Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

NO. Question Option_1 Option_2 Option_3 Option_4

The temperature of the gases within

the cylinder of a four stroke engine
1. during the power stroke will: Be constant. Decrease. Increase. Follow Charles's Law.
The mixture changes from rich
The explosion pushes the to weak forward of the flame Complete combustion occurs Temperature and pressure
2. When the spark ignites the mixture: piston down. front. within 8 to 10 microseconds. increase within the cylinder.
stay the same for all
With an increase in outside air temperatures up to and
temperature, specific fuel including 15°C and thereafter
3. consumption will: Increase. Decrease. stay the same. increase.
Combustion, in a four stroke engine,
4. theoretically occurs at: A constant pressure. A constant temperature. A constant volume. A constant velocity.
The temperature of the gases The volume of the gases The mass of the mixture The mass of the mixture
5. During the compression stroke: remains constant. increases. decreases. remains constant.
The action of the exhaust gases The action of the exhaust
flowing past the exhaust valve The temperature of the gases flowing out past the
increases the pressure within exhaust gases increases the exhaust valve tends to reduce The crankshaft is moving past
6. During the period of valve overlap: the cylinder. mass of incoming mixture. the pressure in the cylinder. Bottom Dead Centre.
The power output of an internal
combustion engine can be increased Increasing the area of the Increasing the length of the
7. by: cylinder. stroke. Increasing the engine R.P.M. All of the above.
Between the camshaft and the Between the pushrods and the Between the crankshaft and Between the connecting rod
8. A reduction gear is fitted: propeller. valves. propeller. and the crankshaft.
The crankshaft of an `in line' four Rotates at half the speed of the Will have the crank throws Allows a firing order of 1-3-4-
9. cylinder aircraft engine: camshaft. spaced 90 degrees apart. 2. Will not flex or twist.
Two valve springs are fitted to each
10. valve: To minimise camshaft wear. To allow a greater cam rise. To prevent valve rotation. To reduce valve bounce.
Piston rings are manufactured from Because it has a negative To take advantage of its Because of its self lubricating To take advantage of its
11. cast iron: coefficient of expansion. extreme malleability. qualities. brittleness.
Are opened directly by the Are less affected by the heat Are opened by the valve sometimes have their stems
12. The exhaust valves: action of push rods which are of combustion than the inlet springs and closed by the partly filled with sodium to
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in turn operated by cams on valves. rocker gear. assist cooling.

the crankshaft.
A normally aspirated engine is one
13. which: Has four cylinders. Is not supercharged. Is never air cooled. Is all of the above.
The Compression Ratio of an engine swept volume + clearance swept volume + clearance Total volume - clearance swept volume - (swept
14. may be defined as the: volume - swept volume. volume - clearance volume. volume - clearance volume. volume + clearance volume).
Is the inability of the internal
combustion engine to use any Becomes greater as the Is the weight of fuel used by
fuel other than that specified efficiency of the engine an engine per unit horse Increases in proportion to the
15. Specific Fuel Consumption (S.F.C ) by the manufacturer. improves. power per unit time. thermal efficiency.
Theoretical power in the Power required to slow the
16. Brake Horsepower is: cylinder. Useful power at the propeller. Power lost in the engine. aircraft down.
A method of improving "Volumetric
17. Efficiency" is: Valve overlap. The use of carburettor heat. Weakening the mixture. To make the mixture richer.
The specific fuel consumption of a less than the turbo prop more than the pulse jet
18. turbojet engine is:- more than the turbofan engine engine more than the ramjet engine engine
Oil returning to the oil tank is filtered A micron size multi-bore
19. by: The oil pressure filter. The oil tank filter. filters assembly. The scavenge filter.
At take off Cowl flaps should be
20. selected: Fully closed to decrease drag. Open Partially closed Fully closed to increase drag.
When the ignition switch is placed in Makes the engine starter `Earths' or `grounds' the Breaks the primary to earth
21. the `ON' position it: Isolates the breaker points. motor circuit. secondary winding. circuit.
Voltage from the secondary Voltage from the magneto Voltage from the secondary
Voltage from the primary winding to the primary secondary winding to the winding to the contact
22. The distributor directs: winding to the spark plug. winding. spark plug. breaker.
In a complex engine as RPM increases
23. the ignition timing may be: Advanced. Retarded. Not altered. Only retarded.
The Octane rating of a fuel is
determined by comparison with
24. mixtures of: Methane and orthodentine. Heptane and iso octane. Methane and iso octane. Heptane and orthodentine.
Heat energy required to raise
Heat energy required to raise the temperature of the fuel to
Kinetic energy contained within the temperature of the fuel to its boiling point from absolute
25. The calorific value of a fuel is the: it. Heat energy in the fuel. its boiling point. zero.
Pre-ignition refers to the condition A rich mixture is ignited by the The spark plug ignites the The mixture is ignited by The mixture burns in the inlet
26. when: spark plug. mixture too early. abnormal conditions within manifold.
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the cylinder before the

normal ignition point.
Flame Rate is the term used to The mixture burns within the The combustion pressure rises Peroxide forms within the Fulminates form with the
27. describe the speed at which: cylinder. within the cylinder. cylinder. cylinder.
An air/fuel ratio of 9:1 would be
28. considered: Chemically correct. Extravagant. Rich. Weak.
The mixture must be
Because of the reduction in the The mixture control must be The throttle must close progressively richened to
density of the atmosphere associated moved towards the weak progressively to maintain the compensate for the power The octane rating of the fuel
29. with an increase in altitude: position. best air/fuel ratio. loss. must be increased.
30. A chemically correct mixture is: 15:1 (fuel : air) 15:1 (air: fuel) 13:1 (fuel : air) 13:1 (air: fuel)
While weakening the mixture from
the chemically correct mixture the
31. EGT will Increase Decrease Decrease then increase Increase then decrease
Which of the following mixtures
theoretically would produce the
32. maximum RPM? 14:1 (air : fuel) 14:1 (fuel: air) 15:1 (fuel : air) 15:1 (air: fuel)
A weak mixture is used for which of
33. the following? take off climbing engine starting cruising
Initially increases as the
The pressure in the induction throttle is opened but
manifold of a normally aspirated Remains constant as the Decreases as the throttle is decreases after approximately Increases as the throttle is
34. engine: throttle is opened. opened. the half open position. opened.
The R.P.M., the throttle
The fuel flow to a piston engine will The R.P.M. and the throttle position and the mixture The R.P.M. and the mixture
35. vary according to: position only. setting. setting only. The R.P.M. only.
Control the mixture strength
The primary function of a diffuser in a over part of the engine speed Vent air from the float Emulsify the fuel during Enable adjustment of the
36. carburettor is to: range. chamber. engine acceleration. engine slow running speed.
The Venturi in the carburettor choke A positive pressure over the A depression over the fuel A positive pressure at the A decrease in the velocity of
37. tube creates: discharge nozzle. discharge nozzle. throttle valve. the air entering the engine.
The inside of the combustion
The fuel priming pump supplies fuel chamber in the region of the
38. directly to: The throttle butterfly valve. The exhaust manifold. The induction manifold. spark plug.
A weak mixture would be indicated White smoke in the exhaust Detonation and black smoke An increase in engine speed
39. by: A drop in engine speed. manifold. from the exhaust. with black smoke from the
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exhaust.
40. A fuel strainer should be fitted: In the inlet manifold. At the air intake. Before the main jet. After the main jet.
The correct air/fuel ratio for an
41. engine running at idle is: Weak. Chemically correct. 16:1 Rich.
Turn the engine over several
times on the starter motor Position the throttle lever
The method of priming an engine not Activate the mixture control before selecting the ignition Pump the throttle several midway between open and
42. fitted with a priming pump is to: lever several times. on. times. close.
A possible cause of the engine
43. backfiring could be: An exhaust valve sticking open. A broken push rod. A blocked float chamber. A sticking inlet valve.
The exact amount of fuel More fuel than is required by The exact amount of fuel More fuel than is required by
required for all running the engine; the excess fuel is required for all running and the engine, the excess being
44. The engine driven fuel pump supplies: conditions. recycled. starting conditions. used as priming fuel.
The mixture control on an engine Operated by a pneumatic Hydro-pneumatically
45. fitted with fuel injection is: Automatic. plunger system. operated. Necessary.
There will be a throttle valve Neither a throttle valve nor a There will be a Venturi but no Both a throttle valve and a
46. In the intake of a fuel injected engine: but no Venturi. Venturi is required. throttle valve. Venturi are required.
The engine they are fitted to
The discharge nozzles of a fuel supply exactly the same The type of engine they are The octane rating of the fuel and to the nozzles on the
47. injected engine are matched to: amounts of fuel as each other. fitted to. supply. other cylinders.
Meters the amount of fuel
delivered to the engine in Distributes fuel to each Distributes fuel continuously
proportion to the amount of air cylinder in the correct firing to all of the cylinders Is kept entirely separate from
48. The Fuel Manifold Valve: being delivered to the engine. order. continuously. the priming system.
The chord of the propeller The propeller chord and the
The blade angle of a propeller is the The root chord and the tip The chord and the airflow and the longitudinal axis of plane of rotation of the
49. angle between: chord of the propeller. relative to the propeller. the aircraft. propeller.
Is constant along the propeller Varies with changes in engine
50. The blade angle: blade. Decreases from root to tip. Increases from root to tip. rpm.
The distance it would move The distance the propeller
forward in one revolution at The angle the propeller chord actually moves forward in one The angle the propeller chord
51. The Geometric Pitch of a propeller is: the blade angle. makes to the plane of rotation. revolution. makes to the relative airflow.
The angle of attack of a fixed pitch Depends on forward speed Depends on forward speed Depends on engine rotational Is constant for a fixed pitch
52. propeller: only. and engine rotational speed. speed only. propeller.
53. An aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller Angle of attack will decrease. Pitch will decrease. Angle of attack will increase. Angle of attack will remain the
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goes into a climb with reduced IAS same.

and increased rev/min The propeller:
Low at both low and high
For an aircraft with a fixed pitch Low at low speed, high at high High at low speed, low at high speed, and highest at cruising
54. propeller, propeller efficiency will be: speed. speed. Constant at all speeds. speed.
The blade angle of a fixed pitch
propeller would be set to give the At the maximum level flight
55. optimum angle: During take off. During the cruise. speed. For landing.
Rotates the engine in the Rotates the engine in the
normal direction and gives Rotates the engine in reverse Rotates the engine in reverse normal direction and gives
56. A propeller which is windmilling: some thrust. and gives drag. and gives some thrust. drag.
The turning moment
The tendency of the propeller produced by the propeller
to twist around its longitudinal The helical path of the about the axis of the The thrust produced by the
57. Propeller torque is: axis. propeller through the air. crankshaft. propeller.
The greatest stress on a rotating
58. propeller occurs: At the tip. At about 75% of the length. At the mid point. At the root.
59. An `Auto - Feathering' system senses: Low rpm. Decreasing rpm. High torque. Low torque.
Maintains the correct mixture sets the position of the waste
Prevents detonation and Maintains an automatic preset strength for the boost gate to ensure the preset
60. An Automatic Boost Control Unit: dissociation in the cylinder. boost pressure. pressure set. boost is maintained.
The turbo-charger bearing is Its own internal self contained A tapping in the scavenge oil
61. lubricated and cooled by: oil system. The engine oil. A total loss system. system.
During take-off from a sea level
airfield with I.S.A conditions, the
position of the waste gate of a turbo- Controlled by the throttle
62. charged engine is: Fully open. Almost fully open. position. Fully closed.
Unrestricted, but only if
Maximum Continuous Power (M.C.P ) economical cruising power is The maximum power the
63. is: set. engine will give at any time. Given a 5 minute limitation. Unrestricted.
At an idle or low power condition, the
64. turbo-charger waste gate is normally: Partially open. Fully open. Closed. Half open.
When the air or the mixture passes
through the diffuser shroud, the
65. energy conversion is from: Kinetic to pressure. Heat to potential. Mechanical to heat. Potential to kinetic.
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The construction of a turbo-charger
ensures that the turbine and the
66. compressor:
With a constant manifold pressure set
during the climb, the power output
67. from a supercharged engine:
An internal supercharger is one
68. which:
To prevent large acceleration loads on
the compressor and the drive shaft of
an internal supercharger, it is usual
69. to:
Over boosting an engine fitted with a
turbo-charger is prevented by the
70. installation of:
The limit of the amount of
supercharging that an engine can
71. tolerate is reached when:
The rotational speed of a turbo-
72. charger is dependant upon:
The type of compressor normally
73. used in a supercharger is:
The compressor output pressure of an
74. internal supercharger is:
Within the compressor of a turbo-
75. charger:
The type of compressor normally
fitted to turbo-chargers and
superchargers would compress the
76. air:
If the waste gate of a turbo-charged
engine seizes during the climb, the
77. manifold pressure will:
78. Boost pressure is indicated on:
Are on the same shaft.
Decreases.
Is driven by exhaust gases.
Prohibit "slam" acceleration.
An automatic boost control
unit.
Maximum R.P.M. is reached.
Engine R.P.M. and waste gate
position.
An axial compressor.
The same as manifold pressure
The pressure increases and the
temperature decreases.
Axially.
Remain constant.
The cylinder head temperature
Are on different shafts.
Increases.
Compresses the air.
Incorporate a spring drive
mechanism in the driving
gears.
A manifold pressure gauge.
The engine is at its rated
altitude.
Engine R.P.M. only.
A Rootes compressor.
Greater than the manifold
pressure.
Both the pressure and the
temperature increase.
Co-axially.
Decrease.
The manifold pressure gauge.
Are connected by mechanical
gearing.
Remains constant.
Compresses the exhaust
gases.
Rely on the inertia absorbing
qualities of the exhaust gases.
A waste gate pressure
controller.
Maximum boost pressure is
obtained.
Throttle position only.
A centrifugal compressor.
sometimes greater,
sometimes less than the
manifold pressure.
Both the pressure and the
temperature decrease.
In the diffuser only.
Increase.
The fuel pressure gauge.
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Are controlled by the A.B.C.
Is unaffected by altitude
change.
Compresses the mixture.
Use a Vernier drive coupling.
A suck in flap.
The engine starts to suffer
from detonation.
Propeller pitch and altitude.
A reciprocating thrunge
compressor.
Less than the manifold
pressure.
The pressure increases and
the temperature remains
constant.
Centrifugally.
Initially increase and then
decrease.
The R.P.M. gauge and the
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With an increase of compressor
79. discharge pressure, the fuel flow will:
80. In a supercharger, the mixture:
What is the preferred direction for
81. aircraft parking prior to start-up?
Immediately an engine has started
up, what is the first instrument
82. reading to be checked?
What would be the likely effect of
prolonged running with a weak
83. mixture?
What are the main reasons to
exercise a propeller from fine to
84. coarse pitch after warm-up?
When cruising in a fixed-pitch
propeller equipped aircraft, what
would be the symptoms of
85. carburettor icing?
What is the correct way to shut down
86. an engine?
The highest pressure in a gas turbine
87. engine occurs:
88. In a high ratio by-pass engine:
Gas turbine engine efficiency
89. increases with:
The By-Pass Ratio of an engine is the
90. ratio of:
The Gas Turbine Engine uses the
91. principle of:
gauge.
Decrease.
Enters through the eye of the
impeller and leaves at the
periphery.
Tail into wind.
Oil pressure.
Overheating.
In order that a pilot may
practise propeller control
technique before take-off.
Decrease in RPM, Loss of
airspeed and Loss of altitude.
switch off both magnetos
together.
Between the compressor and
the combustion chamber.
All of the air goes through both
the low and high pressure
compressors.
An increase in volumetric
efficiency.
Primary air to tertiary air.
Newton's Third Law of motion.
Remain constant.
Enters at the periphery and
leaves through the eye.
Nose into wind.
Battery volts.
Failure to come up to correct
running temperature.
To pre-set the feathering
signal before take-off, in case
of an emergency.
Increase in manifold
temperature, Decrease in RPM
and Increase in RPM.
switch off the fuel booster
pump.
In the combustion chamber.
Not all the air goes through
the high pressure compressor.
An increase in ambient
temperature.
Cold stream air to that flowing
through the hot core of the
engine.
Creating thrust equal to the
weight of the aircraft.
Initially increase, but
subsequently decrease.
Enters through the turbine
and leaves through the
compressor.
15` engine to be started on
windward side.
Gyro erection.
Carburettor icing.
To check that a full range of
control is available at take-off
boost.
Increase in engine
temperature, Loss of altitude
and Increase in RPM.
Move the mixture control to
ICO.
In the jet pipe.
Not all the air goes through
the low pressure compressor.
A decrease in ambient
temperature.
Exhaust gas pressure to air
intake pressure.
Expelling air at the same
speed as that of the aircraft.
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manifold pressure gauge.
Increase.
Enters through the
compressor and leaves
through the turbine.
Facing towards the duty
runway threshold to enable
easy taxi-out.
Vacuum.
High oil pressure.
To replace the cold oil in the
pitch change mechanism and
check RPM control.
All of the above
Feather the propeller when
at idle RPM.
At the P 1 probe.
All the air goes through the
high pressure compressor.
A decrease in ambient air
pressure.
Primary air to secondary air.
The fluid flywheel.
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92. In a twin spool engine:
93. In a by-pass engine, the by-pass air:
94. The majority of the thrust of a:
The net thrust of a gas turbine engine
95. is lower than static thrust because of:
96. Thrust produced by a turbine engine:
The thrust of an engine is increased
by injecting water/methanol
97. because:-
The propulsive efficiency of an aircraft
flying with a speed of 300 miles/hour
and the jet speed is 400 miles/hour
98. will be:-
A pitot intake forms a duct the fan to
ensure that the airflow to and
99. achieves a
What effect will severe icing in the
100. intake have on a high by-pass engine?
101. Secondary air inlet doors are utilised:
In a pitot intake the term `Ram
102. Pressure Recovery' refers to the time
The L.P. compressor is
connected to the H.P.
compressor.
Increases the air mass flow and
therefore increases the
propulsive efficiency.
Turbo-fan engine comes from
the turbine exhaust.
Higher exhaust gas velocity
increase with temperature and
decrease with pressure
water decreases air density
85.7%
convergent before speeds up
subsonic pressure rise
The axial velocity of the air will
increase with a reduction in the
angle of attack of the airflow
with the compressor blades
and a possible stall.
When an aircraft is in the
cruise
EPR has attained the take off
setting.
The H.P. turbine is connected
to the L.P. compressor, the L.P.
turbine is connected to the HP.
compressor.
Cools the combustion
chamber and therefore
increases the thermal
efficiency.
Turbo-prop engine comes
from the turbine exhaust.
Higher air density
increase with temperature and
also increase with pressure
water increases air density
75%
divergent after slows down
subsonic pressure rise
The axial velocity of the air
will decrease with a reduction
in the angle of attack of the
airflow with the compressor
blades and a possible stall.
When the aircraft is near its
maximum IAS.
The HP Compressor has
reached its maximum.
The L.P. turbine is connected
to the L.P. compressor, the
H.P. turbine is connected to
the H.P. compressor.
Reduces the air mass flow
and therefore increases the
propulsive efficiency.
Turbo-shaft engine comes
from the free power turbine
exhaust.
High fuel flow
decrease with temperature
and decrease with pressure
alcohol increases freezing
point
70%
divergent before speeds up
sonic pressure drop
The axial velocity of the air
will decrease with an increase
in the angle that the resultant
airflow forms with the
compressor blades chord line
and a possible stall.
When the rpm of the engine is
low while stationary.
The EPR has recovered to its
optimum figure.
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The H.P. turbine is connected
to the L.P. turbine, the H.P.
compressor is connected to
the L.P. compressor.
Increases the air mass flow
and therefore reduces the
propulsive efficiency.
Turbo-fan engine comes from
the by-pass air.
Forward speed of the engine
decrease with temperature
and also increase with
pressure
alcohol decreases freezing
point
87.5%
divergent before slows down
subsonic pressure rise
The axial velocity of the air
will increase with an increase
in the angle of attack of the
airflow with the compressor
blades and a possible stall.
When the rpm of the engine
is high when stationary.
Intake pressure has been re-
established to ambient
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when:
The pressure ratio of a gas turbine
103. engine compressor is:
The compressor idling speed of a gas
104. turbine engine will increase:
One stage of an axial flow compressor
105. consists of
The pressure rise across each stage of
106. an axial flow compressor is:
The ring of blades which sometimes
precede the first rotor stage of an
107. axial flow compressor are called:
108. A compressor blade will stall when:
109. Compressor surge will occur when:
The purpose of the diffuser vanes in a
110. centrifugal compressor is to:
The major disadvantage of a
111. centrifugal compressor is that:
112. A compressor stall causes:
113. A compressor stall:
The occurrence of compressor stalls is
114. limited by:
Bleed valves are automatically
115. opened:
Equal to the number of
compression stages.
At higher ambient
temperature.
One rotor assembly and one
row of stator vanes.
Greater than that of a
centrifugal compressor.
The first stage stator blades.
The air axial velocity and
rotational speed relationship is
disturbed.
All stages are at maximum
efficiency.
Increase the charge
temperature.
It cannot cope with a large
mass flow of air.
The vibration level to increase
with a decrease in the turbine
gas temperature.
Is overcome by increasing the
fuel flow.
Bleed valves.
At maximum R.P.M. to prevent
compressor stall.
The ratio between
compressor outlet and
compressor inlet pressure.
With higher than sea level
density.
One stator assembly and one
row of guide vanes.
Between 3 and 5 to one.
The inlet guides vanes.
The mass air flow and speed
relationship is constant.
All stages are at maximum
RPM.
Convert pressure energy into
kinetic energy.
It cannot be used for a
turbojet engine.
An increase in the turbine gas
temperature and the vibration
level.
Is a complete breakdown of
the airflow through the
compressor.
Nozzle guide vanes.
At low R.P.M. to prevent the
turbine stalling.
The ratio between exhaust
inlet and exhaust outlet
pressure.
At altitudes lower than sea
level.
One rotor and one impeller
assembly.
Twice the inlet pressure.
First stage diffuser blades.
The speed of the gas flow
through the turbine falls
below 0.4 Mach.
There is a partial breakdown
of airflow through the
compressor.
Increase the air velocity.
A larger turbine must be used.
The rotation of the engine to
stop suddenly.
May only affect one stage or
several stages of a
compressor.
Swirl vanes.
During engine acceleration to
prevent turbine surge.
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pressure.
Never greater than 5 to 1.
At lower ambient
temperature.
One impeller and one diffuser
assembly.
Between 1.1 and 1.2 to one.
Nozzle guide vanes.
The compression ratio
exceeds 10 to 1.
All stages have stalled.
Convert kinetic energy into
pressure energy.
It is more prone to damage
than the axial flow
compressor
The airflow through the
engine to stop suddenly.
Is mechanical failure of the
compressor.
Cascade vanes.
At low engine RRM to
prevent the compressor
stalling.
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A complete breakdown of airflow

116. through a compressor is known as: Compressor turbulence. Compressor buffet. Compressor surge. Compressor seizure.
Bleed valves are set to open at
117. Within the compressor: high R.P.M. Pressure decreases. Temperature decreases. Temperature increases.
Deflect air past the Induce air into a centrifugal
118. Variable inlet guide vanes: compressor. Prevent compressor stall. Deflect air past the turbine. compressor.
Compressor blades are twisted from To maintain a correct angle of To give added rigidity to the
119. root to tip: To decrease the pressure. attack. To reduce the relative airflow. blade structure.
The drop in air temperature is
The air temperature is steady The air temperature falls with inversely proportional to the The air temperature rises
120. In a compressor: with a pressure rise. a pressure rise. pressure rise. with a pressure rise.
The pressure energy of air flow converted to kinetic energy at converted to heat energy at unchanged at nozzle guide increased at nozzle guide
121. through a gas turbine engine will be:- nozzle guide vanes nozzle guide vanes vanes vanes
An axial flow compressor engine may
122. stall:- during acceleration at high rpm at low rpm all the above are correct
to increase the pressure of to increase the pressure of
The purpose of the inlet guide vanes the gases before entering the to circulate hot air through the gases and direct it to the
123. in front of the compressor is :- compressor IGV to prevent ice formation face of the compressor. none of the above is correct
imparting KE to the incoming
The principle of operation of a decreasing, incoming air air then change to pressure
124. compressor of turbine engine is:- velocity to increase energy imparting KE of incoming air all the above are correct
A set of flame tubes, each of One common flame tube Superior to the annular
which is mounted in a separate A set of flame tubes enclosed enclosed in a common air system because it only
125. A cannular combustion system is: air casing. in a common air casing. casing. requires one igniter.
To allow any unburnt fuel to To prevent the igniters
It is necessary to have a combustion To prevent pressure build up To allow moisture content in drain after shut down or a wet becoming wetted by excess
126. drain system: in the combustion chamber. the fuel to drain away. start. fuel.
Shows airspeed and altitude Shows fuel / air mixture
Shows the flame stability limitations for an in-flight limitations for an in-flight Contains the in flight re-start
127. A re-light envelope: limits. restart. restart. igniter plugs.
Swirl vanes in the combustion Increase the velocity of the Reduce the velocity of the
128. chamber: airflow. airflow. Prevent compressor stall. Help to stabilize combustion.
The can type combustion chamber less length and less engine more temperature and
129. have the disadvantage of:- diameter less structural strength less stable flame pressure loss
One of the following statement is not carbon formation must be there must be minimum loss all air passing through the there must be high
130. true for requirement of the kept to a minimum of temperature and pressure take part in combustion combustion efficiency
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combustion chamber :- throughout the chamber

Mostly the combustion section is safety, in case of one sparking efficient ignition by both the better burning of the mixture
131. provided with two sparking plugs for : plug goes unserviceable plugs at a time in the combustion chamber both (a) and (b) are correct
The effect on the temperature and
pressure of the gases as they pass Their temperature decreases Both their temperature and Both their temperature and Their temperature increases
132. across the turbine is: and their pressure rises. pressure increase. pressure decrease. and their pressure falls.
To decrease the velocity of To increase the velocity of the
Nozzle guide vanes are fitted before To increase the velocity of the the gas flow therefore gas flow therefore reducing its To increase the temperature
133. the turbine: airflow. increasing its pressure. pressure. of the gas flow.
Movement of the turbine Temporary expansion due to Temporary elongation due to Permanent elongation due to
134. Blade creep is: blades around the turbine disc. temperature change. centrifugal forces. heat and centrifugal force.
Straightens the gas flow Prevents the hot gases
before it goes into the turbine flowing across the rear turbine Increases the velocity of the Decreases the pressure of the
135. The exhaust cone: assembly. face. gases. gas.
The gas flow through it is The gas flow through it The gas flow through it is
136. A nozzle is said to be "choked" when: subsonic. reaches its sonic value. The gas temperature rises. supersonic.
Implies that no further
increase in velocity can be
Gives additional pressure obtained without the increase
137. A choked nozzle: Decreases thrust. without the addition of heat. Has no effect on thrust. of heat.
The jet pipe is insulated from the A combination of cooling air Semi-conducting geodetic
138. airframe by: Heat insulation materials. A cooling air jacket. and insulating material. structures.
Is high in the exhaust section Is greater than that from a
The noise from a high ratio by-pass Is created mainly in the because of the high velocity Is predominantly from the fan turbo-jet engine of
139. engine: exhaust section. gas flow. and the turbine. comparable power output.
An exhaust nozzle is said to be
choked when the velocity at the
140. throat is: Mach.5. Below Mach 1. At Mach 1. Above Mach 1.
If the length of the exhaust nozzle is it will create laminar
141. too large: gas velocity will be insufficient boundary layer frictional loss will be more all the above are correct
If the diameter of the exhaust nozzle increased back pressure
142. is too small the result will be: choking increased gas velocity through the engine all the above are correct
Before reverse thrust can be selected, Positioned to reverse Put back to the reverser Positioned to reverse
143. the forward thrust lever must be: Pulled back to idle power. minimum power. deploy position. maximum power.
A Reverse Thrust Warning Light Only when the reverser doors When the reverser doors are When the reverser doors are Whenever reverse thrust is
144. illuminates: are fully deployed in the stowed in the forward thrust not stowed in the forward selected.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
145. EPR is a
With an increase in altitude which of
the following statements are correct
for a jet aircraft with constant engine
146. speed for a fixed throttle setting?
The maximum thrust that a jet engine
147. can develop will be:
From a standing start with an increase
148. in forward speed jet thrust will:
On a part throttled engine, take off
149. thrust would be achieved:
150. In a gas turbine engine:
151. When does the variable nozzle open?
Which of the following statements
are correct with regard to after-
152. burning?
On a turbojet aircraft which of the
following statements would be
correct with the introduction of a
153. water into the combustion chamber?
154. An inter-stage air seal is used where:
An Internal Engine Overheat warning
155. would necessitate:
reverse thrust position.
Ratio between ambient
pressure and exhaust pressure.
Temperature and pressure
reduce with a resulting drop in
thrust and Fuel consumption
will decrease.
Take off thrust.
increase.
Later than normal due to
pressure in the compressor
being low.
Ram pressure is maximum at
the start of the take off run.
When the exhaust
temperature reaches 1700°C
Fuel consumption increases,
Pressure thrust decreases ,
Thrust increases, EGT increases
Power can be restored up to
its flat rated 100% only, and is
prevented from exceeding its
limitations due to a pressure
sensor at the high pressure
outlet.
Engine sections are operating
at different pressures.
The oil temperature to be
closely monitored.
position.
Ratio between ambient
pressure and fan pressure.
Fuel consumption will
increase and Specific fuel
consumption stays relatively
the same.
Go around thrust.
stay the same.
Later than normal due to the
EPR being low.
Ram pressure is unaffected
by airspeed.
Automatic when after burning
selected.
Fuel consumption decreases,
Thrust increases, Pressure
thrust increases, EGT increases
Power can be restored up to
its flat rated 100% only, due to
a pressure sensor at the
combustion chamber outlet.
Engine sections are subjected
to pressures of the same value.
The EGT to be closely
monitored.
thrust position.
Ratio between intake
pressure and compressor
delivery pressure.
Fuel consumption will
decrease and Specific fuel
consumption will increase.
Max climb thrust.
decrease.
Earlier than normal.
Thrust is unaffected by the
aircraft's forward speed.
Automatic on take off.
Thrust decreases , Fuel
consumption increases,
Pressure thrust increases, EGT
decreases
Power can be restored up to
its flat rated 100% only, due
to a pressure sensor in the
exhaust.
It is more convenient.
The engine power to be
reduced to idle.
ATPL Question Bank
Ratio between exhaust
pressure and intake pressure.
Temperature and pressure
will reduce, resulting in an
increase in thrust.
Max Static Thrust.
decrease then recover but
will never achieve its initial
setting.
Later than normal due to the
EPR being high.
Thrust is maximum and ram
pressure at minimum at the
start of the take off run.
Automatic when approaching
Mach l.
EGT increases, Pressure
thrust increases, Thrust
increases , Fuel consumption
increases
Power can be augmented
above 100% due to the denser
mixture impinging on the
turbine, which consequently
drives the compressor
quicker.
It is difficult to obtain access
during routine servicing.
The engine to be shut down.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
156. Turbine blades are cooled by:
Bleed air for engine anti-icing is
157. provided by:
With a bleed air anti-icing system the
effect of selecting `on' while
158. maintaining thrust will:
With a bleed air anti-icing system the
effect of selecting `on' will have what
159. effect?
The drive for fuel, oil and hydraulic
160. pumps is normally taken from
161. A typical APU can provide:
162. A "Hung Start" is indicated by:
If a gas turbine engine fails to light up
163. within the specified time:
164. A Re-light is:
165. A "Hung Start" occurs when:
The term "Self Sustaining Speed"
166. means that:
Before opening the high-pressure
fuel shut off valve during the engine
167. start:
The air supply to operate an air
168. starter usually comes from:
169. The starter motor is disengaged from
H.P. compressor air internally
ducted through the blades.
The bleed valves.
decrease fuel consumption.
EGT will decrease.
LP fan.
Air for air conditioning on the
ground.
high E.G.T. - high fuel flow -
low R.P.M.
It must be motored over with
the H.P. fuel cock shut.
The action of re-starting a
flamed out engine, usually
while airborne.
The engine accelerates but
does not light up.
The aircraft can roll forward
with no further opening of the
throttles.
The compressor must be
turning at the correct RPM in
the right direction.
An external installation.
As soon as the engine lights
H.P. air tapped from the
combustion chambers.
The turbine stages.
decrease specific fuel
consumption.
EGT will increase.
Intermediate compressor.
Air for engine starting.
low E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low
R.P.M.
The fuel system must be
drained.
What occurs when the engine
drain valve is stuck open.
The engine stabilises above
self sustaining speed.
The speed from which the
engine can accelerate to full
power within 5 seconds.
The Low-Pressure compressor
must be stationary.
storage bottles carried in the
aircraft.
Just above self-sustaining
Air ducted from just before
the intake guide vanes.
The compressor.
increase specific fuel
consumption.
EGT will remain the same.
HP compressor.
Electrical power for ground or
in flight use.
low E.G.T. - high fuel flow -
high R.P.M.
No further attempt to start
may be made until the fuel
has evaporated.
The initiation of the after-
burning system.
The engine lights up but does
not accelerate to self
sustaining speed.
The engine will run
independently of external
help.
The Low Pressure fuel cock
must be shut.
The auxiliary power unit.
At 26% H.P. R.P.M.
ATPL Question Bank
Intermediate pressure air
taken from the bleed valves.
The combustion chambers.
specific fuel consumption will
remain the same.
The ratio between exhaust
pressure and intake pressure
will increase.
HP turbine
All of the above.
high E.G.T. - idle fuel flow -
low R.P.M.
It must be motored over with
the H.P. fuel cock shut and no
igniters selected.
What must be prevented
after a "wet start".
There is a double igniter
failure.
The speed from which the
engine can accelerate to idle
without the help of the starter
motor.
The Low Pressure compressor
must be rotating faster than
the High-Pressure
compressor.
A cross bleed start.
Just below self-sustaining
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
the engine start system:
The power supply for the spark in the
170. combustion chamber is:
In a twin spool engine self sustaining
171. speed is normally reached at:
In a twin spool engine the typical idle
172. speeds are:
The sequence of starting of a gas
173. turbine engine is:-
A starter motor is used during
starting a gas turbine engine to
174. provide:
Which of the following statements
would be more correct with regard to
175. an APU?
176. In the event of a fire in an APU:
Which of the following would result in
a automatic shut down of an APU?
1) overspeed of compressor
2) over-temp of lubrication system
3) turbine over-temp
4) combustion chamber over-temp
5) Compressor outlet pressure
exceeded
177. 6) low pressure of lubricantion system
178. A Ram Air Turbine is used to provide:
The power to start an APU comes
179. from:
up.
low volts high current
60% N2
60% N2 25%N1
fuel, ignition and compressor
rotation
adequate air mass to the
combustion chamber
APU's provide emergency
hydraulics power for the
brakes only.
will need to be shut down
immediately.
1236
Emergency hydraulic power for
the flaps and slats only.
Ground power unit.
speed.
low volts low current
60% N1
25% N2 60%N 1
ignition, fuel and compressor
rotation
adequate air mass in the
compressor
APU's provide electrical,
pneumatic and hydraulic
power for ground use only.
will shut down immediately.
1246
Emergency hydraulic power
for the undercarriage.
Aircraft main DC battery.
high volts low current
30% N2
40% N2 30% N 1
compressor rotation, ignition
and fuel
initial rotation to the engine
APU's provide electrical,
pneumatic and hydraulic
power for air use only and can
provide an amount of thrust.
will shut down immediately
and if the fire persists the fire
bottles will automatically be
fired.
2356
Emergency hydraulic power
for the elevator, rudder and
ailerons along with possible
emergency electrical power.
Aircraft main engine
generator.
ATPL Question Bank
speed.
high volts high current
30% N1
80% N2 45% N1
compressor rotation, fuel and
ignition
All of the above
APU's provide electrical,
pneumatic and hydraulic
power for ground and air use
and can provide an amount of
thrust.
will need to be shut down
immediately and the fire
bottles will be required to be
fired immediately.
2346
Emergency hydraulic power
for the brakes along with
possible emergency electrical
power.
Aircraft main AC battery.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

Ensure vapour losses are Make it easier to flow under

180. Fuel is heated to: Prevent waxing. minimised. Make it more viscous. all conditions.
In the line between the main Low pressure side of the High-pressure side of the
181. Fuel booster pumps are situated in: The fuel tanks. fuel tanks and the engine. engine. engine.
Which of the following is a normal Fuel tank booster pumps
182. stopping device for a gas turbine? LP shut off valve close. select off. HP shut off valve close. Isolate electrics from engine.
Between LP pump and the Between LP pump and HP Between HP shut off valve
183. The fuel flow-meter is situated: FCOC. pump. Just after FCU. and fuel nozzles.
The LP pump will draw fuel The LP pump will draw fuel
The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may from the tank, but there may
from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation be a possibility of cavitation
Aircraft flying at FL 420. If the booster be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure and due to the higher pressure
pumps feeding the engine cease to The engine would close down due to the low pressure and higher boiling point of the and higher boiling point of the
184. work: immediately. low boiling point of the fuel. fuel. fuel.
Heats the oil and cools the Heats the fuel and cools the
185. The fuel cooled oil cooler: fuel. Heats the fuel only. Cools the oil only. oil.
In general a gas turbine engine fuel
186. should:- have high flash point have less fire hazard have high calorific value all the above are correct
Via a drain valve at the lowest Via a drain tank at the base of Via a scoop at the top of the
187. Water in the fuel tank is removed: point in the tank. the engine. tank. Every major servicing only.
A high oil temperature would indicate The exhaust gas temperature The air intake of the oil cooler
188. that: The oil pressure was high. (E.G.T.) was high. The oil filter was blocked. was blocked.
To ensure that the oil is
To ensure oil is forced into the prevented from leaving the To minimise heat loss in the
189. Oil seals are pressurised: bearings. To ensure minimum oil loss. bearing housing. bearing housing.
The fuel pressure is always
A pressure-maintaining valve kept higher than the oil
In the event that damage occurs to ensures that the oil pressure is pressure to ensure that the A differential pressure switch The oil by-pass valve will
the matrix of the fuel cooled oil always higher than the fuel fuel will leak into the oil will illuminate a light in the prevent a complete loss of oil
190. cooler: pressure. system. cockpit. pressure.
The main bearings in an axial flow gas
turbine engine are normally Air from an intermediate Gas from the second stage
191. pressuised by: Compressor by-pass air. Air at intake pressure . stage of the compressor. turbine section.
In a Gas Turbine engine oil As it leaves the fuel cooled oil Immediately after leaving the
192. temperature is measured: cooler (FCOC). Before entering the engine. engine. In the engine.
193. In a Gas Turbine engine oil pressure is In the engine. In the return line. After the pressure pump. In the FCOC to ensure oil
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

measured: pressure is always above fuel

pressure.
suction line between the Return line between the
The magnetic chip detectors are fitted The pressure line between the reservoir and the pressure engine and the scavenge
194. in: pressure pump and the engine. pump. pump. Return line after the FCOC.
195. Gas Turbines use: Wet sump and mineral oil. Dry sump and synthetic oil. Wet sump and synthetic oil. Dry sump and mineral oil.
The Purpose of the lubricating system reduce the friction between
196. is to cool down the moving parts cleaning the moving parts two moving parts all the above are correct
The temperature is sensed at the
turbine for the EGT indication system Outside Air Temperature
197. by a: Thermocouple. Ballast resistor. gauge. NTC resistor.
The engine anti-icing system should -10° C and below when there +10°C and below when there
198. be selected when the temperature is: Above +10° C. is visible moisture present. Below 0° C. is visible moisture present.
The time taken for the engine The time taken for the engine The time taken for the engine The time take for the engine
to decelerate from full power to stop after the H.P. fuel shut to slow from full power to to run down to ground idle
199. Spool down time or run down time is: to flight idle. off valve is closed. 30% power. from flight idle.
An Actuator Powered A constant speed, self- self contained but with a
200. An A.P.U is: Undercarriage. contained gas turbine engine. A source of standby power. separate thrust selector.
The efficiency of a gas turbine engine A decrease in ambient air An increase in ambient air An increase in ambient air A decrease in ambient air
201. will increase with: temperature. pressure. temperature. pressure.
What type of fire extinguisher would
202. be used on a propane fire foam water dry powder sand
On what principle do smoke detectors Inductance and light
203. work Resistance and capacitance Ionisation and impedance Optical and ionisation diffraction
If an artificial feel unit is fitted it In parallel with the primary In series with the primary In series with the secondary In parallel with the secondary
204. would be connected controls controls controls controls
The fuel tanks of a modern passenger Fuel is sucked in by the Fuel is pumped in by the fuel
205. airliner are filled by Gravity aircraft pumps truck The VTO system
Spur gear pumps - high Centrifugal pumps - high Spur gear pumps - low Centrifugal pumps - Low
206. Fuel tank booster pumps are: - pressure pressure pressure pressure
Reads fuel quantity by mass & Compensates for variations of
The advantage of a float type fuel Compensates for change of SG & Reads fuel quantity by Simple & measuring volume Simple & Reads fuel quantity
207. gauging system is aircraft attitude mass by varying resistance. by mass
The function of the baffles in a fuel To prevent movement of fuel To prevent fuel surge (or
208. tank is to the wingtip sloshing) during manoeuvring To prevent pump cavitation Both `a’ & `b’ are correct
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

Turbine pressure to High pressure compressor Low pressure compressor exhaust pressure to low
combustion chamber inlet inlet pressure to exhaust inlet pressure to high pressure pressure compressor inlet
209. EPR is measured by the ratio of pressure pressure compressor outlet pressure pressure
In a modern airliner what is hydraulic
210. fluid used synthetic mineral mineral/alchohol vegetable
Using the oral inflation
211. How are escape slides inflated Fed from bleed air system Self contained gas bottle Hand pumped by cabin crew adaptor
The correct extinguisher to use on a
212. brake fire would be foam dry powder CO2 water
Electrically for chemical
oxygen generators and
The passenger oxygen drop-down By a lanyard operated by a pneumatically for gaseous
213. mask stowage doors are released barometric capsule Mechanically systems Manually by the cabin crew
The flight deck warning on activation warning light and warning
214. of an engine fire detection system is warning bell gear warning bell warning light
Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised Air from Pneumatic system Engine bleed air from turbine
215. by Ram air in flight only Separate helium gas system or bleed air supply system engine
In the event that an emergency
decent causes the cabin pressure to The outward relief valve will The inward relief valve will
216. decrease below ambient pressure open The outflow valve will close open The safety valve will close
The purpose of a ditching control to allow rapid to dump the toilet water
217. valve is close the outflow valves open outflow valves depressurisation after landing
In a bleed air anti icing system the wing leading edge slats and
218. areas that are heated are the whole of the wing flaps wing leading edges and slats trailing edge flaps
An undercarriage leg is considered to Mechanically locked by an The actuating cylinder is at
219. be locked when: It is down The amber light is on 'over-centre' mechanism the end of its travel
Along the whole leading
220. Kreuger flaps are positioned Towards the wing tip At the wing inner leading edge edge At the wing trailing edge
What is the purpose of inboard To reduce wing bending at To reduce wing twist at high To reduce wing bending at
221. ailerons high speed speed low speed Both `a’ `b’ are correct
To reduce stick forces in To reduce stick holding forces To increase control To reduce control
222. What is the purpose of trim tabs manoeuvres to zero effectiveness effectiveness
full face and provide a mouth and nose and provide full face and provide oxygen mouth and nose and provide
223. Smoke hoods protect continuous flow of oxygen a continuous flow of oxygen on demand oxygen on demand
Gaseous, diluted with ambient Chemically generated and Gaseous, diluted with cabin Chemically generated, diluted
224. oxygen supplied to the flight deck is air if required diluted with cabin air if /cockpit air if required with ambient air if required
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
If during pressurised flight the
outflow valve closes fully due to a
225. fault in the pressure controller the:
226. In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is
The thrust reverser light illuminates
on the flight deck annunciator when
227. the
In a modern turbofan engine - where
228. is fuel flow measured ?
229. A hot busbar is one that
An aircraft which uses DC as the
primary source of power, AC for the
230. instruments may be obtained from:
If the oil temperature gauge of the
CSD is in the red what would action is
231. required
The frequency of an AC generator is
232. dependent upon
With an almost discharged battery
233. there will be:
When is an engine overheat firewire
234. system activated
What is the purpose of the FCOC (Fuel
235. Cooled Oil Cooler)
An artificial feel system is needed in
236. the pitch channel if
237. Auto brakes are disengaged :
Skin will be overstressed and
could rupture.
internal mass airflow divided
by external mass airflow
Thrust reverser doors have
moved to the reverse thrust
position
In the Fuel tank
Supplies galley power
CSDU
Throttle back and allow to cool
down
The RPM of the rotor
a decrease of voltage with
increasing load
When an overheat is detected
all along the length of both
firewire loops
To maintain the oil at the
correct temperature
Airplane has a variable
incidence tailplane
When the ground spoilers are
retracted
required
Safety valve opens when the
differential pressure reaches
structural max diff
external mass airflow divided
by internal mass airflow
Thrust reverser doors have
been selected but the doors
haven't moved
In LP fuel supply system of
Engine
Is permanently connected to
the battery
rectifier
Auto disconnect
The number of poles in the
rotor
increase of current with
decrease of voltage
When an overheat affects one
detector loop at a point
anywhere along its length
To heat the fuel and cool the
oil
Elevators are controlled
through a reversible servo
system
When the speed falls below
20 kts
The inward relief valve will
open to prevent excessive
negative differential.
internal mass airflow divided
by mass fuel flow
Thrust reverser doors are
locked
In HP fuel supply system of
Engine
Carries all of the non
essential loads
Inverter
Manually disconnect and
reconnect on the ground
The RPM and number of
poles in the rotor
decrease of current with
increasing load
When an overheat is
detected all along the length
of one firewire loop
To heat the oil and cool the
fuel
Elevator is controlled
through a servo tab
On the landing roll when the
autopilot is disengaged
ATPL Question Bank
ECS packs are automatically
closed down.
mass fuel flow divided by
mass fuel flow
Thrust reverser doors are
unlocked
Both b and c are correct
Is connected to the battery in
an emergency
TRU
Disconnect, then when
cooled reconnect
The number of poles in the
rotor and the number of
phase windings in the stator.
increase of voltage with
increasing load
When an overheat affects
both detector loops at a point
anywhere along their length.
To by-pass oil to the engine if
the oil pressure filter becomes
blocked
Elevators are controlled
through an irreversible servo
system
By the pilot
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
In an aircraft with a fuel dunping
238. system it will allow fuel to be dumped
How are modern passenger jet
239. aircraft fuel tanks pressurized
In which of the following areas would
240. an overheat/fire warning be provided
Hydraulic pressure typically used in
the system of large transport aircraft
241. is
When smoke appears in the cockpit,
after donning the oxygen mask the
242. pilot should select
Which part of the gas turbine engine
243. limits the temperature
What ice protection system is used on
244. most modern jet transport aircraft
What frequency is commonly used in
245. aircraft electrical distribution systems
When does the engine High Pressure
246. fuel shut off valve close
When does the Low Pressure fuel
247. shut off valve close
In a vapour cycle cooling system what
248. is the purpose of the condenser
If the pressure controller
malfunctions during the cruise and
the outflow valve opens what
249. happens:
250. What controls cabin pressurization
If the fire handle is pulled in an
aeroplane with an AC generator
251. system what disconnects.
252. If a CSD overheat warning is shown
Down to a predetermined safe
valve
By nitrogen from a storage
cylinder
Fuel tank
2000 - 3000psi
Normal
Combustion chamber
Liquid
200Hz
After a booster pump failure
When the fire handle is pulled
To remove moisture from the
air by centrifugal action
Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin Alt
Decrease, Differential pressure
Decrease
ECS pack mass flow controller
Exciter control relay and GCB
The CSD can be disconnected
and the pilot must control the
Down to unusable value
By ram air through the vent
system
Cabin
3000 - 4000psi
1 Diluter
Turbine
Electrical
400 Hz
When the engine fuel switch
is selected `on' during engine
start
When the engine fuel switch
is selected `on' during engine
start
To convert the refrigerant
from a liquid to a gas
Cabin ROC Decrease, Cabin Alt
Increase, Differential pressure
Decrease
Outflow valve
GCB and BTB
The pilot must throttle back to
reduce the load on the
To leave 15 gallons in each
tank
By bleed air from the
pneumatic system
Tyres
1000 - 2000psi
Compressor
Hot air
100Hz
When flight idle is selected
When flight idle is selected
To convert the refrigerant
from a gas to a liquid
Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin
Alt Increase, Differential
pressure Decrease
Engine bleed valve
BTB and GCU
The CSD can be disconnected
then reconnected later when
ATPL Question Bank
Down to maximum landing
weight
By a volumetric top off unit
Wheel/Undercarriage bay
4000 - 5000psi
Emergency
Exhaust
Pressure operated boots
50Hz
When the engine fuel switch
is selected `off during engine
shut-down
After a booster pump failure
To raise the pressure of the
gas to allow efficient cooling
Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin Alt
Increase, Differential pressure
Increase
Inflow valve
Exciter control relay only
The CSD can be disconnected
but not used for the rest of
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
An emergency exit assisted escape
device must be fitted if the door sill
253. height is above:
254. How do aircraft spoilers work
What speed does the LP compressor
255. run at ?
256. Where are smoke detectors fitted'?
On what principle does a fuel flow
257. meter work
258. What is engine pressure ratio ?
When is spark plug fouling most likely
259. to occur?
What is a ram air turbine (RAT) which
260. drives a hydraulic pump used for?
As altitude increases what does the
261. mixture control do to the fuel flow
What is the purpose of the diluter
demand valve in the emergency
262. oxygen system ?
263. Emergency oxygen is provided by:
An aircraft planning to fly at FL330
with 120 seats fitted and 42
passengers on board must provide
264. first aid oxygen for:
265. Fuel heaters are fitted
alternator himself
8ft with the aircraft on the
landing gear with the
nosewheel extended
lower surfaces only,
symmetrical and asymmetrical
operation
the speed of the LP turbine
toilets
Volume and viscosity
The ratio of turbine outlet
pressure to compressor inlet
pressure
In the climb if you have not
adjusted the mixture
Nose wheel steering
increases flow due to reduced
air density
To supply air only when
inhaling
One system for both flight
deck and cabin
At least one passenger for the
duration of the flight above
8000ft.
In the wing fuel tanks
alternator
8ft with the aircraft on the
landing gear with the
nosewheel collapsed
lower surfaces only,
symmetrical operation
the speed of the HP turbine
toilets and cargo
compartments A,B,C,D,E
Quantity of movement
The ratio of turbine inlet
pressure to compressor inlet
pressure
Cruise power
Flap extension
increases flow due to
increased air density
To dilute oxygen with air in
crew oxygen system
Two independent systems,
one for flight deck, one for
cabin
No first aid oxygen is
necessary
In the fuselage fuel tanks
the temperature has reduced
6ft with the aircraft on the
landing gear with the
nosewheel extended
upper surfaces only,
symmetrical and
asymmetrical operation
half the engine speed
all cargo compartments
Capacitive dielectric
Turbine outlet pressure x
compressor outlet pressure
In the descent if you have
not adjusted the mixture
Landing gear extension if the
normal system fails
reduces flow due to reduced
air density
To dilute oxygen with air in
passenger oxygen system
Two systems each capable of
supplying the flight deck and
cabin
At least 3 passengers for the
duration of the flight above
15000ft.
In the engine fuel system
mounted on the engine
ATPL Question Bank
the flight
6ft with the aircraft on the
landing gear with the
nosewheel collapsed
upper surfaces only,
symmetrical operation
constant speed
toilets and cargo
compartments B,C,E
Pressure and temperature
Compressor inlet pressure
divided by turbine outlet
pressure
Max take-off power
Flight controls in case of
failure of the engine driven
system
reduces flow due to
increased air density
To supply oxygen only when
inhaling
Three systems, one for the
flight deck, one for the
passengers and one for the
cabin crew.
At least one passenger for the
duration of the flight above
14000ft
All of the above
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
The engine fire extinguisher system is
266. activated:
An unpressurised aircraft is flying
above FL 100 and therefore must
267. have sufficient oxygen for:
An aircraft entrance door is fitted
with an automatic escape slide, the
door is `armed' from the inside by the
268. cabin crew:
Aircraft above a certain capacity must
269. carry a crash axe, it is provided to
At what height is it mandatory for one
of the flight deck crew to wear an
270. oxygen mask
The precautions to be taken during
271. refueling are
What type of fire extinguisher must
272. be on a flight deck
What is the reason for putting the
273. horizontal stabilizer on top of the fin
274. Hydraulic fluid
if cabin pressure is decreasing, the
275. cabin VSI will indicate
When opening an aircraft door from
outside, what happens to the escape
276. slide
277. A shuttle valve is used to
278. The temperature of hydraulic fluid is
After the engine has been shut
down
Both pilots immediately and
the cabin crew plus all
passengers after 30 minutes
above FL 100 but below FL 130
The door cannot be opened
from the outside
Cut through the aircraft
fuselage to allow escape
25,000 ft
GPU may not be running
during refueling
Water
To be more efficient at high
speed
needs no special treatment
zero
inflates
restrict the rate of operation
of a system
after the cooler
Automatically when a fire
warning is sensed
Both pilots only
If the door is opened from the
outside the slide will remain
stowed
Enable access behind panels
and soundproofing to aid fire
fighting
32,000 ft
All earthing of aircraft parts to
ground equipment must be
completed before filler caps
are removed
Dry powder
No need for anti-icing
is harmful to eyes and skin
climb
deploys, but does not inflate
select the most suitable
system pressure
in the reservoir
By the pilot when required
Both Pilots and all
passengers
If the door is opened from
the outside the slide will
deploy and inflate
Cut firewood in a survival
situation
37,000 ft
Passengers may be boarded (
traversing the refueling zone )
Special fluid
Create a pitch up by making
the aeroplane tail heavy
is a fire hazard
descent
inflates, but stays inside its
container
allow two supplies to be
available to a service
at the actuator
ATPL Question Bank
Automatically after a time
delay to allow the engine to
stop
Both pilots immediately and
the cabin crew plus some
passengers after 30 minutes
above FL 100 but below FL
130
Entrance to the aircraft from
outside must be made
through the `break in' panel
Restrain disorderly
passengers
41,000 ft
No radar or HF radios under
test within 10 metres
Halon
To be out of the way of the
wing down wash
is harmful to eyes and skin,
and is also a fire hazard
reducing pressure
is disarmed
to allow a constant volume
pump to idle
at the pumps
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
measured
279. Reverse thrust lights come on when
An aircraft is to fly at 29000ft When
280. should the oxygen briefing take place
The excess cabin altitude alerting
system must operate to warn the
281. crew at
What does three green lights
represent when the landing gear is
282. selected down
283. How do differential ailerons work
What is the effect of heating flight
284. deck windows
If an aircraft suffers a decompression
what happens to the indications on a
cabin VSI, cabin altimeter and
285. differential pressure gauge
286. How much fuel can be jettisoned
287. The power for LP fuel pumps is
288. What is a relay
An aircraft is in straight and level
flight at a constant cabin altitude
when the crew notice the rate of
climb indicator reads -200ft/min.
289. What will be the sequence of events
The angle formed between plane of
290. rotation and relative airflow is called:-
291. The advantages of a turbo jet engine
reverser doors are unlocked
before 10000ft.
8000ft
the gear is down
Increase lift on down going
wing and decrease lift on up
going wing
to demist the interior of the
window if normal demist does
not function correctly
VSI up, altimeter up,
differential pressure gauge
down
a specific amount
28v DC
solenoid valve
crew should begin a climb to
regain cabin altitude
angle of attack
high propulsive efficiency
when reverse power above
idle is selected
before 14000ft.
10000ft
the gear is down and locked
increase drag on up going
wing and decrease drag on
down going wing
to protect the windows
against bird strike
VSI , altimeter, differential
pressure gauge all unchanged
the captain decides
28v AC
magnetic switch
cabin altitude will increase to
outside atmospheric pressure
angle of advance
lowest thrust specific fuel
when reverse thrust is
selected in flight
at 20000ft
13000ft
the gear and doors are down
and locked
equalise the drag on up
going and down going wings
to protect the windows
against ice formation
VSI down , altimeter up,
differential pressure gauge
down
all
115v DC
converts electrical energy
into heat energy
cabin altitude will descend
to, and continue beyond
normal max. diff, at which
point the safety valves will
open.
pitch
efficient at high speed
ATPL Question Bank
when the doors move
towards the stowed position
inadvertently
before take-off
14000ft
the gear is travelling between
up and down
equalise the lift on up going
and down going wings
to protect the windows
against bird strike and ice
formation
VSI up, altimeter down,
differential pressure gauge
down
a specified amount must
remain
200vAC
used in starter motor circuit
cabin altitude will increase to,
and continue beyond normal
max. diff, at which point the
safety valves will open.
blade angle
both (a) and b) are correct
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

are:- consumption operation

assist the basic engine
292. A good thrust reverser should : be mechanically strong have small backward thrust operation all the above are correct
The index of fire hazard of a gas
293. turbine fuel is flash point vapour point cloud point viscosity
If the gas turbine engine is supplied the exhaust gas temperature
294. with lean mixture of fuel and air:- the compressor may surge may increase the engine may flame out none of the above is correct
The lubricating oil used in gas turbine
295. engine should :- have low volatility have low viscosity have low flash point all of the above are correct
increase the incoming air
The purpose of an engine inlet duct is supply sufficient air in the create suction in front of the create turbulence in front of velocity in front of the
296. to:- engine compressor the compressor compressor
The shape of a supersonic engine duct
297. is convergent parallel convergent divergent divergent
The thrust developed by the engine,
taking into consideration of any
presence of initial air mass
298. momentum is called:- gross thrust static thrust thrust net thrust
greater fuel flow than the ignition system
299. A hot start could be the result of normal TGT rise faster than normal malfunctioning Both a) and b) are correct
With increasing altitude the thrust of drop of pressure or density of
300. a turbojet engine decreases due to:- temperature drop air less humidity in the air less oxygen in the air
The advantage of a bypass engine
301. over jet engine is:- less fuel consumption less frontal area longer take off roll less weight power ratio
Upto idle RPM fuel flows through
302. the:- secondary fuel manifold primary fuel manifold both primary and secondary bypass fuel manifold
by using aileron up float and by having tail mounted using aileron up float and by having wing mounted
How can wing bending moments be keeping the centre section fuel engines and using aileron down using the fuel in the wing engines and using the wing
303. reduced in flight tanks full for as long as possible float tanks last fuel tanks first
Which is the correct statement the outboard ailerons are used the outboard ailerons are only the inboard ailerons are only the inboard ailerons are
regarding a large aircraft fitted with only when the landing gear is used only when the landing used when the flaps are used when the flaps are
304. both inboard and outboard ailerons selected down gear is retracted retracted extended
On a modern jet transport the
hydraulic reservoirs are normally by a separate helium gas by air from the air
305. pressurized supply conditioning system by engine bleed air in flight only
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
A ram air turbine may be used to
provide emergency hydraulic power
306. for
An under inflated tyre on a dry
307. runway
An aircraft is in straight and level
flight at a constant cabin altitude
when the crew notice the rate of
climb indicator reads -200ft/min.
308. What will be the sequence of events
If the outflow valves failed closed in
309. flight the effect would be
Modern transport aircraft fuel
310. booster pumps are generally
Modern passenger aircraft fuel tanks
311. are pressurised by
Where are the fuel heaters fitted on
312. jet aircraft
The fuel cross feed system enables
313. fuel to be
The areas that heated by a bleed air
system on a modern jet passenger
314. transport are
If a CSDU overheat warning occurs,
315. the
What is disconnected if the fire
handle is pulled in an aircraft with an
316. AC generator system
The frequency of an AC generator is
317. dependent upon
In an aircraft which uses DC as the
primary source of power, AC for the
318. instruments may be obtained from
319. How are the loads on an aircraft
landing gear extension
decreases viscous
hydroplaning speed
crew should begin a climb to
regain cabin altitude
to damage the aircraft skin
centrifugal and powered by do
induction motors
low pressure bleed air
in each tank
supplied to the outboard
engines from any outboard
tank
leading edges of all aerofoil
surfaces
CSDU can be disconnected and
not used for the rest of the
flight
generator control relay
(exciter control relay) and GCB
poles only
a rectifier
in parallel so that the current
flight controls
causes the tyre temperature
to fall
cabin altitude will increase to
outside atmospheric pressure
to increase cabin pressure to
max differential
centrifugal and powered by ac
induction motors
low pressure inert gas system
on the engine
transferred from the centre
tank to the wing tanks only
leading edges of all aerofoil
surfaces including flaps
the pilot must throttle back
the effected engine
GCB
poles and rpm
the AC busbar
in parallel so that the voltage
nose wheel steering
increases wear on the
shoulder
cabin altitude will descend
to, and continue beyond
normal max. diff., at which
point the safety valves will
open.
to increase cabin altitude
spur gear and powered by do
induction motors
the air discharged by the air
conditioning system
they are not required
supplied to any engine
mounted on a wing from any
tank within that wing
leading edges of all aerofoil
surfaces including slats
(where fitted)
CSDU can be disconnected
and then re-connected when
it has cooled down
BTB
rpm only
a TRU
in series so that the current
ATPL Question Bank
leading edge flap extension
only
increases wear on the crown
cabin altitude will increase to,
and continue beyond normal
max. diff., at which point the
safety valves will open
to shut down the air
conditioning system
spur gear and powered by ac
induction motors
ram air through the vent
system
centre tank only
supplied to any engine from
any tank
upper surfaces of the wings
only
CSDU must be disconnected
and the alternator is
controlled directly by the pilot
Generator control relay
(exciter control relay) and
BTB
load
an inverter
in series so that the voltage
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
busbar connected
320. Hot or vital busbars are
321. A static inverter is a
If AC generators are connected in
parallel the reactive loads are
322. balanced by adjusting the
The voltage regulator of a DC
323. generator is connected in
If the frequency of a series capacitve
circuit increases, what happens to the
324. current
The advantages of a chemical oxygen
325. generator system are
An aircraft operating at FL 350 must
have sufficient supplementary oxygen
available for 100% of passengers for a
descent from its maximum
certificated operating altitude to
326. allow a descent to
The passenger oxygen drop down
327. mask stowage doors are released
The fire extinguisher system for an
328. engine is activated
The flight deck warning of an engine
329. fire is
In a gas turbine the maximum gas
330. temperature is reached
When TAS increases the pitch angle of
331. a constant speed propeller
reduces through the busbar as
loads are switched off
heated by bleed air
transistorised unit that
converts AC to DC
frequency
series with the armature and
parallel with the shunt field
it increases
it is a self contained system, it
is relatively light
13000 ft in 30 minutes
barometrically operated latch
automatically immediately a
fire is sensed
individual warning lights and
bells
in the combustion chamber
increases
reduces through the busbar as
loads are switched off
connected directly to the
battery
transistorised unit that
converts DC to AC
torque of the CSDU
parallel with the armature
and parallel with the shunt
field
it decreases
it can be filled from outside
the pressure hull , it can be
turned off
15000 ft in 4 minutes
electrically for chemical
generator systems and
pneumatically for gaseous
systems
automatically once the engine
has been shut down
a common light and common
aural warning
at the turbine exit
decreases
reduces through the busbar as
loads are switched off
connected directly to the DC
generator
fixed unit that changes DC
voltages
energising current
series with the armature and
series with the shunt field
it stays the same
the flow of oxygen can be
regulated, it can be turned off
15000 ft in 10 minutes
electrically for gaseous
systems and pneumatically for
chemical generator systems
by the pilot immediately a
fire is detected
aural warning only
across the turbine
remains constant
ATPL Question Bank
reduces through the busbar as
loads are switched off
connected directly to the AC
generator
fixed unit that changes AC
voltages
voltage
parallel with the armature
and series with the shunt field
it increases or decreases
all of the above
10000 ft in 4 minutes
by the cabin crew
by the pilot once the engine
has been shut down
individual warning lights and
a common aural warning
in the cooling air around the
turbine
decreases and then returns
to its original angle
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

