TM-Editor 25.04.2016 Seite 1 060-Navigation - LTM

TM-Editor 25.04.
2016
060-Navigation.LTM Seite 1
1 21.2.5.3 Wave propagation Typ: MC 1063 79 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
For a frequency of 200 KHZ, what is the wavelength
1500m
150m
1500km
150km
2 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 174 AviaExam130 5/10/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward

following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of
latitude for 382 NM to position B.
The coordinates of position B are?
45°00'N 172°38'E
53°20'N 169°22W
45°00'N 169°22W
53°20'N 172°38'E
The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track
joining the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of
departure A, is:
7.8°
9°
15.6°
5.2°
TM-Editor 25.04.2016
The factors that determine the ranges available from the sky waves are:
Transmission power, diffraction, critical angle and angle of incidence.
Critical angle, refraction, angle of incidence and diffraction.
Transmission power, conductivity of earth's surface and angle of

incidence.
Transmission power, depth of penetration, critical angle and angle of

incidence.
5 21.2.5.3.3 propagation with the frequency bands Typ: MC 1048 AviaExam568 6/28/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the

following frequencies:
HF
VHF
UHF
VLF
6 21.2.5.1.2 wave length, ampl., phase angle, freq. Typ: MC 1049 AviaExam570 6/28/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
2.46 m
24.60 cm
2.46 cm
24.60 m
Skip distance in relation to the sky wave is;
distance between the transmitter and the point of first return of the sky
wave on the surface.
distance between the receiver and the transmitter.
distance between the point of receiving the surface wave and the first
return of the sky wave, where no reception is possible.
distance between the point of receiving and the 1st sky wave return on
the surface.
Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W

Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°W
What will be the approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial
navigation system at longitude 025°W?
060°06'S
060°11'S
059°49'S
060°00'S
What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between
meridians 010° E and 030° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
2 HR 30 MIN
1 HR 15 MIN
1 HR 45 MIN
5 HR 00 MIN
10 62.1.2.0.6 factors affecting range Typ: MC 1066 82 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Night effect when using NDB may be minimized by;
using a high frequency NDB, avoid operation at dusk and dawn, use a
high powered NDB and utilise NDB's near the aircraft.
use a high frequency NDB, operate at dusk and dawn, use a low
powered NDB and utilise NDB's near the aircraft.
use a low frequency NDB, avoid operations at dusk and dawn, use a
high powered NDB and utilise NDB's near the aircraft.
use a low frequency NDB, operate at dusk and dawn, use a high
powered NDB and utilise NDB's afar off from the aircraft.
11 62.1.2.0.5 errors and accuracy Typ: MC 178 AviaExam564 6/28/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the
relative bearing to the station will be:
135°.
Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure.
315°.
225°.
12 62.1.2.0.3 coverage Typ: MC 1067 83 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is on Heading 225° (M) ADF RMI reading 315° (M) variation 15° (W),
Quadrantal error will be:
Zero.
Maximum.
proportional to sine heading times the signal strength.
proportional to the tangent of the RMI reading.

An aircraft is maintaining a track outbound from an NDB with a constant

relative bearing of 187° and a heading of 060° M. .To return to the NDB, the
relative bearing to maintain is;
067°
353°
007°
247°
An aircraft is following the 45°N parallel of latitude.

The track followed is a:
rhumb line
constant-heading track
great circle
constant-drift track
Given:
value for the flattening of the Earth is 1/298.
Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km.
What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the poles?
6 356.9
6 378.4
6 367.0
6 399.9
16 62.1.2.0.2 presentation and interpretation Typ: MC 1069 85 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft on heading 040° M has an ADF reading of 060° Relative. The

alteration of heading to intercept the 120° Track inbound to the NDB at 50° in
zero wind conditions is;
30° Right.
20° Right.
40° Right.
50° Right.
Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130°00E.

Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of 225°(T).
The coordinates of position B are:
01°11'S 128°49'E
01°11'N 131°11'E
01°11'S 131°11'E
01°11'N 128°49'E
18 62.1.2.0.1 principles Typ: MC 1070 86 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The ICAO NDB frequency band is;
200 khz to 500 khz.
200 khz to 800 khz.
200 khz to 1750 khz.
200 khz to 112 Mhz.

In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to position B (30°00'N,

050°00'W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly:
a rhumb line track
the constant average drift route
the great-circle route
a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart
The advantages of Single Side-Band Transmissions as compared with Double

Side- Band Transmissions are:
Long range transmission and narrow band width.
Narrow band width in the frequency band.
Transmitter power is concentrated on three frequencies.
Power is concentrated on frequency.
21 21.2.5.1 Basic principles Typ: MC 1072 49 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The purpose of Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) in ADF receiver is to;
Improve the strength of the incoming signal .
Remove noise from the incoming signal .
Make the incoming signal audible .
Remove oscillations of the bearing indicator.
The rhumb line track between position A (45°00'N, 010°00'W) and position B
(48°30'N, 015°00'W) is approximately:
315
330
300
345
23 62.1.5.0.5 errors and accuracy Typ: MC 1073 50 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
When there is a significant fault in the transmission of the ILS, the following
will happen;
A flag alarm showing 'off' appears on the appropriate window.
The needle moves to the centre and the flag appears in the appropriate
window .
The alarm flag showing 'ON' appears in the appropriate window.
No indication.
The diameter of the Earth is approximately:
12 700 km
6 350 km
18 500 km
40 000 km
The Glipe Path angle of an ILS is 3°. What is the elevation coverage?
0.45° below GP to 1.75° above GP.
1.35° from the horizontal to 5.25° from the horizontal.
0.45° below the GP to 1.75 above the ILS reference point.
8° either side of the ILS reference point.
The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at

about:
45° North and South
0° North and South (equator)


With reference to VOR the cone of confusion is;
an area around a VOR station where the signals radiate in a confused

pattern.
an area overhead a VOR station in form of a cone with a vertical angle of

about 80° where the VOR indications are undetermined.
an area overhead a VOR station in the form of an inverted cone which

has 10 degrees either side of the vertical where the VOR indications are
undetermined.
an area around a VOR station where the reading is zero.
28 61.3.1 General properties of miscellaneous Typ: MC 186 AviaExam1074 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the:
scale at the standard parallels
mean scale between pole and equator
mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone
scale at the equator
DME signals are affected by:
static and night effect.
thunderstorm and propagation errors.
night effect and propagation errors.
none of the responses
The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a:
Stereographical projection
Direct Mercator projection
Gnomonic projection
Lambert conformal projection

A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1: 3 704 000.

What is the scale at latitude 60° S?
1: 1 852 000
1: 7 408 000
1: 3 208 000
1: 185 200
32 62.7.1 Ground Proximity Warning System Typ: MC 1077 54 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
What circumstances would cause a warning shortly after take-off when using
Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)?
Height loss between 100 ft - 700 ft.
The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm

(millimetres). The scale of the chart is 1:1 600 000.
The actual distance between these two point is approximately:
36.30 NM
370.00 NM
67.20 NM
3.69 NM
34 62.6.1.0.1 principles of operation (airborne system) Typ: MC 1078 55 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
In a Doppler display in an aircraft the distance to go on the stage is usually

more accurate than the distance left/right of the desired track because:
The land/sea switch enhances sensitivity and therefore ground speed

input for the calculation of distance to G is very accurate.
The Doppler computer is much more accurate when computing distance

to go.
The heading input is the main source of error and it affects the across
track accuracy.
none of the above.
The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are

07°40'N and 38°20' N.
The constant of the cone for this chart is:-
0.39
0.60
0.92
0.42
36 62.2.2.0.4 range Typ: MC 1079 56 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The maximum range of a Radar is governed by;
Pulse repetition frequency.
Pulse interval.
Pulse repetition frequency and pulse interval.
Pulse width.
On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians:
is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin
is zero throughout the chart
varies as the secant of the latitude
equals earth convergency at the standard parallels
38 62.2.4.0.4 modes and codes incl. S Typ: MC 1080 57 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
With respect to Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR), Mode C provides;
Normal Identification of Aircraft.
Radio failure when coupled with code A 7600.
Automatic Pressure Attitude Information.
The range of the Aircraft.
39 62.2.3.0.7 application of navigation Typ: MC 1081 58 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
State three uses of weather radar in addition to the cloud detection;
safe terrain clearance, determination of approximate cloud heights,

ground mapping.
ground mapping, detection of Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) determination

of approximate cloud heights.
safe Terrain Clearance, ground Mapping, Air Traffic Control Separation

Purposes.
indicate height, distance and amount of cloud.
A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM.
The chart scale is:
1: 6 000 000
1: 3 000 000
1: 5 000 000
1: 1 000 000
41 61.3.3 The use of current aeronautical charts Typ: MC 193 AviaExam1093 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70°N
060°W to B 70°N 060°E is approximately:
030° (T)
330° (T)
150° (T)
210° (T)
42 61.3.2 The representation of meridians, parallels Typ: MC 194 AviaExam1095 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:
straight line
small circle concave to the nearer pole
spiral curve
curve convex to the nearer pole
43 62.1.3 VOR and Doppler-VOR Typ: MC 195 AviaExam1096 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at

position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is
10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
190°
195°
185°
180°
44 22.1.4 Radio Altimeter Typ: MC 1084 61 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
If the Barometer reads 1010 hpa at ground level and 1008 hpa at height on top
of a building, what is the height of the building?
30 ft.
60 ft.
90 ft.
120 ft.
What happens to the capsule in an altimeter as the aircraft gains height?
The value of static pressure decreases and the capsule expands under
the tension of the spring.
The value of the static pressure increases and the capsule contracts
under the tension of atmospheric pressure.
The value of the static and atmospheric pressure equalise within and
around the capsule.
The value of the static pressure increases and the capsule contracts
under the tension of the spring.
The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B

(30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is:
5 400 NM
10 800 km
2 700 NM
10 800 NM
Under what conditions are altimeters, calibrated?
MSL pressure 1013.0 hpa, MSL Temp O°C lapse rate 1.98° per 1000 ft
from MSL to 10,000 ft. etc.
MSL pressure 1020 hpa, MSL Temp + 15°C Lapse rate 2° per 1 000 ft
from MSL to 20,000 ft etc.
MSL pressure 10 1 3.2 hpa MSL Temp + 15°C Lapse rate 1.98° per I 000 ft
from MSL to 36,000 etc.
MSL pressure 1020 hpa, MSL temp O°C Lapse rate 2° per 1000 ft from
MSL to 55000 ft etc.
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are:
curves concave to the parallel of origin
straight lines regardless of distance
curves concave to the pole of projection
straight lines within the standard parallels
What is the cause of pressure error in an altimeter?
Position of the altimeter.
Position of the Aircraft in flight.
Position of the pitot tube.
Position of the static vent.
On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a certain length

represents 70 NM.
At latitude 30° North, the same length represents approximately:
86 NM
57 NM
70 NM
81 NM
When flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure, what
indication does the altimeter give in relation to the height AGL?
Zero.
Under-reads.
Over-reads
Height change not indicated.

Given:
Position A 45°N, ?°E
Position B 45°N, 45°15'E
Distance A-B = 280 NM
B is to the East of A
Required: longitude of position A?
38°39'E
49°57'E
51°51'E
40°33'E
On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight

line joins position A (70°S 065°E) to position B (70°S 025°W).
The true course on departure from position A is approximately:
225°
250°
135°
315°
On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two

meridians spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N is 8 cm.
The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
1: 3 500 000
1: 4 750 000
1: 7 000 000
1: 6 000 000
55 61.1.2.0.1 great circle, small circle, rhumbline Typ: MC 1091 78 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
On a Mercator chart, a great circle is represented as a:
Straight line.
Curve concave to the Equator.
Curve concave to the nearer pole.
Curve concave to the meridians.
Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A (80°N 000°) and B

(70°N 102°W) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at
035°W.
At point B, the true course is:
203°
023°
247°
305°
57 21.2.5.1.2 wave length, ampl., phase angle, freq. Typ: MC 1092 1 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
What is the meaning of the word "wave length" in relation to radio signals?
The maximum displacement or value a radio signal attains from its mean
position during a cycle.
The number of cycles occurring in one second expressed in Hertz.
The physical distance traveled by the radio wave during one complete
cycle of transmission.
One complete series of values or one complete process.

How does the scale vary in a Direct Mercator chart?
The scale increases with increasing distance from the Equator.
The scale decreases with increasing distance from the Equator.
The scale is constant.
The scale increases south of the Equator and decreases north of the
Equator.
The frequency of a radio wave is :
the distance travelled during the transmission of one cycle
the rate of chnage of a wave
one complete change of direction of current
the number of cycles in one second
Given:
Magnetic heading 311°
Drift angle 10° left
Relative bearing of NDB 270°
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?
221°
208°
211°
180°
With reference to basic radio theory, the amplitude of a radio wave is:
one complete change of direction:
the peak value of the current in either direction
the longitudial dispalcement of a sine wave
62 62.1.4 DME Typ: MC 205 AviaExam1123 7/25/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL.

An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the
DME station, will have a DME reading of:
16 NM
14 NM
15 NM
17 NM
The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is ;
2 500 kHz
250 GHz
2 500 MHz
2 500 Hz
64 61.4.1 Basics of dead reckoning Typ: MC 206 AviaExam1124 7/25/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
Given the following:

True track: 192°
Magnetic variation: 7°E
Drift angle: 5° left
What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
190°
194°
204°
180°
The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 1500 metres is
400 Hz
200 KHz
400 MHz
2 000 GHz
Given the following:

Magnetic heading: 060°
Magnetic variation: 8°W
Drift angle: 4° right
What is the true track?
056°
064°
048°
072°
If the transmission frequency is 75 MHz, the wavelength is
8 cm
4 metres
800 m
4 km
68 61.4.3 The triangle of velocities, methods of solution fo Typ: MC 208 AviaExam1128 7/25/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt.

The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt.
The GS and drift angle are:
192 kt, 7° right
200 kt, 3.5° right
192 kt, 7° left
225 kt, 7° left
If the frequency of a raio aid is 1 439 kHz, the wavelength is
208.47 metres
208.47 cm
2.0847 cm
0.20847 metres
70 61.4.5 Measurement of DR elements Typ: MC 209 AviaExam1131 7/25/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
Given:
FL 350,
Mach 0.80,
OAT -55°C.
Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)?
461 kt , LSS 576 kt
237 kt, LSS 296 kt
490 kt, LSS 461 kt
461 kt , LSS 296 kt
Given:
Magnetic heading = 255°
VAR = 40°W
GS = 375 kt
W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt
Calculate the drift angle?
6° left
6° right
9° left
3° left
72 21.2.5 Basic radio propagation theory Typ: MC 1100 2 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The wavelength of a radio wave transmission is:
the distance travelled during the transmission of one cycle
one complete change of direction of current
the lateral dispalcement of a wave

Given:
True Heading = 180°
TAS = 500 kt
W/V 225° / 100 kt
Calculate the GS?
435 kt
600 kt
535 kt
450 kt
Given:
True heading = 310°
TAS = 200 kt
GS = 176 kt
Drift angle 7° right.
Calculate the W/V?
270° / 33 kt
360° / 33 kt
090° / 33 kt
180° / 33 kt
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft
ground speed?
A DME station sited on the flight route
An ADF sited on the flight route
A VOR station sited on the flight route
A DME station sited across the flight route

Polarisation is the term used to describe the plane of oscillation of the;
electrical field of an electromagnetic wave
the magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
the electrical and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
none of the above
If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60°N at a

ground speed of 480 kt. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator
in the same amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:
960 kt
240 kt
550 kt
480 kt
Polarisation is the term used to describe the plane of oscillation of the;
electrical field of an electromagnetic wave
the magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
the electrical and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
none of the above

Given:
TAS = 180 kt
GS = 180 kt
Drift 5° right
Calculate the W/V?
005° / 15 kt
190° / 15 kt
355° / 15 kt
185° / 15 kt
Given:
TAS = 200 kt
W/V = 220° / 30 kt.
Calculate the GS?
220 kt
230 kt
180 kt
200 kt
Radio waves travel at the speed of light which is taken to be constant at
3 x 105 cm/sec
3 x 108 m/sec
3 x 1010 km/sec
3 x 120nm/s
Radio waves travel at the speed of light which is taken to be constant at
3 x 105 cm/sec
3 x 108 m/sec
3 x 1010 km/sec
3 x 120nm/s
An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090°.

The W/V is 045° / 50kt.
How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour?
85 NM
88 NM
56 NM
176 NM
The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System:

GS 520 kt,
True HDG 090°,
Drift angle 5° right,
TAS 480 kt.
SAT (static air temperature) -51°C.
The W/V being experienced is:
320° / 60 kt
225° / 60 kt
220° / 60 kt
325° / 60 kt
The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 750 metres is
400 Hz
400 MHz
400 KHz
400 GHz
The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240°/35 kt. Runway 30
(300°).
What is the cross-wind component?
30 kt
24 kt
27 kt
21 kt
An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on route to position B

(60°00'N 140°30'W).
What is the great circle track on departure from A?
279°
288°
261°
270°
The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 750 metres is
400 Hz
400 MHz
400 KHz
400 GHz
A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B (61°S 148°W).
What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B?
It increases by 6°
It decreases by 6°
It increases by 3°
It decreases by 3°
What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W?
093°48.5'W
093°54.0'W
093°53.1'W
094°12.0'W
If the frequency of a radar set is 13 500 MHz, the wavelength is
2.22 metres
0.22 metres
0.22 cm
2.22 cm
An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat

terrain; its height is approximately:
2210 FT
680 FT
1890 FT
3640 FT
93 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 224 AviaExam1586 8/15/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
400 Hz, blue
3000 Hz, blue
1300 Hz, blue
400 Hz, amber
94 62.1.2 ADF Typ: MC 225 AviaExam1591 8/15/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application
of magnetic variation is:
NDB: aircraft position

VOR: beacon position
NDB: beacon position

VOR: beacon position
NDB: beacon position

VOR: aircraft position
NDB: aircraft position

VOR: aircraft position
Radio intelligence and information are relayed from a transmitter to a receiver

by;
polarisation
modulation
phase difference
line-of-sight
An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near
the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft
position is 8°E.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
255°
278°
262°
285°
Given:
Magnetic heading 280°
VOR radial 090°
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to
centralise the VOR deviation needle with a "TO" indication?
270°
280°
100°
090°
Amplitude modulation is;
varying the frequency of the carrier in accordance with the change in the
amplitude of the audio, keeping the amplitude of the carrier constant
varying the amplitude of the audio frequency in accordance with the

change in amplitude of the carrier, keeping the frequency of the carrire
constant
varying the amplitude of the carrier wave in accordance with the change
in amplitude of the audio modulating signal keeping the carrier
frequency constant
All of the options

A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation

equals 32°W.
An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic
variation equals 28°W.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
212
208
360
180
In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the
magnetic variation:
at the VOR
at the aircraft location
at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
at both the VOR and aircraft
Amplitude modulation is;
varying the frequency of the carrier in accordance with the change in the
amplitude of the audio, keeping the amplitude of the carrier constant
varying the amplitude of the audio frequency in accordance with the

change in amplitude of the carrier, keeping the frequency of the carrire
constant
varying the amplitude of the carrier wave in accordance with the change
in amplitude of the audio modulating signal keeping the carrier
frequency constant
All of the options

An aeroplane flies over position A which is due North of a VOR station sited at
position B.
The magnetic variation at A is 18°W, and at B is 10°W.
What radial from B is the aircraft on?
010°
018°
350°
342°
Two advantages of single side band transmissions are;
broader bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in two

frequencies instead of three
narrower bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in two

frequencies instead of three
narrower bandwidth and transmitting power concentrated in three

frequencies instead of two
none of the above
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected
from the ground because:
they are not on the receiver frequency
DME transmits twin pulses
the pulse recurrence rates are varied
DME uses the UHF band

The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following

frequencies:
962 to 1213 MHz
108 to 118 MHz
329 to 335 MHz
962 to 1213 kHz.
A DME is located at MSL.

An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain
a DME range of approximately:
6 NM
7 NM
11 NM
8 NM
During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication
from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.
The reason for this is that the:
aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
aeroplane is circling around the station
altitude is too high
range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM

When considering factors affecting radio wave propagation it can be said

that;
as frequency is increased surface attenuation decreases
as frequency is increased ionospheric attenuation increases
as frequency is increased ionospheric attenuation decreases
as frequency is increased surface attenuation increases
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information

for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side
of the localiser centreline
0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side
of the localiser centreline
0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser
centreline
3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser
centreline
110 61.5.2 Navigation in climb and descent Typ: MC 236 AviaExam1632 8/16/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is descending down a 6% slope whilst maintaining a G/S of 300 kt.

