Test Date: 16/04/2020 Phase-III

C
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs MM : 300

for

Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 25 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-II : This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a
numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
marking for wrong answer.

. PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION - I (3) The ratio depends on the speed of the
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains truck.
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 (4) They are the same.

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer :
1. A moving truck crashes into a stationary car.
The truck’s mass is ten times that of the car.
How does the magnitude of the force exerted
by the truck on the car compare with that
exerted by the car on the truck?
(1) The force the truck exerts on the car is
ten times bigger.
(2) The force the truck exerts on the car is
ten times smaller.
2. A man sits in the back of a canoe in still
water. He then moves to the front of the
canoe and sits there. Afterwards the canoe.
(Neglect the friction force between canoe and
water.)
(1) Is forward of its original position and
moving forward
(2) Is rearward of its original position and
moving forward
(3) Is rearward of its original position and not
moving
(4) Is rearward of its original position and
moving backward

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Test-12_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III

3. A surveyor’s 30 m steel tape is correct at 7. A force F acts tangentially at the highest point
68°F. On a hot day the tape has expanded to of a disc of mass m kept on a rough
30.02 m. On that day, the tape indicates a horizontal plane. If the disc rolls without
distance of 15.02 m between two points. The slipping, then the acceleration of centre of
distance between these points is disc is
approximately. F

(1) 15.00 m (2) 15.01 m

(3) 15.03 m (4) 15.04 m

2F 10F
(1) (2)
4. Find the x and y-coordinates of the center of 3m 7m

gravity of a 4.00 ft by 8.00 ft uniform sheet of 4F

(3) Zero (4)
plywood with the upper right quadrant 3m

removed as shown in figure. 8. L-shaped rigid rod is hanged from support as

shown in figure. Length of each limb is L and
mass M. Angle  in equilibrium will be

L


(1) (2, 1) (2) (2.5, 1.5)

L
 10 5  M
(3) (4, 2) (4)  , 
 3 3

(1) (2) Zero
5. A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that 4

its velocity varies as v = .s2/3, where  is a  1 3

(3) tan−1   (4) tan−1  
3 4
constant and s is the distance travelled. The
total work done by all the forces acting as the 9. Consider the identical conducting spheres

locomotive during first t second after the start labelled A, B and C shown in the drawing.

of motion is The spheres are initially charged as shown on

the left, then wires are connected and
1 m. 6 .t 4
(1) m 4 t 2 (2) disconnected in a sequence shown. What is
8 162
the final charge on sphere C at the end of the
m 6 .t 4 m t 4 2 sequence?
(3) (4)
81 2

6. The potential energy of a particle of mass 1

kg, which is free to move along the x-axis is
4 2
given by U(x) = (x – 5x ) J. If total
mechanical energy given was 36 J, its
maximum speed during its motion would be
nearly

(1) 2 m/s (2) 20 m/s (1) +Q (2) +Q/2

(3) 9 m/s (4) 15 m/s (3) +Q/3 (4) +2Q

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III Test-12_ (Code-C)
10. Two particles 1 and 2 are moving with 14. Rectilinear motion of a particle is defined by
velocities v1 = 4iˆ – 3 ˆj m/s and v 2 = biˆ – jˆ m/s the equation V = (x2 + 2x + 3) m/s (where V is

respectively. The position vectors of the velocity). The acceleration of the particle
when x = 1 m is
particles at time t = 0 are r1 = 5iˆ + 2 jˆ m and
(1) 4 ms–2 (2) 6 ms–2
r2 = –4iˆ – 4 jˆ m . If they collide at t = 3 s, the

value of b is (3) 12 ms–2 (4) 24 ms–2

15. In the circuit shown in figure

10
(1) (2) 5
3

(3) –1 (4) 7

11. A system S receives heat continuously from

an electrical heater of power 10 W. The
temperature of S becomes constant at 50°C (1) Current in wire AF is 1 A
when the surrounding temperature is 20°C.
(2) Current in wire CD is 1 A
After the heater is switched off, S cools from
(3) Current in wire BE is 2 A
35.1°C to 34.9°C in 1 minute. The heat
capacity of S is (4) None of these

