Pharmaglimps Mock 2

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SAHDEV PARMAR
PHARMAGLIMPS’ MOCK 2
Q.1 Coulter counter is based on determination of
(A) Particle surface area (B) Particle size
(c) Particle volume (D) all of A,B,C
Q.2 The requirements and guidelines for clinical trials , import and manufacture of
new drugs as per the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules is given under Schedule
(A) N (B) Y (B) A (D) M
Q.3 Steroidogenesis is side effect of
(A) Ketoconazole (B) Econazole
(C) Miconazole (D) Fluconazole
Q.4 Relapsing malaria is caused by
(A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Plasmodium falciparum
(C) Plasmodium ovale (D) Both A and C
Q.5 Which drug reduce the incidence of River blindness or Onchocereal blindness
(A) Levamisol (B) Ivermectin
(C) Niclosamide (D) piperazine
Q.6 P-glycoprotein transport inhibitor
(A) Verapamil (B) Benzimidazol
(C) Chloroquine (D) All of above
Q.7 Haemorrhagic cystitis is the side effect of
(A) Nitrosoureas (B) Cyclophosphamide
(C) Ifosfamide (D) B and C both
Q.8 Which form of drug is widely used in suspension manufacture
(A) Stable (B) Unstable
(C) Metastable (D) Both B and C
PHARMAGLIMPS- A GLIMPSE OF PHARMACY

Page 1
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.9 “LARIAGO” contains ;
(A)Quinine (B) Mefloquine
(C) Chloroquine (D) primaquine.
Q.10 Mech. Of action of Campothecin is by
(A) Inhibiting Topoisomerase I (B) Inhibiting Topoisomerase II
(C) Inhibiting DNA gyrase (D) Both A n B
Q.11 Photooxidation is example of
(A) 1ST Order degradation (B) Pseudo 1st order degradation
(C)Zero order degradation (D) Psedo zero order
Q.12 Electrokinetic potential is
(A)Potential at surface of particle (B) Potential at shear plane
(C) Zeta potential (D) Both B and C
Q.13 Which one of the following is not derived property of powder
(A)Density (B) Surface area
(C)Porosity (D) All of the above.
Q.14 Deflocculated suspensions show which type of flow behaviour
(A) Thixotropic (B) Dilatant
(C) Shear Thinning (D) Both A and C.
Q.15 Brij 35 is
(A) Polyoxyethylene lauryl ether (B) Polyoxyethylene monostearate
(C) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaurate (D) Tween 20.
Q.16 Mycolic acid inhibitor among following is
(A) Rifampicin (B) Pyrazinamide
(C) Isoniazid (D) Both B and C
Q.17 HLB of gelatin is
(A)9.8 (B)13.3
(C)13.2 (D) 6.8

Page 2
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.18 Which of the following is Atypical sulphonamide
(A) Sulphacetamide (B) Mafenide
(C) Sulfamoxole (D) None of above
Q.19 Bulges are shown by
(A)Bentonite gel (B) Penicillin
(C)procainamide gel (D) Flocculated suspension.
Q.20 Test organism for Erythromycin Assay is
(A) Bacillus subtilis (B)Bacillus pumilus
(C) Micrococcus luteus (D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q.21 Test organism for Bacitracin Assay is
Q.22 Test organism for Amikacin Assay is
Q.23 Optimum value of BLOOM STRENGTH should be
(A) 50-100 g (B)100-150 g
(C)150-250 g (D) more than 250 g
Q.24 Lecithin is __________ surfactant.
(A) Anionic (B)Non ionic
(C) Cationic (D) Amphoteric
Q.25 Neuraminidase inhibitors among following is
(A) Indinavir (B)Oseltamivir
(C) Retonavir (D) All of the above
Q.26 Aerosol propellant “114” is
(A)Dichlorotetrafloroethane (B)Tetrachloroethane
(C)Diclorodifloro ethane (D) Dichlorodifloromethane.

Page 3
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.27 Carr’s index for excellent flow is
(A) 5-15 (B) 12-16
(C) 18-21 (D) >40
Q.28 Hausner index is:
(A)Poured density ÷Tapped density (B) Tapped density÷ Poured density
(C)(Tapped-poured) ÷Tapped density (D) None of the above.
Q.29 Sulphonamides are included all of the following class except
(A) Diuretic (B) Antileprotics
(C) Oral hypoglycemics (D) None of the above
Q.30 1st line drug to treat pneumocystis carinii caused infection is,
(A) Penicillin (B) Cephalosporin
(C)Co-trimoxazole (D) Tetracycline.
Q.31 Drug which cause nephrotoxicity as side effect is
(A) Cepheloridine (B) Vancomycin
(C)Both A and B (D) None of the above
Q.32 Drug which cause ototoxicity is
(A) Furosemide (B) Minocycline
(C)Streptomycin (D) All of the above
Q.33 Drug that act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis is
(A) Clindamycin (B)Polymyxin B
(C) Colistin (D) Vancomycin
Q.34 Tyndallisation is
(A) 800C for 3 days(20 min) (B) 600C for 3days(20 min)
(C) 1200 C for 3 days(20 min) (D) None of the above
Q.35 Validation of moist heat sterilisation is done using
(A) Bacillus subtilis (B) Bacillus cogulans
(C) Bacillus niger (D) Clostridium sporogens

Page 4
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.36 Wavelength used for non ionising UV radiation is near
(A) 275 nm (B) 200 nm
(C) 250 nm (D) 300 nm
Q.37 Validation of sterilisation by filteration process is done via
(A) Clostridium sporogens (B) Serrata marcesens
(C) Bubble point pressure test (D) Both B and C
Q.38 Pore size of HEPA filters is
(A) 3 micron (B) 0.3 micron
(C) 0.03 micron (D) .003 micron
Q.39 Schedule P states
(A) Packaging requirement (B) Life period of drug
(C) Patent or Proprietary medicines (D) List of Pigments
Q.40 Vaccines and Sera are covered under which schedule
(A) Schedule X (B) Schedule C
(C) Schedule G (D)Schedule H
Q.41 Drug Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) is constituted by_______and consist of

____________members.
(A) Central Govt and 18 members (B) Central Govt. And 16 members
(C) State Govt. And 18 members (D) State Govt. And 16 members
Q.42 Schedule “k” states
(A) Minimum equipment required for running pharmacy
(B) Drugs exempted from certain provision relating to manufacture of drugs
(C) Disease or ailment which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure
(D)List of drugs exempted from the provision of import.
Q.43 Following are official test for tablets except
(A) Disintegration (B) Dissolution
(C) Friability (D) None of the above

Page 5
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.44 USP type II apparatus is
(A) Paddle (B) Paddle over disc
(C) Flow through cell (D) All of the above
Q.45 Ampicillin can not be co administered with
(A) Furosemide (B) Aspirin
(C) oral contraceptives (D) Streptomycin
Q.46 Flow through cell is U.S.P
(A) Type III Apparatus (B) Type IV Apparatus
(C) Type V Apparatus (D) Type VI apparatus
Q.47 Edges of tablets are rounded off in which step of coating
(A) Syrup coating (B) Sub coating
(C) Seal coating (D) Polishing
Q.48 Solvent used widely to dissolve wax during polishing
(A) Ethylcellulose (B)Cyclohexane
(C) Naptha (D)Ethyl alcohol
Q.49 Poly Vinyl Pyrrolidone grade VA64 act as
(A) Super disintegrant (B) Binder
(C) Film forming agent (D) All of the above
Q.50 Orange Peel Effect is due to
(A)High viscosity of coating solution (B) Overwetting of tablet
(C) Rapid escape of solvent (D)Rapid migration of color.
Q.51 Ratio of dry glycerine to dry gelatine for Hard capsule should be
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6
(C) 0.8 (D) 1.0
Q.52 What is the proportion of NaCl required to render a 1.5% solution of drug isotonic with blood plasma?
The freezing point of 1 % w/v solution of drug is -0.122oC and that of NaCl is -0.576oC.
(A) 0.65% (B) 0.585%
(C) 0.9% (D) 0.5%

Page 6
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.53 Isoniazid is primary antiTB drug which requires
(A)Pyridoxine supplement (B) Vitamin C supplement
(C)Riboflavin supplement (D) Vitamin A supplement
Q.54 Adenosine deaminase inhibitor is
(A) Pentostatin (B) Simvastatin
(C)Lovastatin (D) Atorvastatin
Q.55 Which drug have a disulfiram like effect
(A)Procarbazine (B) Mitomycin
(C)Dactinomycin (D) Hydroxycarbamide
Q.56 Aromatase inhibitor are
(A)Anastrazole (B) Exemestane
(C) letrozole (D) All of the above
Q.57 FMN and FAD is coenzyme of Vitamin
(A)B1 (B) B2
(C)B7 (D) B12
Q.58 Kiliani Fisher synthesis is
(A)Chain length of an aldose is increased by 1 carbon
(B) chain length of aldose is decreased by one carbon
(C) Reduction of glucose
(D) oxidation of glucose
Q.59 Glucose have ______ total isomers
(A)4 (B)8
(C)16 (D) 32
Q.60 α and β D-Glucose are____________of each other
(A)|Epimer (B) Geographical sterioisomers
(C)Anomer (D) Conformational isomers

Page 7
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.61 Tag open cup apparatus is used for measurement of
(A) Flame projection (B) Flame point
(C) Flash light (D) Flame intensity
Q.62 p53 is called as
(A) Guardian of the cell (B) Guardian of the genome
(C)Both (D) Destructor of the cell
Q.63 Imipenem is given with
(A)Pentosttin (B) Cilastatin
(C)Lovastatin (D) Rosvastatin
Q.64 Lupus erythromatus is the side effect of
(A)Quinine (B) Choloquinine
(C)Procainamide (D)All of above
Q.65 Agranulocytosis is the side effect of
(A)Choloquine (B) Amodiaquine
(C)primaquine (D) All of above
Q.66 Cefotaxime is _________ generation cephalosporin
(A) 1st (B) 2nd
(C)3rd (D) 4th
Q.67 Active form of chloramphenicol is
(A)D-Erythro (B) D-Threo
(C)L-Erythro (D) L-Threo
Q.68 Inhibitors of HIV Fusion with host cell is
(A)Ribavarin (B) Enfurvirtide
(C) Amantadine (D) Rimantidine
Q.69 Pegylated interferons(IFNs) is mixture of
(A) PG + IFNs (B) PEG + IFNs
(C) PVC + IFNs (D) Glycerol + IFNs

Page 8
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.70 Which drug is used only for extraintestinal amoebiasis
(A)Metronidazole (B) Chloroquine
(C) Quiniodochlor (D) Tetracycline
Q.71 “SMON” is caused by
(A)Metronidazole (B) Chloroquine
(C) Quiniodochlor (D) Tetracycline
Q.72 Identification of propellant is done by
(A)GC (B) IR
(C)HPLC (D) Both A and B
Q.73 Probability of non sterility is given by
(A)No (B) Nu
(C)Z (D) D
Q.74 Microbial population was reduced from 2X105 to 6X103 in 5 min. “D ” value is
(A) 5 min (B) 6.28 min
(C) 3.28 min (D) can’t be calculated
Q.75 Ethylene oxide acts as sterilizing agent by
(A) Oxidation (B) Alkylation
(C)Coagulation (D) All of above
Q.76 “CHAGAS” disease caused by
(A)Trypnosoma rhodesiense (B) Trypnosoma gambiense
(C) Trypnosoma cruzi (D) Leishmania donovani
Q.77 Aminoglycoside show a side effect except
(A) Hepatotoxicity (B) Neuromuscular blockage
(C) Ototoxicity (D) None of above
Q.78 β lactamase resistant penicillin is
(A) Cloxacillin (B) Clavulanic acid
(C)Sulbactam (D) Tolbactam

Page 9
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.79 Monobactam antibiotic is
(A)Aztreonam (B) Imipenam
(C)Meripenam (D) All of above
Q.80 Which Vitamin is known as “Anti-egg White injury factor”
(A)B1 (B) B2
(C)B7 (D) B12
Q.81 Simethicone is component of several antacid formulation, chemically it is
(A) Wax (B) Fat
(C)Silicon (D) Alginates
Q.82 All of the following physiochemical constants are used in predicting solubility of drug except
(A) pka of drug (B) pH of solution
(C) Valency (D) Dielectric constant
Q.83 D-Fructose on simple reduction gives
(A) L-Fructose (B) Sorbitol
(C)Mannitol (D) both B and C
Q.84 pH of Buffer system is calculated using
(A) pH Partition theory (B) Michaelis Menton equation
(C)Handerson Hasselbalch equation (D) Noyes whitney equation
Q.85 Range of particle size for colloidal dispersion is
(A)Less than 1 nm (B) 0.5µm-1 nm
(C)1-5 µm (D) > 5 µm
Q.86 Molecular weight of colloid can be calculated using
(A)Faraday Tyndall Effect (B) Light scattering effect
(C)Brownian motion (D) All of the above
Q.87 Method for determining Surface Area is
(A)Karl fisher Method (B) Air permibility Method
(C)Carr’s index (D) All of the above

Page 10
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.88 Water soluble Qinghaosu Alkaloid
(A)Artemether (B) Artesunnate
(C)Artemisinin (D)All of the above
Q.89 Malignant tertian Malaria caused by
(A)Plasmodium Vivax (B) PlasmodiumFalciparum
(C) Plasmodium Ovale (D) Plasmodium malariae
Q.90 Oswald viscometer is used to determine viscosity of
(A)Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose (B) deflocculated suspension
(C)magnesia magma (D) Glycerine
Q.91 Drove’s test used for
(A)Suspending agent (B) Wetting agent
(C) Surfactant (D) Disintegrant
Q.92 According top Schulze Hardy rule
(A)Precipitation power increases rapidly with valence of charge
(B) Precipitation power does not depend on valency
(C) Precipitaion power increases rapidly with higher Mol. Wt.
(D) Precipitation power does not depend on Mol. Wt.
Q.93 Temp. At which the solubility of surfactant is equal to critical micelle conc. is
(A) Critical temperature (B) Stable point
(C)Cloud point (D) Kraft point
Q.94 Gold number for tragacanth is
(A)0.005-0.01 (B) 0.1
(C)0.5 (D) 2
Q.95 Lyme disease is caused by
(A) Borrellia recurrentis (B) Borrellia burgdorferi
(C) Leptospira (D) Rickettsia

Page 11
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.96 A powder with true density 3.203 and weighing 131.3g was found and having bulk volume 82.0 cm3.
Porosity of this powder is
(A)40 (B) 50
(C)60 (D) 70
Q.97 C.G.S unit for viscosity is
(A)g.cm/sec (B) g.cm2/sec
(C)g/(cm.sec) (D) cm.sec/g
Q.98 Triple sulpha contains
(A)Sulfadiazine (B) Sulphamerazine
(C)Sulphacetamide (D) All of above
Q.99 HLB is
(A)Hydrophobic Lipophobic balance (B) Hydrophobic Lipophilic balance
(C)Hydrophilic Lipophilic balance (D) Hydrophillic Lipophobic balance
Q.100 Figure 1 depicts

Shear
(A)Thixotropy (B) Antithixotropy
Rate
(C)Reopexy (D) Dilatant
Shear Stress
Q.101 Clenbuterol , a drug taken by Sports person is
Figure 1
(A)β1 agonist (B) β1 antagonist
(C) β2 agonist (D) β2 antagonist
Q.102 Pirenzepine is ...
(A) M1 agonist (B)M2 agonist
(C)M1 antagonist (D) M2 antagonist

Page 12
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.103 Vacuum region for U.V spectra is...
(A) 10-200 µm (B) 10-200 nm
(C) 200-400 µm (D) 200-400 nm
Q.104 For dementia which among following used
(A) M 1agonist (B) M2 agonist
(C) M1 antagonist (D) M2 antagonist
Q.105 Which drug block coupling of Acetyl Choline and large electrochemical gradient
(A) Hemicholinium (B) Vesamicol
(C) Botulinum (D) Neostigmine
Q.106 __________ used to terminate Paroxymal superventricular tachycardia.
(A) Methacholine (B) Bathanechol
(C) Triptamine (D) All of the above
Q.107 __________ has been used in post operative non obstructive urinary retention.
(A) Methacholine (B) Bathanechol
(C) Triptamine (D) All of the above
Q.108 Only organophosphate which is not lipid soluble is
(A) Echothiophate (B) Tabun
(C)Tacrine (D) Soman
Q.109 Selective β3 agonist are being developed as
(A) Antianxiety (B) Antidepressant
(C) Antiobesity (D)Antimigraine
Q.110 Most active form of Ephedrine exist as
(A) (+)Ephedrine (B)(-)Ephedrine
(C) (±)Ephedrine (D)All have same potency
Q.111 Dextroamphetamine is used as
(A)Utrine relaxant (B) Anorectic
(C) Antimigraine (D) Antimanic

Page 13
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.112 Due to Anticholinergic property of Diphenylhydramine, it is used as ______ salt.
(A) Ester (B) Sulphate
(C) Theoclic (D) Acetonides
Q.113 Inverse agonist have
(A) Only affinity (B) Possitive efficacy
(C) Negative efficacy (D) Zero efficay
Q.114 Fastest receptor among following is
(A) Ligand Gated ion channel (B) G-protein coupled
(C) kinase linked receptor (D) Nuclear receptor
Q.115 Insulin acts by
(A) Ligand Gated ion channel (B) G-protein coupled
(C) kinase linked receptor (D) Nuclear receptor
Q.116 Which transition is sensitive to hydrogen bonding
(A) π π* (B) σ σ*
(C) n π* (D) n σ*
Q.117 Ach is poor therapeutic agent due to,
(A)Non selectivity (B) Poorly absorbed
(C) Rapid hydrolysis (D) All of above
Q.118 Antidote for irreversible Acetylcholine esterase inhibitor,
(A) Atropine (B) Pralidoxime
(C)Parathione (D)Both A and B
Q.119 In AIDS patient, which lymphocyte count is decreased,
(A)T-lymphocytes (B) CD4+lymphocytes
(C) CD8+lymphocytes (D)B-lymphocyes
Q.120 G-protein coupled receptors are
(A) Monomeric (B) Diameric
(C) Trimeric (D) Tetrameric

Page 14
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.121 Mibefradil acts by
(A) L-channel blocker (B)T-channel blocker
(C) Both (D)None
Q.122 Resting Cell Potential is
(A) 30-80 mV (B) -30 to -80 mV
(C) 0 to -10 mV (D) 10-100 mV
Q.123 According to I.P the Validation of Wavelength scale is carried out by
(A) Kcl (B) Holmium perchlorate
(C) Potassium dichromate (D)0.02% v/v solution of Toluene in Hexane
Q.124 Glucocorticoids acts through which type of receptors
(A) G-protein (B) Tyrosine Kinase
(C) Nuclear (D) Ion channel
Q.125 Which one is neuronal muscarinic receptors?
(A) M1 (B)M2
(C)M3 (D) None
Q.126 Phocomelia is the side effect of..
(A)Warfarine (B) Penicillamine
(C)Thalidomide (D) Retinoids
Q.127 Septran acts by inhibiting
(A) Folate synthatase (B)Dihydrofolate reductase
(C)Both (D) None.
Q.128 In U.V spectroscopy, the effect of Cross Conjugation on λmax is...
(A) Slight increase in λ max (B) No effect
(C) Decrease in λ max (D) Synergistic increase in λ max
Q.129 Beer’s Law shows...
(A)Path length of Absorbing Species (B) Thickness of medium
(C) Concentration of absorbing species (D) Both A and B

Page 15
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.130 For unexpected polymorphism which receptor is responsible
(A) D1 Receptor (B) D2 Receptor
(C) D3 Receptor (D) D4 Receptor
Q.131 Cutt-off wavelength for Ethanol is
(A) 195 nm (B) 201 nm
(C)205 nm (D) 210 nm
Q.132 When π π* transition occurs, which type of band is observed
(A)R-band (B) K-band
(C)T-band (D) None of the above
Q.133 Effect of H-Bond on δ value is
(A) Increase in δ value (B) Decrease in δ value
(C) No effect (D) Can not be predicted
Q.134 Nuclear spin state for 17O8 is
(A) Zero (B) One
(C) 1\2 (D) 5\2
Q.135 Unit for Gyromagnetic Ratio is
(A) Weber (B) Testa
(C) Radian T-1 S-1 (D) Radian
Q.136 Which instrument is not possible
(A) FT-NMR (B) FT-UV
(C) FT-IR (D) All are possible
Q.137 In NMR, Reference compound for water soluble compound is...
(A) Trimethyl silyl propyl Na sulphonate (B) TMS
(C) Both (D) None
Q.138 With increase in magnetic strength....
(A) Increase in δ value (B) Decrease in δ value
(C) no change in δ value (D) Cant be predicted

Page 16
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.139 Which structure gives Singlet not splited peak in PMR
(A) CH3-O-CH3 (B) ClCH2-CCl2-CH2Cl
(C) 1,4-Dioxane (D) All of above
Q.140 For C9H11Br
2.15 δ (2H, Quintet) 3.38 δ (2H, Triplet)
2.75 δ (2H, Triplet) 7.25 δ (5H, Singlet)
Structure of compound is.....

CH2-CH2-CH2Br CH2-CHBr-CH3
(A) (B)
CH2-CH2-CH3 Br
(C) (D) Br
Br
CH2-CH3
Q.141 Caffiene, Xanthin like Molecules gives... CH3
Br
(A) Dynamic Quenching (B) Static Quenching
(C) Both (D) No Quenching
Q.142 Identify the synthesis of following compound
CH3 Br
(A) Edrophonium (B) Pyridostigmine

(C) Methacholine (C) Neostigmine

Page 17
SAHDEV PARMAR
(A) Salbutamol (B) Phenoxybenzamine

(B) Tolazoline (D)Naphthazoline
(A) Salbutamol (B) Propranolol

(B) Prazocin (D) Ephedrine
Q.145 How many Chiral center are present in Ephedrine?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(B) 1 (D) 0
Q.146 Find out the exception from followings.

(A) Proteoses (B) Proteans
(C) Metaproteins (D) Lipoprotein

Page 18
SAHDEV PARMAR
Q.147 Which of the following is used in Hodgkin’s disease?
(A) Mephalan (B) Peclitaxol (C) Estramustine (D) Mechlormethamine
Q.148 The 1-C donor for the synthesis of purine is?
(A) Folic acid (B) 10-Formyl THFA

(C) Tetrahydro folic acid(THFA) (D) 5,10-Methylene THFA
Q.149 Non-steroidal anti-androgens useful as anticancer agent is?
(A) Tamoxifen (B) Flutamide

(C) Etoposide (D) Aminoglutethimide
Q. 150 Which of the following a free radical alkylatine drug ?

(A) Carmustine (B) Thiotepa
(C) Procarbazine (D) Altretamine

Page 19

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(A) Particle surface area (B) Particle size

(c) Particle volume (D) all of A,B,C

(A) N (B) Y (B) A (D) M

Q.3 Steroidogenesis is side effect of

(A) Ketoconazole (B) Econazole

(C) Miconazole (D) Fluconazole

Q.4 Relapsing malaria is caused by

(A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Plasmodium falciparum

(C) Plasmodium ovale (D) Both A and C

(A) Levamisol (B) Ivermectin

(C) Niclosamide (D) piperazine

Q.6 P-glycoprotein transport inhibitor

(A) Verapamil (B) Benzimidazol

(C) Chloroquine (D) All of above

Q.7 Haemorrhagic cystitis is the side effect of

(A) Nitrosoureas (B) Cyclophosphamide

(C) Ifosfamide (D) B and C both

Q.8 Which form of drug is widely used in suspension manufacture

(A) Stable (B) Unstable

(C) Metastable (D) Both B and C

PHARMAGLIMPS- A GLIMPSE OF PHARMACY

Q.9 “LARIAGO” contains ;

(A)Quinine (B) Mefloquine

(C) Chloroquine (D) primaquine.

Q.10 Mech. Of action of Campothecin is by

(A) Inhibiting Topoisomerase I (B) Inhibiting Topoisomerase II

(C) Inhibiting DNA gyrase (D) Both A n B

Q.11 Photooxidation is example of

(A) 1ST Order degradation (B) Pseudo 1st order degradation

(C)Zero order degradation (D) Psedo zero order

Q.12 Electrokinetic potential is

(A)Potential at surface of particle (B) Potential at shear plane

(C) Zeta potential (D) Both B and C

Q.13 Which one of the following is not derived property of powder

(A)Density (B) Surface area

(C)Porosity (D) All of the above.

Q.14 Deflocculated suspensions show which type of flow behaviour

(A) Thixotropic (B) Dilatant

(C) Shear Thinning (D) Both A and C.

(A) Polyoxyethylene lauryl ether (B) Polyoxyethylene monostearate

(C) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaurate (D) Tween 20.

Q.16 Mycolic acid inhibitor among following is

(A) Rifampicin (B) Pyrazinamide

(C) Isoniazid (D) Both B and C

Q.17 HLB of gelatin is

(C)13.2 (D) 6.8

PHARMAGLIMPS- A GLIMPSE OF PHARMACY

Q.18 Which of the following is Atypical sulphonamide

(A) Sulphacetamide (B) Mafenide

(C) Sulfamoxole (D) None of above

Q.19 Bulges are shown by

(A)Bentonite gel (B) Penicillin

(C)procainamide gel (D) Flocculated suspension.

Q.20 Test organism for Erythromycin Assay is

(A) Bacillus subtilis (B)Bacillus pumilus

(C) Micrococcus luteus (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Q.21 Test organism for Bacitracin Assay is

(A) Bacillus subtilis (B)Bacillus pumilus

(C) Micrococcus luteus (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Q.22 Test organism for Amikacin Assay is