
One heme and four globin chains Lymphokines are biologically active molecules produced
Feedback by lymphocytes in response to specific stimulants
A normal hemoglobin molecule consists of a tetramer ----------------------------------------------------------
with a molecular weight of 64,500 daltons. The Which two of the following crystalline elements are
constituent monomers are each composed of one heme found in acid urine:
molecule, and one polypeptide globin chain. √√
---------------------------------------------------------- Cystine
Which one of the following does not directly regulate
clinical laboratories: Triple phosphate

HCFA Calcium phosphate

√√ √√
CDC Tyrosine
Feedback
Crystals and sediment found in acid urine include: Macrocytic cells
cystine, leucine, calcium oxalate, sodium urate,
sulfonamide, tyrosine, uric acid, and amorphous urates. Hypochromic cells
---------------------------------------------------------- Feedback
Which of the following microscopic techniques is best Normal red cells are uniformly shaped and sized with 2-
suited for direct examination of the infectious agent of 3mm of central pallor.
syphilis? ----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following would be considered the
Light microscopy definitive host of a parasite:

Phase microscopy Humans

√√
Darkfield microscopy Insect vector

Electron microscopy First host infected by the parasite

Feedback
Darkfield microscopy allows a lower limit of resolution
than bright-field microscopy which helps the tiny
spirochetes to be seen in patient samples. In darkfield
microscpy, there is a dark background where directly
transmitted light is excluded by a dark-field condenser
allowing only scattered light to be focused on the
specimen. With dark-field microscopy bacteria appear
luminous against a dark background.
----------------------------------------------------------
The proper storage requirements for granulocyte
concentrates is:
1 - 6 degrees Celsius, < 12 hours
- 20 degrees Celsius, 48 hours
1 - 6 degrees Celsius, < 24 hours
√√
20 - 24 degrees Celsius, < 24 hours
Feedback
Granulocytes may be stored at 20-24 degrees Celsius for
up to 24 hours, but should be transfused as soon as
possible.
----------------------------------------------------------
√√
Host in which mature parasites develop
Feedback
A parasite's definitive host is defined as the host in
which sexual reproduction occurs.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------
The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is
found in which of the following genetic models:
Landsteiner
Wiener
√√
Fisher -Race
Rhesus
Feedback
Fisher and Race first proposed the existence of the
three closely linked genes, and used the DCE
terminology to describe their theory.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------
HLA-A and HLA-B antigens can be detected using which
of the following techniques?

The RBCs seen in this illustration are indicative of: Standard crossmatch
√√ √√
Normal cells Lymphocyte cytotoxicity

Microcytic cells Immunofluorescent staining

Mixed lymphocyte cultures Factor VIII- Anti-hemophiliac factor
Feedback Factor IX- Christmas factor
HLA-A and B antigens are detected by mixing the Factor X- Stuart factor
lymphocytes being tested with known HLA antisera and ----------------------------------------------------------
complement and then measuring the cell lysis Which of the following is not a structural component of
(leukocytoxicity) that occurs. a typical virion:
The term used to describe patients with absence of Rh
antigens is: Nucleoprotein core

Rhd Capsid ****l

√√
Rhnull Lipid envelope
√√
Rhmod Icosahedral symmetry
Feedback
Rho An intact viral particle typically consists of a
Feedback nucleoprotein core, capsomeres making up the capsid,
Rhnull individuals have no Rh antigens. Rhmod and a lipid envelope (absent in some viruses). The
individuals show reduced and varied reactivity with Rh symmetry of a virus is usually icosahedral, or helical.
antigens ----------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------- Fresh frozen plasma should be used for which of the
What does the YELLOW color on the NFPA diamond following:
represent: Platelet replacement
A health hazard √√
Coagulation deficiencies
A fire hazard
√√ Volume replacement
A reactivity hazard
Albumin replacement
A special section Feedback
Feedback FFP, or fresh frozen plasma, should be used to treat
Red = Fire hazard Yellow = Reactivity hazard Blue = coagulation defiencies- though the levels of factors V
Health hazard White = Specific hazard and VIII are usually decreased in FFP units. FFP is not
---------------------------------------------------------- used for platelet replacement as there are virtually no
Match clotting factor with its commonly associated platelets in FFP units. FFP should never be used as a
Name: volume expander, unless traumatic bleeding is taking
place. Finally, FFP is not used to replace albumin in
Stable factor recipients.
----------------------------------------------------------
Anti-hemophiliac factor Which one of the following statements about the
Hepatitis B vaccine is correct?
Christmas factor
It is not effective in the majority of cases.
Stuart factor √√
Feedback It is safe, with minimal side effects.
Factor VII- Stable factor
Your employer may charge you a reasonable fee to Which of the following forms of calcium is biologically
provide it. active:

It consists of a single shot given in the buttocks. Protein-bound calcium

----------------------------------------------------------
Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the Non-ionized calcium
following conditions: Calcium carbonate
√√ √√
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid Free ionized calcium
Feedback
Hyperthyroidism Ionized calcium is important in physiologic functions
such as coagulation and neuromuscular conductivity.
Glioblastoma ----------------------------------------------------------
Adrenal adenoma The normal range for urine pH is:
000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 √√
00000 0000000000000000 4.6 to 8.0
000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000
00000 0000000000000000 5.0 to 6.0
Feedback
Serum calcitonin is normally produced by the C cells of 7.0 to 8.0
the thyroid. It functions to reduce serum calcium by
inhibiting release of calcium from bone. It is a peptide none of the above
with a molecular weight of 3400, and has a half life of Feedback
approximately 12 minutes. It is characteristically Depending on the person's acid-base status, the pH of
elevated in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Since urine may range from 4.5 to 8. The kidneys maintain
medullary carcinoma often occurs as an autosomal normal acid-base balance primarily through the
disorder, family members of patients with this condition reabsorption of sodium and the tubular secretion of
should be screened for serum calcitonin. hydrogen and ammonium ions. Urine becomes
---------------------------------------------------------- increasingly acidic as the amount of sodium and excess
The normal range for urine pH is: acid retained by the body increases. Alkaline urine,
usually containing bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer, is
4.6 to 5.0 normally excreted when there is an excess of base or
alkali in the body. Secretion of an acid or alkaline urine
5.0 to 6.0 by the kidneys is one of the most important
mechanisms the body uses to maintain a constant body
7.0 to 8.0 pH.
√√ ----------------------------------------------------------
All of the Above Which of the following factors does not affect the result
Feedback of the PTT assay?
Normal urine pH varies from 4.6 to 8.0. After meals, Factor X
urine becomes more alkaline due to gastric acid
secretion (alkaline tide). At night due to shallow Factor IX
breathing, it becomes more acid. A high meat diet
results in a more acid urine than a vegetarian diet, due Factor VIII
to excretion of phosphates and sulfates. √√
---------------------------------------------------------- Factor VII
Feedback
The PTT is prolonged secondary to deficiency of factors
of the intrinsic pathway, specifically: prekallekrein, high-
molecular-weight kininogen, Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V,
II, and I.
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of these is arranged from least mature to most
mature:
Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Stem Cell
√√
Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Prolymphocyte, Lymphocyte
Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte
Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Lympoblast, Stem Cell
Feedback
The appropriate order of the lymphocyte cell line from
least mature to most mature is: Stem Cell, Lymphoblast,
Prolymphocyte, Lymphocyte.
----------------------------------------------------------
DR antigens are found in which of the following
systems:
Feedback
Francisella tularensis is an aerobic gram-negative
coccobaccillary organism requiring cystine or cysteine
to grow. It causes tuleremia, which can manifest as
cutaneous papules and ulcers, conjunctivitis, fever,
myalgias, and lymphadenopathy. It can be diagnosed by
culture on appropriate media, or serology. Bacteroides
fragilis is an anaerobic gram-negative rod which is
resistant to most penicillins. It can cause a variety of life
threatening infections. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a
stictly aerobic gram-negative motile bacillus; it causes a
variety of infections especially among patients who are
immunocompromised for a variety of reasons, and it
causes wound infections in moist air.
----------------------------------------------------------
The red cells indicated by the arrows in this image
exhibit which of the following abnormal erythrocyte
shapes?
Acanthocytes
Schistocytes

Kell system Spherocytes

√√ √√
HLA system Stomatocytes
Feedback
Duffy system Stomatocytes have a slit like appearance in the area of
central pallor - many chemical agents may cause this
ABO system abnormality.
Feedback ----------------------------------------------------------
HLA-DR is a MHC class II(major histocompatibility Which two of the following organisms are gram
complex) surface receptor on the cellular surface which positive?
is encoded by the human leukocyte antigen complex, or Pasteurella
HLA. √√
---------------------------------------------------------- Erysipelothrix
Which of the following organisms is not an aerobic
organism: Aeromonas
√√
Francisella Lactococcus
√√ Feedback
Bacteroides Erysipelothrix, a genus of bacteria containing a single
Pseudomonas species, are short gram-positive rods. Lactococcus, a
microbe formerly included in the genus Strep Group N1,
Neisseria are gram-positive, catalase negative, non-motile cocci
that are found singly, in pairs, or in chains. Pasteurella limited value for routine use since their ****f life after
and Aeromonas are both gram-negative microbes. thawing is only 24 hours. It is invaluable for maintaining
---------------------------------------------------------- an inventory of rare blood phenotypes.
The iodine prep is most helpful to identify which of the ----------------------------------------------------------
following parasitic stages: Match each virus with its appropriate nucleic acid
content:
Larvae
Togavirus
Eggs
√√ Coronavirus
Cysts
Trophozoites Herpesvirus
Feedback
Trophozoites are not generally motile in iodine stained Adenovirus
wet preps Feedback
---------------------------------------------------------- Togavirus: RNA
Which of the following conditions is most frequently Coronavirus: RNA
associated with anti-I: Herpesvirus: DNA
The correct answer is highlighted below Adenovirus: DNA
√√ --------------------------------------------------------------------------
Cold agglutinin disease --------------------------------------------------------------------------
Hemolytic transfusion reaction --------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------
Delayed transfusion reaction Which of the following organisms is most likely to be
associated with gas gangrene:
Infectious mononucleosis
Feedback Clostridia histolyticum
Autoanti-I is an insignificant IgM cold agglutinin found in
many individuals. It can rarely be the cause of cold Pseudomonas aeruginosa
autoimmune hemolytic anemia. It is also seen in many √√
patients with Mycoplasma Pneumoniae infection. Clostridium perfringens
Alloanti-I is very rare, since there are so few I-negative
adults. Escherichia coli
---------------------------------------------------------- Feedback
What percentage of glycerol is generally used when Clostridium perfringens is most likely to be associated
freezing red cells of rare phenotypes: with gas gangrene. Clostridium gas gangrene is a form
70 % of lethal necrotizing soft tissue infection of skeletal
√√ muscle caused by the toxins and gas produced by this
40 % organism
----------------------------------------------------------
10 % Which one of the following statements about urea is
false:
5% It accounts for 75% of nonprotein nitrogen excreted

Feedback It is elevated in a variety of glomerular, tubular,

Cryopreservation of red cells is expensive, and of interstitial, and vascular renal diseases
√√
It is decreased in dehydration
The reference range for normal individuals is 7 to 18
mg/dl when expressed as blood urea nitrogen
Feedback
Urea is actually increased during bouts of dehydration.
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following descriptions best describes the
term absolute value as it would relate to differential
counts.
Relative % of each cell type
√√
Relative % of each cell type X total white cell count
Relative % of each cell type divided by total white count
Specific number of each cell type divided by total white
count
Feedback
The absolute cell counts are measurements calculated
by multiplying the relative cell percentages by the total
white blood cell count.
----------------------------------------------------------
Which one of the following statements about E.coli
O157:H7 is false:
It has been reported in contaminated unpasteurized
milk, unpasteurized apple juice, and undercooked
hamburger
It can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome in children
It causes hemorrhagic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and
other symptoms
√√
It ferments sorbitol rapidly
Feedback
E. coli O157:H7 is sorbitol negative. It is screened for in
a stool specimen using sorbitol McConkey agar, where it
produces colorless colonies, indicating that it is not
fermenting sorbitol. E. coli O157:H7 is also most often
beta-glucuronidase negative, and usually produces an
enterohemolysin which leaves a small zone of hemolysis
surrounding colonies on a blood agar plate of washed
sheep red cells with calcium chloride. Sorbitol negative
E. coli should be serotyped to determine if they are the
O157:H7 serotype.
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following would be considered most
significant as it relates to serological testing:
Presence of an antibody titer is generally diagnostic
√√
Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic
Concentration of antibody is diagnostic
Cross reactivity is not significant
Feedback
Serological diagnosis of active of recent infection
generally requires the demonstration of IgM antibody,
or the demonstration of a fourfold rise in the titer of
specific IgG antibody.
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following infectious agents represent the
greatest risk to the laboratory worker:
AIDS
Meningitis
√√
Hepatitis
Influenza
Feedback
While AIDS is a more serious health threat, hepatitis is
far more prevalent, and therefore represents a greater
overall risk.
----------------------------------------------------------
The most common cause of severe life threatening
hemolytic transfusion reactions is:
Anti-D
Anti-M
√√
Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B
Anti-Fya
Feedback
Incompatiblity involving the ABO blood group system
can cause the most sever type of transfusion reaction.
----------------------------------------------------------
The predominant cells seen in this CSF are suggestive Haptoglobin
of:
Ferritin
Normal cytocentrifuged smear Feedback
√√ The concentration of circulating ferritin is proportional
Viral meningitis to the size of iron stores.
Bacterial meningitis ----------------------------------------------------------
The capsular material used to identify capsular subtypes
Alzheimer's disease of Pneumococci consists of:
Feedback
Almost exclusively mononuclear cells are seen, Proteins
suggestive of viral meningitis. √√
---------------------------------------------------------- Polysaccharides
CSF lymphocytosis is associated with all of the following
except: Lipids
√√
Cerebral abscess Lipoproteins
Feedback
Viral meningitis The Quelling reaction can be used to identify capsular
subtypes of pneumococci. Reaction of anticapsular
Chronic fungal meningitis antibody with pneumococcal organisms causes their
carbohydrate capsule to swell and alters its refractility.
Chronic tuberculous meningitis ----------------------------------------------------------
Feedback A simple check which can be employed to verify that
There are many causes of CSF lymphocytosis. hemoglobin and hematocrit values match would be:
----------------------------------------------------------
A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by: Hematocrit X 3 = hemoglobin
√√ √√
Decreased intake and absorption Hemoglobin X 3 = hematocrit

Decreased intake and excretion Hemoglobin / hematocrit = 3

Hemoglobin + hematocrit = 3
Increased intake and excretion Feedback
Increased excretion and decreased absorption The hematocrit is equal to approximately 3 times the
Feedback hemoglobin level.
Some elderly individuals can have poor dietary habits ----------------------------------------------------------
which can lead to decreased nutrient absorption, Which of the following blood groups is most frequently
including zinc. associated with cold agglutinins:
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following will give the best overall picture Kell
of a patient's iron stores:
Kidd
Albumin Duffy
√√
Transferrin P
Feedback
Kell, Kidd, and Duffy are usually warm reacting IgG E
antibodies. The most common P system antibody is C
anti-P1, which is a frequently naturally occurring low √√
titer IgM antibody, seen in most P2 individuals. E
---------------------------------------------------------- Feedback
Which of the following enzymes is the most sensitive The e antigen is present in 98% of the Caucasian
indicator of liver damage associated with alcohol population.
ingestion: ----------------------------------------------------------
√√ Factor V is primarily involved in:
GGT
Extrinsic pathway only
ALT
Neither pathway
AST
Fibrinolysis
LDH √√
Feedback Both pathways
GGT elevations precede those of other liver enzymes in Feedback
cases of chronic ingestion of drugs or alcohol. Activated Factor V and activated Factor X are required
---------------------------------------------------------- to convert prothrombin (Factor II) to Thrombin.
The impedance principle shown in this illustration is ----------------------------------------------------------
best described by the following statement:
Blood cells and platelets are counted by the number of The abnormal RBCs shape seen in this illustration is:
the times they scatter light as they pass in front of a √√
mirror. Elliptocytes

Blood cells and platelets are counted utilizing a type of
defraction gradient technique.
Blood cells and platelets are counted by measuring the
drop in transmitted light as they pass through a series
of apertures.
√√
Blood cells or other particles are counted and sized
based on changes in electrical resistance as they pass
between two electrodes.
Feedback
The impedance principle has been the basis for most
blood cell counters for more than 25 years.
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following Rh antigens is found the highest
frequency in the Caucasian population:
The correct answer is highlighted below
C ABO Type Specific Blood, Major Crossmatch
Thorn cell
Sickle cell
Target cell
Feedback
Elliptocytes are seen in large numbers in hereditary
elliptocytosis. They are also seen in lesser numbers in
iron deficiency anemia, and other conditions.
----------------------------------------------------------
Which of the following options gives in order from most
to least important, the factors you would use to select
blood for a transfusion:
Major Crossmatch Compatibility, ABO Type Specific
Blood, Antigen Negative Blood for Patient with antibody
reacting only at room temperature
√√
Compatibility, Antigen Negative Blood for Patient with
antibody reacting only at room temperature
Antigen Negative Blood for Patient with antibody
reacting only at room temperature, Major Crossmatch
Compatibility, ABO Type Specific Blood
----------------------------------------------------------
Hemoglobin (g/100ml) x 10 / RBC count (millions/mm3)
is the formula for calculating:
MCHC
MCV
√√
MCH
hexagonal plates in acid urine. They may be confused
with hexagonal uric acid crystals. They can be
differentiated from uric acid by their solubility in dilute
hydrochloric acid versus crystalline uric acid, which is
not soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid. The cyanide-
nitroprusside test can be used to confirm the presence
of cystine in urine. Cystine crystals are not present in
normal urine.
----------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------

RDW ----------------------------------------------------------
Feedback
MCH is the average weight of hemoglobin in the ----------------------------------------------------------
average red blood cell. The value is expressed in
picograms (10-12 grams). ----------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------
Aplastic anemia may be caused by all of the following ----------------------------------------------------------
except:
Infections ----------------------------------------------------------

Chemical agent ----------------------------------------------------------

√√
Enzyme deficiencies Q1: The colonies of Salmonella Typhi appeared on the
plate:
Ionizing radiation A) Colorless with black centre
Feedback B) --------------------------------
Enzyme deficiencies are usually associated with C) -------------------------------
hemolytic anemias. Q2: One of these is Oxidase Positive:
---------------------------------------------------------- A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) ------------------------------
Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the C) ------------------------------
arrow: Q3: Neisseria meningitis is:
A) Gram –ve Cocci
Cholesterol crystals B) -------------------
C) ------------------
Uric acid crystals Q4: To differentiate between Staphylococcus and
Streptococcus use:
Amorphous urate crystals A) Catalyze
√√ B) ----------
Cystine crystals C) ----------
Feedback Q5: Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus):
Cystine crystals are characteristically seen as colorless A) Inhibited by bacitracin
B) Against antibody A E) Oxacillin
C) -------------------------- F) ---------------
Q6: Error of Gram stain is:
A) Crystal violet more than 1min Section 3: Histology & Cytology
B) Safranin 3min
C) Over decolorizing Q1: Lymph node with central germ end is:
Q7: MacConkey agar added crystal violet act as: A) Deep cortex lymph node
A) Indicator B) Medulla of lymph node
B) Growth factor C) Red pulp of spleen
C) Inhibit Enterococcus Sp D) White pulp of spleen
Q8: Indian Ink used to stain: Q2: Satisfactory of Sputum is:
A) M. tuberculosis A) Present of Carbon laden
B) ------------------ B) Few leukocytes
C) ----------------- C) Mucoid fibre
Q9: Measles (rubeola) is: D) Few squamous cell
A) Koplik's spots marker E) All of the above
B) Caused by paramyxovirus of the genus Morbillivirus Q3: Satisfactory of FNA is:
C) Characteristic maculopapular, erythematous A) Needle is in the centre of tumor
D) Laboratory diagnosis Positive measles IgM B) Needle penetrate the tumor
E) Children salivary measles specific IgA C) Needle is not close to the tumor
F) Hyperplastic lymph nodes (Warthin-Finkeldey cell,) D) ------------------------------------
G) All othem are correct Q4: Villa papilloma is affect:
Q10: Gram +ve with branch: A) Skin
A) M. tuberculosis B) Lip
B) Actinomysis israli C) Ureter
C) ---------------------- D) Vagina
Q11: Skin affected with Pus: Q5: Causes of Necrosis is:
A) M. tuberculosis A) Chemical Toxins
B) M. leprosy B) Heat
C) ------------------ C) --------------------
D) --------------------
Q12: Small RNA virus is: Q6: One of these is Cytology used:
A) Adenovirus A) 95 % Ethanol
B) Retinavirus B) 70 % Alcohol
C) ------------- C) Methanol
Q13: Latex virus: D) ---------------
A) Affinity of latex for viral antibody
B) Antigen antibody complex
C) -------------------------------------- Section 4: Hematology & Immunohematology
D) ------------------------------------- Q1: To differentiate between Hemoglobin C disease and
Q14: Gram +ve Cocci in cluster will be use median trait by:
sensitive (inhibited): A) Electrophoresis
A) Penicillin G B) Ruler
B) Erythromycin C) Meter
C) Vancomycin D) ------------------
D) Methicillin Q2: Many of Target Cells seen in:
A) Hb C disease –ve ,Hb : 18 ,billrubin : 18.9 & indirect : 18.4
B) Aplastic Anemia O/E : baby was healthy and feeding well .. the most
C) Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia likely diagnosis is :
D) -------------------------------------
Q3: Megakaryocyte – Low Platelets seen in:
A) Aplastic Anemia a- physiological jaundice
B) Pernicious Anemia b- ABO incompatibility
C) Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic c- breast milk jaundice
D) --------------------------------- d- undiscovered neonatal sepsis
Q4: PCV (HCT) / RBC count is:
A) MCV
B) MCH
C) MCHC 17- a 62 yrs. old female pt. a known case of
D) -------- osteoporosis & on 1 alpha + Ca supplement .. her lab
Q5: 107 fL Hb with normal VitB12 and Folate is: works shows normal level of PO4, Ca & ALP … her X-ray
A) Iron Deficiency Anemia shows osteopenia with SD = -3.5 …. The best action is to
B) Aplastic Anemia :
C) VitB12 deficiency
Q6: Prothrompin Time (PT) is affected by:
A) Fibrenogen I a- continue on same medications
B) Factor VIII b- start estrogen
C) Factor X c- start estrogen & progesterone
D) --------------- d-add alevdonate ( bisthmus phosphate)
Q7: Reject the sample if it:
A) Hemolysis
B) Not written Correct request form
C) --------------
D) ------------ 18- a 38 yrs old female … came to you at your office and
Q8: To Transfer Blood not use: her pap smear report was unsatisfactory for evaluation
A) Heparin .. the best action is :
B) CIP
C) CIA
D) 1% sodium a- consider it normal & D/C the pt.
Q9: Blood Donor + Patient RBC indicate: b- Repeat it immediately
A) Cross-match c- Repeat it as soon as possible
B) -------------- d- Repeat it after 6 months if considered low risk
C) ------------- e- Repeat it after 1 year if no risk

Section 5: Parasitology
Q1: Giardia lablia is the same of (watery stool-diarrhea):
A) Shigella 19- a 17 yrs. old school boy was playing foot ball and he
B) Salmonella was kicked in his Rt. eye .. few hours later he started to
C) ECT complain of : double vision & echymoses around the
D) V. Cholera eye .. the most likely Dx. Is :
a full term baby boy brought by his mother weighing 3.8
kg. developed jaundice at 2nd day of life .. coomb's test
a- cellulites
b- orbital bone fracture
c- global eye ball rupture
e- subconguctival hemorrhage
20- a 35 yrs old female pt. C/O : acute inflammation and
pain in her Lt. eye since 2 days .. she gave Hx of visual
blurring and use of contact lens as well … O/E :
fluorescence stain shows dentritic ulcer at the center of
the cornea .. the most likely diagnosis is :
e- chronic active Hep. B
23- 25 yrs. old man presented to ur clinic with one
month HX of aching pain in the elbow , radiates down to
the lateral forearm ..the pt. frequently plays squash …
O/E:
Pain increases with dorsiflexion of the wrist performed
under resistance specially with elbow extended … the
most likely diagnosis :

a- olecranon stress fracture

a- corneal abrasion b- olecranon bursitis
b- herpetic central ulcer c- lateral tennis elbow
c- central lens stress ulcer e- radial tunnel syndrome
d- acute episcleritis e- ligament sprain
e- acute angle closure glaucoma

- 24-8 wk Primigravida came to you with nausea &

vomiting choose the statement that guide you to
hyperemmesis gravidarm :
21- a 65 yrs old lady came to your clinic with Hx of 5 a- ketonia
days insomnia and crying ( since her husband died ) the b- ECG evidence of hypokalemia
best Tx. For her is : c- Metabolic acidosis
d- Elevated liver enzyme
e- Jaundice
a- lorazipam
b- floxitein
c- chlorpromazine
d- haloperidol
- 25-Injury of the hand leads to median nerve injury:
a- claw hand
b- wrist drop
22- a 25 yrs old Saudi man presented with Hx of mild c- sensory defect only
icterus , otherwise ok .. hepatitis screen : HBsAg +ve ,
HBeAg +ve , anti HBc Ag +ve (this should be core anti
body, because core antigen doesn’t leave hepatocyte to - 26-60 year old male was refer to you after stabilization
the blood "prof. Yasawi" ) , the diagnosis : investigation show
Hgb 8,5 g/l , hect. 64% , RBC 7.8 , WBC 15.3
& Plt. 570 Diagnosis :
a- acute hepatitis B a- iron def. Anemia
b- convalescent stage of hep. B b- Hgb pathy
c- recovery with seroconversion Hep . B c- CLL
d- Hep B carrier d- 2ry polycythemia
e- Polycythemia rubra Vera a- one day post coital
b- 10 day after loss menstrual cycle ??
c- One wk after loss menstrual cycle
- 27-Pregnant women G4P3+1 on GA 10 wk came to you
with IUCD inserted & the string is out from O.S what is
the most important measure : - 32-45 year old female complaining of itching in
a- leave the IUCD & give A.B genitalia for certain period, a febrile, -ve PMH, living
b- leave the IUCD & send to Ob/ Gynaecologist to happily with here husband since 20 year ago on
remove examination no abdominal tenderness , erythema on
c- leave the IUCD lower vagina , mild Gray discharge no hx of UTI .
d- do laparoscopy to see if there is ectopic preg. pyleonephritis
e- Reassurance the pt Most probable diagnosis:

a- Vaginitis
- 28-17 year old male while play football felt on his knee b- Cystitis
“tern over “ what do think the injury happened c- CA of vagina
d- Urithritis ( non gonococal )

a- medial meniscus lig,

b- Lateral meniscus lig. - 33-20 year lady come to ER with Hx of Rt sever lower
c- Medial collateral lig. abdominal pain with Hx of amenorrhea for about 6 wk
d- Lat. collateral lig. the most serious diagnosis of your deff. Diagnosis could
e- Antr. Crussate lig. reach by:

a- CBC
b- ESR
- 29-For health education programme to be effective all c- U/S of the pelvis
true except : d- Plain X-ray
- e- Vaginal swab for C/S
a- Human behaviour should be well understood.
b- Procedures used include illustration & picture.
c- Doctors should be the only educator. - 34-Pt had arthritis in tow large joint & pansystolic
d- Community member should be involved in early murmur ( carditis )
stage. Hx of URTI the most important next step:
e- ………….
__________________ a- ESR
b- ASO titre
c- Blood culture
- 30-Placenta previa excludes :
a- Pain less vaginal bleeding - 35-35 years prime 16 wk gestation PMH coming for
b- Tone increased of uterus her 1st cheek up she is excited about her pregnancy no
c- Lower segmental abnormality hx of any previous disease.
d- Early 3rd trimester Her B/P after since rest 160/100 after one wk her B/P is
154/96
- 31-Pregnancy test +ve after : Most likely diagnosis :
a- Pre eclempsia a- orthostatic hypotension
b- Chronic HTN b-
c- Lable HTN
d- Chronic HPT with superimposed pre eclampsia 40- what is the most appropriate treatment for the
e- Transit HPT?? above patient :

a- antiemetic
b- antihistamine
- 36-women complain of non fluctuated tender cyst for c- change the antidepressant to SSRI
the vulva . came pain in coitus & walking , diagnosed d- thiazide diuretics
Bartholin cyst . what is the ttt: e- audiometry

a- incision & drainage

b- refer to the surgery to excision (after you reassure 41- 23 years old lady with one month history of nasal
her) discharge & nasal obstruction, she complained of pain
c- reassurance the pt on the face, throbbing in nature , referred to the
d- give AB supraorbital area, worsen by head movement,
walking,& stopping. On - -- --------- examination , tender
antrum with failure of transillumination ( not clear ), the
37- 42years old male presented with history of sudden most likely the diagnosis is:
appearance of rash – maculopapular rash – including
the sole,& the palm, the most likely diagnosis is : a- frontal sinusitis (we can NOT trannsiiluminate it)
b- maxillary sinusitis
a- syphilis c- dental abscess
b- erethyma nodosum d- chronic atrophic rhinitis
c- erythema marginatum e- chronic sinusitis
d- pitryasis rocae --------------------------------------------------------------------------
e- drug induced ---------------------------

38- A mother calls you about her 8 years old son ,

known case of DM-1 fell comatose . she is not sure if he
took the night 7 morning dose of insulin. You will advice TAP can pass the peptide to bind with:
her to : a)MHC-І
b)MHC-П
a- bring the child immediately to the ER None of abovec)
b- call an ambulance d)All above
c- give him IV glucagons CR .present in all expect:
d- give him IV insulin a)MQ
e- give him drink contains sugar b)Nutrophil
c)RBC
d)T-cell
39- years old lady on …….., feels dizzy on standing, e)D.N
resolves after 10-15 minutes on sitting, decrease on Colicins inhibit growth of:
standing, most likely she is having : a)Normal flora
b)Pathogenic bacteria
c)Non-pathogenic bacteria 1- For health education programs to be successful all
d)All of the above are true except :
e)comment
MHCI peptide should be:
a)8- 11 a.a endogenous a- human behavior must be well understood
b)12-25 a.a endogenus b- Information should be from cultural background
c)12-25 a.a exogenous c- Doctors are only the health educators
Cytokines Secrete from MC except : d- Methods include pictures and videos (mass media)
a)IL-12 e- Involve society members at early stage
b)IL-13
c)IL-10
d)TNF-α
Resting B-cell express: 2- a 29 yrs. Old female has a breast lump in the upper
a)MHC-І outer quadrant of the left breast , firm , 2 cm. in size but
b)MHC-П no L.N involvement … what is the most likely diagnosis ?
c)B7 a- fibroadenoma
d)A.B
e)B.C
Cystic fibrosis is char characterized by hypertonic
mucous which inhibit the: 3- What is the management for the above patient?
a)cercropin a- mammogram (true if patient > 35 years)
b)catherizin b- excisional biopsy
c)brevenin c- FNA
d)collectin d- breast US
PR-39 stimulate the formation of : e- follow up in 6 months
a)syndecans.
which of the following receptor inhibit immunity:-
a)Vitronectin R.
b)CD14
c)TLR
d)B&C
e)A&C. 4- a 27 yrs. old female C/O abdominal pain initially
INF-γ IS SECREYED FROM: periumbilical then moved to Rt. Lower quadrant … she
A)TCELL & N.K was C/O anorexia,nausea and vomiting as well ..
B)T-CELL O/E : temp.38c , cough , tenderness in Rt lower
C)B-CELL quadrant but no rebound tenderness.
CR1 EXPRESS ON: Investigations : slight elevation of WBC's otherwise
a)RBC insignificant ..
b)MQ The best way of management is:
c)NEUTROPHIL a- go to home and come after 24 hours
d)D.N b- admission and observation
e)ALL OF THE ABOVE c- further lab investigations
d- start wide spectrum antibiotic
e- paracetamol

5- what is the most likely diagnosis for the above
patient ?
a- mesenteric lymph adenitits
b- acute appendicitis
c- peptic ulcer
6- a 24 yrs old pt. came for check up after a
promiscuous relation 1 month ago .. he was clinically
unremarkable, VDRL : 1/128 … he was allergic 2
penicillin other line of management is :
a- ampicillin
b- amoxicillin
c- trimethoprim
d- doxycyclin
7- a 24 years old female pt. C/O : gray – greenish
discharge , itching .. microscopic examination of
discharge showed : flagellated organism … most likely
diagnosis is :
a- trichomoniasis ( trichomonas vaganalis )
8- a 43 yrs. old female pt. presented to ER with H/O :
paralysis of both lower limbs and parasthesia in both
upper limbs since 2 hours ago .. she was seen lying on
stretcher & unable to move her lower limbs (neurologist
was called but he couldn't relate her clinical findings 2
any medical disease !!! ) when history was taken , she
was beaten by her husband … the most likely diagnosis
is :
a- complicated anxiety disorde
b- somatization disorder
c- conversion disorder
d- psychogenic paralysis
e- hypochondriasis
9- the best treatment for the previous case is :
a- benzodiazepines
b- phenothiazine
c- monoamine oxidase inhibitor
d- selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
e- supportive psychotherapy
10- a 58 yrs. old male pt. came with HX of fever, cough
with purulent foul smelling sputum and CXR showed :
fluid filled cavity … the most likely diagnosis is :
a- abscess
b- TB
c- bronchieactesis
11- a 28 yrs. old lady , C/O: chest pain, breathlessness
and feeling that she'll die soon .. O/E : just slight
tachycardia .. otherwise unremarkable .. the most likely
diagnosis is:
a- panic disorder
12- a patient ( known case of DM ) presented to u with
diabetic foot ( infection) the antibiotic combination is :
a- ciprofloxacin & metronedazole
13- a young pregnant lady (Primigravida) , 32 weeks of
gestation came to you C/O : lower limbs swelling for
two weeks duration .. she went to another hospital and
she was prescribed ( thiazide & loop diuretic ) .. O/E : BP
: 120/70 , mild edema , urine dipstick : -ve and
otherwise normal…. The best action is :
a- continue thiazide & stop loop diuretic
b- cont. loop diuretic & stop thiazide
c- stop both
d- continue both and add potassium sparing diuretic
e- cont. both & add potassium supplement
 9-how we can differenite from gram(-)and gram (+) by:
cell wall.
14- a 17 yrs. old football player gave HX of Lt. knee
giving off .. the most likely diagnosis is : 10-the color of gram (+) is:
a- Lat. Menisceal injury blue light.
b- medial menisceal injury
c- lateral collateral ligament 11-the cell wall of gram(+) contain :
d- medial collateral ligament ‫ﻣﻊ ﻣﺎده ﺛﺎﻧﯾﮫ ﻧﺳﯾت اﺳﻣﮭﺎ‬peptedo glycogen
e ant. Curciate ligament 12-pemenant defferal :
A-iron deffeciancy animea.
B-diarreha.
15- a 10 yrs. old boy presented to clinic with 3 weeks HX ‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت ذي‬C-hepatitis C positive.
of limping that worsen in the morning .. this suggests D-fever.
which of the following :
a- septic arthritis 12-the immuonoglubin which contain five chain in the
b-leg calve parthes disease heavy chain is:
c- RA A-IG g.
d- a tumor ‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬B-IG A.
e- slipped capital femoral epiphysis C-IG D.
D-IG E.
2010 -4 -25 ‫اﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﺧﺘﺒﺎري‬
‫ ﻋﺷﺎن‬ig m ‫وﷲ ﻣﺎ ﺟﺎﻧﻲ‬igm ‫ھذي اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات اﻟﻲ ﺟﺎﺗﻧﻲ ﺑﺎﻟﺗﺣدﯾد ﻣﺎﻓﻲ‬
1-in theplain tube what will happen to the sample: ‫ﻣﺎ ﺗﻘوﻟو اﻧﻲ اﻛذب او اﻧﻲ ﻧﺳﯾت اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎر‬
13-the foundmental of erythrocyte production is:
clotting.
A-ERTHROPIOTEIN.
2-the unit of measurment of E.S.R:
14-leucocyte increase incase:
millimeter.
A-BACTERIAL infection .
B-chemotherapy.
3-the HB which found in 96% is:
C-radiation.
alpha2 beta2.
D-ALL OF ABOVE.
E-NON OF ABOVE.
4-the most common blood group is:
O blood group.
15-the triple granule which is the most aboundent in
leucocyte is:
5-the antibody of blood group is:
netrophil.
antiA and B.

enrobactriace ‫ﺟﺎﻧﻲ اﺳم ﺟﮭﺎز ﺣﻖ ﻣﺎﯾﻛرو ﯾﻘﻠك وظﯾﻔﺗو ﻓﻲ ال‬16-

6-the antibody which found in normal indiviual is:
is:
antiA and B.
A-genatic.
‫وھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬B-biochemecal
7-the count of leucocyte is:
C-immuno.
9‫اس‬4000-11000x10
17-IN the serology section we use the following tube :
plain tube.
8-the color of anti sera A is:
blue.
18-which of the following will increase the calcium
concentration:
prolonged application of torniqate. 31-the perfect picture of acute leukemia:
‫وﷲ ﺟﺎﺗﻧﻲ اﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﻏرﯾﺑﮫ ﺳﺎﻣﺣوﻧﻲ ﻧﺳﯾﺗﮭﺎ‬
19-ferritin measure:
iron diffeciancy anemia. 32-wucheria bancrofti will measure by :
blood and urine.
20-the following index sensitive and will measure the
totalof iron dff anemia: 33-the infective stage of ankylustoma dudenial is:
A-TRANSFERRIN. pathogenic larva.
B-FERRITEN.
C-TIBC. 34-diagnostic stage of ascarias is:
D-HB CONCENTRATION. egg.
‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت ذا‬E-ALL OF ABOVE
35-which of the following parasite will cause abscess in
21-TO DIFFRENIATE BETWEEN hemophilia A and B: liver:
factor assay ‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو ﺑس ﺗرو ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد‬E.hostolytica .

22-the following related to immunassay except: turbiduty sample:‫ﺟﺑﻠﻲ اﺳم ﻧظرﯾﮫ ﺑﻌدﯾن ﻣﻛﺗوب‬36-
IMMUNORECIPENT. ‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو ﺟﺎﺗﻧﻲ اﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﻛﺛﯾره ﺑس‬refraction of light
‫ﻧﺳﯾﺗﮭﺎ‬
23-heamophilus influenza cause:
‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬N.meningitis in infant and cheldren. ‫ﺣﺎطط ﻓﻲ اﻟﺳؤال اﺳم وﺑﻌد اﻻﺳم ﻛﺎﺗب ﻣﺎدة اﻟﻔورﻣﺎﻟﯾن ﯾﻘول اﻧﺎ‬37-
sedment stool because:‫اﺣﺳن طرﯾﻘﺔ ﻓﻲ ال‬
24-the following microorganism will not take the gram maintain the ‫ﻣﻌﻠﯾش وﷲ ﻧﺎﺳﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﺑس ﻣﺗذﻛر وﺣده اﻟﻲ ھﻲ‬
stain: parasite
mycobactrium specius.
38-the agar of C.diphtheria:
25-the following parasite will not take the gimsa stain: ‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت ذي‬A-Ss agar.
A-lishmenai. B-TCBS.
B-TRYPONSOM. ‫ﺑس واﺣد ﻣن اﻟﺷﺑﺎب ﻗﻠﻲ ذي‬C-BLOOD MONITOL AGAR.
‫ اﻟﺗراﯾﺑﻧوﺳوﻣﺎ ﺑس ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد‬B ‫اﻟﺷﺳﺗوﺳوﻣﺎ وﷲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت‬C- D-XLD
26-plasmodium will transfare by: ‫ﺗرو ذي ﻧﻔس اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات اﻟﻲ ﺟﺎﺗﻧﻲ واﻟﻠﻠﻠﻠﻠﮫ ﺣﻠﻔﺗﻠﻛم ﻣو ﻋﺷﺎن ﺗﻘوﻟو ﺗﯾﻛر‬
‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت ذي‬A-MOSIQUTE. ‫ﻛذاب وﻻ واﺣد ﯾﺟﻲ ﯾﻘﻠك ﻻ ﺑﺎﺿﯾف اﺧﺗﯾﺎر ﻣن ﻋﻧدي‬
B-FLY.
C-ALL OF ABOVE 39-THE nutrent media is:
basic media.
27-when the micro invade the body B-cell will secret
and it will transfer to : 40-the following tests we doing in emergency cases
plasma cell. except:
A-electrolight.
28-B-plasma cell will immuture by : B-GLUCOSE.
‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد‬thyroid gland C-BLOOD GAS.
29-T-lymphcyte will immuture by: ‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬D-ALBUMIN.
‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت ذي ﺑس ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد‬lymph node
30-glycogene will formation in: 41-anti diaurtic hormone will secret from postirior
liver. :‫ﯾﻌﻧﻲ ﻛﺎﻧو ﯾﻘﻠك اش وظﯾﻔﺔ ھذا اﻟﮭرﻣون‬pitutary gland:
‫وھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬A-DECREASE urine volume .
B-DECREASE SUGAR VOLUME. ‫وھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬A-S.AUREUS.
‫ﺑﺎﻗﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﻧﺳﯾﺗﮭﺎ‬ B-STREPTO.

42-reteculocyte normal range:

0.1-0.2% :‫ﻣﻌﻠﯾش ﻧﺳﯾت اﻟﺳؤال ﻛﺎﻣل‬52-WILL CAUSE BURSE
‫وھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد‬A-STAPH.
43-the meninum of platelate storge : B-STREPTO.
5 days.

44-platelate will store at: 53-THE proper result of indivial:

20-24 when the result be close to the normal value.

45-psudomonus is : 54-reliable method to measure the PH is:

‫وھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬A-large mucoid amount . ‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو‬A-PH meter.
B-SMALL AMOUNT OF MUCOID. B-LITMUS paper.
‫ﺑﺎﻗﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﻧﺳﯾﺗﮭﺎ‬ C-INDICATOR.
D-NON OF THE ABOVE.
46-N.gonorrehea:
A-GRAM (-)rods only. 55-CAUSIN OF WHOOPING CAUGH :
‫اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرت ذا وﺷﺎﻛك اﻧو ﺗﻛون اﻟﻲ ﺗﺣﺗﮭﺎ‬B-OXIDASE (+)ONLY. BORDETELLA PRUTISIS
‫اﻟﺻﺢ‬
C-GRAM (-)RODS AND OXIDASE (+) ‫ھذا ﻛل اﻟﻲ اﺗذﻛرﺗو وﺳﺎﻣﺣوﻧﻲ اذا ﻓﻲ ﺗﻘﺻﯾر ﺑس ﻓﻲ ﺳؤال اﺧﯾر اﻓراد‬
‫ﺑﺎﻗﻲ اﺧﺗﯾﺎر راﺑﻊ ﻧﺳﯾﺗو‬ ‫ﻋﺻﺎﺑﺗﻲ ﯾﻌرﻓو ﺑﺣطو ﻋﺷﺎن ﯾﻣﻛن ﯾﺟﯾﻛم ﻓﻲ اﺧﺗﺑﺎر اﻻﻧﺿﻣﺎم ﻟﻌﺻﺎﺑﺗﻲ‬

Z ‫ﻓﻲ اﻟﺳؤال ذا ﺟﺑﻠﻲ ﻧوع ﻣن اﻟﺳﯾدﻣوﻧس ﺑس ﻧﮭﺎﯾﺗﮭﺎ ﺑﺣرف ال‬47- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SOFT DRINK WILL GIVE THE
THE FOLLOWING ‫ﺳﺎﻣﺣوﻧﻲ ﻧﺳﯾت اﺳﻣﮭﺎ اﻟﺳؤال ﯾﻘول‬ GUT:
CHARACTER IS TRUE:
A-MOTILE-OXIDASE (+)-LACTOSE FERMENTER-GRAM(- A- PEPSI.
‫)ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎﻛد‬RODS. B-7 UP.
‫ﯾﺎﻗﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرت ﺑس ﻋﻛس‬ C-7 DOWN.
D- DEW
48-factor of erythropiosis: ‫اﻟﺷﺎطر ﯾﻘﻠﻲ اﻻﺟﺎﺑﮫ‬
:‫وﷲ ﻧﺎﺳﻲ اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ ﻣﺗذﻛرو‬
A-NEEDS FOLIC ACIDS AND VITB12. ‫اﺧﺻﺎﺋﻲ ﻣﺧﺗﺑر‬25-9-2012
‫وﻋﻠﻰ ﻣﺎ اﻋﺗﻘد‬B-STIMULUS IN CASE OF HYPOOXYGENEMIA.
‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ ﺣطﯾﺗو‬
1- acute pancreatitis is BEST diagnosed by:
A-ALT
49-RETENTION OF URIC ACID:
B-AST
KIDNEY.
C-Amylase
D-Lipase
50-estimation of acid in heredetary:
2-Albinism is a lack in this enzyme:
A-AMINO ACID.
A- carboxylase
‫ھذا اﻟﻲ اﻧﺎ اﺧﺗرﺗو ﻣﺎﻧﻲ ﻣﺗﺎك ﻣﻧو‬B-FATTY.
B- tyrosinase
C-phenylalanine hydroxylase
‫ھذا اﻟﺳؤال‬51-eneterococci can be diffrentiated from :
‫ﻋﻛس اﻟﻲ ﺣطﺑو دﻛﺗور اﺑو رﺷﺎد‬
3- hormone that stimulate secretion of free fatty acids D-HAV
is:
A-estrdiol 13-function of NK cells with T-cytotoxic is:
B-GH
C-ACTH 14- sickle cell anaemia trait is:
A-recessive heterozygous
4-hormone responsible of women infertility: B- recessive homozygous
A-estradiol C- dominant heterozygous
B-estrogen D- dominant homozygous
C-testosteron
15-Rh antigens are:
5-in case od DM we must monitor: A- D, C, c, E, and e
A- K B- D, d , C, c, E and e
B- Ca C- d,C,c,E and e
C- Na D- D,d,C,c and e
D- Mg
16-stool spp with dehydrous form appear solid because:
6-in neonatal meningitides with E.coli the BEST A- neomerous eggs and little of trophozoites
diagnosis is: B- neomerous trophozoites and little of eggs
A- vaginal swab of mother C- neomerous trophozoites
B-vaginal swab of neonate D-neomerous eggs
C- CSF swab of mother
D- CSF swab of neonate ‫واﻋطﺎﻧﻲ اﻟوزن واﻟوزن اﻟﺟزﯾﺋﻲ طﺑﻌﺎ‬17-Calculate the molarity
‫اﻗﺳﻣﮭم ﻋﻠﻰ ﺑﻌض‬
7- what is this pipette called:
18- in PCR sterilize all of these true except:
‫واﻟﺑﻛﺗﯾرﯾﺎ ﻟوﻧﮭﺎ اﺻﻔر وﺻورة ﺛﺎﻧﯾﺔ‬blood agar ‫ﺻورة ﻟﻠـ‬8- A-PCR buffer
S.aureus‫اﻟﻣطﻠوب ﻧوع اﻟﺑﻛﺗﯾرﯾﺎ واﻛﯾد‬coagulase +ve ‫ﻟﻠـ‬ B- dH2O
C- for glasses
9- picture of trichomonas vaginalis D-for Mg

10-what is the Ag presentation: 19-PCR is used to prduce :

A-capture of Ag & then enable their recognition by T- A- DNA
cell B-RNA
C-DNA and RNA
11-in compared with IgG, IgM is: D-All neoclutides
A-bound to the cell surface of cancer cells
B-less fixed complement 20- in PCR we must prevent contamination of:
C-response in repeated infection A- DNA
D-produced in African trypanosomiasis

12-all of the following can assayed by ELISA before 21-gram staining bacteria cause food poisoning
donating blood EXCEPT: A-gram +ve spore forming bacilli
A-HIV B-gram +ve non spore forming bacilli
B-HBV-Ag C-gram –ve capsulated diplococcic
C-HCV
22- in blood bag after incubation for 14 days which of
the following not fond :
A-RBCs
B- PLTs

‫ودي اﻻﺳﺋﻠﺔ اﻟﻣﻛررة ﻋن اﻻﺧت ﻧﯾرﻣﯾن ﺟزاھﺎ ﷲ ﺧﯾر ﻣﻊ ﺗﻐﯾﯾر ﻓﻲ‬

‫اﻻﺧﺗﯾﺎرات ﻋﻧدي‬
23-gow of salmonella on XLD agar
A- smooth with black center
B- yellow grow

24- 5 months baby, TWBCS 8.8x 109 L/cell, segmented

neutrophil 34, band 4,lymphocyt57…
a-infectious mononeucleasis
b-normal physiology for baby

25- mycoplasma and ureamia:

a-without cell wall
b-without cell membrane
11-perforin mediate which function:
a-…..
b-…..
26-all of the following cause immediate haemolytic
transfusion reaction except:
a-HCV

27-which factor cause pt prolong:

a-IX
b-XII
c-XI
d-VIII
28-in case myocardial infarction the useful enzymes:
a-LDH-GOT-CKP
 (‫أﺳﺌﻠﺔ اﺧﺘﺒﺎر اﻟﮭﯿﺌﺔ ﻷﺧﺼﺎﺋﯿﯿﻦ اﻟﻤﺨﺘﺒﺮ )ﺗﺨﺼﺺ ﺗﻘﻨﯿﺔ ﻣﺨﺘﺒﺮات‬
1- PCR: (Polymerase Chain reaction)
Micro organism arranged in group cluster :
2 - (G+Staphylocci)
3- Anoxemia is : (Absence of O2 from arterial blood)
4- Karyorrhex is : (Swelling of nucelic acid =Rupture of
cell nucler)
5- Latency characteristic of : (Herpes simplex virus)
6- Biharizias : (Cause lesion in submucosal)
7- Leukoplakia : presence of leukocyte (polymorphnucler
leukocyte )
8- Adenovirus is : (DNA virus duble strand)
9- Antibody produced from : ( plasma cell)
10- Gardia lambia associated with : (Steatorrhea)
11- Use of chemical on skin (hand) : (Antisptic)
12- Megaloplastic anima found in : (Chronic bleeding)
13- Found in children with pyuria that not specific and G+ve
bactria : (Chlamydia tracoma)
14- Green tap tube the heparin can use for : (sugar analysis)
15- DNA strand that : (5 prim-3 prim)
16- Jaundice on yellow skin and eye mean (bilirubin is
3mg\dl)
17- Which one of the following is not true about salmonella
: (Dose not produce H2S)
18- In electrophoresis we prepare :( 1g agarose in 100ml
TAE)
19- Diagnostic stage for strongyloides in stool :( Larve)
20- Plasmodium Falciparm transmted by (Anopheles)
21- Gentic information of bacteria is carried on : (MRNA)
22- Hormon used to prepare the uteruse for pregnancy
:(Progesteron)
23- Cause food poisoning with flaccid paralysis :
(Clostridium botulinin)
24- Which of the following shoud go imiditly to the lab:
(CSF)
25- How many day dose the calure and AB test take :(72 h)
26- Short arm chromosome is :(P arm) long(Q)
1
27- Use of Taq DNA : (PCR)
28- Reading of band in pcr by : (Eye)
29- Degree of DNA denaturation is :94 Alnaling 52-42
Extation 72
30- Different between serm and plasma :(plasma contain
fibrinogen)
31- Virus causes diarrhea in chelidrn (6m to
2y)characterized by :( Non enveloped therefore stable in
food and hard solid)
32- Thin blood film staning by write stain is for :( WBC
count)
33- TO differentite between major sickle and minor :(
Electophorisise)
34- LDH used in :(In many clinical chemistry test
35- Familial hypercholestremia is present in (1:500)
36- Best diagnosis of typhoid fever in 1weak is(Blood
culture) 2weak(stool culture )
37- E.Coli:(motile aerogeneus K\A g+ H2S (-- ++)
38- Non motile gm _ve bacteria:(Klebsellia ++ --)
39- Micro organism exhibitis –ve bacteria :(Red stain)
40- Group A streptoccois :(B heamylitc clear zone)
41- Increase target cell :(Thalassmia –Hbc –Iron
deffiency a.)
42- G_ve N\F causes blood diarrhoea in children
is(Shigellesis)
43- What antibiotic giving to B-lactamase resistance
:(Vanacmycin)
44- Virus causes nasopharayngeal carcinoma is (EBV)
45- HBV ,HCV .HAV Transmetted by (parental)
46- NO of netrophil and epithial in lower respiratory
infection :(Netrophil more than 25 Epithial lese than 10)
47- Patient with little amount of bleeding and repeatly
:(noromocyte normochromic)
48- Actinomycese disease is in (Skin)
49- ATG : (Alanine)
50- Most sample use in biochemistry is (Serum)
51- Midia which add some substance like salat and
antibiotic :(Selective media)
52End product of glucose anaerobic pathway :(Lactate)
53- Competitive enzyme to acytyle coA is (Propionyle
coA)
54- Specific test for Syphlis is :(TPHA)
55- Smallest RNAvirus :( Picoran virus)
56- Burkette lymphoma for :( EBV)
57- High AST seen in :( viral hepatitis)
58- Most human infection come from :(gp A-B
Streptoccoi)
59- Ab cause HDN :( Anti D)
60- Qulling test used for all exept :( C.dipheteria)
61- Blood sample taken in all exept : ( Entraitis=
Gastoention)
62- Asot done in : ( Rhomatic fever –Acute
glomerulonepherties
63- The first copy of PCR is :( 4)
64- mRNA to cDNA by :( RT-PCR)
65- PCR use for : ( Neuclic acid analysis)
66- RSV : ( Bronchiotis in young children)
67-HIV instay of AIDS diseses lympocytosis reduce to:
(200)
68- Different between artery and capillary : ( Thikness)
69- Salmonella serotype : ( O 9.12- H 1.2 )
70- In stool culture the organism is : ( Salmonella)
71- Media of Bordella (Whoopig chouch) is : ( Blood with
cancolceplaxin (Ab CCBA)
72- Herpis virus recover : ( Spinal fluid ,Saliva,Skin )
73- Neonatal Toxoplasma diagnosis by : ( Serology)
74- Cascan reaction used in : ( Hypersenstivity )(Hydate
disese)
75- If the SP. Is vary larg in PCR : ( not affected)
76- CSF in TB menigitites : ( lymph increase and glucose
decrese)
77- Proteus Vulgaris different from P.M :( Indol +ve and
Orhthine)
78- Lipmic sample : ( presence of Triglycrid)
79- Cytopathic effect of virus to cell :( Shrinking
.Vaculation .Lysis. Syncytic)
2
80- Macc used to differentiate : ( _ve rods)
81- N-gonorhea diagnosed by : ( Theyer matrin culture)
82- Kidney membrane show irregular in : ( Chronic
glumeronephitites)
83- Thrombus come in :( Vein)
84- Chromosome abnormalities diagnostic by :( FISH-
CGS- PCR )
85- HCV-HBV diagnosis by( ELLISA. SPRIA, RPHA )
86- Pre basal cell not found in ( Woman age 60 y)
87- Micro organism resistance of penicillin because ( B-
Lactomase)
88- Sickle cell anemia in KSA distributed in ( South)
89- E.Coli in clad ( Yellow to orange)
90- ESR elevated in all expet ( Polythycemia vera)
91- Viral infection increase :( Lymphocytosis)
92- PT prolong defecated of :( F2)
93- Organism skin leiosn +ve brines : ( Actinomycese)
94- Chronic myeloid leukemia not found :( high platelets)
95- Error of G stain effect :( Dicolrization by alcohol)
96- Trisory 21 : ( KFILLER syndrome)
97- Agrose gel stain by :( Golden)
98- One of this virus can died during transport to lab :(
Synovial virus)
99- Duodenal aspiration find in :( Gardia)
100- In tow fold evelance the :( IGg titer very high)
101- Epstein virus :( DNA virus)
102- Poile virus and Influenza virus :( RNA)
103- Synthecial virus cause :( Upper respiratory infection)
104- Salmonella and cirrobacter can be differited:( ONPG
test)
105- Acute pancreatitis increase in :( Serum amylase)
106- Campylobaction :( _ve cocci)
107- Listeria monocytogenessis is :( +ve Rod)
108- Difference between staph.aruse and other staph .: (
Coagulase test)
109- Which of the following organism can be isolated from
CSF ( TB)
110- Malaria is best diagnosis by ( Blood film)
111- Oxides +ve organism is ( Pesudomonse)
112- Shiglla sp. In XID media is :( Pink color)
113- Neisseria sp is ( _ve diplococci)
114- Different ion strepto. Pygone and other strepto.: (
Bactricin sensitive)
115- Hemophlia A defiency in :( factor 8)
116- Diagnosis of multiple myeloma by :( Bone marrow
aspiration)
117- In cross matching we use :( Donor cell + Patient
serum )
118- Nucleated cell RBC are seen :( Thalathamia major)
119- B-lactan ring found in ( Penicillin)
120- Blood cast can be found in :( Acute
glomolonepheties)
121- Which following cause subcutaneous disease (
Actinomysese)
122- Indian Ink used in ( capsules demonstration)
123- Crystal violet used in the media as ( Inhibitor)
124- LAP is low in ( CML AML)
125- To fix smear of pleural and Asiatic fluid use ( 95%
ethanol)
126- Cryptococcus is associated with ( HIV patient)
127- Common tumor in intestine found in ( Descending
part)
128- Normal flora in sort all except ( Streptococcus)
129- Cancer sprat when ( Needle penetrate the center of
tumor)
130- Connective tissue is composed of ( Loosely collagen
fiber)
131- Connective tissue produce bone is called (
Osteoblastic cell)
132- Which wrong about campylobacter jejumi ( Grow in
XID)
133- G6PD is ( Hexso mono phosphate path way=HMP)
134- For anion gap in urine (measure Na K Cl) for serum
(Na Cl Hco3)
3
135- TIBC is inversely proportion with ( Iron level)
136- Indol consist of ( Alkaline peptone water ) (enriched
media for V. Cholera)
137- Substance used in indol test ( Tryptophan)
138- Band in electrophoresis measure by ( electrophoresis
marker ladder)
139- Megaloblastic anemia seen in ( B12 deficiency)
140- Carcinoma common in ( R –Colon)
141- Anticoagulant not used in blood bank ( Heparin)
142- MCV :Mean cell value =PCV\L *10/RBC (FL)
143- MCH =HB g/dl *10/RBC (Pg)
144- MCHC = HB g/dl *100/PCV (%)
145- Carcinoma in respiratory system associated with
(CMV)
146- Decreased of megakaryocytic in ( Thrombocytopenia)
147- Worm difficult seen in stool ( Hydatia cyst)
148- Family hypercholesterolemia due to defect in ( LDLR
gene = defect in chromosome 19)
149- Polynephrititius caused by ( E.Coli )
150- Lance filed used to (Streptococcus gp according to
type of polysaccharide in its cell wall)
151- Hydrolysis of starch in intestine ( Maltose)
152- Time to grow aerobic bacteria is ( 24 h)
153- Diffraction between staph and strepto is ( Catalase)
154- Cell secreted mucus in stomach is (Goblet cell)
155- Part of body contain lymphocytic germinate center (
Lymph node)
156- Percent of wrong in DNA extraction ( 15%)
157- Plasma cell from ( B cell)
158- Good method to take sputum sample ( 3 morning
sample for 3 day successively)
159- Cause of cresentation necrotic ( bacterial action)
160- Cause of hypoxia injury (enter water inside the cell)
1. Which of the following blood smears these illustrations would be best suited for
performing a differential count:

Top Photo
Bottom
Photo

Feedback

An even distribution of red blood cells on a smear is necessary for accurate

differential counts.

2. Choose the term that describes the most prominent finding in this peripheral
smear:

Rouleaux
Normal
RBCs
Anisocytosi
s

Feedback

Anisocytosis is a variation in the size of the red blood cells. This slide shows
poikilocytosis, but anisocytosis is more prominent here.

3. The intracellular precipitates seen in the RBCs in this illustration is termed:

Dohle bodies
Heinz bodies
May-Hegglin
anomaly
Reticulocytes

Feedback

Heinz bodies occur as the result of denaturation and precipitation of hemoglobin, and
are often attached to the red cell membrane. They require staining with crystal violet
or methyl violet to be visible. They may be seen in thalassemia, with unstable
hemoglobins, or during a hemolytic episode in G6PD deficiency.

4. The growth seen here on PPLO agar is most likely caused by:

Streptococcus
pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
 Mycobacterium
Mycoplasma

Feedback

PPLO agar is used for the isolation and cultivation of Mycoplasma species.

5. A definitive diagnosis of malaria can be made by:

Serological testing
Culture techniques
Demonstration of the organisms in peripheral
blood
Biochemical reactions

Feedback

Diagnosis of malaria may require thick smears as well as conventional thin blood
smears.

6. Identify the cell in this illustration indicated by the arrow:

Myelocyte
Monocyte
Metamyelocyte
Lymphocyte

7. Identify the Revolving nosepiece and Mechanical stage

K, L
C,
D
F, G
A, B

8. I may be found in stool.

Taenia saginata scolex

Diphyllobothrium latum scolex
Taenia solium scolex
 Echinococcus granulosus
scolex

Feedback

The scolex of Taenia solium may be distinguished from the other cestode scolices by
its four distinct suckers and the presence of a rostellum armed with hooklets.

9. Based on the phenotype of the RBC screening cells, and patient results given
below, which of the following antibodies cannot be ruled out:

Anti-C
Anti-Jka
Anti-M
Anti-
Fya

Feedback

It is only possible to rule out on screening cell 2 since it demonstrates a negative

reaction with the patient serum. Anti-C cannot be ruled out since the antigen
is heterozygous on screening cell 2. Anti-Fya cannot be ruled out since this antigen is
not present on screening cell 2. Anti-M and anit-Jka can be ruled out since the
antigens are homozyous while demonstrating a negative reaction on screening cell 2

10. Identify the urine sediment elements indicated by the arrow in the illustration:

Cholesterol crystals
Triple phosphate crystals
Amorphous urate crystals
Ammonium biurate
crystals

Feedback

Triple phosphate crystals appear as colorless prisms with 3 to 6 sides and oblique
ends, or as "feathery sleeves". The have been described as "coffin lid shaped", and
can occur normally in alkaline urine. They may indicate the presence of an infection.

11. Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:

 Cylindroids
Mucus
threads
Hyaline casts
Budding
yeast

Feedback

Mucus thread appear as long, thin ribbon like threads that are generally transparent.
They are normal in small numbers in the urine.

12. This suspicious form was recovered in blood.

Plasmodium vivax ring form

Plasmodium malariae band
form
Plasmodium falciparum ring
form
Pseudoparasite

Feedback

Plasmodium falciparum ring forms often resemble a walkman headset by containing

two chromatin dots instead of one, as commonly seen in the other Plasmodium
species. These dots serve as connecting points for the ring of cytoplasm.

13. Identify the Eye piece and Binocular (observation tube):

B, E
G,
D
A, K
J, F

14. The elements indicated by the arrows are more likely to be seen in patients with
which condition:

Bacterial infection
Nephrotic
syndrome
Diabetes
Renal failure
Feedback

Yeast cells as a cause of infection are more commonly found in patients with diabetes
mellitus, but can also represent contaminants with no clinical significance. They
should not be confused with erythrocytes. The presence of budding helps with the
identification.

15. Identify the cell in this illustration indicated by the arrow:

Eosinophi
l
Monocyte
Basophil
Neutrophi
l

Feedback

Eosiniphils have characteristic large prominent orange granules.

16. What type of cast is shown in the illustration:

WBC casts
RBC casts
Waxy casts
Granular
casts

Feedback

RBC casts may appear as brown to almost colorless. Red cells can clearly be seen
within the cast. This type of cast is diagnostic of glomerular disease or intrarenal
bleeding.

17. This suspicious form was found in stool.

Pseudoparasite
Hookworm rhabditiform larva
Strongyloides rhabditiform
larva
Strongyloides filariform larva

Feedback
Although this suspicious form resembles an intestinal nematode larva, internal
structures necessary for it to function as well as to identify it as a parasite are
lacking. Numerous such pseudoparasites may be present in stool samples.

18. This suspicious form was found in stool.

Pseudoparasite
Hookworm rhabditiform larva
Strongyloides rhabditiform
larva
Strongyloides filariform larva

Feedback

Although this suspicious form resembles an intestinal nematode larva, internal

structures necessary for it to function as well as to identify it as a parasite are
lacking. Numerous such pseudoparasites may be present in stool samples.

19. The most likely organism to be cultured on the Lowenstein-Jensen agar slant
illustrated here would be:

Crytococcus
Chlamydia
Mycobacteria
Listeria

20. This suspicious form, shown below at both low (10X) and high dry (40X) power,
measures 90 micro meters by 42 micro meters. It was seen in a stool sample.

Hookworm egg
Pseudoparasite
Ascaris lumbricoides egg
Diphyllobothrium latum
egg

Feedback

The mature eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides are readily visible at both 10X and 40X dry.
The organism size as well as the presence of an outer albuminous coating help to
identify the egg.
21. Which of the following conditions is frequently associated with these cells?

Hemolytic anemia
Chronic blood loss
Megaloblastic anemia
Sickle cell anemia

Feedback

Hypersegmented neutrophils are associated with megaloblastic anemias.

22. The cell indicated by the arrow in this illustration is called:

Hair cell
Smudge cell
Megakaryocyte
Blast

Feedback

Smudge Cells (bare nuclei) are commonly seen in blood smears from patients with
chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

23. Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:

Cholesterol crystals
Uric acid crystals
Amorphous urate
crystals
Cystine crystals

Feedback

Cystine crystals are characteristically seen as colorless hexagonal plates in acid

urine. They may be confused with hexagonal uric acid crystals. They can be
differentiated from uric acid by their solubility in dilute hydrochloric acid versus
crystalline uric acid, which is not soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid. The cyanide-
nitroprusside test can be used to confirm the presence of cystine in urine. Cystine
crystals are not present in normal urine.

24. Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:

 Yeast
WBCs
Fat
Starch
crystals

Feedback

Starch crystals often contaminate normal urine. They appear round to oval, are
highly refractile, with an irregular indentation in the center. They may exhibit the
"Maltese cross" appearance under polarized light.

25. The RBCs seen in this illustration are indicative of:

Normal cells
Microcytic cells
Macrocytic cells
Hypochromic
cells

Feedback

Normal red cells are uniformly shaped and sized with 2-3mm of central pallor.

26. The McFarland Comparison Card shown in the illustration is used to:

Perform sensitivity testing

Standardize concentrations of
organisms
Q.C. broth media
Determine MICs

27. The WBC indicated by the arrow in this illustration is exhibiting:

Dohle bodies
Hypersegmentation
Degranulation
Pelger-Huet
 anomaly

Feedback

Pelger-Huet anomoly is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by

hyposegmentation of neutrophils. Decreased nuclear segmentation may also be seen
as an acquired disorder in cases of granulocytic leukemia, myeloproliferative
disorders, infections, and after exposure to certain drugs.

Image courtesy and copyright of the Clinical Chemistry and Hematology Laboratory, Wadsworth
Center, NY State Department of Health (http://www.wadsworth.org)

28. The abnormal RBC shape seen in this illustration is:

Sickle cell
Thorn cell
Fragmented
cell
Crenated cell

Feedback

Crenated red cells usually occur as an artifact during the preparation of blood
smears.

Acknowledgement

I m thank full to my God he give me

And also I thank full my friend Mr. Sami Khan he help me in down load, Thanks,

Muhammad Younis
Lab. Technician
NNP, Rabigh, KSA
00966-591-342865
Unis_memon85@yahoo.com
1. Which of the following is a confirmatory test for syphilis:

RPR
FTA-ABS
VDRL
Wasserman
Test

Feedback

The FTA-ABS is not intended for use as a screening test. It should only be used to differentiate
between true positives, false positives, and in late or latent syphilis.

2. The most likely cause of an elevated potassium level in an apparently normal individual is:

Contamination
Hemolysis
Acute renal failure
Interfering
substances

Feedback

Hemolysis could result from improper specimen collection technique, or improper storage.

3. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:

Increased pCO2
Hypoventilation
Low pH
High pH

Feedback

Metabolic acidosis is the result of either: 1) accumulation of abnormal levels of organic acids,
often secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis, or lactic acidosis, 2) excessive loss of bicarbonate as
in severe diarrhea, or 3) reduced excretion of acids as in renal failure. All these conditions
result in a decrease in pH. The body compensates by hyperventilating, and lowering pCO2, in
an attempt to restore normal pH, resulting in a compensated or partially compensated
metabolic acidosis.

4. The Quelling test is useful for which of the following :

Differentiate between Staphylococcus and

Streptococcus
Serological typing of Streptococcus pneumonia
Isolation of various strains of Staphylococcus
Isolation of various strains of Streptococcus

Feedback

Capsular swelling results from the addition of specific capsular antibody to an isolate of the
organism. This test is generally not required for routine diagnosis.
1
5. The relative centrifugal force of a centrifuge may be affected by all except the following:

Time
Radius of
head
RPM

Feedback

The amount of time a sample is spun does not affect the relative centrifugal force

6. Standard precautions means that:

Known infectious patients must be handled with extraordinary care
Mask, gloves and gowns should be worn in all hospital patient's
rooms
All specimens must be handled as if they are hazardous and
infectious
Always wash your hands before drawing a patients blood sample
7. RDW is an indication of which of the following:

Variability of RBC
volume
Poikilocytosis
Macrocytosis
Microcytosis

Feedback

Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) is a mathematical expression of size variation used to
quantify anisocytosis. The higher the RDW, the greater the anisocytosis. RDW is increased in
iron deficiency, and tends to be normal in thalassemia. Increased RDW may be an early
indication of iron deficiency, where it may precede the onset of microcytosis.

8. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following:

Positive cAMP test

Optochin sensitivity
Bile esculin-
hydrolysis
Bacitracin
sensitivity

Feedback

Group B streptococci are characterized by a positive cAMP test. Streptococcus pneumoniae is

characterized by Optochin susceptibility Enterococci are positive by the bile-esculin test.

9. The turbidity of the bacterial inoculum of a standard disc diffusion (Kirby-Bauer)

susceptibility test is:
0.1 McFarland
Standard

2
 0.5 McFarland
Standard
1.0 McFarland
Standard
2.0 McFarland
Standard
10. Which of the following is not a common support medium used in electrophoresis
techniques:

Cellulose acetate
Agarose gel
Polyacrylamide
gel
Dextrose

Feedback

Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are most commonly used in the clinical laboratory

11. The normal range for urine pH is:

4.6 to 8.0
5.0 to 6.0
7.0 to 8.0
none of the above
12. Which of the following is not a likely cause of an abnormal thrombin time (TT):

Fibrin split
products
Heparin
Aspirin
Dysfibrinogenemi
a

Feedback

The thrombin time is performed by adding thrombin to citrated plasma. It is prolonged by

heparin, a deficiency or abnormality of fibrinogen and the presence of fibrin split products.
Aspirin affects primarily platelet function.

13. What is the eight hour occupational exposure limit for a chemical called?

Threshold limit
value
Threshold time
limit
Time limit value
Short term limit

14. Spherocytes are associated with which two of the following conditions:

Hereditary spherocytosis
3
 Autoimmune hemolytic
anemia
Thalassemia
Iron deficiency

Feedback

Spherocytes result from removal of small amounts of erythrocyte membrane, with resultant
reduction in surface to volume ratio. This may occur in the reticuloendothelial system, as in
hereditary sherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anemia, or may be due to direct injury of
red cells, as in patients with severe burns.

15. The generally accepted age range for homologous blood donation is:

21 – 65 years
17 – 65 years
15 – 65 years
Over the age of 14
years

Feedback

Prospective donors over 65 may be accepted at the discretion of the blood bank physician.
Many donor centers safely involve elderly donors in their collection programs.

16. Which of the following organisms in most frequently associated with endocarditis:

Viruses
Neisseria
Staphlyococci
Streptococci

Feedback

Various Streptococci are the most common causes of endocarditis, although many other
organisms have been implicated.

17. Ionized calcium is most commonly measured using which of the following method:

Flame photometry
Color complex formation between calcium and o-
cresolphthalein
Atomic absorption
Calcium ion selective electrodes

18. Match the clotting factor with its commonly associated name:
Factor II Prothrombi
n

4
 Factor I Fibrinogen

Factor V Proacceleri
n
19. The prozone effect ( when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in:

False positive
False negative
No reaction at all
Mixed field
reaction

Feedback

Prozone effect (due to antibody excess) will result in an initial false negative in spite of the
large amount of antibody in the serum, followed by a positive result as the specimen is diluted.

20. Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal
maturity:
Alpha fetoprotein and
bilirubin
L/S ratio and bilirubin
Alpha fetoprotein and L/S
ratio
Creatinine and L/S ratio
21. Therapeutic hemapheresis may be used to treat all of the following except:

Acute Guillian-Barre
syndrome
Paraproteinemia
HIV infections
Cryoglobulinemia

Feedback

Therapeutic Hemapheresis is the process of removing a harmful blood component, and

returned the remaining blood components to the patient. The examples sited above are
indications for plasmapheresis, in which plasma containing a harmful substance is removed
from the body, and replaced with FFP or other volume expanders, depending on the patient's
condition.

22. A smear that is prepared from equal parts of methylene blue and whole blood will be used
for:

WBC differential
Platelet estimates, RBC
count
Reticulocyte count

Feedback

Remaining nuclear fragments found in reticulocytes take up the methylene blue dye.

23. Gram positive organisms

5
 resist acetone-alcohol de colorization
are always decolorized by acetone-
alcohol
resist staining by crystal violet
readily stain with safranin in the Gram
stain

Feedback

Gram positive organisms resist decolorization with acetone-alcohol. Gram negative organisms
are decolorized, and subsequently stain with safranin.

24. Which of the following are not appropriate indications for the use of fresh frozen plasma:

Volume expansion
Severe bleeding in the presence of significantly elevated PT secondary to vitamin K
deficiency
Replacement component after plasma exchange in patients with TTP or HUS
Dilutional coagulopathy with significant active bleeding, and PT and PTT twice normal

Feedback

Since each unit of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) carries with it the risk of transmitting blood borne
pathogens, and other products which do not carry this risk are available, FFP should not be
used as a volume expander.

25. If a pipette is labeled (TC) " to contain " you would do the following:

Drain pipette, but not blow out

Drain contents then blow out or rinse
Drain to last mark on pipette
Do not consider the meniscus when
filling

Feedback

"TC" means the total volume contained in the pipette - you must blow out to remove total
contents.

26. The concentration of sodium chloride in an isotonic solution is :

8.5 %
0.85 %
0.08 %
1
molar

Feedback

Isotonic or normal saline is a 0.85 % solution of sodium chloride in water.

27. The positive square root of the variance of a set of values is called:

6
 Median value
Mean value
Standard deviation
Coefficient of
variation
28. Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B:
Core antigen
Surface
antigen
e antigen
Delta antigen
29. Which one of the following is not a true statement about Chlamydia:
Requires tissue culture for
growth
Is a true bacterium
Is an obligate intracellular
parasite
Has the nuclear structure of a
virus
30. Which of the following species are gram positive:
Streptococcu
s
Neisseria
Listeria
Lactobacillus
31. Which of the following media is commonly used when performing the Kirby-Bauer disk
diffusion
Chocolate agar
Mueller-Hinton
agar
Thayer-Martin
agar
MacConkey agar
32. Which of the following best defines "sensitivity":

The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a positive test
The percentage of patients without a disease who will have a negative
test
The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a negative test
The percentage of patients without a disease who will have a positive
test

Feedback

Sensitivity refers to the percentage or fraction of patients with a given disease in a given
population who will have a positive test.

33. What percentage solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach) is recommended as a routine

7
 laboratory disinfectant:
5%
10
%
15
%
20
%
34. In HDN which of the following antigen-antibody reactions is occurring:
Maternal antibody against fetal
antibody
Maternal antigen against fetal antibody
Maternal antibody against fetal antigen
Maternal antigen against fetal antigen
35. Carbon dioxide is predominately found in blood in the form of:
Bound CO2
Bicarbonate ions
Sodium
carbonate
Pco2
36. What condition is indicated by the following blood gas results: Bicarbonate = 32 mmol/L
(Normal = 22 - 26 mmol/L); pCO2 = 65 mm Hg (Normal = 35 - 45 mmHg); pH = 7.28
(normal = 7.35 - 7.45)

Healthy condition
Uncompensated metabolic
acidosis
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory
acidosis

Feedback

The normal pH of blood is 7.40. In order for most metabolic processes to take place, the pH
must remain within a narrow range close to this value. The range is usually defined in adults as
7.35-7.45. If blood pH falls below 7.35, the blood becomes too acidic (acidosis). If blood rises
above 7.45, the blood is too alkaline (alkalosis).

As blood pH decreases, the kidneys will retain bicarbonate (HCO 3-) from the glomerular filtrate;
therefore, bicarbonate is increased. However, in this case, the increased HCO 3- could not
compensate for the markedly elevated pCO2 (the respiratory component) and the condition that
results is uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

37. In a normal CSF the protein concentration as compared to that in the serum is generally:

Less than
50%
Less than
30%
Less than
10%
Less than

8
 1%

Feedback

Normal ratio of serum to CSF Protein is about 200 to 1, or less than 1%. Elevation of CSF total
protein is a nonspecific finding, but usually indicates some type of disease involving the brain
or meninges.

38. Match the type of hepatitis with its route of transmission

Fecal and Oral Hepatitis

A
Parenteral Hepatitis
B
Parenteral Hepatitis
C

Feedback

Hepatitis A is spread through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis B is most commonly spread through
parenteral means, but nonparenteral routes such as transmission through pregnancy, sexual
contact, and exposure to infected body fluids are also important. Hepatitis C is spread through
parenteral routes; pregnancy, sexual contact, and in households is possible, but much less
likely than with hepatitis B.

39. Which of the following staining methods would you use to demonstrate the metachromatic
granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae:

Acid fast
Gram
Trichrome
Methylene
blue

Feedback

Methylene blue stain can be used to visualize the metachromatic granules that are
characteristic of C. diphtheriae.

40. Which of the following are not considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract:

Lactobacillus
Clostridium
Peptostreptococcu
s
Shigella

Feedback

Shigella and Salmonella are not found as normal flora in the gastrointestinal tract.

41. All of the following cellular antigens are important to an immunohematologist except:
9
 Blood group antigens
Histocompatibility
antigens
Haptens
Autoantigens

Feedback

A hapten is an incomplete antigen.

42. Which one of the following statements about anti-A1 is false:

Anti-A1 is a naturally occurring antibody that is usually clinically

insignificant
Anti-A1 reactive at 37o C can sometimes destroy transfused A1 positive
cells
A1 and A2 occur in 80 and 20 percent of the population, respectively
A2 cells react with Dolichos biflorus lectin

Feedback

Dolichos biflorus lectin has anti-A1 specificity.

43. Which one of the following organisms do not usually stain with an acid-fast stain, or one of
its variants:
Mycobacterium
Cryptosporidium
Actinomyces
israelii
Nocardia
44. Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of
viral cultures:

4° C
-20° C,
-70° C
Room
temperature

Feedback

Cultures can be stored at either -20° or -70°, but -70° is preferred for long term storage.

45. Which of the following would be the most appropriate method to confirm a positive protein
from a urine dipstick:
Immunoelectropheresis
Heat precipitation
Sulfosalicylic acid

10
 precipitation
Protein electrophoresis
46. Circulating organic iodine is found primarily in the form of:

Triiodothyronine
Parathyroid
hormone
Thyroglobulin
Thyroxine

Feedback

Iodine circulates as thyroxine (T4) and to and to a lesser extent as Triiodothyronine (T3).

47. Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a marked rise in alkaline
phosphatase, jaundice, and a moderate rise in ALT:

Cardiovascular disease
Hemolytic anemia
Post-hepatic
obstruction
Renal failure

Feedback

Post-hepatic obstruction is characterized by a marked increase in conjugated bilirubin.

48. Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of acute cystitis:
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Staphylococcus
epidermidis
49. A fluorometer operates on which of the following principles:

Measures amount of light absorbed by a given compound

Measures changes in emitted wavelength of light after absorption by an
analyte
Measures amount of light scattered by the analyte in question
Measures light emitted at two or more wavelengths

50. Which of the following statement about synovial fluid is true:

Markedly elevated neutrophils always correspond to bacterial joint infection
Patients with gout involving joints will have markedly elevated neutrophils in their
synovial fluid
Fungal joint infections have synovial fluid with numerous lymphocytes
Tuberculous joint infections have synovial fluid with numerous plasma cells
51. Rheumatoid factor reacts with which the following :
Fc fragment of IgM

11
 Fab fragment of
IgM
Fab fragment of
IgG
Fc fragment of IgG
52. Gamma irradiation of cellular blood components is required in which of the following
situations:

Prevent post-transfusion purpura

Prevent Graft-Versus-Host (GVH) disease
Sterile components
Prevent non-cardiogenic pulmonary
edema

Feedback

Transfusion related Graft-Versus-Host disease is a rare condition usually following transfusion

of patients whose immune system is severely compromised. It occurs when T lymphocytes
present in the transfused unit replicate and attack the tissues of the recipient. Gamma
irradiation prevents this condition by inactivating T lymphocytes in the donor unit. Gamma
irradiation of cellular blood components is required when: 1.The donor is a blood relative of the
recipient, 2. intrauterine transfusions, 3. The recipient has a selected immunodeficiency
condition, 4. The recipient has received a bone marrow transplant.

53. Patients with which of the following conditions would benefit most from washed red cells:

Warm autoimmune hemolytic

anemia
Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Elevated serum potassium
Multiple red cell alloantibodies

Feedback

Washing not only reduces the number of leukocytes and platelets that are often responsible for
febrile reactions, but also eliminates anticoagulants, ammonia, lactic acid, and potassium.

54. Cryoglobulin testing can be used to:

Screen for rheumatoid arthritis,

Diagnose syphilis
Screen for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Help diagnose Raynaud's syndrome

Feedback

Cryoglobulin is an abnormal serum protein with a unique ability to precipitate when exposed to
cold temperatures. Cryoglobulin is present in Raynaud's syndrome.

55. Which is arranged from least mature to most mature:

Myeloblast, Myelocyte, Band, Neutrophil, Metamyelocyte, Promyelocyte, Stem
Cell
Stem Cell, Myeloblast, Promyelocyte, Myelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Band,
Neutrophil

12
 Stem Cell, Promyelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Neutrophil, Myeloblast, Myelocyte,
Band
Neutrophil, Band, Metamyelocyte, Myelocyte, Promyelocyte, Myeloblast, Stem
Cell
56. The measurement of total glycosylated hemoglobin A1c is an effective means of assessing
the average blood glucose levels:

Over the past 1-2

weeks
Over the past 2-3
months
Only the past 24 hours

Feedback

The concentration of hemoglobin A1c is directly proportional to the average plasma glucose
level that the RBCs are exposed to during their 120 day life span. The glycosylated
hemoglobins result from glycosylation of serine, asparagine, and hydroxylysine residues in
hemoglobin. There are three glycosylated hemoglobins: Hb A1a, Hb A1b, and Hb A1c, of which
Hb A1c constitutes 80%. Most methods measure total gycosylated hemoglobin, which has a
high degree of correlation to Hb A1c, and may be reported as such after making the
appropriate conversion.

57. Bacitracin susceptibility is useful for which two of the following:

Distinguishing Staphylococci from micrococci

Presumptive identification of Group A
streptococci
Identification of Haemophilus
Identification of Neisseria

Feedback

Staphylococci are resistant to bacitracin while micrococcus are sensitive. Group A beta-
hemolytic Streptococci are sensitive to bacitracin, while most other Groups are resistant.

58. Which of the following is the proper temperature to use when crossmatching in the
presence of a cold antibody:

37 degrees
Celsius
25 degrees
Celsius
15 degrees
Celsius
4 degrees Celsius

Feedback

Most antibodies that are inactive at 37 degrees Celsius, and active only below 37 degrees
Celsius (i.e. cold reactive antibodies), are of little clinical significance.

13
59. Match the virus with its disease:

Hepadnavirus Hepatitis

Arbovirus Encephalitis

Parvovirus Fifth disease

Paramyxovirus Measles-
Mumps
60. When a urine specimen cannot be cultured immediately it may be:
Stored at room temperature for up to 8
hours
Stored in freezer for up to 24 hours
Neisseria
Stored at 4° C for up to 24 hours
61. Platelet should be stored at what temperature:

1-6 degrees Celsius

10-16 degrees
Celsius
20-24 degrees
Celsius
34-37 degrees
Celsius

Feedback

Platelets should be stored at 20-24 degrees Celsius with continuous gentle agitation. They
should be infused within 4 hours after the seal on a platelet unit is broken.

62. The recommended temperature/time/pressure for routine steam sterilization of media is:
121° C for 8-10 minutes @ 10
psi
121° C for 12-15 minutes @
15 psi
220° C for 8-10 minutes @ 10
psi
220° C for 12-15 minutes @
15 psi
63. Which of the following casts might be found in the urine of a healthy individual after
strenuous exercise:

Epithelial cell
casts
Hyaline casts
Granular casts
Waxy casts

Feedback

Hyaline casts may be seen in healthy individuals particularly after exercise.

64. If a laboratory 's control range (using a 99.7 confidence interval) for a given assay is 20.0 to
50.0, what would its means and one standard deviation be:

14
 Mean = 35.0 SD =
15.0
Mean = 35.0 SD =
10.0
Mean = 40.0 SD =
7.5
Mean = 35.0 SD =
5.0

Feedback

The mean would be halfway between 20 and 50, or 35. The range for the assay is within 15
units of the mean, representing 3 SD (equal to 99.7% confidence interval). Therefore, 1 SD =
15/3 or 5.

65. If a potential donor has been transfused blood products, he must be deferred from blood
donation for:
1 month
3
months
6
months
1 year
66. An urticarial reaction is characterized by:

Rapid rise in
temperature
Difficulty breathing
Rash and hives
Blood in the urine

Feedback

Urticarial transfusion reactions occur in up to 1% of transfusions. They are manifested by hives,

rash, and itching. The transfusion may be resumed after successful administration of
antihistamines.

67. Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the urine would
be most indicative of kidney disease:

WBCs and bacteria

Tubular epithelial cells
Squamous epithelial
cells
RBCs

Feedback

Squamous epithelial cells are usually vaginal contaminants.

68. Which of the following statistical methods would be employed to determine how closely two
different methods compare with each other:

15
 Linear regression
Standard deviation
Coefficient of variation
Percent difference of
means

Feedback

Linear regression can be used to compare one method with another.

69. Elevation in CSF total protein may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
Brain tumors
Bacterial
meningitis
Parkinson's
disease
CVA
70. Which one of the following is not a system for incubation of anaerobic bacteria:
Candle jar
Glove box anaerobic chamber
Anaerobic jar - gaspak
Anaerobic jar - evacuation
replacement
71. A plastic anemia may be caused by all of the following except:

Infections
Chemical agent
Enzyme
deficiencies
Ionizing radiation

Feedback

Enzyme deficiencies are usually associated with hemolytic anemias.

72. Which of the following types of whole blood would be the least satisfactory to transfuse to a
type AB patient:

Group O
Group A
Group B
Group
AB

Feedback

Group O whole blood contains both anti-A and anti-B which could react with the recipient's
RBCs.

73. Bence-Jones proteinuria is associated with all of the following conditions except:

16
 Macroglobulinemi
a
Pernicious anemia
Multiple myeloma
Amyloidosis

Feedback

Macroglobulinemia, Multiple Myeloma, and Amyloidosis are all associated with abnormal
protein production and/or accumulation which can result in Bence-Jones proteins being
excreted in the urine.

74. The slide coagulase test is a rapid method for identifying which of the following organisms.

Staphylococcus hominis
Staphylococcus
pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Feedback

Since not all isolates of S. aureus are detected by the slide coagulase test, suspicious
organisms negative by the slide test must be confirmed by the tube coagulase test.