Adjusting the mixture of piston increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to
engines as aircraft altitude increases compensate for decreasing air compensate for decreasing air compensate for increasing air compensate for increasing air
332. is necessary to density density density density
When high pressure bleed valves
333. open they reduce the EPR increase the fuel flow reduce the EGT increase the thrust
The fan stage of ducted fan engine is HP compressor through
334. driven by the LP turbine IP turbine HP turbine reduction gearing
With the CSU governor in the
underspeed condition, oil will be
335. directed to increase the blade angle decrease the blade angle decrease the rpm open the throttle valve
At what speed does the LP
336. compressor run the speed of the LP turbine the speed of the IP turbine the speed of the HP turbine constant speed
The volume of the scavenge pump(s)
in an engine lubrication system is compensate for thermal
greater than that of the pressure prevent cavitation of the oil ensure heat is dissipated expansion of the lubricating ensure that the engine sump
337. pump(s) in order to system feedlines more efficiently fluid remains dry
Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to increase the mass flow at high prevent a compressor stall at prevent a compressor stall at decelerate the flow into the
338. gas turbine engines to speeds low engine speed high engine speeds compressor
A gas turbine engine power change is fuel supplied and the amount fuel supplied and the amount
339. achieved by adjusting the amount of of air entering the compressor fuel supplied air supplied of air entering the turbine
What happens to the pressure and
velocity of the gas stream from root velocity increases, pressure velocity decreases, pressure
340. to tip across the nozzle guide vanes both remain constant both increase decreases increases
The effect of climbing at rated rpm produce no change to the reduce the time to full
341. but less than rated boost is to increase full throttle height reduce full throttle height full throttle height throttle height.
dynamic minus static
342. A pitot head is used to measure: pressure. static plus dynamic pressure. static pressure. dynamic pressure.
dynamic pressure minus pitot dynamic pressure plus pitot
343. A static vent is used to measure: excess. excess. atmospheric pressure. pitot excess pressure.
Turbulent flow around a pressure 95% increase in manoeuvre an increase in the dynamic
344. head will cause: density error. induced error. pressure. 95% of pressure error.
Static vents are usually fitted to both balance out errors caused by require a calibration card for enable a greater number of
345. sides of the aircraft fuselage. This will: reduce the position error. side slipping or yawing. each static vent. instruments to be fitted.
Which of the following instruments airspeed indicator,
require inputs of both pitot and static machmeter and vertical speed airspeed indicator, vertical airspeed indicator and
346. pressure: indicator. speed indicator, altimeter. airspeed indicator only. machmeter.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

Where an alternate static source is

fitted, use of this source usually leads a temporary increase in lag a lower pressure error than
347. to: error. with normal sources. an increase in position error. no change in position error.
Converted into degrees Celsius - 40°F
348. is: -56.5°C -40°C -20°C -108°C
the maximum temperature the temperature indicated on
attainable by the air when the air temperature the static air temperature the recovery factor plus the
349. Total Air Temperature is: brought to rest, adiabatically. thermometer plus the ram rise. minus the recovery factor. ram rise.
The difference between static air
temperature and total air corrected outside air
350. temperature is known as: temperature. the ram rise. the recovery factor. hot ramp radiation.
If the pitot line to an ASI becomes
totally blocked during a climb, the ASI decrease, no matter what the increase, no matter what the progressively under indicate stick at the airspeed showing
351. reading will: actual airspeed is. actual airspeed is. the value of the airspeed. at the moment of blockage.
is calibrated out of the ASI at is calibrated out of the ASI at
MSL ISA conditions and only MSL ISA conditions and only
causes overreading of the ASI causes overreading when air causes overreading when air
at all levels whenever TAS causes overreading of the ASI density is decreased and CAS density is decreased and TAS
352. Compressibility error: exceeds 300 kt. whenever CAS exceeds 300 kt. exceeds 300 kt. exceeds 300 kt.
overreading, this indicated underreading, this indicated underreading, this indicated overreading, this indicated
If the static line to the ASI becomes speed falsely showing the speed falsely showing the speed possibly leading to the speed possibly leading to the
blocked during a long descent, a aircraft to be further from the aircraft to be closer to the operation of flaps and/or operation of flaps and/or
dangerous situation could arise due stalling speed than it actually stalling speed than it actually landing gear at speeds in landing gear at speeds in
353. to the ASI: is. is. excess of safety speeds. excess of safety speeds.
The airspeed indicator is calibrated conditions of the International conditions of the International an air density of 1013.25 indicate correctly in any
354. to: Standard Atmosphere. Standard Atmosphere at MSL. gms/m3 atmosphere.
instrument error, position instrument error, position instrument error, position
instrument error, position error, temperature error, error, barometric error, error, density error,
Excluding blockages, the full list of error, density error, compressibility error, temperature error, lag, compressibility error,
355. errors of the ASI is: manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error.
If the static line to the ASI becomes
blocked during a climb, the ASI increase, no matter what the progressively under indicate progressively over indicate stick at the airspeed showing
356. reading will: actual airspeed is. the value of airspeed. the value of airspeed. at the moment of blockage.
In the International Standard
Atmosphere, the mean sea level 1225 mb; 2°C per 1000 ft; 37 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 1225 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 ft;
357. pressure is ............., the lapse rate of 000 ft; 66 000 ft. ft; 36 090 ft; 65 617 ft. ft; 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft. 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
temperature ............. between MSL
and ............. and is isothermal up to
............. The numbers missing are:
An aircraft taking off from an airfield
with QNH set on the altimeter has
both static vents blocked by ice. As
the aircraft climbs away the altimeter
358. will:
When flying from low pressure to
high pressure, the barometric error of
an altimeter will cause the instrument
359. to:
The errors affecting the pressure
360. altimeter are:
During a missed approach and go-
around procedure the change of
aircraft attitude plus raising of the
landing gear and changing of flap
settings can cause short term
unpredictable errors in certain
instruments. The instruments most
361. likely to be affected in this case are:
When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is
362. likely to show:
If the static vent becomes blocked
363. during a climb:
364. In conditions of clear air turbulence:
Change of temperature as an aircraft
365. climbs or descends:
At FL 350 with a ISA deviation of-12,
366. the true airspeed when flying at M
read the airfield elevation.
read the true altitude,
providing a correction is made
for temperature.
instrument position,
manoeuvre induced, density,
temperature, lag.
the altimeter, artificial horizon
and vertical speed indicator.
no change in altitude.
the VSI will stop at the rate of
climb of the aircraft at the time
of blockage.
the standard VSI is more
sensitive.
will affect VSI readings
whenever temperature lapse
rate differs from standard
conditions.
460 kt
indicate the aircraft height
amsl.
overread the true altitude of
the aircraft.
instrument, pressure,
manoeuvre induced, density,
temperature, lag.
the airspeed indicator,
machmeter and vertical speed
indicator.
a slight clim
the VSI will indicate a
decreasing rate of clim
the IVSI is more sensitive.
is compensated at the
metering unit by means of a
capillary and orifice.
436 kt
read the height of the aircraft
above the airfield.
indicate a higher altitude
than the correct one.
instrument, position,
manoeuvre induced,
temperature, barometric, lag.
the machmeter, airspeed
indicator, altimeter and
vertical speed indicator.
a slight descent.
the VSI will return to zero.
both types will react the
same.
has no effect on the VSI as
only static pressure is used in
this instrument.
447 kt
ATPL Question Bank
show only a very small
increase in height.
underread the true altitude of
the aircraft.
instrument, pressure, lag,
barometric, temperature,
compressibility.
the vertical speed indicator,
airspeed indicator and
altimeter.
a slight descent at high
airspeed only.
the VSI will indicate an
increasing rate of climb.
the vertical acceleration
pump will not be affected.
may be allowed for by use of
tables or computer.
490 kt
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

Adjusting the mixture of piston increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to
engines as aircraft altitude increases compensate for decreasing air compensate for decreasing air compensate for increasing air compensate for increasing air
332. is necessary to density density density density
When high pressure bleed valves
333. open they reduce the EPR increase the fuel flow reduce the EGT increase the thrust
The fan stage of ducted fan engine is HP compressor through
334. driven by the LP turbine IP turbine HP turbine reduction gearing
With the CSU governor in the
underspeed condition, oil will be
335. directed to increase the blade angle decrease the blade angle decrease the rpm open the throttle valve
At what speed does the LP
336. compressor run the speed of the LP turbine the speed of the IP turbine the speed of the HP turbine constant speed
The volume of the scavenge pump(s)
in an engine lubrication system is compensate for thermal
greater than that of the pressure prevent cavitation of the oil ensure heat is dissipated expansion of the lubricating ensure that the engine sump
337. pump(s) in order to system feedlines more efficiently fluid remains dry
Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to increase the mass flow at high prevent a compressor stall at prevent a compressor stall at decelerate the flow into the
338. gas turbine engines to speeds low engine speed high engine speeds compressor
A gas turbine engine power change is fuel supplied and the amount fuel supplied and the amount
339. achieved by adjusting the amount of of air entering the compressor fuel supplied air supplied of air entering the turbine
What happens to the pressure and
velocity of the gas stream from root velocity increases, pressure velocity decreases, pressure
340. to tip across the nozzle guide vanes both remain constant both increase decreases increases
The effect of climbing at rated rpm produce no change to the reduce the time to full
341. but less than rated boost is to increase full throttle height reduce full throttle height full throttle height throttle height.
dynamic minus static
342. A pitot head is used to measure: pressure. static plus dynamic pressure. static pressure. dynamic pressure.
dynamic pressure minus pitot dynamic pressure plus pitot
343. A static vent is used to measure: excess. excess. atmospheric pressure. pitot excess pressure.
Turbulent flow around a pressure 95% increase in manoeuvre an increase in the dynamic
344. head will cause: density error. induced error. pressure. 95% of pressure error.
Static vents are usually fitted to both balance out errors caused by require a calibration card for enable a greater number of
345. sides of the aircraft fuselage. This will: reduce the position error. side slipping or yawing. each static vent. instruments to be fitted.
Which of the following instruments airspeed indicator,
require inputs of both pitot and static machmeter and vertical speed airspeed indicator, vertical airspeed indicator and
346. pressure: indicator. speed indicator, altimeter. airspeed indicator only. machmeter.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

Where an alternate static source is

fitted, use of this source usually leads a temporary increase in lag a lower pressure error than
347. to: error. with normal sources. an increase in position error. no change in position error.
Converted into degrees Celsius - 40°F
348. is: -56.5°C -40°C -20°C -108°C
the maximum temperature the temperature indicated on
attainable by the air when the air temperature the static air temperature the recovery factor plus the
349. Total Air Temperature is: brought to rest, adiabatically. thermometer plus the ram rise. minus the recovery factor. ram rise.
The difference between static air
temperature and total air corrected outside air
350. temperature is known as: temperature. the ram rise. the recovery factor. hot ramp radiation.
If the pitot line to an ASI becomes
totally blocked during a climb, the ASI decrease, no matter what the increase, no matter what the progressively under indicate stick at the airspeed showing
351. reading will: actual airspeed is. actual airspeed is. the value of the airspeed. at the moment of blockage.
is calibrated out of the ASI at is calibrated out of the ASI at
MSL ISA conditions and only MSL ISA conditions and only
causes overreading of the ASI causes overreading when air causes overreading when air
at all levels whenever TAS causes overreading of the ASI density is decreased and CAS density is decreased and TAS
352. Compressibility error: exceeds 300 kt. whenever CAS exceeds 300 kt. exceeds 300 kt. exceeds 300 kt.
overreading, this indicated underreading, this indicated underreading, this indicated overreading, this indicated
If the static line to the ASI becomes speed falsely showing the speed falsely showing the speed possibly leading to the speed possibly leading to the
blocked during a long descent, a aircraft to be further from the aircraft to be closer to the operation of flaps and/or operation of flaps and/or
dangerous situation could arise due stalling speed than it actually stalling speed than it actually landing gear at speeds in landing gear at speeds in
353. to the ASI: is. is. excess of safety speeds. excess of safety speeds.
The airspeed indicator is calibrated conditions of the International conditions of the International an air density of 1013.25 indicate correctly in any
354. to: Standard Atmosphere. Standard Atmosphere at MSL. gms/m3 atmosphere.
instrument error, position instrument error, position instrument error, position
instrument error, position error, temperature error, error, barometric error, error, density error,
Excluding blockages, the full list of error, density error, compressibility error, temperature error, lag, compressibility error,
355. errors of the ASI is: manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error. manoeuvre induced error.
If the static line to the ASI becomes
blocked during a climb, the ASI increase, no matter what the progressively under indicate progressively over indicate stick at the airspeed showing
356. reading will: actual airspeed is. the value of airspeed. the value of airspeed. at the moment of blockage.
In the International Standard
Atmosphere, the mean sea level 1225 mb; 2°C per 1000 ft; 37 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 1225 mb; 1.98°C per 1000 ft;
357. pressure is ............., the lapse rate of 000 ft; 66 000 ft. ft; 36 090 ft; 65 617 ft. ft; 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft. 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
temperature ............. between MSL
and ............. and is isothermal up to
............. The numbers missing are:
An aircraft taking off from an airfield
with QNH set on the altimeter has
both static vents blocked by ice. As
the aircraft climbs away the altimeter
358. will:
When flying from low pressure to
high pressure, the barometric error of
an altimeter will cause the instrument
359. to:
The errors affecting the pressure
360. altimeter are:
During a missed approach and go-
around procedure the change of
aircraft attitude plus raising of the
landing gear and changing of flap
settings can cause short term
unpredictable errors in certain
instruments. The instruments most
361. likely to be affected in this case are:
When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is
362. likely to show:
If the static vent becomes blocked
363. during a climb:
364. In conditions of clear air turbulence:
Change of temperature as an aircraft
365. climbs or descends:
At FL 350 with a ISA deviation of-12,
366. the true airspeed when flying at M
read the airfield elevation.
read the true altitude,
providing a correction is made
for temperature.
instrument position,
manoeuvre induced, density,
temperature, lag.
the altimeter, artificial horizon
and vertical speed indicator.
no change in altitude.
the VSI will stop at the rate of
climb of the aircraft at the time
of blockage.
the standard VSI is more
sensitive.
will affect VSI readings
whenever temperature lapse
rate differs from standard
conditions.
460 kt
indicate the aircraft height
amsl.
overread the true altitude of
the aircraft.
instrument, pressure,
manoeuvre induced, density,
temperature, lag.
the airspeed indicator,
machmeter and vertical speed
indicator.
a slight clim
the VSI will indicate a
decreasing rate of clim
the IVSI is more sensitive.
is compensated at the
metering unit by means of a
capillary and orifice.
436 kt
read the height of the aircraft
above the airfield.
indicate a higher altitude
than the correct one.
instrument, position,
manoeuvre induced,
temperature, barometric, lag.
the machmeter, airspeed
indicator, altimeter and
vertical speed indicator.
a slight descent.
the VSI will return to zero.
both types will react the
same.
has no effect on the VSI as
only static pressure is used in
this instrument.
447 kt
ATPL Question Bank
show only a very small
increase in height.
underread the true altitude of
the aircraft.
instrument, pressure, lag,
barometric, temperature,
compressibility.
the vertical speed indicator,
airspeed indicator and
altimeter.
a slight descent at high
airspeed only.
the VSI will indicate an
increasing rate of climb.
the vertical acceleration
pump will not be affected.
may be allowed for by use of
tables or computer.
490 kt
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
0.78 is:
When climbing at a constant mach
number below the tropopause
367. through an inversion:
When descending below the
tropopause under normal conditions
(increasing temperature) at a
368. constant CAS:
Cruising at FL390, M 0.84 is found to
give a TAS of 499 kt. The ISA deviation
369. at this level will be:
The errors to which the machmeter is
370. subject are:
The machmeter gives an indication of
371. mach number by measuring the ratio:
An aircraft is flying at FL350 with a JSA
deviation of +8. The mach no is 0.83
and the TAS 485. If the aircraft
descends to FL300 and maintains the
same mach no and TAS, the JSA
372. deviation will now be:
In a standby direct reading compass
373. there is:
To improve the horizontality of a
compass, the magnet assembly is
374. suspended from a point:
The magnitude, and sense, of turning
error shown by a direct reading
375. compass varies with:
376. Errors of the directional gyro are:
the CAS and TAS will both
increase.
both TAS and mach number
will decrease.
-17
instrument error, position
error, compressibility error and
manoeuvre induced error.
pitot pressure/static pressure
8 -2
a non-pendulously mounted
magnet system.
on the centre line of the
magnet.
the design of the compass and
the amount of dip at the
aircraft's latitude.
acceleration error, turning
error, altitude error, transport
wander, rotor speed error.
the CAS and TAS will both
decrease.
both TAS and mach number
will increase.
17
instrument error, position
error.
static pressure/dynamic
pressure
a single pendulously mounted
bar magnet.
below the centre of gravity.
the direction of the turn and
the rate of turn.
gimballing error, random
wander, apparent wander,
rotor speed error, transport
wander.
the CAS will decrease and the
TAS will increase.
the TAS will decrease and the
mach number will increase.
19
instrument error, position
error, barometric error,
temperature error and
manoeuvre induced error.
dynamic pressure / pitot
pressure
2 -18
a circular magnet or pair of
bar magnets pendulously
mounted.
above the centre of gravity.
which hemisphere the
aircraft is in and the heading
of the aircraft.
gimballing error, looping
error, rolling error, rotor
speed error, transport
wander.
ATPL Question Bank
the CAS will increase and the
TAS will decrease.
the TAS will increase and the
mach number will decrease.
-19
instrument error, position
error, density error and
manoeuvre induced error.
dynamic pressure / static
pressure
a low magnetic moment
system, either of circular or
bar configuration.
varying with magnetic
latitude.
all of the above.
transport wander, apparent
wander, latitude error,
turning error, acceleration
error.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
377. The purpose of the caging knob is:
In an air driven directional gyro the air
378. jets are attached to:
The limits of pitch and roll for a
modern directional gyro are
379. respectively:
During the take-off run an air driven
380. artificial horizon will usually indicate:
False nose-up attitude displayed on
air driven artificial horizon during the
381. take-off run is caused by:
The rotor axis of an electrical horizon
382. is tied to the earth's vertical by:
False right wing low attitude shown
on an air driven artificial horizon
383. during an acceleration is caused by:
384. Inside an artificial horizon:
When the pointer of a rate of turn
385. indicator shows a steady rate of turn:
If the filter of the air driven rate of
turn indicator becomes partially
386. blocked:
The radius of a turn at rate l, and TAS
387. 360 kt is:
The gimbal ring of a turn co-ordinator
is inclined at about 30° with respect
to the aircraft's longitudinal axis in
388. order:
to prevent the gyro toppling.
the inner gimbal.
55' and 85'
nose up and incorrect left
bank.
the high pendulosity of the
rotor
four pendulous vanes
the lag of the base of the rotor
housing
the inner gimbal ring is pivoted
laterally inside the outer
gimbal ring and the outer
gimbal ring is pivoted
longitudinally inside the case
the calibrated spring is
exerting a force about the
lateral axis equal to the rate of
turn
the aircraft will turn faster
than indicated
10nm
make the rate of turn more
accurate
to reset the heading.
the outer gimbal.
85' and 55'
a false descending turn to the
right.
the lag of the lateral
pendulous vanes
the roll cut out
the logitudinal pendulous
vanes
the inner gimbal ring is tied to
the vertical by a control system
the force produced by the
spring is producing a
precession equal to but
opposite to the rate of turn is
correctly banked
the instrument will overread
5nm
make the gyro sensitive to
banking of the aircraft as well
as to turning
to reset the heading and to
prevent toppling.
the instrument casing.
55' and 55'
increased nose up attitude
and right wing low.
the linear acceleration cut out
the low centre of gravity of
the rotor housing
the roll cut-out
the rotor axis is kept level by a
calibrated spring attached to
the outer gimbal ring and the
instrument case
the spring is providing a force
which produces a precession
equal to the rate of turn (in
the opposite direction).
the rate of turn indicated will
be unaffected
7.5nm
make the gyro more effective
during inverted flight
ATPL Question Bank
to prevent apparent wander.
the rotor axis.
85' and 85'
a false climbing turn to the
left.
incorrect rotor speed
two mercury level switches
and two torque motors
high rotor speed
there is only one gimbal ring
the spring is providing a force
which produces a precession
equal to the rate of turn (in
the correct direction)
the radius of the turn will
decrease
2nm
have a higher rotor speed
which will prolong the life of
the instrument
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
Regulatory Requirements state that
the maximum permissible deviations
389. after compensation are:
Compass swings should be carried
390. out:
Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical
391. Soft Iron:
Aircraft magnetism caused by Hard
392. Iron:
393. The aim of a compass swing is:
The detector unit of a remote
394. indicating compass is normally:
In a remote indicating compass, the
rotor of the slaved gyro is
automatically prevented from
wandering in the vertical plane by
395. means of:
Regulations state that the residual
deviation of a remote indicating
396. compass shall not exceed;
A DG flag appears on the pilots gyro
unit. What does it indicate to the
397. pilot?
The purpose of the annunciator
398. circuit is to:
The amber ALERT light on an INS
399. control and display unit:
During initialisation of an INS the
400. aircraft must not be moved until:
one degree for a remote
indicating compass and ten
degrees for a direct reading
magnetic compass.
on the apron.
varies with magnetic heading
but not with magnetic latitude.
is not usually influenced by the
earth's magnetic field.
to find deviation on the
cardinal headings and to
calculate coefficients A, B and
C.
Fixed in the vertical plane only
A levelling switch and torque
motor
1 degree
Remote indicating compass in
unserviceable
Alternate irregularly
illuminates steadily 2 minutes,
in AUTO mode, before reaching
the next waypoint.
The ramp position has been
inserted and checked.
three degrees for a direct
reading magnetic compass and
one degree for a remote
indicating compass.
only on the compass swinging
base or site.
varies with magnetic latitude
but not with heading.
varies directly with magnetic
latitude.
to eliminate or reduce the
coefficients found.
Fixed in the azimuth
pendulous suspension
3 degrees
The compass is misaligned
Alternate regularly
start flashing 2 minutes
before reaching the next
waypoint and goes out at 30
seconds to run.
The platform is levelled.
ten degrees for a remote
indicating compass and one
degree for a direct reading
magnetic compass.
at the holding point.
it is not affected magnetic
latitude or heading.
varies indirectly with
magnetic latitude.
to record any residual
deviation and to prepare a
compass correction card.
Free in the vertical
Bevel gears and gimbals
2 degrees
The gyro is no longer being
monitored by the detector
unit
To indicate that the system is
synchronised
illuminates if power from the
aircraft bus bar has been lost
and the system is operating
on standby battery.
The gyros and accelerometers
are in the "null" position.
ATPL Question Bank
one degree for a direct
reading magnetic compass
and eleven degrees for a
slaved compass.
on the active runway.
varies as the cosine of the
compass heading.
is maximum on east and
west.
all of the above.
Free in the horizontal plane
A torque motor
5 degrees
The compass is aligned with
the detector unit
To show by a dot or a cross
independently that the
system is synchronised
illuminates steadily after
passing a waypoint in manual
mode, until the next leg is
programmed in.
The green "ready NAV" light
has been illuminated and the
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
When using EHSI, weather radar may
401. be displayed on following settings:
402. WXR display is controlled from:
Decision height is adjusted and set on
403. the:
404. WXR display is on:
405. Airspeed is shown:
With an EFIS flight director using IRS
406. guidance, reference north can be:
Modes available for (EFIS) HSI on
407. some units are:
An EFIS as well as having a control
panel, symbol generators and a
408. remote light sensor also has:
A partially blocked air filter will cause
409. the air-driven turn indicator to:
An aircraft is climbing at a constant
Mach No. below the tropopause in
ISA conditions. During the climb the
410. CAS will:
An aircraft is flying at FL
390,temperature ISA, at Mach 0.85.
411. The TAS of the aircraft is:
The rate of precession of a gyro
varies:- APPLIED FORCE ROTOR SPEED
412. ROTOR MASS
In a climb the pitot line becomes
blocked. The vertical speed indicator
413. (VSI) will indicate:
map, VOR/ILS.
captains EHSI control only.
flight management computer.
the captains CRT only.
only on the captains EHSI.
magnetic north only.
airspeed and Mach.
EADIS and EHSIs
under read the correct rate of
turn.
decrease due to decreasing
density error.
561
directly inversely inversely
the original rate of climb.
VOR/ILS, map, expanded plan.
co-pilots EHSI control only.
HSI section of the EFIS control
panel.
the co-pilots CRT only.
on both EADIs.
magnetic north between
73°Nth and 65°Sth and true
north above these latitudes.
MAP and PLAN.
EHSIs and altitude indicator
over read the correct rate of
turn.
increase due to falling
temperature.
476
directly inversely directly
too high a rate of clim
expanded map, VOR/ILS, plan.
a special control panel.
ADI section of the EFIS control
panel.
a special screen.
on both EHSIs.
magnetic north between
65°Nth and 73°Sth and true
north above these latitudes.
VOR, ILS, MAP and AUTO
TRIM.
EADIS and EICAs
read in the reverse sense.
decrease due to increasing
density error.
485
inversely directly inversely
too low a rate of climb.
ATPL Question Bank
mode selector switch has
been set to the "NAV"
position.
map, expanded VOR/ILS.
both captains and co-pilots
EHSI control panels.
ADI or HSI
on both the captains and co-
pilots CRTs.
only on the flight
management CRT.
magnetic north between
750Nth and 75°Sth and true
north above these latitudes.
only from manometric
sources.
EADI and WXR display tubes.
indicate zero rate of turn.
increase due to the LSS
decreasing.
472
inversely directly directly
zero.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a
descent when the static line becomes
414. blocked. The altimeter then reads:
In high speed flight at high altitude
415. the static source will suffer:
An increase of 0.15 in Mach number
results in an increase of 93 kt in TAS.
If the temperature deviation from ISA
416. is +9°C, the FL is:
If the pitot line becomes blocked in
417. the descent, the ASI will indicate:
418. The restricted choke in the VSI:
The latitude correcting device of an
419. air driven directional gyro is:
An uncorrected gyro is set to read
100°. The gyro reading after 45
minutes when stationary on the
420. ground in latitude 25°S is:
If the static source to an altimeter
becomes blocked during a descent,
421. the instrument:
The product of the first integration of
the output from the N/S
422. accelerometer in INS equipment is:
The principle of operation of the turn
423. and slip indicator is best described as:
With reference to a 'north referenced'
inertial navigation system (INS), 'gyro
424. compassing' is:
6,500 ft
barometric error
FL 200
an increasing CAS
will prevent the instrument
being damaged by high rates of
climb and descent.
an adjustable weight attached
to the outer gimbal of the DI.
106.3°
will over read by a constant
amount.
departure
a space gyro which uses the
force of precession against a
spring to give a reading of the
aircraft rate of turn.
the process by which the
inertial platform is aligned with
magnetic north during the
less than 6,500 ft
lag
FL 220
a decreasing CAS
compensates for changes in
temperature and density only.
an adjustable weight attached
to the inner gimbal of the DI.
104.8°
continues to show the height
at which the blockage
occurred.
latitude
a single gimbal gyroscope
whose primary precession is
opposed by a spring which, in
turn, produces a second
precession equal and opposite
to the aircraft rate of turn.
carried out in the STANDBY
mode by aligning the platform
using the aircraft gyromagnetic
more than 6,500 ft
temperature error
FL 170
a steady CAS
creates a differential pressure
between the capsule and the
case as its main function.
the air jet which drives the
rotor.
093.7°
will progressively under read.
velocity along the local
meridian
a single gimbal gyroscope in
which a spring, opposing the
primary precession, in turn
produces a secondary
precession equal to the
aircraft rate of turn.
the process by which the
platform is levelled and
aligned with true north using
ATPL Question Bank
zero
position error
FL 90
zero
compensates for time lag in
the instrument.
a chamber with four exit slots
half covered by pendulous
vanes.
095.3°
pointer will return to indicate
a height equivalent to the
sub-scale setting.
distance along the local
meridian
an earth gyro in which a
calibrated spring ensures the
tilt of the gyro is proportional
to the aircraft rate of turn.
the process by which the
platform is maintained in
correct alignment with true
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

ALIGN phase. compass system to define true the earths gravity, in the north during flight.
north. ALIGN mode.
When accelerating on a westerly
heading in the northern hemisphere,
the magnet assembly of a direct turn clockwise indicating an turn anti-clockwise indicating turn clockwise indicating an turn anti-clockwise indicating
reading magnetic compass, when apparent turn towards the an apparent turn towards the apparent turn towards the an apparent turn towards the
425. viewed from above, will: north. north. south. south.
An aircraft is flying at mach 0.86,
426. temperature 218 Kelvin. The TAS is: 494 kt 477 kt 607 kt 575 kt
The subscale of an altimeter is set to
1030 mb and indicates 4500 ft when
the QNH is 996 mb. Assuming 1mb
equals 30 ft, the true height of the
427. aircraft AMSL is: 3180 ft 3990 ft 5520 ft 3480 ft
An uncorrected DGI is set to read
339° when stationary on the ground
in latitude 59N. The reading after 36
428. minutes will be: 346.7° 331.3° 326.1 351.9°
a right turn due to the
During the take-off run, the air driven a climb due to the pendulosity a climb due to the action of pendulosity of the outer a right turn due to the action
429. artificial horizon will indicate: of the inner gimbal. the pendulous vanes. gimbal. of the pendulous vanes.
is compensated for by
affects the capillary tube in the affects the knife edge orifice affects the bi-metallic strip resetting the VSI to read zero
430. In the VSI, viscosity: restricted choke. in the restricted choke. and compensating spring. on the ground before take-off.
directly with the applied force indirectly with the applied directly with the applied force indirectly with the applied
and directly with the inertia of force and indirectly with the and indirectly with the inertia force and directly with the
431. The precession of a gyroscope varies: the rotor. inertia of the rotor. of the rotor. inertia of the rotor.
The rotor of the pitch correction
motor of the electrical artificial
432. horizon is on: the outer gimbal. the inner gimbal. the instrument case. the top of the gyro unit.
An aircraft flying at FL 100 and at a
constant CAS, flies from an area of
warm air into an area of cold air.
Assuming the QNH is the same during
the change of temperature, the
433. aircraft height AMSL and the TAS will decreased increased increased increased decreased decreased increased decreased
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

have: Height AMSL TAS

An aircraft is climbing at a constant fall due to density decreasing
Mach number. Assuming the rise due to TAS increasing with due to the increase in local rise due to the decreasing fall due to the increasing
434. temperature is ISA, the CAS will: falling density. speed of sound. pressure. density error.
IAS corrected for IAS corrected for instrument CAS corrected for CAS corrected for position
435. Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is: compressibility. error only. compressibility. error.
With reference to the altimeter,
pressure fluctuations at the static
436. vent cause: Barometric error. Temperature error. Position error. Hysteresis error.
static pressure minus pitot pitot pressure plus static pitot pressure minus static
437. Dynamic pressure is: pressure. pressure. density and static pressure. pressure.
directly with pressure and directly with temperature and inversely with temperature inversely with pressure and
438. Density varies: inversely with temperature. pressure. and pressure. directly with temperature.
An aircraft is flying at TAS of 1100 kt
and FL 650. A change of 0.1 mach
causes a change in TAS of 57 kt. The
temperature deviation at FL 650
439. assuming an ISA atmosphere is: -6° +6° -3° +3°
The deviating effect of vertical soft
iron (VSI) ............. with decrease of
magnetic latitude, due to the .............
of H and the ............. of ............. Z
The line containing the words to
correctly complete the above
440. statement is: increase decrease increase decrease increase decrease decreases increase increase increases decrease decrease.
Angle of attack may be sensed by a stick pusher, adjacent to an indexer, in the flight a conical slotted probe, on a hinged vane sensor, on the
441. means of ............. mounted ............. the flying controls. director. the wing leading edge. wing leading edge.
The servo altimeter is superior to the
442. sensitive altimeter because: it reduces barometric error. it reduces high altitude error. it reduces temperature error. all of the above are correct.
An aircraft is flying at FL 290, TAS 500
kt, mach number 0.86 The
443. temperature deviation from ISA is: -7° +7° -15° +25°
increasing the number of increasing the speed of increasing the speed of decreasing the speed of
The rigidity (gyroscopic inertia) of a gimbals and decreasing the rotation and decreasing the rotation and increasing the rotation and increasing the
444. gyroscope may be increased by: number of planes of rotation. mass of the rotor. mass of the rotor. mass of the rotor.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

An electrically driven artificial horizon being more rigid and increased gyro rpm and
considerably reduces the acceleration being less pendulous and more incorporating erection system using mercury switches and giving it the opposite rotation
445. errors of the air driven variety by: rigid. cut-out switches. torque motors. direction.
A blockage in the static line to the VSI
will subsequently cause the
446. instrument to display: a decreased rate of climb. an increased rate of clim a zero rate of climb. an increased rate of descent.
temperature error and density error and instrument temperature error and instrument error and position
447. Machmeter readings are subject to: pressure error. error. density error. error.
the difference between the
actual mean temperature
below the aircraft and the the difference between the inaccurate calibration of the
Temperature error in the altimeter is mean temperature that would actual pressure setting and temperature compensating the ambient temperature at
448. due to: be found in ISA. 1013.2m device. which the aircraft is flying.
In an inertial reference system the
gyros and accelerometers are: GYROS non-strap down non-strap
449. ACCELEROMETERS down strap down strap down strap down non-strap down non-strap down strap down
TAS obtained from indicated
Mach No. corrected for
IAS corrected for CAS corrected for TAS corrected for pressure and instrument
450. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is: compressibility. compressibility. compressibility. error.
In a turn and slip indicator the largest
451. errors will be induced by: yaw angle of bank primary torque reduced spring tension
If the pitot line becomes blocked under read by an increasingly
452. during a climb the machmeter will: be unaffected under read over read erroneous amount.
the flux valve is fixed to the the flux valve is pendulously
the flux valve is pendulously aircraft and so turns with the mounted and so is not
mounted and is free to turn so aircraft to measure the angle affected by the vertical
With reference to the flux valve of a that it remains aligned with the between the aircraft and the the flux valve is not subject to component of the earths
453. gyromagnetic compass: earth magnetic field. earths magnetic field. acceleration errors. magnetic field.
If an increase of 0.15 Mach results in
an increase of 93 kt TAS of an aircraft,
454. the local speed of sound is: 560 kt 685 kt 620 kt 580 kt
An increase of 0.15 Mach results in an
increase of 93 kt TAS of an aircraft. If
the temperature deviation from ISA is
455. +5°C, the approximate flight level is: FL 200 FL 150 FL 220 FL 250
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
456. Total air temperature is:
An aircraft is carrying out a rate one
turn at a TAS of 480 kt. The diameter
457. of the turn will be:
458. An Air Data Computer has inputs of
When using EHSI, weather radar may
459. be displayed on following settings:
On the EHSI the following displays are
460. available:
461. An INS in the "Align" mode will:
During initialisation of an INS the
462. aircraft must not be moved until:
463. Select the correct statement:
An aircraft flies an altitude of 3500
feet from A, elevation 700 feet QNH
1015 mb to B, elevation 1120 feet
QNH 992 mb. Assuming the altimeter
sub-scale is not changed, the aircraft
464. will arrive over B at a height:
During a descent at a constant Mach
465. No. below the tropopause in the ISA:
The rotational speed of the gyroscope
in a turn indicator falls below the
correct operational speed. A 90° turn
at an indicated 'rate one' on this turn
466. indicator will take:
the temperature of air which
has suffered the full effect of
compression heating.
2.5 nm
dynamic pressure, static
pressure and air temperature.
MAP, centre map, plan, nav,
VOR/ILS.
ETA to way point and distance
to next way point.
not accept an error of 10°
latitude and 10° longitude of
the inserted initial position.
the ramp position has been
inserted and checked.
EAS = CAS corrected for
compressibility error.
3500 feet
TAS decreases LSS decreases.
30 seconds.
the ambient air temperature.
15 nm
pitot pressure, static pressure
and static air temperature.
VOR/ILS, map, nav, plan.
airspeed and altitude.
accept error of 10° latitude
and 10° of longitude of the
inserted initial position.
the platform is levelled.
EAS = IAS corrected for
position error.
2810 feet
CAS increases TAS increases.
less than 30 seconds.
static air temperature minus
ram air temperature.
5 nm
static pressure, pitot pressure
and total air temperature.
nav, map, VOR/ILS, plan.
way point and real drift.
accept an error of 10° latitude
but not an error of 10°
longitude of the inserted
initial position.
the gyros and the
accelerometers are all in the
"null" position.
CAS = TAS corrected for
density error.
1690 feet
LSS increases CAS decreases.
more than 30 seconds.
ATPL Question Bank
true outside air temperature
allowing for cooling
10 nm
dynamic pressure, static
pressure and ram air
temperature.
expanded nav, map,
expanded VOR/ILS.
pitch and roll attitude.
will accept an error of 10°
longitude but not 10° error of
latitude in the initial inserted
position.
the green "ready nav" light is
illuminated and the mode
selector switch has been set
to the "nav" position.
TAS = EAS corrected for
compressibility error.
2670 feet
CAS increases TAS decreases.
30 seconds ± 10 seconds
either way.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

the angle between the chord

the angle between the the angle between the chord line of the wing of an aircraft
The aerodynamic angle of incidence longitudinal axis and the line of the wing and the lateral and the direction of the the angle between the wing
467. (angle of attack) is: relative air flow. axis. relative air flow. and the chord line.
it appears in the middle of the it appears in the scratch pad
If an alert message is generated by CRT screen and a red light it appears at the top of the and the MSG annunciator it appears in the scratch pad
468. the flight management system: flashes. CRT and an amber light flashes. illuminates. and an amber light flashes
The full International Standard
Atmosphere (ISA) is assumed in the the pressure altimeter and the the vertical speed indicator the vertical speed indicator
469. calibration of: airspeed indicator. and the machmeter. the pressure altimeter only. only.
During a steady climb the pitot head
becomes totally blocked by ice. As the
climb continues the indications of the increase no matter what the progressively under indicate stick at the Mach number at
470. machmeter will actual Mach number. the Mach number. the time of blockage. go to zero and stay there.
An aircraft flies from A to B with QNH
at A of 1019 mb set on the altimeter
subscale throughout the flight.
Assuming all other errors are zero and
that 1 mb = 30 feet, when overhead
B, QNH 1013 mbs, the altimeter will
471. be: over indicating by 120 feet. over indicating by 180 feet. indicating true altitude. under indicating by 180 feet.
An aircraft maintaining a constant
CAS and FL is flying from a warm air
mass into a colder air mass. The effect
of the change of temperature on the TAS will decrease and true TAS will increase and true TAS will decrease and true TAS will increase and true
472. TAS and true altitude will be: altitude will decrease. altitude will increase. altitude will increase. altitude will decrease.
An aircraft flying at FL 310 is cruising
at an CAS of 280 kt. If the correct
outside air temperature is -48°C, this
473. will give a Mach number of 0.76 0.71 0.78 0.805
The gyroscopic instrument which has
its spin axis tied to the earth's vertical
474. is: the turn indicator. the artificial horizon. the INS azimuth gyro. the directional gyro indicator.
The rate of precession of a gyroscope
475. varies as: rigidity/disturbing couple 1/(rigidity only) 1/(disturbing couple) only disturbing couple/ rigidity
476. An artificial horizon with an electrical the gyro has greater rigidity, is it is fitted with a roll cut-out the gyro has greater rigidity, is the fast erection switch is
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
driven gyroscope has greatly reduced
take-off errors. This is because:
The combined Machmeter/ASI is
477. subject to the following errors:
According to Joint Aviation
requirements, the maximum
deviation on any heading after
correction of a direct reading
478. magnetic compass is:
An INS with the accelerometers
aligned N/S and E/W is limited to use
at latitudes below about 82°. This is
479. because:
The amber ALERT light on an INS
480. control and display unit:
The correct check for a turn and slip
indicator when taxying and turning
481. left is:
If the alternate static source is
selected, the greatest error in the
482. machmeter will be;
Compared to the VSI what errors are
483. eliminated by the IVSI?
In an INS the gyros should be strap
down. In an IRS the gyros should be
484. strap down
The airspeed indicator is calibrated
485. to;
486. Which of the following lists the errors
less bottom heavy and there is
a linear accelerometer cut- out
switch fitted.
position, density, instrument,
compressibility, manoeuvre
induced
1°
it loses horizontal reference as
dip becomes large.
illuminates steadily for 2
minutes before reaching the
next way point.
needle left, ball left.
position error
lag
always, never.
ISA at mean sea level.
Position, manoeuvre induced,
switch and a linear cut-out
switch.
those of the Machmeter only
3°
at high speed on East or West
tracks the rate of convergency
is faster than the azimuth
motor can correct.
flashes for 2 minutes before
reaching the next way point.
needle left, ball right.
manoeuvre induced error
turning
always, always.
ISA at 36,090 ft.
Compressibility, position,
less bottom heavy and there
is a roll cut-out switch fitted.
instrument, pressure and
temperature only
5°
the functions of Secant
Latitude and Tangent Latitude
used for certain corrections in
the computer start to
approach infinity and the
computer cannot handle the
rapid changes involved
illuminates if power from the
aircraft bus bar has been lost
and the system is operating
on standby battery.
needle right, ball left.
density error
pressure
never, always.
ISA at the height the aircraft is
flying.
Lag, position, density,
ATPL Question Bank
used to overcome topple by
increasing the erection rate to
a high value.
instrument and
compressibility only
l0°
the correction for the Coriolis
effect of earth rotation
approaches infinity above 82°
lat.
illuminates steadily after
passing a way point in manual
mode, until the next leg is
programmed in.
needle right, ball right.
lag
temperature
never, never.
the full ISA.
Position, manoeuvre induced
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

of the machmeter? lag, density and instrument. density, instrument and compressibility and and instrument.
manoeuvre induced. temperature.
A DGI reads 300°T when the aircraft is
stationary at 60°S, what will the DGI
487. read after 40 minutes? 309° 287° 313° 291°
does not vary with aircraft
varies with aircraft heading varies with latitude but does does not vary with aircraft latitude but does vary with
488. Aircraft magnetism; and latitude not vary with aircraft heading heading or latitude aircraft heading
An aircraft is flying a rate 1 turn at
480 kt TAS. What is the diameter of
489. the turn? 3nm 5nm 6nm 2nm
The machmeter measures Mach
490. Number by measuring; P+S/ S D+S/S P-S / S D-S / S
In gyroscopic theory the term `Topple' wander, real or apparent, in real wander only in the wander, real or apparent, in real wander only in the
491. is defined as; the horizontal plane vertical plane the vertical plane horizontal plane
Which of the following is true Its gyro is offset by 30° to the It gives angle of bank and rate It responds to rate of turn
492. regarding the turn co-ordinator? It has a tied gyroscope. longitudinal axis of the aircraft. of turn. only.
EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the
Compressibility is corrected for when correction is always correction can be either correction is normally correction is normally
493. obtaining; subtractive. additive or subtractive. subtractive. subtractive
Reduced spin-up time and a Increased accuracy and a Insensitivity to `g' and
What are the advantages of an IRS dither motor to prevent 'lock- Reduced spin-up time and dither motor to prevent 'lock- reduced wander of the
494. compared to an INS? out'. insensitivity to `g'. out'. gyroscopes.
An aircraft flying at Mach 0.83 is in air
495. SAT 230 Kelvin. What is the TAS? 490 kt 575 kt 495 kt 470 kt
An altimeter has an error of 1 mb. The
error at 20,000ft will be _______,
while at 40,000ft the error will be
496. ________ 30ft, 30ft 50ft, 100ft I Oft, 30ft 50ft, 80ft
to below 500' radio altitude to below 500' radio altitude to below 200' barometric to below 200' radio altitude
The GPWS would provide visual and with flaps not in the landing with flaps not in the landing altitude with flap not in the with flap not in the landing
audible warning to a pilot if the position and speed below position and speed below landing position and speed position and speed below
497. aircraft descended: Mach.28 Mach.35 below Mach.28 Mach.28.
the radio altimeter, the ILS the radio altimeter, the Air the radio altimeter, the Air
receiver, the Air Data Data Computers, the landing Data Computers, the Captain's the radio altimeter and the ILS
498. The GPWS uses inputs from: Computers and the landing gear position indicators and ILS receiver, the landing gear receiver.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
An aircraft 'goes around' after
descending to a radio altitude of 190ft
As power is applied a power unit fails
and some height is lost The GPWS
would provide an alert when the
499. aircraft had lost about:
On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is
500. to:
Which of the following statements
501. concerning TCAS is correct:
With reference to Traffic Collision
Avoidance Systems. The difference
502. between TCAS I and II is that:
The aural messages provided by TCAS
503. II are:
With reference to Traffic Collision
504. Avoidance Systems:
What are the inputs to a modern jet
transport aeroplane's stall warning
system:
1. A.o.A
2. Engine RPM
3. Configuration
4. Pitch and bank information
505. 5. Control surface position
gear position indicators.
10ft
initiate the required
manoeuvre immediately.
TCAS 2 provides avoidance
instructions in the vertical and
horizontal planes.
TCAS II can provide `Traffic
Advisories' and `Resolution
Advisories' whilst TCAS I can
only provide 'Traffic
Advisories'.
Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend.
RAs may be disregarded only
when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially
conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary
and has the clearance
confirmed by ATC.
1,2,3&4
the flap position indicators.
20ft
make a note of the details.
TCAS 2 cannot provide
information on non-SSR
equipped intruders.
TCAS II can only be fitted to
large aircraft which carry more
than 30 passengers. Whilst
TCAS I can be fitted to any
aircraft.
Climb left; Climb right;
Descend left; Descend right.
RAs may be disregarded only
when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially
conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary
and has advised ATC of the
other aircraft's proximity.
2,4,5&6
position indicators and the
flap position indicators.
50ft
request a flight clearance
deviation from ATC.
TCAS 2 requires Mode S to be
fitted to other aircraft.
TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft
which carry transponders with
Mode A only whilst TCAS 11
can only be fitted to aircraft
whose transponders include
either Mode C or Mode S.
Climb; Descend; Increase
climb; Increase Descent.
RAs must never be
disregarded.
1,2,3&6
ATPL Question Bank
100ft
Do nothing until a TA is
received.
TCAS 2 provides advice on
which way to turn.
TCAS II can only be fitted to
aircraft which are equipped
with EFIS.
Turn left, Turn Right, Increase
Turn, Decrease Turn
RAs may be disregarded only
when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially
conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary.
2,3,4&5
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

6. Airspeed vector
EGPWS may indicate:
1. Excessive sink rate after T/O
2. Excessive descent rate
3. Excessive closure
4. Ground proximity, not in the
landing configuration
5. Deviation from glide-slope
506. 6. Proximity to en-route terrain 1,4&6 2,3&5 1,3&5 2,4&6
A single axis autopilot may also be
507. called: Altitude hold Wing leveller Pitch control loop Auto stabilisation loop
is a system which will maintain is a system which will maintain is an outer loop control
508. An auto pilot: a preselected altitude a preselected airspeed is an auto stabilisation system system
Is another name for an Applies flight data to the auto Is automatically disengaged Can only be used in EFIS
509. An automatic flight control system: autopilot system pilot system by a GPWS alert equipped aircraft
An aircraft has yaw damping included
in its auto stabilisation system. An
essential requirement of such a Parallel connected servo Automatic maintenance of c
510. system is: A three axis autopilot system motors of g position INS inputs to the CADC
Manoeuvring commands may
Manoeuvring commands may be input using pitch and turn
be input by applying normal controls on the automatic
An automatic flight control system is The autopilot must be forces to the control yoke flight system control panel,
fitted with control wheel steering disengaged before the pilot can without first disengaging the without first disengaging the The CWS is only there for
511. (CWS) input manoeuvring commands autopilot autopilot steering on the ground
What type of autoland system would
be required for the landing to
continue following a single failure
512. below alert height: Fail soft Fail passive Fail operational or fail active Land 2 system
An automatic flight system which can
safely continue with an automatic
513. landing after a system failure is a: Fail redundant system Fail passive system Three axis system Fail operational system
During an autoland the caption LAND
514. 2 is illuminated. The system is: Fail active or fail operational Fail passive Approaching decision height Requiring a crew input
For an autoland system to meet FAIL Have suitable system Withstand a system failure Can continue with an Can continue with an
515. PASSIVE criteria it must: redundancy without excessive deviations autoland below alert height autoland above alert height
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
516. During an autoland approach:
In an autoland at 1000' AGL with two
517. autopilots engaged:
An automatic flight control system in
which the application of normal
forces on the control column allows
the ilot to input demands to the
518. autopilot is a:
If a fault develops in a Triplex auto-
pilot system during an approach, the
519. system will revert to;
Central Air Data Computers (CADC's)
520. transmit data concerning ;-
The auto-throttle is used to control
some factors during the three primary
521. control modes, they are:
The system which allows the pilot to
control the aircraft with the
522. servomotors engaged is called;
After a failure of one of the necessary
redundant systems below alert height
523. you would;
When localiser and glide slope are
captured at 1,500 feet during an
automatic landing sequence, two
other functions will be activated at
524. the same time, they are;
525. ALT HOLD is an example of :
526. A rate gyro:
flare is engaged at 1500'agl
the armed roll mode would be
LOCALISER
control wheel steering
fail passive and the landing
may continue.
airspeed, altitude and decision
height.
EPR, Mach and Speed.
touch control steering.
continue the descent but
revert to a higher D.H.
touch down mode and roll out
mode.
Inner loop control in the roll
axis
Has three degrees of freedom,
two gimbals and a transducer
from flight path
localiser roll control is
disengaged just prior to
touchdown
the engaged roll mode would
be GLIDESLOPE
touch control steering
fail control wheel mode.
airspeed, altitude and Mach
Number.
EPR, wheel and speed
control wheel steering.
carry out a missed approach.
flare mode arm and touch
down mode.
Outer loop input to the pitch
channel
Senses rate of turn and
positions an indicator on the
EHSI
flare is disengaged prior to
touchdown at 5'GA
the engaged pitch mode
would be FLARE
series connected system
fail operational.
airspeed, attitude and Mach
Number.
EPR, Mach and altitude.
the electronic inner / outer
axis loop.
disengage autoland and take
over manually.
flare mode engage and roll
out mode.
Outer loop control about the
longitudinal axis
Supplies rate and
displacement information to
the computer
ATPL Question Bank
glideslope is the engaged
pitch mode until 5'GA
the engaged roll mode would
be LOCALISER.
parallel connected system.
a manual disconnect.
airspeed and altitude only.
EPR, wheel and altitude.
the outer loop control.
continue descent and land
automatically.
flare mode arm and off line
channels engaged.
Inner loop control in the pitch
axis
Controls the outer loop inputs
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
527. Autotrim is functional :
Control wheel steering enables a pilot
528. to:
529. The rules for the Autotrim are that it :
The Autothrottle will come on
automatically even with the A/T
530. switch OFF when:
An aircraft on Autopilot is engaged in
the VOR mode and loses the VOR
signals as it flies through the VOR
531. cone of silence. The autopilot:
With the autopilot in CWS the pilot
manoeuvres the aircraft and releases
532. control. The aircraft will maintain
Autopilot corrections affecting Pitch
533. are carried out by:
The electronic engine display system
534. with three automatic modes is:
With an Engine Indicating and Crew
Alerting System lower display unit
535. failure:
The electronic engine display system
536. will have:
537. In an Engine Indicating and Crew
In the pitch and roll channel
with the autopilot engaged
taxy the aircraft on the ground
can be engaged without the
autopilot
in a FBW aircraft the AoA
reaches a critical value called a
floor
automatically switches to
Heading mode
heading and altitude
autotrim only
the Electronic Centralised
Aircraft Monitor, with the
fourth mode manual.
a compact message will only
appear on the upper display
unit.
one primary and one
secondary display unit for an
EICAS and a change over
selector to change to the ECAM
mode if necessary.
N1, EGT, N2.
In the pitch channel only with
the autopilot engaged
manoeuvre the aircraft in the
air while the autopilot is
engaged
usually operates on all three
axes
the AoA reaches the stalling
angle
decouples from the VOR and
disconnects
heading, speed and attitude
autotrim and elevators
the Electronic Centralised
Aircraft Monitor, with the
fourth mode flight phase
related or manual.
a compact message will only
appear on the central display
unit.
two display units for ECAM
and three display units for
EICAS.
N1, EGT, EPR.
In the pitch channel only with
the autopilot disengaged
alter the flight path while the
autopilot is engaged by
applying a breakout force
is not needed if the autopilot
is engaged
TOGA button is pressed
tunes to the next VOR on the
route
altitude and attitude
elevators only
the Engine Indicating and
Crew Alerting System, with
the fourth mode manual
a compact message will
appear both on the upper
display unit and the captains
Electronic Flight Instrument
System.
either EICAS or ECAM but not
both.
N2, EGT, EPR.
ATPL Question Bank
In the pitch and roll channel
with the autopilot disengaged
manoeuvre the aircraft with
the autopilot disengaged.
operates only in conjunction
with the autopilot
reverse thrust is selected in
flight.
decouples from the VOR and
flies the last heading for a
fixed period.
attitude at the time of
release.
autothrottle.
the Engine Indicating and
Crew Alerting System, with
the fourth mode a manual
cross over from the Electronic
Centralised Aircraft Monitor
System.
a compact message will
appear on the upper display
unit when the status button is
pressed on the control panel.
an interconnect to the EFIS
symbol generators in an
emergency.
N4, EGT, EPR.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
Alerting System if both displays fail
then the following information is
displayed on the standby engine
indicator:
The Electronic Centralised Aircraft
Monitor (ECAM) type of system
538. shows a:
An engine fire indication on an
539. electronic engine display is shown:
An engine electronic system which in
normal conditions of flight shows only
540. the primary engine instruments is:
541. The properties of a gyro are:
An aircraft fitted with a Direct
Reading Magnetic Compass (DRMC)
upon landing in a northerly direction
542. will indicate:
543. The machmeter consists of:
An aircraft is flying at an indicated
altitude of 16,000ft. The outside air
temperature is -30° C What is the true
544. altitude of the aircraft?
545. QNH is:
546. A rate integrating gyro is used in:
An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains
547. altitude from:
checklist format on the left
display panel and schematic
form always automatically on
the right display unit.
on the primary display panel in
red.
An EICAS system with EPR, EGT
and N2 shown on the primary
instruments.
mass , rigidity & inertia
no change
an airspeed indicator with
mach scale
16,200 ft
the airfield barometric
pressure
inertial navigation
unit&autopilot system
outside air temperature
checklist format on the left
display unit and the right, or
lower display unit, a diagram or
synoptic format.
on the secondary display panel
in amber.
An ECAM system with the
primary engine instruments
displayed on the lower screen.
rigidity & precession
oscillation about north
an airspeed indicator with an
altimeter capsule
15,200 ft
the setting that will give zero
indication on the airfield
inertial attitude unit&inertial
navigation unit
barometric data from static
source
synoptic format on the left
display unit and a warning and
corrective action display on
the right or lower display unit.
on both the Electronic Flight
Instrument System and Engine
Indicating and Crew Alerting
System secondary panels.
An EICAS system with the
primary engine instruments
displayed on the primary
screen, the secondary screen
being blank.
rigidity & inertia
a turn towards east
an altimeter corrected for
density
18,600 ft
the equivalent sea level
pressure at the airfield
autopilot system&stabiliser
servo mechanism system
time elapsed for signal to
travel to and return from the
earth
ATPL Question Bank
continuous primary engine
display on the primary display
unit.
only on the Flight
Management Computer
primary panel.
An ECAM system with the
primary engine instruments
displayed on the primary
screen, the left screen being
blank.
mass & inertia
a turn towards west
a VSI and altimeter combined
13,500 ft
the setting that will indicate
airfield height
rate of turn indicator&inertial
navigation unit
difference between absolute
and dynamic pressure
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

When descending through an

isothermal layer at constant CAS,
548. what does the TAS do? increase at a linear rate increase at an exponential rate remain the same decrease
549. What is VMO calculated from: CAS TAS COAS EAS
Descending from FL390 at maximum
groundspeed, what will the pilot be VMo initially then MMo at a MMO initially then VMO at a VNE initially then MMO at a VNO initially then VNE at a
550. limited by: specified altitude specified altitude specified altitude specified altitude
the flaps may be extended in the flaps may be extended in the flaps may be extended in
551. VFE is the maximum speed that: the flaps can be operated the take-off configuration the landing configuration a specified configuration
Mach number is defined as the ratio
552. of IAS to LSS TAS to LSS CAS to LSS EAS to LSS
The factors which will affect a Turn aircraft speed & aircraft angle of bank & aircraft
553. Indicator are: weight angle of bank & aircraft speed weight all of the above
To obtain heading information from a
Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros 1 degree of freedom and a 1 degree of freedom and a 2 degrees of freedom and a 2 degrees of freedom and a
554. should have: horizontal axis vertical axis horizontal axis vertical axis
OAT, electric power, static dynamic pressure, TAT&pitot TAT, static pressure, electric
555. What are the inputs to the ADC ? pressure&AOA pressure both a & b power, pitot pressure&AOA
the pilot can fully deflect the should only be exceeded in must not be exceeded for
556. VNO is the max speed which: controls. still air and with caution. should never be exceeded. flap/gear extension
What does the "barbers pole" on an
557. ASI indicate?: VMO& altitude. VMO& temperature. VNO VNE
On board a/c, true altitude shown
558. from: standard atmosphere. pressure altitude. density altitude. temperature altitude.
altitude in the standard
atmosphere at which the
prevailing density is equal to
the density in the standard pressure altitude corrected for
559. What is density altitude: atmosphere prevailing temp. temperature altitude. pressure corrected
ground based and measures ground based and measures a/c based and measures true a/c based and measures true
560. A radio altimeter is: true altitude. true height. altitude. height.
If the pitot tube is leaking (and the
pitot drain is blocked) in a non- over-read in the climb, under- under-read in the climb, over-
561. pressurised a/c, the ASI will: under-read. over-read. read in the descent. read in the descent.
In a right turn while taxiing, the
562. correct indications are: Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball right. Needle right, ball left.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

What will the altimeter read if the

layers beneath the aircraft are all read lower than the real read higher then the real
563. colder than standard? altitude altitude read the correct altitude readings will fluctuate
The indications of a machmeter are Differential static and
564. independent of Temperature (OAT) Static Pressure dynamic Pressure Dynamic Pressure
1 degree of freedom and an 2 degree of freedom and an 1 degree of freedom and a 2 degree of freedom and a
565. An artificial horizon has: horizontal axis. horizontal axis. vertical axis. vertical axis.
Increasing RPM and Increasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and
concentrating the mass on the concentrating the mass at the concentrating the mass on the concentrating the mass at the
566. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by: periphery of the rotor. hub of the rotor. periphery of the rotor. hub of the rotor.
What is the speed of sound at sea
567. level ISA 644kts. 661 kts. 1059 kts 583kts.
What is the speed of sound at 30,000
568. ft and -40 degrees C. 562kts. 595kts. 590kts. 661 kts.
align compass north with align compass north with true align magnetic north with true get true north and lubber line
569. A compass swing is used to: magnetic north. north. north. aligned.
TAT = SAT - heating due to TAT = SAT + heating due to
570. The TAT probe measures TAT by: TAT = SAT + kinetic heating. compressibility. TAT = SAT - kinetic heating. compressibility.
If a pitot tube and drains are blocked
at altitude by icing, during a descent
571. the ASI will: read constant airspeed. under read. over read. show zero.
establish position relative to
An IRS is aligned when turned on so calculate the computed establish true and magnetic true north and magnetic
572. as to: trihedron. north. north. establish magnetic north.
In a slightly banked turn, the turn angular velocity about the
573. needle will indicate: roll rate. rate of yaw. vertical axis. rate of pitch.
The Primary Flying Display (PFD)
574. displays information dedicated to: engine data and alarms flight path weather radar aircraft systems
Radio Aids, Engine Parameters Route Data,Terminal Data &
575. What are the inputs to the FMS ? & Air Data Operating Data All of the above none of the above
What are the upper and lower limits lower limit VLO and upper limit lower limit VLE and upper limit lower limit VNO and upper lower limit VLO and upper
576. of the yellow arc on an ASI? VNE VNE limit VNE limit VLE
use of an accelerometer
577. In a VSI lag error is improved by: bi-metalic strip two system return spring
An aircraft is flying a true track of
578. 360° from 5° south to 5° north. What 0° per hour + 5° per hour - 5° per hour depends upon groundspeed
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

is the change in apparent wander

rate:
When turning through 180° at
constant attitude and bank, a classic nose up and correct angle of attitude and bank angle are nose up and bank angle too nose up and bank angle too
579. Artificial Horizon indicates: bank correct low high
The ratio of pitot pressure to The ratio of static pressure to The ratio of dynamic pressure The ratio of static pressure to
580. Mach number is defined as: dynamic pressure dynamic pressure to static pressure pitot pressure
relative temperature measured differential temperature relative temperature ambient temperature
581. What is SAT ? in K measured in K measured in °C measured in °C
What happens when the static vent
supplying an ASI is blocked, and the ASI acts opposite to an ASI always over reads / reads a ASI always under reads /
582. ram air inlet remains clear ? altimeter higher value reads a lower value ASI acts like an altimeter
In a left turn while taxiing, the correct
583. indications are: Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball right. Needle right, ball left.
the maximum speed at which the maximum speed at which the maximum speed at which the minimum speed at which
to fly with the landing gear the landing gear may be to fly with the landing gear to fly with the landing gear
584. VLO is defined as: retracted retracted or extended extended extended
the speed which must not be the speed above which the the maximum speed for
exceeded in still air, or without landing gear may not be the speed which must never normal flap extension to be
585. VNE is defined as: caution extended be exceeded selected
pitot pressure to static (pitot pressure minus static pitot pressure times static pitot pressure to (static
586. A machmeter measures the ratio of, pressure pressure) to static pressure pressure pressure times pitot pressure)
A standby artificial horizon must have a remote gyro &its own power its own power supply & its
587. the following properties: supply only to be used in emergency both a & b own gyro
increases if SAT is greater
During a descent at constant CAS and than standard temperature
588. total temperature, the mach no: increases remains constant and decreases if it is lower decreases
The single most significant item which
makes a servo altimeter more temperature compensated
589. accurate is: electromagnetic pick-off logarithmic scale spring multiple pointers
If a large aircraft is slide slipped to
starboard, and the port static vent is
blocked, what will the altimeter read
590. ? under read read correctly Over read fluctuate
radio alt flag, red lamp, and radio alt flag and red lamp
591. If the radio altimeter fails: height information disappears aural warning given aural warning given activates.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

maximum structural cruising

592. VNO is defined as: speed never exceed speed manoeuvring speed maximum operating speed
If the left static vent is blocked, and
the right static vent is clear. What will
the altimeter read if the aircraft read correctly whatever the if side slipping to the left, if side slipping to the right,
593. maintains constant level? situation under read altimeter will over read. altimeter will over read.
An aircraft is flying at constant
indicated altitude, over a cold
594. airmass. The altimeter reading will be: greater than the real altitude standard altitude same as the real altitude less than the real altitude
From where does the air data
computer (ADC) obtain aircraft dynamic - absolute ambient absolute barometric sensor
595. altitude? OAT probe pressure on aircraft fuselage none of the above
What does a radio altimeter, for an
aircraft in the landing configuration, height of aircraft wheels above height of the aircraft above
596. measure: the ground the ground altitude of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft wheels
What is indicated on the ASI when the
597. static vent blocks during a descent ? under reads reads correctly over reads reads zero
The error in a Directional Gyro due to
the earth's rotation, at a mean
latitude of 45° N, will cause the spin
598. axis to move by: 10.6° Clockwise 10.6° Anti-clockwise 7.6° Clockwise 7.6° Anti-clockwise
If you maintain the same CAS and
Altitude (FL270), and the temperature
increases, what happens to the Mach increases at an exponential decreases at an exponential
599. No ? rate rate remains the same increases
An aircraft is fitted with two
altimeters. One is corrected for at high speed the non- provided that the ADC is at high speed the non-
position error, the other is not ATC will receive erroneous compensated altimeter will working normally, there will compensated altimeter will
600. corrected for position error information of flight level show a lower altitude be no error to either altimeter show a higher altitude
The pitot tube of an ASI gives a direct
601. reading of: static pressure total & static pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
When descending from FL230 to FL50
at maximum speed, the limitations
602. which apply are: VMO VMO then MMO MMO then VMO MMO
A modern low altitude Radio pulse modulated waves, with Frequency modulated waves, Wave modulation, with Triangular wave, with the
603. Altimeter uses the principle of: the difference between the where the difference between frequency shift due to frequency shift of the ground
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

transmitted and received the transmitted wave and the Doppler effect of the ground reflected wave being
waves displayed on a circular received wave is measured. reflected wave being measured
screen. measured
What is the principle of operation of a differential pressure across a
604. VSI: capsule total pressure in a capsule static pressure in a capsule dynamic pressure in a capsule
What is the normal operating range of
605. a low altitude Radio Altimeter? 0 to 2,500ft 50ft to 2500ft 0 to 10,000ft 0 to 7,500ft
to determine aircraft height to determine aircraft height to determine pressure
606. What is a radio altimeter used for? above mean sea level above ground level altitude to detennine aircraft altitude
Why must Latitude and Longitude be to determine the aircraft to check the IRS position with to enable the levelling to determine the accuracy of
607. inserted into an IRS? position relative to the earth the Flight Management System procedure to commence the alignment
608. What is the input to a VSI ? static pressure differential pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
The Pitot tube comprises a mast to avoid disturbance from
position it below the skin of the aerodynamic flow about the position it outside the
609. aircraft for: aircraft boundary layer anti-ice protection easy access for maintenance
The capacitance will change
In a capacitor type fuel quantity The capacitance decrease if The capacitance increase if with fuel quantity and
610. indicator : fuel is decreased. fuel is decreased. temperature. None of the above.
An accelerometer usually measures In all three directions (X,Y,Z)
611. acceleration : In one direction only. In two directions at a time. at a time. none of the above
612. The magnetic equator is : An agonic line. An isoclinic line. An aclinic line. An isogonic line.
613. Compass deviation is due to : Aircraft magnetic field. Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetic storm. None of the above.
Change of latitude and Mechanical imperfections of
614. The cause of apparent precession is : Earth’s rotation. longitude. Both (a) and (b) are correct. the gyro.
During entry of initial co-ordinates, accepts both wrong latitude does not accept wrong
615. the inertial navigation system : accepts wrong latitude. accepts wrong longitude. and longitude. latitude or longitude.
When an aircraft flies 2 dots below gives a “GLIDESLOPE” hard gives a “GLIDESLOPE” soft does not give any does not give any GPW
616. glideslope, the GPWS : warning. warning. “GLIDESLOPE” warning. warning.
cannot measure acceleration calculates the position of the can measure acceleration
without reference to a known aircraft with reference to requires a known initial independently but requires
initial position (latitude, known initial position and position to measure initial position to measure
617. The INS : longitude). velocity. acceleration. present position.
reproduced from prerecorded generated from random generated from read only manually initiated after some
618. The audible warning of GPWS is : tapes. access memories (RAM). memories (ROM). warnings.
619. The auto pilot : relieves the human pilot of assists in navigation with the improves safety but does not All of the above are correct.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
At 50 feet agl during an autoland,
what happens to the glideslope signal
620. ? continues to be actioned
Autothrottle engaged mode can be
621. checked by the pilot, using:
What happens at 50ft whilst carrying
622. out an autolanding?
If the autopilot is selected to VOR
mode, what happens if the aircraft
623. flies over the cone of confusion`?
The autopilot disconnects (or the
624. autoland is completed) at:
The control law in a fly-by-wire
625. system is a relationship between:
At the missed approach point the
TOGA switch on the throttles is
depressed. Which of the following
626. statements are correct :
If a Go-Around is initiated from an
627. auto-approach :
Where can the pilot look to see the
628. autothrottle mode ?
The autopilot is engaged with no
modes selected. What is the autopilot
629. providing:
630. Autoland Flare is initiated at
An autopilot capable of altitude hold
and heading hold is a minimum
631. requirement for:
632. During a fully automatic landing the
flying fatigue.
primary flight display
glideslope and localiser
disconnect and aircraft
continues to land
Temporarily follows current
heading until exiting the cone
of confusion
100 ft
how the pilot's control
demands are translated into
control surface movements.
GA power selected & Pilot
manually fly’s manoeuvre
the pilot retracts the flap and
the landing gear to reduce drag
& the autopilot monitors the
climb
PFD
wing leveling
1500 ft
Single pilot operation in VMC
and IMC.
and the auto-throttle control
help of other instruments.
is disconnected
thrust control computer
radio altimeter controls the
rate of descent
VOR disengages and Heading
hold engages
decision height
input and output at the
amplifier level respectively
control the deviation data
Autopilot selects max. power
& Pilot manually fly’s
manoeuvre
the auto throttle selects
maximum power as soon as
the TOGA switch is pressed &
the pilot performs the climb
overhead panel
altitude hold
330 ft
Single pilot operation under
IFR and at night.
and the auto-throttle control
replace the human pilot.
is factored for range
position of throttles
radio altimeter controls the
angle of attack
The pilot must select an
alternate roll mode
flare
computer input deviation data
and flap position modification
Autopilot selects max. power
& Autopilot fly’s the GA
manoeuvre
both a & b
throttle control panel
Auto-stability with auto-trim
50 ft
Aircraft over 5700kg.
and the auto-throttle control
ATPL Question Bank
is used to flare the aircraft
navigation display
glideslope disconnects and
aircraft continues descent
The pilot manually flies the
aircraft following flight
director roll commands.
roll out
the versine signal between
the ailerons and elevators
GA power selected & Aircraft
automatically cleans up
none of the above
EICAS
LNAV and VNAV
5 ft
Dual pilot operation (in IFR).
controls the approach (at
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

autopilot: the approach at least until the the approach at least until the the approach at least until least) until the roll-out, the
flare. roll-out. decision height. pilot controls the power.
Pitch attitude holding , Pitch attitude holding , Horizontal wing holding , VOR axis holding ,Inertial
In an autopilot system, a/c flight path Horizontal wing holding & Horizontal wing holding & ASI Inertial heading holding & heading holding & ASI and
633. modes include which of the following: Inertial heading holding and Mach hold Yaw damper Mach hold
ailerons are moved in
ailerons are moved in proportion to rate of angular rudder is moved in proportion rudder is moved in proportion
634. In a yaw damper: proportion to Mach No. velocity. to Mach No. to rate of angular velocity.
LOC ARMED lights up on the localiser armed and awaiting
635. annunciator, this means: localiser beam captured. capture. localiser alarm is on. ILS is captured
What is the most basic function of an
636. autopilot? altitude hold heading hold wing leveller altitude and heading hold
A/P holds IAS/MACH when A/P holds altitude in cruise
Regarding autopilot and auto- climbing in LVL CHG and A/T with ALT HOLD, A/T controls A/P holds pitch in descent in
637. throttle: controls thrust. IAS/Mach. V/S mode, A/T controls thrust. both a and b.
To provide control about To prevent snatching on To prevent snatching on
638. Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot: lateral axis. disengaging A/P. engaging A/P To correct for Mach tuck
speed , flight path , altitude ,
639. Auto throttle can hold speed , flight path , attitude speed , Mach , EPR / N Mach altitude , Mach , EPR / N
When operating with the autopilot in
ALT hold mode what happens if the
Captain's barometric altimeter
640. pressure setting is increased ALT hold disengages Nothing The aeroplane will climb The aeroplane will descend
to relieve forces on the to relieve forces on the
to synchronise the longitudinal autopilot servomotor prior to to react to altitude changes in control column before hand
641. The function of autotrim is loop hand over ALT HOLD mode over
compensates for the rearward compensates for the forward
movement of the CP due to movement of the CP due to is operational at low subsonic
642. The Mach Trim system shockwave formation shockwave formation controls the aircraft in roll speeds
The Flight Director horizontal and
vertical bars are up and left of aircraft
symbol on the ADI, these indications Increase pitch angle, turn Decrease pitch angle, turn
643. are directing the pilot to: Increase pitch angle, turn left Decrease pitch angle, turn left right right
engine limitation
protection&power automatic engine starting manual engine starting
644. What does FADEC do? management sequence sequence all of the above
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

When turning into a desired radial, FD correct attitude to intercept

645. bars indicate: a 45° angle of bank a 30° angle of bank a 15° angle of bank radial
The input to a basic stall warning
646. system are: Angle of attack IAS Slat/flap position Mmo
647. Where is TCAS displayed ? On its own screen On the EFIS&On VSI Weather Radar all of the above
648. The principle that TCAS uses is: Primary radar ATC radar RT communications Transponders in the aircraft
What does a FDR record when Cockpit voice , Radio & Public
649. combined with a CVR? addresses from the cockpit Cockpit voice&Radio Radio & Cabin voice all of the above
The Altitude Alert system alerts the When reference altitude When deviating from the
650. pilot: At decision height At the selected altitude equals the selected altitude selected altitude
Pressure encoding from mode Aircraft specific
S transponder &Radio configurations&Inertial
651. TCAS II obtains information from: altimeter reference unit (IRU) both a and b none of the above
PA announcements even
Cabin crew conversation on when not selected on flight
652. What does a CVR record ? Cabin crew conversations intercom deck Radio conversations
Various inputs including speed Various inputs including
brake position, a warning landing gear micro switch, a Various inputs including EGT,
A stall warning system fitted to a module and a visual or aural warning module and an aural a warning module and an Stick shakers and/or stick
653. large aircraft will always include: warning warning aural warning push
654. GPWS is active between what heights: Oft and 2500ft 50ft and 2450 ft 0 ft and 2450 ft 50 ft and 5000 ft
Smoothly and immediately Turn 90° and smoothly and
What is the correct response to a follow the climb or descent Request permission to Follow ATC instructions as immediately follow the climb
655. TCAS RA ? commands manoeuvre from ATC these override TCAS RAs or descent commands
What symbol is used to represent a
656. RA on a TCAS PPI ? Yellow circle Red lozenge Red square Red circle
From the time when the
From the time when the From the time the first engine From the time when the first aircraft is first able to move
What are the regulatory requirements aircraft is first able to move is started and stops 5 minutes engine is started and stops 5 under its own power until 5
for the CVR to start and stop under its own power until it is after the last engine is minutes after the APU is minutes after it is no longer
657. recording ? no longer able to do so. shutdown. shutdown. able to do so.
An altitude alerting system must at Approaching selected altitude Abnormal gear/flap
least be capable of alerting the crew & Excessive deviation from Approaching selected altitude combination & Excessive
658. on: selected altitude. & Excessive vertical speed. terrain closure. all of the above
659. Other traffic which is assessed as not A solid red square. A solid white or cyan diamond. A hollow cyan diamond. A hollow cyan square.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

being a threat will be indicated by a

TCAS system as:
Flaps in incorrect
Which of the following are modes of Excessive sink rate&Altitude Excessive Glideslope position&High altitude
660. the GPWS? Excessive sink rate&Stall loss after T/O or go-around deviation&High climb rate descent
What corrective action is given by
661. TCAS ? Turn left or right. Climb or descend. Contact ATC Turn then climb or descend.
The Flight Data Recorder actually At the beginning of the T/O Before the a/c starts moving
662. starts running: run. under its own power When the gear is retracted. When a/c lines up on runway.
SINK RATE repeated each 1.5
DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK seconds. Penetrating the
followed by WHOOP WHOOP, DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK second boundary generates
What I's the GPWS Mode 3 audible PULL UP if the sink rate DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK followed immediately by an aural alert of WHOOP,
663. alert ? exceeds a certain value. continuously. WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP. WHOOP PULL UP.
Crash/Fire resistant
Microphone & Crash/Fire Microphone & A Flight data Microphone &Independent construction& A Flight data
664. CVR components consist of: resistant construction recorder battery recorder
If an aircraft GPWS detects an
excessive rate of descent with gear TOO LOW TERRAIN, TOO LOW
and flaps up, the alert and warning TERRAIN followed by TOO LOW SINK RATE followed by TERRAIN TERRAIN followed by
665. will be DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK GEAR TOO, LOW GEAR `WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP `WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
The requirement to carry a GPWS
concerns aircraft which are,
depending on their age, weight and
666. passenger capacity Jet & Piston Turboprop & Jet Turboprop&Piston None of the above
If both displays of an EICAS system fail
what information will be displayed on
667. the standby engine indicator N1 , EPR , N2 N1, EPR, EGT N2 , EPR , EGT EGT , N1 , FF
During the take-off run , the effect of
increasing airspeed is to cause the increase and subsequently
668. EPR indication to remain constant increase decrease decrease
displayed in red, normally on
displayed in amber on the the upper screen , and displayed in amber, normally displayed in amber, normally
An advisory message on the EICAS lower screen with associated requiring immediate corrective on the upper screen with on the upper screen, indented
669. system screen would be: caution lights and aural tones action aural warnings . one space to the right.
670. A supercharged aircraft is climbing at 18 in Hg 33 in Hg 41 in Hg 46 in Hg
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

its maximum permitted boost of 8 psi

(16in.Hg) from sea level to its full
throttle height of 10,000 feet. If sea
level pressure is 29.92in.Hg , when
the aircraft reaches 5000 feet, where
the pressure is 24.72in.Hg, what will
be the approximate indication on the
MAP gauge
An aircraft has a compensated
capacitance fuel contents gauging
system and is refuelled so that the
total fuel contents are 76000kg at a
temperature of 18 degrees C and an
S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is
parked the temperature increases to
26 degrees C and the S.G. becomes
671. 0.80 The indicated fuel contents have: increased by 5% increased by 10% decreased by 5% remained the same
The working principle of a capacitive
fuel contents gauging system is based
672. upon volume of fuel changes in capacitance height of fuel dielectric value
Total Air Temperature (TAT) is equal
673. to: SAT + ram rise RAT + friction rise SAT - RAT RAT + ram rise
variation of capacitance of a
The capacitor gauge principle is based capacitor with the nature of variation of capacitance by variation of the EMF in a variation of outflow and
674. on: the dielectric volume measure at the probe wheastone bridge couple in the system
The most significant parameters and
the most important that express the
675. thrust of a gas turbine engine are; EGT or N2 N2 and FF FF and EGT N1 and EPR
On a modern twin spool turbofan, the the temperature upstream the a rotational speed and a The rotational speed of the The rotational speed of the
676. main handling parameter is : turbine or EGT temperature high-pressure compressor low-pressure compressor
rotational speed of the fan (N1)
or the total pressure at the fan rotational speed (N1) or
Two main indications used to outlet of the low-pressure total pressure at the high- fan rotational speed (N1) or high pressure turbine
677. evaluate a turbojet thrust are: turbine pressure compressor outlet EPR rotational speed or EPR
The working principle of mass flow the volume and viscosity of the the temperature and pressure volume mass and dielectric
678. meters mostly used now days, is to fuel of the fuel value of fuel kinetic energy transmitted
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
measure in their system:
An RPM gauge has a red line at the
upper end of the green arc, in the
middle of the green arc is a smaller
red arc. What is the significance of
679. this smaller red arc
In an ECAM system if a caution
680. message appears the system will
A cylinder head temperature
measuring system in a piston engine
681. has a sensor
Advantage of a ratiometer type
682. measuring circuit is
683. In a Turbojet thrust is measured by
What is used to measure gas turbine
684. inlet pressure
A Thermocouple would normally be
used to measure the temperature of
685. the:
686. The Bourdon Tube is used in:
687. The torquemeter is an instrument:
Torque can be calculated in a
torquemeter system by the
688. measurement:
An aircraft that is assessed as not
being a threat would be indicated on
689. a TCAS system as:
During descent through a block of
690. airspace of constant temperature and
it indicates an RPM that must
not be used continuously
because of the increased
vibration level from the
engine/propeller
illuminate the page number
that requires to be selected
One in each cylinder head to
average the temperature
Very Accurate
Fan Speed (N1) and Turbine
Inlet Pressure
Bourdon Tube
Turbine
Temperature probes in front of
the engine
Allowing automatic
synchronisation of the engines
Of the oil pressure resisting
lateral movement of the
gearing in an epicyclic
reduction gearbox
a solid red square
increase
it is maximum continuous RPM
display a diagrammatic view of
the affected system
One in the coolest running
cylinder
Simple
N 1 and EPR
Differential capsule
Exterior
Smok detectors
Giving the power available by
the engine
Of the amount of light through
a gear wheel connected to the
transmission
a solid white or cyan diamond
decrease
it is the RPM at which there is
an increased likelihood of oil
leakage
will alert the pilot by an
audible warning only
One in the hottest running
cylinder
Changes indication if voltage
changes
Compressor outlet pressure
and jet pipe pressure
Aneroid capsule
Cabin
Pressure measurement
Giving the power from the
propeller by direct reading
Of the frequency of a phonic
wheel connected to the
planet gears of an epicyclic
gearbox
a hollow white or cyan
diamond
remain constant
ATPL Question Bank
it indicates an RPM that must
not be used continuously
because there is insufficient
cooling air for the engine
will cause the relevant
buttons to light up
One in each of the two banks
of cylinders in a horizontally
opposed engine.
No external power supply is
required
Compressor inlet pressure
and combustion chamber
pressure
Bellows
Oil
Vibration detectors
Allowing the determination of
the power from the propeller
by using a formula which is a
function of the RPM
Of the difference between 2
phonic wheels connected to
the transmission
a solid yellow circle
increase at a rate of1000 ft /
min
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

while flying at a constant mach no will

cause the CAS to:
The true altitude of an aircraft in
691. flight is shown from: the standard atmosphere pressure altitude density altitude temperature altitude
ground based and measures ground based and measures aircraft based and measures aircraft based and measures
692. A Radio Altimeter is: true altitude true height true altitude true height
excessive sink rate, altitude excessive sink rate, excessive
Which of the following are modes of loss after take-off or go-around glideslope deviation , high excessive sink rate , flaps in flaps in the incorrect position,
693. the GPWS? , excessive glideslope deviation climb rate the incorrect position, stall high altitude descent, stall
An aircraft is travelling at 120 kt, what
angle of bank would be required for a
694. rate one turn? 30° 12° 19° 35°
An aircraft is travelling at 100 kt
forward speed on a 3° glideslope.
695. What is its rate of descent? 500 ft/min 300 ft/min 250 ft/min 500 ft/sec
contact ATC on receipt of a climb or descend at 500
696. What correction is given by TCAS? turn left or right climb or descend Resolution Advisory ft/min
Which of the following are inputs to
the central processing unit of the flaps, landing gear, glideslope, flaps, landing gear, unusual flaps, landing gear, glideslope,
697. GPWS ? flaps,landing gear, VOR radio altimeter attitudes, radio altimeter radio altimeter, VOR
698. What is used for EGT measurement? helical bi-metallic strips thermistors radiation pyrometry thermo emf thermocouples
When accelerating on a northerly
heading what does the Direct Reading
699. Magnetic Compass indicate? no change north a turn to the west a turn to the east
to prevent hysteresis , to
Why is there a vibration device in a to prevent hysteresis ,to keep prevent lag in a mechanical to prevent lag in a mechanical to prevent icing , to overcome
700. pressure altimeter? pilots happy during long flights system system , to prevent icing dither
calculate the computed
An inertial reference system is aligned trihedron with reference to the establish true and magnetic establish position relative to
701. when turned on so as to: earth north true and magnetic north establish magnetic north
Total Air Temperature is than static
air temperature and the difference
702. varies with warmer altitude colder altitude warmer CAS colder CAS
True heading can be converted into
magnetic heading using a compass
703. and: a map with isogonal lines a map with isoclinal lines a map with isobars a deviation card
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

An aircraft flies into a colder airmass. the indication will depend on

704. This will cause the altimeter to: over-read under-read read the correct altitude the hemisphere of operation
The period of validity of an FMS data d.varies depending on the
705. base is: 56 days one week 28 days area of operational cover
the accelerometers are the platform is strapped down
strapped down but the but the accelerometers are accelerometers and gyros are accelerometers and gyros are
706. In an IRS: platform is gyro-stabilised gyro-stabilised both gyro-stabilised both strapped down
Which of the following correctly 1 degree of freedom , the
describes the gyroscope of a Rate of 1 degree of freedom , its spin 2 degrees of freedom , its spin axis is parallel to the yaw 1 degree of freedom , the spin
707. Turn Indicator? axis is parallel to the pitch axis frame is held by two springs axis axis is horizontal
A blockage occurs in the ram air
source and the drain-hole. The ASI in
708. a non-pressurised aircraft will: read a little low read a little high act like an altimeter freeze at zero
709. Rate of turn is affected by: aircraft speed , angle of bank aircraft speed , aircraft weight angle of bank , aircraft weight none of the above
The local speed of sound at mean sea
710. level at ISA -10°C is: 661 kt 650 kt 673 kt 680 kt
What would the compass heading be
given a true heading of 247° in an
area where the variation is 8°W and a
711. compass deviation of 11°E ? 255° 244° 247° 266°
An aircraft is flying at flight level 350
at a CAS of 290 kt and a temperature
deviation of ISA -10°C The TAS and
712. MN will be: TAS 498kt Mach 0.885 TAS 520kt Mach 0.882 TAS 481kt Mach 0.855 TAS 507kt Mach 0.86
An aircraft in the northern
hemisphere lands and decelerates on
a westerly heading. The compass will
713. indicate: a turn north no turn will be indicated an oscillation a turn south
The angle formed between the
directive force and the total magnetic
714. force is called: variation deviation dip isoclinal
If a constant CAS is maintained under
normal conditions in the climb what it will decrease in an
715. happens to the Mach No ? it will decrease it will remain constant isothermal layer it will increase
If the TAS at 40,000 ft is 450 kt the
716. Mach No is: 0.815 0.783 0.76 0.0825
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

In which of the following modes may expanded ILS , map ,

information from the AWR be plan , expanded ILS , full nav , plan , map , full VOR , expanded nav , expanded VOR expanded ILS , map , full ILS ,
717. displayed ? full VOR expanded VOR , centre map , centre map full VOR , centre map
Wind information can be displayed in
an EFIS system in which of the plan map expanded ILS full full nav full ILS map centre
718. following modes ? VOR map centre map plan full ILS map full ILS full VOR map plan
In FMS fitted aircraft the main
interface between pilot and system the automatic flight control the multi-purpose control and
719. will be provided by: system display unit the flight control unit the flight management source
In the ILS mode, one dot on the
lateral deviation scale on the EHSI
720. indicates: 1 nm 2nm 1° 2°
On a standard 2-dot EHSI in the en-
721. route mode each dot represents: 1 nm 2 nm 5 nm 10 nm
An aircraft maintaining a constant
CAS and altitude is flying from a cold
airmass into warmer air. The effect of
the change of temperature on the
722. speed will be: CAS will increase EAS will decrease TAS will increase TAS will decrease
EAS = CAS corrected for EAS = IAS corrected for CAS = TAS corrected for TAS = EAS corrected for
723. Select the correct statement: compressibility error position error density error compressibility error
An aircraft taking off from an airfield
with QNH set in the altimeter has
both static vents blocked by ice. As
the aircraft climbs away the altimeter Indicate the aircraft height Read the height of the aircraft Show only a very small
724. will: Read the airfield elevation amsl above the airfield increase in height
In an inertial-lead VSI the source of
725. the most pronounced error is: Instrument Position Steep turn Missed approach manoeuver
An aircraft is descending at a constant
mach number. If the aircraft is
descending through an inversion Decrease then decrease more
726. layer, the CAS will: Remain constant Increase Decrease slowly
Position, density, instrument,
The combined Machmeter/ASI is compressibility, manoeuvre Instrument, pressure and Instrument and
727. subject to the following errors: induced Those of the Machmeter only temperature only compressibility only
728. You are flying at a constant FL 290 remain approximately constant increase by 10 kts decrease by 10 kts will increase or decrease
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

and constant mach number. The total depending on whether you

temperature increases by 5°. The CAS are above or below ISA.
will:
Reduce spin-up time and a Reduce spin-up time and Insensitively to "g" and
What are the advantages of an IRS dither motor to prevent "lock- accuracy not adversely affect Increase accuracy and a dither reduced wander of the
729. compared to an INS? out". by "g" motor to prevent "lock-out". gyroscope.
lag & density error &
What errors can the Air Data compressibility & density error instrument error & ram rise & lag & density error & temperature & instrument
730. Computer correct for? & position & temperature error manoeuvre error & ram rise manoeuvre & position errors error
Which of the following is the FMS
normal operating condition in the
731. cruise ? L NAV only V NAV only L NAV or V NAV L NAV and V NAV
Weather Radar returns can be
displayed in which of the following
732. EFIS Modes: Plan Exp ILS Exp VOR Plan Exp ILS MAP Map Exp ILS Exp VOR Map ILS VOR
What are the colors used on an EFIS
display to show a tuned navigation
733. aid and an airport? green & white white & magenta green & cyan white & yellow
On both the captains and co-
734. Weather display is on The captains CRT only The co-pilots CRT only A special screen pilots CRTs
The LOC mode is engaged in The ROLL OUT mode is The auto-throttle is
The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the FLARE engaged in the Roll channel maintaining the speed and the
the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in the pitch and the G/S mode is engaged pitch channel is maintaining
735. At 200ft on an auto-land: mode is engaged in pitch. channel in pitch. the height.
During a CAT 1 ILS approach, height is
736. indicated by: GPS Radio Altimeter Marker Barometric
Localiser is controlling the roll
channel, off line channels are Localiser is controlling the roll Provided both localiser and
During an approach to autoland at Off line channels are manually automatically engaged and channel, stabiliser is trimmed glideslope signals are valid
737. 1500feet; engaged, flare mode is armed flare mode is armed nose up and roll out is armed LAND 3 will
LOC ARMED lights up on the FMA part localiser beam armed and
738. of the PFD, this means: localiser beam captured awaiting capture localiser alarm is on a/c is on localiser centerline
TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C
739. transponder may give: TA only. TA and RA in horizontal plane. TA and RA in vertical plane. RA only.
The Altitude Alert system alerts the When reference altitude When deviating from the
740. pilot: At decision height At the selected altitude equals the selected altitude selected altitude
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
741. The GPWS uses inputs from ;
742. What are the components of a CVR
What corrective action is given by
743. TCAS?
when an intruder aircraft has no
Altitude Reporting facility, i.e. Mode
equipped with 'A' transponder only,
744. TCAS can only give:
A warning message on the EICAS
745. system screen would be:
An aircraft equipped with digital
avionics includes an ECAM system
This centralised system, if a failure in
one of the monitored systems is
746. displayed, the crew must:
747. EPR is the ratio of,
If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT
system became disconnected, the
748. reading would:
The red arc in the middle of the green
band of a piston engine RPM indicator
749. signifies:
What is the purpose of the wing main
750. spar
751. What is the purpose of wing ribs
752. What is the purpose of stringers
The radio altimeter, static
pressure monitor, ILS receiver
and the landing gear and flap
position monitors
Microphone & Crash/Fire
resistant construction
Turn left or right.
Corrective RA only
displayed in amber on the
lower screen with associated
caution lights and aural tones
cancel the warning
The compressor outlet
pressure to the compressor
inlet pressure
Increase by between 20°C to
30°C
Maximum RPM
To withstand bending and
torsional loads
To withstand the fatigue
stresses
To absorb the torsional and
compressive stresses
The radio altimeter and the ILS
receiver only
Microphone & A Flight data
recorder
Climb or descend.
TA followed by a Preventative
RA
displayed in amber, normally
on the upper screen with aural
warnings .
analyse initially the failure and
only respond to a level 1
warning
Jet pipe pressure to
compressor inlet pressure on a
turbo-prop engine only
Decrease by between 20°C to
30°C
Minimum RPM
To withstand compressive and
torsional loads
To shape the wing and support
the skin
To produce stress risers and
support the fatigue metres
The radio altimeter, ILS
receiver, static pressure
monitor, and the landing gear
position monitor only
Independent battery & A
Flight data recorder
Contact ATC
TA only
displayed in red, normally on
the upper screen , and
requiring immediate
corrective action
reset the warning display
after noting the failure on the
left screen
Jet pipe pressure to the
compressor inlet pressure on
a gas turbine engine
Fall to zero
RPM at which a greater level
of vibration is encountered
To withstand compressive and
shear loads
To house the fuel and the
landing gear
To prevent buckling and
bending by supporting and
ATPL Question Bank
The radio altimeter, static
pressure monitor, landing
gear position monitor, and the
flap position monitor only
All of the above
Turn then climb or descend.
Preventative RA only
displayed in amber, normally
on the upper screen, indented
one space to the right.
apply the immediate actions
as directed by the checklist on
the left of the two screens
Jet pipe pressure to the
compressor outlet pressure
on a gas turbine engine
Be largely unaffected
RPM that must never be
exceeded in the cruise
To withstand bending and
shear loads
To provide local support for
the skin
To support the primary
control surfaces
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
Has a programmed inspection
cycle to detect and rectify
753. Regarding a safe life structure: faults
Is changed before its predicted
754. A fail safe structure life is reached
Is made up of light alloy steel
The skin of a modern pressurized sheets built on the monocoque
755. aircraft principle
The primary purpose of the fuselage
756. is to: Support the wings
An amalgam of strengthened
Flight deck windows are constructed glass and vinyl with rubber
757. from pressure seals
Is externally braced with either
758. A cantilever wing: struts and/or bracing wires
Is a structure within the
fuselage to withstand
compression, bending and
759. A torsion box: twisting loads.
Prevents lightning strikes
760. A lightening hole in a rib damaging the fuselage
Provides additional lift for take
off and landing in the event of
761. Control surface flutter engine failure
Reducing the moment of the
762. Control surface flutter is minimized by critical engine
Has degree of structural
strength redundancy spread
763. A damage tolérant structure over a large area
Light alloy steel sheets with
764. Aircraft structures consists mainly of copper rivets and titanium or
Is changed before its predicted
life is reached
Has a programmed inspection
cycle to detect and rectify
faults
Houses the crew and the
payload
House the crew and payload
Strengthened glass with shock
absorbing clear vinyl interlayer
and rubber pressure seals
Is supported at one end only
with no external bracing
Is a structure formed between
the wing spars, skin and ribs to
resist bending and twisting
loads
Provides a means of passing
cables and controls through a
pressure bulkhead
Occurs at high angles of attack
Aerodynamic balance of the
control cables
Is light, non load bearing
structure, damage to which will
not adversely affect the aircraft
Magnesium alloy sheets with
aluminium rivets and titanium
stiffening the skin
Both a and b
Is secondary structure of no
structural significance
Provides aerodynamic lift and
prevents corrosion by keeping
out adverse weather
Keep out adverse weather
Strengthened clear vinyl with
an electrical conducting coat
for de-icing and rubber
pressure seals
Has both an upper an lower
airfoil section
Is a structure within the wing
for housing the fuel tanks,
flight controls and landing
gear
Collects and disposes of
electrical charges
Is a destructive vibration that
must be damped out within
the flight envelope
Changing the wings before
they reach their critical life
Is replaced when it reaches its
predicted life
Aluminium alloy sheets and
rivets with titanium or steel
ATPL Question Bank
None of the above
all of the above
Is primary load bearing
structure carrying much of the
structural loads
Provide access to the cockpit
Strengthened glass with
rubber seals
Folds at the root section to
ease storage in confined
spaces
Is a structure designed to
reduce the weight
Lightens and stiffens the
structure
Is a means of predicting the
critical safe life of the wing.
Mass balance of the control
surface
Need not be repaired until the
aircraft undergoes deep
maintenance
Aluminium sheets and rivets
with titanium or steel
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

steel materials at points or steel at points requiring high materials at points requiring materials at points requiring
requiring high strength strength high strength high strength
The maximum permissible The maximum permissible
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass The maximum permissible take mass of an aircraft with no mass of an aircraft with zero The maximum permissible
765. (MZFM) of an aircraft is off mass of the aircraft. useable fuel payload landing mass
One of the following devices is used
to divert the spanwise flow of air to
chordwise over the top surface of an
766. aerofoil: Vortex generators. Wing fences Wing let Leading edge flap
when pressure difference is when the aircraft speed is
767. The wing tip vortices is less: less when the angle of attack is low high both a) and b) are correct
maintain straight and level
The purpose of the aileron trim tab is flight without pressure on the reposition the aileron to maintain wing level in case of
768. to : control wheel. maintain wing level primary control failure. none of the above
Effect of tail plane is considered
769. mainly in maintaining: Lateral stability Longitudinal stability Directional Stability all the above are correct.
The wing shock-wave moves The wing shock-wave moves The wing shock-wave remains The wing shock-wave
770. As the airspeed increases: backward forward in the same position suddenly disappears
An aircraft using flaps can land at increasing drag and
771. lower speed because of: pitching up moment additional lift. decreasing lift. flap acts as an air brake.
usually located in the bottom
772. An aircraft integral fuel tank is: removable from the aircraft. a self sealing tank a part of the aircraft structure of the fuselage
break the airflow and destroy create a smoother airflow decrease airspeed during
773. The function of the spoilers is to: lift create more lift over the wing steep descent
A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of
gas is shown on the accumulator
gauge. The system is then pressurized
to 1500 bar, so the accumulator will
774. read: 500 bar 1000 bar 1500 bar 2500 bar
The pressure gauge of a hydraulic
system provides information the air and hydraulic fluid in the proportional pressure in the hydraulic fluid in the
775. regarding the pressure of: the air in the accumulator. the system. the system. system.
allows two supply sources to allows one source to operate
776. A shuttle valve: is used to replace NRVs. operate one unit two units acts as a non-return valve
The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the high operating fluid system failure from leaks and seal damage and jack
777. wrong fluid is replaced. This would temperature blocked filters, high temp and corrosion normal operation
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

lead to: possible corrosion.

prevents excessive pressure
relieves below system maintains pressure to a priority relieves at its designed through increased fluid
778. A relief valve: pressure. circuit. pressure. temperature.
The primary purpose of a hydraulic to compensate for leaks, to allow a space into which to maintain fluid between a
779. reservoir is: displacement and expansion. spare fluid may be stored. to indicate system contents. jack and the accumulator.
With air in the hydraulic system you ignore it because normal allow the accumulator to
780. would: operation would remove it. bleed the air out of the system. automatically adjust itself. expect it to operate faster.
The pressure filter in a hydraulic filters the fluid returning to the is fitted down stream of the can be by passed when clears the fluid as it leaves the
781. system: tank. pump. maximum flow is required. reservoir.
pressure is inversely oxygen can be used to charge applied force acts equally in
782. Pascal's law states that proportional to load liquid is compressible the accumulators. all directions.
does not need a positive fluid outlet pressure is governed by does not need a cooling fluid
783. A high pressure hydraulic pump: needs a positive fluid supply. supply. centrifugal force. flow.
store compressed gas for tyre
784. The purpose of an accumulator is to: relieve excess pressure. store fluid under pressure. inflation. remove air from the system.
flow stops when input pressure flow stops when the thermal flow starts when input flow stops when input
is greater than output relief valve off loads the hand pressure is less than output pressure is less than output
785. With a one way check valve (NRV): pressure. pump. pressure. pressure.
A restrictor valve is physically fitted in u/c down line and flap down supply line to the a/c
786. the: u/c up line and flap up line. u/c down line and flap up line. line. retraction actuator.
the terminal pressure will be
In the case of a failure of a cut-out a full flow relief valve is fitted a full flow relief valve is fitted a full flow relief valve is not controlled by adjusting the
787. valve: down stream of it. upstream of it. required. pump RPM.
reduces the size of the removes the dissolved gases maintains the fluid level in the
788. A separator in an accumulator: isolates the gas from the fluid. accumulator required. from the fluid. reservoir.
more when the piston is the same at both ends
more at the piston head than more at the cylinder end than moving than when it is between the piston and the
789. In an enclosed system pressure is felt: the rest of the cylinder. the piston head. stationary. cylinder head.
can only be fitted if provided closes if inlet pressure exceeds opens if inlet pressure equals,
790. A non return valve: with a by pass selector. outlet pressure. outlet pressure. closes if inlet pressure ceases.
provide an idling circuit when
An Automatic cut-off Valve(ACOV) provide an idling circuit when a extend the life of the the accumulator is fully ensure the pump is always on
791. will: selection is made. accumulator. charged. load.
the accumulator to be emptied the pressure pump to off-load two independent pressure high pressure fluid to return
792. A shuttle valve will allow: after engine shut down. when the system pressure is sources to operate a to the reservoir if the Full
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
793. The purpose of a reservoir is to:
When the hydraulic system pressure
794. is released
795. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:
796. The purpose of a reservoir is:
Different diameter actuators supplied
797. with the same pressure at same rate:
798. The function of an accumulator is to:
799. A one way restrictor:
Dry air should be used to charge
800. hydraulic accumulator :
The purpose of the relief valve in
801. hydraulic system is to:
802. Oil is used in an oleo strut to :
The nose wheel assembly must be
803. centered before retraction because:
The movement of the gear on
804. lowering is normally damped to:
Inadvertent retraction of the landing
805. gear on the ground is :
compensates for temperature
changes.
reservoir air pressure will
increase.
is greater in pipes of larger
diameters.
to provide a housing for the
instrument transmitters.
exert the same force.
Store fluid under pressure
restricts fluid flow in one
direction and prevents in the
other direction
To a pressure greater than the
pressure required to operate a
mechanism
relief the excess pressure to
the atmosphere.
Support the weight of the
aircraft
There is limited space in the
nose wheel bay
Prevent the fluid becoming
aerated
Not possible because the
system is not powerful enough
reached.
compensates for small leaks,
expansion and jack
displacement.
reservoir fluid contents will rise
if reservoir is lower than other
components in the system.
is greater in pipes of smaller
diameters.
to enable the contents to be
checked.
will lift equal loads.
Dampen pressure fluctuations
allows fluid flow in one
direction and prevents in the
other direction
To a pressure lower than the
pressure required to operate a
mechanism
protect the system from over
pressure damage
Limit the speed of compression
of the strut
The aircraft may swerve on the
next landing if the nose wheel
is not straight
Counteract the force of gravity
which would bring the gear
down too fast
prevented by the ground/air
logic system
system/component.
compensates for fluid loss.
reservoir fluid contents will
fall if reservoir is the highest
point in the system.
does not vary with pipe
diameter.
to allow for fluid
displacements, small leaks,
thermal expansion and
contents monitoring.
will move at the same speed.
Allow for fluid expansion
allows fluid flow in one
direction and restricts in the
other direction
Before installation in the
aircraft
regulate the system pressure
Lubricate the piston within
the cylinder
The tyres may be damaged on
landing if the nose wheel is
not straight
Make the lowering time
greater than the raising time
always a danger after the
ground locks have been
removed
ATPL Question Bank
Flow Relief Valve fails.
to minimize pump cavitation.
reservoir contents are
dumped overboard.
varies in direct proportion to
the system demands.
to provide a housing for the
main system pumps and so
obviate the need for backing
pumps.
exert different forces.
All of the above
restricts in one direction only
during overpressure
both b and c are correct
both a & c are correct
Limit the speed of extension
and compression of the strut
It will remove any slush or
debris which may have
accumulated on take-off
Prevent the hydraulic fluid
becoming overheated
the responsibility of the first
officer when he is on the
aircraft
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
793. The purpose of a reservoir is to:
When the hydraulic system pressure
794. is released
795. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:
796. The purpose of a reservoir is:
Different diameter actuators supplied
797. with the same pressure at same rate:
798. The function of an accumulator is to:
799. A one way restrictor:
Dry air should be used to charge
800. hydraulic accumulator :
The purpose of the relief valve in
801. hydraulic system is to:
802. Oil is used in an oleo strut to :
The nose wheel assembly must be
803. centered before retraction because:
The movement of the gear on
804. lowering is normally damped to:
Inadvertent retraction of the landing
805. gear on the ground is :
compensates for temperature
changes.
reservoir air pressure will
increase.
is greater in pipes of larger
diameters.
to provide a housing for the
instrument transmitters.
exert the same force.
Store fluid under pressure
restricts fluid flow in one
direction and prevents in the
other direction
To a pressure greater than the
pressure required to operate a
mechanism
relief the excess pressure to
the atmosphere.
Support the weight of the
aircraft
There is limited space in the
nose wheel bay
Prevent the fluid becoming
aerated
Not possible because the
system is not powerful enough
reached.
compensates for small leaks,
expansion and jack
displacement.
reservoir fluid contents will rise
if reservoir is lower than other
components in the system.
is greater in pipes of smaller
diameters.
to enable the contents to be
checked.
will lift equal loads.
Dampen pressure fluctuations
allows fluid flow in one
direction and prevents in the
other direction
To a pressure lower than the
pressure required to operate a
mechanism
protect the system from over
pressure damage
Limit the speed of compression
of the strut
The aircraft may swerve on the
next landing if the nose wheel
is not straight
Counteract the force of gravity
which would bring the gear
down too fast
prevented by the ground/air
logic system
system/component.
compensates for fluid loss.
reservoir fluid contents will
fall if reservoir is the highest
point in the system.
does not vary with pipe
diameter.
to allow for fluid
displacements, small leaks,
thermal expansion and
contents monitoring.
will move at the same speed.
Allow for fluid expansion
allows fluid flow in one
direction and restricts in the
other direction
Before installation in the
aircraft
regulate the system pressure
Lubricate the piston within
the cylinder
The tyres may be damaged on
landing if the nose wheel is
not straight
Make the lowering time
greater than the raising time
always a danger after the
ground locks have been
removed
ATPL Question Bank
Flow Relief Valve fails.
to minimize pump cavitation.
reservoir contents are
dumped overboard.
varies in direct proportion to
the system demands.
to provide a housing for the
main system pumps and so
obviate the need for backing
pumps.
exert different forces.
All of the above
restricts in one direction only
during overpressure
both b and c are correct
both a & c are correct
Limit the speed of extension
and compression of the strut
It will remove any slush or
debris which may have
accumulated on take-off
Prevent the hydraulic fluid
becoming overheated
the responsibility of the first
officer when he is on the
aircraft
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
Tyre wear when taxying can be
806. reduced :
To prevent scrubbing the tyres while
807. taxying, you should :
The best extinguishant to use on a
808. wheel or brake fire is :
When inflating a tyre fitted to an
aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on
809. the gauge should be modified by :
The pressure needed to operate the
wheel brakes on a large aircraft
810. comes from:
Which of the following statements
811. will produce the shortest landing run:
An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225
psi , its minimum aquaplaning speed
812. will be:
813. Landing gear ground locking pins are:
The most likely cause of brake unit
814. dragging is:
A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy
815. is:
816. The anti-skid system would be used :
A hydraulic gear retraction
mechanism consists of sequence
817. valves, uplocks and:
818. A nose wheel steering control system;
At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph
819. the antiskid braking system is:
820. The tyre pressures are checked after a
restricting the use of brakes
and using thrust reversers
use tyres with fusible plugs
CO2
1Opsi
the aircraft main hydraulic
system
Crossing the threshold at the
correct height and speed
135 mph
fitted before flight to ensure
the landing gear locks are fully
cocked.
dirt between the rotor and
stator assemblies
aircraft is overweight
on landing runs only
an anti-skid braking system
prevents the nosewheel from
castoring at all times
inoperative
fallen by 15% from their rated
taxying at less than 40 kph
make sharp turns only if you
have high speed tyres fitted
Dry powder
10%
the pilots brake pedals
Applying full anti-skid braking
as quickly as possible after
touchdown
135 knots
removed prior to flight and
returned to stores
grease on the rotor assembly
the tyre pressures are too high
on take off runs only
downlocks
allows the nosewheel to castor
within preset limits when in
the neutral position
operative
risen by 15% from their rated
staying on the smoothest
parts of the taxiway
turn no sharper than the
minimum specified radius
Freon
4psi
a self contained power pack
Application of reverse thrust
as early as possible in the
landing run
145 knots
fitted after flight to maintain a
hydraulic lock in the down
lock jack
the brake pressure being too
high
the aircraft is incorrectly
loaded
for take off on icy runways
torque links
allows the nosewheel to
castor freely at all times
operative only on the
nosewheel brakes
remained constant
ATPL Question Bank
taxying at less than 25 knots
deflate the tyres to a
minimum pressure
Water
4%
the hydraulic reservoir
All of the above
145 mph
removed prior to flight and
stowed on the aircraft where
they are visible to the crew.
incorrect operation of the
adjuster assemblies.
a torque link is worn or
damaged.
for both take off and landing
runs
a shock absorber.
prevents the nose gear from
lowering if the nosewheels
are not centralized.
operative only on the main
wheel brakes
risen by 10% of their original
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

long taxi to the ramp following value value value

landing. The pressures will have:
always indicates the number of never indicates the number of
cords or plies in the tyre cords or plies in the tyre indicates whether or not an is the index of the tyre
821. The ply rating of a tyre : carcass carcass inner tube should be fitted strength
When the landing gear is selected UP
822. the sequence of lights is: red, green, out. red, out, green green, red, out out, red, green
The amount of wear on a reinforced ,
823. ribbed tread tyre is indicated by: the offset wear groove marker tie bars concentric wear rings grey cushion rubber
In the event of an approach to land
being made with the throttle levers
retarded towards idle and the flaps
down and the gear up , the warning
824. given to the pilot will be a; continuous bell horn buzzer stick shaker
Lowering the gear using the free fall
system will result in the main landing
825. gear doors : closing hydraulically closing mechanically remaining open being jettisoned
With RTO (rejected take-off) selected
and armed the brakes will be V1 is not reached after a Vr is not reached after a reverse thrust is selected at one of the thrust levers is
826. automatically applied if: predetermined distance predetermined distance any time returned to idle
A green fusible plug is designed to
deflate the tyre if a temperature of ---
827. -----is reached. 177 ° C 277 ° C 155 ° C 199 ° C
Anti-skid system functions by sensing
828. : the aircraft speed. the rate of wheel deceleration the rate of wheel acceleration the touch down protection
The landing gear in modern aircraft
are retracted into the structure to
829. reduce : induced drag weight parasite drag both (b) and (c) are correct.
The purpose of the torque link
attached to the cylinder and piston of absorb shock and reduce maintain correct wheel
830. a landing gear oleo shock strut is to: limit die compression stroke. hold the shock strut in place bounce alignment
Which of the following can be used as
braking device in flight as well as Spoiler & aerodynamic speed
831. during landing? Wheel brakes brakes Thrust reversers all the above are correct.
Implementing shimmy application of friction at the locking the wheel while
832. Shimmy can be prevented by: dampers spindle of main wheel taxiing at low speed all the above are correct
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
The purpose of the secondary stops in
833. a control system is
In a cable control system cables are
834. tensioned to
In a manual flying control system the
control inputs to the primary control
835. surfaces
836. To yaw the aircraft to the right
837. To roll the aircraft to the right
Which way does the balance tab
838. move to bank an airplane to the left?
839. Main and nose wheel bays are:
Normal maximum negative
840. differential pressure is:
When would the negative differential
841. limit be reached/exceeded:
A/C in level flight if cabin altitude
842. increases does pressure diff:
In level pressurized flight does the
843. outflow valve:
The rate of change of cabin pressure
844. should be kept to the minimum. Is
to reduce the control loads on
the primary stops
remove backlash from the
control linkage and provide
positive action in both
directions
are reversible and are opposite
for the movement required
the right rudder pedal is
pushed forward and the rudder
moves to the left
the rudder control is moved to
the right, the right aileron
moves up and the left down.
upward in the left aileron.
pressurized
when atmospheric pressure
exceeds cabin pressure by the
amount permitted by the
system controls
rapid descent when A/C
descends below cabin altitude
increase
close
in descent
to limit control surface range in
the event of primary stop
failure
provide tension on the
turnbuckles and compensate
for temperature variations
are irreversible and are
opposite for the movement
required
the right rudder pedal is
pushed forward and the rudder
moves to the right
the aileron control is moved to
the left and the right aileron
moves up and the left down.
downward in the left aileron
unpressurized
where the cabin pressure falls
below aircraft altitude pressure
at which time the inward relief
valve opens.
during ground pressure testing
decrease
adjust to provide constant
flow, and is normally partially
open
in climb
to limit the secondary control
system from excessive
movement
provide tension on the
turnbuckles and ensure the
full range is achieved
are reversible and are
instinctive for the movement
required
the left rudder pedal is
pushed forward and the
rudder moves to the left
The aileron control is moved
to the right and the right
elevator goes up and the left
one down.
downward in the right aileron
conditioned
when the cabin pressure
exceeds the atmospheric
pressure by 0.5 PSI
rapid ascent when aircraft
climbs
remain the same
open to increase air
conditioning
in periods when the
dehumidifier is in use
ATPL Question Bank
to remove the excess backlash
in the controls
all the above
are reversible, are instinctive
for the movement required
and are limited in range by
flight deck obstructions
the left rudder pedal is
pushed forward and the
rudder moves to the left
The aileron control is moved
to the right, the right aileron
goes up and the left one
down.
right in the rudder
different, with the mains
being unpressurized and the
nose pressurized
the pressure at which the duct
relief valve is set to operate.
when changing to manual
operation
nil
adjust to provide constant
flow, and is normally almost
closed
in cruise
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

this more important:

Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on number of pressurization number of explosive number of cycles at maximum
845. the: cycles decompressions number of landings only. differential
If the forward oil seal in an axial flow `b' is only correct if synthetic `a' will be correct only if the
846. compressor fails, will air be: contaminated unaffected oil is used aircraft is inverted
Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is air data computer output cabin pressure, static and air
847. supplied with: information cabin and static pressure speed information cabin pressure only
What is the purpose of the duct relief to protect the undercarriage to ensure the compressor to prevent damage to the to relieve excess pressure to
848. valve: bay pressure is regulated ducts compressor return line
What is the purpose of inward relief to allow positive pressure to
849. valves: to prevent negative differential to back up the duct relief valve be bled off in an emergency to back up the outflow valve
On a ground pressurization test, if the
cabin suffers a rapid de- the temperature will rise duct relief valve may jam
850. pressurization: suddenly water precipitation will occur damage to hull may occur open
passing charge air through
mixing the various vapours ducts and cool air around
851. A heat exchanger functions by: combining ram and charge air inside the heat exchanger ducts removing the static charge
is the maximum authorized
pressure difference between
the inside of the fuselage and is the absolute pressure the
the atmospheric ambient is the absolute pressure is the pressure loss over a cabin pressure ducting is
852. Maximum Differential pressure: pressure provided by the vacuum pump given time limit designed to carry
the safety valve would limit the safety relief valve would
If the discharge or outflow valve the duct relief valve will take the inward relief valve would the positive pressure limit the negative pressure
853. closes: control assume control difference difference
Air for conditioning and the engine compressor or cabin the engine by pass duct or the engine compressor or ram the engine turbine or cabin
854. pressurization is taken from: compressor thrust reverse by pass duct turbine compressor
in the direction sensed by the
855. Safety valves are biased: inwards outwards SVC neither a nor b
In a pressurization circuit the inward relief valve to open outflow valve to operate outflow valve to operate after outflow valve to operate the
856. sequence of operation is for the: before the safety valve before the safety valve the safety valve same time as the safety valve.
With the QFE set on the cabin the fuselage will be pressurized a ground pressurization will the cabin will be the flight deck will be
857. controller, against an altitude of zero: on landing automatically take place unpressurised on landing depressurized
In the cruise at 30,000ft the cabin
altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to cabin differential will not be cabin differential will
858. 6,000ft: cabin differential will increase affected decrease nil
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
An aircraft climbs from sea level to
16,000 ft at 1,000ft per min, the cabin
pressurization is set to climb at 500ft
per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft.
The time taken for the cabin to reach
859. 8,000ft is:
860. Negative differential is limited by:
The term "pressurization cycle"
861. means:
862. Inward Relief Valves operate:
863. Safety valves operate:
864. Ditching Cocks are operated:
865. Duct Relief Valves operate when:
During a normal pressurized cruise,
866. the discharge valve position is:
867. A dump valve:
When air is pressurized, the % of
868. oxygen in it:
869. If pressure is manually controlled:
An aircraft is prevented from
870. pressurizing on the ground by:
If the cabin pressure increases in level
871. flight does the cabin VSI show:
872. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:
the same time as it takes the
aircraft to reach 16,000ft
dump valve
air introduced into a fuselage
under pressure only
in conjunction with the cabin
pressure controller when there
is a negative diff.
at higher diff than discharge
valve
automatically when the soluble
plugs dissolve
excessive pressure builds up in
the air conditioning system
supply ducts
at a position pre-set before
take off
automatically opens when fuel
is dumped
increases
an extra member is required to
monitor system operation
the auto deflating valve on the
main oleos
rate of climb
the altitude corresponding to
cabin pressure regardless of
aircraft height
half the time it takes the
aircraft to reach 16,000ft
inward relief valve
air introduced into a fuselage
under pressure until the time
the air is released
in conjunction with the cabin
altitude selector when there is
negative diff
as soon as initiation takes place
to shut all outflow valves
to keep cabin pressure close to
ambient pressure
partially open
is controlled manually
decreases
the climb rate would be
maintained automatically
inhibiting micro switches on
the landing gear
no change unless the aircraft
climbs
is presented on a second
needle on the aircraft altimeter
twice the time it takes the
aircraft to reach 16,000ft
outflow valve
air discharged from the
fuselage, above 15 psi
when manually selected
during the emergency descent
procedure
at a lower diff than a
discharge valve
to direct pressure into
flotation bags
to prevent the floor from
collapsing should baggage
door open.
open until selected altitude is
reached
is opened automatically when
the safety valve opens
remains the same
climb rate could not be
maintained
inhibiting micro switches on
the throttles
rate of descent
altitude at which cabin
pressure equals ambient
pressure
ATPL Question Bank
three times the time it takes
the aircraft to reach 16,000ft
safety valve
the frequency in Hzs the
pressure cycles from the roots
blowers enter the fuselage
automatically when there is a
negative diff.
at a set value, which is
selected
for rapid depressurization
the cooling modulator
shutters reach the optimized
position.
closed until selected altitude
is reached.
is controlled by the safety
valve integrating line.
nil
care should be taken to
ensure climb/descent rates
are safe
the pressure control master
switch
nil
altitude corresponding to
cabin pressure in relation to
MSL ISA conditions
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
The term pressure cabin is used to
873. describe:
874. A pressurization system works by:
When air is pressurized by an engine
875. driven compressor, it is also:
Cabin negative differential pressure is
876. prevented by :
When an aircraft is de-iced prior to
departure, if the temperature is 0°C in
precipitation, which type of fluid and
application method will provide the
877. longest holdover period:
878. The effect of frost on an aircraft:
879. In flight airframe icing does not occur:
The methods used to provide de-icing
880. in flight can be:
Ice detectors are used primarily to
881. warn the crew:
If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to
882. departure:
With a gas turbine engine, should
883. engine anti-icing be selected "ON":
884. The windshield anti-icing is used to:
885. In a pneumatic de-icing system:
pressurization of the flight deck
only
essentially constant input mass
flow and variable output
moisturized
Relief valve inward opening
Type I fluid at the rate of 100%
cold spray application.
is to cause an increase in
boundary layer energy and so
delay the onset of the stall.
above 25,000 feet
mechanical or pneumatic or
fluid.
that they are approaching
airframe icing conditions.
the aircraft can be de-iced with
the engines running.
whenever the igniters are on.
increase the strength of
windshield
the boots remain inflated while
the system operates.
the ability to pressurize the
aircraft to a higher than
ambient pressure
essentially constant output
mass flow and variable input
heated
outflow valve safety
mechanism
Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot
spray application.
can be generally ignored.
above 40,000 feet
pneumatic or thermal or fluid.
that they are approaching
engine icing conditions.
the aircraft can be de-iced with
the APU running.
whenever the OAT is +10°C or
below and the air contains
visible moisture.
prevent ice formation
the boots are inflated and
deflated repeatedly.
the passenger cabin on an
airliner
does not start until an altitude
of 8,000ft has been reached
cooled
needle valve
Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot
spray application.
has no significant effect on
the aerodynamic contour or
CL max.
above 35,000 feet
electrically heated or air
heated or oil heated.
that engine icing conditions
now warrant the initiation of
the engine system.
the aircraft can be de-iced
with the APU running and the
bleed air off.
whenever the TAT is +10°C or
below and it is raining.
improve the impact resistance
vacuum inflates the boots and
pressure deflates them
ATPL Question Bank
the ability to maintain a
constant pressure differential
at all altitudes
supplying hot gases from the
engine exhaust unit to the
mass flow control system
the temperature is not
affected
auto controller
Type II fluid at the rate of
100% cold spray application.
is to cause an increase in the
surface roughness which in
turn increases skin friction
and reduces the kinetic
energy of the boundary layer.
above 35,000 feet
centrifugally forced or ram air
heated.
that airframe icing conditions
exist.
neither the APU or main
engines can be running during
the procedure.
whenever the ice detector
system warning light comes
on.
All the above are correct
when the boots are fully
inflated the pressure is
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
When the pneumatic de-icing system
886. is switched off:
887. Propeller electrical de-icing systems:
To prevent propeller elements
888. overheating:
889. A thermal wing de-icing system:
890. Pilots cockpit windows are heated:
For maximum strength against impact
891. damage pilots windows are:
892. Pilots cockpit windows are:
An aircraft is to be de-iced and then
enter the line up for departure. Which
de-ice fluid will have the best
holdover time at 0°C with
893. precipitation:
Without added oxygen the time of
useful consciousness at 25 000 ft is
894. approximately:
Without added oxygen the time of
useful consciousness at 40,000 ft is
895. approximately:
The maximum altitude without
oxygen at which flying efficiency is
896. not seriously impaired is:
the relief valves admit ram air
to the boots.
use only continuous loads to
the elements.
use only when all other
services are switched off.
feeds hot air along the
complete upper wing surface.
only to prevent condensation
occurring.
normally kept to a minimum
size.
only heated by air from the de-
misting fan.
type I fluid at 100% cold spray.
twenty seconds
twenty seconds
10,000 ft
a small flow of hot air
continuously flows through the
boots.
use a cyclic timer.
carry out a load check before
starting engines.
feeds the engine exhaust
through the leading edge ducts
only.
by agitating the window
molecules with an AC current.
specially treated during
construction.
constructed by heat treating
the outer surface to reduce
glare.
a 50%/50% solution of type II
fluid hot spray.
eighty seconds
three minutes
17,500 ft
repeatedly.
the dynamic pressure on the
leading edge ensures that the
boots lie flat.
convert electrical energy to
mechanical energy.
use only when the propellers
are rotating.
can use air taken from the
engine compressor.
with a reflective inner coating
that prevents fogging.
heated internally to increase
their elasticity.
made of sandwich
construction with an electrical
conductive coating.
a 50%/50% solution of type I
fluid hot spray.
three minutes
eighty seconds
25,000 ft
ATPL Question Bank
released and they collapse
due to their elasticity.
vacuum deflates the boots to
minimize drag.
transfer power to the
elements via a commutator in
DC systems.
use only when in flight.
relies on heat generated by
the kinetic heating effect of
the airflow.
by passing current across an
inner conductive electrical
coating.
only heated when the MAT
falls below 0°C in
precipitation.
made of polarized glass.
type II fluid at 100% cold
spray.
six minutes
six minutes
30,000 ft
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
897. In a pressure demand oxygen system:
In a continuous flow oxygen system,
898. oxygen is supplied:
In a diluter demand system, selection
of emergency on this regulator will
899. result in:
If the aircraft suffers a decompression
900. passenger oxygen masks:
Oxygen cylinders are normally
901. charged to:
902. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:
Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen
903. cylinders:
904. To leak test an oxygen system use:
Satisfactory operation of the oxygen
905. system is indicated by:
If the pressurization system fails and
the cabin starts to climb, then at
14,000 ft oxygen will be available to
906. the passengers by:
907. Passenger oxygen masks will present
The charged pressure of a portable
908. oxygen cylinder is normally:
At what altitude will the diluter-
demand oxygen regulator provide
909. 100% pure oxygen.
A Flow Indicator fitted to an Oxygen
910. regulator indicates:
What is the effect on cabin
temperature of a rapid de-
911. compression at 30,000 ft.
each member of the crew has a
regulator.
only when the mask is plugged
into the socket connection.
air mix supplied at emergency
pressure.
are released by the passengers.
1 000 PSI
liters/minute
is relieved by a thermostat.
fairy liquid and de-ionized
water.
flow indicators.
the stewardess who will hand
out masks.
only when the cabin altitude
reaches 14 000.
500 psi
10,000 ft
that exactly the correct
amount of oxygen is being used
by the crew member.
Sudden and extreme drop
each member of the crew has a
continuous oxygen supply.
only on passenger inhalation
through the mask.
100% oxygen supply as called
for by the user.
automatically drop to a half
hung (ready position).
1 200 PSI
pounds/minute
is relieved by under
pressurizing the bottle.
thin oil.
lack of anoxia.
the passengers grabbing a
mask from the overhead
lockers.
only if selected by the crew.
1200 psi
14,000 ft
that oxygen is flowing through
the regulator.
Insignificant change over the
first 2 minutes
oxygen is supplied with a
continuous pressure flow.
only when the cabin altitude
is above 18 000 ft.
100% oxygen at positive
pressure.
are handed out by the cabin
staff.
1 800 PSI
liters/second
is relieved by a bursting disc
acid free soap and distilled
water.
aural reassurance.
portable oxygen bottles
located in the seat backs.
only if selected by the cabin
staff:
1800 psi
24,000 ft
that the crew member is
correctly connected to the
regulator.
A gradual decrease to
ambient over a period of
about 10 minutes if the cabin
ATPL Question Bank
oxygen demand will cause the
pressure to rise.
only when the supply has
been regulated by the pilot.
100% oxygen continuous flow
at positive pressure.
must be removed from the
life jacket storage.
2 000 PSI
kilos/hour
is controlled by a thermal
relief valve.
acid free soap and water.
pressure indicators.
masks automatically ejected &
hung to the passenger
position.
if selected manually /
electrically / barometrically.
3000 psi.
34,000 ft
that the system pressure
reducing valve is supplying the
correct pressure to the
regulator.
A gradual decrease to
ambient temperature over a
period of about 30 minutes if
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

heating ceases. cabin heating continues

Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased
912. by: Heat Noise Smoking Under-Breathing
What is the approximate cabin
altitude above which you must breath
100% oxygen if you are to maintain an
alveolar partial pressure equal to that
913. at sea level: 26,000 ft 30,000 ft 34,000 ft 38,000 ft
The duration of a chemical oxygen
914. generator is 10 minutes 2.5 hours 30 minutes 15 minutes
flashing red light for each
On a multi engined aircraft, an engine flashing red lights for each steady red light for each engine engine and a common steady red light and bell for
915. fire warning system consists of: engine and a warning horn and a common warning bell warning bell each engine
passenger cabins, cargo bays, cargo bays, APU compartment, toilets, electrical equipment cargo bays, electrical
916. Smoke detectors are fitted in: electrical equipment bays toilets bays, APU compartments equipment bays, toilets
A short circuit in a resistive "fire wire" fire the squib in the fire bottle cause a spurious fire warning cause the blow out disc to be
917. detector will: discharge head to be received ruptured disable the test circuit
On receipt of an engine fire warning pull the fire handle, fire the fire shut down the affected fire the first extinguisher, pull
on the flight deck the correct fight the fire with the flight extinguisher, shut down the engine, pull the fire handle, the fire handle, shut down the
918. procedure should be: deck BCF fire extinguisher engine fire the first extinguisher engine
automatically fire the engine are connected to the Vital bus can be tested from the flight
919. Fire detection systems: extinguishers can only use AC electricity bar deck
by high temperature in its by remote control from the by a switch at the nearest
920. A toilet fire extinguisher is activated: vicinity flight deck flight attendant station by a smoke detector
must be outlined externally by
can only be opened from the must have an escape slide a 2 inch band of contrasting
921. Emergency exits: inside fitted to them are painted yellow colour
Regulations governing the fitting,
marking and use of safety equipment British Civil Airworthiness Joint Airworthiness
922. is contained in: Requirements Navigation Regulations Requirements Operations Manual
automatically inflates when inflates when the recovery
can be armed from the inside can only be activated from the the crash switches are team open the door from the
923. An automatic escape slide: of the aircraft only flight deck activated outside of the aircraft
Emergency lighting must be capable
of remaining illuminated for a
924. minimum of: 5 mins 7 mins 10 mins 15 mins
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
The LED indicator light on the
emergency torch is flashing at 4
925. second intervals. This indicates:
If the emergency lighting system is
powered from the aircraft electrical
926. system, it takes is power supply from:
Lifejackets are inflated with
927. compressed:
928. Emergency lighting:
929. A Cut-in area:
Portable Fire Extinguisher is used in
930. the aircraft for-
The fire originating from electrical
931. equipment is known as :
A fuel booster pump, besides
pumping fuel to the engine, can also
932. be utilised to:
933. The aircraft cannot be refueled while:
The disadvantage of refueling the
aircraft to "tanks full" the night
before a departure in the heat of the
934. day is that:
The main components of aircraft fuel
935. system is :
936. Fuel tank vent system is installed to:
If a fuel sample appears cloudy or
937. hazy, the most probable cause is:
On an aircraft equipped with a
938. compensated capacitance type fuel
the battery is charging
AC essential bus-bar
Helium
can be switched on from the
flight deck only
always has a crash axe located
next to it
Normal use by the Cockpit
crews and emergency use by
the cabin occupants
A class fire
jettison and transfer fuel.
a ground power unit is
operating on the ramp.
the change in the specific
gravity may cause the aircraft
to be overweight.
fuel tank
pressurize the fuel tank
water contamination.
an increase of 10%.
the torch is serviceable
DC essential bus-bar
Nitrogen
must illuminate the inside of
the passenger cabin only
is designated as a weaker
fuselage area
Emergency use by the Cockpit
crews and normal use by the
cabin occupants
B class fire
jettison and heat the fuel.
passengers are walking
through the refueling zones.
the change in the volume of
the fuel may cause it to spill
through the vent system.
electrical booster pump
remove the fuel vapour
anti-microbiological additives.
a decrease of 10% of the
volume factored by the new
the battery needs replacing
Vital DC bus-bar
Freon
comprises flight deck lighting,
cabin internal and external
lighting
is lit internally by the
emergency lighting system
Emergency use by both
Cockpit crews and cabin
occupants
C class fire
transfer and heat the fuel.
passengers are boarding.
the change in calorific value
may reduce engine power to
below sufficient.
fuel abut off valve and
refueling valve
equalize the tank Pressure
with ambient
mixing different fuel grades.
a decrease.
ATPL Question Bank
the filament is broken
The inverter
Carbon Dioxide
once activated cannot be
switched off
is delineated by external
markings having right angled
corners
Normal use by both Cockpit
crews and cabin occupants
D class fire.
transfer and recycle the fuel.
the A.P.U. is running.
the R.P.M. governor will be
rendered inoperative.
all the above are correct.
both (b) and (c) are correct
oil in the fuel.
the same amount.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

quantity indication system graduated specific gravity.

to read in kg, the temperature
increases just after the tanks are half
filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by
10%, the gauges will show:
must be started before
must be switched OFF fuelling is carried out, and can can be started only after the
The exhaust gases from the A.P.U. go throughout the refueling can be started while refueling be run throughout the refueling operation has been
939. into the refueling zone. The A.P.U.: operation. is carried out. refueling operation. terminated.
can only be used in domestic can only be used by aircraft cannot be re-used until its
940. De-fuelled fuel: heating systems from the same operators fleet. must be put back into storage. quality has been verified.
isolation of the engine from
The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in the use of fuel from any tank refueling when only one the fuel system in the case of transfer of fuel between the
941. order to facilitate: to any engine. bowser is in use. an engine fire. main fuel tanks.
if the aircraft has more than
twenty seats and the ratio of
cabin attendants to
passengers is greater than
Refueling with passengers on board is 1:50 and it is a wide bodied
942. not permissible: on a fixed wing aircraft. if AVGAS is being used. jet. in any of the above cases.
the rear left or right door must
be manned constantly by a
While refueling with passengers on two sets of extra steps must be cabin attendant ready for use
board, when a loading bridge is in provided, one of which must as an emergency exit using the ground servicing must not be catering and cleaning must
943. use: be at the rear of the aircraft. inflatable escape slide. carried out. not be carried out.
with a/c communication
Aircraft refueling should be in an open air for good as soon as possible after in a hangar when activities equipment on and in contact
944. accomplished ventilation engine shutdown can be controlled with the tower in case of fire.
allow the booster pump to maintain a pre-determined
prevent longitudinal remain covered by fuel dampen lateral movement of quantity of fuel in the
The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel movement of the fuel during irrespective of the aircraft the fuel in the wing tanks outboard section of the wing
945. tanks is to: acceleration. attitude during a sideslip tanks
to stop cavitation in the High to maintain a constant to prevent water to stop ice blocking the Low
946. Fuel is heated: Pressure Fuel Pump. viscosity. contamination. Pressure fuel filter.
947. Fuel tank booster pumps are: centrifugal, low pressure. centrifugal, high pressure gear type, low pressure gear type, high pressure
948. The Low Pressure engine driven backs up in case the engine backs up in case of a double assists in the refueling pressurizes the fuel tanks to
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

pump: High Pressure Pump fails. booster pump failure. operation if only low pressure assist flow to the booster
refueling systems are pumps.
available.
The purpose of the fuel cooled oil
949. cooler is to: heat the oil and cool the fuel. heat the fuel and cool the oil. cool the oil. heat the fuel.
If a fuel tank with a capacitive
quantity system was filled with water
instead of fuel, the gauge would it would indicate the same as if it would freeze at the last
950. indicate: full scale low (zero) it were filled with fuel full scale high (max) known indication
The advantages of integral fuel tanks
951. are: it is trouble free more safe for crash landing saves more weight and space all the above are correct
Current in amps =(Resistance Resistance in ohms = (Current Current in amps =
in ohms)/(Electromotive force in amps)/(Electromotive force (Electromotive force in
952. Ohms Law states: in volts) in volts) volts)/(Resistance in ohms) None of the above.
In a simple electrical circuit, if the the sum of the currents taken the average current taken by the sum of the reciprocals of
resistors are in parallel, the total by the devices divided by the the sum of the currents taken the devices times the number the currents taken by the
953. current consumed is equal to: number of devices. by the devices. of the devices. devices.
The current flowing in an electrical
954. circuit is measured in: volts ohms inductance amps
955. Electro-motive force is measured in: amps x volts Watts ohms volts
Directly proportional to Directly proportional to Inversely proportional to Inversely proportional to
resistance, indirectly temperature, inversely resistance, directly applied voltage, directly
956. The current flowing in a circuit is proportional to voltage proportional to resistance proportional to voltage proportional to temperature
Current will decrease but
The voltage applied to a simple power consumed remains Resistance and power Current flow will increase and Current flow increases and
957. resistor increases constant decrease power consumed will increase power consumed decreases
In a circuit fitted with a non trip free if the reset button is the reset button may be
circuit breaker if a fault occurs and depressed and held in, the the trip button may be pressed a non trip free circuit breaker pressed to make the circuit
958. persists: circuit will be made. to reset, but not permanently. can never be by-passed. permanent.
A trip-free circuit breaker that has can be reset and held in during maybe reset manually after
959. tripped due to overload: rectification. can never be reset. can be reset after overhaul. fault has been cleared.
are used in low current
960. Circuit breakers and fuses are used in DC circuits only are used in AC or DC circuits are used in AC circuits only circuits only
A trip-free circuit breaker is one cannot be reset by holding the can be reset by holding the must be held in during checks
961. which: lever in while the fault persists. lever in while the fault persists. to find faults. can be by passed.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

If the reset button is pressed in the

trip-free circuit breaker, the contacts only be made if there is a fuse reset itself only after a delay not be made and the reset
962. with the fault cleared will: be made and kept made. in the circuit. of 20 seconds. will remain inoperative.
A thermal circuit breaker works on differential expAnsion of differential thickness of differential pressure of
963. the principle of: metals. metals. differential density of metals. metals.
964. Circuit breakers are fitted in: series with the load. parallel with the load. across the load. shunt with the load.
the amperage has been
a current of a higher value sufficiently high to cause the
an excess current has burst than the fuse rating has fuse to trip out of its holder
the outer cover and melted the conductor and and has therefore,
disconnected the circuit from disconnected the circuit from disconnected the circuit from
965. A fuse is said to have blown when: the supply. the circuit is reconnected. the supply. the supply.
Overloading an electrical circuit increases the weight of the disconnects the fuse from its
966. causes the fuse to 'Blow'. This: insulation. fractures the fuse case. holder. melts the fuse wire
the amps capacity of the
What must be checked before the amps being used in the consuming device in the the correct fuse volt or watts
967. replacing a fuse: the ohms of the circuit. circuit. circuit. rating.
A fuse is used to protect an electrical
968. circuit, it is: of low melting point. of high capacity. of high melting point. of low resistance.
969. A battery capacity test is carried out: 6 monthly 2 monthly 3 monthly every minor check
An aircraft has three batteries each of
12 volts with 40 amp/hr capacity
connected in series. The resultant unit a voltage of 36 and a capacity a capacity of 120 amp/hr and a a capacity of 36 amp/hr and a voltage of 36 and a capacity
970. has: of 120 amp/hr. voltage of 12. 120 watts. of 40 amp/hr.
The method of ascertaining the
voltage of a standard aircraft lead- the current flow with a rated the voltage with rated load
971. acid battery is by checking: the voltage on open circuit. voltage charge. the voltage off load. switched ‘ON’.
A battery is checked for serviceability measuring the specific gravity
972. by: using an ammeter. of the electrolyte. a boric acid solution. using an ohmmeter.
the battery is connected in a battery cannot be used a battery cannot be used only NICAD batteries can be
973. In an AC circuit: series. because the wire is too thick. because it is DC used.
Energy in general cannot be
created or destroyed but can In a motor, mechanical energy In a battery, chemical energy
be transformed from one form is converted to electrical is converted to electrical
974. Find the correct statement : to other. energy. energy. Both ( a) and ( c) are correct.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

In an aircraft having a battery of 24

volts nominal and fully charged the
975. voltmeter would read: 22 volts 24 volts 26 volts 28 volts
The electrolyte used in the lead acid
976. cell is diluted: hydrochloric acid. sulphuric acid. boric acid. potassium hydroxide.
The number of lead acid cells
required to make up a Twelve Volt
977. Battery is: 8 12 6 10
determined by the area of the determined by the active determined by the size of the determined by the number of
978. The capacity of a lead acid battery is: plates. materials on the plates. series coupling bars. separators.
Acid spillage in an aircraft can be bicarbonate of soda and
979. neutralized by using: caustic sod soap and water. soda and water. water.
the battery is discharged
When the battery master switch is the generators are the battery is isolated from through the bonding circuit
980. switched off in flight: disconnected from the bus bar. the ammeter reads maximum. the bus bar. diodes.
in series when the generator
When the generator is on line the in parallel with the other is on line and is relayed when
981. battery is: loads. in series with the generator. the generator is off line. load sharing.
The voltage rating remains the The current rating remains the
If two batteries are connected in same while current rating same while voltage rating Both the voltage and current Only the ampere-Hour
982. parallel : increases. increases. rating increases. increases.
The area of force around a magnet is
983. termed: conductance. stable. magnetic resistance. magnetic field.
When a magnet is unable to accept
984. any further magnetism it is termed: reluctance. saturation. active. reactance.
Permanent magnets are
985. manufactured from: steel. plastic. liquid. glass.
Magnetic lines of force flow externally one main line station to
986. from: another. the master station. the north to the south pole. in a random direction.
Which of the two poles has the both poles have the same
987. greatest strength: north seeking pole. south seeking pole strength. the saturated pole.
988. Electromagnetism is a product of: voltage. current. resistance. engine resistance.
To increase electromagnetic force
989. one would: increase coil resistance. reduce current flow. lower EMF. increase current flow.
A DC generator has a commutator change AC to give a generator transmit the generator maintain a constant
990. whose purpose is to: output of DC. change DC to AC. output to the electrical circuit resistance.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
Another name for a number of
conductors rotating in a magnetic
991. field is:
992. A generator is governed so that:
993. The voltage regulator:
The generator master switch is
994. normally:
995. The voltage regulator:
Voltage is controlled in a generator
996. by:
On aircraft, generator voltage is
997. regulated by:
In an aircraft having a battery with a
nominal voltage of 24volts, generator
998. output would be:
In DC electrical generating systems,
the voltage regulator controls the
system voltage within prescribed
999. limits:
1000. A voltage regulator is fitted to:
If an aircraft electrical system is
quoted as 24 volts DC the output of
1001. the generator is:
The aircraft electrical generator
1002. output is controlled in flight by:
a capacitor.
the EMF is constant and the
rate of flow varies.
senses cut out pressure and
adjusts field current.
fitted with a mechanical safety
catch.
provides a constant current
flow from the generator with
changes of generator speed.
a reverse current relay.
varying the generator field
strength.
24 volts.
regardless of varying engine
RPM and electrical load, by
varying the current in the
generator field windings.
prevent high circulating
currents.
12 volts with the generators
connected in series.
sensing the generator output
pressure.
an armature.
the rate of flow is constant
and the EMF varies.
senses generator output
pressure and adjusts field
current.
in the field circuit which is
connected in parallel with the
generator output.
senses current output.
moving the brushes.
increasing and decreasing the
load.
28amps.
by me Ans of a relay which
closes contacts in the output
line when a certain RPM is
reached.
prevent backlash.
28 volts with the generators
connected in parallel.
ram air.
and to cool the generator.
a condenser.
the generator voltage
reduces generator
temperature.
senses generator output
current and adjusts the field
voltage.
in the field circuit which is in
parallel with the voltage
regulator.
maintains a steady generator
voltage with changes of
generator speed.
a voltage regulator.
changing the generator
speed.
28 volts.
by temperature.
to ensure correct voltage
output to battery.
36 volts with the generators
connected in series/parallel.
a resistance in the generator
output circuit.
ATPL Question Bank
a commutator.
back EMF is equal and
opposite to the applied EMF.
senses back EMF.
fitted in series with the
commutator.
regulates the amount of
current supplied by the
battery to operate the
generator.
it is uncontrollable.
changing generator load.
24 amps.
by a variable resistance which
limits the voltage given by the
batteries.
to prevent battery feedback
to the generator.
42 volts.
the resistance of the
armature circuit.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

In a generator control circuit the

strength of the magnetic field is the reverse current
1003. controlled by: the commutator. the voltage regulator contactor. the output C/B.
AC current from an engine driven
generator is converted to DC current
1004. by: a commutator a converter. an alternator. a rotary actuator.
an equalizing circuit to sense
On a twin engined DC aircraft having an equalizing circuit to sense the difference and equalize
two DC generators load sharing is the difference and equalize the synchronizing relays and the field currents of the two
1005. achieved by: equalizing engine RPM'S voltages of the two generators voltage coil tuners generators
Pilots are informed of rotary actuator
1006. positions by: non return valves. lights or dolls eye indicators. travel indicators. veger counters.
To supply direct current from a
generator giving alternating current it
1007. is normal to fit: a commutator a rotary inverter. an alternator. a static inverter.
to indicate to the pilot that the only to indicate to the pilot
circuit has power and is to control the movement of a to indicate to the pilot that that the equipment has
1008. Press to test lights are used: complete. rotary actuator. the circuit has operated. malfunctioned.
1009. A device for changing AC to DC is: an inverter. a rotary transformer. a rectifier. an alternator.
Friction clutches are fitted to protection against mechanical protection against brake on protection against non return protection against supply
1010. actuators for: overload. loads. valve failure. failures.
AC synchronous motor higher
DC shunt motor is higher than DC series motor is higher than than that of AC induction AC synchronous motor is very
1011. The starting torque of : that of DC series motor. that of DC shunt motor. motor. high.
In an electrical circuit the reverse when battery voltage exceeds when circuit voltage is less when the main output C/B is
1012. current cut-out relay will open: generator voltage. than generator voltage. reset. when the batteries are flat.
to prevent discharge of the
to prevent the battery over to prevent the battery from to allow the generator to be battery through the
1013. A generator cut-out is provided: heating. being overcharged. isolated in a crash. generator.
circuit loads equal the battery the air temperature reaches circuit loads equal the generator voltage falls below
1014. A generator cut-out will open when: voltage. 45°C. generator voltage. battery voltage.
the battery discharging
A generator cut-out is fitted to through the generator the generator overcharging fire in the event of
1015. prevent: windings. the battery. overloading the system. out of phasing.
In the event of the cut-out points
1016. sticking in the closed position, the gain of engine power. a burnt out generator. loss of residual magnetism. no apparent reaction.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

most probable results, when the

engine stopped would be:
To prevent circulating currents when
more than one generator is being reverse current relays are
1017. connected to the same bus bar: fitted.
in series with the generator
1018. A generator cut-out is fitted: output.
On a 28 volt system with a 24 volt
battery the cut-out contacts close at
1019. approximately: 36 volts.
A component whose job is similar to a
1020. generator cut out is: a rectifier.
If the cut-out is open, the battery is
1021. feeding the loads which are: in series with the battery.
one ammeter for each
generator and one voltmeter
switchable to indicate either
In a two engine aircraft with two generator voltage or battery
1022. generators, there would be: voltage.
A generator converts mechanical
1023. energy to electrical by: electro magnetic spring action.
If the generator warning light comes the generator is feeding the
1024. on in flight it indicates that: battery bus bar.
the ammeter reading
decreasing or showing a
A generator failure is usually discharge and a red warning
1025. indicated by: lamp lighting.
when the battery voltage
A generator warning light will be exceeds that of the generator
1026. illuminated: and the cut-out has opened.
the voltmeter will read
1027. If a generator fails in flight: maximum.
1028. If one generator fails you should: switch off the good generator.
the generators are connected
in series.
in the diode circuit.
24 volts.
a converter.
in parallel with the battery.
one voltmeter for each
generator. and one ammeter
switchable to indicate either
generator current or battery
current.
electro magnetic induction.
the generator is not feeding
the battery bus bar.
the voltmeter reading
increasing, the ammeter
reading showing discharge and
a red lamplighting.
at night only.
the ammeter reading will
decrease.
stop and feather the engine
concerned.
rectifiers are fitted.
in parallel with the generator
output.
28 volts.
an inverter.
in sequence with the cut-out.
one ammeter showing the
total output and one
switchable voltmeter.
electrostatic induction.
the battery has failed.
the current consuming
devices failing to operate.
when the generator is
supplying current to a fully
charged battery, and no
electrical loads are switched
on.
load sharing circuits will
operate.
switch off the failed
generator and continue
differential cut-outs are used.
in the field circuit.
26 volts.
a reverse current relay.
cross coupled.
one ammeter and one
voltmeter each showing the
average current and voltage
output.
electro dynamic induction.
a rectifier is faulty.
the motor speed increasing.
when the battery charge
current is lower than required
to maintain its fully charged
state.
the watt metre will show a
increase.
switch off the failed
generator, and cut down on
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

normal use of the electrical the electrical services being

A generator is brought 'on the line'
1029. when it is:
In a twin engine aircraft, fitted with
1030. two generators, if one should fail:
1031. Generator failure is indicted by:
In a twin engine aircraft, with a
generator fitted to both engines, the
1032. starboard generator fails. Will:
1033. Loads on a bus bar are:
When the battery master switch is
1034. switched off in flight:
1035. A generator is taken'off line’ by:
If the ammeter reads plus 5 amp after
1036. engine shut down:
If the ammeter shows 'no' charge, yet
the battery remains charged. Would
1037. you look for:
During flight a malfunction of the
generator cut-out would be indicated
1038. by:
The indicating range of an ammeter
1039. can be increased by fitting;
An electrical system which uses the
aircraft structure as a return path for
1040. current, is known as:
On a single pole circuit, if the positive
1041. conductor is shorted to the aircraft
connected in series with other
generators.
the failed generator must be
isolated.
load sharing circuits
connecting.
the starboard engine cut.
in series with the generator so
that the voltage can be
reduced.
the generators are
disconnected from the bus bar.
the battery switch.
some switches have been left
'on'.
loose battery connections.
overheating of the battery.
A shunt fitted in parallel with
the instrument.
a diode pole circuit.
the electrical component will
operate.
switched into the electrical
circuit in parallel with the other
generators.
cut down the air supply to
reduce five risks.
a decrease or discharge in
ammeter readings and
generator warning light on.
the port engine cut.
in parallel so the voltage can
be varied.
the battery is isolated from the
bus bar.
operation of the field switch.
the battery is charging.
defective voltage regulator.
the ammeter.
A shunt fitted in parallel with
the load
an earth return circuit.
the fuse will blow.
system.
connected with the ground
batteries for starting.
the failed generator must be
stopped.
an increase in voltmeter
readings, a discharge in
ammeter reading and
generator warning light on.
both engines run normally.
in parallel so the current can
be reduced.
the battery is discharged
through the bonding circuit
diodes.
opening of the cut-out.
the generator field switch is
'on'.
defective C/B.
lights going out.
A shunt fitted in series with
the instrument
a single phase circuit.
the circuit will be under
loaded.
used.
connected to a phase
reducer.
both generators must be
switched off.
failure of electrically driven
instruments.
the engine with the failed
generator will automatically
feather.
determined by the cross
sectional area of the lead
cable.
the battery may overheat.
removing of all loads.
the ammeter is defective.
defective ammeter.
the current limiter.
A multiplier fitted in parallel
with the instrument
a dipole circuit.
the load will only operate at
half speed.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

structure:
In a earth return circuit if the
1042. conductor is open circuited:
1043. A `hot bus' is
Why are static wick dischargers fitted
1044. to aircraft:
Static electricity constitutes a fire
1045. hazard because:
Static electrical charges and currents
in an aircraft structure are evened out
1046. by:
The electrical components of aircraft
1047. systems are screened to:
1048. When re-fuelling an aircraft:
1049. Spare fuses are carried:
When selecting a fuse for a circuit the
1050. governing factor is:
Differential cut-outs close when a
differential voltage exists between
1051. the:
When a generator is on line and its
associated ammeter reads 10 amps,
1052. this is an indication of:
If the voltage in a circuit is doubled
1053. the current will:
When generators are connected in
1054. parallel their output voltage must be:
A generator or battery cut-out is
1055. fitted:
the fuse will blow.
the bus bar always connected
to the battery
to smooth the generator
output.
metal components become
very hot and ignite
inflammable gases and
materials.
hardening
bond the circuit to reduce risk
of fire.
the re-fuelling nozzle must be
bonded to the fuel tank.
at the operator’s discretion.
the voltage of the circuit.
generator bus and battery bus-
bar.
BTB's being energized.
double
divided by the circuit
resistance.
to isolate the battery on touch
down.
the bus bars will overheat.
the bus bar that supplies the
galley power
to prevent tyres bursting on
landing.
sparks occur due to
differences of potential and
could ignite inflammable gases
and materials.
screening
prevent them discharging.
the bonding plug must be
connected to the earth
terminal.
for generators only.
the fuse length and diameter.
generator bus-bar and earth.
battery charge rate.
increase only if the battery is
in circuit.
the same.
to prevent the battery from
being overcharged.
the load will not operate.
the bus bar that supplies the
essential loads
to minimize radio
interference.
of colour charged electrons.
bonding
prevent short circuits in radio
equipment.
the continuity between
nozzle and hose must be
infinity.
by law with a stated
minimum number required.
the resistance of the circuit.
batteries.
battery discharge rate.
remain the same.
added together.
to allow the generator to be
isolated in a crash.
the generator will burn out.
the bus bar that supplies the
nom-essential loads
to act as an earth return in a
single pole electrical system.
aircraft tyres become heavily
charged and may burst on
landing.
anodizing
prevent them interfering with
the function of radio
equipment.
only use plastic nozzles.
by the first officer.
the power requirement of
the circuit.
battery bus-bar and earth.
generator load.
decrease.
controlled by one generator.
to prevent the battery
feeding back into the
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

generator when its voltage is

A circuit breaker that has tripped due
1056. to overload:
As the speed of an electric motor
1057. increases the back EMF will:
The output of a shunt wound
1058. generator:
An inertia switch on an aircraft will
1059. operate:
The purpose of electrical bonding on
1060. aircraft is:
Electrical components of aircraft
1061. systems are screened to:
1062. The impedance of a circuit :¬
The ratio of true power to apparent
1063. power is known as :¬
The amount of electrical power
output for a given generator weight is
1064. :¬
One advantage that AC has over DC is
1065. :¬
The voltage output of an AC
generator will rise to a maximum
1066. value :¬
If the frequency in a circuit is less than
it was designed for, then current
1067. consumption will :¬
1068. The line voltage of a typical aircraft
cannot be reset unless the
circuit has returned to normal.
remain the same.
will rise gradually as load is
applied.
when selected by the pilot or
flight engineer.
to directly earth the positive
lead.
bond the circuit to reduce risk
of fire.
is the AC inductive load.
Ohms.
dependent on the aircrafts
power requirements.
that T.R.U.s are not required.
in one direction, fall to zero
and rise in the same direction.
decrease.
115
will not be able to be reset in
the air.
fluctuate.
will remain constant as load is
applied.
automatically in flight.
to prevent compass
malfunctioning and to gather
local static charges.
prevent them interfering with
the function of radio
equipment.
is the DC inductive load.
the power factor.
greater for a DC generator.
that the generators require
less cooling.
in one direction and remain
there.
remain the same
208
will reset itself when the
circuit returns to normal.
increase.
will vary with generator
speed.
during an emergency or crash
landing.
to isolate all components
electrically and therefore
make the static potential
constant.
prevent short circuits
interfering with aircraft
equipment.
is the total resistance in an
AC circuit.
kVAs.
greater for an AC generator.
that the cables require less
insulation.
in one direction, fall to zero
and rise to a maximum value
in the opposite direction.
fluctuate
200
above the generator voltage.
must be replaced.
decrease.
will fall gradually as load is
applied.
in flight only.
to provide a low resistance
path for earth return circuits
and safely dissipate local
static charges and lightning
strikes.
prevent engine malfunctions.
is the highest resistance of a
rectifier.
the r.m.s. value.
determined by the size of the
aircraft.
the ease with which the
voltage can be stepped up or
down with almost 100%
efficiency.
in one direction only.
increase.
400
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

constant frequency paralleled AC

system is :
In an AC circuit which is mainly current and voltage will be in the power factor will be
1069. inductive : current will lead voltage. phase. current will lag voltage. negative.
1070. An alternator is :- a reversing input switch. an AC generator. a DC generator. a static inverter.
The number of separate stator
windings in an AC generator the output voltage of the the output frequency of the the number of phases present
1071. determines :- supply. supply. the power factor. in the supply.
AC generators usually have a rotating reduce the overall diameter of allow the output to be taken reduce the weight of the prevent arcing at the
1072. field and a fixed armature to ;- the of the generator. from the stator. generator. commutator.
The field current is DC for
Current supplied to the field is Current supplied to the field is both rotating field and The field current is DC for
AC for rotating field type AC DC for rotating field type AC rotating armature AC rotating armature type a.c
1073. In an A.C generator : generator. generator only. generators. generators only.
Instruments measuring AC are
1074. calibrated in : r.m.s. values. average values. peak values. mean values.
The output of an AC generator is
1075. taken from : the exciter windings. the field coils. the stator windings. the rotor coils.
A step-up transformer is one in which
the number of turns on the secondary the same as the primary if the greater than that on the always the same as on the
1076. winding is : cable diameter is the same. primary. less than on the primary. primary.
half as much current flowing four times as many turns on
A transformer which halves the twice as many turns on the half as many turns on the in the secondary as in the the secondary as on the
1077. voltage will have : secondary as on the primary. secondary as on the primary. primary. primary.
The power output of a transformer is in proportion to the in inverse proportion to the increased in a step up
1078. : transformation ratio. transformation ratio. the same as the power input. transformer.
1079. A frequency wild alternator must be : paralleled. a rotating magnet type. self exciting. unparalleled.
In a 3 phase AC generator circuit, the
1080. phase voltage is : greater than line voltage. 10% higher than line voltage. less than line voltage. equal to line voltage.
The generator output voltage is decreasing the generator increasing the generator field
1081. increased by : putting more load on it. the frequency controller. field voltage. current.
An alternator normally used to supply
1082. an aircrafts power system would be : single phase. three phase. two phase. frequency wild.
line and phase current are line current is greater than line current is less than phase phase current is 0.707 times
1083. In a star connected supply system : equal. phase current. current. line current.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
In a 3 phase supply system, line
voltage would be sensed between the
1084. : phases only.
In a typical aircraft constant
frequency supply system, the phase
1085. voltage is :
If one phase of a star wound three
phase system becomes earthed, it will
1086. : earth all three phases.
The alternators fitted in an aircrafts
main power supply system would
1087. normally be :
To ensure correct load sharing on
1088. paralleled alternators :
An aircrafts constant frequency
1089. supply is maintained at :-
For a modern aircraft powered by an
AC system, the ground power unit
1090. must supply :
1091. Oil for the operation of a C.S.D.U. is :
1092. Malfunction of a C.S.D.U. requires :
Before two constant frequency AC
generators can be connected in
1093. parallel :
1094. The generator control relay (G.C.R) is :
The running excitation current for an
1095. alternator is :
200
brushed self excited machines.
both real and reactive loads
should be balanced.
between 350 - 450 Hz.
28 volts AC only.
supplied from the engine oil
system.
automatic electrical
disconnection of the drive at
any time in flight.
their frequency, phase, phase
sequence and voltage must
match, and a means of
automatic real and reactive
load sharing must be available.
in the excitation circuit.
AC
phase and earth.
115
cause a large current to flow in
the neutral.
frequency wild.
actual loads should be the
same.
between 380 - 420 Hz.
200 volts.
a separate self contained
supply.
that the input drive will shear
on the ground only.
real and reactive loads must
match. Frequency, phase and
voltage must be within limits.
between the alternator and its
load bus bar.
DC from the aircraft batteries.
phase and neutral.
208
have no effect on the other
phases.
self excited.
reactive loads should be the
same.
between 1 15 - 200 Hz.
115 volts, three phase.
drawn from a common tank
for all S.D.U.s.
operation of the drive
disconnect switch at any time
in flight.
the synchronization lights on
the alternator control panel
must be fully bright.
in the stator circuit.
DC from the static inverter.
ATPL Question Bank
phases and earth.
400
cause a reduction in the
frequency of the supply.
externally excited.
the load impedance should be
constant.
between 395 - 495 Hz.
200 volts, three phase, 400
Hz.
only required for lubrication
purposes.
operation of the drive
disconnect switch on the
ground only.
suitable control arrangements
must exist for the sharing of
real and reactive loads. these
will correct any phase or
frequency error existing at the
time of connection.
between the load bus bar and
the synchronous bus bar.
DC which is rectified AC and
could be from a separate
excitation generator on the
main rotor shaft.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
One disadvantage of parallel
1096. operation is that :
The A.P.U. generator can only be used
1097. when: -
The purpose of the differential
protection circuit in a three phase AC
1098. system is :
The purpose of a synchronizing bus
1099. bar is to :
In the event of a mechanical
1100. malfunction of the alternator :
Disconnection of the C.S.D.U. in flight
1101. would be advisable if :
1102. Paralleled alternators will have :
1103. Frequency controlled generators are :
If the C.S.D.U. drive disconnect unit
1104. had been used, the drive can :
Paralleled generators must share real
1105. and reactive loads :
One advantage of running alternators
1106. in parallel is that :
When an external AC supply is
1107. feeding the bus bars :
faults can propagate, and any
error in supply can affect all
services.
another generator is on line.
to compare alternator output
current to bus bar current.
enable interconnections to be
made between generator bus
bars.
the drive disconnect unit will
automatically separate the
C.S.D.U. from the alternator.
the frequency meter indicated
a discrepancy of greater than 5
Hz between alternators.
one load meter which
measures total system load.
always paralleled.
only be reconnected when the
aircraft is on the ground.
to prevent large current flows
through the T.R.U.s.
the supply to all circuits is in
phase.
the internal bus bars are
disconnected.
the system is less flexible due
to the need for additional
control and protection circuits.
the aircraft is on the ground.
to compare on and off load
currents.
supply essential services.
the real load will be adjusted
to compensate.
there was an over or under
voltage.
one voltmeter for each
alternator.
not always paralleled.
be reinstated in flight from the
electrical supply department.
to prevent out of balance
forces being fed through the
C.S.D.U.s to the engines.
a large capacity is available to
absorb heavy transient loads
when switching of heavy
currents occurs.
the aircraft generators are run
in parallel with the external
supply.
the greater load on the
S.D.U.s means that their
power / weight ratio is much
reduced.
the bus bars are being fed
from another source.
to compare the alternators
reactive load to its real load.
monitor on-load currents.
the quill drive will fracture.
the oil temperature was high
or the oil pressure was low.
one load meter for each
alternator.
never paralleled.
be reinstated in flight from
the flight deck.
to prevent large flows of
current from one generator to
another.
the risk of overloading the
system is reduced.
the aircraft generators are
taken off line.
ATPL Question Bank
there is a considerable
increase in complexity
compared with a non-
paralleled system, due to the
need for C.S.D.U.s and load
sharing circuits.
when no other power source
is feeding the bus bar.
to compare theC.S.D.U.
efficiencyratings.
interconnect DC bus bars.
the C.S.D.U. oil temperature
will decrease.
the engine failed.
one meter which indicates
both voltage and frequency.
paralleled only when the DC is
paralleled.
be reinstated when necessary
by using the Ram Air Turbine.
to prevent harmonic
frequencies being created in
the synchronous bus bars.
there is only a requirement
for one C.S.D.U.
the synchronizing unit will
ensure that no frequency
difference exists between the
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
A three phase AC system can be used
1108. to supply :
A fault on one phase of a three phase
1109. AC star connected system would :
1110. The purpose of an inverter is :
In the event of a mechanical failure
occurring in the generator, the
1111. C.S.D.U. is protected by :
To increase the real load which is
1112. being taken by a paralleled alternator:
Where the aircraft's main electrical
supply is A.C, DC requirements are
1113. met by:
In normal operation, the split bus bar
1114. AC system takes its DC supply from :
The static inverter in the split bus
1115. system supplies :
In the split bus system, the AC bus
1116. bars :
1117. With parallel generator operation :
An earth fault on a bus bar of a
1118. parallel generator system :
To prevent high circulating currents
between paralleled alternators, the
1119. following conditions should be met :
If external power is plugged into an
aircraft which utilizes the split bus
1120. system of power distribution, then :
both one or three phase
equipment.
have no effect.
to change AC into DC
a hydraulic clutch.
the voltage regulator adjusts
the generator rotor torque.
batteries.
two T.R.U.s which are always
isolated.
the essential DC consumers.
are automatically connected
via the isolation relay if one
alternator fails.
there are two synchronizing
bus bars which are normally
kept isolated.
would require that the
appropriate G.C.B. should
open.
their voltage and frequency
must be the same.
it will automatically parallel
itself with any alternators
already on line.
only three phase equipment.
effect only the phase
concerned.
to change the frequency of the
AC supply.
a universal joint.
both its drive torque and its
excitation are increased.
T.R.U.s.
a battery which is supplied
from N° 1 T.R.U. only.
the essential AC consumers.
are automatically connected
via the bus tie breaker if one
alternator fails.
the G.C.s connect the
generators to the
synchronizing bus bar.
would require that the
appropriate T. should open.
their frequencies must be
identical and their phase
sequence must be the same.
it will only supply non-
essential AC consumers.
only single phase equipment.
cause inductive loads to
overheat.
to act as a back up for the
alternator.
a quill drive.
only its excitation is
increased.
inverters.
two T.R.U.s which are
connected together by the
isolation relay.
both essential and non-
essential consumers.
can be connected together by
switch selection if one
alternator fails.
the B.T.B.s connect the
synchronizing bus bars
together.
would require that both the
appropriate G.C.B. and B.T.B.
should open.
their voltage, frequency,
phase and phase sequence
must all be the same.
it will supply all the aircraft
services.
ATPL Question Bank
aircraft generators and the
external supply.
only inductive or capacitive
loads.
affect all three phases.
to change DC into AC
a feather drive.
its drive torque is increased.
a static inverter.
the static inverter.
the batteries.
can never be connected
together because there is no
load sharing circuit.
the G.C.R.s connect the
generators to their load bus
bars.
would require that all
alternators should operate
independently.
their inductive and
capacitivereactances must
match exactly.
essential AC consumers will
be supplied from the static
inverter.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

Synchronous motors are usually DC to the stator and AC to the

1121. supplied by : three phase AC single phase AC DC to the stator. rotor.
Reversing two phases to a three cause the motor to run in
1122. phase motor will : blow the phase fuses. reverse. overheat the stator windings. stall the motor.
will run at about half speed
If one phase of the supply to a three the motor will continue to run but will not start on its next
1123. phase motor fails, then : at the same speed. will slow down and stop. will stop immediately. selection.
The basic principle of operation of a 3 A rotating field created in the A rotating field created in the A stationary field created in A stationary field created in
1124. phase induction motor is : rotor. stator. the stator. the rotor.
energized by DC and it lines up
with the magnetic field in the impeded by the AC induced
1125. In a synchronous motor, the rotor is : stator. wave wound. both AC and DC energized. into it.
1126. An induction motor has : slip rings and brushes. a commutator. no slip ring or brushes. slip rings but no brushes.
A starting circuit for a powerful single a resistance / inductance
1127. phase induction motor might be : a capacitance starter. starter. a cartridge starter. a bump starter.
input peripherals and inertial central processing unit and auto brightness control and central processing unit and
1128. A basic digital computer consists of: unit memory output peripherals inertial unit
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU),
The Central Processing Unit (CPU) input device,output device and input device,Hard disk and Hard disk, Control Unit and Shift Registers and Control
1129. consists of Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) output device Shift Registers Unit
In computer terminology an input
1130. peripheral device would be: a hard disk a floppy disk a keyboard a screen display unit
In computer terminology an output
1131. peripheral device would be: a floppy disk a hard disk a screen display unit a keyboard
In computer terminology a memory
which loses its data when power is
1132. removed is called: non-volatile non permanent non-retentive volatile
In computer terminology a memory
which retains its data when power is
1133. removed is called: non-volatile volatile RAM ROM
In computer terminology "software" the memory system floppy the programme of
1134. refers to: disks, hard disks, etc the RAM and ROM capacity instructions the BIOS
the digital computer
In computer terminology "hardware" components, keyboard, the permanent memory the programme of
1135. refers to: monitor, CPU, etc system and its capacity the RAM capacity instructions
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

The smallest information element in a

1136. digital system is: byte digit electron bit
A group of binary digits handled as a
1137. group is referred to as a: byte mega bit giga bit bits
Convert the decimal number 7 to its
1138. binary equivalent: 1110 111 1101 100
Convert binary 1 110 to its decimal
1139. equivalent: 13 14 15 16
The computer language in which
calculations are carried out and
1140. information is stored in memory is: decimal hexadecimal octal binary
The computer language system which
1141. uses the base 16 is known as: septagesimal hectadecimal hexadecimal octal
The computer language system which
1142. uses the base 8 is called: decimal binary octal hexadecimal
The number system which uses the
numbers 0 to 9 followed by the
1143. letters A to F is: alpha numeric hexadecimal octal numeric alpha
binary 1 and binary 0 are
binary I is a low level, binary 0 binary 1 is a high level, binary binary 1 is positive, binary 0 is equal levels above and below
1144. In a negative logic system: is a high level 0 is a low level negative zero
floppy or hard disks whose
The permanent memory of a digital Integrated circuits rated in shift registers whose capacity capacity is measured in mega
1145. computer usually takes the form of: megabytes is rated in mega or gigabytes or gigabytes Central Processing Unit
The purpose of the Arithmetic Logic perform calculations in the perform all clock functions
Unit within the Central Processing act as a temporary store for perform calculations in the binary, octal or hexadecimal based on the computer clock
1146. Unit is to: information being processed binary number system system frequency (clock time)
Aircraft data in analog form, before
being processed by a computer must digital to analog converter (D analog to digital converter (A
1147. be passed through a: to A) EPROM EAROM to D)
Within the Central Processing Unit,
the temporary stores and
accumulator which handle the data
1148. during processing are called: Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) Shift Registers Control Unit BIOS
A gate which requires that all inputs
1149. must be HIGH to obtain an output a 'NOR' gate. an 'OR' gate. an 'AND' gate. a 'NOT' gate.
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh ATPL Question Bank

would be;
The two most commonly used gates
1150. are; 'NOT' and 'NOR'. 'OR' and 'EXCLUSIVE AND'. 'AND' and 'OR'. 'AND' and 'NAND'.
can be used as a demi- can be used as a semi-
conductor to act as an conductor to act as an
can only be used as an automatic switch or an is an inverted silicon automatic switch or an
1151. A transistor ; amplifier. amplifier. controlled rectifier. amplifier.
is made up of crystals in the is made up of crystals in the is made up of crystals in the
arrangement of emitter, base arrangement of emitter, arrangement of collector, requires a current of ten amps
1152. A transistor ; and collector. collector and base. emitter and base. through the base to transmit.
A gate with only one input and one
1153. output; cannot be a 'double' gate. is a 'NOT' gate. can only be a 'semi-gate'. cannot be a 'NOT' gate.
Truth tables illustrate the relationship integrated gates for trouble the sequence of operation of electronic and electrical
1154. between; inputs and outputs. shooting. the gates. circuits.
The advantages of single sideband Bandwidth halved/signal to Bandwidth reduced by 2/3
over double sideband Bandwidth halved/power noise ratio greater/more better signal to noise ratio Bandwidth reduced by 1/3
1155. communications systems are: output many times greater power may be transmitted greater power output reduced
A signal with a wavelength of 7360
1156. metres lies in the: VLF band LF band MF band HF band
Phase comparison is only possible
1157. between two signals with the same: Amplitude Frequency Amplitude and frequency Plane of polarization
A frequency at with sky waves are
1158. unlikely to occur by day or night is: LF MF HF VHF
A frequency which corresponds to a
1159. wavelength of 12 cm : 2500 KHz 360 MHz 2500 MHz 3600 MHz
A maritime reconnaissance aircraft
using primary pulsed air to surface
radar first detects a large vessel on
this radar at a range of 110 NM.
Considering only line of sight
limitations of the system the aircraft
1160. altitude must be approximately: 230 ft 790 ft 2300 ft 7700 ft
The wavelength corresponding to a
1161. frequency of 108.95 MHz is: 0.275 m 275 m 27.5 m 2.75 m
The optimum frequency of an HF Puts the receiver just within Puts the receiver just within Puts the receiver just outside Allows a skywave to return to
1162. signal is one which: the surface wave coverage the minimum skip distance the minimum skip distance the surface
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
As the frequency of a signal entering
the ionosphere increases, the amount
of refraction suffered by the signal
1163. will:
As the frequency of a transmitter is
increased the range of the surface
1164. wave will:
The type of modulation described as
1165. A3E is used in:
As the frequency of an HF
transmission is increased the dead
1166. space will:
Atmospheric ducting is most likely to
occur close to the surface of the earth
1167. when:
The wavelength corresponding to a
1168. frequency of 9875 MHz is:
A horizontally polarised wave is
1169. emitted from:
1170. As frequency increases:
Loran operates at 100 KHz the
1171. wavelength and band are:
Frequency modulation techniques are
not used in the LF/MF/HF bands
1172. because:
What is the average height of the F
1173. layer of the ionosphere:
1174. The purpose of a basic Oscillator is to:
1175. An electrical resonant circuit is
Increase
Increase
ILS equipment
Decrease
There is a marked inversion
and no change in humidity with
height
0.303 m
Horizontal antenna with the
electrical field in the vertical
plane and the magnetic field in
the horizontal plane
Wavelength decreases and
antenna size increases
3000 cm LF
The power requirements would
be too high
75 km
amplify a signal
resistors and inductors in
Decrease
Decrease
VHF communications
Increase due only to the
increase of the minimum skip
distance
There is a marked inversion
and a marked increase in
humidity with height
0.303 cm
Vertical antenna with the
electrical field in the vertical
plane and the magnetic field in
the horizontal plane
Wavelength decreases and
power requirements increase
3000 mm VLF
Naturally occurring static
would swamp the signal
225 km
attenuate a signal
inductors and resistors in series
Increase by day, decrease by
night
Remain the same by day but
increase by night
HF single side band
communications
Increase due only to the
decreased surface wave
coverage
There is a marked inversion
and a marked decrease in
humidity with height
3.03 cm
Horizontal antenna rotating
about a horizontal axis with
magnetic and electrical fields
in alternating horizontal and
vertical planes
Wavelength increases and
antenna size decreases
3 Km LF
The large bandwidth required
is not available in these
congested bands
275 km
produce a sine wave from a
DC input
inductors and resistors always
ATPL Question Bank
Decrease by day, increase by
night
Increase over the sea only
Doppler VOR
Increase due to both the
increasing minimum skip
distance and to decreasing
surface wave range
Over the sea
30.3 cm
Horizontal antenna with the
electrical field in the
horizontal plane and the
magnetic field in the vertical
plane
Wavelength decreases and
antenna size decreases
3 nm LF
Frequency modulation had
not been invented when
frequencies in these bands
were allocated to users
500 km
increase the frequency of a
sine wave
capacitor and inductor which
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
constructed from:
When a parallel inductive capacitive
circuit is operating at its resonant
1176. frequency:
In a LC circuit the frequency where XL
1177. = XC is called:
1178. Capacitive reactance:
1179. The Piezo electric effect is:
The advantages of a crystal controlled
oscillator over a LC controlled
1180. oscillator include:
The output frequency of a magnetron
1181. depends on:
To produce frequencies in the SHF
(microwave) band which of the
1182. following could be used:
Oscillations in a magnetron are
1183. maintained by:
The high power pulse of a ground
radar system is most likely to be
1184. produced by:
The relationship between current and
voltage in a dipole or monopole
1185. antenna is:
A simple dipole may be made
1186. directional by:
series
capacitive reactance is greater
than inductive reactance
Impedance (Z)
decreases as frequency
increases
the resonation when XL = XC
precise stable frequency
output and very narrow
bandwidth
the voltage applied to the
cathode
LC oscillator and Crystal
oscillator
electrons under the influence
of a magnetic field energising
the cavities
crystal oscillator
they are out of phase by 90'
placing a reflector behind it
and placing directors behind it
or parallel
inductive reactance is greater
than capacitive reactance
Cancellation point
increases as frequency
increases
the generation of sine waves
by an oscillator
cheapness of construction and
very narrow bandwidth
the voltage applied to the
anode
LC oscillator and Magnetron
electrons under the influence
of an electrostatic field
creating negative feedback to
the cavities
klystron
they are in phase
placing a reflector behind it
and placing reflectors in front
of it.
in parallel
inductive reactance equals
capacitive reactance and a
large circulating current exists
Oscillation frequency (Fo)
remains constant with
changes in frequency
a quartz crystal vibrating at a
frequency dependent on its
thickness when an EMF is
applied to it
very narrow bandwidth and
frequency can easily be
changed
the size of the cavities
Magnetron and Klystron
electromagnetic coupling
between anode and cathode
klystron followed by a power
amplifier
they are in phase on a
monopole and out of phase in
a dipole
placing a reflector behind it
and placing directors in front
of it
ATPL Question Bank
may be in parallel or series
inductive reactance equals
capacitive reactance and zero
current flows in the circuit
Resonant frequency (Fo)
remains constant up to
approximately 30MHz and
then decreases with
increasing frequency
a quartz crystal vibrating at a
frequency dependent on the
size of the EMF applied to it
there are no particular
advantages
the material from which the
cavities are constructed
Crystal oscillator and Klystron
electromagnetic coupling
between heater and cathode
magnetron
they are out of phase by 180'
placing directors behind it
and placing reflectors in front
of it
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
With reference to antennas, parasitic
1187. elements are:
1188. What is a loaded antenna:
Loaded antenna come in the
1189. following forms:
1190. Skin Effect:
1191. Skin effect is most likely to occur:
1192. To overcome skin effect:
Radio beams may be "bent" or
1193. deflected by:
1194. The glide slope antenna radiates:
1195. The localiser transmitter radiates:
With reference to the ILS localises,
false course and reverse indications
1196. may be received:
The lowest false glide slope
1197. associated with a 3 ° ILS is:
1198. The ILS markers transmit:
unfed elements which make
the radiation pattern
directional
a highly directional antenna
inductive (L), resistive (R) and
resistive capacitive (RC).
causes insulation to
breakdown and effectively
reduces the resistance of the
conductor.
at high power levels up to VHF
frequencies are reduced below
VHF
Terrain and buildings, weather
and antenna scan rates
lobe transmissions on a UHF
carrier which are amplitude
modulated
a scanning azimuth beam in
the VHF band with 150 Hz and
90 Hz amplitude modulations
never
2°
lobes at 75 MHZ vertically
unfed elements which make
the antenna radiation pattern
omni directional
a parabolic dish antenna
inductive capacitive (LC) and
resistive capacitive (RC)
effectively reduces the
resistance of the conductor
and may be overcome by using
waveguides.
at the higher frequencies ie
VHF and above
power levels are reduced
Terrain and buildings ,
weather and ionospheric
refraction
lobe transmissions on a VHF
carrier which are amplitude
modulated
two lobes on a single VHF
carrier with amplitude
modulations of 90 and 150 Hz
anytime when outside the
published coverage area
3°
a fan beam vertically upwards
dipole or folded dipole
radiating elements
an antenna which has had its
natural wavelength increased
by adding inductance and
capacitance or a combination
of both
inductive (L), capacitive (C)
and inductive capacitive (LC).
causes to current to flow only
in the outer layer of the
conductor and may be
overcome by using
waveguides.
in radar systems fed by
rectangular waveguides
use hollow conductors, multi
stranded conductors or
waveguide
coastal refraction, different
power levels and weather
a scanning beam on a UHF
carrier which is frequency
modulated
two lobes on paired VHF
carriers with amplitude
modulations of 90 and 150 Hz
at up to 17 nm range when
within +/-35o of the approach
course line
6°
a fan beam vertically upwards
ATPL Question Bank
parabolic reflectors placed
behind the antenna
an antenna which has had its
natural wavelength increased
by adding directors and a
reflector
inductive (L), capacitive (C)
and resistive capacitive (RC).
effectively increases the
resistance of the conductor
andcauses insulation to
breakdown.
in moist, humid conditions
when insulation may
breakdown
use conductors with a large
cross sectional area thus
reducing resistance
antenna scan rates, different
power levels and ionospheric
refraction
a scanning beam on a SHF
carrier with the designator
A8W
two lobes on a UHF carrier
with amplitude modulations
of 90 and 150 Hz
at up to 25 nm range when
within +/-10° of the approach
course line
12°
lobes amplitude with tones
Civil Aviation Authority of Bangladesh
1199. Fan markers use:
1200. MLS equipment uses :
ATPL Question Bank
upwards at 75 kHz modulated with at 75 MHz modulated with vertically upwards
amplitude modulated tones amplitude modulated tones
hectometric or kilometric
centimetric wavelengths millimetric wavelengths metric wavelengths wavelengths
hectometric or kilometric
centimetric wavelengths millimetric wavelengths metric wavelengths wavelengths