DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

SESSION 2023-2024
Class:X Maximum Marks:80
Subject:ENGLISH Time:3 Hours

Q.N Details and instructions:- Mar

ks
o. 1. The question paper contains FOUR sections-READING SKILLS,WRITING
SKILLS,GRAMMAR and LITERATURE TEXT BOOK.
2.Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A:READING SKILLS(22 MARKS)

1
Read the following passage .
12
Globalization is the way to open businesses, improve technological growth,
economy, etc, at the international level for all countries. It is the way in which
manufacturers and producers of the products or goods sell their products
globally without any restriction. It provides huge profits to the businessmen as
they get low cost labour in poor countries easily. It provides a big opportunity
to the companies to deal with the worldwide market.
Globalization helps to consider the whole world as a single market. Traders are
extending their areas of business by treating the world as a global village.
Earlier till the 1990s, there was a restriction on importing certain products
which were already manufactured in India like agricultural products,
engineering goods, food items and toiletries. However, during the 1990s there
was a pressure from the rich countries on the poor and developing countries to
allow them to spread their businesses by opening their markets. In India the
globalization and liberalization process was started in 1991.
After many years, globalization brought about a major revolution in the Indian
market when multinational brands came to India and started delivering a wide
range of quality products at cheap prices. Prices of good quality products came
down because of the cutthroat competition in the market.Globalization and
liberalization of the businesses in India have flooded the market with quality
foreign products but has affected the local Indian industries adversely to a great
extent resulting in the job loss to poor and uneducated workers. Globalization
has been a bonanza for the consumers, however, a loss to the small-scale Indian
producers.

Globalization has had some very positive effects on the Indian consumer in all
sectors of society. It has affected the Indian students and education sector to a
great extent by making study books and a lot of information available over the
internet. Collaboration of foreign universities with the Indian universities has
brought about a huge change in the field of education.
Globalization of trade in the agricultural sector has brought varieties of quality
seeds which have disease resistance property. However, it is not good for the
poor Indian farmers because the seeds and agricultural technologies are costly.

1
It has brought about a huge revolution in the employment sector by the spread
of businesses like cottage, handloom, carpet, artisan carving, ceramic, jewellery,
and glassware etc.
Attempt any eight of the following questions : 1 × 8 = 8

1 .On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four
of the following questions in 30-40 words each : (2 × 4 = 8)
a. To whom does success come certainly?
b. What are the basic things in life we need to achieve success?
c. What did great men have in plenty to rise to the peak of
success? Give any two examples.
d. What is the one basic requirement of success?
e. Explain : “Failures are pillars of success.”
f.
2..On the basis of your reading of the passage, fill in any two of the
following blanks with appropriate words/phrase : (1 × 2 = 2)
a. _________ plays a decisive role in achieving success.
b. Goals have to be pursued with _________ and _________.
c. Ratio of success is _________ inspiration.
3.Find out the words from the passage that mean the same as the
following : (any two) (1 × 2 = 2)
a. endurance (para 2)
b. obstruction (para 4)

B. Read the following passage.

Politeness has been well defined as benevolence in trifles. It is the desire to put
those whom we meet perfectly at their ease, and save them from every kind of
petty discomfort and annoyance. The limited part of benevolence called
politeness requires only an inclination to make them happy temporarily, while
they are in our presence, and when this can be done without any sacrifice on our 10
part or only with a slight sacrifice of personal comfort.

2. Politeness is said to be one of the important characteristics of civilised

person. Politeness is the art of choosing among your thoughts. It must be
implemented in every walk of life. When we deal with people elder to us we are
polite. But, an honest polite person is polite with everyone, people of lower
status, workers and even children. Not only with humans but also with animals
we must be polite as they are our helpers.

3. Politeness is a skill. Like any other skill, you can master it with practice.
The greatest enemy of politeness is ego. To be a polite person, you have to
sacrifice your ego. It is difficult for an egoist to be polite. You have to imply
politeness in your thinking, speech and actions. Actions work more than words.
Polite actions will give fine results. Politeness will reduce your stress and boost
you to be productive. Apart from your present benefits, you protect your future.
Being polite makes you mentally healthy. In our daily life we come across
many incidents with people nearby and ourselves.

2
 4. Different rules of behaviour have to be observed, accordingly as we are
in the street or in the drawing- room, at home or at school, in the company of
friends or of strangers. There is also to be considered the great diversity of
social etiquette which distinguishes one country from another.

5. Politeness, besides being a duty that we owe to others, is a valuable

possession for ourselves. It costs nothing, and yet may in many cases bring
much profit. The great advantage of this excellence of conduct was very clearly
expressed by Dr. Johnson, when he said that the difference between a well-bred
and an ill- bred man is that one immediately attracts your liking, the other your
dislike. (378 words)

2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the
following questions in about 30-40 words each 2X5=10

a.Why is politeness called as limited part of benevolence?

b.List some of the persons we should be polite to?

c.Why is it difficult for an egoist to be polite?

d.What are the benefits of being polite?

e.Which are the rules of behaviour to be observed?

2.2 On the basis of your reading of the passage, fill in any two of the
following blanks with appropriate words/phrases. 1X2=2

a. Politeness is an art of choosing .

b. An honest polite person is polite with .

SECTION B:WRITING SKILLS ( 22 MARKS)

As principal of Global Public School,,Lucknow. Draft a notice in not more than

2 50 words informing students about the CBSE practicles. Give necessary details. 3

Your father gifted you a vase on your birthday.Describe the watch to your
3 friend in about 100 words. 4

Two main parks in your locality have suffered from neglect on the part of local
4 authorities. They have virtually been taken over by undesirable elements. As a
result, the residents have stopped going to the parks.
Write a letter in 100-120 words to the editor of a local newspaper expressing 7
your concern about the problems the neglect has created and suggest measures
to reclaim the parks for children. You are Gautam/Gauri 2, Gobind Enclave,
Meerut.

3
 OR

You intend to join coaching classes at International Coaching Center situated in

Raipur. The institute specializes in teaching science to classes XI – XII. Write a
letter of enquiry in 100-120 words addressed to the Administrator incharge of
the institute seeking clarification about the timings, duration, staff, transport and
other necessary details for joining the institute. You are Rajesh/Rajni 2, Library
Road Jabalpur.

In today's age of stress and anxiety, the children need to understand the
5 importance of sleep, meditation and yoga over social networking and the use of
the cell phone. Write an article of 120 words on 'Concentration and 8
Composure', the need of the hour. You can take hints from the unit 'Health and
Medicine' of the Main Course Book

OR

. Using your own ideas and those taken from the unit, ‘Science’, write an article
in about 150 words describing both the benefits and drawbacks of using these
high-tech devices

SECTION C: GRAMMAR ( 10 MARKS)

i. Read the given conversation and complete the passage that follows.
6 (1x2=2)

The king said to the manager ,"Tell the general that I shall send no help. If he
can manage the attack the glory shall be his own."

The king order the messenger(a) ________ and told that if he could manage the
attack (b)________

ii.Fill in any four of the following blanks choosing the most appropriate
option from the ones given 4 below. Write the answers in your answer –
sheet against the correct blank numbers.
(1x4=4)

A. Sanitation and hygiene are also important (a) the well – being of
society and biodiversity conservation.
B. The government has (b)_____________a programme.
C. It aims to develop (c) _____________riverfronts.
D. It will solve the problem of pollution (d) __________the rivers.

(a) (i) by (ii) from (iii) for (iv) into

(b) (i) initiates (ii) initiated (iii) initiate (iv) initiating

4
 (c) (i) an (ii) a (iii) in (iv) the
(d) (i) in (ii) on (iii) onto (iv) by

iii.Read the paragraph given below. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most
appropriate word/phrases from the given options: (1x4=4)
Error Correct

Only those who work hard gets glory and success in life. _______ ________

Nothing great could be achieved without effort. _____________ ________

A student can never comes out with flying colours unless he ______ _______

Has really worked hard throughout a year. _______ __________

7 SECTION D:LITERATURE TEXTBOOK (26 MARKS)

i. Read the given excerpts and answer the questions briefly. 4

2x4=8

’Evidently, the wrong animal had been hit and the beast of prey had succumbed
to heart-failure….’.
(a) What did Mrs. Packletide wanted to kill and why ?
(b) How did the two animals die ?
(c) How did Miss Louisa Mebbin take advantage of this situation ?
(d) How is society depited here? 4

ii.When wasteful wars shall statues overturn,

And broils root out the work of masonry,
Nor Mars his sword nor war’s quick fire shall burn The living record of your
memory.
(a) What will the wasteful wars do ?
(b) What will be the living record of the poet’s friend ?
(c) The poetic device used in the phrase ‘wasteful wars’ is……………….
(d) What’s the irony her

8 Answer of the following questions in about 30-40 words each.

2x5=10 10

1."Ali displays qualities of love and patience". Give evidence from the story to
support this statement.

2. Why does the poet experience conflicting emotions on seeing the snake?

3. What does Ceaser leave for the Romans in his will?

5
 4. How did Mrs. Slater plan yo outshine the Jordans? What does it reveal about
her character?

5. My name is Oxymandius ;King of Kings. What does Oxymandius refer to

himself as King of Kings
8

9 Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions in about 150 words.

Friendship VS Deception is an important theme of 'Julius Caesar '.Comment.

OR
"I don't call that delicate, stepping into a dead man's shoes in such haste"
What qualities of the speaker and the listener is depicted here.

6
8

7
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 DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024
Class: X Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: HINDI Time: 3 Hrs
Q.No. Question Marks
सामा य नदश :
इस - -‘ ’ ‘ ’ ‘’
प म दो खंड है अ और ब । खंड अ म व तुपरक ब वक पीय और खंड ब / ‘’
म ब तु न वणना मक / दए गए ह।
-
प के दोन खंड म क सं या ह और सभी अ नवाय ह। 17
यथासंभव सभी के उ र मानुसार ल खए।
‘ ’ 10 ,
खंड अ म कु ल ह जनम उप क सं या ह। दए गए नदश का पालन 44
करते ए 40
उप के उ र दे ना अ नवाय ह।
‘’ 7 ,
खंड ब म कु ल ह सभी के साथ उनके वक प भी दए गए ह। नदशानुसार
वक प का यान रखते ए सभी के उ र द जए।
‘ ’(
खंड अ ब वक पीय व तुपरक / ) 1X5=5
1. न न ल खत ग ांश पर आधा रत ब वक पीय व तुपरक / के उ र सवा धक उपयु
वक प चुनकर ल खए। (1 × 5 = 5)
-
इले ॉ नक ां त ने हमारे जीवन को सुख सु वधा से प रपूण कर दया है। व भ
-
इले ॉ नक आ व कार के मा यम से संचार तं को व तार एवं ावसा यक ग त व धय
-
को ो साहन मलने के साथ साथ रोजगार के अवसर भी बढे ह। कं यूटर रे जरेटर एयर , ,
, , ,
कं डीशनर सेलुलर फोन वां शग मशीन कै मरा आ द इले ॉ नक उपकरण के नमाण ने
,
मानव स यता को नया आयाम दया है पर आज बड़ी सं या म खराब होने वाली इ ही
-
इले ॉ नक व तु के अंबार ने ई कचरे के प म एक नई पयावरणीय सम या को ज म
-
दया है। ई कचरे से ता पय उन बेकार पड़े इले ॉ नक उपकरण से है जो अपने मूल ,
उपयोग के उ े य के लए उपयु नह रह जाते। ई कचरे को ई अप श भी कहा जाता है। - -
काफ मा ा म भारी धातुएँ एवं अ य षत पदाथ के व मान रहने के कारण ई अप श -
के प म बेकार पडे इले ॉ नक उपकरण अ य थ घरेलू उपकरण क अपे ा मानव
वा य एवं पयावरण के लए कह अ धक नुकसानदे ह होते ह।

इले ॉ नक व तु म उपयोग आने वाले अ धकतर अवयव म बायो ड डे ेबल होने क

वशेषता नह पाई जाती है और न ही इसम म म घुल मल जाने का गुण होता है। भारत -
स हत अ य ए शयाई दे श म प मी दे श क तुलना म कचरे के न तारण म काफ कम -
-
खच आता है। भारत म कचरे का नपटान ाय अनौपचा रक पुनच ण क म होता है : ,
: -
जहाँ पुन उपयोग हेतु इ ह अलग अलग कया जाता है फर मू यवान धातु को चुनकर ,
साफ करने के प ात् इ ह अकु शल व वषा उ पाद व ा म न करने क या से
गुजारते ह।

-
ई कचरे क सम या को कम करने एवं इसके भाव से बचने हेतु ीन पीसी क अवधारणा
पर बल दया जाना चा हए। ऐसे उ पा दत कं यूटर म बजली खपत कम होगी साथ ही ये ,
पयावरण को उतना नुकसान भी नह करते। दे श म ई कचरे को कम करने के लए कानून -
बनाने क आव यकता है। य द सरकार और जनता दोन जाग क हो जाएँ तो भ व य म ई ,
-कचरे क सम या से छु टकारा पाया जा सकता है।
1
(क) न न ल खत कथन पर वचार क जए
1. वतमान समय म इलेक ॉ नक साधन ने मनु य के जीवन को सुखी बना दया है।
2. इले ॉ नक साधन कसी भी प म पयावरण के लए हा नकारक नह है।
3. भारत म ई-कचरे का नपटान ाय: औपचा रक पुनच ण क ो म होता है।
4. ई-कचरे क सम या से नपटने के लए सरकार व जनता दोन को जाग क होना
चा हए।
- /
उपयु कथन म से कौन सा से कथन सही है ह /?
(i) के वल 1
(ii) के बल 2
(iii) 1 और 4
(iv) 1 और 3
(ख) ग ांश के अनुसार, इलेव ॉ नक व तु म कौन-सा गुण नह होता है?
(i) मनोरंजन का
(ii) म म घुल जाने का
(iii) सुख-सु वधाएँ दान करने का
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
(ग) ग ांश के आधार पर बताइए क ‘ई-कचरे को कम करने के लए या आव यक है?
(i) इले ॉ नक उपकरण क कम खपत
(ii) कानून नमाण
(iii) जै ब करण
(iv) पुनच ण क क सं या बढ़ाना
(घ) हमारे देश म हं-कचरे का नपटान कहाँ कया जाता है?
(i) पुनरावतन उ ोग म
(ii) औपच रक पुनच ण क म
(iii) अनौपचा रक पुनच ण क म
(iv) पुनरावतन े म
(ङ) ‘ई-कचरे’ के भाव से बचाव हेतु कसक अवधारणा पर बल दया जाना चा हए?
(i) ह रत कृ ष क
(ii) सतल वकास क
2
 (iii) ीन पीसी क
(iv) ये सभी
2. न न ल खत का ांश पर आधा रत ब वक पीय व तुपरक / के उ र सवा धक 1X5=5
उपयु वक प चुनकर ल खए।

,
च टयाँ अंडे उठाकर जा रही ह
और च ड़याँ नीड़ को चारा दबाए ,
धान पर बछड़ा रँभाने लग गया है ,
टकटक सूने वजन पथ पर लगाए ,
,
थाम आँचल थका बालक रो उठा है ,
है खड़ी माँ शीश का ग र गराए ,
-
बाँह दो चमकारती सी बढ़ रही है ,
साँझ से कह दो बुझे द पक जलाए।

शोर डैन म छपाने के लए अब ,

शोर माँ क गोद जाने के लए अब ,
-
शोर घर घर न द रानी के लए अब ,
शोर प रय क कहानी के लए अब ,
,
एक म ही ँ क मेरी साँझ चुप है
,
एक मेरे द प म ही बल नह है
- ,
एक मेरी खाट का व तार नभ सा
य क मेरे शीश पर आँचल नह है।

(क) क व को सव धक ःख है क
(i) उसक माँ नह है।
(ii) च ड़य का घ सला नह है।
(iii) ची टयाँ अंडे उठाकर जा रही ह।
(iv) ये सभी
(ख) का ांश म कसके त ेम अ भ कया गया है?
(i) जानवर के त
(ii) कृ त के व भ जीव का अपनी संतान के त
(iii) ची टय के त
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
(ग) का ांश के आधार पर बताइए क थका आ बालक या कर रहा है?
(i) माँ क गोद के लए रो रहा है
(ii) ची टय के लए रो रहा है
(iii) अंड के लए रो रहा है
(iv) खाना खाने के लए रो रहा है
(घ) तुत का ांश के आधार पर बताइए क कसके बीच गहरा संबंध होता है?
(i) माँ एवं संतान के बीच
(ii) माँ एवं अंड के बीच
(iii) माँ एवं ची टय के बीच
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
(ङ) कथन (A) क व को लगता है क एक उसी क साँझ चुप है।
कारण (R) क व के पास माँ नह है।
3
 (i) कथन A गलत है, कतु कारण R सही है।
(ii) कथन A और कारण R दोन गलत ह।
(iii) कथन A और कारण R दोन सही ह तथा कारण R कथन A क सही ा या है।
(iv) कथन A और कारण R दोन सही ह, परंतु कारण R कथन A क सही ा या नह है।
3. नदशानुसार ‘रचना के आधार पर वा य भेद’ पर आधा रत पाँच ब वक पीय म से 1X4=4
क ह चार के उ र द जए।

(क) “वह लड़का, जो पेइ के पास खड़ा है, मेरा म है।” इसका सरल वा य होगा
(i) पेड़ के पास खड़ा आ लड़का मेरा म है।
(ii) जो पेड़ के पास खड़ा है मेरा म है।
(iii) वे सभी जो पेड़ के पास खड़े ह मेरे म ह।
(iv) वह लड़का मेरा म है और वह पेड़ के पास खड़ा है।
(ख) “म बीमार ँ, इस लए आयोजन म नह जा सकता।” इसका म त वा य होगा
(i) मेरा आयोजन म न जाने का कारण बीमार होना है।
(ii) म आयोजन म इस लए नह जा सकता, यो क म बीमार ँ।
(iii) बीमार होना आयोजन म न जाने का कारण है।
(iv) बीमार होने के कारण म आयोजन म नह जा सकता।
(ग) ‘राम खाना खाकर बाहर चला गया।’ इसका संयु वा य होगा
(i) राम खाकर चला गया।
(ii) राम खाना खाकर चला गया।
(iii) य ही राम ने खाना खाया, वह चला गया।
(iv) राम ने खाना खाया और बाहर चला गया।
(घ) न न ल खत वा य म संयु वा य है
1. उसक गाय काली है और वह खेत म चर रही है।
2. जो गाय काली है वही खेत म चर रही है।
3. खेत म चरने वाली गाय काली है।
4. यह काली गाय है पर वह खेत म चर रही है।
कू ट
(i) के वल 1 सही है
(ii) 2 और 3 सही ह
(iii) 3 और 4 सही ह
(iv) 1 और 4 सही है
(ङ) सूची I को सूची II के साथ सुमे लत क जए और सही वक प का चयन क जए।
सूची I सूची II
A. उसने मेहनत क और वह सफल आ। 1. सरल वा य
B. जो मेहनत करता है वह सफल होता है। 2. संयु वा य
C. मेहनती लोग सफल होते ह। 3. म वा य
कू ट
ABC
(i) 3 1 2
(ii) 2 3 1
(iii) 2 1 3
(iv) 1 2 3
4
4. ‘ ’
नदशानुसार वा य पर आधा रत पाँच ब वक पीय म से क ह चार के उ र 1X4=4
द जए।

(क) सूची I को सूची II के साथ सुमे लत क जए और सही वक प का चयन क जए।

सूची I सूची II
A. उसने मेहनत क और वह सफल आ। 1. भाववा य
B. जो मेहनत करता है वह सफल होता है। 2. कतृवा य
C. मेहनती लोग सफल होते ह। 3. कमवा य
कू ट
ABC
(i) 1 3 2
(ii) 2 1 3
(iii) 3 2 1
(iv) 3 1 2
(ख) इनम से भाववा य का उदाहरण है
(i) मेरे ारा गम म सोया नह जाएगा।
(ii) मुझसे इस गम म सोया नह जा सकता।
(iii) म इस गम म नह सोऊँगा।
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
(ग) इनम से कमवा य का उदाहरण है
(i) बालक ने खाना खाया।
(ii) बालक से खाया नह जाता।
(iii) बालक ारा खाना खाया गया।
(iv) बालक खाना खाता है।
(घ) “माली ने पौधा लगाया।” इसका कमवा य होगा
(i) माली को पौधा लगाना था।
(ii) माली से पौधा लगवाया जा सकता था।
(iii) माली ारा पौधा लगाया गया।
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
(ङ) ‘नौकर ारा घर क सफाई क जाती है।’ इसका कतृवा य होगा
(i) नौकर घर क सफाई करता है।
(ii) नौकर से घर क सफाई कराई गई।
(iii) नौकर को घर क सफाई करनी चा हए।
(iv) नौकर ारा घर क सफाई क गई।
5. नदशानुसार ‘पद प रचय’ पर आधा रत पाँच ब वक पीय म से क ह चार के 1X4=4
उ र द जए।

(क) प र म ही सफलता का मूल मं है। रेखां कत अंश का पद प रचय होगा

(i) जा तवाचक संज़ा, एकवचन, पु लग, कम कारक
(ii) भाववाचक संज़ा, एकवचन, पु लग, करण कारक
(iii) वाचक सं ा, एकवचन, पु लग, करण कारक
(iv) वाचक सं ा, एकवचन, पु लग, कम कारक
(ख) पजरे म बैठकर तोता गा रहा है। रेखां कत अंश का पद प रचय होगा
(i) पूवका लक या, री तवाचक या- वशेषण, वशे य या ‘गा रहा है’
(ii) वाचक सं ा, कता कारक, एकवचन, ी लग, ‘गा रहा है’ या का कता
5
 (iii) जा तवाचक सं ा, कता कारक, एकवचन, पु लग, ‘गा रहा है’ या का कता
(iv) वाचक सं ा, कम कारक, एकवचन, पु लग, ‘गा रहा है’ या का कता
(ग) मैने कसी से झगड़ा नह कया। रेखां कत अंश का पद प रचय होगा
(i) पु षवाचक सबनाम, एकवचन, कता कारक, ‘ कया’ या का कता
(ii) नजवाचक सवनाम, एकवचन, कता कारक, ‘ कया’ या का कता
(iii) न यवाचक सवनाम, एकवचन, कता कारक, ‘ कया’ या का कता
(iv) पु षवाचक सवनाम, ब वचन, कता कारक, ‘ कया’ या का कता
(घ) पतो से ही आग दलाई। रेखां कत अंश का पद प रचय होगा
(i) सकमक या, पु लग, वतमान काल, कतृवा य
(ii) अकमक या, पु लंग, वतमान काल, कतृवा य
(iii) अकमक या, पु लंग, वतमान काल, कमवा य
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
(ङ) जो बोएगा वही काटेगा। जो यहाँ है, वही आए। दोन वा म रेखां कत अंश का
पद प रचय होगा
(i) पहला जो-अ न यवाचक सवनाम, सरा जो-गुणवाचक वशेषण
(ii) पहला जो- न यवाचक सवनाम, सरा जो-सं यावाचक वशेषण
(iii) पहला जो-पु षवाचक सवनाम, सरा जो-प रमाणवाचक वशेषण
(iv) पहला जो-संबधं वाचक सवनाम, सरा जो-सावना मक वशेषण
6. नदशानुसार ‘अलंकार’ पर आधा रत पाँच ब वक पीय म से क ह चार के उ र 1X4=4
द जए।
(क) “डार म पलना बछौना नव प लव के , सुमन झगूला सोहै तन छ व भारी दे।” इन
का -पं य म यु अलंकार है
(i) षे
(ii) उ े ा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अ तशयो
(ख) “दा र थु न च ँ दशा सुहाई, वेद पढ़ ह जनु बटु समुदाई।” इन का -पं य म यु
अलंकार है
(i) षे
(ii) उ े ा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अ तशयो
(ग) “जान पड़ता है ने देख बड़े-बड़े हीर म गोल नीलम है जड़।” इस का -पं म यु
अलंकार है
(i) षे
(ii) उ े ा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अ तशयो
(घ) “पी तुमहारी मुख बास तरंग आज बौरे भौरे सहकार।” इन का -पं य म यु
अलंकार है
(i) षे
(ii) उ रे ा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अ तशयो
6
 (ङ) ‘बाँधा था वधु को कसने इन काली जंजीर म, म णवाले फ णय का मुख य भरा
आ है हीर से।’ इन का -पं य म यु अलंकार है
(i) षे
(ii) उ े ा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अ तशयो
7. न न ल खत प ठत ग ांश पर आधा रत ब वक पीय के सवा धक उपयु वक प 1X5=5
चुनकर ल खए।

- ,
अब हालदार साहब को बात कु छ कु छ समझ म आई। एक च मे वाला है जसका नाम
, ,
कै टन है। उसे नेताजी क बगैर च मे वाली मू त बुरी लगती है ब क आहत करती है मानो
-
च मे के बगैर नेताजी को असु वधा हो रही हो। इस लए वह अपनी छोट सी कान म
- ,
उपल गने चुने े म म से एक नेताजी क मू त पर फट कर दे ता है ले कन जब कोई
,
ाहक आता है और उसे वैसे ही े म क दरकार होती है जैसा मू त पर लगा है तो कै टन
:
च मे वाला मू त पर लगा े म संभवत नेताजी से मा माँगते ए लाकर ाहक को दे दे ता है
! !
और बाद म नेताजी को सरा े म लौटा दे ता है। वाह भई खूब या आइ डया है। ले कन
!
भाई एक बात अभी भी समझ म नह आई। हालदार साहब ने पान वाले से फर पूछा ,
?
नेताजी का ओ र जनल च मा कहाँ गया पान वाला सरा पान मुँह म ढूँ स चुका था। दोपहर
,‘ ’ - --
का समय था कान पर भीड़ भाड़ अ धक नह थी। वह फर आँख ही आँख म हँसा।
,
उसक त द थरक । क ये क डंडी फक पीछे मुड़कर उसने नीचे पीक थूक और मुसकराता
,
आ बोला मा टर बनाना भूल गया।

(क) हालदार साहब को कस वषय पर बात कु छ-कु छ समझ म आई थी?

(i) कै टन नाम एक च मे वाले का है
(ii) कै टन नाम का च मे वाला मू त पर च मे लगाता है
(iii) मू त नेताजी सुभाषचं बोस क थी
(iv) पानवाला कै टन च मे वाले के बारे म जानता था
(ख) कै टन को आहत करता/करती है
(i) नेताजी क बगैर च मे क मू त
(ii) नेताजी क च मे वाली मू त
(iii) मू त का रंग- प
(iv) मू त का बदलता च म
(ग) कै टन च मे वाला मू त से च मे कब बदलता था?
(i) जब ाहक को मू त पर लगा च मा पसंद आ जाता था
(ii) जब मू त पर लगा च मा टूट जाता था
(iii) जब वह च मा लगाना भूल जाता था
(iv) जब उसके पास च मे यादा होते थे
(घ) च मेवाला नेताजी से मा य माँगता था?
(i) सरा च मा पहनाते ए
(ii) च मा बेचते ए
(iii) उनके पास बैठते ए
(iv) मू त के पास से जाते ए
(ङ) कथन (A) कै टन च मे वाले क कान क वशेषता है।
कारण (R) कम सामान वाली छोट -सी च मे क कान है।
(i) कथन A गलत है, कतु कारण R सही है।
(ii) कथन A और कारण R दोन सही ह तथा कारण R कथन A क सही ा या है।

7
 (iii) कथन A और कारण R दोन सही ह, परंतु कारण R कथन A क सही ा या नह है।
(iv) कथन A और कारण R दोन ही गलत ह।
8. तज के ग पाठ के आधार पर न न ल खत दो ब वक पीय
वक प चुनकर ल खए।
के सवा धक उपयु
1X2=2
(क) ‘नेताजी का च मा’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए क सेनानी न होते ए भी च मे वाले को
कै टन य कहते थे?
(i) देशभ क भावना के कारण
(ii) च मे बेचने के कारण
(iii) नेताजी क मू व के कारण
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
(ख) ‘बालगो बन भगत’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए क भगत का कौन-सा नणय अटल
था?
(i) पतो क सरी शाद कराने का
(ii) पतो को अपने ही घर म रखने का
(iii) पतो को उसके भाई के साथ भेजने का
(iv) इनम से कोई नह
9. न न ल खत प ठत प ांश पर आधा रत ब वक पीय के सवा धक उपयु वक प 1X5=5
चुनकर ल खए।
नाथ संभध ु नु भंज नहारा।
होइ ह के उ एक दास तु हारा॥
आयेसु काह क हअ कन मोही।
सु न रसाइ बोले मु न कोही।।
सेवकु सो जो करै सेवकाई।
अ रकरनी क र क रअ लराई।
सुन राम जे ह सवधनु तोरा।
सहसबा सम सो रपु मोरा।।
सो बलगाउ बहाइ समाजा।
न त मारे जैह ह सब राजा।।
सु न मु नबचन लखन मुसुकाने।
बोले परसुधर ह अवमाने॥
ब धनुही तोरी ल रका ।
कब ँ न अ स रस क ह गोसाई।।
ये ह धनु पर ममता के ह हेतू।
सु न रसाइ कह भृगक ु ु लके तू।।
(क) परशुराम के ोध को शांत करने के लए राम ने उनसे या कहा?
(i) धनुष तोड़ने वाला कोई राजकु मार है
(ii) घनुष तोड़ने वाला आपका कोई सेवक होगा
(iii) धनुष तोडने वाला आपका कोई म होगा
(iv) यह धनुष अपने आप ट गया
(ख) वयंवर म जो धनुष टूट गया था, वह कसका था?
(i) राजा जनक का
(ii) राम जी का
(iii) व णु जी का
(iv) परशुराम जी के आरा य शवजी का
(ग) शव-धनुष टूटने पर परशुराम ो धत य ए?
(i) परशुराम शव-भ थे और उ ह शव-धनुष य था
(ii) उ ह सीता- वयंवर म आमं त नह कया गया था
8
 (iii) वे य कु ल के व ोही थे
(iv) परशुराम जी ोधी वभाव के थे
(घ) ‘सु न रसाइ कह भृगकु ु लके तू’ इस पं म ‘भृगुकुलके तू’ श द कसके लए योग
कया गया है?
(i) ल मण के लए
(ii) राजा जनक के लए
(iii) परशुराम के लए
(iv) व ा म के लए
(ङ) शव-थनुष तोड़ने वाले क तुलना परशुराम ने कससे क है?
(i) अपने श ु कण से
(ii) अपने श ु सहसबा से
(iii) अपने श ु व श मु न से
(iv) अपने श ु राजा जनक से
10. पा पु तक म न धा रत क वता के आधार पर न न ल खत दो ब वक पीय के 1X2=2
सवा धक उपयु वक प चुनकर ल खए।
( )‘ ’
क उ साह क वता म क व ने बादल को कस प म तुत कया है ?
(i)
नवयुवा के प म
(ii) ां त के सूचक के प म
(iii)
काले बाल के प म
(iv)खलते फू ल के प म

(ख) ीराम ारा शव-धनुष के टूटने के वषय म ल मण ने परशुराम को या सफाई पेश

क?
(i) धनुष क डोरी छोट होने के कारण यंचा चढ़ाते ए टूट गया
(ii) पुराना होने के कारण वह धनुष जजर हो गया था, इस लए टूट गया
(iii) धनुष अ धक भारी था, इस लए यंचा चढ़ाते ए टूट गया
(iv) ीराम ने तो इसे के वल छु आ था, पर यह छू ते ही टूट गया फर इसम ीराम का या
दोष

- (
खंड ख वणना मक )
11. ग पाठ के आधार पर न न ल खत चार म से क ह तीन के उ र लगभग 25- 2X3=6
30श द म ल खए।

(क) ‘नेताजी का च मा’ पाठ म शासन तं क काय णाली पर ं य कया गया है। उसे
अपने श द म ल खए।
(ख) बालगो बन भगत का अपने खेत क पैदावार को कबीरपंथी मठ पर जाकर चढ़ा देना
या कट करता है? पाठ ‘वालगो बन भगत’ के आधार पर उ र द जए।
(ग) ‘एक कहानी यह भी’ पाठ के आधार पर ले खका क माँ के वभाव को क जए।
(घ) ‘लखनवी अंदाज़’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए क नवाब साहब का वहार कस वग पर
ं य करता है?

12. नधा रत क वता के आधार पर न न ल खत चार

लगभग 25-30श द म ल खए।
म से क ह तीन के उ र 2X3=6
(क) क वता का शीषक ‘उ साह’ य रखा गया है? उ साह शीषक के ारा क व ने कस
मह वपूण त य क ओर संकेत कया है?
(ख) राम-ल मण परशुराम संवाद से हम ोध से बचने क श ा मलती है। क जए।
(ग) आपके पा म क कस क वता म क व ने बादल से फु हार, रम झम बरसने के ान
पर गरजने के लए कहा है? इस आ ान का या कारण है? अपने श द म ल खए।
(घ) ‘आ मक य’ क वता के आधार पर क व क या के सौदय का वणन क जए।
9
13. पूरक पा पु तक के पाठ पर आधा रत न न ल खत तीन म से क ह दो के 4X2=8
उ र लगभग 50-60 श द म ल खए।

(क) लेखक के मन म हरो शमा पर गरे अणु बम के कारण व ान के इस पयोग के त

व ोह था। उसके मन म एक ववशता का ज म आ। ‘म य लखता ’ँ पाठ के आधार
पर लेखक क इस भीतरी ववशता का वणन क जए।

(ख) पयावरण को संर त करना मनु य का नै तक कत है। इसे संर त करने म आपक
?‘ -
या भू मका हो सकती है साना साना हाथ जो ड़ पाठ को ’ म रखते ए उ र
ल खए।

(ग) ब े आपस म ए झगड़े, रोना-धोना आ द को मन म अ धक देर तक नह रखते।

‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ के आधार पर इस कथन पर उदाहरण स हत अपने वचार
क जए।

रचना मक लेखन
14. न न ल खत तीन वषय म से कसी एक वषय पर लगभग 120 श द म एक अनु ेद 6X1=6
ल खए।

(क) मी डया का वच व
संकेत ब :- भू मका ,मी डया के , ,
शंसनीय काय मी डया क उपयो गता रोजगार के
अवसर

(ख) मनोरंजन के हाई-टेक साधन

संकेत ब :– भू मका, टे ली वज़न, रे डयो, इंटरनेट, सनेमा

(ग) ै फक जाम म फँ सा म
संकेत ब :– ै फक क सम या का आधार, लोग क ज दबाज़ी और व ा क कमी,
सुधार के उपाय, अनुभव से सीख
15. सां दा यकता क सम या पर अपने वचार कट करते ए ‘ ह तान’ समाचार-प के 5X1=5
संपादक को लगभग 100 श द म एक प ल खए।
अथवा
आप स ाथ जैन/ समृ जैन ह। आप छा ावास म रहते ह। आपको पताजी से पता चला
क आपका छोटा भाई धू पान करता है। इस उ के दोष का उ लेख करते ए तथा उसे
इससे मु होने क सलाह दे ते ए लगभग 100 श द म एक प ल खए।
16. आप वैभव/वैभवी शु ला ह। आप एम.बी.बी.एस. कर चुके ह। आपको राजक य 5X1=5
च क सालय म च क सक के पद हेतु आवेदन करना है। इसके लए आप अपना एक
सं त ववृ (बायोडाटा) लगभग 80 श द म तैयार क जए।
अथवा
आप स लम / सलमा जावेद ह। आपने कसी कं पनी से ऑनलाइन सामान मँगवाया था पर
वह खराब नकला। कं पनी को सामान क जानकारी दे ते ए सही सामान भेजने हेतु एक ई-
मेल ल खए। (श द-सीमा लगभग 80 श द)।
17. आपके चाचा जी एक व ालय शशु व ा नके तन चलाते ह। वे चार- सार के लए 4X1=4
समाचार-प म व ापन दे ना चाहते ह। आप उसके लए लगभग 60 श द म एक
आकषक व ापन तैयार क जए।
अथवा
आप अनुराग जैन ह। आपके म का भारतीय सेना परी ा के ारा सै य पद पर चयन आ
है। इस अवसर पर आप म के लए लगभग 60
श द का शुभकामना संदेश ल खए।
10
11
Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

Sample Paper 26
Class X 2023-24
Science (086)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected
to attempt only one of these questions.
3. Section A consists of 20 Objective Type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the
range of 30 to 50 words.
5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should
in the range of 50 to 80 words.
6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should
be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION-A

Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1 – 20.

1. A student plots V-I graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3. Choose from the
following statement that holds true for this graph:

(a) R1 2 R2 2 R3
(b) R1 = R2 = R3
(c) R2 2 R1 2 R3
(d) R3 2 R2 2 R1

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

2.

Identify the correct option from the given table which represents the type of reactions occurring in step 1 and
step 2.

Option Endothermic Exothermic

a. û {
b. { û
c. { {
d. û û

3. The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so, if other parameters of the circuit
remain unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) half
(b) two times
(c) four times
(d) one-fourth

4. The image shows the reproductive organ in females.

Which event will likely occur in the ovaries of females after attaining puberty?
(a) Synthesis of eggs
(b) Fertilisation
(c) Growth and development of embryo
(d) Production of eggs

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

5. The given figures show movement seen in Mimosa pudica plant when it is touched.

Select the incorrect option regarding this.

(a) The movement is non-directional that occurs due to turgor changes.
(b) The movement is directional that involves growth.
(c) The movement is in response to touch and is called thigmonasty.
(d) The movement is immediate in response to stimulus.

6. When a fuse is rated at 8 A, it means:

(a) it will burn if current exceeds 8 A
(b) it will work only if current is 8 A
(c) it has a resistance of 8Ω
(d) it will not work if current is less than 8 A

7. Identify X, Y and Z respectively in the given reaction

(a) CH 2 = CH 2 , CH3COOH, CH3COOCH2CH3

(b) CH3COOH, CH 2 = CH 2 , CH3COOCH3
(c) CH3CH3, HCHO, CH3COOH
(d) HCHO, CH3CH3, CH3CH2COOH

8. How will you protect yourself from the heat generated while diluting a concentrated acid?
(a) By adding water to acid with constant stirring
(b) By adding acid to water with constant stirring
(c) By adding base to acid with constant stirring
(d) By adding water to acid followed by base

9. It is important to balance the chemical equations to satisfy the law of conservation of mass. Which of the following
statements of the law is incorrect?
(a) The number of atoms of each elements remains the same, before and after a chemical reaction.
(b) The total mass of the elements present in the reactants is equal to the total mass of the elements presents
in the products.
(c) Mass can neither be created nor can it be destroyed in a chemical reaction.
(d) The chemical composition of the reactants is the same before and after the reaction.

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

10. 50.0 mL of tap water was taken in a beaker. Hydrochloric acid was added drop by drop to water. The temperature
and pH of the solution was noted. The following graph was obtained. Choose the correct statements related to
this activity.

Volume of HCl added (ml).

(i) The process of dissolving an acid in water is highly endothermic.
(ii) The pH of the solution increases rapidly on addition of acid.
(iii) The pH of the solution decreases rapidly on addition of acid.
(iv) The pH of tap water was around 7.0
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

11. Observe the image of a single nephron.

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

The amount of liquid passing through in the form of glomerular filtrate is approximately 150-180 litres per day
whereas the amount of urine flowing out of all the nephrons is only 1.5 to 1.8 litres per day.
Water is getting reabsorbed.
In which part of the nephron could the water be getting reabsorbed?
(a) In the long tubular part
(b) In the Bowman’s cup
(c) In the glomerulus
(d) In the collecting duct

12. If the key in the arrangement is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines are drawn over the
horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are:

(a) elliptical in shape

(b) concentric circles
(c) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it
(d) straight lines parallel to each other

13. The two versions of a trait (character) which are brought in by the male and female gametes are situated on:
(a) two different chromosomes
(b) copies of the same chromosome
(c) any chromosome
(d) sex chromosomes

14. Which one of the following structures correctly depicts the compound CaCl2?

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

15. Carefully study the diagram of the human respiratory system with labels (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Select the option
which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

(a) (i) Trachea: It is supported by bony rings for conducting inspired air.
(b) (ii) Ribs: When we breathe out, ribs are lifted.
(c) (iii) Alveoli: Thin-walled sac like structures for exchange of gases.
(d) (iv) Diaphragm: It is pulled up when we breathe in.

16. The primary function of trachea is to provide air passage to the lungs for respiration. When we breathe in, ribs are
lifted and diaphragm is flattened. Observe the given diagram and identify the correct statements.

(i) At anode, oxygen gas is evolved.

(ii) In the test tube covering the anode, the amount of gas collected is double than that of the gas collected in
the test tube covering the cathode.
(iii) At cathode, hydrogen gas is evolved.
(iv) It is a decomposition reaction.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) All the statements are correct.
(d) (iii) and (iv)

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Page 7 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

Question no. 17 to 20 are Assertion-Reasoning based questions.

17. Assertion (A): In many reptiles, sex determination rely entirely on environmental factors.
Reason (R): The temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines whether the animal developing in the
eggs will be a male or female.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

18. Assertion (A): A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the compass needle
decreases when the magnitude of electric current in the wire increases.
Reason (R): The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a point increases as the current through the wire
increases.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A): Hydrochloric acid helps in the digestion of food in the stomach.
Reason (R): Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium to activate protein digesting enzymes.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

20. Assertion (A): 2H 2 S (g) + O 2 (g) $ 2S (s) + 2H 2 O (l) is a redox reaction.

Reason (R): In this reaction, oxidation of H2S to S and reduction of O2 to H2O takes place.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

SECTION-B

Question no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.

21. What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.


o
A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colours marked 1 to 7 as shown in the
diagram.

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Page 8 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

Which two positions correspond closely to the colour of

(i) a solution of potassium permanganate
(ii) danger or stop signal lights?

22. What is haemoglobin? State the consequences of deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies.

23. What is the difference between the organisms belonging to the first and the third trophic levels? Give one example
each of the organisms belonging to these two trophic levels.

24. Differentiate between an autotroph and a heterotroph.

25. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the type of reaction in each case.
(i) Nitrogen gas is treated with hydrogen gas in the presence of a catalyst at 773K to form ammonia gas.
(ii) Ethene is burnt in the presence of oxygen to form carbon dioxide, water and releases heat and light.


o
Blue litmus solution is added to two test tubes A and B containing dilute HCl and NaOH solution respectively. In
which test tube a colour change will be observed? State the colour change and give its reason.

26. Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes.

SECTION-C

Question no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.

27. The nature, size and position of image of an object produced by a lens or mirror are as shown below. Identify the
lens/mirror (X) used in each case and draw the corresponding complete ray diagram, (size of the object about
half of the image).

28. (i) State Snell’s law of refraction of light.

(ii) When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into a glass slab, it is observed that the, Light ray
emerges parallel to the incident ray but it is shifted sideways slightly. Draw a labelled ray diagram to
illustrate it.

29. (i) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines due to a magnetic field through and around a current carrying
circular loop.
(ii) Name and state the rule to find out the direction of magnetic field inside and around the loop.


o
What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of
(i) a current carrying solenoid and a bar magnet.
(ii) List two distinguishing features between the two fields.

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Page 9 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

30. You are given a white solid which is calcium carbonate, CaCO3.

(i) What happens to the white solid after heating?

(ii) What will you observe in the lime water during the heating process?
(iii) Write the reactions involved.

31. The graph shows how the pH of the soil in a farmer’s field changed over a period of time

(i) At which point A, B, C or D did the farmer apply lime to the field.
(ii) What is the importance of pH in our daily life?
(iii) Give two examples showing importance of neutralisation in our daily life.

32. (i) State the role played by the following in the process of digestion:
(a) Enzyme trypsin
(b) Enzyme lipase
(ii) List two functions of finger like projection present in the small intestine.


o
(i) Write the correct sequence of steps followed during journey of oxygen rich blood from lungs to various
organs of human body.
(ii) What happens when the system of blood vessels develop a leak?

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Page 10 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

33. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Suggest any three methods.

SECTION-D

Question no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.

34. Differentiate between the following:

(i) Pollen tube and style
(ii) fission in Amoeba and Plasmodium
(iii) Fragmentation and regeneration
(iv) Bud of Hydra and bud of Bryophyllum
(v) Vegetative propagation and spore formation


o
(i) What is puberty?
(ii) Describe in brief the functions of the following parts in the human male reproductive system:
(a) Testes
(b) Seminal vesicle
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Urethra
(iii) Why are testes located outside the abdominal cavity?
(iv) State how sperms move towards the female germ cell.

35. With the help of a diagram of experimental setup, describe an activity to show that the force acting on a current
carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field increases with increase in field strength.

36. The compounds methanal, ethanal, propanal and butanal belong to the homologous series called aldehydes. The
table shows some information on these four aldehydes.

Name Formula Boiling Point/°C Solubility in water

Methanal HCHO - 21 very soluble
Ethanal CH3CHO 21 very soluble
Propanal CH3CH2CHO 49 soluble
Butanal CH3CH2CH2CHO 76 slightly soluble
(i) List two characteristics of this homologous series using the information shown in the table.
(ii) Compare the molecular formulae of the four aldehydes listed in the table. What conclusion can you make?
(iii) Draw the electronic structure of ethanal. You need to show only the outer shell electrons.


o
(i) Compare soaps and detergents on the basis of their composition and cleansing action in hard water.
(ii) What happens when ethanol is treated with sodium metal? State the behaviour of ethanol in this reaction.
(iii) Draw the structure of cyclohexane.
(iv) Name the following compound

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Page 11 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

SECTION-E

Question no. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in
one of these sub-parts.

37. Manoj wanted to fix the rear-view mirror of his bike. He knows that rear-view mirror is an essential safety device
in the vehicle and allows him to see objects at the backside of his vehicle.

He bought two mirrors M1 and M2, out of which M1 is curved inwards and M2 is curved outwards.
(i) Based on the given situation, which mirror should Manoj need to fix as his rear-view mirror and why?
(ii) An object is placed at the centre of curvature of M1. Find the distance between its image and pole.
(iii) Manoj did some preliminary experiment with mirror M1 and found that magnification of the real image of
an object placed at 10 cm in front of it is 3, at what distance is the image located?


o
(iv) An object is placed 60 cm in front of M2. The image formed by the mirror is located 30 cm behind the
mirror. What is the object’s magnification?

38. When a silvery grey powder of a solid (A) is mixed with a powder of solid (B) no reaction occurs. But if the
mixture is ignited and lighted using magnesium ribbon a reaction occurs with evolution of large amount of heat
forming product (C) which settles down as liquid metal and the solid product (D) formed floats on the liquid (C)
in solid form reacts with moisture to form rust.
The amount of heat generated during the reaction is so high that the reaction is used in welding of electric
conductors, joints in railway tracks.
(i) Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D). Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction. Name the type of
reaction.
(ii) If (A) reacts with air on heating that will be the nature of oxide formed?


o
(iv) Does oxide of (A) react with aqueous NaOH and/or HCl. Give balanced chemical equations.

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Page 12 NODIA Sample Paper 26 CBSE Science Class 10

39. Sex determination is the method by which distinction between males and females is established in a species. The
sex of an individual is determined by specific chromosomes. These chromosomes are called sex chromosomes. X
and Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes. The normal chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes of an
individual are known as autosomes.

(i) A normal baby girl receives her X chromosome from whom: mother, father, both mother and father or either
from mother or father?
(ii) Which vital function is not controlled by autosomes?
(iii) A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of them having a girl next time?


o
(iv) Do genetic combination of mothers play a significant role in determining the sex of a new born?

******

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 DAV MODEL SCHOOL, ASANSOL
DA SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2
DAV MODEL
Class-SCHOOL,
SESSION X Session- KSTP,
2022-23
2023-2024
ASANSOL
MATHEMATICS
Subject- Mathematics (Standard)
CLASS X
Sample Question Paper
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-
parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs
of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has
been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

SECTION A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

S.NO MA
. RKS
1 Let a and b be two positive integers such that a = p3q4 and b = p2q3 , where p and q are 1
prime numbers. If HCF(a,b) = pmqn and LCM(a,b) = prqs, then (m+n)(r+s)=
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 72

2 Let p be a prime number. The quadratic equation having its roots as factors of p is 1
(a) x2 –px +p=0 (b) x2–(p+1)x +p=0 (c) x2+(p+1)x +p=0 (d) x2 –px+p+1=0

3 If α and β are the zeros of a polynomial f(x) = px2 – 2x + 3p and α + β = αβ, then p is 1

(a)-2/3 (b) 2/3 (c) 1/3 (d) -1/3

4 If the system of equations 3x+y =1 and (2k-1)x +(k-1)y =2k+1 is inconsistent, then k = 1
(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2

5 If the vertices of a parallelogram PQRS taken in order are P(3,4), Q(-2,3) and R(-3,-2), 1
then the coordinates of its fourth vertex S are
(a) (-2,-1) (b) (-2,-3) (c) (2,-1) (d) (1,2)

6 ∆ABC~∆PQR. If AM and PN are altitudes of ∆ABC and ∆PQR respectively and 1

AB2: PQ2 = 4 : 9, then AM: PN =
(a) 3:2 (b) 16:81 (c) 4:9 (d) 2:3
7 If x tan 60° cos 60° = sin60° cot 60° , then x = 1
(a) cos30° (b) tan30° (c) sin30° (d) cot30°

8 If sinθ + cosθ = √2, then tanθ + cot θ = 1

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

9 In the given figure, DE ∥ BC, AE = a units, EC =b units, DE =x units and BC = y 1

units. Which of the following is true?

𝑎+𝑏 𝑎𝑥 𝑎𝑦 𝑥 𝑎
(a) x= (b) y= 𝑎+𝑏 (c) x= 𝑎+𝑏 (d) 𝑦 = 𝑏
𝑎𝑦

10 ABCD is a trapezium with AD ∥ BC and AD = 4cm. If the diagonals AC and BD 1

intersect each other at O such that AO/OC = DO/OB =1/2, then BC =
(a) 6cm (b) 7cm (c) 8cm (d) 9cm

11 If two tangents inclined at an angle of 60ᵒ are drawn to a circle of radius 3cm, then the 1
length of each tangent is equal to
(a)
3√3
cm (b) 3cm (c) 6cm (d) 3√3cm
2
12 The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of 6cm is 1
(a) 36π cm2 (b) 18π cm2 (c) 12 π cm2 (d) 9π cm2

13 The sum of the length, breadth and height of a cuboid is 6√3cm and the length of its 1
diagonal is 2√3cm. The total surface area of the cuboid is
(a) 48 cm2 (b) 72 cm2 (c) 96 cm2 (d) 108 cm2

14 If the difference of Mode and Median of a data is 24, then the difference of median 1
and mean is
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 36

15 The number of revolutions made by a circular wheel of radius 0.25m in rolling a 1

distance of 11km is
(a) 2800 (b) 4000 (c) 5500 (d) 7000

16 For the following distribution, 1

Class 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25

Frequency 10 15 12 20 9
the sum of the lower limits of the median and modal class is
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35
17 Two dice are rolled simultaneously. What is the probability that 6 will come up at least 1
once?

(a)1/6 (b) 7/36 (c) 11/36 (d) 13/36

18 5 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽−2 cos 𝛽 1
If 5 tanβ =4, then =
5 sin 𝛽+2 cos 𝛽

(a) 1/3 (b) 2/5 (c) 3/5 (d) 6

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option
1
19 Statement A (Assertion): If product of two numbers is 5780 and their HCF is 17, then
their LCM is 340

Statement R( Reason) : HCF is always a factor of LCM

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A)

(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A)

(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

1
20 Statement A (Assertion): If the co-ordinates of the mid-points of the sides AB and AC
of ∆ABC are D(3,5) and E(-3,-3) respectively, then BC = 20 units

Statement R( Reason) : The line joining the mid points of two sides of a triangle is
parallel to the third side and equal to half of it.

(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A)

(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A)

(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.

 SECTION B

Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.

S.No. Marks
21 If 49x+51y= 499, 51 x+49 y= 501, then find the value of x and y 2

22 AD AC 2
In the given figure below, AE = BD and ∠1 = ∠2. Show that ∆ BAE~ ∆CAD .

23 In the given figure, O is the centre of circle. Find ∠AQB, given that PA and PB are 2
tangents to the circle and ∠APB= 75°.

24 2
The length of the minute hand of a clock is 6cm. Find the area swept by it when it moves
from 7:05 p.m. to 7:40 p.m.

OR
In the given figure, arcs have been drawn of radius 7cm each with vertices A, B, C
and D of quadrilateral ABCD as centres. Find the area of the shaded region.
25 If sin(A+B) =1 and cos(A-B)= √3/2, 0°< A+B ≤ 90° and A> B, then find the 2
measures of angles A and B.

OR

cosθ − sin θ 1−√3

Find an acute angle θ when = 1+√3
cosθ+sin θ

SECTION C

Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

S.No Marks
26 Given that √3 is irrational, prove that 5 + 2√3 is irrational. 3

27 If the zeroes of the polynomial x2 +px +q are double in value to the zeroes of the 3
polynomial 2x2 -5x -3, then find the values of p and q.

28 3
A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train would have been 6 km/h
faster, it would have taken 4 hours less than the scheduled time. And, if the train were
slower by 6 km/hr ; it would have taken 6 hours more than the scheduled time. Find the
length of the journey.

OR
Anuj had some chocolates, and he divided them into two lots A and B. He sold the first
lot at the rate of ₹2 for 3 chocolates and the second lot at the rate of ₹1 per chocolate, and
got a total of ₹400. If he had sold the first lot at the rate of ₹1 per chocolate, and the
second lot at the rate of ₹4 for 5 chocolates, his total collection would have been ₹460.
Find the total number of chocolates he had.

29 Prove the following that- 3

tan3θ + cot3θ = secθ cosecθ – 2 sinθ cosθ

1+ tan2θ 1+ cot2θ

30 Prove that a parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus 3

OR
 In the figure XY and X'Y' are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another
tangent AB with point of contact C interesting XY at A and X'Y' at B, what is the
measure of ∠AOB.

31 Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting 3

(i) At least one head?
(ii) At most one tail?
(iii) A head and a tail?

SECTION D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.
S.No Marks
32 5
To fill a swimming pool two pipes are used. If the pipe of larger diameter used for 4 hours
and the pipe of smaller diameter for 9 hours, only half of the pool can be filled. Find, how
long it would take for each pipe to fill the pool separately, if the pipe of smaller diameter
takes 10 hours more than the pipe of larger diameter to fill the pool?
OR

In a flight of 600km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed
for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr from its usual speed and the time of the flight
increased by 30 min. Find the scheduled duration of the flight.

33 Prove that if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle intersecting the other 5
two sides in distinct points, then the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.

Using the above theorem prove that a line through the point of intersection of the
diagonals and parallel to the base of the trapezium divides the non parallel sides in
the same ratio.
34 Due to heavy floods in a state, thousands were rendered homeless. 50 schools 5

collectively decided to provide place and the canvas for 1500 tents and share the
whole expenditure equally. The lower part of each tent is cylindrical with base
radius 2.8 m and height 3.5 m and the upper part is conical with the same base
radius, but of height 2.1 m. If the canvas used to make the tents costs ₹120 per m2,
find the amount shared by each school to set up the tents.
OR
There are two identical solid cubical boxes of side 7cm. From the top face of the first cube
a hemisphere of diameter equal to the side of the cube is scooped out. This hemisphere is
inverted and placed on the top of the second cube’s surface to form a dome. Find
(i) the ratio of the total surface area of the two new solids formed
(ii) volume of each new solid formed.

5
The median of the following data is 525. Find the values of x and y, if the total
35
frequency is 100
Class interval Frequency
0−100 2
100−200 5
200−300 x
300−400 12
400−500 17
500−600 20
600−700 y
700−800 9
800−900 7
900−1000 4

SECTION E
Case study based questions are compulsory.

36 A tiling or tessellation of a flat surface is the covering of a plane using one or more geometric
shapes, called tiles, with no overlaps and no gaps. Historically, tessellations were used in
ancient Rome and in Islamic art. You may find tessellation patterns on floors, walls, paintings
etc. Shown below is a tiled floor in the archaeological Museum of Seville, made using
squares, triangles and hexagons.
A craftsman thought of making a floor pattern after being inspired by the above design. To
ensure accuracy in his work, he made the pattern on the Cartesian plane. He used regular
octagons, squares and triangles for his floor tessellation pattern

Use the above figure to answer the questions that follow: 1

(i) What is the length of the line segment joining points B and F?
(ii) The centre ‘Z’of the figure will be the point of intersection of the diagonals of 1
quadrilateral WXOP. Then what are the coordinates of Z?
(iii) What are the coordinates of the point on y axis equidistant from A and G? 2

OR
What is the area of Trapezium AFGH?
37 The school auditorium was to be constructed to accommodate at least 1500 people. The
chairs are to be placed in concentric circular arrangement in such a way that each succeeding
circular row has 10 seats more than the previous one.

(i) If the first circular row has 30 seats, how many seats will be there in the 10th row? 1

(ii) For 1500 seats in the auditorium, how many rows need to be there?
2
OR
If 1500 seats are to be arranged in the auditorium, how many seats are still left to
be put after 10th row?

(iii) If there were 17 rows in the auditorium, how many seats will be there in the
1
middle row?

38 We all have seen the airplanes flying in the sky but might have not thought of how they
actually reach the correct destination. Air Traffic Control (ATC) is a service provided by
ground-based air traffic controllers who direct aircraft on the ground and through a given
section of controlled airspace, and can provide advisory services to aircraft in non-controlled
airspace. Actually, all this air traffic is managed and regulated by using various concepts
based on coordinate geometry and trigonometry.
At a given instance, ATC finds that the angle of elevation of an airplane from a point on the
ground is 60°. After a flight of 30 seconds, it is observed that the angle of elevation changes
to 30°. The height of the plane remains constantly as 3000√3 m. Use the above information to
answer the questions that follow- 1
(i) Draw a neat labelled figure to show the above situation diagrammatically.
2
(ii) What is the distance travelled by the plane in 30 seconds?
OR
Keeping the height constant, during the above flight, it was observed that after
15(√3 -1) seconds, the angle of elevation changed to 45°. How much is the
distance travelled in that duration.
1
(iii) What is the speed of the plane in km/hr.
 DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024
Class: X Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: Social Science Time: 3 Hrs

General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the
questionpaper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each.Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer toeach question should not exceed 60 words
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer toeach question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History
(2 marks)and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii.There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in fewquestions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

Q.N Question Marks

o.

SECTION-A
Multiple Choice Questions (Q 1 to 20) 2X4=8
1. 1. Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order: 1

(i) Coming of Simon Commission to India

(ii) INC Session Dec 1920
(iii) Government of India Act, 1919
(iv) Chauri Chaura Incident
Option:-
A. (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)
B. (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)
C. (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)
D. (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)
2. What does the ‘Silk Route’ refer to? 1
(a) Present-day West Asia
(b) West-bound Chinese silk cargoes
(c) Introduction of humble potato
(d) Both (a) and (b)

1
3. Arrange the following in the correct sequence. 1
(i) Martin Luther’s ‘Ninety-five Theses.’
(ii) First book printed by Johann Gutenberg ‘Bible’
(iii) Vernacular Press Act
(iv) Old Japanese Book ‘Diamond Sutra’
(a) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)
(c) (iv)-(ii)-(i)-(iii)
(d) (i)-(ii)-(iv)-(iii)
4. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the declaration by Mahatma Gandhi 1
in his book- Hind Swaraj?
1. British ruled India because the latter was militarily weak.
2. British ruled India because Indians cooperated with them.
3. British ruled India because they got international support.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 only
D.1 and 3
5. There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the 1
statements and choose the correct option.
A: Many artists and poets within Europe made paintings and wrote poems to highlight the
plight of Greeks under the Ottoman empire.
R: Many Europeans had sympathies for ancient Greek culture and supported the work of
Greek nationalists.
1.A is true but R is false,
2.A is false but R is true.
3. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
4. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
6. Match the column and choose the right option. 1
Column-1 Column-2
a) Ferrous i) platinum
b) Non ferrous ii) iron ore
c) Precious iii) bauxite
d) Non metallic iv) granite
Options:
A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
C) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
D) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
7. Rekha gave her friends three clues about a type of mineral – 1
1) Essential for smelting iron ore in the blast furnace.
2) Basic raw material for the cement industry.
3) Found in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Andra Pradesh.
What mineral is being referred to by Rekha?
8. Students were given two conditions . 1
i. In a democracy all power does not rest with any one organs of a state.
2
 ii. An intelligent distribution of power among legislature ,executive and
judiciary is very important.
What idea of power put forward to students.
A. Monarchy, B. Majoriatarianism.
C. Power sharing, D.None of these
9. When Maya saw the pre – independence map of India, she found that in 1947 1
many old States have vanished and many new States have been created. Why were new
states created?
i. To establish a single unified language across the country.
ii. To recognize differences based on culture, language, geography.
iii. To eliminate the concept of states and establish unitary govt.
iv. None of these.
10. Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics: Communal 1
politics is based on the belief that
A. One religion is superior to that of others.
B. People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.
C. Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
D. State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group over
others.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and D
(c) A and C
(d) B and D
11. Assertion : The economic strength of the country is measured by the development 1
of manufacturing industries.
Reason : India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its manufacturing industries.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
12. DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable : 1
(a) If both assertion and reason are true of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion : It is very simple to make the changes in the basic structure of the constitution.
Reason : Both the houses have power to amend the constitution independently.
13. Some states were created not on the basis of language but to recognise 1
differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography. Examples of such states
are_________
i) Jharkhand
ii) Uttarakhand
iii) Nagaland

3
 iv) All of the above
14. Rule of law is the feature of which form of government? 1
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Democracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) All of these
15. Read the statements and choose the appropriate option 1
Assertion (A): different people have different development goals.
Reason (R): people want freedom equality security and respect.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. c) A is true but R is
false.
d) A is false but R is true
16. In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from _______ to ______ 1
in developed countries. This has become the most important in terms of total
production.
a) secondary to the tertiary sector
b) primary to the tertiary sector
c) primary to the secondary sector
d) none of the above
17. Sumita has surplus money, so she opens a bank account and deposits in it. 1
Whenever she needs money, she can withdraw from there.
What is the name given to this kind of deposit with the banks?
(a) Demand deposit
(b) Term deposit
(c) Fixed deposit
(d) Surplus deposit
18. Rita and Sita are small farmers. Rita has taken credit of Rs. 20,000 at 1.5% per 1
month from a money lender while Sita has taken the same amount credit at
8%per annum from a bank. Which source of credit is profitable?
(a) Money lender, because there is no paperwork.
(b) Bank, because interest is less.
(c) Money lender, because not asked any collateral.
(d) Both are same.
19. Assertion (A) Under MNREGA 2005, those who are able to and are in need to work in 1
rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year.
Reason (R) The Central Government in India made a law implementing the
Right to Work in about 625 districts of India.
(A) both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
(B) both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

4
 (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is correct.
20. The economy is classified into public and private sectors on the basis of 1
(a) employment conditions
(b) the nature of economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) number of workers employed in the enterprise
SECTION-B
Very Short Answer Question (Q 21 to 24)
21. In north India, the ulama were deeply anxious about the collapse of Muslim 2
dynasties. They feared that colonial rulers would encourage conversion,
change the Muslim personal laws. Mention any two steps taken by them to
counter this.
22. What are the millets? Why are millets very important crops of India? 2
23. Explain any two recent efforts made to reform political parties in India. 2
24. What do you understand by globalisation ? Explain in your own words. 2
SECTION-C
Short Answer Based Question (Q 25 to 29)
25. Do you think Gandhiji played any significant role to elevate the status of Dalits and 3
encouraged them to participate in Indian national movement?
26. How did Romanticism seek to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiments during 3
18th century?
27. Scarcity of which resource is shown in the picture? Suggest methods to reduce thescarcity 3
of this resource.

OR
Write any three methods of rainwater harvesting in India with suitable examples.
28. The fundamental interests of the followers of a particular religion are the same. But 3
this belief is fundamentally flawed. Can you suggest reasons, why so?
29. Why is it necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase their 3
lending facilities in rural areas? Give any three relevant points.
SECTION-D
Long Answer Based Question (Q 30 to 33)
30. How did Balkan region become a source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871? 5
OR
Highlight the various measures and practices that French revolutionaries introduced to
create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
31. In what respects are the criteria used by the UNDP for measuring development different 5
from the one used by the World Bank?

5
 OR
Imagine yourself as one of the heads of the states attending the International Earth
Summit at Rio-de Janeiro, Brazil and suggest some methods for environment
protection.
32. ‘Power sharing is the essence of a democratic government.’ Examine the statement. 5
OR
What do you mean by Majoritarianism ? How did it cause ‘Civil War’ in Sri Lanka ?
33. Is it correct to say that environmental degradation is not just a national issue ? Illustrate 5
with examples.
OR
“Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of economic
development”. Justify the statement.
SECTION-E
Case Based Question (Q 34 to 36)
34. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows. 1+1+2=
4
Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the
authorities realised that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an
estimated 55,000 at the turn of the century. The major threats to tiger
population are numerous, such as poaching for trade, shrinking habitat,
depletion of prey base species, growing human population, etc. The trade of
tiger skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in
the Asian countries left the tiger population on the verge of extinction. Since
India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger
population in the world, these two nations became prime targets for poaching
and illegal trading.
1. What did authorities realised in year 1973 about Tiger ?
2. Which two countries provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving
tiger population in the world ?
3. The major threats to tiger population are numerous. Discuss.
35. • Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism but these 1+1+2=
are not sufficient. If the federal experiment has succeeded in India, it is not 4
merely because of the clearly laid out constitutional provisions. The real
success of federalism in India can be attributed to the nature of democratic
politics in our country. This ensured that the spirit of federalism, respect for
diversity and desire for living together became shared ideals in our country.
Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one
language. The formation of linguistic states united the country and made
administration easier. The leaders of our country adopted a very cautious
attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. Hindi was identified as official language.
Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognized as scheduled languages
by the Constitution.Our Constitution did not give the status of national
language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language.
According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to
stop in 1965.The central government responded by agreeing to continue the
use of English along with Hindi for official purposes.
• 1. What is language policy in Indian Constitution?
• 2. How many scheduled languages are there in India?
• 3. Why could not the use of English as an official language be stopped after
1965? Is Hindi is national language of India?

6
36. Study the source given below and answer the questions that follows: 1+1+2=
4
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the
employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very
slowly. It is also common to find many organised sector enterprises in the
unorganised sector. They adopt such strategies to evade taxes and refuse to
follow laws that protect labourers. As a result, a large number of workers are
forced to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary.
They are often exploited and not paid a fair wage. Their earnings are low and
not regular. These jobs are not secure and have no other benefits.
19.1 Why are organised sector jobs preferred?
19.2 Why do some organised sector enterprises work as the unorganised
sector?
19.3 How are the workers in the unorganised sector exploited?
SECTION-F
Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b)
37 A Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India Identify them 2+3=5
and write their correct names of the place on the lines drawn near them.
I. The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.
II. The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in September,
1920.

37 B On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following:
(a) One of the oldest artificial port of the country which is ranked next to Mumbai.
(b) Deepest land locked and well protected port.
(c) Porbandar

7
8