Weld Imperfections Guide: 45+ Types & Causes Explained

WELDING IMPERFECTIONS
1. When visually inspecting the root bead of a single-vee-butt weld it should be checked for….
a. lack of penetration
b. HAZ hardness
c. tungsten inclusion
d. all of the above
2. When visually inspecting the face of a finished weld it should be assessed for
a. maximum excess weld metal height
b. toe blend
c. inter-run blend
d. all of the above
3. Heavy porosity on the surface of some MMA welds made on a construction site is most likely
to be caused by….
a. use of the wrong class of electrodes
b. the use of excessive current
c. moisture pick-up in the electrode covering
d. a bad batch of electrodes
4. Slag inclusions may be present in…..

a. MMA welds
b. MIG welds
c. SA welds
d. both a & c
5. What is hollow bead?

a. concave root
b. elongated porosity in the root
c. lack of penetration
d. a slag line above the root
6. Which of the following butt weld preparations is generally most susceptible to lack of sidewall
fusion during MMA welding?
a. a "U" preparations
b. a "V" preparations
c. a "double V" preparations
d. lack of sidewall fusion does not exist with MMA welding
7. Which of the following processes is most susceptible to lack of fusion

a. MMA
b. TIG
c. SAW
d. CO2 (metal active gas)
8. Which of the following butt-weld preparations is usually the most susceptible to lack of sidewall
fusion during the maual metal arc process?
a. a double U butt
b. a single V butt
c. a double V butt
d. it is not normally a defect associated with the MMA welding process
9. What is meant by the term crater pipe
a. Another term for concave root
b. Another term given for a burn through
c. A type of gas pore, found in the weld crater
d. A shrinkage defect, found in the weld crater
10. Which of the following welding processes/technique is likely to be used for the repair welding
localized porosity in a butt weld?
a. MMA, PG position
b. mechanized MAG
c. submerged arc
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
11. Which of the following is applicable for none planar defects?

a. they are always repaired
b. their existence will result in the removal of the entire weld
c. they are not usually as significant as planar defects
d. they can only be detected using radiography
12. In the MMA welding process, which of the following is most likely to be caused by a welder
with a poor technique?
a. deep weld craters/crater cracks
b. copper inclusions
c. hydrogen cracks
d. all of the above
13. Root concavity is caused by:

a. excessive back purge pressure and entrapped gas
b. excessive back purge pressure and very high heat inputs
c. excessive root grinding and a slow travel speed
d. excessive root grinding and excessive back purge pressure
14. When inspecting a critical component, the toes of a weld must be:
a. always ground flush
b. must always overlap at least 1.5mm into the parent metal
c. must always be inspected using a crack detection method (MPI, DPI)
d. none of the above can be selected - specification requirements unknown
15. Which of the following is most likely to cause a burn through

a. root gap too small
b. travel speed too fast
c. root face too small
d. all the above
16. When carrying out visual inspection, which defect is likely to be missed
a. linear misalignment
b. cap undercut
c. porosity
d. lack of fusion (inter run)
17. Cold lapping is another term for:
a. lack of fusion at the toe of the weld
b. lack of fusion between weld metal and weld metal
c. undercut at the toe of the weld
d. both a & b
18. Incomplete root penetration is most likely due to:

a. welding speed too slow
b. welding current too high
c. root gap too small
d. electrode diameter too small
19. Crater cracks are caused mainly by:

a. Excessively fast welding speeds
b. Improper electrode angle
c. Hot shrinkage
d. Improper joint design
20. A fabrication procedure calls for the toes of all welds to be blended smooth by grinding
The most likely reason for doing this is to……
a. make the weld suitable for liquid (dye) penetrant inspection
b. improve the fatigue life
c. reduce residual stress
d. improve the general appearance of the welds
21. For a full penetration single V butt joint, control of root bead penetration is mainly
influenced by the…..
a. root face
b. bevel angle
c. root gap
d. included angle
22. Acceptance standards for undercut may be based on………

a. depth
b. length
c. sharpness/profile/blend
d. all of the above
23. When the root bead of a single-V-butt weld is visually inspected it should be checked for…..
a. lack of root penetration
b. HAZ hardness
c. tungsten inclusions
d. all of the above
24. Incomplete root penetration may be caused by…

a. an excessive root face
b. an excessive root gap
c. the current setting being too slow
d. both a & c
25. Incomplete root fusion in a single V butt weld may be caused by…….
b. the root gap being too large
c. root faces being too small
d. all of the above
26. When visually inspecting the face of a finished weld it should be assessed for……
a. excess weld metal height
b. toe blend/ profile
c. inter-run blend/profile
d. all of the above
27. A burn-through may occur if…….

a. the current is too slow
b. the root face is too large
c. the root gap is too large
d. all of the above
28. A solid inclusion in a weld may be….

a. entrapped slag
b. entrapped gas
c. lack of inter-run fusion
d. all of the above
29. Which of the following would be classed as a planar imperfection?

a. a lack of side wall fusion
b. a slag inclusion
c. linear porosity
d. root concavity
30. Heavy porosity on the surfaces of some MMA welds made on a construction site is most
likely to be caused by…..
a. use of the wrong class of electrodes
b. the use of excessive current
c. moisture pick-up in the electrode covering
d. a bad batch of electrodes
31. Slag inclusion may be present in……

a. MMA welds
b. MIG/MAG welds
c. SAW welds
d. both a & c
32. The main cause of undercut is……

a. excessive amps
b. excessive volts
c. excessive travel speed
d. all of the above
33. If a Welding Inspector detects a type of imperfection not allowed by the Application Standard
he must always……
a. request further NDT
b. reject the weld
c. prepare a concession request
d. only reject the weld if he considers it to be harmful
34. Which of the following is a non-planar imperfection?

a. A weld centerline crack
b. A HAZ crack
c. A Crater crack
d. Linear porosity
35. For TIG welding, what benefit does a current slope-out device have?
a. it reduces tungsten spatter
b. it reduces the risk of crater cracking
c. it reduces the risk of arc strikes
d. it reduces the interpass temperature
36. When arc welding is being used, which parameter has the greatest effect on penetration?
a. arc voltage
b. welding speed
c. current
d. all of the above
37. Pipe bores of some materials must be purged with argon before & during TIG welding.
This is done in order to
a. prevent root concavity
b. prevent burn-through
c. prevent oxidation of the root bead
d. prevent moisture pick-up in the root bead
38. Excessive spatter during MMA welding is most likely to be caused by…….
a. excessive current
b. incorrect baking and storage of electrode
c. a bad batch of electrode
d. all of the above
39. An arc strike (stray arc) on a steel component is usually an unacceptable imperfection
because..
a. it may cause contamination by copper
b. it may cause hard spots
c. it may give cracking
d. both b & c
40. Which of the following would be classed as the most serious type of defect?
a. a buried linear slag inclusion
b. buried lack of inter-run fusion
c. surface breaking lack of sidewall fusion
d. surface porosity
41. Visual examination has revealed the presence of a longitudinal crack running down
the center of a submerged arc weld bead. This could be due to:
a. the use of damp flux
b. the specified pre-heat temperature has not been used
c. the arc voltage used was too high
d. the weld bead was very deep and narrow
42. To reduce the risk of crater cracks in TIG welds the welder could:
a. make the weld pool freeze more quickly by rapid withdrawal of the filler wire
b. make the weld pool freeze more quickly by rapid arc extinction
c. use a current slope-out device
d. use all of the above techniques
43. Which of the following defects would show up as light indications on a radiograph?
a. Slag inclusions and copper inclusion
b. Tungsten inclusions and excessive root penetration
c. cap undercut and root piping
d. excessive cap height and incomplete root penetration
44. On a radiograph, the most likely appearance of lack of root fusion on a single-V-butt weld is:
a. a dark straight line with a light root
b. a dark root with straight edges
c. a dark uneven line following the edge of the root
d. none of the above lack of root fusion can not be seen on a radiograph
45. Defects outside the permissible limits of the applicable specification should be:
a. the decision is up to the welding inspector
b. repaired
c. always double checked using NDT
d. all of the above
46. The main reason for using a back purge when welding 18-8 stainless steel with the TIG
welding process is to:
a. improve positional welding
b. prevent the possibility of porosity
c. prevent excessive root penetration
d. prevent the formation of a dense oxide layer forming in the root
47. When welding a double V butt weld with the submerged arc welding process the presence
of center line porosity may be due to \:
a. damp flux
b. contamination on the weld preparations
c. incorrect flux depth
d. all of the above
48. When welding with the MIG welding process using pure argon as the shielding gas on carbon
steel, which of the following problems are likely to occur?
a. Copper inclusions and excessive cap heights
b. excessive root penetration and porosity
c. slag inclusions and crater pipe
d. lack of fusion and poor cap profiles
49. When considering the tungsten arc welding process what is the purpose of the down-slope
(slope out) control?
a. ensure good penetration
b. to prevent arc striking on the parent material
c. to help prevent the formation of crater pipe and possible cracking
d. to help prevent tungsten inclusions during welding
50. You observe centerline cracking a weld that as been made one of five work stations each
making similar components. The first action to take is:
a. impound all welding consumables
b. report the occurrence to high authority
c. stop all welding
d. call for full NDT checks
51. Which of the following defects is unlikely to be found by visual inspection

b. undercut
c. overlap
d. linear slag inclusion
52. Which of the following defects is more common to weld deposited by the CO2 welding process
than weld deposited by MMA
a. slag inclusion
b. excess penetration
c. lack of side fusion
d. tungsten inclusion
53. Which defect would you expect to obtain in TIG welds in non-deoxidized steel?
a. undercut
b. porosity
c. tungsten inclusion
d. linear misalignment
54. Which of the following can arise from copper inclusions is a ferrite steel weld?
a. weld metal cracks
b. HAZ cracks
c. lamellar tearing
d. porosity
55. Which of the following defects do you not expect to find by visual examination of completed
welds?
a. linear slag inclusion
b. undercuts
c. overlap
d. linear misalignment
56. When open site working, serious porosity in MMA welding is brought to your attention.
What would you investigate?
a. electrode type
b. power plant type
c. electrode storage
d. day temperature
57. When the TIG welding austenitic stainless steel pipe. Argon gas backing is called for.
This is to:
a. prevent oxidation
b. prevent under bead cracking
c. prevent porosity
d. control the penetration bead shape
58. In the welding of austenitic pipe work, the borer is usually purged with argon to?
a. prevent formation of porosity in the weld
b. prevent burn-through in the root run
c. prevent oxidation of the root bead
d. eliminate the formation of H2
59. Incomplete penetration in a butt joint could be caused by:

a. Excessive root face width
b. Excessive root gap size
c. Low current setting
d. Both a & c
60. Incomplete root fusion weld certainly be caused by:

b. incorrect tilt angle
c. differing root face widths
d. all of the above
61. When visuallya completed single V butt weld cap you would certainly assess:
a. cap height
b. toe blend
c. weld width
d. a, b & c
62. You notice a very "veed" ripple shape. This is most likely caused by:
a. poor comsumable choice
b. welding position
d. all of the above
63. Toe blending is important as it mey affect:

a. corrosion
b. fatigue life
c. overlap type defects
d. all of the above
64. Slag inclusion would occur with:

a. MMA
b. MIG
c. SAW
d. both a & b
65. Undercut principally caused by:

a. excessive amperes
b. excessive volts
d. all of the above
66. Undercut normally assessed by:

a. its depth
b. its length
c. its blending
d. all of the above
67. The planar defect is:

a. incomplete fusion defects
b. slag inclusion
c. incomplete penetration
d. both a & c
68. Defects outside of the limits specified in the standard should always be:
a. repaired
b. reported to a senior person
c. assessed along with other defects
d. all of the above
69. MIG welding tends to be susceptible to lack of fusion problems. This is because of:
a. poor maintenance of equipment
b. incorrect setting
c. poor inter-run cleaning
d. all of the above
70. The main causes of porosity in welded joints are:
a. poor access
b. loss of gas shield
c. dirty materials
d. all of the above
71. Weave technique may give rise to:

a. better profiles
b. improved toe blending
c. improved ripple shape
d. all of the above
72. With reference to a root penetration bead, you could certainly assess:
a. root fusion & penetration
b. root concavity
c. burn through
d. all of the above
73. Stray arcing may be regarded as a serious defect. This is because:

a. It may reduce the thickness dimension of a component
b. It may cause liquation cracks
c. It may cause hard zones
d. all of the above
74. Overlap in welds could be influence by:

a. poor welding technique
b. welding process
c. welding position
d. all of the above
75. Flame cut preparations may, during welding, increase the likelihood of:
a. Cracking
b. Misalignment problems
c. Inclusions
d. All of the above
76. Which of the following may be classes as a more serious defect:

a. slag inclusion
b. fusion defects (interun)
c. fusion defects (surface)
77. Porosity is caused by:

a. Entrapped slag in the solidifying weld
b. Entrapped gas in the solidifying weld
c. Entrapped mettalic inclusions in the solidifying weld
d. none of the above
78. The most serious defects

a. planar
b. cracks
c. lack of fusion
d. All of the above
79. What is crater pipe?