75. Which of the following streptococcus exhibits a positive bile solubility test:

S. pyogenes
S.
pneumoniae
S. agalactiae
S. mutans

Feedback

Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies dissolve with the additon of sodium deoxycholate (positive
bile sensitivity test) and are sensitive to Optochin- unlike other species of Streptococci.

76. Which of the following red blood cells contain the most H antigen:

Group A cells
Group B cells
Group O cells
Bombay
phenotype

Feedback

O cells contain only H antigen, while cells of the other ABO groups contain varying amount of H
antigen in addition to their group specific antigen(s). The classic Bombay phenotype is
characterized by the absence of A, B, and H antigens.

77. A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by:

17
 Decreased intake and absorption
Decreased intake and excretion
Increased intake and excretion
Increased excretion and decreased
absorption
78. Match the illustrations with the corresponding description of colony edges:

Irregular A

Entire B

Crenated C

79. ABO blood groups were discovered by:

Mendelson
Morgan
Wiener
Landsteine
r

Feedback

Landsteiner first identified the presence of the separate red cell antigens A and B in the early
1900's.

80. Which of the following parasites is not commonly found in the peripheral blood:

Loa loa
Brugia malayi
Dipetalonema
perstans
Onchocerca volvulus

Feedback

The microfiliariae of Onchocerca do not generally circulate in the peripheral blood. The
diagnosis is made by demonstrating the microfiliariae in teased skin snips.

81. If an Rh negative patient is administered a unit of R1R1 packed red cells, which one of the
following antibodies would be most likely to develop:

Anti-c,
Anti-E
Anti-D
Anti-e

Feedback

R1R1 (DCe/DCe) cells are positive for the D antigen, which is the most immunogenic antigen of
the Rh system, followed by c and E.

18
82. A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to
infection:

CD 4+ cells
CD 8+ cells
HIV
antibodies
HIV antigens

Feedback

It is the CD 4+ cells that help aid our immune system in attacking foreign antigens by initiating
the body's response. CD 8+ also helps in the role of immunity by attaching to infected cells to
initiate cell destruction. A decrease in HIV antibodies would not leave the host more suseptible
to infection since the antibody is directed at the HIV virus only. Finally, a decrease in HIV
antigens will also not cause a host to become more suseptible to infections.

83. The primary site of reabsorption of glomerular filtrate is the:

Loop of Henle
Proximal convoluted
tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting duct
84. Which of these is arranged from least mature to most mature:
Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Stem
Cell
Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Prolymphocyte,
Lymphocyte
Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte,
Prolymphocyte
Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Lympoblast, Stem
Cell
85. MCV is calculated using which of the following parameters:

Hgb and RBC

RBC histogram
RBC and Hct
RBC and MCHC

Feedback

MCV = Hematocrit X 1000/RBC (in millions per microliter). The MCV is expressed in femtoliters
(cubic micrometers, 10-15 liters).

86. Which of the following would not be considered a normal part of a routine electrolyte panel:

Sodium
Potassium
Magnesiu
m
Chloride

19
Feedback

A routine electrolyte panel typically consists of sodium, potassium, choride, bicarbonate,

creatinine, glucose, and BUN.

87. Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum uric acid levels:

Cushing's
syndrome
Pancreatitis
Hyperthyroidism
Gout

Feedback

Gout is a disease manifested by the deposition of crystalline uric acid in joints and soft tissues,
with secondary inflammation and pain.

88. Which of the following additives should be used for the collection of a sample for blood gas
analysis:
Sodium citrate
EDTA
Sodium
oxalate
Heparin
89. What is the site used most frequently in the adult patient when performing a bone marrow
biopsy:

Vertebra
e
Sternum
Clavicle
Iliac crest

Feedback

Bone marrow specimens are usually obtained in adults from the posterior iliac crest. They may
also be obtained from the sternum.

90. The precursor of the platelet which is commonly only found in the bone marrow is:

Myeloblast
Metakarocyte
Megakaryocyte
Erythroblast

Feedback

Platelets are formed by the fragmentation of megakaryocyte cytoplasm.

20
91. Which of the following set of conditions would preclude HDN as a result of Rh
incompatibility:

Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-

positive
Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive
Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-
negative
Mother Rh unknown, baby Rh-positive

Feedback

If both parents are Rh negative, the baby would also be Rh negative.

92. Erythropoietin is produced in:

Bone
marrow
Liver
Lymphocyte
s
Kidneys

Feedback

Erythropoietin, which is produced in the kidneys, stimulates the production of red blood cells.

93. The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is found in which of the following genetic
models:

Landsteine
r
Wiener
Fisher
-Race
Rhesus

Feedback

Fisher and Race first proposed the existence of the three closely linked genes, and used the
DCE terminology to describe their theory.

94. Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite:

Proteus
Escherichi
a
Klebsiella
Rickettsia
e
95. An average adult would excrete approximately what volume of urine per 24 hours:

21
 3000
ml
1500
ml
750 ml
250 ml

Feedback

Normal adult urine volume is 800 to 1800 ml/24hours for males, and 600 to 1600 ml/24 hours
for females.

96. What minimum level of specific resistance (megohms@25o C) is required for a Type I water
system:

10.
0
5.0
2.0
0.1

Feedback

Specific resistance is the resistance in Ohms of a 1 cm long by 1 cm2 cross sectional column of
solution. Type I water is the purest, and therefore has the highest resistance. Type II water is
used for most routine laboratory determinations, and must have a specific resistance of at least
2.0. Type III water is the least pure; it must have a specific resistance of at least 0.1.

97. Which of the following group B antigens is generally associated with a mixed field reaction:

B
B3
B
m
Bx

Feedback

B3 is characterized by a weaker than usual reaction with anti-B and by a mixed field reaction
with the same reagent.

98. The most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOTâ) for infectious mononucleosis employs:

Horse erythrocytes
Sheep erythrocytes
Intact beef
erythrocytes
None of the above

Feedback

22
A positive spot test shows agglutination of horse erythrocytes when added to patient serum
previously absorbed with guinea pig kidney, but not when added to patient serum previously
absorbed with beef erythrocyte stroma. The test is generally simple, sensitive, and specific, but
false negative are common in young children with mononucleosis.

99. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is associated with all of the following clinical
conditions except:

Septicemia
Obstetric
emergencies
Intravascular
hemolysis
Thrombocytosis

Feedback

Platelet counts are decreased or normal during DIC.

100. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be associated with gas gangrene:
Clostridia histolyticum
Pseudomonas
aeruginosa
Clostridium perfringens
Escherichia coli
101. Which of the following would most likely occur as the result of hemodilution:

Low serum electrolytes

High serum electrolytes
Increased anion gap
Electrolyte concentrations would remain the
same

Feedback

A dilutional effect caused by the sample being hemodiluted, would not cause high serum
electrolytes since they have been diluted out. The anion gap could remain the same or
become decreased. Finally, the electrolyte concentrations could not remain the same, since
there will be a smaller amount in the sample to test due to the diluent.

102. Following a myocardial infarction which of the following enzymes will be the first to
become elevated:

CK
LDH
GG
T
AST

Feedback

23
GGT is elevated in liver disorders. CK rises before LDH. However myoglobin is the earliest
serum cardiac marker to rise after an infarction; it may be positive within two hours post MI. It
is not cardiac specific, and can be elevated in skeletal muscle trauma or rhabdomyolysis.

103. India Ink is used to:

Visualize flagella
Visualize shape
Visualize capsule
Visualize
cytoplasm

Feedback

India ink can aid in the visualization of the polysacchride capsules of yeast such as
Cryptococcus neoformans.

104. Match the organisms on the right with their appropriate type from the drop down box:

Protozoa Trypansoma,
Leischmania
Helminths Trichinella, Schistosoma

Protozoa Plasmodium

Helminths Ascaris, Cestodes

105. The most frequent genotype among Rho (D) -negative persons is:
r'
r
r'
r"
rr
r'r'
106. Which one tests should be used to monitor a patient's response to treatment for
syphilis:

TPI titer, FTA-

ABS titer
RPR titer
TPHA titer

Feedback

RPR titer should be performed every three months for one year; a fourfold increase in titer
indicates infection, reinfection, or failed treatment; a fourfold decrease in titer indicates
adequate treatment.

107. Which of the following anticoagulants will not produce a significant effect on calcium
levels in plasma:

EDTA
Heparin

24
 Oxalate
s
Citrates

Feedback

EDTA, Oxalates, and Citrates remove calcium from the blood, while heparin acts by forming a
complex with antithrombin III.

108. Which of the following kappa / lambda ratios is found in normal serum:
4 :
1
3 :
1
2 :
1
1 :
1
109. The A1 subgroup represents approximately what percentage of group A individuals:

25
%
55
%
75
%
95
%

Feedback

Approximately 80% of all people typed as group A or AB are agglutinated by anti- A1 sera.

110. The infective stage for all of the intestinal amoebae is the:

Trophozoit
e
Cyst
Larva
Egg

Feedback

The majority of the amoebae pass through two life cycle stages: a delicate feeding stage call a
trophozoite, and a nonfeeding infective cyst. Recovery of either form is considered diagnostic.

111. Which of the following is false about troponin:

It rises much sooner after an MI than CK-MB

It stays positive much longer than CK-MB
It is potentially more specific than CK-MB
Troponin T is often elevated in renal failure
patients

25
Feedback

Troponin is potentially more specific for myocardial damage than CK-MB and stays elevated
longer. It may eventually replace CK-MB as the standard marker of myocardial damage.
Troponin and CK-MB both tend to rise approximately 3 hours after a MI; however, troponins can
stay elevated up to 2 weeks as CK-MB tends to return to baseline around 36 hours.

112. What is the purpose of using methyl alcohol in the gram stain procedure:

Fix all gram positive organisms

Decolorize all gram positive
organisms
Decolorize all gram negative
organisms
Fix all gram negative organisms

Feedback

Gram positive organisms resist decolorization by methyl alcohol.

113. Match the differential/ selective enteric medium with its characteristic indicator,
fermentable, and bacteriostatic.

Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate phenol red, lactose, bile salts

Eosin methylene blue eosin Y and methylene blue, lactose, eosin Y and methylene
blue
Bismuth sulfite bismuth sulfite, glucose, brilliant green

Salmonella-shigella neutral red, lactose, bile salts

Feedback

XLD has a yellow fermenter and a red nonfermenter. MacConkey has a red fermenter and a
colorless nonfermenter. EMB has a black/red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter. HE has a
yellow fermenter and a green nonfermenter. BS has a Salmonella fermenter and a black
nonfermenter. SS has a red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter.

114. Nephelometry involves the measurement:

Light absorption
Light
transmission
Light scatter
Atomic
absorption

Feedback

Nephelometry is used to measure the light scattered by particles in a solution. It is useful for
measuring protein levels in fluids, and antigen-antibody complexes.

115. Which of the following procedures would you employ to monitor the precision of an
assay:

26
 Run assayed controls
Run blinded samples
Run by alternative
method
Run samples in duplicate

Feedback

Precision is a measure of reproducibility of a test when it is repeated several times under the
same conditions. It could be monitored by running samples in duplicate or triplicate.

116. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is chiefly responsible for the
degranulation of mast cells and basophils:

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE

Feedback

IgE levels are often increased in patients with allergic disease. IgE binds to the membranes of
mast cells and basophils, and if specific antigen is present to react with the IgE molecule,
degranulation of these cells occurs, releasing histamines, and other substances into the blood
or tissues.

117. The lecethin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) is used to assess:

Fetal neurological
development
Fetal lung maturity
Fetal viability
Fetal liver development

Feedback

An L/S ratio above 2:1 indicates mature lung development, whereas a ratio below 1.5:1
indicates pulmonary immaturity.

118. What additional fraction would be seen if plasma rather than serum was subjected to
electrophoresis:

Alpha-1 antitrypsin, Gamma

globulins
Alpha-2 macroglobulin
Fibrinogen

Feedback

Fibrinogen present in plasma would form a band between the beta and gamma globulins.

119. Which of the following is a routine staining technique used in the clinical laboratory:
Wright-Giemsa
27
 Gram
Romanowsky
All of the
above
120. Match the description with the appropriate illustration of colony elevations:

High Convex A

Flat B

Low Convex C

Plateau D

121. Which of the following is most commonly associated with febrile non-hemolytic
transfusion reactions:
Bacterial contamination of the
blood
I.V. tubing contaminants
Reaction to plasma proteins
Immune response to leukocytes
122. Which of the following is not a structural component of a typical virion:

Nucleoprotein core
Capsid shell
Lipid envelope
Icosahedral
symmetry

Feedback

An intact viral particle typically consists of a nucleoprotein core, capsomeres making up the
capsid, and a lipid envelope (absent in some viruses). The symmetry of a virus is usually
icosahedral, or helical.

123. Match urine color with substance that might have been responsible:
Phosphates Porphobilinogen Red to
White
brown
Bilirubin Yellow

Pseudomonas Blue to
green
124. The renal threshold is best described as:

Concentration at which a substance in the blood spills into

urine
Concentration at which reabsorption first occurs
Concentration at which kidney can no longer filter the blood
Concentration at which kidney failure begins

Feedback

28
The renal threshold is the maximum amount of a substance that the kidney can prevent from
entering into the urine.

125. An urticarial reaction is characterized by:

Rapid rise in
temperature
Difficulty breathing
Rash and hives
Blood in the urine

Feedback

Urticarial transfusion reactions occur in up to 1% of transfusions. They are manifested by hives,

rash, and itching. The transfusion may be resumed after successful administration of
antihistamines.

126. On sheep blood agar Haemophilus influenzae may exhibit satellite formation around all
but which of the following organisms:

Pseudomonas
Neisseria
Staphylococcu
s
Pneumococcus

Feedback

Neisseria, Staphylococcus, and Pneumococcus produce enough V factor to allow H. influenzae

to grow on blood agar near their colonies. This property is utilized in the "satellite test"
technique whereby minute colonies of Haemophilus are seen in the hemolytic zone surrounding
a streak of Staphylococcus aureus on sheep blood agar, providing a presumptive identification
of Haemophilus.

127. Adult Hematopoiesis occurs in:

Vertebrae
Skull
Proximal ends of long
bones
All of the above

Feedback

By the age of 18-20 years, active hematopoiesis is limited to the sternum, ribs, pelvis,
vertebrae, and skull.

128. A simple check which can be employed to verify that hemoglobin and hematocrit values
match would be:

Hematocrit X 3 =
hemoglobin

29
 Hemoglobin X 3 =
hematocrit
Hemoglobin / hematocrit =
3
Hemoglobin + hematocrit =
3

Feedback

The hematocrit is equal to approximately 3 times the hemoglobin level.

129. How close the assayed value of an analyte is to its actual value is a reflection of:

Precision of the assay

Reproducibility of the
assay
Sensitivity of the assay
Accuracy of the assay

Feedback

Accuracy is defined as how close an assayed value is to the actual value of an analyte.

130. The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is:

Osmotic gradient
Concentration of blood components
Rate of blood flow through the kidneys
Hydrostatic differential in glomerular
tufts

Feedback

The hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries of the glomerular tuft drives the filtrate across their
semipermeable membrane. The normal glomerular filtrate is similar in composition to the
plasma, with the exception that molecules with a molecular weight of greater than about
15,000 are not filtered.

131. Which of the following best describes a minor crossmatch:

Reaction of donor cells with recipient
serum
Reaction of donor cells with AHG
Reaction of recipient cells with AHG
Reaction of donor serum with recipient
cells
132. Fire requires what three elements?
heat, fuel, oxygen
paper, match, gasoline
heat, fuel, nitrogen
lighter fluid, charcoal,
grill
133. A 20 year-old female was admitted into the hospital complaining of 10 to 15 bloody
mucous stools per day, fever, gastrointestinal disturbances, abdominal pain, and nausea.
30
 The preliminary O & P report went out as "Probable Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites and
cysts, confirmation pending." This patient is most likely suffering from:
Traveler's diarrhea
Extraintestinal
amebiasis
Intestinal amebiasis
Giardiasis
134. Which of the following Rh antigens is found the highest frequency in the Caucasian
population:

C
E
c
e

Feedback

The e antigen is present in 98% of the Caucasian population.

135. What is another name used to designate a fully committed B-lymphocyte:

T-lymphocyte
Reactive
lymphocyte
Large lymphocyte
Plasma cell

Feedback

Plasma cells are the end stage of B lymphocyte maturation; they are not normally seen in
peripheral blood.

136. Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the following conditions:

Medullary carcinoma of the

thyroid
Hyperthyroidism
Glioblastoma
Adrenal adenoma

Feedback

Serum calcitonin is normally produced by the C cells of the thyroid. It functions to reduce
serum calcium by inhibiting release of calcium from bone. It is a peptide with a molecular
weight of 3400, and has a half life of approximately 12 minutes. It is characteristically elevated
in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Since medullary carcinoma often occurs as an
autosomal disorder, family members of patients with this condition should be screened for
serum calcitonin.

137. Warfarin inhibits all the following coagulation Factors except:

Factor II
Factor IX
31
 Factor
VII
Factor XI

Feedback

Warfarin only inhibits vitamin K dependent factors; Factor XI is not vitamin K dependent.

138. Match the organism names from the drop down box to the name of the associated
condition listed below.
Plasmodium ovale Malaria

Trypanosoma cruzi Chagas' Disease

Cestodes Tapeworms

Trypanosoma rhodesienseSleeping
Sickness
139. Serum proteins can be separated by cellulose acetate electrophoresis into how many
basic fractions:

4
fractions
5
fractions
6
fractions
7
fractions

Feedback

The five basic fractions are albumin, alpha-1, alpha-2, beta, and gamma globulins.

140. Which of the following specimens would not be considered suitable for anaerobic
culture:

Drainage from a puncture

wound
Throat swab
Drainage from abdomen
Blood culture

Feedback

Anaerobes are predominant in the colon. Anaerobic habitats have reduced oxygen tension
usually resulting from the metabolic activity of aerobic organisms. Thus, anaerobic infections
are usually polymicrobial, with aerobes, facultative anaerobes, and obligate anaerobes all
contributing to the infection.

141. Which band on the following serum protein electrophoresis scan is not made up of a
mixture of proteins:
Beta

32
 Alpha -
1
Alpha -
2
Albumin
142. Which of the following is not necessary for bacteria to grow successfully on artificial
media:

Pure isolate
Proper
temperature
Proper Ph
Proper moisture

Feedback

A mixture of bacteria can easily grow together on media as long as the other factors are all
maintained correctly.

143. Why would a unit of group O blood never be administered to a Bombay patient:

Anti-A in donor
Anti-B in donor
Anti-H in donor
Anti-H in
recipient

Feedback

The classic Bombay phenotype (Oh) is characterized by the absence of A, B and H antigens, and
the presence of anti-H, which will react from 4o to 37o C. Bombay patients must therefore be
transfused only with blood from donors of the Bombay phenotype.

144. Total magnification of a microscope can be determined by:

Multiplying power of objective times the power of the ocular

Dividing the power of objective by the power of the ocular
Dividing the power of the ocular by the power of the
objective
Adding the power of the ocular and objective together X 10

145. IgM antibodies directed against red cells generally:

React best at 37 degrees
Celsius
Cause severe hemolytic
reactions
Are identified using the AHG
test
React best at room temperature
146. Identify the reaction seen in Illustration
Identity
33
 Nonidentity
Partial
identity
147. Which of the following organisms is not an aerobic organism:

Francisella
Bacteroides
Pseudomona
s
Neisseria

Feedback

Francisella tularensis is an aerobic gram-negative coccobaccillary organism requiring cystine or

cysteine to grow. It causes tuleremia, which can manifest as cutaneous papules and ulcers,
conjunctivitis, fever, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy. It can be diagnosed by culture on
appropriate media, or serology. Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic gram-negative rod which is
resistant to most penicillins. It can cause a variety of life threatening infections. Pseudomonas
aeruginosa is a stictly aerobic gram-negative motile bacillus; it causes a variety of infections
especially among patients who are immunocompromised for a variety of reasons, and it causes
wound infections in moist air.

148. Which of the following statements about Rickettsia is false:

They are obligate intracellular parasites

They are gram negative bacilli
Associated diseases are usually diagnosed by
serology
They are cultured in many hospital laboratories

Feedback

Various Rickettsial species cause typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Rickettsialpox, and Q
fever. Rickettsial organisms are cultured only by research and reference laboratories, and the
diagnosis is usually achieved by a combination of clinical findings, and acute and convalescent
serology. Early diagnosis of Rocky Mountain spotted fever can also be made by
immunoflourescence testing of a skin biopsy, where Rickettsia can often be found within
endothelial cells of capillary vessels.

149. Coarse basophilic stippling in all of the following EXCEPT:

Megaloblastic
anemias
Thalassemias
Lead poisoning
Hemolytic anemia

Feedback

34
Hemolytic anemia may be associated with fine basophilic stippling due to precipitated RNA in
polychromatophilic erythrocytes. It is not usually associated with coarse stippling. The other
conditions above have coarse stippling in the setting of abnormal hemoglobin synthesis.

150. Human chorionic gonadatropin (hCG) is used in the determination of:

Liver
function
Fetal
maturity
Pregnancy
Steroid
levels

151. Estrogen and progesterone markers are most commonly used to provide prognostic
information about:

Breast cancer
Uterine cancer
Menopause
Cervical cancer

Feedback

Patients with tumors positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors tend to respond
favorably to hormonal therapy, whereas those without generally do not. Patients with positive
estrogen and progesterone receptors also have a somewhat better prognosis.

152. Materials such as strong acids and bases are classified as:
Corrosives
Chemical
irritants
Flammable
liquids
Carcinogens
153. Elevation in conjugated bilirubin is most likely to be found in which of the following
conditions:

Transfusion
reactions
Erythroblastosis
fetalis
Cirrhosis of the liver
Biliary obstruction

Feedback

Posthepatic jaundice is the result of bile duct obstruction, not impaired hepatic function. It will
result in elevation of direct (conjugated) bilirubin.

154. Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing which of the following:
35
 Only T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte subsets
Erythropoietin, thrombopoietin and
leukopoietin
Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells
Daughter cells from only a single cell line

Feedback

Pluripotential stem cells are ultimately capable of differentiating into all types of leukocytes.

155. Match the differential/ selective enteric medium with its characteristic indicator,
fermentable, and bacteriostatic.

phenol red, lactose, bile salts

eosin Y and methylene blue, lactose, eosin Y and
methylene blue
bismuth sulfite, glucose, brilliant green
neutral red, lactose, bile salts

Feedback

XLD has a yellow fermenter and a red nonfermenter. MacConkey has a red fermenter and a
colorless nonfermenter. EMB has a black/red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter. HE has a
yellow fermenter and a green nonfermenter. BS has a Salmonella fermenter and a black
nonfermenter. SS has a red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter.

156. What is the largest constituent of plasma nonprotein nitrogen:

Ammonia
Creatinin
e
Ketones
Urea

157. What principle(s) of flow cytometry are employed when performing

immunophenotyping:

Defraction gradients
Impedance
Defraction gradients and impedance
Flourescent antibody tagging and light
scatter

Feedback

Flow cytometry employs a combination of fluorescent antibody tagging of cells and analysis
with laser light scatter.

36
158. Which is arranged from least mature to most mature:
Stem Cell, Rubriblast, Prorubricyte, Rubricyte, Metarubricyte, Reticulocyte,
Erythrocyte
Stem Cell, Prorubricyte, Metarubricyte, Erythrocyte, Rubriblast, Rubricyte,
Reticulocyte
Erythrocyte, Reticulocyte, Metarubricyte, Rubricyte, Prorubricyte, Rubriblast,
Stem Cell
Rubricyte, Rubriblast, Stem Cell, Prorubricyte, Erythrocyte, Reticulocyte,
Metarubrictye
159. The term used to describe patients with absence of Rh antigens is:

Rhd
Rhnull
Rhmod
Rho

Feedback

Rhnull individuals have no Rh antigens. Rhmod individuals show reduced and varied reactivity with
Rh antigens.

160. Which is the best method for examination of synovial crystals:

Phase contrast
Darkfield microscopy
Brightfield
microscopy
Polarized light

Feedback

A polarizing microscope with a first order red compensator is used to identify identify crystals
in synovial fluid: Needle shaped monosodium urate crystals are strongly negatively
birefringent, while rhomboid calcium pyrophosphate crystals are weakly positively birefringent.

161. Which of the following antibodies is the most common cause of hemolytic disease of the
newborn:
Anti-
A
Anti-
B
Anti-
E
Anti-
D
162. Which of the following is not true about members of the Enterobacteriaceae:

Gram-negative
Oxidase positive

37
 Reduce nitrate to
nitrite
Ferment glucose

Feedback

Any oxidase-positive organism can be excluded from the Enterobacteriaceae. The other
characteristics are as a rule present in these organisms.

163. Match these autoimmune diseases with their corresponding serological markers:
Antimitochondrial
antibodies
Anticentromere antibodies
Antineutrophilic antibodies
Antimyocardial antibodies
164. Match each virus with its appropriate nucleic acid content:
Togavirus
Coronaviru
s
Herpesviru
s
Adenovirus
165. Which one of the following is not a benefit of using packed RBCs:
Decreasing the load of potential donor antibodies
Decreasing the risk of transfusion associated
infection
Decreasing plasma volume
More efficient use of the whole blood unit
166. Match the following terms with the statement that best describes each:
Membrane covering the brain under the skull
Fluid accumulation due to a malfunction of ability to form and
reabsorb fluid
Inflammation of the pleural membranes
Excess accumulation of fluid within any of the body's serous
cavities
167. The adult worms of which of the following reside in the intestine or its blood vessels:
Heterophyes heterophyes
Schistosoma mansoni
Clonorchis sinensis
Schistosoma
haematobium
168. Match the illustrations with the corresponding classification of bacteria:

38
 B
D
F

169. If a test is said to have a sensitivity of 95%, it will :

Miss 5 out of 100 negatives

Miss 5 out of 100 positives
Detect 5 out of 100
positives
Detect 5 out of 100
negatives

Feedback

A sensitivity of 95% means that 5 results out of a possible 100 that should have been detected
as positive by a method will have been reported as negative. These results are termed false
negatives.

170. Which one of the following are not associated with a polyclonal (broadbased) increase in
gamma globulins?

Liver disease
Chronic
inflammation
Immune reaction
Immunodeficiency

Feedback

Immunodeficiency would, of course, generally be associated with a decrease in serum

immunoglobulin levels, and an associated decreased gamma band.

171. Which of the following tests would be used to directly document the presence of a
specific organism in a clinical specimen:

ELISA test
Hemagglutination test
Hemagglutination inhibition
test
Direct fluorescent antibody
test

Feedback

A direct fluorescent antibody test (DFA) can be used, for example, to detect antigens of
Legionella, Bordetella, Neisseria, and Treponema in appropriate clinical specimens. However
DFA can detect only antigens, not antibodies.

39
172. That portion of an enzyme which is separated from its cofactor is called a(n):

Partial
enzyme
Isoenzyme
Coenzyme
Apoenzyme

Feedback

A partial enzyme is not an actual term used in the laboratory. An isoenzyme is a related
enzyme with a different chemical structure. Finally, a coenzyme is a non-protein molecule
(often a vitamin) that helps an enzyme become active.

173. Increases in the MB fraction of CK is associated with:

Liver disease
Bone disease
Muscle trauma
Mycardial
infarction

Feedback

The isoenzyme CK-MB is fairly cardiac specific. It is elevated within 6 to 8 hours of a myocardial
infarction, and remains elevated for about 2 to 3 days post infarction.

174. A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following:

Ferrous iron and four globin

chains
Four heme and four globin
chains
Four heme and one globin
chains
One heme and four globin
chains

Feedback

A normal hemoglobin molecule consists of a tetramer with a molecular weight of 64,500

daltons. The constituent monomers are each composed of one heme molecule, and one
polypeptide globin chain.

175. A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is most likely to be the result of which of the
following antibodies:

Lea
A
Jka

40
 B

Feedback

Jka (Kidd) antibodies are very dangerous; they disappear from circulation quickly and can cause
severe delayed transfusion reactions.

176. Increased excretion of creatinine would be expected in which of the following groups:

Elderly
males/females
Adult males
Adult females
Children/infants

Feedback

Diets high in meats, and extreme exercise will cause a significant increase in creatinine
excretion.

177. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that results in elevated urinary
levels of all but which of the following:

Cortisol
Free catecholamines
Metanephrines
Vanillylmandelic
acid

Feedback

Pheochromocytoma is an adrenal or extra adrenal neoplasm that secretes catecholamines.

Patients with pheochromocytoma often exhibit persistent and paroxysmal hypertension. The
single best screening test is urinary metanephrines. Urinary free catecholamines, and
vanillylmandelic acid are also elevated.

Acknowledgement

I m thank full to my God he give me

And also I thank full my friend Mr. Sami Khan he help me in down load, Thanks,

Muhammad Younis
41
Lab. Technician
NNP, Rabigh, KSA
00966-591-342865
Unis_memon85@yahoo.com

42
1. Leukocytes involved in anaphylactic hypersensitivity and
inflammatory reaction
a. Basophiles
b. Monocyts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinophils.

2.The person should not have donated blood within the previous
a. 3 month.
b. 5month.
c. 2 month.
d. 1year.
3.OOcysts found in
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Plasmodium malaria
e. Toxoplasma gondii

4.Acidic skin Burn neutralized by

a. 5% acetic acid
b. Boric acid powder
c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Milk
e. Sodium bicarbonate powder.

5.Gram negative bacteria stained

a. Dark purple
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. Red
6.Test differentiate staphylococci from streptococci
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
7.elevated sodium level is known as
a. Hypernatraemia
b. Hyponatraemia
c. Hypercholestremia
d. Hyperkalaemia

8. vaginal swab is required for the most successful isolation from

women’s
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. N.gonorrhoea
c. S.hematobium
d. Ascaris lumbercoid

9.Immunoglobin consists of five parts of Antibodies (Pentamoric).

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgA
e. IgE

10.Normal plasma Prothrombin time (PT)

a. 36 – 50 Sec.
b. 8 – 10 Sec.
c. 13 – 2 Sec.
d. Non Of above

11.The general blood donor is :

a. A blood group.
b. B blood group.
c. O blood group.
d. AB blood group.
 12.Which of the following does not used in ziehl-nelsen stain?
a. Carbon fuchsine
b. Acid alcohol
c. Methylene blue
d. Crystal violet

13.Philadelphia chromosome is a specific chromosomal

abnormality that is associated with.
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. None.

14.Hormones from cortex

a. Thyroxin
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. Cortesol
15.ANA , AMA , ASMA test is :-
a. .. ‫وهللا ماوي متذكز االجابات لكه االجابة الصحيحة اعزفها‬
b. ‫االجابة هي‬Autoimmune Diseases

16.Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in

plasma at the highest concentration?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
e. IgE -------} unflexxbile
17.Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions
such as milk?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
e. IgE
18.Albert stain is used to diagnose
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycoplasma
c. Enterobacteriacae
d. Coryenbacterium diphtheria

19.Normal reticulocyte in adult is

a. 0.2 – 0.5 %
b. 2 – 5 %
c. 0.2 – 2 %
d. 1 – 2 %

20.All of the following test use in myocardial except

a. Creatinin
b. Creatinin clearance
c. sGPT
d. sGOT

21.Eosinphil raised in the following except?

a. Allergic
b. Parasitic disease
c. Hodgkin disease
d. Bacterial disease
22.Biochemistry test used sample except
a. Urine.
b. Whole blood
c. Serum
d. Stool

23.The Normal range of HDL

a. 45- 70 mg\dl
b. 70-100
c. 100-150
 24.Yellow brown barrel-shaped egg, colorless producing plug
polar
a. Ascaris
b. Tenia soliom
c. Trichuris trichiura
d. Entamoeba hcaistolyti

25.The main site of production of ATP in the cell is the

a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Cytoplasm
d. Mitochondria

26.Bordetalla pertussis is the cause of

a. Scarlet fever
a. Whopping chough
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Pneumonia
27.Which from the following NOT include in cell wall of
bacteria:
a. Pilli.
b. Cell membrane.
c. Flagella.
d. Definite nucleus
28.Enterbactericea can infection in:
a. Urinary tract only
b. Steam blood-urinary tract- chest
c. Gastrointestinal disease only
d. Steam blood-Urinary tract - Gastrointestinal disease
29.Hypocalcaemia in patient occur if the level of calcium is:
a. 16
b. 12
c. 10
d. 7.5
30.Hormone replication of RBCs:
a. Erythropoietin
b. Creatin kinas
c. Amylase
d. Progesterone
31.Storage temperature of platelets
a. 37 C
b. 35 – 40
c. 20 – 22
d. -4

32.Hot air oven temp.

a. 121 C° for 15 min
b. 180 C° for 30 min
c. 160 C° for 30 min
d. ALL

33.Chinese litter sees in:-

a. C. diphtheria
b. S.pyogenes
c. Staph aureus
d. E.coli
34.In blood group use:-
a. Known cell with unknown serum
b. Unknown cell with known serum
c. Know cell with unknown cell
d. Unknown cell with unknown serum
35.Hb used in:-
a. Utilize therapy anemia
b. Diagnosis anemia
c. Utilize therapy of jaundice
d. ALL
36.The antibody of blood group is:
a. Anti A and B
b. Anti A and C
c. Anti A and O
d. All of the above
37.We can differentiate from gram (-)and gram (+) by:
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Nucleus
d. Cytoplasm
38.The following microorganism will not take the gram stain:
a. E.coli
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococci
d. Mycobacterium sp
39.When the micro invades, the body B-cell will secret and it
will transfer to
a. Memory cell
b. Plasma cell
c. Phygocytic cell
d. Cytotoxic

40.TORCH means
a- Toxoplasma , Roubella , Cytomegalovirus,AIDS
b- Toxoplasma ,Roubella , Cytomegalovirus , Hepatitis
c- Toxoplasma ,Cytomegalovirus , Herps virus
d- ALL
41.Arterial blood for
a. Blood chemical
b. Hormones
c. Blood gases
d. Enzyme
 42.All of the following bacteria cell components except
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Cytoplasm
d. Pilli
e. Mitochondria
43.Eye swab cultur in
a. MaCconky
b. CLED
c. Chocolate
d. Blood + chocolate agar

44.Heprenized syringe use to collect __________ sample

a. Synovial
b. CSF
c. Venous
d. Arterial
45.Safety in the Lab include vaccination of stuff against
a. HAV
b. HCV
c. HBV
d. ALL
46.Reject Blood donor if:-
a. Temperature more than 38.5
b. Blood pressure120/80
c. Heart pulse rate 72/min

47. AML different from ALL in

Bleeding and Purpura
a. More Increased WBCs
b. Granule neutrophile
c. Auer rods
48.Zile-Neelsen stain for staining
a. Mycobacteria
b. E.coli
c. Corynebacterium diphteria
d. Salmonella

49.Lactos (+ ) , Indol (+) , MR (+ ) , VP (-) , citrate (-) are

a. Escherichia
b. Klebsiella
c. Salmonella
d. Nessiria

50.The media can growth some bacteria and inhibition another

bacteria is
a. Basic media
b. Diffrentioal media
c. Sellective media
d. Enriched media

51.One is not true about acid:

a. Proton donor
b. Turn litmus paper to blue
c. Sour taste
d. React with alkaline to give water and salt

52.Amoeba stained by
a. Gram stain
b. Geisma
c. Iodine eosin stain
d. Leishman
 ‫‪53.False in OGGT because‬‬
‫وهللا ما اذكر الخيارات النها كانت طويلة ‪ ..‬لكن كان اغلبها صحيح واللي كانت خطأو اضحه هذي ‪..‬‬
‫‪a. The patient restrict carbohydrate intake in the days or weeks before the test‬‬
‫‪.‬الي معىاها ان المزيض يحزم وفسه مه الكزبىهيدرات قبل االختبار بأيام ‪..‬‬
‫‪54.Monospot test is done to diagnose‬‬
‫‪a. Infectious mononucleosis‬‬
‫‪b. Scarlet fever‬‬
‫‪c. Reumatic fever‬‬
‫‪d. AIDs‬‬

‫هذي االسئلة اللي جاتني في اختبار الهيئة ‪ ..‬وان شاء هللا فالكم‬
‫النجاح والتوفيق ‪..‬‬

‫االختبار يبي له شوية تركيز فقط ‪ ..‬وبإذن هللا تحل اللي ينجحك‬
‫وزيادة بإذن هللا ‪..‬‬

‫دعواتكم لي بالتوفيق‬

‫اخووكم شادي ‪..‬‬

‫مختبرات العرب‬
 ‫‪".‬سبعٌن استغفارة نستغفر باألسحار‬
‫‪:‬وقال أبو سعٌد الخدري رضً هللا عنه‬
‫السالم سؤل جبرٌل علٌه السالم فقال‪ٌ :‬ا جبرٌل أي بلغنا أن داوود علٌه‬
‫‪.‬أدري‪ ،‬إال أن العرش ٌهتز فً السحر اللٌل أفضل؟ فقال‪ٌ :‬ا داوود ما‬
‫المستغفرٌن‪ ،‬واكتب لنا عز الدنٌا اللهم اجعلنا من التوابٌن‪ ،‬واجعلنا من‬
‫‪.‬واآلخرة‪ ،‬وبلغنا مما تحب آمالنا‬
‫على سٌدنا محمد وعلى آله وصحبه وسلم وصلى هللا‬

‫‪1. The unit of measuring PO2 in blood is‬‬

‫‪a.‬‬ ‫‪Mg/dl.‬‬
‫‪b.‬‬ ‫‪Gm/dl.‬‬
‫‪c.‬‬ ‫‪Ml/min.‬‬
‫‪d.‬‬ ‫‪mmHg‬‬
‫‪e.‬‬ ‫‪Mmol/l.‬‬
‫ف‪٘ ٟ‬زا اٌغؤاي ‪٠‬غأي ِب٘‪١‬ب اٌ‪ٛ‬ؽذح اٌز‪ ٟ‬أعزط‪١‬غ ل‪١‬بط األوغغ‪ ٓ١‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ األخز‪١‬بس‬
‫اٌقؾ‪١‬ؼ ٍِ‪ِ ٟ‬زش ٌىً صئجك‬
‫ٌىٓ ف‪ ٟ‬أخز‪١‬بسد اٌ‪١ٙ‬ئخ اٌغذ‪٠‬ذح ِّىٓ رزغ‪١‬ش ‪ٚ‬ثذي ِ‪١‬غ‪١‬ت ٌه ٍِ‪ِ ٟ‬زش ٌىً صئجك‬
‫‪٠kpa‬غ‪١‬ت‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪٠ ٟ‬غ‪١‬ت ٔفظ اٌغؤاي ٌىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ش ف‪ ٟ‬األخز‪١‬بساد‬
‫‪mmHg=kpa‬‬
‫ٔفظ اٌؾً‬

‫‪2. O2 delivery in the blood equal to‬‬

‫‪a. Mg/dl.‬‬
‫‪b. Gm/dl.‬‬
‫‪c. Ml/min.‬‬
‫‪d. mmHg‬‬
‫‪e. Mmol/l.‬‬
‫‪٠‬م‪ٛ‬ي ٌه األوغغ‪ ٓ١‬اٌز‪٠ ٞ‬غ‪ ً١‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ ِبرا ‪٠‬غب‪ ٜٚ‬ثبٌ‪ٛ‬ؽذاد اٌؾً اٌقؾ‪١‬ؼ ع‪ٟ‬‬

‫‪3‬‬
‫‪3. Pituitary gland called‬‬
‫‪a. Sweet gland‬‬
‫‪b. Mammary gland‬‬
‫‪c. Master gland‬‬
‫‪d. Purity gland‬‬
‫‪٠‬م‪ٛ‬ي اٌغذح إٌخبِ‪١‬خ ٌ‪ٙ‬ب ػذح اعّبء ِب٘‪١‬ب األعُ األخش‪ٌٙ ٜ‬ب ٔخزبس ِبعزش لالٔذ‬
‫ٌىٓ ِّىٓ ف‪ ٟ‬اخزجبساد اٌ‪١ٙ‬ئخ اٌغذ‪٠‬ذح ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ت ٔفظ اٌغؤاي ٌىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ش ف‪ ٟ‬األخز‪١‬بساد‬
‫‪٠pituitary gland=master gland=mother gland‬ؼٕ‪ٟ‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬اٌغذح إٌخبِ‪١‬خ ٌ‪ٙ‬ب صالس اعّبء ِّىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ش ٌه ف‪٘ ٟ‬زا اٌغؤاي اُ٘ ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ٔؾفع‬
‫اْ اٌغذح إٌخبِ‪١‬خ ٌ‪ٙ‬ب صالس اعّبء‬
‫‪ٚ‬اٌ‪١ٙ‬ئخ او‪١‬ذ ساػ رغ‪١‬ت ٌه ‪ٚ‬اؽذ ِٓ ٘زح األعّبء ِشاػ رغ‪١‬ت وٍ‪ٙ‬ب‬
‫‪4. The Symbol ( ST) in the Lab means‬‬
‫‪a. Blank‬‬
‫‪b. Test‬‬
‫‪c. Standard‬‬
‫‪d. Control‬‬
‫‪e. Non‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي عذا ع‪٠ٚ ًٙ‬م‪ٛ‬ي ٌه األخزقبس اط ر‪ِ ٟ‬برا ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬او‪١‬ذ ٔخزبس ا‪ٚ‬ي ؽشف‪ٓ١‬‬
‫ص‪ ٞ‬ثؼل‬
‫‪B=blank‬‬
‫‪T=test‬‬
‫ِّىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ت ٌه ٘زح األخزقبسد ‪٠ٚ‬م‪ٛ‬ي ٌ‪ ٟ‬ا‪٠‬ؼ ٘‪١‬ب‬

‫‪5. CO2 transported in Plasma as‬‬

‫‪a. Bicarbonate ions‬‬
‫‪b. Carbonate ions‬‬
‫‪c. Carbohydrate‬‬
‫‪d. Sulphate ions‬‬
‫‪e. CO2‬‬
‫ف‪٘ ٟ‬زا اٌغؤاي ث‪١‬م‪ٛ‬ي ٌه صبٔ‪ ٟ‬أوغ‪١‬ذ اٌىش‪ ْٛ٠‬و‪١‬ف ‪ٕ٠‬زمً ف‪ ٟ‬اٌجالصِب األخز‪١‬بس‬
‫اٌقؾ‪١‬ؼ ‪ٕ٠‬زمً ػٍ‪١٘ ٝ‬ئخ أ‪ٔٛ٠‬بد اٌج‪١‬ىش‪ٚ‬ث‪ٔٛ‬بد‬

‫‪4‬‬
 ‫الْ وٍٕب ٔؼٍُ اْ صبٔ‪ ٟ‬اوغ‪١‬ذ اٌىشث‪٠ ْٛ‬ؼزجش غبص عبَ ٌزٌه ال‪ٕ٠‬زمً ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغغُ وضبٔ‪ٟ‬‬
‫اوغ‪١‬ذ اٌىشث‪٘ٚ ْٛ‬زح ِٓ اٌؾىّخ األٌ‪١ٙ‬خ ٌٕب ٌزٌه ‪ٕ٠‬زمً ػٍ‪١٘ ٝ‬ئخ ا‪ٔٛ٠‬بد اٌج‪١‬ىش‪ٚ‬ثٕبد‬
‫ٌه ال‪٠‬ى‪ ْٛ‬مبس ػٍ‪ ٝ‬اٌغغُ‬

‫‪6. In Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) diagnosis by‬‬

‫‪a. PT‬‬
‫‪b. PTT‬‬
‫‪c. Reduced in fibrinogens level‬‬
‫*‪d. Severe Thrombocytopenia *reduced Platelets‬‬
‫‪e. ALL‬‬
‫‪e. Non‬‬
‫‪disseminated‬اٌغؤاي ثذا‪٠‬خ وٍّخ‬
‫٘زا األخزقبس ارا سأ‪٠‬زخ ِؼٕ‪٘ ٟ‬زح اٌىٍّخ ِشك ‪٠‬أوً ػ‪ٛ‬اًِ اٌزغٍو ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ٟ‬‬
‫اٌّش‪٠‬ل ساػ ‪٠‬ى‪ ْٛ‬ػٕذح ع‪ٌٛ١‬خ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ‬
‫‪ٚ‬ار سأ‪٠‬ذ ف‪ ٟ‬األخز‪١‬بسد أْ عّ‪١‬غ األخز‪١‬بساد رخـ اٌزغٍو ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغغُ ٌزٌه اٌؾً‬
‫ع‪ٛ‬ف ‪٠‬ى‪ ْٛ‬وً األخز‪١‬بساد فؾ‪١‬ؾخ‬

‫‪7. B- cell produce‬‬

‫‪a. Antibodies‬‬
‫‪b. Cytokines‬‬
‫‪c. Sugar‬‬
‫‪d. Toxic‬‬
‫‪e. Interferon‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي ِّىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪ ٟ‬ثؼذح هشق ‪ٚ‬ػذح أعبثبد ٌىٓ ثأرْ هللا ثظ اف‪٘ ُٙ‬زا اٌؾشػ‬
‫اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬سأػ اؽشؽخ ‪ٚ‬ثأرْ هللا رؾً وً عؤاي ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ه ِٓ ٘زح األعئٍخ‬

‫اٌّبػخ رٕمغُ اٌ‪ ٟ‬لغّ‪:ٓ١‬‬

‫‪cellular‬األٔغغخ ‪1-‬‬
‫‪humoral‬اٌذَ ‪2-‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬خالؿ ف‪ّٙ‬ذ أْ إٌّبػخ لغّ‪ ٓ١‬عضء اٌذَ ‪ٚ‬عضء األٔغغخ ه‪١‬ت‪-1‬‬

‫‪5‬‬
 ُ‫ اٌغغ‬ٟ‫ اٌغغُ ساػ رؾزغً ف‬ٟ‫ت إٌّبػخ ف‬٠‫خ عغُ غش‬١‫ ارا عغّٕب دخً ف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
َ‫ك اٌذ‬٠‫ ػٓ هش‬ٚ‫ك األٔغغخ أ‬٠‫ػٓ هش‬
‫وزا‬ٚ ًّ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ي ا‬ٛ‫ٔم‬ٚ ‫ٓ ّٔغه وً عضء‬١‫اٌؾ‬
ٛ٘ ٌٍٟ‫ عضء ا‬ٚ‫ّٔغه أ‬humoral
humoral blood bone marrow B-Cell ٚ‫ أ‬B-

lymphocytes antibody
ٞ‫ ثذ‬ٞ‫ رٕزظ األٔزذ‬ٟ‫ب اٌج‬٠‫خال‬ٚ ٟ‫ب اٌج‬٠‫سي رٕزظ خال‬ّٛ١ٌٙ‫ب ا‬٠‫ خال‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٞ‫ اعّه ٘ز‬ٞ‫ب ص‬ٙ‫الصَ رؾفظ‬
‫اؽذ‬ٚ ُٙ‫ ع‬ٜ‫ُ رش‬ٙ‫اٌغ‬

2-‫ األٔغغخ‬ٛ٘ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٟٔ‫ ٌٍغضء اٌضب‬ٞ‫ٓ ٔغض‬١‫اٌؾ‬

Cellular blood Thymus T- cell ٚ‫أ‬

T-lymphocytes cytotoxin
ٓ١‫ عضئ‬ٍٝ‫اؽذ ثظ أفقً ػ‬ٚ ُٙ‫ُ ع‬ٙ‫اٌغ‬
ً‫ ع‬ٟ‫ب اٌز‬٠‫ظ خال‬١‫ّظ رٕز‬١‫ب اٌض‬٠‫خال‬ٚ ‫ّظ‬١‫ب اٌض‬٠‫ب األٔغغخ رٕزظ خال‬٠‫ خال‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٓ‫وغ‬ٛ‫ ر‬ٛ‫ز‬٠‫ عً رٕزظ عب‬ٟ‫ب اٌز‬٠‫خال‬ٚ
‫أمؼ‬ٚ ‫بسة اٌؾشػ‬٠

8. DAT positive test occurs in Cases such as

a. Hemolytic disease of newborn
b. Hemolytic Blood transfusion
c. Warm reactive autoantibodies
d. Cold Reactive autoantibodies
e. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobin.
f. All.
ٍٟ٠‫ ٘زا األخزقبس وّب‬ٕٝ‫ِؼ‬

6
 ‫)‪DAT(direct agglutination test‬‬
‫‪٠‬م‪ٛ‬ي ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ٘زا األخز‪١‬بس ‪٠‬ؾذس ف‪٠ ٓ١‬ؾذس ف‪ ٟ‬عّ‪١‬غ ِبعجك‬

‫‪9. Leukocytes have short life Spain polymorph nuclear multiple‬‬

‫‪lopes and have mobile phygocytosis have receptor for IgG and‬‬
‫‪complement‬‬
‫‪a. Basophiles‬‬
‫‪b. Monocyts‬‬
‫‪c. Lymphocytes‬‬
‫‪d. Neutrophils‬‬
‫‪e. Eosinophils.‬‬

‫٘زا اٌغؤاي عذا ِ‪ ُٙ‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌ‪١ٙ‬ئخ ‪٠ٚ‬غ‪ ٟ‬ثؼذح هشق ‪ٚ‬ػذح أعئٍخ‬
‫ؽ‪ٛ‬ف أ‪ٚ‬ي ِزؾ‪ٛ‬ف ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغؤاي وٍّخ ٌ‪ٛ‬ثظ اٌٍ‪ِ ٟ‬ؾذدح ثبألؽّش ػٍ‪ ٝ‬ه‪ٛ‬ي رخزبس‬
‫ٔ‪١‬زش‪ ٚ‬ف‪٠ ً١‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬أ‪ ٞ‬ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغؤاي ػٍ‪ ٝ‬ه‪ٛ‬ي‬

‫‪Lopes= Neutrophils‬‬
‫اٌؾ‪ ٓ١‬ساػ اوزت خقبئـ إٌ‪١‬زش‪ ٚ‬ف‪ ً١‬ػؾبْ ارا عبء أ‪ ٞ‬اؽذ ِٓ ٘زح اٌخقبئـ رؼشف‬
‫أه ساػ رخزبس ٔ‪١‬زش‪ ٚ‬ف‪ِّٚ ً١‬ىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ش ػٍ‪ ٝ١‬و‪١‬فخ ف‪ ٟ‬ف‪١‬غخ اٌغؤاي اُ٘ ؽ‪ٟ‬ء أٔذ رى‪ْٛ‬‬
‫ؽبفع ‪ٚ‬فبُ٘‬
‫‪neutrophils:‬خقبئـ‬
‫‪ٔ40%--75%‬غجخ ‪ٚ‬ع‪ٛ‬د٘ب أػٍ‪ ٝ‬ؽ‪ٟ‬ء إٌغجخ الصَ رؾفظ‪ٙ‬ب‪1-‬‬
‫‪ acute bacteria infection‬رض‪٠‬ذ ٘زح اٌخال‪٠‬ب ف‪ ٟ‬ؽبٌخ اٌؼذ‪ ٜٚ‬ثبٌجىز‪١‬ش‪٠‬ب‪2-‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌؼذ‪٠‬ذ ِٓ اٌٍ‪ٛ‬ثظ ص‪ِ ٞ‬مٍٕب ف‪ٛ‬ق‪3-multible lopes‬‬
‫أٔذ اؽفظ‪ٙ‬ب األْ ‪ٚ‬ثؼذ‪ ٓ٠‬ساػ اؽشؽ‪ٙ‬ب ساػ رغ‪ ٟ‬ف‪ ٟ‬عؤاي ‪4-granule circulation‬‬
‫اخش‬

‫أُ٘ ؽ‪ٟ‬ء رؼشف ٘زح اٌخقبئـ أ‪ ٞ‬ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ه ِٓ ٘زح اٌخقبئـ ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ٔ‪ٛ‬ع اٌخال‪٠‬ب‬
‫‪neutrophils‬ػٍ‪ ٝ‬ه‪ٛ‬ي ٔخزبس‬

‫‪7‬‬
10.Leukocytes involved in anaphylactic hypersensitivity and
inflammatory reaction
a. Basophiles
b. Monocyts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinophils.
‫ ؽبٌخ‬ٟ‫ رشرفغ ف‬ٟ‫نبء اٌز‬١‫ب اٌج‬٠‫ش‬١‫ع اٌجىز‬ٛٔ ‫ب‬١٘‫ٌه ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ُِٙ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي عذا‬ٟ‫ف‬
ً١‫ ف‬ٛ‫غ‬١‫ي اٌج‬ٛ‫بة اػ رم‬ٙ‫ األٌز‬ٚ ‫خ‬١‫اٌؾغبع‬
%1 ٌٝ‫ا‬%0ِٓ ‫ع‬ٌٕٛ‫دح ٘زح ا‬ٛ‫ع‬ٚ ‫ٔغجخ‬ٚ
‫ح‬ٛٔ‫دح أػشف ا‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ‫دح ٌىٓ ارا وبٔذ‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ‫ش‬١‫ْ غ‬ٛ‫ رى‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ع ِٓ اٌطج‬ٌٕٛ‫ ٘زح ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫بة‬ٙ‫ اٌز‬ٚ‫خ أ‬١‫خ ؽغبع‬١‫ف‬
ً١‫ ف‬ٛ‫غ‬١‫ي اٌج‬ٛ‫د رم‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ‫ش‬١‫ْ غ‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ هج‬ٌٍٟ‫ع ا‬ٌٕٛ‫ ا‬ٛ٘‫ ارا لٍه ِب‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ّخ‬ِٙ ‫ ػشفٕب خقبئـ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Basophils:
1-‫بة‬ٙ‫ ؽبٌخ األٌز‬ٟ‫ف‬ٚ ‫خ‬١‫ ؽبٌخ اٌؾغبع‬ٟ‫رشرفغ ف‬
2-%1ٌٝ‫ا‬%0 ِٓ ‫دح‬ٛ‫ع‬ٚ ‫ٔغجخ‬
3- ‫دح‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ‫ش‬١‫ْ غ‬ٛ‫ رى‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ِٓ اٌطج‬

11.Fixed tissue macrophages are

a. Basophiles
b. Monocyts
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinophils.
‫ذ‬٠‫ عب‬ِٛٔٛ ‫ي‬ٛ‫ي ٔم‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫ب ػ‬١٘‫ب اٌّضجزخ ِب‬٠‫ٌه اٌخال‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠macrophages=monocytes

13.A guideline reference range for MCV in health patient

a. 80-98 fl.
b. 27-32 pg
8
 c. 31.5-36 g/dl.
d. 15.18 mg/dl.
e. 13.5-18 g/dl.

14. A guideline reference range for MCH in health patient

a. 80-98 fl.
b. 27-32 pg
c. 31.5-36 g/dl.
d. 15.18 mg/dl.
e. 13.5-18 g/dl.

15. A guideline reference range for MCHC in health patient

a. 80-98 fl.
b. 27-32 pg
c. 31.5-36 g/L
d. 15.18 mg/dl.
e. 13.5-18 g/dl.
15-14-13 ‫هجؼب عؤاي‬
‫ب‬ٙ‫ٍخ ٌؾفظ‬ٙ‫مخ ع‬٠‫ٌو هش‬ٛ‫أب ال‬ٚ ‫ئخ ِشح ِشح‬١ٌٙ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ّخ ف‬ِٙ ‫عذا‬
MCV=80-98FL
MCH=27-32Pg
MCHC=31,5-36G/L
‫ؽذاد أؽفع‬ٌٛ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ش ف‬١‫غ‬٠ٚ ُ‫ت ٌه ٔفظ اٌشل‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ُ ِّى‬ِٙ ‫ؽذاد عذا‬ٌٛ‫ُ رؼشف ا‬ِٙ
‫ؽذاد‬ٌٛ‫ا‬
ُ٘‫ْ فب‬ٛ‫جخ ِٓ ٘زح األسلبَ ثظ أذ رى‬٠‫ت ٌه أسلبَ لش‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ِّى‬ٚ
00-00 ِٓ ‫ب‬ٙٔ‫ت ٌه ا‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ؽذح ِّى‬ٚ ‫ي‬ٚ‫ أ‬ٞ‫ ص‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ت ِٕجؼل‬٠‫ْ اٌشلُ لش‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ء‬ٟ‫ اُ٘ ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ فؼ‬ٞ‫٘ز‬

16. Gram positive rods give gray colony color

a. Bacillus anthraces ‫ضخ‬١‫اٌغّشح اٌخج‬
b. E.coli
9
 ‫‪c. Shigella‬‬
‫‪d. Mycobacterium‬‬
‫‪e. Non‬‬
‫‪٠‬بسة أ‪ٚ‬ي ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ؽشؽزخ ‪ٚ‬أخز ِٕ‪ ٟ‬سثغ عبػخ ‪ٚ‬أٔب اؽشؽخ ‪ٚ‬ساػ وً رؼج‪ٚ ٟ‬أّغؼ‬
‫‪٠‬بسة‪..‬‬

‫هجؼب اٌؾ‪ ٓ١‬ساػ ال‪ٛ‬ي ِؼٍ‪ِٛ‬بد عذا ِ‪ّٙ‬خ‬

‫ف‪٘ ٟ‬زا اٌغؤاي ‪٠‬م‪ٛ‬ي غشاَ ‪ِٛٚ‬عت ‪ٚ‬ػق‪٠ٛ‬خ ‪ٚ‬رؼط‪ِ ٟ‬غزؼّشاد ٌ‪ٙٔٛ‬ب سِبد‪ ٞ‬ػٍ‪ٝ‬‬
‫ه‪ٛ‬ي اخزبس اٌغّشح اٌخج‪١‬ضخ ‪ٚ‬أؽفع اعّ‪ٙ‬ب ثبألٔغٍ‪١‬ض‪ٞ‬‬
‫‪ِّٚ‬ىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ت ٌه اعّ‪ٙ‬ب ‪ٛ٠ٚ‬لٍه ا‪٠‬ؼ اعُ اٌّشك اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬رغججخ‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪٠ ٟ‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه‬
‫‪Bacillus anthraces=wool sortes disease‬‬
‫٘زا اعُ اٌّشك اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬رغججخ‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬ف‪١‬خ عؤاٌ‪ ٓ١‬ػٍ‪ ٝ‬اٌغّشح اٌخج‪١‬ضخ‬

‫اٌؾ‪ٔ ٌّٓ ٓ١‬غ‪ٔ ٟ‬قجغ اٌجىز‪١‬ش‪٠‬ب ف‪١‬خ فجغز‪ٓ١‬‬

‫أ‪ٚ‬ي ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ٔقجغ ‪ٔٚ‬غّ‪ٙ١‬ب اٌقجغخ األ‪ٚ ٌٝٚ‬ثؼذ‪ٔ ٓ٠‬قجغ ِشح صبٔ‪١‬خ ‪ٔٚ‬غّ‪ٙ١‬ب اٌقجغخ اٌضبٔ‪ٟ‬‬
‫خالؿ ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬فجغخ أ‪ٚ ٌٝٚ‬فجغخ صبٔ‪١‬خ‬
‫ف‪ ٟ‬اٌ‪١ٙ‬ئخ ِّىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪١‬ه ‪ٛ٠ٚ‬لٍه ا‪٠‬ؼ اعُ اٌقجغخ األ‪ٚ ٌٝٚ‬ا‪٠‬ؼ اعُ اٌقجغخ اٌضبٔ‪١‬خ‬
‫‪Primary stain=crystal violet‬‬
‫‪ methyl red‬أ‪ٌٙ ٚ‬ب اعُ صبٔ‪Secondary stain-sufranin ٟ‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬اٌقجغخ األ‪ٌٙٔٛ ٌٝٚ‬ب ِ‪ٛ‬ف ‪ِّٚ‬ىٓ ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ٌ‪ٙٔٛ‬ب أصسق خالؿ ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬اٌقجغخ أ‪ٌٙ ٌٝٚ‬ب‬
‫ٌ‪٠ ٓ١ٔٛ‬بِ‪ٛ‬ف ‪٠‬باصسق‬

‫‪ٚ‬اٌقجغخ اٌضبٔ‪١‬خ ٌ‪ٙٔٛ‬ب اؽّش‬

‫خالؿ ف‪ّٙ‬ز‪ٛ‬‬
‫‪ٚ‬ف‪١‬خ ؽ‪ٟ‬ء اعّخ غشاَ ِ‪ٛ‬عت ‪ٚ‬غشاَ عبٌت‬
‫ِٓ خقبئـ غشاَ ِ‪ٛ‬عت اٌغذاس ؽمٗ صم‪ً١‬‬
‫‪ٚ‬اٌغشاَ عبٌت اٌغذاس ؽم‪ٙ‬ب خف‪١‬ف ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ٟ‬‬
‫‪Gram positive=thick‬‬
‫‪Gram negative=thin‬‬
‫اٌؾ‪ ٓ١‬ساػ ٔزىٍُ ا‪٠‬ؼ ‪٠‬ق‪١‬ش ٌّٓ ٔقجغ غشاَ ِ‪ٛ‬عت ِٓ خقبئق‪ٙ‬ب أ‪ٙ‬ب صم‪ ً١‬اٌغذاس ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬أ‪ٚ‬ي‬
‫ِٕقجغ اٌقجغخ األ‪ٚ‬ي ساػ ‪ّ٠‬غه ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌ‪٠ٚ ْٛ‬ق‪١‬ش ٌ‪ٙٔٛ‬ب ِ‪ٛ‬ف‬
‫‪10‬‬
‫ٌّٓ غشاَ عبٌت اٌغذاس ؽم‪ٙ‬ب خف‪١‬ف ‪ِٚ‬شاػ رّغه ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌقجغخ األ‪ٌٝٚ‬‬
‫‪ٚ‬ارا ع‪ٕ١‬ب ٔقجغ اٌقجغخ اٌضبٔ‪١‬خ‬
‫غشاَ ِ‪ٛ‬عت خالؿ ِغىذ ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌقجغخ األ‪ٚ ٌٝٚ‬فبس ٌ‪ٙٔٛ‬ب ِ‪ٛ‬ف‬
‫‪ٌٚ‬ىٓ اٌغشاَ عبٌت ساػ رّغه ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌقجغخ اٌضبٔ‪١‬خ ‪٠ٚ‬ق‪١‬ش ٌ‪ٙٔٛ‬ب أؽّش‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ٟ‬‬
‫‪Gram positive=thick=violet color or blue color‬‬
‫‪Gram negative-thin=red color‬‬

‫‪17. Anticoagulant used in W.B.Cs counting‬‬

‫‪a. Sodium citrate‬‬
‫‪b. Ammonium oxalate‬‬
‫‪c. SPS‬‬
‫‪d. EDITA‬‬
‫‪e. Heparin‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ا‪٠‬ؼ اٌّبدح اٌّبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍو اٌٍ‪ٔ ٟ‬غزخذِ‪ٙ‬ب ٌؼذ وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌج‪١‬نبء ساػ ٔم‪ٛ‬ي‬
‫األدرب‬
‫‪٘ٚ‬زا ِّىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪ ٟ‬ثؼذح هشق الْ‬
‫‪EDITA‬‬
‫ٔغزخذِ‪ٙ‬ب ٌؼذ وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌج‪١‬نبء ‪ٚ‬وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ‪ٌٚ‬ىً‬
‫‪CBC‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬اٌّبدح اٌّبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍو ف‪ ٟ‬عغبص اٌظ ث‪ ٟ‬ع‪١٘ ٟ‬ب األدرب‬
‫خالؿ ِف‪َّٛٙ‬‬

‫‪18. In manual counting of platelets the solution used is‬‬

‫‪a. Acetic acid‬‬
‫‪b. Normal saline‬‬
‫‪c. Ammonium oxalate reagent‬‬
‫‪d. Dis.Water‬‬
‫‪e. Non‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي ‪٠‬غ‪ِٕ ٟ‬خ صالس أعئٍخ‬
‫‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغؤاي ِب٘‪١‬ب اٌّؾٍ‪ٛ‬ي اٌٍ‪ٔ ٟ‬غزخذِخ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌؼذ اٌ‪١‬ذ‪ٌٍ ٞٚ‬قفبئؼ اٌّ‪ٛ‬دح ٔخزبس‬
‫األِ‪ َٛ١ٔٛ‬ا‪ٚ‬وغٍ‪١‬ذ‬
‫ِّىٓ ‪٠‬غ‪٠ٚ ٟ‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشا ‪ِّٚ‬ىٓ ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌج‪١‬نبء‬
‫‪11‬‬
‫‪WBC=acetic acid‬‬
‫‪RBC=normal saline‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬اٌقفبئؼ اٌذِ‪ٛ‬ح ٌ‪ٙ‬ب ِؾٍ‪ٛ‬ي ‪ٚ‬وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ٌ‪ٙ‬ب ِؾٍ‪ٛ‬ي ‪ٚ‬وش‪٠‬بد اٌذ اٌج‪١‬نبء ٌ‪ٙ‬ب‬
‫ِؾٍ‪ٛ‬ي‬

‫‪19. Neutrophils count in normal patient‬‬

‫‪a. 40 – 75 %‬‬
‫‪b. 21- 40 %‬‬
‫‪c. 1-6%‬‬
‫‪d. 0 -1 %.‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي خالؿ ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لجً ػشفٕب أ‪ٛ‬ح إٌ‪١‬زش‪ ٚ‬ف‪ٔ ً١‬غجز‪ٙ‬ب ِٓ ‪ %40‬اٌ‪ٝ‬‬
‫‪%55‬‬
‫‪ٚ‬ػشفٕب ثؼذ أ‪ٙ‬ب رشرفغ ف‪ ٟ‬ؽبٌخ اٌؼذ‪ ٜٚ‬ثبٌجىزش‪٠‬ب ‪ٚ‬اْ ف‪ٙ١‬ب ٌ‪ٛ‬ثظ‬

‫‪20. Anticoagulant used in ESR test‬‬

‫‪a. Sodium citrate‬‬
‫‪b. Ammonium oxalate‬‬
‫‪c. SPS‬‬
‫‪d. EDITA‬‬
‫‪e. Heparin‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ِب٘‪١‬ب اٌّبدح اٌّبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍو ف‪ ٟ‬رؾٍ‪ ً١‬األ‪٠‬غبس‬
‫٘‪١‬ب اٌق‪ٛ‬د‪ ُ٠‬عزش‪٠‬ذ ‪٠ٚ‬ى‪ ْٛ‬رشو‪١‬ض٘ب ‪ِ 400‬ب‪٠‬ىش‪ْٚ‬‬
‫ِ‪٘ ُٙ‬زا اٌغؤاي‬
‫‪21.Raised reticulocyte counts found when there is‬‬
‫‪a. Hemolytic anemia‬‬
‫‪b. Diabetius mellitus‬‬
‫‪c. Pancretic disease‬‬
‫‪d. Stomach ulcer‬‬
‫ف‪٘ ٟ‬زا اٌغؤاي ا‪٠‬ؾ‪١‬بء وض‪١‬شح الصَ ٔؾفظ‪ٙ‬ب ‪ٔٚ‬ف‪ّٙٙ‬ب‬
‫لجً ِٕم‪ٛ‬ي اٌغؤاي الصَ ٔؼشف أ‪ٛ‬ح‬
‫٘‪١‬ب ػجبسح ػٓ وش‪٠‬بد دَ ؽّشاء غ‪١‬ش ٔبمغخ=‪Reticulocytes‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪٠ ٟ‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغؤاي ؽبٌخ اسرفبع وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء اٌغ‪١‬ش ٔبمغخ ِز‪ ٝ‬رؾذد‬
‫ٔخزبس ٘‪١ٌّٛ١‬زه أ‪١ّ١‬ب‬
‫‪12‬‬
 ‫ا‪٠‬ؼ ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ف‪ ٟ‬خًٍ ف‪ ٟ‬وش‪٠‬بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ‪٠‬غجت أ‪١ّ١‬ب‬

‫‪22.The main HB in infant below 3 months.‬‬

‫‪a. HBA‬‬
‫‪b. HBA2‬‬
‫‪c. HBF‬‬
‫‪d. HBS‬‬
‫اؽٕب ػٕذٔب صالس أ‪ٛ‬اع ِٓ أ‪ٛ‬اع اٌ‪ّٛ١ٙ‬عٍ‪ٛ‬ث‪ٓ١‬‬
‫‪٠ٚ‬ى‪ِٛ ْٛ‬ع‪ٛ‬د ف‪ ٟ‬إٌبط اٌجبٌغ‪ٔ ٓ١‬غجخ ‪ٚ‬ع‪ٛ‬دح ف‪ ٟ‬إٌبط ث‪١‬زب ‪ 2‬اٌفب‪1-HBA=2‬‬
‫‪97%‬اٌىجبس‬
‫ٔغجخ ‪ٚ‬ع‪ٛ‬دح ‪ %2‬دٌزب‪ 2‬اٌفب ‪2-HBA2 2‬‬
‫‪٠‬ى‪٘ ْٛ‬زا اٌ‪ ّٛ١ٙ‬عٍ‪ٛ‬ث‪ِٛ ٓ١‬ع‪ٛ‬د فمو ف‪ ٟ‬إٌ‪2 ِٓ ٛٔٛ‬عبِب اٌفب ‪3-HBF 2‬‬
‫صالس‬
‫‪٠‬ى‪ ْٛ‬ثٕغجخ ‪ٌ %50‬ىٓ ػٕذِب ‪٠‬ىجش اٌطفً رمً ٘زح إٌغجخ‬
‫ٌىٓ ارا وجش اٌطفً ‪ِٚ‬بصاٌذ ِشرفؼخ رغجت ِشك اٌضالع‪١ّ١‬ب‬

‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬إٌ‪ٛ‬ع األ‪ٚ‬ي ِ‪ٛ‬ع‪ٛ‬د ف‪ ٟ‬إٌبط اٌىجبس ثٕغجخ ‪%05‬‬

‫‪ٚ‬إٌ‪ٛ‬ع اٌضبٔ‪ِٛ ٟ‬ع‪ٛ‬د ثٕغجخ ‪%2‬‬
‫‪ٚ‬إٌ‪ٛ‬ع اٌضبٌذ ِ‪ٛ‬ع‪ٛ‬د ف‪ ٟ‬إٌ‪ ٛٔٛ‬اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬ػّشح ‪ 3‬ؽ‪ٛٙ‬س ‪ٚ‬ارا وجش إٌ‪ِٚ ٛٔٛ‬بصي ِشرفغ‬
‫ػٕذح ‪٠‬غجت ِشك اٌضالع‪١ّ١‬ب‬

‫‪23.Anticoagulant used in prothrobin time assay is‬‬

‫ااٌىّ‪١‬خ ؽمزخ‪١ِ 200‬ىش‪a. Sodium citrate(ْٚ‬‬
‫‪b. Ammonium oxalate‬‬
‫‪c. SPS‬‬
‫‪d. EDITA‬‬
‫‪e. Heparin‬‬
‫‪13‬‬
 ‫‪٘PT‬زا اٌغؤاي ‪٠‬م‪ٛ‬ي ِب٘‪١‬ب اٌّبدح اٌّبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍو اٌٍ‪ٔ ٟ‬غزخذِ‪ٙ‬ب ف‪ ٟ‬رؾٍ‪ً١‬‬
‫هجؼب ٘زا اٌغؤاي ِش ػٍ‪ٕ١‬ب ِٓ لجً‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬ارا اال‪٠‬غبس ‪ٚ‬اٌجش‪ ٚ‬رش‪ِٚ‬ج‪ٔ ٓ١‬فظ اٌّبدح اٌّبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍو ٌىٓ رخزٍف اٌىّ‪١‬خ‬
‫‪ESR=400‬‬
‫‪PT=200‬‬
‫ٌىٓ اٌّبدح ٔفغ‪ٙ‬ب ٌىٓ رخزٍف إٌغجخ‬
‫‪24. In DIC all the following is increased except‬‬
‫‪a. PT‬‬
‫‪b. APTT‬‬
‫‪c. TT‬‬
‫‪d. Platelets‬‬
‫‪e. None of the above.‬‬
‫ؽشؽٕب ٘زا اٌغؤاي ِٓ لجً ف‪ ٟ‬عؤاي ‪ٚ 5‬لٍٕب األخزقبس ِؼٕبح اْ اٌّش‪٠‬ل ػٕذح‬
‫ػ‪ٛ‬اًِ اٌزغٍو ف‪ٙ١‬ب ِؾىٍخ‪ٚ‬ساػ ‪٠ٚ‬ى‪ ْٛ‬ػٕذح ع‪ٌٛ١‬خ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬وٍ‪ٙ‬ب ساػ رض‪٠‬ذ‬
‫ثأعزضٕبء اٌقفبئؼ اٌذِ‪٠ٛ‬خ ألٔ‪ٙ‬ب ساػ رزىغش ‪ٚ‬رمً ػذد٘ب‬

‫‪25.HAV transmission‬‬
‫‪a. Blood‬‬
‫‪b. Body fluid‬‬
‫‪c. Sexual contact‬‬
‫‪d. Fecal oral‬‬
‫‪26.HBV transmission‬‬
‫‪a. Blood‬‬
‫‪b. Body fluid‬‬
‫‪c. Sexual contact‬‬
‫‪d. ALL‬‬
‫‪27.HCV transmission‬‬
‫‪a. Blood‬‬
‫‪b. Body fluid‬‬
‫‪c. Sexual contact‬‬
‫‪d. Fecal oral‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬اٌز‪ٙ‬بة اٌىجذ اٌ‪ٛ‬ثبئ‪ ٟ‬ػٕذ‪ ٞ‬صالس أٔ‪ٛ‬اع ‪ٚ‬وٍ‪ٙ‬ب ‪ٚ‬اؽذ ِٕ‪ٙ‬ب ‪ٕ٠‬زمً ػٓ هش‪٠‬ك ‪e.‬‬
‫ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ِؼ‪ٓ١‬‬
‫ػٓ هش‪٠‬ك األوً=‪f. A‬‬
‫ػٓ هش‪٠‬ك اٌذَ ‪ٚ‬ػٓ هش‪٠‬ك ع‪ٛ‬ائً اٌغغُ ‪ٚ‬ػٓ اٌطش‪٠‬ك اٌغٕظ=‪g. B‬‬
‫‪14‬‬
 h. C=َ‫ك اٌذ‬٠‫ػٓ هش‬

28. Enterobacter is
a. Gram-negative cocobacillus
b. The large negative rod
c. The small negative rod
‫بء‬١ّ١‫ و‬ٟ‫ وبْ رخقق‬ٚ‫ىش‬٠‫ الٔخ ِذسعذ ِب‬ٚ‫ىش‬٠‫ عضء اٌّب‬ٍٝ‫فشاؽخ اعفخ ػ‬
‫ب‬ٙ‫ ثظ وٕذ أؽفظ‬ٚ‫ىش‬٠‫ اٌّب‬ٟ‫فخ عذا ف‬١‫خ فنؼ‬٠ٛ١‫ؽ‬

29. Enterococci are typically arranged in pairs and can not be or

difficult differentiated from
a. Streptococci
b. Staphylococci
c. Spirochete
d. Meningococci
‫اؽذ‬ٚ ‫ء‬ٟ‫ْ وؾ‬ٛ‫قجؾ‬٠ ُٙٔ‫ٓ ِٓ ثؼل ٌذسعخ ا‬١‫ج‬٠‫ْ لش‬ٛٔٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ع‬ٛٔ ‫ٌه‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫٘زا اٌغؤاي‬

ٚ‫ة ا‬ٚ‫ئخ لش‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ب رزشرت ػ‬٠‫ش‬١‫ثىز‬ٚ ‫ئخ عجؾخ‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ب رزشرت ػ‬٠‫ش‬١‫ب ثىز‬٠‫ٓ ِٓ اٌجىزش‬١‫ػ‬ٛٔ ٞ‫أب ػٕذ‬ٚ
‫ اٌؼٕت‬ٞ‫خ ص‬٠‫د‬ٛ‫ػٕم‬
Strepto=chain ‫ اٌغجؾخ ػؾبْ وزا أخشٔب٘ب‬ٞ‫جخ ِٓ اٌجؼل ص‬٠‫لش‬ٚ ‫ئخ عٍغٍخ‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ْ ِشرجخ ػ‬ٛ‫رى‬
‫ اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
ٟٔ‫ع اٌضب‬ٌٕٛ‫ا‬
Staph=group or cluster ‫ة‬ٚ‫ئخ لش‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٚ‫خ أ‬٠‫د‬ٛ‫ئخ اٌؼٕت ػٕم‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ْ ِشرجخ ػ‬ٛ‫رى‬

30. Patient comes to the lab. After take meal since two hours the
normal level of his glucose is
a. 100 – 150 mg/dl.
b. 70 – 110 mg/dl.
c. 50 – 90 mg/dl.
d. 100 – 150 gm/l.

15
 ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ فطج‬ٝ‫ ِزؼؾ‬ٚ‫ ا‬ٜ‫ ِزغذ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫عجخ‬ٚ ‫ ثؼذ ِىبْ ِبخز‬ٝ‫ل عبء ٌٍّغزؾف‬٠‫ٌه ِش‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ْ‫ وب‬ٛ٘ٚ ‫لبط اٌغىش‬ٚ ‫ ثظ عبء‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ أغبْ هج‬ٛ٘ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٞٛ‫ْ ػٕذح ِشرفغ ؽ‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ساػ‬
‫ؽذح‬ٌٍٛ ‫ء ٕٔزجخ‬ٟ‫اُ٘ ؽ‬ٚ 150ًٌ ‫جب‬٠‫فً رمش‬ٚ ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫عجخ ساػ‬ٚ ‫ِأخز‬
31.Infective stage of Taenia:
a. Larva
b. Cercaria
c. Embryonated egg
d. Cysticercus
e. Metacercaria
‫ّخ ِشح ِشح‬ِٙ ‫ب‬ٙ‫اؽفظ‬
32.Which is most abundant (prevalence)?
a. Plasmodium falciparum. =‫ت‬١‫غ‬٠ٚ ‫ش ٘زح األعبثخ‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ِّى‬cerebral
malaria =‫خ‬١ٔ‫ؽذح صب‬ٚ ٚ‫أ‬malignant malari
b. P.ovali.
c. P.malari.
d. P.vivax.
‫ُ اؽفع اٌضالس‬ِٕٙ ‫ؽذح‬ٚ ٞ‫ت أ‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ي ِّى‬ٍٛ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي ٌخ صالس ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ب خبفخ‬١٘ٚ ‫ؽذح‬ٚ ‫ي‬ٚ‫ األٔزؾبس ساػ ٔخزبس أ‬ٟ‫ء ف‬ٟ‫ اوضش ؽ‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه أ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ب‬٠‫ثّشك اٌّالس‬
35.The person should not have donated blood within the previous
a. 3 month.
b. 5month.
c. 2 month.
d. 1year.
َ‫ب ثبٌذَ الص‬٠ٛ‫زجشع وً ع‬٠ ‫مذس‬١ِ ‫زجشع ثبٌذَ اٌؾخـ‬٠ ‫مذس اٌؾخـ‬٠ ٝ‫ٌه ِز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
َ‫خ ثبٌذ‬١ٔ‫زجشع ِشح صب‬٠ ‫خ ٌه‬١‫س وبف‬ٛٙ‫صالس ؽ‬ٚ ‫ٓ وً رجشع‬١‫أخز فزشح ث‬٠
36.Blood grouping antibodies are
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
Blood grouping=igm

37. Antibodies associated in Rh.

16
 a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
\ٟ‫ ع‬ٟ‫ ع‬ٞ‫ي اخزبس أ‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫خ وٍّخ اس ارؼ ػ‬١‫ف ف‬ٛ‫ عؤاي رؾ‬ٞ‫أ‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Rh=IgG

38. Congenital Parasites infected human

a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Plasmodium malaria
e. Toxoplasma gondii
ٛ‫وغ‬ٛ‫ي ٔخزبس اٌز‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫ ٌالٔغبْ ػ‬ٜٚ‫غجت ػذ‬٠ ٟ‫ساص‬ٚ ً١‫ٌه هف‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ًِ‫بك ٌٍّشاح اٌؾب‬ٙ‫غجت اع‬٠ ً١‫ف اْ ٘زا اٌطف‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬ٚ

39.OOcysts found in
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Plasmodium malaria
e. Toxoplasma gondii
‫دح‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ٓ٠‫زظ ا‬٠‫عب‬ٚٚ‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠

40.Parasite transmitted through blood transfusion transplacental

transmission or ingested parasite in undercooked meat of infected
animal
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Plasmodium malaria
e. Toxoplasma gondii
17
 ِٓ ‫اؽٕب لٍٕب‬ٚ )‫ّخ‬١‫ ثبألؽّش ِؼٕب٘ب (اخزشاق اٌّؾ‬ٌٍٟ‫ اٌغؤاي ا‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ؽفذ اٌىٍّخ ا‬
‫ّخ‬١‫خزشق اٌّؾ‬٠ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ًِ‫بك اٌّشاح اٌؾب‬ٙ‫غجت اع‬٠ ٛ‫وغ‬ٛ‫لجً اْ اٌز‬
‫ب ِخططخ األؽّش‬١٘ ٌٍٟ‫ ارشن اٌغؤاي وٍخ ثظ اػشف اُ٘ وٍّخ ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

41.The dog is definitive host

a. Echinococcus granulosis ‫عظ‬ٍٕٛ٠‫وظ لش‬ٛ‫ و‬ٕٛ١‫اؽ‬
b. Trypanosoma sp.
c. Plasmodium malaria
d. Toxoplasma gondii.
‫ب اٌىٍت‬ٙ‫ ؽم‬ٝ‫بئ‬ٌٕٙ‫دح اٌؼبئً ا‬ٚ‫ب اٌذ‬١٘‫ٌه ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

42.Tissue Nematodes
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Echinococcus granulosis
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Trichinella spiralis
e. Toxoplasma gondii

43.Parasite isolated from sputum

a. Paragonium watermani
b. Echinococcus granulosis
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Trichinella spiralis
e. Toxoplasma gondii
ُ‫ٔأخخ ِٓ اٌجٍغ‬ٚ ‫ ٔمذس ٔؼضٌخ‬ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١‫ اٌطف‬ٛ٘‫ٌه ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
44.Parasite cause lung fluke disease
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Echinococcus granulosis
c. Trypanosoma sp.
d. Paragonium westermani
e. Toxoplasma gondii
‫ اٌشئخ‬ٟ‫غجت اِشاك ف‬٠ ً١‫ٌه هف‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ُ‫ٔأخزح ِٓ اٌجٍغ‬ٚ ‫ؼضي‬٠ ً١‫ اٌغؤاًٌ لجٍخ لٍٕب هف‬ٟ‫اؽٕب لجً ف‬ٚ
‫اٌقذس‬ٚ ٗ‫غجت اِشاك اٌشئ‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٛ٘ ُ‫ اٌجٍغ‬ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ٌٍٟ‫ ٔفظ اٌؾً ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

18
45.In emergency treatment of cuts and bleeding if cut is small. We do
a. Wash with area with soap and water
b. Apply pressure with apiece of cotton wool
c. Disinfected the area with skin antiseptic
d. Cove with a water proof dressing
e. ALL.
‫ء‬ٟ‫ وً ؽ‬ٜٛ‫ذ ثٕغ‬١‫ف ٔؼبٌغخ او‬١‫ٕضف و‬٠ٚ ‫ع‬ٛ‫ وبْ ِمط‬ٜ‫اس‬ٛ‫ٌه ؽبٌخ ه‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ ساػ ٔخزبس وٍخ‬ٟ‫ٔغط‬ٚ ُ‫ٔؼم‬ٚ ‫ اٌغشػ‬ٍٝ‫ٔنغو ػ‬ٚ ً‫ٔغغ‬
47. The first aid you do if chemical injury to the eye
a. Wash the affected eye quickly
b. Seek medical attention
c. Trans to other place
d. Call the physician
e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water.
‫خ‬١‫بئ‬١ّ١‫ اٌؾخـ أغشػ ثّبدح و‬ٌٛ‫ اٌٍش ساػ رؼٍّخ‬ٌٝٚ‫ األعؼبف األ‬ٛ٘‫ٌه ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ٌٝٚ‫ األعؼبف األ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ذ‬٠‫غذ ا‬٠‫ٌه وٍّخ فش‬ٛ‫م‬٠ٚ ‫غخ‬١‫ه ثٕفظ ٘زح اٌق‬١‫غ‬٠ ‫ عؤاي‬ٞ‫أ‬
‫ػ‬ٚٚ ‫ي اخزبس وٍّخ‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫ػ‬

48. The Acidic chemical injury to the eye neutralized with

a. 5% acetic acid
b. Boric acid
c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Milk
e. 5%Sodium bicarbonate.

49. The Alkaline chemical injury to the eye neutralized with

a. 5% acetic acid
b. Boric acid
c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Milk
e. 5%Sodium bicarbonate.

50. The first aid you do in chemical burns of skin

a. Wash immediately in running water
19
 b. Seek medical attention
c. Trans to other place
d. Call the physician
e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water.

51. Alkaline skin burn neutralized by

a. 5% acetic acid
b. Boric acid
c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Milk
e. 5%Sodium bicarbonate.

52. Acidic skin Burn neutralized by

a. 5% acetic acid
b. Boric acid powder
c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Milk
e. Sodium bicarbonate powder.
‫ٍخ‬ٙ‫ب اْ ؽبء هللا ثطشلخ ع‬ٙ‫مؾ‬ٚ‫ ساػ أ‬52ٚ 51ٚ 50ٚ40ٚ40‫عؤاي‬
‫ب‬ٌٙ‫ف ٔؼبد‬١‫خ و‬١‫بئ‬١ّ١‫ب ِبدح و‬ٙ١ٍ‫اٌغٍذ ارا عبء ػ‬ٚ ٓ١‫ أرىٍُ ػٓ اٌؼ‬ٛ٘‫خ‬٠‫ اٌجذا‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫اسرفؼذ ٔؾو ؽّل‬ٚ ‫خ‬٠ٍٛ‫ٕب ِبدح ل‬١‫ب ارا ؽط‬ٕٙ١‫مخ اٌّؼبدٌخ أؽٕب ػبسف‬٠‫ هش‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ؼ‬١‫اٌؼىظ فؾ‬ٚ ‫خ‬٠ٍٛ‫ػؾبٕٕٔضي دسعخ اٌم‬
‫خ‬١‫خ ٔؾو لبػذح ػؾبْ ٔخفف اٌؾبِن‬١‫ ارا صادد اٌؾبِن‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫امؼ‬ٚ ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫بسة‬٠

‫ب‬ٙ‫ف ٔؼبٌغ‬١‫خ و‬٠ٍٛ‫ب ِبدح ل‬ٙ١ٍ‫ٓ عبء ػ‬١‫ٌه اٌؼ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ٓ‫ األعئٍخ ِّى‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫خ‬١ّ‫ي ساػ ٔؾفو ِبدح ؽبم‬ٛ‫ساػ ٔم‬
‫اؽفع‬ٚ ُٙ‫أذ اف‬
ٓ١‫اٌؼ‬
Acidic====5%sodium bicarbionate
Alkaline or basic==5%acetic acid

20
 ‫ب ِبدح‬ٙ١ٍ‫ارا أىت ػ‬ٚ ‫ؼ ٔؾو‬٠‫ب ِذح لبػذح ا‬ٙ١ٍ‫ٓ أىت ػ‬١‫ب وزا ارا اٌؼ‬ٙ‫خالؿ اؽفظ‬
‫ؼ ٔؾو‬٠‫خ ا‬١‫ؽبِن‬

‫اٌغٍذ‬

Acidic=sodium bicarbionate powder

Alkaline or basic==boric acid powder

ًّ‫ؼ ٔؼ‬٠‫خ ا‬١‫ ِبدح ؽبِن‬ٚ‫خ أ‬٠‫ش ؽبٌخ اثزالع ٌّبدح لبػذ‬١‫ق‬٠ ٓ‫ِّى‬ٚ
‫ ؽبٌخ األثزالع‬ٟ‫ف‬
Acidic==‫ ٔؾشة‬milk+magnesium hydroxide
Alkaline or basic=‫ ٔؾشة‬lemon+acetic acid
‫امؼ اٌؾشػ‬ٚ ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫بسة‬٠

53. The first aid you do in swallowing of an acid or alkali chemical or

poisons.
a. Wash immediately in running water
b. Seek medical attention
c. Trans to other place
d. Call the physician
e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water.
ً١‫ غغ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ػ‬ٚٚ ‫ي ٔخزبس وٍّخ‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫ذ ػ‬٠‫ف وٍّخ فشعذ ا‬ٛ‫ي ِٕؾ‬ٚ‫اؽٕب لجً لٍٕب أ‬
‫ػ ثّبء ؽبس‬ٚٚ ‫خ‬١ٔ‫اعبثخ صب‬ٚ ‫ػ ثّبء ثبسد‬ٚٚ ‫ي‬ٛ‫ئخ رم‬١ٌٙ‫بٔب ا‬١‫ٌىٓ أزجخ الشا اٌغٍّخ وبٍِخ اؽ‬
‫ػ ثّبء ثبدس‬ٚٚ ‫ذ ساػ ٔخزبس‬١‫او‬
‫ب‬١ٍ‫ ػ‬ٛ‫ّز‬ٙ‫ف‬
54. The first aid you do in swallowing of infected material
a. Wash immediately in running water
b. Immediately Seek medical attention
c. Trans to other place
d. Call the physician
e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water.

21
 ‫ي ٔخزبس‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫ذ ػ‬٠‫زخوٍّخ فشعذ ا‬٠‫ ثذا‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٞ‫ُ عذا أب لجً لٍزه ٌىُ أ‬ِٙ ‫٘زا عؤاي‬
ٍٝ‫صخ الصَ ٔزقً ػ‬ٍِٛ ‫ ٘زح اٌؾبٌخ الصَ ؽقً اثزالع ٌّبدح‬ٟ‫ػ فؼ ٌىٓ ف‬ٚٚ
‫ؼ ِٕمذس ٔؾشة ِبء‬١ٌ ُ‫ٌى‬ٛ‫أب ال‬ٚ ‫خ‬١‫خ اٌقؾ‬٠‫اٌشػب‬
‫ ثظ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ذ اٌؾبٌخ‬٠‫رض‬ٚ ‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ اٌجىز‬ّٕٛ‫ب ارا ؽشثٕب ِبء ساػ ر‬٠‫ش‬١‫ب ثىز‬ٙ١‫صخ ف‬ٍِٛ ‫الْ ِبدح‬
‫خ‬١‫خ اٌقؾ‬٠‫ اٌشػب‬ٟ‫صخ ٔزقً ف‬ٍِٛ ‫ ؽبٌخ اثزالع ِبدح‬ٟ‫ف‬
55. If acid has been Swallowed neutralize by
a. 5% acetic acid
b. Boric acid powder
c. Drinking 8 %Magnesium hydroxide
d. Milk
e. C or D.
‫ق‬ٛ‫ؽشؽزخ ف‬

56. If alkali has been swallowed neutralize by

a. Drinking lemon juice
b. 1 % acetic acid.
c. A or b
d. Drinking 8 %Magnesium hydroxide\
e.
f. Milk.
‫ق‬ٛ‫ؽشؽزخ ف‬

57. Taenia saginata diagnostic by

a. Gravid segment
b. Ova in stool ‫ اٌجشاص‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫نخ ا‬١‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫ب ف‬ٙ‫ٔؾخق‬
c. Cyst
d. Trophozoite
e. Larva in stool.

58. Beef tap worm

a. T.saginata
b. T.solium
22
 c. Schistosoma hematobium
d. Entamobia histolytica
e. Fasciola hepatica

59. Pork tap worm

a. T.saginata
b. T.solium
c. Schistosoma hematobium
d. Entamobia histolytica
e. Fasciola hepatica
50ٚ 50 ‫عؤاي‬
‫ٍخ ٌٍؾفع‬ٙ‫مخ ع‬٠‫ي هش‬ٛ‫ساػ أل‬
Beef tap =t.saginata
‫ٔخزبس‬ٚ ‫ي ثمشح ِغٍّخ‬ٛ‫ ٔم‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠t.saginata
Pork tap= t.solium
‫ٔخزبس‬ٚ ٟ‫ؾ‬١‫ش ِغ‬٠‫ي خٕض‬ٛ‫ ٔم‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠t>solium
ُ‫فمى‬ٛ٠ ٟ‫سث‬ٚ ‫ ؽفظزخ ػؾبْ رؾفع الٔخ ثظ ؽفع‬ٌٍٟ‫ذ ا‬١‫َ رؼ‬ٛ٠ ً‫ و‬ٟ‫ج‬٠ ٚ‫ىش‬٠‫هللا اٌّب‬ٚ

60. Infective stage in malaria

a. Cyst
b. Trophozoit
c. Ova
d. Sporozoites
e. Larva
ٛ٘‫ب ِب‬٠‫ اٌّالس‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٞ‫ اٌّؼذ‬ٞ‫س‬ٛ‫اٌط‬
ٓ١‫مز‬٠‫ ثطش‬ٟ‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ِّى‬ٚ ‫ُ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ِٙ ‫عذا‬
‫ا‬ٚ‫ص‬ٛ‫سر‬ٛ‫ي عج‬ٛ‫ب رم‬٠‫ اٌّالس‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٞ‫ اٌّؼذ‬ٞ‫س‬ٛ‫خالؿ ػشفٕب اْ اٌط‬
‫ب‬٠‫ف ٔؾخـ اٌّالس‬١‫ و‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ب‬٠‫ اٌّالس‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٟ‫ق‬١‫س اٌزؾخ‬ٛ‫ اٌط‬ٛ٘‫ ِب‬ٌٟ ‫ لبي‬ٌٛ ٓ‫ٌى‬
‫ي‬ٛ‫ٔم‬
Thick blood film
‫ وزا‬ٟ‫غ‬٠ ‫اٌغؤاي‬
Diagnostic stage of malaria:
Thick bllod filmً‫ اٌؾ‬ٛ٘ ‫٘زا‬
.

23
61. Balantidum coli in
a. Stomach
b. Large intestin
c. Small intestin
d. Liver
‫ُ رؼشف‬ِٙ ‫شح‬١‫ االِؼبء اٌىج‬ٟ‫ؼ ف‬١‫ح رؼ‬ٚ‫د‬ٚ‫ؼ ٘زح اٌذ‬١‫ٓ رؼ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫شح‬١‫ب اٌىج‬ٙٔ‫ا‬

62. Ancylostoma diagnostic by

a. Ova in stool
b. Larva in stool
c. Cyst in stool
d. Trophozoite
‫ اٌجشاص‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ل ا‬١‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫ب ف‬ٙ‫دح اٌؾً ٔؾخق‬ٚ‫ٓ ٔؾخـ ٘زح اٌذ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ب‬ٌٙ ٜ‫ت ٌه اعُ أخش‬١‫غ‬٠ٚ ُ‫ش األع‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ٓ ِّى‬١ّ‫ب اع‬ٌٙ ٞ‫دح ٘ز‬ٚ‫اٌذ‬ٚ
Ancylostoma=hook worm
ٞٛ‫ ِبلٍذ لجً ؽ‬ٞ‫دح ص‬ٚ‫زح اٌذ‬ٌٙ ٞ‫س اٌّؼذ‬ٛ‫ اٌط‬ٛ٘‫ت ٌُ ِب‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ِى‬ٚٚ
‫اؽذ‬ٚ ً‫ُ رؼشف و‬ِٙ ٟ‫ق‬١‫س رؾخ‬ٛ‫ه‬ٚ ٞ‫س ِؼذ‬ٛ‫ب ه‬ٌٙ ‫دح‬ٚ‫وً د‬
‫دح‬ٚ‫زح اٌذ‬ٌٙ ٞ‫س اٌّؼذ‬ٛ‫ اٌط‬ٛ٘‫ عبة ٌه ِب‬ٌٛ
Ancylostoma infected=Larva ‫شلخ‬١ٌ‫ ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ب‬ٙ‫شلخ ؽمز‬١ٌ‫ ا‬ٛ٘ ‫دح‬ٚ‫ ٘زح اٌذ‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٞ‫ؼذ‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

63. Fasciola live in

a. Liver and bile duct
b. Pancrease
c. Stomach
d. Kidney
‫دحخالؿ ؽفع‬ٚ‫ؼ ٘زح اٌذ‬١‫ٓ رؼ‬٠‫ي أ‬ٛ‫م‬٠

24
64. Fasciola Diagnostic by
a. Ova in stool
b. Larva in stool
c. Cyst in stool
d. Trophozoite

65. Infective stage in Fasciola

a. Larva
b. Cyst
c. Metacercaria
d. Cercaria

66. Naturally occurring stable bacteria that lack a rigid cell wall
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. E.coli
c. Mycoplasma
d. Enterobacteriacae
‫ب عذاس‬ٙ‫عذ ث‬ٛ٠‫ٌىٓ ال‬ٚ ‫ب صبثزخ‬٠‫ش‬١‫ اْ ٘زح اٌجىز‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ي ٌٕب ِٓ اٌطج‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
ٍٜٛ‫خ‬
‫ف‬ٛ‫ي ِزؾ‬ٚ‫ أ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Lack cell wall=mycoplasm

67. Gram positive bacteria stained

a. Dark purple
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. Red
‫ب‬ٙ‫ ساػ ٔؾط‬ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٌٝٚ‫اٌقجغخ األ‬ٚ ً١‫عت عذاس٘ب صم‬ِٛ َ‫لٍذ اٌغشا‬ٚ ً‫ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لج‬
‫ف‬ِٛ ‫ب‬ٌٙٔٛ ‫ش‬١‫ق‬٠ ‫ساػ‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٙ١‫ف ساػ رّغه ف‬ِٛ ‫ب‬ٌٙٔٛ ٌٍٟ‫ا‬

‫لبي‬ٚ ‫ اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ش ف‬١‫ غ‬ٌٛ

Gram negative
‫ْ األؽّش‬ٌٍٛ‫ٔخزبس ا‬
Red

25
68. Gram negative bacteria may appear as gram positive when
a.Smear is tool thick ‫ش‬ٙ‫ظ‬٠ ‫ظ ساػ‬٠ٛ‫ِفشدٔب و‬ٚ ‫ٍخ‬١‫ؾخ ِشح صم‬٠‫ٕب اٌؾش‬١ٍ‫ خ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫عت‬ِٛ َ‫ اٌغشا‬ٞ‫ً ص‬١‫ف وأٔخ صم‬١‫اٌغشاَ عبٌت اٌخف‬
b. Cell wall damage by antibiotic therapy
c.Over decolorization
d. Use old iodine
e.Smear from old culture
‫عت‬ِٛ َ‫ب غشا‬ٙٔ‫ش وب‬ٙ‫ رظ‬ٝ‫ي اٌغشاَ عبٌت ِز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ذ‬٠‫ اٌغال‬ٍٝ‫ظ ػ‬٠ٛ‫ب و‬٠‫ش‬١‫صع اٌجىز‬ٛٔ َ‫ؾخ الص‬٠‫ اٌؾش‬ٍٝ‫ ٔفشد ػ‬ٟ‫اؽٕب ٌّٓ ٔغ‬
‫ب‬١٘ٚ ‫ٍخ‬١‫ب صم‬ٙٔ‫ش وأ‬ٙ‫ب رؾذ اٌّغ‬ٙ‫ف‬ٛ‫ٔؾ‬ٚ ‫ظ ساػ رزغّغ‬٠ٛ‫ب و‬٠‫ش‬١‫ٌىٓ ارا ِفشدٔب اٌجىز‬
‫فخ‬١‫افال خف‬
‫ظ‬٠ٛ‫ الصَ ٔفشد و‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

69. Gram positive organisms may appear as gram negative when

a.Cell wall damage by antibiotic therapy
b. Over decolorization
c.Use old iodine
d. Smear from old culture
e.All.
‫ب‬٠‫ظ اٌجىزش‬٠ٛ‫ف و‬ٛ‫ٕب ٔؾ‬١ٍ‫ِزخ‬ٚ ‫بء ِّىٓ رخشة‬١‫وً ٘زح األؽ‬

70. The biochemical test differentiate S.pneumonia from other

streptococci
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
ٓ‫ب رخزٍف ػ‬ٙ١ٍ‫خ‬٠ٚ ‫ٕب ثظ ثظ‬١ِٛ١ٕ‫ ث‬ٛ‫ؼ االخزجبس اٌخبؿ ثبالعزشثز‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫خ‬١ٔ‫ اٌضب‬ٛ‫األعزشثز‬
‫د‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ً‫اٌؾ‬ٚ
26
71. Biochemical test differentiate between two streptococci group
a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
ِٓ ‫ ثؼل‬ٞ‫ٓ ص‬١‫ػ‬ٛٔ ٓ١‫ف ٔمذس ٔفشق ث‬١‫ و‬ٜ‫مخ أخش‬٠‫ق ثطش‬ٛ‫ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ اٌغؤاي ا‬ٞ‫ص‬
ٛ‫األعزشثز‬

72. Test differentiate staphylococci from streptococci

a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
ٛ‫ض األعزبف ػٓ األعزشثز‬١ّ٠ ‫٘زا األخزجبس‬
‫ ٘زا ألخزجبس خبؿ ثبألعزبف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

73. Hydrogene peroxide used in catalase reaction concentration is

a. 3%
b. 40%
c. 100%
d. 50%
َ‫غزخذ‬٠ ‫ذ‬١‫وغ‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫ٓ ث‬١‫ع‬ٚ‫ذس‬١ٌٙ‫ٔؼشف ا‬ٚ ‫ضح‬١‫ ثؼذح هشق ٔؼشف وُ رشو‬ٟ‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ِّى‬
‫ض‬١ٍ١‫ رفبػً اٌىز‬ٟ‫ف‬

74. Amino acid used in Indole test

a. Tryptophane
b. Cystin
c. Phenylalanin
27
 d. Serin
‫ي‬ٚ‫ اخزجبس األٔذ‬ٟ‫ ٔغخذِخ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٟٕ١ِ‫ اٌؾبِل األ‬ٛ٘‫ي ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ٓ١‫ ف‬ٛ‫ اٌزشثز‬ٛ٘

75. Indol production in Indol test detected by

a. Kovak’s or Ehrlich reagent
b. Drabkin
c. Fehling
d. All.
‫ُ اؽفع اعّخ اٌىبؽف‬ِٙ

76. Test used to assist the identification of Enterococci (Enterococcus

sp.)
a. Litmus milk decolorization
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
e. Indole

77. Bacillary dysentery‫ اعهبل يؼُبهب‬caused by

a. Shigella‫بي‬ٙ‫ خالؿ ِغ وٍّخ اع‬ٛ‫ؽ‬ٛ‫ي ؽ‬ٛ‫ل‬
b. Cambylobacter
c. Chylamidia
d. Salmonella
ٍٟ‫غ‬١‫ي اخزبس ؽ‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫بي ػ‬ٙ‫ اع‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٞ‫غٕزش‬٠‫ف وٍّخ د‬ٛ‫ي ِزؾ‬ٚ‫أ‬

78. On MacConkey agar ,shigellan and Salmonella produce colonies

its color is
a. Colorlessٌْٛ ْٚ‫ثذ‬
b. Red
c. Pink
d. White
28
 ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ف‬١‫ٔال و‬ٍّٛ‫ع‬ٚ ٍٟ‫غ‬١‫ٓ ؽ‬١‫ك ث‬٠‫ اعبس ٌّٓ ٔغزخذِخ ٌٍزفش‬ٟ‫ٔى‬ٛ‫ٌه اٌّبو‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ٌْٛ ْٚ‫ي ثذ‬ٛ‫ٔخ ٔم‬ٌٛ
‫ لبي‬ٌٛ ٓ‫ٌى‬
XLD‫ٔال‬ٍّٛ‫ع‬ٚ ‫غال‬١‫ٓ ؽ‬١‫ك ث‬٠‫٘زا اعُ اعبس ٔزغخذِخ ٌٍزفش‬
‫طٍغ أؽّش‬٠ ‫ ساػ‬ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٌٍٟ‫ي ا‬ٛ‫ٔم‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Macconkey=coloress
XLD=red color

79. When immediate delivery to the laboratory is not possible,

refrigerate the urine at
a. 4 – 6 C
b. 40 C
c. 1 – 2 C
d. 2 – 8 C
‫ي ػؾبْ ٔؾفظخ‬ٛ‫ب اٌج‬ٙ١‫ ٔؾو ف‬ٌٍٟ‫وُ دسعخ اٌؾشاسح ا‬

80. Haemophilus influenza grow well in

a. Chocolate agar
b. MacConky
c. Blood agar
d. Manitol salt agar
‫خ‬١ٍ‫ ػ‬ّٕٛ‫ ر‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ اعُ األعبس ا‬٠‫ٔضا ا‬ٍٛ‫االٔف‬
‫الرخ‬ٛ‫و‬ٛ‫ٔضا رؾت اٌؾ‬ٍٛ‫ي األٔف‬ٛ‫أٔذ ل‬
‫ب وزا‬ٙ‫أٔب ؽفظز‬
‫الرخ‬ٛ‫و‬ٛ‫ٔضا=ؽ‬ٍٛ‫أف‬

81. Blood parasite

a. Plasmodium sp.=‫ب‬٠‫رغجت سك اٌّالس‬
b. Trypanosoma sp=ٌَٕٛ‫ رغجت ِشك ا‬tse tse

c. Leishmania sp. ‫ك‬٠‫ رٕزمً ػٓ هش‬sky fly

d. Filaria sp.ً١‫رغجت داء اٌف‬
29
 e. All.
‫ب‬ٙ‫اػشف‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٍٙ‫ب و‬ٙ‫ اٌذَ ػبد اؽفظ‬ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ٌّٛ‫بد ا‬١ٍ١‫ؼ اعُ اٌطف‬٠‫ا‬

82. Media selected for culturing the blood to isolate aerobic organism
a. Columbia agar
b. Blood agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Nutrient agar
‫ي‬ٛ‫ٓ ل‬١‫د األوغغ‬ٛ‫ع‬ٚ ٟ‫ ف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ب‬١‫ائ‬ٛ٘ ‫ٌخ‬ٚ‫خ اٌغؤاي ِؼض‬٠‫ب‬ٙٔ ٟ‫ء ف‬ٟ‫اؽفع اُ٘ ؽ‬
‫ب‬١‫ائ‬ٛ٘ ‫ٌخ‬ٚ‫ب ِؼض‬١‫الِج‬ٛ‫ٌخ و‬ٚ‫ د‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ب اعبس‬١‫الِج‬ٛ‫و‬

83. Media is recommended to isolate strict anaerobic organism

a. Thioglycollate broth medium
b. Chocolate agar
c. MacConky
d. Blood agar
e. Manitol salt agar
‫ؽذح‬ٚ ‫ي‬ٚ‫ٓ ٔخزبس أ‬١‫د األوغغ‬ٛ‫ع‬ٚ َ‫ ػذ‬ٟ‫ب ف‬١‫ائ‬ٛ٘‫ٌخ ال‬ٚ‫ ِؼض‬ٌٍٟ‫ا‬

84. Normal semen Counting ٌ‫انُغجخ انطجُؼخ نىجىد انذُىاٌ انًُى‬

a. 20 x 106
b. 200 x106
c. 10 x 106
d. 50 x 106

85. Normal semen pH

a. 7.2
b. 8.3
c. 4.6
d. 5
5.2 ْٛ‫ رى‬ٌّٕٞٛ‫خ ٌٍغبئً ا‬١‫ؼ‬١‫ ارؼ اٌطج‬ٟ‫اٌج‬

30
86. Normal range of ASO test
a. Up to 200 Iu/ml.
b. Up to 100 Iu/ml.
c. Less than 50 mg/dl
d. 70 – 110 mg/dl.

87. Biochemical test is rapidly and simply performed to detect

strepto-pyogenes and enterococcus
a. PYR
b. Coagulase
c. Citrate
d. Bile solubility
e. Indole

88. Haemophilus influenza cause

a. Scarlet fever=‫ب‬ّٙ‫ب اع‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ثىز‬ّٝ‫رغجت ٘زح اٌؾ‬strepto.pyogens
b. Q fever=‫ب‬ّٙ‫ب اع‬٠‫ش‬١‫ب ثىز‬ٙ‫ رغجج‬coxjella burinti
c.
d. Pneumonia
e. Dysentery=‫ب‬ّٙ‫ب اع‬٠‫ش‬١‫ب ثىز‬ٙ‫ رغجج‬shegalla
f.
g. Trachoma‫ب‬ّٙ‫ب اع‬٠‫ش‬١‫ب ثىز‬ٙ‫ رغجج‬Chlamydia
‫ رغججخ‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ اعُ اٌّشك ا‬٠‫ا‬ٚ ‫ب‬٠‫ُ رؾفع وً ثىزش‬ِٙ
ٜ‫اؽذ خّغخ اعئٍخ أخش‬ٌٛ‫ اٌغؤاي ا‬ٟ‫ رؾقً ف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

89. In elderly diabetic patients the renal threshold for glucose

a. Often raised
b. Often decrease
c. Dos not change
d. None.
‫ ِٓ اٌغىش غبٌجب ِشرفغ‬ٍٟ‫ اٌؾذ اٌى‬ٞ‫ل اٌغىش‬٠‫ٌه ِش‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ٞ‫ْ غبٌجب ِشرفغ ػٕذح اٌغىش‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ذ ساػ‬١‫ او‬ٞ‫ل عىش‬٠‫ِش‬

90. An elevated sodium level is known as

a. Hypernatraemia
31
 b. Hyponatraemia
c. Hypercholestremia
d. Hyperkalaemia
‫ء ِشرفغ‬ٟ‫جش ِؼٕب٘ب ؽ‬٠‫ ٘ب‬ّٝ‫َ ِبرا رغ‬ٛ٠‫د‬ٛ‫ؽبٌخ اسرفبع اٌق‬
‫ب‬١ّ٠‫زش‬١ٔ ‫جش‬٠‫٘ب‬
‫َ اخزقبس‬ٛ٠‫د‬ٛ‫اٌق‬Na
‫ش خز‬١‫ق‬٠ ‫فؼ‬
َٛ٠‫د‬ٛ‫ٓ ِٓ اخزقبس اٌق‬١‫ي ؽشف‬ٚ‫ ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ب‬١ّ٠‫زش‬١ٔ ‫جش‬٠‫٘ب‬

91. A raised potassium level is known as

a. Hypernatraemia
b. Hyponatraemia
c. Hypercholestremia
d. Hyperkalaemia
‫ف اخزقبس‬ٛ‫ ٔؾ‬ّٝ‫َ ِبرا رغ‬ٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫ق ؽبٌخ اسرفبع اٌج‬ٛ‫ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ٔفظ اٌغؤاي ا‬
‫ؼ‬٠‫َ ا‬ٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫اٌج‬Ka
َٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫ٓ ِٓ اٌج‬١‫ ؽشف‬ٚ‫ ٔخزبس أ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ب‬١ّ٠‫جش وال‬٠‫ي ٘ب‬ٛ‫ٔم‬ٚ

92. By using clinical flam photometer sodium and potassium results

are displayed in
a. Mg/dl.
b. Gm/dl.
c. Ml/min.
d. mmHg
e. Mmol/L.
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ؽذح‬ٌٛ‫ ِزش ساػ رخزبس ٘زح ا‬ٛ‫ر‬ٛ‫ف وٍّخ فالَ ف‬ٛ‫ي ِزؾ‬ٚ‫أ‬
Flam photometer=Mmol/L

93. which stain most commonly used in microbiology

a. Leishman stain
b. Romanosky stain
c. Gram stain
32
 ‫‪d. Gimsa stain‬‬
‫‪e. ALL.‬‬
‫ِب٘‪١‬ب اٌقجغخ األوضش األعزخذاَ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌّب‪٠‬ىش‪ ٚ‬أو‪١‬ذ ساػ رى‪ ْٛ‬فجغخ غشاَ ‪ٚ‬اؽٕب‬
‫ِٓ أ‪ٚ‬ي ٔؼ‪١‬ذ ‪ٔٚ‬م‪ٛ‬ي غشاَ ِ‪ٛ‬عت ‪ٚ‬غشاْ عبٌت ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪١٘ ٟ‬ب األوضش اعزخذاَ ف‪ٟ‬‬
‫اٌّب‪٠‬ىش‪ٚ‬‬

‫‪94. The Rhesus blood group system consists of six genes‬‬

‫‪a. Cc,Dd,Ee‬‬
‫‪b. Cc,Hh,Aa‬‬
‫‪c. Gg,Aa,Cc‬‬
‫‪d. Ww,Ff,Cc‬‬
‫‪e. Hh,Ss,Qq‬‬
‫‪IgG‬اؽٕب لجً أ‪ٚ‬ي ِٕؾ‪ٛ‬ف اخزقبس اس ارؼ ٔخزبس‬
‫‪ٚ‬وّبْ أ‪ٛ‬ا٘ب عزخ‬
‫ع‪ ٟ‬د‪ ٞ‬أ‪ ٞ‬وجزً ‪ٚ‬عّ‪ٛ‬ي‬

‫‪95. Hyperglycemic hormones‬‬

‫‪a. Amylase‬‬
‫‪b. Insulin‬‬
‫‪c. Lipase‬‬
‫‪d. Glucagon‬‬
‫‪e. Trypsin‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي ِ‪ ُٙ‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغغُ ػٕذا ٘شِ‪٠ ٓ١ٔٛ‬زؾىّ‪ ْٛ‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغىش ‪ٚ‬اؽذ ‪ٕ٠‬ضي‬
‫اٌغىش‪ٚٚ‬اؽذ ‪٠‬شفغ اٌغىش ؽغت اؽز‪١‬بط اٌغغُ عجؾبْ هللا‬
‫٘شِ‪ ْٛ‬اٌغال‪٠‬ى‪ٛ‬ع‪٠ ٓ١‬خضْ اٌغٍ‪ٛ‬و‪ٛ‬ص ف‪ ٟ‬اٌىجذ ‪ٚ‬عجؾبْ هللا ف‪ ٟ‬ؽبٌخ أخفبك‬
‫اٌغىش‬
‫‪٠‬زفىه اٌغٍ‪ٛ‬و‪ٛ‬ص اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌىجذ ‪٠ٚ‬شرفغ اٌغىش ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ‬
‫‪٠ glucagon=alpha cells‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬اٌٍ‪٠ ٟ‬ض‪ٚ‬د اٌغىش ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ ٘شِ‪ْٛ‬‬

‫ٌىٓ اٌٍ‪٠ ٟ‬مًٍ اٌغىش ف‪ ٟ‬اٌذَ ٘‪٘ ٛ‬شِ‪ ْٛ‬األٔغ‪ٓ١ٌٛ‬‬

‫‪ٛٔٚ‬ػخ ث‪١‬زب‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ٟ‬‬
‫‪Glucagon=hyperglycemic=alpha cell‬‬
‫‪Insulin=hypo glycemic=beta cell‬‬

‫‪33‬‬
96. Hypoglycemic hormones
a. Amylase
b. Insulin
c. Lipase
d. Glycogene
e. Trypsin

97. Herpes simplex virus types

a. DNA virus
b. Herpevirus
c. Human virus
d. ALL.
‫ب‬ٍٙ‫شثظ ساػ ٔخزبس و‬ٌٙ‫اع ِشك ا‬ٛٔ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ٜ‫بساد أخش‬١‫ت ٌه اخز‬١‫غ‬٠ٚ ‫بساد‬١‫ األخز‬ٟ‫ش ٌه ف‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ٌىٓ ِّى‬
‫ارا عبة ٌه اخزبس‬
DNA ٚ‫أ‬ RNA
ٓ١ٕ‫ األص‬ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫عبْ اعزؾبٌخ رى‬ٚ‫ش‬١‫ الْ اٌف‬ٞ‫ اْ أ‬ٞ‫ساػ ٔخزبس اٌذ‬
ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫ساػ رى‬DNA

98. A Carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere is required for the

growth of
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Neisseria meningitides
c. Brucella sp.
d. Streptococcus pneumonia
e. All.

99. A cervical not a vaginal swab is required for the most successful
isolation from women’s
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. N.gonorrhoea
c. S.hematobium
d. Ascaris lumbercoid
‫ِخ‬ٍٛ‫ُ اػشف ٘بٌّؼ‬ِٙ ‫ سؽُ اٌّشأح‬ٟ‫ؼ ف‬١‫ب رؼ‬٠‫٘زح اٌجىزش‬
34
‫‪100. The nature of Antibodies‬‬
‫‪a. Glycoprotein‬‬
‫‪b. Polysaccharide‬‬
‫‪c. Lipids‬‬
‫‪d. Cardiolipin‬‬
‫ِب٘‪١‬ب هج‪١‬ؼخ األعغبَ اٌّنبدح ساػ رى‪ ْٛ‬عٍ‪ٛ‬و‪ٛ‬ص‪+‬ثش‪ٚ‬ر‪ٓ١‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬عال‪٠‬ى‪ٛ‬ثش‪ٚ‬ر‪ٓ١‬‬

‫‪101. Immunoglobin consists of five parts of Antibodies (Pentamoric).‬‬

‫‪a. IgG‬‬
‫‪b. IgM‬‬
‫‪c. IgD‬‬
‫‪d. IgA‬‬
‫‪e. IgE‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي ِ‪٠ ُٙ‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ٌ‪ٙ‬ب ‪ 5‬أعضاء ِٓ األعغبَ اٌّنبدح ساػ ٔخزبس أ‪ ٞ‬ع‪ ٟ‬اَ‬

‫ٌىٓ ٌ‪ ٛ‬عبة ٔفظ اٌغؤاي ‪ٚ‬عبة ف‪ ٟ‬األخز‪١‬بسد أ‪ ٞ‬ع‪ ٟ‬اَ‬

‫ٔخزبس‬
‫‪IgE‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬ف‪ّٕٙ‬ب أ‪ٚ‬ي ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ٔؾ‪ٛ‬ف اٌخ‪١‬بسد ارا ف‪ٙ١‬ب أ‪ ٞ‬ع‪ ٟ‬اَ ٔخزبس ارا وبْ ِؼ‬
‫ِ‪ٛ‬ع‪ٛ‬د ٔخزبس‬
‫‪IgE‬‬
‫‪ٚ‬وّبْ لٍٕب لجً ارا ؽفٕب وٍّخ‬

‫‪Blood grouping=IgM‬‬
‫‪102. Heparin tube color‬‬
‫‪a. Red‬‬
‫‪b. Blue‬‬
‫‪c. Green‬‬
‫‪d. Yellow‬‬
‫أو‪١‬ذ وٍٕب ٔززوش اٌغ‪ٙ‬بص ؽك اٌى‪ّ١‬غزش‪ ٞ‬األٔبث‪١‬ت اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬وٕب ٔغزخذِ‪ٙ‬ب ٌ‪ٙٔٛ‬ب أخنش‬
‫٘‪١‬ب اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌ‪١ٙ‬جبس‪ٓ٠‬‬
‫خالؿ‬

‫‪35‬‬
103. In the beta HCG test the result is
a. MIu/ml
b. U/L
c. Mu/L
d. MIu/dl.

104. The process of pathogenic infection to human

a. Adherences – Penetration –Multiplication
b. Penetration –Adherences- Multiplication
c. Multiplication – Adherences- Penetration
‫ذ‬١‫ء او‬ٟ‫ي ؽ‬ٚ‫ ٌالٔغبْ أ‬ٜٚ‫ٕزمً اٌؼذ‬٠ ْ‫ش ػؾب‬١‫ف رق‬١‫خ و‬١ٍّ‫ٌه اٌؼ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫اٌزقبق‬
‫اخزشاق‬
‫رنبػف‬

105. Paul-Bunnell test is positive in:

a. Multiple myeloma
b. Hodgkin’s disease
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. All of the above
ٓ١‫ء ِؼ‬ٟ‫ً خبؿ ثؾ‬١ٍ‫ ٘زا اٌزؾ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫عت‬ِٛ ‫ٕب‬١‫ؼط‬٠ ٝ‫ً ِز‬١ٍ‫ٌه ٘زا اٌزؾ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫عظ‬ٍٛ‫ى‬١ٔ ِٛٔٛ ٛ‫ أفىز‬ٛ٘ ٌٍٟ‫ا‬
‫شط اخزقبسح‬١‫رغجت ف‬ٚEBV
‫ك اٌمجالد‬٠‫ٕزؾش ٘زا اٌّشك ػٓ هش‬٠ٚKISSING

106. In the lab. An individual must wear

a. Wearing lab coat
b. Eye glasses
c. Gloves
d. ALL
‫بء‬١‫ذ وً ٘زح األؽ‬١‫ اٌّؼًّ او‬ٟ‫ؼ ٍٔجظ ف‬٠‫ا‬
107. Hepatitis virus infect
a. Kidney
36
 b. Liver
c. Stomach
d. Pancreases
‫ذ اٌىجذ‬١‫ت ِبرا او‬١‫ق‬٠ ٟ‫ثبئ‬ٌٛ‫بة اٌىجذ ا‬ٙ‫ٌه اٌز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

108. HAV virus transmitted

a. Blood
b. Sexually
c. Feco-oral
d. ALL
ً‫ٕزم‬٠ ُِٕٙ ‫اؽذ‬ٚ ً‫و‬ٚ ‫اع‬ٛٔ‫ ٌخ صالس ا‬ٝ‫ثبئ‬ٌٛ‫بة اٌىجذ ا‬ٙ‫اؽٕب ؽشؽٕب ِٓ لجً األٌز‬
‫ء‬ٟ‫ك ؽ‬٠‫ػٓ هش‬
A= ً‫األو‬
‫وٍّخ‬oralً‫ذ أو‬١‫ او‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ُ‫ك اٌف‬٠‫ء ػٓ هش‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ُ‫ ف‬ٟٕ‫رؼ‬

109. Normal range of cholesterol

a. 3 -7.8 mmol/l
b. 116 – 300 mg/dl.
c. A and b
d. 70 – 110 mg/100 ml.
‫ي‬ٚ‫عزش‬ٍٛ‫ ٌٍى‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫اٌّؼذي اٌطج‬
‫ؽفع‬

110. A good complement fixing antibodies

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE
‫ع رضجذ‬ٛٔ ً‫ؼ أفن‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ء‬ٟ‫ذ ساػ رضجذ اؽغٓ ؽ‬١‫ او‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ اعضاء‬5 ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٜٛ‫ عُ اَ رؾز‬ٞ‫ٕ٘ب لجً لٍٕب اْ أ‬
َ‫ اط ا‬ٞ‫بساد ي أ‬١‫خ صالس اخز‬١‫ٓ ف‬١‫ اٌؾ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
IgM:
1-blood grouping
2- contain 5 parts pentameric
37
 3-good fixing ‫ظ‬٠ٛ‫رضجذ و‬

111. Normal plasma clot APTT

a. 36 – 50 Sec.
b. 1 – 16 Sec.
c. 12 – 15 Sec.
d. 1 – 4 min

112. Normal plasma Prothrombin time (PT)

a. 36 – 50 Sec.
b. 11 – 16 Sec.
c. 12 – 15 Sec.
d. 1 – 4 min
113. Normal plasma clot Thrombin time (TT).
a. 36 – 50 Sec.
b. 11 – 16 Sec.
c. 12 – 15 Sec.
d. 1 – 4 min
‫ػبد إٌغت ؽفع‬
114. EDITA tube color
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Lavender= ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ف‬ِٛ
‫ف‬ِٛ ‫ب‬ٌٙٔٛ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ ا‬ٟ‫ ع‬ٟ‫بص اٌغت ث‬ٙ‫ ع‬ٟ‫ب ف‬ٙ١ٍ‫ وٕب ٔؾزغً ػ‬ٌٍٟ‫ت ا‬١‫ْ األٔبث‬ٚ‫رززوش‬

115. Sodium citrate tube color

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Yellow
ٟ‫ب ِبدح ِبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍو رغزخذَ ف‬ٙٔ‫ؼ رغزخذَ لٍٕب ا‬٠‫ ا‬ٟ‫ف‬ٚ ‫ْ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٚ‫رززوش‬
PT
ESR
ٓ٠‫ ِززوش‬ٛٔٛ‫بسة رى‬٠
38
 ‫ب أصسق‬ٌٙٔٛ ْ‫أ‬ٚ
ْٛ‫ِبد ِغ ثؼل ػؾبْ ِزٍخجط‬ٍٛ‫ْ اٌّؼ‬ٛ‫ُ رشثط‬ِٙ

116. The general blood donor is :

a. A blood group.
b. B blood group.
c. O blood group.
d. AB blood group.
‫ف وٍّخ‬ٛ‫ رؾ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٛ٘ ً‫خ ٌٍى‬١‫ٔمذس ٔزجشع ف‬ٚ َ‫وٍٕب ٔؼشف اْ اوضش د‬
Blood donor=o blood group

117. The general blood recipient is:

a. A blood group.
b. B blood group .
c. O blood group.
d. AB blood group.
ً‫ب ِغزمجً ػبَ رغزمج‬ٕٙ‫ي ػ‬ٛ‫اع اٌفقبئً ػؾبْ وزا ٔم‬ٛٔ‫ٍخ ربخذ ِٓ وً ا‬١‫٘زا اٌفق‬
‫ء‬ٟ‫وً ؽ‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Blood recipient=AB blood group

118. A person with A blood group can receive blood from:

a. A blood group donor.
b. B blood group donor.
c. O blood group donor.
d. A and C
ٞ‫ٍخ دَ أ‬١‫ل فق‬٠‫ػٕذٔب ِش‬
َ‫خ د‬١‫ؼ ِّىٓ ٔؼط‬٠‫ا‬
ٞ‫ أ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ٍخ دِخ‬١‫ فق‬ٞ‫خ ص‬١‫بس ٔؼط‬١‫ي خ‬ٚ‫ذ ا‬١‫او‬
ٚ‫خ ا‬١‫بس ٔؼط‬١‫ خ‬ٟٔ‫صب‬ٚ
ً‫اع اٌفقبئ‬ٛٔ‫ وً أ‬ٟ‫ رؼط‬ٚ‫ٍخ اٌذَ ا‬١‫الْ اؽٕب لٍٕب فق‬

39
 ٓ‫ِّى‬ٚ ٟ‫ٍزخ ث‬١‫خ دَ فق‬١‫ ِّىٓ رؼط‬ٟ‫ٍخ دِخ ث‬١‫ل فق‬٠‫ عبة ٌٕب ِش‬ٌٛ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٚ‫ٍزخأ‬١‫خدَ فق‬١‫رؼط‬
‫امؼ‬ٚ ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫بسة‬٠

119. Morphological features of C.diphtheria are best developed on:

a. Blood agar.
b. Blood tellurite agar.
c. Loeffler serum slope.
d. Chocolate agar
َٚ‫ش‬١‫فٍش ع‬ٌٛ ‫خ اخزبس‬١ٍ‫ ػ‬ّٕٛ‫ ر‬ٌٍٟ‫عو ا‬ٌٛ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ب ا‬٠‫ش‬١‫ٌه اٌذفز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

120. The following parasite can seen in the blood

a. Malaria
b. Filaria
c. Lishmania
d. Trypanosoma
e. All of the above
‫اؽذ‬ٚ ً‫اؽفع و‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٙ‫ اٌذَ لٍذ ِٓ لجً اؽفظ‬ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫ رى‬ٌٍٟ‫بد ا‬١ٍ١‫ؼ اٌطف‬٠‫ا‬
‫غجت‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ا‬
‫خالؿ‬ٚ

121. Which of the following does not used in ziehl-nelsen stain?

a. Carbon fuchsine
b. Acid alcohol
c. Methylene blue
d. Malachite green
e. Crystal viole
ٍٓ‫غ‬١ٔ ‫ فجغخ صاي‬ٟ‫ب ف‬ِٙ‫ الٔغزخذ‬ٟ‫ب اٌقجغخ اٌز‬١٘ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ا‬
‫اٌغشاَ عبٌت‬ٚ ‫عت‬ِٛ َ‫ٓ ٌّٓ ؽؾشد اٌغش‬٠‫ٌذ ِززوش‬ٛ‫غزب ف‬٠‫ذ ساػ اخزبس وش‬١‫او‬
َ‫ فجغخ اٌغشا‬ٟ‫ب ف‬ِٙ‫ اٌقجغخ ٔغزذ‬ٞ‫ ٘ز‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

40
122. Philadelphia chromosome is a specific chromosomal
abnormality that is associated with.
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML=‫مخ ٌٍؾفع‬٠‫عًّ هش‬
d. None.
‫خالؿ‬ٚ ًّ‫ب ع‬ٙ‫ب ِؼ‬١‫ب فالدٌف‬ٙ‫ي ػؾبْ اؽفظ‬ٛ‫وٕذ أل‬
ًّ‫ب=ع‬١‫الدٌف‬١‫ف‬

123. The two principal gonadotropins in vertebrates are

a. LH
b. FSH
c. A and B
d. ADH

124. Hormones from cortex

a. Thyroxin
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. Cortesol

125. A device for measuring the osmotic strength of a solution

a. Osmometer
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Flam photometer
d. ELISA

126. Life Spain of platelets in bags stored at R.T.

a. 35 day
41
 b. 41 day
c. 3 months
d. 5 day
‫ظ ثظ‬١‫ب رؼ‬١٘ ‫ظ‬١‫ اٌى‬ٟ‫خ ف‬٠ِٛ‫بح اٌقفبئؼ اٌذ‬١‫ٌه وُ فزشح ؽ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ُِٙ ‫ٕ٘ب ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬
25-22 ِٓ ‫ دسعخ ؽشاسح اٌغشفخ‬ٟ‫بَ ف‬٠‫خّغخ ا‬
ٓ١‫ِز‬ٍٛ‫ُ ٔؼشف ِؼ‬ِٙ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
َ‫ب‬٠‫ؼ خّغخ ا‬١‫ب رؼ‬ٙٔ‫ا‬
‫ دسعخ ؽشاسح اٌغشفخ‬ٟ‫ؼ ف‬١‫ب رؼ‬ٙٔ‫ا‬ٚ

127. ANA test in the lab. Diagnosis by

a. PCR
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Flam photometer
d. ELISA
ANA=anti nuclear dieases
‫بصا‬١ٌ‫بص األ‬ٙ‫ك ع‬٠‫ ِشك ٔىؾفخ ػٓ هش‬ٚ‫ط ا‬ٚ‫ش‬٠‫ء فب‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٞ‫أ‬

128. Cells not contain nucleus.

a. Erythrocyte=RBC
b. Leukocyte
c. Platelets
d. blast cell
‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء‬٠‫ف وش‬ٚ‫ب ِؼش‬١٘ٚ ‫اح‬ٛٔ ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٞٛ‫ الرؾز‬ٟ‫ب اٌز‬٠‫ؼ اٌخال‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫خ‬٠ٛٔ ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٜٛ‫الرؾز‬
ً‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء رٕم‬٠‫ف اْ وش‬ٚ‫٘زح ؽىّخ ِٓ هللا ِؼش‬ٚ ‫عجؾبْ هللا‬
ِٓ ‫ء‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٝ‫خ ٌه رٕمً الق‬١‫ال فبم‬ٙ‫ عؼ‬ٟ‫عجؾبْ هللا سث‬ٚ ٓ١‫ث‬ٍٛ‫ع‬ّٛ١ٌٙ‫ا‬
ٓ١‫ث‬ٍٛ‫ع‬ّٛ١ٌٙ‫ذ اٌغغُ ِٓ ا‬١‫غزف‬٠ ‫ٓ ٌه‬١‫ث‬ٍٛ‫ع‬ّٛ١ٌٙ‫ا‬

129. One of the following tests not performed in chemical section in

the lab.
a. Liver enzymes
b. Hormones
c. Bowne marrow aspiration
d. Creatinin
42
 ٚ‫ْ ِش‬ٛ‫ذ ساػ ٔخزبس اٌج‬١‫ او‬ٞ‫ّغزش‬١‫بص اٌى‬ٙ‫ ع‬ٟ‫ ِٕمذس ٔؼًّ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١ٍ‫ؼ اٌزؾ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
NOT chemical=bone marrow
130. B. cell maturation in
a. Bon marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Liver
ٟ‫ ث‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٟ‫لجً ؽشؽذ ٘زا اٌغؤاي ث‬ٚ

131. T. cell maturation in

a. Bon marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Liver
ٟ‫=ر‬ٟ‫ب ر‬ِٕٙ ‫ي ؽشف‬ٚ‫ أ‬ٞ‫ص‬

132. Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in

plasma at the highest concentration?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
e. IgE ‫ض‬١‫ذ اٌزشو‬١‫دح ِٓ ؽ‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ‫ء‬ٟ‫ألً ؽ‬
‫ب‬ٕٙ‫ٓ ػ‬١‫ِز‬ٍٛ‫ٓ ػشفٕب ِؼ‬١‫ اٌؾ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
IgG
1-Rh
2-highest concentration‫ض‬١‫ اٌزشو‬ٟ‫ء ف‬ٟ‫ اوضش ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

133. Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions

such as milk?
a. IgG
b. IgM
43
 ‫‪c. IgA‬‬
‫‪d. IgD‬‬
‫‪e. IgE‬‬
‫‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ا‪٠‬ؼ أٔ‪ٛ‬اع اٌّنبداد اٌؾ‪٠ٛ١‬خ اٌٍ‪ِ ٟ‬غئ‪ٌٛ‬خ ػٓ األفشاص ص‪ ٞ‬اٌؾٍ‪١‬ت ‪ٚ‬اٌؼشق‬
‫‪ٚ‬وً اٌغ‪ٛ‬ائً ف‪ ٟ‬اٌغغُ‬
‫‪٠secretions=IgA‬ؼٓ‬

‫‪134. life span of RBCs is‬‬

‫‪a. 120 days‬‬
‫‪b. 90‬‬
‫‪c. 100‬‬
‫‪d. 30‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه وُ ِذح ؽ‪١‬بح وشح اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ِؼش‪ٚ‬ف أ‪ٙ‬ب رمش‪٠‬جب صالس ؽ‪ٛٙ‬س ؽ‪٠ٛ‬ب‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪َٛ٠ 120 ٟ‬‬

‫‪135. Rice watery stool can caused by‬‬

‫‪a. Salmonella‬‬
‫‪b. Vibro cholera‬‬
‫‪c. Shigella‬‬
‫‪d. E.col‬‬
‫لجً لٍٕب ا‪٠‬ؼ اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬رغجت األع‪ٙ‬بي ‪ٚ‬لٍٕب أ‪ٙ‬ب ؽ‪١‬غال(ؽ‪ٛ‬ؽ‪)ٛ‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ‪٠‬غجت األع‪ٙ‬بي او‪١‬ذ ساػ ‪٠‬ى‪ ْٛ‬ف‪ ٟ‬اٌجشاص أوشِىُ هللا‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ٟ‬‬
‫اخزٔب اٌؾ‪ِ ٓ١‬ؼٍ‪ِٛ‬ز‪ٓ١‬‬
‫‪Shagella‬‬
‫رغجت اع‪ٙ‬بي‪1-‬‬
‫‪ -2‬رى‪ِٛ ْٛ‬ع‪ٛ‬دح ف‪ ٟ‬اٌجشاص‬
‫ٌىٓ ف‪٘ ٟ‬زا اٌغؤاي ِخزٍف ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ِب٘‪١‬ب اٌز‪ ٟ‬رغجت ‪ٚ‬رغؼً اٌجشاصأوشِىُ هللا ِضً ٌ‪ٛ‬‬
‫األسص ػٍ‪ ٝ‬ه‪ٛ‬ي ٔخزبس اٌى‪ٌٛ‬شا‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬رؾ‪ٛ‬ف وٍّخ‬
‫‪Rice=cholera‬‬

‫‪136. Human scabies diagnosed by‬‬

‫‪a. Skin scraping of lesion‬‬
‫‪44‬‬
 b. Thin blood film
c. Radiological test
d. Thin stool film
e. Serological test of all abov
ٌٝٚ‫ساػ ٔخزبس األ‬ٚ ‫ك اٌغٍذ‬٠‫ذ ػٓ هش‬١‫ف ٔؾخقخ او‬١‫ األٔغبْ و‬ٟ‫ِشك اٌغشة ف‬
‫ اٌغٍذ‬ٛ٘ ٌٍٟ‫ٓ ا‬١‫ب وٍّخ عى‬ٙ١‫الْ ف‬
Skin=‫اٌغٍذ‬

137. Which the following catheters collect urine specimen in

prolonged period
a. Hard
b. Soft
c. Italian
d. Foley

138. Nutrient agar is

a. Basic media
b. Differential media
c. Selective media
d. Enriched medi
ٟ‫ؼزجش اعبس اعبع‬٠ ٞ‫ األعبس اٌّغز‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

139. Which of the following parasite cause cerebral malaria

a. Plasmodium falcibarum
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium malaria
d. Plasmodium ovale
‫ ثؼذح هشق‬ٟ‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ٕ٘ب ِّى‬ٚ ‫ع ِٕزؾش‬ٛٔ ‫ؼ اوضش‬٠‫لٍٕب ا‬ٚ ‫لجٍٕب ؽشؽٕب ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬

140. Albert stain is used to diagnose

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycoplasma
45
 c. Enterobacteriacae
d. Coryenbacterium diphtheria
‫ اعّه‬ٞ‫ب ص‬ٙ‫ب الصَ رؾفظ‬٠‫ش‬١‫ٓ ػٓ اٌذفز‬١‫ر‬ٍٛ‫ٓ ػشفٕب ِؼ‬١‫اٌؾ‬
‫ب‬ٙ١‫ رٕقجغ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي ٔشػف اٌقجغخ ا‬ٟ‫ف‬ٚ ‫خ‬١‫ ٔضسع ف‬ٌٍٟ‫عو ا‬ٌٛ‫ػشفٕب ا‬
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫اٌذفز‬
1-loffler serum ‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫عه خبؿ ثبٌذفز‬ٌٛ‫٘زا ا‬
2- albert stain‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫٘زا اعُ اٌقجغخ اٌخبؿ ثبٌذفز‬
‫رشثو‬ٚ ُٙ‫رف‬ٚ ‫رؾفع‬ٚ ‫ُ رؼشف‬ِٙ

141. Which of the following transmit the malaria

a. Male anopheles mosquito
b. Female anopheles mosquito
c. Sand fly=ٓ٠‫ب ثؼذ‬ٕٙ‫ عؤاي ػ‬ٟ‫غ‬٠ ‫ساػ‬
d. Tse tse fly ‫ب‬ّٙ‫ب اع‬ٙ‫غجج‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ ا‬leishmania
ً‫ رٕم‬ٟ‫ب اٌز‬١٘ ٝ‫ب الصَ رؼشف اْ األٔض‬٠‫ؼ رٕزمً اٌّالس‬٠‫ك ا‬٠‫ٌه ػٓ هش‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ُِٙ ‫ظ اٌزوش‬١ٌٚ ‫اٌّشك‬

142. In potential diabetic patient, the confirming test used is

a. Random blood sugar
b. Fasting blood sugar
c. Oral blood sugar tolerance
d. All of the above
ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١ٍ‫ؼ اٌزؾ‬٠‫ ٔزأوذ ً٘ ػٕذح عىش أَ ال ا‬ٟ‫ٔج‬ٚ ‫ل‬٠‫ٌه ٕ٘ب ػٕذٔب أغبْ ِش‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ ال‬ٚ‫ٔؼٍّخ ػؾبْ ٔزأوذ أخ ػٕذح عىش أ‬
‫ص‬ٛ‫و‬ٍٛ‫خ ع‬١‫ٓ ٔؼط‬٠‫ثؼذ‬ٚ ُ‫ فبئ‬ٛ٘ٚ ‫ل‬٠‫ً ٌٍّش‬١ٍ‫ء ٔؼًّ رؾ‬ٟ‫ي ؽ‬ٚ‫ اْ أ‬ٛ٘ ً١ٍ‫اٌزؾ‬
‫ص‬ٛ‫و‬ٍٛ‫خ ثؼذ ِأوً اٌغ‬١ٔ‫ظ اٌغىش ِشح صب‬١‫جب ٔم‬٠‫ٓ رمش‬١‫ثؼذ عبػز‬ٚ ‫أوٍخ‬٠
ٞ‫ػؾبْ وزا اخزشٔب االعبثخ ٘ز‬

143. Which of the following organism oxidase positive

a. Psedomonas only
b. Nessieria only
c. E.coli
d. Psedomonas & nessieria
46
144. Normal reticulocyte in adult is
a. 0.2 – 0.5 %
b. 2 – 5 %
c. 0.2 – 2 %
d. 1 – 2 %
ٕٝ‫ؼ ِؼ‬٠‫لجً ؽشؽٕب ا‬ٚ ‫ُ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ِٙ
Reticulocytes= ‫ش ٔبمغخ‬١‫بد دَ ؽّشاء غ‬٠‫ وش‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ب‬١ّ١ٔ‫خ ا‬١‫ْ ف‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ ساػ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫دح ثظ ثٕغجخ‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ْ ِٓ اٌطج‬ٛ‫ رى‬ٟ٘ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ب‬ٌٙ‫ٌه وُ ِؼذ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬ٚ
‫خ ِشك‬١‫ح ف‬ٛٔ‫ٍخ ارا صادد اػشف ا‬١ٍ‫ِشح ِشح ل‬

‫خ‬١‫ؼ‬١‫ب اٌطج‬ٙ‫ٌه وُ ٔغجز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ٓ١‫اٌؾ‬

‫ُ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ِٙ

145. Which of the following leukocyte responsible for parasitic &

allergic reaction
a. Lymphocyte
47
 b. Neutrophile= ِٓ ‫ب‬ٙ‫اْ ٔغجز‬ٚ ‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ثبٌجىز‬ٜٚ‫ اٌؼذ‬ٌٝ‫ ؽب‬ٟ‫ب رشرفغ ف‬ٙٔ‫لٍٕب لجً ا‬
%55 ٌٝ‫ ا‬%40 acute bacteria infection
c. Monocyte
d. Basophile‫بة‬ٙ‫ ؽبٌخ االٌز‬ٟ‫ب رشرفغ ف‬ٙٔ‫لٍٕب لجً ا‬
e. Eosinophile
‫ي‬ٛ‫ل‬ٚ ‫أسثو‬ٚ ُٙ‫اف‬ٚ ‫ اؽفع‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ي‬ٛ‫ل‬ٚ ‫ٕخ‬١‫ ؽبالد ِؼ‬ٟ‫ع ف‬ٌٕٛ‫رشرفغ ٘زح ا‬
Neutrophils=acute bacteria infection
Basophils=hypersensitivity and inflammatory
Eosinophile= parasitic and allergic

146. which of the following produce by staph.auerus & not produced

by other staph
a. DNA produce
b. Coagulase
c. Catalase
d. Ureaase
‫ ِٓ األعزبف‬ٜ‫اع األخش‬ٛٔ‫ٕزغخ ِٓ األ‬٠ ‫ض ِؾذ‬٠‫ش‬٠ ‫ضٌٍغزبف‬١ِّ ‫ء‬ٟ‫٘زا ؽ‬

147. Which of following organs participate in billrubin?

a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Pancrease
d. Liver
‫ اٌىجذ‬ٟ‫ْ ف‬ٛ‫ذ ساػ رى‬١‫ٓ او‬١‫ِبدح اٌقفشاء اٌجٍشث‬

148. In emergency case which of the following test do for glucose

a. Fast blood sugar
b. Random blood sugar
c. Oral blood sugar tolerance
d. Post prandial blood sugar
‫ء‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٞ‫ارا عبرٕب ؽبٌخ هبسئخ ؽبدس اغّبء أ‬
‫ظ اٌغىش‬١‫ ساػ ٔؼٍّخ ػؾبْ ٔم‬ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١ٍ‫ اٌزؾ‬ٛ٘ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ا‬
ٟ‫ائ‬ٛ‫ً ػؾ‬١ٍ‫ْ رؾ‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ذ ساػ‬١‫او‬
48
149. Deficiency in folate & vitamin B12 cause
a. Megaloblastic Anemia
b. Liver cirrhosis
c. Kidney failure
d. Kala azar
‫غجت‬٠ 12ٟ‫ٓ ث‬١ِ‫زب‬١‫ف‬ٚ ‫ذ‬١ٌٛ‫ٔمـ اٌف‬
‫ ثالعزه‬ٌٛ‫غب‬١ِٚ ‫ب‬١ّ١ٔ‫ا‬

‫ب ؽبدح‬١ّ١ٔ‫ي ا‬ٛ‫غجت ٔم‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ؽذح ا‬ٌٛ 12ٟ‫ٓ ث‬١ِ‫زب‬١‫لٍه ٔمـ ف‬ٚ ‫ عبة عؤاي‬ٌٛ ٓ‫ٌى‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫رغجت‬
Deficiency of B12 cause prenicius

150. Which of the following organism are capsulated?

a. E.coli
b. Salmonella
c. Klebsiella

151. Genital disease can caused by the following

a. Gonorrhea only
b. Trichomonas only
c. Gonorrhea & trichomonas
d. Non of the above
ٓ١‫ئ‬١‫غججخ اؽفع اعُ ٘بٌؾ‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ ا‬ٍٟ٠‫ اٌّشك اٌزٕغب‬ٛ٘‫ٌه ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫٘زا اٌغؤاي‬
‫خ‬١ٍ‫ٓ ثبألِشاك اٌزٕبع‬١‫ُ ِشرجط‬ٙٔ‫اػشف ا‬ٚ

152. Which of the following immunoglubin have four molecules?

a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgM

49
 َ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ ع‬ٞ‫ خّظ اعضاء ٔخزبس أ‬ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٟ‫ؾز‬٠ ‫ لٍه‬ٌٛ ‫لً لجٍٕب‬
َ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ ع‬ٞ‫ أ‬ٞ‫ لٍه اسثغ اعضاء ٔخزبس‬ٌٛ ْ‫ وّب‬ٝ‫ؽز‬ٚ
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
4 or 5 parts=IgM

153. Which of the following gram negative rod cause dysentery?

a. E.coli
b. Salmonella
c. Shigella
d. Staph.aureus
ٛ‫ؽ‬ٛ‫ب اٌؾ‬١٘ ‫بي‬ٙ‫غجت األع‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ّذ ا‬ٙ‫خالؿ ف‬

154. Immunoglobulin produced by

a. Fat cell
b. Mast cell
c. Plasma cell
‫ٓ رٕزظ‬٠‫خ ِٓ ا‬٠ٛ١‫ٌه اٌّنبداد اٌؾ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ب اٌجالصِب‬٠‫ِٓ خال‬

155. Which of the following is true?

a. RH-ve person safely donate for person RH+ve person
b. RH+ve person safely donate for person RH-ve person
c. A blood group person donate for B group person
d. All of the above
ٓ١‫ّٕب اٌؾ‬ٙ‫خ ٔمً اٌذَ خالؿ ف‬١ٍّ‫ٕ٘ب ساػ ٔزىٍُ ػٓ ػ‬
‫ل دِخ‬٠‫ ِش‬ٞ‫ارا ػٕذ‬A
‫ٍخ‬١‫خ دَ فق‬١‫ِّىٓ اػط‬A ٚO

‫ٍخ دِخ‬١‫ل فق‬٠‫ ِش‬ٞ‫ارا ػٕذ‬ٚB

‫ٍزخ‬١‫خ دَ فق‬١‫ِّطٓ اػط‬B ٚO

AB ‫ٍخ دِخ‬١‫ل فق‬٠‫ ِش‬ٞ‫ارا ػٕذ‬ٚ

‫ٍخ‬١‫خ دَ فق‬١‫ِّىٓ اػط‬
A
50
 B
AB
O

‫ٍخ دِخ‬١‫ل فق‬٠‫ ِش‬ٞ‫ارا ػٕذ‬ٚO

‫ٍخ‬١‫ش ٔفظ اٌفق‬١‫خ دَ غ‬١‫ِمذس اػط‬O

‫بعبٌت فؼ‬٠ ‫عت‬ِٛ‫ب‬٠ ْٛ‫ٍخ اٌذَ رى‬١‫ف أخ فق‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬ٚ

ٓ‫ ِّى‬ٞ‫ش دَ عبٌت ػبد‬١‫ِؾقٍذ غ‬ٚ ‫عت‬ِٛ ‫ٍخ دِخ‬١‫ل فق‬٠‫ ِش‬ٞ‫ وبْ ػٕذ‬ٌٛ
‫خ عبٌت‬١‫اػط‬
‫عت‬ِٛ ‫خ‬١‫غ اْ اػط‬١‫غ ال أعزط‬١‫ل دِخ عبٌت ال أعزط‬٠‫ ِش‬ٞ‫ وبْ ػٕذ‬ٌٛ ٓ‫ٌى‬
‫ّٕب‬ٙ‫ف‬
‫بخز دِخ عبٌت‬٠ ‫مذس‬٠ ‫عت‬ٌّٛ‫ ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫عت‬ِٛ َ‫أخز د‬٠ ‫مذس‬١ِ ‫ثظ اٌغبٌت‬
‫مؾذ‬ٚ ‫بسة‬٠

156. which of the following organ excrete the uric acid

a. kidney
b. Pancreas
c. Stomach
d. Liver
‫امؾؼ‬ٚ

157. Which of the following can't donate blood

a. Person have Hb>13 mg/dl
b. Woman is pregnant
c. Person free from syphilis
d. ALL
َ‫غ اٌزجشع ثبٌذ‬١‫ذ اٌّشاح اٌؾبًِ الرغزط‬١‫طغ اٌزجشع ثبٌذَ او‬١‫ العز‬ٌٟ‫ِٓ اٌؾخـ ا‬

158. Which of the following transmitted through blood transfusion

a. Malaria
b. Aids
51
 c. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
d. All of the above
‫ذ وٍخ‬١‫ك ٔمً اٌذَ او‬٠‫ رٕزمً ػٓ هش‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ األِشاك ا‬٠‫ا‬
‫ش‬١‫ ػٕذح ثزق‬ٌٍٟ‫ذ وً األِشاك ا‬١‫ل ِؼخ وً األِشاك او‬٠‫ اخزٔب دَ ِٓ ِش‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٞ‫ػٕذ‬

159. If infant has Rh+ve & mother RH-ve must give

a. Anti-D immunoglubin
b. Anti-E immunoglubin
c. Anti-C immunoglubin
d. Anti-e immunoglubin
e. Anti-c immunoglubin

160. Migration of protein in electrophoresis depend on

a. Weight of component only
b. Charge of component only
c. Shape size of component
d. Weight & charge of component
e. All of the above

161. Transmit through sexual intercourse

a. Tricurus tricura
b. N.gonorrhoea& Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Sternglyoids stercuralis
d. S.hematobium
e. Ascaris lumbercoid
‫خ‬١ٍ‫ك األِشاك اٌزٕبع‬٠‫ رٕزمً ػٓ هش‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫لٍٕب ا‬ٚ ً‫ؽشؽٕب ٘زا اٌغؤاي ِٓ لج‬

162. In the 1923, Alexander flaming discovered the penicillin from

a. Penecillium sp
b. Candida sp
c. Aspirigulus s
52
 d. Streptococci

163. Red blood cell synthesis in bone marrow from

a. Fate cell
b. Cord cell
c. Myeloid cell
d. Stem cells
ً‫ األعزبَ ع‬ٟ‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ف‬٠‫ٓ رزقٕغ وش‬٠‫ا‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

Stem cell=synethesis of RBC

164. Leukemia characterized by a greatly increased in leukocyte
count
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. None.
‫خالؿ‬ٚ ًّ‫ي اٌغ‬ٛ‫ء ِشرفغ ل‬ٟ‫ؼ اوضش ؽ‬٠‫ب ا‬١ّ١‫و‬ٌٍٛ‫ِشك ا‬

165. Platelets synthesis in bone marrow from

a. Fate cell
b. Cord cell
c. Myeloid cell
d. Megakaryocyte
‫ٓ رزقٕغ‬٠‫خ أ‬٠ِٛ‫ٌه اٌقفبئؼ اٌذ‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء‬٠‫ٓ وش‬١‫ث‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٕٙ١‫فشق ث‬

166. Granulocytic leukemia

a. ALL
b. AML
c. CML
d. None.
53
167. In Pregnancy test we measure
a. LDH
b. Estrogen
c. α HCG
d. Βhcg
‫سوض‬ٚ ‫زبد‬١‫ظ اٌج‬١‫ظ ٔم‬١‫ؼ ٔم‬٠‫ٌه ٌّٓ اٌّشأح ؽبًِ ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

168. The cause of chaga's disease:

a. Trypanosoma gambiense
b. Trypansoma rhodesiense
c. Trypansoma cruzi
d. Leishmania braziliense
‫ء‬ٟ‫وً ؽ‬ٚ ‫غخ‬١‫ثٕفظ اٌق‬ٚ ‫ئخ‬١ٌٙ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٟٔ‫ي عؤاي عب‬ٚ‫هللا ارزوش أ‬ٚ

169. Normal range of uric acid?

a. 2-5 mg/dl.
b. 3-7
c. 5-10
d. 70 -110 mg/dl

170. Normal range of cholesterol?

a. 140-200 mg/dl
b. 50-130 mg/dl.
c. 100-190 mg/dl
d. 70-110mg/dl

171. Which of the following happen in prolonged fast

a. Kenton in urine
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypocholestremia
‫ش‬١‫ق‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ ؽبٌخ اٌّغبػبد ا‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٚ‫ٓ ا‬١ّ١‫اؽٕب فبئ‬ٚ ‫ٍخ‬٠ٛ‫ٌّٓ ٔأخز فزشح ه‬
‫ي‬ٛ‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫ْ ف‬ٛ‫ األعز‬ٚ‫ْ ا‬ٛ‫ز‬١‫ْ اٌى‬ٛ‫زى‬٠

172. Infective stage of S.mansoni

54
 a. Embrynoated eg
b. Larva
c. Cercaia
d. Oocyst

173. Which of the following produce by staph.auerus & not produced

by other staph?
a. DNAase produce
b. Coagulase
c. Catalase
d. Citrate

174. The Urease test done to diagnostic of

a. S.pyogen
b. S. auerus
c. Proteus
d. E.coli

175. The cause of sleeping sickness:

a. Trypanosoma gambiense
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
d. (a) & (c)

176. Cause Kala- azar:

a. leishmania tropica
b. leishmania braziliense
c. leishmania donovani
d. leishmania Mexicana
177. Cause oriental sore:
a. Plasmodium ovale
b. Leishmania tropica
c. Leishmania donovani
d. Trypanosome rhodesiense
178. one of the following test use in myocardial
55
 a. ck-mb
b. Creatinin clearance
c. sGPT
d. sGOt
ٟ‫ و‬ٟ‫ذ اٌغ‬١‫ً خبؿ ثبٌمٍت او‬١ٍ‫رؾ‬

179. Adrenal gland upside of?

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Brain
d. Heart

180. Eosinphil raised in the following except?

a. Allergic
b. Parasitic disease
c. Hodgkin disease
d. Bacterial disease
‫ً ِبػذا‬١‫ ف‬ٕٛ‫غ‬٠‫ب اال‬ٙ١‫وً ٘زح اٌؾبالد رشرفغ ف‬
ً١‫ ف‬ٚ‫زش‬١ٌٕ‫ب ا‬٠‫ش‬١‫ اٌجىز‬ٟ‫شرفغ ف‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ب الْ ا‬٠‫ش‬١‫ذ ساػ اخزبس اٌجىز‬١‫او‬

181. The Lowest rang of platelets'

a. 450.000
b. 150.000
c. 75.000
ِٓ ‫دح‬ٌّٛ‫اٌّؼذي ؽك اٌقفبئؼ ا‬
450,000—150.000
‫خ اٌف‬١‫خّغ‬ٚ ‫خ‬١ِ ‫ذ ساػ اخزبس‬١‫ او‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ب‬ٌٙ ‫ٌه الً ِؼذي‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٕ٘ب‬ٛ٘ٚ
‫ دسعخ ؽشاسح اٌغشفخ‬ٟ‫ف‬ٚ َ‫ب‬٠‫ب ٌّذح خّظ ا‬ٙ‫خ اْ ٔمذس ٔؾفظ‬٠ِٛ‫لجً لٍٕب ػٓ اٌقفبئؼ اٌذ‬ٚ

182. Factor II of blood clotting is:

a. Christmas factor
b. Fibrinogen
c. Prothrombin
d. Thromboplastin

56
183. Factor I of blood clotting is:
a. Christmas factor
b. Fibrinogen
c. Prothrombin
d. Thromboplastin
ٓ١‫ع‬ٛٔ‫جش‬٠‫ اٌفب‬ٛ٘ ‫ي‬ٚ‫ اٌؼبًِ األ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٓ١‫ِج‬ٚ‫صش‬ٚ‫ اٌجش‬ٛ٘ ٟٔ‫اٌؼبًِ اٌضب‬ٚ
184. One of the intrinsic pathways
a. Factor XI
b. Factor XIII
c. Factor I
d. Factor VII
11 ‫ سلّخ‬ٍٟ‫اٌؼبًِ اٌذاخ‬
X=َ‫ِؼٕب٘ب ػؾش أسلب‬
11 ‫اؽذ فبسد‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٙ١ٍ‫ف ػ‬١‫ٔن‬ٚ
11 ٍٟ‫ اٌؼبًِ اٌذاخ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

185. Test for Intrinsic pathway:

a. Bleeding time
b. Thrombin time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Partial thromboplastin time PTT

186. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:

a. Echo virus
b. Coxsaki virus
c. Epstein Barr virus EBV
d. Cytomegalo virus

187. Factors present only in Extrinsic Pathway

a. Factor XI
b. Factor XIII
c. Factor I
d. Factor VII
‫ عجؼخ‬ٟ‫اٌؼبًِ اٌخبسع‬
57
 V=‫ِؼٕب٘ب خّغخ‬
‫ش عجؼخ‬١‫ٓ رق‬١ٕ‫ب ار‬ٙ١ٍ‫ف ػ‬١‫ٔن‬

188. Malaria diagnosis by

a. Thick blood film
b. Thin blood film
c. Skin scraping
d. X-ray
ً‫ؽشػ ِٓ لج‬

189. Taenia saginate diagnosis by

a. Egg in stool
b. Egg in Urine
c. Larva
d. Cystecercus
190. Ascaris lumbricoides infection stage
a. Embroynated egg in stool
b. Trophozoit
c. Cyst
d. Larva

191. Biochemistry test used sample except

a. Urine.
b. Whole blood
c. Serum
d. Stool
e. Bone marrow aspiration

192. Which if the following leukocyte normally not found in blood

film?
a. Basophile
b. Monocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinoph\
58
 ً‫ق ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لج‬ٛ‫ عؤاي رشوزخ ف‬ٞ‫ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لجً أ‬

193. The contamination of lens of microscope which cause eye

infection?
a. B. anthrax
b. S.pyogenes
c. Staph.aureus
d. Clostredium tetani
‫ب‬ٙ‫ٓ أؽفظ‬١‫ اٌؼ‬ٞ‫رأر‬ٚ ‫ة‬ٛ‫عى‬ٚ‫ىش‬٠‫س اٌؼذعخ ؽمذ اٌّب‬ٍٛ‫ ر‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ اعُ ا‬٠‫ي ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

194. Pathogens can enter the body through?

a. Dry skin
b. Wet skin
c. Unbroken skin
d. Scratch skin
‫خالؿ‬ٚ ‫ػ‬ٚ‫ك اٌغً اٌّغش‬٠‫ذ ػٓ هش‬١‫ذخً ٌٍغغُ او‬٠ ً١‫ف اٌطف‬١‫و‬

195. In ABO the anti A container color?

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Colorless

196. In ABO the anti Bcontainer color?

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Colorless

197. In ABO the Rh container color?

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Colorless
59
 َ‫ؼ ٔغزخذ‬٠‫ٍخ ا‬١‫ع اٌفق‬ٛٔ ‫وٍٕب ٔززوش ٌّٓ ػٍّٕب‬
A=‫ٔخ أصسق‬ٌٛ
B=‫ٔخ أففش‬ٌٛ
RH=ٌْٛ ‫ظ ٌخ‬١ٌ
ٓ٠‫ذ ِززوش‬١‫او‬

198. The Normal range of HDL

a. 50- 80
b. 70-100
c. 100-150

199. Urine samples culture in

a. CLED ager and Blood agar.
b. CLED agar
c. MacConky agar
d. XLD

200. Which of the following is a gram positive rod?

a. Corynebacterium onlya
b. Listeria only
c. A and B
d. Shigella
e. E.coli
201. What of the following is TRUE about Bacillus anthracis?
a. Causes anthrax disease
b. Gram positive
c. H2S

202. Yellow brown barrel-shaped egg, colorless producing plug polar

a. Ascaris
b. Tenia soliom
c. Trichuris trichiura
d. Entamoeba hcaistolyti
‫ عبة ٌه ٔفظ ٘زا اٌغؤاي ثظ عبة ثظ ٌه سأط اٌغؤاي‬ٌٛ
‫ٌه‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
60
 Yellow brown=ascaris

203. MCV measuring Unit

a. FL (Fimtolitre)
b. Pg (Picogram)
c. g/l
d. Mg/dl.

204. MCH measuring Unit

a. FL (Fimtolitre)
b. Pg (Picogram)
c. g/l
d. mg/dl.

205. MCHC measuring Unit

a. FL (Fimtolitre)
b. Pg (Picogram)
c. g/l
d. Mg/dl.

206. More abundant leukocyte

a. Basophile
b. Monocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophils
e. Eosinoph
207. ELEK test use for
a. Neisseria
b. Diphtheria
c. Brodella
d. Proteus
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ِبد ػٓ اٌذفز‬ٍٛ‫ٓ ػشفٕب صالس ِؼ‬١‫اٌؾ‬
1- ‫ب‬ٙ‫ اعُ اٌقجغخ ؽمز‬albert stain
2- ‫خ‬١‫ ف‬ّٕٛ‫ ر‬ٌٍٟ‫عو ا‬ٌٛ‫ػشفٕب اعُ ا‬ٚ Loffler serum
3- ‫ب اعّخ‬ٙ‫ػشفٕب اعُ األخزجبس ؽم‬ٚ elek test
61
208. To detect CMV
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flam photometer
c. ELISA
d. Microscope
‫ضا‬١ٌ‫بص اال‬ٙ‫ك ع‬٠‫ط ٔىؾفخ هش‬ٚ‫ش‬٠‫ء فب‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٞ‫أ‬

209. Gram positive stained more easy than gram negative because
a. Gram -ve cell wall is thin while gram +ve is thick
b. Gram +ve cell wall is thin while gram -ve is thick
c. Gram -ve cell wall Contain more peptidoglycan
d. ALL
‫ف‬١‫اْ اٌغشاَ عبٌت خف‬ٚ ً١‫عت صم‬ِٛ َ‫لٍٕب لجً اْ اٌغشا‬

210. To detect AML we use

a. Sudan black
b. Gimsa stain
c. Field stain
d. Leishman stain
ْ‫دا‬ٛ‫ي اًِ ِغ اٌغ‬ٛ‫ ل‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

211. Flask shape parasite is

a. Giardia lambilia
b. E. Histolica
c. Malaria
d. Filaria
‫ئخ اٌفالعه‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ ؽىٍخ ػ‬ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١‫ؼ اٌطف‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

212. Hemophilia A & B are defected in

a. X- linked dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Y linked dominant
d. Y linked recessive
213. Gondotropic hormone
62
 a. LH
b. ADH
c. Estrogen

214. Action of Neutrophil is

a. Antibody production
b. Antibody reaction
c. Granule circulation
d. IG production

215. Parasite in urine

a. Schistosoma heamatobium
b. Malaria.
c. Leishmania
d. Toxoplasmosis
‫ؼ اعّخ‬٠‫ي ا‬ٛ‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫د ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ٌّٛ‫ً ا‬١‫اٌطف‬

216. XLD media

a. Selective=ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٞ‫بس‬١‫اخز‬
b. Diferentiat
c. Basic
d. Enriched

217. Best media for sputum culture

a. Blood agar and chocolate
b. MaCconky
c. CLED
d. Manitol salt agar

218. HbA1C for

a. 1-2 Weeks
b. 2-4 Weeks

63
 c. 4-6 Weeks
d. 6- 8 Weeks
219. One test in the following can diagnose anemia :
a. CBC
b. PT
c. PTT
d. Platelets
e. Leukocyte
‫ايش اسم األختبار اللي نحدد عن طريقة هل المريض عندة انيميا أو ال‬
‫راح نقول اكيد السي بي سي‬

220. Westrgren test used for

a. ESR
b. HB
c. AG-AB reaction
d. PT

221. The following test do in chemical lab except

a. CBC
b. Creatinin
c. sGPT
d. Uric acid

222. ………….. Can growth in aeorobic and anaeorobic except

a. Clostridium
b. Salmonella
c. Shigella
d. E.col
e. Haemophillus
f. Lactobacilus
‫ٓ ثأعزضٕبء‬١‫ رغّغ اٌقفز‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٟ‫ائ‬ٛ٘ ‫ش‬١‫غ‬ٚ ٟ‫ائ‬ٛ٘ ‫ب‬ٙ‫ٌه ثؼن‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫د‬ّٛ‫ٓ ر‬١‫ ؽّذ األوغغ‬ٌٛ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫خ‬٠‫خ اعجبس‬١‫ائ‬ٛ٘ ‫ش‬١‫ب غ‬ٙٔ‫ف ا‬ٚ‫ذَ ِؼش‬٠‫ٌغزش‬ٛ‫اٌى‬

223. Salmonella transmitted via

64
 a. Blood transfusion
b. Sexual
c. Ingestion contaminated food
d. Inhalation
ً‫ك األو‬٠‫ٔال رٕزمً ػٓ هش‬ٌّٛ‫اٌغب‬

224. Bacteria cause Pharyngitis

a. Staph. auereus
b. Diphtheria
c. TB
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
225. All are true about platelet except
a. Can save for 7 days when added special fluid
b. Can save for 5 days when added special fluid
c. Defect cause prolonged bleeding time
d. Normal 150,00 – 450,000
‫قلنا قبل ان الصفائح الدموية نحتفظ فيها في خمس ايام بس‬

226. If blood clot occur that is called

a. Heamolysis
b. Blood coagulation
c. Thrombosis
d. Purification
‫اذا الدم تجلط ايش نسمة يعني اسم أخر لة‬

227. Substance can not trans and absorbed without a factor

a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12
c. Folic acid
d. Vitamin A
12 ٟ‫ٓ ث‬١ِ‫زب‬١‫ب ف‬١٘ ‫اًِ هجؼب‬ٛ‫د ػ‬ٛ‫ع‬ٚ ٟ‫ الرٕزمً اال ف‬ٟ‫ؼ اٌّبدح اٌز‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
228. The main site of production of ATP in the cell is the

65
 a.
Cell wall
b.
Cell membrane
c.
Cytoplasm
d.
Mitochondria
‫ب‬٠‫ٔذس‬ٛ‫و‬ٛ‫ز‬١ٌّ‫ب ا‬١٘ ‫ٕزظ اٌطبلخ‬٠ ْ‫أوضش ِىب‬
229. Lactobacilli isolated in
a. Throat swab
b. Ear
c. Urine
d. Stool

230. Number of bonds in Antibodies

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

231. Antibodies contain four IG

a. Ig M
b. Ig A
c. Ig D
d. IgE
e. IgG

232. We can diagnose W.bancrofti by investigate

a. Blood smear
b. Urine Exam.
c. A and B
d. Stool smear

233. Which organisms cause syphilis

a. Chlostridium
b. Salmonella

66
 c. Shigella
d. T.palidium
e. Haemophillus

234. Which one of the following is not an anticoagulant?

a. Heparin
b. Citrate
c. Phosphate
d. EDITA
e. Floride

235. Prolonged bleeding time commonly occurs in

a. Defect PT
b. Defect PTT
c. Reduction Platelets number
d. Reduction W.BC.
e. ALL

236. Permanent deferral of a donor occurs in

a. Hepatitis
b. AIDS
c. A and B
d. Mumps
e. Rubella
‫ذص‬٠‫ ػٕذح ا‬ٌٍٟ‫ذ اٌؾخـ ا‬١‫ّٕغ ثزبرب ِٓ اٌزجشع ثبٌذَ او‬٠ ٌٟ‫ اٌؾخـ ا‬ٛ٘ ٓ١ِ
ٟ‫ثبئ‬ٚ ‫بة وجذ‬ٙ‫ػٕذح اٌز‬ٚ

237. A chronic carrier state may occur in

a. HBV
b. AIDS
c. E.coli
d. Mumps
e. Rubella

67
238. A pheresis is the collection of
a. CSF
b. Bone marrow aspiration
c. Blood component
d. 24 h. urine

239. Primary homeostasis

a. Platelets adhesion (Plug)
b. RBCs destruction
c. W.B.Cs formation
d. Prothrombin time

240. Glucose-6-phosphate enzymes are present in

a. W.B.Cs
b. Erythrocyte
c. Plasma
d. Platelets

241. Bordetalla pertussis is the cause of

e. Scarlet fever
a. Whopping chough
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Pneumonia

242. Which of the following media is not selective?

a. Nutrient agar
b. XLD media
c. MaCconky
d. Blood agar

243. Blood collected on plain tube (without anticoagulant) must

a. Be incubate at 37c for 30 min
68
 b. Not be clotted
c. Be hemolysed
d. Be mixed
244. HIV or human immunodeficiency:
a. Aids
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis B
d. Hepatitis A
‫ذص‬٠‫ األ‬ٛ٘ ‫ذ‬١‫ؼ اعّخ او‬٠‫ٔمـ إٌّبػخ اٌّىزغجخ ا‬

245. The all ABO group true except:

a. AB group transfusion only to person AB
b. A group transfusion to group A and O group
c. O group can transfusion into person have A and B and O
group
d. O group the contain both Antigen A and B
ٓ١‫غ‬١‫ أز‬ٞ‫ أ‬ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٞٛ‫ الرؾز‬ٚ‫ٍخ اٌذَ ا‬١‫ف اْ فق‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬
ٓ١‫ػ‬ٛٔ ٞ‫د‬ٛ‫ ث‬ٟ‫ أز‬ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٞٛ‫ثً رؾز‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
O= contain antibody A and anti body B
NOT contain any antigen

246. Platelet normal range:-

a. 100×10(12)
b. 20×10 (9)
c. 100×10(9)
d. 1000×10(9)

247. The gram stains use for:

a. Mycobacteruim =zile nelsen ‫ب‬ٙ‫اعُ اٌقجغخ ؽمز‬
b. Borrela
c. Dipheteria=albert stain ‫ب‬ٙ‫اعُ اٌقجغخ ؽمز‬
d. E.coli ‫رٕقجغ ثبٌغشاَ ػؾبْ وزا اخزشٔب٘ب‬
‫ت‬١‫ؽذ٘ب ه‬ٌٛ ‫ب فجغخ‬ٌٙ ْٛ‫ب رى‬٠‫ش‬١‫ثؼل اٌجىز‬ٚ ‫ٕخ‬١‫ء ٌخ فجغخ ِؼ‬ٟ‫ٓ وً ؽ‬١‫اٌؾ‬
69
 ‫رٕؾفع‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٙ‫ؼ فجغز‬٠‫ؽذح ا‬ٚ ً‫ساػ اوزت و‬

248. All component of blood except:

a. Platelet
b. Red cells and white
c. Plasma
d. Cell wall
‫ٔبد اٌذَ ِبػذا‬ٛ‫بء ِٓ ِى‬١‫غ ٘زح األؽ‬١ّ‫ٌه ع‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ً‫ اٌؾ‬ٛ٘ ٍٞٛ‫هجؼب اٌغذاس اٌخ‬
َ‫بد د‬٠‫وش‬ٚ ‫بد دَ ؽّشاء‬٠‫وش‬ٚ ‫خ‬٠ِٛ‫ٔبرخ ففبئؼ د‬ٛ‫ؼ ِى‬٠‫ اٌذَ ٔؼشف ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٍٞٛ‫ب اٌغذاس اٌخ‬١٘ ‫ اٌغٍو‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫نبء‬١‫ث‬

249. Can transfusion from blood:

a. Whole blood
b. Platelets
c. Red cells and white cells
d. All the above
‫ء‬ٟ‫ذ ٕٔمً وً ؽ‬١‫ؼ ٕٔمً ِغ اٌذَ او‬٠‫ ٕٔمً دَ ا‬ٟ‫اؽٕب ٌّٓ ٔغ‬

250. The general Trans O group to:

a. A group
b. B group
c. O group
d. ALL groups
َ‫ٍخ اٌذ‬١‫ف ِٓ لجً اْ فق‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬O
َ‫ ٕٔمٍخ ٌىً فقبئً اٌذ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ َ‫ رؼزجش ٔبلً ػب‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٜ‫اع اٌذَ األخش‬ٛٔ‫ب ٌىً ا‬١‫رؼط‬

251. Thrombocytopenia sees in:

a. Megaloplastic anemia
b. APlastic anemia
c. Iron deficiency
70
 d. Pernicious anemia

252. G6PD is enzyme formation in:

a. Muscle
b. Brain
c. Liver
d. All above
‫ اٌىجذ‬ٟ‫ُ ف‬٠‫غ ٘زا األٔضا‬١ٕ‫ِىبْ رق‬

253. ESR measured

a. Millimeters
b. Centimeter
c. Milligram
d. Dl.
‫ ِزش‬ٍِٟ ‫ب‬ٙ١‫مبط ف‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؽذح ا‬ٌٛ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫بس ا‬١‫ٌه األع‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

254. The Thrombopoietin synthesis in:

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. A and B
d. Thymus
255. Which from the following NOT include in cell wall of bacteria:
a. Pilli.
b. Cell membrane.
c. Flagella.
d. Definite nucleus
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ؽك اٌجىز‬ٍٞٛ‫ اٌغذاس اٌخ‬ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ‫ش‬١‫ رؼزجش غ‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ اٌّبدح ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫اح‬ٌٕٛ‫ش ٔخزبس ا‬١‫ق‬٠ ‫ح‬ٛٔ‫ب ا‬ٙ١‫ ِف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫اح‬ٌٕٛ‫خ ا‬١‫ب ثذائ‬٠‫ش‬١‫وٍٕب ٔؼشف اْ اٌجىز‬
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ اٌجىز‬ٞ‫اح ص‬ٛٔ ‫ب‬ٙ١‫ ِبف‬ٌٍٟ‫اح ا‬ٌٕٛ‫خ ا‬١‫وٍٕب ٔؼشف اٌىبئٕبد ثذائ‬
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ب ثىز‬ٙ١‫ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫اح ا‬ٌٕٛ‫مخ ا‬١‫اٌىبئٕبد ؽم‬ٚ
‫امؼ‬ٚ

256. Hyperparathyroidism hormone cause:

a. Increase calcium
b. Decrease calcium
71
 c. Not affected
‫شرفغ ِؼخ‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫خ ا‬١‫ْ اٌغذح اٌغبس دسل‬ِٛ‫شرفغ ٘ش‬٠ ٌّٓ ‫ي‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
َٛ١‫ذ اٌىبٌغ‬١‫او‬
َٛ١‫ذ اٌىبٌغ‬٠‫ض‬٠ ‫خ‬١‫ي اسرفبع اٌغذح اٌغبس دسل‬ٛ‫ اؽفع ل‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

257. Strong antigen:

a. Vitamin
b. Carbohydrate
c. Proteins
d. Glycoprotein
ٓ١‫ر‬ٚ‫ذ ِٓ اٌجش‬١‫ع او‬ٕٛ‫ؼ ِق‬٠‫ ِٓ ا‬ٞٛ‫ٓ اٌم‬١‫ٌه األٔزغ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ٓ١‫ر‬ٚ‫ ثش‬ٛ‫ى‬٠‫ؼ ِٓ غال‬٠‫ػخ ِٓ ا‬ٕٛ‫ ِق‬ٞ‫ ثذ‬ٟ‫لٍٕب عؤاي لجً األٔز‬ٚ
Antibody=glycoprotines
Antigen=protine
‫اسثو‬ٚ ُٙ‫اف‬

258. ANA is:

a. Allergy
b. Sideroblastic anemia
c. Graft-rejection
d. Autoimmune disease
‫ع ٘زا اٌّشك‬ٛٔ‫ٌه ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠ٚ ‫ٌه اخزقبس اٌّشك‬ٛ‫م‬٠‫ٕ٘ب ا‬
ANA=anti nuclear disease
ٟ‫ؼزجش ِشك رار‬٠ٚ
‫ضا‬١ٌ‫بص األ‬ٙ‫ك ع‬٠‫غخ ػٓ هش‬١‫ػشفٕب لجً أب ٔمذس ٔم‬ٚ

259. The myeloid leukemia is:

a. High the leukocyte
b. low the leukocyte
c. Normal leukocyte
‫نبء ػؾبْ رذافغ‬١‫بد اٌذَ اٌج‬٠‫ذ ساػ رشرفغ وش‬١‫ػٕذٔب ِشك او‬

260. Optichin test for :

a. Streptococci pyogene
72
 b. Streptococci pneumonia
c. Streptococci agalatia
‫ؼ‬٠‫ٌه ٘زا األخزجبس خبؿ ثأ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ب‬١ٕ١ِٛ١ٔ‫خبؿ ثبأل‬

261. Tania saginate transmission:

a. Ingestion beef meet
b. Ingestion pork meet
c. Sexual
d. Feco-oral
‫ اٌجمشح‬ٟ٘ ٌٍٟ‫ؽذح ِغٍّخ ا‬ٚ ‫ب‬١ٕ١‫ٓ الر‬١‫ػ‬ٛٔ ‫خ‬١‫لجً لٍٕب ف‬
‫ش‬٠‫ اٌخٕض‬ٟ٘ ٌٍٟ‫خ ا‬١‫ؾ‬١‫ؽذح ِغ‬ٚ
ً‫خالؿ ؽفظٕب٘ب لج‬ٚ

262. Wuchereria Bancrofti diagnose:

a. Microscopic examination of blood smears
b. Microscopic examination of concentrated urine
c. Microscopic examination of stool smear
d. Microscopic examination of blood or urine smears
‫ي‬ٛ‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫ف‬ٚ َ‫ اٌذ‬ٟ‫قخ ف‬١‫غ رؾخ‬١‫ً ٔغزط‬١‫لٍٕب داء اٌف‬ٚ ً‫٘زا اٌغؤاي أؾشػ ِٓ لج‬

263. Malaria detection

a. Blood smear
b. Urine
c. Body fluid
d. Stool
َ‫ اٌذ‬ٟ‫قخ ف‬١‫غ رؾخ‬١‫ب ٔغزط‬٠‫اٌّالس‬

264. Enterbactericea can infection in:

a. Urinary tract only
b. Steam blood-urinary tract- chest
c. Gastrointestinal disease only
d. Urinary tract - Gastrointestinal disease
73
 ٍٝ‫ؼ رؤصش ػ‬٠‫ ا‬ٍٝ‫ب رؤصش ػ‬٠‫ٌه ٘زح اٌجىزش‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫خ‬١ّ‫ن‬ٌٙ‫اٌمٕبح ا‬ٚ ‫خ‬١ٌٛ‫اٌمٕبح اٌج‬

265. All the following are Enterbacterice except

a. E.coli - Shigella
b. Klebsiella - Serratia
c. Proteus – Enterobacter
d. Citerobacter – salmonella
e. cambylobacter

266. Hb account for 96% is consisting of:

a. 3 ά chains and 2 γ chains
b. 2 ά chains and 2 β chains
c. 2 ά chains and 2 δ chains
d. 2 ά chains and 3 δ chains
‫ إٌبط‬ٟ‫د ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ٌٍٟ‫لٍٕب ا‬ٚ ٓ١‫ث‬ٍٛ‫ ع‬ّٛ١ٌٙ‫اع ا‬ٛٔ‫لٍٕب ا‬ٚ ‫لجً ؽشؽٕب ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬
ْٛ‫زى‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ِٓ ا‬ٚ ‫وُ ٔغجزخ‬ٚ ‫اٌجبٌغخ‬
267. In The Elisa light produced from:
a. Conjugate only
b. substrate only
c. conjugate and substrate
d. Buffer

268. Pancreatic enzyme

a. Insulin
b. Creatine
c. Glucose
d. Amylase
‫ض‬١ٍ١ِ‫ هجؼب األ‬ٛ٘ ‫بط‬٠‫ّبد اٌجٕىش‬٠‫ؼزجش ِٓ أض‬٠ ‫ٌه‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫سوض ف‬

269. In the formol-ether technique the parasite found in:

a. ether layer
b. formol layer
c. sediment=‫اٌشاعت‬
74
 d. Fecal deprise
‫دح‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫ٓ رى‬٠ٚ ً١‫نبد ؽمذ اٌطف‬٠ٛ‫ٌه اٌج‬ٛ٠ ‫جب‬٠‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي رمش‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫ اٌشاعت‬ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫ذ ساػ رى‬١‫او‬

270. Normocytic Normochromic anemia found in

a. Pernicious anemia
b. Megaloplastic anemia
c. a plastic anemia
d. iron deficiency

271. One is always non motile gram negative rods:

a. Haemophilus Influenza
b. Shigella
c. E.coli
d. Salmonella
e. Borditella Pertusis
‫غالا‬١‫ٓ ػٓ اٌؾ‬١‫ِز‬ٍٛ‫ٓ ػشفٕب ِؼ‬١‫اٌؾ‬
‫ اٌجشاص‬ٟ‫دح ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫رى‬ٚ ‫بي‬ٙ‫ب رغجت ِشك األع‬ٙٔ‫ا‬
‫ش ِزؾشوخ‬١‫ب غ‬ٙٔ‫ا‬ٚ
272. One is motile gram –ve rods:
a. Haemophilus Influenza
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Pseudomonas aerogenes
d. Vibrio choler
‫ِزؾشوخ‬ٚ ‫خ‬٠ٛ‫ػق‬ٚ ‫رؼزجش غشاَ عبٌت‬
273. Neonatal jaundice is
a. Hemolytic jaundice
b. Obstructive jaundice
c. Hepatic jaundice
d. Normal jaundice
ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ب هج‬ٙ‫ػ‬ٛٔ ‫ب هجؼب‬ٙ‫ػ‬ٛٔ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ذ ا‬١ٌ‫ا‬ٌّٛ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ رطٍغ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ٌه اٌقفشح ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ ٔؾقً ِبدح اٌقفشاء ِشرفؼخ‬ٌٕٛٔٛ‫ً ٌٍطفً ا‬١ٍ‫ ٔؼًّ رؾ‬ٟ‫الْ عجؾبْ هللا ٌّٓ ٔغ‬
ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ء هج‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ػٕذح‬

75
274. The blood cells that play a major role in preventing infection of
the body are
a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte=WBC
c. Platelets
d. Blast Cells
ُ‫ رذافغ ػٓ اٌغغ‬ٌٍٟ‫ب ا‬٠‫ب اٌخال‬١٘ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ ا‬ٜٚ‫خ ػذ‬١‫هجؼب وٍٕب ٔؼشف ٌّٓ عغّٕب رغ‬
‫نبء‬١‫بد اٌذَ اٌج‬٠‫ذ وش‬١‫او‬

275. The dimeric Antibodies is

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA
ٛ٘ ٟٔ‫ؼزجش صب‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٞٛ١‫ؼ اٌّنبد اٌؾ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ٓ١‫ اٌؾ‬IgA
ٓ‫ٓ ػ‬١‫ِز‬ٍٛ‫ٓ ػشفٕب ِؼ‬١‫ اٌؾ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠IgA
1-‫ب رخزـ ثبألفشاص‬ٙٔ‫ ا‬Secretion
2- ‫خ‬١ٔ‫ب صب‬ٙٔ‫ا‬ٚ
‫امؼ‬ٚ ‫خالؿ‬

276. All of the following are gram positive rods except

a. Bacillus
b. Mycobacterium
c. Lactobacillus
d. Listeria
e. Corynebacterium
f. Closteridium
g. Stepto and staph

277. Morphology of Candida albicans is

a. White,Cream colonies=ٌٍْٛ‫خ ا‬١ّ٠‫ب ِغؼّشاد وش‬ٌٙٔٛ
b. Red colonies
c. Yellow Colonies
76
 d. Pink colonies

278. Staph aureus can be differentiate from strepto pyogenes because

it
a. Contain Catalase enzyme
b. Contain Coagulase enzyme
c. Contain urease enzyme
d. Contain Citrate enzyme

279. Which of the following of immunoglobulin inflexible:

a. IgG
b. Ig M
c. Ig A
d. Ig D
e. IgE
‫هنا ٌقولك اٌش المضاد الحٌوي اللً ٌتعبر غٌر ثابت‬

280. Hypocalcaemia in patient occur if the level of calcium is:

a. 16
b. 12
c. 10
d. 7.5
‫مصطلح هاٌبو كلٌسٌما ٌعنً انخفاض فً الكالسٌوم بس ٌقولك متى نقول ان‬
‫الكالسٌوم صار منخفض اذا صار اقل من سبعة ونصف نقول انا صار منخفض‬
‫ودخل فً حالة الهاٌبو كلٌسٌمٌا‬

281. One test in the following can diagnose iron deficiency:

a. CBC
b. Cretinin
c. sGPT
d. Uric acid

77
 ً‫كٌف نعرف ان المرٌض عندة نقص حدٌد فً الدم اكٌد عن طرٌق جهاز السً ب‬
ً‫س‬

282. The maximum store of the platelet is :

a. 35 days
b. 7 days
c. 5 days
d. 120
ً‫ؽشػ ِٓ لج‬

283. In agglutination test the antigen used is:

a. Soluble
b. Insoluble
c. All of the above
d. Non of the above
‫خالؿ‬ٚ ‫ْ رائت‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ذ ساػ‬١‫ْ او‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ؼ ساػ‬٠‫ٓ ا‬١‫ اخزجبس اٌزغٍو االٔزغ‬ٟ‫ٌه ف‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

284. Which of the following tubes used in serology tests :

a. Plan tube
b. EDTA tube
c. Heparin tube
d. Lavender tube
e. Green tube
‫ٔخ‬ٌٛ ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ‫ؼ سان‬٠‫ ا‬ٟ‫ع‬ٌٛٚ‫ش‬١‫ اخزجبس اٌغ‬ٟ‫ ٔغزخذِخف‬ٌٍٟ‫ة ا‬ٛ‫ٌه األٔج‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ً‫لٍٕب ِٓ لج‬
‫ب أخنش‬ٌٙٔٛ ‫بء‬١ّ١‫ اٌى‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫ف‬ِٛ ‫ب‬ٌٙٔٛ ٟ‫ ع‬ٟ‫ ث‬ٟ‫ اٌغ‬ٟ‫ف‬ٚ

285. Hormone replication of RBCs:

a. Erythropoietin
78
 b. Creatin kinas
c. Amylase
d. Progesterone
‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء‬٠‫قٕغ وش‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ْ ا‬ِٛ‫ش‬ٌٙ‫ؼ اعُ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ٓ١‫ر‬ٛ١‫ ث‬ٚ‫ذ األسصش‬١‫او‬
ُ٘ٚ ٓ١ّ‫ب اع‬ٌٙ ‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء‬٠‫وٍٕب ٔؼشف اْ وش‬ٚ
RBC=erythrocytes

286. Brucella Mellitensis is

a. Obligatory aerobic bacteria
b. Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c. Facultative anaerobic bacteria
d. Micro-aerophilic bacteria
‫خ‬١‫ائ‬ٛ٘‫خ ال‬٠‫بس‬١‫ب رؼزجش اخز‬٠‫ ٘زح اٌجىزش‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

287. Variation in RBCs size:

a. Microcyrosis
b. Macrocytosis
c. Aniso cytosis
d. Poiklocytosis
‫ُ ارا لٍه‬ِٙ ‫٘زا اٌغؤاي‬
‫زظ‬٠‫ عب‬ٚ‫ض‬١ٔ‫ اٌّمبط ٔخزبس=ا‬ٟ‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ف‬٠‫ وش‬ٟ‫ش ف‬١‫اٌزغ‬
‫زظ‬٠‫ عب‬ٍٛ١‫و‬ٛ‫ي=ث‬ٛ‫ اٌؾىً ٔم‬ٟ‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ف‬٠‫ وش‬ٟ‫ش ف‬١‫ لبي اٌزغ‬ٌٛ ٓ‫ٌى‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Change size=aniso cytosis
Change shape=poiklocytosis
‫مؼ‬ٚ ‫بسة‬٠

288. Growth hormone secreted from:

a. Thyroid gland
b. Pituitary gland

79
 ‫‪c. Parathyroid gland‬‬
‫‪d. Adrenal gland‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ‪٠‬مٍه ٘شِ‪ ْٛ‬إٌّ‪ ِٓ ٛ‬ا‪٠ ٓ٠‬فشص‬
‫٘شِ‪ ْٛ‬إٌّ‪٠ ٛ‬فشص ِٓ اٌغذح إٌخبِ‪١‬خ خالؿ ؽفع‬

‫‪289. Most common method used to detect hormone:‬‬

‫‪a. Microscope‬‬
‫‪b. Flamcytometer‬‬
‫‪c. ELIZA‬‬
‫‪d. PCR‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ِ‪ ٌٛ ُٙ‬لٍ‪ ٟ‬أ‪٘ ٞ‬شِ‪ٚ ْٛ‬ا‪ ٞ‬فب‪٠‬ش‪ٚ‬ط ٔىؾفخ ػٓ هش‪٠‬ك ع‪ٙ‬بص األٌ‪١‬ضا‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬األٌ‪١‬ضا ٔفؾـ ف‪ٙ١‬ب اٌفب‪٠‬ش‪ٚ‬عبد ‪ٚ‬اٌ‪ٙ‬شِ‪ٔٛ‬بد‬

‫‪290. All the following estimation can be done on plasma EDTA blood‬‬
‫‪except:‬‬
‫‪a. Glucose‬‬
‫‪b. Cholesterol‬‬
‫‪c. Urea‬‬
‫‪d. Calcium‬‬
‫فً هذا السإال ٌقولك جمٌع انواع هذة التحالٌل نقدر نعملها باأنبوب اللً لونة‬
‫موف ماعدا الكالسٌوم الن المادة المانعة للتجلط اللً فً األنبوب حقت األدتا اللً‬
‫لونها موف تسحب الكالسٌوم ومراح نحصل على كالسٌوم اذا جٌنا نحللة‬

‫‪291. Lenses near the slide in light microscope:‬‬

‫اٌؼذعخ اٌؾ‪١‬ئ‪١‬خ=‪a. Objective‬‬
‫‪b. Stage‬‬
‫اٌؼذعخ اٌؼ‪١ٕ١‬خ=‪c. Eye lenses‬‬
‫‪d. Arms‬‬
‫هنا ٌقولك العدسة القرٌبة من السالٌد اٌش هٌا اكٌد العدسة الشٌئٌة‬
‫لوجاب لك العدسة القرٌبة من العٌن اكٌد راح تكون العدسة العٌنٌة‬

‫‪292. Gas gangrene cause by :‬‬

‫‪a. Clostridium botulism‬‬

‫‪80‬‬
 b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium prefringers
‫ٕب‬٠‫غجت ِشك اٌغشغش‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

293. The cause of plague:

a. Y.enterocolitica
b. Yersinia pestis
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Non of the above
ْٛ‫غجت ِشك اٌطبػ‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
294. Storage temperature of platelets
a. 37 C
b. 35 – 40
c. 22 – 27
d. -4
ً‫ؽشػ ِٓ لج‬

295. Trachoma is caused by:

a. Mycoplasma
b. Chlamydia
c. Richettsia
d. Mycobacterium
‫ب‬٠‫ذ‬١ِ‫ب اٌىال‬١٘ ٓ١‫ت اٌؼ‬١‫ق‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ج‬١‫غجت اٌشِذ اٌؾج‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ٓ١‫اٌؾ‬

296. It’s function is to transport oxygen from the lung to the tissue:
a. Haptoglobin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Bilirubin
d. Myoglobin
‫ٌقولك اٌش اللً ٌنقل األكسجٌن من الرئى الى االنجسة اكٌد الهٌموجلوبٌن‬
‫ٌعنً هذة وظٌفة الهٌموجلوبٌن‬

297. Leukocyte count become >4000 in: -

a. Infection
b. Malignancy
81
 c. ALL above
d. Non above

298. Responsible for cellular immune:

a. T- cell
b. B-cell
c. NK cell
d. Plasma cell
ً‫ؽشػ ِٓ لج‬

299. Bacteria Trans from animal:-

a. Toxo plasm
b. Brucella
c. E.coli
d. Strepto pyogenes
‫غال‬٠‫ب اٌجش‬١٘ ‫ذ‬١‫أبد او‬ٛ١‫ك اٌؾ‬٠‫ٕزمً ػٓ اٌطش‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١‫ؼ اعُ اٌطف‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
300. Reject donor because:-
a. Age between 17-60
b. Wight above 50
c. Hb in male above 13.5
d. Donor pregnant
‫يتً َشفض انًشَض يٍ انتجشع ارا كبَت ايشاح دبيم‬

301. Gout disease caused by:-

a. Uric acid
b. Urea
c. Glucose
d. Calcium oxalate
5-3 ِٓ ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ب اٌطج‬ٌٙ‫سن اعذ ِؼذ‬ٛ١ٌ‫ٓ ػشفٕب ا‬١‫اٌؾ‬
‫ن‬ٌٍّٛ‫ داء ا‬ٛ٘ ٌٍٟ‫ارا صادد ٘زح اٌغٕجخ رغجت ِشك إٌمشط ا‬
‫سن اعذ‬ٛ١ٌ‫ ا‬ٛ٘ ‫ذ‬٠ٛ‫غجت ِشك اٌم‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫سن اعذ‬ٛ١ٌ‫ٓ ػٓ ا‬١‫ِز‬ٍٛ‫اؽفع ِؼ‬
‫ب‬ٌٙ‫ِؼذ‬
‫ رغججخ‬ٌٍٟ‫اٌّشك ا‬
‫خالؿ‬
82
302. Best way to determine electrolyte:-
a. HPLC
b. Spectrophotometer
c. Flam photometer= ‫خاص باالكترولٌت والعناصر‬
d. Thin layer chromatography
‫الحٌن عرفنا جهاز ثانً خاص باألكترولٌت اللً هٌا األٌونات والعناصر‬
‫وجهاز األلٌزا خاص بالهرمونات والفٌروسات‬

303. Yellow brown egg

a. Ascaris lumbrcoid
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Entamoeba histolytica

304. Pathogen should do:-

a. Infect-transmitted-Reproduce
b. Reproduce- Infect-Tans
c. transmitted – Infect – Reproduce
d. ALL
e. Non above
‫ك‬٠‫ذخً ٌٍغغُ ػٓ هش‬٠ ‫ف‬١‫ً و‬١‫ي اٌطف‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫األفبثخ‬
ُ‫األٔزمبي ٌٍغغ‬
‫اٌزىبصش‬

305. The Ag in ABO system:-

a. A.B.C
b. A.B.O

83
 ‫‪c. A.B.H‬‬
‫انذٍُ هزا انغؤال يهى يشح‬
‫شىف كهًخ اَتجٍُ فٍ انغؤال‬
‫ارا شفت هزح انكهًخ فٍ انغؤال اػشف اَك ساح تختبس‬
‫‪ABH‬‬
‫الٌ قجم قهُب فصُهخ انذو انتٍ التذتىٌ ػهً اَتجٍُ هُب او‬
‫نزنك نًٍ قبل كهًخ اَتجٍُ اختشَب‬
‫‪ABH‬‬

‫نكٍ نى جبة َفظ هزا انغؤال وغُش فٍ وجبة كهًخ قشوة ساح َختبس‬
‫‪ABO‬‬
‫الَخ فؼال ادُب ػُذَب فصبئم انذو هزٌ انثالثخ‬
‫َؼٍُ ارا جبء عؤال‬
‫وقبل‬
‫‪Ag in ABO=ABH‬‬
‫ونى قبل‬
‫‪Group in ABO=ABO‬‬
‫َبسة وضذكت انفكشح‬

‫‪306. Reticulocyte stain with super vital to show:-‬‬

‫‪a. RNA‬‬
‫‪b. Organs‬‬
‫‪c. Network‬‬
‫‪d. Nucleus‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي ٌؾبٌخ ‪ّ٠‬ىٓ اٌ‪١ٙ‬ئخ رطٍغ ِٕخ خّظ اعئٍخ ا‪ ٚ‬أوضش‬
‫أب ساػ اؽط‪ٙ‬ب ٌه ف‪١٘ ٟ‬ئخ رؼذاد ‪ٚ‬أؽفظ‪ٙ‬ب‬
‫لٍٕب لجً اْ‬
‫ِؼٕب٘ب وش‪٠‬بد دَ ؽّشاء غ‪١‬ش ٔبمغخ=‪Reticulocytes‬‬
‫‪ٔ reticulocytes‬م‪ٛ‬ي ِّ‪١‬ضاد‬
‫خال‪٠‬ب ؽّشاء غ‪١‬ش ٔبمغخ‪1-‬‬
‫رغجت األٔ‪١ّ١‬ب ‪2-‬‬
‫‪ super vital‬اعُ اٌقجغخ ؽمز‪ٙ‬ب ‪4-‬‬
‫اٌقجغخ ؽمز‪ٙ‬ب ا‪٠‬ؼ رقجغ ‪ RNA‬رقجغ ‪5-‬‬

‫‪84‬‬
307. In chemistry lab use:-
a. Green tube
b. Red tube
c. Blue tube
d. Lavender

308. In stool conce. Method should not use with:-

a. S.mansoni
b. Fascioloa egg
c. H.nana
d. A & C
e. Ascaris
‫ب‬ٙ‫بء الٔؼًّ ِؼ‬١‫ٕخ ٌىٓ ثؼل األؽ‬١‫مخ ِؼ‬٠‫ف اْ اٌجشاص أوشِىُ هللا ٌخ هش‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬
‫ٕخ ؽمذ اٌجشاص‬١‫مخ اٌّؼ‬٠‫اٌطش‬
‫ء‬ٟ‫ش ِٕؼًّ ؽ‬١‫ب ِٓ غ‬ٙ‫ٕٔشعج‬ٚ ‫خ‬١‫ي ٔبخز اٌؼ‬ٛ‫ ه‬ٍٝ‫ٌىٓ ػ‬

309. Give double zone in blood agar:-

a. α-hemolytic streptococci
b. β-hemolytic streptococci
c. ALL
d. Non

310. In AML we see:-

a. Blast cell more 20%
b. No blast cells
c. More increase in WBCs
d. ALL
‫فخ‬ٛ‫ٓ ٔمذس ٔؾ‬٠ٚ ‫ٌه عشهبْ اٌذَ اٌؾبد‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
311. EDITA tube has a color:-
a. Purple
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Yellow

85
312. Hot air oven temp.
a. 121 C° for 15 min
b. 180 C° for 30 min
c. 160 C° for 30 min
d. ALL

313. Chinese litter sees in:-

a. C. diphtheria
b. S.pyogenes
c. Staph aureus
d. E.coli
‫خ‬١ٕ١‫ف ف‬ٚ‫ئخ ؽش‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ْ ػ‬ٛ‫ رى‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ب اٌذفز‬١٘
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫شح ػٓ اٌذفز‬١‫بء وض‬١‫ٓ ػشفٕب اؽ‬١‫اٌؾ‬ٚ
‫ب‬ٍٙ‫ٓ ػشفٕب ؽى‬١‫اٌؾ‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٙ‫اعُ األخزجبس ؽم‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٙ‫عو ؽم‬ٌٛ‫ا‬ٚ ‫اعُ اٌقجغخ‬
Albert stain=‫ب‬ٙ‫اعُ اٌقجغخ ؽمز‬
Loffler serum=‫خ‬١‫ ف‬ّٕٛ‫ ر‬ٌٍٟ‫عو ا‬ٌٛ‫اعُ ا‬
Elek test=‫ب‬ٙ‫اعُ األخزجبس ؽم‬
Chiness litter=‫خ‬١ٕ١‫ف ف‬ٚ‫ئخ ؽش‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ب ػ‬ٍٙ‫ؽى‬

314. Detection of hepatitis- C by:-

a. Anti-B
b. Anti-A
c. Anti-C
d. Anti-D
‫ة ٔفغخ‬ٚ‫اٌغؤاي ِغب‬

315. We done the following exam for donor except:-

a. HIV
b. HCV
c. H BV
d. H AV
‫ٌقولك لمن ٌجً شخص عندنا وٌبً ٌتبرع بالدم اٌش نعمل لة تحالٌل منشان‬
‫نشوف هل هو مرٌض اكٌد بنعملة كل التحالٌل‬

86
 ‫هنا فً هذا السإال ٌقولك اٌش هو التحلٌل اللً مٌتحتاج المتبرع للدم انا نسوٌة‬
‫لةٌعنً منعملة لة‬
‫اكٌد هو التهاب الكبد الوبائً أي‬
‫النة ٌنتقل عن طرٌق األكل ومالة دخل فً الدم‬

‫‪316. Lipid and clot factor remove to obtain:-‬‬

‫‪a. Plasma‬‬
‫‪b. Plasma protein‬‬
‫‪c. Serum‬‬
‫‪d. Non above‬‬
‫‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ػٕذٔب ػ‪ٕ١‬خ ؽٍٕب ِٕ‪ٙ‬ب اٌذ٘‪ٚ ْٛ‬اػ‪ٛ‬اًِ اٌزغٍو ا‪٠‬ؼ ‪٠‬جم‪ ٝ‬او‪١‬ذ اٌغ‪١‬ش‪َٚ‬‬
‫‪317. In blood group use:-‬‬
‫‪a. Known cell with unknown serum‬‬
‫‪b. Unknown cell with known serum‬‬
‫‪c. Know cell with unknown cell‬‬
‫‪d. Unknown cell with unknown serum‬‬
‫٘زا اٌغؤاي رززوش‪ ٌّٓ ْٚ‬وٕب ٔؼًّ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌّخزجش ‪ٚ‬و‪١‬ف ٔطٍغ فق‪ٍ١‬خ اٌذَ ا‪٠‬ؼ وٕب‬
‫ٔغزخذَ‬
‫وٕب ٔغزخذَ لطشح ِٓ دَ اٌّش‪٠‬ل ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬وبْ ِغ‪ٛٙ‬ي ػٕذٔب ٔ‪ٛ‬ع اٌخٍ‪١‬خ‬
‫‪ٚ‬وٕب ٔغزخذَ اٌغ‪١‬ش‪ َٚ‬اٌٍ‪ ٌُٙٔٛ ٟ‬اصسق ‪ٚ‬اففش ‪ٚ‬ػذ‪٠ ٌٍْٛ ُ٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬وٕب ٔؼشف‬
‫اٌغ‪١‬ش‪َٚ‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ف‪٘ ٟ‬زا اٌغؤاي ف‪ِ ٟ‬غّ‪ٛ‬ػبد اٌذَ ا‪٠‬ؼ ٔغزخذَ‬
‫اٌخٍ‪١‬خ غ‪١‬ش ِؼش‪ٚ‬فخ‬
‫ثظ اٌغش‪ِ َٚ‬ؼش‪ٚ‬ف‬
‫‪٠‬بسة ‪ٚ‬مؼ‬

‫‪318. Start zeal nelsin stain with‬‬

‫‪a. Malachite green‬‬
‫‪b. Crystal violet‬‬
‫‪c. Carbol fuchcin‬‬
‫‪d. Safranin‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ف‪ ٟ‬فجغخ اٌضي ٍٔغٓ ا‪٠‬ؼ اعُ اٌقجغخ اٌٍ‪ ٟ‬ا‪ٚ‬ي ؽ‪ٟ‬ء ٔغزخذِ‪ٙ‬ب‬

‫‪319. The gene in ABO system:-‬‬

‫‪a. A.B.C‬‬

‫‪87‬‬
 b. A.B.O
c. A.B.H
d. A.B.D
ً‫ؽشؽزخ لج‬

320. Hb range in adult:-

a. 13.5 - 17.5 gm/dl.=ً‫ اٌشع‬ٟ‫ ف‬ٜ‫٘زح إٌغجخ رش‬
b. 12 -16 gm/dl=‫٘زح إٌغجخ ٌٍّشاح‬
c. 13.5 - 17.5 mg/dl.
d. 11 – 15 gm/dl.

321. Hb used in:-

a. Utilize therapy anemia
b. Diagnosis anemia
c. Utilize therapy of jaundice
d. ALL
‫ؼ‬٠‫ـ ا‬١‫ رؾخ‬ٟ‫ٓ ٔغزخذِخ ف‬١‫ٌج‬ٛ‫ع‬ّٛ١ٌٙ‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
َ‫ فمش اٌذ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ب‬١ّ١ٔ‫ـ األ‬١‫ رؾخ‬ٟ‫ذ ف‬١‫او‬
322. To detect Ab use:-
a. Indirect antibodies test
b. Direct antibodies test
c. Spectrophotometer
d. ALL
َ‫ؼ ٔغزخذ‬٠‫ ا‬ٞ‫د‬ٛ‫ ث‬ٟ‫ٌه ٌٍفؾـ ػٓ االٔز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ٌه‬ٛ‫م‬٠ٚ ٟٔ‫غت ٌه عؤاي صب‬٠ ٓ‫ِّى‬
To detect RBC= direct antibody test
ٓ١ٌ‫ ِٕخ عؤا‬ٟ‫غ‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

323. In the plain tube what happen to the sample:

a. Cloting
b. Hemolysis
c. Not cloted
d. Seperated

88
 ‫زغٍو‬٠ ‫ذ اٌذَ ساػ‬١‫ب دَ او‬ٙ١‫ٕب ف‬١‫ ؽط‬ٌٛ ‫ش‬١‫ق‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ا‬ٚ ‫خ‬١‫ثخ فبم‬ٛ‫ٌه ػٕذٔب أج‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ ِبدح ِبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍو‬ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٞٛ‫ثخ الرؾز‬ٛ‫الْ األٔج‬
‫ذ‬١‫زغٍو اٌذَ او‬٠ ‫ساػ‬ٚ

324. The HB which found in 96% is:

a. 2alpha + 2 beta
b. 2alpha + 2 delta
c. 2alpha + 2 gamma
d. 2alpha + 3 beta

ً‫ؽشػ ِٓ لج‬
325. The most common blood group is:
a. O blood group
b. A blood group
c. B blood group
d. AB blood group
‫اعؼخ األٔزؾبس‬ٚ ‫ٍخ‬١‫أوضش فق‬

326. The antibody of blood group is:

a. Anti A and B
b. Anti A and C
c. Anti A and O
d. All of the above
‫معروف انواع االنتً بدي‬
‫انها‬
ً‫أٌو وب‬

327. We can differentiate from gram (-)and gram (+) by:

a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Nucleus
d. Cytoplasm
‫هنا ٌقولك اٌش الفرق بٌن غرام موجب وغرام سالب قلنا قبل ان غرام موجب‬
‫جدارها ثقٌل‬

89
 ‫وغرام سالب جدارها خفٌف‬
‫ٌعنً األختالف فً الجدار الخلوي‬

328. The cell wall of gram(+) contain :

a. Peptedo glycogen and techoic acid
b. Peptedoglycan only
c. Techoic acid only
d. Celleluse and pectin

ً١‫عت عذاس٘ب صم‬ِٛ َ‫ػشفٕب لجً اْ اٌغشا‬

‫ف‬١‫اٌغشاَ عبٌت عذاس٘ب خف‬ٚ
‫عت‬ِٛ َ‫ ؽك عشا‬ٍٞٛ‫ْ اٌغذاس اٌخ‬ٛ‫زى‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫مؼ ِٓ ا‬ٛ٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ٓ ف‬١‫اٌؾ‬
‫ؽك غشاَ عبٌت‬ٚ
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Gram positive=thick-peptdog glycogen and techonic acid
Gram negative=thin=toxic lipo poly saccharide
‫ٕخ‬١‫اد ِؼ‬ِٛ ِٓ ْٛ‫زى‬٠ ‫ُ اٌغذاس ؽمخ‬ِٕٙ ‫اؽذ‬ٚ ً‫ و‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫مؾذ‬ٚ
329. The foundmental of erythrocyte production is:
a. Erythropiotein
b. Thyroxin
c. Growth hormones
d. ADH

330. leukocyte increase incase :

a. Chemotherapy
b. Radiation
c. Bacterial infection
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ثبٌجىز‬ٜٚ‫ ؽبٌخ اٌؼذ‬ٟ‫نبء ف‬١‫بد اٌذَ اٌج‬٠‫ رشرفغ وش‬ٝ‫امؼ ِز‬ٚ ‫٘زا اٌغؤاي‬

331. The triple granule, which is the most aboundent in leucocyte, is:
a. Netrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
90
 d. Lymphocyte
‫خ‬١ٌ‫ب ػب‬ٙ‫ٔغجز‬ٚ ‫ء‬ٟ‫ً اوضش ؽ‬١‫ ف‬ٚ‫زش‬١ٌٕ‫لجً لٍٕب اْ ا‬
%55 ٌٝ‫ا‬%40 ِٓ ‫ب‬ٙ‫ٔغجز‬
‫ء‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٍٝ‫ب اػ‬١٘ ‫ خالؿ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

332. Which of the following will increase the calcium concentration:

a. None restricted foods
b. Prolonged fast
c. prolonged application of tourniquet=‫ؽبٌخ سثو اٌزساع‬
d. None restricted drug
َٛ١‫د اٌىبٌغ‬ٚ‫ رض‬ٟ‫ب اٌؾبالد اٌز‬١٘‫ٌه ِب‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
َ‫ٔغؾت اٌذ‬ٚ ً١ٍ‫ ٔؼًّ اٌزؾ‬ٟ‫ء غٍو ٌّٓ ٔغ‬ٟ‫بٔب ٔؼًّ ؽ‬١‫اؽ‬
‫ل‬٠‫ك ارا وبْ اٌّش‬ٚ‫ء اخش اٌّفش‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٞ‫ أ‬ٚ‫ ٔبط رشثو اٌزساػ ثّطبه ا‬ٟ‫ف‬
َٛ١‫د اٌىبٌغ‬ٚ‫ب رض‬ٙٔ‫َ ِٕؼًّ ٘زح اٌؾشوخ ال‬ٛ١‫ً وبٌغ‬١ٍ‫ة ٌخ رؾ‬ٍٛ‫ِط‬
‫ افال ِٕخفل ثظ ثغجت‬ٛ٘ٚ ٌٟ‫َ ػٕذح ػب‬ٛ١‫طٍغ اٌىبٌغ‬٠ ‫ل‬٠‫ ِّىٓ اٌّش‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٌٟ‫طٍغ ػب‬٠ ‫٘زح اٌؾشوخ‬

333. Ferritin measure

a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Iron diffeciancy anemia
d. Megaloblastic anemia
ُ‫ اٌغغ‬ٟ‫ذ اٌّخضْ ف‬٠‫ف أخ اٌؾذ‬ٚ‫ٓ ِؼش‬١‫اٌفشر‬
‫ظ‬١‫م‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ي ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫ذ‬٠‫ظ ٔمـ اٌؾذ‬١‫م‬٠ ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫هج‬

334. The following index sensitive and will measure the total of iron
deficiency anemia
a. Transferrin
b. Fereitin
91
 c. TIBC
d. Hb electrophoresis
e. All of the above
‫ ال‬ٚ‫ذ أ‬٠‫خ ٔمـ ؽذ‬١‫ٌٕب ارا ف‬ٛ‫ً ِّىٓ رم‬١ٌ‫وً ٘زح اٌزؾب‬

335. To differentiate between hemophilia A and B

a. Leukocyte count
b. Factor assay
c. PT and PTT assay
d. All of the above
ٟ‫ث‬ٚ ٞ‫ب أ‬١ٍ١‫ف‬ّٛ١ٌٙ‫ٓ ا‬١‫ؼ األخزالف ث‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ًِ‫ذ اٌؼب‬٠‫ رؾذ‬ٟ‫األخزالف ف‬
ْ‫ ا‬ٜ‫ِخ أخش‬ٍٛ‫ٕ٘ب ِؼ‬ٚ
Hemophilia A=0 ‫ب‬ٙ١‫اًِ ف‬ٛ‫ػذد اٌؼ‬
Hemophilia B=0 ‫ب‬ٙ١‫اًِ ف‬ٛ‫ػذد اٌؼ‬

336. The following microorganism will not take the gram stain:
a. E.coli
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococci
d. Mycobacterium sp=‫ب رٕقجغ ثقجغخ‬ٙٔ‫ لٍٕب ِٓ لجً ا‬zile nelssine

َ‫ الرٕقجغ ثقجغخ غشا‬ٌٍٟ‫ب ا‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ِٓ اٌجىز‬ٞ‫ٌه أ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ٕ٘ب ف‬

‫ب ػٕذ٘ب‬ّٙ‫وزجذ اع‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٙ١‫ب فجغخ خبفخ رٕقجغ ف‬ٌٙ ‫ف‬ٚ‫ُ ِؼش‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ثىز‬ٛ‫ى‬٠‫ِب‬

337. The following parasite will not take the gimsa stain:
a. leishmanai.
b. Trypanosoma
c. Schistosoma
d. Malaria
e. Filaria
‫ب‬١‫ّغ‬١‫بد الرٕقجغ ثقجغخ ل‬١ٍ١‫ؼ ِٓ اٌطف‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫ِب‬ٛ‫ب اٌؾغزغ‬١٘
92
338. Plasmodium will transfer by:
a. Mosquito
b. Fly
c. Mite
d. All of the above
‫ك‬٠‫ٕزمً ػٓ هش‬٠ٚ َ‫ اٌذ‬ٟ‫ٔفؾقخ ف‬ٚ ‫ب‬٠‫غجت ِشك اٌّالس‬٠ ً١‫لٍٕب لجً اْ ٘زا اٌطف‬
ٓ١‫ء ِؼ‬ٟ‫ؽ‬
‫ي‬ٛ‫ل‬ٚ ‫ِبره‬ٍٛ‫ عّغ ِؼ‬ٟ‫ؼ‬٠
‫خز‬ٚ ‫ب‬ٕٙ‫ب ػ‬ٙ‫شح اؽفظ‬١‫بء وض‬١‫ اؽ‬ٞ‫ب ػٕذ‬٠‫اٌّالس‬

Diagnostic malaria=thick blood

Infected malaria=sportozess
Transfer=female mosquito
ٝ‫ب األٔض‬ٙٔ‫ ثظ أب خٍه ػبسف ا‬ٛ‫ز‬١‫ى‬١‫ىزت ٌه ِغ‬٠ ‫ِّىٓ ثظ‬ٚ
‫مؾذ‬ٚ ‫بسة‬٠ٚ

339. When the micro invades, the body B-cell will secret and it will
transfer to
a. Memory cell
b. Plasma cell
c. Phygocytic cell
d. Cytotoxic

340. Glycogen will formation in

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Stomach
d. Brain
ٓ١‫ع‬ٛ‫ى‬٠‫ئخ عال‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ اٌىجذ ػ‬ٟ‫زخضْ ف‬٠ ‫ص‬ٛ‫و‬ٍٛ‫اٌغ‬

93
341. Which of the following parasite will cause abscess in liver?
a. E.hostolytica
b. Malaria
c. Ascaris lumbrcoid
d. Tricurus tricura
‫ذ ِٓ اٌىجذ‬٠‫ط فذ‬ٚ‫غجت خش‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١‫ؼ اعُ اٌطف‬٠‫ي ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

342. Reliable method to measure the PH is

a. PH meter
b. Litmus paper
c. Indicator
d. none of the above

343. The proper result of individual

a. When the result be more than the normal value
b. When the result be close to the normal value
c. When the result be less than normal value
d. All of the above
ً١ٍ‫ اٌزؾ‬ٟ‫ء ف‬ٟ‫غخ افنً ؽ‬١‫ْ إٌز‬ٛ‫ رى‬ٝ‫ي ِز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫جخ ِٓ اٌطج‬٠‫خ لش‬١‫ْ إٌزغ‬ٛ‫ذ ٌّٓ رى‬١‫و‬

344. The following tests we doing in emergency cases except

a. Electrolyte=ٞ‫اس‬ٛ‫لذ اٌط‬ٚ ُِٙ
b. Glucose=‫ء‬ٜ‫اس‬ٛ‫لذ اٌط‬ٚ ُِٙ
c. Blood gases=‫ء‬ٜ‫اس‬ٛ‫لذ اٌط‬ٚ ُِٙ
d. Albumin= ‫ظبئف اٌىجذ‬ٚ ِٓ ‫ء الٔخ‬ٜ‫اس‬ٛ‫لذ اٌط‬ٚ ُِٙ ‫ش‬١‫غ‬
‫ء اخش‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٞ‫ أ‬ٚ‫ ؽبدس العّؼ هللا ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ه ؽبٌخ هبسئخ‬١‫ٌه ٌّٓ رغ‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ُ رؼٍّخ‬ِٙ ِٛ ٌٍٟ‫ً ا‬١ٍ‫ اٌزؾ‬ٛ٘ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ا‬
‫ؼ‬١ٌ ّٓ‫ذ األٌج‬١‫او‬
‫اسئ‬ٛ‫لذ اٌط‬ٚ ُِٙ ‫ش‬١‫ء غ‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ظبئف اٌىجذ‬ٚ ِٓ ‫الٔخ‬
‫ء‬ٜ‫اس‬ٛ‫ٕب ِٓ اٌط‬١‫ رغ‬ٟ‫ٕخ اٌز‬١‫ؼ اعُ اٌؼ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ٚ ‫ت ٌه عؤاي‬١‫غ‬٠ ‫بٔب‬١‫اؽ‬
Urgent=‫ء‬ٞ‫اس‬ٛ‫ٕب ِٓ اٌط‬١‫ رغ‬ٌٍٟ‫ٕخ ا‬١‫اعُ اٌؼ‬
94
 ‫خ اٌّشوضح‬٠‫ ِٓ اٌؼٕب‬ٟ‫ رغ‬ٌٍٟ‫خ ا‬١ٕ‫ؼ اعُ اٌؼ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫بٔب‬١‫اؽ‬ٚ
ICU=‫خ اٌّشوضح‬٠‫ ِٓ اٌؼٕب‬ٟ‫ رغ‬ٌٍٟ‫خ ا‬١ٕ‫اعُ اٌؼ‬
ُٙ١‫ؾف‬٠ ٟ‫ سث‬ٍٜٛ‫ُ فؾً و‬ِٙ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٍٞٛ‫ً اٌى‬١‫ ِٓ اٌغغ‬ٟ‫ رغ‬ٌٍٟ‫ٕخ ا‬١‫ؼ اعُ اٌؼ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫بٔب‬١‫اؽ‬ٚ
AKU=ٍٜٛ‫ ِٓ لغُ اٌفؾً اٌى‬ٟ‫ رغ‬ٌٍٟ‫ٕخ ا‬١‫اعُ اٌؼ‬

345. Malaria diagnostic by

a. Thin blood film
b. Gimsa
c. Gram stain
d. None of the above
ً‫ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لج‬

346. Candida albicans

a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Molds‫ب‬ٌٙ ٜ‫ت اعُ أخش‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ ِّى‬yeast= fungi
d. Parasite
‫ب‬ٙ‫ف‬١ٕ‫ؼ رق‬٠‫ٌه ٕ٘ب ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ األعّبء‬ٜ‫اؽذ ِٓ ٘ز‬ٚ ‫ت ٌه‬١‫غ‬٠ ٓ‫ِّى‬ٚ ‫اٌخّبئش‬ٚ ‫بد‬٠‫ش ِٓ اٌفطش‬١‫ب رؼز‬١٘

347. TORCH means

a. Pathogenes cause abortion
b. Toxoplasma
c. Roubella
d. Cytomegalovirus
e. Herpes
f. ALL
‫ ٘زا األخزقبس‬ٕٝ‫ؼ ِؼ‬٠‫ٌه ٕ٘ب ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ِؼٕبح‬
TORCH=toxo plasma Roubella Cytomeglovirus Herpes

348. Poikilocytosis is:

a. Variation in red cell size
b. Variation in red cell color
c. Variation in red cell shape
95
 d. None of the abov
ً‫ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لج‬

349. Food poisoning caused by

a. Closteridium tetani
b. E.coli
c. Cambylobacter
d. Closteridium perfringens
َ‫ رغجت رغُّ اٌطؼب‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
َ‫ْ رغُّ ٌٍطؼب‬ٍّٛ‫ؼ‬٠ ٓ١‫ئ‬١‫خ ؽ‬١‫ف‬ٚ
1- Salmonalle
2- Clostridium perfringens

350. Anti diuretic hormone will secret from posterior pituitary gland
a. Decrease urine volum
b. Increase urine volum
c. Decrease sugar volum
d. Decrease protein volum
ًّ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫خ ا‬١ِ‫ ِٓ اٌغذِخ إٌخب‬ٟ‫ٌه اٌغضء اٌخٍف‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ي‬ٛ‫مًٍ ؽغُ اٌج‬٠

351. Blood plasma consists of

a. 90 % Water and 10 % other component
b. 10 % Water and 90 % other component
c. 50 % Water and 50 % other component
d. 99% water and 1 % other component

352. Arterial blood for

a. Blood chemical
b. Hormones
c. Blood gases
d. Enzyme
96
 ‫ذ‬٠‫س‬ٌٛ‫ ٔغؾت دَ دائٓ ٔغؾت ِٓ ا‬ٟ‫ف اؽٕب ٌّٓ ٔغ‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬
َ‫ غبصاد اٌذ‬ٝ‫جم‬٠ ْ‫بْ ارا وب‬٠‫اؽذ فمو ٔغؾت ِٓ اٌؾش‬ٚ ‫ ؽبٌخ‬ٟ‫ٌىٓ ف‬

َ‫ظ غبصاد اٌذ‬١‫ ٔم‬ٟ‫ ؽبٌخ ٔج‬ٟ‫بْ ٔغؾت ِٕخ فمو ف‬٠‫ اٌؾش‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

329. The API 20E system used in identification of enterobacteriacae

consider a……….… Methods
a. Genetics
b. Biochemical
c. Immune
d. Serological

330. Pelger-Huet anomaly in neutrophil character by

a. Hyposegmented=‫ب‬ٍّٙ‫مًٍ ػ‬٠ٚ ‫ؿ‬ٛ‫مًٍ اٌفق‬٠
b.
c. Hypersegment
d. Toxic granules
e. ALL
‫ؼ خقبئقخ‬٠‫ً ا‬١‫ ف‬ٚ‫زش‬١ٌٕ‫ت ا‬١‫ق‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ساص‬ٌٛ‫ٌه اٌّشك ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ؿ‬ٛ‫مًٍ اٌفق‬٠
‫شح فؼ‬١‫ؿ وض‬ٛ‫ب فق‬ٙ١‫ً ف‬١‫ ف‬ٚ‫زش‬١ٌٕ‫اؽٕب لٍٕب ِٓ لجً اْ ا‬
‫ٍخ‬١ٍ‫ب ل‬ٙ١‫ؿ ف‬ٛ‫ اٌفق‬ٍٟ‫خ‬٠ ‫٘زا اٌّشك‬
‫مؾذ‬ٚ ‫بسة‬٠

331. Lamb in Flow cytometry

a. Halogen
b. Light
c. Laser
d. Electrons
‫ عبء ٔفظ ٘زا اٌغؤاي ٌىٓ لبي‬ٌٛ
Lamb in spectro photometer=halogen
‫بص‬ٙ‫ؼ اعُ اٌغ‬٠‫ف ا‬ٛ‫ أزجخ ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

332. Which of the following factor affect on erythropoises

97
 a. Folic acid
b. Vitamin B12
c. Hypoxia
d. All
‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء‬٠‫غ اٌىش‬١ٕ‫ رق‬ٍٝ‫اًِ رؤصش ػ‬ٛ‫غ ٘زح اٌؼ‬١ّ‫ع‬

333. Number of light chain in Antibodies

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

334. Tubes used in sugar analysis

a. Brown
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Green
‫بص‬ٙ‫ ع‬ٟ‫ ٔغزخذِخ ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ ة ا‬ٛ‫األٔج‬ٚ ٞ‫ّغزش‬١‫بص اٌى‬ٙ‫ ع‬ٟ‫ٔؼشف اْ اٌغىش ٔؾٍٍخ ف‬
ٓ٠‫جبس‬١٘ ‫خ‬١‫ف‬ٚ ‫ٔخ اخنش‬ٌٛ ٜ‫غّزش‬١‫اٌى‬

335. All the following related to immune assay except

a. ELISA
b. Immuno-flourescence
c. Immuno-diffusion test
d. Immuno- Immunorecipent
‫ً إٌّبػخ ِبػذا‬١ٍ‫ رؾ‬ٟ‫ّخ ف‬ِٙ ً١ٌ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي وً ٘زح اٌزؾب‬ٟ‫ٌه ف‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ء‬ٟ‫ذٔب ثؾ‬١‫ب ِشاػ رف‬ٙٙٔ‫ت ال‬١‫مخ اٌزشع‬٠‫هش‬
‫ء ِشح ِشح‬ٟ‫ ٔفغخ ثىً ؽ‬ٟٔ‫٘زا اٌغؤاي عب‬ٚ
336. Pseudomonas is:
a. large mucous amount
b. Small amount of mucous
c. No mucous
d. None of the above

98
337. N.gonorrehea
a. Gram-negative rods only
b. Oxidase positive only
c. Gram-negative rods and oxdase positive
d. Gram-negative cocci and oxidase positive

338. The following character is TRUE about Pseudomonas

aeruginosa
a. Motile- Oxidase positive - Non-lactose ferment-Gram
negative rods
b. Motile- Oxidase positive -lactose ferment-Gram negative rods
c. Non-Motile – Oxidase positive- Non-lactose ferment-Gram
negative rods
d. Motile- Oxidase Negative- Non-lactose ferment-Gram
Positive rods

339. Stool sample containing Pus due to

a. Amoebic dysentery
b. Bacillary dysentery
c. Giardiasis
d. Ascaris lumbercoid

340. In Blood transfusion we may use

a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potasium
d. Phosphate
‫خ‬١‫ؼ ِّىٓ ٔؼط‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ َ‫ ؽبٌخ رجشع االٔغبْ ٌٍذ‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫ه‬ٛ‫ عّؼ هللا عبء ٘ج‬ٌٛ ‫ؼًّ مشثبد ٌٍمٍت‬٠ ‫ف أخ‬ٚ‫َ الٔخ ِؼش‬ٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫خ ث‬١‫ٔؼط‬
ْ‫ثغجت عؾت اٌذَ ِٓ األٔغب‬

341. The word "decontamination" what of the following meaning is

true
a. Reduction or removal of agents=‫لفخ ػٓ ػٍّخ‬ٛٔ ٚ‫ ِؼٕب٘ب اصاٌخ ا‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
b. Increase toxicity
99
 c. Treat the agents
d. ALL
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ األصاٌخ‬ٟ‫ب ثبألؽّش ِؼٕبح ثبٌؼشث‬ٙ‫ أب ؽذدر‬ٌٍٟ‫ اٌىٍّخ ا‬ٕٝ‫ؼ ِؼ‬٠‫ي ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫لفخ‬ٛٔ

342. All of the following bacteria cell components except

a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Cytoplasm
d. Pilli
e. Mitochondria
‫ب‬٠‫ اٌجىزش‬ٟ‫د ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ‫ش‬١‫ غ‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ٕ٘ب ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ب‬٠‫ٔذس‬ٛ‫و‬ٛ‫ز‬١ٌّ‫ذ ا‬١‫او‬
‫اح‬ٛٔ ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٞٛ‫ب الرؾز‬٠‫ش‬١‫نب اٌجىز‬٠‫ا‬ٚ

343. Adeno virus is:

a. RNA genome
b. Double shield capsule
c. DNA virus
‫لبي ٌه‬ٚ ‫ عبة ٌه‬ٌٛ
Areno=RNA
‫ ٔفظ األخزقبس‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
ٞ‫ أ‬ٟٔ‫ اس ا‬ٕٛ٠‫اس‬
ْ‫ ا‬ٞ‫ أ‬ٞ‫ د‬ٕٛ٠‫اد‬
Adeno=DNA
Areno=RNA

344. Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized by

a. The autoclave
b. The oven
c. Filteration
d. Bunsen burne
‫ٍف‬١‫ و‬ٛ‫ز‬٠‫خ اال‬١‫ب ف‬ّٙ‫ء ػؾبْ ٔؼم‬ٟ‫ؼ افنً ؽ‬٠‫خ ا‬٠‫ش‬١‫ٌه اٌّضسػخ اٌجىز‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫خ‬٠‫ش‬١‫ُ اٌّضاسع اٌجىز‬١‫ رؼم‬ٟ‫ء ف‬ٟ‫اؽغٓ ؽ‬

100
345. Eye swab cultur in
a. MaCconky
b. CLED
c. Chocolate
d. XLD
‫الرخ‬ٛ‫و‬ٛ‫عو اٌؾ‬ٌٛ‫ ا‬ٍٝ‫ب ػ‬ٙ‫ٓ ٔضسػ‬٠‫ٓ أ‬١‫ٌه اٌّغؾخ ِٓ اٌؼ‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ي‬ٛ‫أذ ل‬
‫خالؿ‬ٚ ‫الرخ‬ٛ‫و‬ٛ‫ٓ رؾت اٌؾ‬١‫اٌؼ‬

346. HIV Transmitted by

a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Semen
d. Body fluid
e. All
‫وً ٘زا‬ٚ ‫اٌغٕظ‬ٚ ً‫ائ‬ٛ‫اٌغ‬ٚ َ‫ك اٌذ‬٠‫ٕزمً ػٓ هش‬٠ ‫ذاص‬٠‫ف اْ ِشك األ‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬
‫ش فؼ‬١‫ق‬٠
347. The following index sensitive and will measure the of iron
deficiency anemia:
a. Transferen
b. Feretin
c. TIBC
d. HB Concentration
e. ALL of above

348. Erythropoietin secreted from

a. Kidney
b. liver
c. Stomach
d. Brain

349. B hemolytic
a. S.pyogens
b. S.agalactia
c. S.pneumonia
101
 d. A and B

350. Heprenized syringe use to collect __________ sample

a. Synovial
b. CSF
c. Venous =‫ذ‬٠‫س‬ٌٛ‫ا‬
d. Arterial

351. One of these test effected by slight hemolytic

a. Potassium
b. Blood glucose
c. Triglyceride
d. Cholesterol
‫ضص‬٠‫ ال‬ّٛ١٘ ‫ش‬١‫ رىغ‬ٟ‫ وبْ اٌذَ ف‬ٌٛ ‫ب‬ٍّٙ‫ً ِٕمذس ٔؼ‬١ٌ‫خ رؾب‬١‫ف‬
‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء‬٠‫ش ؽك اٌىش‬١‫زأصش ِشح ثبٌزىغ‬٠ َٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫ِضً اٌج‬
‫ب‬ٙ١‫ٕخ ف‬١‫ ػ‬ٟٕ‫ ارا عبر‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠hemolysisi
‫زأصش‬٠ َٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫ب الْ اٌج‬ٙ‫َ أسفن‬ٛ١‫ربع‬ٛ‫ً ث‬١ٍ‫ب رؾ‬ٌٙ ‫هٍت‬ٚ

352. ESR effected by

a. Viscosity
b. Cell shape
c. Anticoagulant
d. All of the above
‫غبس‬٠‫ اال‬ٍٝ‫اًِ رأصش ػ‬ٛ‫وً ٘زا اٌؼ‬

353. Turbidity measured by

a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flam photometer
c. Flowcytometer
d. Nephelometer
‫ي‬ٛ‫خ ل‬١‫ب ف‬ٙ‫غ‬١‫ ٔم‬ٌٍٟ‫بص ا‬ٙ‫ؼ اٌغ‬٠‫ٌه اٌؼىبسح ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
Turbidity-nepholometer

102
‫‪354. Test performs in blood banking lab.‬‬
‫‪a. HBVc Ab‬‬
‫‪b. HBVs Ag‬‬
‫‪c. HBVs Ab‬‬
‫‪d. ALL‬‬
‫اٌغؤاي‬
‫اٌؾ‪ِ ٓ١‬ضال ارا عبٔ‪ ٟ‬رؾٍ‪ ً١‬اٌز‪ٙ‬بة اٌىجذ اٌ‪ٛ‬ثبئ‪ ٟ‬ث‪ٟ‬‬
‫ه‪١‬ت‬
‫ِضال ص‪ ٞ‬اٌؼّبي‬
‫ف‪١‬خ ٔبط ‪٠‬بخز‪ ْٚ‬رطؼ‪ ُ١‬مذ اٌز‪ٙ‬بة اٌىجذ اٌ‪ٛ‬ثبئ‪ ٟ‬ث‪ٟ‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬عغّ‪ ُٙ‬خالؿ ف‪١‬خ أز‪ ٟ‬ثذ‪ٞ‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬ارا ػٍّٕب ٌ‪ ُٙ‬رؾٍ‪ ً١‬اٌز‪ٙ‬بة اٌىجذ اٌ‪ٛ‬ثبئ‪٠ ٟ‬طٍغ ػٕذُ٘ أز‪ ٟ‬ثذ‪ٞ‬‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬غ‪١‬ش دل‪١‬ك ف‪ ٟ‬وؾف اٌّشك‬
‫ٌىٓ ػؾبْ أرأوذ ٍِ‪ ْٛ١‬ثبٌّ‪١‬خ اْ اٌّش‪٠‬ل ِقبة ثبٌز‪ٙ‬بة اٌىجذ اٌ‪ٛ‬ثبئ‪ٝ‬‬
‫الصَ اػٍّخ رؾٍ‪ ً١‬االٔز‪١‬غ‪ٓ١‬‬
‫ارا هٍغ اٌزؾٍ‪ِٛ ً١‬عت ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ِ ٟ‬قبة‬
‫‪ٚ‬ارا عبٌت ‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ ٟ‬غ‪١‬ش ِقبة‬
‫‪٠‬بسة ‪ٚ‬امؼ‬

‫‪355. Hereditary acid‬‬

‫‪a. Fatty acid‬‬
‫‪b. Amino acid‬‬
‫‪c. Folic acid‬‬
‫‪d. Acid alcohol‬‬
‫األؽّبك اٌ‪ٛ‬ساص‪١‬خ ػجبسح ػٓ اؽّبك اِ‪١ٕ١‬خ‬

‫‪356. The most problem in Pregnancy‬‬

‫‪a. Fetus +ve and mother –ve‬‬
‫‪b. Fetus –ve and mother +vel‬‬
‫ٕ٘ب ‪٠‬م‪ٌٛ‬ه ِز‪٠ ٝ‬ق‪١‬ش ِؾىٍخ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌؾًّ‬
‫اٌّؾىٍخ ف‪ ٟ‬اٌؾًّ ارا وبٔذ األَ فق‪ٍ١‬خ دِ‪ٙ‬ب‬
‫‪O‬‬
‫‪ٚ‬وبٔذ ٘‪١‬ب عبٌت ‪ٚ‬اٌطفً ِ‪ٛ‬عت‬
‫‪٠‬ؼٕ‪ِ ٟ‬ز‪ ٝ‬رق‪١‬ش اٌّؾىٍخ ارا وبٔذ االَ ِ‪ٛ‬عت ‪ٚ‬اٌطفً عبٌت‬
‫‪103‬‬
 ‫بك‬ٙ‫ش ىبع‬١‫ق‬٠ٚ ً‫ْ اعغبَ ِنبدح مذ اٌطف‬ٛ‫ى‬٠ٚ ‫ت‬٠‫ء غش‬ٟ‫ؼزجش اٌطفً ؽ‬٠ ‫ب‬ّٙ‫الْ عغ‬
‫ٌٍّشاح‬

357. The XLD color

a. Blue
b. Green
c. Red
d. Yellow

358. Differential test for

a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c. Platelets
d. Blast cell
‫ؼ‬٠‫ ٔؼٍّخ ال‬ٟ‫م‬٠‫ٌه األخزجبس اٌزفش‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫نبء ٔؼٍّخ‬١‫بد اٌذَ اٌج‬٠‫ٌىش‬

359. Bacteria cause scarlet fever

a. Streptococci G.B
b. Streptococci G.A
c. Streptococci G.C
d. Streptococci G.D

360. Streptococci are

a. α-hemolytic
b. β-hemolytic
c. γ-hemolytic
d. ALL

361. Intermediate host of toxoplasma

a. Cat
b. Mice
c. Human
d. Pork
104
 ْ‫ األٔغب‬ٛ٘ ٛ‫وغ‬ٛ‫ اٌز‬ٟ‫و ف‬١‫ع‬ٌٛ‫ اٌؼبئً ا‬ٛ٘ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ف‬
‫ي اٌمطخ‬ٛ‫ ٔم‬ٟ‫بئ‬ٌٕٙ‫ اٌؼبئً ا‬ٛ‫ لٍه ِبػ‬ٌٛ ٓ‫ٌى‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Inter mediate toxoplasma=human
Final host toxoplasma=cat

362. Perianal specimen diagnose

a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Tainia saginata
c. Entrobius vermicularis=‫خ‬١‫ع‬ٛ‫دح اٌذث‬ٚ‫اٌذ‬
d. Enta.histolytica
363. Function of Estrogen:
a. Increase Oogenesis
b. Stimulate contraction of uterus
c. Increase basal metabolic
d. Thyroxin production
ٓ١‫ع‬ٚ‫فخ األعزش‬١‫ظ‬ٚ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫ اٌّشاح‬ٟ‫ل ف‬٠ٛ١‫ذ اٌزج‬٠‫ض‬٠ ‫ف أخ‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬ٚ

364. Safety in the Lab include vaccination of stuff against

a. HAV=ُ١‫خ رطؼ‬١‫ ِف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ َ‫ك اٌطؼب‬٠‫ٕزمً ػٓ هش‬٠
b. HCV= ْ‫ األ‬ٝ‫ُ ؽز‬١‫ىزؾف ٌخ رطؼ‬٠ ٌُ
c. HBV
d. ALL
ٟ‫ُ ِؼ‬ٙ‫٘زا اٌغؤاي اف‬
‫ؼ‬٠‫ُ مذ ا‬١‫ اٌّؼًّ ػؾبْ ِٕقبة ثبألِشاك ٔأخز رطؼ‬ٟ‫ٌه ِٓ األِبْ ف‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ٟ‫ ث‬ٟ‫ثبئ‬ٌٛ‫بة اٌىجذ ا‬ٙ‫ؼ اخزشد اٌز‬١ٌ ‫مؾذ‬ٚٚ

365. Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a
patient's iron stores:
a. Albumin
b. Transferrin
c. Haptoglobin
d. Ferritin
105
 ُ‫ اٌغغ‬ٟ‫ذ اٌّخضْ ف‬٠‫خ اٌؾذ‬١‫ افنً ٌٕغ‬ٟ‫بء رؼط‬١‫ؼ ِٓ ٘زح األؽ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
ٓ١‫ اٌفشر‬ٛ٘

366. One of the following is kidney function

a. sGPT
b. Creatin kinase
c. Acid phosphates
d. Creatinin
ٓ١ٔ‫شرب‬١‫ذ اٌى‬١‫ او‬ٍٝ‫ظبئف اٌى‬ٚ ِٓ ‫ؼزجش‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬

367. One of the following is Cardiac function

a. LDH
b. Acid phosphates
c. Creatinin
‫ذ‬١‫ً رجغ اٌمٍت او‬١ٌ‫ِٓ ِٓ ٘زح اٌزؾب‬
Lactate dehydroganse
368. Increase In thalassemia
a. HbA
b. HbA2
c. HbF
d. HbS
ً‫ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لج‬
369. The main groups in ABO system
a. A-B-O group
b. B-C-D group
c. A-B-H group
d. R- H group

ً‫ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لج‬
370. Different between Entamoba histolytica‫ اسثغ اَىَخ‬and
Entamobia coli‫ثًبٌ اَىَخ‬
a. Cytoplasm
b. Cell wall
c. Number of nucleus
d. Color
106
 ُٕٙ١‫ؼ األخزالف ث‬٠‫ٌه ٕ٘ب ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫خ‬٠ٛٔ‫ ػذد األ‬ٟ‫األخزالف ف‬

371. Different between Salmonella and Shigella

a. Indol test
b. Motility
c. Gram stain
d. Catalase
ٛ‫ع‬ٛ‫ع‬ٚ ٛ‫ؽ‬ٛ‫ٓ ؽ‬١‫ؼ األخزالف ث‬٠‫ٌه ٕ٘ب ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ش ِزؾشوخ‬١‫ؽذح غ‬ٚٚ ‫ؽذح ِزؾشوخ‬ٚ ‫ اٌؾشوخ‬ٟ‫األخزالف ف‬
Salmonella=‫ِزؾشوخ‬
Shigella=‫ش ِزؾشوخ‬١‫غ‬

372. Which of the following is responsible for humoral response:

a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. B lymphocytes
d. Monocytes
ً‫ؽشؽزخ ِٓ لج‬

373. Largest cells in blood film

a. Monocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Eosinophil
‫ب‬١٘ ُ‫ اٌؾغ‬ٟ‫ء ف‬ٟ‫ ؽ‬ٟ‫ً اوجش ف‬١ٌ‫خ ا‬١ٍ‫ؼ اٌخ‬٠‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ ٘زا اٌغؤاي‬ٟ‫ ف‬monocytes
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ً‫ب ِٓ لج‬ٙ‫ش اٌؼذد لٍز‬١‫ء ِٓ ؽ‬ٟ‫ اوضش ؽ‬ٌٍٟ‫خ ا‬١ٍ‫ؼ اٌخ‬٠‫ ا‬ٜ‫فخ عؤاي اخش‬ٚ
Monocytes= ُ‫ش اٌؾغ‬١‫ء ِٓ ؽ‬ٟ‫اوضش ؽ‬
Neutrophils=%55 ٌٝ‫ ا‬%40 ِٓ ‫ب‬ٙ‫لٍٕب اْ ٔغجز‬ٚ ‫ش اٌؼذد‬١‫ء ِٓ ؽ‬ٟ‫اوضش ؽ‬
374. Haemocytometer used in counting
a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c. Platelets
d. Semen
107
 e. ALL
‫ٔؼذح‬ٚ ‫ؼ ٔمذس ٔغزخذِخ‬٠‫ؾخ اٌؼذ ا‬٠‫ ؽش‬ٟ‫ي ن ٕ٘ب ف‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ؾخ اٌؼذ‬٠‫ ؽش‬ٍٝ‫بء ٔمذس ٔؼذ٘ب ػ‬١‫وً ٘زح األؽ‬
‫ِبػذا‬
Lympocytes

375. Media contain blood, hematin and DNA

a. Blood agar
b. MaCconky
c. Chocolate agar
d. XLD

376. Toxoplasma gondii diagnostic from

a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Blood
d. CSF

377. We can detect Shigella from

a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Body fluid
d. Stool
ُ‫ اٌجشاص اوشِى‬ٟ‫ب ف‬ٕٙ‫بي ػؾبْ وزا ساػ ٔؾىف ػ‬ٙ‫ رغجت اع‬ٛ‫ؽ‬ٛ‫لٍٕب لجً اْ اٌؾ‬
‫هللا‬

378. All the following microscopic structure except

a. Ocular lenses
b. Objective lenses
c. Stage
d. Wavelength adjustment

379. Neutrophil characters by

a. Neutrophil low alkaline phosphates
b. Neutrophil normal alkaline phosphates
108
 c. Neutrophil high alkaline phosphates
d. All of the above

380. Serum is plasma without

a. Lipid
b. Cholesterol
c. Fibrinogen
d. Fibrin
381. For lipid investigation measure
a. LDL, TG and HDL
b. Albumen
c. LDH
d. ALL

382. Enzyme related to liver

a. Amalyse
b. Albumin
c. ALT, AST
d. Prothrombin

383. One of the following is electrolyte

a. Na
b. Urea
c. Glucose
d. Albumin

384. Media used in antibiotic sensitivity

a. MaCconky
b. Blood agar
c. CLED
d. Muellen Hinton

385. Parasite in stool

a. Malaria
b. Trypanosoma
109
 c. Schistosoma
d. Leishmania

386. Catalyse negative ,Optichin positive bacteria

a. Staph aureus
b. S.pyogenes
c. S.pneumonia
d. S.agalactia
387. CAMP is confirmatory test for
a. Streptococcus Group A
b. Streptococcus Group B
c. Streptococcus agalactia
d. B and c
ٓ١ٌّ ‫ذ‬١‫ٌه ٕ٘ب وبِت اخزجبس رأو‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫ٌه‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ أزجخ رٍخجو‬ٟٔ‫ٌىٓ ِّىٓ عؤاي صب‬
‫ ٘زا األخزقبس‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ‫ؼ‬٠‫ا‬
CMP=14 chemical test
‫اؽذ‬ٚ ‫ ؽشف‬ٟ‫ف األخزالف ف‬ٛ‫ ؽ‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ء أزجخ‬ٟ‫٘زا ؽ‬ٚ ‫ء‬ٟ‫٘زا ؽ‬

388. Normal person,with healthy condition but Ketone bodies appear

in his Urine due to
a. Drugs
b. Prolonged fast
c. None restricted food
d. UTI
‫ذي‬٠ ‫ ِبرا‬ٍٝ‫ي ػ‬ٛ‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫ْ ف‬ٛ‫ش األعز‬ٙ‫ظ‬ٚ ‫ش اٌقؾخ‬١‫ ِٓ ؽ‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ي أغبْ هج‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ُ٠‫ذ اٌؾخـ فب‬١‫او‬
ْٛ‫اعز‬ٚ ْٛ‫ز‬١‫ي و‬ٛ‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫طٍغ ف‬٠ ُ‫الٔخ لجً لٍٕب ارا ؽخـ فبئ‬

389. Reject Blood donor if:-

a. Temperature more than 38.5
b. Blood pressure120/80
c. Heart pulse rate 72/min
‫ذ‬١‫ ٔفشك اٌؾخـ ِٓ اٌزجشع ثبٌذَ ارا وبٔذ دسعخ ؽشاسرخ ِشرفؼخ او‬ٝ‫ِز‬
110
390. Methylen blue component of
a. Leishman stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Sudan black
d. Gram stain

391. Bacterial growth depend on growth of other bacteria in media

a. Satillitism ‫خ األػزّبد‬١‫=خبف‬
b. Antagonism
c. Degradiation
d. CoFactor
ٜ‫ب اخش‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ثىز‬ٍٝ‫ ؽمخ ػ‬ٌّٕٛ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ؼزّذ ف‬٠ ٞ‫ش‬١‫ ثىز‬ّٛٔ ‫ي‬ٛ‫م‬٠
‫خ‬١‫ؼ اعُ ٘زح اٌخبف‬٠‫ا‬
‫خ األػزّبد‬١‫ب خبف‬ّٙ‫اع‬
392. AB father and B mother give phenotype except
a. A
b. AB
c. B
d. O
ٟ‫ ث‬ٞ‫ٍزخ أ‬١‫ٌه األة فق‬ٛ‫م‬٠
ٟ‫ب ث‬ٙ‫ٍز‬١‫االَ فق‬ٚ
ٌُٙ‫ اهفب‬ٟ‫ً رطٍغ ف‬١‫ ِغزؾ‬ٌٍٟ‫ٍخ ا‬١‫ؼ اٌفق‬٠‫ا‬
‫ذ‬١‫او‬
0

393. Blood collect in anticoagulant tub should be

a. Gently mix
b. Clot
c. Hemolysis
d. Put in water bath 5 min
ًّ‫ؼ ٔؼ‬٠‫ب ِبدح ِبٔؼخ ٌٍزغً ا‬ٙ١‫ثخ ف‬ٛ‫ أج‬ٟ‫اؽٕب ٌّٓ ٔؾو اٌذَ ف‬
‫اد رخزٍو ِغ ثؼل‬ٌّٛ‫ ِىظ ػؾبْ ا‬ٞٛ‫ذ ٔؼًّ خٍو ؽ‬١‫او‬

394. AML different from ALL in

111
 Bleeding and Purpura
a. More Increased WBCs
b. Granule neutrophile
c. Auer rods

395. CPDA anticoagulant to store blood for :

a. 45
b. 21
c. 10
d. 35
‫فُخ عؤانٍُ يهًٍُ هُب‬
‫نى قبل‬
CPDA=‫ َىو‬53 ‫تخضٌ فُهب يذح‬
SAGM=‫ َىو‬53 ‫تخضٌ فُهب يذح‬

396. Blood collect in anticoagulant tube should be:

a. Hemolysis
b. Not gently mix
c. Not cloted
e. Put in water bath 5 min
‫زغٍو‬٠ ‫ اْ اٌذَ ِشاػ‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ب ِبدح ِبٔؼخ ٌٍزغٍُ ِٓ اٌطج‬ٙ١‫ثخ ف‬ٛ‫ أج‬ٟ‫مؼٕب اٌذَ ف‬ٚ

397. The colonies of Mycobacteria in Lowenstein Jensen medium

a. Rough ,pale color
b. Smoth .black
c. Yellow brown
d. Raised , dry cream

398. Zile-Neelsen stain for staining

a. Mycobacteria
b. E.coli
c. Corynebacterium diphteria
d. Salmonella
399. All are blood function except :
112
 a. Hormone production
b. Oxygen transport
c. Wast transport
d. Neutrient absorbtion
e. Buffer system
‫ظبئف اٌذَ ِبػذا‬ٚ ِٓ ‫بء‬١‫وً ٘زٖ األؽ‬
ِْٛ‫ٕزظ ٘ش‬١ِ ‫ اٌغُ افال‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠ ِْٛ‫ش‬ٌٙ‫أزبط ا‬
َ‫ظ اٌذ‬١ٌٚ ‫ب اٌغذد‬١٘ ‫ٔبد‬ِٛ‫ش‬ٌٙ‫ٕزظ ا‬٠ ٌٍٟ‫ا‬

400. The (u) unit use to evaluation?

a. Protein in serum
b. Hemoglobin
c. Hormone assay
d. Enzymatic activity

401. A semen specimen , contain source of the spermatozoa energy is

a. Glucose
b. Mannose
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose
‫َقىنك اَش انغكش انًىجىد فٍ انغبئم انًُىي انهٍ َؼطُخ انُشبط هى انفشكتىص‬

402. During reaction of 2 chemical substances , the color produced

asses by :
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flame photometer
c. ELISA
d. PCR
‫بص ٔأخزح‬ٙ‫ٓ ٘زا صبٌش ع‬١‫اٌؾ‬
ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
Spectrophotometer= chemical substances
Flam photometer=electrolyte
ELISA=‫عبد‬ٚ‫ش‬٠‫اٌفب‬ٚ ‫ٔبد‬ِٛ‫ش‬ٌٙ‫ا‬

113
403. Non streptococci:
a. S.pyogenes
b. S.agalatiate
c. S.aureus
d. S.pneumonia

404. HIVand Hepatitis transmited by

a. Blood
b. Urin
c. Body fluid
d. All of above

405. Bacteria arranged in chinese litters?

a. C.diphteriae
b. E,coli
c. Salmonella
d. Staph.aureus

406. Autoclave sterilize in.

a. 121c-20 min
b. 125-35 min
c. 115-35 min
‫ٍف‬١‫ و‬ٛ‫ز‬٠‫بص األ‬ٙ‫ُ ع‬١‫ٌه وُ دسعخ ؽشاسح رؼم‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
d. 160c-45-60 min

407. Media use fo differentiate between L.F and N.L.F?

a. MacConkey agar
b. Chocolate
c. Blood agar
d. XLD
e. TCBS

114
408. Lactos (+ ) , Indol (+) , MR (+ ) , VP (-) , citrate (-) are
a. Escherichia
b. Klebsiella
c. Salmonella
d. Nessiria

409. Which of the following organism is Gram positive anaerobic

bacterium?
a. Clostiriduium spp
b. Haemophilus
c. E.coli
d. Yersinia enteroclitica

410. Salmonella causes.

a. Food poisoning
b. Scarlet fever
c. Pharyngitis
d. Whoping couph
َ‫ال رغجت رغُّ اٌطؼب‬١ٌّٔٛ‫لٍٕب لجً اٌغب‬

411. All the following can be done by hemocytometer except

a. RBCs
b. Semen
c. Lymphocyte
d. Total White blood cells
ً‫ؽشؽزخ لج‬

412. To fixation of thin blood film we can used

a. Aceton
b. Acitic acid
c. Acid –alchol
115
 d. Not fixe
‫ء‬ٟ‫ي ؽ‬ٚ‫ؼ ٔغزخذَ\ا‬٠‫غ ا‬١‫ ٔضجذ اٌذَ اٌشف‬ٟ‫ٌّٓ ٔغ‬
‫ي‬ٛ‫ٓ وؾ‬٠‫ثؼذ‬ٚ ‫ذ‬١‫اع‬
‫ضجذ‬٠‫ً ال‬١‫ لٍه اٌذَ اٌضم‬ٌٛ ٓ‫ٌى‬
‫ف ٔمذس ٔضجزخ‬١‫ اٌذَ اٌخف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫ً ِٕمذس ٔضجزخ‬١‫ٌىٓ اٌذَ اٌضم‬

413. Scotch-tap test used for

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Ancylostoma duodenal
c. Trichuris tricura
d. Taenia saginata
e. Enterobius vermicularis

414. The media can growth some bacteria and inhibition another
bacteria is
a. Basic media
b. Diffrentioal media
c. Sellective media
d. Enriched media,
ٜ‫ب أخش‬٠‫ ثىزش‬ّٕٛ‫غّؼ ث‬٠‫ٌىٓ ال‬ٚ ‫ب‬٠‫ش‬١‫ ثؼل اٌجىز‬ّٕٛ‫غّؼ ث‬٠ ٌٟ‫عو ا‬ٌٛ‫ٌه ا‬ٛ‫م‬٠ ‫ٕ٘ب‬
‫بس‬١‫خ األخز‬١‫ ٘زح خبف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
‫د‬ّٛ‫خ ر‬١ٔ‫اٌضب‬ٚ ّٕٛ‫ؽذح ر‬ٚ ٍٟ‫خ‬٠ ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

415. Viruses is
a. Can live by their own
b. Can not see by light microscope
c. Can not affected by antibiotic
d. Can not transport by communicable diseases

‫ؼ‬١‫ اٌقؾ‬ٛ٘ ‫٘زا‬ٚ ‫خ‬٠ٛ١‫عبد الرزأصش ثبٌّنبدد اٌؾ‬ٚ‫ش‬٠‫ اٌفب‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

‫ئء‬ٛ‫ش اٌن‬ٙ‫ب رؾذ اٌّغ‬ٙ‫ف‬ٛ‫غ اْ ٔؾ‬١‫وّبْ الٔغزط‬ٚ
‫ٓ فؼ‬١ٕ‫خ ار‬١‫ ف‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠
116
416. Normal value of Lymphocyte
a. 55%
b. 25%
c. 70%
d. 10%

417. We can different gram –ve bacteria and gram +ve bacteria by
a. Capsule
b. Cytoplasm
c. Cell wall
d. Cell membrain

418. Antigen In O Positive person

a. No presence of Ab
b. No presence of Ag
c. No Presence of Ab and Ag
419. Which normaly presence in urin analysis
a. Protein
b. Billrubin
c. Chloride
d. Glucose
‫س‬ٍٛ‫ذ اٌى‬١‫ي او‬ٛ‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫ ٔشاح ف‬ٌٍٟ‫ ا‬ٟ‫ؼ‬١‫ء اٌطج‬ٟ‫ؼ اٌؾ‬٠‫ا‬
‫خ ِشك‬١‫ح ف‬ٛٔ‫ي اػشف ا‬ٛ‫ اٌج‬ٟ‫ ارا ؽفزخ ف‬ٜ‫بء األخش‬١‫ٌىٓ األؽ‬

420. Rh negative patient means he dose not have

a. E antigen
b. D antigen
c. B antigen
d. C antigen
e. None of the above

421. In O blood group the Ab in serum is

a. Anti A and B
b. Anti A
c. Anti B
117
 d. Non A and B
e. All of the above

422. It's one of the tape worms

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Ancylostoma duodenal
c. Trichuris tricura
d. Taenia saginata

423. Immune system can called Adaptive system or

a. Lympohocyte system
b. Acquired system
c. Lympohocyte-immune system
d. Natural system

424. One is not true about acid:

a. Proton donor
b. Turn litmus paper to blue
c. Sour taste
d. React with alkaline to give water and salt

425. Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone

amount in the laboratories
a. Spectrophotometry
b. Flamphotometer
c. Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA)
d. PCR

426. Gram positive chain

a. Streptococci
b. Staphyllococci
c. Gonococci
d. Meningococci
118
 ٛ‫ئخ عٍغٍخ األعزشثز‬١٘ ٍٝ‫ب ػ‬ٙٔ‫لٍٕب لجً ا‬

427. One is gram-ve motile rod aerobic and oxidase possitve

a. E.coli
b. Proteus
c. Pseudomonas
d. Salmonella

428. Organism can live and affect urinary tract or vagina

a. Toxoplasma
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. All of the above

429. In blood group use:-

a. Know cell with unkown serum
b. Unkown cell with kown serum
c. Know cell with unkown cell
430. Anigen and Anti-body can bind on
a. Ag on RBCs and Ab on plasma
b. Ab on RBCs and Ag in Plasma
c. Ag on RBCs and Ag in Plasma
ٟ‫بد اٌذَ اٌؾّشاء ٌىٓ األٔز‬٠‫ وش‬ٍٝ‫ اٌذاخً ػ‬ٟ‫د ف‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫ى‬٠ ٓ١‫ف اْ االٔزغ‬ٚ‫ِؼش‬
‫د ػٍغطؼ اٌجالصِب‬ٛ‫ع‬ِٛ ْٛ‫ىى‬٠ ٞ‫ثذ‬
d. ALL

431. E-coli
a. Motile
b. indole +ve
c. lactose fermetive
d. produce gas and acid
e. All above

432. Which of the following required for culture:

a. Water
119
 b. Minerals
c. Vitamins
d. All the above
‫عو‬ٌٛ‫ ا‬ٌّٕٛ ‫خ‬٠‫س‬ٚ‫بء مش‬١‫خ وً ٘زح األؽ‬١ٍ‫ ٔضسع ػ‬ٟ‫ ٔج‬ٌٍٟ‫عو ا‬ٌٍٛ ‫ ٔؾزبعخ‬ٌٍٟ‫ؼ ا‬٠‫ا‬

433. The antibiotic disc which differentiate between group A

streptococci and other groups is?
a. Neomycin
b. Tetracycline
c. Bacitracin
d. CAMP

434. Amoeba stained by

a. Gram stain
b. Geisma
c. Iodine eosin stain
d. Leishman

435. Infective stage of hook worms

a. Larva
b. Egg
c. Cyst
d. Metacercaria
e. Cercaria

436. In serial dilution if folded 2 tube the dilute in number 6 is

a. 1/32
b. 1/64
c. 1/128
d. 1/256
‫ ٔغخزخ‬ٜ‫ إٌّزذ‬ٟ‫اد ف‬ٛ‫ؽذح ِٓ اخ‬ٚ ٍٝ‫ ػ‬ٞ‫٘زا سد‬
‫شىفٍ اٌ عؤال َجُكٍ ػٍ انتخفُف اَب صشادخ ػًهت طشَقخ ودفظتهب يٍ خالنهب دم هزح‬
‫األعئهخ وجبتٍُ فٍ انهُئخ عؤانٍُ ثهزح انطشَقخ‬

120
 5 ‫اط‬2 ٍ‫ تذط‬3 ‫ارا جبكٍ عؤال يثال‬
3 ‫اط‬2 ٍ‫ تذط‬6 ٍ‫وارا جبك‬
6 ‫ اط‬2 ٍ‫ تذط‬7 ٍ‫وارا جبك‬
7 ‫ اط‬2 ٍ‫ تقىن‬8 ٍ‫وارا جبك‬
‫وهكزا َبسة تكىٍَ فهًتٍ ػهُب‬
ٍ‫اَب ػًهت َفظ هزح انطشَقخ وَطهغ انذم صخ انذًذهلل وتقذسٌ تتأكذٌ اَتٍ كًبٌ ػشبٌ تشتبد‬
‫اَخ انذم صخ وأَت اػًهى انطشَقه هزٌ وساح َطهغ انذم انصذُخ ثبرٌ هللا‬

437. In serial dilution if folded 2 tube the dilute in number 8 is

a. 1/32
b. 1/64
c. 1/128
d. 1/256

438. Media for coryenbacterium is

a. Loffler serum
b. Lewisjensen media
c. Blood media
d. CLED media

439. Factor of hemophilia A

a. VIII
b. VI
c. X
d. XI
‫خ‬١ّٕ‫ ص‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

440. Shegilla ssp is not

a. H2S Negativ
b. Oxidase Positive
c. Urease negative
d. Citrate negative
e. Lactose negative

121
441. Lamp used in spectrophotometer
a. Halogen
b. Laser
c. Ions
d. Light

442. Leishmania transmitted by

a. Sand fly
b. Anophles
c. Tse tse
d. Mice
ًِ‫دح اٌش‬ٚ‫ك اد‬٠‫ؼ رٕزمً ػٓ هش‬٠‫ك ا‬٠‫ػٓ هش‬

443. Liver enzymes related to

a. AIDS
b. Hepatitis
c. Herps
d. Influnza
ٟ‫ثبئ‬ٌٛ‫بة اٌىجذ ا‬ٙ‫ب ػالصخ ثبٌز‬ٌٙ ‫ذ‬١‫ّبد اٌى‬٠‫أض‬

444. Enzyme related to myocardial disease

a. CK-MB
b. ALT
c. AST
d. ALP

445. Coombs test used for

a. Auto antibodies on surfase RBCs
b. Antigene RBCs
c. Antibodies in serum
122
 d. Antigene on Cells
446. False in OGGT because
a. The patient restrict carbohydrate intake in the days or weeks before the test.
b. The test done during an illness
c. A full adult dose given to a person weighing less than 43 kg (94 lb),
d. exaggerated glucoses
e. ALL

447. Urine analysis related to

a. Liver
b. Kidny
c. Heart
d. Stomach

448. Etiology of increased neutrophil

a. Bacterial infection
b. Allergy
c. Parasitic infection
d. Viral infection

449. Treponema palladium is the cause of :

a. T.B
b. Gonorrhea
c. Syphilis
d. AIDS

450. Monospot test is done to diagnose

a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Scarlet fever
c. Reumatic fever
d. AIDs

451. Prolactin in female

a. Milk hormone
b. Oogenisis hormones
c. Leutinizing hormones
123
 d. Steroid Hormones

452. Vi Ag related to
a. Capsul
b. Somatic
c. Flagella

453. Which of the following enzyme detect in the condition liver and
bone disease:
a. Alkaline phosphatase(ALP)
b. AST
c. ALT
d. GGT

454. Use to determined Kidney function

a. Creatinin
b. Amylase
c. Transaminases
d. Creatin kinase

455. Test to detect whether red blood cells are more likely to break
down.
a. Spherocytosis
b. Osmatic fragility
c. CBC
d. Coombs test

456. Which of the following enzyme detect in the condition liver and
heart disease:
a. Alkaline phosphatase(ALP)
b. AST
c. ALT
d. GGT

ْ‫ي أ‬ٛ‫ ٔم‬ٟٕ‫ؼ‬٠

124
‫خبفخ ثبٌىجذ ‪ٚ‬اٌمٍت =‪AST‬‬
‫خبفخ ثبٌىجذ ‪ٚ‬اٌؼظبَ=‪ALP‬‬
‫خبفخ ثبٌىجذ فمو=‪ALT‬‬

‫‪125‬‬