The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
1800 FT/MIN
10800 FT/MIN
3600 FT/MIN
900 FT/MIN
Skip distance is the distance between;
the transmitter and the first point of sky wave touchdown
successive sky wave touchdown points
the end of the ground wave and the first point of touchdown
the distance of a wave from the surface to the ozonosphere
112 62.2.4 SSR secondary surveillance radar and transp. Typ: MC 237 AviaExam1636 8/16/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional

information transmitted is:
flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
altitude based on regional QNH
aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
height based on QFE
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a

transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies:
Transmitter Receiver
1030 MHz 1090 MHz
1090 MHz 1030 MHz
1090 MHz 1090 MHz
1030 MHz 1030 MHz

114 62.2.2 Ground radar Typ: MC 239 AviaExam1647 8/16/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground

radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given:
velocity of light is 300 000 km/second)
333 km
666 km
1333 km
150 km
Skip distance is the distance between;
the transmitter and the first point of sky wave touchdown
successive sky wave touchdown points
the end of the ground wave and the first point of touchdown
the distance of a wave from the surface to the ozonosphere
116 61.1.1 The solar system Typ: MC 240 AviaExam1779 8/19/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is
approximately:
23.5°
25.3°
27.5°
66.5°
117 61.1.3 Time and time conversions Typ: MC 241 AviaExam1787 8/19/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
The duration of civil twilight is the time:
between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true
horizon
agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the

apparent height of 6°
between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true
horizon
On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC.
On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
0743 UTC
0243 UTC
2143 UTC
0523 UTC
An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S 148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt.
The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in

which AB track is active.
On route AB, the true track:
increases by 5°
varies by 10°
decreases by 6°
varies by 4°
When using HF communications at night the best frequency is one which is;
half the day frequency
twice the day frequency
thrice the day frequency
the same as the frequency for day operation

121 61.1.5 Distance Typ: MC 244 AviaExam1797 8/19/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N

007°30'W) is:
300 NM
450 NM
600 NM
150 NM
122 61.2.1 General principles Typ: MC 245 AviaExam1807 8/20/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is over position HO (55°30'N 060°15'W), where YYR VOR (53°30'N

060°15'W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31°W at HO and 28°W at
YYR.
What is the radial from YYR?
028°
208°
031°
332°
When using HF communications at night the best frequency is one which is;
half the day frequency
twice the day frequency
thrice the day frequency
the same as the frequency for day operation

Given:
TAS = 485 kt,
OAT = ISA +10°C,
FL 410.
Calculate the Mach Number?
0.825
0.90
0.85
0.87
An aircraft at FL100 should be able to communicate with a VHF ground station

at 100 ft amsl at an approximate maximum range of
25 nm
112.5 nm
123.2 nm
137.5 nm
126 61.4.6 Resolution of current DR problems by means of: Typ: MC 247 AviaExam1818 8/20/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
060-001.jpg
Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is
aligned with the Greenwich meridian.
An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a distance
of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid track
of 154° for a distance of 300 NM.
Its position is now approximately:
80°00'N 080°E
78°45'N 087°E
79°15'N 074°E
70°15'N 080°E
Given:
A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian.
Grid track 344°,
Longitude 115°00'W,
Calculate the true course?
229°
099°
279°
049°
060-002.jpg
1215 UTC LAJES VORTAC (38°46'N 027°05'W) RMI reads 178°,
range 135 NM.
Calculate the aircraft position at 1215 UTC?
40°55'N 027°55'W
40°50'N 027°40'W
41°00'N 028°10'W
41°05'N 027°50'W
The ionosphere is split into three distinct layers during day time which are;
D layer, Appleton layer, F layer
D layer, Kennelley Heaviside layer , Appleton layer
E layer, Kennelley Heaviside layer, D layer
E layer, Appleton layer, F layer

060-002.jpg
1300 UTC DR position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading
PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N 016°23'W)
TAS 450 kt,
Forecast W/V 360°/30kt.
Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB?
1348
1344
1341
1354
131 61.4.7 Measurements of: Typ: MC 251 AviaExam1836 8/21/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed "out" of 385 kt, a
ground speed "back" of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves)
the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:
1685 NM
1532 NM
930 NM
1865 NM
The aircraft aerial(s) used to determine the direction of an NDB beacon is/are
loop and sense aerials
sense aerial
loop aerial
omni-directional aerials
Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt.

On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt.
On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt.
What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the Point of Equal Time
(PET)?
530 NM
470 NM
455 NM
500 NM
Given:
AD = Air distance
GD = Ground distance
TAS = True Airspeed
GS = Groundspeed
Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance
(GD) gone?
GD = (AD X GS)/TAS
GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS
GD = TAS/(GS X AD)
135 61.6.5 INS operation Typ: MC 254 AviaExam1850 8/22/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS)

connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the
INS computer:
WPT 1: 60°N 030°W
WPT 2: 60°N 020°W
When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial
navigation system will be:
60°05.7'N
60°00.0'N
59°49.0'N
60°11.0'N
136 61.6.3 Accuracy, reliability, errors and coverage Typ: MC 255 AviaExam1862 8/29/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces an error in the
position given by this unit. "t" being the elapsed time.
The total error is:
proportional to t
proportional to the square of time, t²
proportional to t/2
sinusoîdal
When determining the direction of an NDB station, the 180? ambiguity is

resolved by using a;
loop aerial
guyed aerial
sense aerial
sense aerial and then a loop aerial
138 61.6.1 Principles and practical application Typ: MC 256 AviaExam1866 8/29/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is:
required to provide a W/V read out
not required
required for Polar navigation
required for rhumb line navigation
The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right

angles to the local vertical by applying corrections for the effects of:
aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis
gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift
vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport

drift
movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous

oscillation
An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to

the aircraft's inertial system. The coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S
030°W) have been entered.
The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is:
277°
284°
263°
270°
NDB bearings displayed on an ADF are relative bearings with reference to;
magnetic North
true North
aircraft track
aircraft heading
Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as "strapdown".

This means that:
the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to

the aircraft structure
only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's
fixture to the aircraft structure
gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the

aircraft
gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a

vertical reference
As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35°32.7'N

139°46.3'W are input instead of 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft
subsequently passes point 52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown on the INS
will be:
099° 32.6'W
099° 32.6'E
080° 27.4'E
080° 27.4'W
In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an aircraft

inertial platform incorporates a device:
with damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC
with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC
The cardoid polar diagram resulting from the resolution of the 180? ambiguity
has;
two maxima and non nulls
two nulls and one maximum, giving the direction of the station
four nulls
one null giving the direction of the station

146 62.1.1 Ground D/F Typ: MC 262 AviaExam2249 11/3/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at

FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT
above MSL?
180 NM
220 NM
120 NM
150 NM
In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft

at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 ft
above MSL ?
134 NM
158 NM
107 NM
114 NM
The aerials used when an ADF operates on "Automatic Direction Finding" are;
loop aerial only
sense aerial only
omni-directional aerials
loop and sense aerials together

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the
transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20
NM?
Four
Six
Eight
Two
'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing
errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and

dusk
interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when

east of the NDB
static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency

band
the effect of the Aurora Borealis
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)

equipment are caused by:
signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
misalignment of the loop aerial
skywave/groundwave contamination
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes

are maximum when the NDB is:
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
The four factors affecting the accuracy of NDB's are;
quadrantal error, mountain effect, night effect and static interference
thunderstorm effect, night effect, slant range error,and station

interference
quandrantal error,night effect, pilotage error and aggregate error
all of the options.
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
phase comparison
envelope matching
beat frequency discrimination
difference in depth of modulation
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
VHF
UHF
SHF
HF
Precautions to reduce the effect of night effect on ADF bearings are to;
avoid use the ADF within one hour of sunrise and sunset and use a
weaker beacon to eliminate skywaves
use a more powerfull beacon and bearings taken well within the surface
wave range
choose the nearest station and only use the ADF within one hour of
sunrise and sunset
use the transmitter/receiver intermittently by switching "on" and "off"
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
static interference
night effect
quadrantal error
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range,

errors could be caused by:
interference from other transmitters
noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the

transmitter
sky wave interference from the same transmitter
sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency

An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a

deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from
the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
1.5
3.0
4.5
6.0
An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant

bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°.
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the
maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
105 NM
50 NM
165 NM
210 NM
161 62.1.2.0.4 range Typ: MC 1162 24 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The time between two relative bearings of 075 and 090 is 7 minutes 45
seconds and groundspeed is 130 kts. The time and distance to the beacon is;
31 minutes - 67.2 nm
67.2 minutes - 31 nm
116.1 minutes - 251.6 nm
150.7 minutes - 50.5 nm

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the
following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
284° with the TO flag showing
284° with the FROM flag showing
163 61.1.3.0.4 standard times Typ: MC 1163 24 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The time between two relative bearings of 075 and 090 is 7 minutes 45
seconds and groundspeed is 130 kts. The time and distance to the beacon is;
31 minutes - 67.2 nm
67.2 minutes - 31 nm
116.1 minutes - 251.6 nm
150.7 minutes - 50.5 nm
An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR.

The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the
VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle is:
090°
270°
360°
180°
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order
to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive
signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
184 NM
220 NM
147 NM
156 NM
An aircraft heading 200?M receives a bearing of 190R from an NDB. ATC

instructs the pilot to intercept the 250 QDR outbound from the NDB at 30?.
The intercept heading and the relative bearing at intercept are;
220?M/210
220?M/160
280?M/330
280?M/150
A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
1000 MHz
10 MHz
100 MHz
100 GHz
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
UHF band and uses two frequencies
VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
UHF band and uses one frequency
SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
An aircraft on a constant heading with 8? right drift is tracking parallel to and

5 nm left of the centre line of an airway. The ADF reading of an NDB on the
centre line 42 nm ahead is;
015?R
359?R
011?R
286?R
For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the
number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
100
200
60
80
An aircraft on a constant heading with 8? right drift is tracking parallel to and

5 nm left of the centre line of an airway. The ADF reading of an NDB on the
centre line 42 nm ahead is;
015?R
359?R
011?R
286?R
The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions
and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
the time interval between pulse pairs is unique to that particular aircraft
pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz

removed from each other
transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected

from the ground because:
aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different

frequencies
reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
DME transmits twin pulses
DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

An aircraft is tracking 065?T, variation 22?W and drift 9? right with an ADF
indication of 237?R. The aircraft heading and indication on an RMI are;
heading 034?M/271?
heading 078?M/315?
heading 088?M/326
heading 096?M/333?
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
+ or - 1.5 NM
+ or - 3 NM
+ or - 0.25 NM
+ or - 1.25 NM
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring

Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying
at FL400?
When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM

In order to maintain a track of 165?T away from an NDB (variation 16?W) with
a drift 8? left, the ADF reading required is;
352? relative
259? relative
188? relative
172? relative
The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance

Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to
the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant
range from the ground transponder was:
158 NM
186 NM
296 NM
330 NM
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the
active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress
than during good weather operations is:
aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions

Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System

(ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency
Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency
A pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a

different modulation
Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the
same modulation
182 62.5.5.0.1 principle of operation Typ: MC 1177 29 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The principle of operation of a VOR is bearing measurement by;
polarisation comparison
modulation comparison
de-modulation comparison
phase comparison
An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser

inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
may receive false course indications
only glide path information is available
will receive signals without identification coding
can expect signals to give correct indications

The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is

identified audibly and visually by a series of:
alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
two dashes per second and a blue light flashing
dots and a white light flashing
dashes and an amber light flashing
The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits

on a frequency of:
75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second
The two modulations from which bearing information is obtained in a VOR are
both frequency modulated at the transmitter
reference signal frequency modulated and directional signal apparent

amplitude modulated
reference signal apparent amplitude modulated and directional signal

frequency modulated
none of the options are correct

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide

path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
600 FT/MIN
550 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
950 FT/MIN
The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the
threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the
approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:
1450 FT
1400 FT
1350 FT
1300 FT
189 62.2.3 Airborne weather radar Typ: MC 293 AviaExam2286 11/15/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in

order to:
detect the larger water droplets
transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
190 62.1.3.0.4 range Typ: MC 1183 31 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The VOR frequency range is;
108 - 112 MHz
108 - 118 MHz
108 - 136 MHz
106 - 136 MHz

191 21.2.5.1 Basic principles Typ: MC 1050 AviaExam2950 5/18/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:
2500 MHz.
2500 kHz.
360 MHz.
3600 MHz.
The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:
2500 MHz.
2500 kHz.
360 MHz.
3600 MHz.
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
give an indication of cloud tops
inhibit unwanted ground returns
extend the mapping range
The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:
4 m.
40 m.
7.5 m.
75 m.
In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:
2.53 m.
25.3 m.
2.53 cm.
25.3 cm.
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne

weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
cumulus
cirrocumulus
stratus
altostratus
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture
sources
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near

static returns
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture
sources
If the directional signal leads the reference signal by 30? the magnetic bearing
to the VOR station will be
30?
210?
150?
330?
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be

selected to code:
7600
7700
7000
7500
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the

flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be
selected to:
7500
7600
7700
7000
With an omni-selector of 090? on a VOR indicator and the directional phase

lagging the reference pahse by 280°, the VOR indicator will show
fly right - FROM
fly right - TO
fly left - TO
fly right -- FROM
203 61.5.1 Use of visual observations and application to in-f Typ: MC 300 AviaExam2294 11/16/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an
airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the
magnetic variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature
is:
160°
220°
310°
130°
204 62.6.1 Doppler Typ: MC 301 AviaExam2295 11/16/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency in doppler which is

proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
the transmitter moves towards the receiver
the transmitter moves away from the receiver
the receiver moves towards the transmitter
both transmitter and receiver move towards each other

Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the
horizon and set every day?
66°
68°
72°
62°
060-003.jpg
The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG (Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W)
is:
1413
0930
0113
2230
An aircraft heading 340?M at 30 nm from a VOR station on a bearing of 142?M

from the station. 146?M is selected on the OBS and the TO/FROM indicator
shows FROM. The indication on a 5 dot VOR indicator is
2 dots fly right
2 dots fly left
4 dots fly right
4 dots fly left

060-004.htm
When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard Time in Algeria is:
0800
1200
1300
0700
The value of magnetic variation:
has a maximum of 180°
must be 0° at the magnetic equator
varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° West
cannot exceed 90°
210 61.2.2 Aircraft magnetism Typ: MC 306 AviaExam2307 8/15/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the

compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:
clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Factors which could affect the accuracy of a VOR are
site error, propagation error, airborne equipment error, interference

error
site error, propagation error, night effect, airborne equipment error
propagation error, site error, pilotage error, transmitting power
all of the options

The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955.

At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
23°18'
66°42'
68°25'
21°35'
On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along

latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:
1: 5 000 000
1: 3 750 000
1: 2 000 000
1: 6 000 000
The Great Circle bearing from A (70°S 030°W) to B (70°S 060°E) is

approximately:
132°(T)
048°(T)
090°(T)
312°(T)
The factors that could affect the range of a VOR are
transmission power, transmitter height, designated operational

coverage, night effect
designated operational coverage, transmitter height, receiver height,

transmission power, terrain
transmission power, frequency in use, emission type, transmitter height,

receiver height, terrain
emission type, designated frequency, elevation
In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the

chart is approximately:
1: 1 300 000
1: 700 000
1: 130 000
1: 7 000 000
At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1: 3 000 000.

What is the scale at the equator?
1: 6 000 000
1: 3 000 000
1: 3 500 000
1: 1 500 000
If one needle of an RMI is tuned to a VOR and the other to an NDB at the same
site the needles will
point in exactly the same direction
differ by the amount of drift
point different directions at different times
point in different directions because of a difference in variation
What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct
Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 5 000 000 at the equator?
133 mm
106 mm
167 mm
72 mm
The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is
133 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?
1: 25 000 000
1: 30 000 000
1: 18 000 000
1: 21 000 000
A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels:
the scale is only correct along the standard parallels
shows all great circles as straight lines
the scale is only correct at parallel of origin
shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines

When the VOR OBS meter indicates TO and the deviation indicator is
centered, the aircraft is always
on the reciprocal of the radial identified on the course selector
inbound TO the VOR station
on the radial identified on the course selector
none of the options
What is the constant of the cone for a Lambert conic projection whose
standard parallels are at 50°N and 70°N?
0.866
0.941
0.500
0.766
The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the convergence angle
between longitudes 010°E and 030°W is 30°, is:
0.75
0.40
0.50
0.64
A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic
variation is zero is called an:
agonic line
aclinic line
isogonal
isotach
After passing overhead a VOR station, the deviation indicator shows a half
scale deviation to the right. If the deflection remains constant for a period of
time then
the aircraft is flying closer to the radial
the aircraft is flying further from the radial
the OBS is erroneously sets on the reciprocal heading
the VOR is offset
The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field:
is stronger closer to the magnetic equator
weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles
weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole
is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the
right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the
direct reading magnetic compass should read:
less than 060°
060°
more than 060°
more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used

After passing overhead a VOR station, the deviation indicator shows a half
scale deviation to the right. If the deflection remains constant for a period of
time then
the aircraft is flying closer to the radial
the aircraft is flying further from the radial
the OBS is erroneously sets on the reciprocal heading
the VOR is offset
230 62.1.3.0.4 range Typ: MC 1210 40 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft heading 050?T is tracking on a VOR radial. 068 is set on the OBS
and the TO/FROM indicator reads TO. Variation is 10?W. The ADF reading
from an NDB at the VOR station is
352?R
240?R
188?R
008?R
When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the northern hemisphere, the
reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will:
under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the

clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north
clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north
anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at latitude 65° North is 3.75
inches. The chart scale at this latitude approximates:
1: 5 000 000
1: 6 000 000
1: 2 500 000
1: 3 000 000
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the quoted
scale is correct:
along the two standard parallels
in the area between the standard parallels
along the parallel of origin
along the prime meridian
235 61.1.5.0.1 units of distance and height Typ: MC 1213 71 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The scale of a chart is 1: 550,000 at the Equator. The Chart length to the
nearest inch between meridians 7o apart at the equator is :
41
22
63
56
Which of the following is true of a Great Circle?
Its plane passes through the centre of the earth.
The smaller arc of it represents the shortest distance between two

points on the earth.
It is the path radio waves follow over the earth.
All the responses.
237 61.2.3 Knowledge of the principles Typ: MC 327 AviaExam2329 10/7/1994 Pkt.: 1.00
A direct reading compass should be swung when:
there is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude
there is a large change in magnetic longitude
the aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently moved
the aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings
238 61.3.1.0.1 mercator Typ: MC 1215 73 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The scale on a Mercator Chart;
Remains constant with change of latitude
Varies with longitude
Varies with change in latitude.
Remains constant with change of either latitude or longitude.
The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by
using damping wires
using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
using long magnets
pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly

The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used when:
synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements
compensating for deviation
setting local magnetic variation
setting the 'heading' pointer
241 61.1.2.0.3 latitude, difference of latitude Typ: MC 1216 74 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The latitude of a plane is its angular distance;
N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 180o N/S
E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 90o E/W.
E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 180o E/W
N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 90o N/S.
242 61.4.1.0.8 DR-position, fix Typ: MC 1217 75 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
In relation to aircraft positions which of the following statements is correct?
An air position is the current position of the aircraft.
Dead-reackoning(DR) position is the position directly beneath the

aircraft
A pinpoint is the ground position of the aircraft obtained by direct

observation of the ground.
An air position is the position directly beneath the aircraft
The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as

0.78535.
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
51°45'
52°05'
80°39'
38°15'
244 61.3.1.0.2 lambert conformal conic Typ: MC 1218 76 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
In a Lambert Conformal Chart, chart convergency equals earth convergency

at the ;
Poles
Parallels of Origin
Standard Parallels
Equator.
At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° apart is 5 inches.
The scale of the chart at 47° North approximates:
1: 6 000 000
1: 8 000 000
1: 3 000 000
1: 2 500 000
246 61.1.2.0.2 convergency, conversion angle Typ: MC 1219 77 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The formula for Earth Conversion Angle is;
2 * Earth Convergency
½ d.long * sine Mean Latitude.
d.long * sine Mean Latitude.
d.long * cosine Mean Latitude.
On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a:
curve concave to the equator
complex curve
curve convex to the equator
straight line
248 61.1.5.0.3 relationship between nautical Typ: MC 1220 78 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of these statements about Departure is false?
It is measured in nautical miles.
It is the distance E/W between two meridians.
Its formula is d.long * Sine Lat.
Its value at the Equator is d.long converted to minutes of arc
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to

the right.
If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic
compass should read:
more than 225°
225°
less than 225°
more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used
When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the

anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south

251 61.4.2.0.8 wind velocity Typ: MC 1221 68 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Use your CRP 5 to work out the ground speed and Heading given the
following data.
W/V 030°/30ts TAS 180kts Track 086°
Hdg 078° G/S 162 kts
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately

represented at the:
parallel of origin
north and south limits of the chart
standard parallels
Equator
Which of the following statements is true of a great circle?
It is the path radio waves travel over the earth.

All the responses are correct.

Which of these statements about a small circle is false?
The smaller arc of it does not represent the shortest distance between
two points on the earth.
All lines of latitude are small circles.
Its plane does not pass through the centre of the earth.
A radio wave never follows a small circle path.
On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the:
meridian of tangency
Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical
datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it
prime meridian and the equator
Which of these statements about Earth Convergency is false?
It is the angle that any two meridians converge on the earth.
It is the angle that a great circle bearing changes as it passes across

two meridians.
The angle of earth convergency between meridians at the Equator is

d.long.
The angle between two meridians at the pole is d.long.

An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is

locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The
available information from the VOR is:
Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°
Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°
Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
258 61.4.2 Use of the navigational computer Typ: MC 338 AviaExam3557 8/21/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)
803 kg
862 kg
895 kg
940 kg
The formula for Earth Conversion Angle is:
2 * Earth Convergency.
½ d.long * sine Mean Latitude.
d.long * sine Mean Latitude.
d.long * cosine Mean Latitude.

Point C is in the same hemisphere as D. The great circle bearing of D from C

is 044°(T) and C from D is 220°(T). The hemisphere of C and D, and the rhumb
line track from C to D are:
Hemisphere RL C to D
Northern 040°
Southern 042°
Southern 044°
Northern 046°
730 FT/MIN equals:
3.7 m/sec
5.2 m/sec
1.6 m/sec
2.2 m/sec
The great circle track from A (20°00'N 010°00'W) to B (40°00'N 010°00'E) is

060° (T).
The great circle track from B to A is:
240° (T)
245° (T)
250° (T)
230° (T)
How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ?
1 MIN 07 SEC
1 MIN 55 SEC
2 MIN 30 SEC
0 MIN 34 SEC
An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds.

What is its groundspeed?
160 kt
183 kt
209 kt
131 kt
Which of the following is not a property of a conformal chart?
Meridians and latitude lines cut at right angles.
Scale is constant in one direction and has its greatest expansion or

contraction perpendicular to that direction.
The shape of small areas is correctly represented.
Area is correctly represented.

266 61.3.3.0.4 measuring tracks and distances Typ: MC 1229 77 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Chart A has a scale of 1:250,000.

Chart B has a scale of 1:500,000.
Which of these statements is correct?
Chart A has a larger scale because earth distance is larger.
Chart B has a larger scale because earth distance is larger.
Chart A has a larger scale because earth distance is smaller.
Chart B has a larger scale because earth distance is smaller.
An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E.
The total distance travelled is?
3720 NM
5420 NM
1788 NM
2040 NM
On a Lambert Conformal chart, scale is correct at the:
Parallel of origin.
Pole of projection.
Parallel of tangency.
Standard parallels.
269 61.1.4 Directions Typ: MC 343 AviaExam3568 8/28/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have:
the same grivation
the same horizontal magnetic field strength
the same variation
O° magnetic dip
What is the meaning of the term "standard time" ?
It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country
It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA
It is an expression for local mean time
It is another term for UTC
A rhumbline is a line
Joining places of equal latitude
Cutting great circles at the same angle on the earth's surface .
Of constant direction on the earth's surface.
Joining places of the same convergency.
What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W at 2200 UTC?
1345
2200
0615
0815
273 21.2.5.1.2 wave length, ampl., phase angle, freq. Typ: MC 1054 AviaExam3837 9/5/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz

is:
1000 metres.
100 metres.
10 metres.
1 metre.
An aircraft flies from position A (54º 00' N 035 º 10' E) to position B (24 º 20' N
010 º 00' E).
What is the earth's convergency at position B?
15.9 º
39.2 º
25.2 º
90 º
An Agonic line is a line that connects:
positions that have 0° variation
positions that have the same variation
points of equal magnetic dip
points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength
An aircraft flies from position A (54º 00' N 035 º 10' E) to position B (24 º 20' N
010 º 00' E).
find the change in longitude .
25.2 º W
25.2 º E
10 º E
10 º W
An aircraft flies on a track of 270 º T . If the heading is 268 º M and local

deviation is 2 º E, what is the compass reading ?
270 º C
268 º C
266 º C
272 º C
When is the magnetic compass most effective?
About midway between the magnetic poles
In the region of the magnetic South Pole.
In the region of the magnetic North Pole.
On the geographic equator
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF

direction finder is a:
VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
cathode-ray tube.
When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere

accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass
to:
indicate a turn towards the north
lag behind the turning rate of the aircraft
indicate a turn towards the south
to turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft

281 61.1.4.0.2 magnetic poles, isogonals Typ: MC 1235 7 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Agonic lines are lines joining places of
Equal elevation
Equal variation
Zero variation
equal temperature
The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:
metric.
hectometric.
decimetric.
centimetric.
283 61.3.3.0.5 plotting bearings Typ: MC 1236 8 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
In the Southern hemisphere ,an NDB bears 180 º relative. The aircraft heading
is 270 º C and deviation is 2 º E. Variation at the NDB is 20 º W and at the
aircraft position is 18 º W. Earth convergence between the NDB and the
aircraft is 8 º. What is the True bearing to be plotted on a Lambert chart if the
drift is 2 º Port ?
272 º T
090 º T
262 º T
270 º T
What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?
-51°C
-56°C
-66°C
-81°C
285 61.4.4 Determination of DR position Typ: MC 350 AviaExam3592 8/29/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
Given:
True Track = 095°,
TAS = 160 kt,
True Heading = 087°,
GS = 130 kts;
Calculate W/V
057°/36 kt
237°/36 kt
307°/36 kt
124°/36 kt
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:
metric.
hectometric.
decimetric.
centimetric.
An NDB co- located with a VOR bears 178 º relative in the Northern
Hemisphere . The aircraft heading is 300 º C .The deviation is 1 º W, variation
at the VOR is 10 º E and at the aircraft's position is 15 º E . If the OBS selector
is set at 090 º with the indicator indicating 'TO' and the pointer centred , what
do you plot on a Mercator chart ? Use conversion factor of 0.8 and change in
longitude 5 º W.
297 º T
129 º T
278 º T
280 º T
Given:
TAS 487kt,
FL 330,
Temperature ISA + 15.
Calculate the MACH Number?
0.81
0.84
0.76
0.78
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
decimetric.
hectometric.
metric.
centimetric.
An NDB co- located with a VOR bears 178 º relative in the Northern
Hemisphere . The aircraft heading is 300 º C .The deviation is 1 º W, variation
at the VOR is 10 º E and at the aircraft's position is 15 º E . If the OBS selector
is set at 090 º with the indicator indicating 'TO' and the pointer centred , what
do you plot on a Mercator chart ? Use conversion factor of 0.8 and change in
longitude 5 º W ,what is the heading True of the aircraft ?
300ºT
314ºT
309ºT
310ºT
Using your CRP 5 work out the wind velocity given the following data. TAS
225 kt , Heading (HDG)344º, Track made good (TMG) 347º And Ground speed
G/S 274 kt .
200/30
20/30
180/50
360/50
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:
metric.
hectometric.
decimetric.
centimetric.
Given:
M 0.80,
OAT -50°C,
FL 330,
GS 490 kt,
VAR 20°W,
Magnetic heading 140°,
Drift is 11° Right.
Calculate the true W/V?
020°/95 kt
025°/47 kt
200°/95 kt
025°/45 kt
Given:
Pressure Altitude 29000 FT,
OAT -55°C.
Calculate the Density Altitude?
27500 FT
31000 FT
33500 FT
26000 FT
295 61.3.1 General properties of miscellaneous Typ: MC 1240 12 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
In the topographical charts used for Navigation which one would you expect
to have the scale expanding away from the Equator ?
Mercator projection
Lambert conformal conic projection
Transverse Mercator projection
All the options.
The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
decimetric.
metric.
hectometric.
myriametric.
297 61.3.3.0.2 methods of indicating scale and relief Typ: MC 1241 13 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Hachuring when used on charts is normally shown as
Lines drawn on a chart joining areas of equal height above mean sea
level.
Combination of different colours for different heights.
Short lines radiating from high ground
Black dots with adjacent numerals.

Given:
Compass Heading 090°,
Deviation 2°W,
Variation 12°E,
TAS 160 kt.
Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station,
the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN.
What is the W/V °(T)?
160°/50 kt
340°/25 kt
340°/98 kt
155°/25 kt
299 22.1.4 Radio Altimeter Typ: MC 1061 AviaExam3853 9/5/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
centimetric.
myriametric.
decimetric.
metric.
300 61.4.1.0.1 track Typ: MC 1242 14 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is on a heading 232º while flying on a track of 246º from point A to

B.
What would be the heading for the aircraft to fly on the reciprocal of its track
from B to A ?
052º
066º
80º
114º
The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM

represents a width of:
3.5 NM
2.0 NM
2.5 NM
3.0 NM
The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:
hectometric or kilometric.
metric.
decimetric.
centimetric.
303 61.1.2.0.5 use of latitude and longitude Typ: MC 1243 15 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Taking the circumference of the earth as 21600 NM at the Equator , what is the
distance between two longitudes one degree apart at 45 N or S of the Equator
?
30 NM
42 NM
60 NM
2700 NM
An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing

of zero.
If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
right drift
left drift
zero drift
a wind from the west
The angle between the great circle and the rhumb line drawn between two
points and measured at either point is known as ___________angle.
Drift
Convergency
Conversion
Track error
An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft.

Given:
Compass heading 270°
At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°
At station Variation 28°E,
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
254°
252°
072°
074°
How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt?
3.94
2.36
3.25
39.0
An aircraft is flying from point X to Y and the distance between is shown on a

map to be 32 inches apart on a chart with a scale 1 :530,000. The flight time of
the aircraft between the two points is 52 minutes .Find the ground speed of
the aircraft .
218 kt
189 kt
164 kt
269 kts
Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are:
parallel straight lines unequally spaced
parallel straight lines equally spaced
arcs of concentric circles equally spaced
straight lines converging above the pole
What is departure ?
Distance between meridians , cosine latitude times sixty (cos lat *60 )
Distance between latitudes cosine meridian times sixty (cos mer*60)
Distance between meridians sine latitude times sixty( sine lat *60 )
Distance between the Equator and the latitude (60 * cosine latitude).
A chart has the scale 1: 1 000 000. From A to B on the chart measures 1.5
inches (one inch equals 2.54 centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is:
20.6
38.1
44.5
54.2
312 61.4.1.0.2 heading (compass, magnetic, true, grid) Typ: MC 1247 19 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is flying between E and F 230 NM . After flying 80 NM a fix is

obtained which is 12 NM left of track . What is alteration of heading required
to fly direct to F ?
14.2ºR
13.8ºR
11ºR
4.8ºR
Which of the following properties must an orthomorphic chart possess ?
Scale correct and constant at all points , shapes correctly drawn and
world wide coverage.
Scale correct and constant at all points ,similar bearings as measured

on the earth and meridians and latitudes cutting at 90
Fit C6 of sheets , coverage world wide and shapes correctly drawn.
Areas correct relative to each other , both great circles and rhumb lines
are straight lines and shapes correctly drawn.
Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points:
having the same elevation above sea level
with the same variation
having the same longitude
of equal latitude
315 61.1.5.0.2 conversion from one unit to another Typ: MC 1249 22 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The scale of a map is 1 :780,000. What is the Chart length representing 217
KM on the earth ?
15.2 cm
7.8 cm
6.2 cm
27.8 cm
A Rhumb line is:
a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection
any straight line on a Lambert projection
a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection
A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight

planning purposes:
is approximately a Great Circle
is a Loxodromic line
is a Rhumb line
can only be a parallel of latitude

If a flight is to be made from point M at 47ºS ,75ºW to point N at 47º S 34ºW .

Using the shortest route , find the track at N .
105ºT
75ºT
90ºT
85ºT
What is the conversion angle between point P 56ºN03º E and point Q

52ºN06ºW if the rhumb line track is 233ºT
1.5º
2.5º
3.5º
4.0º
Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL.

What is the endurance?
4 HR 32 MIN
3 HR 12 MIN
3 HR 53 MIN
2 HR 15 MIN
321 61.3.1.0.3 polar stereographic Typ: MC 1252 25 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
A projection where by a flat surface ,cylinder or cone is placed conveniently

on the surface of the reduced earth and a source of light at the centre of the
earth projects the graticule on the paper is referred to as :-
Transverse Mercator
Lambert conformal
Mercator
Polar stereographic
What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ?
1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres
1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL
1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres
1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL
Given:
true track is 348°,
drift 17° left,
variation 32° W,
deviation 4°E.
What is the compass heading?
033°
007°
359°
337°
Which one of the following is not considered an essential property of plotting

charts :-
Orthomorphism
Rhumb lines are not necessarily represented by straight lines
Distances should be measured easily
Adjacent sheets should fit
Which one of the following topographical maps would be used to produce

topos of regions having their greatest east -west extent
Lambert
Mercator
Polar stereographic
Transverse Mercator
The circumference of the earth is approximately:
21600 NM
43200 NM
5400 NM
10800 NM
Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
the same variation
0° variation
the same elevation
the same angle of magnetic dip

If a distance of 13.7 NM on the earth is represented by one inch on the map ,

what is the map scale ?
1 : 798910
1 : 898,913
1:100,000
1:999,552
The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 UTC, is:
1738:40 previous day
0621:20 previous day
1738:40 same day
0621:20 same day
330 61.4.2.0.7 airspeed Typ: MC 1256 29 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is flying at FL 330 ,temp. Deviation +20ºC rectified air speed 160 kt.
Using a flight computer find the True Air Speed.
300 kt
326 kt
316 kt
282 kt
331 61.4.2.0.5 conversions Typ: MC 1257 30 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Using a flight computer find the mach number.
0.62
0.42
0.72
0.47
5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of:
80°05'
81°10'
75°00'
78°45'
333 61.4.2.0.5 conversions Typ: MC 1258 31 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Using a flight computer find the Local Speed of Sound.
560.1
569.6
605.2
385.2
What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ?
90°
45°
60°
0°
From A(50º 00' N 05º 00' E) an aircraft flies a great circle track of 000º (T) for
600 NM to B. It then turns onto a rhumb line track of 270º (T) and flies for 455
NM to C. The longitude of C is:
20º 10' E
2 º 35' W
01º 12 ' E
10º10' W
In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
VHF
UHF
SHF
EHF
337 62.2.1 Pulse techniques and associated terms Typ: MC 373 AviaExam4164 9/25/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
pulse technique
transponder interrogation
phase comparison
continuous wave transmission
338 61.1.3.0.4 standard times Typ: MC 1260 33 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
At 1205 Z aircraft A is 76 NM behind aircraft B. Aircraft A is flying at 180 kt and

aircraft B at 140 kt.
At what time will aircraft A pass aircraft B ?
1217 Z
1340 Z
1425 Z
1359 Z
What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?
800 m
8000 m
8m
80 m
340 61.3.2.0.1 direct mercator Typ: MC 1261 34 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
To which bearings must radio bearings be converted before plotting on the

Mercator's Projection Chart?
From rhumb line bearings to great circle bearings.
From great circle bearings to rhumb line bearings.
To rhumb line bearings or to great circle bearings depending on whether

it is in the Northern or Southern Hemisphere.
They need not be converted to any other bearing.
In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
UHF
VHF
SHF
EHF
Chart A has a scale of 1:250,000.

Chart B has a scale of 1:500,000.
Which of these statement is correct?
Chart A has a larger scale because earth distance is larger.
Chart B has a larger scale because earth distance is larger.
Chart A has a larger scale because earth distance is smaller.
Chart B has a larger scale because earth distance is smaller.

Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
Frequency drift at the ground station
Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
The formula for Earth Conversion Angle is:
2 x distance latitude sine mean longitude.
½ distance longitude x sine Mean Latitude.
distance longitude x sine Mean Latitude.
½ distance longitude x cosine Mean Latitude
345 61.3.2 The representation of meridians, parallels Typ: MC 1264 37 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
On a Mercator chart, a great circle is represented as a:
Straight line
Curve concave to the Equator.
Curve concave to the nearer pole.
Curve concave to the meridians.
Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser
cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately ?:
0.5 degrees
1.5 degrees
2.5 degrees
2.0 degrees
On a Lambert Conformal chart, scale is correct at the:
Parallel of origin.
Pole of projection.
Parallel of tangency.
Standard parallels.
Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
400 Hz
1300 Hz
2000 Hz
3000 Hz
The rhumb line track from X to Y is 302(T). The great circle bearing of X from
Y is 128(T).
The great circle bearing of Y from X is:
308 (T)
305(T)
299(T)
296(T)
350 62.5.5 VOR/DME area navigation Typ: MC 379 AviaExam4175 9/25/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple

RNAV system, the VOR/DME
does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
does not have to be in range when entered or used
must be in range
has to be positively identified by one of the pilots

The latitude of a plane is its angular distance.
N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 180° N/S.
E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 90° E/W
N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 90° N/S.
E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 180° E/W.
An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270°
with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
NW
SW
SE
NE
If the frequency is 9.2 GHz, what is its wave length?
3.3 cm
33 cm
3300 cm
330 cm
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within
range of a serviceable VOR.
What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
10° or more
less than 10°
1.5° or more
2.5 or more
A pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within………

of the published approach track.
+/-5°
+/-10°
+/-2.5°
+/-2°
356 21.2.5.3.3 propagation with the frequency bands Typ: MC 1269 3 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Side bands in relation to radio signals are:
Additional frequencies which occur whenever an audio frequency is

modulated by a frequency higher than itself.
The resultant frequency when a carrier is modulated by a frequency

higher than itself.
Only additional frequencies when the audio frequency is amplitude

modulated by a carrier frequency lower than it.
Additional frequencies which occur whenever a carrier is modulated by

a frequency lower than itself particularly audio frequencies.
The importance of knowledge of polarization is said to lie in the orientation of

the receiver aerial. This is because.
A horizontal aerial will efficiently receive the magnetic component of a

vertically polarized signal.
A vertical aerial will efficiently receive both the magnetic and electrical
components that spin about the axis of advance.
A perfectly horizontal aerial will not receive any electrical component

from a vertically polarized signal.
Only a circularly polarized signal will be received by a horizontal aerial.

358 62.6.5 Satellite assisted navigation : Typ: MC 383 AviaExam4193 9/26/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain

a three dimensional fix?
359 62.6.3 Loran-C Typ: MC 384 AviaExam4196 9/26/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous

string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?
Loran C
GPS
Decca
Doppler
Amplitude modulation of frequency fm carried on a transmitted frequency fc

produces:
2 sidebands ( fc + fm ) and ( fc - fm )
One sideband fc + fm
3 sidebands (fc + fm), fc and ( fc - fm )
a multiple of sidebands and a greater bank width.
The factors that determine the ranges available from the sky waves are:
Transmission power, diffraction, critical angle and angle of incidence.
Critical angle, refraction, angle of incidence and diffraction.
Transmission power, conductivity of earth's surface and angle of

incidence.
Transmission power, depth of penetration, critical angle and angle of

incidence.
The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
the horizontal plane
the vertical plane
the vertical and horizontal plane
any plane
What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner
Marker beacon?
blue - amber - white
amber - white - green
white - amber - blue
blue - green - white
Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of

differential range by pulse technique
It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position

lines are obtained in sequence from up to eight ground stations
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range

measurement by phase comparison
It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received

from a minimum of four ground stations
Surface attenuation of a ground wave
Decreases as frequency decreases.
Decreases as frequency increases.
Increases as frequency decreases.
Either decreases as frequency increases or increases as frequency

decreases.
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is

obtained by:
timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the
aircraft's receiver
the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received
from a satellite in a known position
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's
transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known
position
the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals

received from a minimum number of satellites
A radio wave usually increases in speed when crossing a coastline leaving

the land and passing over the sea resulting in
A change in frequency.
A change in wave length.
A change in modulation.
No change in either frequency or wave length.

In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems

(GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
UHF
SHF
EHF
VHF
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode
S are:
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved
ATC aircraft surveillance capability
collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF)

communication capability.
continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning

System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of

automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II
370 62.1.6 MLS Typ: MC 391 AviaExam4858 9/27/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System

(MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it

is not possible to use an ILS
It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth)

transmitter
The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker

beacons or DME) to determine range
There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be

operated because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels
available
A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne

weather radar system because:
the larger water droplets will give good echoes
greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller
water droplets
static interference is minimised
enables the aircraft to detect clear air turbulence
The coast line lies in a North South direction. An aircraft over the sea
receives an ADF bearing of 270° Relative. The true bearing of the aircraft from
the NDB is
Greater than 090°.
Less than 090°.
090°.
Could be greater or less depending on whether the aircraft is flying

North or south.
The ICAO NDB frequency band is
200 khz to 500 khz.
200 khz to 800 khz.
200 khz to 1750 khz.
200 khz to 112 Mhz.