a. an oval tube
b. another term for burn through
c. a type of porosity
d. a shrinkage defect
80. Herringbone porosity is:

a. a particular pattern of porosity
b. made up of wormholes
c. made up
HEAT TREATMENTS, HEAT INPUTS, PRE-HEATS
CARBON CONTENTS
1. What is the effect of tempering after quenching?
a. Toughness and strength are increased.
b. Toughness and strength are inreduced.
c. Toughness reduced and strength are increased.
d. Toughness increased and strength are reduced.
e. Toughness increased and hardness increased.
2. The toughness and yield strength of steel is reduced by:

a. Reducing the grain size
b. Increasing the heat input
c. Reducing the heat input
d. Both a & b
3. What is the possible effect of having the heat input too low during welding?
a. Low toughness, entrapped hydrogen and low hardness
b. High hardness, lack of fusion and entrapped hydrogen
c. Entrapped hydrogen, low toughness and high ductility
d. Lack of fusion, low toughness and a reduction in ductility
4. Increasing the carbon content of a steel will:

a. Increase the hardness and toughness
b. Decrease the hardness and toughness
c. Increase the hardness, decrease toughness
d. Decrease the hardness, increase toughness
5. Which of the following is applicable for the HAZ on a C/Mn steel weld if the heat input increases:
a. Both hardness and width is increased
b. Hardness decreases, width increases
c. Both hardness and width decreases
d. Hardness increases, width decreases
6. What is the effect of full annealing compared to normalizing?

a. A reduction in grain
b. An increase in grain size
c. An increase in toughness
d. The grain size will not be affected
7. Which of the following is applicable to the heat treatment process of normalizing carbon-manganese
steel
a. It is always carried out below the lower critical limit
b. It is carried out to ensure the material has maximum tensile strength
c. It is carried out to ensure the material is of maximum ductility and malleability in preparation
for extensive cold working operations
d. It is carried out at approx. 910C for the purpose of grain refinement
8. What is the main reason for the application of pre-heat

a. To change the chemical composition of the weld and parent material
b. To control the hydrogen and prevent cracking
c. To remove residual stresses
d. Both a & b
e. All of the above
9. The heat affected zone of a carbon steel fusion weld

a. Usually has the highest tensile strength and highest toughness values
b. Usually has the lowest toughness values and cannot be avoided
c. Is usually gamma iron phase and cannot be avoided
d. Both a & c
e. All of the above
10. The need of pre-heat for steel will increase if:

a. The material thickness reduces
b. Faster welding speeds
c. The use of larger welding electrode
d. All of the above
11. A large HAZ grain size, caused by high heat input welding of a C-Mn steel, may show …
a. low ductility
b. low toughness
c. high toughness
d. high hardness
12. The temperature range over which a steel goes from having high toughness to low toughness …
is called….
a. the critical transformation temperature
b. the ductility dip temperature
c. the bi-modal temperature
d. the transition temperature
13. Exceeding the maximum inter-pass temperature specified for a C-Mn steel weld joint, may give ….
a. excessive porosity
b. burn through
c. lower toughness
d. all of the above
14. The highest and lowest heat input positions are considered to be ….
a. PF highest; PG lowest
b. PE highest; PC lowest
c. PD highest; PB lowest
d. PB highest; PA lowest
15. The main reason for pre-heating steel prior to welding is:
a. To reduce distortion
b. To reduce residual stresses in the finished joints
c. to reduce the risk of hydrogen cracking
d. to drive out any moisture from the base materials
16. The heat affected zone HAZ of a C-Mn steel that is welded using very low heat input may show…
a. higher hardness
b. low residual stress
c. high ductility
d. low srength
17. Carbon equivalent values (CEV's) for steel are used to:
a. estimate HAZ toughness
b. asesss the risk of lamellar tearing
c. determine the preheat to be used
d. the root face is too large
18. High residual stresses in a welded steel component may …

a. reduce resistance to brittle fracture
b. affect shape/dimensional tolerances during any post weld machining
c. be as high as the yield stress of the base material
d. all of the above
19. A recrystallization heat treatment is;

a. used to improve the toughness of weld metal
b. used to restore the ductility of the base material after bending and shaping
c. another name for a post weld stress relief heat treatment
d. is used to reduce the hardness of the HAZ
20. Which of the following applies to the heat treatment process of tempering
a. It is always carried out at a temperature above upper critical limit.
b. It is carried out to increase the strength and toughness of weldments.
c. Tempering is generally carried out before quench hardening
d. None of the above
21. Welds made with high heat inputs show a reduction in one of the following properties?
a. Ductility
b. Toughness
c. Elongation
d. Penetration
22. A carbon equivalent (CE) of 0.5%:

a. Is high for carbon manganese steel and may require a preheat over 100C
b. Is generally significant for carbon for manganese steels and is certainly not to be taken into
consideration for pre-heat temperature
c. Is high for carbon manganese steels and may require a preheat temperature over 300C as to
avoid cracking
d. Is calculated from the heat input formula
23. In martensitic grain structure what you expect to increase?

a. Ductility
b. Hardness
c. Toughness
d. All of the above
24. Which of the following heat treatments on steel cools down in air from the austenite region?
a. Normalizing
b. Annealing
c. Tempering
d. Stress relieving
25. Which of the following will most likely require the preheat temperature to be increased?
a. An increase in travel speed
b. A reduction in material thickness
c. An increase in electrode diameter
d. None of the above
26. Which of the following are reasons for applying preheat?

a. The removal of residual stress
b. To aid slow cooling and reduce the carbon content
c. To reduce the chance of a brittle grain structure and to reduce the chance of hydrogen entrapment
d. Increase the ultimate tensile strength values and increase overall weldability.
27. What are the possible results of having a heat input to low?
a. An increase in hardness, lower yield strength and lack of fusion
b. A reduction in toughness, hydrogen entrapment and an increase in hardness
c. Entrapped hydrogen, an increase in hardness and lack of fusion
d. Entrapped hydrogen, a reduction in carbon content and lack of fusion
28. The possible effects of having a travel speed too fast:

a. low toughness, slag inclusions and cap undercut
b. high hardness, slag inclusions and a narrow thin weld bead
c. high hardness, excessive deposition and cold laps
d. low toughness, poor fusion and slag inclusions
29. When considering thermal cutting local hardening can be reduced by:
a. Increasing the cutting speed
b. the use of propane as a fuel gas
c. preheating the material to be cut
d. all of the above
30. Pre-heat prior to the welding of a carbon steel butt weld:

a. must always be carried out
b. is always carried out using a gas flame
c. need not be carried out if PWHT is to follow
31. In steel the element with the greatest effect on hardness is:
a. chromium
b. manganese
c. carbon
d. nickel
32. Applying preheat when welding carbon manganese steel is normally done to avoid:
a. slag inclusions
b. hydrogen cracking
c. lack of sidewall fusion
d. porosity
33. Which of the following mechanical properties of a weld in carbon manganese steel is most
affected if the heat input per unit length of weld is excessively high?
a. Elongation
b. Tensile strength
c. Hardness
d. Toughness
34. For which of the following is pre-heating most likely to be required?

a. austenitic stainless steels
b. high strength allow steels
c. low and medium strength steels
d. low carbon steels
35. Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimize the risk of
a. scattered porosity
b. worm hole porosity
c. parent metal cracking
d. lack of penetration
36. Pre-heating for arc welding applies to:

a. assembly welding only
b. assembly and tack welding
c. joint over 25mm thick only
d. cruciform welds only
37. Which of the following chemical elements has the greater effect on the harden ability of a
steel plate?
a. molybdenum
b. chromium
c. titanium
d. carbon
38. Welds made with high heat inputs show a reduction in one of the following properties?
a. ductility
b. toughness
c. fatigue strength
d. mechanical strength
39. A steel described, as QT will have improved tensile properties it has?

a. had control of chemical composition
b. been heat treated
c. been quality tested
d. been vacuum melted
40. In a steel, which has improved creep properties at elevated temperature, which one of the following
elements helps in this improvement?
a. tungsten
b. manganese
c. molybdenum
d. carbon
41. Welding procedures may require welds to be deposited at a controlled rate heat input.
High heat inputs would?
a. have poor profile
b. have larger grain size
c. have high hardness in the HAZ
d. have low elongation properties
42. A large grain structure in steels is said to produce:
a. low ductility values
b. low fracture toughness values
c. high fracture toughness values
d. high tensile strength
43. The process of tempering is often carried out to regain toughness after which of the following processes:
a. annealing
b. normalizing
c. hardening
d. stress releiving
44. The important point if high temperature steel is that:

a. they can withstand creep failure
b. they may suffer re-heat cracking problems
c. they may suffer loss of toughness
d. all of the above
45. Carbon equivalent values are useful to determine:
a. weld ability aspects
b. crack sensitivity aspects
c. typical mechanical properties
d. all of the above
46. Post heat treatment:

a. must be applied to welds if a crack free weld is required
b. should never exceed 300C
c. may stress relieve
d. must always be applied using gas flames
47. Pre-heating prior to welding:

a. must always be carried out
b. need not be carried out if post heat treatment is to follow welding
c. is always carried out using gas flames
e. all of the above
48. What does pre heat prior to welding have an effect on:
a. hardenability
b. weldability
c. cooling rate
d. all of the above
49. Pre-heating a low alloy steel, prior to welding, is done to minimize the risk of…..
a. porosity
b. excessive distortion
c. HAZ cracking
d. lack of fusion
50. Which of the following would be considered to be high heat input welding?
a. 550 J/mm
b. 55 J/mm
c. 5.5 J/mm
d. 5.0 KJ/mm
51. What is the arc energy for the following welding process parameters?
Amps 140, Volts 21, Travel speed 250mm/min.
a. 0.7 KJ/mm
b. 0.6 KJ/mm
c. 0.01 KJ/mm
d. 0.7 J/mm
52. Which of the following flame types would you expect to be used for the cutting of mild steel?
a. carburising flame
b. oxidising flame
c. reducing flame
d. neutral flame
53. Which of the following units is used to express Heat Input?

