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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

JAIPUR REGION

Sh. B L MORODIA
Deputy Commissioner
KVS JAIPUR REGION

Sh. D R MEENA

Assistant Commissioner
KVS JAIPUR REGION

Sh. VIVEK YADAV


COORDINATOR
PRINCIPAL, KV NO.1 AFS JODHPUR

SUBJECT:- Quick Revision Notes, MCQ, Assertion-Reason,


Analogy Based & Case Based Questions
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
JAIPUR REGION
THREE DAYS WORKSHOP OF PGT CHEMISTRY W.E.F. 16.08.2021 TO 18.08.2021

LIST OF PARTICIPANTS

SR NAME OF
NO. PARTICIPANTS DESIGNATION NAME OF KV

1 MR. VIVEK YADAV PRINCIPAL KV NO. 1 AFS JODHPUR COORDINATOR

2 MR.MAHENDRA KALRA PGT CHEMISTRY KV ITARANA (ALWAR) RESOURCE PERSON

3 MR.BHUPENDER KUMAR VERMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV SRIGANGANAGAR CANTT RESOURCE PERSON

4 MS. NEHA SUMAN PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 1 AJMER RESOURCE PERSON

5 MR. HIMMAT SINGH PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO. 1 AFS JODHPUR RESOURCE PERSON

6 MR.ASHUTOSH SHARMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO. 1 AFS JODHPUR PARTICIPANT

7 MR. YOGESH SWAMI PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO. 3 NAL BIKANER PARTICIPANT

8 MR. JITENDRA KUMAR GUPTA PGT CHEMISTRY KV JALIPA CANTT PARTICIPANT

9 MR. BANSHI DHER KHATIK PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO.2,AJMER PARTICIPANT

10 MS. SEEMA KUMARI SHARMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV CHURU PARTICIPANT

11 MS. REKHA SHARMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV ANUPGARH PARTICIPANT

12 MR. GOPAL SAINI PGT CHEMISTRY KV CHITTORGARH PARTICIPANT

13 MR. ARJUN SINGH RAJPUROHIT PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO. 1 JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

14 MR. VINOD KUMAR MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV PHULERA PARTICIPANT

15 MR. RAKESH KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 2 JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

16 MS. DIMPLE ARORA PGT CHEMISTRY KV BSF KHAJUWALA PARTICIPANT

17 MR. BIPIN KUMAR YADAV PGT CHEMISTRY KV (AFS) UTTARLAI PARTICIPANT

18 MS. PRITI KAUSHIK PGT CHEMISTRY KV DUNGARPUR PARTICIPANT

19 MR. ARUN KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV KARAULI PARTICIPANT

20 MR. RAKESH KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV JHUNJHUNU PARTICIPANT

21 MR. BANWARI LAL SAINI PGT CHEMISTRY KV DEOLI PARTICIPANT

22 MS. SUREKHA VERMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV STPS SURATGARH PARTICIPANT

23 MR. LALTA PRASAD PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO.1 ARMY JODHPUR PARTICIPANT

24 MS. RENU JAIN PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 3 JAIPUR PARTICIPANT


25 MS. PREM MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV 3 JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

26 MS.DEEPTI AWATRAMANI PGT CHEMISTRY KV 2, BIKANER PARTICIPANT

27 MR. KAMAL KISHOR JOSHI PGT CHEMISTRY KV SURATGARH CANTT PARTICIPANT

28 MAHABOOB ALI PGT CHEMISTRY KV BEWAR PARTICIPANT

29 MS. SUMAN TALWARA PGT CHEMISTRY KV 2 AFS JODHPUR PARTICIPANT

30 MR. NEKA RAM GHANCHI PGT CHEMISTRY KV 2 AFS JODHPUR PARTICIPANT

31 MR. VINOD KUMAR MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV KHETRI NAGAR PARTICIPANT

32 MR. D. K. MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV NASIRABAD PARTICIPANT

33 MR. AMIT KUMAR MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO. 1 KOTA PARTICIPANT

34 MR. MAHESH KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO. 1 KOTA PARTICIPANT

35 MR MANOJ KUMAR SAIN PGT CHEMISTRY KV LALGARH JATTAN PARTICIPANT

36 MS. POOJA YADAV PGT CHEMISTRY KV BHILWARA PARTICIPANT

37 MR. GOPAL SAIWLIYA PGT CHEMISTRY KV BSF POKARAN PARTICIPANT

38 MR. S C SEERVI PGT CHEMISTRY KV AFS JAISALMER PARTICIPANT

39 MR. AMIT MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV GANGAPUR CITY PARTICIPANT

40 MR. ANIL KUMAR SHARMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV BANAR JODHPUR PARTICIPANT

41 MR. R B S SOLANKI PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 2 JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

42 MR. K.N. VERMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV DABLA PARTICIPANT

43 MR. DINESH KUMAR TANK PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO. 2 ARMY JODHPUR PARTICIPANT

44 MS. ANITA HUSSAIN PGT CHEMISTRY KV ISA MOUNT ABU PARTICIPANT

45 MR. DEVENDRA KUMAR SAIN PGT CHEMISTRY KV INDERPURA PARTICIPANT

46 MS. CHANDRAKALA RATHORE PGT CHEMISTRY KN NO.1 UDAIPUR PARTICIPANT

47 MR. BABLU SINGH PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO.1 ALWAR PARTICIPANT

48 MR. SUBE SINGH NAHAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 1 ALWAR PARTICIPANT

49 MS. REEMA SHARMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV BANSWARA PARTICIPANT

50 MR. GURVINDER KAUR PGT CHEMISTRY KV NTPC ANTA PARTICIPANT

51 MR. MAHIPAL SINGH PGT CHEMISTRY KV AVIKANAGAR PARTICIPANT

52 MR. AJAY KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV SIKAR PARTICIPANT

53 MS. SUNITA GUPTA PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 5 ( IISHIFT) JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

54 MR. SANDEEP KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 1 AFS SURATGARH PARTICIPANT


55 MR. ANUJ KUMAR SHARMA PGT CHEMISTRY KV SAWAI MADHOPUR PARTICIPANT

56 MS. SUSHILA YADAV PGT CHEMISTRY KV 1 BIKANER PARTICIPANT

57 MR. A. K. RAJAWAT PGT CHEMISTRY KV BHARATPUR PARTICIPANT

58 MR. RAKESH KUMAR MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV BARAN PARTICIPANT

59 MS. RAJNI JAIN PGT CHEMISTRY KV BHARATPUR PARTICIPANT

60 MR. SURESH KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO.1 AJMER PARTICIPANT

61 MR. VIDYADHAR SINGH PGT CHEMISTRY KV BSF JODHPUR PARTICIPANT

62 DR. ANJANA PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 6 JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

63 MR. S P OLA PGT CHEMISTRY KV JHALAWAR PARTICIPANT

64 MR. NARAYAN LAL BAIRWA PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO.2 EKLINGGARH UDAIPUR PARTICIPANT

65 MS. SUSHILA KUMARI PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 5 FIRST SHIFT JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

66 MR. K K MEENA PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 5 FIRST SHIFT JAIPUR PARTICIPANT

67 MR. HARINARAYAN PGT CHEMISTRY KV NO 2 KOTA PARTICIPANT

68 MR. SURESH KUMAR PGT CHEMISTRY KV CTPP CHHABRA PARTICIPANT


Venue
Kendriya Vidyalaya No. 1 AFS Jodhpur

Sub :Chemistry (Term -1 )


Class-XII
Content Development Team
SR. NO. NAME OF GROUP SUB NAME OF TEACHER NAME OF KV
UNIT TOPIC
INTRODUCTION,CLASSIFICATION MR. K.N. VERMA KV DABLA
GROUP-1 STRUCTURE OF CRYSTAL
LATTICE MR VIDYADHAR SINGH KV BSF JODHPUR
1 SOLID PACKING EFFICIENCY AND SMT.DEEPTI AWATRAMANI K.V.2, BIKANER
STATE GROUP-2 IMPERFECTION IN SOLID
MR. KAMAL KISHOR JOSHI KV SURATGARH CANTT
INTRODUCTION, MR MANOJ KUMAR SAIN KV LALGARH JATTAN
GROUP-3 HENRY LAW, RAOULTS LAW
MS. SUMAN TALWARA KV 2 AFS JODHPUR
MR. SURESH KUMAR KV NO.1 AJMER
2 SOLUTION GROUP-4 COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES
MR. K K MEENA KV 5 I SHIFT JAIPUR
MR. AMIT MEENA KV GANGAPUR CITY
MR. S C SEERVI KV AFS JAISALMER
GROUP-5 GROUP 15 ELEMENTS
MS. SUSHILA KUMARI KV 5 I SHIFT JAIPUR
MR. LALTA PRASAD KV 1 ARMY JODHPUR
SH. ANUJ KUMAR SHARMA KV SAWAI MADHOPUR
GROUP-6 GROUP 16 ELEMENTS
D K MEENA K V NASIRABAD
3 P BLOCK MR. NEKA RAM GHANCHI K. V. 2 AFS JODHPUR
ELEMENT GROUP-7 GROUP 17 ELEMENTS
SH. MAHESH KUMAR KV NO. 1 KOTA
SH. GOPAL SAIWLIYA BSF POKARAN
GROUP-8 GROUP 18 ELEMENTS
DR. ANJANA KV NO 6 JAIPUR
MR. CHANDRAKALA RATHORE KV NO.1 UDAIPUR

HALO GROUP-9 HALO ALKANES MR. SURESH KUMAR KV CTPP CHHABRA


ALKANES SMT. DIMPLE ARORA KV BSF KHAJUWALA
4 AND HALO
ARENES MR. DEVENDRA KUMAR SAIN KV INDERPURA
GROUP-10 HALO ARENES
MR. NARAYAN LAL BAIRWA KV 2 EKLINGGARH
UDAIPUR
MR. BABLU SINGH KV NO.1 ALWAR

GROUP-11 ALCOHOL MR. HARINARAYAN KV NO 2 KOTA


ALCOHOL,
MR. MAHIPAL SINGH KV AVIKANAGAR
PHENOL,
ETHER MR. AJAY KUMAR KV SIKAR
5 GROUP-12 PHENOL
MR. SANDEEP KUMAR KV 1 AFS SURATGARH
MR. A. K. RAJAWAT KV BHARATPUR
GROUP-13 ETHER
RAKESH KUMAR MEENA KV,BARAN
SMT. RAJNI JAIN KV BHARATPUR
GROUP-14 CARBOHYDRATES
MS. GURVINDER KAUR KV NTPC ANTA
MR. RAKESH KUMAR KV 2 JAIPUR
BIO GROUP-15 PROTEIN
6 MOLECULE SH. S P OLA KV JHALAWAR
MS. REEMA SHARMA KV BANSWARA
GROUP-16 NUCLEIC ACID
SH. PREM MEENA K.V 3 JAIPUR
SYLLABUS FOR SESSION 2021-22
CLASS XII Term-I
S.No UNIT Periods MARKS
1 Solid State 8 10
2 Solutions 8
3 p-Block Elements 7 10
4 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 9 15
5 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 9
6 Biomolecules 8
TOTAL 49 35
Solid State: Classification of solids based on different binding forces: molecular, ionic,
covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea). Unit
cell in two dimensional and three dimensional lattices, calculation of density of unit cell,
packing in solids, packing efficiency, voids, number of atoms per unit cell in a cubic unit
cell, point defects.

Solutions: Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids in


liquids, solubility of gases in liquids, solid solutions, Raoult's law, colligative properties -
relative lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing
point, osmotic pressure, determination of molecular masses using colligative properties.

p Block Elements: Group -15 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration,


occurrence, oxidation states, trends in physical and chemical properties; Nitrogen
preparation properties and uses; compounds of Nitrogen: preparation and properties of
Ammonia and Nitric Acid.

Group 16 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states,


occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties, dioxygen:preparation, properties
and uses, classification of Oxides, Ozone, Sulphur-allotropic forms; compounds of
Sulphur: preparation properties and uses of Sulphur-dioxide, Sulphuric Acid:properties
and uses; Oxoacids of Sulphur (Structures only).

Group 17 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, oxidation states,


occurrence, trends in physical and chemical properties; compounds of halogens,
Preparation, properties and uses of Chlorine and Hydrochloric acid, interhalogen
compounds, Oxoacids of halogens (structures only).

Group 18 Elements: General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, trends


in physical and chemical properties, uses.

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes: Haloalkanes: Nomenclature, nature of C–X bond, physical


and chemical properties, optical rotation mechanism of substitution reactions.

Haloarenes: Nature of C–X bond, substitution reactions (Directive influence of halogen


in monosubstituted compounds only).

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers: Alcohols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical


and chemical properties (of primary alcohols only), identification of primary, secondary
and tertiary alcohols, And mechanism of dehydration.
Phenols: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties,
acidic nature of phenol, electrophillic substitution reactions, uses of phenols.
Ethers: Nomenclature, methods of preparation, physical and chemical properties, uses.

Biomolecules: Carbohydrates - Classification (aldoses and ketoses), mono saccahrides


(glucose and fructose), D-L configuration

Proteins -Elementary idea of - amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides, proteins,


structure of proteins - primary, secondary, tertiary structure and quaternary structures
(qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins.
Nucleic Acids: DNA and RNA

PRACTICALS-
Term-I: A15 mark Practical would be conducted under the supervision of subject
teacher/internal examiner. This would contribute to the overall practical
marks for the subject.
OR
In case the situation of lock down continues until Nov-Dec2021, a Practical Based
Assessment (pen- paper) of 15 marks would be conducted at the end of Term-I at the school
level and marks would be submitted by the schools to the Board. This would contribute to
the overall practical marks for the subject.

Term-I Evaluation Scheme


S. No Practical Marks
1. Volumetric Analysis 4
2. Salt Analysis 4
3. Content Based experiment 2
4. Class record and viva(Internal Examiner) 5
TOTAL 15
(1) Volumetric analysis (4marks)
Determination of concentration/molarity of KMnO4 solution by titrating it against a
standard solution of:
i. Oxalic acid,
ii. Ferrous Ammonium Sulphate
(Students will be required to prepare standard solutions by weighing themselves).

(2) Salt analysis (Qualitative analysis) (4 marks)


Determination of one cation and one anion in a given salt.
Cations- Pb2+, Cu2+, As3+, Al3+, Fe3+, Mn2+, Ni2+, Zn2+, Co2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+, Mg2+,
NH4+ Anions– (CO3)2-, S2-, NO2-, SO32-, SO42-, NO3-, Cl-, Br-, I-, PO43-, C2O42-,
CH3COO-(Note:Insoluble salts excluded)
(3) Content Based Experiments (2 marks)
A. Chromatography
i. Separation of pigments from extracts of leaves and flowers by paper
chromatography and determination of Rf values.
ii. Separation of constituents present in an inorganic mixture containing two
cations only (constituents having large difference in Rf values to be provided).
Characteristic tests of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in pure samples and their detection in
given food stuffs.
CHAPTER – 1. SOLID STATE
 Classification of solids- Depending upon the arrangement of constituent particles solids are two
types - crystalline and amorphous solid.
Property Crystalline solids Amorphous solids
Shape Definite characteristic geometrical Irregular shape
shape
Melting point Melt at a sharp and characteristic Gradually soften over a
temperature (definite melting point) range of temperature (not
have definite melting point)
Cleavage property When cut with a sharp-edged tool, When cut with a sharp-
they split into two pieces and the edged tool, they split into
newly generated surfaces are plain two pieces with irregular
and smooth surfaces
Heat of fusion They have a definite and They do not have a definite
characteristic heat of fusion heat of fusion
Anisotropy Anisotropic in nature because of Isotropic in nature because
these substances show different of these substances show
property in different directions same property in all
directions
Nature True solid Pseudo solids or super
cooled liquids
Order in arrangement Long rang order Only short rang order
of constituent
Examples Sodium chloride, quartz, Fe, Cu, Au Glass, rubber and plastics,
ceramics,
 Amorphous solids have a tendency to flow. Since glass is an amorphous solid, so it is called
super cooled liquid or pseudo solid.
 Glass becomes crystalline at some temperature. For which glass objects from ancient
civilizations become milky in appearance because of some crystallization
 Classification of crystalline solids- on the basis of binding forces
Types of Constituent Bonding/ Examples Electrical Physical Melting
solids particles Attractive conductivity state point
force
1.Molecular solids

(i) Non molecules Dispersion Ar, He, CO2, Insulator Soft Very
polar forces I2, H2, Cl2, low
molecular CCl4
solids
(ii) Polar molecules Dipole- dipole HCl, SO2 Insulator Soft Low
molecular interactions
solids

(iii)Hydroge molecules Hydrogen H2O (Ice) Insulator Hard low


n bonded bonds
molecular
solids
2. Ionic Ions Electrostatic or NaCl, KCl, Insulator in Hard but High
Solids Coulombic MgO, ZnS, solid state and brittle
forces CaF2 conductor in
molten state
and aqueous
solutions
3.Metallic Positive Metallic Fe, Cu, Ag, Conductor in Hard, Fairly
solids metals bonding Au solid state as malleable high
ions in a well as in and
sea of molten state ductile
delocalize
d electrons
4.Covalent Atoms Covalent SiO2 Insulator Hard Very
solids bonding (quartz), high
or SiC, Cdiamond,
Atomic AIN,
solids *Cgraphite conductor Soft
or (exception) (exception)

Network
Solids
Space lattice or crystal lattice- A regular three-
dimensional arrangement of points in space is called
space lattice or crystal lattice. The points represent the
constituent particles of the crystal

Unit cell- A unit cell is the smallest portion of the crystal


lattice Which is repeated in different directions generates
the entire lattice. Unit cell is characterized by six
parameters- a, b, c (Edge length of unit cell (axial
distance) and α, β, γ (Angle between two edges (axial
angle)
Types of unit cells- Two types
(1) Primitive unit cell- it is also called simple unit cell(SCC), which has particles as
points only at its corners
(2) Non-Primitive unit cell / centered unit cell- In this type of unit cells, particles
as points are present not only at the corners but also at some other positions. It is three
types………
(i)Body-centered unit cell (ii)Face-cantered unit cells (iii)End-centered unit cells
(BCC) (FCC)

 Seven crystal system and fourteen bravais lattice


Crystal system Bravais lattices Parameters of unit cell examples
intercepts Interfacial angle
Cubic Primitive, a = b= c α = β = γ = 900
Body -Centered, NaCl, KCl, ZnS
Face- Centered Diamond
(Total= 3)
Tetragonal Primitive, a=b≠c α = β = γ = 900 White tin, SnO2, TiO2,
Body -Centered CaSO4
(Total= 2)
Orthorhombic Primitive, a≠b≠c α = β = γ = 900 Rhombic sulphur,
Or Body- Centered, KNO3, K2SO4, BaSO4,
Rhombic Face- Centered,
End -Centered
(Total= 4)
Monoclinic Primitive, a≠b≠c α = γ = 900, Monoclinic sulphur,
End- Centered β ≠ 1200 Na2SO4.10H2O,
(Total= 2)
Hexagonal Primitive a=b≠c α = β = 900, Graphite, ZnO, CdS,
(Only 1) γ = 1200
Rhombohedral Primitive a = b= c α = β = γ ≠ 900, Calcite (CaCO3), ICl,
or Trigonal (Only 1) NaNO3,
Cinnabar (HgS)

Triclinic Primitive a≠b≠c α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠900, K2Cr2O7, CaSO4.5H2O,


(Only 1) H3BO3
* Different crystal forms grouped into 14 types of space lattices, are known as Bravais Lattices

Calculation of the contribution of atoms present at a different lattice sites-


1. Contribution of each atom present at the corner = 1/8
2. Contribution of each atom within the body = 1
3. Contribution of each atom on the face = 1/2
4. Contribution of each atom on the edge = ¼

Type of unit cell Number of atoms Total number of


atoms per unit
at corners at body-Centered at face-Centered cubic cell

SCC 0 0 1

BCC 1 x1=1 0 2

FCC 0 4

 Close packed structures-


1. 1.Close packing in one dimension-
*The coordination number (CN) =2

2. 2.Close packing in two dimension-


(a).Square close packing (scp) CN = 4 b) Hexagonal close packing(hcp) CN = 6

3. Close packing in three dimension (3D)-


(i)Three dimensional close packing from two dimensional square close packed layers-
This lattice has AAA…… type pattern and form primitive cubic unit cell (SCC).
(ii)Three dimensional close packing from two dimensional hexagonal close packed layers
- two types
a) Hexagonal close packing (hcp) - ABABAB…… Type and 74% of the available space is
occupied by spheres. The coordination number is 12. e.g.- Be, Mg, Zn, Sc, Y, Cd, Ti, Zr, Tc, Ru
b) Cubic close packing (ccp) – ABCABC……Type and also74% of the available space is occupied
by spheres. The coordination number is 12. e.g. - Cu, Ni, Pd, Pt, Ag, Au
Void or Space or Holes:- Empty or vacant space present between spheres of a unit cell, is called
void or space or hole or interstitial void. When particles are closed packed resulting in either cpp or
hcp structure, two types of voids are generated.

Relation between radius ratio and coordination number for Ionic crystals
Radius ratio : It is the ratio of radius of cation to radius of anion in an ionic crystal.

Radius ratio r+/r Structure Coordination No. Examples

0-0.155 Linear 2 HF2


0.155-0.225 Triangular 3 B2O3, BN
0.225-0.414 Tetra hedral 4 SiO44-; ZnS
0.414-0.732 Octahedral 6 MgO, NaCl
0.732-1.00 Cubic (b.c.c.) 8 CsCl, Cs Br
Effect of temperature and pressure on crystal structure: with the increase in pressure the
coordination number increases resulting is change in the crystal structure e.g. when NaCl (6 : 6
coordination) crystal is subjected to high pressure it changes to CsCl-type structure (8:8-
coordinations)

Note- Close packed structure (hcp or ccp) has two type voids octahedral and tetrahedral voids.
Octahedral void: One octahedral void per atom in a crystal. The radius of the octahedral void
relative to radius of sphere is 0.414. Note: - The number of octahedral voids generated = N , [N=
Total number of close packed atoms]
Tetrahedral void: - There are two tetrahedral void per atom in a crystal. The radius of the
tetrahedral void relative to radius of sphere is 0.225. Note: - The number of tetrahedral voids
generated = 2N
Relationship between edge length (a) of unit cell and radius of atom(r):-
Simple Cubic (r = a/2), BCC (r = √3a/4) , FCC (r = a/2√2 )
Packing Efficiency: Percentage of total space filled by particles
P.E = Volume occupied by sphere (atoms) / Volume of unit Cell X100
4 4
1  r 3 4  r 3
1. Simple Cubic = 3  100  52.4% 2. FCC = 3  100  74%
3
( 2r ) ( 2 2r ) 3
4
2  r 3
3. BCC = 3  100  68%
( 4r / 3 ) 3
CUBIC LATTICE Packing fraction Packing efficiency % % of Void

Simple cubic 0.524 or π/6 52.4% 47.6%

B.C.C 0.68 or √3π/8 68% 32%

F.C.C/CCP/HCP 0.74or π/3√2 74% 26%

Density of unit cell:

(Z=no. of atoms in unit cell, M=molar mass, NA=Avogadro’s no., a=


edge length, a3 =volume of unit cell)

CRYSTAL DEFECTS OR IMPERFECTIONS:


• crystals have defects ---when crystallization takes place at moderate or fast rate
even at extremely slow rate ---- crystals are not free from defects (imperfections)
• Defects are basically irregularities in the arrangement of constituent particles.
• Line defects : are the irregularities or deviation from ideal arrangement in entire row
• Point defects : are the irregularities or deviation from ideal arrangement around a point or an
atom

TYPES OF POINT DEFECTS : Three types:

1. STOICHIOMETRIC DEFECT
2. IMPURITY DEFECT
3 .NON-STOICHIOMETRIC DEFECTS

1. STOICHIOMETRIC DEFECTS
 Do not disturb stoichiometry of the solid
 Also called intrinsic or thermodynamic defects
 Two types − (i) Vacancy defect (ii) Interstitial defect

VACANCY DEFECT
 When some of the lattice sites are vacant
 Shown by non ionic solids
 Created when a substance is heated
 Results in the decrease in density of the substance

INTERSTETIAL DEFECT
 Shown by non-ionic solids
 Created when some constituent particles (atoms or molecules)
occupy an interstitial site of the crystal.
 This defect increases the density of crystal.
Ionic solids show these two defects as Frenkel defect and Schottky defect.

Frenkel defect
 Shown by ionic solids containing large differences in the sizes of ions & compounds having low
coordination number
 Created when the smaller ion (usually cation) is dislocated from its
normal site to an interstitial site. Also known as dislocation defect
 Creates a vacancy defect as well as an interstitial defect
 Ionic solids such as AgCl, AgBr, AgI and ZnS show this type of defect.

Schottky defect
 Basically a vacancy defect shown by ionic solids
 An equal number of cations and anions are missing to maintain
electrical neutrality
 Results in the decrease in the density of the substance
 In NaCl, there are approximately 106 Schottky pairs per cm3, at room
temperature.
 Shown by ionic substances containing similar-sized cations and anions;& compounds having
high coordination number ,for example, NaCl, KCl,CsCl, AgBr

Impurity Defect
 Point defect due to the presence of foreign atoms
 For example, if molten NaCl containing a little amount of SrCl2 is
crystallised, some of the sites of Na+ ions are occupied by
Sr2+ ions. Each Sr2+ ion replaces two Na+ ions, occupying the site of
one ion, leaving the other site vacant. The cationic vacancies
thus produced are equal in number to those of Sr2+ ions. Solid
solution of CdCl2 and AgCl also shows this defect
Non-Stoichiometric Defects: Result in non-stoichiometric ratio of the constituent elements
Two types −
 Metal excess defect
 Metal deficiency defect

(A)Metal excess defect

(i) Metal excess defect due to anionic vacancies:


A negative ion from the crystal lattice may be missing from its lattice site leaving a hole or vacancy
which is occupied by the electron originally associated with the anion. Called F-centre) Ex. NaCl
(yellow colour), LiCl (pink colour), KCl (violet colour).

(ii) Metal excess defect due to the presence of extra cations at interstitial sites:
When white zinc oxide is heated, it loses oxygen and turns yellow.
Then, zinc becomes excess in the crystal, leading the formula of
the oxide to . The excess Zn2+ ions move to the interstitial
sites, and the electrons move to the neighbouring interstitial sites.
( B)Metal deficiency defect
 Arises when a solid contains lesser number of cations compared to the stoichiometric
proportion.
 For example, FeO is mostly found with a composition of Fe 0.95 O . In crystals of FeO, some
Fe2+ ions are missing, and the loss of positive charge is made up by the presence of the
required number of Fe3+ ions.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


Q.1 which of the following is an amorphous solid?
(a)Graphite (b) Quartz glass (c) Diamond (d) Silicon carbide (SiC)
Q.2 Dry ice is a
(a)molecular solid (b)ionic solid (c)atomic solid (d)metallic solids
Q.3 In NaCl structure
(a) all octahedral and tetrahedral sites are occupied
(b) only octahedral sites are occupied
(c) only tetrahedral sites are occupied
(d) neither octahedral nor tetrahedral sites are occupied
Q.4 Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature. What is the meaning of anisotropic in the given
statement?
(a) A regular pattern of arrangement of particles which repeats itself periodically over the entire
crystal.
(b) Different values of some of physical properties are shown when measured along different
directions in the same crystals.
(c) An irregular arrangement of particles over the entire crystal.
(d) Same values of some of physical properties are shown when measured along different
directions in the same crystals.
Q.5 which of the following statements about amorphous solids is incorrect?
(a)They melt over a range of temperature
(b) They are rigid and incompressible
(c)There is no orderly arrangement of particles
(d) They are anisotropic
Q.6 Which of the following is not a characteristic property of solids?
(a)Intermolecular distances are short.
(b)Intermolecular forces are weak.
(c)Constituent particles have fixed positions.
(d)Solids oscillate about their mean positions.
Q.7 Which of the following is not a crystal line solid?
(a)KCl (b)CsCl (c)Glass (d)RhombicS
Q.8 Cells present in a cube-shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g ?
[Atomic masses: Na = 23, Cl =35.5]
(a) 2.57 × 1021 (b) 1.28 × 1021 (c) 1.71 ×1021 (d) 5.14 ×1021

Q.9 Graphite is an example of-


(a)Ionic solid (b) hydrogen bonded solid
(c) Metallic crystal (d) Covalent solid
Q.10 The total number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in 0.5 mol of a compound forming
hcp structure are:

(A) 6.022 ×1023 (B) 3.01×1023 (C) 9.033 ×1023 (D) 12.044 ×1023
Q.11 NaCl type crystal (with coordination no. 6 : 6) can be converted into CsCl type crystal (with
coordination no. 8 : 8) by applying
(a) high temperature (b) high pressure
(c) high temperature and high pressure (d) low temperature and low pressure
Q.12 For the orthorhombic system, axial ratios are a ≠ b ≠ c and the axial angles are:
(a)α = β = γ ≠ 90o (b)α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90o
(c)α = β = γ = 90o (d)α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90o
Q.13 How many space lattices are grouped in crystals?
(a)23 (b) 7 (c) 230 (d) 14
Q.14 The number of atoms in bcc arrangement is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
Q.15 The coordination number of Cl- will be in the NaCl crystal:
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 4
Q.16 Most crystals show good cleavage because their atoms, ions or molecules are
(a) weakly bonded together (b)strongly bonded together
(c) spherically symmetrical (d)arranged in planes
Q.17 The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in a cubic lattice in which lithium and silver
atoms have coordination numbers of 8. To what crystal class does the unit cell belong?
(a)Simple cubic (b)Face-centred cubic
(c)Body-centred cubic (d)Edge-centred cubic
Q,18 A crystal has the lattice parameters a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 900correspond to
(a)monoclinic (b)triclinic (c)cubic (d)tetragonal
Q.19 The vacant space in the bcc unit cell is
(A) 32 % (B) 23 % (C) 26 % (D) None of these
Q.20 The octahedral voids in fcc or ccp are located at
(A) edge centres and along diagonals (B) edge centres and body centre
(C) along body diagonal and edge centre (D) all the edge centres only
Q.21 In a closest packed lattice, the no. of octahedral sites as compared to tetrahedral ones will be
(A) Equal (B) Half (C) Double (D) None of these
Q.22 The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of the unit cell is
(A) fcc < bcc < simple cubic (B ) fcc > bcc > simple cubic
(c) fcc < bcc > simple cubic (D) bcc < fcc > simple cubic
Q.23 What is the packing efficiency of simple cubic lattice
(A) 52% (B ) 74% (C) 68% (D) none of these
Q.24 Calculate the number of atoms in a cubic based unit cell having one atom on each corner and
two atoms on each body diagonal.
(A) 8 (B ) 16 (C)9 (D)1
Q.25 In the Schottky defect-
(A) cations are missing from the lattice and occupy the interstitial sites
(B) equal number of cations and anions are missing
(C) anions are missing and electrons are present their places
(D) equal number of extra cations and electrons are present in the interstitial sites
Q.26 F-centres in an ionic crystal are
(A) lattice sites containing electrons
(B) interstitial sites containing electrons
(C) lattice sites that are vacant
(D) interstitial sites containing cations
Q.27 Which of the following defects is also known as a dislocation defect?
(A) Frenkel defect (B) Schottky defect
(B) Non-stoichiometric defect (D)Simple interstitial defect
Q.28 The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halide is generally due to:
(A) Frenkel defect (B) Schottky defect
(C) Vacancy defect (D) F-Centres
Q.29Compound that can exhibit Frenkel as well as Schottky defect is
(A) AgCl (B)AgBr (C) NaCl (D) ZnS
Q.30 Non-stoichiometric Metal Excess defects due to interstitial cations are found in
(A) NaCl (B) ZnO (C)ZnS (D) AgBr
Q.31 Which compound is added to create an impurity defect in NaCl?
(A) AgBr (B)AgCl (C) KI (D)SrCl2
Q.32 In ABCABC packing If the number of atom in the unit cell is n, then the number of
tetrahedral voids in unit cell is

(A) n (B) n/2 (C) n/4 (D) 2n

Q.33 The fraction of total volume occupied by atoms present in simple cube is

(A) Π/4 (B) Π/3 (C) Π /6 (D) Π/5

Q.34 A compound is formed by two elements Yand Z the element Z forms ccp and atoms Y occupy
1/3 of tetrahedral voids the formula of the compound is?

(A) Y2Z3 (B) Y3Z2 (C) YZ3 (D) Y2Z

Q.35 Alkali halides does not show Frankel defect because

(A) Cations and anions have almost equal size.

(B) There is large difference in size of cations and anions.

(C) Cations and anions have low coordination number.

(D) Anions cannot be accommodated in voids

Q.36In a face centred lattice of X atoms, Y atoms occupy 1/2 of tetrahedral voids and 1/4 of
Octahedral voids. What is the possible formula of the compound?
(A) X4Y6 (B) X4Y5 (C) X4Y8 (D) X4Y9

ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS


Q.1 Assertion: Solid NaCl does not conduct electricity atall.
Reason: In solid NaCl, the ions have fixed positions in the lattice structure and there are no free ions.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrongstatement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correctstatement.
Q2. Assertion: Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystalsystem.
Reason: For a tetragonal system, a = b ≠ c, α = β = γ =90°.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrongstatement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correctstatement
Q.3 Assertion: The total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell isone.
Reason: Simple cubic unit cell has atoms at its corners, each of which is
shared between eight adjacent unit cells.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
Q.4Assertion: Crystalline solids are anisotropic.
Reason: Crystalline solids are not as closely packed as ionic solids.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrongstatement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correctstatement
Q.5Assertion: Ionic compounds have high melting and boilingpoints.
Reason: There is a strong force of attraction between the ions.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrongstatement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correctstatement
Q.6 Assertion: In close packing of spheres, a tetrahedral void has a tetrahedralshape.
Reason: A tetrahedral void is surrounded by four spheres.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
Q.7 Assertion : The total number of atoms present in a FCC unit cell is 4.
Reason : FCC cubic unit cell has atoms only at its corners, each of which is shared between
eight adjacent unit cells.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
Q.8 Assertion : Packing efficiency is maximum for the FCC structure.
Reason : The coordination number is 12 in FCC structure.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
Q.9 Assertion : A tetrahedral void is surrounded by four spheres and an octahedral void is
surrounded by six sphere.
Reason :The number of tetrahedral voids is double the number of closed packed sphere
and number of octahedral voids is equal to number of close packed spheres.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
Q.10 Assertion : Packing efficiency of body centered cubic structure is 68%.
Reason : 68% is the maximum packing efficiency any crystal can have.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
Q.11 Assertion : Frenkel defect is also called dislocation defect.
Reason : Frenkel defect is shown by ionic substances in which cation and anion
are of almost similar sizes.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
Q.12 Assertion : Due to frankel defect ,there is no effect on density of the crystalline solid.
Reason : In this defect, no cation or anion leaves the crystal.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

MATCH THE FOLLOWING TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1 MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column A Column B
(TYPE OF UNIT CELL) (No.0F PARTICLES )
(A) Primitive cubic unit cell (I)Corner-8, Face-2 Centre-0
(B) Body centred cubic unit cell (II) Corner-8, Face-6, Centre-0
(C) Face centred cubic unit cell (III) Corner-8, Face-0, Centre-1
(D) End centred cubic unit cell (IV) Corner-8, Face-0, Centre-0
Which of the following is the best matched options?
(a) A- II, B- III, C- I, D- IV (c) A- IV, B- III, C- II, D- I
(b) A- I, B- III, C- II, D- IV (d) A- III, B- II, C- IV, D- I
Q.2. MATCH THE FOLLOWING-
COLUMN-A COLUMN-B
1.Simple vacancy defect A-Shown by non-ionic solids and increases the density of the solid.
2.Simple interstitial defect B-Shown by ionic solution and decreases the density of the solid
3. Frenkel defect C-Shown by non-ionic solids and decreases the density of the solid
4. Schottky defect D-Shown by ionic solids and density of the solid remains the
same
(A) 1-C, 2-A ,3-D,4-B (C) 1-C, 2-B,3-A, 4-D
(B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D,4-A (D) 1-A, 2-D,3-C,4-B
Q.3. MATCH THE FOLLOWING-
COLUMN-A COLUMN-B
1. Square close packing in two dimension A-Triangular voids
2. Hexagonal close packing in two dimensions B-Pattern of spheres is repeated in every fourth
layer
3.Hexagonal close packing in three dimension C-Coordination number=4
4.Cubic close packing in three dimension D-Pattern of spheres is repeated in alternate layers
(A) 1-C, 2-A ,3-D,4-B (C) 1-C, 2-B,3-A, 4-D
(B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D,4-A (D) 1-A, 2-D,3-C,4-B

ANALOGY BASED QUESTION

Q.1 Ionic solid : NaCl :: Metallic solid : ?


(A) Silica (B) H2O (C) CaF2 (D) Cu
Q.2 Crystalline solid : Quartz :: Amorphous solid : ?
(A) Alum (B) Diamond (C) Rubber (D) Sugar
Q.3Mark the incorrect pair from the following.
(A) Schottky defect- Equal number of cation and anion are missing
(B) Frenkel defect- Dislocation of cation from its normal site to interstitial site
(C) Impurity defect- CdCl2 in AgCl crystal to create cationic vacancy
(D) Metal excess defect – Fe0.93O.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION :-
A regular three-dimensional arrangement of points in space is called a space lattice or crystal
lattice. There are only 14 three-dimensional lattices known as Bravais lattices. The basic
difference between the 14 Bravais lattices are the angles between the faces and the relative
proportion of the sides.
A unit cell is the smallest unit of the crystal which when repeated again and again gives the
crystal of the given substance.
There are three types of unit cells based on the cube.
These are: Primitive or simple cube (b) Body-centred cube (c) Face-centred cube
Q.1The number of atoms in unit cell in simple cubic, FCC and BCC are-
(a)1,2,4 (b)1,2,3 (c)1,4,2 (d)1,3,2
Q.2 The numbers of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell of a face cantered cubic lattice of similar
atoms is-
(a)4 (b)6 (c) 8 (d)10
Q.3The coordination number of each atom in body centred cubic unit cell is
(a)12 (b)6 (c) 8 (d)4
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

In an ideal crystal, there must be regular repeating arrangement of the constituting particles and
its entropy must be zero at absolute zero temperature. However, it is impossible to obtain an ideal
crystal and it suffers from certain defects called imperfections. In pure crystal, these defects arises
either due to disorder or dislocation of the constituting particles from the normal positions or due
to the movement of the particles even at absolute zero temperature. Such defects increase with
rise in temperature. In addition to these certain defects arise due to the presence of some
impurities. Such defects not only modify the existing properties of the crystalline solids but also
impart certain new characteristics to them.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate options:

Q.4.AgCl is crystallized from molten AgCl containing a little CdCl2. The solid obtained will have
(a) cationic vacancies equal to number of Cd2+ ions incorporated.
(b) cationic vacancies equal to double the number of Cd2+ ions.
(c) anionic vacancies.
(d) neither cationic nor anionic vacancies.
Q.5. Lattice defect per 1015 NaCl is 1. What is the number of lattice defects in a mole of NaCl?
(a) 6.02 × (b) 6.02 × (c) (d) None of these
Q.6.The ionic substances in which the cation and anion are of almost similar size shows
(a) non-stoichiometric defect (b) Schottky defect
(c) Frenkel defect (d) all of these
QUESTION FOR IIT & NEET

Q.1 Name the non-stoichiometric point defect responsible for colour in alkali metal halides.
(A) Frenkel defect (B) Interstitial defect
(C) Schottky defect (D) F-centres
Q.2 What is the total volume of atoms in a face centred cubic unit cell of a metal? (r is atomic
radius).
(A) 16/3 πr3 (B) πr3 (C) 24/3 πr3 (D) 12/3 πr3
Q.3 Percentage of free space in cubic close packed structure and body centred packed structure
are-
(A) 48% and 26% (B) 30% and 26%
(C) 26% and 32% (D) 32% and 48%
Q.4 Lithium forms BCC structure.The length of the side of its unit cell 351 pm.Atomic radius of
lithium will be-
(A) 152 pm (B) 75 pm (C) 300 pm (D) 240 pm
Q.5 The total no.of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close packed structure is-
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.6 Which type of ‘defect’has the prescence of cation in interstitial site.
(A) Vacancy defect (B) Frenkel defect
(C) Metal deficiency defect (D) Schottky defect
Q.7In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B occupies
the face centre positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred points, the
formula of the compound is :-
(A) A2B3 (B) A2B5 (C) A2B (D) AB2
Q.8An electron trapped in an anion site in crystal is called
(A) F –center (B) Frankel defect
(C) Schottky defect (D) Interstitial defect
Q.9 Zinc Oxide loses oxygen on heating according to the reaction:
ZnO____Δ____Zn²+ +1/2 O2 +2 e-
It becomes yellow on heating because
(A) Zn²+ ions and electrons move to interstitial site and F centers are formed
(B) Oxygen and electrons are moved out of the crystal and ions become yellow .
(C) Zn²+ again combine with oxygen to give yellow oxide.
(D) Zn²+ are replaced by oxygen
Q.10Non-stoichiometric Metal Excess defects due to interstitial cations are found in
(A) NaCl (B) ZnO (C) ZnS (D) AgBr
Q.11. An element having an atomic radius of 0.14 nm crystallizes in an fcc unit cell. What is the
length of a side of the cell?
(A) 0.96 nm (B) 0.4 nm (C) 0.24 nm (D) 0.56 nm
Q.12 The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an ionic substance is 508 pm. If the radius of
the cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is :-
(A) 144 pm (B) 288 pm (C) 398 pm (D) 618 pm
Answer Key

MCQ

Q.1 Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 Q.6 Q.7 Q.8 Q.9

b a b b d b c a d

Q.10 Q.11 Q.12 Q.13 Q.14 Q.15 Q.16 Q.17 Q.18

c b c d b a d c b

Q.19 Q.20 Q.21 Q.22 Q.23 Q.24 Q.25 Q.26 Q.27 Q.28

A B B B A C B A A D

Q.29 Q.30 Q.31 Q.32 Q.33 Q.34 Q.35 Q.36

B B D D C A A B

ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS

Q.1 Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 Q.6


a d a c a d
Q.7 Q.8 Q.9 Q.10 Q.11 Q.12
c b b c c a

MATCH THE FOLLOWING ----Q.1- (C), Q.2 –(A), Q.3 – (A)

ANALOGY BASED QUESTION

Q.1-D Q.2-C Q.3- D

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

Q.1-c Q.2-c Q.3-c

Q.4-a Q.5-b Q.6-b

QUESTION FOR IIT & NEET


Q.1 Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 Q.6 Q.7 Q.8 Q.9 Q.10 Q.11 Q.12

D A C A A B B A A B B A
CHPATER-2 “SOLUTIONS”
Types of solutions -

S.N Solute Solvent Types of Solutions Examples


o
1. Solid Solid Solid in solid All alloys like brass, bronze, an alloy of
= Solid copper and gold, etc.
2. Liquid Solid Liquid in solid = Solid Amalgam of mercury with Na,CuSO4.5H2O,
FeSO4.7H2O
3. Gas Solid Gas in solid= Solid Solution of H2 in Pd, dissolved gases in
minerals.
4. Solid Liquid Solid in liquid = liquid Sugar solution, salt solution, I2, in CC14.
5. Liquid Liquid Liquid in liquid = liquid Benzene in toluene, alcohol in water.

6. Gas Liquid Gas in liquid= liquid CO2 in water, NH3 in water etc.

7. Solid Gas Solid in gas =gaseous Iodine vapours in air, camphor vapours in N2.

8. Liquid Gas Liquid in gas =gaseous Water vapours in air, CHCl3 vapours in N2.

9. Gas Gas Gas in gas=gaseous Air (O2 + N2)

Mass %, ppm, mole fraction and molality are independent of


Temp. V/s Conc. temperature, whereas molarity depends on temperature. This is because
volume depends on temperature.
At constant tempre, the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly
proportional to the pressure of the gas. p = KH .X KH = Henry’s law
Henry’s law constant (greater the KH value lower the solubility)
1
Gas solubility 
KH
1.To increase the solubility of CO2 in soft drinks, the bottle is sealed
Application of under high pressure.
Henry’s law 2. To avoid bends, the tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air
diluted with helium
Solubility of gas increases with decrease of temperature. It is due to this
Temp and Solubility
reason that aquatic species are more comfortable in cold waters rather
of gas
than in warm waters.
The partial vapour pressure of each component in the solution
Raoult’s law for is directly proportional to its mole fraction PA  X A , PB  X B
volatile liquids PA  PA .X A --------(i) PB  PB . X B -----------(ii)
Ptotal  PA  PB ,
The solutions which obey Raoult’s law over the entire range of
Ideal Solutions concentration are known as ideal solutions. ( For ideal solution Δmix H
= 0, Δmix V = 0)
Example : Solution of n-hexane and n-heptane,
Positive deviation :
(i) P A + P B>
(ii) ΔH mix and ΔV mix are + ve.
(iii) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and B – B interactions.
Example: C2H5OH + Water , Mixtures of ethanol and acetone
etc.
Non-ideal Solutions
Negative deviations :
(i) P A + P B<
(ii) ΔH mix and ΔV mix are – ve
(iii) A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and B – B interaction :
Example- A mixture of phenol + aniline. A mixture of chloroform
+acetone, HNO3& Water etc.

Mixtures have same composition in liquid and vapour phase and boil at
a constant temp.
Azeotropes minimum boiling azeotrope (positive deviation) eg- 95% aq ethanol
maximum boiling azeotrope (negative deviation) eg- 68% aq nitric
acid

Mass percentage. Molefraction Molarity(M) = Ppm=


w/w% -

= Normality (N)

For liquid solutions % for dilution M1V1 = M2V2


v/v= Molality(m)=

XA+ XB = 1
=

(Here MM is Molar Mass of


the solute)

Mole-fraction (x). It is ratio of number of moles of a particular component to the total number
of moles of all the components.
 Molarity (M). It is expressed as the number of moles of solute per litre of solution..
 Molality (m). It is defined as number of moles of solute per 1000 g or 1 kg of solvent.
 VapourPressure ofSolutions ofSolids in Liquids: In the solution, the surface has both solute
and solvent molecules; thereby the fraction of the surface covered by the solvent molecules
gets reduced. Consequently, the number of solvent molecules escaping from the surface is
correspondingly reduced, thus, the vapour pressure is also reduced.
COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES.
Those properties of ideal solutions which depend only on the number of particles of the
solute (molecules or ions) dissolved in a definite amount of the solvent and do not depend
on the nature of solute are called colligative properties.
(i) Relative lowering of v.apour pressure (ii) Osmotic pressure (iii) Elevation in boiling point
(iv) Depression in freezing point:
Relative lowering of Elevation in boiling point Depression in freezing point
vapour pressure
The vapour pressure of a b=Kb x m f=Kf xm
solvent in solution is less
than that of the pure
solvent, When nonvolatile
b=Tb-T0b f=T0f -Tf
solute dissolve in pure
m = molality m = molality
solvent.
From Raoult’s Law Kb =molal elevation constant Kf =molal depression
PA = poA XA or Ebulloscopic constant constant or cryoscopic

PA  P Kb =is the elevation in constant
 XB
PA the boiling point of one molal Kf =The depression of freezing
,
solution. point of one Molal solution.
nB
xB  Its unit is K kg mol -1 Its unit is K kg mol-1
nA  nB M=molar mass = M=molar mass =

PA  P WB M A
 
PA M B WA
[for a very dilute solution
n B << n A ]
Where PA0 is vapour
pressure of pure
component 'A'
Pis partial vapour pressure
of solution
(PA0-PA)= P=lowering of
vapour pressure

Applications (Importance) of depression in freezing point.


(i) In making antifreeze solutions:- The running of a car in sub-zero weather even when
the radiator is full of water (which freezes below 273 K) has been possible due to the fact
that depression in freezing point of water takes place when appropriate amount of a
suitable solute (usually ethylene glycol) called antifreeze is dissolved in the water.
(ii) In melting of ice on the roads:-In winter or in the hills where it snows heavily,
common salt (NaCl) or calcium chloride (CaCl2) is scattered on the roads to melt ice. This is
because salt-ice mixture has very low freezing point.
OSMOTICPRESSURE
The net spontaneous flow of the solvent molecules from the solvent to the solution or from a
less concentrated solution to a more concentrated solution through a semipermeable
membrane is called osmosis.

Difference between Diffusion and Osmosis.'

The minimum excess pressure that has to be applied on the solution to prevent the entry of
the solvent into the solution through the semipermeable membrane is called the osmotic
pressure.
It is of interest to mention that if a pressure higher than the osmotic pressure is
applied on the solution, the solvent will flow from the solution into the pure solvent through
the semi-permeable membrane. The process is called reverse osmosis (R.O.).

NOTE:- An important application of reverse osmosis is in the desalination of sea water,


i.e., removal of salts from sea water. On applying pressure greater than osmotic presure,
pure water can be made to flow through a semipermeable membrane (cellulose acetate)
and this water can be used for drinking purposes.
Osmotic pressure is proportional to the molarity, C of
the solution at a given temperature
T.
and

NOTE:-This method is widely used to determine molar masses of proteins, polymers and
other The osmotic pressure method has the advantage over other methods as pressure
measurement is around the room temperature and the molarity of the solution is used
instead of molality.
As compared to other colligative properties, its magnitude is large even for very
dilute solutions. The technique of osmotic pressure for determination of molar mass of
solutes is particularly useful for biomolecules as they are generally not stable at higher
temperatures and polymers have poor solubility.
People taking a lot of salt or salty food experience water retention in tissue cells and
intercellular spaces because of osmosis. The resulting puffiness or swelling is called
edema.
Water movement from soil into plant roots and subsequently into upper portion of the
plant is partly due to osmosis.
The preservation of meat by salting and of fruits by adding sugar protects against
bacterial action. Through the process of osmosis, a bacterium on salted meat or candid fruit
loses water, shrivels and dies.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1.) Which of the following solution containing components A and B follow Raoult's Law?:
a. A-B attraction force is greater than A-A and B-B
b. A-B attraction force is less than A-A and B-B
c. A-B attraction force remains same as A-A and B-B
d. Volume of solution is different from sum of volume of A and B
2.) The vapour pressure of the solution containing non-volatile solute is:
a. greater than vapour pressure of pure solvent
b. lesser than vapour pressure of pure solvent
c. equal to the vapour pressure of pure solvent
d. the sum of the vapour pressure of the solute and the solvent
3.) What are the medical conditions which can be explained using Henry's law?
a. fever and bends c. liver failure and anoxia
b. heart attack and bends d. bends and anoxia
4.) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the variation in total vapour pressure versus composition of
solution is given by which of the curves?

a. (i) and (ii) c. (i) and (iii)


b. (i) and (iv) d. (iii) and (iv)
5.)The partial vapour pressure is equal to the product of pure pressure & mole fraction of the
solute/solvent, this statement was given by:
a. Raoult’s c. Joule
b. Henry d. Dalton
6.)Pressure of a solution component is directly proportional to its mole fraction. This is
known as
(a) Henry’s law (b) Raoult’s law (c) Distribution law (d) Ostawald’s dilution law
7.) Which of the following solutions shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
( a) Acetone + Aniline (b) Acetone + Ethanol
(c) Water + Nitric acid (d) Chloroform + Benzene
8.) The value of Henry’s Law constant is:
a. larger for gases with higher solubility
b. larger for gases with lower solubility
c. constant for all gases
d. not related to the solubility of gases
9.) The Solutions boiled at a constant temperature are called:
(a) Amorphous (b) Azeotropic mixture
(c) Ideal solution (d) Super saturated solution
10.) Henry’s law constant for molality of methane is benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg.
The mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg is
(a) 1.78 × 10-3 (b) 17.43 (c) 0.114 (d) 2.814
11.) On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution feels cool to touch. Under
which of the following cases dissolution of sugar will be most rapid?
(a) Sugar crystals in cold water. (b) Sugar crystals in hot water.
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water. (d) Powdered sugar in hot water
12.) Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its
vapour pressure?
(a) mole fraction (b) parts per million (c) mass percentage (d) molality
13.) Maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified amount of a given
liquid solvent does not depend upon
(a) Temperature (b) Nature of solute (c) Pressure (d) Nature of solvent
14.) 200 ml water is added to 500 ml of 0.2 M solution. What is the molarity of the diluted
solution?
(a) 0.5010 M (b) 0.2897 M (c) 0.7093 M (d) 0.1428 M
15.) Increasing the temp. of an aq. Solution will cause :
(a) decrease the molality (b) decrease in molarity
(c) decrease in mole fraction (d) decrease in % w/w
16.) Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due
to _____.
(a) low temperature (b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) high atmospheric pressure (d) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
17.) Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
(i) 1.0 M NaOH (ii) 1.0 M Na2SO4 (iii) 1.0 M NH4NO3 (iv) 1.0 M KNO3
18.) The unit of Henry’s Law constant is _______________.
(a) K kg mol–1 or K (molality)–1 (b) mol kg K–1 or K–1(molality)
(c) kg mol–1 K–1 or K–1(molality)–1 (d) bar (pressure)
19.) At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is __.
(a) less than the rate of crystallization (b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crystallization (d) zero
20.) The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of a solute is not influenced by:
(a) Temperature of solution (b) melting point of solute
(c) Mole fraction of solute (d) degree of dissociation of solute
21.) An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure:
(a) equal to that of water (b) equal to that of methanol
(c) more than that of water (d) less than that of water
22.) When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent decreases. This
brings:
(a) an increase in b.pt. of the solution (b) a decrease in b.pt of a solution
(c) an increase in f. pt of the solvent (d) none
23.)If the vapour pressure of solutions of two liquids are less than those expected from ideal
solution they are said to have :
(a) negative deviation from ideal behaviour
(b) positive deviations from ideal behaviour
(c) ideal behaviour
(d) sometime positive and sometime negative deviations .
24.) Which of the following conditions is not correct for ideal solution:
(a) no change in volume on mixing
(b) no change in enthalpy on mixing
(c) it obey’s Raoult’s law
(d) lonisation of solute should occurs to a small extent
25.) Solutions distilled without change in composition at a temperature are called :
(a) Amorphous (c) Ideal solution
(b) Azeotropic mixture (d) Super saturated solution
26.) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point higher than either of them when it:
(a) shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(b) is saturated
(c) shows no deviation from Raoult’s law
(d) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
27.) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than either of them when it:
(a) shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(b) shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(c) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
(d) is saturated
28.) For an ideal solution containing a nonvolatile solute, which of the following expressions
represents the vapour pressure of the solution? (x1→ mole fraction of solvent)
(a) p = x2 p°2 (b) p = x1 p°2 (c) p = x1 p°1 (d) p°1 – p = x2
29.) Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law? [AIEEE-
2004]
(a)Water-hydrochloric acid (b) Benzene-methanol
(c)Water-nitric acid (d) Acetone-chloroform
30.) Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have - [AIEEE-2006]
(a) Same freezing point but different boiling point
(b) Same boiling point but different freezing point
(c) Different boiling and different freezing point
(d) Same boiling and same freezing points
31.) Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution
is [AIEEE-2006 ]
(a) 3.28 mol kg– 1 (b) 2.28 mol kg– 1 (c) 0.44 mol kg– 1 (d) 1.14 mol kg– 1
32.) Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause: [JEE 1983]
(a) decrease in molality (b) decrease in molarity
(c) decrease in the mole fraction (d) decrease in % (w/w)
33.) For a dilute solution, Raoult's law state that: [JEE 1985]
(a) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of solute
(b) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(c) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in
solution
(d) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of solvent
34) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of them when it:
[JEE 1981]
(a) shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(b) shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(c) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
(d) is saturated
35) The unit of Ebullioscopic constant is:
(A) K kg mol-1 or K (molality)-1
(B) mol kg-1 K-1 or K-1 (molality)
(C) kg mol-1 K-1 or K-1 (molality)-1
(D) K mol kg-1 or K (molality)
36) The osmotic pressure associated with the fluid inside the blood cell is equivalent to that of
0.9% (mass/volume) sodium chloride solution. If RBC is placed the solution having the
concentration more than 2.9% (w/V)NaCl solution then
(A) RBC will burst (C) No change will be seen RBC
(B) RBC will shrink (D) RBC will become flaccid
37) In osmosis
(A) Solvent molecules move from higher concentration to lower concentration
(B) Solvent molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration
(C) Solute molecules move from higher concentration to lower concentration
(D) Solute molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration
38) Two solutions A and B are separated by semi-permeable membrane. If the liquid flows from
A to B then
(A) A is less concentrated than B (C) Both have the same concentration
(B) A is more concentrated than B (D) B is less concentrated than A
39) Which colligative property is more useful to determine the molecular mass of the proteins
and polymers?
(A) Lowering in vapour pressure (C) Depression in freezing point
(B) Elevation in boiling point (D) Osmotic pressure
40) Molal depression constant depends upon:
(A) nature of the solute (C) vapour pressure of the solution
(B) nature of the solvent (D) heat of solution
41) When a particular solution has a higher osmotic pressure than the given standard solution, it
is most appropriately called as ……… with respect to the standard solution
(A) Hypotonic (C) Isotonic
(B) Hypertonic (D) None of these
42)Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Solutes that dissociates in water experience a decrease in colligative properties
(B) Colligative properties are independent of the number of particles of the solute in the
solution
(C) Solutes that dissociate in water have molar mass higher than the molar mass of the
solute calculated theoretically
(D) Solutes that associate in water have molar mass higher than the molar mass of the
solute calculated theoretically.
43) Which relationship is not correct?
(a) ΔTb = (b) =

(c) = RT (d) = x
44) A set of solutions is prepared using 180 g of water as a solvent and 10 g of different non-
electrolyte and non-volatile solutes A, B and C. The relative lowering of vapour pressure in
the presence of these solutes are in the order (given: Molar mass of A = 100 g mol-1, B = 200
g mol-1, C = 10,000 g mol-1)
(a) A > B> C (b) B > C > A
(c) C > B > A (d) A > C > B
45) The osmotic pressure of 5 % aqueous solution of glucose ( ) is related to that of 5 %
aqueous solution of urea ( ) as
(a) = (b) <
(c) > (d) = ⁄
46) Osmotic pressure of urea solution at 10 is 500 mm Hg. Osmotic pressure of the solution
0C

becomes 105.3 mm Hg, when it is diluted and temperature raised to 25 0C. The extent of
dilution is:
(a) 6 times (c) 7 times
(b) 5 times (d) 4 times
47)If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will
be
(a) Halved (c) Unchanged
(b) Tripled (d) Doubled.
48)18 g of glucose, C6H12O6, is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a saucepan. At what temperature will
water boil at 1.013 bar? Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol-1.
(a) 100.2 °C (c) 100.1 °C
(b) 100.3 °C (d) 100.02 °C
49)Pure water can be obtained from sea water by
(a) Centrifugation (c) reverse osmosis
(b) Plasmolysis (d) Sedimentation.
50)1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g of benzene lowered the freezing point of
benzene by 0.40 K. The freezing point depression constant of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. Find
the molar mass of the solute.
(A) 254 g mol-1 (C) 265 g mol-1
(B) 256 g mol-1 (D) 245 g mol-1
51)The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg–1 solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of
Y in water. Which one of the following statements is true in this case?
(A) Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of Y.
(B) Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X undergoes no change.
(C) X is undergoing dissociation in water.
(D) Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y.
52)Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?
(A) KCl (C) Al2(SO4)3
(B) C6H12O6 (D) K2SO4
53)The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of
(A) solute molecules to the solvent molecules
(B) solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(C) solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(D) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute.
54)Which one is a colligative property?
(A) Boiling point (C) Osmotic pressure
(B) Vapour pressure (D) Freezing point

ASSERTION -REASON-ASSERTION TYPE QUESTIONS


Read the above assertion and reason and choose the correct statement regarding it.
Q. 1) Assertion: Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason: The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement

Q. 2) Assertion: Ethanol in water is an emulsion


Reason: As 95% aqueous solution of ethanol is called as absolute alcohol.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement

Q. 3) Assertion: When sugar is added to water, vapour pressure of water decreases.


Reason: When a non-volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, it allows less vapour to
escape from the surface.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement

Q. 4) Assertion: When Scuba diver breaths in their special cylinders, no bends occur.
Reason: The Cylinders are filled with 11% Argon gas to reduce harmful impact of N2 gas.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
Q. 5) Assertion: Molality of a solution does also vary with temperature.
Reason: The Mass of the solvent does not change with rise in temperature.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement

Q.6). Assertion: Depression of freezing point is a colligative property.


Reason: The depression of freezing point for a solution is directly proportional to the molality of the
solution.––
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(D)Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

Q.7). Assertion: Colloidal solution shows colligative properties.


Reason: Colloidal particles are large in size.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

Q.8) Assertion: When methyl alcohol is added in water, boiling point is increased.
Reason When a volatile solute is added in a volatile solvent elevation in boiling point is
observed.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

Q.9) Assertion: When NaCl is added in water, elevation in freezing point is observed.
Reason: Ideal solution does not obey Raoult’s law.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

Q.10).Assertion: When a solution is separated from pure solvent by a semi-permeable


membrane, solvent molecules pass through it from solvent side to solution side.
Reason: Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to
lower concentration.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

Q.11).Assertion:The osmotic pressure method has got advantages over other colligative
properties.
Reason:Because the measurement of osmotic pressure is around the room temperature and
molarity of the solution is used instead of molality.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
(C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

Analogy Based Questions:


Q.1) Complete the following analogy:
Molarity : Mol/Liter :: _ _ _ _ _ _ : Mol/Kg
(a) Mole Fraction (b) Molality
(c) Strength (d) Formality
Q2) Which of the following analogies is correct?
a. Solid in solid : Alloy :: Liquid in liquid : Coolant in cars
b. Molality: Temperature:: Molarity : Volume
c. Henry’s Law: Scuba Diver :: Raoult’s Law : RO
d. Helium : Cold Drinks:: Nitrogen : Bend
Q.3) Ebullioscopy: Boiling point elevation : : _____________________ : Freezing point depression.
a. Osmotic pressure
b. Raoult’s law
c. Cryoscopy
d. Relative lowering in vapour pressure
Q.4) Boiling point elevation: molality : : Molarity : ________________.
a. Freezing point depression
b. Osmotic pressure
c. Vapour pressure
d. Relative lowering in vapour pressure

MATCH THE FOLLOWING TYPE QUESTIONS:

1. Match The Following


Which is the correct option?
(a) (i)=(e) (ii)=(c) (iii)=(d) (iv)=(b) (v)=(a)
(b) (i)=(a) (ii)=(c) (iii)=(d) (iv)=(b) (v)=(e)
(c) (i)=(e) (ii)=(d) (iii)=(c) (iv)=(b) (v)=(a)
(d) (i)=(c) (ii)=(e) (iii)=(d) (iv)=(a) (v)=(b)

2.Match The Following

COLUMN – A COLUMN - B
1. Depression in freezing point A. Ebullioscopy
2. Elevation in boiling point B. Edema
3. Osmotic C. Desalination of sea water
4. Reverse osmosis D. Antifreeze Solution
Which is the correct option?

(A) 1-C, 2-A ,3-D,4-B (C) 1-C, 2-B,3-A, 4-D


(B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D,4-A (D) 1-D, 2-A,3-B,4-C
CASE BASED QUESTION

(I) Read this paragraph and answer these questions:

So what happens when you drop salt into a glass of water? The water before and after
does not look different (assuming that all of the salt is dissolved). However, if you took a drink of
it, it certainly tastes different. It boils at a higher temperature than pure water and it conducts
electricity. What happened?
Your everyday table salt consists of NaCl. Water is made of H2O molecules. When these
two are combined together in a solution, NaCl actually separates into ions. [In solid NaCl, Na+ and
Cl- ions are arranged in an ordered three dimensional array called a crystal lattice]. Thus NaCl (s)
becomes Na+ and Cl- ions in solution (i.e., NaCl dissolves in water). Why does NaCl dissolve?
NaCl becomes solvated ions because of favorable electrostatic interactions and favorable
entropy conditions. In order for the solute to dissolve, these two effects must be stronger than
the interactions within the NaCl crystal and the solvent molecules with themselves. In other
words, NaCl dissolves in water because the electrostatic interactions and the entropic effects
are stronger for the ions and water than they are for the NaCl crystal and the H2O by itself.
Even though NaCl dissolves to become ions in a solvent, the overall charge remains
neutral. Remember that it is NaCl, a neutral compound, that forms the Na + and Cl- ions. There
will be an equal number of positive and negative charges; therefore, the solution will be neutral.
(Source: "Solutions". Washington University Chemistry Department. Washington
University. Retrieved 13 April 2018.)

Q. 1) A salt is soluble in water when:


(a) Hydration Enthalpy is greater than Lattice Enthalpy
(b) Hydration Enthalpy is smaller than Lattice Enthalpy
(c) Hydration Enthalpy is equal to the Lattice Enthalpy
(d) Hydration Enthalpy is either smaller than or equal to the Lattice Enthalpy
Q. 2.) Electrostatic force of attraction is ………. than/to the Hydration enthalpy
(a) Smaller (b) greater (c) equal (d) neither smaller nor greater
Q. 3) The depression in freezing point of NaCl solution and Glucose solution will be:
(a) same (b) different
(c) sometime same sometime different (d) can’t say
Q. 4) The snow is sprinkled with NaCl, then its:
(a) its boiling point will be elevated (b) its freezing point will be depressed
(c) its vapour pressure will be lowered (d) all of the above
(II) Read this paragraph and answer these questions:

If the two solvents can form a negative azeotrope, then distillation of any mixture of those
constituents will result in the residue being closer to the composition at the azeotrope than the
original mixture. For example, if a hydrochloric acid solution contains less than 20.2% hydrogen
chloride, boiling the mixture will leave behind a solution that is richer in hydrogen chloride than
the original. If the solution initially contains more than 20.2% hydrogen chloride, then boiling will
leave behind a solution that is poorer in hydrogen chloride than the original. Boiling of any
hydrochloric acid solution long enough will cause the solution left behind to approach the
azeotropic ratio.On the other hand, if two solvents can form a positive azeotrope, then distillation
of any mixture of those constituents will result in the residue away from the composition at the
azeotrope than the original mixture. For example, if a 50/50 mixture of ethanol and water is
distilled once, the distillate will be 80% ethanol and 20% water, which is closer to the azeotropic
mixture than the original, which means the solution left behind will be poorer in ethanol.Distilling
the 80/20% mixture produces a distillate that is 87% ethanol and 13% water. Further repeated
distillations will produce mixtures that are progressively closer to the azeotropic ratio of
95.5/4.5%. No numbers of distillations will ever result in a distillate that exceeds the azeotropic
ratio. Likewise, when distilling a mixture of ethanol and water that is richer in ethanol than the
azeotrope, the distillate (contrary to intuition) will be poorer in ethanol than the original but still
richer than the azeotrope. (Source: Wikipedia)
Each of the questions given below consists of two statements, an assertion (A) and reason
(R). Select the number corresponding to the appropriate alternative as follows:

(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A, then mark (a)

(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A, then mark (b)

(c) If A is true but R is false, then mark (c)

(d) If A is false but R is true, then mark (d)

Q. 5) A: It is difficult to separate Azeotropic Mixture.

R: Azeotropic mixture boils as a single component at a constant temperature so that


fractional distillation doesn’t work.

Q. 6) A: Absolute alcohol is up to 95.4% pure.

R: Azeotropes are either minimum boiling or maximum boiling.

Q. 7) A: Hydrochloric acid – water mixture is a positive azeotropic mixture.

R: Hydrogen chloride boils at −84 °C and water at 100 °C, but the azeotrope boils at 110 °C,
which is higher than either of its constituents

Q. 8) A: Ethanol and water form minimum boiling azeotrope.

R: Ethanol and water form negative azeotropic mixture.

(III) Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The properties of the solutions which depend only on the number of solute particles but not on
the nature of the solute are called colligative properties. Relative lowering in vapour pressure is
also an example of colligative properties.
For an experiment, sugar solution is prepared for which lowering in vapour pressure was found
to be 0.061 mm of Hg. (Vapour pressure of water at 200C is 17.5 mm of Hg)
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer:
Q. 9) Relative lowering of vapour pressure for the given solution is
(a) 0.00348 (b) 0.061 (c) 0.122 (d) 1.75
OR
The vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of water at 293K when 25g of glucose is dissolved in 450 g of
water is
(a) 17.2 (b) 17.4 (c) 17.120 (d) 17.02
Q. 10) The vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of solution will be
(a) 17.5 (b) 0.61 (c) 17.439 (d) 0.00348
Q. 11)If weight of sugar taken is 5 g in 108 g of water then molar mass of sugar will be
(a) 358 (b) 120 (c) 240 (d) 400

Answer Key

MCQ

Q.1 Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 Q.6 Q.7 Q.8 Q.9


c b d b a a b b b
Q.10 Q.11 Q.12 Q.13 Q.14 Q.15 Q.16 Q.17 Q.18
a d a c c b b b d
Q.19 Q.20 Q.21 Q.22 Q.23 Q.24 Q.25 Q.26 Q.27
c b c a d d b a c
Q.28 Q.29 Q.30 Q.31 Q.32 Q.33 Q.34 Q.35 Q.36
c b d b b d c A B
Q.37 Q.38 Q.39 Q.40 Q.41 Q.42 Q.43 Q.34 Q.45
B A D B B D A A B
Q.46 Q.47 Q.48 Q.49 Q.50 Q.51 Q.52 Q.53 Q.54
B C A C B C C B C
ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS:-

Q.1 Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 Q.6


a b a c d A
Q.7 Q.8 Q.9 Q.10 Q.11
B A D B A
ANALOGY BASED QUESTION

Q.1-b Q.2-a Q.3- c Q.4-b


MATCH THE FOLLOWING ---- Q.1- (A), Q.2 –(D)

DY BASED QUESTION

Q.1-a Q.2-a Q.3-b Q.4-d Q.5-a Q.6-b


Q.7-d Q.8-c Q.9-a OR b Q.10-c Q.11-c

MCQ TYPE NUMERICAL PRACTICE:

Q. 1) Calculate the mole fraction of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) in a solution containing 20% of
C2H6O2 by mass.
Ans Fill in the Blanks from the given options:

0.322, 180, 4.44, 80, 0.322, 4.44, 0.322, 0.068, 0.932, 0.322, 0.068 4.44

Q. 2) Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH in 450 ml solution.

Ans Fill in the Blanks from the given options:

40, 0.125, 5, 450, 1000, Mole/Liter, 0.278

Numericals:

1.) 180, 0.322, 80, 4.44, 0.322, 4.44, 0.322, 0.068, 0.322, 4.44, 0.932, 0.068

5, 40, 0.125, 1000, 450, 0.278, Mole/Liter


REVISION NOTES

Group-15 elements

1. Group-15 elements are collectively


known as the pnicogens Symbo Atomic Electronic
2. Electronic Configuration: The l number configuration
elements of Group15 have five valence
electrons and have general electronic N 7 [He]2s22p3 NON -METAL
configuration.(ns np ) The s orbital in
2 3
P 15 [Ne] 3s23p3 NON -METAL
these elements is completely filled and p
orbitals are half-filled, making their
As 33 [Ar]3d104s24p3 METALLOIDS
electronic configuration extra stable.
3. Atomic radii: Covalent and ionic (in a Sb 51 [Kr]4d105s25p3 METALLOIDS
particular state) radii increase in size
down the group. There is a considerable Bi 83 [Xe]4f METAL
increase in covalent radius from N to P. 145d106s26p3
However, from As to Bi only a small
increase in covalent radius is observed.
This is due to the presence of completely filled d and/or f orbitals in heavier members.
4. Ionisation enthalpy: Ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group due to gradual increase in
atomic size. Because of the extra stable half-filled p orbitals electronic configuration and smaller
size, the ionisation enthalpy of the group 15 elements is much greater than that of group 14
elements in the corresponding periods.
5. Electronegativity: The electronegativity value, in general, decreases down the group with
increasing atomic size.
6. Physical state:All the elements of this group are polyatomic. Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas while
all others are solids.Nitrogen and phosphorus are non-metals, arsenic and antimony metalloids
and bismuth is a metal. This is due to decrease in ionisation enthalpy and increase in atomic size.
7. Melting & boiling Point: The boiling points, in general, increase from top to bottom in the group
but the melting point increases upto arsenic and then decreases upto bismuth
8. Allotropy: Except nitrogen, all the elements show allotropy
9. Catenation: N–N bond is weaker than the single P–P bond because of high interelectronic
repulsion of the non-bonding electrons, owing to thesmall bond length. As a result the catenation
tendency is weaker innitrogen.
10. .Oxidation states: The common oxidation states are +3, +5, –3.
 The tendency to show –3 oxidation state decreases down the group due to decrease in
electronegativity which is due to increase in atomic size.
 The stability of +5 oxidation state decreases whereas stability of +3 oxidation state increases
due to inert pair effect.
 Nitrogenexhibits + 1, + 2, + 4 oxidation states also when it reacts with oxygen. In the case of
nitrogen, all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tend todisproportionate in acid solution3HNO 2→ HNO3
+ H2O + 2NO
 Phosphorus also shows +1 and +4 oxidation states in some oxoacids.In case of phosphorus
nearly all intermediate oxidationstates disproportionate into +5 and –3 both in alkali and acid
 Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum covalency of 4 since only four (one s and three p) orbitals
are available for bonding. The heavier elements have vacant d orbitals in the outermost shell
which can be used for bonding (covalency) and hence, expand their covalence as in PF6-.
11. Anomalous behaviour of nitrogen: Nitrogen differs from the rest of the members of this group
due to its smaller size, high electronegativity, high ionisation enthalpy and non-availability of d
orbitals. Nitrogen has unique ability to form pπ -pπ multiplebonds with itself and with other
elements having small size and high electronegativity .
12. Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule with a triple bond (one s and two p) between the two
atoms. Consequently, its bond enthalpy (941.4 kJ mol–1) is very high. On the contrary,
phosphorus, arsenic and antimony form single bonds as P–P, As–As and Sb–Sb while bismuth
forms metallic
13. bonds in elemental state.
14. Nitrogen due to the absence of d orbitals in its valence shell restricts its covalency to four.
15. Nitrogen cannot form dπ –pπ bond as the heavier elements (Phosphorus and arsenic) can e.g.,
R3P = O or R3P = CH2 (R = alkyl group).
16. Phosphorus and arsenic can form dπ –dπ bond also with transition metals when their
compounds like P(C2H5)3 and As(C6H5)3 act as ligands.
17. Reactivity towards hydrogen : Hydrides of Group 15 Elements (EH3 E = N, P, As, Sb or Bi.)
 Bond dissociation enthalpy : NH3> PH3> AsH3>SbH3>BiH3
 Thermal stability : NH3> PH3> AsH3>SbH3>BiH3
 Reducing character : NH3< PH3< AsH3<SbH3<BiH3
 Basic character: NH3> PH3> AsH3>SbH3>BiH3
 Boiling point/K PH3< AsH3<SbH3<BiH3< NH3, (NH3 is an exception due to H-Bonding)
 HEH angle (°) NH3> PH3> AsH3>SbH3
18. Reactivity towards oxygen: All these elements form two types of oxides: E2O3 and E2O5.
 The oxide in the higher oxidation state of the element is more acidic than that of lower
oxidation state.
 Their acidic character decreases down the group. The oxides of the type E2O3 of nitrogen
and phosphorus are purely acidic, that of arsenic and antimony amphoteric and those of
bismuthis predominantly basic.
19. Reactivity towards halogens: These elements react to form two series of halides: EX3 and EX5.
 Nitrogen does not form pentahalide due to non-availability of the d orbitals in its valence
shell.
 Pentahalides are more covalent than trihalides. All the trihalides of these elements except
those of nitrogen are stable.In case of nitrogen, only NF3 is known to be stable.
 Trihalidesexcept BiF3 are predominantly covalent in nature.
20. Reactivity towards metals: All these elements react with metals to form their binary
compounds exhibiting –3 oxidation state,such as, Ca3N2 (calcium nitride) Ca3P2 (calcium
phosphide).

EXERCISE BASED ON GENERAL PROPERTIES OF GROUP 15 ELEMENTS


Account For The Following (Give appropriate reason for the following):
1. There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However, from As to Bi only
small increase in covalent radius is observed.
2. Ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group 15.
3. The ionization enthalpy of the group 15 elements is much greater than that of group 14
elements in the corresponding periods.
4. The first ionization energy of nitrogen is greater than oxygen.
5. Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecule and phosphorus as P4. Hint: Nitrogen atom being small
in size forms multiple bonds with another nitrogen atom but phosphorous being large in size
forms single bonds with other P atoms.
6. Nitrogen shows anomalous behavior.
7. Nitrogen shows catenation properties less than phosphorus
8. Bi(V) is a strong oxidizing agent than Sb (V) Hint:On Moving down the group ,the stability of
+5 oxidation state decreases while that of + 3 oxidation state increases due to inert pair effect.
Thus + 5 oxidation state of Bi is less stable than + 5 oxidation state of Sb.
9. Pentavalent Bismuth(Bi(V)) is a strong oxidizing agent. Hint: Since Bi5+ easily changes to Bi3+
.As Bi3+ is more stable than Bi5+ due to inert pair effect.
10. A nitrogen atom has five valence electrons but it does not form the compound NCl5. Hint:
Because of absence of d-orbitals it can’t expand its covalency from 3 to 5.
11. Nitrogen does not form pentahalides.
12. R3P=O exist but R3N=O does not. Hint: Due to the absence of d orbital in valence shell of
nitrogen.
13. CN¯ ion is known but CP¯ ion is not known. Hint: It is because P is larger in size and cannot
form stable multiple bond with C like Nitrogen which is smaller in size and can form triple
bond easily.
14. Nitrogen is fairly inert gas. Hint: Nitrogen has triple bond between two nitrogen atoms N≡N
which has high bond dissociation energy.
15. N2 is less reactive at room temperature.
16. BiH3 is the strongest reducing agent amongst all the hydrides ofGroup 15 elements

17. NH3 is basic while BiH3 is only feebly basic. Hint: NH3 is basic due to smaller size of Nitrogen
atom.
18. NH3 form hydrogen bond but PH3 does not. Hint: Due to smaller size & high electronegativity
of Nitrogen.
19. Ammonia has higher boiling point than Phosphine (PH3). Hint:Ammonia (NH3) form
hydrogen bond but Phosphine (PH3) does not
20. PH3 forms bubbles when passed slowly in water but NH3dissolves. Hint:Ammonia (NH3) form
hydrogen bond but Phosphine (PH3) does not
21. The HNH angle value is higher than HPH, HAsH, and HSbH angles. Hint: In all the hydrides of
group 15 elements ,the central atom is sp3 is hybridized . Three of the four SP3 orbitals form
E- H  bonds while fourth bond contains the lone pair of electrons .Since the lone pair –Bond
pair repulsions are stronger than Bond pair repulsions –Bond pair repulsions therefore in
NH3 the bond angle decreases from 109.28’ to 107.8o .As we move from N to P to As to Sb ,the
elecronegativity of the central atom goes on decreasing. As a result bond pairs of electrons
lie away and away from the central atom.
22. NH3 is a good complexing agent. Hint:: Because nitrogen has lone pair of electrons which it
can donate to form co-ordinate bond
23. NH3 act as Lewis base. Ans:Nitrogen atom in NH3 has one lone pair of electrons which is
available for donation. Therefore, it acts as a Lewis base
24. NH3 has a higher proton affinity than PH3
25. NCl3 is an endothermic compound while NF3 is an exothermic one. Hint:: Because (i)small size
of F form stronger bond with N. (ii) Bond dissociation enthalpy of F2 is lower than that of Cl2.
26. NCl3 gets hydrolysed easily while NF3 does not. Hint:: In NCl3, Cl has vacant d-orbital but in
NF3, F does not have to accept lone pair of electrons donated by O atoms of H2O
27. Pentahalides of group 15 are more Covalent than trihalides Hint::Higher the positive
oxidation state of central atom, more will be its polarizing power which, in turn, increases the
covalent character of bond formed between the central atom and the other atom.
28. Bond angle in PH4+ is higher than that in PH3. Hint : Both are SP3 hybridised. In PH4+ all the
four orbitals are bonded whereas in PH3 there is a lone pair of electrons on P, which is
responsible for lone pair-bond pair repulsion in PH3 reducing the bond angle to less than 109°
28′.
DINITROGEN
1. PREPARATION:
 Commercially : Dinitrogen is produced commercially by the liquefaction and fractional
distillation of air. Liquid dinitrogen (b.p. 77.2 K) distils out first leaving behind liquid oxygen
(b.p. 90 K).
 Laboratory : (a) Dinitrogen is prepared by treating an aqueous solution of ammonium
chloride with sodium nitrite. NH4Cl (aq) + NaNO2 (aq) → N2 (g) + 2H2O (l) + NaCl (aq)
 Thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate : (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3
 Thermal decomposition of barium azide. Ba(N3)2 → Ba + 3N2
 Thermal decomposition of sodium azide : 2NaN3→ 2Na +3N2
2. PROPERTIES: Dinitrogen is a colourless, odourless, tasteless and non-toxic gas.
 Dinitrogen is rather inert at room temperature because of the high bond enthalpy of N≡N
bond. Reactivity, however, increases rapidly with rise in temperature.

 At higher temperatures, it directly combines with some metals to


form predominantly ionic nitrides and with non-metals,
covalentnitrides. A few typical reactions are:
 It combines with hydrogen at about 773 K in the presence of a catalyst (Haber’s Process) to

form ammonia:
 Dinitrogen combines with dioxygen only at very high temperature (at about 2000 K) to form

nitric oxide, NO.


3. USES:The main use of dinitrogen is in the manufacture of ammonia and otherindustrial
chemicals containing nitrogen, (e.g., calcium cyanamide). It alsofinds use where an inert
atmosphere is required (e.g., in iron and steel industry,inert diluent for reactive chemicals).
Liquid dinitrogen is used as a refrigerant to preserve biological materials, food items and in
cryosurgery.

AMMONIA

1. PREPARATION
 Ammonia is present in small quantities in air and soil where it is formed by the decay of
nitrogenous organic matter e.g., urea
 SMALL SCALE PREPARATION OF AMMONIA : On a small scale ammonia is obtained from
ammonium salts which decompose when treated with caustic soda or lime.
(a)2NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2 
 2NH3 + 2H2O + CaCl2

(b)(NH4)2 SO4 + 2NaOH 


 2NH3 + 2H2O + Na2SO4

 MANUFACTURE OF AMMONIA (HABER’S PROCESS) : On a large scale, ammonia is


manufactured by HABER’S PROCESS.
 N2(g) + 3H2(g) 773
K
 2NH3(g); ΔfH0 = –46.1 kJmol–1
 In accordance with Le Chatelier’s principle, high pressure would favour the formation of
ammonia. The optimum conditions for the production of ammonia are a pressure of 200 × 105
Pa (about 200 atm), a temperature of ~ 700 K and the use of a catalyst such as iron oxide with
small amounts of K2O and Al2O3 to increase the rate of attainment of equilibrium
PROPERTIES

 Ammonia is a colourless gas with a pungent odour.


 In the solid and liquid states, it is associated through hydrogen bonds as in the case of water
and that accounts for its higher melting and boiling points than expected on the basis of its
molecular mass.

 Ammonia gas is highly soluble in water. Its aqueous solution is weakly basic due to the
formation of OH– ions.

 It forms ammonium salts with acids, e.g., NH4Cl, (NH4)2 SO4, etc. As a weak base, it
precipitates the hydroxides of many metals from their salt solutions. For example,
 The presence of a lone pair of electrons on the
nitrogen atom of the ammonia molecule makes it
a Lewis base. It donates the electron pair and
forms linkage with metal ions and the formation
of such complex compounds finds applications in
detection of metal ions such as Cu2+, Ag+:
2. USES: Ammonia is used to produce various
nitrogenous fertilizers (ammonium nitrate, urea,
ammonium phosphate and ammonium sulphate)
and in the manufacture of some inorganic nitrogen compounds, the most important one being
nitric acid. Liquid ammonia is also used as a refrigerant.
3. STRUCTURE OF AMMONIA : The ammonia molecule is trigonal pyramidal with the nitrogen
atom at the apex. It has three bond pairs and one lone pair of electrons as shown in the
structure.

NITRIC ACID

1. Laboratory preparation of nitric acid : In the laboratory, nitric acid is prepared by


Heating KNO3 or NaNO3 and conc. H2SO4 in a glass retort.
NaNO3 + H2SO4   NaHSO4 + HNO3

2. Preparation of nitric acid obtained on large scale by Ostwald process


(i) On a large scale it is prepared mainly by Ostwald’s process. This method is based upon
catalytic oxidation of NH3 by atmospheric oxygen
 4NH3+ 5O2 (from air)   4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
Pt / Rh ,500 k ,9bar

(ii) Nitric oxide thus formed combines with oxygen giving NO2.
 2NO(g)+ O2 (g)   2NO2(g)
(iii) Nitrogen dioxide so formed, dissolves in water to give HNO3.
 3NO2(g) + H2O(l)  2HNO3 + NO (g)
a) NO thus formed is recycled and the aqueous HNO3 can be concentrated by distillation upto ~
68% by mass. Further concentration to 98% can be achieved by dehydration with concentrated
H2SO4.
PROPERTIES

1. It is a colourless liquid (f.p. 231.4 K and b.p. 355.6 K). Laboratory grade nitric acid
contains ~ 68% of the HNO3 by mass and has a specific gravity of 1.504.
2. STRUCTURE NITRIC ACID

 In the gaseous state, HNO3 exists as a planar molecule


3. In aqueous solution, nitric acid behaves as a strong acid giving
hydronium and nitrate ions.
HNO3(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + NO3–(aq)
4. Concentrated nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent and attacks most metals except
noble metals such as gold and platinum. The products of oxidation depend upon the
concentration of the acid, temperature and the nature of the material undergoing
oxidation.
b) 3Cu + 8 HNO3(dilute)   3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O
c) Cu + 4HNO3(conc.)   Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
5. Zinc reacts with dilute nitric acid to give N2O and with concentrated acid to give NO2.
a) 4Zn + 10HNO3(dilute)   4Zn(NO3)2 + 5H2O + N2O
b) Zn + 4HNO3(conc.)   Zn (NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO2
6. Some metals (e.g., Cr, Al) do not dissolve in concentrated nitric acid because of the
formation of a passive film of oxide on the surface.
7. Concentrated nitric acid also oxidises non–metals and their compounds.
Iodine is oxidised to iodic acid, carbon to carbon dioxide, sulphur to H2SO4, and
phosphorus to phosphoric acid.
a) I2 + 10 HNO3  2HIO3 (Iodic acid)+ 10 NO2 + 4 H2O
b) C + 4 HNO3   CO2 + 2 H2O + 4NO2
c) S8 + 48 HNO3 (conc.)   8H2SO4 + 48NO2 + 16 H2O
d) P4 + 20 HNO3 (conc.)   4H3PO4 (Phosphoric acid)+ 20 NO2 + 4 H2O
8. Brown Ring Test: The familiar brown ring test for nitrates depends on the ability of
Fe2+ to reduce nitrates to nitric oxide, which reacts with Fe2+ to form a brown coloured
complex. The test is usually carried out by adding dilute ferrous sulphate solution to an
aqueous solution containing nitrate ion, and then carefully adding concentrated
sulphuric acid along the sides of the test tube. A brown ring at the interface between the
solution and sulphuric acid layers indicate the presence of nitrate ion in solution.
(i)NO3- + 3Fe2+ + 4H+ → NO + 3Fe3+ + 2H2O

(ii)[Fe(H2O)5]2+ + NO → [Fe (H2O)5 (NO)]2+(brown) + H2O

9. USES: The major use of nitric acid is in the manufacture of ammonium nitrate for
fertilisers and other nitrates for use in explosives and pyrotechnics. It is also used for
the preparation of nitroglycerin, trinitrotoluene and other organic nitro compounds.
Other major uses are in the pickling of stainless steel, etching of metals and as an
oxidiser in rocket fuels.

Multiple Choice questions


1. Bond dissociation enthalpy of E—H(E=element) bonds is given below. Which
of the compounds will act as strongest reducing agent?
Compound NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3
∆diss(E— 389 322 297 255
H)/kJmol–1
(i) NH3 (iii)AsH3
(ii)PH3 (iv)SbH3
Solution: (iv) SbH3 will act as strongest reducing agent due to minimum bond enthalpy.

2. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?


a. Nitrogen c. Antimony
b. Bismuth d. Arsenic
Solution: (a) Nitrogen does not show allotropy due to its weak N – N single bond.

3. Maximum covalency of nitrogenis .


(a) 3 (c) 4
(b) 5 (d) 6
Ans: (c) Maximum covalency of nitrogen is four as it cannot extend its valency beyond four [
NH4+ ,] due to absence of vacant d orbitals.

4.A brown ring is formed in the ringtest for NO3–ion. It is due to the formation of

(a) [Fe(H2 O)5(NO)]2+ (c) [Fe(H2O)(NO)]2+


(b) FeSO4.NO2 (d) FeSO4.HNO3
Solution: (a) When freshly prepared solution of FeSO4 is added in a solution containing NO ion,
it leads to formation of a brown coloured complex. This is known as brown ring test of nitrate.

5. On heating ammonium dichromate and barium a zide separately we get


A. N2 in both cases.
B. N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with bariumazide
C N2O with ammonium dichromate and N2 with bariumazide
D N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with bariumazide
Solution: A . N2 in both cases.

6.In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia.


The moles of NO produced by the oxidation Of two moles of NH3 wil
lbe______________.

a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 6
Answer : a. 2

7. Which of the following represents the general electronic configuration of an element


belonging to the p-block of the periodic table?
a) (n-2)f0(n-1)d0ns2 np0 -6 c) (n-2)f0(n-1)d0 ns2np1-6
b) (n-2)f0(n-1)d1 – 10 ns2 np1- 6 d) (n-2)f1- 14(n-1)d1- 10ns2np1- 6
Answer: c
Explanation: The general configuration representation of p-block elements is (n-2)f0(n-
1)d0ns2np1-6. This is because the s-subshell is completely filled, whereas, the p-subshell contains
at least 1 electron.

8. What happens to the size of atoms of elements of p-block as we move from left to right in the
same period?
a) Size increases c) Size does not change
b) Size decreases d) Size increases then decreases
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of the atoms of the elements decrease from left to right in the same
period. Considering the row to be the same, the electrons are added to the same shell. However,
the increase in atomic number reflects the increase in number of protons i.e. the positive
charge. Hence, the overall effective nuclear charge increases. Consequently, the electron cloud is
pulled even more closer to the nucleus of the atom. Therefore, the size decreases.

9. Why does nitrogen show poor tendency towards catenation?


( a) N atom can form multiple pπ – pπ bonds
(b) Octet of N2 is complete unlike carbon
(c) The N ≡ N is unreactive at room temperature
(d) The N – N single bond is weaker and unstable

Answer: d
Explanation: The N – N single bond is highly weak and unstable due to high magnitude of
inter-electronic repulsions of non-bonding electrons which in turn is caused by the single
bond’s small bond length. As a result there is no catenation tendency .

10. Which gas is released when copper chips are subjected to concentrated nitric acid?
a) Nitrogen (I) oxide c) Nitrogen (III) oxide
b) Nitrogen (II) oxide d) Nitrogen (IV) oxide
Answer-d
Explanation: Treating copper chips with concentrated nitric acid releases toxic brown gas,
NO2, nitrogen (IV) oxide. It is a reddish-brown gas with pungent odor.
X 11. What shape is the HNO3 molecule in its gaseous state?
a) Bent c) Planar
b) Linear d) See Saw
Answer: c
Explanation: In the gas state, the nitric acid molecule has a triangular planar shape with
a steric number of 3 no lone pairs of electron. There are two major resonance forms of
nitric acid.

12. Which of the following ions is determined in the brown ring test ?
c) NO2
a) NO2–
d) NO3–
b) NO2+
Answer: d
13.Which catalyst is used for oxidation of ammonia to produce nitric acid?
a) Palladium hydride c) Platinum-Rhodium gauze
b) Sodium amalgam d) Vanadium (V) oxide
Answer: c

14. What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in di-nitrogen trioxide?


a) +1 c) +3
b) +2 d) +4
Answer: c
15. Among the 15th group elements, as we move from nitrogen to bismuth, the
pentavalency becomes less pronounced and trivalency becomes more pronounced due to

(a) Non metallic character (c) High electronegativity


(b) Inert pair effect (d) Large ionization energy
Ans. (b)

Q.16. Which of the following statements is not correct for nitrogen?


(a) Its electronegativity is very high (c) It is a typical non-metal
(b) d-orbitals are available for bonding (d) Its molecular size is small
Ans. (b) In case of nitrogen, d-orbitals are not available.

Ans. (a) Collectively these elements are called pnicogens and their compound pniconides.

Q.17. Ionic radii (in Å) of As3+, Sb3+ and Bi3+ follow the order
(a) As3+ > Sb3+ > Bi3+ (c) Bi3+ > As3+ > Sb3+
(b) Sb3+ > Bi3+ >As3+ (d) Bi3+ > Sb3+ > As3+
Ans. (d) Ionic radii increases down the group

18. Which one has the lowest boiling point ?


(a) NH3 (c) AsH3
(b) PH3 (d) SbH3

Answer: (b)

SECTION: (B) ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

INSTRUCTIONS:
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

19. Assertion:-Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum covalency of 4.


Reason:-Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule (N2) with a triple bond.
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Answer (b)
20. Assertion:-The stability of hydrides decreases from NH3 to BiH3.
Reason:-There is a decrease in bond dissociation enthalpy of bond E-H from NH3 to BiH3.
(E= Element of group 15).
Ans : (a)
21. Assertion :N2islessreactivethanP4.

Reason :Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorus.


Ans (c)

22. Assertion :HNO3 makes iron passive.


Reason: HNO3 forms a protective layer of ferric nitrate on the surface of iron.
Ans : (a)
23.Assertion: Pentavalency in phosphorus is more stable when compared to
that of nitrogen even though they belong to same group.
Reason : Due to presence of vacant d-orbital in P which is absent in N.
Ans : (a)
24. Assertion: NH3 is more basic than PH3 .
Reason : P atom is much larger than N atom and also has empty d orbitals.
Ans (a)
2. Match the column A and column B and find the correct option out of the four
options (a),(b),(c),and (d) given at the end of each question .

Column A Column B
(A) NH3 (E ) 78%
(B) PH3 (F) Brown Ring
(C) N2 (G) Less basic
(D) NO3- (H) H-bonding
(a) A-H, B-G,C-E,D-F (b) A-E,B-F,C-G,D-H
(c) D-E,C-F,B-G, A-H (d) B-H,C-G,D-F,A-E
Ans: (a) A-H, B-G,C-E,D-F
Read the following passage and Anwer the questions (26-28)given below it:
Molecular Nitrogen N2 comprises about 78% by volume of Earth’s atmosphere. It
occurs as Sodium nitrate, NaNO3(chile saltpeter) & Potassium nitrate, KNO3(Indian
saltpeter) in earth’s crust. Since nitrate are very soluble in water so these are not wide
spread in the earth’s crust. Nitrogen is also an important constituent of amino acids,
protein & nucleic acids in plants & animals. Nitrogen shows anomalous behavior from
rest of the elements due to following reasons; Smaller size, high ionization enthalpy,
high electronegativity & absence of d-orbital. It has unique ability to form p∏-p∏
multiple bonds with itself & with small size atoms like C & O as they have small size &
high electronegativity. Heavier elements of this group do not form p∏-p∏ bonds as
their atomic orbitals are so large & diffuse that they can’t have effective
overlapping.Thus Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecules (N2) with a triple bond.
Consequently, its bond enthalpy (941.4 KJ mol-1) is very high. P, As & Sb form only
single bonds as P-P, As-As & Sb-Sb. Due to much bondenthalpy N is much less reactive
than P.Single N-N bond is weaker than single P-P bond due to high interelectronic
repulsion of the non bondingelectrons, owing to small bond length. As a result, the
catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen. Hencenitrogen exists as gas while
phosphorus exists as solid.Nitrogen can’t form d∏- d∏ bond due to absence of d-
orbitals so it can’t expand its covalency beyond four as heavier members can.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer.
26. Among group 15 elements which exists as gas at room temperature
a) Arsenic b) Bismuth
c) Nitrogen d) Phosphorous
And.(C)

27. The stability of +5 oxidation state decreases and that of +3 state increases down the
group in group 15 elements due to
a) inert pair effect b) decrease in ionisation enthalpy
c) increase in size d) shielding effect
Ans.(A)

28. Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum covalency of 4 because of


a) absence of d-orbitals b) presence of d-orbitals
c) absence of s and p-orbitals d) none of the above
Ans.(A)

Q29. Which of the following analogy is correct:

(A)HNO3 is oxoacid : H3PO3 is not oxoacid


(B)NH3 has H- bond : H2O does not have H-bond
(C)N=1s2,2s2,2p3. : Ar=1s2,2s2,2p6
(D)NH3 basic. : PH3-Basic

Ans.(D) both have lone pair.

Q 30.Complete the following analogy-

A-Nitrogen forms pπ-pπ bond. B- Carbon atoms form long chain

(a)A-N2 B- C2

(b)A-triple bond B-Carbonisation

(c)A-Inert-N2. B-catenation

(d)A- Gas. B-Liquid.

Ans.(c) pπ pπ bond makes N2 inert and chain forming tendency is called catenation
QUESTIONS OF GROUP-15

MCQ BASED QUESTIONS

Q.1 The oxidation state and covalence of nitrogen in N205 are respectively

a) +5 and 5 b) +5 and 4 c) +3 and 4 d) +4 and 4

Q.2 The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, respectively produces

a) N2O and NO2 b) NO2 and NO c) NO and N2O d) NO2 and N2O

Q.3 In the brown ring test of nitrates, the brown complex formed is

a) [Fe (H2O)6ONO] 2+ b) [Fe (H2O)6NO] 2+ c) [Fe (H2O)5NO] 2+

d) [Fe (H2O)5ONO]2+

Q.4 For the manufacture of NH3 by the following reaction N2 + 3H2 →2NH3+ 21.9 kCal

the favorable2 conditions are

a) low temperature, high pressure and catalyst

(b) High temperature, high pressure and catalyst

c) High temperature, low pressure and catalyst

d) low temperature, low pressure and catalyst

Q.5 Which is true regarding nitrogen?

a) less electronegativity c) d-orbitals are available

b) has low ionization enthalpy d) ability to form pπ-pπ bond with itself

Q.6 The gas evolved on heating ammonium dichromate is:

a) oxygen b) ammonia c) nitrous oxide d) nitrogen

Q.7 Most stable among the following is:

a) AsH3 b) SbH3 c) PH3 d) NH3

Q.8 Ammonia is a Lewis base. It forms complexes with cations. Which one of the

following cations does not forms complex with ammonia?

a) Ag+ b) Cu2+ c) Cd2+ d) Pb2+

Q.9 Ammonia is used in detection of Cu2+ ion because:

a) aqueous solution of ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to form deep blue colored complex.

b) ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to give blue precipitate of CuO


c) aqueous solution of ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to form white coloured complex.

d) ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to give green precipitate.

Q.10 Maximum covalency of nitrogen is?

a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6

Q.11 Nitrogen is used to fill electric bulbs because:

a) it is lighter than air c) it does not support combustion

b) it makes bulb to glow d) it is no toxic

Q.12 Nitrogen combines with metals to form:

a) nitrites b) nitrates c) nitrosyl chloride d) nitrides

Q.13 Which of the following compounds of nitrogen exhibit highest oxidation state?

a) NH2OH b) NH3 c) N3H d) N2H4

Q.14 Concentrated HNO3 reacts with I2 to give:

a) HI b) HOI c) HIO3 d) HOIO3

Q.15 The basic character of the hydrides of group 15 elements decreases in the order:

a) NH3 > PH3>AsH3>SbH3 b) SbH3 > AsH3> PH3 > NH3

c) NH3 > SbH3 > PH3>AsH3 d) SbH3 > PH3>AsH3 > NH3

Q.16 Consider the following reaction,

NH4Cl (aq) + 2H2O(l) + NaCl (aq) A +B

In the above reaction A and B respectively are:


a) NaNO3(aq), N2 (g) c) NaNO2(aq), N2(g)
b) NaNO2(aq), H2(g) d) None of these

Q.17 Dinitrogen:

a) is a colourless, odourless, tasteless and non-toxic gas

b) has a very low solubility in water

c) is rather inert at room temperature

d) all of the above.

Q.18 ) Which of the following fluoride does not exist?

a) NF5 b) PF5 c) AsF5 d) SbF5


ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION

Each question contains two statements one labelled ASSERTION(A) and another

labelled REASON(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a, b, c, d)

(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct

explanation.

(b)both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct

explanation of the assertion.

(c) assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.

d) assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

Q.19 ASSERTION- When NO reacts with FeSO4, a brown-coloured complex is formed.

REASON- In the complex, the coordination number of Fe is 6.

Q.20 ASSERTION- Among the hydrides of nitrogen family, BiH3 has the highest boiling point.

REASON- the boiling point increases down the group because of increase in the size.

Q.21 ASSERTION- Catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen.

REASON- nitrogen exist as diatomic gas.

Q.22 ASSERTION- Ammonia act as a ligand.

REASON- A lone pair of electrons on nitrogen can be donated to acceptor.

Q.23 ASSERTION- Nitrogen has high ionization energy than that of oxygen.

REASON- Nitrogen has smaller atomic size than that of oxygen.

Q.24 ASSERTION- HNO3 makes iron passive.

REASON- HNO3 forms a protective layer of ferric nitrate on the surface of iron.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONQ.(25)

Nitric acid reacts with most of the metals (except noble metals like gold and platinum) and
non-metals. Towards bond its reaction with metals, HNO3 acts as an acid as well as an
oxidizing agent, like other acids, HNO3 liberate nascent hydrogen from metals which further
reduces the nitric acid into number of products like NO, NO2, N2O or NH3

Q.(i) Which of the following reaction is used to prepare laughing gas?

a) Pb + dil. HNO3 b) Hg +dil. HNO3

c) Zn + dil. HNO3 d) Cu+ dil. HNO3


Q.(ii) Gold and platinum does not dissolve in HNO3, but soluble in 1:3 mixture of HNO3 and
HCl due to formation of respectively:

a) Au (NO3)2, [Pt (NO3)2] c) [AuCl6]

b) H[AuCl4], H2[PtCl6] d) [Au (NO3)4]

Q.(iii) Identify B in the following reaction:

Cu + conc. HNO3

Where A is deep blue in color and B is a gas.

a) NO2 b) N2 c) NO d) N2O

Q.(iv)When dil. HNO3 reacts with Hg, which gas will be liberated?

a) N2 b) O2 c) NO d) NO2

Q.(v) In which of the following reactions HNO3 will not act as an oxidizing agent?

a) HNO3 + H2SO4 b) HNO3 + FeSO4 + H2SO4

c) KI + HNO3 d) Au + HNO3

Q.(vi) Which of the following reacts with Cu -metal to produce N2O gas?

a) dil. HNO3 b) 10-30% aqueous HNO3

c) concentrated HNO3 d) all of these

NEET/JEE MAINS QUESTIONS

Q.26 What is false about N2O5?

a) It is anhydride of
b) it is powerful oxidising agent
c) it is called nitronium nitrate
d) structure of N2O5 contain no [N
Q.27 Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a) P4O10 + H2O

b) CaC2 + H2O d in

Holmes signal

c) PH3 + HI H2O + PH3 ; purification of PH3

d) PH3 + HI

Q.28 Which of the following reaction is suitable for obtaining very pure nitrogen?

a) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2 (aq) H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)


b) (NH4 )2Cr2O7 2O3

c) Ba(N3 )2

(d) All of the above

Q.29 Conc. HNO3 is yellow coloured liquid due to-

a) Dissolution of NO in conc. HNO3

b) dissolution of N2O in conc. HNO3

c) dissolution of NO2 In conc. HNO3

d) dissolution of N2O5 in conc. HNO3

Q.30 Which of the following halide of nitrogen is stable?

a) NF3 b) NCl3 c) NBr3 d) NI3

Q.31 Hypophosphoric acid is:

a) monobasic b) dibasic c) tribasic d) none of these

Q.32 Which of the following is mixed anhydride:

a) NO b) NO2 c) N2O3 d) N2O5

Q.33 Pick out the incorrect statement:

a) Orthophosphorus acid can be obtained by reacting P4O6 with water.

b) Orthophosphoric acid can be prepared by reacting P4O10 with water.

c) Pyrophosphoric acid can be prepared by heating orthophosphorous acid.

d) Metaphosphoric acid can be prepared by dehydration of orthophosphoric acid at316:C

Q.34 The hydrolysis of PCl3, produces:

a) H3PO3 + HClO b) H3PO3 + HCl c) H3PO4 + HCl d) PH3 + HClO

Q.35 Which of the following is correct for the allotropes of P:

a) white phosphorus is soluble in CS2 but red phosphorus is insoluble in CS2

b) P-P-P bond angle in red phosphorus is 60:

c)On heating in air, white P change into red P

d) White P change in black P at ordinary temp.


MATCH THE COLUMN TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.36 Match the formula of oxide in column I with the type of oxide given in column II and mark
the correct option -

Column I Column II

Bi2O3 (a) Amphoteric oxide

N2O5 (b) Acidic oxide

As4O6 (c) Neutral oxide

(d) Basic oxide

Analogy Questions

Q.37 Which of the given options is correct with respect to the given pair –

H2O : molecular association

(a) NH3 : reducing (c) NH3 : Hydrogen bonding

(b) BiH3 : Reducing (d) NH3 : Basic

Q. 38 Which of the given options is correct with respect to the given pair – N2O : Linear

(a) NO2: angular (c) NO2 : brown fumes

(b) NO2 : Dimer (d) None of these

QUESTIONS OF GROUP-15

Q.1 The oxidation state and covalence of nitrogen in N205 are respectively

a) +5 and 5 b) +5 and 4 c) +3 and 4 d) +4 and 4

Q.2 The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, respectively produces

a) N2O and NO2 b) NO2 and NO c) NO and N2O d) NO2 and N2O

Q.3 In the brown ring test of nitrates, the brown complex formed is

a) [Fe (H2O)6ONO] 2+ b) [Fe (H2O)6NO] 2+ c) [Fe (H2O)5NO] 2+

d) [Fe (H2O)5ONO]2+

Q.4 The correct formula of salt formed by the neutralization of hypo phosphorus acid with
NaOH Is

a) Na3PO2 b) Na3PO3 c) NaH2PO2 d) Na2HPO2

Q.5 Which is true regarding nitrogen?

a) less electronegativity b) has low ionization enthalpy


c) d-orbitals are available d) ability to form pπ-pπ bond with itself

Q.6 The gas evolved on heating ammonium dichromate is:

a) oxygen b) ammonia c) nitrous oxide d) nitrogen

Q.7 Most stable among the following is:

a) AsH3 b) SbH3 c) PH3 d) NH3

Q.8 Ammonia is a Lewis base. It forms complexes with cations.

Which one of the following cations does not forms complex with ammonia?

a) Ag+ b) Cu2+ c) Cd2+ d) Pb2+

Q.9 Ammonia is used in detection of Cu2+ ion because:

a) aqueous solution of ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to form deep blue colored complex.

b) ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to give blue precipitate of CuO

c) aqueous solution of ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to form white coloured complex.

d) ammonia reacts with Cu2+ ion to give green precipitate.

Q.10 Maximum covalency of nitrogen is?

a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6

Q.11 Nitrogen is used to fill electric bulbs because:

a) it is lighter than air c) it does not support combustion

b) it makes bulb to glow d) it is no toxic

Q.12 Nitrogen combines with metals to form:

a) nitrites b) nitrates c) nitrosyl chloride d) nitrides

Q.13 Which of the following compounds of nitrogen exhibit highest oxidation state?

a) NH2OH b) NH3 c) N3H d) N2H4

Q.14 Concentrated HNO3 reacts with I2 to give:

a) HI b) HOI c) HIO3 d) HOIO3

Q.15 The basic character of the hydrides of group 15 elements decreases in the order:

a) NH3 > PH3>AsH3>SbH3 b) SbH3 > AsH3> PH3 > NH3

c) NH3 > SbH3 > PH3>AsH3 d) SbH3 > PH3>AsH3 > NH3

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION


Each question contains two statements one labelled ASSERTION(A) and another labelled
REASON(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a, b, c, d)

(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct explanation.

(b)both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.

(c) assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.

d) assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

Q.16 ASSERTION- When NO reacts with FeSO4, a brown coloured complex is formed.

REASON- In the complex, the coordination number of Fe is 6.

Q.17 ASSERTION- Among the hydrides of nitrogen family,

BiH3 has the highest boiling point.

REASON- the boiling point increases down the group because of increase in the size.

Q.18 ASSERTION- Catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen.

REASON- nitrogen exist as diatomic gas.

Q.19 ASSERTION- Ammonia act as a ligand.

REASON- A lone pair of electrons on nitrogen can be donated to acceptor.

Q.20 ASSERTION- Nitrogen has high ionization energy than that of oxygen.

REASON- Nitrogen has smaller atomic size than that of oxygen.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION.


Nitric acid reacts with most of the metals (except noblemetals like gold and platinum) and
non-metals. Towardsbond its reaction with metals, HNO3 acts as an acid as wellas an oxidizing
agent, like other acids, HNO3 liberatenascent hydrogen from metals which further reduces
thenitric acid into number of products like NO, NO2, N2O or NH3

Q.21 Which of the following reaction is used to prepare laughing gas?

a) Pb + dil. HNO3 b) Hg +dil. HNO3

c) Zn + dil. HNO3 d) Cu+ dil. HNO3

Q.22 Gold and platinum does not dissolve in HNO3 , but soluble in 1:3 mixture of HNO3 and HCl
due to formation of respectively:

a) Au(NO3)2, [Pt(NO3)2] b) H[AuCl4] , H2[PtCl6]

c) [AuCl6] 2- , [PtCl2]2- d) [Au(NO3)4]


Q.23 Identify B in the following reaction:

Cu + conc. HNO3

Where A is deep blue in color and B is a gas.

a) NO2 b) N2 c) NO d) N2O

Q.24 When dil. HNO3 reacts with Hg, which gas will be liberated?

a) N2 b) O2 c) NO d) NO2

Q.25 In which of the following reactions HNO3 will not act as an oxidizing agent?
a) HNO3 + H2SO4 b) HNO3 + FeSO4 + H2SO4
c) KI + HNO3 d) Au + HNO3

Group -16 Elements (20 MCQs)


1. H2SO4 is prepared by----
(a) Ostwald’s Process (b) Contact Process (c) Haber’s Process (d) Deacon Process
2. Most volatile hydride of element of group 16 is:
(a) H2O (b) H2Te (c) H2Se (d) H2S
3. Which of the following of compound has a lone pair of electrons at the central atom?
(a)H2SO3 (b) H2S2O7
(c) H2SO4 (d) H2S2O8

4. Which of the following statement is not correct for SO2 gas?


(a) Sulphur is sp2 hybridised (b) It has angular/bent geometry
(c) Both S-O bond length are not exactly same (d) Bleaching by it is a temporary
process
5. Sulphur forms the monofluriddes, difluorides, tetrafluorides, pentafluoridesand
hexafluorides but oxygen forms mono and difluorides only. Oxygen does not form
polyflurodes due to:
(a) Its small size than fluorine (b) presence of d-orbitals in the
valence shell
(c) It has tendency to donate electron (d) absence of d-orbitals in the valence
shell
6. The melting point and boiling point of group 16 elements increases regularly as going down
the group upto Tellurium. However the melting point and boiling point of Polonium are
lower than those of Tellurium. This would be explained by which of the following
statement:-
(a) Atomic size of Po is larger than Te (b) Inert pair effect is maximum in
polonium
(c) Po does not form multiple bonds (d) None of these
7. Oxygen and sulphur both are the members of the same group in periodic table but H2O is
liquid while H2S is gas because:
(a) Molecular weight of water is more
(b) electronegativity of sulphur is more
(c) Water molecules are having hydrogen bonds between them
(d) H2S is weak acid
8. The binary compound of oxygen with another element is called oxide. In oxides the oxidation
state of oxygen is always -2. Oxides are classified into acidic, basic, amphoteric and neutral
oxides. This of the following is most acidic oxide:
(a) Cl2O7 (b) SO2 (c) P4O10 (d) SiO2
9. HI cannot be prepared by the action of conc. H2SO4 on Kl because:
(a) HI is stronger acid than H2SO4 (b) H2SO4 is a strong reducing agent
(c) HI is strong reducing agent (d) H2SO4 is stronger acid than HI
10. In SF4, the geometry of molecule and hybridization of sulphur is:
(a) Trigonal pyramid, sp3d (b) see saw, sp3d
(c) tetrahedral, sp3 (d) see saw, d2sp3
11. The compound in which oxygen shows +2 oxidation state is:
(a) O2F2 (b) H2O (c) Cl2O (d) OF2
12. The number of sigma pi and lone pair (on central atom)in angular shape of (SO2)molecule –
(a) 1 sigma bond, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair (b) 2 sigma bond, 1 pi bond and 1 lone
pair
(c) 1 sigma bond, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair (d) 2 sigma bond,2 pi bonds and 2 lone
pair
13. The correct order of increasing stability of hexafluoride of group 16 is:
(a) TeF6< SeF6<SF6 (b) SF6 < SeF6< TeF6
(c) SF6<TeF6< SeF6 (d) SeF6<SF6< TeF6
14. What happens when sulphur dioxide is passed into aqueous solution of Fe (III) salt?
(a) Fe (III) oxidized into Fe (II) (b) Fe (III) oxidized into Fe (IV)
(c) Fe (III) reduced into Fe (IV) (d) Fe (III) reduced into Fe (II)
15. The high boiling point and viscosity of sulphuric acid is due to:
(a) Molecules are held together by Vander Waal’s force only
(b) Molecules are held together by dipole –dipole interaction
(c) Molecules are held together by hydrogen bonding
(d) Molecules are held together by ionic bond

16. Sulphur shows paramagnetic behaviour in which state


(a) S8 (b) S2 (c) S6 (d) S4
17. The correct increasing order of thermal stability of hydrides of 16th group is
(a) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(b) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(c) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O
(d) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O < H2Po
18. The oxoacids of sulphur that has –O - O- linkage:
(a) Sulphurous acid and H2S2O8 (b) Sulphuric acid and H2S2O8
(c) Peroxodisulphuric acid and H2SO5 (d) Pyrosulphuric acid and H2SO5
19. Some of chemical reactions of H2SO4 with Metal, Non-Metal and other compounds are given
as follows:
(i) BaCl2 + H2SO4   BaSO4 +2 HCl (ii) S + 2H2SO4   3 SO2 + 2H2O

(iii) CaF2 + H2SO4   CaSO4 + 2HF (iv) H2S + 2H2SO4   SO2 + 2H2O + S

(v) Cu + 2H2SO4   CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

Which of the above reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour of concentratedH2SO4?
(a) (iii) and (v) (b) (i) , (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
20. A compound “P” is an oxide of sulphur and is prepared by combination of SO2 and oxygen in
presence of V2O5. When “P” is bubbled through a solution of H2SO4, a compound “Q” is
formed which further reacts with water to give H2SO4.
The chemical formula of P and Q are:
(a) SO2 and H2S2O7 respectively (c) H2S2O7 and SO3 respectively
(b) SO3 and H2S2O7respectively (d)SO3 and H2S2O8 respectively
Answers:
Q. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Answer B D A C D B C A C B

Q. No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Answer D B A D C B A C D B

JEE - NEET (Previous Year) Questions

1. Which one of the following depletes the ozone layer?


(a) NO and freons (b) SO2 (c) CO (d) CO2
2. Bond angle is minimum for :
(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
3. Which compound acts as an oxidising as well as reducing agent
(a) SO2 (b) MnO2 (c) Al2O3 (d) CrO3
4. The oxidation states of suplhur in the anions SO32-, S2O42- and S2O62- follow the order
(a) SO32- < S2O42-< S2O62- (b) S2O42-< SO32-< S2O62-
(c) S2O42- < S2O62-< SO32- (d) S2O62-< S2O42-< SO32-
5. Match the following :
Oxide Nature
(A) CO (i) Basic
(B) BaO (ii) Neutral
(C) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(D) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
6. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common. Which property is
shown by one of these compounds, but not by the other?
(a) Is soluble in water. (b) Is used as a food preservative.
(c) Forms ‘acid-rain’. (d) Is a reducing agent.
7. In which pair of ions both the species contain S - S bond?
(a) S4O62- and S2O32- (c) S4O62- and S2O72-
(b) S2O72- and S2O82- (d) S2O72- and S2O32-
8. Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction?
(a) CaSO4 + C → (c) S + H2SO4→
(b) Fe2(SO4) → (d) H2SO4 + PCl5 →
9. Which of the statements given below is incorrect?
(a) O3 molecule is bent. (b) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N–.
(c) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine. (d) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid.

Answers
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Answer A D A B D B A B C

ASSERTION – REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions: Each of these questions contains two statements,Assertion and Reason. Each of
these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for
assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

1. Assertion: Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper atmosphere.


Reason: Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation reaching the earth.

2. Assertion: SO2 is act as a bleaching agent.


Reason: SO2 reduce the coloured matter into colourless matter.

3. Assertion: Concentrated H2SO4 reduces the metals and non-metals to give SO2gas.
Reason: Concentrated H2SO4 is a strong oxidising agent which is reduced to SO2

4. Assertion: Bond angle of H2S is smaller than H2O.


Reason: Electronegativity of the central atom increases, bond angle decreases.

5. Assertion: Silent electrical discharge is used in preparation of ozone.


Reason: Prevention of decomposition of ozone is necessary during its preparation.

6. Assertion: SOCl2 can acts as a weak Lewis acid as well as a weak Lewis base.
Reason: In SOCl2, Sulphur having lone pair so behaves as Lewis acid and it has also
empty d-orbitals to accept electron pairs, hence it behaves as Lewis base.
Answers:
Question No. 1 2 3 4 5 6

Answer B A D C A C

Analogy Based Question

1. Which of the following analogies is correct (among hydrides of chalcogens; H2E)?


(a) H2O: High BP :: H2Te : Low Volatile
(b) H2O:neutral :: H2Te : Most acidic
(c) H2S: most reducing agent :: H2Te : most reducing agent
(d) H2O: 104.50 (Bond Angle):: H2Te : 1000 (Bond Angle)
2. Complete the following analogy:
A disinfectant : X :: A dehydrating agent: Y
(a) X = Ozone , Y = SO2 (c ) X =SO2 , Y = oxygen
(b) X = Ozone,Y = SO3 (d) X = O3 , Y = H2SO4
Answers:
Question No. 1 2

Answer B D

Match the column Type Question

Match each of the compound given in column I with the corresponding use/s given in
column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Oxygen (a) Used as antichlor
(ii) Ozone (b) Used in cleaning the surface of metals
(iii) SO2 (c)Used for bleaching ivory
(iv) H2SO4 (d) used in metallurgical process to form volatile oxides
(v) Sulphur (e) used in production of H2SO4

Answers:
Question No. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Answer D C A B E

Case Based Question

A World of Sulfur
The sole time the demand for sulfuric acid witnessed a dive was during the global economic
crisis in 2009. In 2016, the global sulfuric market was valued at US$10.1 billion. It is estimated
that this figure will reach US$15 billion by 2025. India is one of the major producers of sulfuric
acid in the world.
Generally, these five countries account for approximately 61.5% of the global production of
sulfuric acid. Currently, the fertilizer industry consumes more than 55% of the world output. It
is anticipated that the global demand is rising exponentially, while there is a need for an
increase in production to meet this demand.
Depending on the method of production, there are several grades of sulphuric acid. In most
cases, the concentration of sulphuric acid produced is usually 98% following the loss of sulfur
trioxide during the production process. This is the most stable form of sulphuric acid. Other
grades include the following:
 10%, dilute sulfuric acid for laboratory use (pH 1)
 33.5%, battery acid (used in lead-acid batteries) (pH 0.5)
 62.18%, chamber or fertilizer acid (pH about 0.4)
 77.67%, tower or Glover acid (pH about 0.25)
 98%, concentrated (pH about 0.1)

The process involves the acidulation of rock phosphates, as well as the production of
ammonium sulphate. Other industrial applications include petroleum refining, steelworks, and
other inorganic chemicals. Currently, there are more than 65 sulphuric acid plants spread
across India. The major raw materials used in the manufacture of sulphuric acid include
elemental sulphur, hydrogen sulphide, pyrites, etc. Nearly all factories in India rely heavily on
elemental sulfur as the major source of raw material.
(Published by Robyn Wainwright, Assistant Editor, World Fertilizer, Monday, 24
December 2018)

Answer the following Questions:


1. India utilises the majority of its sulphuric acid
(a) in the petroleum refining (b) in the hoapitals
(c) in school Laboratories (d) in the production of fertilizers.
2.Which of the following grade of sulphuric acid ispractically not produced?
(a) 30 % sulphuric acid. (b)98% sulphuric acid
(c) 100% sulphuric acid (d) 65 % sulphuric acid
3. The conditions to maximize the yield of H2SO4 by contact process are:
(i) Low temperature (Optimum temperature 720 K)
(ii) Presence of catalyst Al2O3
(iii)Presence of catalyst V2O5
(iv) High pressure (Optimum pressure 2 bar)

Choose the correct answer:


(a) (i) , (ii), (iv) Only (c) (ii) , (iii) (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) Only (d) (i) , (ii), (iv) Only

Answer : Question No. 1 2 3

Answer D C B

GROUP 17- ELEMENTS


REVISION NOTES-
Fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine and astatine are members of Group 17. These are
collectively known as the halogens

1. Electronic Configuration:General outermost Electron configuration of group 17 is


(ns2np5).
2. Atomic radii: The halogens have the smallest atomic radii in their respective periods due
to maximum effective nuclear charge. Atomic and ionic radii increase from fluorine to
iodine due to increasing number of quantum shells.
3. Ionisation enthalpy: They have very high ionisation enthalpy. Due to increase in
atomic size, ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group.
4. Electron gain enthalpy: Halogens have maximum negative electron gain enthalpy in
the corresponding periods.. Electron gain enthalpy of the elements of the group becomes
less negative down the group. The negative value of electron gain enthalpy of fluorine
is less than that of Chlorine. Due to small size of fluorine the electron-electron repulsions
are comparatively large and hence incoming electron is not accepted with the same ease as
in the case of Cl atom .
5. Electronegativity: They have very high electronegativity. The electronegativity decreases
down the group. Fluorine is the most electronegative element in the periodic table.
6. Physical State: Fluorine and chlorine are gases, bromine is a liquid and iodine is a solid.
7. Melting & boiling Point: Increases down the group because of increase in size resulting in
greater Vander Waal forces of attraction.
8. All halogens are coloured. This is due to absorption of radiations in visible region which
results in the excitation of outer electrons to higher energy level. By absorbing different
quanta of radiation, they display different colours.
9. Bond dissociation enthalpies: Cl2 (242.6 kJ mol–1)> Br2 (192.8 kJ mol–1)> F2(158.8 kJ mol–
1), > I2(151.1 kJ mol–1 )Bond dissociation energy of F2 is less than Cl2. Due to smaller size

there is large electron-electron repulsion among the lone pairs in F2 molecule whereas
because of comparatively larger size the lone pairs of Cl atoms do not repel the bond pair of
Cl-Cl bond. As result Bond dissociation energy of F2 is less than Cl2.
10. Oxidation states: All the halogens exhibit –1 oxidation state. Fluorine exhibit oxidation
state of –1 only. Because fluorine atom is most electronegative & has no d orbitals in its
valence shell and therefore cannot expand its octet.
11. Chlorine, Bromine and Iodine exhibit + 1, + 3, + 5 and + 7 oxidation states. because
halogens have d orbitals and therefore, can expand their octets and show + 1, + 3, + 5 and +
7 oxidation states also.
12. Anomalous behaviour of fluorine: The anomalous behaviour of fluorine is due to its
small size, highest electronegativity, low F-F bond dissociation enthalpy, and non-
availability of d orbitals in valence shell
13. Oxidizing power: All halogens are strong oxidizing agents because they have a strong
tendency to accept electrons. Order of oxidizing power is F2> Cl2> Br2> I2 F2 is a stronger
oxidising agent than Cl2 It is due to (i) low enthalpy of dissociation of F-F bond (ii)
high hydration enthalpy of F.
14. Properties of Hydrogen Halides(HX): (a) HF is a liquid due to intermolecular hydrogen
bonding ,while all other Hydrogen Halides( HCl, HBr, HI) are gases. (b) Bond dissociation
enthalpy in the order: H–F > H–Cl > H–Br > H–I (c) Boiling point: HCl<HBr< HI <
HF[The boiling point of HF is highest due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding (d) The
acidic strength of hydrogen halides varies in the order HF<HCl<HBr<HI.This is
because bond (H–X) dissociation enthalpy decrease in the order: H–F > H–Cl >H–Br > H–I
15. Oxoacids of halogens:
(a) Acid strength: HOCl< HClO2<
HClO3< HClO4

(b) Acid strength: HOF >HOCl>HOBr>


HOI

(c) Oxidising power:


HClO4<HClO3<HClO2<HOCl
16. Interhalogen compounds: Binary compounds of two different halogen atoms of general
formula XXIn are called interhalogen compounds where n = 1, 3, 5, or 7. Interhalogen
compounds are more reactive than related elemental halogens. This is because X–X′ bond in
interhalogens is weaker than X–X bond in halogens.
17. Shapes of Interhalogen compounds: XX’ (CIF, BrF, BrCl, ICl, IBr, IF) (Linear shape) XX’3
(CIF3, BrF3, IF3, ICl3)
(Bent T- shape) XX’5 – CIF5, BrF5, IF5, (square pyramidal shape) XX’7 – IF7(Pentagonal
bipyramidal shape)

18.Chlorine (Cl2)
Preparation:
Chlorine can be prepared by any of the following processes:

Properties:
• It is a greenish yellow gas with pungent and suffocating odour.
• It is soluble in H2O
• Reaction with metals and non-metals: Chlorine reacts with a number of metals and non-
metals to form chlorides. For example:

2 Al + 3Cl2 → 2AlCl3
S8 + 4Cl2 → 4S2Cl2
• Reaction with ammonia: When treated with excess ammonia, chlorine gives nitrogen and
ammonium chloride whereas when excess chlorine reacts with ammonia, nitrogen trichloride
is formed.

8NH3 + 3Cl2 → 6NH4Cl + N2


Excess

NH3 + Cl2 → NCl3 + 3 HCl


Excess

• Reaction with NaOH: Chlorine reacts differently with cold dilute NaOH and hot
concentrated NaOH.

Cl2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O


Cold dil.

Cl2 + 6NaOH → NaCl + NaClO3+ H2O


Hot conc.

Reaction with slaked lime: Cl2 when treated With dry slaked lime it gives bleaching powder:
2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 → Ca(OCl)2 + CaCl2 + 2H2O
Cl2 acts as a powerful bleaching agent and its bleaching action is due to its oxidizing nature.
Cl2 + H2O → 2HCl + O
Composition of bleaching powder-The composition of bleaching powder is
Ca(OCl)2.CaCl2.Ca(OH)2.2H2O.
Uses:
(i) Chlorine is used for bleaching woodpulp.

(ii) It is used in the extraction of gold and platinum

(iii) It is used in in sterilising drinking water.

(iv) It is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs and organic compounds like CCl4, DDT,
refrigerants, etc.

19.Hydrogen chloride (HCl)

Preparation:
It is prepared by heating sodium chloride with concentrated sulphuric acid.

2 NaCl + H2SO4 + Heat → Na2SO4 + HCl


Properties:
HCl is a colourless gas with pungent odour.

It is extremely soluble in water, HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl‒


It decomposes salts of weaker acids, Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2
When treated with NH3, it gives white fumes of NH4Cl, NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl

*3HCl : 1HNO3 is called aqua regia, which is used for dissolving noble metals.
Au + 4 H+ + NO3‒ + 4Cl‒ → AuCl4‒ + NO + 2 H2O
Uses:
(i) Hydrogen chloride is used in medicine and as a laboratory reagent.

(ii) It is used in the manufacture of chlorine, NH4Cl and glucose.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS-

Q 1.The property of halogen acid that indicated incorrect is :

(a) HF >HCl>HBr> HI ( Acidic strength)


(b) HI >HBr>HCl> HF ( Reducing strength)
(c) HI >HBr>HCl> HF ( Bond length)
(d) HF >HCl>HBr> HI (Thermal stability)
Q 2. The property of halogen that indicated incorrect is :

(a) F >Cl >Br> I ( ionization energy )


(b) F >Cl >Br> I (electron gain enthalpy)
(c) F >Cl >Br >I ( electronegativity )
(d) I >Br >Cl >F (density in liquid state)
Q 3. Shape of ClF3is :

(a) Equilateral triangle (b) pyramidal (c ) V- shaped (d) T- shaped


Q 4. Bleaching powder is obtained by the interaction of chlorine and

(a) Dilute solution of Ca(OH)2


(b) Conc. Solution of Ca(OH)2
(c) Dry calcium oxide
(d) Dry slaked lime
Q 5. Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Brine (NaCl) gives:

(a) Cl2 (b) H2 (c) NaOH (d) all of these


Q 6. Which of the following possess the highest bond energy :

(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2


Q 7. The strongest reducing agent is :

(a )F- (b) Cl- (c) Br- (d) I-

Q 8. Which of the following hydrogen halide is most volatile:

(a) HCl (b) HF (c) HI (d) HBr


Q 9. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched:

(a) A halogen which is liquid at room temperature- Bromine


(b) The most electronegative element- Fluorine
(c) The most reactive halogen- Fluorine
(d) The strongest oxidizing agent- Iodine
Q 10. Fluorine is the best oxidizing agent because it has-

(a) highest electron affinity (b) highest E0red

(c) highest E0oxid (d) lowest electron affinity

Q 11. Chlorine water on standing loses its yellow colour due to the formation of .

(a) Cl and HOCl (b) HCl and HOCl (C) HOCl and HOCl (d) HCl and HOCl2
Q 12. The ionic character of the halides decreases in the order-

(a) MF >MCl>MBr> MI where M is a monovalent metal


(b) MCl>MBr> MI>MF where M is a monovalent metal
(c) MF >MBr> MI>MCl where M is a monovalent metal
(d) MF >MCl> MI >MBr where M is a monovalent metal
Q 13Fluorine react with water to give :

(a) Hydrogen fluoride and oxygen (b) Hydrogen fluoride and ozone

(c) Hydrogen fluoride and oxygen fluoride (d) Hydrogen fluoride, oxygen and ozone

Q 14 .Which is not correct about halogens

(a) The valence shell electronic configuration of these elements is ns2np5


(b) The halogens have the smallest atomic radii in their respective periods
(c ) Atomic and ionic radii increase from fluorine to iodine

( d) Due to increase in atomic size, ionisation enthalpy increases down the group

Q 15. Element of Group 17 show the following properties except for-

(a) The acidity of HX increases down the group


(b) Thermal stability of HX decreases down the group
(c )Volatility of halogen increases down the group

(d )Boiling point of halogen increases down the group

Q 16. Gaseous HCl is a poor conductor of electricity while its aqueous solution is a good
conductor this is because :

(a) H2O is a good conductor of electricity


(b) a gas cannot conduct electricity, but a liquid can
(c) HCl gas does not obey ohm’s law; whereas the solution does
(d) HCl ionizes in aqueous solution

Q 17. Oxidising action increases from left to right in the order-

(a) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2


(b) I2 < F2 < Cl2 < Br2
(c) Cl2 < I2 < Br2 < F2
(d) Cl2 < Br2 < I2 < F2
Q 18. Astatine is the element below iodine in the group 17 of the periodic table which of the
following statement is not true for astatine?

(a) It is less electronegative than iodine


(b) It will exhibit only – l oxidation sate
(c) Intermolecular forces between the astatine molecule will be large than between iodine
molecule
(d) It is radioactive
Q 19. Which statement correct about halogens?

(a) They are all diatomic and form univalent ions

(b) They are all capable of exhibiting several oxidation states

(c) They are all diatomic and form diatomic ions

(d) They are all reducing agents

Q 20. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimise –
(A) lone pair-bond pair repulsion only
(B) bond pair- bond pair repulsions only
(C) lone pair-lone pair and lone pair-bond pair repulsions
(D) lone pair-lone pair repulsions only
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS-

Q 21. Assertion: HClO4 is a stronger acid than HClO3.


Reason: Oxidation state of Cl in HClO4 is + 7 and in HClO3 is +5.

A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Q 22. Assertion : Cl2 gas bleaches the articles permanently.

Reason : Cl2 is a strong reducing agent

A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Q 23. Assertion : HOF bond angle in HOF is higher than HOCl bond angle in HOCl.

Reason : Oxygen is more electronegative than all halogens except fluorine

A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Q 24. Assertion :F exhibits only -1 oxidation state , other halogen shows +1, +3, +5, +7
oxidation states Reason:F is most electronegative element and due to absence of d-orbitals

A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correctexplanation for
assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correctexplanation for
assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Q 25. Assertion:Halogens have maximum negative electron gain enthalpy.

Reason:Because they have smaller size in their respective periods

A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Q 26. Assertion:In BrF3 oxidation state of F is +3

Reason:Electronegativity of F is more that that of Br

A. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
B. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
C. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Matching type question-

Q 27.Match the entries of column I with appropriate entries of column II and choose the correct
option .

Column Column II
I

(A) PCl5 (p) Angular

(B) IF7 (q) Pyramidal

(C) H3O+ (r) Trigonal


bipyramidal

(D) ClO2 (s) Pentagonal


bipyramidal

(a) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p (b) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s

(d) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r (d) A-s, B-p, C-r, D-q

ANALOGY BASED QUESTIONS-


Q 28..Which of the following analogies is correct:
(a) electron gain enthalpy of F is -296kJ/mol :: electron gain enthalpy of I is – 444kJ/mol
(b) Bromine- blue :: Iodine-purple
(c) Cl-3S2 3P5 ::At-6S2 6P5
(d) Chlorine oxide –ClO2::chlorate-HOClO3

Q 29. Complete the following analogy:


Cl2 reacts with cold and dilute NaOH gives A ::Cl2 reacts with hot and conc. NaOH gives B
(a) A: NaClO3, B: NaClO
(b) A: NaOCl2, B: NaOCl
(c) A: NaClO4, B: NaClO3
(d) A: NaOCl, B: NaClO3
CASE BASED QUESTIONS-

Halogens acts as oxidizing agents. Their oxidizing power, however, decreases in the order : F2>
Cl2> Br2> I2. Therefore, a more electronegative halogen can displace a less electronegative
halogen from the solution of its halide ion. Fluoride ion can, however, be oxidized either
electrolytically or by using a more powerful oxidizing agent than fluorine itself. All the
halogens combine with hydrogen under different conditions to form halogen acids whose
acidic strength vary with the strength of the H – X bond. Halogens also form a number of
oxoacids such as HOX, HXO2, HXO3 and HXO4. Their acid strength depends upon a combination
of two factors such as electronegativity and oxidation state of the halogen, and the stability of
their corresponding anions. They also behave as oxidizing agents whose strength depends
upon the stability of the corresponding anions. Halogens also combine among themselves to
form inter halogen compounds (XX’, XX’3, XX’5 and X7’). Halide ions often react with molecule of
halogens or interhalogens to form polyhalide ions consisting either of the same halogen or of
two or three different halogens.

Q 30. The following acids have been arranged in order of decreasing acid strength.

Identity the correct order


(I) HOCl (II) BrOH (III) IOH
(a) I > II >III (b) II > I > III (c) III > II > I (d) I > III > II

Q 31. The correct order of acid strength is –


(a) HClO4< HClO3< HClO2<HClO
(b) HClO2< HClO3< HClO4<HClO
(c) HClO4<HClO< HClO3< HClO2
(d) HClO< HClO2< HCLO3< HClO4

Q 32. The isoelectronic pair is –


(a) Cl2O, ICl2- (b) ICl2-, ClO2 (c) IF2+, I3- (d) ClO2-, ClF2+

ANSWER KEY-

1.a 2.b 3.d 4.d 5.d 6.b 7.d 8.a

9.d 10.b 11.b 12.a 13.d 14.d 15.c 16.d

17.a 18.b 19.a 20.c 21.A 22.C 23.D 24.A

25. A 26.D 27.a 28.c 29.d 30. (a) 31. (d) 32. (d)
GROUP I8 ELEMENTS
Revision Notes
 Group 18 consists of elements: helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon,
radon and oganesson.
 All these are gases and chemically unreactive.
 They form very few compounds, because of this they are termed
as noble gases.

OCCURRENCE :

 All these gases except radon and oganesson occur in the atmosphere.
 Their atmospheric abundance in dry air is ~ 1% by volume of which
argon is the major constituent.
 Helium and sometimes neon are found
in minerals of radioactive origin e.g., pitchblende, monazite, cleveite.

 The main commercial source of helium is natural gas.


 Xenon and radon are the rarest elements of the group. Radon is obtained as a
decay product of 226Ra
Electronic Configuration : All noble gases have general electronic configuration ns2np6
except helium which has 1s2 .
Ionization Enthalpy : Due to stable electronic configuration these gases exhibit very high
ionisation enthalpy.
 However, it decreases down the group with increase
in atomic size.
Atomic Radii : Atomic radii increase down the group with increase in atomic
number.
Electron Gain Enthalpy : Since noble gases have stable electronic configurations, they have
no tendency to accept the electron and therefore, have large positive values
of electron gain enthalpy.
Physical properties : All the noble gases are monoatomic.
 They are colourless, odourless and tasteless.
 They are sparingly soluble in water.
 They have very low melting and boiling points because the only type of interatomic
interaction in these elements is weak dispersion forces.
 Helium has the lowest boiling point (4.2 K) of any known substance.
 It has an unusual property of diffusing through most commonly used laboratory
materials such as rubber, glass or plastics.
Chemical properties :

In general, noble gases are least reactive.


 Their inertness to chemical
reactivity is attributed to the following reasons:
(i) The noble gases except helium (1s2) have completely filled ns2np6
electronic configuration in their valence shell.
(ii) They have high ionisation enthalpy and more positive electron
gain enthalpy.
 In March1962, Neil Bartlett, then at the University of British Columbia, observed
the reaction of a noble gas. First, he prepared a red compound which
is formulated as O2+PtF6–.
 He, then realised that the first ionization enthalpy of molecular oxygen (1175 kJmol–1)
was almost identical with that of xenon (1170 kJ mol–1). He made efforts to prepare
same type of compound with Xe and was successful in preparing another red colour
compound Xe+PtF – by mixing PtF6 and xenon.
 After this discovery, a number of xenon compounds mainly with most electronegative
elements like fluorine and oxygen, have been synthesised.
The compounds of krypton are fewer. Only the difluoride (KrF2) has studied in detail.

Important Reactions :

Important structures :
XeF2

Bond pair=2

Lone pair=3
Linear
Hybridization = SP3d

XeF4

Bond pair=4

Lone pair=2
Square planar
Hybridization = SP3d2

XeF6

Bond pair=6

Lone pair=1
Distorted octahedral
Hybridization = SP3d3

XeOF4

Bond pair=5

Lone pair=1
Square pyramidal
Hybridization = SP3d2
SECTION I
MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS

Q 1. XeF4 reacts with water at -80OC to give


a) XeOF2 c) XeO3
b) XeOF4 d) XeO2F2

Q 2. The Structure of XeOF2is:


a) Pyramidal c) Octahedral
b) T-Shaped d) Tetrahedral
Q 3. Which of the following is called stranger gas?
a) Xe c) Ar
b) Ne d) Kr

Q 4. Among the following the square planar structure is for:


a) XeOF4 c) XeF2
b) XeF4 d) XeO3

Q 5. The noble gas compound prepared by Bartlett was:


a) XeO3 c) KrF2
b) XePtF6 d) XeF2

Q 6. Hydrolysis of XeF6 gives:


e) XeOF4 g) XeO2F2
f) XeO3 h) XeOF2

Q 7. Which of the following is an example of a redox reaction?


(a) XeF4 + O2F2 XeF6 + O2 (c) XeF6 + H2O XeOF4 + 2HF
(b) XeF2 + PF5 [XeF] PF6
+ - (d) XeF6 + 2H2O XeO2F2 + 4HF

Q 8. The shape of XeF5- is:


 Square Pyramid
 Trigonal Bipyramidal
 Planar
 Pentagonal Bipyramidal
Q 9. Under ambient conditions, the total number of gases released as products in the
final step of the reaction scheme shown below is:

Complete Hydrolysis
XeF6 P + other Products
OH-/H2O

Slow disproportionate
In OH-/H2O

PRODUCTS
(ci) 0 (ciii) 2
(cii) 1 (civ) 3
Q 10. Which among the following has lowest boiling point?
a) Ar c) Ne
b) He d) Kr
Q 11. In XeF4, the hybridization of Xe atom is:
a) sp3 c) sp3d2
b) sp d3 d) sp3
Q 12. A gas X is used in filling balloons, for meteorological observations. It is also used in gas-
cooled nuclear reactors. Identify X.
a) Helium c) Argon
b) Neon d) Radon
Q 13. What is correct atomic radius order for noble gases?
(di) He<Ne<Ar<Kr<Xe (diii) He<Ne<Ar>Kr>Xe
(dii) He>Ne>Ar>Kr>Xe (div) He>Ne>Ar<Kr<Xe
Q 14. The noble gases exhibit very high ionization enthalpy, which down the group
a) Increase c) First increase then decrease
b) Decrease d) First decrease and then increase
Q.15. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2+PtF6- as base compound.
This is because:
a) Both O2 and Xe have same size.
b) Both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy
c) Both O2 and Xe have almost same ionization enthalpy.
d) Both Xe and O2 are gases.
Q 16. Which of the following statements are true?
 Only type of interactions between particles of noble gases is due to weak dispersion
forces.
 Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
 Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
 None of these
Q 17. Compounds formed when the noble gases get in trapped in the cavities of the crystal
lattices of certain organic and inorganic compounds are known as:
a) Interstitial compounds c) Hydrates
b) Clathrates d) Picrates
Q 18. Which of the following electronic configuration corresponds to an inert gas?
a) 1s1 2s2 2p5 c) 1s2 2s1
b) 1s 2s 2p
2 2 6 d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

SECTION 2
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions: In the following questions, an assertion (A) is followed by a corresponding reason


(R). Use the following keys to choose the appropriate answers:
(ii) Both A and R are correct, R is the correct explanation of A.
(iii) Both A and R are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iv) A is correct, R is incorrect.
(v) A is incorrect, R is correct.

Q.1. Assertion: Inert gases are mono atomic.


Reason : Inert gases have stable configuration.

Q.2. Assertion : xenon exists only in-1 oxidation state.


Reason: xenon has 5s2,5p6 configuration.
Q.3. Assertion: Inert gases have low reactivity.
Reason : . Inert gases are diatomic.
Q.4. Assertion: Xe in XeF2 has sp hybridisation
Reason : . XeF2 has linear shape.
Q 5. Assertion: Xenon forms fluoride
Reason: Because 5d-orbitals are available for valence shell expansion.
Q 6. Assertion: Noble gases are diamagnetic atoms.
Reason: The atomic numbers of noble gases are even and all the orbital are doubly occupied by
the electrons.

SECTION 3
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

Q. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows:

The noble gases have closed-shell electronic configuration and are monoatomic gases under
normal conditions. The low boiling points of the lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion
forces between the atoms and the absence of other interatomic interactions.

The direct reaction of xenon with fluorine leads to a series of compounds with oxidation
numbers +2, +4 and +6. XeF4 reacts violently with water to given XeO3. The compounds of
xenon exhibit rich stereochemistry and their geometries can be deduced considering the total
number of electron pairs in the valence shell.

Q1. Argon is used in Arc Welding because of its:


• Low reactivity with metal • Flammability
• Ability to lower the melting point of • High calorific value
metal

Q 2. The structure of XeO3 is:


 Linear  Pyramidal
 Planar  T-shaped

Q3. XeF4 and XeF6 are expected to be:


 Oxidising  Unreactive
 Reducing  Strongly basic

SECTION 4
ANALOGY BASED QUESTION

Q 1. XeO3 : A :: XeOF4 : B
a) A=Square Pyramidal, B= Pyramidal c) A= Linear, B= Square Pyramidal
b) A=Pyramidal, B= Square Pyramidal d) A= Pyramidal, B= Linear

Q 2. Xe + 2F2 : A :: Xe + 3F2 : B

 A= XF4, B=XeF6  A= XeF2, B=XeF4


 A=XeF6, B=XeF4  A=XeF4, B= XeF6
SECTION 5
MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Q Match the compounds given in column I with the shape given in column II and mark the
correct option.

COLUMN I COLUMN II
 XeF6  Distorted octahedral
 XeO3  Square planar
 XeOF4  Pyramidal
 XeF4  Square Pyramidal

A B C D
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: -
Section I MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer a b a b b b a d c b
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Answer c a a b c a b b

Section 2 ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6
Answer a d c d a a

Section 3 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

Question 1 2 3
Answer a c a

Section 4 ANALOGY BASED QUESTION

Question 1 2
Answer b d

Section 5 MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Question 1
Answer c
HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
Haloalkanes
When a hydrogen attached to a carbon atom in the aliphatic hydrocarbon is replaced by
halogen atom (i.e. F, Cl, Br, I) then the compound formed are called Haloalkanes.

Nomenclature (IUPAC AND COMMON name)

Common name format: alkyl name + halide name


IUPAC name format: locator +halo prefix + parent alkane

Nature of c-x bond:

The C-X bond in haloarenes is polarized, as halogens are more electronegative than carbon. Due
to high electronegativity of halogen it attracts the electron cloud more towards itself and thus
gains slight negative charge, on the other hand carbon obtains a slight positive charge. Dipole
moment depends on the difference in electronegativity of carbon and halogens and as we know
that the electronegativity of halogens decreases down the group, the dipole moment also
decreases. There is an exception of C-Cl and C-F dipole moments. Though the electronegativity of
Cl is less than F, but the dipole moment of C-Cl bond is more than C-F.

General methods of preparation of haloalkanes :

 From Alcohols:

Note:Preparation of alkyl chloride from alcohols by treating it with SOCl2 is the best method
as it gives almost pure alkyl chloride since the by-products of the reaction i.e. SO2 and HCl
are in gaseous phase.
 From alkanes by free radical halogenation:
 From alkenes:

i) Addition of halogens

ii) Addition of hydrogen halides:

a) Markovnikov’s rule: During addition of a polar molecule to unsymmetrical alkene, the


negative part of addendum attaches to that double bonded carbon which has least no. of
hydrogen atom.
CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr  CH3CHBrCH3
(2-Bromo Propane)

b) Peroxide effect (kharasch effect) when a polar molecule is added to unsymmetrical


alkene in the presence of organic peroxide then addition occurs against the
Markovnikov’s rule (only for addition of H Br)
CH3 CH = CH2 + H Br Peroxide
  CH3-CH2-CH2-Br
(1-Bromo Propane)

 Finkelstein reaction:

R – Cl +Na I acetone
 R – I + NaCl
R – Br +Na I acetone
 R – I + NaBr

 Swarts reaction:

R – X AgF,
  R – F
Hg 2 F2 , CoF2 or SbF3

CH3 –Br + AgF   CH3 –F + AgBr

Physical properties:

 Physical state: Haloalkanes are colourless when pure, bromides and iodides develop
colour when exposed to light
 Solubility: Despite of polar nature of alkyl halides, they are insoluble in water due to
inability to form hydrogen bond but they are soluble in non-polar solvents.

Chemical properties:
The reactions of haloalkanes may be divided into the following categories:
 Nucleophilic substitution
 Elimination reactions
 Reaction with metals

 Nucleophilic Substitution Reactions

In this type of reaction, a nucleophile reacts with haloalkane (the substrate) having a
partial positive charge on the carbon atom bonded to halogen. A substitution reaction
takes place and halogen atom, called leaving group departs as halide ion. Since the
substitution reaction is initiated by a nucleophile, it is called nucleophilic substitution
reaction.

a. CH3CH2Cl + KOH(aq) /NaOH(aq)  CH3CH2OH (Alcohol) + KCl/NaCl


b. CH3CH2Br + NaOH(aq)  CH3CH2OH (Alcohol) +NaBr
c. CH3CH2I + NaOR CH3CH2OR (Alkoxy alkane)+NaI
d. CH3CH2I + AgCN  CH3CH2NC (Alkyl Isocyanide) +Ag I
e. CH3CH2I + KCN CH3CH2CN(Alkyl cyanide) +KI
f. CH3CH2Cl + AgNO2 CH3CH2 NO2 (Nitroalkane) +AgCl
g. CH3CH2Cl + KNO2 CH3CH2ONO(Alkylnitrite) +KI
h. CH3CH2Br +NH3 CH3CH2NH2 (Primary Amines) +HBr
i. CH3CH2Br +RNH2 CH3CH2NHR +HBr
j. CH3CH2Br LIAlH
4  CH3CH2_H

Nucleophilic Substitution Reactions

I. SN1 mechanism:

II. SN2 mechanism:


 Elimination reaction:
When a haloalkane with ß-hydrogen atom is treated with alcoholic solution of
potassium hydroxide there is an elimination of hydrogen atom from  -carbon and a
halogen atom from the ά-carbon atom forming an alkene.

Saytzeff rule: If in an elimination reaction there is availability of more than one  -


hydrogen atom then that alkene is the major product which is highly alkylated i.e.
containing greater number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded carbon atoms.

 Reaction with metal:

i. Reaction with Sodium


Wurtz reaction: Alkyl halides react with sodium in dry ether to give hydrocarbons
(Alkanes) containing double the number of carbon atoms present in the halide

Reaction with magnesium (Grignard Reagent): alkyl or aryl magnesium halide is


called Grignard reagent. It is obtained by treating alkyl or aryl bromide with magnesium
in the presence of ether.
HALOARENES
X

X= F,Cl, Br or I
Nomenclature of Haloarenes:-
Common and IUPAC name of monohalo substituted Haloarenes
For dihalogen derivatives:
In common system: The prefixes o-, m-, p-
In IUPAC system: 1, 2; 1,3 and 1,4 .
CH3
Br CH3 Cl
Cl

Br CH3
1,3-dibromobenzene or 1-chloro-2-methylbenzene 2-chloro-1,4-dimethylbenzene
m-dibromobenzene or o-chlorotoluene

More Examples:

Preparation of aryl halides:

General Methods of Preparation


A) By Halogenation: Electrophilic substitution reaction

→ Where X2= Cl2 or Br2


B) From diazonium salts: Aryl diazonium salts in presence of copper halide solution
dissolved in the corresponding halogen acid decomposes to Aryl halide (Sandmeyer
reaction).

NaNO2 + HCl

+
NH2
HNO2 N N Cl - Cl/Br
CuBr/CuCl

KI HBF4 Sandmeyer's reaction

I F

Balz-schiemann Reaction
Properties of aryl halides:

Physical Properties:

 Aryl halides are colourless stable liquids with pleasant odour.


 These are insoluble in water but readily miscible with organic solvents. Most of them
are steam volatile, heavier than water.
 Their boiling points are higher than corresponding alkyl halides.
 The boiling points rise gradually from fluoro to iodo compounds.

Chemical Properties of Haloarenes:

Haloarenes undergo three types of reaction:

(A) Nucleophilic substitution reactions

(B) Electrophilic substitution reactions:

(C) Reaction with metal:

(A) Nucleophilic substitution reactions:

Haloarenes are very less reactive towards nucleophilic reactions due to following reasons

1. Resonance effect:
.. + + +
.. Cl .. Cl Cl Cl
_ _
.. ..

..
_
2. X Is attached tosp2carbon, due to higher s character electrons are held more tightly, it has
more electronegetive character, removal of X- is difficult and hence substitution difficult.

C X C X

sp2 C, 33 % s character sp3 C, 25 % s character

3. Phenyl cation can not be stabilized by resonance, hence cannot be formed easily. This rules
out SN1 type reactions.
+

4. Phenyl ring is rich in electrons. It exhibits repulsion with incoming Nucleophile.

_
Nu ..

Due to all these reasons Aromatic Nucleophilic substitution reactions are difficult. But by
placing an electron withdrawing group (EWG) like NO2 or CN or COOH, one can make the
aromatic ring (of halo arenes) less rich in electrons. With this the above points become less
active and substitution becomes easier like following order for nucleophilic substitution
reaction.
Why electron withdrawing group activate haloarenes for nucleophilic substitution reaction?
Cl Cl OH OH

slow fast
_ _
_
+ OH - Cl

EWG EWG EWG

EWG will Stabilize T.S.

(B) Electrophilic substitution reactions:

We have already seen that ortho and para position of chlorobenzene has electron pair in the
resonance structures. Because of this it can undergo electrophilic substitution reactions at
ortho or para positions.

However, inductive effect of halogen destabilizes the intermediate carbocation.

Electrophilic substitution reactions of Chlorobenzene:


(C) Reaction with metal:
Fittig reaction: Aryl halides (Haloarenes) also give analogous compounds when
treated with sodium in dry ether, in which two aryl groups are joined together.

Wurtz-Fittig reaction :

Question Bank
Multiple Choice Questions

Q1.Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

(a) n- Butane (b) n- Hexane (c) n- pentane (d) 2, 3-Dimethyl butane

Q2. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo pentane to form pent -2- ene is

(i) β-Elimination reaction (ii) Follow saytzeff rule

(iii)Dehydrohalogination reaction (iv) Dehydration reaction

(a) (i),(ii),(iv) (b) (i),(ii),(iii) (c) (i),(iii),(iv) (d) (ii),(iii),(iv)

Q3. In given alkyl halides which one has maximum boiling point?

(a) n-pentane (b) iso-pentane (c) neo- pentane (d) sec-pentane

Q4.Which of the following is an achiral molecule?

(a) 2- Chlorobutane (b) 2- Bromopetane (c) Pentan-2-ol (d) Chloro ethane

Q5.Which of the following product is formed when chloro propane react with AgCN?

(a) propyl carbylamines (b) Propyl isocyanide

(c) Propyl cyanide (d) Both of 1&2

Q6.When two halogen atoms are attached to adjacent carbon atom then they are called-

(a) vic-dihalide (b) gem-dihalide (c) Vinyl halide (d) allyl halide

Q7. CH3CH2CH2I + Mg → X + H2O → Y + Mg (OH)2

Identify X and Y in above chemical reaction:-

(a) X=Grignard reagent, Y= Alkane (b) X= Alkane, Y= Grignard reagent

(c) X=Haloalkane, Y= Alkane (d) X=Alkane, Y=Haloalkane


Q8.Which one is most reactive towards SN2 reaction?

(a) 2- Chloro butane (b) 2-Chloro -2- methyl propane

(c) 2-Chloro propane (d) 1-Chloro propane

Q9.What is the IUPAC name of neo- pentyl bromide?

(a) 2-Bromo- 2-methyl propane (b) 1-Bromo -2, 2-dimethyl propane

(c) 1-Bromo -2-methyl butane (d) 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane

Q10.Chlorination of methane shows which type of mechanism?

(a) Nucleophlic Substitution (b) Electrophlic substitution

(c)Free radical (d) Elimination

Q11.The decreasing orders of density of alkyl halides are

(i) CH3Cl (ii) C2H5Cl (iii) C4H9Cl (iv) C3H7Cl

(a) (i>ii>iii>iv) (b) (iv>iii>ii>i)

(c) (iii> i >ii>iv) (d) (iii>iv>ii>i)

Q12.What happen when n- butyl halide is treated with alcoholic KOH

(a) but-1-ene formed (b) But-2-ene formed

(c) Both 1&2 formed (d) Butanol formed

Q13.A SN1 reaction proceeds-

(a) Racemisation (b) Inversion (c) Retention (d) None of these

Q14.An alkyl chloride reacts with CoF2, the reaction is known as-

(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction (b) Swarts reaction

(c) Finkelstein reaction (d) Wurts reaction

Q15.The best for converting an alcohol to alkyl halide is:

(a) ROH + HCl (b) ROH + PX3 (c) ROH +SOCl2 (d) ROH +Red P/X2

Q16. C ─ X bond is stronger in

(a) C2H5F (b) C2H5I (c) C2H5Br (d) C2H5Cl

Q17. In Chemical reaction ROH + HCl >,

HCl+ZnCl2 is known as

(a) Grignard reagent (b) Lucas reagent


(c) Hinsberg’s reagent (d) Tollens’ reagent

Q18. Racemic compounds has

(a) Equimolar mixture of enantiomers

(b)1:1 mixture of enantiomer and diastereomer

(c) 1:1 mixture of diastereomer

(d) 1:1 mixture of diastereomer

Q.19. Which is the most reactive towards SN1 reaction –


(a) C6H5CH2Cl (b) C6H5CH (C6H5) Br
(c) C6H5CH (CH3)Br (d) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
Q.20. When Benzene diazonium chloride is treated with cuprous chloride in HCl,
Chlorobenzene is formed; this reaction is known as –
(a) Etard Reaction (b) Sand Meyer’s Reaction
(c) Gattermann’s Reaction (d) Perkin’s Reaction
Q.21 The reaction of chlorine with toluene in presence of ferric chloride gives
predominantly-
(a) Benzyl chloride (b) M-chlorotoluene
(c) o-and p-chlorotoluene (d) Benzoyl chloride
Q.22 Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions under ordinary
condition because -
i) Approach of nucleophile is retarted
ii) Carbon carrying halogen atoms is Sp3 hybridised
iii) The substrate molecules is destabilized due to resonance
iv) Partial double bond character between carbon and halogen
(a) ii and iv only (b) ii and iii only (c) i and iii only (d) i and iv only
Q.23 Identify product in the following reaction

a) C6H5CH3 b) C6H5CH2OH
c) C6H5OH d) C6H5CH2MgBr
Q.24 The freshly prepared diazonium salt is mixed with Copper (I) chloride to prepare
chlorobenzene by Sandmeyer’s reaction. Identify the gas evolved in reaction.
a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen d) Chlorine
Q.25 Haloarenes are ortho and para directing but less reactive than toluene for
electrophilic substitution reaction due to
(a) Resonance in aryl halide (b) – I effect of halogen atom
(c) + I effect of halogen atom (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.26 Haloarenes require more drastic conditions than benzene towards _________
reaction.
(a) Nucleophilic substitution (b) Nucleophilic addition
(c) Electrophonic substitution (d) Electrophonic addition

Q.27 The major product in nitration of Chlorobenzene is __________

(a) O-choloronitrobenzene (b) p-choloronitrobenzene


(c) m-choloronitrobenzene (d) o &p-choloronitrobenzene

Q.28. m-Xylene reacts with Br2 in presence of FeBr3, what are products formed

a) a b) b c) c d)d
Q.29 Haloarenes is less reactive than haloalkanes due to
(a) Inductive effect (b) Resonance effect
(c) Hyper conjugation (d) Electromeric effect

Q.30 p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than its o- and m- isomers because
(a) p-dichlorobenzene is more polar than o- and m- isomer.
(b) p-isomer has a symmetrical crystalline structure.
(c) Boiling point of p-isomer is more than o- and m-isomer.
(d) All of these are correct reasons.
Q.31 Fittig reaction can be used to prepare
(a) Toluene (b) Acetophenone
(c) Diphenyl (d) Chlorobenzene
Q.32 Which intermediate is formed in the following reaction?

(a) Primary carbocation (b) Tertiary carbocation


(c) Secondarycarbocation (d) None

Q.33 Arrange the following in increasing order toward nucleo philic substitution.
4-nitrochlorobenzene, chloro benzene, 2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene, 2,4 di nitro chloro
benzene
a) 4-nitrochlorobenzene< chlorobenzene<2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene<2,4- -
dinitrochlorobenzene
b) chlorobenzene < 4-nitrochlorobenzene < 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene <2,4,6-
trinitrochlorobenzene
c) chlorobenzene < 2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene< 4-nitrochlorobenzene < 2,4-
-dinitrochlorobenzene
d) 2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene< 4-nitrochlorobenzene< chlorobenzene < 2,4-
dinitrochlorobenzene

Q.34 Reaction of C6H5CH2CH2Br with alcoholic potassium hydroxide produces….


a) C6H5CH=CH2 b) C6H5CH2CH2OH
c) C6H4(OH)CH2CH2Br d) C6H4(OH)CH2CH2OH

Q.35 Which of the following compounds undergo SN1 reaction faster


(a) C6H11CH2Cl (b) C6H5CH2Cl (c) C6H11Cl (d) C6H5Cl
Q.36 Aryl halides cannot be prepared by the reaction of aryl alcohols with PCl3, PCl5 or
SOCl2 because

(a) Phenols are highly stable compounds.


(b) Carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has a partial double bond character.
(c) Carbon-oxygen bond is highly polar
(d) All of these
Assertion Reason based question

Q. 1. Assertion (A): Carbon-Halogen bond in alkyl halide is a non- polar bond.


Reason (R): Halogen atoms are more electronegative than carbon.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D)A is false and R is True.

Q. 2. Assertion (A): R-Br reacts with AgNO2 to give nitro alkane.


Reason (R): Silver Nitrate (AgNO2) is an ionic compound therefore the negative charge on
nitrogen is the attacking site.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

Q. 3. Assertion (A): n-Pentyl Chloride has higher B.P. than iso-pentyl Chloride.
Reason (R): The branching of chain makes the molecule more compact and therefore
decreases the surface area.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.
Q. 4. Assertion (A): Tertiary halo alkanes are more reactive than primary halo alkane towards
elimination reaction.
Reason (R): The +I effect of the alkyl group weaken the C-X bond.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

Q. 5. Assertion (A): (CH3)3-CO-CH3 give (CH3)3C –I and CH3OH on treatment with HI.
Reason (R): The reaction occurs by SN1 mechanisms.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

Q. 6. Assertion (A): HI readily reacts with alkenes to form alkyl halides.


Reason (R): Aqueous hydro halogen acids are used to prepare alkyl halides from alkenes
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

Q.7.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Halobenzene proceeds through SN2 mechanism with aq. NaOH and not
through SN1.
Reason (R): The phenylcation formed in SN1 is not stablised by resonance.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q.8 Assertion (A): Carbon atom attached to halogen in haloarene is more electronegative than
in haloalkane.
Reason (R): In Haloarene carbon is sp2 hybridised and having greater s – character as
compared to sp3 hybridised carbon in haloalkane.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q. 9 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Preparation of flouroarene are not preferred by reaction of F2 in presence of
Lewis acids.
Reason (R): Aromatic compounds not react in presence of Lewis acids.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q.10.Assertion (A): Chlorine is an ortho-para directing group in electrophilic substitution


reaction.
Reason (R): Chlorine is an electron withdrawing group due to inductive effect.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q.11.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): -NO2 group activate haloarenes for electrophilic substitution.
Reason (R): NO2 group is an electron withdrawing in nature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q.12.Assertion (A): The reagents of electrophilic substitution reaction of haloarenes have


presence of acids or Lewis acids.
Reason (R): The acids or Lewis helps in generation of electrophile.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Match the column:

Q.1. Match the reaction given in column I and II:

Column I Column II

(A) OC2H5 (i) β-elimination

CH3-CH-CH-CH3 + C2H5ONa  CH3CH2-C-CH3

| | |

Br CH3 CH3

(B) AgOH (ii) SN1 nucleophilic substitution

CH3CH2Br CH3CH2OH

(C) Peroxide (iii) SN2 nucleophilic


substitution
CH3CH=CH2 + HBr CH3CH2CH2Br

(D) CH3-CH2Br + alc. KOH CH2=CH2 (iv) Kharash effect

(a) A= (i), B= (iv), C=(ii), D=(iii) (c) A= (ii), B=(iii), C=(iv), D=(i)
(b) A= (i), B=(ii), C=(iv), D=(iii) (d) A= (iii), B=(i), C=(ii), D=(iv)

Q.2 Match the following


Match the following
I II

(i) HNO3/ H2SO4 (A) Chlorination

(ii) Conc. H2SO4 (B) Nitration

(iii) X2 / AlCl3 (C) Friedel-Crafts Acylation

(iv) R-COCl / AlCl3 (D) Sulphonation

(E) Friedel-Crafts alkylation

Which of the following is the best matched option?


(a) i-E, ii-D,iii-C, iv-A
(b) i-C, ii-D, iii-E, iv-B
(c) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C
(d) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C

Analogy based questions


Q.1. Which of the following analogies is correct?
(a) CH3-Cl: Chloromethane:: CH3-CH2-Br: Bromomethane
(b) CH3-C(CH3)2-Br: 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane :: CH2=CH-CH2-I: 3-Iodoprop-1-ene
(c) CH3-CH(Br)2: 1,2-Dibromoethane :: CHCl3: Trichloromethane
(d) CH3-CH2-I: 2-iodoethane:: CH3-CH(Cl)-CH3: 2-chloropropane

Q.2. Complete the following analogy:-


Vinyl Halide: A:: Allyl Halide :B
(i) A : CH3-CH(X)-CH3 B:CH2=CH-CH2-X
(ii) A : CH3-CH2-X B:CH3-CH2-CH2-X
(iii) A : CH2=CH-X B: CH2=CH-CH2-X
(iv) A : CH2=CH-X B : C6H5-X

Q.3 Which of the following analogy is correct?


(a) Chlorobenzene: o,p-directive :: Benzoic acid : o,p- directive
(b) Chlorobenzene: o,p-directive :: phenol : o,p- directive
(c) Nitrobenzene: m- directive:: phenol : m-directive
(d) Nitrobenzene: o,p-directive :: phenol : o,p- directive

Q.4 Complete the following analogy with respect to reactions of haloarenes


Aq. NaOH : A :: R-X / AlCl3 : B
(a) A : Nucleophile, B : Electrophile
(b) A : Electrophile, B : Nucleophile
(c) A : Electrophilic addition, B : Nucleophilic addition
(d) A : Nucleophilic elimination, B : Electrophilic elimination

Case Study Based Questions

Q:1 Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
In a halo alkane, halogen atoms are more electronegative than halogen, the carbon –halogen
bond of alkyl halide is polarised the carbon atom bears a partial positive charge whereas the
halogen atoms bears a partial negative charge. So this compound have some dipole moment.
This compound shows nucleophilic substitution reactions. In a nucleophilic Substitution
reaction, a nucleophile reacts with halo alkane (the substrate) having a partial positive charge
on the carbon atom bonded to halogen. A substitution reaction takes place and halogen atom,
called leaving group departs as halide ion. In its product, the all four valences of carbon is
completed by single covalent bonds. If all the four groups attached to carbon are different, such
a carbon is called stereo centre or asymmetric carbon. The resulting molecule would lack
symmetry. The asymmetry of the molecule is responsible for the optical activity in such organic
compounds.
The following question are Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer-

1. Nucleophilic reactions are the most useful classes of organic reactions of alkyl halides. In
which halogens are bonded to ……. Hybridized carbon.
(a)sp2 (b) sp3 (c) sp (d) None of the above

2. The spatial arrangement of four groups (vacancies) around a central atom is tetrahedral and
if all the substituents attached to that carbon is different and then such a carbon is called………
(a)Achiral (b) Chiral (c) Asymmetric (d) Symmetric
3. In alkyl halide due to the greater polarity as well as higher molecular mass, as compared to
the parent hydrocarbon, the intermolecular……. And …………. Of attraction are stronger in the
halogen derivatives.
(a)dipole-dipole and vanderwaal forces (b) H- bond and dipole-dipole forces
(c)Vander Waals and Hydrogen bond forces (d) dipole-dipole and London forces.

Q: 2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

Haloarenes undergo the usual electrophilic reactions of benzene ring such as halogenation,
nitration, sulphonation and Friedel - Crafts reactions. Halogen atom besides being slightly
deactivating is o, p-directive; therefore, further substitution occurs at ortho- and para-
positions with respect to the halogen atom. The o, p- directing influence of halogen atom can be
easily understood if we consider the resonating structures of halobenzene as shown:

Due to resonance, the electron density increases more at ortho- and para- positions than at
meta- positions. Further, the halogen atom because of its – I effect has some tendency to
withdraw electrons from the benzene ring due to high electronegativity of halogens.

As a result, the ring gets somewhat deactivated towards electrophilic substitution reactions as
compared to benzene. Hence the electrophilic substitution reactions in haloarenes occur slowly
and require more drastic conditions as compared to those in benzene.

Q.4 Chlorobenzene is o, p- directive in nature and have high electron density due to …………
(a) - I effect (c) + R effect
(b) + I effect (d) – R effect

Q.5 Halogen atom in halobenzene shows – I effect due to


(a) sp2 hybridised carbon in benzene
(b) High electronegativity of halogens
(c) Low electronegativity of halogens
(d) More negative electron gain enthalpy of halogens

Q.6 Reagents used in electrophilic substitution reactions like halogenation, nitration,


sulphonation and Friedel-Crafts reactions generate which one of the following?
(a) Free radical (c) Nucleophiles
(b) Electrophiles (d) Carbanions
Answer Key
MCQ
Q.NO 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

ANS c b a d d a a d b C

Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

ANS d b a b c a b a a b

Q.NO 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

ANS d d a c b a a c b a

Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35 36

ANS c c b a d b

Assertion Reason based question

Q.NO 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Ans d c a a a c a

Q.No. 8 9 10 11 12

Ans a c b d a

Match the column:


Q.no 1 2

Ans c c

Analogy based questions

Q.no 1 2 3 4

Ans b c b a

Case Study Based Questions


Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6

Ans b b a c b b
Unit: 11:- Alcohols

Formula IUPAC Name Suffix Prefix

R – OH Alkanol -ol Hydroxy

Common and IUPAC names of a few alcohols: Alkan+ol

II.Preparation of Alcohols & Phenols:

1. Hydroboration –Oxidation reaction: Diborane reacts with alkenes to from


trialkylboranes which areoxidized to alcohols on reaction with hydrogen peroxide in
presence of alkali. The alcohol obtained corresponds to anti- Markownikov’s addition of
water on alkenes.

i.e.

CH3-CH=CH2 (    CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
i ) B2 H 6 ( ii ) OH
2. Hydration of Alkene:

3. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones (Reducing agents:H2/Pd or Pt, NaBH4 or


LiAlH4)

4. Reduction of carboxylic acids :

5. Reaction of Grignard reagents with aldehydes and ketones.

Mechanism for the addition Grignard reagent on carbonyl compounds.

The first step of the reaction is the nucleophilic addition of Grignardreagent to the carbonyl
group to form an adduct. Hydrolysis of theadduct yields an alcohol.

NOTE: The reaction produces a primary alcohol with methanal, a secondary alcohol with
other aldehydes and tertiary alcohol with ketones.

Physical Properties of Alcohols:

1. Boiling Points

The boiling points of alcohols and phenols increase with increase in the number of carbon
atoms (increase in van der Waals forces).
In alcohols, the boiling points decrease with increase of branching in carbon chain

(because of decrease in van der Waals forces with decrease in surface area).

2. Solubility: Solubility of alcohols and phenols in water is due to their ability to form

hydrogen bonds with water molecules

Chemical Properties of Alcohols:

1. Reaction with metals:


The acidic character of alcohols is due to the polar nature of O–H bond.

2 R-OH + NaOH--------------> 2 R-ONa + H2

Order of acidic strength of alcohols: 1° > 2° > 3°

2. Dehydration of Alcohols:
Mechanism

Mechanism for the acidic


Dehydration of alcohols to give
alkenes

3. Oxidation of Alcohols

 Primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.[Strong oxidising agents such as acidified

potassium
 Primary alcohol to Aldehyde.[oxidising agents CrO3 in anhydrous medium.
pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)

 Secondary alcohols to ketones [chromic anhydride (CrO3).]


 Tertiary alcohols do not undergo oxidation reaction. Under strong reaction conditions
such as strong oxidising agents (KMnO4) and elevated temperatures, cleavage of
various C-C bonds takes place and a mixture of carboxylic acids containing lesser
number of carbon atoms is formed.

4. Dehydrogenation [loss of dihydrogen from an alcohol molecule]:


When the vapours of a primary or
a secondary alcohol are passed
over heated copper at 573 K,
dehydrogenation takes place and
an aldehyde or a ketone is formed
while tertiary alcohols undergo
dehydration.

III.Chemical testsBased Questions (with suitable examples)

1. Lucas test
 To distinguish between Primary (10), Secondary (20), & Tertiary (30) Alcohols)
 Lucas reagent: ZnCl2/HCl
(i) Primary (10) + Lucas reagent(ZnCl2/HCl)  No Turbidity at room temperature

(ii) Secondary (20) + Lucas reagent(ZnCl2/HCl)  Turbidity after some time (5-10 min)

(iii) Tertiary (30) + Lucas reagent (ZnCl2/HCl)  Turbidity at once (immediately)

2. Iodoform test (Alcohols)

 Alcohols containing
linkage like Ethanol ,Propan-2-ol
etc.)
 Reagent: I2 / NaOH
 Test: Alcohols containing
CH3-CH(OH)-linkage on reaction I2 /
NaOH gives Yellow Ppt of CHI3.

Esterification :- →
Iodoform test:- alcohol containing the group CH3-CH- is heated with iodine and aqueous
NaOH or Na2CO3 solution, a yellow ppt of iodoform is obtained.

CH3-CH2-OH +4 I2 +6NaOH 
 CHI3 + HCOONa + 5NaI +5H2O

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ):


Q.1 Give IUPAC name of the compound

(a) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane
(b) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane
(c) 5-Chlorohexan-2-ol
(d) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol
Q 2. Which one is secondary alcohol?

(a) (i)

(b) (ii)

(c) (iii)

(d) (iv)

Q 3. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?


(a) 1° > 2° > 3° (c) 2° > 1° > 3o

(b) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) 3° > 1° >2°

Q 4. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves_____________.

(a) Substitution reaction (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(b) Addition reaction (d) Rearrangement reaction

Q 5.The compound which gives the most stable carbonium ion on dehydration is –

(a) (CH3)2CHCH2OH (c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(b) (CH3)3COH (d) CH3CH (OH) CH2 CH3

Q 6.Cyclohexene is best prepared from cyclohexanol by which of the following –

(a) Conc. H3PO4 (c) Conc. HCl

(b) Conc. HCl/ZnCl2 (d) Conc. HBr

Q 7.Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent followed byhydrolysis to form –

(a) 3° alcohol (c) Ether

(b) 2° alcohol (d) No reaction

Q 8.The alcohol that reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is –

(a) propan-2-ol (c) 2-methyl propan-1-ol

(b) butan-1-ol (d) 2-methyl propan-2-ol

Q 9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with cone. H2SO4 the initial Step is –

(a) Formation of an ester (c) Formation of carbocation

(b) Protonation of alcohol (d) Elimination of water

Q 10.Which of the following is true?

(a) Lower alcohols are liquid at room temperature and the higher ones are solid

(b) Lower alcohols and higher alcohols, both are liquid at room temperature

(c) Higher alcohols are liquid at room temperature and the lower ones are solid

(d) Both lower and higher alcohols are solid at room temperature

Q 11. CH3CH2OH can be converted into CH3CHO by ______________.

(a) Catalytic hydrogenation


(b) Treatment with LiAlH4

(c) Treatment with pyridiniumchlorochromate

(d) Treatment with KMnO4

Q 12. Which of the following compounds is Benzylic alcohols?

(a) A, B, C, D (c) B, C
(b) A, D (d) A

Q 13. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of boiling point.

Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol

(a) Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol

(b) Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol

(c) Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, propan-1-ol

(d)Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol

Q 14. Which of the following reagents can be used to oxidise primary alcohols to aldehydes?

(i) CrO3 in anhydrous medium.

(ii) KMnO4 in acidic medium.

(iii) Pyridiniumchlorochromate.

(iv)Heat in the presence of Cu at 573K.

(a) (i), (ii) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(b) (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (iv)

Q 15. What is the product of following reaction?

(a) Propan-2-ol (c) Propane-1, 2-diol

(b) Propan-1-ol (d) Prop-1-en-3-ol


Q 16. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?

(a) 1 (c) 3

(b) 2 (d) 4

Q 17.Which of the following compounds is oxidised to butan-2-one?

(a) propan-2-ol (c) butan-2-ol

(b) butan-1-ol (d) pentan-2-ol

Q 18.Which of the following are used to convert RCHO into RCH2OH?

(a) H2/Pd (c) NaBH4

(b) LiAlH4 (d) All of these

Q.19 Match the columns

Column-I Column-II
(A) Methanol (p) Conversion of phenol to Salicylic acid
(B) Kolbe’s reaction (q) Wood spirit
(C) Williamson’s synthesis (r) Heated copper at 573 K
(D) Conversion of 2° alcohol (s) Reaction of alkyl halide to ketone with sodium alkoxide

(a) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p) (b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)

(c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) (d) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s)

Q20.ANALOGY

Solubility of alcohols in water: H-bond: : Reaction of alcohol with sodium : ________________.

(a) Acidic character (c) Boiling point

(b) Vapour pressure (d) Vander Waal forces

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Q 1.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)
Assertion (A): Reaction of alcohols with SOCl2 is catalysed by the presence of tertiary amine.

Reason (R): pyridine promotes the reaction by reacting with the by-product HCl

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Q 2.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)

Assertion (A): Solubility of alcohols decreases with increase in the size of alkyl/aryl groups.

Reason (R): Alcohols form hydrogen bonding with water to show soluble nature.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both A and R are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Q 3.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)

Assertion (A): pentan-2-ol and pentan-3-ol cannot be distinguished by iodoform test.

Reason (R): pentan-2-ol and pentan-3-ol both are secondary alcohols.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both A and R are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Q 4. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)

Assertion (A):In Lucas test,30 alcohols shows turbidity immediately.

Reason (R): An equimolar mixture of anhyd.ZnCl2 and Conc. HCl is called Lucas reagent.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both A and R are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Q 5. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)
Assertion (A): boiling points of alcohols are much higher than those of alkanes, halo alkanes or
ethers of comparable molecular masses.

Reason (R): Strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding exists in Alcohols.

(a) Both A and R are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both A and R are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Q 6. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason(R)

Assertion (A): The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle.

Reason (R): In alcohols –OH group is attached to sp3 hybridised carbon atoms.

(a) Both A and R are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both A and R are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:

CASE 1.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions

Alcohols are some of the most important molecules in organic chemistry. Alcohols contain the
hydroxy functional group (-OH), bonded to a carbon atom of an alkyl or substituted alkyl
group. The electronegativity of oxygen is substantially greater than that of carbon and
hydrogen. Consequently, the covalent bonds of this functional group are polarized so that
oxygen is electron rich and both carbon and hydrogen are electrophilic.

Indeed, the dipolar nature of the O–H bond is such that alcohols are much stronger acids than
alkanes (by roughly 1030 times), and nearly that much stronger than ethers. The most reactive
site in an alcohol molecule is the hydroxyl group, despite the fact that the O–H bond strength is
significantly greater than that of the C–C, C–H and C–O bonds, demonstrating again the
difference between thermodynamic and chemical stability.

Q 1.Which one is more acidic?

(a) C2H6 (c) CH3OCH3

(b) CH4 (d) C2H5-OH

Q 2.The acidic character of alcohols is due to

(a) Capability of forming H-bonding (c) -I effect of alkyl group

(b) Polar nature of O-H bond (d) None of these


Q 3. The acidic strength of alcohols decreases in the following order

(a) 1° > 2° > 3° (c) 2° > 1° > 3o

(b) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) 3° > 1° >2°

ANSWER KEY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. c 6. a 11. c 16. a

2. d 7. a 12. c 17. c

3. b 8. d 13. d 18. d

4. a 9. b 14. d 19. c

5. b 10. a 15. b 20. a

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

1. a 4. b

2. b 5. a

3. d 6. b

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:

1.d

2. b

3. a
MCQ’S

1.

2. An example of a compound with functional group – O – is :


(a) acetic acid (b) methyl alcohol
(c) diethyl ether (d) acetone

3.IUPAC name of the compound

.
(a) 1-methoxy-1-methylethane
(b) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane
(c) 2-methoxypropane
(d) isopropylmethyl ether

4. Which of the following is an example of unsymmetrical ether?


(a) C2H5-O-C2H5 (b) C6H5-O-C6H5
(c) C6H5-O-C2H5 (d) CH3-O-CH3

5. Ether which is liquid at room temperature is


(a) C2H5-O-CH3 (b) CH3-O-CH3
(c) C2H5-O-C2H5 (d) None of these

6. Ether can be used


(a) as a general anaesthetic (c) in perfumery
(b) as a refrigerant (d) all of the above

7. Which of the following compound is soluble in ether?


(a) Oils and fats (b) Water
(c) NaCl (d) PCl5

8. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
(a) dipolar character of ethers
(b) alcohols having resonance structures
(c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
(d) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols

9. Oxygen atom in ether is


(a) very active (b) replaceable
(c) comparatively inert (d) active

10. The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution reactions is


(a) CH3-O-C2H5 (b) C6H5-O-CH3
(c) CH3-O-CH3 (d) C2H5-O-C2H5
11. Which one is formed when sodium phenoxide is heated with ethyl iodide ?
(a) Phenetole (b) Ethyl phenyl alcohol
(c) Phenol (d) None of these

12. Williamson’s synthesis is used to prepare


(a) acetone (b) diethyl ether
(c) P.V.C. (d) bakelite

13. The reaction of sodium ethoxide with ethyl iodide to form diethyl ether is termed
(a) electrophilic substitution (c) electrophilic addition
(b) nucleophilic substitution (d) radical substitution

14. Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson’s synthesis?


(a) Methoxybenzene (c) Methyl tertiary butyl ether
(b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether (d) Di-tert-butyl ether

15. Diethyl ether can be decomposed by heating with


(a) HI (b) NaOH
(c) Water (d) KMnO4

16. The major organic product in the reaction, CH3 — O — CH(CH3)2 + HI ---- Product is
(a) I-CH2-O-CH(CH3)2 (c) CH3I + (CH3)2-CHOH
(b) CH3-O-C(CH3 )2 (d) CH3OH + (CH3)2-CHI

17. An aromatic ether is not cleaved by HI even at 525 K. The


compound is
(a) C6H5-O-CH3 (b) C6H5-O-C6H5
(c) C6H5-O-C3H7 (d) Tetrahydrofuran

18. When 2-methoxypropane is heated with HI, in the mole ratio 1 : 1, the major products
formed are
(a) methanol and 2-iodopropane (c) methyl iodide and 2-iodopropane
(b) methyl iodide and 2-propanol (d) methanol and 2-propanol

ANSWERS

1 b 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 c
6 d 7 a 8 d 9 c 10 b
11 a 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 a
16 c 17 b 18 b

Class XII Chemistry


Phenol
Introduction: The replacement of hydrogen atom(s) in an aromatic hydrocarbon by -OH
group results in the formation of Phenols. e.g C6H5OH
Classification of Phenols:

Phenols may be classified as mono–, di–, tri- or polyhydric compounds depending on whether
they contain one, two, three or many hydroxyl groups respectively.

Structures of Functional Groups:

In phenols, the –OH group is attached to sp2 hybridised carbon of an aromatic ring.

The carbon– oxygen bond length (136 pm) in phenol is slightly less than that in methanol
(142 pm).

This is due to

(i) Partial double bond character because of resonance and

(ii) Sp2 hybridised state of carbon to which oxygen is attached.

Nomenclature of Phenols:

The simplest hydroxyl derivative of benzene is phenol. It is its common name and IUPAC
name.

For disubstituted compounds the terms ortho (1,2- disubstituted), meta (1,3 disubstituted)
and para (1,4-disubstituted) are often used in the common names.
Preparation of Phenols:

Phenol, also known as carbolic acid, was first isolated in the early nineteenth century from
coal tar.

(1)From haloarenes-

Chloro benzene is fused with NaOH at 623K and 320 atmospheric pressure to give sodium
phenoxide.

Phenol is obtained by acidification of sodium phenoxide.

(2) From benzenesulphonic acid-

Benzene is sulphonated with oleum to give benzene sulphonic acid.

Benzene sulphonic acid converted to sodium phenoxide on heating with molten sodium
hydroxide.

Acidification of the sodium salt gives phenol.

(3)From diazonium salts: A diazonium salt is formed by treating an aromatic primary amine
with nitrous acid (NaNO2 + HCl) at 273-278 K. Diazonium salts are hydrolysed to phenols by
warming with water or by treating with dilute acids.

(4)From cumene-

Phenol is manufactured from the hydrocarbon, cumene.Cumene (isopropylbenzene) is


oxidised in the presence of air to cumene hydroperoxide. It is converted to phenol and
acetone by treating it with dilute acid.
Physical Properties of Phenols:

(1) Boiling Point: The boiling points of phenols increase with increase in the number of
carbon atoms (increase in van der Waals forces).

The –OH group in phenols is involved in intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Due to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding, boiling points of phenols are higher
in comparison to other classes of compounds, namely hydrocarbons, ethers, haloalkanes and
haloarenes of comparable molecular masses.

(3) Solubility:Solubility of alcohols and phenols in water is due to their ability to form
hydrogen bonds with water molecules. The solubility decreases with increase in size of
alkyl/aryl (hydrophobic) groups.

Chemical Reactions of Phenols:

(1) Reactions involving cleavage of O–H bond:

(a) Acidity of phenols:

(i) Reaction with metals: Phenols react with active metals such as sodium, potassium and
aluminium to yield corresponding phenoxides and hydrogen.

Phenols react with aqueous sodium hydroxide to form sodium phenoxides.

These reactions show that phenols are acidic in nature.


(ii) Acidity of phenols: The reactions of phenol with metals (e.g., sodium, aluminium) and
sodium hydroxide indicate its acidic nature.

The reaction of phenol with aqueous sodium hydroxide indicates that phenols are stronger
acids than alcohols and water.

Reasons:- Three reasons are there:

(i)The hydroxyl group, in phenol is directly attached to the sp2 hybridized.The sp2 carbon is
more electronegative hence O-H bond in phenols is more polar.It results in an increase in
ionisation of phenols than that of alcohols.

(ii)Due to resonance in phenols the oxygen of –OH group acquires positive charge, which
results in more polarity of O-H bond.

(iii)Phenoxide ion formed after ionization is stable due to resonance( Delocalization of


negative charge). While no resonance in alkoxide ion.

Although there is also charge delocalization in phenol, its resonance structures have charge
separation due to which the phenol molecule is less stable than phenoxide ion.

Effect of substituents on acid strength of phenols:

In substituted phenols, the presence of electron withdrawing groups (-I effect) such as nitro
group, enhances the acidic strength of phenol.This effect is more pronounced when such a
group is present at ortho and para positions.It is due to the effective delocalization of negative
charge in phenoxide ion when substituent is at ortho or para position.

On the other hand, electron releasing groups,(+I effect) such as alkyl groups do not favour the
formation of phenoxide ion resulting in decrease in acid strength.

For example: increasing order of acidic strength:


At a given temperature T, Ka is a measure of the strength of the acid i.e., larger the value of Ka,
the stronger is the acid.

pKa=−logKa

larger the value of Ka,smaller the value of pKa, the stronger is the acid.

(b) Esterification:

Alcohols and phenols react with carboxylic acids, acid chlorides and acid anhydrides to form
esters.

The reaction with carboxylic acid and acid anhydride is carried out in the presence of a small
amount of concentrated sulphuric acid. The reaction is reversible, therefore, water is
removed as soon as it is formed.

The reaction with acid chloride is carried out in the presence of a base (pyridine) so as to
neutralise HCl which is formed during the reaction. It shifts the equilibrium to the right hand
side.

Acetylation:

The introduction of acetyl (CH3CO) group in phenols is known as acetylation.Acetylation of


salicylic acid produces aspirin.
Aspirin is used for pain relief (analgesic) and to bring down a high temperature of body
(antipyretic).

(2) Electrophilic aromatic substitution on aromatic ring of Phenol:

-OH group is activating and ortho and para directing.Due to resonance electron density is
more at o- and p- position, hence, electrophile is directed to ortho and para position.

(i) Nitration:

(a)With dilute nitric acid at low temperature (298 K), phenol yields a mixture of ortho and
para nitrophenols.

The ortho and para isomers can be separated by steam distillation.

o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding while p-nitrophenol


is less volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding which causes the association of
molecules.

(b)With concentrated nitric acid, phenol is converted to 2,4,6-trinitrophenol.The product is


commonly known as picric acid.
(ii) Halogenation:

On treating phenol with bromine, different reaction products are formed under different
experimental conditions.

(a) When the reaction is carried out in solvents of low polarity such as CHCl3or CS2 and at low
temperature, monobromophenols are formed.

The usual halogenation of benzene takes place in the presence of a Lewis acid, such as FeBr3,
which polarises the halogen molecule.

In case of phenol, the polarisation of bromine molecule takes place even in the absence of
Lewis acid.

It is due to the highly activating effect of –OH group attached to the benzene ring.

(bWhen phenol is treated with bromine water, 2,4,6-tribromophenol is formed as white


precipitate.

(4) Kolbe’s reaction:

Sodium phenoxide undergoes electrophilic substitution with carbon dioxide, a weak


electrophile.

Ortho hydroxybenzoic acid is formed as the main reaction product.

(5) Reimer-Tiemann reaction:

On treating phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide, a –CHO group is
introduced at ortho position of benzene ring.This reaction is known as Reimer - Tiemann
reaction.The intermediate substituted benzal chloride is hydrolysed in the presence of alkali
to produce salicylaldehyde.
(5) Reaction of phenol with zinc dust:

(6) Oxidation:

Oxidation of phenol with chromic acid produces a conjugated diketone known as


benzoquinone.

Phenol
MCQ
1. Benzene Diazonium chloride is hydrolysed to ________ by warming with water.
(a) Aniline (b) Chlorobenzene
(c) P-hydoxy diazobenzene (d) Phenol
2. When phenol is treated with conc. Nitric acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4, the products
is
(a) p- nitrophenol (b) m- nitrophenol
(c) Picric acid (d) o- nitrophenol
3. When phenol react with NaOH and CO2 followed by acidic hydrolysis gives…………. ?
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylic acid
(c) cinnamic acid (d) Picric acid
4. Phenol on distillation with zinc dust gives
(a) Benzene (b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Benzophenone (d) Benzoic acid
5. Oxidation of phenol with chromic acid produces ____________.
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Benzene
( c) Benzoquinone ( d) Picric acid
6. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their acid strength:
Propan-1-ol, 2,4,6- trinitrophenol, 3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol, phenol, 4-methylphenol.
(a) 4-methylphenol, phenol, , 3,5-dinitrophenol, 2,4, 6-trinitrophenol, Propan-1-ol, 3-
nitrophenol
( b) phenol, 3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol, 2,4, 6-trinitrophenol, Propan-1-ol, 4-
methylphenol
(c) 4-methylphenol, phenol, 3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol, 2,4, 6-trinitrophenol, Propan-1-
ol
(d) Propan-1-ol, 4-methylphenol, phenol, 3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol, 2,4, 6-
trinitrophenol.
7. The highest PKa value compound in following is
(a) p-Nitrophenol ( b) Phenol
(c) o-Cresol (d) m-Nitrophenol
8. Cumene (isopropylbenzene) is oxidised in the presence of air to cumene hydroperoxide. It
is converted to ___________by treating it with dilute acid.
(a) phenol and acetone (b) Only Phenol
(c) Phenol and Water (d) Only acetone
9. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic
acid ?
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Aqueous NaOH
(c) Neutral FeCI3 (d) Molisch reagent
10. The intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in
(a) phenol (b) p- cresol
(c) o-nitrophenol (d) p-nitrophenol
11.What product is formed when phenol is treared with CHCI3 and NaOH ?
(a)3-Hydroxybenzaldehyde (b)2- Hydroxybenzoic acid
(c)3- Hydroxybenzoic acid (d) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
12 . Phenol reacts with bromine in CS2 at low temperature to give
( a) m-bromophenol ( b) o-and p-bromophenol
( c) p-bromophenol (d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
13. On treating phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide, a –CHO group is
introduced at ortho position of benzene ring. This reaction is known as
( a) Reimer - Tiemann reaction. (b) Kolbe’s reaction
( c) Williamson synthesis (d) Etard reaction
14. While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the
isomer/s which will be steam volatile
(a) ortho and para nitrophenol (b) ortho nitrophenol
(c) para nitrophenol (d) first para nitrophenol then ortho nitro phenol
steam volatile
15. Phenol is often termed benzenol and what other common organic chemical name?
(a) Carbolic acid (b) Acetic acid
(c) Carboxlic acid (d) Benzoic acid
16.Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride(1-chloro propane) to form P ,P reactes with O2
followed by acidic hydrolysis gives Q and R. Idenitfy P,Q and R?
(a)P= n-propyl benzene Q= benzaldehyde R= ethanol
(b) P= propyl benzene Q= benzaldehyde R= benzoic acid
(c) P= isopropylbenzene Q=phenol R=isopropyl alcohol
(d) P=isopropylbenzene Q=phenol R=acetone
17.Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally
introduces which one of the following functional group?
(a) –COOH (b) –CHCI2
(c) –CHO (d)-CH2CI
18.Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?
(a) C6H5OH (b) C6H5CH2OH
(c) (CH3)3 COH (d) C2H5OH
19.Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction easily due to :
(a) acidic nature of phenol
(b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond
(c) partial double bond character of C-C bond
(d)instability of phenoxide ion
20.IUPAC name of m-cresol is
(a) 3-methylphenol (b)3-chlorophenol
(d)3-methoxyphenol (d)benzene 1,3-diol

(ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS)


21. Assertion: The presence of electron withdrawing groups such as nitro group, enhances the
acidic strength of phenol. This effect is more pronounced when such a group is present at
ortho and para positions.
Reason: There is effective delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
22. Assertion: The –OH group attached to the benzene ring activates it towards electrophilic
substitution. Also, it directs the incoming group to ortho and para positions in the ring.
Reason: ortho and para positions become electron rich due to the resonance effect caused by
–OH group.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
23. Assertion: ortho and para nitrophenols can be separated by steam distillation.
Reason : o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding while p-
nitrophenol is less volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
24. Assertion: Phenol forms2,4,6-tribromophenol on treatment with Br2 in CS2 at 273K.
Reason :Bromine does not polarizes in CS2.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
25. Assertion: Ortho – nitrophenol is less acidic than Ortho – methoxyphenol.
Reason : Nitro group is electron withdrawing & – OCH3 group is electron releasing group.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
26. Assertion : Phenol does not undergo protonation easily.
Reason : In phenols, the lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom are delocalized over the
benzene ring due to resonance.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
27. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution
reaction. Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more resonance
stabilized.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
28. Assertion : In case of phenol, bromination takes place even in absence of Lewis acid
whereas bromination of benzene takes place in presence of Lewis acid like FeBr3.
Reason : – OH group attached to benzene ring is highly deactivating.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
SECTION C
29.Match the column l with items of column ll
Column l Column ll
(A)Reagent used for detection of phenolic (i)phenol
group
(B)Starting material for picric acid (ii) conversion of phenol to salicylic acid

(C)Kolbe’s reaction (iii)Neutral ferric chloride

(D)Riemer –Tiemann reaction (iv)conversion of phenol to salicylaldehyde

A-iii B-i C-iv D-iiA-iii B-i C-ii D-iv


A-i B-iii C-ii D-iv A-iii B-ii C-i D-iv
30.Which of the following analogies is incorrect:
(a) Steam volatile :o-nitrophenol:: intermolecular hydrogen bonding: p-nitrophenol
(b)Phenol: carbolic acid::2-hydroxy benzoic acid : salicylic acid
(c)Cumene : isopropyl benzene :: phenol : hydroxy benzene
(d)Phenol : electrophilic substitution reaction:: ethanol: nucleophilic addition reaction
CASE 1: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions(31-33)
The facility with which the aromatic ring of phenols and phenol ethers undergoes
electrophilic substitution has been noted. Two examples are shown in the following diagram.
The first shows the Friedel-Crafts synthesis of the food preservative BHT from para-cresol.
The second reaction is interesting in that it further demonstrates the delocalization of charge
that occurs in the phenolate anion. Carbon dioxide is a weak electrophile and normally does
not react with aromatic compounds; however, the negative charge concentration on the
phenolate ring enables the carboxylation reaction shown in the second step. The sodium salt
of salicylic acid is the major product, and the preference for ortho substitution may reflect the
influence of the sodium cation. This is called the Kolbe-Schmidt reaction, and it has served in
the preparation of aspirin, as the last step illustrates.
(https://chem.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/Organic_Chemistry/Organic_Chemistry_(McMurry
)/17%3A_Alcohols_and_Phenols/17.10%3A_Reactions_of_Phenols)
31. IUPAC name of salicylic acid
(a) o-Hydroxybenzoic acid (b) p- Hydroxybenzoic acid
(c)2- Hydroxybenzoic acid (d)3- Hydroxybenzoic acid
32.Salicylic acid heated with acetic anhydride to form a compound which is very useful drug
which lower the body temperature as well as use to prevent heart attack. What is the name of
compound?
(a)3-Acetyl Salicylic acid (b) 2-Acetyl Salicylic acid
(c)2-Acetoxybenzoic acid (d) 3-Acetoxybenzoic acid
33.Salicylic acid heated with acetic anhydride to form a compound. In this reaction which
bond is cleavage in Salicylic acid?
(a)O-H bond of -COOH group (b) O-O bond of -COOH group
(c) C-O bond of benzene ring and phenolic group (d) O-H bond of phenolic group

ANSWER
1. (d) Phenol
2. (c) Picric acid
3. (b) Salicylic acid
4. (a) Benzene
5. ( c) Benzoquinone
6. (d) Propan-1-ol, 4-methylphenol, phenol, 3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol, 2,4, 6-
trinitrophenol.
7. (c) o-Cresol
8. (a) phenol and acetone
9. (c) Neutral FeCI3
10. (c) o-nitrophenol
11. (d)2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
12. ( b) o-and p-bromophenol
13. ( a) Reimer - Tiemann reaction.
14. (b) ortho nitrophenol
15. (a) Carbolic acid
16. (d) P=isopropylbenzene Q=phenol R=acetone
17. (c) –CHO
18. (a) C6H5OH
19. (b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond
20. (a) 3-methylphenol
21. (a)
22. (a)
23. (c)
24. (d)
25. (d)
26. (a)
27. (a)
28. (c)
29. (b)
30. (d)Phenol : electrophilic substitution reaction:: ethanol: nucleophilic addition reaction
31. (c)2- Hydroxybenzoic acid
32. (c)2-Acetoxybenzoic acid
33. (d) O-H bond of phenolic group

ETHERS
Preparation of ethers

1. Williamson’s synthesis :In this method an alkyl halide (Better results are obtained if
the alkyl halide is primary) reacts with a sodium alkoxide to form symmetrical or
unsymmetrical ethers.

Limitation In case ofsecondary and tertiary alkyl halides, elimination competes


oversubstitution. If a tertiary alkyl halide is used, an alkene is the onlyreaction product and no
ether is formed. For example, the reaction ofCH3ONa with (CH3)3C–Br gives exclusively 2-
methylpropene.It is because alkoxides are not only nucleophiles but strong basesas well. They
react with alkyl halides leading to elimination reactions.

2. Dehydration of alcohols to give ethers

Mechanism for the acidic Dehydration of alcohols to give ethers

Mechanism
Chemical Properties of Ethers:

1. Reaction of Ethers with hydrogen halides.(HX)


● Order of reactivity of hydrogen halides is as follows: HI > HBr > HCl
● The reaction of dialkyl ether gives two alkyl halide molecules.

● Ethers with two different alkyl groups:


● When primary or secondary alkyl groups are present, it is the lower alkyl group that

forms alkyl iodide (SN2 reaction).


● When one of the alkyl group is a tertiary group, the halide formed is a tertiary halide.

● Alkyl aryl ethers are cleaved at the alkyl-oxygen bond due to the more stable aryl-
oxygen bond. The reaction yields phenol and alkyl halide.

When HI is in excess and the reaction is carried out at high temperature, ethanol reacts with
another molecule of HI and is converted to ethyl iodide.

● Mechanism for the reaction of HI on Ethoxymethane

2. Electrophilic substitution in Alkyl aryl ethers (Anisole)


(i) Halogenation

(ii) Nitration:

(iii) Friedel crafts alkylation in anisole:

(iii) Friedel crafts acetlyation in anisole

ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS


Directions :Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of
these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

1. Assertion :Ethyl phenyl ether on reaction with HI form phenol and ethyl Iodide.
Reason :Cleavage of C–O bond takes place on ethyl- oxygen bond due to the more stable
phenyl-oxygen bond.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
2. Assertion :With HI at 373 K, ter-butyl methyl ether gives
ter-butyl iodide and methanol.
Reason :The reaction occurs by SN2 mechanism.

(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
3. Assertion :With HI, anisole gives iodobenzene and methyl alcohol.
Reason :Iodide ion combines with smaller group to avoid steric hindrance.

(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

4. Assertion :Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.


Reason :Due to the presence of lone pairs of electrons on oxygen.

(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

5. Assertion :ter- Butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the reaction of ter-butyl bromide
with sodium methoxide.
Reason :Sodium methoxide is a strong nucleophile.

(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

6. Assertion : Both symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers can be prepared by Williamson’s


synthesis.
Reason : Williamson’s synthesis is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction.

(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

ANSWERS
1 c 2 c 3 d 4 a 5 b
6 b
COLUMN MATCHING QUESTION

Q.1 Match the items of column I with items of column II.

COLUMN I COLUMN II
1 ETHANOL ----H2SO4,443K A C2H5O C2H5
2 ETHANOL ----H2SO4,413K B CH2=CH2
3 R-X + R-O- Na+ -- C p-bromoanisole
4 ANISOLE ----Br2 in ethanoic acid-> D R-O-R / Alkene
E R-O-R
ANSWER

1 B
2 A
3 D
4 C

ANALOGY BASED QUESTIONS

Q.1 CH3-O-CH3 : CH3CH2OH :: C2H5-O-C2H5 : X


A) X = CH3CH2CH2CH2-OH C) X = CH3CH2-OH
B) X = CH3CH2CH2-OH D) X = CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2-OH
Q.2 CH3-O-CH3 : Methoxy methane :: C3H7-O-CH3 : Y

A) Y = Ethoxy Propane C) Y = Ethoxy Butane


B) Y = Metoxy Propane D) Y = Methoxy Propane
ANSWERS

1 A 2 D

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Read the passage give below and answer the following Questions.

Cirrhosis is a late stage result of liver disease & it’s complications. Person may not have
symptoms in the beginning stages of the disease.common causes include excess intake of A.

A form two different products one is Alkene and another is B.Alkene form when Areact with
sulphuric acid at 443 K Temperature whereas B form when A react with sulphuric acid at 413
K Temperature. In both reactions dehydration takes place but in different manner. During the
formation of B SN2 Mechanism takes place.

Q.1 Which products will form when Butanol react with sulphuric acid at 443 K & 413 K
Temperature respectively-

a) butane & C2H5-O-C2H5 c) C3H7-O-C3H7& butene

b) butane & C3H7-O-C3H7 d) butene & C3H7-O-C3H7

Q.2 tertiary alcohols rarely forms ethers when they react with sulphuric acid-

a) In tertiary protonated alcohols nucleophic attack of alcohol is easy.

b) In tertiary protonated alcohols nucleophic attack of alcohol is very difficult.


c) tertiary carbocation is more stable.

d) tertiary carbocation is least stable.

Q.3 What are A & B in above paragraph respectively-

a) Ethanol, Dimethyl ether c) Diethyl ether , Ethanol

b) Butanol, Dimethyl ether d) Ethanol , Ethoxy ethane

ANSWERS

1 d 2 b 3 d

MCQ’S FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

Q.1 Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by reacting

(a) Phenolate ions and methyl iodide (c) Methanol and phenol

(b) Methoxide ions and bromobenzene (d) Bromo benzene and methyl bromide

Q.2 In which case methyl-t-butyl ether is formed

(a) (C2H5)3CO -Na+ + CH3Cl ?

(b) (CH3)3CO -Na+ + CH3Cl ?

(c) (CH3)3CO -Na+ + C2H5Cl ?

(d) (CH3)3CO -Na+ + CH3Cl ?

Q.3 CH 3-O-C3H7 and C2H5-O-C2H5

Exhibit which type of isomerism

(a) Metamerism (c) Chain

(b) Position (d) Functional

Q.4 When ether is exposed in air for sometime an explosive substance produced is -

(a) Peroxide (c) Oxide

(b) TNT (d) Superoxide

Q.5 Dimethyl ether and ethyl alcohol are

(a) Branched isomer (c) Functional isomer

(b) Position isomer (d) Tautomer


Q.6 Epoxides are

(a) Cyclic ethers (c) Aryl-alkyl ethers

(b) Not ethers (d) Ethers with another functional group

Q.7 Diethyl ether finds use in medicine as

(a) A pain killer (c) An antiseptic

(b) A hypnotic (d) An anaesthetic

Q.8 Diethyl ether absorbs oxygen to form

(a) Red coloured sweet smelling compound (c) Ether suboxide

(b) Acetic acid (d) Ether peroxide

Q.9 Name of (CH3)2- HC -O -CH 2-CH 2-CH3 is

(a) Isopropyl propyl ether (c) Di-isopropyl ether

(b) Dipropyl ether (d) Isopropyl propyl ketone

Q.10 Ether which is liquid at room temperature is

(a) C2H5OCH3 (c) C2H5OC2H5

(b) CH3OCH3 (d) None of these

ANSWERS-

1 a 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 c

6 a 7 d 8 d 9 a 10 c

CHAPTER – 14- BIOMOLECULES


CARBOHYDRATES
INTRODUCTION:
Complex organic compound which governs the common activities of the living organism are
called biomolecules .Living system are madeup of various complex molecules like
carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acid, lipids, etc. Some simple molecules like vitamins,
minerals also play an important role in the function of organisms.
“Carbohydrates are optically active polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketones or the
compounds which produce such units on hydrolysis.”
Classification of carbhohydrates:
Carbohydrates are classified on the basis of their behaviour on hydrolysis. They have been
broadly divided into following three groups-
Monosaccharides:
 A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further to give simpler unit of polyhydroxy
aldehyde or ketone is called a monosaccharide. Ex: glucose, fructose, ribose etc
 Monosaccharides are further classified on the basis of number of carbon atoms and the
functional group present in them.
 If a monosaccharide contains an aldehyde group, it is known as an aldose.
 If it contains a keto group, it is known as a ketose.
Oligosaccharides:
 Carbohydrates which give 2 to 10 monosaccharide units on hydrolysis.
 Their general formula (C6H10O5)n (n=2 to 10)
 They are further classified as-
Disaccharides- Sucrose, Maltose ,lactose etc. (C12H22O11)
Tri saccharides – (Raffinose) (C18H32O16)
Tetra saccharides (Stachyose) (C24H42O21)
 Amongst these the most common are disaccharides. The two monosaccharide units obtained
on hydrolysis of a disaccharide may be same or different.
 For example:
Sucrose= Glucose + Fructose
Maltose = Glucose + glucose
Lactose = Glucose + galactose
Polysaccharides:
 Carbohydrates which yield a large number of monosaccharide units on hydrolysis are
called polysaccharides.
 Some common examples are starch, cellulose, glycogen, gums, etc. Polysaccharides are
not sweet in taste, hence they are also called non-sugars.
 The carbohydrates may also be classified as either reducing or non reducing sugars. All
those carbohydrates which reduce Fehling’s solution and Tollens’ reagent are referred to as
reducing sugars. All monosaccharides whether aldose or ketose are reducing sugars.
 Carbohydrates which do not reduce Fehling’s or Tollen’s reagent are referred to as non
reducing sugar. They do not have free aldehydic or ketonic functional group , e.g., sucrose
and all polysaccharides.
Glucose
Preparation of Glucose
1. From sucrose (Cane sugar): If sucrose is boiled with dilute HCl or H2SO4 in alcoholic
solution, glucose and fructose are obtained in equal amounts.

2. From starch: Commercially glucose is obtained by hydrolysis of starch by boiling it with


dilute H2SO4 at 393 K under pressure.
This method is an industrial method.
Structure of glucose
 Glucose is an aldohexose and is also known as dextrose.
 It is the monomer of many of the larger carbohydrates, namely
starch, cellulose. It is probably the most abundant organic
compound on earth.
. Its molecular formula was found to be C6H12O6.

 It was assigned the structure given below on the basis of the following evidences:
1. On prolonged heating with HI, it forms n-hexane, suggesting that all the six carbon
atoms are linked in a straight chain.

2.Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime and adds a molecule of hydrogen
cyanide to give cyanohydrin. These reactions confirm the presence of a carbonyl group (>C =
O) in glucose.

3. Glucose gets oxidised to six carbon carboxylic acid (gluconic acid) on reaction with a mild
oxidising agent like bromine water. This indicates that the carbonyl group is present as an
aldehydic group

4.Acetylation of glucose with acetic anhydride gives glucose pentaacetate which confirms the
presence of five –OH groups. Since it exists as a stable compound, five –OH groups should be
attached to different carbon atoms.

5. On oxidation with nitric acid, glucose as well as gluconic acid both yield a dicarboxylic acid,
saccharic acid. This indicates the presence of a primary alcoholic (–OH) group in glucose.
Configuration in monosaccharides:
For assigning the configuration of monosaccharides it is the lowest asymmetric carbon atom
(as shown below) which is compared by the reference stereoisomer compound
glyceraldehyde.
If –OH is on the lowest carbon atom is on the right side called (+) Glucose and assigned D
configuration.

Here D represents the configuration whereas (+) represents dextrorotatory nature of


molecule.

Open chain structure of glucose could not explain the following. So it was proposed that, it
form a cyclic hemiacetal structure ,
The following reactions and facts can be explained by this structure.
1. Despite having the aldehyde group, glucose does not give Schiff’s test and it does not form
the hydrogensulphite addition product with NaHSO3.
2. The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine indicating the absence of
free —CHO group.
3.Glucose is found to exist in two different forms: α - form and β – form. They differ in optical
rotation (+1110 and +19.20 resp.), they also differ in melting point.
 The α-form of glucose (m.p. 419 K) is obtained by crystallisation from concentrated
solution of Glucose glucose at 303 K while the β-form (m.p. 423 K) is obtained by
crystallisation from hot and saturated aqueous solution at 371 K.
Anomers of Glucose: The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose differ only in the
configuration of the hydroxyl group at C1, called anomeric carbon (the aldehyde carbon
before cyclisation). Such isomers, i.e., α-form and β-form, are called anomers.
Pyranose structure of Glucose: The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called
pyranose structure (α– or β–), in analogy with pyran. Pyran is a cyclic organic compound with
one oxygen atom and five carbon atoms in the ring. The cyclic structure of glucose is more
correctly represented by Haworth structure as given below

FRUCTOSE:
 Molecular formula is C6H12O6
 Ketonic group is present at C-2, known as
ketohexose.
 Belongs to D series but a laevorotatory compound
 It is appropriately written as D-(–)-fructose

 It also exists in two cyclic forms which are obtained by the addition of —OH at C5 to the
(C=O) group. The ring, thus formed is a five membered ring and is named as furanose with
analogy to the compound furan. Furan is a five membered cyclic compound with one
oxygen and four carbon atoms.

The cyclic structures of two anomers of fructose are represented by Haworth structures:
Topic-Protein : -AMINO ACIDS
• Amino acids contain amino (–NH2) and carboxyl (–COOH) functional groups.

• Depending upon the relative position of amino group with respect to carboxyl group, the
amino acids can be classified as , , , , and so on.
• Only a-amino acids are obtained on hydrolysis of proteins.
• They may contain other functional groups also.
• All amino acids have trivial names, which usually reflect the property of that
compound or its source.
• Glycine is so named since it has sweet taste (in Greek glykos means sweet) and tyrosine
was first obtained from cheese (in Greek, tyros means cheese.)
• Amino acids are generally represented by a three letter symbol, sometimes one letter
symbol is also used.
Classification of Amino Acids
 Amino acids are classified asacidic, basic or neutral depending upon the relative number
of amino and carboxyl groups in their molecule.
 Neutral Amino acids:-Equal number of amino and carboxyl;
 Basic Amino acids :-more number of amino than carboxyl groups
 Acidic Amino acids:- more carboxyl groups as compared to amino groups.
 Non-essential Amino acids:- The amino acids, which can be synthesized in the body, are
known as non-essential amino acids. E.g.Glycine, Alanine
 Essential Amino acids:-The amino acids which cannot be synthesized in the body and
must be obtained through diet, are known as essential amino acids. E.g. Valine, Leucine
Properties of Amino Acids
• Amino acids are usually colorless, crystalline solids.
• These are water-soluble, high melting solids and behave like salts rather than simple
amines or carboxylic acids.
• This behavior is due to the presence of both acidic (carboxyl group) and basic (amino
group) groups in the same molecule.
• In aqueous solution, the carboxyl group can lose a proton and amino group can
accept a proton, giving rise to a dipolar ion known as zwitter ion.
This is neutral but contains both positive and negative charges.

• In zwitter ionic form, amino acids show amphoteric behavior as they react both with acids
and bases.
• Except glycine, all other naturally occurring a-amino acids are optically active, since
the a-carbon atom is asymmetric.
• These exist both in ‘D’ and ‘L’ forms.
• Most naturally occurring amino acids have L-configuration.
• L-Amino acids are represented by writing the –NH2 group on left hand side

Peptide Bond or Peptide Linkage


• Peptide linkage is an amide formed between –COOH group and –NH2 group of two
molecules of similar or different amino acids by the elimination of a water molecule
resulting in formation of –CO–NH– bond.
• If two amino acids link via peptide linkage a dipeptide is formed.

• Proteins are the most abundant biomolecules of the living system.


• Chief sources of proteins are milk, cheese, pulses, peanuts, fish, meat, etc.
• They occur in every part of the body and form the fundamental basis of structure and
functions of life.
• They are also required for growth and maintenance of body.
The word protein is derived from Greek word, “proteios” which means primary or of prime
importance.
• All proteins are polymers of α-amino acids.
• Classification of Proteins
Proteins can be classified into two types on the basis of their molecular shape.

(a) Fibrous proteins


• When the polypeptide chains run parallel and are held together by hydrogen and
disulphide bonds, then fibre– like structure is formed.
• Such proteins are generally insoluble in water.
• Examples are keratin (present in hair, wool, silk) and myosin (present in muscles), etc.

(b) Globular proteins


• This structure results when the chains of polypeptides coil around to give a spherical
shape.
• These are usually soluble in water.
• Examples are Insulin and albumins.

Structure of proteins

(i) Primary structure of proteins:


• Specific sequence of amino acids in each polypeptide in a protein is said to be the primary
structure of that protein.
• Any change in this primary structure i.e., the sequence of amino acids creates a different
protein.

ii) Secondary structure of proteins:


• The secondary structure of protein refers to the shape in which a long polypeptide chain can
exist.
• They are found to exist in two different types of structures viz. a-helix and b-pleated sheet
structure.
• These structures arise due to the regular folding of the backbone of the polypeptide chain due

• to hydrogen bonding between and –NH– groups of the peptide bond.


• -Helix structure β-pleated sheet structure
• It a polypeptide chain forms all possible In b-pleated sheet structure all peptide chains are
hydrogen bonds by twisting into a right stretched out to nearly maximum extension and
handed screw (helix) with the –NH group then laid side by side which are held together by
of each amino acid residue hydrogen intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
The structure resembles the pleated folds of
bonded to the of an adjacent drapery and therefore is known as b-pleated sheet.
turn of the helix

iii) Tertiary structure of proteins:
 The tertiary structure of proteins represents overall folding of the polypeptide chains
i.e., further folding of the secondary structure.
 It gives rise to two major molecular shapes viz. fibrous and globular.
 The main forces which stabilise the 2° and 3° structures of proteins are hydrogen
bonds, disulphide linkages, van der Waals and electrostatic forces of attraction.

(iv) Quaternary structure of proteins:


 Some of the proteins are composed of two or more polypeptide chains referred to as
sub-units.
 The spatial arrangement of these subunits with respect to each other is known as
quaternary structure.
Diagrammatic representation of protein structure :-

Denaturation of Proteins
 Protein found in a biological system with a unique three-dimensional structure and
biological activity is called a native protein.
 When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical change like change in
temperature or chemical change like change in pH, the hydrogen bonds are disturbed. Due
to this, protein loses its biological activity. This is called denaturation of protein.
 During denaturation secondary and tertiary structures are destroyed but primary
structure remains intact.
Example:-The coagulation of egg white on boiling , curdling of milk

NUCLEIC ACIDS
Nucleus of a living cell is responsible for this transmission of inherent characters, also called
heredity. The particles in nucleus of the cell, responsible for heredity, are called chromosomes
which are made up of proteins and another type of biomolecules called nucleic acids. These
are mainly of two types, the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid(RNA).
Since nucleic acids are long chain polymers of nucleotides, so they are also called
polynucleotides
DNA (DEOXYRIBOSE NUCLEIC ACIDS) & RNA (RIBOSE NUCLEIC ACIDS)
DNA RNA
It contains β-D-2-deoxyribose sugar. It Contains β-D-ribose sugar.
It Contains adenine (A), guanine (G), It Contains adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C),
cytosine (C) and thymine (T) as bases. uracil (U). as bases
It has double helix structure It has single helix structure
It Can replicate It Cannot replicate
It is responsible for inheritance of It is responsible for protein synthesis.
character
It is present in the nucleus cell. It is present in the cytoplasm of the cell.
STRUCTURE OF NUCLEIC ACIDS
 Complete hydrolysis of DNA (or RNA) yields a pentose sugar, phosphoric acid and
nitrogen containing heterocyclic compounds (called bases).
Pentose sugar (5-Carbon)-Ribose Nitrogenous base
NUCLEOSIDES NUCLEOTIDES
A unit formed by the attachment of a base to When nucleoside is linked to phosphoric acid at
1’position of sugar is known as nucleoside 5′-position of sugar moiety, we get a nucleotide.
Base + Sugar  Nucleosides Base + Sugar + phosphoric acid
Nucleotides.

PRIMARY STRUCTURE OF A NUCLEIC ACID: The sequence of nucleotides in the chain of a


nucleic acid is called primary structure. Nucleotides are joined together by phosphodiester
linkage between 5’ and 3’ carbon atoms of the pentose sugar.
SECONDARY STRUCTURE OF A NUCLEIC ACID:
 James Watson and Francis Crick gave a double strand helix structure for DNA .Two nucleic
acid chains are wound about each other and held together by hydrogen bonds between
pairs of bases. The two strands are complementary to each other because the hydrogen
bonds are formed between specific pairs of bases. Adenine forms hydrogen bonds with
thymine whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine.
 In secondary structure of RNA, helices are present which areonly single stranded.
Sometimes they fold back on themselves toform a double helix structure. RNA molecules
are of three typesand they perform different functions.
DIFFERENT TYPES OF RNA:
RNA molecules are of three typesand they perform different functions. They are named as
messengerRNA (m-RNA), ribosomal RNA (r-RNA) and transfer RNA(t-RNA).
STRUCTURE OF DNA AND RNA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:


1. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
a) Glucose c) Cellulose
b) Fructose d) Ribose
2. Which one of the following is the sweetest carbohydrate?
a) Glucose c) Maltose
b) Fructose d) Sucrose
3. Glucose reacts with bromine water to give _____________.
a) Gluconic acid c) Aspartic acid
b) Saccharic acid d) Glutamic acid
4. Furanose ring is found in which one of the following naturally occurring
carbohydrates?
a) Galactose unit of lactose c) Glucose unit of cellulose
b) Glucose unit of starch d) Fructose unit of cane sugar
5. Which of the following is/are true?
(i) Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
(ii) Glucose is oxidized by bromine water.
(iii) Glucose rotates plane polarized light in clockwise direction.
(iv) Fructose is oxidized by bromine water.
Select the correct answer:
a) (i), (ii), (iii) c) (i), (iii) only
b) (i), (ii) only d) (i), (iv) only
6. All monosaccharides ____________ Tollen’s reagent.
a) Oxidise c) Reduce
b) Condense with d) Add to
7. Which set of terms correctly identifies the carbohydrate shown?

(i)Pentose (ii) Hexose (iii) Aldose (iv) Ketose (v) Pyranose (vi) Furanose
a) (i), (iii), (vi) c) (ii), (iii), (v)
b) (i), (iii), (v) d) (ii), (iv), (vi)
8. In the following structure, anomeric carbon is

a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d)4
9. Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic
structure?
a) Glucose forms pentaacetate.
b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime.
c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine.
d) Glucose is oxidised by bromine water to gluconic acid.
10. → P. In this reaction, the product (P) is:
a) n-hexane c) gluconic acid
b) n-heptane d) saccharic acid
11. Which reaction confirms the presence of aldehyde group in glucose?
a) Reaction of glucose with HI.
b) Reaction of glucose with NH2OH.
c) Reaction of glucose with HCN.
d) Reaction of glucose with aqueous Br2.
12. The term anomer of fructose refers to
a) Isomers of fructose that differ in configuration at C-1 and C-4
b) Mixture of (D)- fructose and (L) - fructose
c) Enantiomers of fructose
d) Isomers of fructose that differ in configuration at C-2
13. Identify A, B and C in the following.

A B C
a) A = Fructose, B = Gluconic acid, C = Tartaric acid
b) A = Glucose, B = Saccharic acid, C = Gluconic acid
c) A = Glucose, B = Gluconic acid, C = Saccharic acid
d) A = Fructose, B = Gluconic acid, C = Saccharic acid
14. Identify the reagent ‘X’ in the following reaction.


a) CH3COOH c) (CH3CO)2O
b) Conc. HNO3 d) CH3COOCH3
15. On boiling sucrose with dil. HCl, the products obtained are:
a) 2 moles of D-(+)-Glucose.
b) 2 moles of D-(-)-Glucose.
c) 1 mole of D-(+)-Glucose and 1 mole of D-(+)-Fructose.
d) 1 mole of D-(+)-Glucose and 1 mole of D-(-)-Fructose.
16. Which statement about glucose is incorrect?
(i) Glucose is an aldohexose.
(ii) Glucose is also called dextrose.
(iii) Glucose reacts with NaHSO3 to form hydrogensulphite adduct.
(iv) Glucose does not give Schiff’s test.
(v) Glucose forms orange-red ppt with 2,4-DNP.
Choose the correct option:
a) (iii), (v) only c) (iii), (iv), (v)
b) (ii), (iii), (v) d) (ii), (iv), (v)
17. Optical rotations of some compounds along with their structures are given below.
Which of them have D configuration?
(I) (II) (III)
(+) rotation (+) rotation (-) rotation

a) (I), (II), (III) c) (I), (II)


b) (II), (III) d) (III) only
18. Commercially, glucose is prepared by
a) hydrolysis of sucrose
b) boiling sucrose with dil HCl or H2SO4 in alcoholic solution
c) hydrolysis of starch by boiling it with H2SO4 at 393 K under pressure
d) crushing ripe grapes
19. Amino acids are:-
(A) Acidic (B) Basic
(c) Amphoteric (d) Neutral
20. Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structure, viz. α-helix and
β-pleated sheet structure. α-helix structure of protein is stablised by:-
(A) Peptide bonds (B) Van der Waals forces
(C) Hydrogen bonds (D) Dipole-dipole interactions
21. Curdling of milk is an example of:
(A)Breaking of peptide linkage (B) Hydrolysis of lactose
(C) Breaking of protein into amino acids (D) Denaturation of protein.
22. Which amino acid has no asymmetric carbon?
(A)Histidine (B) Glycine
(C) α-alanine (D) Threonine
23. On what basis, the proteins are classified as fibrous and globular proteins?
(A) On the basis of number of the amino acids
(B) On the basis of their molecular shape
(C) On the basis of type of the amino acids
(D) On the basis of molecular weight.
24. Which proteins are generally insoluble in water?
(A) Fibrous protein (B) Globular protein
(C) Primary protein (D) Tertiary protein
25. The sequence of amino acids in each polypeptide chain in a protein is called
(A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure
26. The spatial arrangement of the two or more polypeptide chains with respect to each
other is known as
(A)Primary structure (B) Secondary structure
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure
27. Amino acids are the end products in the digestion of:
(A) Cellulose (B) Lecithin
(C) Nucleic acid (D) Albumin
28. Which of the following is not an amino acids?
(A)Glycine (B) Alanine
(C) Histidine (D)Benzidine
29. An α-helix is a structural feature of
(A) Sucrose (B) Polypeptides
(C) Nucleotides (D) Starch
30. Which parts of amino acids molecules are linked through hydrogen bonds in the
secondary structure of proteins?
(A) NH2 group (B) COOH group
(C) and –NH – group (D) None of the above
31. The functional group which is formed in amino acid is
(A) –COOH (B)-NH2
(C) –CH3 (D) both (A) and (B)
32. Amide group present in
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Proteins
(C) Lipids (D) Vitamins
33. Amino acids generally exist in the form of Zwitter ions. This means they contain
(A) Basic-NH2 group and acidic –COOH group
(B) The basic –NH 3+ group and acidic –COO-
(C) Basic –NH2 and acidic –H+ group
(D) Basic-COO- group and acidic –NH3 group
34. Which of the following compound is a protein?
(A) Penicillin (B) Orlon
(C) Keratin (D) Savlon
35. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) All amino acids are optically active.
(B)All amino acids except glycine are optically active.
(C) All amino acids except glutamic acid are optically active.
(D) All amino acids except lysine are optically active.
36. Which of the following is a basic amino acids?
(A)Glycine (B) Valine
(C) Leucine (D) Argenine
37. In DNA, the complementary bases are:
a. Uracil, Adenine; Cytocine, guanine
b. Adenine, thymine; guanine, cytosine
c. Adenine, thymine; guanine, uracil
d. Adenine, guanine; thymine, cytosine
38. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the
protein is :
a. Nucleoside b. Nucleotide c. Ribose d. Gene
39. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
a. Cytosine and adenine b. Cytosine and guanine
c. Cytosine and thymine d. Cytosine and uracil
40. Which one of the following is not a type of RNA:
a. Transverse RNA b. Messenger RNA
c. Ribosomal RNA d. Transfer RNA
41. Which of the following base is not present in DNA
a. Thymine b. Uracil
c. Adenine d. Guanine
42. Pyrimidine bases present in RNA are
a. Adenine and guanine b. Thymine and Uracil
c. Uracil and Cytosine d. Thymine and Cytosine
43. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules. Their chirality is due to
a. D–sugar component b. L–sugar component
c. chiral bases d. chiral phosphate ester units
44. The correct statement regarding RNA & DNA, respectively is -
a. The sugar component in RNA is 2’–deoxyribose and in DNA is Arabinose
b. The sugar component in RNA is Arabinose and is DNA in 2’–deoxyribose
c. The sugar component in RNA is Ribose and is DNA in 2’–deoxyribose
d. The sugar component in RNA is 2’–deoxyribose and in DNA is Ribose
45. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiate
RNA and DNA
(a) 2nd (b) 4th (c) 3rd (d)1st
46. The pair of bases in DNA are held together by
a)Ionic bonds c)phosphate bond
b)H- bond d)deoxyribose group
47. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester
linkage. Between which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are these
linkages present?
a. 5′ and 3′ c. 5′ and 5′
b. 1′ and 5′ d. 3′ and 3′
48. Nucleic acids are the polymers of
49. a. Nucleosides c. Bases
b. Nucleotides d. Sugars
50. DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of the following bases is not present
in RNA?
a. Adenine c. Thymine
b. Uracil d. Cytosine
51. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA?
a. Adenine c. Cytosine
b. Thymine d. Uracil
52. Nucleotides are joined together by:
a. Glycosidic linkage b) Phosphodiester linkage
c. Hydrogen bonds d)Weak intermolecular forces
53. Which of the following bases pairs with guanine?
(a) Adenine (b) Guanine (c) Cytosine (d)Thymine
54. The nitrogenous base is linked to the ribose or deoxyribose sugar via a
(a) Glycosidic bond (b) Amide bond
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) Phosphodiester bond
55. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands show which type of characteristics?
(a) Coiled around a common axis (b) Coiled around each other
(c) Coiled differently (d) Coiled over protein sheath
56. Complete hydrolysis of nucleic acid yield:
(a) Bases (b) Phosphoric acid (c) Pentose sugar (d) All of these
57. Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
(a) Uracil ( b) Cytosine (c) Guanine (d) Thymine

ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS:


1. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Fructose reduces Fehling’s solution.
Reason (R): Fructose does not contain any aldehyde group.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
2. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Glucose gives a reddish - brown precipitate with Fehling’s solution.
Reason (R): Reaction of glucose with Fehling’s solution gives CuO.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
3. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Deoxyribose, C5H10O4 is a carbohydrate.
Reason (R): Carbohydrates are hydrates of carbon so compounds which follow
Cx(H2O)y formula are carbohydrates.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

4. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Glucose exists in two different crystalline forms – α and β.
Reason (R): Glucose forms a six-membered ring in which —OH at C-5
is involved in ring formation.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

5. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The two cyclic forms of glucose (α- and β- glucose) are called epimers.
Reason (R): α- and β- glucose exists in equilibrium with its open-chain structure.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
6. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion
(A): Acetylation of glucose with acetic anhydride gives stable glucose pentaacetate.
Reason (R): The five –OH groups in glucose molecule are attached to different carbon
atoms.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
7. Assertion (A): All naturally occurring α amino acids except glycine are optically active.
Reason(R): Most naturally occurring α amino acids have L-configuration
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
8. Assertion(A):Glycine must be taken through diet
Reason(R): It is non-essential amino acid
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
9. Assertion (A): Coagulation of egg white occurs on boiling.
Reason(R): Denaturation of protein is occur when a native protein is subjected to a
physical change or a chemical change.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
10. Assertion (A): In Zwitter ionic form, amino acids show the amphoteric behaviour.
Reason(R): Amino acids in Zwitter ionic form react with acid and base both.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
11. Assertion (A): Albumin is a globular protein.
Reason(R): Polypeptide chain coils around to give a straight chain.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
12. Assertion (A): Proteins are made up of α amino acids.
Reason (R): During denaturation, secondary and tertiary structures of proteins are
destroyed.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
13. Assertion (A): The genetic codes are comma less.
Reason (R): There are two types of nitrogenous base
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): The two strands of DNA are parallel.
Reason (R): The phenomenon of mutation is chemical change in DNA molecule.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion (A): RNA molecules are of three types.
Reason (R): messenger RNA, Ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
16. Assertion (A): Nucleotides are joined together to form polynucleotide.
Reason (R): The linkage present between nucleotides is hydrogen bond.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
17. Assertion (A): RNA is double stranded.
Reason (R): The base Thymine is absent in RNA
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A) The two strands of DNA are complementary.
Reason (R) The base sequence of one strand can be predicted by knowing base
sequence of other strand.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

MATCHING TYPE QUESTION:


1. Match the following:

COLUMN I COLUMN II
(i) Fructose (A) Polysaccharide
(ii) Lactose (B) Dextrorotatory
(iii) Cellulose (C) Laevorotatory
(iv) Sucrose (D)Milk sugar
Which of the following is the best matched options?
a) (i) – (B), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (C)
b) (i) – (D), (ii) – (C), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
c) (i) – (C), (ii) – (D), (iii) – (A), (iv) – (B)
d) (i) – (B), (ii) – (A), (iii) – (D), (iv) – (C)

2.Match the following:


COLUMN-I COLUMN-II

(i) Amino acids (A)Smallest protein with 51 amino acid

(ii) Histidine (B)RNA

(iii)Insulin (C) An essential amino acid

(iv)Uracil (D) Zwitter ion

Which of the following is the best matched options?


(a) i-A, ii- D, iii- C, iv-B (c) i-D, ii- D, iii- A, iv-B
(b) i-D, ii-C, iii- A, iv-B (d) i-A, ii- C, iii- D, iv-B
3. Match the following and choose the correct answer given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Nucleoside (P) Cytosine, Thiamine and Uracil
(b)DNA (Q) Adenine and guanine
(c) Pyrimidine base (R) The nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate unit
(d) Purine base (S) Watson and Crick
(e) Nucleotide (T) The nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)


a) T S P Q R
b) T S Q R P
c) R Q P T S
d) R T S P Q

ANALOGY – BASED QUESTIONS:


1. Which of the following analogies is correct?
a) Matose : reducing :: Sucrose : non-reducing
b) D : dextrorotatory :: L : laevorotatory
c) Glucose: furanose :: Fructose : pyranose
d) Ribose: aldopentose :: Fructose : aldohexose

2. Complete the following analogy:


Cyclic structure of glucose: A :: Open-chain structure of glucose: B
a) A = Haworth structure, B = Fischer projection structure
b) A = Fischer projection structure, B = Haworth structure
c) A = Watson structure, B = Francis Crick Structure
d) A = Fischer projection structure, B = Francis Crick Structure
3. Which of the following analogies is correct:
(a) Glycine: Gly :: Isoleucine:Ile
(b) Glycine: Gly :: Isoleucine:Iso
(c) Valine: Essential amino acid:: Histidine: NonEssential amino acid
(d) Valine:Non-Essential amino acid:: Histidine: Essential amino acid
4. Complete the following analogy:

(a) A:Conjugate Base :: B: Conjugate Acid


(b) A:Conjugate Acid :: B: Conjugate Base
(c) A: Conjugate Base :: B: Conjugate Base
(d) A: Conjugate Acid :: B: Conjugate Acid

CASE-BASED QUESTION:
CASE(I) : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
(I) Monosaccharides are the carbohydrates which cannot be further hydrolyzed into simpler
units. The monosaccharides containing -CHO group are called aldoses and those containing
C=O group are called ketoses. They may be further classified as trioses, tetroses, pentoses etc.
depending upon the number of carbon atoms. All monosaccharides reduce Tollen’s reagent as
well as Fehling’s solution and hence are called reducing sugars. Pentoses and hexoses have
cyclic structures. During cyclisation, C1 in aldohexoses and C2 in ketohexoses become chiral
and they exist in two stereoisomeric forms – α-form and β-form.

1. Which of the following pairs give positive Tollen’s test?


a) Glucose, Sucrose c) Lactose, Cellulose
b) Fructose, Glucose d) Glucose, Starch
2. Two forms of D-glucopyranose are called
a) Enantiomers c) Epimers
b) Anomers d) Diastereomers

3. The number of chiral carbons in β - D - (+)- glucose is


a) Five c) Three
b) Six d) four
CASE(II) : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
DNA is the short form of 2-deoxyribonucleic acid, which is inside of every cell in your body.
It’s a chain of chemical compounds that join together to form permanent blueprints for life.
These compounds are called bases, and there are 4 of them. They pair up with another to
form what are called base pairs. Your DNA has about 3 billion of these couples. The way
they’re strung together tells your cells how to make copies of each other.
The complete set of your compounds is known as a genome. More than 99.9 % of everyone’s
genome is exactly alike (100% if you are identical twins). But the tiny bit that’s not is what
makes you physically and mentally different from someone else.
DNA finger printing involves use of chemicals to separate strands of DNA and then the
isolation reveals the unique parts of your genome. The results show up as a pattern of stripes
that can be matched against other samples.
Since it was invented in 1984, by Professor Sir Alec Jeffreys after he realised you could detect
variations in human DNA, in the form of minisatellites. Minisatellites are short sequences (10-
60 base pairs) long of repetitive DNA that show greater variation from one person to the next
than other parts of the genome. DNA fingerprinting most often has been used in court cases
and legal matters. It can:
 Physically connect a piece of evidence to a person or rule out someone as a suspect.
 Show who your parents, siblings, and other relatives may be.
 Identify a dead body that’s too old or damaged to be recognizable.
DNA fingerprinting is extremely accurate. Most countries now keep DNA records on file in
much the same way police keep copies of actual fingerprints.
It also has medical uses. It can:
 Match tissues of organ donors with those of people who need transplants.
 Identify diseases that are passed down through your family.
 Help find cures for those diseases, called hereditary conditions.
4. Which of the following can be biological samples foe DNA fingerprinting?
(a) Blood (c) Saliva
(b) Hair (d) All of them
5. When DNA is recovered from cells or tissues then this step in DNA fingerprinting is ________
(a) Isolation of DNA (c) Centrifugation of DNA
(b) Collection of DNA (d) Formation of DNA
6. Percentage of DNA do identical twins share in common
(a) 99.9% (c) 90%
(b) 100% (d) 50%
7. The DNA fingerprint pattern of a child is
(a) Exactly similar to that of both of the parents.
(b) 100% similar to the father’s DNA print.
(c) 100% similar to the father’s DNA print.
(d) 50% bands similar to father and rest similar to mother.

CASE (III) : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
When a solution of a protein is boiled, the protein frequently becomes insoluble—i.e., it is
denatured—and remains insoluble even when the solution is cooled. The denaturation of the
proteins of egg white by heat—as when boiling an egg—is an example of irreversible
denaturation. The denatured protein has the same primary structure as the original, or
native, protein. The weak forces between charged groups and the weaker forces of mutual
attraction of nonpolar groups are disrupted at elevated temperatures.
Denaturation can be brought about in various ways. Proteins are denatured by
treatment with alkaline or acid, oxidizing or reducing agents, and certain
organic solvents.Interesting among denaturing agents are those that affect the secondary and
tertiary structure without affecting the primary structure. The agents most frequently used
for this purpose are urea and guanidinium chloride. These molecules, because of their
high affinity for peptide bonds, break the hydrogen bonds and the salt bridges between
positive and negative side chains, thereby abolishing the tertiary structure of the peptide
chain. When denaturing agents are removed from a protein solution, the native protein re-
forms in many cases. Denaturation can also be accomplished by reduction of the disulfide
bonds of cystine—i.e., conversion of the disulfide bond (―S―S―) to two sulfhydryl groups
(―SH).
The following questions are multiple choice question. Choose the most appropriate answer:
8. Mark the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins.
(a) The primary structure of the protein does not change.
(b) Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins.
(c) Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins.
(d) The biological activity of the protein is destroyed.

9.Which statement(s) of protein remain(s) intact during denaturation process?


(a) Both secondary and tertiary structures
(b) primary structure only
(c) secondary structure only
(d) tertiary structure
10. Which of the following is a denaturation process?
(a) boiling an egg (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) curdling of milk (d) None of These
Answer Key

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


Q.1 Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 Q.6 Q.7 Q.8 Q.9
c b A d a c d a c
Q.10 Q.11 Q.12 Q.13 Q.14 Q.15 Q.16 Q.17 Q.18
a d d b c d a a c
Q.19 Q.20 Q.21 Q.22 Q.23 Q.24 Q.25 Q.26 Q.27
c c d b b a a d d
Q.28 Q.29 Q.30 Q.31 Q.32 Q.33 Q.34 Q.35 Q.36
d d c d b a c b d
Q.37 Q.38 Q.39 Q.40 Q.41 Q.42 Q.43 Q.34 Q.45
b d c c b c a c a
Q.46 Q.47 Q.48 Q.49 Q.50 Q.51 Q.52 Q.53 Q.54
b a b c d b a a a
Q.55 Q.56
d a

ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS

Q.1 Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 Q.6

b a c a d a

Q.7 Q.8 Q.9 Q.10 Q.11 Q.12

b d a a c b

Q.13 Q.14 Q.15 Q.16 Q.17 Q.18

b d a c c a

MATCH THE FOLLOWING ---- Q.1- (c), Q.2 –(b) , Q.3 –(a)

ANALOGY BASED QUESTION

Q.1-a Q.2-a Q.3-a Q.4-b

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

Q.1-b Q.2-b Q.3-a Q.4-d Q.5-a Q.6-b

Q.7-d Q.8-b Q.9- b Q.10-c

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