What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to

carry out two dimensional operation?
Which of the following errors is not associated with the VOR?
Site error.
Propagation error.
Interference error.
Quadrantal error.
In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually

indicated on the screen by:
colour zones of red and magenta
blank areas where there is no colour
colour zones of green and yellow
areas which are coloured black
The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a

fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
+ or - 40° of the runway centre-line

If the variable phase of a VOR transmission lags the reference signal by 75°
the bearing to the VOR is
075°.
255°.
285°.
105°.
Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna

stabilisation axes?
roll and pitch
roll, pitch and yaw
pitch and yaw
roll and yaw
You are flying ECHO 1, BE 19 inbound to NV VOR on radial 136°. VOR

variation is
4° W. Variation at aircraft's position is 7° W. If drift is 3° Right, the initial
heading to maintain the radial is
313° M.
143° M.
133° M.
319° M.
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT)
increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of
colour from:
green to yellow to red
yellow to amber to blue
green to red to black
yellow to orange to red
The datum of a Radio Magnetic Indicator RMI is
True North.
Magnetic North.
Grid North.
Compass North.
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an

air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's
indicated flight level in increments of:
100 FT
200 FT
250 FT
150 FT
Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional,

signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives
it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each

time it rotates
The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz

either side of the allocated frequency each time it rotates
The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with

the reference signal
385 62.5.4 Types of area navigation system inputs Typ: MC 400 AviaExam4876 10/19/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate

Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
DME/DME
VOR/DME
NDB/VOR
VOR/VOR
Which of the following factors is not an advantage of the primary radar?
The system needs low power as the signals are only doing a one way
journey.
It is a self contained system requiring no external assistance.
A common aerial may be used for both transmission and reception.
For ground installation, sharp accurate narrow beams can be produced

by increasing the aerial size.
A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200

pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
69 NM
135 NM
270 NM
27 NM
In the Cathode Ray tube (CRT) which component is used to emit electrons?
2nd anode.
Cathode.
Grid.
Y plates.
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive

signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
190 NM
230 NM
170 NM
151 NM
390 62.2.2.0.4 range Typ: MC 1290 25 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
If a radio signal takes 450 µs to travel from A to B, what is the distance of B

from A in nautical miles?
72.9 NM
405 NM
64.8 NM
145.8 NM
Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran
C navigation system?
Differential range by pulse technique
Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
Differential range by phase comparison
Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different
duration, is due to the:
inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
earth's rotation
relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the
earth
393 62.2.1 Pulse techniques and associated terms Typ: MC 1291 26 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The time taken for a signal to travel from an aircraft to a DME beacon and
back is 1620 micro seconds (µs). The range of the aircraft is
142 NM
131 NM
250 NM
810 NM
394 62.5.5.0.2 advantages and disadvantages Typ: MC 1292 27 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
When a VOR and DME stations are co-located, and the ident is heard only 3
times in every 30 seconds, this means that
Both the VOR and DME are working normally.
Only the DME is working while the VOR is unserviceable.
Only the DME is unserviceable while the VOR is operating normally.
Both the VOR and DME status cannot be properly be defined by means
of ident.
The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation
are called:
isogonals
isotachs
isogrives
isoclines
Associated VOR and DME is the term given to
VOR and DME facilities that are frequency paired and the aerials are a
maximum of 100 feet apart and the facilities used for Approach
purposes.
VOR and DME facilities that are not frequency paired but aerials are a
maximum of 100 feet apart and used for Approach purposes.
VOR and DME facilities that are frequency paired and aerials are a
minimum of 2000 feet apart and have the same ident and used for
enroute Navigation.
VORand DME facilities that have different idents but are not more than
2000 feet apart and serve the same area.
An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´) flies a constant true track of 270º at
a ground speed of 120 kt.
What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 HR?
N40º 00´ E064º 20´
N40º 00´ E070º 30´
N40º 00´ E060º 00´
N40º 00´ E068º 10´
398 62.1.4.0.4 range Typ: MC 1294 29 11/18/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The DME frequency band is
Very Low Frequency band.
Very high frequency band.
Ultra high frequency band.
Medium to High frequency band.
The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by:
arcs of concentric circles
straight lines
parabolic lines
hyperbolic lines
The greatest error between ground distance to the DME station and the
indicated distance is
High altitudes close to the DME station.
High altitude at maximum range.
Low altitudes at maximum range.
Low altitudes close to the DME station.

The ICAO definition of ETA is the:
estimated time of arrival at destination
actual time of arrival at a point or fix
estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix
estimated time en route
The range of the Secondary Surveillance Radar is
50 nm
100 nm
200 nm
1000 nm
An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel
215 NM?
50 MIN
100 MIN
90 MIN
80 MIN
When operating the Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) the function switch WEA
or WX is used for
Examine the most turbulent areas in clouds by using an iso echo

display.
Ground mapping by the use of a cosecant beam.
A narrow conical pencil beam used in conjunction with tilt control to

give heights of clouds, and ground mapping at long range.
The normal position for observing clouds using a narrow conical pencil
beam.
Given:
TAS = 220 kt;
Magnetic course = 212 º,
W/V 160 º(M)/ 50kt,
Calculate the GS?
186 kt
290 kt
246 kt
250 kt
Weather radar operates in the SHF band because
Narrow beams can be transmitted only on SHF.
Of the long ranges needed to know the weather ahead.
The scanner dish required by SHF is small and can fit into the nose of an
aircraft.
The short wave lengths produced by SHF give excellent reflections from
large water droplets.
Given:
FL250,
OAT -15 ºC,
TAS 250 kt.
Calculate the Mach No.?
0.40
0.42
0.44
0.39
A radio altimeter indicates the height above the ground of the
Aerials.
Main landing gear.
The pressure altimeter static vent.
The vertical stabilizer of the tail.
During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an
aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
groundspeed
position
track
drift
The type of emission used by ILS is
AIA
J3E
A 9W
A8W
Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending

15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000
FT/MIN?
26.7 NM
19.2 NM
38.4 NM
16.0 NM
Given:
Magnetic track = 315 º,
HDG = 301 º(M),
VAR = 5ºW,
TAS = 225 kt,
The aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN.
Calculate the W/V(°T)?
190 º/63 kt
355 º/15 kt
195 º/61 kt
195 º/63 kt
Transmission of the ILS ident occurs on the
Glide slope transmission.
Fan markers transmission.
Localizer transmission.
All the options are correct.
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
1030 +/- 0.2 MHz
1050 +/- 0.5 MHz
1090 +/- 0.3 MHz
1120 +/- 0.6 MHz

The ICAO standard height of the ILS reference point is
10 feet.
15 feet.
20 feet.
50 feet.
416 62.5.2 Typical flight deck equipment and operation Typ: MC 416 AviaExam5150 10/24/1995 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a
flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
ETO
ETD
ATA
Elapsed time on route.
The ILS inner, middle and outer marker frequencies are
Variable but paired and are found in various flight guides.
Found in the Aeronautical Publications for each particular ILS approach

plates.
Between 110.3 MHZ and 118 MHZ.
They are all 75 MHZ.
The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
radar principles using frequency shift
radio waves refraction in the ionosphere
Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System
phase comparison from ground station transmissions

The maximum safe deviation from the ILS glide path during an approach
using a 5 dot CDI is
2 dots fly up.
4 dots fly up.
2½ dots fly up
5 dots fly up.
The GPWS operates in a height range above ground level of
50 ft to 2 450 ft
200 ft to 2 500 ft
100 ft to 1 800 ft.
300 ft to 900 ft.
One purpose of compass calibration is to determine the deviation:
on any heading
on a given heading
at any latitude
on N, S, E and W only
The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured
by a pulsed radar is pulse:
length
amplitude
repetition rate
frequency
The peak value of current either positive or negative is known as;
Amplitude
Frequency
Cycle
wavelength
A transmitter with a vertical aerial or antenna produces;
a horizontally polarised radio wave.
a vertically polarised radio wave.
a loop type wave.
either a)or b) depending on receiver antenna.
Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency

(PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets
unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
405 pps
782 pps
308 pps
375 pps
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF
receivers?
200 - 1750 kHz
255 - 455 kHz
300 - 3000 kHz
200 - 2000 kHz

The ILS-glide slope employs frequencies under the;
HF band
SHF band
UHF band
VHF band
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather
radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the
time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276° with the
magnetic variation 12°W?
054°
318°
234°
038°
An NDB emits radio waves of 400 M wavelength.
What is the frequency?
75 KHZ
75 MHZ
750 MHZ
750 KHZ
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring

Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured
+ or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater
+ or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5

NM
Peak amplitude for an audio frequency is 4.5 cm and that of the carrier wave
is 5 cm.
Calculate the depth of modulation.
90%
100%
111%
4.5%
In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials,
the:
signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
sense aerial must be tuned separately
mode selector should be switched to 'loop'
BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

Which of the following is an advantage of using Amplitude Modulation over

Frequency Modulation?
Less modulating power is required when using AM.
Less complex transmitters are used to propagate the AM signals.
AM transmissions utilise a narrower bandwidth.
AM LHF band free from static.
Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an

approximate:
decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
An aircraft is flying at FL 330 .
What is the maximum range that a signal can be received from a transmitter at
pressure altitude 5500 ft ?
309.7 NM
115.4 NM
450.3 NM
319.7 NM
MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide

azimuth coverage of:
+ or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
A common source of static is;
Noise
Lightning
Turbulence
Cold front
Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates

on frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) ......... possible to
determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
(i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
(i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never
(i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
(i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never

A radio magnetic Indicator ( RMI ) displays a warning flag which indicates a

compass failure .
The radio bearing pointers;
Cannot be used.
Can be used to home to an NDB only.
Can be used to home to an NDB and a VOR station
Can be used to track to a VOR only.
440 61.4.3.0.1 heading Typ: MC 1315 10 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
QUJ is the;
Magnetic track the aircraft has to steer to reach a station.
True track from a station to the aircraft position.
True track the aircraft has to steer to reach a station.
Magnetic track from a station to aircraft position.
Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i)
….. ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) …. NM
minimum from the threshold.
(i) 8 (ii) 10
(i) 25 (ii) 17
(i) 35 (ii) 25
(i) 5 (ii) 8
At 0800 Z a relative bearing of 250° is obtained from an NDB. At 0806 Z a

relative bearing of 272° is obtained from the same NDB .
If the aircraft altered heading at 0806 Z to fly directly to the NDB , how long
would it take to get to the beacon ?
12 minutes
16 minutes
60 minutes
36 minutes
The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed

of 140 kt is approximately:
760 FT/MIN
850 FT/MIN
670 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
primary radar in the SHF band
primary radar in the UHF band
secondary radar in the SHF band
secondary radar in the VHF band

An aircraft heading 290° M has an ADF reading of 305°R from an NDB .ATC
instructs the pilot to intercept the NDB 020° QDR outbound at an angle of 50°,
the intercept heading and relative bearing is;
Intercept heading Relative bearing
330°M 50°
235°M 230°
235°M 50°
330°M 230°
The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to

the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the

narrower beam
beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with

the mapping mode
beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
when approaching coast-lines in polar regions
The designation of the HF radio receiver is;
A3B
A3A
J3E
J3S
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability

include:
static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
static interference - station interference - latitude error
height error - station interference - mountain effect
coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be

used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets
unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
1620 pps
3240 pps
610 pps
713 pps
When tracking outbound from an NDB with the proper drift correction
established, which direction will the head of the ADF bearing pointer be
deflected?
To the windward side of the aircraft's tail.
To the downwind side of the aircraft's tail.
To the downwind side of the aircraft's nose.
To the windward side of the aircraft's nose.

Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a

maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second)
of:
3000
6000
167
330
ILS glide path 3 ° TAS 150 kt, headwind component 15 kt.
What is the approximate rate of descent?
400 ft /min
675 ft /min
975 ft /min
1005 ft/ min
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary

search radar?
short pulse length and narrow beam
long pulse length and wide beam
long pulse length and narrow beam
short pulse length and wide beam

Inbound to a VOR on a radial 060° you are cleared to hold south of the VOR on
160° radial non- standard pattern.
Which of holding pattern entry should be used?
Parallel
Direct
Teardrop
Offset
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and
reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric

propagation
Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock
Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag
What is the full scale deflection of the CDI when tuned to a localiser ?
5° either side of course
10° either side of course
2.5° either side of course
7.5° either side of course

In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at

which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility
sited 340 feet above mean sea level ?
204 NM
245 NM
163 NM
183 NM
What are the normal minimums for a CAT 1 ILS approach with all components
operative?
RVR 600 m and a Decision height of 300 ft
What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are
used on an ILS approach?
90 HZ 150 HZ
75kHZ 135 kHZ
328mHZ 335 mHZ
63 mHZ 123 mHZ

Amplitude modulated at frequency 10 KHZ carried on a transmitted frequency

5 MHZ produces;
2 sidebands of transmission at 4990 Khz and 500 Khz
2 sidebands of transmissions at 510 Khz and 510 Mhz
An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in

groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The
effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a
decrease of approximately:
150 FT/MIN
250 FT/MIN
50 FT/MIN
100 FT/MIN
If the wavelength is 8 cm, the radio frequency is;
375 MHZ
37.5 GHZ
3.75 GHZ
37.5 MHZ
The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is

determined by the (i)........ ; the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........
(i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
(i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
An aircraft is on a true bearing of 216° from a VOR station .The variation at the
station is 10° E and at the aircraft is 8° E, what is the phase difference
between the reference and the variable signals arriving in the aircraft's
receiver?
206°
216°
226°
200°
Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency,

which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
the transmitter moves away from the receiver
the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
the transmitter moves toward the receiver
there is no relative movement between the transmitter and the receiver

A non-directional beacon transmits;
Horizontally polarised signals in the MF band
Vertically polarised signals in the LF band.
Horizontally polarised signals in the LF band.
Vertically polarised signals in the MF band.
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have

adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional
operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate
any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution.
The number of satellites is:
An aircraft is heading 160°T, variation is 5°W. An NDB bears 110° R.
What is the QDM of the aircraft?
275° M
090° T
270° T
095° M
A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a

maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
67 NM
135 NM
270 NM
27 NM
An aircraft is homing to a VOR whose variation is 5°W .The aircraft's position

variation is 4°W.
What is the initial heading if the aircraft maintains radial 253°and has a drift of
8°P?
250°M
073°M
065°M
081° M
The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two

overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry
different (ii)..........
(i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies
(i) the same (ii) phases
(i) different (ii) modulation frequencies
(i) different (ii) phases

Failure warning flag of the radio altimeter appears when;
Altitude exceeds 2500 ft
There is a signal transmission fault
Reflections are received from the airframe of the aircraft.
The aircraft descends below 500 ft
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have

adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional
operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
function. The number of satellites is:
If the 5 dot CDI is 1 (ONE) dot to the left with 090 selected in the OBS and the
FROM flag is showing, what radial is the aeroplane on?
092°
088°
272°
268°
Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial

normally situated?
On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on
the extended centreline
At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the
centreline
At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300
m along the extended centreline
At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m
from touchdown
The BLUE sector of the ILS approach path is modulated at;
50 Hz
90 Hz
150 Hz
110 Hz
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant
radiation pattern.
MAPPING
CONTOUR
WEATHER
MANUAL
What alert signal is given on the GPWS Mode 3 to indicate a negative rate
climb after take off or go around?
Whoop whoop pull up
Terrain terrain
Glide slope
Don't sink
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the
coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both
propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft
that is over water will be:
greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
180° and 360°
greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
090° and 270°
A radar has a maximum range of 180 NM. What is its Pulse Recurrence
Frequency?
450 PPS
900 PPS
274 PPS
137 PPS
Given:
True track 180°
Drift 8°R
Compass heading 195°
Deviation -2°
Calculate the variation.
21°W
25°W
5°W
9°W
An aircraft flying at an altitude of 6000 ft AGL picks a cloud formation on the

weather radar at a range of 45 NM. At a tilt angle of +5°the cloud just
disappears from the radar display. The beam width is 4°.
What is the height of the cloud top from the ground level?
13680 ft
6000 ft
19680 ft
26000 ft
The radio altimeter works on the principle of;
Phase difference
Frequency modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude modulation
Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:
Magnetic North and Compass North
True North and Magnetic North
True North and Compass North
the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field
Given:
True course 300°
drift 8°R
variation 10°W
deviation -4°
Calculate the compass heading.
306°
322°
294°
278°
If a DME beacon becomes saturated, it adjusts itself to give preference to;
Maximum of 27 aircraft irrespective of distance
Those aircraft that send signals faster irrespective of distance
The nearest aircraft
The farthest aircraft

Given:
true track 352°
variation 11° W
deviation is -5°
drift 10°R.
Calculate the compass heading?
358°
346°
018°
025°
A receiver is moving away from a stationary transmitter at a speed of 380 m/s.
If the transmission wavelength is 4.3 cm, what is the Doppler frequency?
883.72 Hz
88.372 Hz
7 GHZ
8.8372 kHz
Given:
true track 070°
variation 30°W
deviation +1°
drift 10°R
Calculate the compass heading?
089°
091°
100°
101°
What determines the maximum range of a radar set?
Transmission frequency
Pulse Recurrence Period
Pulse width
Pulse Recurrence Frequency
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called:
variation
deviation
compass error
drift
What is the meaning of the term 'Radial ' with respect to VOR?
The magnetic bearing to a VOR station.
The True heading from the VOR station
The magnetic bearing from the VOR station
The True heading to a VOR station
The frequency of a radio altimeter is;
4300 MHz SHF
4300 MHz EHF
4250 MHz UHF
4250 MHz VHF

Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:
compass heading
true heading
magnetic course
magnetic track
A nautical mile is:
1852 metres
1609 metres
1012 metres
1500metres
The middle marker (MM) of an ILS system produces the following audio and
visual indications;
Dots with amber light
Dashes with blue light
Alternate dots and dashes with an amber light
Alternate dots and dashes with a blue light.

An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances

from position 04°00'N 030°00'W:
600 NM South,
then 600 NM East,
then 600 NM North,
then 600 NM West.
The final position of the aircraft is:
04°00'N 029°58'W
04°00'N 030°02'W
04°00'N 030°00'W
03°58'N 030°02'W
The critical angle of a sky wave transmission is defined as the angle between
the:
Horizontal at the transmitter and the first skywave.
Vertical at the transmitter and the first skywave.
Vertical at the receiver and the first skywave.
Vertical at the receiver and a skywave.
What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances
have been followed from position 60°00'N 030°00'W?
South for 3600 NM,
East for 3600 NM,
North for 3600 NM,
West for 3600 NM.
The final position of the aircraft is:
60°00'N 090°00'W
60°00'N 030°00'E
59°00'N 060°00'W
59°00'N 090°00'W
A DME beacon is normally capable of replying to a maximum of aircraft. The

approximate number is:
120
20
100
150
Which of the following properties is NOT required by " TOPOS" in relation to

Topographical maps ?
Scale fairly constant and any scale error distributed evenly.
All bearings must be correct
Shapes are shown fairly correctly
Adjacent sheets fit accurately.
Given:
TAS = 270 kt,
True HDG = 270°,
Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt,
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
6R - 259kt
6L - 256kt
6R - 251kt
8R - 259kt
Given:
TAS = 270 kt,
True HDG = 145°,
Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt.
6°L - 256 kt
6°R - 251 kt
8°R - 261 kt
6°R - 259 kt
Which of the following is NOT an expression of Chart Scale?
Statement in words
Representative fraction
Latitudinal Scale
Graduated Scale Line
Given:
TAS = 470 kt,
True HDG = 317°
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt
5°L - 470 kt
3°R - 470 kt
5°L - 475 kt
5°R - 475 kt
506 61.3.1.0.1 mercator Typ: MC 1349 3 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following is true about the Mercator's projection?
The point of tangency is the equator
scale is constant from Equator to the Poles
Great Circles are straight lines
It is an equal area projection
Given:
TAS = 140 kt,
True HDG = 302°,
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt
16°L - 156 kt
9°R - 143 kt
9°L - 146 kt
18°R - 146 kt
Given:
TAS = 290 kt,
True HDG = 171°,
W/V = 310°(T)/30kt
4°L - 314 kt
4°R - 310 kt
4°R - 314 kt
4°L - 310 kt
In relation to the Lamberts Projection which of the following statements is

FALSE?
The meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude cut at right angles.
It is assumed that the parallel of origin is midway between the standard

parallels.
The scale is only correct at the standard parallels.
The scale contracts outside the standard parallels.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an orthomorphic chart?
Meridians and parallel cut at 90o
Scale must be correct in all directions at any one point.
Straight lines - both great circles and rhumb lines as straight lines.
Bearings - similar to bearings on earth.
Given:
TAS = 485 kt,
True HDG = 226°,
W/V = 110°(T)/95kt.
9°R - 533 kt
7°R - 531 kt
9°R - 433 kt
8°L - 435 kt
Which of the following projections is Mathematical in construction?
Lambert_s Orthomorphic
Mercators
Polar Sterograhic
Transverse Mercators
Given:
TAS = 472 kt,
True HDG = 005°,
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS.
6°L/490 kt
6°R/490 kt
6°L/402 kt
6°R/462 kt
Given:
TAS = 190 kt,
True HDG = 085°,
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.
8°L - 146 kt
7°L - 156 kt
4°L - 168 kt
4°L - 145 kt
515 61.1.1.0.1 seasonal and apparent move of the sun Typ: MC 1353 7 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
According to Kepler_s law, the Earth is closest to the sun during
Perihelion
Aphelion
Solstice
Equinox
Given:
TAS = 132 kt,
True HDG = 257°
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
4°R - 165 kt
2°R - 166 kt
4°L - 167 kt
3°L - 166 kt
517 61.3.3.0.1 plotting positions Typ: MC 1354 8 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
In Navigation Plotting the symbol----------->>------------ denotes
Track made good between two ground positions
Heading and ground speed
Wind velocity
Track and ground speed.

Given:
TAS = 370 kt,
True HDG = 181°,
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
Calculate the true track and GS?
186 - 370 kt
176 - 370 kt
192 - 370 kt
189 - 370 kt
The value of Chart Convergency in a mercator chart is
d.long x Sin mean latitude
d. long x Sin. Parallel of Origin
d. long x Cos latitude
Zero
The rhumbline track from P to Q in the Southern Hemisphere is 079o(T) if the

convergency between P and Q is 6o, find the great circle bearing from Q to P.
265o
250o
256o
262o
Given:
TAS = 375 kt,
True HDG = 124°,
W/V = 130°(T)/55kt.
123 - 320 kt
125 - 322 kt
126 - 320 kt
125 - 318 kt
Given:
TAS = 125 kt,
True HDG = 355°,
W/V = 320°(T)/30kt.
005 - 102 kt
345 - 100 kt
348 - 102 kt
002 - 98 kt
A straight line drawn on a chart measures 14.1 inches and represents 275 Nm
on the earth.
The scale of this chart is:
1:1422 979
1: 7652961
1:1235746
14: 275
Chart R has a scale of 1:300,000. Chart S has a scale of 1:150,000 which of

these statements is correct?
Chart A has a larger scale because earth distance is larger
Chart S has a larger scale because earth distance is large.
Chart R has a larger scale because earth distance is smaller.
Chart S has a larger scale because earth distance is smaller.
Given:
TAS = 198 kt,
HDG (°T) = 180,
W/V = 359/25.
Calculate the Track(°T) and GS?
180 - 223 kt
179 - 220 kt
181 - 180 kt
180 - 183 kt
Using your CRP 5 work out the Heading and Ground Speed given the
following data.
W\V 045/32 Kt TAS 215kts Track 096o
090o/194 kts
102o/37 kts
090o/237 kts
102o/196 kts.
Given:
TAS = 135 kt,
HDG (°T) = 278,
W/V = 140/20kt
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
283 - 150 kt
279 - 152 kt
272 - 121 kt
275 - 150 kt
What is the maximum Theoretical Range at which a VOR should be received

by an aircraft at FL 230? Assume the VOR is at pressure altitude 5000 ft.
101 Nm
282 Nm
278 Nm
150 Nm
Given:
TAS = 225 kt,
HDG (°T) = 123°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
134 - 178 kt
134 - 188 kt
120 - 190 kt
128 - 180 kt
530 61.1.3.0.3 LMT Typ: MC 1361 15 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
When the time is 0745 LMT at a place 65o 451 W, what is the time UTC is
0322 UTC
0745 UTC
0953 UTC
1208 UTC
Given:
TAS = 480 kt,
HDG (°T) = 040°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
034 - 445 kt
028 - 415 kt
032 - 425 kt
036 - 435 kt
Given:
TAS = 155 kt,
HDG (T) = 216°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS.
231 - 196 kt
224 - 175 kt
222 - 181 kt
226 - 186 kt
The great circle track from A (20°00'N 10°00'W) to B (40°00'N 10°00'E) is

060(T).
The great circle track from B to A is:
240(T)
245(T)
250(T)
230(T)
Given:
TAS = 170 kt,
HDG(T) = 100°,
W/V = 350/30kt.
109 - 182 kt
091 - 183 kt
103 - 178 kt
098 - 178 kt
535 61.1.1.0.1 seasonal and apparent move of the sun Typ: MC 1363 17 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Sunrise or Sunset in the air almanac occur when
The sun's lower limb is on the horizon
The sun's upper limb is on the horizon
The sun's centre is on the horizon
During evening or morning twilights.

Given:
TAS = 235 kt,
HDG (T) = 076°
W/V = 040/40kt.
7R - 204 kt
7L - 269 kt
5L - 255 kt
5R - 207 kt
Position D and E are in the same hemisphere the great circle bearing of E
from D is 076o(T) while the great circle bearing of D from E is 248o(T). Give
the hemisphere of the two positions and the rhumbline direction between D
and E,
Hemisphere of D and E Rhumbline direction
Northern 072oT
Southern 080oT
Northern 080oT
Southern 072oT
On a Lambert Conformal Chart a rhumbline is a
Straight line
Curve concave to the P of O
Curve concave to the nearer pole
Curve concave to the equator.

Given:
TAS = 440 kt,
HDG (T) = 349°
W/V = 040/40kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
4L - 415 kt
2L - 420 kt
6L - 395 kt
5L - 385 kt
Given:
TAS = 465 kt,
HDG (T) = 124°,
W/V = 170/80kt.
8L - 415 kt
3L - 415 kt
4L - 400 kt
6L - 400 kt
Of the following methods of showing relief on topographical charts, which

one uses a series of short lines?
Spot heights
Hachures
Contours
Layer tinting
Given:
TAS = 95 kt,
HDG (T) = 075°,
W/V = 310/20kt.
9R - 108 kt
10L - 104 kt
9L - 105 kt
8R - 104 kt
The chart length between points X and Y is 20 inches on a chart of scale

1:550,000.
The flight time is 22 minutes. What is the approximate ground speed?
410 kts
280 kts
350 kts
450 kts.
Given:
TAS = 140 kt,
HDG (T) = 005°,
W/V = 265/25kt.
10R - 146 kt
9R - 140 kt
11R - 142 kt
11R - 140 kt
Taking the circumference of the earth as 21600 Nm at the Equator, what is the
distance between two longitudes two degrees apart at 75o N or S of the
Equator?
31 NM
116 NM
120 NM
100 NM
On a lambert Conformal Chart a straight line joining position A ( Longitude

20oE) to C (Longitude 15oW) passes through position B. The direction of the
line is 260o (T) at A and 272o at B. If chart convergence factor is 0.8, what are
the true rhumbline tracks from A to B and from A to C.
A to B A to
254 246
246 280
266 274
258 270
Given:
TAS = 190 kt,
HDG (T) = 355°,
W/V = 165/25kt.
1L - 215 kt
1L - 225 kt
1R - 175 kt
1R - 165 kt
Given:
TAS = 230 kt,
HDG (T) = 250°,
W/V = 205/10kt.
2R - 223 kt
2L - 224 kt
1L - 225 kt
1R - 221 kt
Which of the following is not a method of finding conversion angle?
Douglas Protractor
ABAC scale on maps
½ ch long * sine means latitude
Ch long * sine mean latitude
Given:
TAS = 205 kt,
HDG (T) = 180°,
W/V = 240/25kt.
6L - 194 kt
7L - 192 kt
3L - 190 kt
4L - 195 kt
From Q ( 40o 00'N 05o 00 E) an aircraft flies a great circle track of 180 o T for
600 nm to R. It then turns onto a rhumbline track of 090o(T) and flies for 455
nm to S. The longitude of S is
13o46'E
03o14'W
23o46'W
02o14'E
Given:
TAS = 250 kt,
HDG (T) = 029°,
W/V = 035/45kt.
1L - 205 kt
1R - 205 kt
1L - 265 kt
1R - 295 kt
Which of the following statements is true in relation to convergency?
At the Equator, convergency is equal to change of longitude.
It is the angle of inclination between two parallels of latitude.
The formula for convergency is ch long * cos mean latitude.
The amount of convergency depends on the latitude.

Given:
TAS = 132 kt,
HDG (T) = 053°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
050 - 145 kt
057 - 144 kt
052 - 143 kt
051 - 144 kt
555 61.1.4.0.2 magnetic poles, isogonals Typ: MC 1374 28 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Isoclinals are lines on a chart that
joint points having equal magnetic dip
are irregular and join areas where there is no variation
join points having equal variation
are also known as isogonic lines.
Given:
TAS = 90 kt,
HDG (T) = 355°,
W/V = 120/20kt.
346 - 102 kt
006 - 95 kt
358 - 101 kt
359 - 102 kt
A flight is to be made along the shortest route from Y at 66o N 08o W to Z at

62o N 07o E.
The rhumbline track is 143o (T) Sine 64o = 0.9
The great circle track at Z is
337o T
330o T
303o T
323o T
Given:
TAS = 485 kt,
HDG (T) = 168°,
W/V = 130/75kt.
174 - 428 kt
173 - 424 kt
175 - 420 kt
175 - 432 kt
Given:
TAS = 155 kt,
Track (T) = 305°,
W/V = 160/18kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
301 - 169 kt
305 - 169 kt
309 - 170 kt
309 - 141 kt
Which one of the following is not a classification of projections according to

Properties that it has?
Orthomorphic
Zenithal
Equi distance
Equal area
561 61.4.1 Basics of dead reckoning Typ: MC 1377 31 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
In relation to aircraft positions which of the following statements is correct?
An air position is the current position of the aircraft.
DR position is the position directly beneath the aircraft
A pinpoint is the ground position of the aircraft obtained by direct

observation of the ground.
Both B and C are correct.
Given:
TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 003°,
W/V = 190/40kt.
001 - 170 kt
002 - 173 kt
359 - 166 kt
357 - 168 kt
On a Mercator Chart what bearing is to be plotted given a Radio bearing?
Compass bearing
Rhumbline bearing
Great Circle bearing
Magnetic bearing.
Given:
TAS = 227 kt,
Track (T) = 316°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
312 - 232 kt
311 - 230 kt
313 - 235 kt
310 - 233 kt
Given:
TAS = 465 kt,
Track (T) = 007°,
W/V = 300/80kt.
358 - 428 kt
001 - 435 kt
017 - 490 kt
357 - 502 kt
On a Mercator Chart given a VOR bears 075 o (M)TO, the convergency is 8o ,

the deviation is 6o E variation is 15o W at the station . What is the bearing to
plot in the Southern hemisphere?
236o T
244o T
274o T
266o T
Given:
TAS = 200 kt,
Track (T) = 073°,
W/V = 210/20kt.
077 - 214 kt
079 - 211 kt
075 - 213 kt
077 - 210 kt
In a Lambert Conformal Chart convergency equals earth convergency at the :
Poles
P of O
Standard Parallels
Equator.
Which of the following is true of a great circle ?

It is the path radio waves follow over the earth.
All the options are true.
Given:
TAS = 200 kt,
Track (T) = 110°,
W/V = 015/40kt.
099 - 199 kt
121 - 207 kt
121 - 199 kt
097 - 201 kt
The scale on a Mercator Chart:
Remains constant with change of latitude
Varies with longitude
Varies with change in latitude.
Remains constant with change of either latitude or longitude.

Given:
TAS = 270 kt,
Track (T) = 260°,
W/V = 275/30kt.
262 - 241 kt
262 - 237 kt
264 - 241 kt
264 - 237 kt
573 61.3.1.0.4 transverse mercator (1.87) Typ: MC 1383 37 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following is true in relation to traverse Mercator Charts?
Can only be used in the vicinity of the Equator
Will present the shape of surface features accurately provided a large

areas and a small scale is used.
Use a particular meridian central to the area depicted as its datum.
Rhumblines are straight lines.
Given:
True HDG = 307°,
TAS = 230 kt,
Track (T) = 313°,
GS = 210 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
260/30kt
257/35kt
255/25kt
265/30kt
575 61.1.5.0.1 units of distance and height Typ: MC 1384 38 9/1/2008 Pkt.: 1.00
The scale of a chart is 1: 750,000 at the Equator.

The Chart length to the nearest inch between meridians 7o apart at the
equator is :
41
22
63
Given:
True HDG = 233°,
TAS = 480 kt,
Track (T) = 240°,
GS = 523 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
110/75kt
115/70kt
110/80kt
105/75kt
The scale of chart is 1:254,000 the chart length to the nearest cm which
represents 100 Nm on the earth is :
29
73
Given:
True HDG = 133°,
TAS = 225 kt,
Track (T) = 144°,
GS = 206 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
075/45kt
070/40kt
070/45kt
075/50kt
Given:
True HDG = 074°,
TAS = 230 kt,
Track (T) = 066°,
GS = 242 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
180/35kt
180/30kt
185/35kt
180/40kt
The latitude of a plane is its angular distance
N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 180o N/S
E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 90o E/W.
E/W of the Equator to a maximum of 180o E/W
N/S of the Equator to a maximum of 90o N/S.

Given:
True HDG = 206°,
TAS = 140 kt,
Track (T) = 207°,
GS = 135 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
180/05kt
000/05kt
000/10kt
180/10kt
Given:
True HDG = 054°,
TAS = 450 kt,
Track (T) = 059°,
GS = 416 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
010/50kt
005/50kt
010/55kt
010/45kt
Given:
True HDG = 145°,
TAS = 240 kt,
Track (T) = 150°,
GS = 210 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
115/35kt
360/35kt
180/35kt
295/35kt
Given:
True HDG = 002°,
TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 353°,
GS = 132 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
095/20kt
090/15kt
090/20kt
095/25kt
Given:
True HDG = 035°,
TAS = 245 kt,
Track (T) = 046°,
GS = 220 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
340/50kt
335/45kt
335/55kt
340/45kt
Given:
course required = 085° (T),
Forecast W/V 030/100kt,
TAS = 470 kt,
Distance = 265 NM.
Calculate the true HDG and flight time?
075°, 39 MIN
076°, 34 MIN
096°, 29 MIN
095°, 31 MIN
Given:
True course from A to B = 090°,
TAS = 460 kt,
W/V = 360/100kt,
Average variation = 10°E,
Deviation = -2°.
Calculate the compass heading and GS?
069° - 448 kt
068° - 460 kt
078° - 450 kt
070° - 453 kt
For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface

W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt.
VAR is 13°E.
Calculate the cross wind component?
22 kt
26 kt
15 kt
20 kt
Given:
Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 kt.
Planned runway 05 (047° magnetic).
The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210°.
Variation is 17°E.
Calculate the maximum allowable wind speed that can
be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit?
11 kt
18 kt
8 kt
15 kt
Given:
Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt.
Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M).
Wind direction 100°(M)
Calculate the maximum allowable wind speed?
33 kt
37 kt
26 kt
25 kt
Given:
True course A to B = 250°
Distance A to B = 315 NM
TAS = 450 kt.
W/V = 200°/60kt.
ETD A = 0650 UTC.
What is the ETA at B?
0736 UTC
0730 UTC
0810 UTC
0716 UTC
Given: GS = 510 kt.

Distance A to B = 43 NM
What is the time (MIN) from A to B?
7
Given: GS = 122 kt.

Distance from A to B = 985 NM.
What is the time from A to B?
8 HR 04 MIN
7 HR 48 MIN
7 HR 49 MIN
8 HR 10 MIN
Given: GS = 236 kt.

Distance from A to B = 354 NM
1 HR 30 MIN
1 HR 09 MIN
1 HR 10 MIN
1 HR 40 MIN
Given: GS = 435 kt.

4 HR 25 MIN
3 HR 25 MIN
3 HR 26 MIN
4 HR 10 MIN
Given: GS = 345 kt.

10 HR 19 MIN
10 HR 05 MIN
11 HR 00 MIN
11 HR 02 MIN
Given: GS = 480 kt.

11 HR 10 MIN
11 HR 06 MIN
11 HR 07 MIN
11 HR 15 MIN
Given: GS = 95 kt.
5 HR 03 MIN
4 HR 59 MIN
5 HR 00 MIN
5 HR 08 MIN
Given: GS = 105 kt.

00 HR 59 MIN
00 HR 57 MIN
00 HR 58 MIN
01 HR 01 MIN
Given: GS = 120 kt.

00 HR 42 MIN
00 HR 43 MIN
00 HR 44 MIN
00 HR 45 MIN
Given: GS = 135 kt.

3 HR 12 MIN
3 HR 25 MIN
3 HR 19 MIN
3 HR 20 MIN
A straight line is drawn on a Lamberts conformal conic chart between two

positions of different longitude. The angular difference between the initial true
track and the final true track of the line is equal to:
chart convergency
earth convergency
conversion angle
difference in longitude
If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
great circle track
rhumbline track
line of constant bearing
constant magnetic track
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT

above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
113 NM
90 NM
98 NM
123 NM
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT

above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
137 NM
123 NM
130 NM
145 NM
What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in
order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169
FT above MSL?
FL60
FL50
FL80
FL100
An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector
(OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are
'fly':
left with 'TO' showing
right with 'TO' showing
right with 'FROM' showing
left with 'FROM' showing
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
Local thunderstorm activity
Coastal effect
Quadrantal error
Precipitation interference
Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.

From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.
On what radial is the aircraft?
275
085
265
095
Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?
It can provide DME distance
It is of no use to civil aviation
It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
It can provide a magnetic bearing
The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
108 to 117.95 MHz
108 to 111.95 MHz
118 to 135.95 MHz
108 to 135.95 MHz
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
109.15 MHz
108.25 MHz
110.20 MHz
112.10 MHz
The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
pulse recurrence frequency
wave length
frequency
pulse length
A frequency of airborne weather radar is:
9375 MHz
9375 GHz
9375 kHz
93.75 MHz
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR

and to cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the
minimum rate of descent required is:
960 FT/MIN
860 FT/MIN
890 FT/MIN
920 FT/MIN
616 61.5.3 Navigation in cruising flight, use of fixes to rev Typ: MC 535 AviaExam5949 5/8/1996 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is required to reduce speed in

order to cross a reporting point five minutes later than planned.
Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM
from the reporting point Mach Number should be reduced to:
M0.74
M0.76
M0.78
M0.80
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes
later on a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation
25°W, drift 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280°, the
distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:
30 NM and 240°
40 NM and 110°
40 NM and 290°
30 NM and 060°
An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80.

Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt.
The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
69 NM
79 NM
49 NM
59 NM
An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is
required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than
planned.
Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting
point IAS should be reduced to:
159 kt
165 kt
169 kt
174 kt
Given:
Runway direction 083°(M),
Surface W/V 035/35kt.
Calculate the effective headwind component?
24 kt
27 kt
31 kt
34 kt
Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a

scale of 1: 2 000 000?
130
150
329
43
An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at

FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility.
If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum rate of
descent required is:
1340 FT/MIN
1390 FT/MIN
1240 FT/MIN
1290 FT/MIN
An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind component 110 kt, is

planned.
If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the reporting point, what
Mach Number is required?
M0.81
M0.73
M0.75
M0.79
Given:
For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component
of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt.
The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60°,
Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds?
20 kt and 40 kt
12 kt and 38 kt
15 kt and 43 kt
18 kt and 50 kt
An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70.

Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt.
What is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should
commence?
53 NM
58 NM
63 NM
68 NM
Given:
Runway direction 230°(T),
Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt.
Calculate the effective cross-wind component?
31 kt
36 kt
21 kt
26 kt
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when

100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at FL120.
If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum
rate of descent required is approximately:
1650 FT/MIN
2400 FT/MIN
1000 FT/MIN
1550 FT/MIN
An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind component minus 35 kt, is
planned.
Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150 NM from the
reporting point the IAS should be reduced by:[
20 kt
25 kt
30 kt
15 kt
A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75.

The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N
050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A; course at B is 055°(T).
What is the longitude of B?
34°W
36°W
38°W
41°W
Given:
Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt.
Calculate the cross-wind component?
10 kt
19 kt
16 kt
13 kt
At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt,

is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant.
The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.
For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt,
the latest time at which to commence descent is:
0445
0448
0451
0454
An aircraft at FL330 is required to commence descent

when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100.
The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
1950 FT/MIN
1650 FT/MIN
1750 FT/MIN
1850 FT/MIN
An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the
relative bearing from the same NDB is 270°.
Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the
NDB at 0840?
40 NM
50 NM
60 NM
30 NM
The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately:
136 kt
145 kt
210 kt
35 kt

when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80.
Mean GS during descent is 271kt.
1900 FT/MIN
2000 FT/MIN
1700 FT/MIN
1800 FT/MIN
A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80.

A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at
A; course at B is 092°(T).
What is the longitude of B?
011°E
009°36'E
008°E
019°E
Given:
Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt.
Calculate the cross-wind component?
21 kt
24 kt
27 kt
18 kt

when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80.
The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt.
1800 FT/MIN
1900 FT/MIN
1600 FT/MIN
1700 FT/MIN
An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left.

The aircraft heading is 120°(M) and the magnetic variation 17°W.
What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?
268°
302°
088°
122°
The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An aircraft departs

position A and after having travelled 60 NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM
left of the intended track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what
alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at position B?
6° Right
8° Right
2° Left
4° Right
Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation.

The charted values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually
due to:
magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to

increase or decrease
magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to

increase.
a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to

decrease.
an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to

increase.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning

errors on a direct reading compass?
Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at

high latitudes
Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high
latitudes
Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at

high latitudes
Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at

high latitudes
Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a

Direct Reading Compass?
After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has

been struck by lightning
Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of

magnetic latitude
After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to
unserviceability
Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites'

transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver
the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received

from a number of satellites in known positions
measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a

number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft's
receiver
measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum

number of satellites received in a specific sequential order
Question to be deleted: Which of the following statements concerning earth

magnetism is completely correct?
An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic

variation; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip

variation; the agonic line is the line of zero magnetic dip
An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is

the line of zero magnetic dip

variation; the aclinic connects places with the same magnetic field
strength
Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation

system?
90 - 110 kHz
1750 - 1950 kHz
10.2 - 13.6 kHz
978 - 1213 MHz
GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of

signals.
Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
L1-precise (P)
L2-for communications purpose
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS

receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
WGS 84
ED 87
ED 50
PZ 90
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a
GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
Latitude and longitude
Latitude, longitude and time
Latitude, longitude and altitude
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3°

glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
450 FT/MIN
400 FT/MIN
600 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a

distance of 120 NM on the earth.
The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10°N, a
distance of:
122.3 NM
117.7 NM
124.2 NM
118.2 NM
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a

distance of 90 NM on the earth.
The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30°N, a
distance of:
110 NM
73.5 NM
78 NM
45 NM
In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:
by integrating measured acceleration
from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)
from TAS and W/V from RNAV data
by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively
In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the
Apparent Sun and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?
February and November
March and September
June and December
April and August

What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an
altitude of 90° above the horizon at some time during the year?
23°
45°
66°
0°
Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S).

At which time of year is the relationship between the length
of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination
of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
Spring equinox and autumn equinox
Summer solstice and spring equinox
summer solstice and winter solstice
Winter solstice and autumn equinox
At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?
Beginning of January
End of March
Beginning of July
End of June
At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
Beginning of July
End of December
Beginning of January
End of September
A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 180°E/W.

The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is approximately:
1000
1222
540
804
An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km.

On completion of the flight the longitude will be:
000°40'E
005°15'E
002°10'W
000°15'E
The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 'x' is 900 NM.
What is the longitude of 'x'?
170°W
140°W
145°E
175°E
An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km.

On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
03°50'S
04°10'S
04°30'S
09°05'S
An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890 km/Hr.

What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR?
02°00'N
12°15'N
22°00'N
03°50'N
An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/Hr.

What will be its latitude after 3 HR?
02°00'S
12°15'S
22°00'S
03°50'S
The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass
in the wingtip of an aeroplane is:
to minimise the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and

electrical circuits
to maximise the units exposure to the earth's magnetic field
to ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft
for ease of maintenance
by having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation

effects caused by the aircraft structure
On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the:
meridians of tangency
equator and parallel of origin
meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude perpendicular to it
prime meridian and the equator
On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of

latitude appear as:
ellipses
straight lines
hyperbolic lines
parabolas
An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to produce:
charts of the great circle route between two points
radio navigational charts in equatorial regions
topographical maps of large east/ west extent
plotting charts in equatorial regions
Transverse Mercator projections are used for:
maps of large north/south extent
maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areas
radio navigation charts in equatorial areas
plotting charts in equatorial areas

Given:
Distance A to B = 120 NM,
After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course.
What heading alteration should be made in order to arrive at point 'B'?
8° right
6° right
4° right
8° left
An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.

Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM
True airspeed 470 kt
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
1657
1744
1846
1721
An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.

Given:
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
2141 NM
1611 NM
1759 NM
2844 NM
Given:
Groundspeed 'out' 420 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 500 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
193 MIN
163 MIN
173 MIN
183 MIN
Given:
Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt
Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt
1940 NM
1908 NM
1736 NM
1630 NM
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.

Given:
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
1752
1756
1820
1742
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.

Given:
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
Safe endurance 10:00 HR
The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'Q' is:
2290 NM
2370 NM
1310 NM
1510 NM
Given:
130 MIN
145 MIN
162 MIN
181 MIN
Given:
1490 NM
1664 NM
1698 NM
1422 NM
Given:
219 MIN
290 MIN
197 MIN
167 MIN
Given:
The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
290 MIN
219 MIN
197 MIN
209 MIN
Given:
The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
114 MIN
110 MIN
106 MIN
102 MIN
Given:
Safe endurance 9 HR
The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
1838 NM
1313 NM
1467 NM
1642 NM
Given:
263 MIN
288 MIN
323 MIN
238 MIN
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later
on a relative bearing of 270°.
The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt.
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?
9 NM
12 NM
3 NM
6 NM
An island is observed to be 30° to the right of the nose of the aircraft.

The aircraft heading is 290°(M), variation 10°(E).
The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is:
330
270
250
310
An island is observed to be 15° to the left.

The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation 17°(W).
The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is:
088
122
268
302
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',

distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs 'A' at 1000 UTC.
After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2 MIN behind planned
time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
1206
1203
1153
1157
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 320 NM,
at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 NM along
track from 'A', the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time.
1333 UTC
1401 UTC
1347 UTC
1340 UTC
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',

distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs 'A' at 0900 UTC.
After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned
time.
1115 UTC
1110 UTC
1044 UTC
1050 UTC
Given:
Magnetic track = 075°,
HDG = 066°(M),
VAR = 11°E,
TAS = 275 kt
Aircraft flies 48 NM in 10 MIN.
Calculate the true W/V °?
340°/45 kt
320°/50 kt
210°/15 kt
180°/45 kt
Given:
Magnetic track = 210°,
Magnetic HDG = 215°,
VAR = 15°E,
TAS = 360 kt,
Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN.
Calculate the true W/V?
265°/50 kt
195°/50 kt
235°/50 kt
300°/30 kt
Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM,
Planned GS 315 kt,
ATD 1000 UTC,
1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
340 kt
360 kt.
300 kt
320 kt.
Given:
Planned GS 315 kt,
ATD 1130 UTC,
1205 UTC - fix obtained 165 NM along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
355 kt
375 kt
395 kt
335 kt
Given:
Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course.
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
15° Right
9° Right
6° Right
18° Right
Given:
Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of course.
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
12° Left
16° Left
4° Left
8° Left
696 61.5.4 Flight log (including navigation records) Typ: MC 615 AviaExam9437 12/11/1996 Pkt.: 1.00
060-005.jpg
Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG'; positions 'A' to 'B'.
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
268° - 1114 UTC
282° - 1128 UTC
282° - 1114 UTC
268° - 1128 UTC
060-005.jpg
Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'C' to 'D'.
HDG 193° - ETA 1239 UTC
HDG 188° - ETA 1229 UTC
HDG 193° - ETA 1249 UTC
HDG 183° - ETA 1159 UTC

060-006.jpg
Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'E' to 'F'.
HDG 105° - ETA 1205 UTC
HDG 095° - ETA 1155 UTC
HDG 106° - ETA 1215 UTC
HDG 115° - ETA 1145 UTC
060-006.jpg
Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'G' to 'H'.
HDG 344° - ETA 1336 UTC
HDG 354° - ETA 1326 UTC
HDG 034° - ETA 1336 UTC
HDG 344° - ETA 1303 UTC
060-006.jpg
Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'J' to 'K'.
HDG 337° - ETA 1422 UTC
HDG 320° - ETA 1412 UTC
HDG 337° - ETA 1322 UTC
HDG 320° - ETA 1432 UTC

060-006.jpg
Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'L' to 'M'.
HDG 075° - ETA 1502 UTC
HDG 064° - ETA 1449 UTC
HDG 075° - ETA 1452 UTC
HDG 070° - ETA 1459 UTC
The resultant of the first integration of the output from the east/west
accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in NAV MODE is:
velocity along the local parallel of latitude
change of longitude
vehicle longitude
departure
Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial Reference System

that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes (RLG) instead of conventional
gyroscopes, is completely correct?
There is little or no 'spin up' time and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g')

forces
The platform is kept stable relative to the earth mathematically rather

than mechanically but it has a longer 'spin up' time
It does not suffer from 'lock in' error and it is insensitive to gravitational
('g') forces
There is little or no 'spin up' time and it does not suffer from 'lock in'
error
The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the operation of Inertial

Navigation Systems/ Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to:
both gyro-stabilised platform and 'strapdown' systems
only gyro-stabilised systems
both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in
the non 'strapdown' mode
only to 'strapdown' laser gyro systems
The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an

inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is:
velocity along the local meridian
groundspeed
change latitude
latitude
Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an

inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE give:
distance east/west
vehicle longitude
distance north/south
velocity east/west
707 61.6.2 Alignment procedures Typ: MC 626 AviaExam9451 1/3/1997 Pkt.: 1.00
During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the

equipment:
will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in
initial longitude
will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in
initial longitude
will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude
will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude
Which of the following statement is correct concerning gyro-compassing of

an inertial navigation system (INS)?
Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it cannot

differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced
accelerations.
Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it can

accelerations.
Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it cannot

accelerations.
Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it can

accelerations.
709 61.6.4 Flight deck equipment and operation Typ: MC 628 AviaExam9456 1/3/1997 Pkt.: 1.00
With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), the initial great circle
track between computer inserted waypoints will be displayed when the
control display unit (CDU) is selected to:
DSRTK/STS
HDG/DA
TK/GS
XTK/TKE
Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with

the mode selector switched to:
ALIGN
STBY
ATT/REF
ON
The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS).
WPT 1: 60°N 30°W
WPT 2: 60°N 20°W
WPT 3: 60°N 10°W
The inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route
(1-2-3).
The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately:
a 9° decrease
zero
a 9° increase
a 4° decrease
The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the

guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is
flying from waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S 080°00'W).
Comparing the initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the final track (°T) at
080°00'W, the difference between them is that the initial track is
approximately:
9° less than the final one
5° greater than the final one
9° greater than the final one
5° less than the final one

The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from
an inertial navigation system.
Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference between initial track
read-out and the average true course given, in each case, a difference of
longitude of 10°?
60°N to 60°N
60°N to 50°N
30°S to 30°N
30°S to 25°S

guidance outputs of an inertial navigation system (INS).
The aircraft is flying between waypoints No. 4 (45°00'N 040°00'W) and No.5
(45°00'N 030°00'W).
If a constant drift angle were experienced between the two waypoints, on
arrival over waypoint No. 5 the track has:
increased by less than 10°
remained unchanged
decreased by less than 10°
decreased by more than 10°

guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS).
The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55°00'N 020°00'W) and
No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W).
With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial
track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be:
274°
278°
266°
270°
Which of the following lists the order of available selections on the Mode
Selector switches of a 737-400 Inertial Reference System?
OFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATT
OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV
OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV
OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV
What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing
with constant CAS?
Mach number increases; TAS increases
Mach number remains constant; TAS increases
Mach number decreases; TAS decreases
Mach number increases; TAS remains constant
Given:
TAS = 197 kt,
True course = 240°,
W/V = 180/30kt.
Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40.
Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM.
1400 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
950 FT/MIN
1500 FT/MIN
Given:
ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG,
GS = 150 kt.
900 FT/MIN
1000 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
Given:
aircraft height 2500 FT,
ILS GP angle 3°.
At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP?
8.3 NM
7.0 NM
13.1 NM
14.5 NM
721 62.5.1 General philosophy Typ: MC 640 AviaExam9880 4/9/1997 Pkt.: 1.00
ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation

which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the

limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that

it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained
navigation aid
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it

is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained
navigation aid
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that

it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained
navigation aids
Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
+/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time
+/- 5NM or better throughout the flight
What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management

System (FMS)?
Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is

applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS
The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux
valve) positioned in the wingtip
The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position
Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS

position and the aircraft magnetic heading
The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS,

GPS etc)
the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
another source of aircraft position; it is independent of other navigation

sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, etc)
Where and when are the IRS positions updated?
Only on the ground during the alignment procedure
During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC
IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button

at the start of the take-off roll
Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known

position (VOR station or NDB)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic

Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
warnings; flight envelope and system limits
flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an

Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
cautions, abnormal sources
flight envelope and system limits
warnings
engaged modes
Under JAR-25 general colour code rules, features displayed in green on an

Electronic Flight Information System should indicate:
engaged modes
cautions, abnormal sources
the earth
the ILS deviation pointer
Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an

Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
the sky
engaged modes
the flight director bar(s)
flight envelope and system limits
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
(EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
green, red, magenta, black
black, amber/yellow, magenta, red
amber/yellow, magenta, black

060-007.jpg
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in MAP mode?
Figure 3
Figure 4
Figure 1
Figure 2
060-007.jpg
display in PLAN mode?
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
Figure 1
060-007.jpg
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
060-007.jpg
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
Figure 4
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
060-008.jpg
display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
Figure 1
Figure 4
Figure 5
Figure 6
060-008.jpg
display in PLAN mode?
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 4
Figure 6
060-008.jpg
display in MAP mode?
Figure 3
Figure 4
Figure 5
Figure 2
060-008.jpg
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
Figure 4
Figure 5
Figure 6
Figure 1
060-008.jpg
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
Figure 5
Figure 6
Figure 2
Figure 3
060-008.jpg
display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
Figure 6
Figure 2
Figure 3
Figure 5
741 62.5.3 Instrument indications Typ: MC 660 AviaExam9915 6/9/1997 Pkt.: 1.00
060-009.jpg
What drift is being experienced?
8° Left
20° Right
20° Left
12° Right
060-010.jpg
What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
097°(T)
170°(M)
140°(M)
280°(T)
060-011.jpg
What wind velocity is indicated?
105°(M)/20KT
030°(M)/20KT
255°(M)/20KT
285°(M)/20KT
060-012.jpg
What is the value of the selected course?
299°(M)
272°(M)
260°(M)
280°(M)
060-013.jpg
What is the aircraft track?
272°(M)
300°(M)
260°(M)
280°(M)
060-014.jpg
The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
VOR/DME/VORTAC
TACAN
VOR
Airport
060-015.jpg
The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
an off-route airport
a designated alternate airport
an off-route VOR/DME
the destination airport
060-013.jpg
What is the heading bug selected to?
260°(M)
272°(M)
280°(M)
300°(M)
060-016.jpg
The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
right of the localizer and below the glidepath
right of the localizer and above the glidepath
left of the localizer and below the glidepath
left of the localizer and above the glidepath
In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)

on a B737-400 will radar returns not be shown?
FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP
FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN

ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
only attitude and heading information
only attitude information
navigation information
altitude, heading and position information
Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the

Inertial Reference System (IRS) display is correct?
It is not updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV
It is constantly updated from information obtained by the FMC
It is updated when 'go-around' is selected on take-off
The positions from the two IRSs are compared to obtain a 'best position'
which is displayed on the IRS
Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an

Inertial Reference System (IRS) in flight is correct?
The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed

outputs, is inoperative for the remainder of the flight
The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a

realignment carried out in flight
The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to
NAV in order to obtain an in-flight realignment
It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the
flight
What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF

let-down may be flown?
VHF radio
VOR
none
VOR/DME
Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be
installed in the aircraft or on the ground
In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
SHF
EHF
VHF
UHF
time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276° with
the magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E?
046°
086°
226°
026°
An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather
the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W?
059°
101°
239°
329°
An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather
the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E?
220°
130°
160°
190°
the magnetic variation (VAR) 25°W?
145°
195°
205°
325°
Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from:
hammering, and the effect of the earth's magnetic field, whilst under
construction
exposure to the earth's magnetic field during normal operation
the combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earth's

magnetic field
the effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms
The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating
compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to:
reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and

electrical circuits
facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the
Earth's magnetic field
place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause

deviation errors
place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic

interference from the aircraft
What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation

System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout?
TAS
IAS
Altitude and OAT
Mach Number
What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System (IRS) which has the
gyros and accelerometers as part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure?
Strapdown
Rigid
Solid state
Ring laser
The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using

laser ring gyros is approximately:
10 MIN
20 MIN
2 MIN
5 MIN
Which of the following statements concerning the alignment procedure for

Inertial Navigation Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at
mid-latitudes is correct?
INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or NAV mode
INS/IRS can only be aligned in the ALIGN mode
INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or ATT mode
INS/IRS can only be aligned in NAV mode
Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial

Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct?
NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the aircraft off the
gate
NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to take-off
NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of passengers and/or

freight
NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure is

commenced
Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated

on a triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System (IRS)
on the CDU is correct?
The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated from
different sources
The positions will be the same because they are an average of three
different positions
The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been decoupled
because of a detected malfunction
The positions will only differ if an error has been made when inputting
the present position at the departure airport
In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to

navigation in the FMC is provided by:
Navigation radios
GPS
Inertial Reference Systems

Aircraft Weather Radar
Navigation radios
GPS
Aircraft Weather Radar
Navigation radios

Navigation radios
Terrain Collision Alerting System
How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400

respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the
display
The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning
bar appears
The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash
intermittently
The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System

generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
Symbol Generator
Flight Management Computer
Flight Control Computer
Navigation database
772 61.5.5 Purposes of FMS (flight management systems) Typ: MC 691 AviaExam9991 7/2/1997 Pkt.: 1.00
Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used

to enter flight plan routeing and performance parameters?
Multi-Function Control Display Unit
Flight Management Computer
Inertial Reference System
Flight Director System
What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical

information stored in the FMC In the B737-400 Flight Management System?
28 days
one calendar month
3 calendar months
14 days
In a Flight Management System (FMS), control Display Units (CDUs) are used
pre-flight to
manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information
automatically initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information
manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch
information
manually initialise the IRSs, FMC and Air Data Computer with dispatch
information
How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the B737-400 Electronic
Flight Instrument System?
DME/DME or VOR/DME
VOR/VOR or ADF bearings
DME ranges and/ or VOR/ADF bearings
VOR/DME range and bearing
What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of
message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument
System?
Alerting and Advisory
Urgent and Routine
Priority and Alerting
Urgent and Advisory
Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power application to the

B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
IDENT
INITIAL
POS INIT
PERF INIT
Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally
used on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
IDENT - POS INIT - RTE
POS INIT - RTE - IDENT
IDENT - RTE - DEPARTURE
POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE
For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a

primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
16
The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a

primary radar is the:
pulse recurrence rate
power output
size of parabolic receiver aerial
height of the transmitter above the ground
One purpose of a compass calibration is to reduce the difference, if any,

between:
compass north and magnetic north.
compass north and true north.
true north and magnetic north.
compass north and the lubber line.

Magnetic compass calibration is carried out to reduce:
deviation.
variation.
parallax error.
acceleration errors.
At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a
direct reading pivot suspended compass:
indicates the correct heading
overreads the heading
underreads the heading
indicates a turn to the south
On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is
6 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:
1: 1 850 000
1: 1 000 000
1: 185 000
1: 18 500 000
Given:
Chart scale is 1: 1 850 000.
The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres.
Earth distance is approximately:
40 NM
74 NM
100 NM
4 NM
The force acting on the needle of a direct reading compass varies:
directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's

magnetic field
inversely with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
Given:
An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°);
The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.;
TAS on approach is 95 kt.
In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's heading (°M) should be:
328°
322°
316°
326°
Given:
VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E;
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E.
What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
167°
347°
160°
193°
On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance measured between W002°

and E008° is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
1: 2 780 000
1: 278 000
1: 5 560 000
1: 556 000
An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a
track of 090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of
departure before sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is:
97 NM
115 NM
105 NM
84 NM
Assume a Mercator chart.

The distance between positions A and B, located on the same parallel and 10°
longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1: 9 260 000.
What is the latitude of A and B?
60° N or S
30° N or S
0°
45° N or S
On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), with respect to the
straight line drawn on the map between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°),
the:
great circle and rhumb line are to the south
great circle and rhumb line are to the north
great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south
rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south
Given:
ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC
GS is 441 kt
TAS is 491 kt
At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105
UTC.
The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
40 kt
90 kt
75 kt
60 kt
The flight log gives the following data:

"True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, Magnetic heading,
Compass deviation, Compass heading"
The right solution, in the same order, is:
119°, 3°L, 122°, 2°E, 120°, +4°, 116°
115°, 5°R, 120°, 3°W, 123°, +2°, 121°
117°, 4°L, 121°, 1°E, 122°, -3°, 119°
125°, 2°R, 123°, 2°W, 121°, -4°, 117°
Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern hemisphere,

it can be said that:
on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent

turn to the North
on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent

turn to the South
on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent

turn to the South
on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes an apparent

turn to the North
At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 NM of a VOR/DME

station.
At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40 NM.
Magnetic variation is zero.
The true track and ground speed are:
085° - 226 kt
090° - 232 kt
080° - 226 kt
088° - 232 kt
A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM.

The scale of this chart is approximately:
1: 7 000 000
1: 3 500 000
1: 6 000 000
1: 5 000 000
From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is:
inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground

speed back
proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
inversely proportional to the total distance to go
inversely proportional to ground speed back
Given:
Required course 045°(M);
Variation is 15°E;
W/V is 190°(T)/30 kt;
CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere.
What are the heading (°M) and GS?
055° and 147 kt
036° and 151 kt
052° and 154 kt
056° and 137 kt

Given:
Airport elevation is 1000 ft.
QNH is 988 hPa.
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
1680 FT
320 FT
680 FT
- 320 FT
The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is approximately:
10 800 NM
18 706 NM
20 000 NM
34 641 NM
Morning Civil twilight begins when:
the centre of the sun is 6° below the celestial horizon
the sun's upper edge is tangential to the celestial horizon
Seasons are due to the:
inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun
Earth's rotation on its polar axis
variable distance between Earth and Sun

Given:
Position 'A' N60 W020,
Position 'B' N60 W021,
Position 'C' N59 W020.
What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C?
30 NM and 60 NM
52 NM and 60 NM
60 NM and 30 NM
60 NM and 52 NM
Given:
True altitude 9000 FT,
OAT -32°C,
CAS 200 kt.
What is the TAS?
220 kt
215 kt
200 kt
210 kt
Given:
An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M),
2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from a VOR station,
2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same station.
At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the station is:
the same as it was at 2254 UTC
greater than it was at 2254 UTC
randomly different than it was at 2254 UTC
less than it was at 2254 UTC

The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM,

To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E magnetic variation instead
of 2°W.
Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off track distance be at
the second waypoint?
14 NM
7 NM
0 NM
21 NM
The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart:
is constant along a parallel of latitude
is constant along a meridian of longitude
is constant across the whole map
varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that is:
cylindrical
conical
spherical
concentric
Given:
Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport
Elevation of airport 720 FT.
QNH is 1003 hPa.
OAT at FL150 -5°C.
What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
15 280 FT
15 840 FT
14 160 FT
14 720 FT
An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of KEEKOROK (altitude 1 483 FT,
QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C).
Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1
013 hPa will indicate approximately:(USE 1 HPA = 30 FT)
6 500 FT
6 800 FT
6 300 FT
4 000 FT
Given:
Distance A to B is 360 NM.
Wind component A - B is -15 kt,
Wind component B - A is +15 kt,
TAS is 180 kt.
What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?
165 NM
195 NM
180 NM
170 NM
Given:
Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following
information:
TAS 360 kt,
W/V 330°/80kt,
Compass heading 237°,
Deviation on this heading -5°,
Variation 19°W.
What is the average ground speed for this leg?
403 kt
354 kt
373 kt
360 kt
060-017.jpg
Given:
TAS is120 kt.
ATA 'X' 1232 UTC,
ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC,
ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC.
What is ETA 'Z'?
1302 UTC
1257 UTC
1300 UTC
1303 UTC
A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:
True North is East of Magnetic North
True North is West of Magnetic North
Compass North is East of Magnetic North
Compass North is West of Magnetic North

In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the

magnetic compass will indicate:
a decrease in heading
an increase in heading
an apparent turn to the South
a heading of East
Given:
The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are N48°50' E002°16.5'.
What are the coordinates of the position directly on the opposite side of the
earth?
S48°50' W177°43.5'
S48°50' E177°43.5'
S41°10' W177°43.5'
S41°10' E177°43.5'
Given:
Course 040°(T),
TAS is 120 kt,
Wind speed 30 kt.
Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of:
130°
145°
115°
120°
Given:
CAS 120 kt,
FL 80,
OAT +20°C.
What is the TAS?
141 kt
102 kt
120 kt
132 kt
Isogonals are lines of equal:
magnetic variation.
compass deviation.
pressure.
wind velocity.
At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:
varies slowly over time
depends on the type of compass installed
depends on the magnetic heading
depends on the true heading
Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are:
Rhumb lines
Great circles
both Rhumb lines and Great circles
are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles

Given:
FL120,
OAT is ISA standard,
CAS is 200 kt,
Track is 222°(M),
Heading is 215°(M),
Variation is 15°W.
Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN.
What is the W/V?
050°(T) / 70 kt.
040°(T) / 105 kt.
055°(T) / 105 kt .
065°(T) / 70 kt.
At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1: 5 000 000. The length
on the chart between 'C' N60° E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is:
17.8 cm
16.2 cm
35.6 cm
19.2 cm
Given:
A is N55° 000°
B is N54° E010°
The average true course of the great circle is 100°.
The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:
100°
096°
104°
107°
The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10°40'N

and N41°20'.
The cone constant of this chart is approximatively:
0.44
0.90
0.66
0.18
Given:
Position 'A' is N00° E100°,
Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'.
What is the position of 'B'?
S01°40' E097°07'
N01°40' E097°07'
S01°40' E101°40'
N01°40' E101°40'
The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position
to enable the pilot to:
hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A1A transmissions
adjust the loop to the aural null position
stop the loop rotation
hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A2A transmissions

An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected
on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator).
If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane
model, will be:
behind.
in front.
right.
left.
A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a
few moments later. Following this incident:
it can only be used for attitude reference
no useful information can be obtained from the INS
everything returns to normal and is usable
the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update
You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set
the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
Full scale deflection left with a 'from' indication
Full scale deflection right with a 'from' indication
Full scale deflection left with a 'to' indication
Full scale deflection right with a 'to' indication

A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313
m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a
pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
151 NM
180 NM
100 NM
120 NM
The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale
deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
050°
230°
060°
240°
An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At
that time, the DME reading will be:
approximately 2 NM.
0 NM.
FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.
fluctuating and not significant.

GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz
and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user
(civil or military).
Commercial aviation uses:
only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code
only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes
only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code
the two carrier waves and one public code
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By

changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
increase in area and move to the top of the screen
increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain

navigation systems to give false indications.
This is particularly true of the:
ADF
VOR
weather radar
DME
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are

practically independent of distance
better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea
a greater radar range to be achieved
higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture
An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a

ground station.
To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
omnidirectional
frequency modulated at 30 Hertz
a beam rotating at 30 Hertz
unidirectional
An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level.

The DME indicates approximately:
6.8 NM
6.8 km
6.1 NM
6.1 km
A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR
radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should
read an ADF bearing of:
060
240
300
120
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
pulses
phase differences
frequency differences
amplitude differences
The sensors of an INS measure:
acceleration
velocity
the horizontal component of the earth's rotation
precession
The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot
can:
insert navigation data between two database updates
modify the data in the database between two updates
modify the database every 14 days
read and write at any time in the database

The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
time between the transmission and reception of radio pulses
frequency change between the emitted wave and reflected wave
frequency of the reflected wave
phase difference between emitted wave and reflected wave
DME channels operate in the frequency band which includes:
1 000 MHz
110 MHz
300 MHz
600 MHz
Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats.

In which of the following formats can waypoints be entered into all INSs?
geographic coordinates
bearing and distance
hexadecimal
by waypoints name
You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative
bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
020°
200°
055°
235°
An aircraft at FL300, with a groundspeed of 300 kt, is about pass overhead a

DME station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining
ground-speed.
One minute before the overhead, DME speed and distance indications are
respectively:
less than 300 kt and 7 NM.
300 kt and 7 NM.
less than 300 kt and 5 NM.
300 kt and 5 NM.
Given:
W/V (T) 230/ 20 kt,
Var. 6E,
TAS 80 kt
What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve
an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
188
172
008
352
On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of
295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
320°
040°
220°
140°
When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is
the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
4.9 NM
5.2 NM
4.6 NM
4.3 NM
An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W.

A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W.
The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
286°
281°
101°
256°
Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications
are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you
are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
205° and 295°
295° and 025°
025° and 115°
115° and 205°

The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full
right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
238°
058°
038°
218°
Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System

(MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
A precision facility DME
Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary

radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station
Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and

elevation transmissions
Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar

pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft
Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based
components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker

beacons
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker

beacons
In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
SHF
UHF
EHF
VHF
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar
is approximately:
200-300 NM
100-200 NM
50-100 NM
300-400 NM
In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether
a cloud will be detected are:
size of the water drops;

wavelength/frequency used
range from cloud;

wavelength/frequency used
size of the water drops;

diameter of radar scanner
rotational speed of radar scanner;

range from cloud
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar

(AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:
(Assume a beam width of 5°)
2.5° up
0°
2.5° down
5° up
Loran C coverage is:
confined to certain limited areas of the world
global
unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S
unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over
the major continental land masses
The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called:
compass deviation
compass error
magnetic variation
alignment error
The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's
surface where:
a freely suspended compass needle would stand vertical
a position where the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field

is a maximum
a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal
the value of magnetic variation equals 90°
On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are:
parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines
inclined, equally spaced, straight lines that meet at the nearer pole
parallel, unequally spaced, vertical straight lines
inclined, unequally spaced, curved lines that meet at the nearer pole
On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the

north or south poles?
Direct Mercator
Lambert's conformal
Transverse Mercator
Polar stereographic
Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator

chart, is correct?
With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves
concave to the equator
They are all curves concave to the equator
They approximate to straight lines between the standard parallels
They are all curves convex to the equator
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of

latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart:
reduces between, and expands outside, the standard parallels
is constant between, and expands outside, the standard parallels
expands between, and reduces outside, the standard parallels
is constant throughout the chart
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance

of great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic
chart whose tangency is at the pole ?
The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line
Any straight line is a great circle
They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the Pole
They are curves convex to the Pole

Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except
meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart?
Curves concave to the Pole
Ellipses around the Pole
Curves convex to the Pole
Straight lines
What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?
1.0
0.866
0.5
0.0
On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are:
straight lines
curves concave to the equator
ellipses
curves convex to the equator

A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in

the aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:
set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river

or railway
fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain
until a pinpoint is obtained
fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure
is regained
Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based

Area Navigation System?
Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation
Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
Wind velocity
True airspeed; drift angle
Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or

'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom

Station'
Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or

'Phantom Station'
Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or

'Phantom Station'
Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom

Station'
060-018.jpg
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based
Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station'?
12 NM
21 NM
10 NM
11 NM
060-019.jpg
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based
Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'?
9 NM
11 NM
14 NM
8 NM
Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic

VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from
the reference station
because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom

Station other than 180°/360°) it takes the computer more time to
calculate the necessary information
when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station
when the Phantom Station is out of range

Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic

RNAV system?
It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking

and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the

Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the
two necessary station goes off the air
It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide

the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites

positioned in a geostationary orbital plane
Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS

satellites is correct?
It varies, depending on the time and observer's location
It is the same throughout the globe
It is greatest at the equator
It is greatest at the poles
How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability
(FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
24
18
12
30
Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational

Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in
Europe?
NAVSTAR/GPS
NNSS-Transit
COSPAS-SARSAT
GLONASS
The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are

the:
control, space and user
main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas
antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)
atomic clock, power supply and transponder

One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
monitor the status of the satellites
manufacture and launch the satellites
manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of

the position fix
grant and monitor user authorisations
The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to

measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the
receiver
transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the
distance to the satellite
to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to

measure the time
monitor the orbital planes of the satellites
One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine

time, position and velocity
transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes

autonomously
compute the user position from the received user messages and to
transmit the computed position back to the user segment
monitor the satellites' orbits and status

The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
an ellipsoid
a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
a sphere
a geoid
In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
geometric height above ground
height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
flight level
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS,

the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
orbital plane and the equatorial plane
horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a
satellite
orbital plane and the earth's axis
horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a
satellite
How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
12 days
365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit
At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS

satellites circling the earth?
20200 km
10900 km
36000 km
19500 km
The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
inclined 55° to the equatorial plane
inclined 55° to the earth axis
inclined 90° to the equatorial plane
parallel to the equatorial plane
In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation
message?
UHF
VHF
EHF
SHF
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the

following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise
(PRN)' signal?
PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the
measurement of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver
PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by

the satellites
PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetic background noise that

exists in space
PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite
being received from different directions (multipath effect)
Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can

be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
C/A
C/A- and P
P and Y
Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system

NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
recognition whether Selective Availability (SA) is operative
assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the

appropriate satellite
correction of receiver clock error

How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise

which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an

individual Pseudo Random Noise code
The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received
and compares this information with the calculated positions of the
satellites
Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)
code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
almanac data; satellite status information
time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix
data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data
time; positions of the satellites
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time

taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS

transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a

NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
Ionospheric
Multipath
Tropospheric
Receiver noise
Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the

meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the

navigation information
It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data
transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground segment
It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo

Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the satellites
It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed

monitor stations (ground segment) automatically determines the
integrity of the navigation message
The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite
multiplied by the speed of light
calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known

positions of the satellite and the receiver
determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code

multiplied by the speed of light
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a

term used when a receiver:
is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace
any lost signal with another already being monitored
is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of
the 4 with the best geometric coverage
is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites

simultaneously
requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes
The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite

navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is
because the:
calculated range includes receiver clock error
measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code
movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not

taken into account
calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit

What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most

suitable for use on board an aircraft?
Multichannel
Sequential
Multiplex
Any hand held type
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce

an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
24
The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity
inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing
and fuselage
in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by

D-GPS stations
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective

Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
dithering the satellite clock
shutting off selected satellites
using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing
offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount
In the event of the re-use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at
all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system
?
It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals
It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable

geometric constellation are selected by the receiver
It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals,

the computing process in the receiver is quicker
It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
is corrected by using signals from four satellites
is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected
can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the

satellite clocks
is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks

installed in the satellites
The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation

system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and

comparing signals transmitted by the satellites
minimised by computing the average of all signals
only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle

above the horizon
negligible
Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using

inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial
navigational system (INS)?
The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS
The average position calculated from data provided by both systems

increases overall accuracy
The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy
What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on
the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
It may prevent the reception of signals
It causes multipath propagation
The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for
using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals
It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected

Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most

accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of

120° from each other together with a fourth directly overhead
3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of

45° above the horizon
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation
above the horizon
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of

45° above the horizon
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved

in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction

data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft
The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2

frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine an error
correction
Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce

the characteristic receiver noise error
Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are

located a fixed distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the
aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained
with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more

accurate the position fix
The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver

position in relation to a D-GPS ground station
A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more

accurate position fix
Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision
Approaches'
How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system

determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location
of the antenna?
It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random
Noise (PRN) code
The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the

location of the antenna
The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the
navigation message
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky'

is a:
procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored

satellite data available
continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS

satellites
procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites

becoming operational
continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky

for satellites rising above the horizon
What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using
the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites
required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring)
function are not available?
The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number
of satellites are again available
The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are

available and the pilot monitors the GPS-System manually
Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a

NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a
multi sensor system?
The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational
The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the

navigation information continuously displayed
The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all

prescribed navigation systems
Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions
Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR
conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the
position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of
conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all

systems must be checked
It must be continued under VFR conditions
The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the
error or switch off the faulty system
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a

non-precision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
system?
Barometric altitude
If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS,

otherwise barometric altitude
Radar altitude
GPS altitude
Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting
flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system?
Barometric altitude
The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
GPS altitude
GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric

altitude
A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 'Y' (58°30'N) on a

Lambert Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1: 1 000 000 at 60°N.
The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:
66.7 cm
33.4 cm
38.5 cm
36.0 cm
Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an angle of 35° with longitude
026°E. Variation at A is 3°E. What is the initial magnetic track from A to B?
322°
328°
032°
038°
Given:
Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 200 000 at equator;
Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator, 11 cm.
What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'?
12 NM
21 NM
22 NM
14 NM
The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather

information at the destination airfield (0ft) from the airfield's VOR. Assuming
ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which
it can be expected to obtain this information?
123 NM
123 km
12.3 NM
1230 km
The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave

signal
stop loop rotation
hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
find the loop 'null' position
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
omnidirectional
bi-lobal circular
a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
a beam rotating at 30 Hz
DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
1000 MHz
300 MHz
110 MHz
600 MHz
A VOR and DME are co-located.

You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign.
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only
once
DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient

proof of correct operation
DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several
times
VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same
pitch
The heading rose of an Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) is frozen on 200°.

Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
centred
left of centre
right of centre
centred with the 'fail' flag showing
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse
Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
number of pulses per second
delay after which the process re-starts
the number of cycles per second
ratio of pulse period to pulse width
937 62.2.3.0.1 principles Typ: MC 856 AviaExam12487 7/20/1998 Pkt.: 1.00
The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is

to:
virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more

energy in the main beam
simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams
have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection
eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

transponder codes in Mode A?
4096
3600
1000
760
Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by

radar?
clear air turbulence
precipitation
turbulence in cloud that has precipitation
wet snow and turbulence in cloud that has precipitation
Given:
Aircraft heading 160°(M),
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,
Selected course on HSI is 250°.
The Horizontal Situation Indicator ( HSI) indications are deviation bar:
behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1
coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from
way-point A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units (CDU) shows:
- XTK on INS 1 = 0
- XTK on INS 2 = 8L
(XTK = cross track)
From this information it can be deduced that:
at least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting
only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting
only inertial navigation system No. 1 is drifting
the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode

060-020.jpg
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7)
to position N5220 W00810?
030° - 33 NM
048° - 40 NM
014° - 33 NM
220° - 40 NM
060-020.jpg
311° - 38 NM
350° - 22 NM
295° - 38 NM
170° - 22 NM
060-020.jpg
039° - 48 NM
024° - 43 NM
023° - 48 NM
017° - 43 NM
060-020.jpg
113° - 38 NM
104° - 76 NM
293° - 39 NM
106° - 38 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
309° - 33 NM
057° - 27 NM
293° - 33 NM
324° - 17 NM
060-020.jpg
035° - 30 NM
070° - 58 NM
207° - 31 NM
019° - 31 NM
060-020.jpg
139° - 35 NM
129° - 46 NM
132° - 36 NM
212° - 26 NM
060-020.jpg
214° - 37 NM
354° - 34 NM
198° - 37 NM
346° - 34 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)
358° - 36 NM
214° - 26 NM
049° - 45 NM
169° - 35 NM
060-020.jpg
088° - 29 NM
320° - 8 NM
094° - 64 NM
260° - 30 NM
060-020.jpg
140° - 23 NM
119° - 42 NM
311° - 22 NM
240° - 24 NM
060-020.jpg
233° - 35 NM
165° - 27 NM
335° - 43 NM
025° - 38 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8)
236° - 44 NM
223° - 36 NM
320° - 44 NM
333° - 36 NM
060-020.jpg
278° - 44 NM
090° - 46 NM
278° - 10 NM
098° - 45 NM
060-020.jpg
315° - 34 NM
296° - 65 NM
126° - 33 NM
222° - 48 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3
W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5)?
278° - 90 NM
090° - 91 NM
270° - 89 NM
098° - 90 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRK VOR (N5150.4
W00829.7) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)?
357° - 89 NM
169° - 91 NM
349° - 90 NM
177° - 92 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1
W00856.5) and WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0)?
142° - 95 NM
315° - 94 NM
135° - 96 NM
322° - 95 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3
W00705.0) and BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9)?
026° - 71 NM
018° - 153 NM
206° - 71 NM
198° - 72 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°M) and distance between KER NDB (N5210.9
W00931.5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)?
025° - 70 NM
197° - 71 NM
205° - 71 NM
017° - 70 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°M) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0
W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)?
316° - 96 NM
262° - 86 NM
128° - 99 NM
308° - 98 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1
W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)?
058° - 128 NM
089° - 95 NM
229° - 125 NM
238° - 130 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between CON VOR (N5354.8
W00849.1) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)?
063° - 101 NM
071° - 100 NM
113° - 97 NM
293° - 98 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between SLG NDB (N5416.7
W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)?
011° - 47 NM
020° - 46 NM
348° - 46 NM
191° - 45 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3
W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0 W00911.7)?
286° - 81 NM
294° - 80 NM
075° - 81 NM
277° - 83 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3
W00705.0) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)?
336° - 137 NM
344° - 139 NM
156° - 136 NM
164° - 138 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between SHA VOR (N5243.3
W00853.1) and CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1)?
002° - 72 NM
010° - 71 NM
358° - 72 NM
006° - 71 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0
W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)?
270° - 90 NM
278° - 89 NM
268° - 91 NM
272° - 89 NM
970 61.3.3.0.1 plotting positions Typ: MC 889 AviaExam12577 11/20/1998 Pkt.: 1.00
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0
W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)?
327° - 124 NM
335° - 128 NM
325° - 128 NM
320° - 127 NM
060-020.jpg
What is the average track (°T) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1
W00856.5) and EKN NDB (N5423.6 W00738.7)?
035° - 80 NM
042° - 83 NM
031° - 81 NM
044° - 82 NM
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322°.
What is the aircraft position?
N5220 W00920
N5230 W00910
N5210 W00910
N5210 W00930
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 205°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317°.
N5210 W00910
N5118 W00913
N5205 W00915
N5215 W00917
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033°.
N5230 W00800
N5225 W00805
N5220 W00750
N5240 W00750
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 129°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047°.
N5220 W00750
N5215 W00755
N5210 W00750
N5205 W00755
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 143°,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050°.
N5210 W00800
N5155 W00810
N5205 W00805
N5200 W00800
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°/35 NM.
N5230 W00800
N5300 W00945
N5225 W00805
N5250 W00950
060-020.jpg
Given:
N5210 W00830
N5208 W00840
N5315 W00915
N5317 W00908
060-020.jpg
Given:
N5220 W00930
N5305 W00815
N5228 W00935
N5303 W00810
060-020.jpg
Given:
N5330 W00830
N5328 W00820
N5155 W00915
N5200 W0925
060-020.jpg
Given:
N5300 W0830
N5258 W00825
N5225 W00917
N5228 W00920
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
Aircraft position N5220 W00910
Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft
position?
SHA 214°
CRK 330°
SHA 025°
CRK 141°
SHA 205°
CRK 321°
SHA 033°
CRK 149°
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
position?
SHA 131°
CRK 017°
SHA 304°
CRK 189°
SHA 312°
CRK 197°
SHA 124°
CRK 009°
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
position?
SHA 248°
CRK 325°
SHA 068°
CRK 145°
SHA 060°
CRK 138°
SHA 240°
CRK 137°
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1
position?
SHA 042°
CON 138°
SHA 213°
CON 310°
SHA 033°
CON 130°
SHA 221°
CON 318°
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1
position?
SHA 325°
CON 235°
SHA 137°
CON 046°
SHA 317°
CON 226°
SHA 145°
CON 055°
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM,
Both DME distances increasing.
N5200 W00935
N5215 W00940
N5215 W00745
N5235 W00750
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 41 NM,
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM,
Both DME distances decreasing.
N5215 W00805
N5205 W00915
N5215 W00915
N5225 W00810
060-020.jpg
Given:
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM,
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM,
N5310 W00830
N5252 W00923
N5307 W00923
N5355 W00825
060-020.jpg
Given:
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM,
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM,
Both DME distances increasing.
N5255 W00815
N5250 W0030
N5305 W00930
N5310 W00820
060-020.jpg
Given:
CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM,
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM,
N5330 W00820
N5343 W00925
N5335 W00925
N5337 W00820
060-020.jpg
Given:
CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7)
Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4)
What is the CRK radial and DME distance when overhead Kerry aerodrome?
307° - 43 NM
119° - 44 NM
127° - 45 NM
299° - 42 NM
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754)
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Birr aerodrome?
068° - 41 NM
248° - 42 NM
060° - 42 Nm
240° - 41 NM
060-020.jpg
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928)
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Connemara
aerodrome?
333° - 37 NM
154° - 38 NM
326° - 37 NM
146° - 38 NM
060-020.jpg
Given:
CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)
Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917)
What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Castlebar
aerodrome?
265° - 17 NM
077° - 18 NM
257° - 17 NM
086° - 18 NM
060-020.jpg
Given:
CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)
Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)
What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule
aerodrome?
123° - 46 NM
116° - 47 NM
296° - 46 NM
304° - 47 NM
060-020.jpg
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 W00931?
KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
Waterford NDB
Connemara aerodrome
Punchestown aerodrome
060-020.jpg
TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDB
WTD NDB
Clonbullogue aerodrome
060-020.jpg
Punchestown aerodrome
Connemara aerodrome
060-020.jpg
Castlebar aerodrome
Connaught aerodrome
Connemara aerodrome
Brittas Bay aerodrome

060-020.jpg
EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB
Belmullet aerodrome
Carnmore aerodrome
060-020.jpg
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at
position N5150.4 W00829.7?
civil airport: VOR: DME: compulsory reporting point
civil airport: VOR: non-compulsory reporting point
VOR: DME: NDB:compulsory reporting point
VOR: DME: NDB: ILS
060-020.jpg
position N5318.0 W00626.9?
military airport: VOR: DME
civil airport: VOR: DME
military airport: VOR: NDB
VOR: DME: danger area

060-020.jpg
position N5416.7 W00836.0?
civil airport: NDB: DME: compulsory reporting point
VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point
civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
VOR: DME: NDB: non-compulsory reporting point
060-020.jpg
position N5318.1 W00856.5?
civil airport: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
060-020.jpg
position N5211 W00705?
civil airport: NDB; ILS
VOR: NDB
civil airport: ILS
NDB: ILS
060-021.jpg
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR/DME?
060-021.jpg
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a DME?
060-021.jpg
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR?
060-021.jpg
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an NDB?
3
060-021.jpg
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a basic, non-specified,
navigation aid?
060-021.jpg
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a TACAN?
060-021.jpg
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VORTAC?
6
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight Information Region (FIR)
boundary?
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control Zone boundary?
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an uncontrolled route?
3
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary of advisory
airspace?
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-compulsory reporting point?
15
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a compulsory reporting point?
15
6
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-point?
15
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted obstacle?
10
11
12
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted obstacle?
10
11
12
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles?
11
12
13
9
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of lighted obstacles?
12
10
11
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high unlighted
obstacle?
13
14
11
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high lighted
obstacle?
14
10
12
13
060-022.jpg
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 15?
Aeronautical ground light
Visual reference point
Hazard to aerial navigation
Lighthouse
060-022.jpg
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 16?
Lightship
Off-shore helicopter landing platform
Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tide
Off-shore lighthouse
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an aeronautical ground light?
15
16
10
14
060-022.jpg
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lightship?
16
10
12
14
Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV)

comes from an external, not on-board, system?
VOR/DME radial/distance
Magnetic heading
Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
Pressure altitude
Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?
Inertial Navigation System
GPS
Basic RNAV system
VOR/DME
In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air

Data input?
True airspeed
Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
VOR/DME radial/distance
Doppler drift
Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
Airborne weather radar (AWR)
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
Global Positioning System (GPS)

Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder

principle?
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary

Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
7700
7600
7500
7000
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined

by the:
pulse recurrence frequency
beamwidth
pulse length
carrier wave frequency
The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
an emergency
transponder malfunction
radio communication failure

an emergency
an emergency
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
minimum measurable range
target discrimination
maximum measurable range
beam width
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency

(PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
maximum theoretical range
target discrimination
minimum range
beam width
In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between

targets in azimuth is a factor of:
beam width
aerial rotation rate
Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
pulse length
Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse

technique?
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of

the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

The purpose of the TAS input, from the air data computer, to the Inertial
Navigation System is for:
the calculation of wind velocity
position update in Attitude mode
position update in Navigation mode
the calculation of drift
The full alignment of the stable platform of an Inertial Navigation System:
is only possible on the ground when the aircraft is at a complete stop
may be carried out during any phase of flight
may be carried out on the ground or when in straight and level flight
may be carried out at any time so long as an accurate position is

inserted into the system.
After alignment of the stable platform of an Inertial Navigation System, the

output data from the platform is:
acceleration north/south and east/west, attitude and true heading
latitude, longitude and attitude
acceleration north/south and east/west and true heading
latitude, longitude and true heading
After alignment of the stable platform of the Inertial Navigation System, the
output data from the INS computer to the platform is:
rate corrections to the gyros
accelerations from the accelerometers
attitude
latitude and longitude

Inertial Reference System sensors include:
accelerometers, and laser gyros, mounted in the direction of the aircraft

axis
accelerometers mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis
laser gyros mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis
one east-west and one north-south gyro; one east-west and one
north-south accelerometer
The data that needs to be inserted into an Inertial Reference System in order
to enable the system to make a successful alignment for navigation is:
aircraft position in latitude and longitude
aircraft heading
the position of an in-range DME
airport ICAO identifier
In an Inertial Reference System, accelerations are measured in relation to:
aircraft axis
WGS 84 Earth co-ordinates
local vertical at the aircraft position
the direction of true north
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System

(FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
navigation database
air data database
performance database
auto flight database


(FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
air data computer
navigation database
auto flight computer

(FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
navigation database
air data computer
auto flight computers

(FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
air data computer
navigation database

(FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
navigation database
air data computer


(FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
air data computer
navigation database
Apart from radials and distances from VOR/DME stations, what information is
required by the VOR/DME Area Navigation computer in order to calculate the
wind?
Heading from the aircraft compass system and true airspeed from the air
data computer
True airspeed from the air data computer
Heading from the aircraft compass system
Vertical speed from the air data computer
On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead

reckoning mode?
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the
last computed W/V.
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass.
Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs.
Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data
computer; heading from the aircraft compass.
Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation

system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is receiving neither radial nor

distance data information from VOR/DME stations.
VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from

the Air Data Computer.
VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from

the aircraft compass system.
When 'DR' is selected by the pilot.
Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation

system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
The system is receiving information from only one VOR
The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME
The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs
The system is receiving information from the two DMEs
How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and
the system itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular
position lines.
the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the
VOR/DME Area navigation control panel.
The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned
on the aircraft's normal VHF NAV selector.
The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it
always tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position.
Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to
change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
At any time before take-off and throughout the flight
Only before take-off
Only before the flight plan is activated
Only once the aircraft is airborne.
What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
Atomic
Quartz
Mechanical
Laser
How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
24
12
36
How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?
1
What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the
NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
55°
45°
35°
65°
In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed?
Circular
Elliptical
Geo-stationary
Pole to pole
1070 61.4.5 Measurement of DR elements Typ: MC 989 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is flying at FL150, with an outside air temperature of -30°, above an

airport where the elevation is 1660 ft and the QNH is 993 hPa. Calculate the
true altitude. (Assume 30 ft = 1 hPa)
13 660 ft
14 120 ft
17 160 ft
15 210 ft
An aircraft must fly 2000 ft above an obstacle of which the elevation is 13 600
ft. The QHN at the nearest airfield is 991 hPa, the elevation is 1500 ft and the
temperature is -20°C. Calculate the minimum altitude required.
17 300 ft
15 600 ft
14 080 ft
19 400 ft
1072 61.1.3 Time and time conversions Typ: MC 991 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
In 8 hours and 8 minutes the mean sun has moved how many degrees (°)
along the celestial equator?
122°
148°
18°
56°
1073 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 992 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
The great circle bearing of position B from position A in the Northern

Hemisphere is 040°. If the Conversion Angle is 4°, what is the great circle
bearing of A from B?
228°
212°
220°
224°
A great circle on the Earth running from the North Pole to the South Pole is
called:
a meridian.
a parallel of latitude.
a difference of longitude.
a longitude.
How many small circles can be drawn between any two points on a sphere?
An unlimited number.
None.
One.
Two.
How does the convergency of any two meridians on the Earth change with
varying latitude?
It changes as sine of latitude.
It changes as cosine of latitude.
It increases with decrease of latitude.
It is of constant value and does not change with latitude.
In which occasions does the rhumb line track and the great circle track
coincide on the surface of the Earth?
On tracks directly North - South and on East - West tracks along the
Equator.
On high latitude tracks directly East - West.
On East - West tracks in the northern hemisphere north of the magnetic

equator.
On East - West tracks in polar areas.

What is the rhumb line distance, in nautical miles, between two positions on
latitude 60°N, that are separated by 10° of longitude?
300 NM
520 NM
600 NM
866 NM
The initial great circle track from A to B is 080° and the rhumb line track is
083°. What is the initial great circle track from B to A and in which Hemisphere
are the two positions located?
266° and in the northern hemisphere.
260° and in the southern hemisphere.
260° and in the northern hemisphere.
266° and in the southern hemisphere.
If you are flying along a parallel of latitude, you are flying:
a rhumb line track.
on a north - south track.
on a track which is constantly changing direction.
a great circle track.

In the Northern Hemisphere the rhumb line track from position A to B is 230°,
the covergency is 6° and the difference in longitude is 10°. What is the initial
rhumb line track from B to A?
050°
053°
056°
047°
What is the length of one degree of longitude at latitude 60° South?
30 NM
52 NM
60 NM
90 NM
The distance along a meridian between 63°55'N and 13°47'S is:
4662 NM
7702 NM
5008 NM
3008 NM
When flying on a westerly great circle track in the Southern Hemisphere you
will:
experience an increase in the value of true track.
fly a spiral and finally end up at the south pole.
always have the rhumb line track between the departure point and the
destination to the left of your great circle track.
experience a decrease in the value of true track.

Which of the following alternatives is correct when you cross the international
date line?
The date will increase if you are crossing on a westerly heading.
The date will increase if you are crossing on a easterly heading.
The date will always be the same.
If you are crossing from westerly longitude to easterly longitude the date
will remain the same.
When the time is 2000 UTC, it is:
1400 LMT at 90° West.
1200 LMT at 60° East.
0800 LMT at the Prime meridian.
When the time is 1400 LMT at 90° West, it is:
1400 LMT at 90° East.
0600 LMT at the Prime meridian.
1088 61.1.4 Directions Typ: MC 1007 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
If the Compass Heading is 265°, variation is 33° W and deviation is 3°E, what
is the True Heading?
235°
229°
301°
295°
1089 61.3.1 General properties of miscellaneous Typ: MC 1008 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
How does the chart convergency change with latitude in a Lambert Conformal
projection?
It is constant and does not change with latitude.
It changes with cosine of latitude.
It increases with increase of latitude.
It changes with sine of latitude.
On a Direct Mercator projection a particular chart length is measured at 30°N.

What earth distance will the same chart length be if measured at 60°N?
A smaller distance.
Twice the distance.
The same distance.
A larger distance.
Where on a Direct Mercator projection is the chart convergency correct

compared to the earth convergency?
At the equator.
At the two parallels of tangency.
At the poles.
All over the chart.
1092 61.3.2 The representation of meridians, parallels Typ: MC 1011 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
A rhumb line on a Direct Mercator chart appears as a:
straight line.
complex curve.
curve convex to the nearer pole.
small circle concave to the nearer pole.

1093 61.3.3 The use of current aeronautical charts Typ: MC 1012 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
On a chart a straight line is drawn between two points and has a length of
4.63 cm. What is the chart scale if the line represents 150 NM?
1 : 6 000 000
1 : 1 000 000
1 : 3 000 000
1 : 5 000 000
If the chart scale is 1 : 500 000, what earth distance would be represented by 7
cm on the chart?
35 000 m
3.5 km
35 NM
0.35 km
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is Indicated Airspeed (IAS) corrected for:
instrument error and position error.
temperature and pressure error.
compressibility error.
density.
1096 61.4.1 Basics of dead reckoning Typ: MC 1015 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Grid heading is 299°, grid convergency is 55° West and magnetic variation is
90° West. What is the corresponding magnetic heading?
084°
334°
154°
264°
1097 61.4.2 Use of the navigational computer Typ: MC 1016 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
An aircraft is flying at FL180 and the outside air temperature is -30°C. If the
CAS is 150 kt, what is the TAS?
195 kt
115 kt
180 kt
155 kt
1098 61.4.3 The triangle of velocities, methods of solution fo Typ: MC 1017 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
True Heading of an aircraft is 265° and TAS is 290 kt. If W/V is 210°/35kt, what
is True Track and GS?
271° and 272kt
259° and 272kt
260° and 315kt
259° and 305kt
1099 61.4.3 The triangle of velocities, methods of solution fo Typ: MC 1018 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Given:
True Track 239°
True Heading 229°
TAS 555 kt
G/S 577 kt
Calculate the wind velocity.
130°/100kt
310°/100kt
300°/100kt
165°/100kt
Given:
True Track 245°
Drift 5° right
Variation 3° E
Compass Hdg 242°
Calculate the Magnetic Heading.
237°
243°
247°
253°
Given:
True Track 245°
Drift 5° right
Variation 3° E
Compass Hdg 242°
Calculate the deviation.
5° W
1° E
5° E
11° E
1102 61.4.7 Measurements of: Typ: MC 1021 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
The distance between point of departure and destination is 340 NM and wind
velocity in the whole area is 100°/25kt. TAS is 140kt, True Track is 135° and
safe endurance 3 hr and 10 min. How long will it take to reach the Point of
Safe Return?
1 hr and 49 min
1 hr and 37 min
1 hr and 21 min
5 hr and 30 min
1103 62.1.1 Ground D/F Typ: MC 1022 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following affects VDF range?
The height of the transmitter and of the receiver.
Coastal refraction.
Sky wave propagation.
Strength of the pilot's voice when transmitting.
1104 62.1.1 Ground D/F Typ: MC 1023 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
"Request QDR".
"Request QNH".
"Request QTE".
"Request QDM".
1105 62.1.2 ADF Typ: MC 1024 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
What is the range of a locator beacon?
10 - 25 NM
25 - 50 NM
50 - 100 NM
100 - 300 NM
1106 62.1.2 ADF Typ: MC 1025 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
In which frequency band(s) does a locator beacon normally transmit?
LF/MF
MF/HF
HF
HF/VHF
1107 62.1.2 ADF Typ: MC 1026 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB.
The range is limited to the line of sight.
The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to
night time.
The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range.
1108 62.1.3 VOR and Doppler-VOR Typ: MC 1027 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the
variable phase of the signal.
measures the time difference between reception of the two signals

transmitted from the ground installation.
uses pulse technique to determine the radial.
measures the time difference between sending the interrogation signal

and receiving the transponder signal.
1109 62.1.3 VOR and Doppler-VOR Typ: MC 1028 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
Scalloping.
Coastal refraction.
Quadrantal error.
Night effect.
1110 62.1.4 DME Typ: MC 1029 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
The transponder reply carrier frequency differs by 63 MHz from that of

the interrogation signal.
The DME measures the phase difference between the reference and
variable phase signals to calculate the distance.
DME operates in the VHF frequency band.
When passing overhead the DME station the DME will indicate 0.
1111 62.1.4 DME Typ: MC 1030 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
The DME operating frequencies are in the UHF frequency band.
Two lines of position obtained from two different DME's give an

unambiguous fix.
The indicated distance is the ground distance measured from the

aircraft's projected position on the ground to the DME ground
installation.
The DME ground station is always co-located with a VOR station.
1112 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1031 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the

localizer beam on an ILS?
The difference in depth between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz
modulation.
The difference in phase between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz
modulation.
The bearing to the localizer antenna found by means of a loop antenna.
The difference in time between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz
modulation.
1113 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1032 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
What is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during
ILS approach?
Half scale deflection.
One quarter scale deflection.
Three quarter scale deflection.
Full scale deflection.
1114 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1033 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter
identification group?
Locator.
Inner marker.
Outer marker.
Glide path.
1115 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1034 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display,
what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline
when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
1.0° to the left.
2.0° to the left.
2.0° to the right.
1.0° to the right.

1116 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1035 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
According to the ILS coverage area as defined, in which of the following

situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
20NM from touchdown inbound and 8° displaced from the localiser

centreline.

centreline.
centreline.
centreline.
1117 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1036 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
0.7° above or below the correct glide path.
1118 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1037 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
False beams will only be found above the correct glide path.
False beams will only be found more than 10 degrees to the left or to the
right of the localiser centreline.
False beams are only present when flying a back-beam ILS approach.
False beams will only be found below the correct glide path.
1119 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1038 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is
approximately:
2.5° offset from the localiser centreline.
5° offset from the localiser centreline.
1.25° offset from the localiser centreline.
10° offset from the localiser centreline.
1120 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1039 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
75 MHz.
Same frequency as the localizer.
Same frequency as the glide path.
3000 Hz.
1121 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1040 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
3000 Hz
1300 Hz
400 Hz
75 MHz
1122 62.1.5 ILS Typ: MC 1041 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual

signals in cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
Audio: 1300 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes.
Audio: 400 Hz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes.
Audio: 75 MHz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes.
Audio: 3000 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes.
1123 62.2.1 Pulse techniques and associated terms Typ: MC 1042 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency
signify?
The number of pulses transmitted per second.
The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute.
The radar frequency used.
The time between each transmission of pulses.
1124 62.2.1 Pulse techniques and associated terms Typ: MC 1043 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to

a primary radar system?
Aircraft position only.
Aircraft position and SSR code.
Aircraft position, SSR code and altitude.
Aircraft altitude.
1125 62.2.2 Ground radar Typ: MC 1044 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving.
A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omnidirectional antenna

for receiving.
One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving.
An omnidirectional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna

for receiving.
1126 62.2.4 SSR secondary surveillance radar and transp. Typ: MC 1045 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
Which one of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system when

compared to a primary radar system?
The required power of transmission from the ground equipment is

reduced.
The relatively small ground antenna transmits no side lobes, thus

eliminating the danger of false replies from the airborne transponder.
Possibility of obtaining speed information for aircraft within range.
Is not limited to line of sight.
1127 62.1.4 DME Typ: MC 1046 11/23/2003 Pkt.: 1.00
The indicated range from a DME station is:
slant range.
ground range.
0 when passing overhead the station.
ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR.
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1 21.2.5.3 Wave propagation Typ: MC 1063 79 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

For a frequency of 200 KHZ, what is the wavelength

2 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 174 AviaExam130 5/10/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward

3 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 175 AviaExam131 5/10/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

4 21.2.5.3 Wave propagation Typ: MC 1064 80 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

Transmission power, diffraction, critical angle and angle of incidence.

Critical angle, refraction, angle of incidence and diffraction.

Transmission power, conductivity of earth's surface and angle of

Transmission power, depth of penetration, critical angle and angle of

In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the

The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:

7 21.2.5.3 Wave propagation Typ: MC 1065 81 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

Skip distance in relation to the sky wave is;

distance between the receiver and the transmitter.

8 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 176 AviaExam132 5/10/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W

9 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 177 AviaExam133 5/15/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

10 62.1.2.0.6 factors affecting range Typ: MC 1066 82 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

Night effect when using NDB may be minimized by;

Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure.

12 62.1.2.0.3 coverage Typ: MC 1067 83 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

proportional to sine heading times the signal strength.

proportional to the tangent of the RMI reading.

13 62.1.2.0.3 coverage Typ: MC 1068 84 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

An aircraft is maintaining a track outbound from an NDB with a constant

14 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 179 AviaExam1058 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

An aircraft is following the 45°N parallel of latitude.

15 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 180 AviaExam1059 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

16 62.1.2.0.2 presentation and interpretation Typ: MC 1069 85 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

An aircraft on heading 040° M has an ADF reading of 060° Relative. The

17 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 181 AviaExam1060 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130°00E.

18 62.1.2.0.1 principles Typ: MC 1070 86 10/29/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

The ICAO NDB frequency band is;

200 khz to 500 khz.

200 khz to 800 khz.

200 khz to 1750 khz.

200 khz to 112 Mhz.

19 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 182 AviaExam1061 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to position B (30°00'N,

a rhumb line track

the constant average drift route

the great-circle route

a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart

20 62.2.4.0.1 principles Typ: MC 1071 48 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

The advantages of Single Side-Band Transmissions as compared with Double

Long range transmission and narrow band width.

Narrow band width in the frequency band.

Transmitter power is concentrated on three frequencies.

Power is concentrated on frequency.

21 21.2.5.1 Basic principles Typ: MC 1072 49 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

The purpose of Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) in ADF receiver is to;

Improve the strength of the incoming signal .

Remove noise from the incoming signal .

Make the incoming signal audible .

Remove oscillations of the bearing indicator.

22 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 183 AviaExam1062 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00

23 62.1.5.0.5 errors and accuracy Typ: MC 1073 50 11/3/2008 Pkt.: 1.00

A flag alarm showing 'off' appears on the appropriate window.

The alarm flag showing 'ON' appears in the appropriate window.

24 61.1.2 The earth Typ: MC 184 AviaExam1063 7/24/1994 Pkt.: 1.00