CCA Merged

1/6/2021 https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/allqusdownloadhtml.ils?
testNo=934&code=1052000&showTest=320&actForm=edit&set=1
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60
11351_CAD CAM Automation

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.
2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.
5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.
Q.no 1. Which of the following drive system is not used in Robotics
A : Hydraulic
B : Manual
C : Pneumatic
D : Electric motor
Q.no 2. The use of computers to control the operation of production process is known as
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
Q.no 3. RP systems are classified into ____ types
A:1
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B:2
C:3
D:4
Q.no 4. for holding hollow work part ___________is required
A : internal gripper
B : external gripper
C : magnetic gripper is required
D : notch gripper is required
Q.no 5. _________ is not a stage of PLM
A : design
B : introduction
C : decline
D : growth
Q.no 6. Which one of the following in not Rapid Prototyping Process -
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
Q.no 7. Which one of following is not part of FMS -
A : AS/RS
B : AGV's
C : Lathe
D : CNC Machines
Q.no 8. What are types of Automation (a) Hard Automation, (b) Soft Automation
A : Only (a)
B : Only (b)
C : Both (a) and (b)
D : None of the above
Q.no 9. Computer Integrated Manufacturing is_____
A : Extension of CAM
B : management philosophy
C : a type of automation
D : link between CAD and CAM
Q.no 10. 6 axis milling machine is capable of
A : moving and rotating about each primary axis simultaneously
B : moving only about each primary axis simultaneously
C : rotating only about each primary axis simultaneously
D : moving and rotating about each primary axis only at a time
Q.no 11. Which of the following is the default cooridnate system?
A : User coordinate system
B : World coordinate system
C : Screen coordinate system
D : Working cooridnate system
Q.no 12. If the values of Sx and Sy are 1
A : Reduce the size of the object
B : Distort the object
C : Enlarge the object
D : No change is size of object
Q.no 13. Steriolithography uses__________ as building material
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
Q.no 14. ______ is most versatile automation
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
Q.no 15. ________ is similar to plastic injection moulding
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : SLA
Q.no 16. FMS stands for
A : Fixed Manufacturing Systems
B : Flexible Manufacturing System
C : Fused Manufacturing System
D : Follower Manufacturing System
Q.no 17. In two dimensional elements, DOF of a node in a triangular element is
A:2
B:3
C:6
D:9
Q.no 18. The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is …………..
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
Q.no 19. Reflection is the process of obtaining a ………image of the original shape.
A : Smaller
B : Larger
C : Slant
D : Mirror
Q.no 20. Any point in a structure can have maximum of -------------------DOF
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
D : Cubic spline curve
Q.no 22. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
A : boundary condition
B : traction
C : friction
D : surfacing
Q.no 23. Typical canned drilling cycle is specified by
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
Q.no 24. When the series of motion of the tool is repeated number of times which of the following
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
D : Tool length and diameter compensation
Q.no 25. The characteristic of the shape function is _______.
A : the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the other nodes
B : the sum of the shape function is equal to one
C : both a & b
D : the shape function has different values at each node
Q.no 26. In CNC programming, cutter radius compensation to left and right are specified by
A : G41 and G42 respectively
B : G42 and G41 respectively
C : G40 and G41 respectively
D : G40 and G42 respectively
Q.no 27. The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is
A : q101.jpg
B : q102.jpg
C : q103.jpg
D : q104.jpg
Q.no 28. The number of moveable joints in the base, the arm, and the end effectors of the robot
determines
A : degrees of freedom
B : payload capacity
C : operational limits
D : flexibility
Q.no 29. Hard automation is used when jobs are in
A : low quantity
B : medium quantity
C : batch quantity
D : huge quantity
Q.no 30. The unit vector in the direction of the line is defined as …………
A : tangent vector + length of the line
B : tangent vector - length of the line
C : tangent vector/length of line
D : length of line/tangent vector
Q.no 31. If a Robot can alter its own trajectory in response to external conditions, it is considered
to be
A : Intelligent
B : Mobile
C : Non servo
D : Open loop
Q.no 32. The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control point in ……..
A : Hermite cubic spline curve
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
D : Hyperbola
Q.no 33. Which of the following person used the name robotics first time in print?
A : Josef capek
B : Karel capek
C : Isaac asimov
D : Newton
Q.no 34. The region throughout which a robot arm can accomplish tasks is called its:
A : Coordinate geometry.
B : Reference axis.
C : Reference frame.
D : Work envelope.
Q.no 35. The equation for thermal stress in each element is ________.
A : σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
B : σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
C : σ = E (B + α Δt)
D : σ = E (B - α Δt)
Q.no 36. Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix
A : The minimum potential energy principle
B : Galerkin's principle
C : Weighted residual method
D : Inverse matrix method
Q.no 37. The __________ of a robot is the smallest increment of movement into which the robot
can divide its work volume
A : control resolution
B : spatial resolution
C : accuracy
D : precision
Q.no 38. Meshing is a process
A : of reducing infinite to finite degree of freedom
B : of increasing finite to infinite degree of freedom
C : which is dependent on the material
D : cutting the object into small parts
Q.no 39. This is refers to the up and down rotary motion
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw
D : Rotational traverse
Q.no 40. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the
type of tool motion will be
A : circular Interpolation – clockwise
B : circular Interpolation – counterclockwise
C : linear Interpolation
D : rapid feed
Q.no 41. Tooling of Robot is also called as______
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
Q.no 42. Dimension of global stiffness matrix is
A:N
B:N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
Q.no 43. Sensors which are come in contact with some surface to measured desired physical
variable are known as____.
A : Non-contact sensors
B : Proximity sensors
C : Contact sensors
Q.no 44. The number of ways in which a robot arm can move is known as
A : Degrees of rotation.
B : Degrees of freedom.
C : Degrees of arc.
D : Coordinate geometry
Q.no 45. ________ is helpful in prevention of shutdown
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
D : Group Technology
Q.no 46. According to __________ movements and arrangement of links different configurations
are possible
A : arm
B : joint
C : grippers
D : end effector
A:N
B : N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
Q.no 48. In the following geometric modeling techniques which is not a three dimensional
modeling?
A : Wireframe modeling
B : Drafting
C : Surface modeling
D : Solid modeling
Q.no 49. The movement of arm along its axis is called the ______
A : vertical traverse
B : Radial Traverse
C : Rotational Traverse
D : wrist Yaw
Q.no 50. Spherical coordinates can uniquely define the position of a point in up to:
A : One dimension
B : Two dimensions
C : Three dimensions
D : Four dimensions
Q.no 51. Cutter radius compensation- Left is applicable for
A : inside path only
B : outside path only
C : both path simultaneously
D : for both outside and inside path
Q.no 52. ______ Automation has highest production rate
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
Q.no 53. Which are quality issues in 3D printing?
A : Warpage
B : Staircase effect
C : Both warpage and staircase effect
Q.no 54. Surface patch visibility in STL file depends on

A : Number of points
B : Direction on normal to suface
C : Both Number of points and Normal to surface
D : Direction of tangent to the surface
Q.no 55. Product Flow Analysis is a technique used in
A : Flexible Automation
B : Group Technology
C : Fixed Automation
D : Computer Integrated Manufacturing
Q.no 56. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed
is having an order of
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
Q.no 57. The composite transformation to rotate about any arbitrary point can be written as
A : q501.jpg
B : q502.jpg
C : q503.jpg
D : q504.jpg
Q.no 58. In _________ stage of PLM Sales are at peak and profit is maximum
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
Q.no 59. Shape functions are used to
A : define shape of an element
B : define property of element
C : define variation of property within a element
D : define variation of property within as well as outside of a element
Q.no 60. Rotor of _________motor contains the permanent magnet, whereas the stator consists of
the coil segments and iorn
A : Brushless DC motor
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
1/6/2021 https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/openanswers.obj
Answer for Question No 1. is b
Answer for Question No 2. is c
Answer for Question No 4. is a
Answer for Question No 12. is d
https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/openanswers.obj 1/4

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. Which transformation distorts the shape of an object such that the transformed shape
appear as if the object is composed of internal layers that are slided over each other
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
Q.no 3. SLS needs___________ gas
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
Q.no 4. To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides the large problem into smaller, simpler parts
that are called
A : Finite elements
B : Infinite elements
C : Dynamic elements
D : Static elements
Q.no 5. PLM starts with conception of product and extends upto its
A : maintainance
B : manufacturing
C : disposal
D : service
Q.no 6. From which of the following is known as contact sensor.
A : Tactile sensor
B : Proximity sensor
C : Visual sensor
D : Range detector
Q.no 7. The extent to which a machine vision system can differentiate between two objects is
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : Only (a)
B : Only (b)
Q.no 9. What is 4th dimension in 4D printing?
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
Q.no 10. In NC, tool change operation is achieved by
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
Q.no 11. Stiffness is --------- to the length of element
A : Inversely proportional
B : Directly proportional
C : Exponential
D : Independent
Q.no 12. FEM is a generalization of
A : Rayleigh-Ritz method
B : Weighted residual method
C : Finite difference method
D : Finite volume method
A : design
B : introduction
C : decline
D : growth
Q.no 14. Sensors are the transducers that are used to____.
A : Measure physical quantity
B : Hold the objects
C : Fix the objects
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
Q.no 17. Linear interpolation is specified by
A : G00
B : G01
C : G02
D : G03
Q.no 18. In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______ computation time
A : less
B : More
C : Depends on other factors
D : can't say
Q.no 19. Shearing is also termed as ………..
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
Q.no 20. It is used in volume of production is very high
A : programmable automation
B : fixed automation
C : Flexible Automation
D : electronic automation
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : Smaller
B : Larger
C : Slant
D : Mirror
Q.no 23. A rule-based system is also known as:
A : Artificial intelligence.
B : An expert system.
C : An analytical engine
D : An automated guided vehicle.
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
Q.no 25. When every entity of the geometric model remain parallel to its initial position, the
transformation is called as……….
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
Q.no 26. Internal state sensors are used for measuring __________ of the end effector.
A : Position
B : Position & Velocity
C : Velocity & Acceleration
D : Position, Velocity & Acceleration
Q.no 27. Binary sensor are basically switches which respond to the ______________
A : only Presence of object
B : only Absence of object
C : Presence and Absence of object
D : Presence of force and its magnitude
Q.no 28. In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having _________ stiffness.
A : zero
B : very small
C : very large
D : Infinite
Q.no 30. The Truss element can resist only
A : Axial force
B : point force
C : Bending
D : Both A & C
determines
D : flexibility
Q.no 32. A devive which is mounted on the tool plate and used to make intentional contact with
an object or to produce robots final effects on its surroundings by performing particular tasks
A : End effector
B : arm
C : joint
D : body
Q.no 33. From the following, which one will require 4 matrices to multiply to get the final
position?
A : Rotation about origin
B : Rotation about an arbitrary point
C : Rotation about an arbitrary line
D : Scaling about the origin
Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a mechanical actuators
A : Timing belts
B : Gear pairs
C : Gear Motors
D : Harmonic Drives
Q.no 35. Match the following part programme codes with their respective functions
P) G01 I. Spindle speed
Q) G03 II. Spindle rotation clockwise
R) M03 III. Circular interpolation CCW
S) M05 IV. Linear interpolation
A : P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
B: P-IV, Q-II, R-III, S-I
C: P-IV, Q- III, R-II, S-I
D : P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
C : accuracy
D : precision
Q.no 37. Start Point in CNC Machines stands for
A : home position
B : first point from where tool starts machining process
C : machine zero point
D : program zero point
are possible
A : arm
B : joint
C : grippers
D : end effector
Q.no 39. STL file format is represented by
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
Q.no 41. In a CNC programme block,N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40………G02 & G91 refers to
A : Circular interpolation in CCW and incremental dimension
B : Circular interpolation in CCW and absolute dimension
C: Circular interpolation in CW and incremental dimension
D : Circular interpolation in CW and absolute dimension
Q.no 42. Computer aided process planning is _____
B : first step in design before CAD
Q.no 43. Which of the following terms IS NOT one of the five basic parts of a robot?
A : peripheral tools
B : end effectors
C : controller
D : drive
Q.no 44. which is NOT a type of Proximity sensors
A : inductive sensors
B : binary sensor
C : capacitive sensor
D : ultrasonic sensor
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
D : Hyperbola
A:N
B:N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
Q.no 47. Gas cutting operation needs__________
A : continuous path robot
B : point to point robot
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
Q.no 48. Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm?
A : swivel
B : axle
C : retrograde
D : roll
Q.no 49. Total DOF of truss assembly depends on
A : only on DOF per node
B : only on number of nodes in assembly
C : addition of DOF per node and number of nodes in assembly
D : product of DOF per node and number of nodes in assembly
Q.no 50. which is NOT a type of Status sensors/Internal sensors---
A : Potentiometer
B : forse sensor
C : tacho-meter
D : capital encoder
Q.no 52. In meshing, p type of formation of element means
A : dividing the element by a factor P
B : increasing a degree of basis function
C : reducing the size of element by P
D : multiplying the element with a factor P
Q.no 53. Components made by FDM have weak _____ strength
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
Q.no 54. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The
correct G and N codes for this motion are
A : N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
C : N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
D : N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
Q.no 56. …………..allows the user to view the object from different angles.
A : Rotation
B : Translation
C : Reflection
D : Skewing
A : q501.jpg
B : q502.jpg
C : q503.jpg
D : q504.jpg
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
Q.no 60. In a CNC milling operation, the tool has to machine the circular arc from point (20,
20) to (10, 10) at a sequence number 5 of the CNC part programme. If the center of the arc is at
(20, 10) and machine has incremental mode of defining position coordinates, the correct tool path
command is,
A : N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
B: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
C: N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
D : N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
Q.no 2. Actuators are also known as
A : Sensors
B : Controller
C : Drives
D : Manipulator
A : G00
B : G01
C : G02
D : G03
Q.no 4. The Robot designed with Polar coordinate systems has
A : Three linear movements
B : Three rotational movements
C : Two linear and one rotational movement
D : Two rotational and one linear movement
Q.no 6. If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be ______ accurate.
A : More
B : less
D : can't say
A : Smaller
B : Larger
C : Slant
D : Mirror
Q.no 10. FDM is abbreaviation of
A : Fixed Deposition Modeling
B : Fused Deposition Modeling
C : Flexible Deposition Modeling
D : Fibre Deposition Modeling
Q.no 11. Point to Point CNC machines are used in
A : Face milling operation
B : pocket milling operation
C : drilling operation
D : turning operation
Q.no 12. The solution by FEM is
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
D : mostly approximate

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a two dimensional cartesian coordinate system
Q.no 15. The …..is used to create a surface using curves that form closed boundaries.
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
D : surface of revolution
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
Q.no 17. ______ sensors sence applied force
A : Proximity
B : Photo
C : Acaustic
D : Tactile
Q.no 18. There are ____ laws of robotics
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
Q.no 20. Which type of motor is NOT used in axis or spindle drives of CNC machine tool
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
D : Linear servo motor
Q.no 22. Drives are also known as
A : Actuators
B : Controller
C : Sensors
D : Manipulator
Q.no 23. Robotics is a branch of AI, which is NOT composed of
A : Electrical Engineering
B : Mechanical Engineering
C : Computer Science
D : Chemical
Q.no 24. ____ can not be material for Rapid Prototyping
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
Q.no 25. The numbers of node for 1 D element are
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Axial force
B : point force
C : Bending
D : Both A & C
Q.no 27. Which of the basic parts of a robot unit would include the computer circuitry that could
be programmed to determine what the robot would do?
A : sensor
B : controller
C : arm
D : end effector
Q.no 28. In absolute coordinate system, line is to be drawn from (0, 0) to 8 units on the X-axis
and 5 units on Y-axis, the second point of the line is specified by
A : (5, 8)
B : (5, 0)
C : (0, 8)
D : (8, 5)
Q.no 29. ____ grippers are useful for lifting sheets
A : Magnetic
B : Mechanical
C : Contracting
D : Pneumatic
A:N
B : N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
Q.no 31. In two dimensional elements, DOF of a triangular element is
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
Q.no 32. ______ gripper is not a mechanical gripper
A : Screw type
B : Piston type
C : Bladder type
D : Swivel type
Q.no 33. A rectangle is to be rotated by 30 degree clockwise about an arbitrary point. Which
transformation is performed first.
A : Translation
B : Scaling
C : Cloclwise rotation
D : Counter clockwise roation
A : End effector
B : arm
C : joint
D : body
Q.no 35. Real constants in ANSYS indicate
A : material properties
B : section properties
C : thermal properties
D : nodal loads
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
Q.no 37. Stresses in most FEM software are given in
A : N/mm2
B : Pascal
C : units based on input data
D : user specified units
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw
position?
Q.no 40. Parts made by _________ require coating to prevent moisture absorbtion
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
A : q101.jpg
B : q102.jpg
C : q103.jpg
D : q104.jpg
are possible
A : arm
B : joint
C : grippers
D : end effector
Q.no 43. In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation ______.
A : R=KQ+F
B : R=KQ-F
C : R=K+QF
D : R=K-QF
A : Position
Q.no 45. Compact Disc (CD) is in its _________________ phase of ‘Product Lifecycle’
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
Q.no 47. An automotive robot might best keep itself traveling down a specific lane of traffic by
using:
A : Binaural hearing
B : Epipolar navigation
C : Edge detection
D : A second-generation end effector
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : Potentiometer
B : forse sensor
C : tacho-meter
D : capital encoder
Q.no 51. which actuator provide robot greater speed and strength
A : Pneumatic
B : hydraulic
C : electric
D : digital
Q.no 52. In the Linear static analysis, stress is
A : independent of material and geometry
B : dependent of material and geometry
C : independent of material and depends only on geometry
D : dependent of material and independent of geometry
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
A : N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
C : N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
D : N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
Q.no 56. Which of the following is included in Application function Machine Vision System?
A : Camera,Frame Grabber
B : Monitor, Keyboard, Data storage
C : Robot Controller Interface
D : both a & c
A : Warpage
Q.no 60. ______ is not a stratagy in Automation
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
C : Order of operations
D : CIM

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. According to Asimov’s three laws, under what circumstances is it all right for a robot to
injure a human being?
A : Never
B : When the human being specifically requests it.
C : In case of an accident.
D : In case the robot controller is infected with a computer virus.
A : AS/RS
B : AGV's
C : Lathe
D : CNC Machines
Q.no 3. ____ sensors are used to identify objects for pick and place purpose.
A : Range detectors
B : Infrared sensors
C : Vision sensors
D : Photo-metric sensors
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : maintainance
B : manufacturing
C : disposal
D : service
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
Q.no 9. which is correct
A : Manipulator arm-For holding a piece or tool
B : Controllers-Delivers commands to the actuators
C : Drives-Number of degrees of freedom of movement
D : Gripper- Move the manipulator arm and end effector
Q.no 10. A manipulator is also known as a:
A : Track drive
B : Robot arm
C : Vision system
D : Robot controller.
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
Q.no 13. A 1-D structural element is a
A : Truss element
B : Bar element
C : Pipe element
D : All a, b & c
Q.no 14. A truss element in ANSYS is identified as
A : line element
B : spar element
C : truss element
D : beam element
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
Q.no 16. Canned Cycles in CNC are repeated
A : turning process
B : boring process
C : inclined turning process
D : knurling process
Q.no 17. Adaptive control system measures following for control of speed or feed
A : input variables
B : output variables
C : both input and output variables
D : outputvariable - inputvariable
C : Exponential
D : Independent
B : traction
C : friction
D : surfacing
Q.no 20. NC contouring is an example of
A : Continuous path positioning
B: Point-to-point positioning
C : Absolute positioning
D : Incremental positioning
Q.no 21. The degree of freedom for of a two -node bar element are
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
Q.no 22. It is used in volume of production is relatively low
Q.no 23. A triangular plane stress element has ------degrees of freedom.
A:3
B:6
C:9
D:0
Q.no 26. SLS is ________ based system
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
determines
D : flexibility
Q.no 29. A robot arm that moves along three independent axes, each of which is straight and
perpendicular to the other two, employs:
A : Revolute geometry.
B : Spherical coordinate geometry
C : Cartesian coordinate geometry.
D : Cylindrical coordinate geometry
Q.no 30. Number of quantization level is calculated as
A : 2n-1
B : 2n
C : 1/2n
D : 2n-2
Q.no 31. In CNC machines G28 stands for
A : Feed rate in mm/rev
B : Rapid Tool positioning
C : Metric Mode
D : Go to Home Position
Q.no 32. Which of the following is not parametric entity?
A : Spline
B : Hyperbola
C : Parabola
D : Ellipse
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
D : Hyperbola
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : Axial force
B : point force
C : Bending
D : Both A & C
B : Metric mode
C : Absolute Program mode

D : Rapid Tool Positioning
Q.no 39. The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is
A : q201.jpg
B : q202.jpg
C : q203.jpg
D : q204.jpg
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
Q.no 41. identify odd man out :
A : Fit
B : Form
C : Failure
D : Function
B : Radial Traverse
D : wrist Yaw
A : Timing belts
B : Gear pairs
C : Gear Motors
D : Harmonic Drives
Q.no 44. For the CNC part programming, match group A with group B. P) Circular
interpolation , CCW I. G02
Q) Dwell II. G03
R) Circular interpolation, clockwise III. G04
S) Point to point countering IV. G00
A : P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
B : P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV
C: P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
D: P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV
A : q101.jpg
B : q102.jpg
C : q103.jpg
D : q104.jpg
Q.no 46. _________ is not a technique of Rapid Prototyping
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw
Q.no 48. The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is
A : q301.jpg
B : q302.jpg
C : q303.jpg
D : q304.jpg
Q.no 49. These joint involve sliding or translational motion ______
A : Prismatic joint
B : rotating joint
C : revolving joint
D : twist joint
to be
A : Intelligent
B : Mobile
C : Non servo
D : Open loop
Q.no 52. Circular arc on a part profile is being machined on a vertical CNC milling machine.
CNC part programme using metric units and absolute dimensions is listed below N60 G01 X30
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
N80 G01 Z5; The coordinates of the centers of the circular arcs are
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
Q.no 53. Which of the following is NOT a type of robot cell layout?
A : Integrated Robot Cell
B : Robot Centered Cell
C : Mobile Robot Cell
D : inline Robot Cell
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
Q.no 55. ________ has minimum wastge of material
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : q501.jpg
B : q502.jpg
C : q503.jpg
D : q504.jpg
Q.no 57. Cutter radius compensation- Right is applicable for
C : for both outside and inside path
D : both path simultaneously
Q.no 59. ______ Automation is most suitable for mass production
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Hydraulic
B : Manual
C : Pneumatic
D : Electric motor

Q.no 6. The Robot designed with Cartesian coordinate systems has
Q.no 8. Which of the following is not method of expressing the feed in milling machines
A : Feed per cutter revotion
B : Feed per minute

C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
Q.no 9. Which of the following tooling methods does not exist
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
Q.no 10. When smooth cure is appoximated through the data points, then the curve is known as
……
A : interpolant curve
B : approximation curve
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
Q.no 11. Synthetic curve pass through defined data points and thus can be represented by ……..
A : polynominal
B : exponential
C : partial differential equations
D : differential equation
Q.no 12. Automatic return or home position of tool is defined by
A : G27
B : G28
C : G29
D : G30
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
Q.no 17. Example of 2-D Element is ___________ .
A : bar
B : triangle
C : hexahedron
D : tetrahedron
Q.no 18. A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
Q.no 20. Implementation of robotics creats________
A : monotonus work atmodphere
B : hazardous work atmosphere
C : skilled labour requirement
D : unemployment
A : input variables
Q.no 22. Robot is derived from Czech word
A : Rabota
B : Robota
C : Rebota
D : Ribota
Q.no 24. What prevents arobotic instrument fromrunning into other objects
A : negative image
B : functional manipulators
C : memory
D : sensors
Q.no 25. The art of dividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is known
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
Q.no 27. Collaborative Engineering can also be called as _____ Engineering
A : Simultaneous
B : Concurrent
C : Reverse
D : Balanced
B : Metric mode
Q.no 29. Performance Index(PI) is given by
A : Tool wear/Material Removed
B : Material Removal rate/Tool wear rate
C : Tool wear rate/Material removal rate
D : Material removed*Tool wear
Q.no 30. From the following, which method is also called as Building Block Approach?
A : Cellular Decomposition
B : Spatial Occupancy
C : Generalized Sweeps
D : Constructive Solid Geometry
Q.no 31. In which type ofRobot Teach Pendant is provided?
A : Playback Robot
B : NC Robot
C : Intelligent Robot
D : Fixed sequence Robot
A : R=KQ+F
B : R=KQ-F
C : R=K+QF
D : R=K-QF
A:N
B : N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
Q.no 34. The number of ways in which a robot arm can move is known as
A : Degrees of rotation.
B : Degrees of freedom.
C : Degrees of arc.
D : Coordinate geometry
Q.no 35. In which of the following operations Continuous Path System is used
A : Pick and Place
B : Loading and Unloading
C : Continuous welding
D : loading only
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
D : rapid feed
A : N/mm2
B : Pascal
A : Josef capek
B : Karel capek
C : Isaac asimov
D : Newton
Q.no 41. Subroutines are used
A : when same programme is to be repeated number of times
B : when same type of operations with same steps with different dimensions are to be repeated
C : when series of tool motion repeated number of times.
D : for multiple repetitive cycles
Q.no 42. For a robot unit to be considered a functional industrial robot, typically, how many
degrees of freedom would the robot have?
A : three
B : four
C : six
D : eight
A : swivel
B : axle
C : retrograde
D : roll
A : Magnetic
B : Mechanical
C : Contracting
D : Pneumatic
Q.no 45. FDM is _________ based RP method
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
Q.no 46. …….. curve allow local control of the curve.
A : Analytical
B : Hermite cubic spline
C : Bezier
D : B-spline
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
Q.no 48. The operation of the vision system consists of three functions: sensing and digitizing
image data ,Image processing and analysis and..
A : Processing
B : Application
C : Orientation
D : Descriptors
A : (5, 8)
B : (5, 0)
C : (0, 8)
D : (8, 5)
B : end effectors
C : controller
D : drive
A : Rotation
B : Translation
C : Reflection
D : Skewing
A : Pneumatic
B : hydraulic
C : electric
D : digital
A : N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
C : N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
D : N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Warpage
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
Q.no 9. From the following which type of element is not two dimensional
A : Rectangle
B : Quadrilateral
C : parallelogram
D : Tetrahedron
A : More
B : less
D : can't say
A : Truss element
B : Bar element
C : Pipe element
D : All a, b & c

D : unemployment
A : Actuators
B : Controller
C : Sensors
D : Manipulator
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
C : both a & b
Q.no 21. which is correct
A : Manipulator arm-For holding a piece or tool
B : Controllers-Delivers commands to the actuators
C : Drives-Number of degrees of freedom of movement
D : Gripper- Move the manipulator arm and end effector
A : Smaller
B : Larger
C : Slant
D : Mirror
B : traction
C : friction
D : surfacing
A:2
B:3
C:6
D:9
Q.no 25. Which of the following is not a method to describe a curve mathematically?
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : q301.jpg
B : q302.jpg
C : q303.jpg
D : q304.jpg
A : 2n-1
B : 2n
C : 1/2n
D : 2n-2
A : Magnetic
B : Mechanical
C : Contracting
D : Pneumatic
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
B : σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
C : σ = E (B + α Δt)
D : σ = E (B - α Δt)
A : zero
B : very small
C : very large
D : Infinite
C : accuracy
D : precision
determines
D : flexibility
Q.no 38. With reference to NC machine, which of the following statements is wrong
A : Both closed-loop and open-loop control systems are used
B : Paper tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes are used for data storage
C : Digitizers may be used as a interactive input device
D : Post processor is an item of hardware
Q.no 39. This is the rotation in horizontal plane
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw
A : Potentiometer
B : forse sensor
C : tacho-meter
D : capital encoder
A : q101.jpg
B : q102.jpg
C : q103.jpg
D : q104.jpg
A : N/mm2
B : Pascal
modeling?
B : Drafting
D : Solid modeling
A : three
B : four
C : six
D : eight
to be
A : Intelligent
B : Mobile
C : Non servo
D : Open loop
A : (5, 8)
B : (5, 0)
C : (0, 8)
D : (8, 5)
Q.no 48. Which of the following places would be LEAST likely to include operational robots?
A : warehouse
B : factory
C : hospitals
D : private homes
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
Q.no 50. Which one of following is not a robotic actuator?
A : digital
B : pneumatic
C : electric
D : hydraulic
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
command is,
A : N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
B: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
C: N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
D : N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10
A : Warpage
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines
A : Reduced scrap rate
B : Improved strength of the components
C : Higher flexibility
D : Improved quality
A : Truss element
B : Bar element
C : Pipe element
D : All a, b & c
A : Hydraulic
B : Manual
C : Pneumatic
D : Electric motor
Q.no 5. Machine zero position means
A : home position
B : Floating zero point
C : work piece zero
A : Actuators
B : Controller
C : Sensors
D : Manipulator
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Track drive
B : Robot arm
C : Vision system
Q.no 9. Numerical control ___________
A : applies only to milling machines
B : is a method for producing exact number of parts per hour
C : is a method for controlling by means of set of instructions
D : applies only to lathe machines
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
Q.no 11. Dwell is defned by
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Only (a)
B : Only (b)
A : Range detectors
C : Vision sensors
A : maintainance
B : manufacturing
C : disposal
D : service
A : design
B : introduction
C : decline
D : growth
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : bar
B : triangle
C : hexahedron
D : tetrahedron
A : input variables
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : always exact
B : mostly approximate
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : G27
B : G28
C : G29
D : G30
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
D : Hyperbola
Q.no 27. The acronym PLC stands for
A : Pressure Load Control
B : Programmable Logic Controller
C : Pneumatic Logic Capstan
D : PID Loop Controller
A : End effector
B : arm
C : joint
D : body
Q.no 31. Proximity sensing is most closely akin to:
A : Direction measurement.
B : Epipolar navigation.
C : Distance measurement.
D : Machine vision.
A : Timing belts
B : Gear pairs
C : Gear Motors
D : Harmonic Drives
D : nodal loads
Q.no 34. On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by
A : KQ=F
B : KQ≠F
C : K=QF
D : K≠QF
C : accuracy
D : precision
A : Analytical
C : Bezier
D : B-spline
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
Q.no 41. The curve is defined as the locus of point moving with ……degree of freedom.
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
A : Josef capek
B : Karel capek
C : Isaac asimov
D : Newton
to be
A : Intelligent
B : Mobile
C : Non servo
D : Open loop
A:N
B:N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
Q.no 46. __________ is powder based RP method
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
are possible
A : arm
B : joint
C : grippers
D : end effector
Q) Dwell II. G03
Q.no 49. For handling parts of cylindrical,cuboidal,or triangular ________is used
A : 3-finger gripper and vaccume gripper
B : multiple gripper
C : notch gripper
D : internal gripper
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
A : Pneumatic
B : hydraulic
C : electric
D : digital
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
Q.no 55. FMS is useful in_______
A : reducing WIP
B : controlong WIP
C : maintaining WIP
D : extending WIP
A : N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
C : N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
D : N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor

Q.no 4. When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as …….
A : approximation curve
B : pitch curve
C : data curve
D : interpolant curve
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
Q.no 6. M30 stands for
A : End of programe
B : End of block
C : End of tape and tape rewind
D : Coolant on/off
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
Q.no 9. Translation transformation change .....
A : Orientation of graphic element
B : Size of graphical element
C : Shape of graphical element
D : Position of graphical element
A : Hydraulic
B : Manual
C : Pneumatic
D : Electric motor
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : More
B : less

D : can't say
A : design
B : introduction
C : decline
D : growth
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : G00
B : G01
C : G02
D : G03
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
that are called
A : Finite elements
D : Static elements
A : Track drive
B : Robot arm
C : Vision system
Q.no 20. For truss analysis, which type of elements are used
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
Q.no 25. At fixed support, the displacements are equal to
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
Q) Dwell II. G03
D : Machine vision.
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
D : rapid feed
A : digital
B : pneumatic
C : electric
D : hydraulic
A : Translation
B : Scaling
B : Metric mode
Q.no 38. Limit swithces and microswitches are the examples of
A : Touch Sensor
B : Force Sensor
C : Range Sensor
D : Position sensor
using:
C : Edge detection
A : sensor
B : controller
C : arm
D : end effector
A : Josef capek
B : Karel capek
C : Isaac asimov
D : Newton
A : σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
B : σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
C : σ = E (B + α Δt)
D : σ = E (B - α Δt)
C : Contact sensors
B : end effectors
C : controller
D : drive
A : home position
A : Position
A : Pick and Place
D : loading only
A : Spline
B : Hyperbola
C : Parabola
D : Ellipse
A : q501.jpg
B : q502.jpg
C : q503.jpg
D : q504.jpg
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
command is,
A : N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
B: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
C: N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
D : N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Pneumatic
B : hydraulic
C : electric
D : digital
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
A : Warpage

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. CNC drilling machine is considered to be a
A : Point-to-point controlled machine
B : Straight line controlled machine
C : Contonuous path controlled machine
D : Servo-controlled machine
A : Tactile sensor
C : Visual sensor
D : Range detector
Q.no 3. Point-to-point systems are used for _____
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A : Proximity
B : Photo
C : Acaustic
D : Tactile
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : More
B : less
D : can't say
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
A : turning process
B : boring process
Q.no 12. _________ uses sheets of material
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A:3
B:6
C:9
D:0
Q.no 14. From which of the following is known as non-contact sensor.
A : Force sensor
B : Tactile sensor
C : Proximity sensor
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Hydraulic
B : Manual
C : Pneumatic
D : Electric motor
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : End of programe
B : End of block

D : Coolant on/off
A : design
B : introduction
C : decline
D : growth
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
Q.no 27. _______ automation is most versatile tool
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
Q.no 28. ______ is most dynamic automation
A : Flexible
B : Open
C : Programmable
D : Fixed
to be
A : Intelligent
B : Mobile
C : Non servo
D : Open loop
D : Machine vision.
C : Metric Mode
A : Prismatic joint
B : rotating joint
C : revolving joint
D : twist joint
modeling?
B : Drafting
D : Solid modeling
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
Q.no 36. Which of the following represents muscles of a robot?
A : Actuators
B : Power supply
C : Micro controllers
D : Robotic arm
Q.no 37. With reference to NC machine, which of the following statements is wrong
A : Both closed-loop and open-loop control systems are used
B : Paper tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes are used for data storage
C : Digitizers may be used as a interactive input device
D : Post processor is an item of hardware
A : Playback Robot
B : NC Robot
A : (5, 8)
B : (5, 0)
C : (0, 8)
D : (8, 5)
Q.no 40. mechanical grippers are actuated by _________
A : Mechanism
B : vaccume
C : magnet
D : adhesive material
A : Josef capek
B : Karel capek
C : Isaac asimov
D : Newton
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : One dimension
B : Two dimensions
D : Four dimensions
A : Spline
B : Hyperbola
C : Parabola
D : Ellipse
C : Contact sensors
Q.no 48. identify odd man out :
A : Fit
B : Form
C : Failure
D : Function
A : q201.jpg
B : q202.jpg
C : q203.jpg
D : q204.jpg
A : low quantity
B : medium quantity
C : batch quantity
D : huge quantity
D : both a & c
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Warpage
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

A : reducing WIP
B : controlong WIP
C : maintaining WIP
D : extending WIP

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Tactile sensor
C : Visual sensor
D : Range detector
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
that are called
A : Finite elements
D : Static elements
A:2
B:3
C:6
D:9
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
D : unemployment
A : G00
B : G01
C : G02
D : G03
A:3
B:6
C:9
D:0
C : Exponential
D : Independent
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : Hydraulic
B : Manual
C : Pneumatic
D : Electric motor
A : Only (a)
B : Only (b)
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : turning process
B : boring process
C : both a & b
A : Rectangle
B : Quadrilateral
C : parallelogram
D : Tetrahedron
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth

D : Feed per second
B : traction
C : friction
D : surfacing
A : negative image
C : memory
D : sensors
A : Proximity
B : Photo
C : Acaustic
D : Tactile
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : bar
B : triangle
C : hexahedron
D : tetrahedron
A : Magnetic
B : Mechanical
C : Contracting
D : Pneumatic
modeling?
B : Drafting
D : Solid modeling
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
B : binary sensor

A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
D : Hyperbola
Q.no 36. Collaborative Engineering can also be called as _____ Engineering
A : Simultaneous
B : Concurrent
C : Reverse
D : Balanced
Q.no 38. _______ automation is most versatile tool
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
C : Contact sensors
A : swivel
B : axle
C : retrograde
D : roll
transformation is performed last.
A : Scaling
B : Cloclwise rotation
C : Counter clockwise rotation
D : Inverse translation
Q.no 43. The sum of the shape function is equal to
A:0
B : 0.5
C:1
D:2
A : 2n-1
B : 2n
C : 1/2n
D : 2n-2
D : Machine vision.
A : sensor
B : controller
C : arm
D : end effector
A : One dimension
B : Two dimensions
D : Four dimensions
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline

D : both a & c
command is,
A : N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
B: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
C: N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
D : N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10
A : reducing WIP
B : controlong WIP
C : maintaining WIP
D : extending WIP

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : Smaller
B : Larger
C : Slant
D : Mirror
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : Tactile sensor
C : Visual sensor
D : Range detector
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
Q.no 7. Triangular elements can have minimum
A : 3 nodes
B : 6 nodes
C : 9 nodes
D : 12 nodes
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : Actuators
B : Controller
C : Sensors
D : Manipulator
A : G00
B : G01
C : G02
D : G03
Q.no 14. Robot is derived from Czech word
A : Rabota
B : Robota
C : Rebota
D : Ribota
A : End of programe
B : End of block
D : Coolant on/off
Q.no 16. It is used in volume of production is relatively low
A : AS/RS
B : AGV's
C : Lathe
D : CNC Machines
C : both a & b

A : Only (a)
B : Only (b)
A : Rectangle
B : Quadrilateral
C : parallelogram
D : Tetrahedron
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
Q.no 22. Machine zero position means
A : home position
B : Floating zero point
C : work piece zero
C : Exponential
D : Independent
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
C : Fix the objects
to be
A : Intelligent
B : Mobile
C : Non servo
D : Open loop
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
B : binary sensor
A : Touch Sensor
B : Force Sensor
C : Range Sensor
D : Position sensor
A : Analytical
C : Bezier
D : B-spline
A : q101.jpg
B : q102.jpg
C : q103.jpg
D : q104.jpg

A : σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
B : σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
C : σ = E (B + α Δt)
D : σ = E (B - α Δt)
B : Radial Traverse
D : wrist Yaw
Q.no 37. ______ gripper is not a mechanical gripper
A : Screw type
B : Piston type
C : Bladder type
D : Swivel type
A : Potentiometer
B : forse sensor
C : tacho-meter
D : capital encoder
Q.no 39. ____ sensors are used to indicate presence or absence of hot objects.
A : Vision sensors
C : Photo-metric sensors
D : Range detectors
D : rapid feed
Q.no 41. Which of the following represents muscles of a robot?
A : Actuators
B : Power supply
C : Micro controllers
D : Robotic arm
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
A : Flexible
B : Open
C : Programmable
D : Fixed
Q.no 45. The region throughout which a robot arm can accomplish tasks is called its:
A : Coordinate geometry.
B : Reference axis.
C : Reference frame.
D : Work envelope.
A : Playback Robot
B : NC Robot
determines
D : flexibility
A : q201.jpg
B : q202.jpg
C : q203.jpg
D : q204.jpg
Q.no 50. For handling parts of cylindrical,cuboidal,or triangular ________is used
A : 3-finger gripper and vaccume gripper
B : multiple gripper
C : notch gripper
D : internal gripper
A : q501.jpg
B : q502.jpg
C : q503.jpg
D : q504.jpg
A : reducing WIP
B : controlong WIP
C : maintaining WIP
D : extending WIP
D : both a & c
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
A : N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
C : N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
D : N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Range detectors
C : Vision sensors
A:3
B:6
C:9
D:0
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
Q.no 6. Actuators are also known as
A : Sensors
B : Controller
C : Drives
D : Manipulator
C : Exponential
D : Independent
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : SLA
Q.no 12. The Robot designed with Polar coordinate systems has
A : Proximity
B : Photo
C : Acaustic
D : Tactile
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
C : Fix the objects
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : negative image
C : memory
D : sensors
Q.no 19. CNC drilling machine is considered to be a
A : Point-to-point controlled machine
B : Straight line controlled machine
C : Contonuous path controlled machine
D : Servo-controlled machine
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A:2
B:3
C:6
D:9
transformation is performed last.
A : Scaling
B : Cloclwise rotation
C : Counter clockwise rotation
D : Inverse translation
Q.no 27. On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by
A : KQ=F
B : KQ≠F
C : K=QF
D : K≠QF
A : Magnetic
B : Mechanical
C : Contracting
D : Pneumatic
A : Analytical
C : Bezier
D : B-spline
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
A : Pick and Place
D : loading only
A : Prismatic joint
B : rotating joint
C : revolving joint
D : twist joint
A : Josef capek
B : Karel capek
C : Isaac asimov
D : Newton
A:N
B : N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
Q.no 36. The sum of the shape function is equal to
A:0
B : 0.5
C:1
D:2
Q.no 37. What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
A : temperature
B : pressure
C : feedback
D : signal
Q.no 39. The official Defination of robotics is provided by
A : ASME
B : ASCII
C : RIA
D : ROI
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
Q.no 41. In CNC machines M05 stands for
A : Spindle OFF
B : Program END
C : Coolant OFF
D : Coolant ON
A : R=KQ+F
B : R=KQ-F
C : R=K+QF
D : R=K-QF
A : 2n-1
B : 2n
C : 1/2n
D : 2n-2
A : Flexible
B : Open
C : Programmable
D : Fixed
to be
A : Intelligent
B : Mobile
C : Non servo
D : Open loop
A:N
B:N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
A : three
B : four
C : six
D : eight
A : warehouse
B : factory
C : hospitals
D : private homes
A : Timing belts
B : Gear pairs
C : Gear Motors
D : Harmonic Drives
command is,
A : N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
B: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
C: N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
D : N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10
A : reducing WIP
B : controlong WIP
C : maintaining WIP
D : extending WIP
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
C : Fix the objects
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Only (a)
B : Only (b)
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
A:3
B:6
C:9
D:0
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : Rectangle
B : Quadrilateral
C : parallelogram
D : Tetrahedron
A : Range detectors
C : Vision sensors
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : Track drive
B : Robot arm
C : Vision system
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
Q.no 27. The official Defination of robotics is provided by
A : ASME
B : ASCII
C : RIA
D : ROI
Q.no 28. This is the rotation in horizontal plane
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw
A : swivel
B : axle
C : retrograde
D : roll
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
D : Hyperbola
A : Position

A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : three
B : four
C : six
D : eight
Q) Dwell II. G03
D : Machine vision.
A : low quantity
B : medium quantity
C : batch quantity
D : huge quantity
C : accuracy
D : precision
Q.no 42. Automated Guided Vehicles are most useful for _____ Automation
A : Flexible
B : Programmable
C : Fixed
D : Extended
A : Translation
B : Scaling
using:
C : Edge detection
A : N/mm2
B : Pascal
A : Timing belts
B : Gear pairs
C : Gear Motors
D : Harmonic Drives
A : Potentiometer
B : forse sensor
C : tacho-meter
D : capital encoder
A : zero
B : very small
C : very large
D : Infinite
B : AC servomotor
C : stepper motor
D : Vane motor
command is,
A : N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
B: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
C: N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
D : N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10
A : reducing WIP
B : controlong WIP
C : maintaining WIP
D : extending WIP
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;

A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
D : unemployment
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : Range detectors
C : Vision sensors
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : SLA
A : More
B : less
D : can't say
A : G27
B : G28
C : G29
D : G30
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
A : input variables
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
Q.no 16. A point P is translated by 5 units in X direction and 4 units in Y direction. Select the
appropriate relation for the transformation
A : q401.jpg
B : q402.jpg
C : q403.jpg
D : q404.jpg
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
C : Exponential
D : Independent
A : maintainance
B : manufacturing
C : disposal
D : service
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw
A : End effector
B : arm
C : joint
D : body
A : Pick and Place
D : loading only
B : end effectors
C : controller
D : drive
A : N/mm2
B : Pascal
A : three
B : four
C : six
D : eight
A:N
B : N+N
C : N(N-1)
D : N*N
D : nodal loads
A : Analytical
C : Bezier
D : B-spline
A : 2n-1
B : 2n
C : 1/2n
D : 2n-2
A : Touch Sensor
B : Force Sensor
C : Range Sensor
D : Position sensor
A : Playback Robot
B : NC Robot
A : q101.jpg
B : q102.jpg
C : q103.jpg
D : q104.jpg
Q.no 41. ____ sensors are used to indicate presence or absence of hot objects.
A : Vision sensors
C : Photo-metric sensors
D : Range detectors
A : Timing belts
B : Gear pairs
C : Gear Motors
D : Harmonic Drives
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
Q.no 45. The operation of the vision system consists of three functions: sensing and digitizing
image data ,Image processing and analysis and..
A : Processing
B : Application
C : Orientation
D : Descriptors
A : digital
B : pneumatic
C : electric
D : hydraulic
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : One dimension
B : Two dimensions
D : Four dimensions
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Pneumatic
B : hydraulic
C : electric
D : digital
A : introduction
B : growth
C : maturity
D : decline
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
A : N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
C : N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
D : N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : maintainance
B : manufacturing
C : disposal
D : service
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : bar
B : triangle
C : hexahedron
D : tetrahedron

A : Rectangle
B : Quadrilateral
C : parallelogram
D : Tetrahedron
C : both a & b
Q.no 11. what is not robotic?
A : accuracy
B : repeatability
C : multifunctionality
D : prosthesis
A : Truss element
B : Bar element
C : Pipe element
D : All a, b & c
Q.no 13. When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as …….
A : approximation curve
B : pitch curve
C : data curve
D : interpolant curve
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
Q.no 15. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines
A : Reduced scrap rate
B : Improved strength of the components
C : Higher flexibility
D : Improved quality
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Tactile sensor
C : Visual sensor
D : Range detector
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second

A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Only (a)
B : Only (b)
A : Rotation
B : Scaling
C : Shearing
D : Reflection
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Smaller
B : Larger
C : Slant
D : Mirror
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
C : Fix the objects
A : q301.jpg
B : q302.jpg
C : q303.jpg
D : q304.jpg
A : Timing belts
B : Gear pairs
C : Gear Motors
D : Harmonic Drives
A : wrist roll
B : wrist Pitch
C : wrist Yaw

A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : Touch Sensor
B : Force Sensor
C : Range Sensor
D : Position sensor
Q.no 33. What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
A : temperature
B : pressure
C : feedback
D : signal
C : accuracy
D : precision
A : home position
C : Metric Mode
A : zero
B : very small
C : very large
D : Infinite
determines
D : flexibility
A : warehouse
B : factory
C : hospitals
D : private homes
A : sensor
B : controller
C : arm
D : end effector
A : One dimension
B : Two dimensions
D : Four dimensions
A : Position
A : 2n-1
B : 2n
C : 1/2n
D : 2n-2
using:
C : Edge detection
A : Magnetic
B : Mechanical
C : Contracting
D : Pneumatic
B : Radial Traverse
D : wrist Yaw
D : both a & c
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : 2*2
B : 3*3
C : 4*4
D : 6*6
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
B : N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
C : N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
D : N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
A : Rotation
B : Translation
C : Reflection
D : Skewing
A : Warpage
command is,
A : N05 G90 G01 X-10 Y-10 R10
B: N05 G91 G03 X-10 Y-10 R10
C: N05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
D : N05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10

Seat No -
11329_CAD CAM AUTOMATION

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0

A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : input variables
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time

A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
Q.no 32. The function of Interpolator in a CNC machine controller is
A : Control spindle speed
B : Coordinate feed rate of axis
C : Control tool rapid approach speed
D : Perform miscellaneous function
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
D : unemployment
position?
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
D : nodal loads
D : rapid feed
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
using:
C : Edge detection
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Warpage
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA

A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A : turning process
B : boring process
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
D : unemployment
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A : input variables
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
Q.no 40. A robot that has its own computer, and can work independently of other robots or
computers, is called an
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
C : Automated guided vehicle
D : Autonomous robot
D : nodal loads
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
using:
C : Edge detection
D : rapid feed
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : Warpage
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing

B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : input variables
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
D : unemployment
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4

A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : turning process
B : boring process
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Never
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
using:
C : Edge detection

A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
position?
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
D : nodal loads
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
D : rapid feed
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Warpage

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : input variables
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4

A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
D : unemployment
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : turning process
B : boring process
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
D : nodal loads
using:
C : Edge detection
D : rapid feed
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
position?
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
A : Warpage
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Never
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : input variables
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6

B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
D : unemployment
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : turning process
B : boring process
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
D : rapid feed
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
position?
D : nodal loads
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
using:
C : Edge detection
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Warpage

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : input variables
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A : Never
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6

A : turning process
B : boring process
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
D : unemployment
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
D : rapid feed
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
position?
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : Warpage
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : input variables
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : Never
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
D : unemployment
A : Translation
B : Scaling
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
D : nodal loads
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
using:
C : Edge detection
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Warpage
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : input variables
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : Never
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
D : unemployment
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
D : rapid feed
D : nodal loads
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
using:
C : Edge detection
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
position?
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Warpage
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
D : unemployment
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : input variables
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : Never
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : turning process
B : boring process
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma

……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
D : rapid feed
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
position?
using:
C : Edge detection
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
D : nodal loads
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Warpage

A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA

Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
D : unemployment
A : Never
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : input variables
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : turning process
B : boring process
D : rapid feed
using:
C : Edge detection
A : Translation
B : Scaling
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
position?
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
D : nodal loads
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Warpage
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : input variables
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : turning process
B : boring process
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : Never
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : SLR
B : SLS
C : LOM
D : FDM

A : Translation
B : Scaling
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
D : rapid feed
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
position?
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : Warpage
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second

……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : turning process
B : boring process
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve

D : unemployment
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
command is used
A : Subroutines
B : Canned cycle
C : Macros
A : input variables
A : Never
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
A : Android.
B : Insect robot
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
position?
D : rapid feed
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
D : nodal loads
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Warpage

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma

called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A : input variables
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4

as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : turning process
B : boring process
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:0
A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ

A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
using:
C : Edge detection
position?
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : SLA
B : SVS
C : FDM
D : 3D Printing
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
D : nodal loads
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Warpage
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA

A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : M04
B : M05
C : M06
D : M08
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A : Never
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : turning process
B : boring process
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : always exact
B : sometimes exact
C : never exact
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : Direct
B : Soft
C : Cluster
D : Hard
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram

D : unemployment
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A : G04
B : G03
C : G02
D : G01
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second

A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Scaling
B : Translation
C : Rotation
D : Mirror
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : input variables
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
as
A : assemblage
B : continuum
C : traction
D : discretization
A : Translation
B : Scaling
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
D : nodal loads
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
using:
C : Edge detection
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
D : rapid feed
A : 1 Point
B : 2 Points
C : 3 Points
D : 4 Points
position?
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Warpage

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:6
A : Powder
B : Liquid
C : Solid
D : Plasma
A : Hyperbola
B : Bezier curve
C : B-spline curve
A : Induction motor
B : DC servo motor
C : Stepper motor
A : reaming
B : parting
C : grooving
D : facing
A : input variables
A : G74
B : G78
C : G81
D : G85
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : Selecting
B : Sorting
C : Scaling
D : Skewing
A : turning process
B : boring process

A : CAD
B : CAE
C : CAM
D : CAQ
A : Hard
B : Soft
C : Programmable
D : Open
called the:
A : Magnification
B : Sensitivity
C : Selectivity
D : Resolution
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Explicit form
B : Laplace form
C : Implicit form
D : Parametric form
A:1
B:2
C:3
D:4
A : always exact
C : sometimes exact
D : never exact
A : Scaling
B : Rotation
C : Translation
D : Reflection
A : Triangle
B: Bar
C : Rectangle
D : Parallelogram
……
C : pitch curve
D : data curve
A : Oxygen
B : Nitrogen
C : Hydrogen
D : Carbon
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
B : Feed per minute
C : Feed per tooth
D : Feed per second
A : ruled surface
B : plane surface
C : coons patch
A : Material
B : Machine
C : Scale
D : Time
D : unemployment
A : FDM
B : SLS
C : EDM
D : LOM
A:3
B:6
C:9
D : 12
D : nodal loads
D : rapid feed
C : NC Robot
D : Playback robot
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : AJM
A : CAPP
B : CIM
C : FMS
A : Zero
B : One
C : Two
D : Three
using:
C : Edge detection
position?
A : Plasma
B : Powder
C : Liquid
D : Solid
A : Solid
B : Plasma
C : Powder
D : Liquid
A : Manipulator
B : Gripper
C : Wrist
D : End Effector
A : Warpage
Y35 Z-5 F50; N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20;
A : (30, 55)
B: (50, 55)
C : (50, 35)
D : (30, 35)
A : Compressive
B : Tensile
C : Shear
D : Bending
A : SLS
B : LOM
C : FDM
D : SLA
A : Simplification
B : Specialization
D : CIM

CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION
[Multiple Choice
Questions]
UNIT No-01 Name of Unit: COMPUTER

GRAPHICS
Q.1 Which coordinate system is a device-dependent coordinate system?
A World Coordinate System
B Model Coordinate System
C User Coordinate System
D Screen Coordinate System
Answe D
r
Q.2 Which of the following is the default coordinate system?
A User Coordinate System
B World Coordinate System
C Screen Coordinate System
D None of the above
Answe B
r
Q.3 When every entity of a geometric model remains parallel to its initial position,
the transformation is called as
D None of the above
Answe B
r
Q.4 In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects and therefore
shapes cannot be preserved?
Mechanical Engineering, MMIT, Pune

D None of the above
Answe B
r
Q.5 The matrix representation for translation in homogeneous coordinates is
D None of the above
Answe B
r
Q.6 The matrix representation for scaling in homogeneous coordinates is
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answe A
r
Q.7 The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is
A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C

Q.8 What is the use of homogeneous coordinates and matrix representation?
A To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way
B To scale
C To rotate
D To shear the object
Answer A
Q.9 If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x,
y) is represented as
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
Q.10 For 2D transformation the value of third coordinate i.e. w (or h) =?
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
Q.11 We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a
single matrix representation by expanding
A 2 x 2 matrix into 4x4 matrix
B 2 x 2 matrix into 3 x 3
C 3 x 3 matrix into 2 x 2
D Only c
Answer B

Q.12 The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be written as
A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
Q.13 In homogeneous coordinates value of ‘h’ is consider as 1 & it is called…..
A Magnitude Vector
B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
D Non-Zero Scalar Factor
Answer D
Q.14 Which co-ordinates allow common vector operations such as translation, rotation,
scaling and perspective projection to be represented as a matrix by which the
vector is multiplied?
A vector co-ordinates
B 3D co-ordinates
C affine co-ordinates
D homogenous co-ordinates
Answer D
Q.15 In Coordinates, a points in n-dimensional space is represent by (n+1) coordinates.
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
C Inverse transformation
D 3D Transformation

Answer B
Q.16 A translation is applied to an object by D
A Repositioning it along with straight line path
B Repositioning it along with circular path
C Only b
D All of the mentioned
Answer A
Q.17 We translate a two-dimensional point by adding
A Translation distances
B Translation difference
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
Q.18 The translation distances (dx, dy) is called as
A Translation vector
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
Q.19 In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by
using the equation
A x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx
B x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
C X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx
D X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy
Answer B
Q.20 The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
Q.21 -------is a rigid body transformation that moves objects without deformation.
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
Q.22 A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
Q.23 Polygons are translated by adding to the coordinate position of each vertex and the
current attribute setting.
A Straight line path
B Translation vector
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D

Q.24 To change the position of a circle or ellipse we translate
A Center coordinates
B Center coordinates and redraw the figure in new location
C Outline coordinates
Answer B
Q.25 The basic geometric transformations are
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling
Answer D
Q.26 A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by
C Only b
D Any of the mentioned
Answer C
Q.27 To generate a rotation , we must specify
A Rotation angle θ
B Distances dx and dy
C Rotation distance
Answer A
Q.28 The rotation axis that is perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through the pivot
point is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Q.29 Positive values for the rotation angle θ defines
A Counter clockwise rotations about the end points
B Counter clockwise translation about the pivot point
C Counter clockwise rotations about the pivot point
D Negative direction
Answer C
Q.30 The original coordinates of the point in polar coordinates are
A X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф +ϴ)
B X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф +ϴ)
C X’=r cos (Ф -ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф -ϴ)
D X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф -ϴ)
Answer B
Q.31 From the following, which one will require 4 matrices to multiply to get the final
position?
A Rotation about the origin
B Rotation about an arbitrary Point
C Rotation about an arbitrary line
D Scaling about the origin
Answer B
Q.32 Rotation is simply---------object w.r.t origin or centre point.
A Turn

B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
Q.33 A line AB with end point A (2,3) & B (7,8) is to be rotated about origin by
300 in clockwise direction. Determine the coordinates of end points S of
rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
Q.34 An ellipse can also be rotated about its center coordinates by rotating
A End points
B Major and minor axes
C Only a
D None
Answer B
Q.35The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A
Q.36 Scaling of a polygon is done by computing
A The product of (x, y) of each vertex

B (x, y) of end points
C Center coordinates
D Only a
Answer D
Q.37 We control the location of a scaled object by choosing the position is

known as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
C Differential scaling
D Uniform scaling
Answer B
Q.38 If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to the same value then………
A Uniform rotation is produced
B Uniform scaling is produced
C Scaling cannot be done
D Scaling can be done or cannot be done
Answer B
Q.39 If the scaling factors values Sx and Sy are assigned to unequal values then
C Differential scaling is produced
D Scaling cannot be done
Answer C
Q.40 The objects transformed using the equation P’=S*P should be
A Scaled

B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
Q.41 If the scaling factors values Sx and Sy < 1 then
A It reduces the size of object
B It increases the size of object
C It stunts the shape of an object
D None
Answer A
Q.42If the value of Sx=1 and Sy=1 then
A Reduce the size of object
B Distort the picture
C Produce an enlargement
D No change in the size of an object
Answer D
Q.43 The polygons are scaled by applying the following transformation.
A X’=x * Sx + Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy + Yf(1-Sy)
B X’=x * Sx + Xf(1+Sx) & Y’=y * Sy + Yf(1+Sy
C X’=x * Sx + Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy – Yf(1-Sy)
D X’=x * Sx * Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy * Yf(1-Sy)
Answer A
Q.44 Reflection is a special case of rotation.
A True
B False

Answer B
Q.45 If two pure reflections about a line passing through the origin are
applied successively the result is
A Pure rotation
B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
Q.46 What is the determinant of the pure reflection matrix?
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C
Q.47 Which of the following is NOT true?
Image formed by reflection through a plane mirror is
of same
A size
B same orientation
C is at same distance from the mirror
D virtual
Answer B
Q.48 Which of the following represents shearing?
A (x, y) → (x+shx, y+shy)
B (x, y) → (ax, by)
C (x, y) → (x cos(θ)+y sin(θ), -x sin(θ)+y cos(θ))

D (x, y) → (x+shy, y+shx)
Answer D
Q.49 If a ‘3 x 3’ matrix shears in X direction, how many elements of it are ‘1’?
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
Q.50 If a ‘3 x 3’ matrix shears in Y direction, how many elements of it are ‘0’?
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
Q.51 Shearing is also termed as
A Selecting
B Sorting
C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
Q.52 Shearing and reflection are types of translation.
A True
B False

Answer B
Q.53 Which of this is compulsory for 2D reflection?
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
Q.54Two successive translations are
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
Q.55 Two successive translations are commutative.
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.56 General pivot point rotation can be expressed as
A T(zr,yr).R(θ).T(-zr,-yr) = R(xr,yr,θ)
B T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(xr,yr,θ)
C T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(zr,yr,θ)
D T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(zr,yr,θ)
Answer B
Q.57 Which of the following is NOT correct (A, B and C are matrices)
A A∙B = B∙A

B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
C C(A+B) = C∙A + C∙B
D 1A=A1
Answer A
Q.58 Reflection about the line y=0, the axis, is accomplished with the
transformation matrix with how many elements as ‘0’?
A 8
B 9
C 4
D 6
Answer D
Q.59 Which transformation distorts the shape of an object such that the transformed
shape appears as if the object were composed of internal layers that had been
caused to slide over each other?
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
Q.60 Transpose of a column matrix is
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C
Q.61 Reversing the order in which a sequence of transformations is performed may affect
the transformed position of an object.

A True
B False
Answer A
Q.62 How many minimum numbers of zeros are there in ‘3 x 3’ triangular matrix?
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
Q.63 The object space or the space in which the application model is defined is called
A World co-ordinate system
B Screen co-ordinate system
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
Q.64 What is the name of the space in which the image is displayed?
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B
Q.65 What is the rectangle in the world defining the region that is to be displayed?

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
Q.66 The window opened on the raster graphics screen in which the image
will be displayed is called
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D
Q.67 The process of mapping a world window in World Coordinates to the

Viewport is called Viewing transformation.
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.68 Panning is a technique in which users can change the size of the area
to be viewed in order to see more detail or less detail.
A True
B False
Answer B
Q.68 Drawing of number of copies of the same image in rows and columns
cross the interface window so that they cover the entire window is called
A Roaming
B Panning

C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
Q.70 By changing the dimensions of the viewport, the and of the objects being displayed
can be manipulated.
A Number of pixels and image quality
B X co-ordinate and Y co-ordinate
C Size and proportions
D All of these
Answer C
Q.71 Co-ordinates are ranging according to the screen resolution.
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.72 Any convenient co-ordinate system or Cartesian co-ordinates which can be

used to define the picture is called
A spherical co-ordinates
B vector co-ordinates
C viewport co-ordinates
D world co-ordinates
Answer D
Q.73 The transformation of perspective projection must include, where d is the

distance between the centers of projection to the projection plane.
A D
B 1/d
C -d

D -1/d
Answer D
Q.74 An area on a display device to which a window is mapped is called a………….
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
A a computer program that draws picture
B A picture stored in secondary memory
C The smallest resolvable part of a picture
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.76 A system that automates the drafting process with interactive computer graphics
is called
A Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
B Computer Aided Design (CAD)
C Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
D Computer Aided Instruction (CAI)
Answer B
Q.77 In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects

and therefore shapes cannot be preserved?
A Orthographic
B Isometric
C Perspective

D None of the above
Answer C
Q.78 Coordinate of □ABCD is WCS are: lowermost corner A(2,2) & diagonal corner are
C(8,6). W.r.t MCS. The coordinates of origin of WCS system are (5,4). If the axes of
WCS are at 600 in CCW w.r.t. the axes of MCS. Find new vertices of point A in MCS.
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Q.79 A triangle A with vertices P (50, 40), Q (100, 60) & R (70, 80) is to be
scaled by using scale factors Sx =0.5 & Sy = 0.7 about point P, Find CT
Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
001
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
001
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
001
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
001
Answer C
Q.80 A line AB with end points A (2, 1) & B (7, 6) is to be moved by 3 units in x-direction
& 4 units in y-direction. Calculate new coordinates of points B.
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)

D (10, 5)
Answer C
CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions] UNIT No-02

Name of Unit: GEOMETRIC MODELING
Q.1. For generating Coons patch we require
A A set of grid points on surface
B A set of control points
C Four bounding curves defining surface
D Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points
Answer C
Q.2. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1
(15,10) to P2 (10,15)will have its center at
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
Q.3. In the following geometric modelling techniques which are not three-
dimensional modelling?
A Wireframe modelling
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling

Answer B
Q.4. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not

require much computer time and memory?
A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
C Wireframe modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.5. In the following geometric modelling techniques. which cannot be used for
finite element analysis:
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D
Q.6. In the following geometric primitives. which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling:
A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D
Q.7. Which of the following is not an analytical entity?

A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
Q.8. Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Cubic spline curve
Answer A
Q.9. Which one of the following does not belong to the family of conics?
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D
Q.10 The number of tangents required to describe cubic splines is

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4

Answer B
Q.11 The shape of Bezier curve is controlled by

.
A Control points
B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A
Q.12 The curve that follows a convex hull property is:

.
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B
Q.13 The degree of the Bezier curve with n control points is

.
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A
Q.14 The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors

.
A Increases with knot vectors
B Decreases with knot vectors

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.15 The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are
.
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
Q.17 The tensor product technique constraints surfaces by two curves.

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

Q.18 In the bezier curve, the curve is always to first and last segments of the
. polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.19 The unit vector in the direction of the line is defined as .

.
A tangent vector+length of the line
B tangent vector-length of the line
C tangent vector/length of the line
D length of the line/tangent vector
Answer C
Q.20 From the following, which is an axisymmetric surface?

.
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
C Surface of Revolution
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.21 curves allow local control of the curve

.
A Analytical
B Hermite cubic spline

C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
Q.22 To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two
. tangent vectors. This statement is true for which of the following
A B-spline curve
B Hermite Cubic Spline Curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.23 In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields

.
A a position continuous curve
B a slope continuous curve
C a curvature continuous curve
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.24 Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such
. that at any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci) is
constant and equal to
A the major diameter
B the minor diameter
C semi major diameter
D semi-minor diameter

Answer A
Q.25 When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve
. is known as
A interpolant curve
B approximation curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B
Q.26 In Beizer Curve, the curve follows

.
A the control points
B the shape of the defining polygon
C the defining points
D none of the above
Answer B
CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions] UNIT No-02
Q.27 In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with
.
A decrease in the number of vertices
B increase in the number of vertices
C decrease in control points
D none of the above

Answer B
Q.28 The number of control points can be added or subtracted in .

.
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
C Cubic spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
Q.29 The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in .
.
A Hermite cubic spline curve
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
Q.30 The is used to create a surface using curves that form closed boundaries.
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
D surface of Revolution
Answer C
Q.31 B-rep and C-Rep are the methods of

.
A solid modeling

B surface modeling
C wireframe modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A
Q.32 Which kind of model can store information about geometry

.
A Solid model
B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.33 From the following, which method is also called as the Building Block Approach?
.
A Cellular Decomposition
B Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
C Generalized Sweeps
D Constructive Solid Geometry
Answer D
Q.34 Structuring and combining the primitives of the solid model in the graphics
. database, is achieved by the use of…..
A FEA
B transformations
C boolean operations
D none of the above
Answer C

Q.35 The data representation of CSG objects is represented by
.
A a binary tree
B a boolean operation
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.36 is an extension of the wireframe model with additional face information added.
.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.37 For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a

. preferred technique?
A Constructive Solid Geometry
B Pure Primitive Instancing
C Boundary Representation
D Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
Answer C
Q.38 Which of the following uses a number of two-dimensional profiles for generating
. a three-dimensional object?
A Tweaking
B Lofting

C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.39 To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient?
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
Q.40 The curve is defined as the locus of a point moving with _ degree of freedom
.
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
Q.41 Write parametric equation of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3).
.
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A
Q.42 Find the tangent vector of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3)

. A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B
Q.43 Find coordinates of points on line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3) at
. u=0.25
A [3.75 4.25 6.25]
B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C
Q.44 Two lines are parallel when

.
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
Q.45 Two lines L1 and L2 having Parametric equations are P1=[3 4 7]+u[2 2 -6] and
. P2=[1 5 -2]+u[1 4 2]. Tangent vector for line L1
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k

D 6-2j-2k
Answer A
Q.46 For Q 45, Tangent vector for line L2

.
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D
Q.47 For Q 45, Lines are perpendicular?

.
A True
B False
Answer B
Q.48 Parametric equation for circle

.
A X=x+Rcosu; Y=y+Rsinu; Z=z
B X=Rcosu; Y=Rsinu; Z=z
C X=x+Rsinu; Y=y+Rcosu; Z=z
D X=Rsinu; Y=y+Rcosu; Z=z
Answer A
Q.49 Center point of circle

.
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
Q.50 A circle is represented by center point [5,5] and radius 6 units. Find the
. parametric equation of circle and determine the various points on circle in first
quadrant if increment in angle by 45o
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
Q.51 A circle is passing through two end points A[6,4] and B[10,10]. Find center point
. of circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C
Q.52 For Q 51, find radius of circle

.
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5

Answer B
Q.53 For Q 51, find coordinates of point on circle at u=0

.
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11
C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
Q.54 Find parametric equation for X-coordinates of hermite cubic spline curve having
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
Q.55 Find parametric equation for Y-coordinates of Hermite cubic spline curve having
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A
Q.56 C0 continuity refers to

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C
Q.57 C‘ continuity refers to

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B
Q.58 C” continuity refers to

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer A
Q.59 Which of the following is not a method to describe a curve mathematically?

.
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B

Q.60 When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as
.
A approximation curve
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
Q.61 When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve is known
. as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
Q.62 Synthetic curve pass through defined data points and thus can be represented by
.
A polynomial equations
B exponential equations
C partial differential equations
D differential equations
Answer A
Q.63 Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such that at
. any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci) is constant and
equal to

Answer A
Q.64 The parabola is defined mathematically as a curve generated by a point that moves
. such that its distance from the focus is always__________the distance to the directrix
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

Q.65 In synthetic curves, zero-order continuity yields
.
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.66 In synthetic curves, first-order continuity yields

.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.68 The B-spline curve has a

.
A first-order continuity
B second-order continuity

C zero-order continuity
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.69 To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two tangent
. vectors. This statement is true for which of the following?
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.70 The Bezier curve is smoother than the Hermite cubic spline because it has _________ order
. derivatives.
A lower
B higher
C lower and higher both
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.71 In the bezier curve, the curve is always________to first and last segments of the polygon
.
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above

Answer C
Q.72 ________curves allow local control of the curve.

.
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
Q.73 In Beizer Curve, the curve follows __________

.
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.74 In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with _______ of the polygon.
.
D none of the above
Answer B

Q.75 The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in _____
.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
Q.76 In modeling of a tabulated cylinder, the plane of the curve is _______

.
A along the curve
B normal to the curve
C along the axis of the cylinder
D perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder
Answer D
Q.77 The ___________ is used to create a surface using curves that form closed boundaries
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
Q.78 ________ command gives an array of object in 3D modeling

.
A Extrude
B Revolve

C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.79 To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
Q.80 A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape using the ________ tool.
.
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
Q.81 For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a preferred
. technique

Answer C
CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION

[Multiple Choice Questions] UNIT No-03
Name of Unit: FEA
Q.1 What is the full form of FEA
A Fracture Element Analysis
B Finite Element Analysis
C Future Electronic Analysis
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.2 From the following, which type of element is not two dimensional?
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
Q.3 For truss analysis, which type of elements is used?
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D

Q.4 To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts that
are called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
Q.5 The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is
known as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
Q.6 The sum of the shape function is equal to
A 0
B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
Q.7 A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
A 3
B 4
C 5

D 6
Answer D
Q.8 Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on .
A nature of element
B type of an element
C degrees of freedom
D nodes
Answer C
Q.9 On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
Q.10 The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
A structural mechanics
B classical mechanics
C applied mechanics
D engineering mechanics
Answer D
Q.11 In FEA, the sub domains are called as .
A particles

B molecules
C elements
D none
Answer C
Q.12 The numbers of node for 1 D element are
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
Q.13 Finite element analysis deals with .
A approximate numerical solution
B non-boundary value problems
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
Q.14 Stiffness matrix depends on
A material
B geometry
C both material and geometry
D none of the above

Answer C
Q.15 Example of 2-D Element is .
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
Q.16 For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
Q.17 To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, are used.
A shape function
B node function
C element function
D coordinate function
Answer A
Q.18 The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
A friction
B traction

C boundary condition
D surfacing
Answer C
Q.19 The truss element can resist only
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.20
The truss element can deform only in the
A vertical direction
B horizontal direction
C inclined direction

D axial direction
Answer D
Q.21 Example for one – Dimensional element is .
A triangular element
B brick element
C truss element
D axisymmetric element
Answer C
Q.22 The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D
Q.23 How many nodes are there in a 3-D brick element?
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C
Q.24 From below, choose the condition for the axisymmetric element.
A Symmetric about axis

B Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
C Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
D All the above
Answer D
Q.25 Axis-Symmetric element is Element
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
Q.26 is/are the phase/s of finite element method
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
Q.27 The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in
space is.
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A

Q.28 The finite element methods can be applied in ---------areas.
A thermal
B soil and rock mechanics
C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
Q.29 If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we need to
subdivide the structure into substructures. These substructures are termed as.
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B
Q.30 Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?
A The minimum potential energy principle
B Galerkin's principle
C Weighted residual method
D Inverse matrix method
Answer D
Q.31 ………….is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the

element to the smallest dimension.
A Element depth ratio

B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.32 …………..are used to express the geometry or shape of the element
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.33 When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is
called _ .
A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
Q.34 The characteristic of the shape function is
A the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at
the other nodes
B the sum of the shape function is equal to one
C both a & b

D None of the above
Answer C
Q.35 The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known
as .
A local coordinates system
B natural coordinates system
C global coordinate system
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.36 The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are .
A stretching of plates
B gravity of dams
C axisymmetric shells
D all of the above
Answer C
Q.37 If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement
is considered in .
A inverse matrix method
B weighted residual method
C Galerkin’s principle
D the minimum potential energy principle
Answer D
Q.38 Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?

A K is a banded matrix
B K is un-symmetric
C K is an un-banded matrix
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.39 The actual thickness of plane strain element is .
A very large
B very small
C assumed by software
D any of the above
Answer A
Q.40 Which of the following is not an FEA package?
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
Q.41 Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above

Answer C
Q.42 For thermal analysis, the field variable is
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
Q.43 In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find …….
A stress distribution
B heat flux distribution
C pressure distribution
D all of the above
Answer C
Q.44 Crack propagation problems come under category.
A steady-state problems
B eigenvalue problems
C transient problems
D any of the above
Answer C
Q.45 In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having stiffness.
A zero
B very small

C very large
D infinite
Answer D
Q.46 How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
Q.47 How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element?
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
Q.48 How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron with curved sides element?
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
Answer C

Q.49 If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be accurate.
A more
B less
C depends on other factors
D can't say
Answer A
Q.50 In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation .
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B

Name of Unit: CAM
Q.1 CAD/CAM is the relationship between

A science and engineering
B manufacturing and marketing
C design and manufacturing
D design and marketing
Answer C
Q.2 Which two disciplines are tied by a common database?
A documentation and geometric modeling
B CAD and CAM
C drafting and documentation
D none of the mentioned
Answer B
Q.3 The term that is used for geometric modelling like solid modelling, wire frame
modelling and drafting is known as
A software package
B operating system
C application software
Answer A
Q.4 The software that is used to control the computer’s work flow, organize its data
and perform housekeeping functions is known as
A operating software
B graphics software

D programming software
Answer A
Q.5 During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0
R5.0 the type of tool motion will be
A circular Interpolation – clockwise
B circular Interpolation – counter clockwise
C linear Interpolation
D rapid feed
Answer A
Q.6 n an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5,
4). The G and N codes for this motion are
A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
Q.7 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10) while
performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following
NC tool path command performs the above mentioned operation?
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A
Q.8 Match the following:

NC code Definition
P. M05 1. Absolute coordinate system
Q. G01 2. Dwell
R. G04 3. Spindle stop
S. G09 4. Linear interpolation
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C
Q.9 In a CNC program block, N02 GO2 G91 X40 Z40……, GO2 and G91 refer to
A circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and

incremental dimension
B circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute dimension
C circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
D circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
Answer C
Q.10 Numerical control
A applies only to milling machines
B is a method for producing exact number of parts per hour
C is a method for controlling by means of set of instructions

D None of the mentioned
Answer C
Q.11 Computer will perform the data processing functions in
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
Q.12 Control loop unit of M.C.U is always
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A
Q.13 The repeatability of NC machine depends on
A control loop errors
B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
Q.14 Rotation about Z-axis is called………….
A a-axis
B b-axis

C c-axis
Answer C
Q.15 Rotation of spindle is designated by one of the following axis:
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
Q.16 he linking of computer with a communication system is called………..
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
Q.17 The process of putting data into a storage location is called
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B

Q.18 The process of copying data from a memory location is called
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
Q.19 CNC machining centres do not include operations like
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C
Q.20 Feed is measured in units of
A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
Q.21 he depth that the tool is plunged into the surface is called as
A feed
B depth of cut

C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
Q.22 In CNC systems multiple microprocessors and programmable logic controllers work
A in parallel
B in series
C one after the other
D for 80% of the total machining time
Answer A
Q.23 Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?
A Higher flexibility
B Improved quality
C Reduced scrap rate
D Improved strength of the components
Answer D
Q.24 In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified?
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

Q.25 Point-to-point systems are used for
A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
Q.26 In part programming, interpolation is used for obtaining trajectory.
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
Q.27 For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.28 An absolute NC system is one in which all position coordinates are referred to one
fixed origin called the zero point.
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.29 In , the coordinates are mentioned in the program with respect to one reference point
A Incremental System

B Absolute System
C Datum System
D Screen Coordinates System
Answer B
Q.30 ……… is a group of words or coded instruction for the NC/CNC system to
execute a particular movement.
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D
Q.31 Each coded instruction in a set of instructions is called as……
A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
Q.32 In , the coordinates are mentioned in the program with respect to one Previous point.
B Absolute System
C Datum System

Answer A
Q.33 G00 Preparatory code is used for
A Rapid Travel Execution
B Rapid Travel Positioning
C Rapid Travel sequencing
D Rapid clockwise interpolation
Answer B
Q.34 In a CNC program block, N05 GO1 G91 G33 X20 Z-40……, G33 refer to
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C
Q.35 In CNC Program M03 is refer to……
A Spindle ON in Clockwise rotation
B Spindle ON in Counter Clockwise rotation
C Spindle OFF in Clockwise rotation
D Spindle OFF in Counter Clockwise rotation
Answer A
A CANCEL Subroutine

B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
D CANCEL Sub-Program
Answer B
Q.37 In a CNC program block, N05 GO1 G91 G33 X20 Z-40 K5……, K refer to
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
C Multiple Threading Cycle
D Feed
Answer B
Q.38 A CNC Lathe is usually a machine tool with Z axes is…..
A Line Joining origin and vertical movement
B Line perpendicular to Y axis
C Both A & B
D Line Joining Chuck centre & tail stock centre
Answer D
Q.39 B rotational axis is rotation about Axis.
A X
B Y
C Z
D C

Answer A
Q.40 Secondary Linear Axes U,V & W are ……… to X,Y & Z-axis.
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
Q.41 ……… are also called as parametric subroutines
A Micro
B Macro
C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
Answer A
Q.43 Incremental dimension in circular interpolation in X-axis is denoted by
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.44 Repetitive CNC machine operations conveniently performing and execute with
one command instead of programming of series of individual move called …..
A Common Cycle

B Incremental Programming
C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.45 In CNC programming …….. is commonly used canned cycle for Stock removal cycle
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D
Q.46 ……… is the origin of the coordinate system which is defined by manufacturer they
cannot be changed
A Blocking Point
B machine Zero Point
C Start Point
D Program Zero point
Answer B
Q.47 To indicate the position of the workpiece ly & easily machine zero pint should be
displaced to another point on the workpiece called…
A Workpiece zero Point

C Start Point
A Answer
Q.48 XY Plane Selection in CNC machining is done by…..
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
Q.49 The distance of a given tool tip from the surface of workpiece is known as…..
A Tool length
B Tool length offset H
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
Q.50 In CNC machining tool radius compensation turning the left mode ON programming
contour done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B

Q.51 Maximum spindle speed limitation code in CNC Machine
A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
Q.52 Which of the following code is used to return to a reference point?
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
Q.53 The following code will produce dwell for a specified time…
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
Q.54 Which of the following code will give point to point movement?
A G00
B G01
C G56

D G94
Answer A
Q.55 Which rule implement for axes Nomenclature?
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.56 Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code
A M05
B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
Q.57 Full form of MCU is…………
A Machine computer unit
B Machine control universal
C Machine control unit
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.58 The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like depth
of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself, is called

A Computer Numerical Control System
B Direct Numerical Control System
C Machining Center System
D Adaptive Control System
Answer D
Q.59 In which machine we get feedback?
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
Q.60 Which machine's spindle is used to horizontal work?
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C
Q.61 What is the full form of ATC?
A Automatic tool changer
B Arranged tool changer
C Automatic tool controller

D Arranged tool controller
Answer A
Q.62 In which system we get feedback?
A Open-loop system
B Machine control system
C Closed-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.63 How many maximum tools can ATC hold?
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
Q.64 In the CNC machine which device used to hold the workpiece?
A Automatic pallet changer
B Automatic work part positioner
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.65 In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-
axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be

A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B
Q.66 NC contouring is an example of
A Continuous path positioning
B Point-to-point positioning
C Absolute positioning
D Incremental positioning
Answer A
Q.67 With reference to NC machines, which of the following statements is wrong
A Both closed-loop and open-loop control systems are used
B Paper tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes are used for data storage
C Digitizers may be used as interactive input devices
D Post processor is an item of hardware
Answer C
Q.68 In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10 mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0,
30), (50, 30) and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the
cutter will be
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)

D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
Q.69 The lost motion in CNC machine tool is on account of
A Backlash in gearing
B Wind-up of drive shafts
C Deflection of machine tool members
D All the above
Answer A
Q.1. From following, the alternative name for RP is ________
A Additive Manufacturing
B Layer Manufacturing
C Direct CAD Manufacturing
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.2. Input of RP data is ______
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.3. In the ___________ process, one starts with a single block of solid material larger than the final
size of the desired object and material is removed until the desired shape is reached.

A Subtractive process
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
Q.4. __________ is one where mechanical forces or restricting forms are applied on a material so
as to form it into the desired shape
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
Q.5. Which of the following is not subtractive process?
A Milling
B Stereo-lithography
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions
UNIT No-05
Name of Unit: Advance Manufacturing Method
Q.6. Which of the following process is not formative process?
A Bending
B Plastic injection molding
C Selective Laser Sintering
D Forging
Answer C
Q.7. Choose the correct sequence to generate prototype
A 3D CAD data - CAD solid model - STL file - RP prototype
B CAD solid model - 3D CAD data - RP prototype - STL file
C STL file - 3D CAD data - CAD solid model - RP prototype
D 3D CAD data - STL file - CAD solid model - RP prototype
Answer A
Q.8. Which of the following can not be the input of CAD solid model?
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling

D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Q.9. Full form of STL is _____
A Straight-lithography
B Streto-lithography
C Stereo-lithography
D Straight-lipsography
Answer C
Q.10. For rapid prototyping 3D CAD model should be converted into______file
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
Q.11. Process of converting STL file model in to layers is called________in RP
A chopping
B slicing
C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
Q.12. Support structures are required for ______
A thin portions

B thick portions
C overhanging portions
D all of the above
Answer C
Q.13. The STL files translate the part geometry from a CAD system to________
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
Q.14. Slicing a part is easier in ______
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
Q.15. STL file converts curved surfaces into_______
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A

Q.16. Which of the following is not Liquid-based RP system?
A Stereolithography Apparatus (SLA)
B Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM)
C Solid Ground Curing (SGC)
D Solid Object Ultraviolet-Laser Printer (SOUP
Answer B
Q.17. Full form of FDM is_______
A Fixed Development Modelling
B Fusion Development Modelling
C Fused Deposition Modelling
D Focused Deposition Modelling
Answer C
Q.18. Full form of MJM is______
A Multi Joint Modelling
B Multi Jet Modelling
C Muted Jet Modelling
D Mitred Jet Modelling
Answer B
Q.19. Which of the following is not Solid-based RP system?
A Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM)

B Paper Lamination Technology (PLT)
C Electron Beam Melting (EBM)
D Fused Deposition Modeling (FDM)
Answer C
Q.20. Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) is developed by_______
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
D Cubic Technologies
Answer D
Q.21. Which of the following is not Powder-Based RP system?
A Selective Laser Sintering (SLS)
B Solid Object Ultraviolet-Laser Printer (SOUP)
D Direct Metal Deposition (DMD)
Answer B
Q.22. Which of the following RP system is not developed by 3D systems?
B Multi-Jet Modeling System (MJM)
C Paper Lamination Technology (PLT)
D Stereolithography Apparatus (SLA)
Answer C

Q.23. Which of the following is used as base material in Stereolithography (SLA) process?
A Thermoplastics , Metals powders
B Thermoplastics , Eutectic metals.
C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
Q.24. Which of the following is used as base material in Electron Beam Melting (EBM) process?
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
Q.25. Which of the following is used as base material in Selective laser sintering (SLS)?
A Photopolymer
B Thermoplastics, Metal powders
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B
Q.26. Which of the following advantage does not possess by the rapid prototyping process over
the traditional prototyping process?
A It consumes less time
B Gives better quality

C Reduces product launch time
D It's cheaper
Answer D
Q.27. STL file format is represented by interaction of ______
A lines and hexagons
B lines and rectangles
C lines and triangles
D lines and circles
Answer C
Q.28. Which material possess the maximum strength?
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
Q.29. Which material can be efficiently used as a support material?
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D
Q.30. Which material gives finest surface finish in RP?

A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
Q.31. Which materials possess highest melting temperature?
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
Q.32. Which file format cannot be converted into STL file format?
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp
Answer C
Q.33. STL files contains ______
A mass properties of the model
B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above

Answer B
Q.34. In STL files when chord length decrease then accuracy _______
A increase
B decrease
C may increase or may decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
Q.35. Which of the following is least important in design during rapid prototyping?
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
Q.36. Drilling, milling and threading are examples of which kind of processes?
A Additive manufacturing
B Subtractive manufacturing
C Formative manufacturing
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.37. Which of the following is not an example of additive manufacturing?
A Fused-deposition-modeling
B Electron beam machining

C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D
Q.38. In 4D printing, which one is the fourth dimension?
A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
Q.39. Which of the following is not a data interfacing format?
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
Q.40. Which of the following is a data interfacing format?
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A

Q.41. STL consists of an unordered list of _______ facets representing the outside skin of an
object.
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
Q.42. STL file consists of which of the following format?
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
Q.43. STL files plague several problems as they contain no _______ data
A geographical
B analytical
C topological
D all of the above
Answer C
Q.44. In laminated object manufacturing (LOM), which of the following cutting strategy is
preferable?
A Directional scanning
B Zigzag tool paths

C Contouring and spiral paths
D Boundary cutting tool paths
Answer D
Q.45. A tessellated model is said to be valid if there are ________
A no missing facets
B no degenerate facets
C no overlapping facets
D all of the above
Answer D
Q.46. Among the following, which one is the last step in Data Processing for Rapid Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
C Tool path generation
D Support generation
Answer C
Q.47. Among the following, which one is the earliest step in Data Processing for Rapid
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B

Q.48. What type of inner structure makes the smoothest model in RP?
A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.49. What type of inner structure can be used to reduce the printing time of the model in RP?
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.50. Which of the following is an optional section of IGES format?
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
Q.51. Which one is NOT related to rapid prototyping definition?
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data

D Production line
Answer D
Q.52. Which one of the processes is NOT using a laser?
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
Q.53. Which of the following is the process in the RP cycle?
A Post-processing
B Transfer to machine
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.54. Which of the following is one of the design process steps?
A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
D Transfer to machine
Answer B
Q.55. What is the format for the prototyping machine file?
A .prt

B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
Q.56. Which CAD software cannot be used to create data for the prototyping machine?
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D
Q.57. Which one of the process is subtractive prototyping?
A 5 axis CNC Milling
B Fused Deposition Modeling
C Multi-Jet Modeling
D Stereolithography Apparatus
Answer A
Q.58. From the following, in which process, the input material is in solid form?
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C

Q.59. Which of the process, the input material is in liquid form?
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
Q.60. Which of the process, the input material is in powder form?
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
Q.61. Which material is NOT available for LOM process?
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
Q.62. Which of the process is using the extrusion concept?
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM

D MJM
Answer C
Q.63. Which of the following is the process of the pre-processing stage?
A Remove support
B Checking 3D CAD data
C De-powdering loose material
D Dip in a binder to strengthen the part
Answer B
Q.64. A computer model of a part design on a CAD system is called which of the following?
A Computer Prototype
B Geometric Prototype
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype
Answer D
Q.65. Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long.
A True
B False
Answer B
Q.66. In the context of rapid prototyping and additive manufacturing, tessellation refers to the
process of slicing the CAD model of the part into layers.

A Droplet Deposition Manufacturing
B Used-Deposition Modeling
C Laminated-Object Manufacturing
D Stereolithography
Answer D
Q.67. Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material?
B Fused-Deposition Modeling
D Stereolithography
Answer C
Q.68. Which of the following RP technologies uses molten material as the starting material?
A Three-Dimensional Printing
C Stereolithography
D Selective Laser Sintering
Answer C
Q.69. Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material?
A Droplet deposition manufacturing
B Fused-deposition modeling

Answer C
Q.7 Which of the following are examples of appropriate applications of additive manufacturing in
0. the actual production of parts and products?
A Castings made in small quantities
B Plastic parts in small batch sizes
C Mass-produced metal parts
D Special textile products
Answer B
Q.7 Which of the following are problems with the current rapid prototyping and
1. additive manufacturing technologies?
A Limited material variety
B Inability to convert a solid part into layers
C Poor machinability of the starting material
D The inability of the designer to design the part
Answer A
Q.7 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies, which one is the most
2. widely used?
A Ballistic particle manufacturing
B Selective laser sintering
C Solid ground curing
D Stereolithography
Answer D
Q.7 Which one of the following is not a rapid indirect tooling method?
3.

A Vacuum Casting
B Investment Casting
C Laser-Engineered Net Shaping
D Injection molding
Answer C
Q.7 Which one of the following is not a direct rapid tooling method?
4.
A LOM Composite
B Direct AIM (ACES Injection Molding)
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D
Q.75. In the process of Selective Laser Sintering, raw material used is in the form of ______
A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
Q.76. In Selective Laser Sintering, laser light is also being used.
A True
B False

C
Answer A
Q.77. Explicit support structures are not required in Selective Laser Sintering (SLS).
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.78. Which of the following process is suitable for making injection molding tools?
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B
Q.79. Which one of the following is not Extrusion-Based RP Systems?
A Fused Deposition Modelling (FDM)
B 3D Printing
C Sheet Lamination (Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM))
D Electron Beam melting (EBM)
Answer D
Q.80. Which of the following is the firststep of the rapid prototyping process?

A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
Q.81. Which of the following is the last step of the rapid prototyping process?
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D
Q.82. In STL files Euler’s rule for solids can be written as
A No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = 3 x No. of bodies
B No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = No. of bodies
C No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = 2 x No. of bodies
D No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = 4 x No. of bodies
Answer C
Q.83. Which of the following is a stage of Product Life Cycle?
A Introduction stage
B Growth stage
C Mature stage

D All of the above
Answer D
Q.84. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage represents rapid growth of product sale known
as_____.
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
D Introduction stage
Answer C
Q.85. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage represents a new and previously unknown product
for buyers known as_____.
A Mature stage
B Introduction stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.86. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage in which buyers move on to other products and sales
drop is known as_____.
A Growth stage

C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
Q.87. In “Product Life Cycle” in _______ stage market becomes saturated
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
Q.88. The technology life cycle concerned with the time and cost of developing the
technology
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.89. The time duration of useful life of any product is known as a product's life cycle.
A True
B False
Answer B

Q.90. The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or any
machine etc
A True
B False
Answer B
UNIT No-06
Name of Unit: Robotics and Automation
Q.1. ____ is a manufacturing philosophy in which different parts are manufactured in a small batch
or group based on similarities
A Production technology
B Group technology
C Flexible manufacturing system
D None of the above
Answer B

Q.2. Which layout is mostly used for batch type of production?
A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.3. In which layout manufacturing is done according to machine arrangement
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
Q.4. In which layout manufacturing is done according to product's characteristics?
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D
Q.5. From the following which is type of coding system?

A OPITZ coding system
B 3 system
C The MICLASS system
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.6. From the following in which coding method supplementary code and form code are used?
A 3 system
B The MICLASS system
C OPITZ coding system
D The DICLASS system
Answer C
Q.7. ____ is a collection of parts which have similar characteristics
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A
Q.8. From the following which is the step of machine cell design?
A Divide parts into part families
B Select type of machine cell
C Prepare a composite part

D All of the above
Answer D
Q.9. Cellular manufacturing is not a application of thought of group technology.
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.1 Form which of the following is the objective of cellular manufacturing.

0.
A Reduced manufacturing lead time
B Increased in quality
C Reduced setup time
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.11. ____ is a highly automated group of GT machine cell.
A Flexible manufacturing system
B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

Q.12. From the following which is the main components of Flexible manufacturing system(FMS).
A Main frame computer
B Automated guided vehicle
C Material handling system
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.13. From the following what is the full form of AGV?
A Automatic Guided Vehicle
B Automated Gas Vehicle
C Automated Guided Vehicle
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.14. From the following which is the types of Automated Guided Vehicle (AGV).
A Driver less train
B Pallet trucks
C Unit load carriers
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.15. From the following which method is used to guide the AGV.

A Wire guided
B Paint strip
C Self guided vehicle
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.16. From the following which is not the application of AGV.
A Truck loading and unloading
B To change the tool
C Material transfer
D Paper roll transfer
Answer B
Q.17. From the following which is the benefits of AGV.
A Reduction in man-hours
B Useful in hazardous area
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.18. A combination of equipment and controls which handles, stores and retrieves materials
with precision,accuracy and speed under a defined degree of automation is known as ____
A Automated storage and retrieval system (AS/RS)
B Flexible manufacturing system

C Automated guided vehicle
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.19. From the following which is the benefits of AS/RS
A Less product damage
B Good and easy housekeeping in FMS
C Reduce labour cost
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.20. From the following which is the type of FMS layout
A In line layout
B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.21. What is the full form of AS/RS in FMS?
A Automated storage and recovery system
B Automatic storage and rotary system
C Automated storage and retrieval system
D Automated storage and regenerative system
Answer C

Q.22. From the following in which FMS layout machine tools are kept along a straight line.
A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
Q.23. From the following in which FMS layout workstations are arranged in a loop
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.24. From the following in which FMS layout workstations are arranged in a loop with rungs
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.25. From the following which FMS layout is combination of many loop and ladder layout
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout

D None of the above
Answer B
Q.26. From the following in which FMS layout robots are used as material handling system
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D Robot centered layout
Answer D
Q.27. If the production is done according to change in various product design easily then such
manufacturing system is called as flexible system.
A True
B False
Answer B
Q.28. From which of the following is not the main element of Flexible manufacturing system
A Work handling system
B Material handling system
C Tool handling system
D Main frame computer
Answer A

Q.29. From the following which is the function of material handling system used in FMS
A Handling of parts with different variety
B Independent movement of part between stations
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.30. ____ is an independent and self-operated vehicle which moves on defined guide ways
A Automated Guarded Vehicles
B Automated Storage and Retrieval System
C Automated Guided Vehicles
D Automated Driving Vehicles
Answer C
Q.31. From the following which material handling equipment is used in ladder layout of FMS
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.32. From the following which material handling equipment is used in Robot centered layout of
FMS
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems
C Rail guided vehicle system

D None of the above
Answer A
Q.33. ____ is a general purpose, programmable machine possessing certain human like
characteristics
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.34. _____ is area of engineering and science which understand the different principles, structure
and programming of robot
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.35. ____ is also known as work volume of robot
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement
C Load carrying capacity
D Precision of movement
Answer A

Q.36. The speed at which robot is capable of manipulating its end effector is known as the____.
A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
D Load carrying capacity
Answer C
Q.37. The capacity of robot to carry load is known as_____.
A Load carrying capacity
B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.38. ____ is a collection of mechanical linkage connected by joints
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D
Q.39. Sensors are the transducers that are used to____.

A Measure physical quantity
B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.40. From which of the following is the geometrical configuration of robot
A Cylindrical configuration
B Polar configuration
C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.41. ____ grippers are used to pick up light weight materials such as paper,cloth etc
A Mechanical grippers
B Adhesive grippers
C Vacuum cup grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
Q.42. ____ grippers are used to transfer ferrous material
A Magnetic grippers
B Mechanical grippers
C Adhesive grippers
D Vacuum cup grippers

Answer A
Q.43. The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or any machine
etc
A True
B False
Answer B
Q.44. Sensors which are come in contact with some surface to measured desired physical variable
are known as____
A Non-contact sensors
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.45. From which of the following is known as contact sensor.
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor

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Q1.The basic a ributes of a straight line segment are Manufacturing Technology 4

a) Type
b) Width Manufacturing Technology 3
c) Colour Manufacturing Technology 2

d) All of these
Q2. A dashed line could be displayed by genera ng…….. Workshop Technology 8
a) Inter dash spacing
b) Very short dashes
c) Botha a and b ALL PAPERS
d) A or B
Select Category
Q3. Which of the following is not a line-type?
a) Dashed line
b) Dark line
c) Do ed line
d) Only b
Q4. In an applica on program, to set line-type a ributes the

following statement is used
a) Setlinetype(lt)
b) Setlinetype(lt)
c) SETLINETYPE(lt)
d) SETLINE()
Q5. The algorithm which displays line-type a ributes by plo ng

pixel spans is
a) Raster line algorithm
b) Raster scan algorithm
c) Random line algorithm
d) Random scan algorithm
Q6. Pixel mask means

a) A string containing only 1;s
b) A string containing only 0’s
c) A string containing 1 and 0
d) A string containing 0 and 0
Q7. A heavy line on a video monitor could be displayed as

a) Adjacent perpendicular lines
b) Adjacent parallel lines
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q8. To set the line-width a ribute the following command is used

a) SETLINEWIDTHSCALEFACTOR (lw)
b) Setlinewidth()
c) Setlinewidthscalefacto (lw)
d) Setlinewidthscalefactor (lw)
Q9. The parameter to “setlinewidthscalefactor (lw) “func on

specifies?
a) Standard width
b) Rela ve width of the line
c) Thickness of the line
d) All the above
Q10. We can adjust the shape of the line ends to give them a
be er appearance by using
a) Line spacing
b) More dots
c) Line caps
d) Round cap
Q11. Thick line drawn with

a) Bu caps
b) Round caps
c) Projec ng square caps
d) All of the men oned
Q12. We set the line-colour value in PHIGS with the func on

a) Setpolylinecolorindex (lc)
b) Setline Color()
c) SETPOLYLINECOLORINDEX (lc)
d) Only b
Q13. If the angle between 2 connected line segments is very small

then……… Can generate a long spike that distorts the appearance
of the polyline
a) Miter join
b) Round join
c) Bevel join
d) None
Q14. A line drawn in the background colour is

a) Visible
b) Invisible
c) Visible or Invisible
d) Only b
Q15. A line with a tapering width can be easily created by using

the………. Tool
a) Circle
b) Eclipse
c) Line
d) Polyline
Q16. Understanding the Cartesian coordinate system will help the

beginning dra er________
a) Control the accuracy of the drawing
b) Produce a visible grid system
c) Select a different text style
d) Choose various line types
Q17. The UCS icon represents the intersec on of the ________

a) X axis
b) Y axis
c) Z axis
d) All of the above
Q18. A do ed line can be displayed by genera ng

a) Very short dashes with spacing equal to and greater than dash
size
b) Very long dashes with spacing equal to or greater than dash size
c) Very short dashes with spacing equal to and greater than dash
size
d) Dots
Q19. When using the direct entry method to create a horizontal

line exactly three inches long the dra er should ________ first
a) Pull the line from away from the star ng point very carefully
b) Insure that Ortho is on
c) Enter 3 for the length of the line
d) Read the coordinate posi on on the Dynamic Readout
Q20. Using the Rela ve Polar Coordinate System to add a 3 inch

line that is 45 degrees from the end point of the line created
above the dra er would…………..
a) Type @3 is less than 45 and enter
b) Type 3 back slash and enter
c) Type 3 forward slash and enter
d) Type 3 and try to use the Dynamic Input readout to find the end
point
Q1. Answer: d
Q2. Answer: a
Q3. Answer: d
Q4. Answer: b
Q5. Answer: a
Q6. Answer: c
Q7. Answer: b
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: b
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: d
Q12. Answer: a
Q13. Answer: a
Q14. Answer: d
Q15. Answer: d
Q16. Answer: a
Q17. Answer: d
Q18. Answer: c
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: d
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Q1. In order to set drawing limits for a “C” size architectural Manufacturing Technology 4
drawing the dra er should set the limits to ________
a) 0,0 and 2,9 Manufacturing Technology 3
b) 0,0 and 17,11 Manufacturing Technology 2

c) 0,0 and 18,24
d) 0,0 and 34,24 Manufacturing Technology 1
Workshop Technology 8
Q2. One quick way to view the en re drawing area is to use the
Zoom command by typing ________
a) Type Z enter A enter ALL PAPERS
b) Type Z enter E enter
c) Type SHOWALL enter Select Category
d) Type ALL enter
Q3. When se ng up a mechanical drawing in AutoCAD the dra er

should set the units to________
a) Frac onal
b) Decimal
c) Architectural
d) Metric
Q4. When drawing a line using the rela ve coordinate system a

line is created from
________
a) 0,0
b) The ending point of the last line
c) The beginning point of the last line
d) None of the above
Q5. If you use the absolute coordinate system to create a line

from a star ng point of 0, 0 8 units on the X axis and 5 units on
the Y axis you enter ________ for the second point
a) 8,5
b) 5,8
c) 0,8
d) 5,0
Q6. The distor on of informa on due to low-frequency sampling

is known as
a) Sampling
b) Aliasing
c) Inquiry func on
d) An -aliasing
Q7. To avoid losing informa on from periodic objects we need

a) Sampling frequency twice
b) Nyquist sampling frequency
c) Both a or b
d) Neither a nor b
Q8. Nyquist sampling frequency formula is

a) Fs=2fmax
b) Fs=2fmin
c) Fs=fmax
d) Fs=fmin
Q9. The sampling of object characteris c at a high resolu on and

displaying the result at a lower resolu on is called?
a) Super-sampling
b) Post-filtering
c) An -aliasing
d) A or b
Q10. An -aliasing by compu ng overlap areas is referred to as

a) Area-sampling
b) Super-sampling
c) Pixel phasing
d) Only b
Q11. Area-sampling is also known as

a) Pre-filtering
b) Pixel phasing
c) Post-filtering
d) An -aliasing
Q12. Raster objects can also be an -aliased by shi ing the display
loca on of pixel areas is known as
a) Super-sampling
b) Pixel shaping
c) Pixel phasing
d) Any of these
Q13. If we want to use more intensity levels to an -alias the line,

then
a) We increase the number of sampling posi ons
b) We decrease the number of sampling posi ons
c) We increase the number of pixels
d) Only c
Q14. The procedure that increases the number of intensity levels

for each pixel to total number of sub-pixels is
a) Area-sampling
b) An -aliasing
c) Super-sampling procedure
d) Only c
Q15. For a 45% line, the line path is________ on the polygon area
a) Horizontal
b) Centered
c) Ver cal
d) Any of these
Q16. An array of values specifying the rela ve importance of sub-

pixel is referred
as________ of sub-pixel weights
a) Sub-mask
b) Mask
c) Pixel phasing
d) Pixel weigh ng
Q17. The technique that is more accurate method for an -aliasing

lines is
a) Filtering
b) Area-sampling
c) Super-sampling
d) None
Q18. Super-sampling methods can be applied by

a) Sub-dividing the total area
b) Determining the number of sub-pixels inside the area
c) Both a and b
d) Only b
Q19. Another method for determining the percentage of pixel

area within a boundary is
a) Mid-print algorithm
b) Mid-point algorithm
c) Pixel intensity
d) By using inquiry func ons
Q20. What is the use of Coherence techniques along and between

scan lines?
a) To simplify the calcula ons
b) To determine the area edges
c) To find polygon region
d) To correct interior area
Q1. Answer: c
Q2. Answer: a
Q3. Answer: b
Q4. Answer: b
Q5. Answer: a
Q6. Answer: b
Q7. Answer: b
Q8. Answer: a
Q9. Answer: d
Q10. Answer: a
Q11. Answer: a
Q12. Answer: c
Q13. Answer: a
Q14. Answer: c
Q15. Answer: b
Q16. Answer: c
Q17. Answer: a
Q18. Answer: b
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: a
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Q1. Compared to humans, machines: Manufacturing Technology 4

a) Can make more complex decisions based on unexpected
circumstances Manufacturing Technology 3
b) Can work in harsher environments Manufacturing Technology 2

c) Make fewer errors
d) (a) and (c) Manufacturing Technology 1
Q2. A solenoid:
a) Can be used only in de circuits
b) Is spring operated ALL PAPERS
c) Is widely used in industrial automa on
d) Is related to an aneroid Select Category
Q3. Most industrial control applica ons:

a) Can be solved using more than one method of control
b) Can be done more reliably using solid-state methods
c) Must have the process specified correctly to be successful
d) All of the above
Q4. When was the first successful industrial robot installed in the
General Motors Plant in
USA?
a) 1960
b) 1961
c) 1967
Q5. The physical arrangement of equipment in a network is

called:
a) Topology
b) Pairing
c) Logic
Q6. A programmable controller:

a) Can be used on more than one machine during its life me
b) Can be reprogrammed in the field
c) Requires considerable training before it can be used
d) (a) & (b) above
Q7. A LISP environment consists of a language, a programming

environment, and:
a) Random-access storage
b) A processor
c) A large address
d) A set of func ons
Q8. What is a process variable?

a) A manipulated variable
b) A controlled variable
c) A process parameter that changes value
d) All of the above
Q9. Time propor oning control:

a) Can be used on a PM550 programmable process controller
b) Is less efficient than normal PID control
c) C and b above
Q10. What is the process lag?

a) The me it takes for the sensor to respond to a changed
b) The lag in the error signal when the set point is changed
c) The me it takes for the mass of the process to respond to an
input change
d) All of the above
Q11. Which of the following may be classified as an automa on

system?
a) Automated warehouses
b) Numerically controlled machine tools
c) Robo cs
d) All of the above
Q12. The accuracy of a pick-and-place robot can be as good as:

a) + 0.0005 inches
b) + 0.05 inches
c) 0.008 inches
d) 3%
Q13. The concept of a general CAD system was that it should

provide:
a) A system for handling user ac ons
b) A system for the opera on of applica ons programming
c) A set of basic system func ons and u li es
d) All of the above
Q14. The general CAD system was development by considering a

wide range of possible
uses of such a system.
a) Mechanical engineering design
b) Anima on and graphic design
c) Structural engineering design and Electronic circuit design
d) All of the above
Q15. The “end-effector” of a robot:

a) Can be an actual tool
b) Is the robot “hand”
c) May have a gripping ac on
d) All of the above
Q16. The program execu on me:

a) Must be slower than the fastest mechanical opera on that is to
be controlled
b) Will vary depending on the language used
c) Cannot be changed once the program is wri en
d) All of the above
Q17. One advantage of a PC in industrial control is that it:

a) Has a reliable long life compared to relay logic
b) Is very difficult for the inexperienced programmer to understand
c) Is unreliable because there are no moving parts
d) All of the above
Q18. An opera ng system:

a) Is required to run a microprocessor system
b) Provides a structure with which to develop applica on programs
c) Is useful because standard modules can be used
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q19. What is required to enable the PC to emulate a graphics

terminal?
a) So ware
b) A laser printer
c) A colour monitor
d) A graphics board
Q20. Which type of digi zer measures a wave traveling at the

speed of sound?
a) Sonic
b) Digi zing
c) Capaci ve
Q1. Answer: d
Q2. Answer: c
Q3. Answer: d
Q4. Answer: b
Q5. Answer: a
Q6. Answer: a
Q7. Answer: d
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: a
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: d
Q12. Answer: a
Q13. Answer: d
Q14. Answer: d
Q15. Answer: d
Q16. Answer: c
Q17. Answer: a
Q18. Answer: d
Q19. Answer: a
Q20. Answer: a
CAD CAM Dynamics of
Automation 2 Machinery 1
SNJB's Late Sau. Kantabai Bhavarlaji Jain College of Engineering
Department : Mechanical Engineering
Academic Year : 2020-21 (Semester VII)
Formative Test: Mock Insem (MCQ based)
Class : _B.E. (A&B) Marks : 30
Date : 13/10/2020 Duration : 45 Minutes
Subject: _CAD/CAM and Automation (402042)
Instructions:
1. Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed
2. Assume suitable data, if Necessary
Unit
CO BL QN Questions Marks
No.
A system that automates the drafting process with
interactive computer graphics is called
(A) Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)

1 1 1 (B) Computer Aided Design (CAD)
1 1
(C) Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
(D) Computer Aided Instruction (CAI)
If the values of the scaling factors sx and sy < 1, then
(A) it reduces the size of the object

1 1 2 (B) it increases the size of the object 1 1
(C) it stunts the shape of an object
(D) none of the above
The term UCS stands for
(A) User Coordinate State

1 1 3 (B) Using Cordinates Screen 1 1
(C) User Coordinate System
(D) User Coordinate Set
Which coordinate system is a device-dependent

coordinate system?
1 1 4 (A) World Coordinate System 1 1

(B) Model Coordinate System
(D) Screen Coordinate System
The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix
form is
(A) P’=P+T
1 1 5 1 1
(B) P’=S*P
(C) P’=P*R
(D) P’=R+S
For Questions 6 to 10 refer following Problem
Statement-
1 2 1 1
A Triangle ABC is represented as A(8,0), B(12, 0)
and C(12,3) If it is reflected about line Y=2,
To find out concatenated Transformation Matrix (CT)
The sequence of operation will be
(A) Inverse Translation - Inverse Rotation-
Reflection about X axis- Rotation- Translation
(B) Inverse Rotation- Inverse Translation -
1 2 6 1 1
(C) Inverse Translation - Inverse Rotation- -
Rotation- Translation- Reflection about X axis
(D) Reflection about X axis - Inverse Translation -
Inverse Rotation- - Rotation- Translation
Rotation angle required is
(A) 00
1 2 7 (B) -450 1 1
(C) 450
(D) 600
New Coordinate of A after given transformation is
(A) (5,9,1)
1 2 8 (B) (8,4,1) 1 1
(C) (2,3,1)
(D) None of the above
New Coordinate of B after given transformation is
(A) (12,2,1)
1 2 9 (B) (14,4,1) 1 1
(C) (12,4,1)
(D) (30,2,1)
New Coordinate of C after given transformation is
(A) 12,1,1
(B) 4,2,1
3 2 10 1 1
(C) 6,5,1
(D) 2,3,1
In finite element method, the body is divided into

finite number of smaller units known as
(A) Elements
3 1 11 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
In finite element method, the process of dividing
body into finite number of elements is known as
(A) Elements
3 1 12 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
The Global coordinate system is the frame of
reference for the
(A) Entire body
3 1 13 1 3
(B) Individual element
(C) Bothe A & B
To interpolate and determine different properties
within the element _____________ is used.
(A) Shape function
3 1 14 (B) Relationship between Local and Natural 1 3
coordinate
(C) Discretization
Refer following figure for question No 15-20
3 1 3
Total Degree of Freedom (d.o.f.) for above

assembly is
(A) 2
3 2 15 1 3
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Value of displacement at Node 2 (U2) is
(A) 100 mm
3 2 16 (B) 200mm 1 3
(C) 250mm
(D) 400mm
(A) 400mm
3 2 17 (B) 500mm 1 3
(C) 600mm
(D) 700mm
Defection of Spring 1 and 2 are
(A) 200mm
3 2 18 (B) 250mm 1 3
(C) 300mm
(D) 400mm
Defection of spring 3
(A) 150 mm
3 2 19 (B) 300mm 1 3
(C) 400mm
(D) 500mm
Reaction force at support is
(A) -6000 N
3 2 20 (B) 6000 N 1 3
(C) 4000 N
(D) -4000 N
Which of the following is a step of the Rapid
Prototyping process?
(A) Create a CAD model of the design
5 1 21 (B) Convert the CAD model to STL format 1 5
(C) Slice the STL file into thin cross-sectional
layers
(D) All of the mentioned above
In 4D printing, which one is the fourth dimension?
(A) Time
(B) Material
5 1 22 1 5
(C) Sound
(D) Light
Which one is NOT related to rapid prototyping
definition?
(A) layer by layer
5 1 23 (B) physical model 1 5
(C) from 3D CAD data
(D) Production line
What is the full name of SLS?

(A) Selective Laser Simulator
(B) Sintering Laser Simulator
5 1 24 1 5
(C) Selective Laser Sintering
(D) Stereolithography Laser Sintering
What is the format for prototyping machine file?

(A) .prt
5 1 25 (B) .slt 1 5
(C).stl
(D) .iges
What is rapid prototyping?
(A) Designing something while competing
against other departments
(B) When companies or teams are working on
multiple aspects of the same design at one
5 1 26 1 5
time
(C) Changing the design of something after
production has already begun
(D) The process by which a model of the final
product can quickly be made
When should a company employ rapid
prototyping?
(A) At the end of a project
5 1 27 (B) Before production begins 1 5
(C) In the middle of production
(D) A company should never use rapid
prototyping
Which one of the processes is NOT using a laser?
(A) Laminated Object Manufacturing
(B) Stereolithography
5 1 28 1 5
(D) Fused Deposition manufacturing
From the following, in which process, the input

material is in solid form?
5 1 29 (A) Laminated Object Manufacturing 1 5

Which of the process, the input material is in liquid
form?

1. A system that automates the (A) 8
drafting process with interactive computer (B) 16
graphics is called (C) 24
(A) Computer Aided Engineering (D) 32
(CAE)
(B) Computer Aided Design (CAD) 8. Which of the following is not a
(C) Computer Aided Manufacturing graphics standard?
(CAM) (A) GKS
(D) Computer Aided Instruction (CAI) (B) IGBS
(C) UNIX
2. A Pixel is (D) PHIGS
(A) a computer program that draws
picture 9. The number of pixels stored in the
(B) a picture stored in secondary frame buffer of a graphics system is
memory known as
(C) the smallest resolvable part of a (A) resolution
picture (B) depth
(D) None of these (C) vertex
(D) All of the above
3. The term UCS stands for
(A) User Coordinate State 10. The primary output device in a
(B) Using Cordinates Screen graphics system is
(C) User Coordinate System (A) scanner
(D) User Coordinate Set (B) monitor
(C) printer
4. Which coordinate system is a (D) All of the above
device-dependent coordinate system?
(A) World Coordinate System 11. The device which is used to position
(B) Model Coordinate System the screen cursor is
(C) User Coordinate System (A) mouse
(D) Screen Coordinate System (B) joystick
(C) data glove
5. In computer aided drafting practice, (D) keyboard
an arc is defined by
(A) two end points only 12. The Cartesian slope-intercept
(B) center and radius equation for a straight line is
(C) radius and one end point (A) y = m.x + b
(D) two end points and center (B) y = b.x + m
(C) y = x.x + m
6. The heart of a computer is (D) y = b + m.m
(A) CPU
(B) ALU 13. For color displays, how many
(C) monitor bits/pixel would be needed?
(D) keyboard (A) 8
(B) 16
7. ____________bits/pixel are needed (C) 24
to produce satisfactory continuous shades (D) 32
of color display.
14. Which of the following is the (B) rotation
default coordinate system? (C) scaling
(A) User Coordinate System (D) all of the above
(B) World Coordinate System
(C) Screen Coordinate System 21. Positive values for the rotation
(D) None of the above angle ϴ defines ___________ .
(A) counterclockwise rotations about
15. Which of the following is a two- the end points
dimensional Cartesian coordinate system? (B) counterclockwise translation about
(A) User Coordinate System the pivot point
(B) World Coordinate System (C) counterclockwise rotations about
(C) Screen Coordinate System the pivot point
(D) None of the above (D) none of the above
16. When every entity of a geometric 22. The two-dimensional rotation

model remains parallel to its initial equation in the matrix form is
position, the transformation is called as (A) P’=P+T
___________. (B) P’=R*P
(A) scaling (C) P’=P*P
(B) translation (D) P’=R+P
(C) rotation
(D) mirror 23. The transformation that is used to
alter the size of an object is ___________ .
17. In which type of projection, actual (A) scaling
dimensions and angles of objects and (B) rotation
therefore shapes cannot be preserved? (C) translation
(A) Orthographic (D) reflection
(B) Isometric
(C) Perspective 24. The two-dimensional scaling
(D) None of the above equation in the matrix form is
(A) P’=P+T
18. The number of line required to (B) P’=S*P
represent a cube in a wire frame model is (C) P’=P*R
(A) 8 (D) P’=R+S
(B) 6
(C) 12 25. If the values of the scaling factors
(D) 16 sx and sy < 1, then ___________ .
19. The two-dimensional translation (B) it increases the size of the object
equation in the matrix form is (C) it stunts the shape of an object
(A) P’=P+T (D) none of the above
(B) P’=P-T
(C) P’=P*T 26. If the values of the scaling factors
(D) P’=p sx and sy are assigned to the same value,
then ___________ .
20. The basic geometric transformation (A) uniform rotation is produced
is ___________ . (B) uniform scaling is produced
(A) translation (C) scaling cannot be done
(D) none of the above (C) scanning
27. If the value of sx=1 and sy=1, then
___________ . 33. Scaling can be
(A) reduce the size of the object (A) uniform
(B) distort the picture (B) non-uniform
(C) produce an enlargement (C) both uniform and non-uniform
(D) no change in the size of an object (D) none of the above
28. Reflection about the line y=0, the 34. To achieve scaling, the original
axis, is accomplished with the coordinates would be _________ by
transformation matrix with how many scaling factor.
elements as ‘0’? (A) multiplied
(A) 8 (B) divided
(B) 9 (C) substracted
(C) 4 (D) none of the above
(D) 6
35. Reflection is the process of
29. Which transformation distorts the obtaining a _______ image of the original
shape of an object such that the shape.
transformed shape appears as if the object (A) smaller
were composed of internal layers that had (B) larger
been caused to slide over each other? (C) slant
(A) Rotation (D) mirror
(B) Scaling
(C) Shearing 36. ______________ allows the user to
(D) Reflection view the objects from different angles.
(A) Rotation
30. In a reflection, by how much angle (B) Translation
is the object rotated? (C) Reflection
(A) 45 (D) Skewing
(B) 90
(C) 180 37. Circular arrays can be obtained with
(D) 360 the help of ____________ transformation.
(A) translation
31. Shearing is also termed as (B) skewing
___________ . (C) mirror
(A) selecting (D) rotation
(B) sorting
(C) scaling 38. From the following, which one will
(D) skewing require maximum numbers of matrices to
multiply?
32. All changes performed on the (A) Rotation about the origin
graphic image are done by changing the (B) Rotation about an arbitrary Point
database of the original picture. These (C) Rotation about an arbitrary line
changes are called as________. (D) Scaling about the origin
(A) Boolean operations
(B) transformations
39. From the following, which one will 45. In order to define perspective
require 4 matrices to multiply to get the projection, ______________ is required.
final position? (A) a center of projection
(A) Rotation about the origin (B) a projection plane
(B) Rotation about an arbitrary Point (C) a center of projection and a
(C) Rotation about an arbitrary line projection plane
(D) Scaling about the origin (D) none of the above
40. From the following, which one will 46. The transformation of perspective
require 6 matrices to multiply to get the projection must include__________,
final position? where d is the distance between the center
(A) Rotation about the origin of projection to the projection plane.
(B) Rotation about an arbitrary Point (A) d
(C) Scaling about the origin (B) 1/d
(D) Rotation about an arbitrary line (C) -d
(D) -1/d
41. To obtain the projection of an
entity, projectors are constructed by 47. How many total numbers of
connecting ___________ with each point projecting planes are required for the
of the entity. complete description of the orthographic
(A) projection plane projection system?
(B) viewing plane (A) 2
(C) the center of projection (B) 4
(D) none of the above (C) 6
(D) 8
42. Parallel projection has the center of 48. A world-coordinate area selected
projection at_________. for display is called a _________.
(A) many points (A) window
(B) only one point (B) monitor
(C) infinity (C) screen
(D) none of the above (D) none of the above
43. If the center of projection is at a 49. An area on a display device to

finite distance from the plane, which a window is mapped is called a
____________ results. __________.
(A) perspective projection (A) window
(B) parallel projection (B) viewport
(C) orthographic projection (C) pixel
(D) all of the above (D) none of the above
44. In perspective projection, the size of
an entity is _______ proportional to its 50. Generally, windows and viewports
distance from the center of projection. are _______ in the standard position.
(A) inversely (A) rectangles
(B) directly (B) circles
(C) either inversely or directly (C) polygons
(D) neither inversely nor directly (D) none of the above
51. A rectangle is to be rotated by 30°
clockwise about an arbitrary point. From
the following, which transformation will
be performed first?
(A) Translation
(B) Scaling
(C) Clockwise rotation
(D) Counter clockwise rotation
52. A triangle is to be reflected about an

arbitrary line. From the following, which
transformation will be performed first?
(A) Scaling
(B) Mirror
(C) Translation
(D) Rotation
CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Question] UNIT No-01
Name of UNIT: COMPUTER GRAPHICS
01 Question: The matrix representation for translation in homogeneous coordinates

is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
02 Question: The matrix representation for scaling in homogeneous coordinates is……….
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
03 Question: The matrix representation for rotation in homogeneous coordinates is…………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
04 Question: What is the use of homogeneous coordinates and matrix representation?
Option A To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Option D To shear the object
Correct Answer A
05 Question: If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x, y) is
represented as
Option A (x’, y’, z’)
Option B (x, y, z)
Option C (x’, y’, w’)
Option D (x’, y’, w)
Correct Answer D
06 Question: For 2D transformation the value of third coordinate i.e. w=?
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A
MECHANICAL DEPARTMENT RMDSSOE, PUNE.

07 Question: We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a single
matrix representation by expanding
Option A 2 x 2 matrix into 4x4 matrix
Option B 2 x 2 matrix into 3 x 3
Option C 3 x 3 matrix into 2 x 2
Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
08 Question: The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be written as
Option A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
Option B (h.x, h.y, h)
Option C (x, y, h.z)
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
09 Question: In homogeneous coordinates value of ‘h’ is consider as 1 & it is called…..
Option A Magnitude Vector
Option B Unit Vector
Option C Non-Zero Vector
Option D Non-Zero Scalar Factor
Correct Answer D
10 Question: Which co-ordinates allow common vector operations such as translation,
rotation, scaling and perspective projection to be represented as a matrix by which the
Option A vector co-ordinates
Option B 3D co-ordinates
Option C affine co-ordinates
Option D homogenous co-ordinates
Correct Answer D
11 Question: In ……………. Coordinates, a points in n-dimensional space is represent by
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Option B Homogeneous
Option C Inverse transformation
Option D 3D Transformation
Correct Answer B
12 Question: A translation is applied to an object by D
Option A Repositioning it along with straight line path
Option B Repositioning it along with circular path
Option C Only b
Option D All of the mentioned
Correct Answer A

13 Question: We translate a two-dimensional point by adding

Option A Translation distances
Option B Translation difference
Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
14 Question: The translation distances (dx, dy) is called as
Option A Translation vector
Option B Shift vector
Option C Both a and b
Option D Neither a nor b
Correct Answer C
15 Question: In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by using
the equation
Option A x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx
Option B x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
Option C X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx
Option D X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy
Correct Answer B
16 Question: The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
17 Question: _________ is a rigid body transformation that moves objects without
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Option C Translation
Correct Answer C
18 Question: A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A

19 Question: Polygons are translated by adding __________ to the coordinate position of

each vertex and the current attribute setting.
Option A Straight line path
Option B Translation vector
Option C Differences
Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
20 Question: To change the position of a circle or ellipse we translate
Option A Center coordinates
Option B Center coordinates and redraw the figure in new location
Option C Outline coordinates
Correct Answer B
21 Question: The basic geometric transformations are
Option A Translation
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
22 Question: A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by
Option C Only b
Option D Any of the mentioned
Correct Answer C
23 Question: To generate a rotation , we must specify
Option A Rotation angle θ
Option B Distances dx and dy
Option C Rotation distance
Correct Answer A
24 Question: The rotation axis that is perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through the
pivot point is known as
Option A Rotation
Option B Translation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A

25 Question: Positive values for the rotation angle θ defines

Option A Counter clockwise rotations about the end points
Option B Counter clockwise translation about the pivot point
Option C Counter clockwise rotations about the pivot point
Option D Negative direction
Correct Answer C
26 Question: The original coordinates of the point in polar coordinates are
Option A X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф +ϴ)
Option B X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф +ϴ)
Option C X’=r cos (Ф -ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф -ϴ)
Option D X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф -ϴ)
Correct Answer B
27 Question: The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
28 Question: ________ is the rigid body transformation that moves object without
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
29 Question: Rotation is simply ---------------- object w.r.t origin or centre point.
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Option C Compression
Option D Drag element
Correct Answer A
30 Question: A line SQ with end point S (2,3) & Q (7,8) is to be rotated about origin by 30 0
in clockwise direction. Determine the coordinates of end points S of rotated line.
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

31 Question: An ellipse can also be rotated about its center coordinates by rotating
Option A End points
Option B Major and minor axes
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
32 Question: The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
33 Question: The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
34 Question: Scaling of a polygon is done by computing
Option A The product of (x, y) of each vertex
Option B (x, y) of end points
Option C Center coordinates
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
35 Question: We control the location of a scaled object by choosing the position is known
as…………………………….
Option A Pivot point
Option B Fixed point
Option C Differential scaling
Option D Uniform scaling
Correct Answer B
36 Question: If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to the same value
then………
Option A Uniform rotation is produced

Option B Uniform scaling is produced
Option C Scaling cannot be done
Option D Scaling can be done or cannot be done
Correct Answer B

37 Question: If the scaling factors values Sx and Sy are assigned to unequal values then
Option C Differential scaling is produced
Option D Scaling cannot be done
Correct Answer C
38 Question: The objects transformed using the equation P’=S*P should be
Option A Scaled
Option B Repositioned
Correct Answer C
39 Question: If the scaling factors values Sx and Sy < 1 then
Option A It reduces the size of object
Option B It increases the size of object
Option C It stunts the shape of an object
Option D None
Correct Answer A
40 Question: If the value of Sx=1 and Sy=1 then
Option A Reduce the size of object
Option B Distort the picture
Option C Produce an enlargement
Option D No change in the size of an object
Correct Answer D
41 Question: The polygons are scaled by applying the following transformation.
Option A X’=x * Sx + Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy + Yf(1-Sy
Option B X’=x * Sx + Xf(1+Sx) & Y’=y * Sy + Yf(1+Sy
Option C X’=x * Sx + Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy – Yf(1-Sy)
Option D X’=x * Sx * Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy * Yf(1-Sy)
Correct Answer A
42 Question: In a rotation, by how much angle is the object rotated?
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
43 Question: Reflection is a special case of rotation.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

44 Question: If two pure reflections about a line passing through the origin are applied
successively the result is ___________________
Option A Pure rotation
Option B Quarter rotation
Option C Half rotation
Option D True reflection
Correct Answer A
45 Question: What is the determinant of the pure reflection matrix?
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
46 Question: Which of the following is NOT true?
Image formed by reflection through a plane mirror is_______________
Option A of same size
Option B same orientation
Option C is at same distance from the mirror
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
47 Question: Which of the following represents shearing?
Option A (x, y) → (x+a, y+b)
Option B (x, y) → (ax, by)
Option C (x, y) → (x cos(θ)+y sin(θ), -x sin(θ)+y cos(θ))
Option D (x, y) → (x+ay, y+bx)
Correct Answer D
48 Question: If a ‘3 x 3’ matrix shears in X direction, how many elements of it are ‘1’?
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
49 Question: If a ‘3 x 3’ matrix shears in Y direction, how many elements of it are ‘0’?
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D

50 Question: Shearing is also termed as ________________

Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
51 Question: Shearing and reflection are types of translation.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
52 Question: Which of this is compulsory for 2D reflection.
Option A Reflection plane.
Option B Origin
Option C Reflection axis
Option D Co-ordinate axis.
Correct Answer C
53 Question: Two successive translations are___________________
Option A Multiplicative
Option B Inverse
Option C Subtractive
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
54 Question: Two successive translations are commutative.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
55 Question: General pivot point rotation can be expressed as _____________________
Option A T(zr,yr).R(θ).T(-zr,-yr) = R(xr,yr,θ)
Option B T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(xr,yr,θ)
Option C T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(zr,yr,θ)
Option D T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(zr,yr,θ)
Correct Answer B
56 Question: Which of the following is NOT correct? (A, B and C are matrices)
Option A A∙B = B∙A
Option B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
Option C C(A+B) = C∙A + C∙B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

57 Question: Reflection about the line y=0, the axis, is accomplished with the transformation
matrix with how many elements as ‘0’?
Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
58 Question: Which transformation distorts the shape of an object such that the transformed
shape appears as if the object were composed of internal layers that had been caused to
slide over each other?
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option C Scaling down
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
59 Question: Transpose of a column matrix is________________
Option A Zero matrix
Option B Identity matrix
Option C Row matrix
Option D Diagonal matrix
Correct Answer C
60 Question: Reversing the order in which a sequence of transformations is performed may
affect the transformed position of an object.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
61 Question: Which one of the following is the correct notation of a matrix with ‘m’ rows and
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
62 Question: How many minimum numbers of zeros are there in ‘3 x 3’ triangular matrix?
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

63 Question: The object space or the space in which the application model is defined is called
_______
Option A World co-ordinate system
Option B Screen co-ordinate system
Option C World window
Option D Interface window
Correct Answer A
64 Question: What is the name of the space in which the image is displayed?
Correct Answer B
65 Question: What is the rectangle in the world defining the region that is to be displayed?
Correct Answer C
66 Question: The window opened on the raster graphics screen in which the image will be
displayed is called _____________
Correct Answer D
67 Question: The process of mapping a world window in World Coordinates to the Viewport
is called Viewing transformation.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
68 Question: Panning is a technique in which users can change the size of the area to be
viewed in order to see more detail or less detail.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

69 Question: Drawing of number of copies of the same image in rows and columns across
the interface window so that they cover the entire window is called ____________
Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
70 Question: By changing the dimensions of the viewport, the _____ and _________ of the
objects being displayed can be manipulated.
Option A Number of pixels and image quality
Option B X co-ordinate and Y co-ordinate
Option C Size and proportions
Option D All of these
Correct Answer C
71 Question: Co-ordinates are ranging according to the screen resolution.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
72 Question: Any convenient co-ordinate system or Cartesian co-ordinates which can be used
to define the picture is called ___________
Option A spherical co-ordinates
Option B vector co-ordinates
Option C viewport co-ordinates
Option D world co-ordinates
Correct Answer D
73 Question: The transformation of perspective projection must include , where d is
the distance between the center of projection to the projection plane.
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
74 Question: An area on a display device to which a window is mapped is called
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Option D None of the above
Correct Answer B

75 Question: A Pixel is
Option A a computer program that draws picture
Option B A picture stored in secondary memory
Option C The smallest resolvable part of a picture
Option D All of the above
Correct Answer C
76 Question: A system that automates the drafting process with interactive computer
graphics is called
Option A Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
Option B (A) Computer Aided Design (CAD)
Option C Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
Option D (A) Computer Aided Instruction (CAI)
Correct Answer B
77 Question: In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects and
therefore shapes cannot be preserved?
Option A Orthographic
Option B Isometric
Option C Perspective
Correct Answer C
78 Question: Coordinate of EFGH is WCS are: lowermost corner E(2,2) & diagonal corner
are G(8,6). W.r.t MCS. The coordinates of origin of WCS system are (5,4). If the axes of
WCS are at 600 in CCW w.r.t. the axes of MCS. Find new vertices of point E in MCS.
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
79 Question: A triangle IJK with vertices I (50, 40), J (100, 60) & K (70, 80) is to be scaled
by using scale factors Sx =0.5 & Sy = 0.7 about point I, Find CT Matrix.
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

80 Question: A line LM with end points L (2, 1) & M (7, 6) is to be moved by 3 units in x-
direction & 4 units in y-direction. Calculate new coordinates of points M.
Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C

Name of UNIT: GEOMETRIC MODELING
01 Question: For generating Coons patch we require

Option A A set of grid points on surface
Option B A set of control points
Option C Four bounding curves defining surface
Option D Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points
Correct Answer C
02 Question: In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1 (15,10)
to P2 (10,15)will have its center at
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
03 Question: In the following geometric modelling techniques which are not three-dimensional
modelling?
Option A Wireframe modelling

Option B Drafting
Option C Surface modelling
Option D solid modelling
Correct Answer B
04 Question: In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not require much
computer time and memory?
Option A Surface modelling

Option B Solid modelling
Option C Wireframe modelling
Correct Answer C
05 Question: In the following geometric modelling techniques. which cannot be used for finite
element analysis:

Option B Surface modelling
Option C Solid modeling
Option D none of the above
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

06 Question: In the following geometric primitives. which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling:
Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
07 Question: Which of the following is not an analytical entity?
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
08 Question: Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?
Option A Hyperbola
Option B Bezier curve
Option C B-spline curve
Option D Cubic spline curve
Correct Answer A
09 Question: Which one of the following does not belong to the family of conics?
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
10 Question: The number of tangents required to describe cubic splines is
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
11 Question: The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by:
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Control points

Option B Knots
Option C End points
Option D All the above
Correct Answer A
12 Question: The curve that follows a convex hull property is:
Option A Cubic spline

Option B B-spline
Option C Bezier curve
Option D Both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer B
13 Question: The degree of the Bezier curve with n control points is:
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A
14 Question: The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors:
Option A Increases with knot vectors

Option B Decreases with knot vectors
Option C Remains constant
Correct Answer A
15 Question: The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are:
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
16 Question: The tensor product technique constraints surfaces by two curves.
Option A Adding
Option B Subtraction
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option C Multiplying
Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
17 Question: In the bezier curve, the curve is always________to first and last
segments of the polygon.
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C
18 Question: The unit vector in the direction of the line is defined as _______.
Option A tangent vector+length of the line
Option B tangent vector-length of the line
Option C tangent vector/length of the line

length of the line/tangent vector
Option D
Correct Answer C
19 Question: From the following, which is an axisymmetric surface?
Option A Plane Surface
Option B Ruled Surface
Option C Surface of Revolution
Correct Answer C
20 Question: ________curves allow local control of the curve.
Option A Analytical
Option B Hermite cubic spline
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
21 Question: To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the
two tangent vectors. This statement is true for which of the following?
Option A B-spline curve
Option B Hermite Cubic Spline Curve
Option C Beizer curve
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
22 Question: In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields
Option A a position continuous curve
Option B a slope continuous curve
Option C a curvature continuous curve
Correct Answer C
23 Question: Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in
space such that at any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci)
is constant and equal to
Option A the major diameter
Option B the minor diameter
Option C semi major diameter
Option D semi-minor diameter
Correct Answer A
24 Question: When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the
curve is known as
Option A interpolant curve
Option B approximation curve
Option C pitch curve
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
25 Question: In Beizer Curve, the curve follows ____________.
Option A the control points
Option B the shape of the defining polygon
Option C the defining points
Correct Answer B
26 Question: In Beizer Curve, _____________ of polygon actually lie on the curve.
Option A only the first control point
Option B only the last control point
Option C only the first and last control points
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D all the control points
Correct Answer C
27 Question: In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with _______
of the polygon.
Option A decrease in the number of vertices
Option B increase in the number of vertices
Option C decrease in control points
Correct Answer B
28 Question: The number of control points can be added or subtracted in
_____________.
Option A Bezier curve
Option B B-spline curve
Option C Cubic spline curve
Option D all of the above
Correct Answer B
29 Question: The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points
in _______.
Option A Hermite cubic spline curve
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
30 Question: The ___________ is used to create a surface using curves that form
closed boundaries.
Option A ruled Surface
Option B plane Surface
Option C coons patch

surface of Revolution
Option D
Correct Answer C
31 Question: B-rep and C-Rep are the methods of ___________ .
Option A solid modeling
Option B surface modeling
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option C wireframe modeling
Option D 2D modeling
Correct Answer A
32 Question: Which kind of model can store information about geometry and topology
both?
Option A Solid model
Option B Surface model
Option C Wireframe model
Correct Answer A
33 Question: From the following, which method is also called as the Building Block
Approach?
Option A Cellular Decomposition
Option B Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
Option C Generalized Sweeps
Option D Constructive Solid Geometry
Correct Answer D
34 Question: Structuring and combining the primitives of the solid model in the
graphics database, is achieved by the use of ____________.
Option A FEA
Option B transformations
Option C boolean operations
Correct Answer C
35 Question: The data representation of CSG objects is represented by_________.
Option A a binary tree
Option B a boolean operation
Option C a primitive
Correct Answer A
36 Question: ____________ is an extension of the wireframe model with additional
face information added.
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
37 Question: For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a
preferred technique?
Option A Constructive Solid Geometry
Option B Pure Primitive Instancing
Option C Boundary Representation
Option D Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
Correct Answer C
38 Question: Which of the following uses a number of two-dimensional profiles for
generating a three-dimensional object?
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
39 Question: To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
40 Question: The curve is defined as the locus of a point moving with ____ degree of
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
41 Question: Write parametric equation of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
42 Question: Find the tangent vector for Q 41
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
43 Question: Find coordinates of points on line at u=0.25
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
44 Question: Two lines are parallel when
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
45 Question: Two lines L1 and L2 having Parametric equations are P1=[3 4 7]+u[2
2 -6] and P2=[1 5 -2]+u[1 4 2]. Tangent vector for line L1
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
46 Question: For Q 45, Tangent vector for line L2
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
47 Question: For Q 45, Lines are perpendicular?
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B
48 Question: Parametric equation for circle
Option A X=x+Rcosu; Y=y+Rsinu; Z=z

Option B X=Rcosu; Y=Rsinu; Z=z
Option C X=x+Rsinu; Y=y+Rcosu; Z=z
Option D X=Rsinu; Y=y+Rcosu; Z=z
Correct Answer A
49 Question: Center point of circle
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
50 Question: A circle is represented by center point [5,5] and radius 6 units. Find
the parametric equation of circle and determine the various points on circle in
first quadrant if increment in angle by 45o
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

51 Question: A circle is passing through two end points A[6,4] and B[10,10]. Find
center point of circle.
Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
52 Question: For Q 51, find radius of circle
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
53 Question: For Q 51, find coordinates of point on circle at u=0
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
54 Question: Find parametric equation for X-coordinates of hermite cubic spline
curve having end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
Option A -5u3+8u2+u+1
Option B 5u3+8u2+u+1
Option C 8u3-5u2-u+1
Option D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Correct Answer A
55 Question: Find parametric equation for Y-coordinates of Hermite cubic spline
Option A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
Option B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
Option C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
Option D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Question]UNIT No-03
Name of UNIT: FEA
01 Question: What is the full form of FEA:-
Option A Fracture Element Analysis

Option B Finite Element Analysis
Option C Future Electronic Analysis
Correct Answer B
02 Question: From the following, which type of element is not two
dimensional?
Option A Tetrahedron
Option B Quadrilateral
Option C Parallelogram
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
03 Question:For truss analysis, which type of elements are used?
Option A Triangle
Option B Parallelogram
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D
04 Question:To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller,
simpler parts that are called
Option A static elements

Option B dynamic elements
Option C infinite elements
Option D finite elements
Correct Answer D
05 Question:The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of
smaller elements is known as ___________ .
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A discretization
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
06 Question:The sum of the shape function is equal to
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
07 Question:A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
08 Question:Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends
on ___________ .
Option A nature of element

Option B type of an element
Option C degrees of freedom
Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
09 Question:On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A
10 Question:The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
Option A structural mechanics

Option B classical mechanics
Option C applied mechanics
Option D engineering mechanics
Correct Answer D
11 Question:In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________ .
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
12 Question:The numbers of node for 1 D element are
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B
13 Question:Finite element analysis deals with ___________ .
Option A approximate numerical solution

Option B non-boundary value problems
Option C Laplace equations
Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
14 Question:Stiffness matrix depends on
Option A material
Option B geometry
Option C both material and geometry
Correct Answer C
15 Question:Example of 2-D Element is ___________ .
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Option D tetrahedron
Correct Answer B
16 Question:For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the
stiffness matrix formed is having an order of
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
17 Question:To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element,
______are used.
Option A shape function

Option B node function
Option C element function
Option D coordinate function
Correct Answer A
18 Question:The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option C boundary condition
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C
19 Question:The truss element can resist only
Option A surface force

Option B axial force
Option C point load
Correct Answer B
20 Question:The truss element can deform only in the
Option A vertical direction

Option B horizontal direction
Option C inclined direction
Option D axial direction
Correct Answer D
21 Question:Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________ .
Option A triangular element

Option B brick element
Option C truss element
Option D axisymmetric element
Correct Answer C
22 Question:The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
23 Question:How many nodes are there in a 3-D brick element?
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
24 Question:From below, choose the correct condition for the axisymmetric
element.
Option A Symmetric about axis

Option B Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
Option C Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
Correct Answer D
25 Question:Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
26 Question:_______ is/are the phase/s of finite element method
Option A Pre-processing
Option B Solution
Option C Post Processing
Option D None
Correct Answer C
27 Question:The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the
Name of UNIT: FEA
position of a point in space is _______.
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
28 Question:The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.
Option A thermal
Option B soil and rock mechanics
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
29 Question:If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we
need to subdivide the structure into substructures. These substructures are
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
30 Question:Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness
matrix?
Option A The minimum potential energy principle

Option B Galerkin's principle
Option C Weighted residual method
Option D Inverse matrix method
Correct Answer D
31 Question:______________ is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of
the element to the smallest dimension.
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A Element depth ratio

Option B Mode shape ratio
Option C Aspect ratio
Correct Answer C
32 Question:_________ are used to express the geometry or shape of the
element
Option A Mode shapes

Option B Shape functions
Option C Natural curves
Correct Answer B
33 Question:When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the
condition is called ________.
Option A plane stress

Option B plane strain
Option C zero stress
Option D zero strain
Correct Answer A
34 Question:The characteristic of the shape function is _______
Option A the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the
other nodes
Option B the sum of the shape function is equal to one
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
35 Question:The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates
system is known as ______.
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A local coordinates system

Option B natural coordinates system
Option C global coordinate system
Correct Answer C
36 Question:The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional
analyses are ______.
Option A stretching of plates

Option B gravity of dams
Option C axisymmetric shells
Correct Answer C
37 Question:If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum.
This statement is considered in ______ .
Option A inverse matrix method

Option B weighted residual method
Option C Galerkin’s principle
Option D the minimum potential energy principle
Correct Answer D
38 Question:Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?
Option A K is a banded matrix

Option B K is un-symmetric
Option C K is an un-banded matrix
Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
39 Question:The actual thickness of plane strain element is ______.
Option A very large

Option B very small
Option C assumed by software
Option D any of the above
Correct Answer A
40 Question:Which of the following is not an FEA package?
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
41 Question:Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural
frequency?
Option A Static analysis

Option B Thermal analysis
Option C Modal analysis
Correct Answer C
42 Question:For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________
Option A stress
Option B strain
Option C displacement
Option D Temperature
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D
43 Question:In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find _______.
Option A stress distribution

Option B heat flux distribution
Option C pressure distribution
Correct Answer C
44 Question:Crack propagation problems come under _______ category.
Option A steady-state problems

Option B eigenvalue problems
Option C transient problems
Correct Answer C
45 Question:In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having
_________ stiffness.
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
46 Question:How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
47 Question:How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element?
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
48 Question:How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron with curved sides
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
49 Question:If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option C depends on other factors
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
50 Question:In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B
Name of UNIT: COMPUTER AIDED MANUFACTURING
01 Question: CAD/CAM is the relationship between
Option A science and engineering

Option B manufacturing and marketing
Option C design and manufacturing
Option D design and marketing
Correct Answer C
02 Question: Which two disciplines are tied by a common database?
Option A documentation and geometric modeling
Option B CAD and CAM
Option C drafting and documentation
Option D none of the mentioned
Correct Answer B
03 Question: The term that is used for geometric modelling like solid modelling, wire frame
Option A software package

Option B operating system
Option C application software
Correct Answer A
04 Question: The software that is used to control the computer’s work flow, organize its data
Option A operating software
Option B graphics software
Option D programming software
Correct Answer A
05 Question: During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0
the type of tool motion will be
Option A circular Interpolation – clockwise
Option B circular Interpolation – counter clockwise
Option C linear Interpolation
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT RMDSSOE, PUNE.

06 Question: n an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to
point (7, 2) along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the
tool is at (5, 4). The correct G and N codes for this motion are
Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B
07 Question: The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to
(10, 10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of
the following NC tool path command performs the above mentioned operation?
Option A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

Option B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
Option C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Option D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Correct Answer A
08 Question: C contouring is an example of
Option A continuous path positioning

Option B point-to-point positioning
Option C absolute positioning
Option D incremental positioning
Correct Answer A
09 Question: Match the following:
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Option A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Option B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
Option C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Option D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Correct Answer C

10 Question: In a CNC program block, N02 GO2 G91 X40 Z40……, GO2 and G91 refer to
Option A circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and incremental

dimension
Option B circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute
dimension
Option C circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
Option D circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
Correct Answer C
11 Question: Numerical control ___________
Option A applies only to milling machines

Option B is a method for producing exact number of parts per hour
Option C is a method for controlling by means of set of instructions
Option D None of the mentioned
Correct Answer C
12 Question: Computer will perform the data processing functions in
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
13 Question: Control loop unit of M.C.U is always
Option A a hardware unit
Option B a software unit
Option C a control unit
Correct Answer A
14 Question: The repeatability of NC machine depends on
Option A control loop errors

Option B mechanical errors
Option C electrical errors
Correct Answer B

15 Question: Rotation about Z-axis is called………….
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
16 Question: Rotation of spindle is designated by one of the following axis:
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
17 Question: he linking of computer with a communication system is called………..
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option C interlocking
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
18 Question: The process of putting data into a storage location is called____________
Option A reading
Option B writing
Option C controlling
Option D hand shaking
Correct Answer B
19 Question: The process of copying data from a memory location is called
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

20 Question: CNC machining centres do not include operations like ______
Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
21 Question: Feed is measured in units of _____
Option A length/revolution
Option B degree/revolution
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
22 Question: he depth that the tool is plunged into the surface is called as ______
Option A feed
Option B depth of cut
Option C depth of tool
Option D working depth
Correct Answer B
23 Question: In CNC systems multiple microprocessors and programmable logic controllers
work ______
Option A in parallel
Option B in series
Option C one after the other
Option D for 80% of the total machining time
Correct Answer A
24 Question: Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?
Option A Higher flexibility
Option B Improved quality
Option C Reduced scrap rate
Option D Improved strength of the components
Correct Answer D

25 Question: In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified?
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
26 Question: Point-to-point systems are used for _____
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
27 Question: In part programming, interpolation is used for obtaining _______ trajectory.
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
28 Question: For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
29 Question: An absolute NC system is one in which all position coordinates are referred to
one fixed origin called the zero point.
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
30 Question: In …………., the coordinates are mentioned in the program with respect to one
reference point
Option A Incremental System
Option B Absolute System
Option C Datum System
Option D Screen Coordinates System
Correct Answer B

31 Question: ……… is a group of words or coded instruction for the NC/CNC system to execute
a particular movement.
Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
32 Question: Each coded instruction in a set of instructions is called as……
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
34 Question: G00 Preparatory code is used for__________
Option A Rapid Travel Execution
Option B Rapid Travel Positioning
Option C Rapid Travel sequencing
Option D Rapid clockwise interpolation
Correct Answer B
35 Question: In a CNC program block, N05 GO1 G91 G33 X20 Z-40……, G33 refer to
Option A Peck Drilling

Option B Counter Boring
Option C Thread Cutting
Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C

36 Question: In CNC Program M03 is refer to……
Option A Spindle ON in Clockwise rotation

Option B Spindle ON in Counter Clockwise rotation
Option C Spindle OFF in Clockwise rotation
Option D Spindle OFF in Counter Clockwise rotation
Correct Answer A
Option A CANCEL Subroutine

Option B Call Sub-Program
Option C Call Subroutine
Option D CANCEL Sub-Program
Correct Answer B
38 Question: In a CNC program block, N05 GO1 G91 G33 X20 Z-40 K5……, K refer to
Option A Depth of cut

Option B Pitch
Option C Multiple Threading Cycle
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B
39 Question: A CNC Lathe is usually a machine tool with Z axes is…..
Option A Line Joining origin and vertical movement

Option B Line perpendicular to Y axis
Option C Both A & B
Option D Line Joining Chuck centre & tail stock centre
Correct Answer D
40 Question: B rotational axis is rotation about ………. Axis.
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

41 Question: Secondary Linear Axes U,V & W are ……… to X,Y & Z-axis.
Option A Perpendicular
Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
42 Question: ……… are also called as parametric subroutines
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
43 Question: In the lathe it is the peripheral speed of the work piece cutting speed of tool is
expressed in m/min, V is
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
44 Question: Incremental dimension in circular interpolation in X-axis is denoted by_____
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B
45 Question: Repetitive CNC machine operations conveniently performing and execute with
Option A Common Cycle

Option B Incremental Programming
Option C Canned Cycle
Correct Answer C

46 Question: In CNC programming …….. is commonly used canned cycle for Stock removal
cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D
47 Question: ……… is the origin of the coordinate system which is defined by manufacturer
they cannot be changed
Option A Blocking Point

Option B machine Zero Point
Option C Start Point
Option D Program Zero point
Correct Answer B
48 Question: To indicate the position of the workpiece correctly & easily machine zero pint
should be displaced to another point on the workpiece called…
Option A Workpiece zero Point

Correct Answer A
49 Question: XY Plane Selection in CNC machining is done by…..
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
50 Question: The distance of a given tool tip from the surface of workpiece is known as…..
Option A Tool length
Option B Tool length offset H
Option C Cutter radius
Option D Compensation
Correct Answer B

51 Question: In CNC machining tool radius compensation turning the left mode ON
programming contour done by
Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
52 Question: Maximum spindle speed limitation code in CNC Machine
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
53 Question: Which of the following code is used to return to a reference point?
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
54 Question: The following code will produce dwell for a specified time…
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
55 Question: Which of the following code will give point to point movement?
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A

56 Question: Which rule implement for axes Nomenclature?
Option A Left-hand rule

Option B Right-Hand Rule
Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
57 Question: Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B
58 Question: Full form of MCU is…………
Option A Machine computer unit

Option B Machine control universal
Option C Machine control unit
Correct Answer C
59 Question: The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions
like depth of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself,
is called______
Option A Computer Numerical Control System
Option B Direct Numerical Control System
Option C Machining Center System
Option D Adaptive Control System
Correct Answer D
60 Question: In which machine we get feedback?
Option A Lathe machine
Option B NC machine
Option C CNC machine
Option D Milling machine
Correct Answer C

61 Question: Which machine's spindle is used to horizontal work?
Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C
62 Question: What is the full form of ATC?
Option A Automatic tool changer

Option B Arranged tool changer
Option C Automatic tool controller
Option D Arranged tool controller
Correct Answer A
63 Question: In which system we get feedback?
Option A Open-loop system

Option B Machine control system
Option C Closed-loop system
Correct Answer C
64 Question: How many maximum tools can ATC hold?
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
65 Question: In the CNC machine which device used to hold the workpiece?
Option A Automatic pallet changer
Option B Automatic work part positioner
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C

MCQs of CAD/CAM
1. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-axis.
The coordinates of the transformed point will be
GATE 2013
(A) (7.5, 5)
(B) (10, 5)
(C) (7.5, -5)
(D) (10, -5)
Ans: B
2. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40…, G02 AND G91 refer to
GATE 2012
(A) Circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and incremental dimension
(B) Circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and absolute dimension
(C) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
(D) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
Ans: C
3. For generating Coons patch we require

GATE 2007
(A) A set of grid points on surface
(B) A set of control points
(C) Four bounding curves defining surface
(D) Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points
Ans: C
4. NC contouring is an example of
GATE 2006
(A) Continuous path positioning
(B) Point-to-point positioning
(C) Absolute positioning
(D) Incremental positioning
Ans: A
5. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10) while
performing an operation. The center of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following NC tool
path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
GATE 2005
(a) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(b) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(c) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
(d) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Ans: D
6. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the
GATE 2004
(a) Circular Interpolation - clockwise
(b) Circular Interpolation - counterclockwise
(c) Linear Interpolation
(d) Rapid feed
Ans: A
7. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1 (15,10) to
P2 (10,15)will have its center at
GATE 2004
(a) (10, 10)
(b) (15, 10)
(c) (15, 15)
(d) (10, 15)
Ans: A
8. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5,4) to point (7,2)
along a circular path with center at (5,2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The
correct G and M code for this motion is
GATE 2001
(a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Ans: B
9. In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is defined by

GATE 2000
(a) Two end points only
(b) Center and radius
(c) Radius and one end point
(d) Two end points and center
Ans: D
10. In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10 mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30),
(50, 30) and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
GATE 2000
(a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
(b) (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
(c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)
(d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Ans: A
11. With reference to NC machines, which of the following statements is wrong
GATE 1993
(a) Both closed-loop and open-loop control systems are used
(b) Paper tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes are used for data storage
(c) Digitizers may be used as interactive input devices
(d) Post processor is an item of hardware
Ans: C
12. In a point-to-point type of NC system

GATE 1992
(a) Control of position and velocity of the tool is essential
(b) Control of only position of the tool is sufficient
(c) Control of only velocity of the tool is sufficient
(d) Neither position nor velocity need to be controlled
Ans: B
13. GUI is the acronym for Graphical User Interface.

(a)True
(b)False
(c)Don’t know
(d)Can’t tell
Ans: A
14. The heart of a computer is:

(a) CPU (b) ALU (c) Monitor (d) Keyboard
Ans: A
15. The widely employed computer architecture for CAD/CAM applications is:
(a) Mainframe-based system (b) Minicomputer-based system
(c) Microcomputer-based system (d) Workstation-based system
Ans: D
16. Keyboard is a_____ input device.

(a) Graphical (b) Text (c) Numericals (d) All of the above
Ans: D
17. Locating devices are classified as:
(a) Text input devices (b) Graphics input devices
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
Ans: B
18. Mouse is a ____ type of input device.

(a) Text (b) Graphics (c) Locating (d) All of the above
Ans: C
19. Light pen is a:
(a) Writing device (b) Drawing device (c) Locating device (d) Lighting device
Ans: B
20. Digitizer is constructed on the basis of:

(a) Magnetic tablet mechanism (b) Acoustic tablet mechanism
(c) Optical tablet mechanism (d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: C
21. Thumbwheels are usually mounted on:

(a) Keyboard (b) Monitor (c) CPU (d) Mouse
Ans: B
22. The screen is scanned from left to right. top to bottom all the time to generate graphics
by:
(a) Raster scans (b) Random scan (c) Vector scan (d) Stoke writing
Ans: A
23. Color raster display uses three electron guns. namely:

(a)Red. green and blue (b) Red, green and yellow
(c) White, blue and black (d) Red, black and white
Ans: A
24. The software that is used for file manipulations. managing directories and subdirectories,
programming and accounts setups is known as:
(a) Graphics software (b) Operating system
(c) Application software (d) Programming language
Ans: C
25. The software that provides users with various functions to perform geometric modelling
and construction. Editing and manipulation of existing geometry. drafting and documentation is
known as:
(a) Operating system (b) Application software
(c) Graphics software (d) Programming language
Ans: C
26. The software used for the purpose of mass property calculations, assembly analysis.
Tolerance analysis. Finite element analysis. Mechanisms analysis. Sheet metal design. Analysis
of plastic injection molding. And animation techniques. is:
Ans: C
27. The software that enables the user to implement custom applications or modify the
system for specialized needs is known as:
(a) Programming language (b) Operating system
(c) Application software (d) Graphics software
Ans: A
28. The following is not a graphics standard:

(a) GKS (b) IGBS (c) UNIX (d) PHIGS
Ans: C
29. In the following geometric modelling techniques which are not three-dimensional
modelling?
(a) Wireframe modelling (b) Drafting
(c) Surface modelling (d) solid modelling
Ans: B
30. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not require much
(a) Surface modelling (b) Solid modelling
(c) Wireframe modelling (d) All of the above
Ans: C
31. In the following geometric modelling techniques. which cannot be used for finite element
analysis:
(a) Wireframe modelling (b) Surface modelling
(c) Solid modelling (d) none of the above
Ans: D
32. In the following geometric primitives. which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling:
(a) Box (b) Cone (c) Cylinder (d) Circle
Ans: D
33. The number of lines required to represent a cub: in a wireframe model is:
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) l2 (d) I6
Ans: C
34. Which of the following is not an analytical entity?

(a) Line (b) Circle (c) Spline (d) Parabola
Ans: C
35. Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?

(a) Hyperbola (b) Bezier curve (c) B-spline curve (d) Cubic spline curve
Ans: A
36. Which one of the following does not belong to the family of conics?
(a) Parabola (b) Ellipse (c) Hyperbola (d) Line
Ans: D
37. The number of tangents required to describe cubic splines is:

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: B
38. The order of the cubic spline is the C.

(a) 2" order (b) 3" order (c) 1" order (d) 4" order
Ans: C
39. The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by:

(a) Control points (b) Knots (c) End points (d) All the above
Ans: A
40. The curve that follows a convex hull property is:

(a) Cubic spline (b) B-spline (c) Bezier curve (d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans: B
41. The degree of the Bezier curve with n control points is:
(a) n + 1 (b) n - I (c) n (d) 2n
Ans: A
42. The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors:

(a) Increases with knot vectors (b) Decreases with knot vectors
(c) Remains constant (d) none of the above
Ans: A
43. C” continuity refers to:

(a) Common tangent (b) Common point
(c) Common curvature (d) Common normal
Ans: A
44. C‘ continuity refers to:

Ans: C
45. C0 continuity refers to:

Ans: B
46. The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are:
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
Ans: B
47. convex hull property is satisfied by the following surface:

(a) Bezier (b) B-spline (c) NURBS (d) All the above
Ans: B
48. The tensor product technique constraints surfaces by two curves.

(a) Adding (b) Subtraction (c) Multiplying (d) Dividing
Ans: C
49. The degrees of freedom of a two-node bar element are:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: C
50. The shape functions of a two-node bar element are:

(a) Linear (b) Quadratic (c) Constant (d) None of the above
Ans: A
51. The sum of the shape functions over the element is always equal to:
(a) Zero (b) Infinity (c) Unity (d) None of the above
Ans:
52. Stiffness is_____ to the length of the element.

(a) Inversely proportional (b) Directly proportional
(c) Exponential (d) Independent
Ans: D
53. Computer will perform the data processing functions in

(a) NC (b) CNC (c) DNC (d) ACS
Ans: C
54. The first commercial CNC machine was developed in the year:
(a) 1970 (b) I972 (c) l976 (d) I980
Ans:
55. CNC drilling machine is considered to be a:

(a) Point-to-point controlled machine (h) Straight line controlled machine
(c) Continuous path controlled machine (d) Servo-controlled machine
Ans: A
56. The lost motion in CNC machine tool is on account of:

(a) Backlash in gearing (b) Wind-up of drive shafts
(c) Deflection of machine tool members (d) All the above
Ans: A
57. The axes of turning machine arc:
(a) Z and X-axes (b) X and Y-axes (c) Z and Y-axes (d) X, Y and Z-axes
Ans: A
58. On turning lathes the machine zero point is generally at the:

(a) Head stock of lathe spindle nose face (b) Dead center of tail stock
(c) Tool point mounted on tool post (d) none of the above
Ans: B
59. Dwell is defined by:

(a) G04 (b) G03 (c) G02 (d) G01
Ans: A
60. M30 stands for:

(a) End of program (b) End of block
(c) End of tape and tape rewind (d) Coolant on/ off
Ans:
2C
61. MRP input requires:

(a) MPS (b) BOM
(c) Inventory file (d) All of the above
Ans: D
62. BOM structure is used to calculate:

(a) Due dates (b) Net requirements
(c) Manpower requirements (d) All of the above
Ans: B
Submitted by
Abhay S. Gore
Asstt. Prof. Dept. of Mech. Engg.
MIT (T)
Aurangabad.
Sanfoundry mcq cad cam
1. CAD/CAM is the relationship between
a) science and engineering
b) manufacturing and marketing
c) design and manufacturing
d) design and marketing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
2. The process in which the detailed specifications materials, dimensions, tolerances and
surface rough is made is known as
a) decision process
b) analysis process
c) implementation process
d) refinement process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decision process is the cognitive process resulting in the selection of a belief or
a course of action among several alternative possibilities while implementation process is
the detailed specifications materials, dimensions, tolerances and surface rough is made.
3. Which two disciplines are tied by a common database?
a) documentation and geometric modeling
b) CAD and CAM
c) drafting and documentation
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Because of their joint benefits, computer- aided design and computer-aided
manufacturing are often combined into CAD/ CAM systems. This combination allows the
transfer of information from the design stage to the stage of planning for manufacture,
without the need to reenter the data on part geometry manually.
4. The term that is used for geometric modelling like solid modelling, wire frame modelling
and drafting is known as
a) software package
b) operating system
c) application software
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Software package is used for geometric modelling like solid modelling, wire
frame modelling and drafting while operating system is is software that manages computer
hardware and software resources and provides common services for computer programs.
5. The system environment in a mainframe computer consists of
a) central processing
b) storage devices
c) printers and plotters
d) both central processing and storage devices
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
6. The nerve center or brain of any computer system is known as
a) CPU
b) Storage device
c) ALU
d) Monitor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None
7. Locating devices are classified as
a) text input device
b) graphic device
c) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: GDI is responsible for tasks such as drawing lines and curves, rendering fonts
and handling palettes.
8. A potentiometric device that contains sets of variable registers which feed signals that
indicate the device position to the computer is known as
a) track ball
b) mouse
c) joystick
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
9. Which of the following devices do not produce a hard copy?
a) impact printers
b) plotters
c) CRT terminals
d) non-impact printers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CRT terminals always plot graphics or images.
10. The software that is used to control the computer’s work flow, organize its data and
perform house keeping functions is known as
a) operating software
b) graphics software
d) programming software
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Operating software is used to control the computer’s work flow, organize its
data and perform house keeping functions.
Graphics software is used to provide users with various functions to perform geometric
modelling and construction.
Application software performs the data entry, design, analysis, drafting and manufacturing
functions.
Programming software enables the to implement custom application or modify the system for
specialized needs.
11. The software that is used to provide the users with various functions to perform
geometric modelling and construction is known as
View Answer
Answer: b
functions.
specialized needs.
12. The software that performs the data entry, design, analysis, drafting and manufacturing
functions is known as
View Answer
Answer: c
functions.
specialized needs.
13. The software that enables the to implement custom application or modify the system for
specialized needs is known as
View Answer
Answer: d
functions.
specialized needs.
14. Following is not an operating system software
a) Windows
b) UNIX
c) VAX/VMS
d) IDEAS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Except IDEAS all are the operating systems.
15. The basic geometric building blocks provided in a CAD/CAM package are
a) points
b) lines
c) circles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
1. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type
of tool motion will be
a) circular Interpolation – clockwise
b) circular Interpolation – counterclockwise
c) linear Interpolation
d) rapid feed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:-NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0
Here term X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 will produce circular motion because radius is consider in this
term and GO2 will produce clockwise motion of the tool.
2. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4).
The correct G and N codes for this motion are
a) N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
b) N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
c) N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
d) N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given : Initial point (5, 4), Final point (7, 2), Centre (5, 4)
So, the G, N codes for this motion are N010GO2X7.0Y2.0 15.0J2.0
where, GO2 ” Clockwise circular interpolation
X7.0Y2.0 ” Final point
I5.0J2.0 ” Centre point.
performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following NC
tool path command performs the above mentioned operation?
a) N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
b) N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
c) N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
d) N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: N010 “represent start the operation
GO2 “represent circular (clock wise) interpolation
X10Y10 “represent final coordinates
X5Y5 “represent starting coordinate
R5 “represent radius of the arc
So, NC tool path command is, N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5.
a) continuous path positioning
b) point-to-point positioning
c) absolute positioning
d) incremental positioning
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NC contouring is a continuous path positioning system. Its function is to
synchronize the axes of motion to generate a predetermined path, generally a line or a
circular arc.
5. Match the following:
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NC code Definition
P. M05 3. Spindle stop
Q. G01 4. Linear interpolation
R. G04 2. Dwell
S. G09 1. Absolute coordinate system
So, correct pairs are, P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1.
6. In a CNC program block, N002 GO2 G91 X40 Z40……,GO2 and G91 refer to
a) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and incremental dimension
b) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and absolute dimension
c) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
d) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: GO2 represent circular interpolation in clockwise direction.
G91 represent incremental dimension.
7. Numerical control ___________
a) applies only to milling machines
b) is a method for producing exact number of parts per hour
c) is a method for controlling by means of set of instructions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NC is a method for controlling by means of set of instructions.
CNC performs the data processing functions.
a) NC
b) CNC
c) DNC
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Control loop unit of M.C.U is always
a) a hardware unit
b) a software unit
c) a control unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The repeatability of NC machine depends on
a) control loop errors
b) mechanical errors
c) electrical errors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. Rotation about Z-axis is called
a) a-axis
b) b-axis
c) c-axis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotation about X-axis is called a-axis.
Rotation about Y-axis is called b-axis.
Rotation about Z-axis is called c-axis.
12. Rotation of spindle is designated by one of the following axis:
a) a-axis
b) b-axis
c) c-axis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
13. The linking of computer with a communication system is called
a) networking
b) pairing
c) interlocking
d) assembling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Networking is the practice of linking two or more computing devices together for
the purpose of sharing data.
Pairing is the linking of computer with a communication system.
Interlocking is to fit into each other, as parts of machinery, so that all action is synchronized.
14. The process of putting data into a storage location is called
a) reading
b) writing
c) controlling
d) hand shaking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reading is the process of copying data from a memory location.
Writing is the process of putting data into a storage location.
15. The process of copying data from a memory location is called
a) reading
b) writing
c) controlling
d) hand shaking
View Answer
Answer: a
Writing is the process of putting data into a storage location
1. Designs are periodically modified to
a) improve product performance
b) strive for zero-based rejection and waste
c) make products easier and faster to manufacture
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Designs are periodically modified to
a) Improve product performance
b) Strive for zero-based rejection and waste
c) Make products easier and faster to manufacture
d) Consider new materials and processes that are continually being developed.
2. The expected qualities of a product are
a) it satisfies the needs and expectations of the customer
b) it has a pleasing appearance and handles well
c) it has high reliability and functions safely over its intended life
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Generally, however, a high-quality product is considered to have at least the
following characteristics:
d) it is compatible with and responsive to the customer’s capabilities and working
environment
e) installation, maintenance, and future improvements are easy to perform and at low cost.
3. The life cycle of a product includes
a) extraction of natural resources
b) processing of raw materials
c) manufacturing of products
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The life cycle involves consecutive and interlinked stages of a product or a
service, from the very beginning to its disposal or recycling, and includes the following:
d) transportation and distribution of the product to the customer
e) use, maintenance, and reuse of the product
f) recovery, recycling, and reuse of the components of the product.
4. Life-cycle engineering is also called
a) green design
b) expensive design
c) easy design
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major aim of life-cycle engineering (LCE) is to consider reusing and
recycling the components of a product, beginning with the earliest stage: product design.
Life-cycle engineering is also called green design or green engineering.
5. Sustainable manufacturing is required for
a) conserving resources
b) proper maintenance
c) reuse
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The concept of sustainable manufacturing emphasizes the need for conserving
resources, particularly through proper maintenance and reuse.
6. The mechanical properties of good product material are
a) strength
b) toughness
c) ductility
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanical properties include strength, toughness, ductility, stiffness,
hardness, and resistance to fatigue, creep, and impact.
7. The physical properties of good product material are
a) density
b) melting point
c) specific heat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Physical properties include density, melting point, specific heat, thermal and
electrical conductivity, thermal expansion, and magnetic properties.
8. The chemical properties of good product material are
a) oxidation
b) corrosion
c) surface treatment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chemical properties of primary concern in manufacturing are susceptibility to
oxidation and corrosion and to the various surface-treatment processes.
9. Properties of workpiece materials are
a) geometric features of the part
b) production rate and quantity
c) process selection consideration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. Considerations of costing systems are
a) life cycle costs
b) machine usage
c) cost of purchasing machinery
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Costing Systems, also called cost justification, typically include the following
considerations: (a) intangible benefits of quality improvements and inventory reduction, (b)
life-cycle costs, (c) machine usage, (d) cost of purchasing machinery compared with that of
leasing it, (e) financial risks involved in implementing highly automated systems, and (f) new
technologies and their impact on products
1. Thickness of tooth measured along the pitch circle is known as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tooth thickness is the thickness of tooth measured along the pitch circle.
2. Difference between space width and to thickness of tooth along the pitch circle is known
as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Backlash is the Difference between space width and to thickness of tooth along
the pitch circle.
3. Length of tooth parallel to gear axis is known as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Face width is the length of tooth parallel to gear axis.
4. Top surface of tooth is known as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Top land is the top surface of tooth.
5. Bottom surface of the tooth between two adjacent fillets is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bottom surface of the tooth between two adjacent fillets is known as bottom
land.
6. Surface of tooth between pitch circle and top land is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface of tooth between pitch circle and top land is known as face.
7. Tooth surface between pitch circle and the bottom land including fillet is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tooth surface between pitch circle and the bottom land including fillet is known
as flan.
8. Curved portion of the tooth flank at the root circle is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Curved portion is called fillet.
9. Force exerted by driving tooth on the driven tooth along the line of pitch point to the point
of contact of two teeth is known as
a) Line of Action
b) Path of contact
c) Arc of contact
d) Angle of action
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Force exerted by driving tooth on the driven tooth along the line of pitch point to
the point of contact of two teeth is known as the line of action.
10. Angle between the pressure line and the common tangent to the pitch circle is known as
a) Pressure angle
b) Path of contact angle
c) Arc of contact angle
d) Angle of action
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle between the pressure line and the common tangent to the pitch circle is
known as pressure angle.
11. Backlash of gear is given by
a) Space width – Tooth Thickness*2
b) Space width / Tooth Thickness
c) Space width – Tooth Thickness
d) Space width * Tooth Thickness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Backlash = Space width – Tooth Thickness.
12. Ratio of speed of the follower to the speed of driving gear is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the Ratio of speed of the follower to the speed of driving gear.
13. Ratio of diameter of driving gear to the diameter of follower is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the ratio of diameter of driving gear to the diameter of follower.
14. Ratio of number of teeth on driving gear to the number of teeth on follower is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the ratio of number of teeth on driving gear to the number of
teeth on follower.
15. Angle subtended by circular pitch at the centre of pitch circle is known as
a) Pitch angle
b) Addendum angle
c) Module angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitch angle is the angle subtended by circular pitch at the centre of pitch circle
1. Which of the following is not a standard pressure angle in degree?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 14.5
d) 19
View Answer
2. Distance between the points of contact of two mating teeth from the beginning of
engagement to the end of engagement is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Path of contact is the distance between the points of contact of two mating
teeth from the beginning of engagement to the end of engagement.
3. Path of contact from the beginning of engagement to the pitch point is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Path of approach is equal to path of contact from the beginning of the
engagement to the pitch point.
4. Portion of path of contact from the pitch point to end of engagement is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Path of recess is the portion of path of contact from the pitch point to end of the
engagement.
5. Circumferential distance between points from the beginning to the end of engagement of
two mating gear on pitch circle is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of contact is the circumferential distance between points from the beginning
to the end of engagement of two mating gear on pitch circle.
6. Portion of arc of contact from the beginning of the engagement to the pitch point is known
as
a) Contact ratio
b) Angle of friction
c) Arc of recess
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Arc of approach is the portion of arc of contact from the beginning of the
7. Portion of arc of contact from the pitch point to the end of engagement is known as
a) Contact ratio
c) Arc of recess
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arc of recess is the portion of arc of contact from the pitch point to the end of
the engagement.
8. Angle subtended by arc of contact at the centre of pitch circle is known as
a) Contact ratio
b) Angle of action
c) Arc of recess
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Angle of action is the angle subtended by arc of contact at the centre of pitch
circle.
9. Number of teeth in contact is given by
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Contact ratio
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Contact ratio is the number of teeth in contact of two mating gear.
10. Contact ratio is given by
a) Angle of action/pitch angle
b) Angle of action*pitch angle
c) Angle of action-pitch angle
d) Angle of action +pitch angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Contact ratio = Angle of action/pitch angle.
11. Which of the following is a standard pressure angle in degree?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 13.5
d) 19
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 20 degree is a standard pressure angle.
a) 24
b) 21
c) 14.5
d) 19
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 14.5 degree is a standard pressure angle.
a) 25
b) 21
c) 13.5
d) 19
View Answer
Answer: a
a) Arc of contact
b) Contact length
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: b
teeth from the beginning of engagement to the end of an engagement. Path of contact is
also known as contact length.
15. For a given pair of mating gear, angle of action is 19 degree and pitch angle is 4 degree.
Contact ratio is equal to
a) 3.20
b) 2.13
c) 4.75
d) 6.32
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Contact ratio = Angle of action/pitch angle
1. Imaginary friction cylinders which by pure rolling together transmit the same motion as
pair of gears is known as
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Imaginary friction cylinders which by pure rolling together transmit the same
motion as pair of gears is known as pitch cylinders.
2. Circle which corresponds to section of equivalents cylinder by a plane normal to wheel
axis is known as
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pitch circle is the circle which corresponds to section of equivalents cylinder by
a plane normal to wheel axis.
3. Diameter of pitch cylinder is known as
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pitch diameter is the diameter of a pitch cylinder.
4. Two different pitch circles generally meet at
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At pitch point two different pitch circles generally meets.
5. Line passing through center of rotation of two meeting gear is known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Line of centre is the line passing through center of rotation of two meeting gear.
6. Driving gear of two mating gear which is generally small is known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pinion is the driving gear of two mating gear which is generally small.
7. Gear wheel of infinite diameter is also known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rack have infinite diameter.
8. Part of pitch circle of rack which is a straight line is also known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitch line is the part of pitch circle of rack which is a straight line.
9. Ratio of circumference of pitch circle to number of teeth is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Circular pitch is the ratio of a circumference of pitch circle to number of teeth.
10. Distance measured along the circumference of pitch circle from a point on tooth to the
corresponding point on adjacent tooth is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
11. Number of teeth divided by length of pitch circle diameter is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Diametral pitch is the number of teeth divided by length of pitch circle diameter.
12. Ratio of pitch diameter in mm to the number of teeth is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Module is the ratio of pitch diameter in mm to the number of teeth.
13. Module of two mating gears must be
a) Same
b) Different
c) Small
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Module of two mating gear must be same.
14. Ratio of number of teeth on gear to the number of teeth on pinion is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gear ratio is the ratio of number of teeth on gear to the number of teeth on
pinion.
15. Ratio of angular velocity of the follower to the angular velocity of driving gear is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the ratio of angular velocity of the follower to the angular
velocity of driving gear
1. Circle passing through the top of the tips of teeth is known as
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Circle passing through the top of the tips of teeth is known as addendum circle.
2. Height of tooth above pitch circle is known as
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Addendum is the height of tooth above pitch circle.
3. Addendum of gear is generally taken equal to
a) 1 module
b) 2 module
c) 1.157 module
d) 0.157 module
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Addendum of gear is generally taken equal to 1 module.
4. Circle passing through root of teeth is known as
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circle passing through the root of teeth is known as dedendum circle.
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Root circle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circle passing through the root of teeth is known as root circle.
6. Radial depth of tooth below pitch circle is known as
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dedendum is the radial depth of tooth below pitch circle.
7. Standard value of dedendum is generally taken as
a) 1 module
b) 2 module
c) 1.157 module
d) 0.157 module
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dedendum of gear is generally taken equal to 1.157 modules.
8. Radial difference between addendum and dedendum of tooth is known as
a) Clearance
b) Full depth of teeth
c) Working depth of teeth
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Clearance is the radial difference between addendum and dedendum of tooth.
9. Standard value of clearance is generally taken as
a) 1 module
b) 2 module
c) 1.157 module
d) 0.157 module
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Clearance of gear is generally taken equal to 0.157 modules.
10. Total radial depth of tooth space is known as
a) Clearance
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total radial depth of tooth space is known as full depth of teeth.
11. Maximum depth to which tooth can penetrate into the tooth space of mating gear is
known as
a) Clearance
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum depth to which tooth can penetrate into the tooth space of mating
gear is known as working depth of teeth.
12. Width of tooth space along the pitch circle is known as
a) Clearance
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Space width is the width of tooth space along the pitch circle.
13. Full depth of teeth is equal to
a) Addendum * dedendum
b) Addendum / dedendum
c) Addendum – dedendum
d) Addendum + dedendum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Full depth is the sum of addendum and dedendum.
14. Working depth of two mating gear is numerically equal to
a) Sum of addendum of two gears
b) Difference of addendum of two gears
c) Difference of dedendum of two gears
d) Sum of dedendum of two gears
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Working depth of two mating gear is numerically equal to sum of the addendum
of two gears.
15. For a given pair of mating gear, arc of contact is 6mm and a circular pitch is 4 mm.
a) 3.20
b) 1.50
c) 4.75
d) 6.32
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Contact ratio = arc of contact/circular pitch.

is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C

Instructions:
Unit
No.

1 1 1 1 1
(B) Computer Aided Design (CAD)



coordinate system?

form is
1 1 5 (A) P’=P+T 1 1
(B) P’=S*P
(C) P’=P*R
(D) P’=R+S
Statement-
1 2 1 1
1 2 6 1 1
(A) 00
1 2 7 (B) -450 1 1
(C) 450
(D) 600
(A) (5,9,1)
1 2 8 (B) (8,4,1) 1 1
(C) (2,3,1)
(A) (12,2,1)
1 2 9 (B) (14,4,1) 1 1
(C) (12,4,1)
(D) (30,2,1)
(A) 12,1,1
(B) 4,2,1
3 2 10 1 1
(C) 6,5,1
(D) 2,3,1

(A) Elements
3 1 11 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
(A) Elements
3 1 12 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
reference for the
(A) Entire body
3 1 13 1 3
(C) Bothe A & B
(A) Shape function
coordinate
(C) Discretization
3 1 3

assembly is
(A) 2
3 2 15 1 3
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(A) 100 mm
3 2 16 (B) 200mm 1 3
(C) 250mm
(D) 400mm
(A) 400mm
3 2 17 (B) 500mm 1 3
(C) 600mm
(D) 700mm
(A) 200mm
3 2 18 (B) 250mm 1 3
(C) 300mm
(D) 400mm
(A) 150 mm
3 2 19 (B) 300mm 1 3
(C) 400mm
(D) 500mm
(A) -6000 N
3 2 20 (B) 6000 N 1 3
(C) 4000 N
(D) -4000 N
layers
(A) Time
(B) Material
5 1 22 1 5
(C) Sound
(D) Light
definition?
(A) layer by layer
(D) Production line

5 1 24 1 5

(A) .prt
5 1 25 (B) .slt 1 5
(C) .stl
(D) .iges
5 1 26 1 5
time
prototyping?
prototyping
5 1 28 1 5


form?

(CAE)
(CAM) (A) GKS
(C) UNIX
memory known as
picture (B) depth
(C) printer
(C) data glove
(C) y = x.x + m
(A) CPU
(D) keyboard (A) 8
(B) 16
of color display.

___________. (B) P’=R*P
(C) rotation
(B) Isometric
(A) P’=P+T
(A) 8 (D) P’=R+S
(B) 6
(D) 16 sx and sy < 1, then ___________ .
(B) P’=P-T
then ___________ .
___________ . 33. Scaling can be
(A) 8 (B) divided
(D) 6
(B) Scaling
(A) Rotation
(A) 45 (D) Skewing
(B) 90
(A) translation
___________ . (C) mirror
(B) sorting
multiply?
(B) transformations
(D) -1/d
(D) 8

____________ results. __________.
be performed first?
(A) Translation
(B) Scaling

(A) Scaling
(B) Mirror
(C) Translation
(D) Rotation
MCQs of CAD/CAM
1. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5. 10) is to be obtained about a line
GATE 2013
(A) (7.5.5)
(B) (10.5)
(C) (7.5.-5)
(D) (10.-5)
Ans: B
2. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 240..., GO2 AND G91 refer to
GATE 2012
Ans: C
3. For generating Coons patch we requi
GATE 2007
Ans: C (C) Four bounding curves defining surface

GATE 2006
Ans: A
5. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5.5) to (10, 10) while
performing an operation. The center of the arc is at (10.5). Which one of the following NC tool
GATE 2005
(a) N010 G02 X10 Y10 XSYS R5
(b) N010 G03 X10 Y 10 X5 Y5 RS
(c) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
(d) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Ans: D
GATE 2004
(d) Rapid feed
Ans: A
7. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5. specified from PI (15,10) to
P2 ( 10.15 ) will have its center at
GATE 2004
(a) (10. 10)
(b) (15. 10)
(c) (15. 15)
(d) (10, 15)
Ans: A
8. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5,4) to point (7.2)
along a circular path with center at (5,2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5,4). The
GATE 2001
(a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
(b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
(c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
(d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
Ans: B
GATE 2000
Ans: D
10 mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0,0). (0,30),
(50, 30) and (50,0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
GATE 2000
(a) (-5.0). (-5, 35). (55.35). (55,-5).(-5.-5)
(b) (0-5).(55,-5). (55, 35). (-5. 35).(-5.-5)
(c) (5, 5), (5,25), (45, 25), (45.5). (5.5)
(d) (5.5). (45.5). (45.25). (5.25). (5.5)
Ans: A
GATE 1993
Ans: C
GATE 1992
Ans: B
(a) True
(b)False
(c)Don't know
(d)Can't tell
Ans: A
(a) CPU
(b) ALU
(C) Monitor
(d) Keyboard
Ans: A
Ans: D
16. Keyboard is a input device.
Ans: D
17. Locating devices are classified as:
Ans: B
18. Mouse is a ___type of input device.
Ans: C
19. Light pen is a:
Ans: B
Ans: C
Ans: B
22. The screen is scanned from left to right top to bottom all the time to generate graphics
by:
Ans: A
23. Color raster display uses three electron guns, namely:
Ans: A
24. The software that is used for file manipulations. managing directories and subdirectories.
(C) Application software (d) Programming language
Ans: C
known as:
Ans: C
of plastic injection molding. And animation techniques, is:
Ans: C
Ans: A
(a) GKS (b) IGBS
(c) UNIX (d) PHIGS
Ans: C
modelling?
Ans: B
30. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques, Which do not require much
c) Wireframe modelling (d) All of the above
Ans: C
31. In the following geometric modelling techniques, which cannot be used for finite element
analysis:
Ans: D
32. In the following geometric primitives, which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling:
(a) Box (b) Cone
(c) Cylinder (d) Circle
Ans: D
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 12 (d) 16
Ans: C
34. Which of the following is not an analytical entity!
Ans: C
(a) Hyperbola (b) Bezier curve
(c) B-spline curve (d) Cubic spline curve
Ans: A
Ans:D
(a) 2 (b) 1
(e) 3 (d) 4
Ans: B
(a) 2" order (b) 3" order
(c) 1" order (d) 4" order
Ans: C
(a) Control points (b) Knots
(c) End points (d) All the above
Ans: A
Ans: B
(a)n + 1 (b) n – I
(C) n(d) 2n
Ans: A
Ans: A
43. C"continuity refers to:
Ans: A
44. C continuity refers to:
Ans: C
45. continuity refers to:
Ans: B
46. The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are:
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 5
Ans: B
47. convex hull property is satisfied by the following surface:
Ans: B
(a) Adding (b) Subtraction
(c) Multiplying (d) Dividing
Ans: C
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: C
(a) Linear (b) Quadratic
(c) Constant (d) None of the above
Ans: A
(a) Zero (b) Infinity
(c) Unity (d) None of the above
Ans: c unity
52. Stiffness is to the length of the element.
Ans: D
(a) NC (b) CNC
(c) DNC (d) ACS
Ans: C
54. The first commercial CNC machine was developed in the year:
(a) 1970 (b) 1972
(c) 1976 (d) 1980
Ans: a 1970
Ans: A
(c) Deflection of machine tool members (d) All the above
Ans: A
57. The axes of turning machine are:
Ans: A
Ans: B
59. Dwell is defined by:
(a) G04 (b) G03
(c) G02 (d) G01
Ans: A
60. M30 stands for:
(c) End of tape and tape rewind (d) Coolant on/off
Ans: a
(a) MPS (b) BOM
(c) Inventory file (d) All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: B
Submitted by
Abhay S. Gore

This set of Manufacturing Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Computer Aided Manufacturing”.

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
a) decision process
b) analysis process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decision process is the cognitive process resulting in the selection of a belief
or a course of action among several alternative possibilities while implementation process is
b) CAD and CAM
View Answer
Answer: b
a) software package
b) operating system
View Answer
Answer: a
b) storage devices
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
a) CPU
b) Storage device
c) ALU
d) Monitor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None
b) graphic device
View Answer
Answer: b
a) track ball
b) mouse
c) joystick
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
a) impact printers
b) plotters
c) CRT terminals
View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a
functions.
Programming software enables the to implement custom application or modify the system
for specialized needs.
View Answer
Answer: b
functions.
View Answer
Answer: c
functions.
View Answer
Answer: d
functions.
a) Windows
b) UNIX
c) VAX/VMS
d) IDEAS
View Answer
Answer: d
a) points
b) lines
c) circles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
Which of the following storage devices allows access to information in a
sequential mode?
CD-R
DVD
Hard disk
Magnetic tape
Answer
(D)
The use of specialized workstations ____________.
provides limited growth potentials for 3-D
reduces the host computer workload and allows more users
reduces the host computer workload
has a high cost-performance tradeoff
Answer
(B)
Which one is best suited for use with the paper of large size and for complex
drawings in Computer-Aided Design?
Dot-Matrix printer
Laser printer
Pen plotter
Ink-Jet printer
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is not an output device?
Monitor
Touchscreen
Printer
Plotter
Answer
(B)
Which of the following printers are known to press characters or dots against an
inked ribbon onto a paper by means of a mechanical head of retracting pins?
Dot-matrix
Ink-Jet
Laser
Thermal
Answer
(A)
Which of the following types of mouse is a battery-powered device that transmits
data using wireless technology such as radio waves or infrared light waves?
Mechanical Mouse
Optical Mouse
Cordless Mouse
Trackball
Answer
(B)
A system that automates the drafting process with interactive computer graphics is
called
Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
Computer Aided Design (CAD)
Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
Computer Aided Instruction (CAI)
Answer
(B)
A Pixel is
a computer program that draws picture
a picture stored in secondary memory
the smallest resolvable part of a picture
None of these
Answer
(C)

User Coordinate State
Using Cordinates Screen
User Coordinate System
User Coordinate Set
Answer
(C)
Which coordinate system is a device-dependent coordinate system?
World Coordinate System
Model Coordinate System
Screen Coordinate System
Answer
(D)
In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is defined by
two end points only
center and radius
radius and one end point
two end points and center
Answer
(D)
The heart of a computer is
CPU
ALU
monitor
keyboard
Answer
(A)
Keyboard is a ___________ input device
graphical
text
numerical
All of the above
Answer
(B)
Locating devices are classified as
text input devices
graphical input devices
Both A and B
None of the above
Answer
(B)
Mouse is a ___________ type of input device.
graphical
text
locating
All of the above
Answer
(C)
Digitizer is constructed on basis of
magnetic tablet mechanism
acoustic tablet mechanism
optical tablet mechanism
Both A and B
Answer(C)
The screen is scanned from left to right, top to bottom all the time to generate
graphics by
raster scan
random scan
vector scan
stoke writing
Answer
(A)
____________bits/pixel are needed to produce satisfactory continuous shades of
color display.
8
16
24
32
Answer
(C)
Color raster display uses three electron guns, namely:

Red, green and blue
Red, green and yellow
White, blue and black
Red, black and white
Answer
(A)
Typical resolution of dot matrix printer is ____________.
50 dpi
65 dpi
75 dpi
100 dpi
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is not a programming language?
Java
Pascal
Basic
Netscape
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is not a graphics standard?
GKS
IGBS
UNIX
PHIGS
Answer
(C)
Which algorithm gives floating point value of coordinates, when solving equation
of line?
Digital Differential Algorithm
Digital Differential Analyser
Digital Differentiable Algorithm
Digital Differentiable Analyser
Answer
(B)
DVST stands for
Digital View Storing Table
Direct Visual Storage Tube
Direct View Storage Tube
Digital View Storage Tube
Answer
(C)
The number of pixels stored in the frame buffer of a graphics system is known as
resolution
depth
vertex
All of the above
Answer
(A)
In a graphical system, the array of pixels in the picture are stored in
memory
frame buffer
processor
none of the above
Answer
(A)
The devices which convert the electrical energy into light is called
liquid-crystal displays
non-emitters
plasma panels
emitters
Answer
(D)
The process of digitizing a given picture definition into a set of pixel-intensity for
storage in the frame buffer is called
rasterization
encoding
scan conversion
true color system
Answer
(C)
The primary output device in a graphics system is

scanner
monitor
printer
All of the above
Answer
(B)
The device which is used to position the screen cursor is
mouse
joystick
data glove
keyboard
Answer
(A)
mouse
joystick
data glove
keyboard
Answer
(A)
_________ allows screen positions to be selected with the touch of a finger.
Touch panels
Image scanner
Light pen
Mouse
Answer
(A)
Which of the following device is not the input device?
Trackball
Data glove
Printer
Mouse
Answer
(C)
The Cartesian slope-intercept equation for a straight line is
y = m.x + b
y = b.x + m
y = x.x + m
y = b + m.m
Answer
(A)
On the raster system, lines are plotted with
lines
dots
pixels
None of the above
Answer
(C)
Which algorithm is a faster method for calculating pixel positions?
Bresenham’s line algorithm
Parallel line algorithm
Mid-point algorithm
DDA line algorithm
Answer
(D)
The operation of CRT is based on concept of energizing an electron beam that
strikes the_____coating
ceramic
phosphor
bronze
None of the above
Answer
(B)
For color displays, how many bits/pixel would be needed?
8
16
24
32
Answer
(C)
Expansion of LED is
Light Energy Diode
Light Energy Die
Light Emitting Diode
Light Emitting Die
Answer
(C)
Expansion of LCD is
Light Crystal Display
Liquid Crystal Display
Light Cartesian Display
Liquid Cartesian Display
Answer
(B)
Typical resolution of laser printer is ____________.

200 dpi
300 dpi
75 dpi
100 dpi
Answer
(B)
Which language has the capacity to operate with high-level graphics and
animation?
C
C++
BASIC
JAVA
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is the default coordinate system?
None of the above
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is a two-dimensional Cartesian coordinate system?

None of the above
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is a device-dependent coordinate system?
None of the above
Answer
(C)
IGES version 1.0 was released in which year?
1975
1980
1985
1989
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is an optional section of IGES format?
Start section
Global section
Terminate section
Flag section
Answer
(D)
PDES stands for
Product Data Exchange Step
Product Data Exchange Specification
Parameter Data Exchange Step
Parameter Data Exchange Specification
Answer
(B)
The memory requirement for the 24-bit true color system for the 1024 x 1024 pixel
resolutions is ___________.
1 MB
2 MB
3 MB
4 MB
Answer
(C)
A raster system has a resolution of 1024 × 1024 and a refresh rate of 60 Hz, then
the time required to display a pixel _____ nanoseconds.
1.589
15.89
158.9
1589
Answer
(B)
A raster system has a resolution of 1280 × 1024 having a 24-bit true-color system.
The size of frame buffer will be ___________ MB.
3
3.25
3.5
3.75
Answer
(D)
Flood guns bombard the phosphor surface of the tube in which one of the
following types of CRT technology?
Direct view storage tube
Raster scan
Refresh-vector
Stroke
Answer
(A)
In the flat-bed plotter, the __________ is stationary.
paper
pen holding mechanism
crossbar
all of the above
Answer
(A)
In a Laser printer, a semiconductor laser beam scans the ________ charged drum.
electro magnetically
electro statically
either electro magnetically or electro statically
neither electro magnetically nor electro statically
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?
(A) Hyperbola
(B) Bezier curve
(C) B-spline curve
(D) Cubic spline curve
Answer
(A)
The curve is defined as the locus of a point moving with ____ degree of freedom.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer
(B)
Which one of the following does not belong to the family of conics?
(A) Hyperbola
(B) Parabola
(C) Ellipse
(D) Line
Answer
(D)
The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by _______ .
(A) control points
(B) knots
(C) end points
(D) all the above
Answer
(A)
Which of the following is not a method to describe a curve mathematically?
(A) Explicit form
(B) Laplace form
(C) Implicit form
(D) Parametric form
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is not an analytical entity?
(A) Spline
(B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola
(D) Ellipse
Answer
(A)
When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as
(A) approximation curve
(B) pitch curve
(C) data curve
(D) interpolant curve
Answer
(D)
When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve is
known as
(A) interpolant curve
(B) approximation curve
(C) pitch curve
(D) data curve
Answer
(B)
Synthetic curve pass through defined data points and thus can be represented by
(A) polynomial equations
(B) exponential equations
(C) partial differential equations
(D) differential equations
Answer
(A)
The slope of line segment is represented by
(A) dy/dx
(B) dx/dy
(C) x/y
(D) y/x
Answer
(A)
A circle is represented in the CAD/CAM database by storing the values of its
(A) angle and center
(B) diameter
(C) radius
(D) center and radius
Answer
(D)
Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such that
at any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci) is constant and
equal to
(A) the major diameter
(B) the minor diameter
(C) semi major diameter
(D) semi-minor diameter
Answer
(A)
The parabola is defined mathematically as a curve generated by a point that moves
such that its distance from the focus is always__________the distance to the directrix.
(A) larger than
(B) smaller than
(C) equal to
Answer
(C)
In synthetic curves, zero-order continuity yields
(A) a position continuous curve
(B) a slope continuous curve
(C) a curvature continuous curve
Answer
(A)
In synthetic curves, first-order continuity yields
Answer
(B)
In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields
Answer
(C)
The B-spline curve has a
(A) first-order continuity
(B) second-order continuity
(C) zero-order continuity
Answer
(B)
To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two tangent
vectors. This statement is true for which of the following?
(A) B-spline curve
(B) Hermite Cubic Spline Curve
(C) Beizer curve
Answer
(B)
The Bezier curve is smoother than the Hermite cubic spline because it has _________
order derivatives.
(A) lower
(B) higher
(C) lower and higher both
Answer
(B)
In the bezier curve, the curve is always________to first and last segments of the
polygon.
(A) normal
(B) parallel
(C) tangent
Answer
(C)
_______curves allow local control of the curve.
(A) Analytical
(B) Hermite cubic spline
(C) Beizer
(D) B-Spline
Answer
(D)
From the following, which is a type of surface entity type?
(A) Plane Surface
(B) Ruled Surface
(C) Surface of Revolution
Answer
(D)
From the following, which is an axisymmetric surface?
(A) Plane Surface
(B) Ruled Surface
Answer
(C)
The unit vector in the direction of the line is defined as _______.
(A) tangent vector+length of the line
(B) tangent vector-length of the line
(C) tangent vector/length of the line
(D) length of the line/tangent vector
Answer
(C)
In Beizer Curve, the curve follows ____________.
(A) the control points
(B) the shape of the defining polygon
(C) the defining points
Answer
(B)
In Beizer Curve, _____________ of polygon actually lie on the curve.
(A) only the first control point
(B) only the last control point
(C) only the first and last control points
(D) all the control points
Answer
(C)
In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with _______ of the
polygon.
(A) decrease in the number of vertices
(B) increase in the number of vertices
(C) decrease in control points
Answer
(B)
The number of control points can be added or subtracted in _____________.
(A) Bezier curve
(B) B-spline curve
(C) Cubic spline curve
(D) all of the above
Answer
(B)
The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in _______.
(A) Hermite cubic spline curve
(B) Bezier curve
(C) B-spline curve
(D) Hyperbola
Answer
(C)
In modeling of a tabulated cylinder, the plane of the curve is _______.
(A) along the curve
(B) normal to the curve
(C) along the axis of the cylinder
(D) perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder
Answer
(D)
The ___________ is used to create a surface using curves that form closed
boundaries.
(A) ruled Surface
(B) plane Surface
(C) coons patch
(D) surface of Revolution
Answer
(C)
In the following geometric modeling techniques which is not a three dimensional
modeling?
(A) Wireframe modeling
(B) Drafting
(C) Surface modeling
(D) Solid modeling
Answer
(B)
In the following three-dimensional modeling techniques, which do not require much
(B) Solid modeling
Answer
(A)
B-rep and C-Rep are the methods of ___________ .
(A) solid modeling
(B) surface modeling
(C) wireframe modeling
(D) 2D modeling
Answer
(A)
From the following, which modeler defines model without mass properties?
(A) Wireframe
(B) Primitive
(C) B-rep
(D) CSG
Answer
(A)
The model which is created by using basic entities of two dimensioning is called
___________ .
(A) surface model
(B) wireframe model
(C) solid model
(D) isometric model
Answer
(B)
What is the basic part of the surface model on which the surface is to be drawn?
(A) Ruled
(B) Ruler
(C) Size
(D) Mesh
Answer
(D)
A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape using the ________ tool.
(A) revolve
(B) sweep
(C) extrude
Answer
(A)
The time required to retrieve, edit or update is less for __________ .
(A) wireframe modeling
(B) solid modeling
(C) surface modeling
(D) can't say
Answer
(A)
__________can also serve as a means of geometric input for finite element analysis.
(A) Surface model
(B) Solid model
(C) Wireframe model
(D) 2D drafting
Answer
(B)
Which kind of model can store information about geometry and topology both?
(A) Solid model
(B) Surface model
(C) Wireframe model
Answer
(A)
Which one is the most ambiguous model from the following?
(A) Surface model
(B) Solid model
(C) Wireframe model
Answer
(C)
Which solid modeling technique is used to define numerous families of objects with a
limited set of parameter values?
(A) Generalized Sweeps
(B) Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
(C) Cellular Decomposition
(D) Pure Primitive Instancing
Answer
(D)
Under which technique, 3D objects are divided up into cubical cells at a particular
resolution?
(A) Pure Primitive Instancing
(B) Generalized Sweeps
(C) Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
Answer
(C)
From the following, which method is also called as the Building Block Approach?
(A) Cellular Decomposition
(C) Generalized Sweeps
(D) Constructive Solid Geometry
Answer
(D)
Structuring and combining the primitives of the solid model in the graphics database,
is achieved by the use of ____________.
(A) FEA
(B) transformations
(C) boolean operations
Answer
(C)
It is easy to construct a precise solid model out of regular solid primitives by_____.
(A) adding the components
(B) subtracting the components
(C) intersecting the components
Answer
(D)
The data representation of CSG objects is represented by_________.
(A) a binary tree
(B) a boolean operation
(C) a primitive
Answer
(A)
____________ is an extension of the wireframe model with additional face
information added.
(A) CSG
(B) B-rep
(C) Loft
Answer
(B)
For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a preferred
technique?
(A) Constructive Solid Geometry
(B) Pure Primitive Instancing
(C) Boundary Representation
(D) Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
Answer
(C)
Which of the following uses a number of two-dimensional profiles for generating a
three-dimensional object?
(A) Tweaking
(B) Lofting
(C) Filleting
Answer
(B)
The ability available to the user to modify or move a vertex or a face and to see the
effect of that on the model is referred to as _______.
(A) filleting
(B) chamfering
(C) lofting
(D) tweaking
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is a file extension used for a 3D model?
(A) .dxf
(B) .dwg
(C) .prt
(D) .asm
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is a file extension used for an assembly file in solid model?
(A) .dxf
(B) .dwg
(C) .prt
(D) .asm
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is a file extension used for an AutoCAD file?
(A) .dwg
(B) .stl
(C) .prt
(D) .asm
Answer
(A)
________ command gives an array of object in 3D modeling.
(A) Extrude
(B) Revolve
(C) Pattern
Answer
(C)
To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient?
(A) Extrude
(B) Sweep
(C) Shell
(D) Revolve
Answer
(C)
When every entity of a geometric model remains parallel to its initial position, the
transformation is called as ___________ .
(A) scaling
(B) translation
(C) rotation
(D) mirror
Answer
(B)
In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects and therefore
(A) Orthographic
(B) Isometric
(C) Perspective
Answer
(C)
The number of line required to represent a cube in a wire frame model is
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 16
Answer
(C)
The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is
(A) P’=P+T
(B) P’=P-T
(C) P’=P*T
(D) P’=p
Answer
(A)
The basic geometric transformation is ___________ .
(A) translation
(B) rotation
(C) scaling
Answer
(D)
Positive values for the rotation angle ϴ defines ___________ .
(A) counterclockwise rotations about the end points
(B) counterclockwise translation about the pivot point
(C) counterclockwise rotations about the pivot point
Answer
(C)
The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is
(A) P’=P+T
(B) P’=R*P
(C) P’=P*P
(D) P’=R+P
Answer
(B)
The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is ___________ .
(A) scaling
(B) rotation
(C) translation
(D) reflection
Answer
(A)
The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is
(A) P’=P+T
(B) P’=S*P
(C) P’=P*R
(D) P’=R+S
Answer
(B)
If the values of the scaling factors sx and sy < 1, then ___________ .
(B) it increases the size of the object
Answer
(A)
If the values of the scaling factors sx and sy are assigned to the same value, then
___________ .
(A) uniform rotation is produced
(B) uniform scaling is produced
(C) scaling cannot be done
Answer
(B)
If the values of the scaling factors sx and sy are assigned to unequal values, then
___________ .
(C) non-uniform scaling is produced
(D) scaling cannot be done
Answer
(C)
If the value of sx=1 and sy=1, then ___________ .
(A) reduce the size of the object
(B) distort the picture
(C) produce an enlargement
(D) no change in the size of an object
Answer
(D)
Reflection about the line y=0, the axis, is accomplished with the transformation matrix
with how many elements as ‘0’?
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer
(D)
Which transformation distorts the shape of an object such that the transformed shape
appears as if the object were composed of internal layers that had been caused to slide
over each other?
(A) Rotation
(B) Scaling
(C) Shearing
(D) Reflection
Answer
(C)
In a reflection, by how much angle is the object rotated?
(A) 45
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) 360
Answer
(C)
Shearing is also termed as ___________ .
(A) selecting
(B) sorting
(C) scaling
(D) skewing
Answer
(D)
________can be defined as the creation, storage and manipulation of pictures and
drawings by means of a computer.
(A) Computer graphics
(B) FEA
(C) Raster scan
Answer
(A)
The memory of the computer is a collection of bits and a bit can take any value
in_____
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) either 0 or 1
(D) neither 0 nor 1
Answer
(C)
All changes performed on the graphic image are done by changing the database of the
original picture. These changes are called as________.
(A) boolean operations
(B) transformations
(C) scanning
Answer
(B)
Scaling can be
(A) uniform
(B) non-uniform
(C) both uniform and non-uniform
Answer
(C)
To achieve scaling, the original coordinates would be _________ by scaling factor.
(A) multiplied
(B) divided
(C) substracted
Answer
(A)
Reflection is the process of obtaining a _______ image of the original shape.
(A) smaller
(B) larger
(C) slant
(D) mirror
Answer
(D)
______________ allows the user to view the objects from different angles.
(A) Rotation
(B) Translation
(C) Reflection
(D) Skewing
Answer
(A)
Circular arrays can be obtained with the help of ____________ transformation.
(A) translation
(B) skewing
(C) mirror
(D) rotation
Answer
(D)
From the following, which one will require maximum numbers of matrices to
multiply?
(A) Rotation about the origin
(B) Rotation about an arbitrary Point
(C) Rotation about an arbitrary line
(D) Scaling about the origin
Answer
(C)
From the following, which one will require 4 matrices to multiply to get the final
position?
Answer
(B)
position?
(C) Scaling about the origin
(D) Rotation about an arbitrary line
Answer
(D)
To obtain the projection of an entity, projectors are constructed by connecting
___________ with each point of the entity.
(A) projection plane
(B) viewing plane
(C) the center of projection
Answer
(C)
Parallel projection have the center of projection at_________.
(A) many points
(B) only one point
(C) infinity
Answer
(C)
If the center of projection is at a finite distance from the plane, ____________ results.
(A) perspective projection
(B) parallel projection
(C) orthographic projection
Answer
(A)
___________ does not preserve parallelism.
(A) Parallel projection
(B) Perspective projection
(C) Orthographic projection
Answer
(B)
In perspective projection, the size of an entity is _______ proportional to its distance
from the center of projection.
(A) inversely
(B) directly
(C) either inversely or directly
(D) neither inversely nor directly
Answer
(A)
In order to define perspective projection, ______________ is required.
(A) a center of projection
(B) a projection plane
(C) a center of projection and a projection plane
Answer
(C)
The transformation of perspective projection must include__________, where d is the

distance between the center of projection to the projection plane.
(A) d
(B) 1/d
(C) -d
(D) -1/d
Answer
(D)
How many total numbers of projecting planes are required for the complete
description of the orthographic projection system?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer
(C)
A world-coordinate area selected for display is called a _________.
(A) window
(B) monitor
(C) screen
Answer
(A)
An area on a display device to which a window is mapped is called a __________.
(A) window
(B) viewport
(C) pixel
Answer
(B)
Generally, windows and viewports are _______ in the standard position.
(A) rectangles
(B) circles
(C) polygons
Answer
(A)
A rectangle is to be rotated by 30° clockwise about an arbitrary point. From the
following, which transformation will be performed first?
(A) Translation
(B) Scaling
Answer
(A)
A triangle is to be reflected about an arbitrary line. From the following, which
(A) Scaling
(B) Mirror
(C) Translation
(D) Rotation
Answer
(C)
From the following, which type of element is not two dimensional?
(A) Rectangle
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Parallelogram
(D) Tetrahedron
Answer
(D)
From the following, which type of element is not three dimensional?
(A) Hexahedron
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Rectangular prism
(D) Tetrahedron
Answer
(B)
For truss analysis, which type of elements are used?

(A) Triangle
(B) Bar
(C) Rectangle
(D) Parallelogram
Answer
(B)
To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts
that are called
(A) finite elements
(B) infinite elements
(C) dynamic elements
(D) static elements
Answer
(A)
The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is
known as ___________ .
(A) assemblage
(B) continuum
(C) traction
(D) discretization
Answer
(D)
The sum of the shape function is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer
(C)
A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer
(D)
Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on ___________ .
(A) nature of element
(B) type of an element
(C) degrees of freedom
(D) nodes
Answer
(C)
On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by
(A) KQ=F
(B) KQ≠F
(C) K=QF
(D) K≠QF
Answer
(A)
The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
(A) structural mechanics
(B) classical mechanics
(C) applied mechanics
(D) engineering mechanics
Answer
(D)
At fixed support, the displacements are equal to
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Answer
(D)
In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________ .
(A) particles
(B) molecules
(C) elements
(D) none
Answer
(C)
The numbers of node for 1 D element are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Answer
(B)
Finite element analysis deals with ___________ .
(A) approximate numerical solution
(B) non-boundary value problems
(D) laplace equations
Answer
(A)
Stiffness matrix depends on
(A) material
(B) geometry
(C) both material and geometry
Answer
(C)
Example of 2-D Element is ___________ .
(A) bar
(B) triangle
(C) hexahedron
(D) tetrahedron
Answer
(B)
For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix
formed is having an order of
(A) 2*2
(B) 3*3
(C) 4*4
(D) 6*6
Answer
(B)
To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used.
(A) shape function
(B) node function
(C) element function
(D) coordinate function
Answer
(A)
The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
(A) boundary condition
(B) traction
(C) friction
(D) surfacing
Answer
(A)
The truss element can resist only
(A) axial force
(B) surface force
(C) point load
Answer
(A)
Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________ .
(A) triangular element
(B) brick element
(C) truss element
(D) axisymmetric element
Answer
(C)
The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Answer
(D)
How many nodes are there in a 3-D brick element?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer
(C)
From below, choose the correct condition for the axisymmetric element.
(A) Symmetric about axis
(B) Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
(C) Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
(D) All the above
Answer
(D)
Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element
(A) 1D
(B) 2D
(C) 3D
(D) 4D
Answer
(B)
______ is/are the phase/s of finite element method.
(A) Preprocessing
(B) Solution
(C) Post Processing
(D) A, B & C
Answer
(C)
The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in
space is _______.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer
(A)
The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.
(A) thermal
(B) soil and rock mechanics
(C) vibration
Answer
(D)
If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we need to subdivide
the structure into substructures. These substructures are termed as _____.
(A) elements
(B) modules
(C) links
(D) models
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?
(A) The minimum potential energy principle
(B) Galerkin's principle
(C) Weighted residual method
(D) Inverse matrix method
Answer
(D)
_____________ is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to the
smallest dimension.
(A) Element depth ratio
(B) Mode shape ratio
(C) Aspect ratio
Answer
(C)
______ are used to express the geometry or shape of the element.
(A) Mode shapes
(B) Shape functions
(C) Natural curves
Answer
(B)
When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called
________.
(A) plane stress
(B) plane strain
(C) zero stress
(D) zero strain
Answer
(A)
The characteristic of the shape function is _______.
(A) the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the other nodes
(B) the sum of the shape function is equal to one
(C) both a & b
Answer
(C)
The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as
______.
(A) local coordinates system
(B) natural coordinates system
(C) global coordinate system
Answer
(C)
The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are
______.
(A) stretching of plates
(B) gravity of dams
(C) axisymmetric shells
Answer
(C)
If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is
considered in ______ .
(A) inverse matrix method
(B) weighted residual method
(C) Galerkin‟s principle
(D) the minimum potential energy principle
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?
(A) K is a banded matrix
(B) K is un-symmetric
(C) K is an un-banded matrix
Answer
(A)
The actual thickness of plane strain element is ______.
(A) very large
(B) very small
(C) assumed by software
(D) any of the above
Answer
(A)
Which of the following is not an FEA package?
(A) ANSYS
(B) Nastran
(C) Abaqus
(D) AutoCAD
Answer
(D)
Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?
(A) Static analysis
(B) Thermal analysis
(C) Modal analysis
Answer
(C)
For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________.
(A) stress
(B) strain
(C) displacement
(D) temperature
Answer
(D)
In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find _______.
(A) stress distribution
(B) heat flux distribution
(C) pressure distribution
Answer
(C)
Crack propagation problems come under _______ category.
(A) steady-state problems
(B) eigenvalue problems
(C) transient problems
Answer
(C)
In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having _________
stiffness.
(A) zero
(B) very small
(C) very large
(D) infinite
Answer
(D)
How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer
(B)
How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer
(C)
How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron with curved sides element?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Answer
(C)
If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be ______
accurate.
(A) more
(B) less
(C) depends on other factors
(D) can't say
Answer
(A)
In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______ computation time
(A) less
(B) more
(D) can't say
Answer
(B)
Elements with an aspect ratio of near to ______ generally yield best results in FEA.
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer
(C)
In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation ______.
(A) R=KQ+F
(B) R=KQ-F
(C) R=K+QF
(D) R=K-QF
Answer
(B)
The total potential energy of an elastic body is defined as _______.
(A) Strain energy - Work potential
(B) Strain energy + Work potential
(C) Strain energy + Kinetic energy - Work potential
(D) Strain energy + Kinetic energy + Work potential
Answer
(B)
The strain energy per unit volume is equal to _________.
(A) (1/2) * Force * Deflection
(B) (1/4) * Force * Deflection
(C) (1/2) * Stress * Deflection
(D) (1/4) * Stress * Deflection
Answer
(A)
As per the penalty approach, the equation of reaction force is _____.
(A) R = -CQ
(B) R = CQ
(C) R = -C (Q-a)
(D) R = -C (Q+a)
Answer
(C)
In the penalty approach, the magnitude of the stiffness constant should be at least
_______ times more than the maximum value in the global stiffness matrix.
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 10000
Answer
(D)
The equation for thermal stress in each element is ________.
(A) σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
(B) σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
(C) σ = E (B + α Δt)
(D) σ = E (B - α Δt)
Answer
(B)
In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in ________
phase.
(A) preprocessing
(B) solution
(C) postprocessing
Answer
(C)
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Automation System MCQ Questions & Answers | Computer Science

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Section 1 (https://www.examveda.com/computer-science/practice-mcq-question-on-automation-system/?section=1)
1. A program language:
A. defines the form of the instruction
B. is always machine dependent
C. is never machine dependent
D. All of the above

E. None of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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2. Which of the following symbol modes are used to input of graphics to General CAD system?
A. Live and Rectangle mode
B. Arc and Circle mode
C. Dimension and Alphanumeric mode
D. All of the above
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3. Which technique enables the designer to mold and shape, rather than construct on object using a series of lines?
A. Solid modeling
B. Wire-frame modeling
C. Surface modeling
D. FEM (Finite Element Modeling)
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4. Computer-based controllers:
A. should be built in a modular fashion wherever possible
B. are very difficult to change
C. are very flexible
D. (a) and (c) above
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Answer: Option D
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5. Flood guns bombard the phosphor surface of the tube in which one of the following types of CRT technology?
A. Direct view storage tube
B. Raster scan CRT
C. Refresh-vector CRT
D. Stroke CRT
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6. Automation normally means:
A. a net loss of jobs.
B. a net increase in jobs.
C. no change in jobs.
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7. Trend analysis:
A. is used only in financial planning
B. can improve control system response
C. requires a very expensive system to implement
D. is a brand new concept
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Answer: Option B
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8. The use of specialized workstations:
A. provides limited growth potentials for 3-D
B. reduces the host computer workload and allows more users
C. reduces the host computer workload
D. has a high cost-performance tradeoff
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Answer: Option B
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9. What key hardware item ties a CAD/ CAM system together?
A. Mouse
B. Graphics workstation
C. Digitizer
D. Plotter
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10. Which of these controller types is the most accurate?
A. Proportional plus integral
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus derivative
D. Three mode
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Answer: Option D
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11. Flat panel displays are based on what type of technology?


B. Very large-scale integration (VLSI)
C. Solid state
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12. Which of the following is a graphical input device?
A. light pen
B. keyboard
C. mouse
D. Track ball
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13. Today, programmable controllers:
A. are more powerful then the first controllers on the market
B. are relatively low cost compared with the original digital equipment available for industrial control
C. can be cost effective even when replacing just a few relays
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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14. Productivity is defined as:
A. number of items manufactured per day
B. output per man-hour of labour
C. cost per day
D. cost per unit
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15. The main function(s) of computer in CAD is/are
A. To serve as an extension to the memory of the designer
B. To enhance the analytical and logical power of the designer


C. To relieve the designer from routine repetitious tasks.
D. All of the above

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16. The first industrial robot for commercial uses was installed in a Japanese plant at Toyota Automatic Loom Company,
the parent company of the Toyota Automobile Group. When did this robot go into operation?
A. Jun-65 
B. Nov-66
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D. Apr-70
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17. What is the difference between integral and derivative control?
A. derivative control does not eliminate offset error
B. integral control has slower response to an error signal.
C. derivative control responds to a change in the rate of change in the error signal
D. All of the above
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18. The program counter:
A. decides which program to run
B. counts the number of instructions that have been executed
C. contains the address of the next instruction to be executed 
D. is where arithmetic is done in a computer.

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19. Digital signals:
A. can have three possible levels
B. are assigned values of 1 or 0 depending on the voltage level
C. have a sinusoidal shape.
D. have a frequency measured in units of hertz
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Answer: Option B
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20. There are several procedures you can implement to provide maximum security. The most important of these is:
A. do not leave training manuals unsecured
B. run regular simulated tests using TARP (testing of Applications Recovery Planes)
C. Verify the reputation of the people installing your system
D. do not allow unbonded service people to work on your equipment
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21. Semiconductor devices:
A. are less reliable than electro¬mechanical components
B. usually have a very short MTBF (mean time between failure)
C. have a very short infant mortality period

D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C
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22. A drum timer is a good example of:
A. an output actuator
B. an input sensor
C. a position sensor
D. a sequence controller
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Answer: Option D
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23. The formula for memory capacity is:
A. MC = N/2
B. MC = 2/N
C. MC = N squared.
D. MC -2 to the Nth power
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24. How is the integral mode implemented using analog methods?
A. Op amp and resistors
B. Op amp and a capacitor
C. Op amp and an RC network to place the error voltage across the capacitor
D. All of the above
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25. The general type of process found in industry is:
A. discrete parts
B. continuous
C. batch
D. All of the above

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Answer: Option D
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26. Which method is frequently used, especially in the early stages of design?
A. The iterative design method


B. The direct method
C. The design selection method

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27. In raster-scan colour monitors, colour can be intensified by:
A. grouping the phosphor dots in a circular pattern
B. having each electron gun controlled by a composite signal
C. using an in-line gun arrangement with a solid metal mesh
D. having each electron gun controlled by separate signal
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28. Timing using a TM990 micro-computer:
A. require an external timer added by the user
B. is available on the standard CPU board
C. can be handled in software
D. both (b) and (c)
E. None of the above.
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29. A discrete parts process is:
A. the same as a continuous process except a different controller must be used
B. often encountered in manufacturing
C. normally a repetitive series of operations
D. (b) and (c)
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30. Speech recognition:
A. will never be used in industrial controls


B. is already widely used in industrial controls
C. will be used in more applications as the technology matures.
D. All of the above

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section=1&page=5)
section=1&page=2)
section=1&page=3)
section=1&page=4)
section=1&page=5)
6 
section=1&page=7)
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31. Which device does the general population associate most with automation?
A. Flexible manufacturing 

B. Robots
C. Numerical control machine

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D. Computer graphics workstation
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32. Using a microcomputer as a controller allows:
A. faster cycle time
B. simpler mechanical hardware
C. more self diagnostics of the machine operation
D. All of the above
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33. If the transient response is under damped:
A. steady-state will be reached faster than if the system is overdamped
B. the value of the output will exceed the value of the input at times during the transient period
C. the present overshoot is zero
D. both a and b
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34. What should be first considered in choosing a plotter?
A. The hardware you currently own
B. The application for which it will be used
C. The type of data you will input
D. The cost
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35. The coordinate system used to describe a workpiece:
A. is always two-dimensional
B. changes from part to part 
C. is defined with respect to a point on the machine
D. All of the above

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Answer: Option C
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section=1&page=4)
section=1&page=5)
section=1&page=6)
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36. A programmable controller:
A. allows faster machine checkout


B. is easier to troubleshoot than standard relay logic
C. both (a) and (b)
D. All of the above

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37. The SKETCHPAD system
A. consisted of an cathode-ray oscilloscope driven by a Lincoln Tx2 computer where by graphical information was displayed on the
screen.
B. is used for interactive Graphics
C. is expensive because it is sophisticated and make demands on the power and resources of the computer.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above 
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Answer: Option D
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38. The name given to the test that determines whether a machine can think is the:
A. Gaussian test
B. McCarthy test
C. Turing test
D. Boolean test
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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39. Which of the following is a machine language instruction?
A. ADD 5
B. 10001101
C. GOTO XOUT
D. All of the above
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40. The two major categories of software are: application software and
A. system software

B. UNIX software
C. high-level languages
D. CAD software
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section=1&page=7)
section=1&page=2)
section=1&page=3)
section=1&page=4)
section=1&page=5)
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section=1&page=6)
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41. What was the name of the Japanese worker who was killed by an industrial robot at the Akashi plant of Kawasaki
Heavy Industries in Japan?
A. M. Shubhagya 
B. Harun Shimada
C. Kenji Urada Ad Universal Robots Remote Access

D. K. Miceni
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42. When of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?
A. Dot metric printers
B. Ink jet printers
C. Laser printers
D. Plotters
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43. The three key elements for a graphics workstation include the host processor, display controller, and:
A. mouse
B. keyboard
C. CRT

D. digitizer

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44. An operational amplifier:
A. can be used to subtract two or more signals
B. can be used to sum two or more signals
C. uses the principle of feedback
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution


Answer: Option D
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45. The raster CRT eliminates:
A. flicker and slow update
B. slow update only
C. flicker only
D. has no effect
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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46. Who made the statement "if a robot can do a job, a person should not be doing it"?
A. Prof. F. A. Fisher of Britain


B. Ron Albo of Shugart Associates, California
C. Prof. Meredith Turing, London University

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E. None ,of the above
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Answer: Option B
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47. CAD/CAM is the inter-relationship between:
A. manufacturing and marketing
B. marketing and design
C. engineering and marketing
D. engineering and manufacturing
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Answer: Option D
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48. What prevents a robotic instrument from running into other objects?
A. negative image
B. functional manipulators
C. memory
D. sensory devices
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
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49. The axis of movement of a robot may include:
A. Wrist rotation
B. X-Y coordinate motion
C. elbow rotation
D. All of the above
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50. Numerical control:


A. is a method for controlling the operation of a machine by means of a set of instructions
B. applies only to milling machines

C. is a method for producing an exact number of parts per hour
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option A
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51. A flip-flop:
A. is a combinational logic device


B. is a sequential logic device
C. remembers what was previously stored in it

D. (a) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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52. A technique for displaying applications where complex 3-D geometric are required for the exteror shall of a product is
called:
A. solid modeling
B. 2-D modeling
C. 3-D modeling
D. surface modeling
Answer & Solution
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53. The user communicates directly with the computer through its peripheral devices is known as
A. On-line processing
B. Remote-terminal processing
C. Batch mode processing
D. Intelligent terminal Processing


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54. A semi-continuous operation means:
A. the operation is continuous each shift, but stops between shifts
B. coffee breaks are allowed for the operator
C. a computer is a required part of the machine
D. each operation in a sequence is continuous, but subsequent operations in the sequence may be different.
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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
55. A servo controlled robot:

A. stop only at fixed points on each axis
B. can accelerate
C. must be hydraulically driven
D. must be electrically driven
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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56. An aneroid barometer
A. is very unreliable

B. can measure only atmospheric pressure
C. measures pressure by sensing deflection of an evacuated chambers.
D. can be used to measure gas or liquid flow rates

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57. Which of the following represents a conditional branching instruction?
A. BGT LOOPS
B. GOTO 50
C. X=5+Y
D. JMP MOTOR
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Answer & Solution
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58. The electronic component that has been the key to recent developments in automation is the:
A. improved vacuum tube
B. integrated circuit
C. diode
D. transistor
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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59. Which of the following is considered a high-level language?
A. Machine language
B. FORTRAN
C. Assembly language
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
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13445)
60. Pressure sensors:
A. use the piezoresistive effect in strain gauge sensors 
B. use an aneroid chamber with a variable resistance output
C. use capacitive variations to sense pressure

D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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61. Flexible manufacturing allows for:
A. factory management

B. automated design
C. tool design and tool production

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Answer: Option D
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62. Three different aspects of colour are used to define specific colours. They are hue, saturation, and:
A. metamer
B. value
C. gray scale
D. shading
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63. A way to transfer programs to a central system is:
A. by setting bit switches on the central CPU
B. to copy the program into PROMs and install the PROMs in the system
C. to develop the program on the actual system only
D. All of the above
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
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Answer: Option B
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64. The device that assembles groups of characters into complete messages prior to their entering the CPU is called:
A. a compiler
B. an interpreter
C. a communications processor
D. an editor
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65. Which industry is the leading user of robots? 
A. Chemical industry
B. Automobile industry
C. Electronic industry
D. Shipping industry
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66. What two methods are available to build electronic continuous control?
A. Analog and mechanical


B. Pneumatic and analog
C. Analog and digital

D. All of the above
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67. If the transient response of a system is overdamped:
A. the value of the output exceeds the value of the input at times during the transient period.
B. the value of the output never exceeds the value of the input during the transient period.
C. the value of the output never stabilizes.
D. All of the above
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68. Resolution in a CRT refers to:
A. the speed at which the monitor can accept data from the computer
B. the number of phosphor dots that react when hit by the electron beam
C. the number of addressable elements on the tube
D. the number of pixels in each square centimeter
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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69. Actuators are used to:
A. sense an object
B. activate a chemical
C. make a mechanical movement
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C
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70. If the period of a sine wave is 0.001 second, the frequency of the sine wave is:

A. 0.001 Hz
B. 1,000 Hz
C. 10,000 Hz
D. 10 Hz
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1. Software is:
A. printer output

B. a set of instructions
C. tape input.
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2. Which item best describes a CAM technology?
A. Numerical control
B. Drafting
C. Documentation
D. Geometric modeling
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3. The linking of PCs with a communi-cations system is referred to as:
A. workstations
B. streaming
C. turnkey systems
D. networking
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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4. Two of the major processing languages are PROLOG and:
A. LISP
B. COBOL
C. BASIC
D. Pascal
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5. Vision sensors:

A. will remain very costly
B. can not improve much in the next decade

C. will more closely match the capabilities of the human eye
D. All of the above
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6. A disadvantage of Numerical Control (NC) is:
A. the computer is not reliable


B. the tape and tape reader are not reliable
C. one operator is needed for each machine.

D. the machine tool can easily overheat
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7. Digitizers can be converted from "dumb" to "smart" through the addition of:
A. a microprocessor
B. an electromagnetic coupling
C. keyboard
D. a scanner
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8. Over the last ten years, productivity has risen most rapidly in:
A. Italy
B. Japan
C. France
D. United States
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9. The difference between a high-technology and a medium-technology robot is the:
A. speed of movement
B. range of motion of the robot
C. accuracy of the robot
D. complexity of the task it can perform.
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Answer: Option D
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10. The output of a thermocouple is:
A. a capacitance 
B. a resistance
C. a current
D. a voltage
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
DC voltage
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11. Compared to humans, machines:
A. can make more complex decisions based on unexpected circumstances


B. can work in harsher environments
C. make fewer errors

D. (a) and (c)
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12. A solenoid:
A. can be used only in de circuits
B. is spring operated
C. is widely used in industrial automation
D. is related to an aneroid
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13. Most industrial control applications:
A. can be solved using more than one method of control
B. can be done more reliably using solid-state methods
C. must have the process specified correctly to be successful
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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14. When was the first successful industrial robot installed in the General Motors Plant in USA?
A. 1960
B. 1961
C. 1963
D. 1967
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15. The physical arrangement of equipment in a network is called:
A. topology
B. pairing

C. queuing
D. logic

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Answer: Option A
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section=2&page=7)
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16. The computer graphics system called SKETCHPAD was demonstrated at
A. Massachusetts Institute of Technology in 1963


B. Imperial college of Science and Technology, London, 1973
C. University of Aston, Birmingham, 1960

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D. Cranfield Institute of Technology, London, 1962
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Answer: Option A
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demonstrated-at-13472)
17. The new industrial revolution has been caused by:
A. social unrest
B. advances in electronics
C. the Vietnam War
D. demand for higher wages
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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18. Straight-line operations:
A. must be limited to two per workpiece
B. must be parallel to one of the axes of the coordinate system
C. can include diagonal cuts if they aren't curved
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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19. The workspace required for a robot:
A. is less than that of a human performing the same task
B. depends upon the robot used
C. is not dependent on the application.
D. must be enclosed by a fence
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Answer: Option B
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20. In pen plotters, "resolution" refers to the shortest possible line, but in electrostatic plotters it refers to:

A. the number of dots per inch
B. the speed per inch
C. dual-axis tracking
D. how accurately the plotter returns to a specific point
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in-electrostatic-plotters-it-refers-to-13476)
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section=2&page=2)
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
section=2&page=5)
section=2&page=6)
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21. A common data base is one requisite for converting CAD and CAM to CIM. Another is that:
A. the system must make provision for new techniques.


B. there should be a common 3-D part description system.
C. the user must have access to both hardware and software

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D. technical assistance must be providedOPEN
to the user.
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cam-to-cim-another-is-that-13477)
22. Sensors:
A. are easily developed
B. probably will not improve over the next decade
C. are not important in automation
D. will be much smarter and more sophisticated in the future
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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23. Which of the following devices could be part of a sensor?
A. thermometer
B. brake
C. relay
D. clutch.
Answer & Solution Discuss in Board (https://www.examveda.com/which-of-the-following-devices-could-be-part-of-a-sensor-13479) Save for Later


Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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24. In general, American buyers will purchase goods:
A. that offer the best quality for the least money.
B. that are made in America, even at higher costs.
C. without regard to country of manufacturer.
D. (a) and (c)
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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25. The reliability life cycle of a product:

A. has three distinct rates of failure
B. cannot be predicted
C. All of the above

D. stays constant with environmental conditions
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Answer: Option A
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
section=2&page=6)
section=2&page=7)
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26. Robots consist of three basic components; power supply, control (memory) console, and:
A. coaxial cable
B. microcomputer
C. mechanical unit (arm) 
D. software
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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memory-console-and-13482)
27. Today's engineers feel that the ultimate solution to the CAD/CAM problem will be
A. Animation
B. the microprocessor
C. turnkey systems
D. development of a more efficient display controller
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Answer: Option B
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problem-will-be-13483)
28. The method of solid modeling that defines the topology of faces, edges, and vertics, as well as data that defines the
surface in which each face lies is called:
A. constructive solid geometry
B. layering
C. boundary representation
D. isometric
Answer & Solution
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Answer: Option C
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29. Programming languages currently available for robots:
A. may be point-to-point languages
B. require training
C. may allow primitive motion
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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30. A process controller:
A. can interface to digital and analog I/O
B. is useful in a continuous process control application

C. can solve a PID process control equation easily
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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31. Compared to an open-loop system, a closed-loop control system is:
A. more accurate

B. more complex
C. more stable
D. All of the above

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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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32. Automation means:
A. assisting or replacing humans with machines.
B. workers controlling machines.
C. increased productivity.
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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33. The "snap" command feature in both AutoCAD and VersaCAD ensure that:
A. template lines can be removed
B. objects are entered at specific intervals.
C. identified data are automatically segmented
D. definable center markers are entered.
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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34. An intelligent robot can:
A. make decisions
B. handle only small payloads
C. walk
D. speak
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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35. What is proportional control?


A. It has a discrete output for each error value
B. The controller output varies continuously over a range

C. The gain is independent of offset error.
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
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36. The real "brain" of an artificial intelligence system is referred to as:
A. bubble memory

B. the expert system
C. recursive technology
D. natural language interfaces
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Answer: Option B
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37. Analog and digital controllers:
A. cost the same to build
B. accept the same input signals
C. can be changed with equal case
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option E
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38. Robot motion:
A. is the same for all robots
B. usually imitates human motion
C. is not dependent on the robot structure
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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39. The digitizing technology that uses an electric field radiated from the tablet and picked up by a cursor is:
A. electromagnetic
B. raster
C. sonic
D. electrostic
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Answer: Option D
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40. Advantages of robots include: 
A. increased productivity
B. ability to withstand hazardous environments

C. good return on investment and better company image
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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41. Light sensors:
A. cannot be used a s limit switches.


B. come in a wide variety of mounting styles
C. work in direct sunlight

D. never use infrared light as light source
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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42. Stepping motors:
A. can run at varying speeds
B. can be built to index different amounts by changing the pole configuration
C. can run both clockwise and counterclockwise
D. do not require commutators
E. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option E
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43. Most continuous control actuators:
A. are of the time proportioning type
B. use a 4 to 20 mA current loop input
C. are used with standard continuous control loop
D. (b) and (c) above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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44. Group technology brings together and organizes:
A. automation and tool production
B. parts and simulation analysis
C. documentation and analysis
D. common parts, problems, and tasks
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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45. A venturi tube:
A. is extremely difficult to use
B. is made only of metal


C. measures the presence of a liquid

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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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46. The APT (automatically progra-mmed tools) language is used with:
A. large automation systems
B. drafting systems
C. programmable controllers
D. numerical controlled machines.
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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13502)
47. The ideal solution is to have a system coordinator who will interface with the engineering and manufacturing
managers, as well as the:
A. finance manager
B. president
C. marketing manager
D. MIS manager
Answer & Solution
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Answer: Option D
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interface-with-the-engineering-and-manufacturing-managers-as-well-as-the-13503)
48. Four basic elements are required for an automated machine tool or production process. They are: input interface,
memory, output interface and:
A. logic
B. software
C. NC tape programming
D. computer graphics workstation

Answer & Solution
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Answer: Option A
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49. The Ziegler-Nichols method:
A. is a graphical solution method
B. can be used to determine gain factors of a PI loop
C. is a method of control
D. a and b above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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50. A Hall effect switch is usually used to:
A. measure voltage
B. measure temperature
C. sense a vacuum
D. sense the presence of a magnetic object.
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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51. The hardware device Jhat acts as both a switching and connecting unit is called a(n):
A. concentrator

B. RS-232C port
C. multiplexer
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D. communications processor
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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52. The addition of _____ can reduce processing time.
A. A buffer
B. An EPROM
C. A converter
D. A co-processor
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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53. Which of the following method is used the results of a design analysis as a base for redesign decisions?
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option A
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54. What kind of capability is required if one plans to interface with a plotter or printer?
A. A graphics cable
B. RGB monitor
C. A graphics board
D. A co-processor
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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a-plotter-or-printer-13510)

55. Robots can increase productivity because:
A. they do not take a vacation

B. they do not get tired
C. production quality is uniform
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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56. Which CAD display configurability allows work without any host support?
A. Highly intelligent

B. Medium intelligence
C. Low intelligence
D. One with no secondary storage capacity.

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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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57. The rectangular boundary around a specific area on the display is called
A. a window
B. a conic section
C. a view point
D. a view plane
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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58. In the PROLOG language system, facts are manipulated by:
A. algorithms
B. rules
C. memory
D. simulations
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Answer: Option B
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59. A favourable reason for automation is to:
A. decrease throughput
B. raises assembly cost
C. perform difficult operations
D. increase number of operations
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Answer: Option C
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60. Which method uses the design analysis as a method for effecting the design?


D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
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61. The main activity(ies) of Designer in CAD is/are:
A. Control of the design process in information distribution.


B. Application of creativity, ingenuity, and experience.
C. Organisation of design information

D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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62. The three different types of pen plotter technology are flatbed, drum, and:
A. electrostatic
B. thermal
C. pinch roller
D. impact
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Answer: Option C
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63. High-level languages:
A. are "procedure-oriented"
B. are very difficult to use
C. cannot be used with automatic systems.
D. require knowledge of the computer design
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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64. The heart of automation technology is.
A. robots
B. computers
C. control
D. sensors
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Answer: Option B
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65. A dc servo motor:

A. uses a tachometer for speed feedback
B. uses a variable dc voltage for speed control
C. can provide precise position control

D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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section=2&page=12)
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section=2&page=3)
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section=2&page=5)
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66. Plotter accuracy is measured in terms of repeatability and:
A. intelligence

B. vertical dimension
C. resolution
D. buffer size
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Answer: Option C
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67. The basic difference between broadband and baseband is:
A. availability
B. capacity
C. reliability
D. transmission
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Answer: Option B
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68. The power source that drives the manipulator can be:
A. pneumatic
B. electric
C. hydraulic
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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69. Which of the following devices would be classified as a robot by the Robot Institute of America?
A. Automobile
B. Pick-and-place manipulator
C. Artificial hand
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
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70. An operating system:
A. can help reduce software development time


B. provides ability for other programmers to understand the software structure
C. is useless in most control applications
D. All of the above

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A. can be used on more than one machine during its lifetime.


B. can be reprogrammed in the field
C. requires considerable training before it can be used
D. (a) and (b) above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
2. A LISP environment consists of a language, a programming environ-ment, and:
A. random-access storage
B. a processor
C. a large address
D. a set of functions
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3. What Is a process variable?
A. A manipulated variable
B. A controlled variable
C. A process parameter that changes value
D. All of the above
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
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Answer: Option D
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4. Time proportioning control:
A. can be used on a PM550 programmable process controller
B. is less efficient than normal PID control
C. cannot use a TM990 micro¬computer
D. a and b above.
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Answer: Option A
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5. What is the process lag?

A. The time it takes for the sensor to respond to a changed.
B. The lag in the error signal when the setpoint is changed.
C. The time it takes for the mass of the process to respond to an input change.
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C
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6. If the present value in a timer in the TI510 is 8, how many milliseconds is required from the time the timer is started
until the output is enabled?
A. 18 
B. 133.36
C. 149.88 Ad Festival Offers on Liebherr

D. 1275.41
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7. The two types of relays in a PC are:
A. an output relay and a control relay
B. a control relay and a retentive relay
C. a retentive relay and a non-retentive relay
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option A
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8. A common way to take x, y coordinates off a drawing is to use a
A. light pen
B. digitiser
C. Direct view storage tube (DVST)


D. Tablet

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Answer: Option B
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13534)
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9. How is the integral mode implemented on a digital controller?
A. the digital controller cannot handle integral mode
B. the error is divided into discrete amounts
C. the error signal is summed over a discrete time interval and accumulated by the controller
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C 
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10. Which of the following is not critical in PC CAD software?
A. Crosshatching
B. Layering
C. Drawing/editing
D. Damping
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Answer: Option D
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11. Which of the following editor(s) is(are) incorporated into general CAD system?
A. Point Editor

B. Line Editor
C. Macro and symbol Editor

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D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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12. A microprocessor:
A. is another name for a computer
B. is a CPU in integrated circuit form
C. executes a program of instructions
D. (a) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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13. Which document sums up the general provisions of purchase, terms and agreement, warranties, and maintenance?
A. The contract
B. The project evaluation
C. The financial report.
D. The purchasing report
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Answer: Option A
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14. Which of the plotters listed below eliminates media size limitations?
A. Drum
B. Flatbed
C. Electrostatic
D. Pinch roller
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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
15. In order to combat foreign competition, U.S. companies are:
A. automating
B. ignoring the situation
C. seeking import tariffs
D. decreasing the salaries
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Answer: Option A
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16. Historically, central systems were used because:
A. semiconductor memory was not available


B. memory was very expensive
C. memory consumed a large amount of power

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Answer: Option D
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17. Most current PC CAD systems are used for producing:
A. solids modeling
B. 2-D drawings
C. circuit simulation
D. finite element analysis
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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18. A continuous process is:
A. used only for simple tasks
B. one that never shuts down
C. self-contained in that raw materials enter the process and an identifiable products exits the process.
D. used only with analog controllers.
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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19. The rate at which scanning is repeated is called the:
A. stroke rate
B. refresh rate
C. bandwidth
D. resolution
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20. One of the following is not considered a method of input control in a CAD system.
A. Joystick
B. Programmable function box


C. Plotter
D. Touch terminal

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21. Which part of the system performs the "housekeeping" chores?
A. operating system

B. compiler
C. interpreter
D. translator
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Answer: Option A
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22. The greatest change as a result of CAD/CAM is taking place in which industry?
A. Medical
B. Aerospace
C. Electronics
D. Cartography
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23. Who are called steel collar workers?
A. Office clerks
B. Factory workers
C. Steel factory workers
D. Robots
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Answer: Option D
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24. For a type 1 system, the steady-state:
A. error for a step input is always zero
B. error for a velocity input is always zero
C. input for acceleration input is always non-zero
D. (a) and (c)
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25. Several objectives are required to achieve a successful data base management program. These are availability of data,
quality of data, and 
A. compatibility of data
B. transmission of data
C. desirability of data
D. up-to-date data
Answer & Solution
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Answer: Option D
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section=3&page=4)
section=3&page=2)
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section=3&page=3)
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26. Which of the following is required for a plotter to perform specific commands?
A. Firmware

B. Software
C. Driver
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D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
28. The refresh-vector CRT uses which of the following techniques?
A. The beam constantly travels across the screen to turn on/off a series of pixels.
B. Makes changes on the image by increasing the anode voltage.
C. Uses an electron gun to continuously flood the surface of the tube.
D. Creates images on the screen by scanning straight-line vectors between selected points.
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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29. A set of well-defined procedures based on mathematical and geometric formulas for solving a problem in a finite
number of steps is called:
A. a permutation
B. an algorithm
C. arithmetic logic
D. a geometric model
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Answer: Option B
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
30. A flexible manufacturing system may be:

A. an automated assembly line
B. expensive to alter
C. very difficult to change when new products are introduced
D. All of the above.
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31. Which of the following elements can be used with a TI510 FC?
A. Drum timer

B. Metronome
C. Cymbal timer
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D. (a) and (c)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
33. An assembly language instruction:
A. is written in ones and zeros
B. corresponds to one computer operation
C. does not require knowledge of the computer design
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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34. The lowest form of computer language is called:
A. FORTRAN
B. BASIC
C. machine language
D. COBOL
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Answer: Option C
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35. CAE and CAM are linked through:

A. a common data base and communications system
B. NC tape programming and automated design
C. parts production and testing

D. assembly automation and tool production.
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Answer: Option A
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36. The parallel register:
A. can store a multiple bit binary number 


B. uses R-S flip-flops
C. All of the above

D. is erased after a word is read fromit
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37. Microcomputer-based control sys-tems
A. will just keep their present capability
B. will have more standard industrial application software available in the future.
C. will tend to increase in cost.
D. All of the above
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38. A thermistor:
A. is a pressure sensing device
B. has a voltage output
C. measures temperature
D. All of the above
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39. The steady-state error is:
A. independent of the type of input
B. a function of the transient response
C. zero for all inputs to type 1 systems
D. decreased by increasing gain.
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40. Many things can be done to minimize downtime loss. Identify two of them.
A. establish a user forum program
B. stock critical spare parts


C. provide an extra workstation
D. both b and c

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41. A typical NC system has which of the following components?
A. Controller

B. Tape input
C. Machine tool
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D. All of the above
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42. Which part of the system allows the user to interact with the compiler? (a) Memory
A. Translator
B. Communications processor
C. Interpreter
D. None of the above
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43. The robot:
A. is very primitive at the present
B. represents the most powerful new industrial automation tool currently on the horizon
C. will be more useful when robot vision is improved significantly
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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44. Direct Numerical Control means:
A. using several computers to control one large machine
B. using one computer to control several machines
C. complete elimination of a need for a human operator.
D. eliminating computers from the manufacturing process
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Answer: Option B
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45. A proportional plus integral contro-ller can:


A. has no transient response
B. can compensate for lag

C. can increase the system type
D. both (b) and (c)
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46. A pick-and-place manipulator is:
A. the most flexible of all robots


B. an intelligent robot
C. capable of point-to-point operation

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D. primarily used for large parts handlingOPEN
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47. FORTRAN is:
A. machine dependent 
B. a medium-level language
C. a mathematically oriented language
D. All of the above
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48. Which of the methods below can be used to tell a robot what it is to do?
A. Walk-through
B. Set mechanical stops
C. Software program
D. (a) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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49. The processing, which normally consists of a small computer with one or more peripheral devices, connected via a
high-speed line to the large control computer is known as
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50. VLSI (very large scale integrated circuits) logic:

A. will not be available in this decade
B. means more costly electronic products in the future
C. will result in lower cost, higher capability electronic equipment
D. All of the above
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51. The term used to represent the recycling of unused memory is:
A. garbage collection

B. diagnostic routine
C. memory dump
D. direct memory access
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52. In the instruction, 500 SUBA # 50 the command field is:
A. 500
B. # 50000
C. SUBA
D. (b) and (c)
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53. Use of modern control technology in automation systems:
A. reduces costs
B. improves reliability
C. increases yield
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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54. One of the major benefits of using CAD in tool design is that:
A. product design represents approximately one-half the engineering costs
B. tool motions can be checked to see if there is interference between the tool and the object
C. there is better coordination in the materials-handling area
D. it simplifies the trial-and-error method
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Answer: Option B
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55. The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called:


A. bandwidth
B. response time
C. interlacing
D. scanning
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56. The chosen language for the Japanese Fifth-Generation Compu-ter Project is:
A. LISP

B. FORTRAN
C. COBOL
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57. When a computer fetches an instruction, the binary code representing the instruction appears on the:
A. I/O address bus
B. memory data bus
C. input data bus
D. output data bus
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58. A stepping motor;
A. has a speed proportional to voltage input
B. has a commutator
C. is a good choice where continuous rotation is needed
D. can index positional movement.
E. None of the above 
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59. A microprocessor is:
A. controlled by a program
B. an integrated circuit
C. relatively inexpensive
D. All of the above
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60. An up/down counter used in a TI510PC has three inputs. