Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A nurse is reviewing changes in healthcare delivery and funding for pediatric populations.
Which current trend in the pediatric setting should the nurse expect to find?
ANS: C
One effect of managed care is that pediatric healthcare delivery has shifted dramatically from the
acute care setting to the ambulatory setting. The number of hospital beds being used has
decreased as more care is provided in outpatient and home settings. The number of uninsured
children in the United States continues to grow. One of the biggest changes in healthcare has
been the growth of managed care.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Safe and Effective Care Environment
2. A nurse is referring a low-income family with three children under the age of 5 years to a
program that assists with supplemental food supplies. Which program should the nurse refer this
family to?
a. Medicaid
b. Medicare
c. Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic, and Treatment (EPSDT) program
d. Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program
ANS: D
WIC is a federal program that provides supplemental food supplies to low-income women who
are pregnant or breast-feeding and to their children until the age of 5 years. Medicaid and the
Medicaid Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic, and Treatment (EPSDT) program provides
for well-child examinations and related treatment of medical problems. Children in the WIC
program are often referred for immunizations, but that is not the primary focus of the program.
Public Law 99-457 provides financial incentives to states to establish comprehensive early
intervention services for infants and toddlers with, or at risk for, developmental disabilities.
Medicare is the program for Senior Citizens.
3. In most states, adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have parental permission
before:
ANS: D
An emancipated minor is a minor child who has the legal competence of an adult. Legal counsel
may be consulted to verify the status of the emancipated minor for consent purposes. Most states
allow minors to obtain treatment for drug or alcohol abuse and STDs and allow access to birth
control without parental consent.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Safe and Effective Care Environment
4. A nurse is completing a clinical pathway for a child admitted to the hospital with pneumonia.
Which characteristic of a clinical pathway is correct?
ANS: C
Clinical pathways measure outcomes of client care and are developed by multiple healthcare
professionals. Each pathway outlines specific time lines for sequencing interventions and reflects
interdisciplinary interventions. Clinical pathways are used in multiple settings and for clients
throughout the life span. The steps of the nursing process are assessment, diagnosis, planning,
implementation, and evaluation.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Safe and Effective Care Environment
5. When planning a parenting class, the nurse should explain that the leading cause of death in
children 1 to 4 years of age in the United States is:
a. premature birth.
b. congenital anomalies.
c. accidental death.
d. respiratory tract illness.
ANS: C
Accidents are the leading cause of death in children ages 1 to 19 years. Disorders of short
gestation and unspecified low birth weight make up one of the leading causes of death in
neonates. One of the leading causes of infant death after the first month of life is congenital
anomalies. Respiratory tract illnesses are a major cause of morbidity in children.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 9
ANS: D
An incident report is a warning to the legal department to be prepared for potential legal action;
it is not a part of the clients chart or nurse documentation.
7. Which client situation fails to meet the first requirement of informed consent?
ANS: C
The first requirement of informed consent is that the person giving consent must be competent.
Minors are not allowed to give consent. An understanding of information, full disclosure, and
voluntary consent are requirements of informed consent, but none of these is the first
requirement.
8. A nurse assigned to a child does not know how to perform a treatment that has been prescribed
for the child. What should the nurses first action be?
ANS: C
If a nurse is not competent to perform a particular nursing task, the nurse must immediately
communicate this fact to the nursing supervisor or physician. The nurse could endanger the child
by delaying the intervention until another nurse is available. Telling the childs parents would
most likely increase their anxiety and will not resolve the difficulty. Transfer to another unit
delays needed treatment and would create unnecessary disruption for the child and family.
9. A nurse is completing a care plan for a child and is finishing the assessment phase. Which
activity is not part of a nursing assessment?
a. Writing nursing diagnoses
b. Reviewing diagnostic reports
c. Collecting data
d. Setting priorities
ANS: D
Setting priorities is a part of planning. Writing nursing diagnoses, reviewing diagnostic reports,
and collecting data are parts of assessment.
a. The child will administer his insulin injection before breakfast on 10/31.
b. The child will accept the diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus before discharge.
c. The parents will understand how to determine the childs daily insulin dosage.
d. The nurse will monitor blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime.
ANS: A
The outcome is stated in client terms, with a measurable verb and a time frame for action. The
verb accept is difficult to measure. The goal of accepting a diagnosis before hospital discharge is
unrealistic. Outcomes should be stated in client terms. Nursing actions are determined after
outcomes are developed in the implementation phase of the nursing process.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Safe and Effective Care Environment
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. A nurse is reviewing the nursing care plan for a hospitalized child. Which statements are
collaborative problems? Select all that apply.
ANS: B, E
In addition to nursing diagnoses, which describe problems that respond to independent nursing
functions, nurses must also deal with problems that are beyond the scope of independent nursing
practice. These are sometimes termed collaborative problemsphysiological complications that
usually occur in association with a specific pathological condition or treatment. The potential
complications of seizure disorder and respiratory acidosis are physiological complications that
will require physician collaboration to treat. Risk for injury, altered nutrition, and fluid volume
deficit will respond to independent nursing functions.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Safe and Effective Care Environment
2. Which nursing activities do not meet the standard of care? Select all that apply.
ANS: A, C
A nurse who fails to notify a physician about a childs worsening condition and delegating the
assessment of a new admit to a UAP do not meet the standard of care. Calling the supervisor
about staffing concerns, asking the UAP to take vital signs, and documenting that a physician
could not be reached and the nursing supervisor was notified all meet the standard of care.
Multiple Choice
1. Leah is a new graduate nurse and has questions about her scope of practice. The best place to
review would be:
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.Applies to the accountability and protection for the public
2.Benchmark for quality and accountability to provide professional
guidance
3.This is the basic exam, but it does not give guidance on this matter.
4.The state has rules and regulations, but it is not the source for overall
professional accountability and guidance.
2. The Code of Ethics for Nurses is characterized by all of the following except:
ANS: 3
Feedback
1.Part of the Code of Ethics
2.Part of the Code of Ethics
3. The Code of Ethics is not a private statement. It is for the public and
nurses.
4. Part of the Code of Ethics
3. A nurse has discussed the plan of care, asked for parental input, and has spoken with the
doctor about the needs of the family and patient. This nurse is exhibiting which characteristics of
therapeutic relationships in pediatric medicine?
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. The nurse is demonstrating all characteristics listed.
2. The nurse is not demonstrating sympathy or empathy for the patient.
3.The nurse is not demonstrating sympathy for this family.
4.The nurse is not disengaging or providing sympathy for the family.
4. A primary source for the standards of practice for pediatric nurses is:
2. Code of Ethics.
3. Nightingales Pledge.
Feedback
1. Reflects key themes and trends that are relevant to our time and to all
pediatric health care settings, which provide the framework for the
emergence of specific standards.
2. The Code of Ethics in Nursing provides a foundation for nurses and
empowers them as well.
3. The pledge was part of the early Hippocratic Oath.
4.One answer is correct.
5. Sarah is a 4-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis. She has been having increased
hospitalizations and prefers to have Leah as her nurse as an inpatient. Leah has been assigned to
care for a different set of patients today, yet Sarahs mother insists on having Leah as their nurse.
Which action would be best for Leah to take with Sarah and her mother?
2. Speak to Sarah and her mother to discuss the importance of having another nurse, who also
knows the case, care for her.
3. Let Sarahs mother and Sarah voice their reasoning for wanting Leah, and then explain the
need for Leah to have a different assignment.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1.Ignoring the situation does not demonstrate therapeutic communication.
2.Speaking with the family is important, but letting the family voice their
concerns is important as well.
3. The dialogue between the patient and nurse can enhance trust and
understanding so the patient can understand the situation.
4. The charge nurse may be part of the conversation, but it is important for
Leah to speak too.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.Considered a therapeutic communication challenge in pediatric nursing
2.Considered a therapeutic communication challenge in pediatric nursing
3.Considered a therapeutic communication challenge in pediatric nursing
4.All fit the criteria
4. To be the liaison between the hospital and the school system for a child.
5. 1, 2, 4
ANS: 5
Feedback
1. Preparation is an important element in caring for a child. It helps reduce
anxiety and promotes a trusting relationship.
2. Playtime allows a child to cope and fosters self-expression, which
reduces stress.
3. CLD is knowledgeable in child development and is present to support
the child and the family, not the staff.
4. CLD provides a working relationship between the hospital and school
for patients who are in the hospital long term.
5. Preparation is an important element in caring for a child. It helps reduce
anxiety and promotes a trusting relationship. Playtime allows a child to
cope and fosters self-expression, which reduces stress. CLD provides a
working relationship between the hospital and school for patients who
are in the hospital long term.
8. A nurse is discussing pain management of a 3 year-old with the parents. An important factor
the nurse should mention is:
1. A child is like a mini-adult, so they cope with pain the same way.
2. Effective pain management for a child may require pharmacological and non-pharmacological
methods.
4. Pain is subjective, and all children cry when they are in pain.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. Children have a unique response to pain.
2. Pharmacological methods may work for children, but using non-
pharmacological methods, such as distraction, are also beneficial.
3. Common pain scales for children consist of the FLACC and NAP.
4.Pain is subjective, but not all children will cry. Some will be irritable or
withdrawn.
9. A 6-year-old boy is to receive a dose of morphine to aid in pain management after an open
appendectomy. The nurse knows the correct dose for the morphine is calculated based on:
1. Age.
2. Height.
3. Body weight.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Age is not a factor in drug calculation.
2. Height is not a factor in drug calculation.
3. Body weight is used for drug calculation.
4. Age and height do not affect drug calculation.
10. A nurse at the clinic is teaching a new mother how to give Tylenol drops to her infant. The
nurse knows that the mother has an understanding of medication administration when the mother
states:
1. I will give the medication as prescribed and use a teaspoon to measure the correct amount.
2. I will use a syringe to measure the correct amount and place the syringe in the side of his
cheek to take the medicine.
3. I will measure the medication in a cup and place it into the bottle.
4. I will make sure he only takes the medicine until he acts like he feels better.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.A teaspoon does not give an accurate measurement for childrens
medication.
2.A syringe is the best option for medication administration. Placing it in
the side of the cheek enables the infant to swallow without choking.
3. This method does not ensure that the child received all the medication,
especially if the entire bottle is not consumed.
4. Medication should be taken for as long as the doctor has ordered.
11. The public health nurse is working on new printed material for the pediatric clinic. The
public health nurse decides more education needs to be provided on nutritious snacks for
children 5 to 10 years of age. In the design process of the pamphlets, it is important for the public
health nurse to:
3. Provide the material in an easy manner, using acronyms to keep the pamphlet small.
4. Provide information in small print and place the pamphlet in open areas for people to take
freely.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.Information should be at the 8th grade level or lower.
2.Information should be at 8th grade level or lower.
3.Acronyms may give different ideas than what the material is stating.
4.Allowing for people to take freely is good, but small print can deter
someone from reading the information. Bold and bright print is best.
ANS: 5
Feedback
1. It is a responsibility along with others.
2. It is a responsibility along with others.
3. It is a responsibility along with others.
4. It is a responsibility along with others.
5. Correct because all are responsibilities of the nurse.
6. One answer is correct.
13. Grant, who is 16, is at the pediatric clinic for his yearly checkup. The nurse requests that his
father step out of the patient room because:
4. Privacy is not appropriate for this age range, and the father should remain in the room.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Confidentiality is appropriate due to Grants age.
2. The question does not give information about the interaction between
Grant and his father.
3. Privacy about topics such as substance use is appropriate for this age
range.
4. Grant has a right to confidentiality due to his age.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.A medical chaperone should be present because of the invasiveness of
the procedure.
2.A medical chaperone is recommended, but not a necessity.
3.A medical chaperone is recommended, but not a necessity.
4.A medical chaperone is recommended, but not a necessity.
15. A 9-year-old has come to the nurses office at the school complaining of arm pain. The nurse
examines the arm and notices fingertip bruises on the forearm, as if it has been squeezed tightly.
The nurse talks to the child about how the arm got the bruises. The next action the school nurse
should take is:
1. Report this to the classroom teacher, principal, and Child Protective Services since it is a
questionable mark on the forearm.
2. Let the child go back to the classroom since this is a normal bruising pattern that children get
at this age through play.
3. Let the child go back to the classroom since the child explains that the bruises came from a
game of tag.
4. Document the bruising and follow up with the child in two days to make sure it is healing.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. The nurse is a mandatory reporter and should speak with the people
listed because bruising like this is abnormal for a child.
2. This is an abnormal bruising pattern for child.
3.Documentation and notification should occur because this is an
abnormal bruising pattern for a child.
4.Documentation and notification should occur because this is an
abnormal bruising pattern for a child.
16. Ali is a new graduate nurse and has been working on the nursing unit for six months. Ali has
noticed that the nurses station attempts to keep patient information confidential. Which of the
following actions are not good practices for maintaining confidentiality?
1. Placing the patient chart upside down on the desk when not in use so the name is not revealed.
4. Removing patient identifiers on a medication bottle and throwing it into the garbage can.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1.This is a good practice for confidentiality.
2.This is a good practice for confidentiality.
3. This allows for anyone to see the computer information about a patient,
thus breaking confidentiality.
4. This is a good practice for confidentiality.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.Follows HIPAA confidentiality along with others.
2.Follows HIPAA confidentiality along with others.
3.Follows HIPAA confidentiality along with others.
4.Computer screens, discussions, and change of shift reports should be
kept confidential to follow HIPAA guidelines.
18. Jake, a 14-year-old terminal leukemia patient, has told his parents and his health-care
providers that he no longer wants to take chemotherapy treatments. The nurse knows that Jake:
2. Is not of legal age to make a medical decision. This is an ethical decision that must be
discussed only
4. Is not of legal age to make a medical decision, thus he has not right to determine his care.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Jake is not of legal age to make a medical decision, but he is of an age
where he is aware of his body and the medical teams actions.
2. Jake should be a part of the discussion because he is at an age where he
is aware of his body and medical needs.
3. Jake and his parents should make the decision together.
4. Jakes parents have medical power of attorney, but he is at an age where
his wants and needs should be taken into consideration.
19. JoJo, a 10-year-old patient in room 1232 with a right arm and leg amputation due to
osteosarcoma, has been refusing help with his daily routine. JoJo is exhibiting:
1. Beneficence.
2. Justice.
3. Veracity.
4. Autonomy.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. This is an act for a nurse to do good, not harm a patient.
2. This is the obligation for caring for the patient.
3. This is the act of telling the patient the truth.
4. This is an act of exhibiting the need to do things by oneself.
20. A home-care pediatric nurse is taking care of an immobile three year old with a home
ventilator. The nurse knows she must maintain proper positioning for the child in order to
prevent bedsores from developing. This knowledge is known as:
1. Justice.
2. Beneficence.
3. Veracity.
4. Fidelity.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. This is the obligation for caring for the patient.
2. This is an act for a nurse to do good, not harm a patient.
3.This is the act of telling the patient the truth.
4.This is a nurses responsibility for providing the best care possible for the
patient.
Chapter 3. Family Dynamics and Communicating with Children and Families
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A nurse is teaching parents how to apply time-out as a disciplinary method for their 4 year old.
Parents have understood the teaching if they state which formula correctly guides the use of
time-out?
a. Use the guideline of 1 minute per each year of the childs age.
b. Relate the length of the time-out to the severity of the behavior.
c. Never use time-out for a child younger than age 4 years.
d. Follow the time-out with a treat.
ANS: A
In time-out, the child is told to sit on a chair for a predetermined time, usually 1 minute per year
of age. Relating time to a behavior is subjective and inappropriate when the child is very young.
Time-out can be used with a toddler. Negative behavior should not be reinforced with a positive
action.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: Health Promotion and Maintenance
2. What is the nurses best approach when an 8-year-old boy frequently causes a disruption in the
playroom by taking toys from other children?
ANS: D
The nurse can focus on the behavior most effectively by using I rather than you messages. A you
message criticizes the child and uses guilt in an attempt to change behavior. Banning the child
from the playroom will not solve the problem. The problem is the childs behavior, not the place
where the child exhibits it. Illness is not a reason for a child to be undisciplined. When the child
recovers, the parents will have to deal with a child who is undisciplined and unruly. The child
should not be made to feel guilty and to have his or her self-esteem attacked.
3. Families that deal most effectively with stress have which behavior patterns?
ANS: C
Healthy families recognize that some stress is normal in all families, focus on family strengths
rather than on the problems, and know that stress is temporary and may be positive. Because
some stress is normal in all families, there is no reason to feel guilty. Guilt only immobilizes the
family and does not lead to a resolution of the stress.
4. Which family will most likely have the greatest difficulty in coping with an ill child?
a. A single-parent mother who has the support of her parents and siblings
b. Parents who have just moved to the area and are living in an apartment while they
look for a house
c. The family of a child who has had multiple hospitalizations related to asthma and
has adequate relationships with the nursing staff
d. A family in which there is a young child and four older married children who live
in the area
ANS: B
Parents who are in a new environment will have increased stress related to their lack of a support
system. If only one parent is available but has the support of her extended family, this will assist
in her adjustment to the crisis. The family that has had positive experiences in the past with
hospitalizations can draw from those experiences and feel confident about the current setting. For
the family with one younger child and four older married children who live in the area, the
family has an extensive support system, which will assist the parents in adjusting to the crisis.
5. Which is the priority nursing intervention for the family of a child who has been admitted to
the hospital?
ANS: B
Family interventions should be directed toward enhancing positive coping strategies and
directing the family to appropriate resources. Although discharge teaching is begun as soon as
possible, it is ineffective if trust has not been established with the parents or if the level of stress
precludes learning. By identifying weaknesses instead of focusing on strengths, the familys
anxiety and feelings of powerlessness or guilt may increase. Normal growth and development
should be interwoven into teaching; however, teaching cannot take place until the parents have
less stress and are open to information.
6. A nurse is planning culturally competent care for a child of Hispanic descent. Which
characteristic found in a Hispanic family should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Stoicism
b. Close extended family
c. Docile children are considered weak
d. Very interested in health-promoting lifestyles
ANS: B
Most Mexican-American families are very close and it is not unusual for children to be
surrounded by parents, siblings, grandparents, and godparents. It is important to respect this
cultural characteristic and to see it as a strength, not a weakness. Although stoicism may be
present in any family, Mexican-American families tend to be more expressive. Considering
docile children as weak is a characteristic of American Indians. Although there is a trend for
everyone to embrace more health-promoting lifestyles, it is more prominent in Anglo-
Americans.
7. While reviewing nursing documentation on dietary intake for a 7-year-old child of Asian
descent, the nurse notes that he consistently refuses to eat the food on his tray. Which assumption
is most likely accurate?
a. He is a picky eater.
b. He needs less food because he is on bed rest.
c. He may have culturally related food preferences.
d. He is probably eating between meals and spoiling his appetite.
ANS: C
When cultural differences are noted, food preferences should always be obtained. A child will
often not eat unfamiliar foods. Although the child may be a picky eater, the key point is that he is
from a different culture. The foods he is being served may seem strange to him. Nutrition plays
an important role in healing. Although the child expends less energy while on bed rest, he has
increased needs for good nutrition. Although it should be determined whether the child is eating
food the family has brought from home, it is more important to determine his food preferences.
ANS: C
Without the willingness of the members of a group to consider the views of others, conflict
resolution cannot take place. The structure of a family may affect their dynamics, but it is still
possible to resolve conflict without an intact family structure if all the ingredients of conflict
resolution are present. Conflicts can be resolved without the assistance of an arbitrator. Most
families have diverse personality types among their members. This may make conflict resolution
more difficult; however, it should not impede it if the ingredients of conflict resolution are
present.
9. A nurse is planning a parenting class for expectant parents. Which statement is true about the
characteristics of a healthy family?
a. The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.
b. Young families assume total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any
assistance.
c. The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of
childbirth.
d. Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.
ANS: D
A trait of a healthy family is that adults agree on the basic principles of parenting so that minimal
discord exists. A significant stressor for families is lack of shared responsibility in the family.
Lack of flexibility in parental tasks is likely to create stress and conflict. Admitting to and
seeking help with problems, rather than refusing assistance, is a trait of a healthy family.
Adjusting to the birth of a child is a significant change for a family. A sense of feeling
overwhelmed by this change indicates that the family is not coping effectively.
10. A nurse determines that a child consistently displays predictable behavior and is regular in
performing daily habits. Which temperament is the child displaying?
a. Easy
b. Slow-to-warm-up
c. Difficult
d. Shy
ANS: A
Children with an easy temperament are even tempered, predictable, and regular in their habits.
They react positively to new stimuli. A high activity level and adapting slowly to new stimuli are
characteristics of a difficult temperament. The slow-to-warm-up temperament type prefers to be
inactive and moody. Shyness is a personality type and not a characteristic of temperament. Being
moody is a characteristic of a slow-to-warm up temperament.
11. The parent of a child who has had numerous hospitalizations asks the nurse for advice
because her child has been having behavior problems at home and in school. In discussing
effective discipline, which is an essential component?
a. All children display some degree of acting out and this behavior is normal.
b. The child is manipulative and should have firmer limits set on her behavior.
c. Use positive reinforcement and encouragement to promote cooperation and the
desired behaviors.
d. Underlying reasons for rules should be given and the child should be allowed to
decide on which rules should be followed.
ANS: C
Using positive reinforcement and encouragement to promote cooperation and desired behaviors
is one of the three essential components of effective discipline. Behavior problems should not be
disregarded as normal. It would be incorrect to assume the child is being manipulative and
should have firmer limits set on her behaviors. Providing the underlying reasons for rules and
giving the child a choice concerning which rules to follow constitute a component of permissive
parenting and are not considered an essential component of effective discipline.
12. A nurse assesses that parents discuss rules with their children when the children do not agree
with the rules. Which style of parenting is being displayed?
a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Disciplinarian
ANS: B
A parent who discusses the rules with which children do not agree is using an authoritative
parenting style. A parent who expects children to follow rules without questioning is using an
authoritarian parenting style. A parent who does not consistently enforce rules and allows the
child to decide whether he or she wishes to follow rules is using a permissive parenting style. A
disciplinarian style would be similar to the authoritarian style.
13. Which information should the nurse include when preparing a 5-year-old child for a cardiac
catheterization?
ANS: B
For a preschooler, the provision of sensory information about what to expect during the
procedure will enhance the childs ability to cope with the events of the procedure and will
decrease anxiety. Explaining the procedure in detail is probably more than the 5-year-old child
can comprehend and it will produce anxiety. Using the word dye with a preschooler can be
frightening for the child. The child needs information before the procedure.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Planning MSC: Health Promotion and Maintenance
14. Who are the experts in planning for the care of a 9-year-old child with a profound sensory
impairment who is hospitalized for surgery?
ANS: A
The parents, as primary caregivers, can identify the childs needs to help develop an effective,
individualized plan of care. The childs teacher is not as expert as the childs parents for planning
her care. The case manager is not as aware as the parents are of the childs individual needs. The
primary nurse would use the childs parents as resources in planning the best approach to the
childs care.
ANS: C
Ritualism is a characteristic of the toddler period. By repeating familiar stories and other rituals,
the toddler feels a sense of control, which facilitates communication. Most toddlers do not have
the vocabulary to make up stories. Dramatic play is associated with older children. Toddlers
probably are not capable of drawing or verbally articulating their fears.
16. What is the most important consideration for effectively communicating with a child?
ANS: D
The childs developmental level is the basis for selecting the terminology and structure of the
message most likely to be understood by the child. The childs age may not correspond to the
developmental level; therefore, it is not the most important consideration for communicating
with children. Parentchild interaction is useful in planning communication with children, but it is
not the primary factor in establishing effective communication. The childs receptiveness is a
consideration in evaluating the effectiveness of communication.
OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Health Promotion and Maintenance
ANS: D
A swaying body with arms loose at the sides suggests openness. Avoiding eye contact does not
facilitate communication. Folding arms across the chest and standing with head bowed are
closed-body postures, which do not facilitate communication.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 39-40
18. Which strategy is most likely to encourage a child to express feelings about the hospital
experience?
ANS: D
Active listening encourages conversation. Direct questions and close-ended questions can
threaten and block communication. Talking about yourself shifts the focus of the conversation
away from the child.
19. Which is the most appropriate question to ask to encourage conversation when interviewing
an adolescent?
ANS: C
Open-ended questions encourage communication. Direct questions with yes or no answers do not
encourage conversation. Direct questions that can be interpreted as judgmental do not enhance
communication. Asking adolescents about their parents feelings may block communication.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 45
20. What is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the parent of a 3-year-old
child found in a bed with the side rails down?
a. You must never leave the child in the room alone with the side rails down.
b. I am very concerned about your childs safety when you leave the side rails down.
The hospital has guidelines stating that side rails need to be up if the child is in
the bed.
c. It is hospital policy that side rails need to be up if the child is in bed.
d. When parents leave side rails down, they might be considered as uncaring.
ANS: B
To express concern and then choose words that convey a policy is appropriate. Framing the
communication in the negative does not facilitate effective communication. Stating a policy to
parents conveys the attitude that the hospital has authority over parents in matters concerning
their children and may be perceived negatively. No statement should convey blame and
judgment to the parent.
Multiple Choice
1. Elsa is working with an 11-year-old patient in the outpatient pediatric clinic. As Elsa reviews
the chart, she reads that the patient follows the Muslim tradition. When Elsa enters the room, she
notes that the child is wearing a hijab on her head. Elsa has never worked with this tradition
before. Elsa should:
1. Realize that her verbal and non-verbal communication will impact the care she gives the child.
2. Not ask the parent for input on the care of the child because this would disrespect the family
and child.
3. Have another nurse, who has experience with this culture, take care of the patient.
4. Realize that the patient is uncomfortable and seek a fellow nurse to help her.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. Verbal and non-verbal communication differs in each culture, thus this
must be taken into consideration when working with the child.
2. The lack of communication with the parent and child is not therapeutic
for the child.
3. Another nurse may be beneficial, but since Elsa has already started
caring for the child, this may create problems.
4. There is no indication of the patient feeling uncomfortable.
2. A pediatric nursing class has been assigned to use the Giger and Davidhizar Transcultural
Assessment Model. The students are assigned to families they do not have a prior relationship
with. When performing the assessment, one of the students is given a seat in close proximity to a
grandmother on the couch. The student should know that according to this model:
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Does not address the economic standing of the family
2. Does not identify a lifestyle
3. Space is a component of the model.
4. Views the familys interactions with society
3. A staff educational day has been planned for the pediatric unit of a major hospital. The goal is
to make the staff culturally competent. This is important because:
2. This competency meets cultural care requirements for the hospital system.
3. This allows nurses to tailor their care to the patient and provide holistic care.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Not the purpose of the goal
2. Can be a purpose of the hospital, but does not take precedence over the
patient.
3. Important to view the patient holistically in order to provide quality care
4.Not the purpose of the goal
4. Hussains parents have a language barrier with the nursing staff on the pediatric floor. When
working with communication barriers, it is important to:
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.This is appropriate if there are pictures for the conversation.
2.Each culture is sensitive to body language. Avoid using gestures
because this may offend the family.
3. Speaking over the phone can cause communication breakdown, which
will not be effective for the conversation.
4. It is a responsibility of the hospital to provide an interpreter for the
patient.
5. Social skills between different cultures are important for a pediatric nurse to understand. All of
the following are part of social skills except:
1. Personal space.
2. Eye contact.
3. Diet.
4. Exercise.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. Influences social skills of cultures
2. Influences social skills of cultures
3. Influences social skills of cultures
4. Not an influence of social skills of cultures
6. The community pediatric nurse is conducting a home visit with a new family. The nurse
knows when she is in the home, it will be important to get a thorough assessment. The
assessment should consist of:
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.An important component, along with other choices
2.An important component, along with other choices
3.An important component, along with other choices
4.Family members, employment, and personal space should all be
assessed by the nurse.
7. Culturally competent care includes:
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.This is important to understand the cultural norms and values
2.Cultural competence includes treating individuals as unique beings.
3.Not all cultural groups follow the same norms and values.
4.Realization of personal values enables the nurse to be culturally
competent.
8. A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old patient who has recently been hospitalized. Which
statement by the patient proves that the nurse did not perform a complete cultural assessment?
ANS: 3
Feedback
1.The nurse has planned care to allow for prayer time for the patient.
2.The nurse understands the importance of family.
3. The nurse should have assessed dietary restrictions for the patient and
ensured a proper diet is brought to the patient.
4. Family values play a role in the cultural practice of the family.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.Family-centered care is important to the healing process for the child.
2.Visits should be structured in order to allow the child time to rest.
3. Play helps decrease stress for the child.
4. All of the above statements should be included in visitations.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. Including the family in providing care is being family centered.
2. The family needs to be involved in the care in order for it to be family
centered.
3. Care should be provided continuously and hold the needs of the family
and patient as a high priority.
4. Visitation guidelines are set by the family, not the staff.
11. When utilizing an interpreter, which item does not need to be documented?
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. The name must be provided to verify who is giving the information.
2. The primary language documentation will provide future workers with
information to help the patient.
3. If an interpreter is being used, pictures may only supplement the
discussion. The interpreter should be communicating the health-care
providers explanations word-for-word.
4. Clarity of the information provided through the interpreter should be
documented to identify if the family is understanding the information
provided.
12. A nursing student understands pediatric cultural and dietary needs when she tells the parent
of her patient:
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. Food from home will comfort the child and help him/her understand the
types of food that are seen as healthy choices in a time of illness.
2. Hospital food may not be prepared in the proper manner for
consumption by some cultures.
3. Learning how the food is prepared will enable the staff to provide for
the needs of the child.
4. Children will eat food that is familiar to them and is in compliance with
their cultural and spiritual needs.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. Education should provide information about cultures the staff is not
exposed to frequently.
2. Updates and reviews will allow staff to identify the needs of the patients
on a continuous basis.
3. Self-reflection will identify biases and how not to let them interfere with
the care provided to the patient.
4. All of the above answers should be included in staff education.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. Spiritual assessments should be conducted during every contact with
health-care providers. This would include well-child visits.
2. May need to know this information for immunizations and at well-child
checkups.
3. Should be done at each visit in case the situation has changed for the
patient.
4. Needs to be performed at every visit to identify changes in the spiritual
needs.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1.Questions are asked to verify information and gather more information.
2.The patient and caregiver may need time to think about information
before asking questions.
3. Effective communication entails understanding the message that the
sender intended for the receiver.
4. The language does not determine the understanding of the patient or
caregiver.
16. When performing an initial assessment, the FICA Spiritual Assessment tool will:
1. 1. Help the care provider to include spiritual needs in the care plan.
2. 2. Will complete the questionnaire in the chart.
3. 3. Be answered by the parent or care provider.
4. 4. Only be answered by the patient.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. The FICA tool assesses faith, importance, community, and addresses
care needs within the care plan.
2. Information will be gathered, but should not be the basis of the history
or the care.
3. The child should be allowed to have input.
4. The family will have an influence on the spiritual care of the child.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1.The birthday party is beyond the professional boundaries of a nurse.
2.Demonstrating favoritism is not a professional action a nurse should
display.
3.Nurses must report actual or suspected child abuse.
4.A nurse is a mandatory reporter and must report any suspicions of child
abuse.
18. The medical clinics staff ensures quality multidisciplinary care by:
1. 1. Following hospital policies.
2. 2. Documenting and sharing all information.
3. 3. Not questioning other disciplines.
4. 4. Utilizing the correct form when obtaining data.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.Hospital policies may be unit and discipline specific.
2.Multidisciplinary relationships include sharing information and having
respect for differences in opinion.
3. Questions should be asked in order to strive for the best care possible
for a patient.
4. Forms are important, but do not always reflect needs of the entire staff.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. Others may be able to see the paperwork being filled out in a waiting
room.
2. Potential embarrassment and disgrace to have a disease may prevent the
patient or caregiver from discussing the length of symptoms.
3. Based on culture, eye contact may not be allowed.
4. Family history does not provide full disclosure of the needs of the
patient.
20. A parent with a low-income job can get more groceries with less money when:
Feedback
1. Processed foods are less expensive and have lower nutritional value than
fresh foods.
2. Fresh fruits and vegetables tend to be higher priced in certain parts of
the country because of the cost of shipping and the season.
3. Meat is expensive because of the cost of processing and shipping.
4.Snack foods come in small packages and do not provide nutritional
content. Snack foods are more expensive for the quantity.
21. The nurse tells the caregivers of a 5-year-old patient that the patient will be discharged at
lunch time. At 12:00 noon, the family is not present, but does come in at 2:00 p.m. The
caregivers are wondering why the nurse thinks that they are late. This could be attributed to:
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. The discharge paper processing cannot be completed without the
caregivers being present.
2. Appointments should be made by clock time, not daily event times.
3.The caregivers may have a difference of opinion on time.
4.The later discharge occurred because the caregiver did not arrive at the
set time.
22. The female caregiver of a patient wears a scarf that covers her head and face when males
enter the room. The nurse noted that male nurses were entering the room without notice to the
caregiver. The nurses best action would be to:
Feedback
1.A plan should be made to help the female care provider feel at ease.
2.The family is considered the patient in pediatrics. Nurses should
advocate and provide interventions that will maintain the cultural beliefs
of the family unit.
3.Solely female caregivers may not be arranged because of staffing.
4.Solely male caregivers may not be arranged because of staffing.
23. Due to genetics, African American patients are at higher risk for:
1. 1. Liver cancer.
2. 2. Injury.
3. 3. Infectious diseases.
4. 4. Diabetes.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. Liver cancer is seen more in Caucasian males.
2. Injury is the highest risk factor for all ages of children, no matter the
race.
3. Infectious diseases do not have a higher presence in one race over
another.
4. African Americans are at a higher risk for diabetes due to genetics.
24. European Americans may wear a horn charm to ward off evil spirits. They believe that
diseases may be caused from a curse called:
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. The curse of the evil spirits may be a reason to wear the horn.
2. The disease is not seen as an evil spirit.
3. The evil spell can be the outcome of the disease process.
4. The maloic is the curse that is thought to cause disease.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.Asians believe in the balance of hot and cold in the body.
2.Vegetables are common in the Asian American diet.
3.Exercise is not seen as a way to rid impurities of the body in order to
help with an illness.
4.A well-balanced diet is important, but is not noted to be the cure of for
diseases.
1. 1. Defining God.
2. 2. Feeling a greater being has control over world events.
3. 3. The concept of where and how the human race began.
4. 4. All of the above.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.God can come in different forms for all patients and caregivers.
2.A greater being gives a sense of control.
3.Ideas of how the human race began helps with coping for patients.
4.Spirituality is defining God, feeling a greater being has control over
world events, and the concept of where and how the human race began.
27. This religious affiliation may not accept blood products, so frequent blood draws and
procedures that may involve blood loss should be limited.
1. 1. Atheism
2. 2. Buddhism
3. 3. Jehovahs Witness
4. 4. Judaism
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Atheism does not have a belief system that affects any medical
procedure.
2. Buddhism seeks a balance and will accept blood products.
3.Jehovahs Witnesses may not accept blood transfusions.
4.Judaism allows for blood procedures.
ANS: 3
Multiple Choice
1. The pediatric nurse is having a conversation with parents who have children that have recently
passed away. The nurse knows the parents understand the difference between bereavement and
grief when the participants state:
1. I am trying to prepare for my daughters death, but I just am not ready to do so.
4. If I make a deal that God takes me, then my daughter could come back to my family.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. The parents are stating anticipatory grief.
2. The parents are stating bereavement.
3. The parents are in the denial phase of grieving.
4. The parents are bargaining.
2. The medical chart states that the parents are requesting withdrawal of care for a child with
terminal leukemia. The nurse understands this request to mean:
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Support measures are not wanted by the parents.
2. Comfort care is important, but this addresses the life-sustaining
measures.
3. Withdrawal of care relates to stopping heroic measures to sustain life.
4.Comfort is essential in the last days of life for the family and the patient.
3. Ashley is a 5-year-old girl who is severely mentally handicapped and has been bedridden for
the last 3 years after a near-drowning accident. Ashley has developed pneumonia and sustaining
her life would require ventilator support. The staff nurse is to obtain information about legal
guardianship because her parents have abandoned her at the hospital. The nurse knows that:
1. Legal guardianship is needed for a person to have medical information released to him/her.
4. The legal guardian must take physical responsibility for the child.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. The medical information and consent needs to be given by someone
with the best interests of the child in mind who can legally make
decisions. Only information can be released to this person.
2. The legal guardian does not need to be physically present, but must be
reachable to discuss the plan of care.
3. Legal guardians can be anyone with the best interests of the child in
mind.
4. The legal guardian may be the state, and foster parents would have the
physical responsibility of caring for the child.
4. Identify a developmentally-appropriate activity that can be used to speak to a 6 year old about
the terminal illness of his sibling.
3. Playing with crayons and drawing pictures of how a child views his sibling at this time.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. Having a diversional activity allows the child to express themselves
without having to look directly at the adult.
2. Action figures can help act out how death occurs.
3.Expression through art is a technique that children are able to
comprehend and is not threatening to them.
4. Diversion, acting, and art can help children express and discuss the
death process.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Planning can occur, but should be started when a terminal diagnosis is
present to provide the plan of care for the child.
2. Planning can occur, but should be started when a terminal diagnosis is
present to provide the plan of care for the child.
3. The knowledge of the terminal illness and letting the family and patient
be involved in the decision-making processes facilitates palliative care
so that the patient is as comfortable as possible.
4. Palliative care is appropriate for children with a terminal illness.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. Palliative care focuses on the natural death process in the most
comforting way possible.
2. Medical processes to sustain life are not considered important in
palliative care.
3. Palliative care works with patients once a terminal illness is diagnosed
in order to have a plan of care.
4. Palliative care helps comfort the family and the patient.
2. Parents input.
3. Restlessness.
4. All of the above can be seen in children with pain.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.A sign of pain in a child
2.Parents tend to recognize changes in their children before others.
3.Children in pain can be restless.
4.Vital signs, parents input, and restlessness can all be signs of pain in a
child.
8. A nurse is discussing pain management for a child near death. The child does not have an IV,
and the parents do not want their child to suffer more pain. The nurse knows medication at this
point in the childs life should:
4. Be discussed with the doctor because a child near death cannot feel pain.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. The quickest route may be very painful for the child.
2. The most invasive manner can cause less pain.
3. The IV is not established.
4. Children near death can feel pain.
1. Blowing bubbles
Feedback
1.A form of alternative pain management, along with other options
2.A form of alternative pain management, along with other options
3.A form of alternative pain management, along with other options
4.Bubbles, rocking, and puzzles are all alternative pain management
techniques for children.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Developmental age does define how the child will understand the
process, but mental status does not.
2. Cognition does define how the child will understand the process, but
mental status does not.
3. Developmental age demonstrates what a child is able to understand,
along with cognition.
4. Physical status does not give an idea of the cognitive level of the child.
Age does not determine cognition.
11. A 3 year old is diagnosed with terminal grade four neuroblastoma, which has side effects of
balance and hearing issues. The childs mother asks the nurse about an appropriate, safe activity
for the child. The nurse tells the mother that the most appropriate type of play is:
Feedback
1.Playing is a normal part of learning and should be considered.
2.Play groups may cause too much stimulation and cause negative
reactions from the child.
3.A gymnastics class is too much stimulation and the child may have
issues with balance.
4.Quiet play with minimal stimuli is the most appropriate for a child with
balance and hearing issues.
12. The nurse is aware that there are two causes of pediatric death. They are:
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.Physiological issues are not a leading cause for death in pediatric
patients.
2.A terminal pediatric diagnosis is categorized into two causes: trauma
and physiologic.
3.Physiological issues are not a leading cause for pediatric death.
4.External factors are not a reason for death in pediatric patients.
13. A nurse in a maternity unit is providing emotional support to a patient and her husband who
are preparing to be discharged from the hospital after the birth of a stillborn, full-term infant.
Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a component of the normal grieving process?
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. This is the best answer to demonstrate the normal grieving process, but
other answers can be true if people are struggling with the grieving
process.
2. The parents are not taking the time to grieve for the child they lost.
3.The parents are making choices at a highly emotional time. The parents
should wait to make this decision.
4.The parents are making life decisions too early after the death of their
child.
14. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student what the leading causes of death for pediatric-age
patients are. Which of the following statements demonstrates that the student is aware of the
leading causes of death for pediatric patients?
1. 1. Disease and terminal cancer are the leading causes of death for pediatrics.
2. 2. Abuse and SIDS are the leading causes of death for pediatrics.
3. 3. Accidents or unintentional injuries are the leading causes of death for pediatrics.
4. 4. Accidents and congenital defects are the leading causes of death for pediatrics.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Disease and terminal illness are not the leading causes of death in
pediatric patients.
2. Abuse and SIDS are not the leading causes of death for pediatric
patients.
3. Accidents or unintentional injuries are the leading causes of death for
pediatric patients.
4. Congenital defects are not a leading cause of death for pediatric patients.
15. Which, if any, of the following circumstances might incline a nurse to become disengaged or
enmeshed rather than therapeutically engaged with a patient/family?
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. The situation is emotionally charged in a manner that might incline a
nurse to distance herself from or become enmeshed with the child
and/or the family.
2. The situation is emotionally charged in a manner that might incline a
nurse to distance herself from or become enmeshed with the child
and/or the family.
3. The situation is emotionally charged in a manner that might incline a
nurse to distance herself from or become enmeshed with the child
and/or the family.
4. Each of the situations is emotionally charged in a manner that might
incline a nurse to distance herself from or become enmeshed with the
child and/or the family.
16. The nurse is aware that the purpose of pediatric palliative care is:
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.The goal of palliative care is to provide a positive death process.
2.Palliative care is provided at the end of life to promote patient comfort
and family involvement.
3.The goal is to have family involvement and promote comfort.
4.Palliative care is provided at the end of life to promote patient comfort
and family involvement.
17. The nurse is creating a care plan for a terminal 6-year-old child in the hospital for palliative
care. Which of the following should be the goal of the care plan?
1. 1. Pain assessment
2. 2. Developmental needs
3. 3. School needs
4. 4. Discharge planning
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. Pain assessment and interventions are essential in end of life care, but
not the goal.
2. The childs developmental needs are for assessment purposes.
3.Palliative care does not focus on school needs because the end of life
should be the focus.
4.Discharge planning is the goal of a palliative care so the child can be in
a comfortable home environment with the family.
18. Which, if any, of the following is not an example of family-centered care within palliative
care?
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.A childs family should participate in palliative care planning.
2.Family education is an important part of family-centered care.
3.Family involvement in daily care is an example of family-centered care.
4.Parents/guardians should be encouraged, but not required, to participate
in medical rounds, nursing shift changes, patient care, and pain
assessment at all times during palliative care.
19. Which of the following pain interventions is appropriate for a pediatric patient receiving
palliative care?
Feedback
1. Assessing the pain is not an intervention.
2. The family may not have knowledge on the proper pain scale to be used
with the patient.
3. When caring for a patient in palliative care, it is important to use the
correct pain scale, involve the patient and family in pain control, and use
a combination of methods to increase comfort and decrease pain.
4. When caring for a patient in palliative care, it is important to use the
correct pain scale, involve the patient and family in pain control, and use
a combination of methods to increase comfort and decrease pain.
20. The nurse is preparing to assess a 4-week-old infant who is suffering from shaken baby
syndrome. The most appropriate pain scale is:
1. 1. CHOPS.
2. 2. The numerical scale.
3. 3. VAS.
4. 4. NIPS.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.CHOPS is not used for a neonate assessment.
2.A numerical scale is not able to identify pain in a neonate.
3.VAS is not used to assess pain in a neonate.
4.NIPS, or Neonatal and Infant Pain Scale, is the most appropriate for a 4-
week-old infant.
21. When a child is at the end-stage of life, the nursing priority should be:
1. 1. Restoration of health.
2. 2. Health education.
3. 3. Patient comfort.
4. 4. Developmental assessment.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Comfort care is needed for the child.
2. Health education and developmental assessment are both important, but
not a priority. Restoration of health is generally not possible.
3. The nursing priorities during end-of-life care for pediatric patients
would focus on patient comfort. Health education and developmental
assessment are both important, but not a priority. Restoration of health
is generally not possible.
4. Health education and developmental assessment are both important, but
not a priority. Restoration of health is generally not possible.
22. The nurse is working in a post-partum unit and is assigned to care for a woman who
experienced fetal demise at 40 weeks. The nurse is not comfortable caring for this type of
patient, so the best course action for the nurse to take is to:
1. 1. Take the patient and provide the care needed. No one is good at providing care to
patients who experience fetal demise.
2. 2. Talk to the charge nurse and see if there is a nurse with more experience in caring for
patients who experience a fetal demise.
3. 3. Take the patient. All nurses need to learn to take care of patients who experience a
death.
4. 4. Talk to the charge nurse and refuse to take the patient. It is not fair to take a patient the
nurse is not comfortable with caring for.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.It is the responsibility of the nurse to not care for the patient.
2.The best response for the nurse to have is to see if there is a better
option; if a nurse is uncomfortable with providing end-of-life care and
there is a better option, it is the responsibility of the nurse to not care for
the patient.
3.It is the responsibility of the nurse to not care for the patient.
4.The best response for the nurse to have is to see if there is a better
option.
1. 1. Physicians.
2. 2. A federal-government-funded agency.
3. 3. No one. There is no oversight of organ transplantation.
4. 4. All of the above.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. Organ transplant is overseen by a federal agency to ensure that there is
fairness and equity in the distribution of available organs.
2. Organ transplant is overseen by a federal agency to ensure that there is
fairness and equity in the distribution of available organs.
3. Organ transplant is overseen by a federal agency to ensure that there is
fairness and equity in the distribution of available organs.
4. Organ transplant is overseen by a federal agency to ensure that there is
fairness and equity in the distribution of available organs.
24. What federal laws and regulations must be followed during palliative care?
1. 1. HIPAA
2. 2. The Joint Commission
3. 3. OSHA
4. 4. All of the above
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.HIPAA should be provided for all patients, no matter their status.
2.The Joint Commission is a certification a hospital may want to receive,
not a regulation by law.
3.OSHA is for occupational health standards, not palliative care needs.
4.Palliative care is no different than all other types of health-care delivery
and all laws and regulations must be followed.
25. Which, if any, of the following is the correct type of patient to be assigned to palliative care?
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.A palliative care patient is generally defined as a patient who is within 6
months of death. An untreatable stage four brain tumor will generally
cause death within weeks or months.
2. Spina bifida is not a terminal disease.
3. Newly diagnosed leukemia is not a terminal disease.
4.A palliative care patient is generally defined as a patient who is within 6
months of death. An untreatable stage four brain tumor will generally
cause death within weeks or months. Spina bifida and newly diagnosed
leukemia are not terminal diseases.
26. You are caring for a child recently admitted to the palliative care unit with end-stage heart
disease. Which statement by the parents demonstrates that you need to provide education
regarding palliative care?
1. 1. We want to have our family here with us, are they able to visit outside of visiting
hours?
2. 2. We want to make sure we are always with our child. Can we sleep in the room?
3. 3. We are trying to plan ahead. When do you think our child will be better and able to be
discharged?
4. 4. All of the above
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Parents stating that they want their family available and to be with the
child at all times are signs of understanding that the child is going to die.
2. Parents stating that they want their family available and to be with the
child at all times are signs of understanding that the child is going to die.
3. Palliative care is end-of-life care, and parents may need additional
education to help them to come to terms with their child being in
palliative care. Gentle education may be needed on an ongoing basis.
Parents stating that they want their family available and to be with the
child at all times are signs of understanding that the child is going to die.
4. Palliative care is end-of-life care and parents may need additional
education to help them to come to terms with their child being in
palliative care.
27. When parents are approached about their child becoming an organ donor, it is important for
whom to approach the parents?
1. 1. Anyone can approach the parents and ask for them to donate their childs organs.
2. 2. Only physicians can approach the parents and ask for them to donate their childs
organs.
3. 3. No one should approach the parents. If they what to donate their childs organs, they
will ask the staff.
4. 4. Only staff trained in approaching should approach the parents and ask for them to
donate their childs organs.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. Organ donation is a very hard subject to approach the parents of a dying
child with, and only staff trained in approaching should approach a
family.
2. Organ donation is a very hard subject to approach the parents of a dying
child with, and only staff trained in approaching should approach a
family.
3. Organ donation is a very hard subject to approach the parents of a dying
child with, and only staff trained in approaching should approach a
family.
4. Organ donation is a very hard subject to approach the parents of a dying
child with, and only staff trained in approaching should approach a
family.
28. Which of the following is a priority in caring for a patient whose parents have consented to
donating the childs organs?
1. 1. Prepping the patient and family for the surgical procedures to procure the organs
2. 2. Allowing the family as much time as they need to say goodbye to the patient
3. 3. Supporting the family in choosing a funeral home for their child
4. 4. Providing education to the parents about organ donation
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. The priority in organ donation patients is to prep them for surgery and
organ procurement. The sooner the organs are procured, the more viable
the organs. All of the other choices important, but not the top priority.
2. The sooner the organs are procured, the more viable the organs.
3.The funeral home choice should only be made by the family.
4.The parents should have been educated about the donation process prior
to the consent being signed.
29. When administering pain medication to a palliative care patient, what needs to be included?
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.A correct pain scale will identify the physiological signs of the child.
2.The six rights should be followed with all patients.
3. Explanations should occur for all medications.
4. All of the choices are necessary for correct pain medication
administration practice when caring for any patient, including palliative
care patients.
30. The nurse responds to a pediatric code in the emergency room. Upon arrival, the nurse finds
the parents outside of the room, and they ask if they can go in. The best response the nurse can
give is:
1. 1. Family is not allowed in the room during this type of situation. It is best for you to go
to the waiting room.
2. 2. You want to remember your child in happier times, not like this. Please wait here.
3. 3. Yes, you may go on in, but stay out of everyones way so that you do not make it
worse.
4. 4. Of course. I will go with you. Please do not touch anything until we know what is
going on.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. The family should be escorted to a family room so that the child
receives all of the care needed.
2. This may increase anxiety for the parents and should be avoided.
3.During a pediatric code situation, it is very important to provide for the
safety of the patients family
4.During a pediatric code situation, it is very important to provide for the
safety of the patients family. Always ensure that a staff member is
assigned to be with the family during the entire code.
Chapter 6. Growth and Development
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When the nurse notes that an infant can lift her head before she can sit, the nurse is assessing:
ANS: C
OBJ: Objective: 2
a. Environment
b. Heredity
c. Personality
d. Experience
ANS: C
One definition of personality states that it is a unique organization of characteristics that
determines the individuals typical or recurrent pattern of behavior.
3. An infants birthweight is 7 pounds, 8 ounces. The nurse can project the weight at 6 months to
be:
a. 12 pounds
b. 15 pounds
c. 18 pounds
d. 22 pounds
ANS: B
4. The nurse assessing patterns of growth in a child would investigate further if:
a. Previous weight was in the 75th percentile, and present weight is in the 25th
percentile.
b. Height is in the 90th percentile, and weight is in the 75th percentile.
c. Last weight was in the 5th percentile, and present weight is in the 10th percentile.
d. Weight is in the 50th percentile, and siblings weight at the same age was in the
75th percentile.
ANS: A
The child showing a difference of two or more percentile levels from an established growth
pattern should undergo further evaluation.
5. A mother reports that she and her husband have had one child together, but both have children
from previous marriages living in their home. The nurse will base the care planning on the fact
this family type is a:
a. Nuclear family
b. Blended family
c. Alternate family
d. Extended family
ANS: B
6. The mother of a 7-month-old reports that the first lower central incisor has erupted. She asks
the nurse, How many teeth will he have by his first birthday? The nurse would explain that by 1
year of age, the infant usually has:
a. Two teeth
b. Four teeth
c. Six teeth
d. Eight teeth
ANS: C
The 1-year-old infant usually has about six teeth, four above and two below.
7. At a well-baby visit, parents of a 6-month-old ask when to take the infant for the first dental
visit. The nurses best response would be:
a. If the teeth are brushed regularly, the child should see a dentist by 3 years of age.
b. The first dental visit should be arranged after the first tooth erupts.
c. The child should have a dental examination when all deciduous teeth have
erupted.
d. A dental visit by 1 year of age is recommended by the American Academy of
Pediatric Dentistry.
ANS: D
The Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommends that the first dental visit occur by 1 year of
age.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Maintenance and Promotion: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
8. The nurse planning anticipatory guidance for the caregiver of a preschool-age child would
explain that permanent teeth begin erupting about the age of:
a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years
ANS: B
Permanent teeth do not erupt through the gums until the sixth year.
9. A mother asks the nurse how much food should be offered to her 2-year-old. The nurse
responds that a good rule of thumb for serving size would be:
a. 2 tablespoons
b. 3 tablespoons
c. 4 tablespoons
d. 5 tablespoons
ANS: A
The rule of thumb for serving sizes is to offer 1 tablespoon per year of age.
10. An assessment of a childs nutritional status reveals the child is alert, with shiny hair, firm
gums, firm mucous membranes, and regular elimination. This childs nutritional status would be
described as:
a. Overnourished
b. Undernourished
c. Well nourished
d. Borderline
ANS: C
Well-nourished children show steady gains in height and weight and have shiny hair, firm gums
and mucous membranes, and regular elimination.
ANS: A
A common food choice of Americans of Puerto Rican descent is dried beans mixed with rice.
12. The nurse observes that a 2-year-old is able to use a spoon steadily at mealtime. The nurse
recognizes that being able to feed himself is important to the toddler in developing:
a. Good nutrition
b. A sense of independence
c. Adequate height and weight
d. Healthy teeth
ANS: B
By the end of the second year, toddlers can feed themselves. This helps them to develop a sense
of independence.
13. To meet Eriksons developmental task of industry, the nurse caring for a 7-year-old would
choose an activity such as:
ANS: A
In the developmental period of late childhood, children are striving to develop a sense of
industry. The completion of a jigsaw puzzle is industrious play.
ANS: D
The 7-year-olds remark reflecting the cause and effect of germs and illness is an example of
operational thinking. All other options are examples of preoperational thought, which is
egocentric and symbolic.
15. The nurse has discussed with the mother about introducing solid foods to the 6-month-old
infant. The nurse determines that the mother understands the information when she states the
first food she will give to the infant is:
a. Rice cereal
b. Yellow vegetables
c. Egg yolks
d. Fruits
ANS: A
Solid foods are usually introduced at about 6 months of age starting with rice cereal, which is the
least allergenic.
16. When the 8-year-old child comes to the school nurse with his central incisor in his hand and
reports he knocked his tooth out on the water fountain, the nurse should:
a. Give him an ice cube to suck on.
b. Have him wash his mouth out with peroxide and water.
c. Wrap the tooth in a clean tissue.
d. Wash off the tooth and place it in a container of milk.
ANS: D
The tooth should be washed off and put in a container of milk to preserve it for possible
reimplantation.
17. The mother of a 7-month-old states, The baby is eating food now. Should I give him regular
ANS: C
Whole milk should not be introduced before 1 year of age. Low-fat milk should not be
introduced before 2 years of age.
18. When a small group of preschool-age children were playing house, each child was pretending
to be a particular family member. The nurse recognizes this as which type of play?
a. Parallel
b. Cooperative
c. Symbolic
d. Fantasy
ANS: B
In cooperative play, children play with each other, each taking a specific role.
19. When the nurse asks the 10-year-old American Indian if he is ready to go to therapy, he does
not answer immediately. The nurse assesses this as:
a. Indecision
b. Considering the answer in silence
c. Shyness with strangers
d. Fear of medical personnel
ANS: B
Native Americans value silence. They need to sit and consider matters before replying to
questions.
20. A mother tells the nurse, My 11-month-old son is not as active as my other children were at
this age. He is the youngest of four and the older children love to dote on him. Which factor is
influencing this childs language development?
a. Heredity
b. Sex
c. Mothers health during pregnancy
d. Ordinal position
ANS: D
Motor development of the youngest child may be prolonged if the child is babied by others in the
family.
21. The nurse explains that when a mother tells her 4-year-old child that balls should be played
with outside and not inside the house, the child is likely to obey the rule because she:
ANS: A
According to Kohlberg, children in the preconventional stage (4 to 7 years) are obedient to their
parents for fear of punishment.
22. When demonstrating a bath procedure to parents of Vietnamese origin, the nurse should
avoid:
ANS: C
The Vietnamese are very sensitive about anyone touching a childs head because that is where
consciousness lies.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A mother calls the pediatricians office because her infant is colicky. The helpful measure the
nurse would suggest to the parent is:
a. Sing songs to the infant in a soft voice.
b. Place the infant in a well-lit room.
c. Walk around and massage the infants back.
d. Rock the fussy infant slowly and gently.
ANS: D
One technique the nurse can offer parents of a fussy infant is to rock the infant gently and slowly
while being careful to avoid sudden movements.
2. The nurse is aware that the age at which the posterior fontanelle closes is:
a. 2 to 3 months
b. 3 to 6 months
c. 6 to 9 months
d. 9 to 12 months
ANS: A
a. 9 months
b. 1 year
c. 18 months
d. 2 years
ANS: B
The infant usually triples his or her birth weight by about 12 months of age.
4. The nurse is aware that the age at which an infant is able to sit steadily alone is:
a. 4 months
b. 5 months
c. 8 months
d. 15 months
ANS: C
The infant can sit alone without support at about 8 months of age.
a. 8-10 months
b. 12-15 months
c. 15-18 months
d. 18-21 months
ANS: B
For the majority of children, the milestone of walking alone is achieved between 12 and 15
months.
6. The parent of a 3-month-old infant asks the nurse, At what age do infants usually begin
a. 5 months
b. 9 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
ANS: A
The infant can usually drink from a cup when it is offered at about 5 months.
a. Hold a cup
b. Stand with assistance
c. Lift head and shoulders
d. Sit with back straight
ANS: C
Because development is cephalocaudal, of these choices, sitting is the one that the infant learns
to do first. The infant can usually sit with support at about 5 months of age and can sit alone at
about 8 months.
8. The abnormal finding in an evaluation of growth and development for a 6-month-old infant
would be:
ANS: C
The infant should be holding the head up well by 5 months of age. If head lag is present at 6
months, the child should undergo further evaluation.
9. A parent brings a 6-month-old infant to the pediatric clinic for her well-child examination. Her
birthweight was 8 pounds, 2 ounces. The nurse weighing the infant today would expect her
weight to be at least:
a. 12 pounds
b. 16 pounds
c. 20 pounds
d. 24 pounds
ANS: B
10. The nurse would advise a parent when introducing solid foods to:
ANS: D
11. When talking with a parent about tooth eruption, the nurse explains that the first deciduous
teeth to erupt are the:
ANS: A
The first teeth to erupt, usually at about 7 months, are the lower central incisors.
a. Sitting if supported
b. Grasping objects with the palm
c. Imitating sounds such as da-da
d. Beginning to use a spoon rather sloppily
ANS: C
13. The statement made by a parent that indicates correct understanding of infant feeding is:
a. Ive been mixing rice cereal and formula in the babys bottle.
b. I switched the baby to low-fat milk at 9 months.
c. The baby really likes little pieces of chocolate.
d. I give the baby any new foods before he takes his bottle.
ANS: D
New solid foods should be introduced before formula or breast milk to encourage the infant to
try new foods.
14. The nurse would advise a mother who is concerned because her 10-month-old is lethargic, to:
ANS: D
Some infants respond to stimulating environments by shutting down. Move and handle infants
slowly and gently.
15. The nurse discusses safety-proofing the home with the mother of a 9-month-old. The
ANS: B
A rear-facing infant car seat should be used for infants under 1 year of age.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: dm: 396
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
16. The nurse observes a 10-month-old infant using her index finger and thumb to pick up
Cheerios. This behavior is evidence that the infant has developed the:
a. Pincer grasp
b. Grasp reflex
c. Prehension ability
d. Parachute reflex
ANS: A
By 1 year, the pincer-grasp coordination of index finger and thumb is well established.
17. A parent is concerned because her infant has a diaper rash. The nurse would advise the parent
to:
A protective ointment can be applied when the skin in the diaper area appears pink and irritated.
18. The mother of an infant born prematurely tells the nurse, The baby is irritable. He cries
during diaper changes and feedings. Can you make some suggestions about what I should do to
soothe him? The most appropriate recommendation to help this parent would be:
ANS: C
A strategy that may be helpful is to swaddle the infant snugly in a light blanket with extremities
flexed and hands near the face.
19. The most appropriate activity to recommend to parents to promote sensorimotor stimulation
ANS: C
Push-pull toys are appropriate to promote sensorimotor stimulation for a 1-year-old child.
20. The statement that indicates the mother of an 8-month-old understands infant sleep patterns
is:
a. I put the baby in my bed until she falls asleep, then I put her in her crib.
b. I let the baby skip an afternoon nap so she will fall asleep earlier.
c. I put the pacifier in the crib so she can find it when she wakes up.
d. I rock the baby back to sleep if she wakes up at night.
ANS: C
The parent should assist the infant to develop self-soothing behaviors so the infant can get back
to sleep on her own.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse is aware that the 7-month-old can signal feeding readiness by:
ANS: A, E
The 7-month-old pulls the spoon toward its mouth, and can manipulate finger foods. The 7-
month-old does not have upper incisors and has not developed adequately to recognize the food
container or exhibit excitement related to the sight of food.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse reminds the parents that the first DPT, oral polio, and flu immunizations should be
ANS: 2
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
NOT: Rationale: The first DPT, polio, and flu immunizations are given at the age of 2 months.
2. The nurse explains the second process of self-mobility a baby learns is seen at the age of 9
months, when the baby begins to .
ANS: creep
NOT: Rationale: At 7 months the baby begins to crawl, using arms and dragging trunk and legs.
At 9 months the baby begins to creep, holding its trunk above the floor. The next self-mobility
activity is cruising, where the child walks from one piece of furniture to the next before it begins
to walk independently.
NOT: Rationale: The supine or side-lying position has been found to reduce possible aspiration,
and is believed to reduce the risk of SIDS.
OTHER
1. The nurse explains that a babys prehensile development is progressive and logical. Arrange
the development in the order from the simplest to the most complex.
b. Grasps with thumb on one side and three fingers on the other
ANS:
E, A, C, B, D
The development advances from the newborns closed hands to the open star hands of the older
infant, to the squeeze action, to a grasp with thumb and fingers, to the pincher movement of
thumb and forefinger.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of these behaviors reported by a parent of an 18-month-old toddler would the nurse
report to the pediatrician as a cause for concern?
ANS: C
By 18 months, a toddler should have been walking alone for several months. The toddler who
walks holding onto furniture should be evaluated by a developmental specialist.
2. The nurse assessing growth and development of a 2-year-old child would expect to find:
ANS: A
The 2-year-old can jump with both feet. The remaining achievements occur after 2 years of age.
ANS: B
Favorite possessions and repetitive rituals are self-consoling behaviors for the toddler.
4. The nurse observed three toddlers playing side by side with dolls. Closer observation revealed
that the children were not interacting with one another. This type of play would be characterized
as:
a. Solitary
b. Parallel
c. Associative
d. Cooperative
ANS: B
Toddlers engage in parallel play. Children play next to, but not with, each other.
5. The nurse planning anticipatory guidance for parents of a toddler would include which of the
following instructions?
ANS: B
6. The best advice the nurse can offer a parent who is concerned because her 2-year-old is very
active and does not eat much is:
ANS: B
Quiet time before meals provides an opportunity for the active toddler to wind down.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: dm: 406
7. How would the nurse advise a parent who states, I never know how much food to feed my
child?
ANS: C
A tablespoon of each type of food for each year of age is a good guideline to follow when
determining serving sizes.
8. The nurse discussing toilet training with parents would identify which of the following as an
Children are ready for toilet training when they can communicate in some fashion that they are
wet or need to urinate or defecate.
9. The nurse selects the most appropriate toy for a normal 2-year-old child, which is:
ANS: B
The 2-year-old enjoys playing with objects that can be pushed or pulled.
10. To encourage a toddler to practice independence, the nurse would recommend that the childs
mother:
ANS: C
The toddler can be allowed to make choices as the situation warrants, but the number of choices
should be limited because too many confuse the toddler.
11. On a home visit, the nurse notes each of the following. The observation that requires teaching
ANS: B
A tablecloth presents a safety hazard because the curious toddler will reach up and pull on it. The
toddler could be injured if items on the table are moved when the tablecloth is pulled.
12. The nurse considers the appropriate snack for a 2-year-old child would be:
ANS: D
Applesauce is a healthy and safe snack food for the toddler. The toddler risks choking on such
foods as grapes, hot dogs, and popcorn.
13. The nurse assessing vital signs on a 2-year-old would be concerned about the finding of:
a. Temperature 98.8 F
b. Pulse 100 beats/min
c. Respirations 36 breaths/min
d. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
ANS: C
In the toddler period, the respiratory rate decreases to 25 breaths per minute.
14. When assessing language development in a 2-year-old, an expected finding would be:
a. A 900-word vocabulary
b. Use of two-word sentences
c. Use of pronouns and prepositions
d. 100% of speech is understandable
ANS: B
15. The nurse has explained the use of time-outs to the parent of a 3-year-old. The nurse
determines the parent understands the information when she states an appropriate period for a
time-out is:
a. 3 minutes
b. 6 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 15 minutes
ANS: A
Timing for time out is usually based on 1 minute per year of age.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: dm: 403
16. The parent of a toddler tells the nurse, My daughters appetite has decreased. Thank goodness
she loves to drink milk. The most appropriate response for the nurse to make is:
ANS: B
Milk should be limited to 24 ounces a day. Too few solid foods can lead to dietary deficiencies
of iron.
17. The nurse suggests that bladder training should start when the toddler can stay dry for
hours.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANS: B
If the toddler is mature enough to retain urine for 2 hours, bladder training can be effective.
18. The nurse explains to frustrated parents that a toddler will test their own power with:
a. Negativism
b. Dawdling
c. Tantrums
d. Food fads
ANS: A
By refusing to eat, dress, sleep, or anything else by saying NO, the toddler tests his own power to
control. Because toddlers are also egocentric, they come to believe that their negativism is
absolute. This is especially true if the adults give into it
19. Which of the following statements best describes the 3-year-old child?
ANS: C
Three-year-old children are helpful and can assist in simple household chores.
20. The parents of a 4-year-old boy are concerned because they have noticed him frequently
touching his penis. The nurse would base a response on the knowledge that:
ANS: A
Masturbation at this age is common and indicates that the preschooler has a normal curiosity
about sexuality.
21. A preschool-age child is asked, Why do trees have leaves? Which of the following responses
would be an example of animism?
ANS: C
Animism describes the tendency of preschool children to attribute human characteristics to
nonhuman objects.
22. The tasks that would be appropriate to expect of a 5-year-old would be:
ANS: A
Parents must consider developmental level and safety when asking the 5-year-old child to help
with chores.
ANS: C
The 3-year-old child is egocentric and likely will become angry when others attempt to take his
or her possessions.
OBJ: Objective: 6 TOP: Topic: Play KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
24. A parent is concerned about her childrens reaction should their grandmother die. In planning
ANS: B
Between 3 and 4 years of age, the child becomes curious about death and dying. They may
realize that others die, but they do not relate death to themselves.
25. The intervention that is most effective in dealing with occasional aggression in a 4-year-old
child is:
ANS: A
Time-out periods, usually lasting 1 minute per year of age, with the child sitting in a chair or
corner, are considered an effective disciplinary technique.
26. A parent is concerned about how to make his preschool-age child stop sucking his thumb and
asks the nurse for suggestions. The nurses most helpful response would be:
ANS: A
Most children give up the habit of thumb-sucking by the time they reach school.
ANS: C
The 5-year-old wants to play by the rules but cannot accept losing. The rules may be very strict
or change as the game progresses.
OBJ: Objective: 6 TOP: Topic: Play KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
28. When discussing preschoolers sexual curiosity with the parent, the nurse determines that the
Parents should provide sex education at the time the child asks about sex.
29. In planning care for a moderately retarded child, the type of play most appropriate is:
ANS: C
The nurse must consider the childs mental age rather than her chronological age when selecting
toys for play.
OBJ: Objective: 6 TOP: Topic: Play KEY: Nursing Process Step: Planning
30. The nurses best advice to a parent about a preschoolers imaginary friend would be that:
Imaginary friends are common and normal during the preschool period and serve many purposes,
such as relief from loneliness, mastery of feats, and scapegoat.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. Grow 3 to 6 inches/year
b. Gain 5 to 7 pounds/year
c. Increase head circumference by 1 inch/year
d. Reach a visual acuity of 20/20 by 9 years of age
ANS: B
During the school-age period, the average weight gain per year is generally 5.5 to 7 pounds.
2. The nurse, planning to teach a class on nutrition to fourth-grade students, would keep in mind
that school-age children:
ANS: D
Piaget refers to the thought process of this period as concrete operations, which involves logical
thinking and an understanding of cause and effect.
3. The nurse explains that the preferred social interaction for the school-age child is based on
ANS: D
The preferred social interaction of the school-age child is in same-sex peer groups or cliques.
4. The nurse advises the parents of a 10-year-old boy that, according to Eriksons theory, the most
developmentally supportive experience for him would be:
a. Constant variety of activities
b. Successful performance in Little League
c. Feeling healthy and strong
d. Having a girl friend
ANS: B
The child who is successful in activities will feel positively about himself or herself.
5. The parents of an 8-year-old tell the nurse the child wakes the household crying out during his
frequent nightmares. The nurses most helpful response is to explain that nightmares are:
ANS: A
6. The nurse suggests an appropriate toy for a hospitalized 6-year-old boy would be a:
ANS: A
The 6-year-old child can perform numerous feats that require muscle coordination. At this age,
the Gameboy toy will offer nonaggressive competition.
ANS: D
To prepare a child for school, parents can arrange for the child to meet other children who will
be entering school with her.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: dm: 443, Box 19-2
OBJ: Objective: 3
8. A 9-year-old boy is often cranky and irritable and his school performance has declined. All the
options are true about the child. The possible factor causing this behavior is that he:
ANS: A
9. A parent asked the nurse, At what age are children capable of assuming more responsibility
for personal belongings? Based on a knowledge of growth and development, the nurse would
respond:
a. 6 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 12 years
ANS: C
The 9-year-old is dependable and assumes more responsibility for personal belongings.
10. The school nurse who is preserving a tooth that was knocked out on the school yard will be
especially careful to:
ANS: C
When a permanent tooth is avulsed, the tooth should be picked up by the crown to prevent any
further damage to the root and placed in milk until the child can be examined by a dentist.
a. Choose a small breed of dog because the large dogs produce more allergens.
b. An older unneutered dog produces fewer allergens than a younger one.
c. A cat may be a good choice since it requires less care and is less allergenic.
d. Poodles do not shed, making this dog a good choice for people with allergies.
ANS: D
The poodle breed of dog does not have a shed cycle and so it may be the least offensive pet for
the allergic child.
12. When asked about her activities, a 10-year-old girl responded, I like school. I play the flute in
the school band and I take tennis lessons. The nurse knows these activities will help this child
develop a sense of:
a. Initiative
b. Industry
c. Identity
d. Intimacy
ANS: B
The school-age period is referred to by Erikson as the stage of industry. Successful participation
in activities facilitates the childs sense of industry.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: dm: 438, Table 19-3
13. A mother reports that she has a new job and her 12-year-old child is home alone for a time
after school. The statement made by the parent, indicating a potentially unsafe situation for this
child, is:
ANS: A
Latchkey children are subject to a higher rate of accidents. Permitting school-age children and
their friends to be home alone in an unsupervised environment is an unsafe situation.
ANS: D
The child cannot help such actions and should not be scolded for them because they are mainly a
result of tension.
15. A seventh-grade girl tells the school nurse that her art teacher, also a female, is her hero. The
ANS: D
School-age children tend to admire their teachers and adult companions. For the 11- to 12-year-
old, hero worship is a normal phenomenon.
a. Formal operations
b. Preoperational
c. Concrete operations
d. Sensorimotor
ANS: C
17. The nurse assesses that the 11-year-old has moved from the mind set of egocentrism when he
says:
ANS: D
The ability to see anothers point of view indicates moving away from egocentrism into a more
altruistic mind set.
18. When the school-age child becomes frustrated with a school assignment and says, I cant do
this!, the parent should:
ANS: A
Helping the child focus on the problem that is keeping him from mastery can limit frustration.
Quitting or having someone else finish is detrimental to the development of industry.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse, in attempting to help a 7-year-old girl express her feelings about being in a new
school, would prompt the child with basic feeling words, such as:
a. Mad
b. Glad
c. Sad
d. Scared
e. Jealous
ANS: A, B, C, D
The words mad, glad, sad, and scared are basic feeling words that can prompt a young child to
better express his or her feelings.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse advises the parents of a 6-year-old to try and ensure at least
ANS: 11
NOT: Rationale: The 6-year-old school-age child needs at least 11 hours of sleep.
2. The nurse reminds the parents who are trying to select a dog for their allergic child that the
best selection would be a female dog that is and
.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
3. When the fifth-grade class collected geckos in a special aquarium in the classroom, the school
nurse cautioned the teacher to be alert for symptoms of that can be
carried by the reptiles.
ANS: Salmonella
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
NOT: Rationale: Geckos can infect humans with Salmonella.
4. The pediatric nurse assesses the child who has been diagnosed with diabetes to ensure that he
does to come to believe that his disease is a form of .
ANS: punishment
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When assessing a 13-year-old boy, the nurse would keep in mind physical changes in the
ANS: C
In boys, pubertal changes begin with enlargement of the testicles and internal structures.
2. A 13-year-old boy states, The girls in my class tower over me. The nurses most informative
response would be:
a. It may seem that way because girls have a growth spurt 2 years earlier than boys.
b. Perhaps your parents are not exceptionally tall.
c. Boys usually experience a growth spurt 1 year earlier than girls.
d. You may feel short, but you are actually average height for your age.
ANS: A
Although the age for growth spurts during puberty varies, growth spurts occur 2 years earlier for
girls than for boys.
3. A parent comments that her adolescent daughter seems to be daydreaming a lot these days.
The nurse understands that this behavior indicates she is:
a. Bored
b. Not getting enough rest
c. Trying to block out stress and anxiety
d. Mentally preparing for real situations
ANS: D
Daydreaming allows adolescents to act out in their imaginations what will be said or done in
certain situations. This helps them to prepare for and cope with interactions with others.
4. The nurse planning a safety program for high school students should understand that most
a. Firearms
b. Automobiles
c. Drowning
d. Diving injuries
ANS: B
5. A 16-year-old excitedly tells his parents that he was offered a part-time job. Which response
represents an effective problem-solving approach for his parents?
a. Your studies are too important for you to have a part-time job.
b. When we went to high school, academics were the teenagers priority.
c. We want you to put your earnings in a savings account.
d. How do you think you will manage your school work and a job?
ANS: D
An effective approach to help adolescents learn to solve problems is for parents to guide them in
exploring alternatives.
6. One psychosocial task of adolescence on which the nurse must focus when planning care, is
the development of a sense of:
a. Initiative
b. Industry
c. Identity
d. Involvement
ANS: C
Psychosocial milestones that must be accomplished during adolescence include the five Imsiage
of self, identity, independence, interpersonal relationships, and intellectual maturity.
7. A 13-year-old female tells the school nurse that she is getting fat, especially in her hips and
legs. The understanding by the nurse that would best guide the response is:
ANS: C
Secondary sexual characteristics become apparent before menarche. Fat is deposited in the hips,
thighs, and breasts, causing them to enlarge.
8. The school nurse is planning a program for girls about the physical changes of puberty; this
a. 16 years
b. 14 years
c. 12 years
d. 10 years
ANS: D
Because puberty can occur in girls as early as age 10 years, instruction must be given by that age.
9. The statement made by a parent indicating understanding about helping a 13-year-old manage
allowance money is:
ANS: A
If money is simply handed out as requested, it is difficult to develop responsibility for finances
and money management. The older adolescent is able to get a job. The younger teen can earn
money by doing particular chores.
10. The nurse suggests a good dietary source of zinc for an adolescent who is a vegetarian would
be:
ANS: C
Zinc is essential for growth and sexual maturation in adolescence. Good vegetable sources
include nuts, legumes, and wheat germ.
11. An adolescents parent comments, My son seems so preoccupied with his appearance these
ANS: B
Preoccupation with self-image is normal and accounts for the constant primping of teenagers.
12. Foods that would be a healthy choice for an adolescent who just finished playing in a
strenuous game would be:
ANS: D
A bagel provides a rapid supply of carbohydrates to the muscles, and skim milk provides a slow
release of carbohydrates to the muscles.
13. When planning to answer a 16-year-old girls questions about menstruation, the nurse must
consider cognitive development. According to Piaget, the cognitive aspect that is developed
during adolescence is the ability to:
According to Piaget, in the formal operations stage adolescents have the ability to think
abstractly.
14. A girl tells the nurse that she and her best friend belong to the popular clique. She states, I
love Britney Spears and I want to be a singer. The nurse recognizes the girls statement as
characteristic of peer relationships in:
a. Early adolescence
b. Middle adolescence
c. Late adolescence
d. Entire adolescent period
ANS: A
Cliques of unisex friends, having a best friend, and hero worship are characteristics of the early
adolescent.
ANS: A
Parents may need help understanding that the teenagers exaggerated conformity is necessary for
moving away from dependence and obtaining approval from persons outside the nuclear family.
16. The nurse points out to a group of parents that the most positive developmental significance
of a peer group to the adolescent is that the group serves as:
a. A social outlet
b. An association to blur personal identity
c. A platform for group think
d. An initial separation from family
ANS: D
Being a member of a peer group and communicating with and seeking approval from this group
are the first separation from the family.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: dm: 461
17. The nurse understands that the adolescents avid sexual orientation to be based on Freuds
theory, which describes adolescence as the stage.
a. Conceptual
b. Genital
c. Glandular
d. Pubertal
ANS: B
18. The nurse using the PACE interview guide for persons at risk for substance abuse arrives at a
score of 2 for an adolescent patient. The nurse should assess this score as:
The PACE guide recommends that a score of 2 or higher would suggest the need for a referral
for counseling about substance abuse.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse explains that the restlessness seen in the adolescent is, in part, attributable to:
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
All the options listed are sources of stress to the adolescent and are stimulants to restlessness.
ANS: A, C, E
3. The nurse considers the rites of passage that are valued by the adolescent in American society,
which are:
Rites of passage are socially recognized milestones that signify adulthood. Legal drinking age,
drivers license, and matriculation through high school are such signals. Religious affiliation and
selection of a career path do not necessarily signal adulthood.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The nurse tells the parents of a child who has a positive throat culture for group A hemolytic
streptococcus that the treatment most likely will be:
ANS: B
2. The initial intervention that the nurse would suggest to the parents of a child experiencing
laryngeal spasm is to:
ANS: C
The child experiencing laryngeal spasm should be placed in a high-humidity environment such
as the bathroom with a hot shower running. The humidity liquefies secretions and reduces spasm.
3. The nurse would observe a child for frequent swallowing following a tonsillectomy and
adenoidectomy (T & A) because this is indicative of:
ANS: A
Hemorrhage is the most common postoperative complication. Blood trickling down the back of
the childs throat could cause frequent swallowing.
a. Popsicle
b. Chocolate milk
c. Orange juice
d. Cola drink
ANS: A
Small amounts of clear liquids can be offered to the child. Synthetic fruit juices are not as
irritating as natural juices. A popsicle is usually well-tolerated.
5. The 4-month-old child in the emergency department shows extreme dyspnea, a croaking
inspiration, and excessive drooling. Based on these observations alone, the nurses initial
intervention would be to:
ANS: A
These are the classic signs of epiglottitis. If epiglottitis is suspected, the nurse should not
examine the back of the throat because laryngospasm may occur followed by respiratory arrest.
The child should be made as comfortable as possible and the physician should be summoned.
Epiglottitis is a medical emergency.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 576 OBJ: 12
6. The nurse, auscultating the breath sounds of a child hospitalized for an acute asthma attack,
would expect to find:
a. Fine crackles
b. Coarse rhonchi
c. Expiratory wheezing
d. Decreased breath sounds at lung bases
ANS: C
The child experiencing an acute asthma attack will wheeze as air moves in and out of the
narrowed airways. The expiratory wheeze is most pronounced.
7. The nurse caring for a child experiencing an acute asthma attack would include:
ANS: D
This position is comfortable and allows maximum use of the accessory muscles for breathing.
Sedatives would mask symptoms of increasing air hunger. Carbonated beverages are
contraindicated in persons with dyspnea.
8. The nurse explains to the parent of a child with exercise-induced asthma that Cromolyn, an
antiinflammatory drug, should be inhaled:
ANS: A
Antiinflammatory inhalants are taken before exercise to prevent attacks. These drugs can do
nothing for the attack in progress. They are meant to be used as prophylactic therapies.
9. The parents of a 3-month-old infant with cystic fibrosis (CF) want to know how their child got
this disease, because no one in their families has CF. The nurses response is based on the
understanding that with CF:
ANS: B
Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease. Both parents must be carriers of the CF gene for the child
to have the disease.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
10. The statement indicating that the childs parents understand how to perform respiratory
therapy is:
ANS: C
Postural drainage for the child with CF is done following nebulization. Therapy is best scheduled
before meals or at least 1 hour after eating to prevent vomiting.
11. To facilitate digestion and absorption of nutrients, the nurse teaches the child with cystic
fibrosis that she needs to take:
a. Pancreatic enzymes
b. Water-soluble minerals
c. Fat-soluble vitamins
d. Salt supplements
ANS: A
An oral pancreatic enzyme is given to the child with every meal and with snacks to replace the
pancreatic enzymes that the childs body cannot produce.
12. The nurse would advise a mother to clear the nostrils when her infant has a cold by:
ANS: C
The nasal passages can be cleared by instilling a few drops of saline into the nose and then
suctioning the secretions with a bulb syringe.
13. The nurse offers a variety of fluids to compensate for the fluid loss through dyspnea.
Appropriate fluids would be:
a. Room temperature water
b. Carbonated beverages
c. Iced fruit juice
d. Cold milk
ANS: A
Room temperature fluids are the best. Carbonated and iced beverages increase spasm Milk
stimulates mucus production.
14. The asthmatic child who has been taking theophylline complains of stomach ache and
tachycardia and is sweating profusely. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as:
ANS: D
15. The nurse is planning to teach parents about preventing sudden infant death syndrome
(SIDS). Significant information would be to:
a. Wrap the infant snugly for rest periods.
b. Position the infant prone for sleep.
c. Sit the baby up in an infant seat.
d. Place infants on their back or side for sleep.
ANS: D
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all healthy infants be placed in the
supine or side-lying position on a firm mattress to prevent SIDS.
TOP: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome KEY: Nursing Process Step: Planning
16. An infant is hospitalized with RSV bronchiolitis. The priority nursing diagnosis is:
ANS: B
An ineffective breathing pattern is the priority nursing diagnosis for an infant hospitalized with
RSV infection.
a. Allow blood to shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no
cyanosis
b. Allow right-to-left shunt, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis
c. Allow no shunting because of high pressure in the left ventricle
d. Allow increased pressure in the left atrium, impeding circulation of oxygenated
blood in the circulating volume
ANS: A
Pulmonary blood flow is increased when a ventricular septal defect exists. The blood shifts from
left to right because of the higher pressure in the left ventricle. This particular shift does not
cause cyanosis.
18. The assessment that would lead the nurse to suspect that a newborn infant has a ventricular
septal defect, is:
ANS: A
A loud, harsh murmur combined with a systolic thrill is characteristic of a ventricular septal
defect.
19. The finding the nurse would expect when measuring blood pressure on all four extremities of
a child with coarctation of the aorta is:
ANS: D
The characteristic symptoms of coarctation of the aorta are a marked difference in blood pressure
and pulses between the upper and lower extremities. Pressure is increased proximal to the defect
and decreased distal to the coarctation.
20. The nurse is caring for a toddler with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. The assessment finding
that would indicate the child is experiencing increased respiratory obstruction is:
a. Restlessness
b. Tachycardia
c. Brassy cough
d. Expiratory wheezing
ANS: C
Restlessness is a primary sign of increased respiratory obstruction.
21. When a father asks why his child with tetralogy of Fallot seems to favor a squatting position,
the nurse would explain that squatting:
ANS: A
The squatting position allows the child to breathe more easily because systemic venous return is
increased.
22. An infant is experiencing dyspnea related to patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). The nurse
understands dyspnea occurs because:
When PDA is present, oxygenated blood recycles through the lungs, overburdening the
pulmonary circulation.
23. An appropriate nursing action related to the administration of Lanoxin to an infant would be:
a. Counting the apical rate for 30 seconds before administering the medication
b. Withholding a dose if the apical heart rate is less than 100 beats/min
c. Repeating a dose if the child vomits within 30 minutes of the previous dose
d. Checking respiratory rate and blood pressure before each dose
ANS: B
As a rule, if the pulse rate of an infant is below 100 beats/min, the medication is withheld and the
physician is notified.
24. A child develops carditis from rheumatic fever. The nurse knows that the areas of the heart
affected by carditis are:
ANS: B
The tissues that cover the heart and heart valves are affected. The heart muscle may be involved
and the mitral valve is frequently involved.
25. The comment made by a parent of a 1-month-old that would alert the nurse about the
presence of a congenital heart defect is:
a. He is always hungry.
b. He tires out during feedings.
c. He is fussy for several hours every day.
d. He sleeps all the time.
ANS: B
Fatigue during feeding or activity is common to most infants with congenital cardiac problems.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
26. The nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. The childs parent asks
the nurse, How does Kawasaki disease affect my childs heart and blood vessels? The nurses
response is based on the understanding that:
a. Inflammation weakens blood vessels, leading to aneurism.
b. Increased lipid levels lead to the development of atherosclerosis.
c. Untreated disease causes mitral valve stenosis.
d. Altered blood flow increases cardiac workload with resulting heart failure.
ANS: A
Inflammation of vessels weakens the walls of the vessels and often results in aneurysm.
27. The nurse explained how to position an infant with tetralogy of Fallot if the infant suddenly
becomes cyanotic. The nurse can determine the parent understood the instructions when he
states:
a. If the baby turns blue, I will hold him over my shoulder with his knees bent up
toward his chest.
b. If the baby turns blue, I will lay him down on a firm surface with his head lower
than the rest of his body.
c. If the baby turns blue, I will immediately put the baby upright in an infant seat.
d. If the baby turns blue, I will put the baby in a squatting position.
ANS: A
In the event of a paroxysmal hypercyanotic or tet spell, the infant should be placed in a knee-
chest position.
ANS: D
29. A child has an elevated antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer. Which combination of symptoms, in
conjunction with this finding, would confirm a diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
ANS: B
The presence of two major Jones criteria would indicate a high probability of rheumatic fever.
30. An infant with congestive heart failure is receiving Lanoxin. The nurse recognizes signs of
digoxin toxicity, which are:
a. Restlessness
b. Decreased respiratory rate
c. Increased urinary output
d. Vomiting
ANS: D
Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include the following: nausea, vomiting, anorexia, irregularity in
pulse rate and rhythm, and a sudden change in pulse.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse describes the allergic salute as a cluster of signs related to chronic allergy, which
are:
a. Mouth breathing
b. Transverse nasal crease
c. Dark circles under the eyes
d. Productive cough
e. Reddened conjunctiva
ANS: A, B, C, E
The allergic salute does not include a productive cough.
2. The nurse would suggest to the parents of an asthmatic child to encourage participation in
such activities as:
a. Swimming
b. Gymnastics
c. Baseball
d. Basketball
e. Tennis
ANS: A, B, C
Sports that require bursts of energy rather than long-term output of energy are suitable pursuits
for asthmatics. Swimming, gymnastics, and baseball fit this criterion.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse explains that the can sense the oxygen concentration in the
blood and can signal the brainstem to increase respiration.
ANS: chemoreceptors
NOT: Rationale: Chemoreceptors can sense the oxygen concentration of the blood and can signal
the brainstem to increase and deepen respirations in order to keep an adequate supply of oxygen
in the circulating volume.
2. After the 3-month-old child with respiratory syncytial virus is given a protocol of antiviral
medications, the nurse explains that routine immunizations will need to be delayed for
months.
ANS: 9
Multiple Choice
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.The ventricle pumps blood to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.
2.The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs to become oxygenated.
3.The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the body.
4.The pulmonary artery returns the oxygenated blood from the lungs.
2. The heart valve that connects the left atria and the left ventricle is:
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. This valve connects the right atria to the right ventricle.
2. This valve connects the left atria and the left ventricle.
3. This valve connects the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
4. This valve connects the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.
2. Pulmonic valve
3. Aortic valve
4. Bicuspid valve
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. The patient ductus arteriosus is the opening in the heart that allows
blood to flow in the heart.
2. The pulmonic valve is not the opening.
3. The aortic valve is open before and after birth.
4.The bicuspid valve is open before and after birth.
4. A nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child with a known atrial septal defect. Identify what the
nurse should expect to see in the assessment.
1. An increased heart rate
ANS: 3
Feedback
1.The heart rate will be a normal rate for a 4-year-old child.
2.The respiratory rate will be a normal rate for a 4-year-old child.
3. Oxygen saturations are expected to be lower because of the leakage
caused by the defect.
4. The heart rate will be a normal rate for a 4-year-old child.
5. A nurse is discussing heart disorders that cause the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood with a new nurse. The nurse should explain that the mixed disorders consist of all of the
following except:
1. Tetralogy of Fallot.
3. Truncus afteriosus.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. This is an obstructive disorder.
2. A mixed blood heart defect
3. A mixed blood heart defect
4. A mixed blood heart defect
3. On the arm.
4. On the hand.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. Because of peripheral cyanosis, the fingernail beds will not respond
quickly for an adequate measurement of capillary refill.
2. The sternum responds quickly for an adequate measurement of capillary
refill.
3. The hand does not respond quickly for an adequate measurement of
capillary refill.
4. The hand does not respond quickly for an adequate measurement of
capillary refill.
1. A weak heart.
3. Hypertension.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1.The heart may be weak, but does not indicate that the pulses will be
weak.
2.A lower amount of output does not allow for peripheral pulses to be
easily felt.
3.If the patient has hypertension, the pulses may be bounding.
4.Patent ductus arteriosus may have bounding pulses.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. Slow capillary refill can be demonstrated with acrocyanosis, but is not
the cause.
2. The vasoconstriction after birth is a cause of acrocyanosis
3.A newborn with a fever will not demonstrate acrocyanosis.
4.Lack of oxygen will cause central cyanosis.
9. A newborn is born with patent ductus arteriosus. If the patent ductus arteriosus does not close
during this time, the newborn will exhibit:
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. The pulse pressures widen because of the low pressure gradient within
the heart.
2. The widening occurs because of the low pressure gradient within the
heart.
3. The heart rate will increase because of not perfusing to the lungs.
4. The capillary refill will be sluggish because the oxygenated blood is not
going out to the rest of the body.
10. A nurse is assessing a newborn with a known patent ductus arteriosus defect of the heart. The
mother asks when she can start breastfeeding her infant. The best explanation by the nurse would
be:
1. The newborn will need to have the defect repaired before oral feedings can start.
2. The newborn will need to have extensive rest time between feedings, so plan on breastfeeding
one time, then we will give a nasogastric feeding the next time.
3. The nursing staff will monitor the newborn during feedings because she may sweat and have
increased difficulty breathing.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. Feedings can begin before the repair if the newborn does not
demonstrate difficulties in cardiac and respiratory status.
2. Rest time will be needed before and after feedings, but there is no need
to alternate between breast and nasogastic feedings.
3. Monitoring will enable the nurse to assess when the newborn needs a
break in feedings.
4. The newborn will have some issues with feedings because of the heart
issues.
11. A 6 month old has a known diagnosis of an Atrial Septal Defect (ASD). The nurse would
anticipate all except which of the following during an assessment?
1. Shortness of breath
2. Enlarged liver
3. Poor feeding
4. A diastolic murmur
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. Shortness of breath is expected since more blood flows to the
pulmonary area because of the hole.
2. The liver enlarges because of the increase in blood flow.
3. Poor feedings are expected as a result of shortness of breath because of
the pulmonary hypertension issues.
4.A systolic murmur is expected due to the blood being forced through the
pulmonary valve.
12. A nurse should question which of the following orders for a child with a known ASD?
1. A transesophogeal ultrasound
2. Digoxin
3. EKG
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. The ultrasound allows for the entire heart to be viewed in order to find
the exact location of the ASD.
2. Digoxin will help with the cardiac output.
3.An EKG will help identify heart function.
4.All the orders would be appropriate for the child because each aids in
gathering all the information needed for proper treatment of the defect.
13. A nurse knows that the mother understands the discharge instructions for an 8 month old that
had a cardiac catheterization for an ASD when the mother states:
1. We will need to schedule weekly visits to make sure the heart is functioning properly.
2. The surgical site will require us to keep our child in isolation at home.
3. We will need to monitor the insertion site for drainage and temperature changes.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. The visits will need to be prescribed by the doctor. Visits usually take
place three months to one year after the procedure area heals.
2. The child will have a short recovery time and does not need to be in
isolation.
3. The insertion site must be monitored for signs and symptoms of
infection and bleeding.
4. The child may have arrhythmias his/her entire life.
1. ASD.
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. An ASD is not a common heart defect. Usually see closure within a few
hours after birth.
2. The PFO is common in premature neonates. Not common in full-term
neonates thus is not the most common defect.
3.A rare heart congenital heart defect.
4.The most common defect. The defect can be medically managed with
minimal intervention.
15. A nurse is assessing a child with a known VSD. The nurse anticipates auscultating:
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.A thrill sound in the left sternal border will be heard because of where
the valve is located.
2.The lung sounds should be clear.
3.A systolic thrill and lower left sternal border thrill will be noted.
4.A thrill sound in the left sternal border with diastolic sounds will be
heard because of where the valve is located.
16. An 18 month old with known Tetralogy of Fallot is seen squatting after running in the
hospital playroom. The nurse knows the child is:
1. Having a rapid drop in the amount of oxygen in the blood and is short of breath.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.Squatting allows the child to take breaths and gain oxygen.
2.The child is attempting to inhale oxygen quickly.
3. The child is maintaining a position to gain oxygen in order to prevent
fainting.
4. The child is squatting in order to take deep breaths and gain oxygen
after the playing.
17. Jaycob, a 24-month-old child with a diagnosis of RSV and Tetrology of Fallot, is being cared
for by a new nurse. Jaycob is agitated and is crying when care is provided. He begins to drop his
oxygen saturations below an acceptable range. The nurse should:
ANS: 4
Feedback
1. The question does not state that the parent is available.
2. Feeding the child may cause oxygen saturations to drop lower.
3.All attempts at consoling the child should first be provided before
asking for a sedative.
4.Clustering cares will allow for time to rest and result in less stress for
the child.
18. A newborn with a diagnosis of Tetrology of Fallot is demonstrating heart failure. The doctor
orders a prostaglandin E1 drip. The nurse knows this is used to:
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. The prostaglandin will allow the Patent Ductus Arteriosis to have
patency.
2. The patent foramen ovale is already open when a Tetrology of Fallot is
present.
3. Blood flow to the heart and lungs rather than the extremities is the
priority.
4. Because of the holes in the heart, the resistance is already low.
19. A nurse caring for a child with Eisenmengers syndrome should assess for all of the following
except:
1. Fatigue.
2. Acrocyanosis.
3. Shortness of breath.
4. Blood pressure.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. The child will have increased fatigue due to the lack of oxygen in the
body.
2. The child will have cyanosis.
3. The child will demonstrate a shortness of breath because of the lack of
oxygen being perfused to the lungs.
4. The blood pressure should be assessed to monitor how the heart is
pumping.
20. ECHMO is commonly used as a treatment for a baby with which defect/syndrome?
1. Eisenmengers syndrome
3. ASD
4. Tetralogy of Fallot
ANS: 1
Feedback
1. ECHMO acts as a bypass for the heart and lungs to obtain enough
oxygen for the body.
2. ECHMO acts as a bypass for the heart and lungs to obtain enough
oxygen for the body. In coarctation, the heart and lungs are able to
perfuse.
3. ECHMO acts as a bypass for the heart and lungs to obtain enough
oxygen for the body.
4. ECHMO acts as a bypass for the heart and lungs to obtain enough
oxygen for the body.
21. A child with a known diagnosis of coarctation of the aorta will have an increase in:
Feedback
1. Because of the low flow of blood, the lower extremities will have a
lower flow of blood.
2. The upper extremities will demonstrate an increase in blood pressure.
3.The blood pressure affects the extremities.
4.The blood pressure affects the extremities.
22. A nurse is assessing a child with coarctation of the aorta. The nurse knows she will find all
the following except:
3. Shortness of breath.
4. Poor growth.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. The decreased blood flow to the lower extremities is noted in
coarctation by assessing the pulses.
2. Coarctation can be asymptomatic.
3. Shortness of breath may be noted when exerting the body.
4.The child will have a slower growth rate than peers.
23. When assessing a child with coarctation of the aorta, the nurse should perform assessments to
all of the follow areas except:
Feedback
1. Blood pressure will greatly differ in the upper extremities versus the
lower extremities.
2. Perfusion to the lower extremities will be worse than in the upper
extremities.
3. Digoxin should always have a pre-assessment of an apical pulse for one
minute.
4. Pulse pressures do not give adequate data for a child with coarctation of
the aorta.
24. A common bacteria that causes scarring on the aortic valve is:
3. Staphylococcus aureus.
4. E. coli.
ANS: 1
Feedback
1.This common bacteria causes scarring on the aortic valve.
2.This is not a common bacteria in the heart.
3. Common in endocarditis, but not a common cause of scarring on the
aortic valve.
4. Usually attacks the GI tract
1. Acrocyanosis at birth
Feedback
1.Cyanosis will be noted at birth.
2.Weight gain will be slower than peers.
3.A murmur will not be present with the ASD and the PDA.
4.Cyanosis will be noted at birth because of the fistula not allowing blood
to go to the lungs in order to oxygenate.
ANS: 2
Feedback
1. This type of stenosis occurs in the right ventricle.
2. The right ventricle has an increased workload because of the lack of
blood being pushed out of the heart.
3. The left ventricle does not have the workload because it is pushing
oxygenated blood to the body.
4. The right atrium is filling with blood and does not have the resistance to
push it to the lungs, thus decreasing the workload.
27. The nurse is assessing a baby with a known diagnosis of Tetralogy of Fallot with pulmonary
atresia. The nurse should expect which of the following in her assessment of the baby?
1. A VSD murmur
4. Profound cyanosis
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.PDA murmur is common, not a VSD.
2.Growth and development will be delayed.
3.Peripheral pulses will be bounding.
4.Cyanosis will be present due to where the holes in the heart are located.
28. An 18-pound, 12-month-old child with a known diagnosis of Tetralogy of Fallot with
pulmonary atresia has been ordered to receive a calorie intake of 150 calories/kg per day. The
total caloric intake prescribed is:
1. 1528
2. 1227
3. 2700
ANS: 2
18/2.2= 8.18 kg
Feedback
1. Too many calories per day
2. Adequate calories per day
3. Too many calories per day
4. One answer is correct.
29. When a child with transposition of the greater vessels is assessed, the nurse should anticipate
that:
ANS: 4
Feedback
1.The extremities will have weak pulses and low oxygen saturations.
2.Cyanosis will be present when crying.
3. The child will have a PDA.
4. The difference in oxygenation is caused by the aorta receiving
deoxygenated blood.
30. A newborn with transposition of the grater arteries has been prescribed Captopril. The
mother asks why the child needs to be on such a medication. The best response by the nurse
would be:
1. Your child needs the beta-blocker to decrease the angiotensin in the body.
4. Your child is not responding to the prostaglandin E drip, so the Captopril needs to be started to
decrease the blood pressure.
ANS: 3
Feedback
1. The medication is an ACE inhibitor.
2. The medication will not alter the respiratory rate.
3. The medication is an antihypertensive and relaxes the coronary arteries
to help decrease blood pressure.
4.A prostaglandin E drip is not a long-term solution.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A parent comments that her infant has had several ear infections in the past few months. The
nurse understands that infants are more susceptible to otitis media because:
ANS: D
An infants eustachian tubes are shorter, wider, and straighter, allowing microorganisms easy
access to the middle ear.
2. The nurse determines a mother understands instructions about administering an oral antibiotic
for otitis media when the mother verbalizes that she will:
ANS: D
Antibiotic therapy for otitis media is continued until the prescribed amount has been completed,
even if symptoms are alleviated.
3. The situation in which the nurse would be suspicious about a hearing impairment is:
ANS: D
The child who is not making verbal attempts by 18 months should undergo a complete physical
examination.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
4. The best way for the nurse to communicate with a 10-year-old child who has a hearing
impairment would be to:
ANS: C
The nurse who faces the child and speaks clearly will help the hearing-impaired child in the
hospital to develop a healthy personality.
5. The nurse planning postoperative teaching for a child who has had a tympanostomy with
insertion of tubes would include:
ANS: C
Following a tympanostomy, care should be taken to avoid getting water in the ears.
ANS: B
Indicators of amblyopia include covering one eye to see, tilting the head to see, missing objects
in attempts to pick them up. Although headaches may be associated with amblyopia, it is too
vague to point suspicion to any disorder.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
a. Patching the good eye to force the brain to use the affected eye
b. Patching the affected eye to allow the refractory muscles to rest
c. Using glasses that will slightly blur the image for the good eye
d. Using corticosteroids to treat inflammation of the optic nerve
ANS: A
Early detection and treatment are essential for the child with amblyopia. Treatment includes
patching the good eye and using glasses to correct refractive errors.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
8. The school nurse recognizes the cardinal sign of a hyphema when she assesses:
ANS: C
A dark red spot in front of the iris is blood that has drained into the anterior chamber as the result
of an injury.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
9. The nurse is planning to teach parents about prevention of Reyes syndrome. What information
would the nurse include in this teaching?
ANS: C
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
10. The nurse caring for a 5-month-old with viral influenza suspects the development of Reyes
syndrome when the child:
ANS: C
A child with a viral infection is at risk for Reyes syndrome, the onset of which is effortless
vomiting, lethargy, and a change in LOC. A 5-month-old child that sleeps after eating is normal.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
ANS: D
Febrile seizures occur in response to a rapid rise in temperature, often above 102F (38.8C).
12. A parent reports that her child experiences episodes where he appears to be staring into
space. This behavior is characteristic of which type of seizure?
a. Absence
b. Akinetic
c. Myoclonic
d. Complex partial
ANS: A
Absence seizures are characterized by transient loss of consciousness where the child appears to
stare blankly, and which may last only a few seconds.
13. An adolescent has just had a generalized seizure lasting 1 minute. Following the seizure, the
nurse should:
ANS: B
During the tonic phase of a generalized seizure, the head, legs, and back stiffen.
a. Guide the child to the floor if the child is standing, and then go for help.
b. Move objects out of the childs immediate area.
c. Stick a padded tongue blade between the childs teeth.
d. Manually restrain the child.
ANS: B
During a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, the immediate area is cleared to protect the child from
injury.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
15. A child had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that lasted 90 seconds. After a generalized
tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse would expect that the child might be:
a. Restless
b. Sleepy
c. Nauseated
d. Anxious
ANS: B
Following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, the child may have some confusion and may sleep
for a time (postictal lethargy) and then return to full consciousness.
16. The nurse would include in a teaching plan pertinent to the long-term administration of
Dilantin that:
Dilantin can cause gum overgrowth, which can be minimized by regular massaging.
17. The nurse observes that the legs of a child with cerebral palsy cross involuntarily, and the
child exhibits jerky movements with his arms as he tries to eat. The nurse recognizes that he has
which type of cerebral palsy?
a. Athetoid
b. Ataxic
c. Spastic
d. Mixed
ANS: C
18. The assessment finding that should be reported immediately if observed in a child with
meningitis is:
a. Irregular respirations
b. Tachycardia
c. Slight drop in blood pressure
d. Elevated temperature
ANS: A
Irregular respirations in conjunction with slowing heart rate and increasing blood pressure are
reported immediately because they could indicate increased intracranial pressure.
19. The nurse observes a childs position is supine with his arms and legs rigidly extended and the
hands pronated. The nurse recognizes this posture as:
ANS: C
In decerebrate posturing, arms are extended along the side of the body and hands are pronated.
This posture indicates brainstem function only.
20. The nurse giving instructions for acute conjunctivitis would teach parents to:
ANS: C
Eye secretions are always cleared from the inner canthus downward and away from the opposite
eye (inner to outer direction).
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
21. A child is brought to the emergency department after he fell and hit his head on the ground.
The nursing assessment that suggests the child has a concussion is:
ANS: C
a. Meningitis
b. Reyes syndrome
c. Brain tumor
d. Encephalitis
ANS: C
The signs and symptoms of a brain tumor are related to its size and location. Most tumors create
increased ICP with the hallmark symptoms of headache, vomiting, drowsiness, and seizures.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The pediatric nurse is alerted to the probability of an ear infection in a 6-month-old child when
the baby:
a. Is hypersensitive to noise
b. Is irritable
c. Has a reddened ear canal
d. Rolls head from side to side
e. Spikes a temperature of 103F
ANS: B, D, E
Infants signal ear infections by being irritable, spiking a temperature, rolling their heads from
side to side, and pulling at or rubbing their ears.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
2. The nurse cautions parents that hearing impairment can affect the childs:
a. Speech clarity
b. Language development
c. Emotional stability
d. Personality development
e. Academic achievement
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
All the options are areas in which a hearing impairment could interfere with normal
development.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
3. The nurse, preparing air travel instructions to prevent barotraumas in infants, would include:
ANS: D
Encouraging an infant to swallow reduces the pressure in the ears during descent.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
4. The nurse caring for a child with infectious meningitis, would include in the care:
a. Isolation precautions
b. Provision of dimly lit room
c. Observation for increasing intracranial pressure
d. Preparation for spinal tap
e. Seizure precautions
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
All elements of nursing care listed in the options would be part of comprehensive care of a child
with meningitis.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When a parent asks the nurse to describe what is meant by a learning disability, the nurses
most helpful response would be:
ANS: A
Learning disability is an educational term. Children with learning disabilities may have average
to above-average intelligence, but they may experience difficulties in perception, language,
comprehension, and conceptualization.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
2. What would be the appropriate response to an adolescent who states, This has been the worst
day of my life?
ANS: D
The nurse establishes a rapport with the adolescent by acknowledging his or her feelings and
giving the adolescent full attention.
3. The nurse asks, Do your parents drink every day? The adolescent suddenly shouts, Im not
going to talk about that! Its none of your business, anyway! Leave me alone! The nurse
recognizes that the outburst was stimulated by the fact that the adolescent is:
a. Acting out and needs to be brought under control so the conference can continue
b. Trying to shift the focus of the conference away from himself, and the nurse
needs to refocus
c. Demonstrating that this problem requires the assistance of a psychiatrist
d. Responding to the discrediting of his parents, which causes anxiety in the child;
thus reassurance is needed that blame will not be directed at anyone
ANS: D
4. The nurse answering phone calls at a local suicide prevention hotline would recognize the
statement indicating the greatest risk of suicide is:
a. I just needed to talk to someone to keep myself from thinking silly thoughts about
killing myself.
b. My parents arent home and wont be back for 4 hours. That should be enough time
for the pills to work. Ive got a hundred of them.
c. My dad will be home first, so hell find me. So I think Ill use his gun. I hope he
didnt lock the cabinet.
d. My girlfriend is here with me. She told me to call because I was talking crazy
about killing myself.
ANS: B
The risk of death increases when there is a definite plan of action, the means are readily
available, and the person has few resources for help and support.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
5. The nurse assesses an early sign of depression in a 15- year-old boy who previously was active
in a band, and had saved his money to buy a special guitar when he:
ANS: C
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
6. A mother is concerned because her teenage son is always in trouble for fighting at school and
always seems to be angry. She mentions that her husband drinks a bit. The understanding
guiding the nurses response is:
a. The boy is displaying antisocial behavior and should be evaluated for mental
illness.
b. He is displaying one of the typical defense patterns of children of alcoholics and
should receive immediate treatment.
c. The mother is displaying her own anger with her husbands drinking, and she
needs immediate intervention.
d. This boy is only one member of the family affected by alcoholism, and all
members should receive immediate intervention.
ANS: D
Early recognition of and intervention for children of alcoholics are paramount. This adolescent is
using the coping pattern of acting-out behaviors to deal with the family situation.
7. The school nurse suggests to the classroom teacher that the most appropriate classroom
intervention for a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder would be:
a. Seat the child in the back of the room to prevent distractions for other children.
b. Pair the child with a student buddy to offer reminders to pay attention.
c. Divide work assignments into shorter periods with breaks in between.
d. Separate the child from others to increase his focus on schoolwork.
ANS: C
The child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder needs breaks between periods of work and
study.
a. Is severely underweight
b. Alternates binge eating with purging
c. Is an introverted perfectionist
d. Has extremely close family relationships
ANS: B
9. A 14-year-old girl with obsessive-compulsive disorder tells the nurse other teens tease her
because she washes her hands many times during the school day. The nurse is aware that this
disorder puts the adolescent at greater risk for:
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Suicidal behavior
c. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
d. Learning disability
ANS: B
OCD is related to depression and other psychiatric disorders. Suicidal behavior is a high risk for
adolescents with OCD.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
10. The statement made by a parent of an adolescent with anorexia nervosa indicating an
understanding of this condition is:
a. There really isnt anything to worry about. Dont they say you can never be too
thin?
b. My daughter just doesnt have much of an appetite.
c. She is just trying to punish me for divorcing her father.
d. She seems to see herself as fat, even though her weight is below normal.
ANS: D
Individuals with anorexia nervosa have a disturbed body image, which this parent correctly
recognizes.
11. An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized child who is autistic would be to:
a. Place the child in a location where she can watch all of the activity on the unit.
b. Use the childs chronological age as a guide for communication.
c. Keep the childs room free of toys or objects that she might want to take home
with her.
d. Organize care to provide as few disruptions to the routine as possible.
ANS: D
During hospitalization, the nurse should provide a highly structured environment with few
distractions for a child who is autistic.
12. A nurse planning to speak with a parent support group about childhood autism would include
the information:
ANS: A
Failure to use eye contact and look at others, poor attention span, and poor orienting to ones
name are significant signs of dysfunction by 1 year of age.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
13. An adolescent is brought to the emergency department after an automobile accident. When
the nurse approaches the adolescent, he becomes combative. The nurse notes his speech is
slurred and his gait is ataxic. The nurse suspects the adolescent has used:
a. Alcohol
b. Cocaine
c. Amphetamines
d. PCP
ANS: A
Behavioral signs of alcohol ingestion include slurred speech, short attention span, drowsiness,
combativeness, and violence.
14. When the nurse is collecting a nursing history, an adolescent states that she has tried speed.
The nurse recognizes this as the street name for:
a. Barbiturates
b. Cocaine
c. Methamphetamine
d. Marijuana
ANS: C
15. The nurse explains that the member of the child guidance team who is a medical doctor with
special training in psychoanalytic theory is the:
a. Psychiatrist
b. Psychoanalyst
c. Psychologist
d. Counselor
ANS: A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
16. Because young children cannot express themselves well, the nurse uses the therapeutic
intervention that allows children to act out their feelings, which is:
a. Art therapy
b. Play therapy
c. Music therapy
d. Bibliotherapy
ANS: B
Play therapy allows a young child to act out with dolls or figures concerns that the child may be
unable to adequately express verbally.
ANS: B
Stimulants that decrease the hyperactivity in the autistic child also impair cognition and may
increase the potential of self-injuring behavior.
18. A 9-year-old has been admitted to the hospital after huffing lighter fluid. The nurse should
assess for:
a. Depressed respirations
b. Severe vomiting
c. Frightening hallucinations
d. Elevation of temperature
ANS: A
Inhaling hydrocarbons depresses the central nervous system, including respiratory rate and
general sensorium.
19. As the pediatric nurse listens to a 9-year-old child read to his 6-year-old roommate, the nurse
assesses possible dyslexia when the child:
ANS: B
Dyslexics often transpose a word as they read; for example, the word is GOD, but it appears to
the dyslexic child as the word DOG.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse describes the members of a mental health team for child guidance as including a:
a. Psychiatrist
b. Pediatrician
c. Psychologist
d. Dietitian
e. Social worker
ANS: A, B, C, E
The traditional members of the child guidance team are the psychiatrist, pediatrician,
psychologist, and social worker. The dietitian is not usually on the treatment team.
2. The school nurse cautions a group of parents about the prevalence of children who get high by
inhaling hydrocarbons and fluorocarbons, such as:
a. Glue
b. Chlorine
c. Cleaning fluid
d. Copy machine toner
e. Aerosol sprays
ANS: A, C, E
Although there are many products that could be inhaled, the most frequently used products are
glue, cleaning fluid, aerosol sprays, Freon, shoe polish, and gasoline products.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
3. The nurse takes into consideration in planning the care of an adolescent with anorexia nervosa
that the cause of this disorder is:
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
COMPLETION
1. The nurse documents that every time the child is directed to discuss the relationship with her
brother, she complains of shortness of breath and begins to have asthma-like symptoms. The
nurse assesses this behavior as a reaction.
ANS: psychosomatic
ANS: milieu
MULTIPLE CHOICE
ANS: B
After birth, a newborn with tracheoesophageal fistula will vomit and choke when the first
feeding is introduced.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
2. A child is brought to the pediatric clinic because he has been vomiting for the past 2 days. An
acid-base imbalance that the nurse would expect to occur from this persistent vomiting is:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Acidosis
d. Alkalosis
ANS: D
Hydrochloric acid and sodium chloride from the stomach are lost from persistent vomiting. This
results in alkalosis.
3. On the second day of hospitalization for a 3-month-old brought in for treatment for
gastroenteritis, the nurse makes all of the assessments listed below. The assessment that indicates
that the treatment is not effective is:
ANS: A
4. The nurse is aware that rapid respirations are a possible cause of dehydration because they:
ANS: C
5. An appropriate intervention for a 3-month-old infant who has gastroesophageal reflux is to:
a. Position the infant in the crib on its abdomen, with the head elevated.
b. Administer medication as ordered to stimulate the pyloric sphincter.
c. Give thin rice cereal with formula before feeding solid foods.
d. Place the infant in an infant seat after feedings.
ANS: A
After feedings, the infant is placed in a prone position to avoid increased intraabdominal
pressure.
6. The nurse interviewing parents of an infant with pyloric stenosis would expect the parents to
report the infant has had:
a. Diarrhea
b. Projectile vomiting
c. Poor appetite
d. Constipation
ANS: B
Vomiting is the outstanding symptom of pyloric stenosis. Food is ejected with considerable
force, which is described as projectile vomiting.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
7. A parent reports that her child has been scratching the anal area and complaining of itching.
Based on this information, the nurse might suspect this child has:
a. Pinworms
b. Giardiasis
c. Ringworm
d. Roundworm
ANS: A
With pinworms, the nurse or parent may notice that the child scratches the anal area and
complains of itchiness. The other choices do not cause this reaction.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
8. The nurse that is teaching a parent about pyrvinium (Povan) would include the information
that the drug will cause:
a. Diarrhea
b. Skin rash
c. Red stool
d. Metallic taste
ANS: B
The nurse should advise parents that Povan stains and turns stools red.
9. The instruction the nurse would give to parents about preventing the spread and reinfection of
pinworms is:
ANS: A
One intervention to prevent the further spread of pinworms is to keep the childs fingernails short.
Pinworms are not spread from person to person.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
10. A parent reports that her 2-year-old child experiences constipation frequently. The nurse
would recommend to the mother to include in the childs diet:
a. Cooked vegetables
b. Pretzels
c. Whole-grain cereal
d. Yogurt
ANS: C
Dietary modifications for constipation include eating more high-roughage foods such as whole-
grain breads and cereals.
11. Intussusception would be suspected when parents describe the childs stools as:
a. Currant jelly
b. Black and tarry
c. Green liquid
d. Greasy and foul-smelling
ANS: A
Bowel movements of blood and mucus that contain no feces (currant jelly stools) are common
about 12 hours after the onset of the obstruction.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
12. The nurse explains that the treatment of choice for a child with intussusception is:
a. A barium enema
b. Immediate surgery
c. IV fluids until the spasms subside
d. Gastric lavage
ANS: A
A barium enema is the treatment of choice for intussusception because the passage of the barium
frequently un-telescopes the bowel. Surgery is scheduled only if reduction is not achieved.
13. Parents ask the nurse how their infant developed a Meckels diverticulum. The nurses
response is based on the knowledge that this condition occurs when:
ANS: C
If the vitelline duct fails to disappear completely after birth, a blind pouch may form.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
14. An infant is admitted to the hospital with severe isotonic dehydration. In planning the infants
care, the nurse is aware the infant is at risk for:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Sepsis
d. Shock
ANS: D
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
15. A child is brought to the emergency department because he ingested an unknown quantity of
Tylenol. After gastric lavage is completed, the nurse might expect this child to receive:
a. Activated charcoal
b. N-Acetylcysteine
c. Vitamin K
d. Syrup of ipecac
ANS: B
16. The nurse, planning a parent education program about lead poisoning prevention, would
include the information that the sources of lead in the community are most likely:
a. Increased lead content of air
b. Use of aluminum cookware
c. Deteriorating paint in older buildings
d. Inhaling smog
ANS: C
17. A frightened mother calls a neighbor because her child swallowed dishwashing detergent.
The most appropriate action that the neighbor can advise is:
ANS: B
Inducing vomiting is no longer recommended because it may pose additional problems. The
child should be taken immediately to the nearest emergency department.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
18. A child has been diagnosed with ascariasis (roundworm). The statement made by her mother
that may suggest a cause for her condition is:
a. Ive been airing out the house on these nice breezy days.
b. My child often goes out to the garden and pulls up a carrot to eat.
c. She runs barefoot so much I have to wash her feet at least twice a day.
d. We just remodeled our bathroom at home.
ANS: B
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
19. The nurse would expect the stools of a child with celiac disease to have which appearance?
a. Ribbonlike
b. Hard, constipated
c. Bulky, frothy
d. Loose, foul-smelling
ANS: C
Celiac disease causes malabsorption. Stools that are large, bulky, and frothy may indicate
malabsorption.
20. After reviewing dietary restrictions for celiac disease, the nurse determines that a parent
understands the information when she states that a grain that can be eaten by a child with celiac
disease is:
a. Wheat
b. Oats
c. Barley
d. Rice
ANS: D
Rice is a gluten-free grain that can be eaten by children afflicted with celiac disease.
21. A 7-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute gastroenteritis. The
priority goal of the infants care is to prevent:
ANS: A
The priority goal of care in gastroenteritis is preventing fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
22. The nurse, speaking to the parent of a 3-year-old child who has mild diarrhea, would advise
the dietary modification of:
a. Soft diet with rice, bananas, toast, and applesauce
b. Small amounts of clear fluids such as gelatin
c. An oral rehydrating solution such as Pedialyte
d. Chicken soup because it is high in sodium
ANS: C
An oral rehydrating solution is recommended to replace fluids and electrolytes lost from frequent
bowel movements.
23. The nurse would expect a child admitted to the hospital for nonorganic failure to thrive to:
a. Cry to be picked up
b. Be limp like a rag doll
c. Be responsive to cuddling
d. Weigh in the 10th percentile for age
ANS: B
Some children with failure to thrive have rag-doll limpness (hypotonia) and appear wary of their
caregivers.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
24. Nursing interventions for the mother of a 10-month-old infant with nonorganic failure to
thrive would include:
a. Pointing out errors that the nurse observes when the mother is caring for the
infant
b. Discussing negative characteristics of the infant with the mother
c. Having the nurse provide as much of the infants care as possible
d. Teaching the mother about the developmental milestones to expect in the next
few months
ANS: D
The nurse can increase parents knowledge of growth and development by providing anticipatory
guidance about normal developmental milestones.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
25. The statement by a mother that may indicate a cause of her sons vitamin C deficiency is:
ANS: A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
26. The nurse instructing a mother how to administer oral nystatin suspension, prescribed to treat
thrush, would teach to:
a. Pour the prescribed amount into a nipple and have the infant suck the medication.
b. Squirt the prescribed dose into the back of the mouth and have the infant
swallow.
c. Give the medication mixed with a small amount of juice in a bottle.
d. Use a sterile applicator to swab the medication on the oral mucosa.
ANS: D
An appropriate way to administer nystatin is to moisten a sterile applicator with the medication
and then swab it on the inside of the mouth.
27. One reason that infants are more vulnerable to fluid and electrolyte imbalances than adults is
that:
a. They have a smaller surface area than adults in proportion to body weight.
b. Water needs and losses per kilogram are lower than those for adults.
c. A greater percentage of body water in infants is extracellular.
d. Infants have a lower metabolic turnover of water.
ANS: C
28. An infant is admitted to the hospital with severe dehydration. Laboratory results show pH
7.32, PaCO2 40, HCO3 21. The nurse interprets these values as:
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
ANS: A
A pH lower than 7.35 indicates acidosis. If the childs pH falls in the same line as the HCO3-, the
problem is metabolic (see Table 27-4).
TOP: Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalance KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
ANS: B, C, D
Children with pyloric stenosis are given formula thickened with cereal; the baby is burped before
and during feeding to get rid of any gas in the stomach; the baby is fed slowly and refed if
vomiting occurs. The baby is positioned on the right side to allow the weight of the feeding to
stay in the stomach against the pyloric valve.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse, assessing an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) for a baby with
gastroenteritis, recognizes that this confirms the process that is part of
this disease.
ANS: inflammatory
2. The nurse explains that because drinks cause diuresis, they are not
good choices for fluid replacement in a child who is dehydrated.
ANS:
cola
caffeinated
NOT: Rationale: Cola drinks or other caffeinated drinks cause diuresis and will further dehydrate
an already dehydrated child.
3. The nurse explains that rickets, a deficiency disease that causes bony deformities, is caused by
the inadequate supply of vitamin .
ANS: D
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
NOT: Rationale: Rickets is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D.
4. The nurse reminds parents of a child allergic to cows milk that they should avoid foods that
list as part of their contents.
ANS: casein
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The nurse discussed strategies with a parent to prevent a recurrence of urinary tract infection
in the child. The statement made by the parent indicating a need for further teaching is:
a. My daughter should wash and wipe the perineal area from front to back.
b. I am only going to have my daughter wear cotton underwear.
c. It is acceptable to take frequent bubble baths.
d. She needs to drink lots of fluids and void frequently.
ANS: C
Oils in bubble bath and similar products are known to irritate the urethra.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Detection of Disease
2. When asked about correcting the hypospadias of their newborn, the nurse explains that with
this condition:
ANS: B
Treatment of hypospadias consists of surgical repair and is usually performed before 18 months
of age.
3. The initial sign of nephrosis that the nurse might note in the child would be:
a.asR
pberry-like rash
b. Periorbital edema
c. Temperature elevation
d. Abdominal pain
ANS: B
The edema of nephrotic syndrome is generalized, and not readily noticed, even by the parents,
but an early sign that can be assessed is periorbital edema.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Detection of Disease
4. While a child is receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome, it is important for the nurse
to assess the child for:
a. Infection
b. Urinary retention
c. Easy bruising
d. Hypoglycemia
ANS: A
Prednisone depresses the immune response and increases susceptibility to infection. Because
steroids mask signs of infection, the child must be assessed for more subtle symptoms of
illness.
a. Forcibly push the foreskin down over the head of the penis.
b. Place a warm compress on the penis.
c. Notify the charge nurse.
d. Wait a few hours and try again.
ANS: C
Notify the charge nurse of this occurrence of paraphimosis. The tight foreskin can impede blood
flow to the penis; this should be remedied immediately.
6. A 7-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis has gross hematuria and has been confined
to bed. An appropriate nursing intervention for this child would be:
ANS: A
Although children may feel well, activity is limited until hematuria resolves.
7. The nurse clarifies that the urinary diversion procedure that would be least damaging to the
body image of the adolescent would be:
a. Urostomy
b. Ileal conduit
c. Nephrostomy
d. Suprapubic placement
ANS: B
The ileal conduit diverts urine to the colon, and the urine is excreted with the feces. There is no
external appliance as is needed with the other diversion methods.
8. The mother of a 5-year-old child taking prednisone for nephrotic syndrome tells the nurse he
needs to get immunizations to enter kindergarten. The nurse clarifies that while on prednisone,
immunizations:
No vaccinations or immunizations should be administered while the disease is active and during
immunosuppressive therapy.
9. When diuresis has not occurred after a month on corticosteroids, the nurse explains to the
parents of a child with nephrotic syndrome that diuresis can be brought about by a protocol of:
ANS: D
A potent antisuppressant such as Cytoxan can bring about diuresis when corticosteroids have
proven ineffective.
10. Because of the hyperkalemia associated with acute glomerulonephritis, the nurse
ANS: D
OBJ: Objective: 2 TOP: Topic: AGN KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation
11. The physical assessment that the nurse would omit in caring for a 2-year-old who has a
Wilms tumor is:
ANS: B
Palpation of the abdomen could disturb the tumor and cause spread of the malignancy.
ANS: A
Although orchiopexy improves the condition, the fertility rate among patients may be reduced
even when only one testis is undescended.
13. A parent tells the nurse her child is scheduled for an x-ray of the bladder and urethra that is
done while the child is urinating. The nurse recognizes this description as a(n):
a. Cystometrogram
b. Cystoscopy
c. Voiding cystourethrogram
d. Intravenous pyelogram
ANS: C
An x-ray examination of the bladder and urethra before and during micturition is called a voiding
cystourethrogram.
14. A 6-year-old child with daytime enuresis complains of dysuria and urgency; the nurse
recognizes these as signs and symptoms of:
ANS: A
Urinary frequency and pain during micturition are symptoms of acute urinary tract infection.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Detection of Disease
15. An appropriate intervention for the child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome who is
edematous would be to:
ANS: A
The child should be turned frequently to prevent respiratory tract infection and to prevent
pressure on delicate skin.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: dm: 667
16. The statement made by a parent of a child with nephrotic syndrome indicating an
understanding of discharge teaching is:
a. I will make sure he gets his measles vaccine as soon as he gets home.
b. He can stop taking his medication next week.
c. I should check his urine for protein when he goes to the bathroom.
d. He should eat a low-protein diet for the next few weeks.
ANS: C
The parents should be instructed to keep a daily record of the childs urinary proteins.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Detection of Disease
17. A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis. In taking the
childs history, the nurse recognizes the probable cause of this condition as:
18. The nurse is explaining to a 17-year-old female the actions to prevent urinary tract infection.
The nurse determines the adolescent understands the information when she says a good drink to
keep urine acidic is:
a. Milk
b. Grape juice
c. Apple juice
d. Orange juice
ANS: C
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Detection of Disease
19. The 6-year-old scheduled for an orchiopexy shyly asks the nurse, What are they going to do
to me down there? The nurses best response would be:
a. They are going to fix you up down there
b. They will move your testicle from your abdomen to your scrotum.
c. What do you think your doctor is going to do?
d. You shouldnt worry. Your doctor knows exactly what to do.
ANS: C
Encourage the patient to talk about what he knows and what feelings he has about the surgery.
School-age children have a fear of bodily harm.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse caring for a newborn with exstrophy of the bladder will include in the care:
ANS: B, C, D, E
The infant is kept on his back or side with special attention to the skin around the exposed
bladder, which is constantly bathed with urine. These infants are diapered loosely, if at all.
Surgical closure is done as quickly as possible.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: dm: 663
2. The nurse caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome is alert to the classic symptoms of this
disorder, which are:
a. Proteinuria
b. Grossly bloody urine
c. Hyperalbuminemia
d. Fatigue
e. Generalized edema
ANS: A, B, D, E
All options listed are those of nephrotic syndrome with the exception of hyperalbuminemia. The
nephrotic child has hypoalbuminemia, as most of the protein has been spilled in the urine.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
COMPLETION
1. The nurse explains that the test that measures the pressure and volume of the urine stream is
called the .
ANS: uroflowmeter
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
NOT: Rationale: The test that specifically measures the dynamics of micturition is the
uroflowmeter
2. The nurse uses a diagram to show how the , the working unit of the
kidney, filters and regulates fluids.
ANS: nephron
NOT: Rationale: The nephron is the working unit of the kidney that filters and regulates fluids in
the body. There are roughly 1 million nephrons in each kidney.
3. When a childs ureter becomes completely obstructed from scarring, the nurse explains that
urinary diversion may be necessary to prevent the reflux back into the renal pelvis from causing
.
ANS: hydronephrosis
1. The nurse planning to teach a family about Tay-Sachs disease understands the pattern of
inheritance for inborn errors of metabolism is usually:
a. Autosomal recessive
b. Autosomal dominant
c. X-linked recessive
d. Multifactorial
ANS: A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
ANS: B
When insulin is deficient, the body cannot metabolize carbohydrates for energy. The body is also
unable to store and use fat properly. Incomplete fat metabolism produces ketone bodies that
accumulate in the blood.
3. The nurse caring for a child with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus plans the care
based on the understanding that:
ANS: A
4. A child receives a combination of regular and NPH insulin at 8:00 AM. At 8:45 AM, when the
breakfast trays have not yet arrived from the kitchen, the nurse should:
ANS: B
A child who receives regular insulin before meals may have an insulin reaction if food is not
eaten within 20 minutes. A snack of graham crackers and milk will prevent an episode of
hypoglycemia.
5. Although the type 1 diabetic child had her prescribed insulin at 7:30 AM, the child is
complaining of hunger and thirst and is drowsy at noon. The nurse should:
ANS: D
The immediate treatment for hyperglycemia is to give the patient more insulin. Giving more
sugar will increase the blood sugar in a hyperglycemic child. Walking exercise will use up even
more glucose.
ANS: C
Blood sugar is high after meals. The child with type 1 diabetes mellitus who skips a meal before
exercise is at risk for hypoglycemia.
7. The statement made by a 7-year-old child with diabetes mellitus that indicates a need for more
teaching is:
ANS: A
The child with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a complete insulin deficiency and will require
lifelong management of this disease. Insulin does not cure the pancreas.
8. The general dietary measure the nurse will include in a teaching plan for the child with type 1
diabetes mellitus is:
ANS: B
The nutritional needs of a child with diabetes mellitus are essentially the same as those of the
nondiabetic child, with the exception of the elimination of concentrated carbohydrates such as
sugar. Fiber has been shown to reduce blood sugar levels.
a. Somogyi syndrome
b. Insulin shock
c. Ketoacidosis
d. Water intoxication
ANS: C
In ketoacidosis the childs skin is dry and the face is flushed. Patients appear dehydrated. They
may perspire and be restless. The breath has a fruity odor, and there is no rest period between
inspiration and expiration.
10. A mother reports that her 4-month-old infant is lethargic, is sleeping 18 hours a day, and is
snoring. The nurse recognizes that these signs are characteristic of:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
d. Tay-Sachs disease
ANS: A
The infant with hypothyroidism will appear sluggish, and the tongue will be enlarged, causing
noisy respiration.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
11. An important consideration for the school-age child taking DDAVP for diabetes insipidus
would be:
ANS: C
The child with diabetes insipidus needs liberal access to bathrooms and water fountains.
12. The laboratory data indicating good metabolic control for a child with type 1 diabetes
mellitus are:
ANS: A
13. The condition the nurse suspects when a child with type 1 diabetes mellitus has
hyperglycemia, diaphoresis, and headaches in the morning is:
a. Dawn phenomenon
b. Somogyi phenomenon
c. Honeymoon effect
d. Ketoacidosis
ANS: B
The Somogyi phenomenon (rebound hyperglycemia) occurs when the blood glucose level is
lowered to the point at which the bodys counter-regulatory hormones are released, producing the
symptoms described.
14. What would be the most appropriate nursing response to a woman who says, My sister had a
child with Tay-Sachs disease. I want to know if I could have a child with this condition.
a. The disease is rare. It is unlikely that you would have a child with Tay-Sachs
disease.
b. A screening test can be done to determine if you are a carrier of the gene.
c. The gene for Tay-Sachs disease is transmitted by the father.
d. The cause of Tay-Sachs disease is thought to be an autoimmune response to a
virus.
ANS: B
Carriers can be identified by screening tests. Tay-Sachs disease has an autosomal recessive
pattern of transmission.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
15. The nurse determines a parent is administering Synthroid correctly when she states:
a. I stopped giving the medication because my daughter was losing her hair.
b. I am using a different brand now because it costs less money.
c. I dont give the medication on the weekends.
d. I give the medication at 8:00 AM everyday.
ANS: D
Synthroid should be given at the same time each day, preferably in the morning.
16. Following a closed head injury, the unconscious 10-year-old child begins to excrete copious
amounts of pale urine with an attendant drop in blood pressure. Based on these symptoms, the
nurse suspects the development of:
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyperthyroidism
ANS: A
Diabetes insipidus can be acquired as the result of a head injury or tumor, and suppression of the
posterior pituitary causes copious urine output with an attendant drop in BP. The child can
become dehydrated very quickly if some remedy is not applied.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
17. The nurse teaching parents of a child with diabetes insipidus about water intoxication would
a. Polyuria
b. Cough
c. Weight loss
d. Lethargy
ANS: D
Signs of water intoxication include edema, lethargy, nausea, and CNS signs.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
18. The parents of a child newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus tell the nurse, Our sons body is
resistant to insulin. The nurse recognizes this description as consistent with:
ANS: B
19. When teaching a 12-year-old how to administer insulin, the nurse includes the following
instruction:
ANS: C
It is easier for the child to learn to inject the needle at a 90-degree angle.
20. The nurse discussed treatment of hypoglycemia with an adolescent. The nurse determined the
adolescent understood the instructions when she verbalized that if her blood sugar is low or if she
begins to feel hungry and weak, she will:
ANS: A
The immediate treatment of hypoglycemia consists of administering sugar in some form such as
orange juice, hard candy, or a commercial product.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse explains that the endocrine system is primarily responsible for controlling the
processes of:
a. Maturation
b. Reproduction
c. Sexual identity
d. Stress response
e. Growth
ANS: A, B, D, E
The endocrine system governs maturation, reproduction, stress response, and sexual maturity.
Sexual identity is a psychosocial response.
2. The home health nurse monitoring an 8-month-old hypothyroid child taking Synthroid,
a. Tachycardia
b. Irritability
c. Vomiting
d. Weight loss
e. Diaphoresis
ANS: A, B, D, E
All the options with the exception of vomiting are indications of overdose of Synthroid.
3. The nurse warns that keeping diabetes in control in an adolescent is made difficult because of:
a. Hormonal changes
b. Developmental conflict of independence vs. dependence
c. Addiction to fast food
d. Growth spurt
e. Denial of disease
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
The adolescent who is in a growth spurt and filled with raging hormones resents and denies the
need to be dependent on a medication. Medication schedules and diet restrictions do not correlate
well with the adolescents lifestyle of eating fast foods.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse explains that the diagnosis of diabetes is made when the fasting blood glucose level
is mg/dl on two separate occasions, and the history is positive for
indication of the disease.
ANS: 126
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
NOT: Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 126 mg/dl on two separate occasions is
grounds for the diagnosis of DM when the history is positive for the disease.
2. The nurse assessing a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) test is aware that this test can evaluate
average glucose levels over a period of to
months.
ANS: 3, 4
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Obstruction within the ventricles of the brain or inadequate reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid
may be responsible for the occurrence of:
a. Meningitis
b. Meningocele
c. Spina bifida occulta
d. Hydrocephalus
ANS: D
2. The nurse caring for an infant with hydrocephalus would take special precaution to:
ANS: B
The child with hydrocephalus has a heavy head on a small body with poor muscle tone; the head
must be supported when feeding and moving the child to prevent injury to the neck.
3. The nurse observes that the infants anterior fontanelle is bulging after placement of a
ANS: D
If the fontanels are bulging, the child would be positioned in a semi-Fowlers position to promote
drainage from the ventricles through the shunt.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: dm: 322
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
4. After feeding a baby with hydrocephalus, the nurse will take special care to:
ANS: C
Because children with hydrocephalus are prone to vomiting, the child is fed and then positioned
in the side-lying position in a quiet atmosphere to reduce the incidence of vomiting.
5. A newborn was just admitted to the NICU with a meningomyelocele. The priority for
The infant is placed prone in a humidified incubator, and the sac is covered with dressings of
sterile saline. The babys hips are kept lower than the lesion, and the baby is usually not in
diapers.
6. The nurse caring for the child who has had a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus
observes an increasing abdominal girth. The most appropriate response would be to:
ANS: D
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
7. The nurse counsels the parents of a child with a cleft palate that they should be alert for signs
of:
a. Facial paralysis
b. Ear infections
c. Increasing ICP
d. Drooling
ANS: B
Children with cleft palate are at risk of ear infections and dental disorders.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
8. Postoperative nursing care of the infant following surgical repair of a cleft lip would include:
ANS: C
Elbow restraints are used postoperatively to prevent the infant from damaging the operative area.
9. The statement that indicates parents understand how to feed their infant who had surgical
repair of a cleft lip is:
ANS: A
The infant is fed with a dropper until the incision is completely healed, about 1 to 2 weeks after
surgery.
10. An 18-month-old child who has had a surgical repair of a cleft palate is now allowed to eat a
regular diet. The adjustment the nurse would make in feeding is:
a. Feed solid foods with the spoon at the side of the mouth.
b. Puree foods and offer them through a straw.
c. Place small bites of food in the mouth with a tongue blade.
d. Offer small, frequent meals of finger foods.
ANS: A
The primary concern with feeding is to protect the operative site. The child can be fed with a
spoon, but only the side of the spoon is placed into the mouth at the side of the mouth. The spoon
must not touch the roof of the mouth.
11. The nurse bathing an infant would recognize a sign of developmental hip dysplasia, which is:
ANS: B
When developmental hip dysplasia is present, the leg on the affected side will appear shorter
than the leg on the unaffected side.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
12. A 3-month-old infant is diagnosed with developmental hip dysplasia. The nurse explains that
a.PaA
vli k harness
b. A body spica cast
c. Traction
d. Triple-diapering
ANS: A
In infants more than 2 months of age, longer-term immobilization with a Pavlik harness is
required.
13. Following delivery, a mother asks the nurse about newborn screening tests. The nurse
explains that the optimal time for testing for phenylketonuria is:
ANS: B
Blood tests for phenylketonuria should be obtained 48 to 72 hours after birth. The newborn will
have had enough time to ingest protein through feedings and the chance of false-negative results
will be reduced.
14. The nurse advising parents about feeding their infant who has phenylketonuria, would
include the information to:
ANS: D
A synthetic food providing enough protein for growth and tissue repair, but little phenylalanine,
is substituted for natural protein foods.
15. Parents of a 2-month-old Down syndrome infant should be instructed, because of the
generalized hypotonicity of the child, that special attention should be given to:
a. Careful feeding
b. Respiratory care
c. Range of motion
d. Incontinent care
ANS: B
The child with Down syndrome has generalized hypotonicity, which caused mucus accumulation
and respiratory problems
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: dm: 334
16. The nurse instructing parents about positioning their toddler who has just had a body spica
cast applied would include to:
ANS: D
The childs position must be changed frequently to relieve pressure on body points and promote
circulation.
17. The nurse explains that the Rh-negative mother who should receive RhoGAM is the mother
who:
a. Has had one Rh-negative child and is pregnant with an Rh-negative child
b. Had an Rh-positive baby and is pregnant with an Rh-positive baby
c. Has had an O-negative child and is pregnant with a B-negative child
d. Is a primipara with an O-negative child
ANS: B
The only woman with antibodies against the Rh-positive baby is the Rh-negative woman who
has had one Rh-positive child and is now pregnant with another.
18. When the parents ask what the light does for their jaundiced baby, the nurse responds that the
light:
ANS: D
Severe jaundice can cause kernicterus, an accumulation of bilirubin in the brain tissue, which can
lead to serious brain damage. The light breaks down excess bilirubin so that it can be excreted.
OBJ: Objective: 12
ANS: B
A cleft lip is repaired by 3 months of age when weight gain is established and the infant is free of
infection.
20. Phototherapy is instituted for an infant with jaundice. An appropriate nursing action for the
infant with jaundice is to:
ANS: C
The infants eyes are protected with patches to prevent damage from the high-intensity lights.
OBJ: Objective: 12
TOP: Topic: Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
21. The nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother has diabetes. The nurse would assess the
neonate for:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Intracranial hemorrhage
d. Pancreatic failure
ANS: A
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nurse in the newborn nursery is watchful for neonatal abstinence syndrome in the
newborn of a crack-addicted mother, which would be manifested by:
a. Body tremors
b. Excessive sneezing
c. Hyperirritability
d. Drowsiness
e. Excessive appetite
ANS: A, B, C
The neonate with abstinence syndrome will be hyperirritable and wakeful, have excessive
sneezing or yawning, and have no appetite.
2. The nurse assesses the hydrocephalic child for increasing ICP, which would be manifested by:
a. High-pitched cry
b. Inequality of pupils
c. Bulging fontanelles
d. Diarrhea
e. Strabismus
ANS: A, B, C
Increased ICP is manifested by high-pitched cry, inequality of pupils, and bulging fontanelles.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse uses a diagram to show that when the CSF is obstructed in the subarachnoid space
rather than in the ventricles, the resulting hydrocephalus is diagnosed as
hydrocephalus.
ANS: communicating
NOT: Rationale: Communicating hydrocephalus occurs when the CFS is obstructed in the
subarachnoid space rather than in the ventricles.
2. The nurse clarifies to the parents of a child with spina bifida that their child has a portion of
the spinal cord in the sac, in addition to the meninges, which makes this defect a
.
ANS: meningomyelocele
NOT: Rationale: A spina bifida that includes a portion of the cord in the sac in addition to the
meninges is classified as a meningomyelocele.
3. The nurse demonstrates how to flush the ventriculoperitoneal shunt by the use of the
that is in place behind the babys ear.
ANS: pump
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. When teaching the mother of a young child about iron deficiency anemia, the nurse would tell
her that a rich source of iron is:
a. Egg whites
b. Cream of wheat
c. Bananas
d. Carrots
ANS: B
Good nutritional sources of iron include boiled egg yolk, liver, green leafy vegetables, cream of
wheat, dried fruits, beans, nuts, and whole-grain breads.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
2. The statement by a mother that may indicate a cause for her 9-month-old having iron
deficiency anemia is:
ANS: A
Because cows milk contains very little iron, infants should drink iron-fortified formula for the
first year of life.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
3. The nurse would instruct the parent to give ferrous sulfate drops to the child:
a. With milk
b. With orange juice
c. With water
d. On a full stomach
ANS: B
Vitamin C aids in the absorption of iron, whereas food and milk interfere with the absorption of
iron.
ANS: B
Hemophiliacs are discouraged from exercising in high altitudes and exposure to cold as this
depletes their already low oxygen concentration.
5. A 2-year-old child has been diagnosed with hemophilia A. The information the nurse would
a. If bleeding occurs, apply pressure, ice, elevate, and rest the extremity.
b. Childrens aspirin in lowered doses may be given for joint discomfort.
c. A firm, dry toothbrush should be used to clean teeth at least twice a day.
d. Do not permit interactive play with other children.
ANS: A
When bleeding occurs, the traditional approach is to follow RICErest, ice, compression, and
elevation.
6. The nurse would teach the parents of a child with a low platelet count to avoid:
a. Ibuprofen
b. Aspirin
c. Caffeine
d. Prednisone
ANS: B
Aspirin interferes with platelet function and should be avoided to prevent the risk of prolonged
bleeding.
a. Fever
b. Lethargy
c. Jaundice
d. Bradycardia
ANS: A
The child receiving a blood transfusion is observed for signs of a transfusion reaction including
chills, itching, fever, rash, headache, and back pain.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: dm: 622
8. On admission, a child with leukemia has widespread purpura and a platelet count of
19,000/mm3. The priority nursing intervention is:
ANS: A
When platelets are low, the greatest danger is spontaneous intracranial bleeding. Neurological
assessments are therefore a priority of care.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
9. An adolescent is diagnosed with Hodgkins disease. Lymph nodes on both sides of her
diaphragm have been found to be involved, including cervical and inguinal nodes. The disease is
in:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
ANS: C
Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm are consistent with a diagnosis of stage III
Hodgkins disease.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
10. A 3-year-old child with sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital in sickle cell crisis for
severe abdominal pain. The nurse recognizes that the type of crisis the child is most likely
experiencing is:
a. Aplastic
b. Hyperhemolytic
c. Vaso-occlusive
d. Splenic sequestration
ANS: C
Vaso-occlusive crises or painful crises are caused by obstruction of blood flow by sickle cells,
infarctions, and some degrees of vasospasm.
ANS: B
Prevention of dehydration, which can trigger the sickling process, is a priority goal in the care of
a child with sickle cell disease.
12. A newly married couple is seeking genetic counseling because they are both carriers of the
sickle cell trait. How can the nurse best explain their childrens risk of inheriting this disease?
a. Every fourth child will have the disease; two others will be carriers.
b. All of their children will be carriers, just as they are.
c. Each child has a one-in-four chance of having the disease and a two-in-four
chance of being a carrier.
d. The risk levels of their children cannot be determined by this information.
ANS: C
The sickle cell gene is inherited from both parents; therefore each offspring has a one-in-four
chance of inheriting the disease.
13. A child with thalassemia major receives blood transfusions frequently. The nurse is aware
that a complication of repeated blood transfusions is:
a. Hemarthrosis
b. Hematuria
c. Hemoptysis
d. Hemosiderosis
ANS: D
As a result of repeated blood transfusions, excessive deposits of iron (hemosiderosis) are stored
in tissues.
14. A child has just been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. The nurse is aware that
the result of an overproduction of immature white blood cells in the bone marrow is:
ANS: D
An overproduction of immature white blood cells increases the childs susceptibility to infection.
15. When the child receiving a transfusion complains of back pain and itching, the nurses initial
action would be to:
ANS: D
If a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the first action is to stop the blood infusion, keep the line
open with normal saline, and notify the charge nurse.
16. The nurse would include in a teaching plan about mouth care of a child receiving
chemotherapy to:
ANS: B
A soft toothbrush reduces capillary damage and mucous membrane breakdown, and prevents
bleeding and infection. Commercial mouthwashes may kill oral flora that combat infection.
Waterpiks are useful for toughening gums.
17. A 6-year-old with leukemia asks, Who will take care of me in heaven? The best response for
ANS: A
This response gives the child an opportunity to verbalize his or her feelings and concerns,
whereas the closed response in option 2 shuts off communication. The asking of a why question
is not therapeutic as it calls for justification.
18. When dealing with a preschool-age child with a life-threatening illness, the nurse should
remember that at this age the childs concept of death includes:
a. That it is final
b. Only a fear of separation from her parents
c. That a person becomes alive again soon after death
d. An understanding based on simple logic
ANS: C
19. The nurse notes that a 4-year-old childs gums bleed easily and he has bruising and petechiae
on his extremities. The lab value that would be consistent with these symptoms is:
ANS: A
The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 400,000/mm3. This finding is very low, indicating an
increased bleeding potential.
20. The nurse, caring for a child receiving chemotherapy, notes that the childs abdomen is firm
and slightly distended. Also, there is no record of a bowel movement for the last 2 days. These
assessment findings suggest the possibility of:
a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Stomatitis
c. Myelosuppression
d. Hemorrhage
ANS: A
Peripheral neuropathy may be signaled by severe constipation resulting from decreased nerve
sensations in the bowel.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
21. The nurse finds an adolescent with Hodgkins disease crying. The adolescent says, I am so
The nurse should encourage the adolescent to express her feelings and concerns.
OBJ: Objective: 20
22. The most recent blood count for a child who received chemotherapy last week shows
neutropenia. The priority nursing diagnosis for this child is:
ANS: A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
23. The nurse takes into consideration an important focus of nursing care for the dying child and
his/her family, which is:
a. Nursing care should be organized to minimize contact with the child.
b. Adequate oral intake is crucial to the dying child.
c. Families should be made aware that hearing is the last sense to stop functioning
before death.
d. It is best for the family if the nursing staff provides all of the childs care.
ANS: C
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The nursing care of a 12-year-old child receiving radiation therapy for Hodgkins disease,
should include:
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
Sun block should be applied to skin after radiation to prevent burning. Low energy levels
produce anorexia and anger in many young patients. Radiation delays the development of
secondary sex characteristics and menses.
2. The nurse reviews the classic symptoms of thalassemia major (Cooleys anemia), such as:
a. Hepatomegaly
b. Jaundice
c. Protruding teeth
d. Pathological fractures
e. Cardiac failure
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
MSC: NCLEX: Heath Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
3. The nurse reviews for a family how the development of synthetic recombinant antihemophilic
factor has improved the management of hemophilia, because this drug:
Select all that apply.
ANS: A, B, D, E
The drug can be given at home by the family. Because it supplies the missing factor, transfusions
are not necessary and consequently the exposure to HIV and hepatitis A and B is reduced. Cost
of care is greatly reduced because hospitalizations and transfusions are not as frequently
required. The drug does not prevent hemorrhage; it makes hemorrhage manageable.
4. The family of a child receiving chemotherapy for leukemia should be taught to focus on the
childs care in regard to the need to:
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
The child on chemotherapy is anorexic and has no appetite. Maintenance of hydration is essential
for the adequate therapeutic effect of the drugs. Because the drugs suppress the bone marrow,
children are at risk for infection, and the suppression will not allow the antibody response needed
for immunization. Support groups are helpful for emotional support and realistic tips on care.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse shows slides of red blood cells from a child with sickle cell anemia, noting that in
addition to their sickle shape, the cells contain the abnormal element of .
ANS: hemoglobin S
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In planning teaching to parents of a child with Legg-Calv-Perthes disease about the long-term
ANS: C
Marked distortion of the head of the femur may lead to an imperfect joint or to degenerative
arthritis of the hip later in life.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
2. The nurse caring for a child in Bucks skin traction will keep the:
ANS: B
Bucks traction is a type of skin traction that relies on the childs weight as counter-balance The
child must be kept with head elevated no more than 20 degrees, pulled up in bed, and the feet
should not touch the bed surface or the foot of the bed.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
3. When caring for a child in Bucks extension, the nurse would include:
ANS: C
The skin exposed to frequent friction may break down.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
4. The nurse reviewing the characteristics of Ewings sarcoma would point out that with Ewings
sarcoma:
ANS: B
Ewings sarcoma is sensitive to radiation therapy and chemotherapy. Amputation of the affected
extremity is not recommended. This cancer occurs in school-age children and does metastasize.
5. The nurse caring for a child with Duchennes muscular dystrophy notes a characteristic
manifestation, which is that the child:
Frequent falling and clumsiness are clinical manifestations of Duchennes muscular dystrophy.
6. The nurse assessing a child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis notes the childs right knee and
ankle are swollen, warm, and tender. This finding is suggestive of the type of juvenile
rheumatoid arthritis.
a. Pauciarticular
b. Polyarticular
c. Systemic
d. Acute febrile
ANS: A
The pauciarticular form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is limited to four joints or fewer.
7. The nurse is providing instructions about how to treat a sprained ankle. The nurse will
recognize the need for additional teaching when the mother states:
Heat is not a treatment for soft tissue injuries. The principles of managing soft tissue injuries are
rest, ice, compression, and elevation.
8. The nurse explains that Russell traction is a type of skin traction that:
ANS: D
Russell traction is skin traction, similar to Bucks traction, with a sling positioned under the knee,
which prevents subluxation of the tibia. Although the traction interferes with full ROM, the
patient can change position without disrupting the continuous pull in two directions.
9. The nurse who is checking for capillary refill on a child in Bryants traction will record
adequate perfusion if the toe regains color in seconds
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
ANS: A
10. The parent of a child with osteomyelitis asks why his child is in so much pain. The nurses
response will be based on the understanding that the pain of osteomyelitis is caused by:
ANS: B
Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone. Inflammation produces an exudate that collects under
the marrow and cortex of the bone. The vessels are compressed and thrombosis occurs,
producing ischemia and pain.
11. A child hospitalized for treatment of osteomyelitis complains that he is tired of being sick
and wants to know when the antibiotic protocol will end. The nurse responds that antibiotic
therapy will probably last for:
a. 2 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 2 months
d. 3 months
ANS: B
Because osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone, antibiotics are given intravenously for 4 to 6
weeks.
12. The nurse, assessing the neurovascular status of a child in Russell traction, should report
immediately the finding of:
ANS: D
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
13. When a 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with functional scoliosis, the nurse would explain the
spinal curvature defect is usually caused by:
a. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
b. Poor posture
c. Heredity
d. Myelomeningocele
ANS: B
Functional scoliosis usually is caused by poor posture, and it is not a spinal disease.
a. Ask the child to bend forward at the waist, and would observe the childs back for
asymmetry
b. Observe the gait while the child is walking forward heel to toe
c. Have the child flex the knees and look for uneven knee height
d. Look at the childs shoulders and hips while fully clothed
ANS: A
The nurse looks at the back, as the child bends forward, for general body alignment and
asymmetry.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
15. The nurse caring for a child in Bryants traction knows that the risk of serious complications
will be reduced by ensuring that:
a. Neurovascular checks are done frequently
b. Ace bandages are wrapped tightly
c. The baby is restrained from rolling over
d. The childs buttocks are resting on the bed
ANS: A
The nurse caring for a child in traction must be alert for Volkmanns ischemia, which occurs
when circulation is obstructed.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
16. The interventions that would be helpful in relieving morning discomfort associated with
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis would be:
ANS: B
Application of moist heat, with a compress or by tub bath upon awakening, will help to lessen
stiffness.
ANS: C
A Milwaukee brace is worn approximately 23 hours a day over a T-shirt that protects the skin.
18. The observation that may cause the nurse to consider the possibility of child abuse when a
mother says that her young child fell down the basement stairs is:
a. The child has red, green, and yellow bruises on his body.
b. The childs bruises are dispersed on his head, arms, and legs.
c. The child had a broken arm last year and is described as accident prone.
d. The childs mother is very anxious for her son to get medical attention.
ANS: A
As bruises heal, they change color in stages. Different colors of bruises indicate that injuries
have not all occurred at the same time. The nurse must consider whether the bruises match the
caretakers explanation of what happened.
19. A 6-year-old sustained a fractured femur and was put in Russell traction 2 days ago. She
screams in pain when she raises herself onto the bedpan. The nursing diagnosis that takes highest
priority for this child is:
ANS: A
Although all of these nursing diagnoses are relevant to the child in traction, pain resulting from
muscle spasm and tissue trauma is the highest priority.
20. The nurse notes as an abnormal finding on a musculoskeletal assessment of a 4-year-old that
the child:
ANS: B
21. The nurse understands a difference in the childs skeletal system as compared to an adults is:
ANS: B
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
ANS: A, B, D, E
Tractions are designed to immobilize and pull limbs into extension. Traction can also align
broken bones and decrease muscle spasm. Although some tractions may relieve pain, many
tractions may actually cause pain.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
a. Pulse quality
b. Degree of sensation
c. Color quality
d. Capillary refill
e. Degree of movement
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
All options listed are integral components of the neurovascular assessment that is done to ensure
adequate perfusion to a limb in traction.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
COMPLETION
1. The nurse explains that Bryants traction is reserved for children who weigh less than
pounds.
ANS: 40
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
NOT: Rationale: Bryants traction is a skin traction used in the treatment of orthopedic disorders
of young children who weigh less than 40 pounds. Greater weight would cause excessive
counterbalance and injury to soft tissues.
2. The nurse reminds the adolescent boy with Ewings sarcoma that he is prohibited from
vigorous weight-bearing during treatment with radiation to reduce the risk of a
fracture.
ANS: pathological
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
NOT: Rationale: The bone has lost its integrity because of the cancer and the following radiation.
Excessive or vigorous weight bearing can cause a pathological fracture of the compromised
bone.
3. The child with Duchennes muscular dystrophy must push on his legs and walk up the leg in
order to rise to a standing position. The nurse recognizes this characteristic behavior as
maneuver.
ANS: Gowers
NOT: Rationale: Gowers maneuver is a unique way of rising from the floor by walking up the
leg in order to get the upper body erect.
ANS: compartment
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The nurse is careful to apply only the prescribed amount of ointment to the skin of a 2-month-
old because the infants skin, compared to the adults, has:
a. Less perfusion
b. Greater moisture
c. More perspiration
d. Greater absorption
ANS: D
The childs skin has a dramatically greater ability to absorb than does that of the adult.
2. The nurse takes into consideration that children who have been diagnosed with infantile
eczema have an increased risk of:
a. Pneumonia
b. Acne
c. Sun sensitivity
d. Asthma
ANS: D
Some children with eczema also develop asthma and hay fevertype allergies.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
3. The appropriate technique for the application of a topical treatment for a child with eczema is:
ANS: B
The prescribed amount of ointment is usually applied to the skin by a gloved hand in long,
smooth strokes. Lanolin-based preparations should be avoided because of a possible allergy to
wool.
4. When the 2-day-old infant is noted to have small pustules on her skin, the nurse should:
ANS: A
A staphylococcal infection can spread readily from one infant to another. Small pustules on the
newborn must be reported immediately.
5. The home health nurse discovers a family infected with pediculosis and helps the mother
understand ways to start eradication of the lice, such as:
ANS: C
Combing a vinegar/water solution through the hair with a fine-tooth comb and then shampooing
is an initial step toward eradication.
6. A group of football players is taking oral griseofulvin for tinea pedis. The school nurse
cautions that while they are taking this medication they should avoid:
ANS: C
7. Before the 17-year-old boy starts a protocol of Accutane for his acne, the nurse should instruct
him to:
ANS: A
Oral contraceptives are prescribed to young males to reduce androgens, which make the skin
greasy.
ANS: C
A full-thickness burn involving 10% or more of the body surface is considered a major burn.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
9. A child had a burn evidenced by pink skin and blistering. The child complains of pain and is
crying. The nurse documents the burn as:
a. First-degree
b. Second-degree superficial
c. Second-degree deep dermal
d. Third-degree
ANS: B
A second-degree superficial burn appears blistered, moist, and pink or red. The pain associated
with this burn indicates tissue viability.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
10. The best first action to take when a child sustains a second-degree deep thermal burn to the
hand is to:
ANS: A
First-aid treatment of a second-degree deep thermal burn is immersion of the burned area in
water to halt the burning process.
11. An allergy to which of the following would contraindicate the use of Silvadene as a topical
agent for burns?
a. Penicillin
b. Iodine
c. Tetanus immunizations
d. Sulfa
ANS: D
The use of Silvadene cream on burns is contraindicated if the patient has a sulfa allergy.
12. Which of the following would help the child with a serious burn meet nutritional needs
during the subacute phase of recovery?
a. Decrease calories because the child will be on bed rest and will not need as many.
b. Increase calories and protein to compensate for the healing process.
c. Increase fat to replace the layer of fat next to the burned skin.
d. Decrease carbohydrates and starches because the pancreas is strained by the
healing process.
ANS: B
Frequent meals and snacks high in calories, protein, and iron are needed to meet the increased
metabolic needs of the child with burns.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
13. The statement made by a parent indicating an understanding of the topical application of
medications for a skin condition is:
ANS: A
Absorption of topical medications is best when preparations are applied after a warm bath.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 681 OBJ: 9
14. On the first day postburn the bodys fluid reserves have left the circulating volume and
entered the interstitial space, causing massive edema. The nurse monitors the burn victim very
closely for:
ANS: B
With the fluid shift associated with severe burns, the nurse must be observant for the reduction of
urine, an indication of altered renal function.
15. At a 2-month well-child visit, parents ask the nurse about the red area on the babys neck.
They tell the nurse that the mark appeared a few weeks after birth. The nurse recognizes this skin
lesion as a(n):
The strawberry nevus is a common hemangioma consisting of dilated capillaries in the dermal
space, which may not become apparent for a few weeks after birth.
16. A mother is concerned about what might have caused a heat rash on her infant. The nurse
observes tiny pinhead-sized reddened papules on the infants neck and axilla. The nurse explains
the cause of this rash is most likely:
a. Sun exposure
b. Allergic reaction
c. Infection
d. Heat and moisture
ANS: D
Miliaria, or prickly heat rash, is caused by excess body heat and moisture.
17. What is the correct nursing response to a mother who asks, How can I get rid of the babys
cradle cap?
a. Rub baby oil on the infants head at night and shampoo the hair the next morning.
b. Use a brush with firm bristles to loosen the scales on the babys head several times
a day.
c. Wash the babys head every night with a dandruff-control shampoo.
d. Lubricate the babys head every morning with a small amount of olive oil.
ANS: A
Scales may be softened by applying baby oil to the head the evening before, and shampooing the
hair in the morning.
18. The statement made by a parent, indicating the need for further teaching about strategies to
control itching for the infant with eczema, is:
ANS: A
Clothing should be made of cotton. Wool is avoided because of its allergy potential.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
19. When teaching about general skin care measures that could help prevent acne, the nurse
would include:
ANS: D
General hygienic measures of cleanliness, rest, and avoidance of emotional stress may help
prevent exacerbations.
20. When the nurse caring for a patient with severe frostbite observes a purple flush on the hands
and feet, the nurse should:
ANS: D
A purple flush indicates the return of sensation and causes extreme pain.
ANS: A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
22. The adolescent girl whose acne is being treated with an antibiotic in addition to topical
applications is cautioned by the nurse to expect:
ANS: D
a. Diverticulitis
b. Stress diarrhea
c. Curlings ulcer
d. Perforated bowel
ANS: C
Curlings ulcer is a complication of burn victims resulting from the stress of their trauma.
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
24. A child is brought to the emergency department with severe frostbite. The body parts that
should be warmed first are:
ANS: D
In extreme cases of exposure to freezing temperatures, the head and torso should be warmed
before the extremities.
a. Scabies
b. Pediculosis capitis
c. Tinea corporis
d. Eczema
ANS: A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. To avoid diaper rash, the nurse would offer instruction to the parents to:
a. Use emollients.
b. Expose perineum to light and air periodically.
c. Use disposable diapers frequently.
d. Avoid plastic pants.
e. Change diaper frequently.
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
Keeping the skin dry and protected with emollients, changing the diaper frequently, and avoiding
plastic pants will prevent diaper rash.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 678 OBJ: N/A
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance: Prevention and Early Detection of Disease
2. The nurse, speaking to a group of junior high school students, informs them that acne can be
exacerbated by such drugs as:
a. Steroids
b. Dilantin
c. Phenobarbital
d. Aspirin
e. Oral contraceptives
ANS: A, B, C
Long-term use of steroids, Dilantin, phenobarbital, lithium, and vitamin B12 can cause acne.
COMPLETION
1. The nurse recognizes the blisters and erythema of the hands of a person recovering from
frostbite as the skin disorder called .
ANS: chilblain
NOT: Rationale: After exposure to cold, blisters appear on the hands and feet that are similar to a
burn. These are called chilblains.
2. The nurse differentiates a type of topical medication that is an oil-based emulsion to be used
on dry skin as a(n) .
ANS: ointment
NOT: Rationale: Ointments are oil-based emulsions that are used on dry skin.
3. A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a second-degree burn of his
entire right arm and hand, anterior trunk and genital area, and front of right thigh. The nurse
assesses the BSA percentage burn as .
ANS: 26%
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The nurse takes into consideration that the child most susceptible to an opportunistic infection
is the one taking:
a. Anticonvulsants
b. A beta-adrenergic agent
c. An antibiotic
d. Corticosteroids
ANS: D
Steroids are immunosuppressive drugs that make the child very susceptible to opportunistic
infections.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
2. When the 8-year-old asks the nurse how she got the antibodies that kept her from getting
a. Were borrowed antibodies from another person who had whooping cough
b. Gave her a tiny case of whooping cough and then she made her own antibodies
c. Strengthened antibodies she was born with
d. Are only temporary borrowed antibodies and she needs to have another shot
every 5 years
ANS: B
Vaccines contain live weakened or dead organisms not strong enough to cause disease but they
stimulate the body to develop an immune reaction and antibodies. This is active acquired
immunity.
3. The nurse would document a rash that has erythematous circular raised lesions as:
a. Macular
b. Papular
c. Vesicular
d. Pustular
ANS: B
4. The nurse would delay the administration of DTaP when the mother says that her infant:
a. Has diarrhea
b. Had a temperature of 105 F from the previous inoculation
c. Is teething
d. Is traveling with her to Europe in a week
ANS: B
A contraindication to giving the DTaP vaccine is a 105 F temperature following the previous
vaccination.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
5. The type of precaution that is necessary when caring for a toddler with varicella is:
a. Contact
b. Protective
c. Airborne infection
d. Large droplet infection
ANS: C
Airborne-infection precautions are used for patients with conditions such as tuberculosis,
varicella, and rubeola. Small airborne particles caught on floating dust in the room can be
inhaled from anywhere in the room.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
6. A parent is concerned because her son was exposed to varicella at preschool. The nurse would
tell this parent that the incubation period for varicella is:
a. 2 to 10 days
b. 4 to 14 days
c. 3 to 32 days
d. 14 to 21 days
ANS: D
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
7. The nurse can be assured that parents understand how long a child who has varicella is
contagious when they state:
a. My child should stay home from school for 6 days after the pox appear.
b. My child can return to school when the rash fades.
c. My child must stay away from other children until all of the lesions have healed.
d. My child is contagious as long as he has a fever.
ANS: A
The child with varicella is contagious for 6 days after the appearance of the rash.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
8. The statement made by a sexually active adolescent girl indicating an understanding of the
prevention of sexually transmitted diseases is:
ANS: C
The use of condoms to prevent STDs is not considered 100% effective but is recommended for
sexual intercourse.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: dm: 725
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
9. The priority nursing diagnosis for a hospitalized infant who is HIV-positive would be:
ANS: D
The infant who is HIV-positive has impaired immunologic functioning and is at high risk for
infection.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
10. A parent of a newborn asked the nurse, When will my baby get the hepatitis B vaccine? The
nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the first dose of Comvax should be given to infants
born to a hepatitis B-negative mother at:
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
ANS: B
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that Comvax, the only thimerosal-free
hepatitis B vaccine, should be used for infants born to HBsAg-negative mothers beginning at the
2-month well-child visit.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
11. The nurse would base a response to a parent about how his child got hepatitis A on the
ANS: D
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
12. An infant is hospitalized for RSV bronchiolitis. Which type of precautions would the nurse
use when caring for the infant?
a. Large-droplet infection precautions
b. Airborne-infection precautions
c. Contact precautions
d. Protective precautions
ANS: C
Contact precautions are used when the condition transmits organisms via skin-to-skin contact or
indirect touch of a contaminated fomite.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
13. A 9-year-old child hospitalized for neutropenia is placed in protective isolation. What is the
most appropriate response for the nurse to make when the child asks, Why do you have to wear a
gown and mask when you are in my room?
a. Nurses and doctors wear gowns and masks because you have a condition that
could be spread to others.
b. The gown and mask are to protect you because you could get an infection very
easily.
c. Im wearing this because there are a lot of bacteria in the hospital.
d. I might look scary but you wont need this after you have had medication for 24
hours.
ANS: B
Protective isolation is used for patients who are not communicable but have a lowered resistance
and are highly susceptible to infection.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
14. The nurse is planning to administer immunizations at a well-child visit when a parent reports
the 18-month-old child is allergic to eggs. The vaccine that would be contraindicated is:
a. Influenza
b. Inactivated polio vaccine
c. Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis
d. Hepatitis B
ANS: A
The influenza vaccine should not be given to children who have an allergy to eggs.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
15. The nurse would choose to administer the immunization injection of:
a. DTaP subcutaneously
b. Hib vaccine prepared in a separate syringe
c. Varicella intramuscularly
d. Varicella 1 week after the MMR vaccine
ANS: B
Hib vaccine must be given in a separate syringe from other vaccines administered at the same
time.
16. A child was sent to the school nurse because of a rash. The nurse noted the rash was present
on the trunk, extremities, and face. The childs cheeks were bright red. The nurse is aware this
a. Measles
b. Roseola
c. Varicella
d. Fifth disease
ANS: D
When a child has fifth disease, the child has a generalized rash and the cheeks have a slapped
cheek appearance.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
17. The nurse determined the parent understood the information when he stated:
ANS: D
People should keep skin covered by wearing protective clothing in wooded areas to prevent tick
bites.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
18. An adolescent is taking tetracycline for a sexually transmitted disease. The nurse would
stress in the instruction about this medication to:
ANS: A
The nurse would teach the adolescent to take all of the prescribed medication to avoid making
the microorganism resistant to tetracyclines.
19. The nurse explains to the parents that their child is in the prodromal stage of varicella. This
means that the child:
ANS: B
The prodromal stage is the initial stage of the communicable disease in which the child is
infected and contagious, but does not yet have outward signs of the disease.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. In giving care, the nurse is aware that safe handling of body substances is essential. Body
a. Emesis
b. Saliva
c. Feces
d. Semen
e. Blood
ANS: A, B, C, D, E
All the options listed are considered body substances that are moist secretions capable of
containing microorganisms.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
2. The well-child clinic nurse will prepare to give a healthy 2-month-old inoculations for:
a. DTaP
b. Hib
c. IPV
d. MMR
e. PCV
ANS: A, B, C, E
All the options are the expected inoculations of a healthy 2-month-old with the exception of
MMR. Mumps, measles, rubella are not expected until the child is 1-year-old.
MSC: NCLEX: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control