a. joules
b. N/mm2
c. J/mm2
d. KJ/mm
54. If welding travel speed is doubled, but the current and voltage remain the same, the heat input will
a. be reduced by 50%
b. be increased by a factor of two
c. be about the same
d. be reduced by approx. 25%
55. A typical temperature used for normalizing C/Mn steels is…..

a. 600C
b. 1000C
c. 750C
d. 900C
56. A carbon manganese steel is being welded by MMA and the electrode run-out-lengths that
are being used are much shorter than specified by the WPS. This deviation may cause….
a. hydrogen cracking
b. solidification cracking
c. the HAZ toughness to be lower than specified
d. the HAZ hardness to be lower than specified
57. Which element has the greatest effect on the HAZ hardness of a C/Mn steel?
a. carbon
b. niobium
c. vanadium
d. aluminum
58. If a WPS may specifies pre-heating of a 75mm thick C-Mn steel plate with a CEV of 0.48
it will be to……
a. drive out moisture from the plate
b. increase resistance to HAZ hydrogen cracking
c. prevent the formation of carbides
d. improve the mechanical properties of the weld
59. Welds in C-Mn steels that have been made using very high heat input will show a reduction in…..
a. Tensile ductility
b. Charpy V-notch toughness
c. Fatigue strength
d. Creep resistance
60. During PWHT of a complex fabrication, it is heated to the soak temperature at a much faster
rate than specified by the procedure. This may……..
a. cause excessive oxidation
b. not allow sufficient time for stress relief to occur
c. introduce excessive compressive stresses
d. cause distortion
61. Carbon equivalent values (CEV) are used to determine how to avoid the risk of…….
a. hydrogen cracking
b. lamellar tearing
c. solidification cracking
d. weld decay
62. To calculate welding Heat Input it is necessary to know……

a. the current and voltage used
b. the current, voltage and travel speed
c. the current and weld length
d. the current, voltage and wire speed
63. Which steel has the highest Carbon Equivalent Value (CEV)
a. 0.08%C, 0.8%Mn
b. 0.16%C, 1.2%Mn
c. 0.08%C, 1.2%Mn
d. 0.05%C, rimming steel
64. The hardest part of a multi-pass welded joint, assuming no post weld heat treatment has have
taken place is:
a. the HAZ on the cap
b. the HAZ on the root
c. the root
d. the cap
65. Is it permissible to allow a multi-pass butt weld to cool down between weld passes?
a. it should be up to the welding inspector
b. no the weld must be kept hot at all times
c. it defends on the welder
d. it defends on the specification
66. Welding a steel plate with a CE of 0.45 would require pre-heating to?
a. prevent the formation of sulphides
b. prevent hardening in the HAZ
d. to reduce the amount of current required
67. Which of the following are considerations for the selection of a pre-heat temperature:
a. Carbon equivalent, joint design, welding process type and plate material quality
b. All joints over 25mm thick, hydrogen levels, welding process, carbon equivalent
c. Arc energy, material thickness, hydrogen scale and carbon equivalent
d. All of the above are considerations for the selection of a pre-heat temperature
68. The HAZ associated with a fusion weld:

a. can not be avoided
b. usually has the highest tensile strength
c. is usually martensitic
d. both a & b
e. all of the above
69. Assuming that the welding process, material thickness, carbon equivalent and the welding
parameters to be the same, which of the following joint types would normally require
the highest pre-heat temperature
a. edge joint
b. lap joint
c. butt joint (single V)
d. tee joint (fillet)
70. Which of the following properties may be applicable to a carbon steel weld (CE 0.48) welded
without pre-heat?
a. Narrow heat affected zone and hardness value in excess of 400 HV
b. broad heat affected zone and hardness values in excess of 400 HV
c. a very tough and narrow heat affected zone
d. narrow heat affected zone and low hardness values
71. Which of the following test pieces taken from a charpy test on a C/Mn steel weld, welded
with a high heat input is most likely to have the lowest toughness
a. test piece taken from parent metal
b. test piece taken from weld metal
c. test piece taken from HAZ
d. all of the above values will be the same
72. Which is the correct heat input for the following parameters, amps 350, volts 32 and the
travel speed 310mm/min (MMA welding process)
a. 2.16 KJ/mm
b. 0.036 KJ/mm
c. 2160 KJ/mm
d. 3.6 KJ/mm
73. A multi pass MMA butt weld made on carbon steel consists of 5 passes deposited using
a 6mm diameter electrode. A 12 pass weld made on the same joint deposited using a 4mm
diameter electrode on the same material will have:
a. a lower heat input and a higher degree of grain refinement
b. a lower heat input and a coarse grain structure
c. a lower amount of distortion and a higher degree of grain refinement
d. a higher amount of distortion and a lower degree of grain refinement
74. An undesirable property of aluminum oxide residue, when welding is that it:
a. Decreases weld pool fluidity
b. Requires more heat to melt it when compared to aluminum
c. Causes the welder to travel to quickly
d. The presence of the oxide makes aluminum impossible to weld
75. Sress relief is not helpful in one of the following cases. Which one?
a. in improving resistance to stress corrosion cracking
b. in dimensional stability after machining improving
c. in lowering the peak residual stress
d. in softening the steel
76. What is the maximum hardness usually recommended for the HAZ of a medium
strength ferritic steel weld?
a. 100 DP Hv
b. 350 DP HV
c. 500 DP Hv
d. 750 DP Hv
77. You see a welder using oxy-acetylene flame with along feathered inner cone. What would be
the effect of this on carbon steel
a. the weld could be hard and brittle
b. the weld metal could be too soft
c. there will be no effect on the weld
d. the weld have undercut
78. Welding a steel plate of CE of 0.45 would require pre-heating to?

a. prevent the formation of sulphides
b. prevent hardening in the HAZ
d. to improve mechanical properties in the weld
79. Oxy pressure and nozzle size would imfluence what in flame cutting:
a. the temperature required for cut initiation
b. the ability to cut stainless steels
c. the depth of cut obtainable
80. The main uses of arc cutting/gouging processes is in:

a. the cutting of single bevel preparation
b. the removal of deposited welds
c. the cutting of single U-type preparation
81. What do you understand by the term "minimum interpass temperature"
a. minimum preheat temperature
b. minimum stress relieve temperature
c. the lowest temperature to be used when normalizing
d. the lowest temperature allowed during welding and between passes
82. Is it permissible to allow a single "V" butt weld to cool down passes?
a. It is solely the decision of the welder
b. It defends on the requirement of the procedure and specification
c. It is solely the decision of the welding inspector
d. No, all welds should be completed before dropping the temperature to ambient
83. What is the term given for the area of a welded joint just outside the weld metal that has
undergone microstructural changes?
a. HAZ
b. the weld zone
c. fusion zone
d. all of the above terms may be used
HYDROGEN CRACKS, SOLIDFICATION CRACKS,
LAMELLAR TEARS, FRACTURES
1. Which of the following is most likely to increase the chance of solidification cracking?
a. reduction in sulphur content of the parent material
b. increase restraint on the joint during welding
c. increase in weld hydrogen content from 15ml/100 g to 25ml/100 g
d. poor through thickness ductility in the materials being welded
e. both a & b
2. Which of the following elements may cause hot shortness

a. sulphur
b. phosphorous
c. manganese
d. silicon
3. Which of the following materials are the most susceptible to HICC in the weld zone?
a. carbon manganese steel
b. micro alloyed steel (HSLA)
c. austenitic steel
d. both a & b
e. all of the above
4. Lamellar tearing is:

a. A product defect caused during the manufacturing of certain steels
b. A crack type, which occurs in the parent material due to welding strains acting in the short
transverse direction of the parent material.
c. A type of hot crack associated with impurities (sulphur, carbon, and phosphorous).
d. A type of crack that occurs in the weld or parent material due to cyclic stresses.
5. The risk of hydrogen cracking is higher when MMA welding is used on…….
a. C/Mn steels
b. austenitic stainless steels
c. low alloy steels for elevated temperature service (Cr-Mo steels)
d. low carbon steels for cryogenic service (with nickel addition)
6. A concentration of iron sulphide inclusions in a carbon steel weld bead may cause…….
a. solidification cracking
c. lamellar tearing
d. weld decay
7. Which type of cracking occurs more often with SAW than with MMA?
a. HAZ hydrogen cracking
b. weld metal solidification cracking
c. HAZ cracking during PWHT (re-heat cracking)
d. lamellar tearing
8. High sulphur level in steel weld metal can be detrimental because:

a. it gives high levels of porosity
b. it can increase the risk of lamellar tearing
c. it can increase the risk of solidification cracking
d. all of the above
9. The fracture face of a lamellar tear has:
a. branch cracks running out from the initiation point
b. a flat and featureless appearance
c. a woody step like appearance
d. beach marks
10. Hot shortness in a steel weld may mean

a. it is short of ductility at high temperature
b. it contains a high level of iron sulphides
c. it is susceptible to solidification cracking
d. all of the above
11. Lamellar tearing is best prevented by:

a. The use of plate materials containing low levels of impurities
b. The use of buttering runs
c. Post weld stress relieve
d. Both a & b
e. all of the above
12. Which of the following is applicable to a plate lamination

a. they are best detected by radiography
b. they are mainly caused by hydrogen entrapment
c. they originate in the parent material
d. they are caused when welding stresses act parallel with the rolled direction of the
parent plate
13. Hot cracking in steel weldments occurs:

a. along the fusion line
b. in the last metal to solidify
c. weld center line
d. in areas of the lowest dilution
14. Which element in steel if present in significant amounts may lead to hot shortness?
a. phosphorus
b. manganese
c. silicon
d. sulphur
15. Hydrogen cracking in HAZ is most likely to occur when welding:

a. carbon manganese steels
b. austenitic stainless steel
c. micro alloyed steel (HSLA)
d. low carbon steel
16. What four criteria are necessary to produce hydrogen induced cold cracking?
a. Hydrogen, moisture, martensitic grain structure and heat
b. hydrogen, poor weld profiles, temperatures above 200C and a slow cooling rate
c. hydrogen, a grain structure susceptible to cracking, stress and a temperature
below 200C
d. hydrogen, existing weld defects, stress and a grain structure susceptible to cracking
17. A crack type most associated with the submerged arc welding process is:
a. hydrogen cracking in the HAZ
c. lamellar tearing
d. fatigue cracking
18. What effect to midthickness lamination in steel plate normally have when they are located
within a weld HAZ?
a. cause lamellar tearing
b. fuse together to form a bond
c. affect the weld metal composition
d. cause internal tearing on a micro scale
19. Lamellar tearing has been occurred in steel fabrication. BEFORE welding could it have
been found by:
a. X-ray examination
b. Dye penetrant
c. Ultrasonic inspection
d. It would not have been found by any inspection method
20. Cracks in the weld may be due to:

a. solidification problems
b. hydrogen problems
c. excessive stress
d. all of the above
21. A metallurgical problems most associated with submerged arc welding is:
a. hydrogen cracking in HAZ
b. solidification cracking in the weld metal
c. hydrogen cracking in the weld metal
d. lamellar tearing in the weld metal
22. Hydrogen cracking in the weld metal is likely when:

a.carbon manganese steels
b. stainless steels
c. micro alloyed steels (HSLA)
d. low carbon steels
23. The presence of iron sulphide in the weld metal is most likely to produce which of the following
upon contraction of the weld:
a. solidification cracking
c. intergranual corrosion
d. stress corrosion cracking
24. Hot shortness term is used to indicate:

a. lamellar tearing
c. hydrogen cracking
25. Fish - eyes, chevron cracks and fissures are:

a. not associated with welding
b. type of cracks
c. only encountered in MMA welds
d. hydrogen related problems
26. What would be a typical appearance of a ductile fracture surface?

