IPS 2004 QUESTIONS D.

wise
E. unsure of her future

Read the following passage carefully and answer the 4. What made the woman’s world collapse is
questions that follow. A. falling in love with her husband in winter
B. cutting short their honeymoon
C. travelling aboard a ship
D. their movement to Africa
In England her love for Henry blossomed like spring
E. her mother shedding a tear
flowers after a hard winter. But she abhorred the way
he dressed in England. They fell in love when she was 5. “She wept most of the time on board M.V. Apapa”
working in a little coffee shop across from the Crystal because she
palace. Tall and jovial, he fell romantically in love with A. she felt disappointed
her at first sight. After a brief and hilarious courtship, B. her husband did not keep her company
they got married in a small Presbyterian chapel in C. she did not like travelling by sea
North London. Her people came and her mother shed D. she was sick
a tear when it was announced that the newly-wed E. she missed England
couple would go to Africa. From that day, her world
collapsed. He had never even hinted that he had 6. In England she had loved her husband, in Africa,
joined the colonial service. Nor did she know that her she
honeymoon would be a hurried affair in Brighton. She A. resented him
wept most of the time on board M.V. Apapa that took B. accepted him
them to Africa. Eight years later and her temper grew C. enjoyed her honeymoon
worse. She got farther and farther away from her D. encouraged him
husband. They never had a child. A child would have E. got very angry
made all the difference in the world.
From the words or group of words lettered A to E,
choose the one that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word or group of words as it is used in
1. The expression “she abhorred the way he
the sentence (7 – 10)
dressed” means
A. She loved the way he dressed 7. The minister complained that the execution of the
B. She feared the way he dressed project had been impeded by lack of funds
C. She hated the way he dressed A. terminated
D. She admired the way he dressed B. hindered
E. She disliked the way he dressed C. banned
D. suspended
2. It was a “hilarious courtship” because E. cancelled
A. It was brief
B. It was sanctioned by both parents
C. They had had many outings
8. The flock suddenly became resistive after mid-day
D. Theirs was love at first sight
A. fidgety
E. They shared a lot of fun
B. unconquerable
3. “From that day, her world collapsed” shows that C. disobedient
the woman is D. incorrigible
A. unhappy E. sleepy
B. afraid
9. Your reaction underscores the point I was making
C. better off
A. reveals
B. proves wrong x
D. e  y  z 
C. emphasizes
E. log (x ) – log (y) + log(z)
D. justifies
E. rules a line
14. Given vectors A, B, and C what is the value of
10. From all indications the task before the
(A+B).(B+C)?
committee is stupendous
A = 8i + 2j + 2k
A. stupid B = 4i + 2j + 4k
B. unrealistic C = 6i + 8j + 10k
C. surmountable A. 52
D. superfluous B. 104
E. tremendous C. 132
D. 244
E. 304
If cos θ = 5/13
15. What is the probability that either two heads or
three heads will be thrown if six fair coins are
sin  tossed at once?
11. is
sin   cos A. 0.35
12 B. 0.55
A. C. 0.59
13
12 D. 0.63
B. E. 0.68
15
12 16. What is the approximate probability that no two
C.
17 people in a group of seven have the same
13 birthday?
D.
17 A. 0.056
15 B. 0.43
E.
17 C. 0.065
D. 0.92
12. 2sin2θ + cos2θ is E. 0.94
213
A.
169 Problems 17 – 19 refer to the following situation. 100
194 random samples were taken from a large population.
B. A particular numerical characteristic of sampled items
169
was measured. The results of the measurements were
413
C. as follows:
169
D.
123  45 measurements were between 0.859
169 and 0.900
313  0.901 was observed once
E.
169  0.902 was observed three times
 0.903 was observed twice
13. What expression is equivalent to log[x/(y+z)]?  0.904 was observed four times
A. log (x ) – log (y) – log(z)  45 measurement were between 0.905
B. log (x ) – log (y+z) and 0.958
log(x)
C. The smallest value was 0.859, and the largest value
log(y)  log(z)
was 0.958. The sum of all 100 measurements was
91.170. Except those noted, no measurements B. The car will stop 30m after hitting the dog
occurred more than twice C. The car will stop 20m in front of the dog
D. The driver will quickly reverse the car
E. The car will stop 5m beyond the dog
17. What is the mean of the measurements?
A. 0.9117 23. Which of the following statement is NOT
B. 0.9080 24. TRUE?
C. 0.9055 A. Shock waves can only occur in flows which are
D. 0.9050 supersonic
E. 0.9029 B. The Mach number is the ratio of the fluid speed to
the local speed of sound
18. What is the median of the measurements?
C. The Grashof number is the ratio of Buoyancy to
A. 0.901
the viscosity
B. 0.902
D. Friction factor represents the ratio of the kinetic
C. 0.903
energy of a flow to the pressure forces.
D. 0.904
E. Prandtl number is the ratio of dissipation to
E. 0.905
conduction.
19. What is the mode of the measurements?
25. An incompressible velocity field is given by ux =
A. 0.904
a(x2 – y2). uy is unknown. uz = b where a and b are
B. 0.905
constants. What must the form of the velocity
C. 0.909
component uy be?
D. 0.900
A. uy(x,y,z,t) = -2axy
E. 0.958
B. uy(x,y,z,t) = -2ax
C. uy(x,y,z,t) = -2ax + f(x,z,t)
20. A piece of wood is floating on water. The forces
D. uy(x,y,z,t) = -2ax + f(x,z,t)
acting on the wood are:
E. uy(x,y,z,t) = ax2+t
A. weight and reaction
B. upthrust and reaction
26. The [M,L,T] dimensions of kinematic viscosity (ν )
C. weight and upthrust
are
D. upthrust and viscosity
A. L2T-1
E. weight and viscosity
B. ML-1T-1
C. LT-2
21. The force responsible for holding the moon in its
D. MT-2
orbit around the earth against the gravitational
E. LT-1
pull of the earth is
A. centrifugal
27. The shear stress distribution of laminar flow in a
B. rotational
cylindrical pipe is
C. reactional
A. Linear
D. centripetal
B. Parabolic
E. tractional
C. Quadratic
D. Cubic
22. The driver of a motor car of which the total mass
E. A sine function
is 800 kg and which is travelling at 20 m/s
suddenly observes a stationary dog in his path 50
28. Oil with a specific gravity of 0.72 is used as the
m ahead. If the car brakes can exert a force of
indicating fluid in a manometer. If the differential
2000 N, what would most likely happen?
pressure across the ends of the manometer is
A. The car will be able to stop immediately the drive
notices the dog
 7kPa, what will be the difference in oil levels in enthalpy of 376.92 kJ/kg. What is the water flow
the manometer? rate for steady state operation?
A. 0.23m A. 1.9 x 10-3 m3/s
B. 0.44m B. 2.8 x 10-3 m3/s
C. 0.53m C. 3.3 x 10-3 m3/s
D. 0.75m D. 3.8 x 10-3 m3/s
E. 1.0m E. 4.2 x 10-4 m3/s

29. Which of the following does not affect the rise 34. Which of the following statements is false?
and fall of liquid in a small diameter capillary A. Thermal conductivity generally decrease in the
tube? order ksolids > kliquids > kgases
A. Adhesive forces B. Thermal conductivity, diffusion coefficient and
B. Cohesive forces viscosity have the same unit on account of the
C. Surfaces tension analogy between heat, mass and momentum
D. Density of the fluid transfer
E. Viscosity of the fluid C. Thermal conductivity varies with temperature,
pressure and composition
30. The primary mode of heat transfer across a car D. The thermal conductivity of non-metallic electric
radiator is non-conductors is due entirely to the thermal
A. Radiation vibrations of the crystalline lattice
B. Convection E. Ice has a higher thermal conductivity than water
C. Conduction
D. Radiation and Conduction 35. A natural process that starts in one equilibrium
E. None of the above states and ends in another will go in the direction
that causes the entropy of the system and the
31. In radioactive heat transfer, a grey body is defined environment to increase.
as a body This is a statement of
A. that has an emissivity ε <1.0 A. The First Law of Thermodynamics
B. that is grey in colour B. The Second Law of Thermodynamics
C. that has an absorptivity <1.0 C. The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
D. Fick’s Second Law
D. that has a refractive index < 1.0
E. Fourier’s Law
E. that absorbs all incident radiation on it. 36. The thermodynamic state of a substance is
32. The thermal resistivity for one dimensional steady determined by its properties which are either
conduction heat transfer through a cylindrical wall intensive or extensive. Which one of the following
in the radial direction is which of the following? is NOT an intensive property
A. linear A. Temperature
B. logarithmic B. Pressure
C. exponential C. Stress
D. polynomial D. Strain
E. parabolic E. Viscosity
37. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
33. An engine develops 30 brake kW. 40kW are
A. A throttling process is an adiabatic process in
absorbed by cooling water that is pumped
which there is no change in system enthalpy and
through the water jacket and the radiator. The
no pressure drop.
water enters the top of the engine’s radiator at
B. In an adiabatic process, no heat or other energy
95OC. The enthalpy of the water at that
crosses the system boundary
temperature is 397, 96 kJ/kg. The water leaves
C. A constant volume process is known as an
the bottom of the radiator at 90OC and with an
isometric process
D. An isentropic process is an adiabatic process in After equilibrium, what is the mole fraction of
which there is no change in system entropy component B in the vapour?
E. A constant temperature is known as an isothermal A. 0.32
process B. 0.59
C. 0.68
38. A 0.7 m3 tank contains 4.5 kg of CO2 at 20oC. D. 0.74
Assuming that the gas is ideal, what is the E. 0.85
pressure of the gas? R = 8314.3 J/kmol-K
A. 15.7 mPa 43. When the volume of an ideal gas is doubled while
B. 25 mPa the temperature is halved, what happens to the
C. 356 kPa pressure?
D. 378kPa A. Pressure is doubled
E. 403kPa B. Pressure is halved
C. Pressure is quartered
39. The specific gas constant of oxygen is R = 0.25983 D. Pressure is quadrupuled
kJ/kg-K. If a 2m3 tank contains 40kg of oxygen at E. Pressure remain the same
40oC, what is the gauge pressure in the tank?
A. 61 kPa Questions 44 – 46 refer to the following problem:
B. 110 kPa A replacement steel rail (L = 20m, A = 60 x 10-4m2) was
C. 160 kPa installed when its temperature was 5oC. The rail was
installed tightly in the line without allowance for
D. 1.53 mPa
expansion. The rail ends are constrained by adjacent
E. 1.63 mPa rails, and the spikes prevent buckling. The coefficient
of linear expansion for steel is 11.7 x 10-6 OC-1 and the
40. Which thermodynamic property is the best modulus of elasticity of steel is 20 x 1010 Nm-2. At 25OC
measure of the molecular activity of a substance?
A. Enthalpy
B. Internal energy 44. Determine the thermal strain
C. Entropy A. 2.34 x 10-5 m/m
D. External energy B. 3.54 x 10-5 m/m
E. None of the above C. 9.67 x 10-5 m/m
D. 1.25 x 10-4 m/m
41. A cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston contains E. 2.34 x 10-4 m/m
an ideal gas at temperature T and pressure P. The
gas expands isothermally and reversibly until the 45. The compressive stress in the rail is
pressure is P/3. Which statement is true regarding A. 3.42 x 106 N/m2
the work done by the gas during expansion? B. 4.68 x 106 N/m2
A. It is equal to the change in enthalpy of the gas C. 6.25 x 106 N/m2
B. It is equal to the change in internal energy of D. 7.38 x 106 N/m2
the gas E. 8.29 x 106 N/m2
C. It is equal to the heat absorbed by the gas
D. It is greater than the heat absorbed by the gas 46. The compressive stress in the rail is
E. No work is done. A. 158,000N
42. A container is partially filled with a mixture of two B. 188,000N
volatile liquids. The mixture consists of 2 moles of C. 201,000N
liquid A and 3 moles of liquid B. The vapour D. 251,000N
pressure of pure liquids A and B are 6.0 kPa and E. 281,000N
8.5 kPa, respectively. The mixture behaves ideally.
47. The acronym GSM means
A. Global Satellite for Mobile Telecommunications
B. Global System for Mobile Telecommunications
C. Global Space Mobile Telecommunications
D. Global Servers for Mobile Telecommunications
E. Global Systems for Mobile Telephony

48. MTN means

A. Mobile Telecommunications Network
B. Mobile Telephone Network
C. Multiple Telecommunications Network
D. Mobile Telephones of Nigeria
E. Mobile Telephones of Nigeria LTD

49. Which of the following best describes a bit

A. A basic unit of a computer used to encode a single
character of text
B. The smallest portion of a computer memory that
can represent a distinct address
C. A binary digit that represents one possible value
or state
D. Computer memory that can represent one or two
possible values or state
E. None of the above

50. A manufacturer advertises a 5 GB (gigabyte) drive.

How many bits are contained in 5GB of hard disk
storage?
A. 4.29 x 109
B. 5.0 x 109
C. 500 x 109
D. 40.0 x 109
E. 42.9 x 109

51. The president of a growing engineering firm

wishes to give each of 50 employees a Christmas
bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for
a year at 12% nominal interest rate, compounded
monthly so that each employee will receive a
N10,000 bonus?
A. N 20,700
B. N 28,700
C. N 38,400
D. N 39,400
E. N 41,700
IPS SCREENING TEST 2005 C. Many rivers
D. Many distributaries
E. Delta
1. The huge drag-net enclosed a ....... of fish
A. school 7. “We have many brandies in stock now!” declares
B. gathering the wholesale dealer
C. den A. Many bottles of brandy
D. flock B. Many tots of brandy
E. collection C. Large quantity of brandy
D. Different brands of brandy
2. A .......of actors has arrived for this year’s
E. None of the above
Convocation Command Performance.
A. troop 8. Here is a Daniel indeed
B. team A. A particular person called Daniel
C. group B. A man well-known as Daniel
D. troupe C. Daniel of the old testament
E. set D. Any person whose name is Daniel
E. A person who behaves like Daniel in the
3. A....... lawyers are in charge of the election
old testament
complaints
A. team 9. If Dorathy ...........her father the truth, he wouldn’t
B. bench have believed her
C. panel A. told
D. committee B. has told
E. group C. had told
D. tells
4. My dad’s company deals........building materials.
E. could have told
A. with
B. on 10. If the party goes to the scene of the crime now,
C. in they.............anybody
D. onto A. will not see
E. into B. would not see
C. would have not have seen
5. Augustine is better ........Physics than
D. could not see
Mathematics.
E. cannot see
A. in
B. at 11. Mary did not know Estella ...........so hard hearted
C. on A. is
D. with B. could be
E. None of the above C. could have been
D. will be
E. would be
In each of 6 – 8, choose the letter of the option that
means the same as the underlined 12. “If I were you,” said her mother to Emilia “ I
............... working very hard
6. The waters of the Niger meander through the A. will start
delta creeks into the Atlantic B. would have started
A. Enormous volume of water C. would start
B. Many waters
 D. should have start 19. Like the day he’d entered another huge office
E. should start without knocking and found his boss and a girl
typist in a compromising position. The underline is
13. If you.............. to heaven, you would see Saint __________
Peter A. Metaphor
A. go B. Hyperbole
B. travel C. Euphemism
C. went D. Oxymoron
D. visit E. Paradox
E. arrive
20. The raw, cold breeze of the harmattan dawn,
14. The back end of the ship is called the against which his pair of shorts afforded no
A. Mast protection, knifed through his body. The
B. Rudder dominant figure of speech here is
C. Deck A. Personification
D. Stern B. Oxymoron
E. Hull C. Paradox
D. Metaphor
15. The bottom of the boat is called E. Hyperbole
A. Keel
B. Seal SECTION B (MATHEMATICS & STATISTICS)
C. Poop
D. Port 21. A well cluster is made of ten wells, each of which
E. Underside has either 1 or 2 tubings (single or double
completion). If 16 tubings in all are run, how many
16. A chemical substance put on cuts to prevent of the wells have 2 tubings (double completion)?
infection is A. 3
A. antidote B. 4
B. antiseptic C. 5
C. disinfectant D. 6
D. toxin E. 8
E. vaccine
22. A four member committee is elected from 7
17. The words bi annual mean candidates including two brothers. How many
A. Twice a year committees can be elected including the two
B. Every two years brothers?
C. Every year A. 0
D. Every six months B. 10
E. Every four years C. 15
D. 25
18. “His arms were slicing the air mercilessly E. 35
........”The above expression is_________
A. Metaphor 23. What is the remainder when 2183 is divided by 8?
B. Paradox A. 0
C. Irony B. 1
D. Hyperbole C. 2
E. Euphemism D. 3
E. 4
 log x
24. What is 40th element of the series: 11, 17, D.
log y  log z
23........?
log x
A. 240 E.
log y  z 
B. 244
C. 245
29. Calculate the value of the determinant
D. 248
E. 251
8 2 2
4 2 4 
25. An offshore field is made of four platforms. 
Platform B stays 8km due West of platform A. 6  8 10
Platform C is installed 12 km due North of
platform A and 8km due West of platform D what A. -120
is the straight line distance, in km from platform B B. 104
to platform D? C. 132
A. 4 km D. 296
B. 8 km E. 602
C. 12 km
D. 16 km 30. In the xy – plane, the equation of the circle shown
E. 20 km is x2 + y2 = 4. At how many points does the graph
of the equation y = y = x2 – 3 intersect the circle:
5  A. 0
26. If cos  and 0    sin 2 is
13 2 B. 1
120 C. 2
A. D. 3
169
123 E. 4
B.
169
31. If 0 < xy <1, then which of the following can be
140 true?
C.
169 A. x < -1 and y > 0
240 B. x< -1 and y <-1
D.
169 C. x> -1 and y <-1
280 D. x> -1 and y <-1
E.
169 E. x> -1 and y >1

 1 
1000
32. If  2`   x, then which of the following is exact?
27. 1   is about :
 1000  A. x=-2
A. 1 B. x 2
B. 2 C. x=2
C. e
D. It is equivalent to x 2  4
D. π
E. The equation has no solution
E. ∞
33. Before john changed jobs, his salary was 22%
x more than Mark’s salary. After john changed jobs,
28. What expression is equivalent to log
x y his new salary was 22% less than his former
A. log x – log y – log z salary. What is true?
B. log x – log y + log z A. Mark’s salary > John’s old salary
C. log x – log (y + z) B. Mark’s salary > John’s new salary
 C. Mark’s salary = John’s new salary
39. The limit of
x 2

 5x  6
when x  2 is
D. Mark’s salary < John’s new salary 2  x 2
E. Mark’s salary cannot be compared to
A. -∞
John’s new salary
B. 0
Question 34 to 36 refer to the following situation: A
C. 1
laying hen laid 8 eggs whose weights are: 51g, 53g,
54g, 56g, 60g, 61g, 68g, 69g D. 2
E. +∞
34. The mean of the eggs’ weight is:
A. 57g 40. Given the universal set E = {1,2,3,4,5,6} and the
B. 58g sets P = {1,2,3,4}, Q = {3,4,5} and R = {2,4,6}. Find
C. 59g P U (Q U R)
D. 60g A. {4}
E. 61g B. {1,2,3,4,}
C. {1,2,3,5,6}
35. The variance is D. {1,2,3,4,5,6}
A. 20 E. {1,2}
B. 30
C. 40 41. A box contains four balls: two red and two yellow
D. 50 balls. We extract two balls. What is the probability
E. 60 of extracting two red balls?
A. 1/ 16
36. The standard deviation is close to: B. 1/ 12
A. 5g C. 1/ 6
B. 6g D. 1/ 4
C. 7g E. 1/ 2
D. 8g
E. 9g 42. A bargain store sells second quality equipment
coming from two plants A and B: respectively:
π 70% coming from plant A and 30% from plat B.
37. The value of the integral: I   x sin x dx
0
is : 20% of the equipment coming from plant A have a
default and 10% of the equipment coming from B
A. –π
have a default. What is the probability of buying
1
B.  an equipment with default?
2 A. 0.15
C. 0 B. 0.16
1 C. 0.17
D.
2 D. 0.18
E. π E. 0.20

e
43. A written examination is made up of sorting of

38. The value of the integral I  lnt x dt is :
1
three subjects from a bank of one hundred
subjects. How many different examinations are
A. 0
possible?
B. 1/2
A. 970200
C. 1
B. 323400
D. e
C. 161700
E. 2e
D. 97
E. 3
44. Same data as above. The student must choose 49. Bacteria multiply rapidly by means of
one among the three subjects. A candidate knows A. Budding
only 50 subjects from the bank of subjects. What B. Fragmentation
is the probability that he knows the three C. Spore formation
subjects? D. Binary fission
A. 0.03 E. None of the above
B. 0.12
C. 0.33 50. Insects visit flowers in order to
D. 0.38 A. Feed on the nectar
E. 0.50 B. Smell their scent
C. Deposit pollen on the stigma
45. Same data as above. The student must choose D. Pollinate the flower
one among the three subjects. A candidate knows E. Transfer pollen from anthers
only 50 subjects from the bank of subjects. What
is the probability that he knows only one subject? 51. Which of the following organs of the United
A. 0.03 Nations is in charge of developing education in
B. 0.12 the member states?
C. 0.33 A. W.H.O
D. 0.38 B. UNESCO
E. 0.50 C. UNICEF
D. UNHCR
SECTION C(BIOLOGY & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE) E. UNDP

46. The key event in the transition of the amphibians 52. Pope Benedict XXVI is the ---------th Pope
from water to land is A. 100
A. Replacement of the gills with lungs B. 250
B. Possession of web limbs C. 265
C. Development of long hind limbs D. 300
D. Possession of tympanic membrane E. 365
E. None of the above
53. The acronym S.A.R.S represents
47. The possession of scales, laying eggs with shells A. Serious Acute Respiratory Syndrome
and bony structure of the head are characteristics B. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
shared by C. Serious Acute Respiratory Sinus
A. Birds and reptiles D. Sit and Rest Syndrome
B. Fishes and birds E. None of the above
C. Reptiles and fishes
D. Birds and molluscs 54. The first Nigerian athlete to win gold medal in the
E. Reptiles and molluscs Olympics was
A. Chidi Imo
48. Substances manufactured by the leaves are B. Falilat Ogunkoya
transported to other parts of the plants though C. Mary Onyeali
the D. Davidson Ezenwa
A. Xylem E. Chioma Ajunwa
B. Companion cells
C. Phloem 55. Nigeria became a republic in _______
D. Cambium A. 1957
E. Cytoplasm B. 1958
 C. 1959 
D.
D. 1960 3
E. 1963 
E.
9
SECTION D PHYSICS
60. Three types of radiation are emitted from
56. The force between molecules of different
radioactive material but only one of them is not
substances is termed
deflected by magnetic field. Name it and suggest a
A. Elastic force
reason.
B. Repulsive force
A. Alfa-particle because it is charged
C. Cohesive force
B. Beta-particle because it is uncharged
D. Electromagnetic force
C. Gamma particle because it is charged
E. Adhesive force
D. Beta particle because it is charged
57. A body moving with a constant speed in a circular E. Gamma particle because it is uncharged
path has
61. Two vehicles travelling along PH-Choba road
A. no acceleration
collided with each other. After the collision, all
B. an acceleration which varies from point to
their kinetic energies were transformed into other
point on the circle
forms of energies. This is said to be a case of
C. a retardation which depends on the mass
A. Perfectly elastic collision
of the particle
B. Perfectly inelastic collision
D. a constant acceleration directed towards
C. Ideally elastic collision
the centre of the circle
D. Ideally inelastic collision
E. a constant acceleration directed away
E. Relatively inelastic collision
from the centre of the circle

62. Which of the following are bases on application of

58. Oil is used as a lubricant in car engines and lathe
momentum law? (1) Inflated Balloons (2)Rockets
machines so that
(3) Mark IV gun (4) Cranes (5) Fork lift
A. It may prevent moving parts from being
A. 1 to 3 only
warmed
B. 3, 4 and 5 only
B. There is a little adhesion between the oil
C. 1, 3 and 5 only
and moving parts
D. All of the above
C. There is a more adhesion between
E. 1 only
moving parts
63. Which of these are not definition of impulse (1)
D. Friction can be significantly reduced
Time rate of change in momentum of a body (2)
E. So that tension can be reduced
Product of force and time (3) Difference in
59. A taxi driver suddenly applies his break on sighting products of mass and velocity (4) ratio force and
a sea of cows crossing the road at a breaking time (5) Difference in ratio of mass and velocity
distance of 100m. On stopping, the wheel of the A. 1 and 2 only
car was found to have rotated through 30o. What B. 2 and 3 only
is the equivalent in radian? C. 3 and 4 only
D. 4 and 5 only

A. E. 3 and 5 only
2
2 64. An electron travelling at a speed of 2.6 x 108 m/s
B.
2 has a mass of 18 x 10-31 kg which is about twice
 the rest mass of an electron 9.1 x 10-31 kg. How
C.
6 large an average force is needed to accelerate the
 electron to this speed from an initial speed of 1.0 E. i, ii, v only
x 108 m/s in a time of 1.0 x 10-21 seconds? The
mass of the electron at this lower speed is 9.5 x 69. Calculate the efficiency of a machine with velocity
10-31kg. ratio of 5 if it requires a 800 N weight to
A. 370N overcome a load of 2400N weight
B. 37N A. 60%
C. 3.7N B. 30%
D. 0.37N C. 300%
E. 3700N D. 6%
E. 80%
65. A stationary wheel barrow of mass 4kg is hit by a
bus weighing 8N for 5 seconds. Calculate the gain 70. At what height above the ground must a body of
in momentum of the system mass 10kg be situated in order to have potential
A. 40N/s energy equal in value to the kinetic energy
B. 32N/s possessed by another body of mass 10kg moving
C. 20N/s with a velocity of 10 m/s
D. 6.4N/s A. 5m
E. 160N/s B. 10m
C. 50m
66. An object of mass 4kg is moving with a velocity of D. 100m
3m/s and collides head on with another object of E. 200m
mass 2kg moving in opposite direction with a
velocity of 4m/s. On collision, both objects 71. A catapult is used to project a stone. Which of the
coalesced and moved together with a combined following energy conversions takes place as the
velocity V. Find V. stone is released?
A. 2 /3 m/s A. The kinetic energy of the stone is converted
B. 1.5 m/s into gravitational PE
C. 0.5 m/s B. The gravitational PE is converted into KE of
D. 2.5 m/s the stone
E. 3.0 m/s C. The elastic PE of catapult is converted into
KE of the stone
67. A riffle of 100kg that was lying on table D. The gravitational PE is converted into
accidentally discharged a bullet of 10kg at a speed elastic PE
of 1500km/hr. Calculate the speed of recoil of the E. The elastic PE of catapult is converted into
riffle if the table is frictionless. gravitational PE of the stone
A. 105km/hr
B. 150km/hr 72. Which of the following combination will increase
C. 160km/hr the stability of an object
D. 100km/hr A. Wide base and low C.G
E. None of the above B. Narrow base and low C.G
C. Narrow base and high C.G
68. Friction can be reduced by the following (i) D. Wide base and high C.G
Lubrication (ii) Polishing (iii) Rolling (iv) gas E. Wide base and C.G one third of the way
cushion (v) grinding up from the base
A. i and iv only
B. i, iii and iv only 73. Which of the following correctly gives the
C. i, and iii only relationship between linear speed ν and angular
D. all of the above
 speed ω of a body moving uniformly in a circle of C. Specific volume
radius  D. Pressure
A. v   E. Enthalpy

B. v   2
Questions 78 – 80 refer to the following: the van der
C. v   2
Waals equation of State is:
D. v 2  
Where P = pressure
 T = temperature
E. v 
 V = volume
n = number of moles
74. Determine the force of attraction between the a and b are Van der Waals constants.
The Van der Waals constants for gases P, Q, R, S and T
sun (MS = 199 x 1030 kg) and the earth (ME = 5.98 x
are:
1024 kg). Assume the sun is 1.50 x 1022 km from
the earth Gas a b
A. 3.53 x 1002N Litres-atm/mole LITRES/MOLES
B. 3.53 x 1022N
P 3.0 0.015
C. 5.0 x 1022N
Q 8.0 0.022
D. 5.5 x 1022N
R 10.0 0.030
E. 5.35 x 1022N
S 5.0 0.032
T 12.0 0.040
75. Equal weights are hung from two steel wires. One
wire has twice the diameter of the other.
Compare the amount of stretch in each wire. 78. Which gas has the highest critical temperature?
A. The smaller diameter stretches twice as A. P
much B. Q
B. The smaller wire stretches four times as C. R
much D. S
C. The larger diameter wire stretches more E. T
D. Both wires stretch by the same amount
E. The larger diameter stretches twice as 79. Which gas has the largest molecular volume?
much A. P
B. Q
C. R
SECTION E (BASIC ENGINEERING) D. S
E. T
76. A system has a gauge pressure of 2.5 MPa and an
atmospheric pressure of 105 kPa. Calculate the
80. Which gas has the most ideal general behaviour
absolute pressure
around STP?
A. 2605kPa
A. P
B. 107.5kPa
B. Q
C. 107.5MPa
C. R
D. 105.0025kPa
D. S
E. 13.0Mpa
E. T
77. One of the following properties is NOT an
Questions 81 – 82refere to the Joule –Thompson
intensive property Coefficient defined as:
A. Temperature
 T 
B. Volume   
 P  H
81. For a throttling process, 86. The velocity profile for laminar flow of fluid
A. Temperature decreases with decreasing through a circular pipe is
pressure at constant enthalpy A. Linear
B. Temperature decreases with increasing B. Logarithm
pressure at constant enthalpy C. Polynomial
C. Temperature increases with decreasing D. A sine function
pressure at constant enthalpy E. Parabolic
D. Temperature is constant
E. None of the above 87. The shear stress distribution for laminar flow Of a
fluid through a circular pipe is
82. For an ideal gas expanding in a throttling process, A. Linear
A. µ >0 B. Logarithm
B. µ <0 C. Polynomial
C. µ = 0 D. A sine function
D. µ >∞ E. Parabolic
E. µ can be positive or negative
88. Which of the following statements are TRUE of
83. Given the following Heats of Formation: Equimolar Counter Diffusion?
C + 2H2 → CH4 (g) ∆Hf = 18,000 cal/gmole I NA = -NB
C + O2 → CO2 (g) ∆Hf = 94,000 cal/gmole II NA = -JA
H2 + ½O2 → H2O (1) ∆Hf = 34,000 cal/gmol III NA = JA
Calculate the heat of reaction for the combustion of A. I only
methane: B. II only
A. 110,000 cal/gmol C. III only
B. 128,000 cal/gmol D. I and II only
C. 18,000 cal/gmol E. I and III only
D. 144,000 cal/gmol
E. 146,000 cal/gmol 89. Which of the following assumptions are valid in
the development of Hagen- Poiseuille Law?
84. The hydraulic radius is I The flow is laminar
A. The mean radius of the pipe II Incompressible flow
B. The radius of the pipe bend on the line III There is no slip at the wall
C. The wetted perimeter of a conduit divided A. I only
by the area of the flow B. I and II only
D. The cross section fluid area divided the C. II and III only
wetted perimeter D. I, II and III
E. The cross section fluid area divided by the E. None of the is valid
radius
90. The equation of continuity is an expression of the
fundamental Law of conservation of
85. The average specific gravity is 1.15. What is the A. Energy
absolute pressure at the bottom of 3000 m of B. Mass
sea? C. Momentum
A. 2.1 kPa D. Energy and momentum
B. 2.5 MPa E. Energy, mass and momentum
C. 28 MPa
D. 30MPa
E. 34Mpa
91. In the diffusion of A through stagnant B, which of 96. Certain factors must be taken into account in
these statements about the fluxes NA and NB is deciding on the preferable production technique
true for a particular well or groups of wells. Which of
A. NA + NB = 0 these factors are important?
B. NA = NB I. Well depth
C. NA = 0 II. Present and anticipated gas/liquid ratios
D. NB = 0 (GLRs)
E. NA = 2 NB III. Hole deviation
IV. Formation pressure and pressure decline
92. The y – component of a two –dimensional A. I and II only
incompressible flow is uy = -2xy. Determine the x – B. I, II and III only
component C. I,II and IV only
A. 2x D. I, III and IV only
B. 2x + C E. I, II, III, and IV
C. xz
D. xz + C 97. Productivity index (PI) of a well is defined as the
E. x2 + f(Y) ratio between
A. The producing rate and its draw down
93. When the thickness of insulation on a pipe B. The producing rate and the well’s
exceeds the critical value producing pressure
A. The heat flow rate decreases C. The producing rate and the well’s static
B. The heat flow rate increases pressure
C. The heat flow rate remains constant D. Producing pressure and the static
D. The heat flow ceases instantly pressure of the well
E. None of the above E. Producing pressure and its draw down

94. By which of the following mode of heat transfer is 98. Computers are usually categorized depending on
heat mainly transferred from an insulated pipe to size and cost. Personal computers, PCs fall under
the surrounding still air? A. Minicomputers
A. Free convection B. Microcomputers
B. Forced convection C. Super Computers
C. Radiation D. Desktop Computers
D. Conduction E. Mainframe Computers
E. None of the above
99. Before being used computer programmes must
95. The amount of heat flow through a body by generally be loaded into memory. Which storage
conduction is component does this memory store to?
A. Dependent upon the material of the A. Cache
body B. EPROM
B. Directly proportional to the surface area C. RAM
of the body D. ROM
C. Directly proportional to the temperature E. PROM
difference between the top faces of the
body 100. An Engineer deposits N100,000 in a savings
D. Inversely proportional to the thickness account on the day her child is born. She deposits
of the body an additional N10,000 on every birthday after
E. All of the above that. The account attracts a 6% nominal interest
rate, compounded continuously. How much
money will be in the account the day after the
child’s 21st birthday?
A. N310,000
B. N436,750
C. N688,245
D. N760,945
E. N1,100,000
ANSWERS (IPS 2005)

1. A 21. D 41. C 61. B 81. A

2. D 22. B 42. C 62. D 82. D

3. C 23. A 43. A 63. D 83. A

4. B 24. C 44. B 64. D 84. D

5. A 25. E 45. E 65. A 85. E

6. C 26. A 46. A 66. D 86. E

7. D 27. C 47. A 67. B 87. A

8. E 28. C 48. C 68. D 88. E

9. C 29. D 49. D 69. A 89. D

10. A 30. E 50. A 70. A 90. B

11. B 31. C 51. B 71. C 91. D

12. B 32. A 52. C 72. A 92. E

13. A 33. B 53. B 73. A 93. B

14. D 34. C 54. E 74. A 94. A

15. A 35. C 55. E 75. B 95. E

16. B 36. B 56. C 76. A 96. E

17. B 37. E 57. D 77. B 97. A

18. B 38. A 58. D 78. E 98. B

19. C 39. A 59. C 79. A 99. C

20. D 40. D 60. E 80. A 100. D IPS SCREENING TEST 2006

SECTION A (COMMUNICATION SKILLS)

In each of 1-5, choose the letter of the option that

fills the blank spaces

1. The late politician had an ----- ambition to rule

the country.
A. obtuse
B. insipid
C. infantile
D. inappropriate
E. inordinate

2. He is very tired. He really is ----- staying up late

A. getting used to
B. not used to
C. got used to
D. used to
E. being used to

3. I am sure that my mother will not find out. She is

so ---- that she will accept anything I tell her.
A. credible
B. credulous
C. creditable
D. incredible
E. incredulous
 In each of 10-13, choose the letter of the option
which is the opposite of the word in italics.
4. When we got to the Director’s house, we were
told that he ------ two days earlier.
A. May have left
B. left 10. Assuage
C. had left A. Stuff
D. has left B. Describe
E. did leave C. Wince
D. Worsen
E. Introduce
5. No teacher of honour would subject his student
to any form of -----------
A. harassment 11. Astute
B. harrasment A. Sheer
C. harrassment B. Noisy
D. harassement C. Astral
E. harasment D. Unusual
E. Foolish

In each of 6-9, choose the letter of the option that

means the same as the word in italics. 12. Loquacious
A. Taciturn
6. Ardour B. Sentimental
A. Zeal C. Soporific
B. Paint D. Soothing
C. Proof E. Sedate
D. Group
E. Excitement
13. Malevolent
A. Kindly
7. Impetuous B. Vacuous
A. Just C. Ambivalent
B. Flagrant D. Volatile
C. Rash E. Primitive
D. Insane Read the following passage carefully and answer the
E. Redolent questions that follow it.

8. Quandary
A. Quagmire The approach to the university is being restructured
B. Dilemma to ease the flow of traffic, give better security and
C. Epigram provide an appropriate introduction to a seat of
D. Enemy
higher learning. The Works and Services Complex is
E. Finish
also under construction, and we intend to move into
the completed (major) part of it within the next few
9. Vestige weeks.
A. Trek
B. Trail
C. Trace
D. Trial All these projects are being executed with an eye to
E. Tract aesthetics, for we recognize the important influence
of a beautiful and healthy environment on its
inhabitants and feel that a cluster of buildings on a
small space such as we have should be so well
designed as to have a beneficial psychological and
sociological effect on all members of the community.
I have gone to these lengths to itemize these
examples of current development for two main
reasons. Firstly, to advise you that the road diversions
and other physical inconveniences currently being
experienced will be on the increase because of
intense development activity. We therefore appeal to
you to bear with us in full knowledge and consolation
that such inconveniences are temporary and will soon
yield final tangible results. Secondly, to demonstrate
our capacity for executing approved projects with
dispatch, and to assure Government that we are up to
the task. Indeed, I can assure Government that its
ability to disburse funds to us will be more than
matched by our capacity to collect and expend them
on executing various worthy projects in record time.
14. From the passage, we can gather that
A. there is not much consideration for the
health of the inhabitants.
B. there is deliberate effort to inconvenience
the people.
C. buildings are put up anyhow.
D. projects are carried out without approval.
E. the inconveniences suffered by the
inhabitants will be for a while.
15. Unless it can be shown that the money voted for
projects can be spent on them in good time,
A. the development activity will not be intense
B. it will not be easy to convince government of
our executive ability.
C. it will not be difficult to ask Government for
funds.
D. our final results will be unreliable
E. the road diversions and other inconveniences
will continue.
16. An eye to aesthetics in this passage means
A. regard for space
B. beneficial psychological effects
C. regard for health
D. consideration for beauty
E. a cluster of buildings
17. In this passage, the author tries to explain why
A. it is necessary to establish the Works and
Services Complex in the university
B. beauty should not be taken into
consideration when building on such a small
space as we have.
C. the gateway to the university is being rebuilt.
D. major part of the project should be
completed in the next few weeks.
E. visitors should be debarred from using the
gates in the meantime.
18. Which of these is NOT among the reasons given
by the author for enumerating the examples of
the current development?
A. to show that we are capable of executing
approved projects.
B. to convince the Government that we can be
trusted with a task.
C. the inconveniences currently being
experienced will go on indefinitely.
D. we are fully aware of the inconveniences
being caused, but we do not want you to
complain.
E. we have the capacity to complete worthy
projects within the scheduled time.
19. Despite the millions of naira spent on
improvements, the electricity system in Nigeria
remains -------------- and continues to -----------the
citizens who depend on it.
A. primitive, inconvenience
B. bombastic, upset
C. suspicious, connect
D. outdated, elate
E. impartial, vet
20. Because he was ---------- and the life of the party,
his friends thought that he was happy, but his
wife was -------- and shy and was thought to be
unhappy.
A. melancholy, sympathetic
B. philanthropic, conciliatory
C. vitriolic, sophomoric
D. garrulous, taciturn
E. inimical, gregarious
SECTION B (MATHEMATICS & STATISTICS)
21. If a and b are positive integers and a3b2 = 72, then C. 1:3
a+b=
A. 36 D. 1:9
B. 17
C. 8 E. 1:27
D. 6
E. 5
22. Which of the following fractions is closest to 1
25. If x is an even number, which of the following
given that a > b > 1?
must be odd?
a
A.
b I. 3x + 1
II. (5x)2 + 2
B
a  2 III. (x + 1)2
b  2

C.
a  1 A. I only
b  1 B III only

D.
a  1 C. I and II only
b
D. I and III only

E.
a  1
b  1 E. I, II and III

5 
26. If cos  and 0   
13 2
23. The price of a share rose 20% yesterday and fell
20% today. What is the total rise or fall percent? sin 2 is:

A. 20% fall 120

A.
169
B 40% rise
123
C. 20% rise B
169
D. 4% fall
140
C.
E. No change 169

240
D.
169

280
24. If cylinder A has three times the height and one- E.
169
third the diameter of cylinder B, what is the ratio of
the volume of A to the volume of B?

A. 3:1
27. Simplify 3 28  5 63  4 112
B 1:1
 A. 7 30. If the average of x, y and 30 is 10, then the
average of x and y is
B 2 7

C. 3 7 A. 0

D. 5 7 B 5

C. 7
E. 7 7
D. 10

E. 30

28. What expression is equivalent to log x ?

y z 31. Find the nth term of the sequence

A. logxlog ylogz 3,6,10,15,21

B logxlog ylogz

C. logxlog(y z) nn  1
A.
2
logx
D.
log ylogz nn  2 
B
2
logx
E.
log(y  z)
C.
n  1n  2
2

D. (n+2)
29.- Calculate the value of the determinant:
E. n(2n+1)

8 2 2
4 2 4
6  8 10 32. Solve for r in the following equation

1 2 3
 
r  1 r  1 r
A. -120
A. 3
B 104
B 4
C. 132
C. 5
D. 296
D. 6
E. 602
E. 9
33. Three consecutive terms of a geometric 3 4 7 2
progression are n-2, n and n+3. Find the common A. x  x
ratio 4 2
A. 3/2
3 4 7 2
B 1/2
B x  x 4
4 2
C. 1/3
3 4 7 2
C. x  x 6
D. 1/4 4 2
E. 2/3 3 4 7 2
D. x  x 6
4 2
34. Two dice are thrown. What is the probability that E. 3x 3  7 x  2
the sum of the numbers is divisible by 3?

A. 1/2

3
B 1/3
37. Evaluate the integral:  sin xdx

C. 1/9 4

D. 2/3 A. 0.5
E. 1/4 B 0.207

C. 0.707
35. Find the number of committees of three that can D. 1
be formed consisting of two men and one woman
from four men and three women? E. 0

A. 24 38. Find the integral

B 18 3x  2
 3x  2 dx
C. 3

x  ln 3x  2  C
D. 6 4
A.
E. 9
3

x  ln 3x  2  C
1
B
3
36. It is known that f(x) = 4 when x = 2 (i.e., the initial
condition is f(2) = 4). Find the original function
x  ln 3x  2  C
4
C.

 3x  7 x dx
3 3

D. x  2 ln 3x  2  C

E. 3 ln 3x  2  C
 orange balls, eight green balls, and two white
balls?

39. A circle is inscribed in a square. Express the area of A. 0.071

the circle as a percentage of the area of the square.
B 0.10
A. 78.5%
C. 0.36
B. 100%
D. 0.53
C. 50%
E. 0.63
D. 85.7%

E. 30% 43. What is the probability that either two heads or

three heads will be thrown if six fair coins are
tossed at once?

40. Given the universal set E = {1,2,3,4,5,6} and the

sets P ={1,2,3,4}, Q={3,4,5} and R={2,4,6}. Find P A. 0.35
 (Q  R)I
B 0.55

C. 0.59
A {4}
D. 0.63
B {1,2}
E. 0.75
C {1,2,3,5,6}

D {1,2,3,4,5,6} Questions 44 and 45 refer to the following situation.

Samples of aluminum-alloy channels were tested for
E {1,2,3,4} stiffness. The following frequency distribution was
obtained.

41. There are 150 students in the SS3 class at Okrika Stiffness frequency
Grammar School, Okrika. All of them are 2480 23
members of the Science Society, the Literary and 2440 35
Debating Society, or both. If 100 of them are in 2400 40
the Science Society and 80 are in the Literary and 2360 33
Debating Society, how many of them are in both 2320 21
societies?
44. What is the approximate mean of the population
A. 20 from which the samples were taken?

B. 30 A. 2367

C. 50 B. 2398

D. 80 C. 2402

E. 100 D. 2419

E. 2485
42. What is the probability of picking an orange ball
and a white ball out of a bag containing seven
45. What is the approximate standard deviation of the
population from which the samples were taken?
49. The nitrifying bacteria, Nitrosomonas, convert
A. 19 ammonia to

B. 23 A. nitrites

C. 37 B nitric acid

D. 51 C. nitrates

E. 60 D. nitrous oxides

E. amino acids

SECTION C (BIOLOGY & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE)

50. Virus differ from all forms of life because they

46. The centre for learning and memory in the human A. have a thick cell wall
brain is
B. feed on waste products of other organisms
A. medulla oblongata
C. cause infectious diseases
B. Olfactory lobe
C. pineal body D. require other living cells to multiply

D. cerebellum E. can only be seen on a very powerful

microscope.
E. cerebrum

47. The major function of the swim-bladder in fishes is

A. breathing 51. The most important environmental factor which

epiphytes in the rain forest compete for is
B. excretion
A. water
C. swimming
B. nutrient
D. diving
C. light
E. buoyancy
D. space

48. Which of the following elements is essential for E. nitrogen

the formation of haemoglobin?

A sodium
52. NACCIMA stands for
B potassium
A. Nigerian-American Centre for Culture,
C calcium Industries, Mines and Arts

D. iron B. Nigerian Association for Culture, Civics,

Industries, Minerals and Arts
E. oxygen
 B General Ibrahim Babangida

C. National Agency for Culture, Civilization, C Alvan Ikoku

Investments, Manufacturing and Arts
D Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
D. National Association of Chambers of
Commerce, Industries, Mines and Arts E. General Sanni Abacha

E. Nigerian Association of Chambers of

Commerce, Industries, Mines and Agriculture SECTION D (PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)

56. A piece of wood is floating on water. The forces

53. The acronym COREN represents acting on the wood are

A. Council for the Registration of Engineers in A. Upthrust and reaction

B. Weight and reaction
Nigeria
C. Weight and upthrust
D. Upthrust and viscosity
B. Council for the Regulation of Engineers in
E. Weight and viscosity
Nigeria

C. Council for the Regulation of Engineering in 57. Which of the following statements correctly
Nigeria describe(s) cathode rays?
D. Council for the Registration of Engineering in I. They consist of tiny particles with negative
Nigeria electric charges
E. None of the above II. They are deflected in a magnetic field but not
in an electric field.

54. The type of securities that the stock exchange III. They consist of fast moving neutrons and are
deals with are deflected in an electric field.

A. warrants, currency notes, money orders and

postal orders A. I only
B. II only
B. cheques, bank drafts, warrants and
C. III only
promissory notes D. I and II only
E. II and III only
C. bonds ivory, treasury bills, debentures and
warrants
58. Oil is used as a lubricant in car engine and lead
D. stocks, shares, bonds and warrants
machine so that
E. warrants, treasury bills, shares and cheques.
A. It may prevent moving parts from being warm
B. There is little adhesion between the oil and
moving parts
55 The international airport in Abuja was named after C. There is more adhesive force between moving
parts
A Chief Obafemi Awolowo D. Friction can be totally removed
E. So that tension can be reduced
 59. An airplane lands on a runway at a speed of 180
kmh-1 and is brought to a stop uniformly in 30
seconds. What distance does it cover on the
runway before coming to rest?
A 360m
C Moon is between the sun and the earth
D ozone layer is threatened
E the sun momentarily stops producing light

B 540m 63. An electric kettle with negligible heat capacity is

C 750m rated at 2000 W. If 2.0 kg of water is put in it, how
long will it take the temperature of water to rise
D 840m from 20oC to 100oC?

E 960m A. 420s

B 400s

60. Three types of radiations are emitted from C. 360s

radioactive material but only one of them is not
deflected by magnetic field. Name it and suggest a D. 336s
reason. E. 168s
A. α–particle because it is charged

B. β–particle because it is uncharged
C. γ–particle because it is charged
D. β–particle because it is charged
64. The earth is four times the size of the moon and
the acceleration due to gravity on the earth is 80
times that on the moon. The ratio of the mass of
the moon to that of the earth is

E. γ–particle because it is uncharged

A. 1:320

61 A rocket burns fuel at the rate of 10 kgs-1 and B. 1:1280

ejects the exhaust gases at a velocity of 5 x 103
ms-1. The thrust exerted by the gas on the rocket C. 1:80
is D. 1:4
A. 2.5 x 107N E. 1:20
B. 5.0 x 104N

C. 5.0 x 102N 65. A jet plane carrying 3,000 kg of ethane burns off
all the gas forming water and carbon dioxide. If all
D. 2.0 x 103N
the carbon dioxide is expelled and the water
E. 2.0 x 105N formed is condensed and kept on board the
plane, then the gain in weight is

A. 1,800 kg
62. Total eclipse of the sun occurs when
B. 900 kg
A Earth is between the moon and the sun
C. 600 kg
B Sun is between the moon and the earth
 D. 2,400 kg C. Decrease in the temperature of the reaction

E. 1,200 kg D. Decrease in the concentration of SO2

E. Decrease in pressure.

66. An object of mass 4kg is moving wit a velocity of

3m/s and collides head on with another object of
mass 2kg moving in opposite direction with a 69. The complete hydrogenation of ethyne gives
velocity of 4m/s. On collision, both objects A. benzene
coalesced and moved together with a combined
velocity V. Find V B. methane

A 2/3m/s C. ethene

B 1.5m/s D. propane

C 0.5m/s E. ethane

D 2.5m/s

E 3.0m/s 70. The reaction between ethanoic acid and sodium

hydroxide is an example of

A. esterification
67. What property of reversible reactions is affected
by a catalyst? B. neutralization

C. hydroxylation

A. heat content (enthalpy) D. hydrolysis

B. energy of activation E. isomerization

C. Gibbs free energy

D. equilibrium position 71. A phenomenon where an element exists in

different forms in the same physical state is
E. None of the above known as

68. The reaction between sulphur (IV) oxide and A isomerism

oxygen is represented by the equilibrium reaction
B amorphism
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2SO3(g) ∆H = -196kJ
C isotropy
What factor would influence increased production
of SO3? D allotropy

E None of the above

A. Addition of a suitable catalyst

B. Increase in the temperature of the reaction

72. In order to remove one electron from 3s-orbital of D CO may be prepared by heating charcoal with a
gaseous sodium atom, about 496 kJ mol-1 of limited amount of O2.
energy is required. This energy is referred to as
E. CO is a good reducing agent
A electron affinity

B. ionization energy
SECTION E (BASIC ENGINEERING)
C. activation energy

D. electronegativity
76. Which of the following is/are true of extensive
E. redox potential properties:

73. In which of the following reactions does reduction I. They are dependent on the mass of the system
take place?
II. Summation of the corresponding properties
2- 2- -
A. 2O ------------- O + 4e for parts of the system mass is possible

B. Fe2+ - e- ------------- Fe3+ III. Examples include volume, energy, enthalpy

and viscosity.
C. 2H+ ---------------- H2

D Cr – 2e- ------------- Cr2+

A. I only
E. None of the above
B. II only

C. I and II only
74. Catalytic hydrogenation of benzene produces
D. I and III only
A. Cyclohexene E. I, II and III.
B. Oil

C. Margarine 77. Which of the following properties is NOT an

intensive property
D. Toluene
A. temperature
E. Cyclohexane
B. electrical potential

C. thermal conductivity
75. Which of the following statements is NOT true of
carbon monoxide? D. entropy
A. CO is poisonous E. pressure
B. CO is readily oxidized at room temperature by
air to form CO2.
Questions 78 – 80 refer to the schematic of a one-
C. CO may be prepared by reducing CO2, mixed component, three phase equilibrium diagram shown
coke heated to about 1000oC. below::
 E. 4

F .C
B.
Pressure A. 81. In a general compression process, 1 kJ of
(p) . TP .G
mechanical work is supplied to 2 kg of fluid, and
400 J of heat is rejected to the cooling jacket.
What is the change in specific internal energy?
D
A. 200 J kg-1.
Temperature, T
B. 300 J kg-1

C. 500 J kg-1
78. The number/identity of phases present at point A
is D. 800 J kg-1

A. one (solid) E. 1 kJ kg-1

B. one (liquid)

C. one (gas) 82. Which of the statements below is/are true

about reversible cycles, such as the Carnot
D. two (solid/liquid) Cycle?

E. three (soild/liquid/gas) I. All reversible cycles have the same

efficiency when operating between
the same two reservoirs

II. This efficiency is the maximum

79. The number/identity of phases present at point TP possible between the two reservoirs
is
III. This efficiency depends only upon the
A. one (solid) two reservoirs and is independent of
the nature of the fluid.
B. one (liquid)
A. I only
C. one (gas)
B. I and II only
D. two (solid/liquid)
C. I and III only
E. three (soild/liquid/gas)
D. II and III only

E. I, II and III.

80. The number of degrees of freedom at point TP is

83. An air-vapour mixture consisting of 1 lbm of dry
A. 0 air and 0.015 lbm of vapour is at 85oF and 20
psia. Find the partial pressure of water
B. 1
vapour. From steam tables, the maximum
C. 2 partial pressure of water vapour that could
be exerted at 85oF is 0.5964 psia
D. 3
 A. 0.15 psia 86. Lumped parameter analysis of transient heat
conduction in solids stipulates
B. 0.30 psia
C. 0.4719 psia A. infinite thermal conductivity
B. negligible temperature gradient
D. 0.5964 psia C. small conduction resistance
D. predominance of convective
E. 0.60 psia resistance
E. all of the above

84. Two walls of same thickness and cross-sectional

87. The shear stress distribution for laminar flow of a
area have thermal conductivities in the ratio
fluid through a circular pipe is
1:2. If the same temperature difference is
maintained across the wall faces, the ratio of A .linear
heat flow Q1/Q2 will be
B. logarithmic
A. 1/2
C. polynomial
B. 1
D. a sine function
C. 2
E. parabolic
D. 4

E. we do not have enough information to

determine the ratio.
85. Which of the following is a WRONG statement?
88. What is the degree of polymerization of a
polyvinyl acetate (mer of C4H6O2, molecular
weight of 86) sample having the following analysis
of molecular weights?

A. Addition of insulation does not always bring

about a decrease in the heat transfer rate range of molecular weights mole fraction
for geometries with non-constant cross-
section 5001-15,000 0.30

B. Rubber insulated wires can carry more 15,001-25,000 0.47

current than a bare wire for the same rise in 25,001-35,000 0.23
temperature.

C. A certain thickness of lagging on a steam

pipe may increase the rate of heat flow A. 86
rather than reduce it.
B. 100
D. Critical radius of insulation refers to the
outer radius of insulation for which there is C. 120
maximum thermal resistance and D. 224
consequently maximum heat flow rate.
E. 300
E. In large pipes, addition of insulation always
decreases the heat flow rate.
89. The ratio of buoyancy forces to the viscous forces 93. What is the ratio of stress to strain below the
is the proportionality limit called?

A. Grashoff number A. endurance

B. Nusselt number B. Young’s modulus

C. Prandtl number C. the modulus of rigidity

D. Schmidt number D. Hooke’s constant

E. Biot number E. Poisson’s ratio

90. The hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers 94. Which of the following material properties cannot
coincide if be determined directly from a standard tensile
test?
A. Reynolds number is unity
A. modulus of elasticity
B. Reynolds number is 5 x 105
B. yield strength
C. Schmidt number is unity
C. ultimate strength
D. Prandtl number is unity
D. ductility
E. Nusselt number is unity
E. hardness

91. The Navier-Stokes equation essentially states that

------------------- is/are conserved in a flow 95. Cavitation in pumps can be caused by

A. energy A. discharge head far below the pump head at

peak efficiency
B. mass
B. high suction lift or low suction head
C. momentum
C. excessive pump speed
D. mass and energy
D. high liquid temperature (i.e., high vapour
E. density and viscosity
pressure)
92. The specific heat capacity of water undergoing a
E. all of the above
phase change to steam is

A. 4180 Jkg-1K-1
96. Which of the following is/are true about Resonant
B. 1 Jkg-1K-1
Series-RLC circuits
C. 1000 Jkg-1K-1
I. impedance is minimum
D. zero II. impedance equals resistance
III. current and voltage are in phase
E. infinity IV. current is maximum
 A. I and II only 99. What is the DOS/Windows tool used to reorganize
the hard disk to optimize its performance?
B. I, II, and III only
A. SCANDISK
C. I, II, and IV only
B. DRVSPACE
D. I, III, and IV only
C. DEFRAG
E. .I, II, III, and IV
D. CHKDSK

E. NORTON
97. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of
an ideal transformer

I the coefficient of coupling is unity (i.e., all flux 100. An investment currently costs N28,000. If the
passes through each coil and there is no leakage current inflation rate is 6% and the effective
flux.) annual return on investment is 10%,
approximately how long will it take for the
II the coils have no resistance investment’s future value to reach N40,000?
III all flux is contained inside a path of constant
A. 1.8 years
area
B. 2.3 years

C. 2.6 years
A. I, II and III
D. 3.4 years
B. I and II only
E. 5.4 years
C. I and III only

D. II and III only

ANSWERS (IPS 2006)
E. II only

1. E 21. E 41. B 61. B 81. B

2. B 22. B 42. B 62. C 82. E

98. When two IDE hard disk are installed in a PC, one
must be the ---------------- and the other the --------- 3. B 23. D 43. B 63. D 83. C
--------- 4. C 24. C 44. C 64. B 84. A
A. Boot, Backup 5. A 25. D 45. D 65. D 85. D

B. Master, Slave 6. A 26. A 46. E 66. A 86. E

C. Primary, Secondary 7. C 27. E 47. E 67. B 87. A

D. Master, Sub-master 8. B 28. C 48. D 68. C 88. D

E. None of the above 9. C 29. D 49. A 69. E 89. A

10. D 30. A 50. D 70. B 90. D

11. E 31. C 51. C 71. D 91. C

12. A 32. A 52. E 72. B 92. E

13. A 33. E 53. C 73. C 93. B

14. E 34. E 54. D 74. E 94. E

15. B 35. B 55. D 75. B 95. E

16. D 36. D 56. C 76. C 96. E

17. C 37. B 57. A 77. D 97. A

18. C 38. A 58. B 78. A 98. B

19. A 39. A 59. C 79. E 99. C

20. D 40. E 60. E 80. A 100. B

IPS SCREENING TEST 2007
SECTION A (COMMUNICATION SKILLS) 6. She has the ---------- of being intelligent when in fact
she is not.

A. elision
In each of 1-5, choose the letter of the option that B. delusion
fills the blank spaces C. illusion
D. allusion
E. mentality

1. Each of the candidates that came late ----- to

complete ---------. In each of 7-10, choose the most appropriate
A. have/this form option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or
B. are having/these forms
phrase(s) in italics.
C. have/these forms
D. has/this form
E. is having/this form
7. I am surprised to learn that Biebele is an agnostic
A. someone that believes in God
2. When we got to the vice-chancellor’s house, we B. someone who antagonizes God
were told that he ---------- two days earlier. C. someone who is nonchalant about the existence of
A. may have left God
B. left D. someone who does not believe in the existence of
C. had left God
D. has left E. someone who believes in small gods
E. could have left

8. The Doctor insisted on giving all of us prophylactic

3.The university has a large collection of sporting ------ drugs.
----. A. curative
A. equipment B. preventive
B. equipments C. routine
C. costumes D. special
D. aids E. herbal
E. materials

9.At that point, the speaker went off at a tangent.

4. After listening to the statements from the two A. started to run away like a mad person
students, the principal realized that it was a trivial B. took a lashing out at the audience
argument that ---------- a serious quarrel between C. began to discuss unrelated matters
them. D. chose to recall previous decisions
A. touched in E. stopped talking abruptly
B. drew in
C. sparked up
D. brought up 10.Amakiri made such a dog’s breakfast of his
E. touched off homework.
A. a mess
B. a poor performance
5. I have stopped writing letters of application C. an excellent job
because I ------- that all the vacancies are filled. D. a brilliant attempt
F. have heard E. mockery
B. had heard
C. heard
D. hear that In each of 11-13, choose the most appropriate
E. am hearing option opposite in meaning to the word(s) in
italics.
 After a few moments hesitation, Chike began to move
towards the house and then stopped, as if held back
11. The college was worried about Tamunosiki’s by an invisible hand. His attention had been attracted
garrulous tendencies.
by a girl of about twenty-four, who was tripping along
A. reticent
B. loquacious the pavement to his right. He turned and advanced
C. quarrelsome towards her, and was about to call her by what he felt
D. outspoken was her name when he discovered that he had made
E. gregarious a mistake in respect of her identity.

12. Their high level of dishonesty has made that

department infamous in the entire secretariat. Just as Chike turned from the girl to continue his
A. reputable quest, he heard voices shouting ‘thief! thief!’ and saw
B. notorious a crowd materialize in seconds. At the head of this
C. unpopular
justice-impelled rabble, was a ludicrously fat woman
D. acceptable
E. respectable who, in spite of her size, bounced along with the
agility of a prize athlete. This barrel bellowed loudest
and clapped her hands vigorously to punctuate her
13. Surveying the sky in the quiet of the night gives outburst. And as she did so the surplus flesh on her
me an ethereal feeling. pudgy arms quivered. ‘They are all the same’, this
A. human
woman screamed, addressing no one in particular.
B. mundane
C. ordinary ‘They dress gorgeously, but underneath they are
D. earthly rogues.’
E. commonplace

14. Malevolent Again, she clapped her hands and again, there was a
A. Kindly quivering of loose flesh. Chike was so busily occupied
B. Vacuous with watching the antics of this woman that he did
C. Ambivalent not notice at first that the object of her venom was
D. Volatile the girl he had seen earlier. It was this girl that was
E. Primitive
now surrounded by the crowd, with many people
groaning, sighing and hissing in unison.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow it.
Chike relaxed, and prepared to watch the drama
unfolding before him.
Chike must have passed the house five times. And yet
he was not sure. Was this the house he had visited so
often in the past? The house he used to visit was a 15. The expression, ‘blurred his memory’ means
bungalow. This house, too, was a bungalow. The old A. confused him.
house was situated between two-storeyed buildings: B. erased his memory.
this one too was so situated. But in spite of this C. damaged his brain.
feeling of certainty, Chike had a vague suspicion that D. distorted his thoughts.
E. affected his mental health.
the house he had so often passed that day might be
the wrong house after all. Could an absence of two
years have blurred his memory so badly? 16. Chike left the girl alone because he
A. discovered that she was a thief.
B. was afraid of the fat woman.
 C. did not know her. E. y = (C1 + C2x)e-4x
D. did not like her.  1  3x 
E. is a shy person. 22. Evaluate the limit lim e 
x 0  4x 
 
A. -∞
17. Many people in the crowd groaned, sighed and
hissed because they were B -3/4
A. angry with the girl.
B. sorry for the girl. C. 0
C. sorry for the fat woman.
D. angry that the woman had lied against the D. 1/4
girl.
E. enjoying the excitement. E. -1/4

18. The expression, ‘justice-impelled’ in the passage

refers to the desire of the crowd to 23. The price of a share rose 20% yesterday and fell
A. see that the case was taken before a 20% today. What is the total rise or fall percent?
judge.
A. take the thief to the police station.
B. rescue the girl.
C. see that there was fair play. A. 20% fall
D. try the thief immediately.
B 40% rise

19. The impression one has of the fat woman C. 20% rise
described in the passage is that she is
D. 4% fall
A. the thief
B. a good person.
E. No change
C. Overzealous.
D. domineering.
E. cantankerous.

20. Despite the millions of naira spent on 24. Which of the following numbers is equal to
improvements, the electricity system in Nigeria
log8(50)?
remains -------------- and continues to -----------the
citizens who depend on it.
A. outdated, elate
B. bombastic, upset A. 0
C. suspicious, connect
D. primitive, inconvenience B 0.53
E. impartial, vet
C. 0.79

SECTION B (MATHEMATICS & STATISTICS) D. 1.88

E. 2.79

21. What is the general solution to the following

differential equation?
y″ - 8y′ + 16y = 0 25. What is the equation of the circle passing through
4x the (x,y) points (0,0), (0,4) and (-4,0)?
A. y = C1e
B. y = (C1 + C2x)e4x
C. y = C1e4x + C2e4x
D. y = C1e2x + C2e4x A. (x-2)2 + (y-2)2 = √8
 B (x-2)2 + (y-2)2 = 8

C. (x+2)2 + (y-2)2 = 8 29.- Calculate the value of the determinant:

D. (x+2)2 + (y+2)2 = √8

E. (x-2)2 + (y+2)2 = 8 8 2 2
26. For some angle θ, csc θ = -8/5. What is cos 2θ? 4 2 4
6  8 10

A. 1/4
A. -120
B 3/8
B 104
C. 5/8
C. 132
D. 7/32
D. 296
E. -5/8
E. 602

27. Simplify 3 28  5 63  4 112

30. If the average of x, y and 30 is 10, then the
average of x and y is

A. 7
A. 0
B 2 7
B 5
C. 3 7
C. 7
D. 5 7
D. 10
E. 7 7 E. 30

28. What conic section is described by the following 31. Find the nth term of the sequence
equation?
3,6,10,15,21
4x2 – y2 + 8x + 4y = 15

A hyperbola
nn  1
B line A.
2

nn  2 
C. ellipse
B
D circle 2

E. parabola
C.
n  1n  2
2
 D. (n+2) 18, 25, 32, 39, …, 67

E. n(2n+1) A. 181

B 213

C. 234

32. Solve for r in the following equation D. 340

1 2 3 E. 450
 
r  1 r  1 r
A. 3 36. It is known that f(x) = 4 when x = 2 (i.e., the initial
B 4 condition is f(2) = 4). Find the original function

 3x  7 x dx
3
C. 5

D. 6

E. 9
3 4 7 2
A. x  x
4 2
33. Three consecutive terms of a geometric
3 4 7 2
progression are n-2, n and n+3. Find the common B x  x 4
ratio 4 2
A. 3/2
3 4 7 2
B 1/2 C. x  x 6
4 2
C. 1/3
3 4 7 2
D. 1/4 D. x  x 6
4 2
E. 2/3
E. 3x 3  7 x  2

34. Two dice are thrown. What is the probability that

 sin 3xdx
the sum of the numbers is divisible by 3? 37. Evaluate
A. 1/2
A. -2/3 cos 3x + C
B 1/3
B -1/3 cos 3x + C
C. 1/9
C. 1/3 cos 3x + C
D. 2/3
D. 2/3 cos 3x + C
E. 1/4
E. -1/3 sin 3x + C

35. What is the sum of the following finite sequence

of terms?
 E {1,2,3,4}

41. What is the sample variance of the following data?

0.50, 0.80, 0.75, 0.52, 0.60
A. 0.0146
38. Find the integral
B. 0.0183
3x  2
 3x  2 dx C. 0.1128

D. 0.1209
x  ln 3x  2  C
4
A.
3 E. 0.1536

x  ln 3x  2  C
1 42. What is the t – test (based on students’ t –
B
3 distribution) used for?
A. testing the distribution of outcomes to see if

x  ln 3x  2  C
4 they come from a normal distribution
C.
3 B determining if the function is symmetric

x  2 ln 3x  2  C
about zero
D.
C. determining if the function is symmetric
E. 3 ln 3x  2  C about the mean

D. comparing values about the mean

E. determining if the difference between

samples means is significant
39. Find P if 4516 – P7 = 3056

A. 6117 43. What is the approximate probability that no two

people in a group of seven have the same
B. 1427 birthday?
A. 0.99
C. 1167
B 0.94
D. 627
C. 0.83
E. 1467
D. 0.43

E. 0.056
40. Given the universal set E = {1,2,3,4,5,6} and the
sets P ={1,2,3,4}, Q={3,4,5} and R={2,4,6}. Find P
 (Q  R)I 44. What is the approximate probability of exactly
two people in a group of seven having a birthday
A {4} on October 1?
A. 1.2 x 10-18
B {1,2}
B. 2.4 x 10-17
C {1,2,3,5,6}
C. 7.4 x 10-6
D {1,2,3,4,5,6}
 D. 1.6 x 10-4 C haemoglobin

E. 1.8 x 10-3 D. haemolymph

F. erythrocytes

45. What is the approximate probability of exactly two

people in a group of seven have the same 49. Anaerobic respiration in yeast produces
birthday?
A. 0.057 A. carbon dioxide and water

B. 0.050 B carbon dioxide and oxygen

C. 0.042 C. carbon dioxide and glucose

D. 0.026 D. ethanol and water

E. 0.00016 E. carbon dioxide and ethanol

SECTION C (BIOLOGY & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE) 50. Virus differ from all forms of life because they

A. have a thick cell wall

46. The male cockroach differs from the female by B. feed on waste products of other organisms
having
C. cause infectious diseases
A. shorter antenna
D. can only be seen on a very powerful
B. a pair of styles microscope.
C. mandibles
E. require other living cells to multiply
D. spiracles

F. a pair of cerci

47. Which of the following ecological factors are 51. Which of the following is NOT caused by bacteria?
common to both terrestrial and aquatic habitats?
A. gonorrhoea
A. rainfall, temperature, light and wind
B. cholera
B. salinity, rainfall, light and wind
C. tuberculosis
C. salinity, rainfall, temperature and light
D. typhoid
D. tides, wind, rainfall and altitude
E. onchocerciasis
F. pH, salinity, rainfall and humidity

52. How many political parties are currently registered

48. Blood clotting is initiated by
in Nigeria?
A leucocytes
A. fifty (50)
B platelets
 B. fifteen (15)

C. forty (40) SECTION D (PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)

D. twelve (12)

E. sixty (60) 56. A piece of wood is floating on water. The forces

acting on the wood are

A. Upthrust and reaction

B. Weight and reaction
C. Weight and upthrust
53. How many senate presidents has Nigeria had since D. Upthrust and viscosity
1999? E. Weight and viscosity

A. 3
57. Which of the following statements correctly
B. 5
describe(s) cathode rays?
C. 6
I. They consist of tiny particles with negative
D. 7 electric charges

E. 8 II. They are deflected in a magnetic field but not

in an electric field.

III. They consist of fast moving neutrons and are

54. The type of securities that the stock exchange deflected in an electric field.
deals with are

A. warrants, currency notes, money orders and

postal orders A. I only
B. II only
B. cheques, bank drafts, warrants and C. III only
promissory notes D. I and II only
E. II and III only
C. bonds ivory, treasury bills, debentures and
warrants
58. When a biro pen rubbed on a dry silk cloth is
D. stocks, shares, bonds and warrants moved very close to a sheet of paper on a dry
table, the pen is found to pick up the paper. This
E. warrants, treasury bills, shares and cheques. is because

A. Both the pen and the cloth are magnetized

B.The pen is magnetized but the cloth is not
55 The capital cities of Turkey and Qatar are 21. The pen is charged while the cloth is magnetized
22. Both the pen and the cloth are charged
A Istanbul and Riyadh 23. The pen is charged but the cloth is not
B Istanbul and Dubai
59. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect
C Ankara and Doha
to time is
D Ankara and Dubai
A force
E. Istanbul and Doha
B power
 C momentum E 3.0m/s

D work

E impulse 63. Fluorescent tubes produce light by the

A. refraction of light by gas molecules

60. If the Nigerian flag (green, white, green) is viewed B excitation of gas molecules
in pure yellow light, which of the following set of
colours would be observed on the flag? C. conduction of solar energy

A. green, yellow, green D. thermal agitation of gas molecules in the tube

B. red, yellow, red E. passage of current through the choke

C. black, yellow, black

D. black, white, black 64. I. Wavelength

E. green, white, green II. Medium of propagation

III. Wave velocity

61 Two vehicles traveling along PH-Choba road IV. Frequency

V. Energy
collided with each other. After the collision, all
Which of the above are used to characterize waves?
their kinetic energies were transformed into other
forms of energies. This is said to be a case of

A Perfectly elastic collision A. I, II and IV

B Ideally elastic collision B. I, III and IV

C Perfectly inelastic collision C. II, IV and V

D Ideally inelastic collision D. I and IV

E Relatively inelastic collision E. I, III and V

62. An object of mass 4kg is moving with a velocity of 65. What is the cost of running five 50 W lamps and
3m/s and collides head on with another object of four 100 W lamps for 10 hours if electrical energy
mass 2kg moving in opposite direction with a costs 2 kobo per kWh?
velocity of 4m/s. On collision, both objects
coalesced and moved together with a combined A. N0.65
velocity V. Find V. B. N130
A 0.5m/s C. N3.90
B 1.5m/s D. N39.00
2
C /3m/s E. N0.13
D 2.5m/s
66. Ripples on water are similar to light waves in that C. ethene
they both
D. propane
A. have the same wavelength
E. ethane
B. are longitudinal

C. cannot be reflected
70. The most abundant element on the earth’s crust is
D. travel at the same speed
A. nitrogen
E. can be refracted and diffracted
B. phosphorus

C. hydrogen
67. Kerosine is commonly used to remove the red
colour stain of palm oil from clothes because it D. oxygen

E. fluorine

A. helps to spread the oil over a larger surface

area. 71. A phenomenon where an element exists in
B. reacts with the oil to form an odourless different forms in the same physical state is
compound. known as

C. makes the oil evaporate easily by dissolving it. A isomerism

D. helps to dilute the oil and reduce its colour. B amorphism

E. reacts with the oil to form a compound that C isotropy

is white in colour. D allotropy

E None of the above

68. In which of the following is the oxidation number

of sulphur equal to -2?
72. What is the valence shell electronic configuration
A. SO3 of the element with atomic number 17?

B. S8 A 1s22s22p63s23p4

C. H2S B. 1s22s22p63s23p5

D. SO2 C. 2s22p5

E. SO42- D. 3s23p5

E. 1s22p5

69. The complete hydrogenation of ethyne gives

A. benzene 73. I. Treatment of cancer

B. methane II. Detection of leakages in water mains

 III. Detection of the ages of ancient tools A. enthalpy

IV. Preparation of drugs B. internal energy

C. entropy

Which combination of the above refers to the D. external energy

uses of radioactive isotopes?
E. pressure
A. II and III

B. I and II
77. A cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston contains
C. I, II and III an ideal gas at temperature T and pressure P. The
gas expands isothermally and reversibly until the
D I, II, III and IV pressure is P/3. What statement is true regarding
E. I only. the work done by the gas during expansion?

A. it is equal to the change in enthalpy of the gas

74. The idea of planetary electrons was that of B. it is equal to the change in internal energy of
the gas
A. Einstein
C. it is equal to the heat absorbed by the gas
B. Thompson
D. it is greater than the heat absorbed by the gas
C. Bohr
E. it is one-third of the heat absorbed by the gas
D. Dalton

E. Rutherford
Questions 78 and 79 refer to the schematic of a 30
cm-long cylindrical heat pipe having a diameter of 0.6
cm and is dissipating heat at a rate of 180 W, with a
75. Nigerian crude oil is described as light crude
temperature difference of 3oC across the heat pipe as
because of its
shown below. We are to use a 30-cm long copper rod
A. low sulphur content instead to remove heat at the same rate.

B. high natural gas content

C. high octane number

L = 30 cm n
D low aliphatic hydrocarbon content
The properties of copper at room temperature are ρ =
E. low density 8950 kg m-3, k = 386 W m-1 K-1.

SECTION E (BASIC ENGINEERING) 78. The diameter of the copper rod required is

76. Which thermodynamic property is the best A. 24.4 cm

measure of the molecular activity of a substance?
B. 28.4 cm
 C. 14.2 cm 82. What is a metric ton?

D. 48.4 cm

E. 46.6 cm A. 200 kg

B. 1000 kg

79. The mass of the copper rod is C. 2000 kg

A. 10.2 kg D. 10000 kg

B. 12.2 kg E. 2 kN

C. 25.4 kg

D. 50.8 kg 83. An air-vapour mixture consisting of 1 lbm of dry

air and 0.015 lbm of vapour is at 85oF and 20
E. 125.2 kg psia. Find the partial pressure of water
vapour. From steam tables, the maximum
partial pressure of water vapour that could
80. Radiant heat from a substance be exerted at 85oF is 0.5964 psia

A. takes place at all temperatures A. 0.15 psia

B. takes place only above 273oC B.0.30 psia

C. 0.4719 psia
C. takes place only above room temperature
D. 0.5964 psia
D. depends on surrounding temperature
E. 0.60 psia
E. takes place only at temperatures close to that
of the sun.

84. The analogy of conductivity in heat transfer to

fluid flow is
81. Through an isentropic process, a piston
compresses 2 kg of an ideal gas at 150 kPa and A. velocity of fluid
35oC in a cylinder to a pressure of 300 kPa. The
B. density of fluid
specific heat of the gas for constant pressure
processes is 5 kJ/kg.K; for constant volume C. viscosity of fluid
processes, the specific heat is 3 kJ/kg.K. What is
the final temperature of the gas? D. dielectric constant of fluid

A. 200 J kg-1. E. there is no such analogy.

B. 300 J kg-1

C. 500 J kg-1 85. What basic SI unit is equal to kg.m2/s2?

D. 800 J kg-1 A. pascal

E. 1 kJ kg-1 B. joule

C. tesla
 D. watt E. 300

E. None of the above

89. The ratio of buoyancy forces to the viscous forces

is the
86. Lumped parameter analysis of transient heat
conduction in solids stipulates A. Grashoff number

A. infinite thermal conductivity B. Nusselt number

B. negligible temperature gradient
C. small conduction resistance C. Prandtl number
D. predominance of convective resistance
E. all of the above D. Schmidt number

E. Biot number
87. The shear stress distribution for laminar flow of a
fluid through a circular pipe is
90. The hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layers
A .linear
coincide if
B. logarithmic
A. Reynolds number is unity
C. polynomial
B. Reynolds number is 5 x 105
D. a sine function
C. Schmidt number is unity
E. parabolic
D. Prandtl number is unity

E. Nusselt number is unity

88. What is the degree of polymerization of a
polyvinyl acetate (mer of C4H6O2, molecular
weight of 86) sample having the following analysis 91. Cavitation in pumps can be caused by
of molecular weights?
A. discharge head far below the pump head at
peak efficiency
range of molecular weights mole fraction B. high suction lift or low suction head
5001-15,000 0.30 C. excessive pump speed
15,001-25,000 0.47 D. high liquid temperature (i.e., high vapour
pressure)
25,001-35,000 0.23
E. all of the above

A. 86
92. The specific heat capacity of water undergoing a
B. 100
phase change to steam is
C. 120
A. 4180 Jkg-1K-1
D. 224
B. 1 Jkg-1K-1
 C. 1000 Jkg-1K-1 B. the reaction rate with atmospheric oxygen is
higher for aluminum.
D. zero
C. iron atoms are larger than aluminum atoms,
E. infinity and thus, the interstitial spaces are larger.

D. iron has greater magnetic properties than

93. Productivity index (PI) of a well is defined as the aluminum.
ratio between E. aluminum has a shiny surface.
A. The producing rate and its drawdown

B. The producing rate and the well’s producing
pressure
C. The producing rate and the well’s static
pressure
D. Producing pressure and the static pressure of
the well
E. Producing pressure and its drawdown
96. Consider the following statements:
1. For metals, the value of absorptivity is high
II. For non-conducting materials, reflectivity is
low.
III. For polished surfaces, reflectivity is high.
VI. For gases, reflectivity is low.
Which of these statements are correct?

A. I and II only

94. Certain factors must be taken into account in B. II, and III only
deciding on the preferable production technique
for a particular well or group of wells. Which of C. II, III, and IV only
these factors are important?
D. III, and IV only
I. well depth
E. I, II, III, and IV
II. present and anticipated gas/liquid ratios (GLRs)

III. hole deviation 97. Which of the following is the primary factor in
determining if sheet metal can be bent and
IV. formation pressure and pressure decline
formed without experiencing stress fractures and
A.I and II only
other undesirable effects?
B.I, II, and III only
A. martensitic structure
C.I, II, and IV only
B. surface hardness
D.I, III, and IV only
C. modulus of elasticity
E.I, II, III, and IV
D. ductility

E. resilience
95. Why is aluminum more rust-resistant than steel?

A. the reaction rate with atmospheric oxygen is

98. Which of the following best defines a compiler?
higher for steel.
 A. hardware that is used to translate high-level
language to machine code

B. software that collects and stores executable

commands in a program

C. software that is used to translate high-level

language into machine code

D. hardware that collects and stores executable

commands in a program

E. None of the above

99. Convert the octal number 3728 to binary (base – 2)

format

A. 010111011

B. 011001010

C. 011110010

D. 011111010

E. 011111011

100. Approximately how many years will it take to

double an investment at a 6% effective annual
rate?

A. 10 years

B. 12 years

C. 15 years

D. 17 years

E. 20 years
ANSWERS (IPS 2007)

1. D 21. B 41. B 61. C 81. B

2. C 22. B 42. E 62. C 82. B

3. A 23. D 43. B 63. B 83. C

4. E 24. D 44. D 64. B 84. C

5. C 25. C 45. A 65. E 85. B

6. B 26. A 46. B 66. E 86. E

7. D 27. E 47. A 67. A 87. A

8. B 28. A 48. B 68. C 88. D

9. C 29. D 49. E 69. E 89. A

10. B 30. A 50. E 70. D 90. D

11. A 31. C 51. E 71. D 91. E

12. A 32. A 52. A 72. B 92. E

13. D 33. E 53. B 73. C 93. A

14. A 34. E 54. D 74. E 94. E

15. A 35. D 55. C 75. A 95. B

16. C 36. D 56. C 76. B 96. C

17. A 37. B 57. A 77. C 97. D

18. E 38. A 58. D 78. A 98. C

19. C 39. C 59. 79. E 99. D

20. D 40. E 60. 80. A 100. B

IPS SCREENING TEST 2008 As a result of the current structure of societies
and economies, most of us will spend our working
SECTION A (COMMUNICATION SKILLS) lives in an organization- for many of us it will be a
large one. If we are to understand our working
environment, it is essential that we become good
Read the following passage carefully and answer communicators with social skills.
questions 1-5

1. Which of the following titles best sums up the

All too often, there is a difference between what passage?
F. The need for effective communication
we say and what we think we have said, and
G. Breakdown in communication
between how we feel we have handled people H. Communication in technological societies
and how they think they have been treated. When I. Communication in large organizations
such ‘gap’ occurs between the intent and the J. Bad communication practices
action, it is often stated that there has been a
‘breakdown in communication’. Sometimes the
2. According to the passage, which of the
break-down is allowed to become so serious that
following are NOT likely to contribute to a break-
the gap becomes a chasm, relatives in a family down in communication?
ceasing to speak to one another, management A. Peoples attitude and feelings
and trade union refusing to meet, or governments
recalling ambassadors when relations between B. Ambiguously phrased instructions
states reach a low ebb. C. Managements and trade unions
D. Misunderstood instructions
In fact, sometimes when people E. Management specialists and
communicate, either as individual or within behavioural scientist
groups, problems inevitable occur; instructions
may be impossible to carry out, offense is taken at 2. From the text, it can be inferred that a good
a particular remark, a directive is ambiguously communicator needs to
phrased or people’s attitudes are coloured by A. create favourable communication
jealousy, resentment or frustration. conditions
B. get the technological systems to work
During the past fifty years, industrial, efficiently
commercial and public service organizations have C. call a spade a spade
grown prodigiously to meet the needs of D. be able to address 10,000 workers
E. have good social skills
advanced technological societies. Sometimes as
many as 10,000 people work in the site, or one
company employs more than 50,000 people. 3. ‘Chasm’ as used in the passage means
Clearly, good communications are essential to the A. Serious eruption
efficient operations of any organization, and vital B. Disaster
to the fulfillment of all those who commit their C. Wide difference
D. Disagreement
working lives to it.
E. Problem
For this reason management specialists and
behavioural scientists have devoted much 4. The most essential tool of communication
thought and energy over recent years to analyzing specifically mentioned in this passage is
the problems caused by bad communication A. Specialization
practices, and to creating good communication B. Writing
climate and systems. C. Environment
D. Language
 E. Technology In each of question 11-14, fill in the blanks with
the option that fits the meaning of the sentence
as a whole.

In each of question 6-10, you are given a related

pair of words in capital letters. Each capitalized 10. After ruining her dress, I would have
pair is followed by pairs of words or phrases. preferred her most biting ___________ to the
Choose the pair which best expresses a ________looks she directed my way.
relationship similar to that expressed by the A. Euphemisms, consummate
B. Anodynes, feckless
original pair.
C. Diatribes, reproachful
D. Effigies, refulgent
E. Histrionics, penitent
5. EXTINGUISHED is to RELIT as
A. Completed is to discourage
B. Announced is to publicized 11. Some experts think that the origin of
C. Collapse is to rebuilt schizophrenia is __________, others believe it
D. Evicted is to purchased is ___________
E. Imagined is to denied A. Contiguous, environmental
B. Congenital, environmental
C. Congenital, deleterious
6. GREGARIOUSNESS is to SOCIABILITY as D. Contagious, pathological
A. Courageousness is to fearfulness E. Exogenous, celestial
B. Reliability is to esteem
C. Forgetfulness is to friendliness
D. Affability is to friendliness 12. After studying psychology for one semester, I
E. Gullibility is to believability can see that my friend is a ___________
because he is always ___________ favours
from others
7. FOREST is to TREES as
A. Fleet is to ships
B. Lumber is to wood A. Sycophant, currying
C. Rose is to thorns B. Benediction, eliciting
D. Shelf is to books C. Brigand, flouting
E. Camera is to film D. Façade, brandishing
E. Tryst, avowing

8. WEB is to ENTANGLE as
A. Spider is to spin 13. The primitive emotions of love and hate, even
B. Trap is to ensnare though extreme opposites, are found in
C. Treason is to betray varying degrees even in the most __________
D. Ransom is to kidnap and __________ person, according to
E. Grid is to delineate sociologists

9. LETHARGY is to ENERGY as A. Brackish, mature

A. Appetite is to hunger B. Sylvan, intellectual
B. Redemption is to sacrament C. Celestial, civilized
C. Sorrow is to pity D. Beneficent, stable
D. Merit is to remuneration E. Defunct, healthy
E. Apathy is to interest
In each of 15-17, choose the option that means
the same as the underlined
14. Here is a Daniel indeed 19. Tonye is naturally taciturn.
A. A particular person called Daniel A. Friendly
B. A man well known as Daniel B. Cheerful
C. Daniel of the old Testament C. Dumb
D. Any person whose name is Daniel D. Lively
E. A person who behaves like Daniel of E. Garrulous
the old Testament

15. The lawyer told the court some unsavoury

details about the case. SECTION B (MATHEMATICS & STATISTICS)
A. Horrible
B. Unworthy
C. Unintelligible
D. Unpleasant 21. The population of Nigeria doubled every 10 years
E. Uninteresting from 1960 to 1990. What was the percentage
increase in population during this time?

16. Because our representative is immature and A. 200%

biased, he takes a jaundiced view of our B. 300%
problems. C. 600%
A. Hazy D. 700%
B. Unclear E. 800%
C. Prejudiced
D. Bleak 22. Today is Wednesday, what day will it be 900 days
E. Unpopular from today?

A. Sunday

In each of 18-20, choose the option opposite in B Monday

meaning to the word underlined
C. Wednesday

D. Friday
17. The difference between the experimental
E. Saturday
procedures was imperceptible to me.
A. Negligible
B. Noticeable
C. Significant 23. The price of a sweater is reduced by 25% for a
D. Obscure
sale. After the sale, the reduced price is increased by
E. Obvious
20%. Which of the following represents the final price
of the sweater?

A. 0.80 s

B 0.85 s
18. Deinma is loved for his altruism.
A. Benevolence C. 0.90 s
B. Sincerity
C. Selfishness D. 0.95 s
D. Selflessness
E. 1.05 s
E. Kindness
 A. 1/2

24. A stock decreases in value by 20 percent. By what B 1/3

percent must the stock price increase to reach its
former value? C. 1/9

D. 2/3

A. 15% E. 1/4

B 20%

C. 25% 28. What is the probability of picking a red ball or a

blue ball out of a bag containing seven red balls, eight
D. 30% yellow balls, and two blue balls?

E. 40% A 0.071

25. Ibifuro’s salary is 150% of Ine’s salary. Ine’s salary B 0.10

is 80% of Igbeye’s salary. What is the ratio of Igbeye’s
salary to Ibifuro’ salary? C. 0.36

D. 0.53
A. 1 to 2
E. 0.63
B. 2 to3

C. 5 to 6
29. what is the sum of the following finite sequence of
D. 6 to 5 terms? 18, 25, 32, 39, ……..67

E. 5 to 4

A. 181

26. Find the number of committees of three that can B 213

be formed consisting of two men and one woman
from four men and three women. C. 234

D. 340

A. 24 E. 450

B 18

C. 3 30. What is the approximate area under the curve y =

1/x between y = 2 and y = 10?
D. 6

E. 9
A. 0.48

B 1.6
27. Two dice are thrown. What is the probability that
the sum of the numbers is divisible by 3? C. 2.1
 D. 3.0 B 2/3

E. 5.2 C. 2

D. 3

31. Convert 75 in base 10 to base 8 E. 18

A. (75)8

B (113)8 35. A bag contains 5 white balls and 3 red balls. A ball
is drawn from the bag and then replaced. A second
C. (110) 8 ball is then drawn. What is the probability that both
D. (123) 8 balls are white?

E. (103) 8 A. 5/8

B 15/64

C. 9/64

32. For three matrices A, B, and C, which of the D. 3/8

following statements is not necessarily true? E. 25/64

A. A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C Questions 36 to 38 refer to the following situation. A

B A (B + C) = AB + AC laying hen laid 8 eggs whose weights are: 51g, 53g,
54g, 56g, 60g, 61g, 68g, 69g.
C. (B + C) A = AB + AC
36. The mean of the eggs’ weight is
D. A + (B + C) = C + (A + B)
A. 57g
E. A + B + C = (A + B) + C
B 58g

C. 59g
33. If x is jointly proportional to the cube of y and the
fourth power of z, in what ratio is x increased or D. 60g
decreased when y is halved and z is doubled ?
A. 4 : 1 increase E. 61g

B 1 : 2 decreased

C. 1 : 4 decreased 37. The variance is

D. 2 : 1 increased A. 20

E. 1 : 1 no change B 30

34. If three numbers a, b, c are in the ratio C. 40

6 :4 : 5 find the value of (3a - b) / (4b + c)
D. 50
A. 3/2
E. 60
 B y = 3x - 1

38. The standard deviation is C. y = 3x + 1

A. 5g D. y = 3x - 4

B 6g E. y = 3x - 2
C. 7g
43. When a metal cube is heated, the length of each
D. 8g
side increases at the rate of 0.05 cm per second.
E. 9g Find the rate of increase of the volume of the
cube if the length of its edge is 12 cm.
39. In the following progression, what are the values A. 0.125 cm3/s
of terms a, b?
B 12.5 cm3/s
6, 9, 10, 7, 11, 12, 8, a, b
C. 1728 cm3/s
A. 9, 10
D. 21.6 cm3/s
B. 9, 13
E. 432 cm3/s
C. 16, 14

D. 14, 15 44. Differentiate x cos x

A. x sin x
E. 13, 14
B. - x sin x + cos x
40. Evaluate log 30 – log 3
C. x sin x + cos x
A. 1
D. sin x + cos x
B. 3
E. - x sin x + x cos x
C. 10

D. 100

E. Infinity

41. log a + log ax + log ax2 is equal to

45. Given that sin x = 12/13, find the value of cos 2x
A. 3 (log a + log x)
A. 144/169
B. log (a + x)

C. log a + log x B. 25/169

D. log a + 2log a x C. 119/169

E. cannot be added because they are unlike D. 219/169

terms
E. -119/169

42. Determine the equation of the straight line of

gradient 3 that passes through the point (1, -1)
A. y = 3x +4 SECTION C (BIOLOGY & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE)
 E. Cylindrical body

46. The part of the brain that controls heart and

breathing is the
50. Plants which can survive in places where the water
A. Olfactory lobe supply is limited are

B. Cerebellum A. Bryophytes

C. Cerebral hemisphere B. Mesophytes

D. Medula oblongata C. Xerophytes

G. Pineal body D. Hydrophytes

E. Petridophytes
47. If calcium is deficient in food this may cause

A. Anaemia

B. Retarded growth

C. Sterility

D. Goitre
51. A state in Nigeria that is most susceptible to
E. Beri-beri
desert encroachment is

A. Kaduna

B. Katsina

C. Kwara
48. If a child can receive blood from all donors, he
belongs to the blood group: D. Taraba

A. O E. Sokoto

52. The permanent members of the Security Council

B A
of the United Nations are
C B
A. Britain, Japan, Australia, Germany and the
D. AB United States

E. AS B. Germany, France, Poland, Hungary and China

C. United States, Russia, France, Britain and China

49. A centipede differs from a millipede by its
D. United States, Russia, France, Britain and
A. Colour Japan

B Numerous abdominal segments E. United States, Britain, France, Russia and

Nigeria
C. Paired legs on each abdominal segment

D. Poison claws
53. Which University won the last edition of the West A. 360m
African University Games (WAUG) recently in Accra, B. 540m
Ghana
C. 750m
A. Obafemi Awolowo University, Nigeria D. 840m
B. Ahmadu Bello University, Nigeria E. 960m

C. University of Ghana, Legon

D. Rivers State University of Science and

57. Oil is used as a lubricant in car Engines and lead
Technology, Port Harcourt
machines so that
E. University of Port Harcourt, Nigeria

A. It may prevent moving parts from being warm

54. Under the 1999 constitution, the power to declare B. There is little adhesion between the oil and moving
parts
war is vested in the
C. There is more adhesive force between moving parts
D. Friction can be totally removed
A. Legislature
E.Tension can be reduced
B. Executive

C. National Council of State 58. For which of the underlisted quantities is the
derived unit ML2T-2 correct?
D. National Security Council
I. moment of a force
E. Federal executive council
II. work

III. acceleration
55 A term which indicates that a share is temporarily
suspended is A. I only
B. II only
A Excluding dividend C. III only
D. I and II
B Cumulative dividend E. II and III

C Bond
59. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit
D Stock
A Refraction
E. None of the above
B Reflection

C Diffraction
SECTION D (PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)
D Polarization

E Rarefaction
56. An air plane lands on a runway at a speed of 180
km h-1 and is brought to a stop uniformly in 30
seconds. What distance does it cover on the
runway before coming to rest?
 E. 0.25 A

60. Which of the following properties of matter 64. Which of the following are produced after a
CANNOT be utilized for temperature nuclear fusion process?
measurement?
I One heavy nucleus
A. Length of liquid column II Neutrons

B. Volume of a gas at constant pressure III Protons

C. pressure of a gas at constant volume IV Energy

D. Resistance of a metallic wire

A. I and II
E. current produced in a photoelectric effect
B. I and IV
61 If an object is placed in front of two mirrors
C. II and III
inclined at 90O, how many images will be formed?
D. II and IV
A. Five
E. I, II, III and IV
B. Four
65. If the distance between two suspended masses
C. Three
10kg each is tripled, the gravitational force of
D. Two attraction between them is reduced by

E. Infinity A. One ninth

62. A block of ice floats on water inside a container. If B. One quarter

the block of ice gets completely melted, the level of
C. One third
water in the container will
D. One half
A. increase
E. One eighth
B. remain the same
66. Stainless steel is an alloy of
C. decrease
A. Carbon, Iron and lead
D. first decrease and then increase
B. Carbon, Iron and chromium
E. first increase and then decrease
C. Carbon, Iron and copper

D. Carbon, Iron and silver

63. An equipment whose power rating is 1,500 W and
resistance is 375 ohms would draw a current of E. Carbon and Iron only

A. 0.10 A 67. The cracking process is very important in the

petroleum industry because it
B. 2.00 A
A. gives more products
C. 4.00 A
B. Yields more lubricants
D. 77.5 A
C. Yields more engine fuels
 D. Yields more asphalt E. Isomerization

E. Yields more candle wax

68. Increasing the pressure of a gas 72. The principle constituent of natural gas is

A. Lowers the present kinetic energy of the A Methane

molecules
B. Ethane
B. Decreases the density of the gas
C. Propane
C. Decreases the temperature of the gas
D. Butane
D. Increases the density of the gas
E. Nitrogen
E. Increases the volume of the gas

69. The shape of the ammonia molecule is

A. Trigonal planar

B. Octahedral

C. Square planar
73. The substance least considered as a source of
D. Tetrahedral environmental pollution is

E. Cubic A. Uranium

B. Lead compounds

70. Catalytic hydrogenation of benzene produces C. Organophorous compounds

A. Cyclohexene D Mercaptans

B. Oil E. Silicate minerals

C. Margarine

D. Cyclohexane 74. The repeating unit in natural rubber is

E. Toluene A. Alkynes

B. Isoprene

71. The process by which atoms are arranged into C. n-propane

different molecular structures in the petroleum
D. Neoprene
refining process is referred to as
E. Isopropane
A. Catalytic cracking

B. Hydrocracking
75. The chlorinated alkane often used industrially to
C. Polymerization
remove grease is
D. Reforming
A. Tetrachloromethane
 B. Chloromethane

C. Trichloromethane 78. The amount of energy required to remove an

electron from an atom of an element is mainly a
D Dichloromethane function of the
E. None of the above A. Atomic weight of the element

B. Size of the atom

C. Quantum state of the electron

D. Number of neutrons in the nucleus

E. Electro positivity or electro negativity of the

atom

SECTION E (BASIC ENGINEERING)

79. Cavitation is a fluid phenomenon associated with
which of the following fluid properties?
76. The lower half of a 20 meter high right angular
cylinder is filled with water (density =1,000 kg per A. Viscosity
cubic meter), and the upper half with an oil that
has a specific gravity of 0.80. The pressure B. Vapour pressure
difference between the top and the bottom of the
cylinder is most nearly. C. Surface tension

D. Specific gravity
A. 78 kPa
E. Bulk modulus of elasticity
B. 98 kPa

C. 170 kPa
80. Of the following, which is the only ratio that is not
D. 176kPa
dimensionless?
E. 190 kPa A. Inertial forces to viscous forces

B. Dynamic viscosity to kinematic viscosity

77. A compressor operates adiabatically on an ideal
gas without frictional losses between pressures P1
and P2. The work input per cycle is equal to the
A. Change in internal energy of the gas
C. Kinetic energy of gas motion to the
mean Kinetic energy.
D Difference between static pressure and vapour
pressure to the dynamic pressure of
the flow

B. Change in enthalpy of the gas E. Pressure forces to inertial forces

C. Change in Gibbs energy

D. Product of the volume and the change in 81. The primary mode of heat transfer across a car
pressure radiator is

E. Heat transferred. A. Radiation

 B. Convection B. N10,000 per unit

C. Conduction C. N100 per unit

D. Radiation and conduction D. N1,200 per unit

E. none of the above E. Cannot be determined from the data given

82. Lumped parameter analysis of transient heat
conduction in solids stipulates
A. Infinite thermal conductivity
B. Negligible temperature gradient
C. Small conduction resistance
D. Predominance of convective resistance
E. All of the above
85. ‘Salon Exclusive’ recently acquired two new hair
dryers and a generating set at a cost of
N800,000. The salon expects annual gross
revenue to increase to N300,000 while it incurs
an annual operational and maintenance expense
of N100,000. What is the pay-back period?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years

D. 8 years
83. The ratio of stress to strain below the
proportionality limit is called E. 10 years

A. Endurance

B.Young’s modulus

C. The modulus of rigidity 86. Kinetic viscosity CANNOT be expressed in terms of

D. Hooke’s constant A. Centistokes

B. m2 s-1
E. Poisson’s ratio C. kg-1 s-1
D.Ft2s-1
E. cm2 s-1

87. A ball is dropped onto a smooth floor. It deforms

elastically, and then returns to its original shape
as it rebounds to its original height. Air friction is
84. A company purchased complete and exclusive
negligible. Which of the following statements best
patent rights to an invention for N1,200,000. It
describes the thermodynamic change in the ball?
is estimated that once commercially produced,
the invention will have a specific but limited A. The entropy of the ball increases
market of 1200 units. For the purpose of
allocating the patent right cost to production B. The entropy of the ball is unchanged
cost, what is the amortization rate in Naira per
C. The temperature of the ball decreases
unit
D. The temperature of the ball is increased
A. N1,000 per unit
 E. The enthalpy of the ball increases A. 200 kg

B. 1000 kg

88. The average specific gravity of seawater is 1.15. C. 2000 kg

What is the absolute pressure at the bottom of
3000 m of sea? D. 2 KN

A. 2.1 kPa E. 1000 KN

B. 2.5 kPa

C. 2.8 kPa 92. 100 g of water are mixed with 150 g of another
fluid (density = 790 kg/ m3). What is the specific
D. 30 kPa volume of the resulting mixture, assuming that
the volumes are additive and the mixture is
E. 34 kPa homogeneous?

A. 0.63 cm3/g
89. Which of the following assumptions are valid in
B. 0.82 cm3/g
the development of the Hagen-Poiseuille law?
C. 0.88 cm3/g
I The flow is laminar
D. 0.96 cm3/g
II Incompressible flow
E. 1.20 cm3/g
III There is no slip at the wall
93. 100 g of water are mixed with 150 g of another
A. I only fluid (density = 790 kg/ m3). What is the specific
B. I and II only gravity of the resulting mixture, assuming that the
volumes are additive and the mixture is
C. II and III only homogeneous?

D. I, II and III A. 0.63

E. None of them is valid B. 0.72

90. What is the mass flow rate of a liquid (density = C. 0.82

0.690 gm per cubic centimeter) flowing through a 5 D. 0.86
cm (inside diameter) pipe at 8.3 meter per second?
E. 0.95
A. 11 kg per second
94. 10 raised to power 9 is
B. 69 kg per second
A. Tera
C. 140 kg per second
B. Pico
D. 340 kg per second
C. Nano
E. 500 kg per second
D. Mega

E. Giga
91. What is a metric ton?
95. After sitting a long time with the current source
off, a direct current of 300 m A is suddenly turned
on. What are the currents through the inductor 99. How long will it take to transmit a 2.1 MB file
and capacitor immediately after the source is using a 14.4 kB/s modem if data compression can
be used to increase the transfer rate by 70% ?
applied?

A. IL = 0, IC = 0 A. 1min 26 s

B. IL = IC =100 mA B. 11 min 26 s

C. IL = 300 mA, IC = 0 C. 12 min 0 s

D. IL = 0, IC = 300 mA D. 20 min 20 s

E. 2 min 26 s
E. IL = 300 mA, IC = 300 mA

96. What is the relationship between ethical

requirements and legal requirement?

A. They place restrictions on the same actions 100. The hydraulic mean diameter of the annular
space between a 40 mm and a 50 mm tube is
B. They cover none of the same actions

C. Ethical requirements add restrictions not A. 10 mm

required by the law B. 15 mm
D. Legal actions are ethical actions C. 18 mm
E. There is no relationship at all D. 20 mm
uy97. The Oersted (Oe) is a unit of E. 25 mm
A. Magnetic flux density

B. Resistance

C. Capacity

D. Luminous intensity

E. Magnetic field strength

98. A 256 Kb/s – word memory uses 16 bit-words.

How many parallel data lines are required to pass
data to the CPU?

A. 2

B. 8

C. 9

D. 16

E. 32
ANSWERS (IPS 2008)

1. A 21. D 41. A 61. C 81. B

2. E 22. A 42. D 62. B 82. E

3. A 23. C 43. D 63. B 83. B

4. C 24. C 44. B 64. B 84. A

5. B 25. C 45. E 65. A 85. B

6. C 26. B 46. D 66. B 86. C

7. D 27. E 47. B 67. C 87. B

8. A 28. B 48. D 68. D 88. E

9. B 29. D 49. C 69. A 89. D

10. E 30. B 50. C 70. D 90. A

11. C 31. B 51. B 71. D 91. B

12. B 32. C 52. C 72. A 92. E

13. A 33. D 53. E 73. E 93. D

14. D 34. B 54. A 74. B 94. E

15. E 35. E 55. A 75. A 95. D

16. D 36. C 56. C 76. D 96. C

17. C 37. C 57. B 77. B 97. E

18. E 38. B 58. D 78. C 98. D

19. C 39. E 59. D 79. B 99. C

20. E 40. A 60. E 80. B 100. A

 IPS SCREENING TEST 2009
SECTION A (COMMUNICATION SKILLS)
Read the following passage carefully and answer
questions 1-5
I am always amazed when I hear people saying that
sports creates goodwill among nations, and that if
only the common peoples of the world could meet
one another at football or squash, they would have no
inclination to meet at the battle field, even if one
didn’t know from concrete examples (the 1936
Olympic Games, for instance) that international
sporting contests lead to orgies of hatred, one could
deduce it from general principles.
Nearly all the sports practiced nowadays are
competitive. You play to win, and the game has little
meaning unless you do your utmost to win. On the
village green, where you pick up sides and no feeling
of local patriotism is involved, it is possible to play
simply for the fun of it and exercise, but as soon as the
question of prestige arises, as soon as you feel that
you and some larger unit will be disgraced if you lose,
the most savage combative instincts are aroused.
Anyone who has played even in a school football
match knows this. At the international level, sport is
frankly a mimic warfare. But the significant thing is
not the behavior of the players but the attitude of the
spectators, and behind the spectators, of the nations
who work themselves into furies over these absurd
contests and seriously believe – at any rate for short
periods – that running, jumping and kicking a ball are
tests of national virtue.
Even a leisurely game demanding grace rather than
strength can cause much ill-will. Football, a game in
which everyone gets hurt and every nation has its
own style of play is far worse. Worst of all is boxing.
One of the most horrible sights in the world is a fight
between white and coloured boxers before a mixed
audience.
1. The 1936 Olympic Games was cited in the passage
as an example to show that sports can
A. lead to excessive hatred
B. create goodwill among nations
C. generate feelings of national prestige
D. bring many nations together
E. make people meet on the battle field
2. According to the passage,
A. All the sports practiced nowadays are competitive
B. games have meaning only when the participants
play to win
C. sports should strictly be for fun and leisure
D. it is possible to play a game simply for the fun of it
E. on the local green, you play not to win but for the
fun of it
3. Boxing is regarded as the worst game in the
passage because
A. of the behavior of the boxers themselves
B. of the amount of ill-will that can be generated
among spectators of different races
C. of the ill-will that can be generated by a game that
demands strength from the competitors
D.it is a game in which both players get hurt rather
badly
E.they usually arrange match-ups between white and
coloured boxers.
4. Which of the following statements is TRUE
according to the passage?
A.Running, jumping and kicking a ball are tests of
national virtue.
B.At the national level, sports is frankly a mimic
warfare
C.The most savage combative instincts are aroused by
anyone who has played in a school football match
D.Nations work themselves up because they tend to
believe that sports are tests of national virtue
E.Sports should be banned because it creates bad
blood
5.‘Mimic’ as used in the passage means
A. comic
B. silent
C. initiated
D. practiced
E. None of the above
In each of question 6-10, you are given a pair of
words in capital letters. Each capitalized pair is
followed by pairs of words. Choose the pair
which is most similar to the original pair.
In each of questions 11-15, fill in the blanks with
the option that completes the sentence best.
11. His desire to state his case completely was
certainly reasonable; however, his lengthy technical
explanations were monotonous and tended to
__________ rather than __________ the jury.
A. enlighten … inform
B. interest … persuade
C. provoke … influence
D. allay … pacify
E. bore … convince

6.HUNGRY : RAVENOUS
A. thirsty : desirous 12.The recent Oxford edition of the works of
B. large : titanic Shakespeare is __________ because it not only
C. famous : eminent departs frequently from the readings of most other
D. dizzy : disoriented modern editions, but also challenges many of the
E. obese : gluttonous basic ___________ of textual criticism.
A. typical … innovations
B. controversial … convention
7.PARAPHRASE : VERBATIM C. inadequate … norms
A. significance : uncertain D. curious … projects
B. interpretation : valid E. pretentious … explanations
C. quotation : apt
D. description : vivid
E. approximation : precise 13.The fundamental _______ between cats and dogs
is for the most part a myth; members of these species
often coexist __________.
8.FILTER : IMPURITY A. antipathy … amiably
A. expurgate : obscenity B. disharmony … uneasily
B. whitewash : infraction C. compatibility … together
C. testify : perjury D. relationship … peacefully
D. perform : penance E. difference … placidly
E. vacuum : carpet
14.Considering everything she had been through, her
9.PLUMMET : DESCEND reaction was quite normal and even _____. I was
A. kick : boot therefore surprised at the number of _______
B. whirl : turn comments and raised eyebrows that her response
C. indicate : show elicited.
D. decorate : nullify A. commendable … complimentary
E. begin : conclude B. odious … insulting
C. apologetic … conciliatory
D. commonplace … typical
10.INFLAMMABLE : IGNITED E. laudable … derogatory
A. fragile : shattered
B. flexible : broken
C. somber : mourned
D. famous : plagiarized
E. small : magnified
15. Despite her professed _______, the glint in her
eyes demonstrated her _______ with the topic.
A. intelligence … obsession SECTION B (MATHEMATICS & STATISTICS)
B. interest … concern
C. obliviousness … confusion
D. indifference … fascination
E. expertise … unfamiliarity 21. At a certain professional conference with 130
attendees, 94 of the attendees are doctors and
the rest are dentists. If 48 of the attendees are
In each of 16-20, choose the option that has the women, and ¼ of the dentists in attendance are
most opposite meaning of the word in capital women, how many of the attendees are male
doctors?
letter.
A. 27
B. 48
16.UNDERMINE. C. 55
A. appreciate D. 82
B. donate E. 85
C. bolster
D. decay 22. Today is Sunday, what day will it be 1000 days
E. simplify from today?

17.ENCUMBER A. Thursday
A. animate
B. inaugurate B Monday
C. bleach
C. Wednesday
D. disburden
E. obliterate D. Friday

E. Saturday
18.DISSEMINATE
A. fertilize 23. A computer can perform 80 identical tasks in
B. ordain
six hours. At that rate, what is the minimum
C. suppress
number of computers that should be assigned to
D. explain thoroughly
E. make an impression complete 80 of the tasks within three hours?

A. 6
19.OBSEQUIOUS
A. original B 7
B. haughty
C. 8
C. casual
D. virtuous
D. 12
E. informative
E. 16
20.PERDITION
A. deterrent
B. rearrangement
C. reflection
D. salvation
E. rejection
24. Five runners run in a race. The runners who come 27. What is the probability of rolling a 7 with a
in first, second, and third place will win gold, silver, single roll of two fair dice?
and bronze medals, respectively. How many possible
outcomes for gold, silver, and bronze medals medal A. 1/2
winners are there? B. 1/7
A. 3 C. 2/7
B 10 D. 1/3
C. 15 E. 7/12
D. 60 28. What is the approximate area bounded by the
curves y = 8 – x2 and y = -2 + x2?
E. 125

25. Ibifuro must select three different items for each A 22.4
dinner she will serve. The items are to be chosen from
B 26.8
among 5 different vegetarian and 4 different meat
selections. If at least one of the selections must be C. 29.8
vegetarian, how many different dinners could Ibifuro
create? D. 44.7

E. 52.9
A. 30
29. What is the first derivative, dy/dx, of the following
B 40 x
expression? (xy) = e
C. 60
A. 0
D. 70
x
B. 1  x lnx 
E. 80 y

26. Of the 120 in a certain language school, 65 are y

studying French, 51 are studying Spanish, and 53 are C. 1 x lnxy
x
studying neither language. How many are studying
both French and Spanish? y
D.
x
A. 69
x
B 55 E.
y
C. 49
30. What is the maximum value of the following
D. 67 function on the interval x ≤ 0?
3 2
y=2x +12x –30x+10
E. Cannot be determined from the information A. -210
given
B -36

C. -5

D. 36

E. 210
31. Determine the Laplacian of the scalar function
9y + 5 at the point (3, 2, and 7). 35. Deinma has 4 ties, 12 shirts and 3 belts. If each
day he wears exactly one tie, one shirt, and one belt,
A. 0 what is the maximum number of days he can go
B. 1 without repeating a particular combination?

C. 6 A. 12

D. 18 B 21

E. 24 C. 84

D. 108

Questions 32 and 33 are based on the following E. 144

statement: A two dimensional function, f(x,y), is
defined as f(x,y) = 2x2 – y2 + 3x – y
Questions 36 to 38 are based on the following test
32. What is the direction of the line passing through results:
the point (1, -2) that has the maximum slope?
No. of occurrences value
A. 4i + 2j
5 0.89
B 7i + 3j
10 0.942
C. 7i + 4j
45 0.955
D. 9i - 7j
20 0.996
E. 9i + 7j
13 1.092
33. What is the maximum slope at the point (1, -2)?
A. 2.1 10 1.15

B 3.5 7 1.24

C. 7.6

D. 8.7 36. The mean test result is

E. 9.0 A. 0.95

B 0.99

34. If the ratio of 2a to b is 8 times the ratio of b to a, C. 1.01

then b/a could be
D. 1.09
A. 4
E. 1.20
B 2

C. 1

D. 1/2

E 1/4
37. What is the sample standard deviation?
41. log a + log ax + log ax2 is equal to
A. 0.091
A. 3 (log a + log x)
B 0.098
B. log (a + x)
C. 0.198
C. log a + log x
D. 0.320
D. log a + 2log a x
E. 0.390
E. cannot be added because they are unlike
terms
38. What is the sample variance?
42. Determine the equation of the straight line of
A. 0.0084
gradient 3 that passes through the point (1, -1)
A. y = 3x +4
B 0.039
B y = 3x - 1
C. 0.103
C. y = 3x + 1
D. 0.127
D. y = 3x - 4
E. 0.135
E. y = 3x - 2

39. In the following progression, what are the values

43. What is the approximate radius of curvature of the
of terms a, b? function f(x) at the point (x, y) = (8, 16)?
F (x) = x2 + 6x – 96.
6, 9, 10, 7, 11, 12, 8, a, b

A. 1.90 x 10-4

A. 9, 10 B 9.80

B. 9, 13 C. 96.0

C. 16, 14 D. 2840

D. 14, 15 E. 5340

E. 13, 14
44. Differentiate x cos x
A. x sin x

40. Evaluate log 30 – log 3 B. - x sin x + cos x

A. 1 C. x sin x + cos x

B. 3 D. sin x + cos x

C. 10 E. - x sin x + x cos x

D. 100

E. Infinity
45. If the average of two numbers is 3y and one of the 48. A 256K-word memory uses 16 bit-words. How
numbers is y – z, what is the other number in many parallel data lines are required to pass data
terms of y and z? to the CPU for processing?
A. y + z
A 2
B 3y + z
B 8
C. 4y - z
C 9
D. 5y - z
D. 12
E. 5y + z
E.16
SECTION C (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND BASIC
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE)
49. A centipede differs from a millipede by its
46. Data are being collected automatically from an
experiment at a rate of 14.4 kbps. How long will it A. Colour
take to completely fill a diskette whose capacity is
B Numerous abdominal segments
1.44 Mb?
C. Paired legs on each abdominal segment
A. 1.67 min
D. Poison claws
B. 10.0 min
E. Cylindrical body
C. 13.3 min
50. Plants which can survive in places where the water
D. 14.0 min
supply is limited are
E. 100 min
A. Bryophytes
47. What computer operating system (OS) is required
B. Mesophytes
to view a document saved in HTML (Hypertext
markup language) format? C. Xerophytes

I. Apple Macintosh OS D. Hydrophytes

II. MS DOS
E. Petridophytes
III. Windows

IV. Unix
51. The horses in the Nigeria Coat of Arms stand for

A. I or II A. dignity

B. I, II or III B. peace

C. I, III or IV C. power

D. I, II, III or IV D. strength

E. III or IV E. wealth
 SECTION D (PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)

52. The president of South Africa is 56. A man of mass 50kg ascends a flight of stairs 5m
high in 5 seconds. If acceleration due to gravity is 10
A. Nelson Mandela ms-2, the power expanded is
B. Thabo Mbeki A. 100W
C. Jacob Zuma
B. 300W
D. Phumzile Mlambo-Ngcuka C. 250W
E. Kgalema Motlanthe D. 400W
E. 500W
53. Which University won the last edition of the
Nigeria University Games (NUGA) that held at the 57. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect
University of Nigeria, Nsukka? to time is

A. Obafemi Awolowo University, Ile-Ife A. force

B. Ahmadu Bello University, Zaria B. momentum

C. work
C. University of Nigeria, Nsukka
D. power
D. University of Benin, Benin City
E. impulse
E. University of Port Harcourt, Choba

58. The linear expansivity if brass is 2 x 10-10C-1. If the

volume of a piece of brass is 100cm3 at 00C, what
54. The Nigerian civil war ended in
will be its volume at 1000C?
A. 1966
A.10.02cm3
B. 1967 B.10.04cm3

C. 1970 C.10.06cm3
D.10.20cm3
D. 1975
E.102.00 cm3
E. 1979
59. 1,000 identical drops of oil of density 5000kg/m3
have a total mass of 5 x 10-4kg. One of the drops
55 The Director of the Institute of Petroleum Studies, forms a thin film of area 0.5m2 on water. The
University of Port Harcourt is? thickness of the film is

A. Professor Dulu Appah A 2 x 10-8m

B. Professor Mike Onyekonwu B 2 x 10-9m

C. Professor Joseph Ajienka
C 2 x 10-7m
D. Professor Wale Dosumu
D 3 x 10-9m
E. Professor Edward O. Ayalogu
E 2.8 x 10-8m
 64. Which of the following is not a fundamental S.I.
unit?
60. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit
A. Metre
A. Refraction
B. Ampere
B. Reflection
C. Kelvin
C. Diffraction
D. Second
D. Polarization
E. Radian
E. Rarefaction
65. Which of the following is not a force?
61. The resistance of a wire depends
A. Friction
A. The length of the wire
B. Tension
B. The diameter of the wire
C. Upthrust
C. The temperature of the wire
D. Weight
D. The resistivity of the wire
E. Impulse
E. All of the above
66. Water shows anomalous behaviour

A. Below 00C
62. Which of the following can be described as high
tension transmission? B. Between 00C and 40C

A. High resistance and low voltage C. At exactly 40C

B. Low current and high voltage D. Between 40C and 1000C

C. High current and low voltage E. Above 1000C

D. High voltage and zero current
E. High current and low resistance
63. Radio waves have a velocity of 3 x 108m s-1. A
radio station sends out a broadcast on a frequency of
800kHz. The wavelength of the broadcast is
67. Given the following reversible chemical reaction,
assume all reactants and products are ideal gases.
N2 + 3H2 2NH3
If the pressure in the reaction container is doubled,
what would be the expected results?

A. 375.0m A. The amount of ammonia (NH3) would double

B. 267.0m B. There would be no change in the amount of

ammonia
C. 240.0m
C. More ammonia (NH3) would be generated
D. 37.5m
D. The amount of ammonia (NH3) would halve
E. 26.7m
E. The amount of ammonia (NH3) would
quadruple. (x4).
68. Which of the following does a catalyst change?
A. The concentration of product at equilibrium
B. The equilibrium constant of a reaction
C. The heat of reaction of a reaction
D. The activation energy of a reaction
71. The function of sulphur during the vulcanization of
rubber is to
A. Acts as catalyst for the polymerization of
rubber molecules
B. Convert rubber from thermosetting tio thermo
plastic polymer

E. None of the above C. Form chains which bind rubber molecules

D. Break down rubber polymer molecule

69. Which of the following statements is not true of E. Shorten the chain length of rubber polymer
carbon monoxide? 72. The oxidation state of chlorine in HCIO4
A. CO is poisonous A -1
B. CO is readily oxidized at room temperature B. -5
by air to form CO2
C. +7
C. CO may be prepared by reducing CO2, mixed
coke heated to about 10000C D. +1

D. CO may be prepared by heating charcoal with E. -2

a limited amount of O2
73. Which of the following acts as both a reducing and
E. CO is a good reducing agent an oxidizing agent?

70. The process involved in the conversion of oil into A. H2S

margarine is known as
B. CO2
A. Hydrogenation
C. H2
B. condensation
D SO2
C. Hydrolysis
E. O2
D. dehydration
74. The property of chlorine which causes hydrogen
E. Cracking chloride to be more ionic than the chlorine molecule
is its

A. Electronegativity

B. Electropositivity

C. Electro affinity

D. Electrovalency

E. Electromagnetic
75. Transition metals possess variable oxidation states
because they have.
78. Hot air at an average temperature of 100oC flows
A. Electrons in the s orbitals through a 3 m long tube with an inside diameter
of 60 mm. The temperature of the tube is 20oC
B. Electrons in the d orbitals along its entire length. The convective heat
C. partially filled p orbitals transfer coefficient is 20 W/m2K. Determine the
rate of convective heat transfer from the air to
D A variable number of electons in the p orbitals the tube.

E. None of the above A. 520 W

B. 850 W

SECTION E (BASIC ENGINEERING) C. 910 W

D. 1070 W

E. 1200 W
76. What test is used to determine the toughness of a
material under shock loading?

A. impact test 79. The amount of heat flow through a body by

conduction is
B. hardness test
A. dependent on the material of the body
C. fatigue test
B. is directly proportional to the surface area of
D. creep test the body

C. directly proportional to the temperature

E. tensile test
difference between the two surfaces of the
body

D. inversely proportional to the thickness of the

77. Which of the following is the primary factor in
body
determining if sheet metal can be bent and formed
without experiencing stress fractures and other E. All of the above
undesirable effects?

A. Martensitic structure 80. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

B. Surface hardness A. Black surfaces are better absorbers than
white ones
C. Modulus of elasticity
B. Black surfaces are better radiators than white
D. Ductility ones

E. Yield strength C. Rough surfaces are better radiators than

smooth surfaces.

D Highly polished mirror-like surfaces are very

good radiators

E. The emissivity of a black body is unity

81. A Carnot cycle refrigerator operates between 85. What is the magnitude of the particle’s
-11oC and 27oC. What is the coefficient of acceleration at t = π rad?
performance?
A. 2.00
A. 0.25
B. 2.56
B. 1.1
C. 3.14
C. 4.3
D. 4.00
D. 6.9
E. 8.00
E. 9.5

82. What is the maximum thermal efficiency possible

for a power cycle operating between 600oC and 86. An automobile travels on a perfectly horizontal,
unbalanced circular track of radius r. The
110oC?
coefficient of friction between the tires and the
A. 47% track is 0.3. If the car’s velocity is 10 m/s, what is
the smallest radius it may travel without skidding?
B. 56%
A. 10 m
C. 63%
B. 34 m
D. 74%
C. 50 m
E. 100%
D. 68 m
83. A liquid boils when its vapour pressure is equal to E. 75 m
A. One atmosphere of pressure

B. the gage pressure 87. What is the mass flow rate of a liquid (ρ = 0.690
g/cm3) flowing through a 5 cm (inside diameter) pipe
C. the absolute pressure at 8.3 m/s?

D. the ambient pressure A. 11 kg/s

E. the standard pressure B. 69 kg/s

Questions 84 and 85 refer to a particle for which the C. 140 kg/s

position is defined by s(t) = 2 sin ti + 4 cos tj
[ t in radians] D. 340 kg/s

84. What is the magnitude of the particle’s velocity at E. 540 kg/s

t = 4 rad?

A 2.61.

B. 2.75

C. 3.30

D. 4.12

E. 5.00
88. What is the head loss for water flowing through a
horizontal pipe if the gage pressure at point 1 is
1.03 kPa, the gage pressure at point 2
downstream is 1.00 kPa, and the viscosity is
constant?
91. A sliding-plate viscometer is used to measure the
viscosity of a Newtonian fluid. A force of 25 N is
required to keep the top plate moving at a
constant velocity of 5 m/s. The bottom plate is
stationary. What is the viscosity of the fluid?

A. 3.1 x 10-3 m A. 0.005 N.s/m2

B. 3.1 x 10-2 m B. 0.008 N.s/m2

C. 2.3 x 10-2 m C. 0.01 N.s/m2

D. 2.3 m D. 0.02 N.s/m2

E. 2.3 x 10-3 m E. 0.04 N.s/m2

89. A vessel is initially connected to a reservoir open
to the atmosphere. The connecting valve is then
closed, and a vacuum of 65.5 kPa is applied to the
vessel. What is the absolute pressure in the
vessel? Assume standard atmospheric pressure.
92. A power line is made of copper having a resistivity
of 1.83 x 10-6 Ω.cm. The wire diameter is 2 cm.
What is the resistance of 5 km of power line?
A. 0.0032 Ω

A. 36 kPa B. 0.29 Ω

B. 56 kPa C. 0.67 Ω

C. 66 kPa D. 1.8 Ω

D. 85 kPa E. 3.2 Ω

93. What is the internal resistance of a 9 V battery

E. 110 kPa
that delivers 100 A when its terminals are
shorted? Assume the short circuit has negligible
resistance.
90. Oil with a specific gravity of 0.72 is used as the
indicating fluid in a manometer. If the differential
pressure across the ends of the manometer is 7
kPa, what will be the difference in oil levels in the A. 90 Ω
manometer? B. 11 Ω
A. 0.23 m C. 1.0 Ω
B. 0.44 m D. 900 Ω
C. 0.53 m E. 0.09 Ω
D. 1.0 m

E. 2.0 m
94. What is the average power dissipated by an 97. Assuming air to be an ideal gas with a molecular
electric heater with a resistance of 50 Ω drawing a weight of 28.967, what is the density of air at 1
current of 20 sin (30t) A? atm and 60oC? (R = 8.3143 kJ/kmol.K).

A. 0 kW A. 0.08 kg/m3

B. 10 kW B. 0.10 kg/m3

C. 14.14 kW C. 0.12 kg/m3

D. 20 kW D. 0.20 kg/m3

E. 1000 kW E. 0.40 kg/m3

95. Steam initially at 1 MPa and 200oC (entropy for

superheated steam at this condition is 6.6940 kJ/kg.K)
expands in a turbine to 40oC and 83% quality. What is 98. Complete the sentence: “Guidelines of ethical
the change in entropy? behavior among engineers are needed because
……….

Additional data: sf and sg for saturated steam at A. engineers are analytical and they don’t always
o
40 C are 0.5725 kJ/kg.K and 8.2570 kJ/kg.K, think in terms of right or wrong.”
respectively.
B. all people, including engineers, are inherently
A. -0.35 kJ/kg.K unethical.”

B. 0.00 kJ/kg.K C. rules of ethics are easily forgotten.”

C. 0.26 kJ/kg.K D. it is easy for engineers to take advantage of

clients.”
D. 0.73 kJ/kg.K
E. engineering has no meaning without ethics.”
E. 1.00 kJ/kg.K

99. What is the direct result of ethical behaviour?

96. What is the relationship between ethical
requirements and legal requirement? I. Your reputation will be enhanced
II. You will be rewarded economically
A. They place restrictions on the same actions III. You will feel good about yourself
B. They cover none of the same actions
A. I only
C. Ethical requirements add restrictions not
B. II only
required by the law
C. III only
D. Legal actions are ethical actions
D. I, II, and III
E. There is no relationship at all
E. Neither I, II, or III
100. Why is aluminum more rust resistant than steel?

A. The reaction rate with atmospheric oxygen is

higher for steel.

B. The reaction rate with atmospheric oxygen is

higher for aluminum.

C. Iron atoms are larger than aluminum atoms.

D. Iron has greater magnetic properties than

aluminum

E. Aluminum is more electronegative than iron.

ANSWERS (IPS 2009)

1. A 21. C 41. A 61. E 81. D

2. D 22. E 42. D 62. B 82. B

3. B 23. A 43. E 63. A 83. D

4. D 24. D 44. B 64. E 84. C

5. D 25. E 45. E 65. E 85. D

6. B 26. C 46. D 66. B 86. B

7. E 27. B 47. D 67. C 87. A

8. A 28. C 48. E 68. D 88. A

9. B 29. C 49. C 69. B 89. A

10. A 30. E 50. C 70. A 90. D

11. E 31. C 51. A 71. C 91. E

12. B 32. B 52. C 72. C 92. B

13. A 33. C 53. E 73. D 93. E

14. E 34. D 54. C 74. A 94. B

15. D 35. E 55. C 75. B 95. C

16. C 36. C 56. E 76. A 96. C

17. D 37. A 57. D 77. D 97. E

18. C 38. A 58. C 78. C 98. D

19. B 39. E 59. B 79. E 99. E

20. D 40. A 60. D 80. D 100. B

 IPS SCREENING TEST 2010
SECTION A (COMMUNICATION SKILLS)
Read the following passage carefully and answer
questions 1-7
There can be nothing simpler than an elementary
particle: It is an indivisible shard of matter, without
internal structure and without detectable shape or
size. One might expect commensurate simplicity in
the theories that describe such particles and the
forces through which they interact; at the least, one
might expect the structure of the world to be
explained with a minimum number of particles and
forces. Judged by this criterion of parsimony, a
description of nature that has evolved in the past
several years can be accounted a reasonable success.
Matter is built out of just two classes of elementary
particles: the leptons, such as the electron, and the
quarks, which are constituents of the proton, the
neutron, and many related particles. Four basic forces
act between the elementary particles. Gravitation and
electromagnetism have long been familiar in the
macroscopic world; the weak force and the strong
force are observed only in sub-nuclear events. In
principle this complement of particles and forces
could account for the entire observed hierarchy of
material structure, from the nuclei of atoms to stars
and galaxies. An understanding of nature at this level
of detail is a remarkable achievement; nevertheless, it
is possible to imagine what a still simpler theory might
be like. The existence of two disparate classes of
elementary particles is not fully satisfying; ideally,
one class would suffice. Similarly, the existence of
four forces seems a needless complication; one force
might explain all the interactions of elementary
particles. An ambitious new theory now promises at
least a partial unification along these lines. The theory
does not embrace gravitation, which is by far the
feeblest of the forces and may be fundamentally
different from the others. If gravitation is excluded,
however, the theory unifies all elementary particles
and forces. The first step in the construction of the
unified theory was the demonstration that the weak,
the strong, and the electromagnetic forces could all
be described by theories of the same general kind.
The three forces remained distinct, but they could be
seen to operate through the same mechanism. In the
course of this development a deep connection was
discovered between the weak force and
electromagnetism, a connection that hinted at a still
grander synthesis. The new theory is the leading
candidate for accomplishing the synthesis. It
incorporates the leptons and the quarks into a single
family and provides a means of transforming one kind
of particle into the other. At the same time the weak,
the strong, and the electromagnetic forces are
understood as aspects of a single underlying force.
With only one class of particles and one force (plus
gravitation), the unified theory is a model of frugality.
1. All of the following are differences between the
two theories described by the author EXCEPT
A. the second theory is simpler than the first.
B. the first theory encompasses gravitation while the
second does not.
C. the second theory includes only one class of
elementary particles.
D. the first theory accounts for only part of the
hierarchy of material structure.
E. the second theory unifies forces that the first
theory regards as distinct.
2. The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. correct a misconception in a currently
accepted theory of the nature of
matter
B. describe efforts to arrive at a
simplified theory of elementary
particles and forces
C. predict the success of a new effort to
unify gravitation with other basic
forces
D. explain why scientists prefer simpler
explanations over more complex ones
E. summarize what is known about the
basic components of matter
3. According to the passage, which of the
following are true of quarks?
I. They are the elementary building blocks for
neutrons.
II. Scientists have described them as having no
internal structure.
III. Some scientists group them with leptons in a
single class of particles.
 7. It can be inferred that the author would be
likely to consider a new theory of nature
A. I only superior to present theories if it were to
B. II only A. account for a large number of
C. I and II only macroscopic structures than present
D. II and III only theories
E. I, II, and III B. reduce the four basic forces to two
more fundamental incompatible
forces
4. The author considers which of the following in C. propose a smaller number of
judging the usefulness of a theory of fundamental particles and forces than
elementary particles and forces? current theories
I. The simplicity of the theory D. successfully account for the
II. The ability of the theory to account for the observable behavior of bodies due to
largest possible number of known phenomena gravity
E. hypothesize that protons but not
III. The possibility of proving or disproving the neutrons are formed by combinations
theory by experiment of more fundamental particles

In each of question 8-10, you are given a pair of

A. I only words in capital letters. Each capitalized pair is
B. II only
followed by pairs of words. Choose the pair which is
C. I and II only
most similar to the original pair.
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
8. ELECTRICITY : WIRE
A. fluid : pipe
B. car : highway
5. It can be inferred that the author considers
C. river : bank
the failure to unify gravitation with other
D. light : bulb
forces in the theory he describes to be
E. music : instrument
A. a disqualifying defect
B. an unjustified deviation
C. a needless oversimplification
9. INDISPUTABLE : QUESTION
D. an unfortunate oversight
A. unlikely : know
E. an unavoidable limitation
B. amoral : perform
C. incredible : prove
D. immutable : change
6. The author organizes the passage by
E. insoluble : submerge
A. enumerating distinctions among
several different kinds of elementary
particles
10. PROTRACTION : DURATION
B. Stating a criterion for judging
A. extension : length
theories of nature and using it to
B. retraction : instant
evaluate two theories
C. corruption : truth
C. Explaining three methods of grouping
D. taxation : wealth
particles and forces
E. altercation : shape
D. Criticizing an inaccurate view of
elemental nature and proposing an
alternative approach
E. Outlining an assumption about
scientific verification, then criticizing
the assumption
 15. Because of his inherent __________, Harry
steered clear of any job that he suspected
In each of questions 11-15, fill in the blanks with could turn out to be a travail.
the option that completes the sentence best. A. impudence
B. insolence
C. eminence
D. indolence
11. Filmed on a ludicrously _______ budget and E. integrity
edited at breakneck speed, Melotti’s
documentary nonetheless ________ the
Cannes critics with its ingenuity and verve. In each of 16-20, choose the option that has the
A. low … disappointed most opposite meaning of the word in capital
B. inflated … distracted letter.
C. uneven …amused
D. disproportionate… appalled
E. inadequate … surprised
16. COGNIZANT.
A. obsequious
12. Because the law and custom require that a B. oblivious
definite determination be made, the judge is C. vigilant
forced to behave as if the verdict is _______ D. intangible
when in fact the evidence may not be E. unwise
_______
A. negotiable … persuasive
B. justified … accessible 17. DISPASSIONATE
C. unassailable … insubstantial A. sentient
D. incontrovertible … admissible B. conspicuous
E. self-evident … conclusive C. compassionate
D. partisan
E. heedless
13. His opponent found it extremely frustrating
that the governor’s solid support from the
voting public was not eroded by his 18. VOLUBLE
_________ of significant issues. A. reticent
A. exaggeration B. turgid
B. misapprehension C. audacious
C. discussion D. latent
D. selection E. tawdy
E. acknowledgement

19. FOMENT
14. Greek philosophers tried to ___________ A. quash
contemporary notions of change and stability B. mitigate
by postulating the existence of the atom, C. bolster
_________ particle from which all varieties of D. assuage
matter are formed.. E. aggrandize
A. personify … a mutating
B. reconcile … an indivisible
C. simplify … a specific 20. LUCID
D. eliminate … an infinitesimal A. endemic
E. confirm … an interesting B. florid
C. intrepid
D. inchoate
E. fanatical
SECTION B (MATHEMATICS & STATISTICS) 25. If 75 percent of all Nigerians own an automobile,
15 percent of all Nigerians own bicycles, and 20
percent of all Nigerians own neither an
automobile nor a bicycle, what percent of
21. A man buys some shirts and some ties. The shirts Nigerians own both an automobile and a bicycle?
cost N700 each and the ties cost N300 each. If
the man spends exactly N8,100 and buys the A. 0 percent
maximum number of shirts possible, what is the
B 1.33 percent
ratio of shirts to ties?
C. 3.75 percent
A. 5:3 D. 5 percent
B. 4:3 E. 10 percent
C. 5:2
D. 4:1 26. Sam and Jessica are invited to a dance. If there are
E. 3:2 7 men and 7 women in total at the dance, and one
woman and one man are chosen to lead the dance,
22. Deinma bought some packets of biscuits for
N120. If the biscuits had been 3 Naira a packet what is the probability that Sam and Jessica will NOT
cheaper, he would have received 2 more packets be chosen to lead the dance?
for his money. How many packets did he buy? A. 1/49
B 1/7
A. 12 C. 6/7
B 8 D. 2/7
C. 6 E. 48/49
D. 10
E. 15 27. A bag contains a number of balls of which 58 are
red, 78 are green, and the rest are blue. If the
23. If the price of an item is increased by 10% and probability of choosing a blue ball from this bag at
then decreased by 10%, the net effect on the random is 0.20, how many blue balls are in the bag?
price of the item is
A. 34
A. an increase of 99% B 56
B an increase of 1% C. 78
C. no change D. 102
D. a decrease of 1% E. 152
E. a decrease of 11%
28. The volume of a cone of height 9 cm is 1848 cm3.
24. A four-character password consists of one letter of Find its radius (Take π = 22/7).
the alphabet and three different digits between 0 and
9, inclusive. The letter must appear as the second or A 7 cm
third character of the password. How many different B 14 cm
passwords are possible? C. 28 cm
D. 98 cm
A. 5,040 E. 196 cm
B 18,720
C. 26,000
D. 37,440
E. 52,000
29. For the three vectors A, B, and C, what is the
product A . (B x C)? 33. What is the determinant of the following matrix?
1 2 3 
A  4 5 6
A = 6i + 8j + 10k

7 8 9 
B = i + 2j + 3k
C = 3i + 4j + 5k A. -3
B -4
A. 0 C. 0
B 64 D. 6
C. 80 E. 9
D. 100
E. 216 cb
34. If d  , then b =
a b
30. Which of the following statements is true for the
cd
set P = {-3.2 ≤ x ˂ 5} where x is an integer? A.
ad
A. Least value of x is -3.2
cd
B
B Least value of x is -3 ad
C. Greatest value of x is 4.9 ca  d
C.
D. Greatest value of x is 5 ca  d

E. Least value of x is -3.1 c  ad

D.
1 d
31. What is the value of θ (less than 2π) that will
satisfy the following equation? c  ad
E.
d 1
sin2θ + 4 sin θ + 3 = 0

A. π/4
B π/2 35. In a market survey, 100 traders sell fruits. 40 sell
C. π apples, 40 oranges, 50 mangoes, 14 apples and
D. 3π/2 oranges, 15 apples and mangoes, and 10 sell the three
E. 3π/4 fruits. Each of the 100 traders sells at least one of the
three fruits. Find the number that sell oranges and
32. The x- and y-coordinates of a particle moving in mangoes only.
the x-y plane are x = 8 sin t and y = 6 cos t. Which of
the following equations describes the path of the A. 7
particle? B 10
C. 14
A. 36x2 + 64y2 = 2304 D. 15
B 6x2 + 8y2 = 10 E. Cannot be determined from the data.
C. 64x2 + 36y2 = 2304
D. 64x2 - 36y2 = 2304
E. 6x2 - 8y2 = 10
Questions 36 to 38 are based on the following table 41. Let J be the set of positive integers. If H = (x: x ϵ J,
which shows the distribution of marks obtained by a x2 < 3 and x ≠ 0), then
number of pupils in a class test:
A. H = (1)
Marks 0 1 2 3 4 5
B. H is an infinite set
Frequency 4 7 12 18 11 8
C. H = (0, 1, 2)

D. H = ( )
36. The mode of the distribution is
E. J≤H
A. 3
B 5
42. If f(x) = x2y3 + xy4 + sin x + cos2x + sin3y, what is
C. 8 ∂f/∂x?
D. 12
E. 18 A. (2x + y)y3 + 3 sin2y cos y

37. The median of the distribution is? B (4x - 3y2)xy2 + 3 sin2y cos y
A. 1 C. (3x + 4y2)xy + 3 sin2y cos y
B 2
C. 3 D. (2x + y)y3 + (1 – 2 sin x) cos x
D. 4
E. (2x - y)y3 + 3 sin2y cos y
E. 5

38. How many pupils scored at least two mark? Questions 43 – 45 refer to the following equation and
A. 12 initial conditions:
B 23
C. 37 8y = e-2x – 10y’ – 2y’’
y(0) = 1
D. 49
y’(0) = -3/2
E. 63
43. What type of differential equation is shown?
39. If the 2nd and 5th terms of a Geometric progression
are 6 and 48, respectively, find the sum of the first A. nonlinear, second order, nonhomogeneous
four terms
B linear, second order, homogeneous
A. -45
C. linear, second order, nonhomogeneous
B. -15
C. 15 D. linear, third order, nonhomogeneous
D. 33
E. 45 E. nonlinear, second order, homogeneous

40. If log10(3x-1) – log102 = 3, what is the value of x?

A. 667
B. 785
C. 903
D. 1000
E. 2000
44. Which of the following statements is true 47. Which of the following about magnetic disk drives
about the equation? are CORRECT?

A. the system defined by the equation is I. Areal density is a measure of the number of
unstable data bits stored per square inch of the disk
surface
B. The complete solution to the equation will be II. The average seek time is the average time it
the sum of a complementary solution and a takes to move a head from one location to a new
particular solution. location.

C. The equation may be solved by successive III. Latency is the time it takes for a disk to spin a
integrations particular sector under the head for reading.

D. An integrating factor must be used to solve IV. Access time is the sum of average latency and
the equation average seek time

E. The equation has no solution A. I and II only

B. I, II and III only

45. Which of the following is a complete solution to C. II, III and IV only
the equation?
D. I, II, III and IV
e  ln2 x 
9 x
A. y
4 E. III and IV only
9 x
B y e  2e 4 x 48. How long is an IPv6 address?
4
A 32 bits
41  x 11  4 x 1 2 x
C. y e  e  e B 128 bytes
108 108 36

1 4 x 1 2 x C 64 bytes
x
D. y  e  e  e
4 4 D. 64 bits

1 1 F. 128 bits
E. y  e  x  e 4 x  e 2 x
4 4
49. In the Internet Protocol (IP) suite of protocols,
which of the following best describes the purpose
SECTION C (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND BASIC of the Address Resolution Protocol?
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE)
A. To translate web addresses to host names
46. A technique used to ensure that the bits within a B To determine the IP address of a given host
computer memory byte are correct is called? name
C. To determine the hardware address of a given
A. handshaking
host name
B. swapping D. To determine the hardware address of a given
IP address
C. parity E. To determine the appropriate route for a
D. emulating datagram

E. monitoring
50. Australia elected her first female prime minister 54. In Nigeria, the Council of State was first created by
recently. Her name is
A. General Murtala Mohamed
A. Mary Howard
B. General Olusegun Obasanjo
B. Alice Finkle
C. Major General Aguiyi Ironsi
C. Maria Rudd
D. Alhaji Shehu Shagari
D. Julia Gillard
E. General Yakubu Gowon
E. Angela Merkel
55 The Vice-Chancellor of the University of Port
Harcourt is?

51. The Vice President of Nigeria is A. Professor Nimi D. Briggs

A. Dr. Goodluck Jonathan B. Professor Theo Vincent

B. Aliyu Gusau C. Professor Joseph Ajienka

D. Professor Don Baridam

C. Ahmed Makarfi
E. Professor Edward O. Ayalogu
D. Abubakar Atiku

E. Namadi Sambo(2010 to date)

SECTION D (PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)
52. The first petroleum exporting company to discover
crude petroleum in Nigeria was

A. Mobil 56. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the

ground with an initial velocity of 50 m s-1. What is the
B. Texaco total time spent by the ball in the air? (g = 10 m s-2)
C. Agip A. 2.5 s
D. Shell-BP B. 5.0 s9
E. Elf
C. 10 s
D. 15 s
E. 20 s

53. According to Marxist theory, those who own and

57. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving at 10 m s-1 collides
control the means of production in capitalist society
with another ball of equal mass at rest. If the two
are
balls move off together after the impact, calculate
A. exploiters their common velocity.

B. colonialists A. 0.2 m s-1

B. 0.5 m s-1
C. proletariat
C. 5.0 m s-1
D. 10.0 m s-1
D. shareholders
E. 20.0 m s-1
E. bourgeoisie
58. A man will exert the greatest pressure on a bench 61 Which of the following is NOT a mechanical wave?
when he
A. wave propagated in stretched string
A. lies flat on his back B. waves in closed pipes
B. lies flat on his belly C. radio waves
C. stands on both feet D. water waves
D. stands on one foot only
E. sound waves
E. stands on the toes of one foot only

62. An induction coil is generally used to

59.When three coplanar non-parallel forces are in
equilibrium,
I. They can be represented in magnitude and
direction by the three sides of a triangle taken in
order.
A. rectify an alternating current
B. produce a large input voltage
C. smoothen a pulsating direct current
D. modulate an incoming radio signal
E. produce a large output voltage

II. Their lines of action meet at a point. 63. The temperature at which the water vapour
present in the air is just sufficient to saturate it is
III. the magnitude of any one force equals the called
magnitude of the resultant of the other two.
A. ice point
IV. any one force is the equilibrant of the other B. boiling point
two C. steam point
D. dew point
Which of the statements above are correct?
E. saturation point
A I and II only
B II and III only 64. Which of the following statements is/are NOT
C II, III and IV only CORRECT about a standing wave?
D I, II, III and IV only
I. It is formed by the superimposition of two
E I, III and IV only progressive waves travelling in the same
direction
60. The motion of a body is simple harmonic if the II All points on the wave are vibrating with
maximum displacement
A. acceleration is always directed towards a
fixed point III. It is formed by the superimposition of two
B. path of motion is a straight line progressive waves travelling in opposite
C. acceleration is always directed towards a directions.
fixed point and proportional to its distance
from the point A. I only
D. acceleration is proportional to the square of B. II only
the distance from a fixed point
E. acceleration is constant and directed towards C. I and II only
a fixed point
D. II and III only

E. I, II and III
65. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 2 69. What quantity of electricity will liberate 0.125
seconds. Calculate the decay constant. mole of oxygen molecules during the electrolysis
of dilute sodium chloride solution?
A. 0.035 s-1
B. 0.151 s-1 A. 24,125 coulombs
C. 0.347 s-1 B. 48,250 coulombs
D. 0.576 s-1 C. 72,375 coulombs
E. 1.386 s-1 D. 96,500 coulombs
E. 120,800 coulombs
66. The distillation carried out in such a way that the
liquid with the lowest boiling point is first 70. An element with the electronic configuration
evaporated and recondensed, then the liquid with 1s22s22p63s23p63d74s2 is a
the next higher boiling point is then evaporated A. non-metal
and recondensed, and so on until all the available B. metal
fuels are separately recovered in the sequence of C. transition element
their boiling points. Such a process is called D. group two element
E. group seven element
A. cracking

B. reforming 71. Increasing the pressure of a gas

C. carbonization A. lowers the average kinetic energy of the

molecules
D. fractional distillation
B. decreases the density of the gas
E. full distillation
C. decreases the temperature of the gas
67. A process of heating crude oil to a high
temperature under a very high pressure to increase D. increases the density of the gas
the yield of lighter distillates is known as E. increases the volume of the gas
A. cracking
72. In the reaction 3Cl2 + 2NH3 → N2 + 6HCl, ammonia
B. reforming acts as
C. carbonization
D. fractional distillation A. a reducing agent
E. full distillation B. an oxidizing agent
C. an acid
68. 0.017 kg of magnesium occupy 9.77 x 10-6 m3 of D. a catalyst
space. What is the average volume of a E. a drying agent
magnesium atom? (Atomic Weight of Mg = 24.3g,
Avogadro no. is 6.022 x 1023 atoms/mole) 73. The reaction of an alkene with hydrogen in the
presence of a catalyst is:
A. 2.32 x 10-29 m3/atom
A. a nucleophilic reaction
B. 5.86 x 10-29 m3/atom
B. an addition reaction
C. 6.42 x 10-32 m3/atom
C. a substitution reaction
D. 4.04 x 10-23 m3/atom
D an oxidative reaction
E. 9.77 x 10-23 m3/atom
E. acidification reaction
 77. Fourier’s Conduction heat equation Q = kAdT/dx
presumes
74. The property which makes alcohol soluble in
water is the A. steady state one-dimensional heat flow.

A. ionic character B. constant value of thermal conductivity.

B. boiling point
C. covalent nature C. constant surface area
D. hydrogen bonding D. constant and uniform temperatures at the wall
E. volatility surfaces.

75. If 0.75 mole of cyclopropane and 0.66 mole of E. all of the above.
oxygen are mixed in a vessel with a total pressure
78. A hollow sphere has inner and outer surface areas
of 0.7 atmosphere, what is the partial pressure of
of 2m2 and 8m2, respectively. For a given temperature
oxygen in the mixture?
difference across the surfaces, it is desired to
A. 0.22 atmosphere calculate the heat flow by considering the material of
B. 0.33 atmosphere the sphere as a plane wall of the same thickness. The
C. 0.44 atmosphere equivalent mean area normal to the direction of heat
D 0.55 atmosphere flow should be
E. 0.66 atmosphere
A. 6m2
B. 5m2
SECTION E (BASIC ENGINEERING)
C. 4m2
D. 3m2
E. 2m2
76. Consider the quasi-static adiabatic expansion of an
ideal gas from an initial state i to a final state f. 79. A hollow cylinder has inner and outer areas of
Which of the following statements is NOT true? curved surface of 2 m2 and 8 m2, respectively. For
A. No heat flows into or out of the gas. a given temperature difference across the
surfaces, it is desired to calculate the heat flow by
B. The entropy of state i equals the entropy of considering the material of the cylinder as a plane
state f. wall of the same thickness. The equivalent mean
area normal to the direction of heat flow should
C. The change of internal energy of the gas is -
be
 PdV . A. 16m2
D. The mechanical work done by the gas is
B. 12m2
 PdV .
C. 10m2
E. The temperature of the gas remains constant.
D. 8.4m2

E. 4.33
80. The relation  2T  0 is referred to as B. two isothermal and two isentropic
processes
A. Fourier heat conduction equation C. two constant pressure and two isentropic
processes
B. Laplace equation D. one constant volume, one constant
pressure and two isentropic processes
C. Poisson’s equation. E one constant volume, one isothermal and
two isentropic processes
D. Lumped parameter solution for transient
conduction

E. None of the above Questions 84 and 85 refer to an electric circuit which

consists of a 4-ohm resistor and a 300 μF capacitor in
81. Two long parallel plates of same emissivity 0.5 are
series with a sinusoidal voltage source with a 500 V
maintained at different temperatures and have
peak voltage [V(t) = 500 cos(377t)].
radiations heat exchange between them. The
radiation shield of emissivity 0.25 placed in the middle
will reduce radiation heat exchange by
84. What is the phasor form of the impedance?
A. 1/2
A 9.70∟-65.7oΩ
B. 1/4
B. 9.70∟65.7oΩ
C. 1/3
C. 8.84∟-65.7oΩ
D. 3/10
D. 6.65∟-76.9oΩ
E. 1/5
E. 15.00∟45oΩ

82. In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps

85. What is the phasor form of the current?

A. 40.8∟30.0A
A. the suction pressure should be high
B. 29.2∟-45.0A
B. the delivery pressure should be high
C. 88.6∟76.9.7A
C. the suction pressure should be low
D. 51.5∟-65.7A
D. the delivery pressure should be low
E. 51.5∟65.7A
E. the suction and delivery pressures have no
effect on cavitation.
86. A 2000 kg automobile travels at 65 km hr-1around
a curve with a radius of 60 m. What is the
83. A Carnot cycle consists of centripetal force?

A. 602 N
B. 10,900 N
A. two constant volume and two isentropic C. 20,000 N
processes D. 50,800 N
E. 140,800 N
87. For a perfect incompressible liquid flowing in a
continuous stream, the total energy of a particle
remains the same, while the particle moves from
one point to another. This statement is called
A. Continuity equation
II. The total discharge is equal to the sum of
discharges in the various pipes
III. The total head loss is the sum of head losses
in the various pipes

B. Bernoulli’s equation
A. I only
C. Pascal’s law
B. II only
D. Archimedes Principle
C. I and II only
E. Newton’s law
D. II and III only

E. I, II and III
88. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the
property of
91. Venturi meter is used to measure

A. surface tension of water A. the velocity of a flowing fluid

B. incompressibility of water B. the pressure of a flowing fluid

C. the pressure difference of liquid flowing

C. capillarity of water
between two points in a pipeline.
D. viscosity of water
D. the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe.
E. density of water
E. viscosity of a liquid flowing in a pipe.

89. The hydraulic radius is the ratio of

92. Defects in wiring that permit current to jump from
one wire to another before the intended path has
been complete are called
A. wetted perimeter and the diameter of pipe
A. grounds
B. wetted perimeter and the radius of pipe
B. short
C. area of flow and wetted perimeter
C. opens
D. velocity of flow and area of flow
D. breaks
E. none of these
E. rectifiers

90. Which of the following statements about flow

through parallel pipes is/are TRUE? 93. The minimum number of overload devices
required for a 3-phase AC motor connected to a
120/208 volt, 3-phase, 4-wire system is
I. The head loss for all the pipes is the same
 A. 1 96. Determine the shear stress between the plates

B. 2 A. 0.01 Nm-2

C. 3 B. 0.1 Nm-2

D. 4 C. 0.02 Nm-2

E. 5 D. 0.5 Nm-2

E. 0.25 Nm-2

94. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose

specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity 0.011 poise is
97. Determine the viscosity of the fluid
A. 0.0116
A. 0.01 N s m-2
B. 0.116 stoke
B. 0.1 N s m-2
C. 0.0105 stoke
C. 0.04 N s m-2
D. 0.0611 stoke
D. 0.50 N s m-2
E. 86.36 stoke
E. 1.00 N s m-2

95. The sphericity of a particle is the ratio between

98. Which of the following methods is/are employed
A. surface area of the particle and the volume of for the prevention of hydrate formation in
the particle separators?

B. surface area of the particle and the hydraulic I. Heating the gas stream
radius of the particle
II. Removing water vapour from gas by using an
C. radius of sphere of same volume as the particle antifreeze agent
and the hydraulic radius of the particle
III. Use of liquid absorbents
D. radius of sphere of same volume as the particle
and the volume of the particle

E. surface area of sphere of same volume as the A. I only

particle and the surface area of the particle B. II only

C. I and II only
Questions 96 and 97 refer to following set up: A fluid D. II and III only
is contained between two parallel plates 5m long and
1m wide. The lower plate is stationary and the upper E. I, II and III
plate is moving with a velocity of 2 cm per second.
The force required to maintain the velocity of the
upper plate is 0.5 N, and the plates are 2 cm apart.. 99. Which of the following is NOT among the basic
elements of a Liquefaction cycle
A. Compressor
B. Expansion valve
 C. Evaporator (Heat Exchanger)
D. Pump
E. Condenser

100. Choose the statement that is NOT TRUE about

LNG
A. Natural gas cooled to - 1600c
B. Main component is methane
C. It is heavier than water
D. It is stored and transported at
atmospheric pressure as liquid
E. It is an odourless, colourless, non-
corrosive, non-toxic liquid.
ANSWERS (IPS 2010)

1. D 21. E 41. A 61. C 81. D

2. B 22. B 42. D 62. E 82. A

3. E 23. D 43. C 63. D 83. B

4. C 24. D 44. B 64. E 84. A

5. E 25. E 45. D 65. C 85. E

6. B 26. E 46. C 66. D 86. B

7. C 27. A 47. D 67. A 87. B

8. A 28. B 48. E 68. A 88. A

9. D 29. A 49. D 69. B 89. C

10. A 30. B 50. D 70. C 90. C

11. E 31. D 51. E 71. D 91. D

12. E 32. A 52. D 72. A 92. B

13. B 33. C 53. E 73. B 93. B

14. B 34. D 54. A 74. D 94. A

15. D 35. A 55. D 75. B 95. E

16. B 36. A 56. C 76. E 96. B

17. D 37. C 57. C 77. E 97. B

18. A 38. D 58. E 78. C 98. E

EXPLANATIONS AND SOLUTIONS
19. A 39. E 59. D 79. E 99. D
1. Options A, B, C and E are obviously correct
20. D 40. A 60. C 80. B 100. C explanations of the differences between the
two theories. By elimination, Option D is the
correct answer. In any case, both theories
account for the entirety of the hierarchy of
material structure, differing only in the
. classification of the forces and elementary
particles involved. Answer is D.

2. Option B is the correct answer because it

captures the main ideas the author wants to
get across. Others are partially or tangentially
correct.

3. The three statements are correct. So Option E

is the correct answer.

4. The author does not touch on experimental

validation of the theories anywhere in the
 passage. The third statement is not true.
Option C is therefore the correct answer.
5. A limitation, yes but not a defect, deviation
and certainly not an oversight. It is not a
needless oversimplification either. Option E is
the correct answer.
6. Option B is the most apt. D and E are wrong
outright. A and C are true to some extent.
Answer is B.
7. Option A is incorrect. It is not about
macroscopic structures. It is not about
reducing the number of basic forces either, so
Option B is incorrect. It is about reducing the
number of fundamental particles and forces,
so C is correct. Options D and E are incorrect
also. Answer is C.
8. A fluid flows through a pipe just as electricity
flows through a wire. The other options do
not quite give the exact analogy. For example,
cars move on the highway – but cannot be
described as a flow. Instruments make music
but music does not flow through instruments.
Answer is A.
9. Immutable means impossible to change.
Indisputable means – cannot be questioned.
So both of them have the same correlation.
The others do not satisfy the analogy. For
example, Insoluble : dissolve for option E
would have conveyed the same relationship.
Answer is D.
10. Protraction is a drawn out process i.e.
continuing for a long time and duration is the
extent in time. Extension and length have the
same relationship. Answer is A.
11. An inadequate budget should lead to a poor
outcome. The word nonetheless suggests that
the unexpected or opposite outcome was the
case here. So “surprised” would fit into the
other blank space. Option A would have been
correct as well but for the word
“disappointed”. Answer is E.
12. Both words have to fit to make the entire
sentence meaningful. For Options A, B, C, and
D, one word or the other might fit. For
example, Option C would be correct if the
second word was “substantial”. For Option B,
“justified” would fit in the first blank space
but “accessible” does not fit in the second.
The correct answer is Option E.
13. Misapprehension means a wrong belief or
opinion about something and is the most
appropriate choice to fit. Options C, D, E are
outrightly wrong. Option A might look
tempting but is certainly an inferior choice
compared to B. Answer is B.
14. Correct answer is B. Others are either partly
correct or both words do not fit.
15. Indolence means laziness. A lazy individual
would tend to avoid challenging assignments.
None of the others can fit. Correct answer is
D.
16. Cognizant means to be aware or mindful. The
opposite is oblivious which means to be
unaware, unmindful or ignorant. Answer is B.
17. Dispassionate means calm, detached,
unemotional, composed, cool. The opposite is
partisan. Answer is D.
18. Voluble means talkative, garrulous,
vociferous, verbose while reticent means
reserved, taciturn, silent. Answer is A.
19. Foment means to stimulate, provoke, fuel or
incite. The opposite is squash which means
nullify, annul, cancel or repeal. Answer is A.
Note that assuage (Option D) which means to
lesson, ease or diminish is a possible answer.
However, the question asks for the most
opposite meaning which is Option A.
20. Lucid means clear, logical, coherent. The
opposite is inchoate which means unclear,
undeveloped or amorphous. The correct
answer is D.
SECTION B (MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS)
21. Let the number of shirts Deinma bought be S
and the number of ties be T. Then,
700S + 300T = 8100 Or, 7S + 3T =
81  3T
81 S
7
Number of shirts and ties cannot take on
fractional values. So, the value of T must be
such that S has the maximum integral value.
Trying various values from 1 gives T = 6, which
makes S = 9. Ratio of shirts to ties = 9 : 6 =
3 : 2. Answer is E.
22. Let the number of packets Deinma bought be
x and the price per packet be y. From the
problem statement,
 xy = 120 Solving for r gives r = 14 cm. Answer is B

(x+2)(y-3) = 120 29. B = i + 2j + 3k

Combining the two equations, the following C = 3i + 4j + 5k

quadratic equation emerges: x2 + 2x - 80 = 0.
i j k 
BxC  1 2 3 
Solving, x = -10 or 8. The number of packets cannot be
negative and x = -10 is discarded. So the answer is B. = i(10 –
3 4 5
23. Let the original price be x. An increase of 10%
12) – j(5 – 9) + k(4 – 6) = -2i + 4j – 2k
becomes x + 0.1x = 1.1x. A subsequent
A.(BxC) = (6i + 8j + 10k).( -2i + 4j – 2k)
decrease by 10% is 1.1x – 0.11x = 0.99x. So
= (6)(-2) + (8)(4) + (10)(-2) = -12 +32 –
net effect on price is x – 0.99x = 0.01x, which
20 = 0 Answer is A.
is a decrease of 0.01 or 1%. Answer is D
30. P = {-3.2 ≤ x < 5}. The least value is 3.2 but
24. Let D represent a digit and L a letter. Then
Option A cannot be the answer since x has to
possible arrangements from the problem
be an integer. Option B is correct since -3 is
statement are DLDD and DDLD. For DLDD, first
the least integer in the set. Option C and E are
digit can be any of the ten digits 0 – 9. So
ruled out as well for the same reason. Option
there are ten possible ways of picking the first
D looks like a possible candidate but the
character. The second character can be any if
second inequality is less than and not less
the 26 letters of the alphabet. For the third
than or equal to. So 5 does not belong to the
and fourth digits, there are 9 and 8
set. Answer is B.
possibilities, respectively. So, number of
possible passwords is 10 x 26 x 9 x 8 = 18,720. 31. Sin2θ + 4sin2θ + 3 = 0 Factorizing, (sinθ +
Similarly, the number of possibilities for the 1)(sinθ + 3) = 0 Sin θ = -1 or -3. Maximum
other pattern DDLD is 10 x 9 x 26 x 8 = 18,720. possible value of sin θ is 1, so -3 is discarded.
Total number of possible different passwords Θ = (sin)-1 (-1) = 3π/2. Answer is D.
is 18,720 + 18,720 = 37,400. Answer is D.
x
25. 75% own automobiles. 15% own bicycles and 32. x = 8 sin t so sin t  y = 6 cos t
20% own neither an automobile nor bicycle. 8
y
Summation of the percentages is 110. The so cos t  From the trigonometric
total ought to be 100% if there were no 6
duplications, that is, some people owning  x  y
2 2

automobiles and bicycles as well. These identity sin θ + cos θ = 1       1

2 2

people represent the additional 10% because 8 6

2 2
they were counted twice. The answer is E. x y
 1 Multiply through
64 36
26. The probability of Sam and Jessica being by (64)(36) 36x2 + 64y2 = 2304
chosen to lead the dance is (1/7)(1/7) = 1/49. Answer is A.
The probability of both of them not chosen is
1 – (1/49) = 48/49. The correct answer is E 1 2 3 
27. Let number of blue balls be x. Total number 33. The determinant of the matrix A  4 5 6
 
of balls = 58+78 + x. Since probability of 7 8 9 
x
picking a blue ball is 0.20,  0.20 is
136  x
Solving for x gives x = 34. Correct answer is A. (1)[(5)(9) – (6)(8)] – (4)[(2)(9) - (3)(8)] +
(7)[(2)(6) – (3)(5)] which is 1[45 – 48] – 4[18
1 – 24] +7[12 – 15]
28. The volume of a cone is given by V  r h
2

3
= -3 + 24 – 21 = 0. Answer is C
= 1848. Substituting,  
1  22  2
  r 9  1848
3 7  cb
34. Given d 
a b
 Making b the subject of the formula, d(a – b) integers rules out -1. x ≠ 0 eliminates 0. The
= c – b. remaining member is 1. So, H = (1).
Answer is A.
ad – bd = c – b
42. f(x) = x2y3 + xy4 + sin x + cos2x + sin3y
Collecting like terms, f
 2 xy 3  y 4  cos x  2 cos x sin x =
b – db = c – ad x
y3(2x + y) + cos x(1 – 2sinx) Answer is D.
b(1 – d) = c – ad
43. Rearranging the terms into the general form
c  ad of a differential equation, we have
b 2y” + 10y’ + 8y = e-2x.
1 d This is a linear,
second order, non-homogenous differential
Answer is D equation. Option C is the correct answer.

35. From a Venn Diagram analysis, the number of
traders selling mangoes and oranges is 7.
Answer is A.
36. The mode is the most frequently occurring
entry in the distribution. By inspection, the
mode is 3 which occurs 18 times. Answer is A.
37. The median is the middle entry. Total
frequency is 60. So, the median is the mean of
the 30th and 31st entries, each of which is 3.
The median is 3. Answer is C.
38. The number of pupils that scored at least two
marks is the summation of the frequencies of
marks 2 and above which is 12 + 18 + 11 + 8 =
49. Answer is D.
39. The nth term of a Geometric progression is
given by: l  ar n1 where a is the first term
and r is the common ratio. So, 6 = ar and 48
= ar4. Solving the two equations
simultaneously, a = 3 and r = 2.
The sum of the first n terms of a Geometric
series is given by
44. Option B is always true. Others are either
false outright or special cases. Answer is B.
45. The complete solution is the sum of the
complementary and particular solutions. For
the complementary solution, the
homogeneous equation is 2y” + 10y’ + 8y
= 0. Characteristic equation is
5
r 2  2 r  4  0 The roots are -1, and
2
-4. yh = C1e-x + C2e-4x For the particular
solution, assume it is of the form e-2x, which is
the form of the non-homogeneous forcing
function. yp = C3e-2x First and second
derivatives are yp’ = -2C3e-2x
yp” = 4C3e-2x Substituting in the
original differential equation and solving for
C3 gives C3 = -1/4. Complete solution is
1
y  C1e  x  C 2 e 4 x  e 2 x Evaluating the
4
unknown coefficients, C1 = 1 and C2= ¼. So,
1 1
y  e  x  e 4 x  e 2 x Correct answer

Sn 

a 1 r n
  31  2   45
4
Answer is is D.
4 4

1 r 1 2
E. SECTION C (COMPUTER SCIENCE AND GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE)
40. Log10(3x – 1) – log102 = 3
3x  1 46. When data is transmitted, the binary digits
 103  1000 3x -1 = 2000 sent must match the length of bits that the
2 recipient is expecting. The technique that is
2001
x  667 . Answer is A. used to check the matching is called parity.
3 Answer is C.

41. H = (x: x ϵ J, x2 < 3 and x ≠ 0) That is, a
member of the set H must be a positive
integer, non-zero and whose square is less
than 3. Without the constraints, the
possibilities are -1, 0, 1. J is the set of positive
47. Statements I, II, III and IV are correct
statements about magnetic disk drives or
hard drives. Option D is the correct answer.
48. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, as opposed
to 32 bits of IPv4 addresses. Answer is E.
49. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a
computer networking protocol for
determining a network host’s link layer or
hardware address when only its internet
Layer (IP) address is known. Answer is D.
50. Julia Gillard was recently named the first
female prime minister of Australia, replacing
Mr. Rudd. Answer is D
51. The Vice President of Nigeria is Alhaji Namadi
Sambo, former governor of Kaduna State. The
correct answer is E.
52. Shell-BP struck oil for the first time at Oloibiri,
Bayelsa State in 1956. Answer is D
53. The bourgeoisie own and control the means
of production in capitalist society according to
Karl Marx. Answer is E.
54. The council of state was first created by
General Murtala Mohammed.atm Answer is
A.
55. As at July 1, 2010 when this screening test
was administered, Prof. Don M. Baridam was
the Vice-Chancellor of the University of Port
Harcourt. Correct answer is D.
SECTION D (PHYSICS AND CHEMISTRY)
56. From v = u – gt, time required to move up is:
0 = 50 – 10t t = 5 s Total time is 5 +
5 = 10 s. Answer is C
57. From the law of conservation of momentum,
(0.5)(10) + (0.5)(0) = (1)(v) v = 5.0 ms-1
Answer is C.
58. Pressure is Force per unit area. That is,
Pressure is inversely proportional to the area.
For the same applied force, the smaller the
surface area, the greater the pressure. The
man’s weight (applied force) is constant. The
toes of one foot present the minimum surface
area among the alternatives. So, Option E is
the correct answer.
59. Statements I, II, III and IV are all correct.
Option D is the correct answer
60. By definition, the motion of a body is simple
harmonic if the acceleration is always directed
towards a fixed point and proportional to its
distance from the point. A cannot be the
answer because it is only partly correct. B and
D are wrong outright. E is not correct because
the acceleration is not constant. Option C is
the correct answer.
61. Options A, B, D and E are all mechanical
waves. Radio waves are certainly not
mechanical waves. Correct answer is C.
62. An induction coil is used to produce a large
output voltage. Option E is the correct
answer.
63. The water vapour present in air is just
sufficient to saturate it at a temperature
called the dew point. At that temperature,
some of the vapour condenses and dew is
formed. Answer is D.
64. The three statements are incorrect. Option E
is the correct answer.
0.693 0.693
65.     0.347s 1 Answer is C
T1 2
2
66. The process described is fractional
distillation. Answer is D.
67. Cracking is a process that involves the
conversion of large petroleum molecules into
smaller hydrocarbons primarily in the gasoline
range by applying heat and high pressure. The
idea is to improve the yield of the range of
hydrocarbons which are in high demand.
Correct answer is A.
68. 0.017 kg of Mg is equivalent to 0.017/24.3 =
0.0006996 mole. No. of Mg atoms =
0.0006996 mole x 6.022 x 1023 atom/mole =
4.213 x 1023 atom. Therefore, average volume
9.77 x10 6
of a Mg atom = = 2.319 x 10-
4.213x10 23
29
. Answer is A.
69. From the stoichiometry of the electrolysis
reaction, ¼ mole of O2 will be liberated by 1
Faraday = 96,500 coulombs of electricity.
Therefore, 0.125 mole O2 will bw liberated by
[(0.125)/(0.25)] x 96500 coulombs = 48,250
coulombs. Answer is B.
70. The d-block elements contain the transition
metals. The electronic configuration is clearly
characteristic of transition elements. Answer
is C.
71. From Boyle’s law, pressure is inversely
proportional to the volume, at constant
 temperature. Increasing the pressure thus 81. Let the emissivities of the plates be ε1 = ε3 =
reduces the volume which increases the 0.5. Before the shield was placed
density. Option D is the correct answer. between the plates, the heat flow rate is
given by
72. 3Cl2 + 2NH3 → N2 + 6HCl The net action is the
addition of hydrogen to Cl2 to form HCl, which T1  T3 T T
is a reduction reaction. That is, ammonia acts Q  1 3
1 1 3
as a reducing agent. Option A is the correct  1
answer. 1 3

73. The catalytic reaction of an alkene with After the shield,

hydrogen is an addition reaction. Correct
T1  T2 T2  T3
answer is B. Qs  
1 1 1 1
74. Alcohol with a functional group OH is soluble  1  1
0.5 0.25 0.25 0.5
in water through hydrogen bonding. Correct
answer is D T1  T2 T2  T3
Qs  
75. Partial pressure of O2 is 5 5
 
 0.66  0.750.7
0.66 T1  T3
T2 
  Answer is B 2
0.66
 x0.7  0.33atm Substituting for T2
1.41
T1  T3
SECTION E (BASIC ENGINEERING) Qs 
10
76. Quasi-static adiabatic expansion of an ideal
gas from an initial state I to a final state f. Qs 3

Options A is true because of the adiabatic Q 10
expansion. ∆s is equal to zero for such a
process so option B is also correct. C and D So, the radiation shield has reduced the heat
are correct as well. Option E is certainly not exchange by a factor of 3/10. The correct
true. Answer is E. answer is D.

77. Options A to D are correct assumptions in the 82. One of the measures or conditions put in
formulation of Fourier’s Heat Conduction place to prevent cavitation in centrifugal
equation as presented. So correct answer is E pumps is to have a high suction pressure.
Option A is the correct answer.
78. Ai = 2 m2, Ao = 8 m2. The equivalent
mean area for heat flow through a sphere is 83. A T – s diagram for the Carnot cycle clearly
the geometric mean of the inner and outer shows that it consists of two isothermal and
surface areas. So, Am  28 =4 two isentropic processes. Answer is B.
m2. Answer is C 84. The capacitive reactance is
1 1
79. For a hollow cylinder, the equivalent mean XC   =
c 
area is the log mean of the outer and inner
 377
rad 
6
 300x10 F 
82  s 
surface areas. Am  =
8 8.842 Ω The impedance is
ln 
2 Z  R  XC 2 2
42
 8.842 = 9.70
2

4.33. Correct answer is E.

  XC    8.842 
Ω  Z  arctan   arctan 
80.  T  0 is the Laplace equation. Correct
2
 R   4 
answer is B = -65.7o Impedance is 9.70 ∟-
65.7oΩ Answer is A.
85. The peak current is 0.011 2 1
 cm s  0.0116cm 2 s 1 =
V 5000 o
0.95
I m   51.565.7
Z 9.7  65.7 o  0.0116 stoke since I stoke = 1 cm2s-1 . Answer
Answer is E. is A.

86. Tangential velocity is 95. The sphericity of a particle is a measure of

how close the shape of a particle is to that of
651000 m  a sphere. Obviously, the sphericity of a sphere
vt   km 
 18.06
m
Centripetal is unity. It is defined as the ratio of the surface
s s area of a sphere of same volume as the
3600
h particle and the surface area of the particle.
force is Answer is B.

Fc 
mv t

2
200018.06
2
 10,900N 96. Surface area of each plate is 5m x 1m = 5 m2.
r 60 ∆y = 2 cm = 0.02 m. F = 0.5 N. Shear stress is
Answer is B. F 0.5 N
given by  yx   2
 0.1Nm 2
87. The Bernoulli equation can be considered to A 5m
be a statement of the conservation of energy Answer is B.
principle appropriate for flowing fluids.
u
Therefore, the statement is essentially 97. From Newton’s law of viscosity  yx   
Bernoulli’s equation. Correct answer is B. y
 yx
88. Surface tension is a property of the surface of Rearranging, 
a liquid caused by cohesion of like molecules. u
y
This property gives falling drops of water their
Substituting values,
near spherical shape, because a sphere has
0.1
  0.1Nsm 2 Answer is B.
 
the smallest possible surface area to volume
ratio. Answer is A.  0.02
0.02
89. By definition, the hydraulic radius is the ratio
98. The three statements are the methods
of the area of flow and the wetted perimeter.
employed for prevention of hydrate
Answer is C.
formation in a separator. Option E is the
90. Statements I and II are correct for flow correct answer.
through pipes in parallel. Statement III is true
99. The refrigerant in a liquefaction cycle is
about pipes connected in series. For pipes in
usually in the gaseous state and is moved
parallel, it is incorrect. So Option C is the
around the cycle by a compressor and not a
correct answer.
pump. Expansion valve, evaporator and
91. A venturi meter is a flowmeter and is used to condenser are other basic elements of a
measure flowrates and not velocity, pressure, liquefaction cycle. Correct answer is D.
pressure difference, and certainly not
100. LNG is less dense than water and
viscosity. Discharge is synonymous with
floats on water in the event of a spill. So
flowrate. Answer is D.
Option C is not true. Options A, B, D and E are
92. When current jumps from one wire to correct statements about LNG. Answer is C.
another before the intended path, a short -
circuit is said to have occurred, e.g. when two
naked wires touch. Option B is the correct
answer.

93. Answer is B.


94. Kinematic viscosity   μ = 0.011

poise = 0.011 g cm-1 s-1 ρ = 0.95 g cm-3