Have no fear potter prep

is here!
Brace yourself!
Q1: Some microorganisms show similar features with gram
staining.

Which organism does not show the

features in the picture?

A. E. coli
B. Pseudomonas sp.
C. Klebsiella sp.
D. Corynebacterium sp.
Q2: Some microorganisms show similar features with gram
staining but when grown on culture media can be
differentiated. What is the difference observed for E.
coli and Klebsiella sp.
A. Both are gram -ve bacilli
B. E.coli is lactose fermenting and
Klebsiella sp. is non lactose
fermenting
C. Klebsiella colonies are pink, large
and mucoid and E.coli colonies are
pink and dry
D. They are the same organism just
different names
Q3: Bacteria are known to grow on different agar
plates.

Which organisms show the feature

observed on the blood agar plate?

A. Pseudomonas
B. Proteus sp
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. E. coli
Q4: Bacteria have different morphologies when
observed under the microscope
What is the most likely staining and
morphology of the organisms shown on
the agar plate?

A. Gram +ve cocci

B. Gram -ve cocci
C. Gram +ve bacilli
D. Gram -ve bacilli
Q5: Other staining techniques such as capsule
staining can be used to identify microorganisms

Using the picture identify the organism

shown

A. Klebsiella sp
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Helicobacter sp
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q6: Different organisms can be grown on different
agar plate
What is the name of the plate shown?

A. Hilton hotel
B. Mueller- Hilton
C. Mueller-Hinton
D. MacConkey
Q7:Some bacteria can be grown on the Mueller
hinton plate
Which of the following organisms is used
in the plate?

A. E. coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Streptococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
Q8: Which of the pictures below is correct for
Helicobacter sp.

A C

B D
Q9: Bacteria have similar morphologies but show are
differentiated when grown on agar plates
Identify the organism shown and its
description when grown on a blood agar
plate
A. Bacillus cereus showing Haemolysis
(β),Colonies are large, grey and dry
B. Staphylococcus aureus showing
Haemolysis (β)
C. Streptococcus pyogenes showing
haemolysis (β), Colonies are small,
off-white.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes showing
haemolysis (β), gram +ve diplococci
Q10: Parasitology is concerned with the study of
parasitic organisms that make up families and further
divided into phylum
To which phylum does the organism
shown belong

A. Apicomplexa
B. Ciliophora
C. Cestoda
D. Sarcomastigophora
Q11: Most bacteria have different phases of their life
cycles

Identify the organism shown

and choose the correct phase in
its life cycle

A. Egg → Larvae
B. Cyst → Egg
C. Trophozoite → Cyst
D. Larvae → Trophozoite
Q12: Helminths are the parasitic worms which is
divided into platyhelminthes and nemathelminthes
The phylum is subdivided into
classes. Identify the organism and its
class

A. Clonorchis sinensis, class

trematoda
B. Trichuris trichiura, class
nematoda
C. Taenia solium, class cestoda
D. Ancylostoma spp, class
nematoda
Q13:Heterogenic association is the association
between individuals of different genotypes

What type of interaction is depicted

between termites and flagellates?

A. Parasitic
B. Neutralism
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalism
Q14: Parasitic organisms make up families, phylum
classes and genus
Identify the organism and the division it
belongs

A. Demodex folliculorum - class

arachnida
B. Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus -
phylum acanthocephala
C. Macracanthomhynchus hirudinaceus
- phylum arachnida
D. Macracanthrychus hirudinaceus -
phylum acanthocephala
Q15: Parasitic organisms make up families, phylum
classes and genus
Which of the following does not belong to this class

A B C D
Q16: Below shows the staining and agar plate of an
microorganism. Its species is just one of the many
normal flora in humans
This organism can be found in
all but:

A. Urethra
B. Upper intestinal tract
C. Upper respiratory tract
D. Conjunctivae
Q17: Five different classes of immunoglobulins exist,
isotypes are determined by the heavy chains
Identify the antibody shown

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
Q18: Certain chemicals can cause cleavage at
different points
What reaction causes this cleavage?

A. Proteolytic cleavage with pepsin

B. Proteolytic treatment with
papain
C. Proteolytic cleavage with
pepsinogen
D. Proteolytic treatment with
papsin
Q19: Antibodies can be identified by their shapes

Choose the correct statement about

the antibody shown

A. Crosses the placenta

B. Found in tears, saliva, GIT
secretions
C. Found mainly bound to mast cells,
eosinophils and basophils
D. Expressed in the plasma
membranes of immature
B-lymphocytes
Q20: Antibodies circulate in the blood and may
increase at different times.

Identify the pair of antibodies X

shown in the graph for these
specific responses
Y
A. X - IgM; Y - IgA
B. X - IgG; Y - Ig D
C. X - IgG; Y - IgM
D. X - IgD; Y - IgA
Q21: There are many patterns of inflammation.
Which of theses is not apart of the suppurative inflammation?

A B C D
Q22: Antibodies consists of light and heavy chains
that are variable allowing each isozyme to be diverse.

The green chain represents the light

chain. This consists of :

A. Kappa and Lambda types

B. Only kappa type or only lambda
type
C. Gamma and kappa types
D. Only Delta type or only lambda type
Q23: Antibodies are present in different
concentrations in the bloodstream and different times
Choose the correct statement for the
antibody shown?

A. Present in monomeric or dimeric

forms
B. Implicated in hypersensitivity
reactions
C. Crosses the placenta
D. Pentameric structure confers
increases overall avidity
Q24: Through cell adaptation via growth and
differentiation your body can respond to stress
Identify the type of adaptation expressed
in the micrograph

A. Hyperplasia
B. Squamous metaplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Columnar metaplasia
Q25: Necrosis is the sum of morphological changes
that follow cell death in living tissues or organs and
has many types

Identify the type of necrosis shown.

A. Caseous
B. Liquification
C. Coagulative
D. Gangrenous
Q26: Through cell adaptation via growth and
differentiation your body can respond to stress
What type of cellular adaptation is
occuring in the micrograph

A. Hyperplasia
B. Squamous metaplasia
C. Endometrial hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
Q27: Tumor differentiation is the extent to which
tumor cells resemble the parenchymal cells of the
mature tissue/organ from which they are derived.

What would be the most likely

classification of this neoplasm

A. Well- differentiated
B. Moderately differentiated
C. Poorly differentiated
D. Undifferentiated
Q28: Tumors can be placed into 2 main groups
benign or malignant
What would be the most likely
classification of the picture shown

A. Cancer
B. Benign
C. Malignant
D. Adenoma
Q29: the tube shown contains no anticoagulant

What is the most appropriate time for clot

retraction to occur

A. 30mins
B. 1hr
C. 20hr
D. 48hrs
 Q30: A clinician requests a stat electrolyte analysis.
Which of the following tubes would you use and choose the correct contents of teh
tubes

No anticoagulant Heparin Lithium heparin Trisodium citrate

A B C D
Q31: In a chemical pathology there is a colour system
for particular tubes specific for the type of tests
requested.
What does the tube contain and its mechanism of
action?

A. Heparin - Inhibits conversion of prothrombin to

thrombin
B. EDTA - Chelating agent, binds to Ca ions
preventing coagulation
C. Sodium fluoride - Inhibits enolase enzyme
involved in glycolysis
D. Binds Ca preventing clotting cascade
Q32: The ensure all equipment are clean different
sterilisations techniques are required.
How would you sterilise the
equipment shown?

A. Autoclave
B. Bactericidal
C. X-ray radiation
D. Gamma radiation
Q33: A urine analysis can be done using a multiple
urine dipstick test
All but _______ can be observed
within 60sec using the dipstick test

A. Leukocytes
B. pH
C. Specific gravity
D. bilirubin
Q34: Leukemia is a group of cancers that usually
begin in the bone marrow and result in high numbers
of abnormal white blood cells. It can be acute or
chronic

Identify the type of Leukaemia on the

blood smear

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia

B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
C. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
D. Chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia
Q35: Leukemia is a group of cancers that usually
begin in the bone marrow and result in high numbers
of abnormal white blood cells. It can be acute or
chronic
Identify the type of Leukaemia on the
blood smear

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia

B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia-smudge
cells
C. Chronic myeloid leukaemia-
peripheral smear
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Q36: Lymphoma is cancer that begins in
infection-fighting cells of the immune system, called
lymphocytes.
The cell shown is a characteristic of:

A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
C. Non - Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Lymphomas
Q37: Leukaemias are classed as acute or chronic

What is the type if leukaemia shown?

A. Acute myeloid leukaemia

B. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
C. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
D. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
Q38: Some blood disorders or abnormalities can be
differentiated from one another under the
microscope
What are the arrows pointing to?

A. Platelets
B. Sickle cells
C. Spherocytes
D. Ovalocytes
Q39: Timeline for natural history of disease
progression
Match the following with the letters from A - D A. 1,2,3,4
1. Usual time of diagnosis B. 2,1,3,4
2. Stage of subclinical disease C. 2,4,3,1
3. Onset of symptoms D. 4, 2,3,1
4. State of recovery, disability or death

A B
Q40: Epidemiology deals with the incidence,
distribution, and possible control of diseases.
fill in the boxes with the words
provided from T-X. Words can be T

used more than once.

U
1. Cure
2. Incidence
V
3. Prevalence
4. Mortality A. 6,2,3,4,1
5. Morbidity B. 4,5,1,7,1
C. 1,3,6.2.7
6. Recurrence D. 4,2,6,3,5
E. None match W X
7. transmission
BONUS ROUND!!!
Q41: Through cell adaptation via growth and
differentiation your body can respond to stress
What type of cellular adaptation is
occuring in the micrograph

A. Hyperplasia
B. Squamous metaplasia
C. Endometrial hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
Q42: Parasites can be placed into different
subgroups based on their appearance
To which does the organism belong:

A. Mastigophora
B. Apicomplexa
C. Arachnida
D. Insecta
Q43: All organism exist within environments with
other species and so can interact
What type of interaction is
expressed between the 2 species
shown

A. Neutralism
B. Mutualism
C. Commensalism
D. Parasitism
Q44: Transmission or infectious microorganism can
occur in many ways.

What is being displayed in

the picture

A. Vector borne
transmission
B. Herd immunity
C. Epidemic
D. Airborne transmission
Q45: fungal infections are caused by specific
organism and each are of different characteristics

The organism that causes the illness

shown is a:

A. Yeast
B. Yeast-like
C. Mold
D. Dimorphic
Q46: The body uses specific cells for particular
foreign invaders for different immune responses
Which of the following will be the first choice in an acute inflammatory response

A B C D
Q47: Fungal infections are classified by the tissue
levels colonised and include types.
Which of the taenia species causes the
illness and of which type shown

A. Pedis - Subcutaneous
B. Corporis - Cutaneous
C. Versicolor - Superficial
D. Nigra - Systemic
Q48: Each microorganism has its own life cycle
Choose the correct path for the organism

A B