16. A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m

(1) 100 J/°C (2) 300 J/°C
is placed on a rough horizontal plane surface so
(3) 750 J/°C (4) 1500 J/°C that the ring does not slip on the surface. The
12. Two persons of equal weight are hanging by ring carries a current i = 4 A. A horizontal
their hands from the ends of a light rope hung magnetic field B = 10 T is switched on at time
over a frictionless pulley. They begin to climb t = 0 The initial angular acceleration of the
the rope. One person can climb with twice the ring will be
speed of the other (with respect to the rope).
40
Who will get to the top first? (1) (  − 1) rad/s2
3

(1) The faster climber 50

(2) (  − 1) rad/s2
3
(2) The slower climber
20
(3) Both will get to the top simultaneously (3) (  − 1) rad/s2
3
(4) Nothing can be said as it is indeterminate
(4) 10 (  − 1) rad/s2
13. A uniform chain has mass M and length L. It
17. Five point charges (+q each) are placed at
is lying on a smooth horizontal table with half
the five vertices of a regular hexagon of side
of its length hanging vertically downward. The
2a. What is the magnitude of the net electric
work done in pulling the chain up the table is
field at the centre of the hexagon?
(1) MgL/2
1 q q
(1) (2)
(2) MgL/4 40 a2 160a2

(3) MgL/8
2q 5q
(3) (4)
(4) MgL/16 40 a2 160a 2

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Test-12_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III

18. A particle is projected upwards with a

velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 37° with the
vertical. The time when the particle will move
perpendicular to its initial direction is (g = 10
m/s2, tan 53° = 4/3)

(1) 10 s (2) 12.5 s

(3) 15 s (4) 16 s

19. The velocity versus time graph of a linear

motion is shown in the figure. The
22. A charge +2q moves vertically upwards with
displacement of the particle in first 8 s is speed v, a second charge –q moves
horizontally to the right with the same speed
v, and a third charge +q moves horizontally to
the right with the same speed v. The point P
is located at perpendicular distance a away
from each charge as shown in the figure. If
N 0 qV
magnetic field at point P is , then
4 a2
(1) 18 m (2) 16 m find value if N

(3) 8 m (4) 6 m

20. The velocity (v ) of a projectile varies with

time t is v (t ) = 3iˆ + (4 − 6t ) jˆ , the displace-

ment along x-axis of projectile (when

displacement along y-axis will be zero) would 23. In the given circuit, If XL = XC = R = 1, then
be value of Irms (In Amp) is
(1) 4 unit (2) 2 unit

(3) 6 unit (4) 3 unit

SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 5 questions. The answer to each question
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, 24. In a series LCR circuit, the frequencies f1 and
f2 at which the current amplitude falls to
enter the correct numerical value (in decimal
1/ 2 of the current amplitude at resonance
notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
N R
are separated by frequency interval ,
decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 10 L
30.27, −27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen find N

virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to
enter the answer.
21. The equivalent resistance in  between point
25. A small object is enclosed in a sphere of solid
glass, 8 cm in radius. It is situated 2 cm from
centre and is viewed from the side to which it
is nearest. If it appears from the surface of

A and B in the given circuit if value of R = 4  the glass ( of glass is 1.5) at a distance of
N
is cm, then value of N is
3

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III Test-12_ (Code-C)

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
28. Which of the following reactions is correct?
LiAlH /Et O
(1) CH3 — CH == CH — CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
4 2

20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2OH
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE NaBH /EtOH
(2) Ph — CH == CH — CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
4

is correct. Ph — CH2 — CH2 — CH2OH

_
(3) CH3 — CH == CH — COOEt ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
Na EtOH
26.
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2OH + EtOH

(4)

29. . Where

A and B are respectively

(1) (1)

(2)

(3)
(2)

(4)

30. The number P—O sigma bond found in the

(3) molecule P4O6 is

(1) 12 (2) 16

(3) 14 (4) 10

31.
(4)

(1) (2)
27. Which of the following statement is False?

(1) -hydroxy acids on heating forms lactides

(2) -hydroxy acids on heating forms lactones
(3) Malonic acid on heating forms acetic acid (3) (4)
(4) -hydroxy acids on heating forms , 
unsaturated acids
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Test-12_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III

32. The correct order of rate of reaction with NaCl 36. What is the most probable distance of a
in water 1s electron in a He+ ion. The wave function for
− Zr
 Z3  a
1s orbital is given by  =  3 e 0 where
 a 
 0
a0 = radius of first Bohr’s orbital in H-atom =
52.9 pm

(1) I > IV > III > II > V (1) 52.9 pm (2) 13.25 pm
(3) 6.61 pm (4) 26.45 pm
(2) III > V > II > IV > I
37. The correct order of degree of hydration of M+
(3) III > V < IV < II < I ions of alkali metals is
(4) I > III > IV > V > II (1) Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Rb+ < Cs+

33. Isohydric solutions are the solutions having the
same concentration of hydronium ion. If 0.2 M
HA (monobasic acid) solution is isohydric with
4 × 10–4 M HCl solution, then Kb for A– is
[pkw = 14]
(2) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+
(3) Cs+ < Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+
(4) Cs+ < Rb+ < Na+ < K+ < Li+
38. When oxalic acid reacts with conc. H2SO4 two
gases produced are neutral and acidic in nature

(1) 8 × 10–7 (2) 1.25 × 10–8 respectively. Potassium hydroxide absorbs one
of the two gases. The product formed during
(3) 1.25 × 10–6 (4) 8 × 107 this absorption in excess KOH and the gas
34. Calculate the millimoles of SeO32− in solution on which gets absorbed are respectively

the basis of following data. (1) K2CO3 and CO2 (2) KHCO3 and CO2

M (3) K2CO3 and CO (4) KHCO3 and CO

70 ml of solution of KBrO3 was added to
60 230C
39. NaH2PO4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Na2 (P3O9 ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
638C
→
SeO32− solution. The bromine evolved was (NaPO3 )n → D ( glassy solid)
removed by boiling and excess of KBrO3 was Compound (D) is sodium hexametaphosphate
M which is commercially called as
back titrated with 12.5 ml of solution of
25 (1) Silicone (2) Calgon
NaAsO2. The reactions are given below
(3) Fluorapatite (4) Zeolite
(a) SeO32− +BrO3− +H+ → SeO24− +Br2 +H2O
40. The EAN of metal atoms in Fe(NO)2(CO)2 and
(b ) BrO3− +AsO2− +H2O → Br − +AsO34− +H+ Co2(CO)8 respectively are
(1) 1.5 × 10–3 (2) 1.25 (1) 34, 35
(3) 2.5 (4) 2.5 × 10–3 (2) 34, 36
35. Select the correct statement. (3) 36, 36
(1) Milk is a homogeneous solution (4) 36, 35
(2) When a solid solute is dispersed in alcohol 41. ‘Silver’ UK coins are an alloy of
it is known as Emulsion
(1) Ag and Cu
(3) Greater the coagulation power higher is the
(2) Cu and Ni
coagulation value
(3) Ag and Au
(4) Tyndall effect is an optical property of
colloidal solution (4) Ag and Ni

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III Test-12_ (Code-C)

42. Sometimes yellow turbidity appears while
passing H2S gas even in the absence of II
group radical. This is because of
(1) Sulphur is present in the mixture as
impurity
(2) IV group radical are precipitated as
sulphides
(3) The oxidation of H2S gas by some acid
radicals
(4) III group radical are precipitated as
hydroxides
43. In the separation of Cu2+ and Cd2+ in 2nd group
qualitative analysis of cations, tetrammine
copper (II) sulphate and tetrammine cadmium
(II) sulphate react with KCN to form the
corresponding cyano complexes. Which one of
the following pairs of the complexes and their
relative stability enables the separation of Cu2+
45. An inorganic compound (A) made of two most
occurring elements into the earth crust, has a
polymeric tetrahedral network structure. With
carbon, compound (A) produces a poisonous
gas (B) which is very stable diatomic molecule.
Compounds (A) and (B) will be
(1) SiO2, CO2 (2) SiO2, CO
(3) SiC, CO (4) SiO2, N2
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 5 questions. The answer to each question
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter
the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
46. How many geometrical isomers are possible for

and Cd2+?
(1) K3[Cu(CN)4] more stable and K2[Cd(CN)4]
less stable
(2) K2[Cu(CN)4] less stable and K2[Cd(CN)4]
more stable 47. Number of possible cyclic structures by C4H6Br2
(3) K2[Cu(CN)4] more stable and K2[Cd(CN)4] (including stereoisomers)
less stable
48. A 1.0 g impure sample containing [Zn(NH3)4]Cl2
(4) K3[Cu(CN)4] less stable and K2[Cd(CN)4]
and some inert impurity was treated with 16 ml
more stable
of 1.0 M NaOH solution, where all the complex
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
was converted into Na2[Zn(OH)4]. Ammonia
answer using the codes given below the lists.
formed is first boiled off and then the excess of
List-I List-II
base required 4 ml of 1.0 M HCI solution for
A. van Arkel method 1. Manufacture of
complete neutralisation. After the neutralisation
caustic soda
the solution is reacted with excess of AgNO3
B. Solvay process 2. Purification of
solution. the mass of AgCl produced (in mg)
Titanium
is x. The value of x/10 is.
C. Cupellation 3. Manufacture of
49. Reaction A + B → C + D follows following rate
Na2CO3
1 1
D. Poling 4. Purification of
law, rate = k  A  B  . Starting with initial conc.
2 2

copper
of one mole of A and B each, the time taken for
5. Refining of silver
amount of A to become 0.25 mole is
Codes:
x sec. The value of x/10 is. (Given k = 2.31 ×
A B C D
10–3 s–1)
(1) 2 1 3 4
50. The number of species (atoms/ions) bonded to
(2) 4 3 2 5
central metal ion inside the co-ordination
(3) 2 3 5 4
(4) 5 1 3 4 sphere in Ziese’s salt is

[Page 7]
Test-12_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III

PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I 56. In a circle with centre ‘O’ PA and PB are two
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains chords. PC is the chord that bisects the angle
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 APB. The tangent to the circle at C is drawn
meeting PA and PB extended at Q and R
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
2
ONE is correct. respectively. IF QC = 2, QA = and RC = 4,
3
then length of RB equals
51. Let f : [–1, 2]  R be differentiable such that
0  f  (t)  1 for t  [–1, 0] and –1  f  (t)  0 8
(1) 2 (2)
3
for t  [0, 2]. Then
10 4
(1) –2  f (2) – f (–1)  1 (3) (4)
3 3
(2) 1  f (2) – f (–1)  2
57. There are two balls in an urn whose colours
(3) –3  f (2) – f (–1)  0 are not known (each ball can be either blue or
red). A blue ball is put into the urn. A ball is
(4) –2  f (2) – f (–1)  0
drawn from the urn. The probability that it is
52. If M(x0, y0) is the point on the curve 3x2 – 4y2 blue is
= 72, which is nearest to the line 3x + 2y + 1
1 1
= 0, then the value of (x0 + y0) is equal to (1) (2)
3 4
(1) 3 (2) –3
2 1
(3) 9 (4) –9 (3) (4)
3 6
1
58. The real number x and y satisfy the equation

53. If f ( x ) = e t −x
dt where (0  x  1), then
x 
= tan ( t ) where 0  t  .
0
xy = sin(2t) and
minimum value of f (x) is y 2
The value of x2 + y2 is
(1) e – 2 (2) e – 3

(3) e – 1 (4) 2 ( e −1 ) (1) 2 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 4
54. If |z – 5i|  2 then |max(arg(z) – min (arg(z))|
59. Distance between foci of the hyperbola x2 –
equals
3y2 – 4x – 6y – 11 = 0, is
2 2
(1) 2cos−1   (2) 2 sin−1   (1) 4 (2) 6
5 5
(3) 8 (4) 10
 3 −1 2
(3) + cot −1 (4) cot 1

(
2n
2 5 5
60. If L = Lim
n →
1
n4
n2 + i 2 ) n , then (ln L) is
55. The constant term in the expansion of i =1

8 equal to
 2 1 1
 x + 2 + y + y  is 
x
(1) ln 2 + −2
2
(1) 4900
(2) 2tan–12 – 4 + 2 ln5
(2) 4950
(3) 2tan–1 + 4 + 2 ln5
(3) 5050
(4) 2 ln5 – 4 – 2tan–12
(4) 5151

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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III Test-12_ (Code-C)

() ()
61. P p and Q q are the position vectors of two  1
 x cos , x  0
66. If f ( x ) =  is continuous at x
x
()
fixed points and R r is the position vector of 
 k, x=0
a variable point. If R moves such that = 0, then

( r − p)  ( r − q) = 0 then the locus of R is (1) k>0 (2) k<0

(3) k=0 (4) k0
(1) A plane containing the origin ‘O’ and
67. The value of lim 
1 2 3 n
parallel to two non collinear vectors OP + + + ... + 
n →  n2 n2 n2 n2 
and OQ equals
(2) The surface of a sphere described on 1
(1) 0 (2)
PQ as its diameter 2
(3) A line passing through the points P (3) 2n (4) 2n
and Q 68. If sin–1x + tan–1x = y, –1 < x < 1, then which is
(4) A set of lines parallel to the line PQ not possible
62. If x1, x2, x3, x4 are roots of the equation x4 – x3 3
(1) y =
sin2 + x2cos2 – xcos – sin = 0, then 2
4

 tan −1 (2) y=0

xi equals
i =1 
(3) y=
2

(1)  (2) − 
2 (4) y =−
2
(3) – (4) –
69. If m and n are the smallest positive integers
63. z1 and z2 are two distinct points in an argand m
 i   i  n
plane. If a|z1| = b|z2|, (where a, b  R2) then
satisfying the relation  2.e 6  =  4e 4 
,
az1 bz2    
the point + is a point on the    
bz2 az1
then (m + n) has the value equal to
(1) Line segment [–2, 2] of the real axis (1) 120 (2) 96
(2) Line segment [–2, 2] of the imaginary (3) 72 (4) 60
axis
 sin a − 1 x + sin x
(3) Unit circle |z| = 1  ( ) x0
 x
–1

f ( x) = 
(4) The line with arg z = tan 2
70. If c, x =0, is
64. Which one of the following lines cannot be 
 x + bx − x
2
the normal to x2 = 4y?  , x0
 bx x
(1) x–y+3=0 (2) x+y–3=0
continuous at x = 0 then
(3) x – 2y + 12 = 0 (4) x + 2y + 12 = 0
65. The tangent to the hyperbola xy = c2 at the 3 1
(1) a= , c = , b is any real, number
point P intersects the x-axis at T and the y- 2 2
axis at T. The normal to the hyperbola at P
3 1
intersects the x-axis at N and the y-axis at N. (2) a = − , c = , b is any real number
2 2
the areas of the triangles PNT and PNT and 
3 1
1 1 (3) a= , c = − , b  R −  0
and  respectively, then + , is 2 2
 '
1
(1) Equal to 1 (2) Depends on t (4) a=c= , b is any real number
2
(3) Depends on c (4) Equal to 2

[Page 9]
Test-12_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2020_PHASE-III

SECTION - II 72. In the figure as shown, the length of AB is c

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section then (c – 15) equals

C
contains 5 questions. The answer to each question
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
195
enter the correct numerical value (in decimal
125
notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
3x°
decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, x°
A c B
30.27, −27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen
73. The no. of tangents to the circle x2 + y2 = 3
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to `which are normal to ellipse 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 is
enter the answer. 74. The exponent of 5 in 100C50 is
75. The number of roots of the equation
71. The least positive integral value of a so that
the inequation x2 – 2(a + 1)x + 3(a – 3)(a + 1) 3x 2 + 6x + 7 + 5x 2 + 10x + 14 = 4 – 2x – x2
> 0 is satisfied by  x  R is is



[Page 10]