a. rough randomly torn and a reduction in area
b. smooth fracture surface displaying beach marks
c. step like appearance
d. bright crystalline fracture with very little reduction in area
e. both a & b
27. The main reason for toe blending on certain welded component is:
a. corrosion considerations
b. fatigue life
c. appearance
d. all of the above
28. What is the cause of fatigue failure?

a. cyclic stress
b. corrosion
c. sudden stress above the yield point
d. sudden stress above the U.T.S.
29. In a transverse tensile test, brittleness would be indicated if…..

a. there is a large reduction in cross-sectional area at the position of fracture
b. the fracture surface is flat but has a rough surface
c. fracture occurred in the center of the weld
d. fracture occurs in the HAZ
30. When a Tee-joint is set up for ready for welding, which NDE technique is the best for ensuring
that no lamellar tears are present before welding commenses?
a. X-ray examination
b. liquid penetrant examination
c. ultrasonic examination
d. it could not have been found by any inspection method
31. A fatigue cracks fracture surface is:

a. rough randomly torn
b. smooth
c. step like appearance
d. bright crystalline
32. The likelihood of a brittle fracture in steels will increase with:

a. the formation of a fine grain structure
b. a reduction in-service temperature to sub-zero conditions
c. a slow cooling rate
d. all of the above
33. A fatigue failure characteristic by the appearance of the fracture surface. It would be:
a. rough and torn
b. "cheveron" - like
c. smooth
34. The likelihood of brittle fracture in steels will increase with:

a. a large grain formation
b. a reduction of in service temperature to sub zero levels
c. ferritic rather than austenitic steels
d. all of the above
35. What is the problem with restraint during welding?

a. it does not cause a problem
b. it may lead to cracking, especially with smal welds between large components
c. it causes distortion
d. restraint is term not used in relation to welding
36. Fluctuating load is: cyclic stresses, below the UTS on a weld component may lead to:
a. tensile failure
b. yield failure
c. fatigue failure
d. shear failure
WELDING PROCESS (MMA, MIG/MAG, TIG, SAW)
1. A welding process where the welding plant controls the travel speed and the arc gap,
but under constant supervision using a shielding gas mixture of 80% argon - 20%
carbon dioxide is termed:
a. A manual MAG process
b. A semi-automatic MAG process
c. A mechanized MIG process
d. A mechanized MAG process
2. Which welding process utilises a non consumable electrode

a. SAW
b. MMA
c. TIG
d. MIG
e. all of the above
3. Which welding process is considered the most versatile?

a. SAW
b. TIG
c. MIG/MAG
d. MMA
4. When welding using the MMA process, varying the arc length will give the most variation of
a. amperage
b. polarity
c. voltage
5. When measuring the welding parameters with the MMA welding process for the purpose
of approving welding procedure, the Welding inspector should measure the voltage:
a. as close to the welding arc as possible
b. anywhere along the welding cable
c. always from the voltmeter on the welding plant
d. as near to the welding terminals as possible
6. In arc welding process, which of the following is the correct term used for the amount of weld
metal deposited per minute?
a. filling rate
b. deposition rate
c. weld deposition
d. weld duty cycle
7. Which type of power source characteristics is normally used for manual welding?
a. constant welding
b. flat characteristics
c. constant current
d. a motor generator
8. Initiation of a TIG arc by using a High Frequency (HF) spark may not be allowed for some
application because….
a. it causes tungsten inclusion
b. it can damage electronic equipment
c. it is an electrical safety hazard
d. it often causes stop/start porosity
9. MIG/MAG welding has a tendency to give lack of sidewall fusion when……

a. spray transfer conditions are used
b. 100% CO2 shielding gas is used
c. pulsed current is used
d. dip transfer conditions are used
10. For SAW, what is the effect of raising arc voltage but keeping with all other parameters
the same?
a. the weld bead width will increase
b. the depth of penetration will increase
c. the weld bead width will decrease
d. the depth of penetration will decrease
11. When GMAW welding in dip transfer mode (short-circuiting mode) spatter can be reduced by…
a. using inductance
b. using 100% CO2
c. using Ar + 30% He
d. increasing the stick-out length
12. The spray transfer mode of GMAW is characterized by…….

a. giving deep penetration
b. being suitable for positional welding
c. giving excessive spatter
d. all of the above
13. When TIG welding in a trench, a welder could be in danger of asphyxiation because the
shielding gas is……
a. toxic
b. less dense than air
c. heavier than air
d. carcinogenic
14. For dip transfer (or short circuiting) mode of metal transfer, inductance has the effect of:
a. reducing spatter
b. reduces the rate of droplet transfer
c. increasing penetration depth
d. both a & b
15. The main reason why the use of semi-automatic dip transfer MIG/MAG welding is
prohibited for some high-integrity application is because……
a. it may produce a lot of spatter
b. the weld metal toughness is always poor
c. it is very often gives lack of sidewall fusion defects
d. wire feeding problems mean there are usually far too many stop-start regions
16. Which of the following statements is true

a. DC - ve is the polarity used for TIG welding most materials
b. DC + ve is the polarity used for TIG welding most materials
c. DC + or -ve is suitable for TIG welding of aluminum
d. AC TIG welding is usually specified for stainless and NI based alloys
17. Consumable guide welding is:

a. a narrow gap TIG welding process
b. a variant of electro-slag welding
c. a weld with a pre-placed fusible insert for controlled root penetration
d. a narrow gap SAW process
18. In the SAW process, the use of excessive high voltages would result in?
a. insufficient flux melting
b. excessive flux melting
c. slag removal difficulties
d. excessive spatter
19. Which of the following welding process uses a resistive heating system to achieve
weld metal deposition?
a. MMA
b. resistance spot welding
c. electro-slag
d. friction welding
20. Which of the following steel types would give rise to the formation of porosity when
autogenously welded with an arc welding process
a. fully killed steel
b. semi killed steel
c. rimming steel
d. balanced steel
21. Movement of the arc by magnetic forces in an arc welding process is termed:
a. arc deviation
b. arc misalignment
c. arc blow
d. stray arc
22. Which of the following processes joins metals plastically

a. friction welding
b. resistance welding
c. arc welding
d. plasma welding
e. all of the above
23. What type of power source characteristic is required for a manual process?
a. constant voltage
b. flat characteristic
c. drooping characteristic
24. If arc blow exists when welding with MMA welding process, this can be best reduced or
eliminated by:
a. a change from AC to DC current
b. a change from DC to AC current
c. a change from DC +ve to DC -ve
d. a change from DC -ve to DC +ve
25. The inclusion of an inductance in the welding circuit when using MIG/MAG welding process is:
a. control the rate of spatter in the dip transfer mode
b. it enables the welder to weld in position with the spray transfer mode
c. it allows for thicker filler wires to be used (2.6 - 3.6mm diameter)
d. it allows full control over droplet size in the spray transfer mode
26. In a semi-automatic welding process, which of the following shielding gas/gas mixtures would
normally give the deepest penetration on steel?
a. 100% argon
b. 100% CO2
c. 75% argon + 25% CO2
d. all of the above would give the same depth in penetration
27. In a MMA welding process, which of the following statements are false?
a. an arc gap, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder varies the
position of the electrode
b. a voltage, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder varies the arc gap
c. a current, which remains almost constant even if as usual the welder varies the arc gap
d. a & b
e. all of the above
28. When considering the MIG/MAG welding process which of the following metal transfer modes
would be the best suited to the welding of thick plates over 25mm, flat welding position
a. dip transfer
b. pulse transfer
c. spray transfer
d. globular transfer
29. Which of the following current types would you expect to be used for the welding of
aluminum with the TIG welding process?
a. DC -ve
b. DC + ve
c. AC
d. all of the above
30. Which of the following statements is false?

a. In the MMA welding process electrode DC + produces a deep narrow weld pool, which
is fast freezing
b. DC electrode positive is used for the MAG welding process of steel plate
c. In the MAG welding process the wire feed speed remains constant during the welding
operation
d. all of the above
31. When considering hydrogen, which of the following welding process would produce the
lowest levels in the completed weld (under controlled conditions)
a. MMA
b. SAW
c. TIG
d. FCAW
32. For a given voltage and current settings on a MMA welding plant, when the arc length is
shortened, which of the following will be most affected
a. the current will increase
b. the current will decrease
c. the voltage will decrease
d. the voltage will increase
33. Which of the following best describes a semi automatic welding process?
a. the welder is responsible for the maintaining the arc gap and travel speed
b. the welder is responsible for travel speed only; arc gap is kept constant by the
welding plant
c. both travel speed and arc gap is controlled by the welding plant
d. all of the above
34. What is the purpose of a rectifier in a welding sets electrical circuit?
a. to keep the arc stable when using low current settings
b. to convert AC current to DC current
c. to convert DC current to AC currentt
d. to initiate the arc at start up
35. When calibrating a mechanized MAG welding plant, which of the following applies
(WFS = Wire feed speed)?
a. check - WFS, current, volts and wire diameter
b. check -WFS, joint set up, gas flow rate and WFS
c. check - gas flow rate, stick out length, WFS and current
d. all of the above
36. The main usage of the arc air process is

a. the cutting of a weld preparation
b. the removal of defective welds
c. for the cutting of non-ferrous materials only
d. for the cutting of ferrous materials only
37. Which of the following welding process uses a resisitive heating system to achieve
weld metal deposition
a. MMA welding
b. SAW
c. Electro slag welding
d. Resistance spot welding
38. MMA welding of alloy steels is more likely to be performed with:

a. rutile electrodes
b. cellulosic electrodes
c. iron powder electrodes
d. basic hydrogen controlled electrodes
39. When MMA welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which groups of
welder are most likely to require continuous monitoring?
a. concrete shuttering welding team
b. pipe welders
c. plater welders
d. plant maintainace welders
40. For open site MMA welding the following equipment is available. Which would you choice
for safe working?
a. single operator transformer
b. multi operator transformer
c. AC/DC composite power unit
d. diesel engine driven motor generator
41. If submerged welding to be used to make butt welds, which would you be most critical of:
a. the root gap tolerance
b. the angle of penetration
c. the root face width
d. the gas cut finish
42. During CO2 welding, the arc length is most likely to be affected by:
a. the wire diameter
b. the current return connection
c. the gas flow rate
d. the torch to work angle
43. You are to over see arc welding of some machine fittings and find they are cadmium plated.
What you:
a. permit to proceed
b. permit it to proceed with fume extraction
c. stop the operation at once
d. advise the welder to drink milk to proceed
44. What two functions in arc welding must be in equilibrium to enable a stable arc to be
established?
a. arc voltage
b. current
c. wire/electrode feed rate
d. metal burn off rate
45. In MMA welding, what parameter is used for the control of penetration into the base material?
a. voltage
b. welding speed
c. iron powders in the coating
d. current
46. What type of power source characteristic is required for manual welding?
a. constant voltage
b. flat characteristic
c. drooping characteristic
d. motor generator
47. In MAG/CO2 welding, which parameters give the greatest control of weld appearance
during dip transfers or short-circuiting welding?
a. wire stick-out length
b. amperage
c. wire feed speed
d. inductance
48. In MMA welding, the slag produced can be varied to suit the welding position; which type
of slag would be required for welding in the HV position?
a. fluid
b. viscous
c. none of the above
d. semi fluid
49. Which one of the following steels would give rise to the formation of porosity when
autogenously welded with an arc process?
a. fully killed steel
b. semi killed steel
c. rimming steel
d. fine grained steel
50. In submerged arc welding, the use of excessively high voltage would result in?
a. insufficient flux melting
b. excessive flux melting
c. slag removal difficulties
d. spatter
51. Which of the following process uses the "keyholing" system of fusion?
a. friction welding
b. diffusion bonding
c. electron beam welding
d. autogenous TIG welding
52. In friction welding, is the metal at the interface in the?

a. liquid state
b. solid state
c. plastic state
d. elastic state
53. In submerged arc welding, excessive arc voltage may cause?

a. excessive penetration
b. change in weld metal composition
c. narrow weld width
d. excessive bead profile
54. Movement of the arc by magnetic forces in MMA welding is termed:

a. arc deviation
b. arc misalignment
c. arc blow
d. arc eye
55. Which of the following processes joins metals plastically:

a. friction welding
b. resistance welding
c. plasma welding
d. all of the above
56. A common gas mixtures used in MIG welding nickel alloys to combine good levels of
penetration with good arc stability would be:
a. 100% CO2
b. 100% argon
c. 80% argon 20% CO2
d. 98% argon 2% oxygen
57. Repair welding is often more difficult than production due to:
a. the material being ingrained with-in service contaminates
b. restricted access with the repair area
c. the possible position of the weld
d. any of the above
58. When referring to MIG welding, the shielding gas could be:
a. argon
b. argon + 1% oxygen
c. argon + 20% CO2
59. When referring to TIG welding, the shielding gas could be:
a. argon + hydrogen
b. argon + helium
c. argon + nitrogen
d. all of the above
60. Submerged arc utilities:

a. deep penetration characteristic
b. high deposition rate on DC+
c. flat (P.A.) welding only
61. Which of the following welding process may be described, as a low hydrogen process in
comparison with general MMA welding:
a. TIG
b. MIG
c. MAG
e. all of the above
62. Why have a high O.C.V. with MMA welding
a. to initiate the arc
b. to obtain penetration
c. to avoid lack of fusion
d. MMA welding does not have a high O.C.V.
63. What is the purpose of a "rectifier" in relation to welding plant?

a. to adjust the voltage
b. to adjust the amperage
c. to convert AC to DC
d. to prevent arc strikes
64. Which welding process is considered the most versatile?

a. SAW
b. TIG
c. MIG/MAG
d. MMA
65. Which of the following welding process is most susceptible to lack of fusion?
a. SAW
b. CO2 (metal active gas)
c. MMA
d. TIG
66. When welding using the MMA process, varying the arc length will give the most variation of:
a. voltage
b. amperage
c. polarity
67. Which arc welding process utilizes a non-consumable electrode

a. MIG
b. TIG
c. MMA
d. SAW
e. all of the above
NON - DESTRUCTIVE TESTING
1. When considering the advantages of site radiography over ultrasonic inspection which
of the following applies?
a. A permanent record produced, good for detecting lack of sidewall fusion in a single U
butt weld and defect identification
b. A permanent record produced, good for the detection of all surface and sub surface defects
and assessing the through thickness depths of defects
c. Permanent record produced, good for defect identification and not as reliant upon
surface preparation
d. No controlled areas required on site, a permanent record produced and good for assessing
pipe wall thickness reductions due to internal corrosion
e. Both a & c
2. Ultrasonic testing is preferable to radiographic testing due to:

a. its ability to detect all defects
b. lower amount of operator skill required
c. its ability to detect laminations
d. its ability to detect both sub-surface and surface defects in Austenitic stainless steel
3. Which NDT method would never be used on a 6" diameter aluminum butt weld?
a. Radiography
b. Ultrasonic inspection
c. Magnetic particle inspection
d. Dye penetrant inspection
4. The European Standard for NDE of fusion welds by visual examination is…..
a. EN 288
b. EN 499
c. EN 287
d. EN 970
5. What determines the penetrating power of Gamma rays?

a. time
b. type of isotope
c. source-to-film distance
d. source strength
6. A penetrameter is used to measure……….

a. the size of a discontinuity in a weld joint
b. the density of a radiographic film
c. the degree of film contrast
d. the quality of the radiographic technique
7. Ultrasonic testing has an advantage over other NDT methods for the detection of……..
a. lack of sidewall fusion
b. root undercut
c. incomplete filled groove
d. root concavity
8. For gamma radiography of a steel weld at 40mm thick, the recommended isotope is………
a. thulium 170
b. ytterbium 169
c. iridium 192
d. cobalt 60
9. The sensitivity of a radiograph is assessed …….
a. by using a densitometer
b. by using an image quality indicator (IQI)
c. from the KVA used
d. from stand-off used
10. NDT is sometimes specified to be cariied out no less than 48 hours after completion
of welding so that:
a. time is allowed for welding records to be reviewed
b. time is allowed for final visual inspection
c. time is allowed for any stress relaxation to occur
d. time is allowed for any hydrogen cracks will be detected
11. The penetrating power of an X-Ray set is expressed in………

a. KV
b. curies
c. the IQI value
d. the number after the isotope type
12. Which of the following NDT methods can only detect surface breaking defects
a. MPI
b. DPI
c. UT
d. RT
e. both a & b
13. When considering radiography using X-ray, which of the following techniques is most likely
to be used for a pipe to pipe weld (circumferential seam), 610mm diameter with no internal
access?
a. SWSI
b. DWSI
c. DWDI
d. SWSI - panoramic
14. On a radiograph, the most likely appearance of lack of root fusion on a single V butt weld is:
a. a dark straight line with a light root
b. a dark root with a straight edges
c. a dark uneven line following the edge of the root
d. none of the above lack of root fusion can not be seen on a radiograph
15. Which of the following NDT methods would be the least effective on an austenitic stainless
butt weld
a. UT
b. RT
c. DPI
d. MPI
16. The usual method of assessing the sensitivity and density of a radiograph is by means of:
a. densitometer and dosimeter
b. penetrameter and a densitometer
c. IQI and a dosimeter
d. IQI and a fluxmeter
17. The usual method of assessing the sensitivity of radiograph is by means of a:
a. dosimeter
b. flouroscope
c. IQI (penetrameter)
d. clinometer
18. Which of the following methods of NDT would be most likely to detect lack of sidewall fusion
in ferritic steel welds?
a. penetrants
b. magnetic particles
c. radiography
d. ultrasonic flaw detector
19. You suspected that ferritic steel plates, which have been edge, prepared contain crack in the
prepared edges. Which NDT method would you use to check this?
a. Radiography
b. Magnetic particle
c. Penetrants
d. Ultrasonic flaw detector
20. In X-ray the quality of the radiograph negative is assessed by the?

a. density of the film
b. IQI indicator
c. KVA available
d. stand-off distance
21. Penetrant and Magnetic particle inspection are mainly used to:
a. aid visual inspection
b. because application standard says so
c. to confirm "visual uncertainties"
d. all of the above
22. Ultrasonic testing is of advantage in detecting which of the following weld imperfections
over other NDT methods:
a. lack of sidewall fusion
b. surface undercut
c. incomplete filled groove
d. overlap
23. Generally the most suitable method of detecting lack of sidewall fusion would be:
a. ultrasonic
b. MPI
c. radiography
d. penetrants
24. The use of cobalt as an isotope would generally be used on:

a. thin materials
b. tee joints
c. plate thickness greater than 25mm
25. Ultrasonic would be prefer over radiography due to:

a. ability to find more defects
b. lowest skill requirements
c. abilty to detect lamination
d. both a & c
26. Which form of NDT could be used on a fillet weld on aluminum?
a. dye penetrant testing
b. ultrasonic testing
c. radiography
d. MPI
e. a, b and c
f. d only
g. all of the above
27. Which of the following NDT methods would not detect sub-surface defects?
a. MPI
b. dye penetrant testing
c. ultrasonic testing
d. radiography
e. all of the above would detect sub-surface defects
28. Which NDT method would never be use on a 6" aluminum pipe weld?
a. radiography
b. magnetic particle inspection
c. ultrasonic testing
d. dye penetrant testing
WELDING CONSUMABLES
1. An MMA electrode classified as E7018 is:
a. a basic low hydrogen electrode containing iron powder
b. a rutile electrode containing iron powder
c. a cellulose electrode suitable for welding in all positions
d. a basic electrode depositing weld metal with yield strength of at least 70,000 psi
e. both a and d
2. In EN 499, what does the number 50 represent in the following electrode classification?
E 50 3 1Ni B 160 0 1 H5
a. a minimum of 50 N/mm2 yield strength
b. a minimum of 500 N/mm2 tensile strength
c. a minimum 50000 psi yield strength
d. a minimum of 50000 psi tensile strength
3. Which of the following statement maybe considered correct when dealing with
agglomerated fluxes?
1. easy addition of additive
2. they're less hygroscophic than other types
3. flaky appearance
4. need to bake, prior to their use
5. less dust tendency
a. statements 1 & 4 are correct

b. answer 1 & 3 are correct
c. answer 4 & 5 are correct
d. statements 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct
4. What is the main constituent of a rutile electrode?

a. cellulose
b. titanium dioxide
c. calcium carbonate
d. asbestos
5. What does the 70 represent on a E7010 AWS classified electrode?

a. 70 N/mm2 minimum U.T.S.
b. 70 N/mm2 maximum U.T.S.
c. 70,000 psi minimum U.T.S.
d. 70,000 psi minimum yield strength
6. Which of the following is not an inert gas?

a. argon
b. xenon
c. carbon dioxide
d. helium
7. Why is a welding arc shielded?

a. to eliminate hydrogen
b. to retard the cooling rate of the weld
c. to eliminate the atmosphere
d. to ensure maximum heat input
8. Why is it preferable to use basic coated electrodes on attachment fillet welds on high
pressure pipes?
a. high penetration in comparison with cellulose electrodes
b. low penetration in comparison with cellulose electrodes
c. neat profile
d. for a defect - free weld
9. Which of the following electrodes is classified to BS EN 499?

a. E 38 3 R
b. E 6013
c. E 7018 - G
d. E 51 33 B
10. Which type of electrode is used for vertical - down welding (stove-pipe welding) of
pipeline girth welds?
a. rutile
b. cellulose
c. high recovery rutile
d. all of the above
11. The three main types of MMA electrodes that are used for welding C & C/Mn steels are…….
a. basic, cellulosic and rutile
b. neutral, cellulosic and rutile
c. basic, cellulosic and neutral
d. rutile, low hydrogen and basic
12. MMA electrodes, with the flux covering removed, should not be used as filler rods for
TIG welding because……
a. welding costs will be much higher
b. the rod diameter will be too large
c. the weld metal composition may wrong
d. the rods will too short
13. The chemical composition of weld metal deposited by a C/Mn steel MMA electrode is
controlled mainly by…….
a. the core wire composition
b. the transfer of alloying additions from the flux covering
c. the transfer of iron powder from the flux covering
d. dilution from the base material
14. Silicon is added to steel, and the covering of MMA electrodes, for the purpose of……..
a. de-oxidation
b. improving strength
c. improving toughness
d. giving better resistance to hydrogen cracking
15. What type of covering do low hydrogen electrodes have?

a. cellulosic
b. rutile
c. acid
d. basic
16. A hydrogen controlled MMA electrode can always be recognized by the…….

a. EN code letter or AWS code number stamped on the covering
b. thickness of the electrode covering
c. trade name
d. colour of the flux covering
17. The compulsory part of the coding system used for electrodes manufactured to EN 499
must include…….
a. the covering type and positional capability
b. the covering type and preferred polarity
c. the covering type and minimum strength
d. the covering type and maximum hardness
18. A typical temperature range for baking low hydrogen electrodes is…..
a. 150 to 200 C
b. 200 to 250 C
c. 300 to 350 C
d. 450 to 500 C
19. Which type of SAW flux requires careful control of storage, issue and handling to avoid
moisture pick-up?
a. neutral
b. agglomerated
c. fused
d. they are all about the same
20. Which gas is the most suitable shielding gas for GMAW of 304L and 316L stainless steels?
a. 100% argon
b. 70% argon + 30% He
c. argon + 20% hydrogen
d. argon + 1% O2
21. Which is the most suitable shielding gas for GMAW of aluminum?
a. 100% CO2
b. 100% argon
c. 80% argon + 20% O2
d. 98% argon + 2% O2
22. Which of the following AWS A5.1 electrodes has a rutile covering……….
a. E 6010
b. E 7016
c. E 7018
d. E 6013
23. What type of covering will an electrode have that is suitable for welding 60mm C/Mn steel
and can give good weld metal toughness at -50C……..
a. rutile
b. basic
c. cellulosic
d. choice will defend on the welding position
24. Electrodes with a basic covering are used:

a. for welding high strength low alloy steels
b. when low temperature toughness is specified for the weld metal
c. when low hydrogen electrodes are specified
d. when any of the above are applicable
25. To ensure that low hydrogen electrodes have very low moisture content, a typical baking
temperature would be:
a. 120C
b. 350C
c. 450C
d. 200C
26. Cellulosic electrodes are characterized by:

a. being used for joints requiring high toughness
b. being giving very high hydrogen weld metal
c. having deep penetration characteristics
d. both b & c
27. The flux covering on a MMA electrode:

a. generates slag and gas to protect the molten weld pool from contamination by air
b. adds elements to strengthen and toughen the weld
c. contains arc stabilizing compounds
d. all of the above
28. Cellulose electrodes are often used for the deposition of a root pass on pipes welded in the
field. This is because?
a. hydrogen control is required
b. the high deposition rate due to the iron powder content
c. the hydrogen gas produced in the flux increases the arc voltage
d. all of the above
29. Which of the following additions may be added to an electrodes flux to act as a stabilizer?
a. sodium silicate
b. silicon
c. manganese
d. titanium dioxide
30. Basic coated electrodes have which of the following properties

a. high mechanical properties may be used to produce welds of high deposition rates and
to produce welds of low hydrogen content
b. friable slag, high mechanical strength, and to produce welds of a low hydrogen content
c. low hydrogen content welds, good stop/start properties and high strength
d. low carbon content welds, friable slag and high strength
31. What does the 70 represent on an E7010 AWS A5.1 classified electrode?
a. 70 N/mm2 minimum UTS
b. 70 joules minimum impact strength
c. 70,000 psi minimum yield strength
d. 70,000 psi minimum UTS
32. Cellulose elctrodes have which of the following properties?

a. viscous slag, large volumes of shielding gas and UTS values above 90,000 psi
b. large volumes of shielding gas, high spatter contents and hydrogen levels less than 15 ml
per 100g of weld metal deposited
c. large volumes of shielding gas, hydrogen contents greater than 15 ml per 100g of weld metal
deposited and should be never be baked
d. high spatter contents, high deposition and large volumes of gas shield
33. From the following electrode coding in BS EN 499, E50 3 1Ni B 140 0 1 H5, what does the
3 represent
a. a minimum charpy value of a 30 joules
b. a minimum impact value of 47 joules
c. a minimum impact temperature of -30C at a given Joule value
34. Which of the following is applicable to electrode efficiency?

a. the mass of metal deposited as a percentage of the mass of core wire melted
b. iron powder electrodes have efficiencies above 100%
c. electrodes of high efficiencies tend to produce welds of a smooth flat profile
d. both a & b
e. all of the above
35. E6013 electrode would most probably used for welding:
a. low pressure pipework
b. high pressure pipework
c. vertical down welding on storage tanks
d. in a situation where low hydrogen welds are specified
36. What constituent is needed in a coating of an electrode to prevent the formation of porosity
when welding rimming steel
a. iron powder
b. potassium silicate
c. silicon
d. calcium carbonate
37. Flux cored wires may be advantages over solid wires because:
a. higher deposition
b. lower hydrogen contents in the deposited welds
c. easy addition of alloying elements
d. both a & c
e. all of the above
38. Which of the following electrodes and current types may be used for the TIG welding of nickel
and its alloys?
a. cerium electrode, DC -ve
b. zirconium electrode, AC
c. thorium electrode, DC +ve
d. all of the above may be used
39. In a semi-automatic welding process, which of the following shielding gas/gas mixtures would
normally give the deepest penetration on steel?
a. 100% argon
b. 100% CO2
c. 75% argon + 25% CO2
d. all of the above would give the same depth in penetration
40. Hydrogen controlled electrodes were developed principally for:

a. the prevention of porosity
b. the prevention of cracking
c. the enhancement of arc voltage
d. their case of arc starting
41. Which of the following is likely to give the highest impact strength in ferritic weld metal?
a. cellulosic electrodes
b. submerged arc with acid flux
c. spray transfer CO2 welding
d. basic coated normal metal arc electrodes
42. When hydrogen control is specified for a MMA welding project the electrode would normally be:
a. cellulosic
b. iron oxide
c. acid
d. basic
43. You would with certainty recognize a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its
a. color
b. length
c. trade name
d. AWS/BS639 code letter
44. You noticed MMA welding electrodes, stripe of flux , are being used as filler wire, for TIG
welding. You would object because:
a. it is too expensive
b. the wire would be too thick
c. the weld metal composition may be wrong
d. the wire is too short
45. The weld metal deposits of MMA electrode achieves its mechanical strength through?
a. the core wire
b. the flux coating
c. iron powder with the flux coating
46. What constituent is needed in coating of electrode of an electrode to prevent formation of

porosity in welding of rimming steel?
a. iron powder
b. calcium flouride
c. silicon
d. calcium carbonate
47. The use of cellulosic electrode is often made when welding the root pass of pipes in the field.
This is because?
a. hydrogen control is needed
b. iron powder in the electrode
c. higher arc voltage can be obtained
d. shorter arc length can be achieved
48. Submerged arc fluxes can be supplied in two forms; these are?
a. sintered and agitated
b. agitated and fused
c. crushed and agglomerated
d. fused and agglomerated
49. MMA electrodes can be grouped into 3 main types. These are:
a. basic, cellulosic & rutile
b. neutral, cellulosic & rutile
c. basic , cellulosic & neutral
50. Which electrode classification would be relevant AWS A5.1-81:

a. E6013
b. E5133
c. E7018 - G
d. fleet weld 5
51. Which of the following coating is associated with stove welding:

a. rutile
b. cellulosic
c. basic
d. oxidizing
52. The type of SAW flux is more resistance to moisture absorption:

a. fused
b. agglomerated
c. basic
d. all of about the same resistance
53. A basic electrode would normally:

a. have superior mechanical properties
b. require baking before use
c. not be used on low carbon steel
d. both a & b
54. Which of the following is not an inert gas?
a. argon
b. xenon
c. carbon dioxide
d. helium
55. Which electrodes are very susceptible to causing porosity in the deposited weld if long
arc employed?
a. basic
b. cellulosic
c. rutile
MECHANICAL TESTING
1. Which of the following stements is true if applicable to a charpy V notch impact test
a. it's a destructive test used to assess materials ductility in the weld zone
b. it's a mechanical test used to determine a welds resistance to creep
c. it's a dynamic test, which is used to give a measure of notch toughness
d. it's a static test used to determine materials toughness in the notch region
e. both a & c
2. The strength of a fillet weld is determined by ……..

a. Leg length
b. Weld profile
c. Weld width
d. Throat thickness
3. The strength of a fillet weld is primary controlled by:

a. leg lengtht
b. design throat thickness
c. actual throat thickness
d. all of the above
4. Which mechanical test can be used to measure the toughness of the weld metal, HAZ and
parent material?
a. macro
b. nick break
c. hardness
d. charpy impact
5. Which is the best destructive test for showing lack of sidewall fusion in a 25mm thick butt weld?
a. a nick break
b. a side bend
c. a charpy V-notch impact
d. a face bend
6. A bend test piece with the weld face strained in tension and root strained in compression is a..
a. root bend
b. side bend
c. face bend
d. longitudinal bend
7. Which fillet weld is the strongest (assuming they are all made using the same material and WPS
a. 8mm throat of a miter fillet
b. 7mm leg + 2mm excess weld metal
c. miter fillet with 10mm leg
d. concave fillet with 11mm leg
8. Nick break and fillet fracture tests are used for …..
a. assessing weld quality
b. assessing weld metal ductility
c. assessing weld metal toughness
d. all of the above
9. A STRA test (Short Transverse Reduction of Area test) is used for measuring …….
a. the tensile strength of the welded joint
b. the level of residual stress in butt joints
c. the fracture toughness of the HAZ
d. the through thickness ductility of a steel plate (the "Z" direction of the plate)
10. A macro section is particularly useful for showing……..

a. the HAZ microstructure
b. overlap
c. the weld metal microstructure
d. all of the above
11. A transverse tensile test, from a Weld Procedure Approval Record (WPAR) test plate, is used
to measure …….
a. the tensile strength of the weld
b. the tensile strength of the joint
c. the stress/strain characteristics of the weld
d. the stress/strain characteristics of the joint
12. Which of the following destructive tests would indicate the toughness value of the weld
metal/parent metal and HAZ?
a. macro
b. nick break
c. tensile
d. charpy V notch
13. In which of the following mechanical tests would you expect to use a comparison from
ductile to brittle transition curve
a. tensile test
b. charpy test
c. fusion zone test
d. all of the above
14. What is the purpose of microscopic examination of a weld?

a. to determine the number and type of defects present
b. to determine the grain size
c. to determine the strength of the weld
d. both a & b
e. all of the above
15. Which of the following units is a tensile specimen usually measured in?
a. pounds per square inch
b. newton per square inches
c. joules
d. both a & b
16. What is the purpose of a transverse tensile test?

a. to measure ultimate tensile strength
b. to measure the elongation of a material
c. to measure the yield strength of a material
d. all of the above
17. Which of the following mechanical tests can be used to give a quantitative measurement
of weld zone ductility?
a. tensile test
b. bend test
c. charpy V notch
d. all of the above
18. Which of the following are true with regards to a charpy test
a. it's a static test used to determine a materials notch toughness in the weld region
b. it's a dynamic test used to determine a materials notch toughness in the weld region
c. it's a destructive test to give a measurement of through thickness ductility
19. Which of the following units could charpy V notch energy be measured in?
a. pounds per square inch
b. joules
c. newtons per square millimeter
20. Which of the following destructive tests is not normally required for welder approval test
for mild steel?
a. bend test
b. macro examination
c. impact test
d. fracture test
21. Bend test specimens have been taken from a 25mm thick carbon steel butt weld. Which
would show lack of inter-run fusion:
a. side bend
b. root bend
c. face bend
d. guided bend
22. Which of the following destructive tests would indicate the toughness of weld metal/parent
metal and HAZ
a. Macro
b. Nick break
c. Hardness
d. Charpy V notch
23. What destructive test would be required to ascertain the likelihood of cracking in the
HAZ of a weld?
a. nick break
b. side bend test
c. charpy input
d. macro test
24. Macroscopic examination requires any specimen to be inspected:

a. once, after etching
b. twice, before and after etching
c. using a microscope
25. In bend test, the face of the specimen is in tension and root is in compression; the type of
test being carried out would be:
a. a root bend test
b. a side bend test
c. a face bend test
26. A tensile test will asses

a. impact values
b. stress
c. strain
d. both a & c
27. Which mechanical test can be used to make an assessment of surfacing breaking defects?
a. bend test
b. nick break test
c. macro test
e. all of the above
28. What is the purpose of tensile test?

a. to assess tensile strength
b. to assess ductility
c. to assess yield strength
d. all of the above could be assessed
29. When a metal returns to its original shape after an applied load has been removed, the
metal is said to have:
a. plasticity
b. ductility
c. elasticity
d. malleability
30. Stress is equal to:

a. stress
b. load divided by cross - sectional area
c. extension of gauge length divided by original gauge length
d. toughness
31. Strain is equal to:

a. stress
b. load divided by cross - sectional area
c. extension of gauge length divided by the original gauge length
d. toughness
32. Stress can be measured in:

a. N/mm2
b. psi
c. mm
d. both a & b
33. How could you accurately measure the root radius of a charpy or Izod specimen?
a. with a machine called shadowgraph
b. with a rule
c. with a vernier caliper
d. with a densitometer
34. Stress acting in the opposite direction of compressive stress is known as:
a. residual stress
b. shear stress
c. hoop stress
d. tensile stress
DUTIES & RESPONSIBILITIES
WELDING TERMS & DEFINITIONS
1. What is the ratio between the leg length and the design throat thickness on a
miter fillet weld with equal leg lengths
a. 1 to1
b. 2 to 1
c. 1.414 to 1
d. all of the above it defends upon the leg length size
2. The primary duty of a welding inspector is:

a. to ensure the welds are defect free
b. to ensure the weld is free from residual stresses
c. to write job specifications
d. to ensure all welding and associated activities are carried out in accordance
with the procedure and specification
3. Quality Assurance:
a. Another name for inspection
b. Relates to all activities and functions concerned with the attainment of quality
c. Is the activity of ensuring documents related to specific contracts are in order
d. Is the activity of carrying out quality control
4. Generally speaking, a welding inspector, as a minimum requirement:

a. must have a thorough knowledge of NDT
b. must know how to interpret radiographs
c. must have thorough knowledge of welding metallurgy
e. all of the above
5. The toes of the cap of a butt weld

a. must overlap onto the external surface of a plate or a pipe by at least 1.5mm
b. must be ground
c. must never be ground
6. A welding inspector:
a. should be able to weld
c. may be required on certain contracts, to interpret radiographs
d. none of the abov
e. both a & b
7. What is the throat thickness of a fillet weld

a. the distance from the toe to the face
b. the distance from the root to the face center
c. the distance from the root to the toe
d. the distance from toe to toe
8. Which group of welders is most likely to require continuous monitoring by a welding inspector?
a. concrete shuttering welders
b. overland pipeline welders
c. tack welders
d. maintenance welders
9. Fillet welds are:
a. preferable to butt welds due to high strength
b. difficult to assess with NDT in comparison with butt (groove) welds
c. used only for appearance purposes
d. only feasible on steels
e. all of the above
10. Lap joints contain:

a. fillet welds
b. corner joints
c. butt welds
d. single bevel butt welds
11. API stands for:

a. associated pipeline industries
b. amalgamated plate industry
c. american pipeline institute
d. american petroleum institute
12. What is the leg length of a fillet weld

d. the distance from the toe to the toe

a. the distance from the toe to face
b. the distance from the root to face center
d. it's 0.7 of the design throat thickness
e. both c & d
14. What is the throat thickness of a fillet weld (equal leg lengths)?
15. Compound welds:
a. Always contain butt and fillet welds
b. Joints, which have combinations of welds made by different welding processes
c. Combinations between two different weld types
d. All of the above
16. A duty not normally undertaken by a welding inspector is to:

a. check the condition of the parent material
b. check the condition of the consumables
c. measure residual stress
d. check calibration certificates
17. Under most conditions, which of the following welding positions will deposit the most weld metal
a. PG
b. PE
c. PC
d. PA
18. What is meant by the term junction?
a. the area containing the HAZ and the weld metal
b. the weld metal and parent metal
c. the boundery between the fusion zone and the HAZ
d. the part of the weld, has undergone mettalurgical changes due to the heat from welding
19. When carrying out visual inspection, the specification makes no mention of the requirements
for visual inspection, in this situation what should you do?
a. carry out normal visual inspection
b. seek advice from higher authority
c. carry out no visual inspection
d. re-write the requirements of the specification
20. Under most circumstances, which of the following do you consider to be duties of a
welding inspector
a. the supervision of welders
b. procedure writing
c. qualifying welders
d. all of the above
21. On a single V butt weld, the distance through the center of the weld from root to face is called
a. reinforcement
b. penetration
c. throat thickness
22. The throat thickness of a 3/4 inch fillet weld is?

a. 27.5 mm
b. 24 mm
c. 13.5 mm
d. 12.5mm
23. Which of of the following but weld preparations is most likely to be considered for the
welding of a 6mm thick plate?
a. double V butt
b. asymmetrical double V butt
c. single U butt
d. single V butt
24. A welding inspectors main attributes include:

a. knowledge
b. honesty and integrity
c. good comunicator
d. all of the above
25. A code practice for visual inspection should cover:

a. before, during and after welding
b. before welding activities only
c. after welding activities only
26.The strength of a fillet weld defends on…….

A. leg length
b. weld profile
c. weld width
d. throat thickness
27. When items are being fabricated for very high integrity applications welding inspectors
should make checks……
a. before, during and after welding
b. before welding only
c. after welding only
d. during welding and after welding only
28. A code of practice is……

a. a standard for workmanship quality only
b. a set of rules and guidelines for manufacturing a specific product
c. a specification for the finished product
d. all of the above
29. For fillet welds, it is normal practice in the UK & USA to measure……..
a. throat thicknesses
b. leg lengths
c. penetration depths
d. both a & c
30. A fillet weld has an actual throat thickness of 8mm and a leg length of 7mm. What is the
excess weld metal?
a. 2.1 mm
b. 1.8 mm
c. 3.1 mm
d. 1.4 mm
31. The fusion boundery of a weld is…..

a. the boundary between the weld metal and HAZ
b. the boundary between individual weld runs
c. the depth of root penetration
d. the boundary between the HAZ and parent material
32. BS EN 970 allows the use of a magnifying glass for visual inspection but recommends
that the magnification is…….
a. x2
b. x2 to x5
c. x5 to x10
d. not greater than x20
33. EN 288 is a specification for……

a. welder approval/qualification
b. welding equipment calibration
c. welding procedure approval/qualification
d. consumables for MMA electrodes
34. When 2 different material types are welded together, the joint may be referred to as……..
a. a composite joint
b. a transition joint
c. a dissimilar metal joint
d. either b or c
35. A fusible insert is:

a. filler material placed in the weld joint before welding
b. permanent backing strip
c. the core wire in a manual metal arc welding electrode
d. applicable only to bracing
36. A weld defect is……
a. any feature of a weld joint which not ideal
b. an indication which can be seen by visual inspection
c. an imperfection with a dimension above the specified maximum
d. an indication shown by surface or volumetric NDT
37. The fusion boundary of a weldment is

a. the boundary between weld metal and HAZ
b. the boundary between different passes
c. the boundary between parent metal and HAZ
d. all of the above
38. If a welding inspector is instructed to determine the visual acceptability of a weld but the
acceptance has not been specified, his course of action should be….
a. assume that the acceptance standard is not important and use his experience to
decide acceptability
b. sentence to a very high standard so that the final condition of the weld is virtually faultless
c. seek guidance about the acceptance criteria from the relevant person
d. accept the weld if there is no lack of fusion, no cracks, no arc strikes, and no undercut
39. In UK practice, BS 499 part 2 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the
a. Leg length
b. Actual throat thickness
c. Weld width
40. A fabricating procedure calls for fillet welds to be blended in by grinding. This is to influence:
a. HAZ cracking
b. fatigue life
c. residual stress
d. yield strength
41. In the welding of butt joint from one side, which of the following controls the profile of the
root bead?
a. root face
b. bevel angle
c. root gap
d. one of the above
42. The british code for visual inspection requirements is:

a. BS 4872
b. BS 499
c. BS 4870
43. A code of practice for visual inspection should cover the following:
a. before, during and after welding activities
b. before welding activities only
c. after welding activities only
44. A magnifying glass may be used during visual inspection but BS 5289 states that its
magnification should be:
a. up to 5
b. 2 - 2.5
c. 5 - 10
45. When visually inspecting a fillet weld, it would normally be sized by:
a. the leg lengths
b. the actual throat thickness
c. the design throat thickness
d. both a & c
46. Code of practice is:

a. A standard for workmanship only
b. a set of rules for manufacturing a specific product
c. levels of acceptability of a weldment
47. A welding inspector's main attribute includes:

a. knowledge and experience
b. literacy
c. honesty and integrity
d. all of the above
48. The correct term for a joint prepared on one component only is:
a. a bevel butt
b. a J butt
c. a K butt
d. all of the above
49. Technically a code of practice is:

a. a standard
b. a set of rules for the manufacturing of a product
c. related to welder and weld procedure approval
d. all of the above
50. The correct term of cap height is:

a. reinforcement
b. cap profile height
c. excessive weld metal
d. all of the above
51. The toes of the cap on a butt weld:

a. must overlap on the external surface of a pipe or plate by at least 1.5 mm
b. must be grounded
c. must never be grounded
52. Which of the following butt weld preparations is generally most susceptible to lack of side
wall fusion during MMA welding?
a. a "U" preparation
b. a "V" preparation
c. a double V preparation
d. lack of side wall fusion does not exist with MMA

b. the distance from the root and to the face center
54. What is throat thickness of the fillet weld
a. the distance from toe to the face
b. the distance from the root to face center
55. Quality assurance is:

a. the inspection of a product or service
b. a management system designed only to ensure material compatibility
c. not solely related to planning and inspection
d. the implementation of quality control
56. Quality assurance:

a. is an other term for inspection
b. related to all activities and functions concerned with the attainment of quality
c. is the activity of ensuring documents relating to specific contracts are in order
d. is the activity of carrying out quality control
57. Generally speaking a welding inspector, as a minimum requirement:

a. must have at a thorough knowledge of NDT
c. must have a thorough knowledge of welding metallurgy
e. all of the above
58. The primary duty of welding inspector:

a. is ensure welds are defect free
b. is to write job specification
c. is to ensure all welding and associated activities are carried out in accordance with the
procedure
d. is to ensure the weld is free from residual stresses
59. Fillet welds are

a. preferable to butt welds due to high strength
b. difficult to assess with NDT in comparison with butt (groove) welds
c. used only for appearance purposes
d. only feasible on steels
e. all of the above
60. API stands for

a. associated pipeline industries
b. american pipe institute
c. american pipeline institute
d. american petroleum institute
61. Lap joints contain:

a. fillet welds
b. corner joints
c. butt welds
d. single bevel butt welds
62. A welding Inspector:

a. must know how to interpret radiographs
b. may be required to interpret radiographs on certain contracts
c. should be able to weld
d. both b & c
e. all of the above
WELDING SYMBOL
1. How can you tell the difference between an EN/ISO weld symbol and a BS weld symbol?
a. The EN/ISO weld symbol will always have the arrow side weld at the top of the reference line
b. The EN/ISO symbol has the welds elementary symbol placed on a dashed line lying above
or below the solid reference line to indicate a weld on the other side
c. The EN/ISO symbol has a fillet weld leg length identified by the letter "a"
d. The EN/ISO symbol has a fillet weld throat thickness identified by the letter "z"
e. both b & d
2. The number 135 is placed at the end of the reference line on a weld symbol. According to
ISO 2553 what does this number indicate?
a. The welding process is stated as MMA
b. The welding process is stated as TIG
c. The welding process is stated as SAW
d. NDT is to be carried out after welding
3. A tee joint on a support bracket is to be welded both sides using 5 mm leg length fillet welds,
each weld is to be intermittent 50 mm in length, and the gap between each weld is to be 25mm.
In accordance with EN 22553 which of the following symbols gives the correct representation?
5 50 25 5 x 50 (25)
a. 5 50 25 c. 5 x 50 (25)
5 x 50 (25)
5 25 50 5 x 50 (25)
5 25 50
b. d.
4. A ccording to AWS 2.4 a weld symbol for the other side is placed………
a. above the dashed line
b. below the dashed line
c. above the solid line
d. below the solid line
5. According to BS EN 22553, which of the following symbols requires weld toes to be smoothly
blended on the other side?
a. c.
b. d.
6. What does the number 141 refer to on this drawing symbol?
a. the number of the WPS
b. the welding process 141
c. the number of the NDE procedure
d. the acceptance standard
7. Which of these drawing symbols shows weld penetration depth in accordance with
BS EN 22553?
10s 10s
a. c.
10s
s10 s10
b. d.
8. A tee joint on a support bracket is to be welded both sides using s 5 mm leg length fillet
weld, each weld is to be intermittent 50 mm in total length, the gap between each weld is to
be 25 mm. Which of the following is the correct symbol in accordance with ISO 2553?
5 5 x 50 (25) 5 25 50
5 25 50
a. 5 5 x 50 (25) c.
5 50 25 5 x 50 (25)
b. 5 50 25 d. 5 x 50 (25)
9. Weld symbol placed on adotted line in accordance with ISO requirements means:
a. weld on arrow side
b. weld on other side
c. weld on site
d. full penetration required
10. Which British standard relates to welding term and symbols

a. BS 639
b. BS 638
c. BS 18
d. BS 499
WELDING PROCEDURE / WELDER APPROVAL
1. Which of the following is the most likely to be considered an essential variable for a welder
qualification test?
a. A change from an electrode classified to BS EN 499 as an E46 3 INI B to an electrode
classified to AWS A5.1 as an E7018
b. A change of pipe wall thickness by at least 15mm
c. A change in pre-heat temperature from 50C to 100C
d. A change from PC welding position to PA welding position
e. all of the above
2. The principle purpose of a welder qualification test is………..

a. to test the skill of the welder
b. to assess the weldability of the materials
c. to decide which NDT methods to use
d. to give the welder practice before doing production welding
3. The majority of welder qualification tests are carried out using an unbacked joint. This is because
a. it is quicker, and cheaper, if back-gouging is not required
b. if the welding process is not TIG, back purging is not required
c. all welder qualification tests are done on small diameter pipe
d. it requires more skill and increases the welder's qualification range
4. A WPS may specify a maximum width for individual weld beads (the weave width) when
welding C/Mn steels. If the bead width is exceeded it may cause ……
a. lack of inter-run fusion
b. the HAZ impact toughness to be reduced
c. lack of side wall fusion
d. the HAZ hardness to be higher
5. A qualified welding procedure specification is used to………

a. give instruction to the welder
b. give information to the welding inspector
c. give confidence that finished welds will have the specified properties
d. all of the above
6. A welding procedure that is prepared to give guidance for making a weld procedure qualification
test weld is a…….
a. pWPS
b. WPS
c. WPQR
d. WPAR
7. According to EN 287, a welder's approval/qualification certificate should be withdrawn if……..

a. he has not done any welding for a period of 4 months
b. he has been absent from work for a period of 7 months
c. the repair rate for his welds exceeds 1%
d. all of the above
8. Changing an essential variable (beyond the allowed limits) for a qualified welding procedure…….
a. may change the mechanical properties of the joint
b. may adversely affect the quality of the weld
c. will require a new welding procedure to be approved
d. all of the above
9. A transverse tensile test, from a weld procedure approval record (WPAR) test plate, is used to
measure……
a. the tensile strength of the weld
b. the tensile strength of the joint
c. the stress/strain characteristics of the weld
d. the stress/strain characteristics of the joint
10. The principle purpose of a carrying out a welding procedure approval test is…..
a. to show that the mechanical properties of the weldment satisfy the specified requirements
b. to demonstrate to the client that the fabricator has good control of the welding operations
c. to ensure that the NDT requirements specified can be achieved
d. to allow a welder to practice using the WPS that will be used for production welding
11. To control weld distortion for thin plate the WPS may specify the use of……..
a. a current slope-out device
b. a back stepping technique
c. pre-heat
d. post weld heat treatment
12. With regards to a Welding Procedure, an essential variable may:

a. change the properties of the weld
b. Influence the visual acceptance
c. require re-approval of a weld procedure
d. all of the above
13. Under normal contract conditions, weld procedure approval tests for pipe work are:
a. mandatory
b. defend upon site and weather conditions
c. defendant upon the contractor's confidence in his procedures
d. only required when CO2 welding is to be used
14. A welder qualification test is to verify:

a. The skill of the welder
b. The quality of the materials
c. The non-destructive procedures
d. The manufacturing methods
15. A welding procedure is useful to:

a. give information to the welder
b. give information to the inspector
c. give "Confidence" to a product
d. all of the above
16. An essential variable may:

a. change the properties of the weld
b. influence the visual acceptability
c. require re-approval of a weld procedure
d. all of the above
17. EN standard 288 would refer to which of the following:

a. welder approval testing
b. welding equipment
c. welding procedure approval
d. consumables for SAW
18. In welding procedure term, a change in essential variable means
a. re-qualification of the welding procedure
b. possible change in the weld's microstructure
c. possible change in the mechanical properties
d. all of the above
STAINLESS STEELS
1. Austenitic stainless steel can be identified by:
a. very shiny appearance
b. lack of magnetic attraction
c. its extreme hardness
2. Which of the following steels is non magnetic?

a. 18%Cr + 8% Ni
b. 2.25%Cr + 1% Mo
c. 9% Cr + 1% Mo
d. 9% Ni
3. Which of the following methods is suitable for cutting stainless steel?

a. plasma
b. oxy - acetylene
c. oxy - propane
d. all of the above
4. Considering all grades of stainless steels, which of the following statements is true?
a. they are all non magnetic
b. they all required 100% Ar for GMAW
c. they all have very high thermal conductivity
d. only certain grades can be used for service at very low temperature
5. In the welding of austenitic stainless steels, the electrode and plate materials are often
specified to be low carbon content. The reason for this:
a. to prevent the formation of cracks in the HAZ
b. to prevent the formation of chromium carbides
c. to prevent cracking in the weld
d. minimize distortion
6. Austenitic stainless steels are more susceptible to distortion when compared to ferritic steels
this is because:
a. high coefficient, low thermal conductivity
b. high coefficient, high thermal conductivity
c. low coefficient, high thermal conductivity
d. low coefficient, low thermal conductivity
7. One of the following alloys is non magnetic, which?

a. 4.0% Chromium molybdenum
b. 12.0% Chromium
c. austenitic stainless steels
d. 9.0% nickel steel
8. In the welding of austenitic stainless steels, the electrode and plate material can be purchased
with low carbon contents. The reason for this is to prevent?
a. cracking in the HAZ
b. the formation of chromium carbides
c. cracking in the weld metal
d. distorion
9. An austenitic stainless steel may suffer:

a. weld decay
b. sensitization
c. solidification cracking
d. all of the above
10. Which gas is suitable shielding gas for GMAW of 304L & 316L stainless steels?
a. 100% argon
b. 70% argon + 30% He
c. argon + 20% hydrogen
d. argon + 1% oxygen
DISTORTION
1. Which material property has the greatest influence on distortion that occurs in welded joints?
a. yield strength
b. co-efficient of thermal expansion
c. tensile ductility
d. co-efficient of electrical conductivity
2. Which welding procedure would be expected to produce the least distortion in 15 mm

straight butt weld?
a. TIG weld single sided, multi-pass
b. MMA weld single sided, multi-pass
c. MMA weld double sided, multi-pass
d. SAW weld 1 pass per side
3. Excessive distortion during the welding of butt joints in thin plate can be minimized by…….
a. using balanced welding
b. keeping the weld volume to a minimum
c. restraining the joint by means of "bridge tacks" or strong backs
d. all of the above
4. To control weld distortion for thin plate the WPS may specify the use of…….
a. a current slope-out device
b. a back stepping technique
c. pre-heat
d. post weld heat treatment
5. A balanced welding technique for example back step welding is most often used for:
a. Controlling lamellar tearing
b.. Increasing weld toughness
c. Reducing weld zone hardness
d. Reducing distortion
6. Distortion may be affected by:

a. restraint
b. heat input
c. material properties
d. material thickness
e. all of the above
7. Distortion:
a. is plastic deformation
b. is elastic deformation
c. is another term for stress
d. may be elastic or plastic deformation
e. all of the above

Weld Imperfections Guide: 45+ Types & Causes Explained

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WELDING IMPERFECTIONS

4. Slag inclusions may be present in…..

5. What is hollow bead?

7. Which of the following processes is most susceptible to lack of fusion

11. Which of the following is applicable for none planar defects?

13. Root concavity is caused by:

15. Which of the following is most likely to cause a burn through

18. Incomplete root penetration is most likely due to:

19. Crater cracks are caused mainly by:

22. Acceptance standards for undercut may be based on………

24. Incomplete root penetration may be caused by…

27. A burn-through may occur if…….

28. A solid inclusion in a weld may be….

29. Which of the following would be classed as a planar imperfection?

31. Slag inclusion may be present in……

32. The main cause of undercut is……

34. Which of the following is a non-planar imperfection?

51. Which of the following defects is unlikely to be found by visual inspection

59. Incomplete penetration in a butt joint could be caused by:

60. Incomplete root fusion weld certainly be caused by:

63. Toe blending is important as it mey affect:

64. Slag inclusion would occur with:

65. Undercut principally caused by:

66. Undercut normally assessed by:

67. The planar defect is:

71. Weave technique may give rise to:

73. Stray arcing may be regarded as a serious defect. This is because:

74. Overlap in welds could be influence by:

76. Which of the following may be classes as a more serious defect:

77. Porosity is caused by:

78. The most serious defects

79. What is crater pipe?

80. Herringbone porosity is:

2. The toughness and yield strength of steel is reduced by:

4. Increasing the carbon content of a steel will:

6. What is the effect of full annealing compared to normalizing?

8. What is the main reason for the application of pre-heat

9. The heat affected zone of a carbon steel fusion weld

10. The need of pre-heat for steel will increase if:

18. High residual stresses in a welded steel component may …

19. A recrystallization heat treatment is;

22. A carbon equivalent (CE) of 0.5%:

23. In martensitic grain structure what you expect to increase?

26. Which of the following are reasons for applying preheat?

28. The possible effects of having a travel speed too fast:

30. Pre-heat prior to the welding of a carbon steel butt weld:

34. For which of the following is pre-heating most likely to be required?

36. Pre-heating for arc welding applies to:

39. A steel described, as QT will have improved tensile properties it has?

44. The important point if high temperature steel is that:

46. Post heat treatment:

47. Pre-heating prior to welding:

53. Which of the following units is used to express Heat Input?

55. A typical temperature used for normalizing C/Mn steels is…..

62. To calculate welding Heat Input it is necessary to know……

68. The HAZ associated with a fusion weld:

78. Welding a steel plate of CE of 0.45 would require pre-heating to?

80. The main uses of arc cutting/gouging processes is in:

2. Which of the following elements may cause hot shortness

4. Lamellar tearing is:

8. High sulphur level in steel weld metal can be detrimental because:

10. Hot shortness in a steel weld may mean

11. Lamellar tearing is best prevented by: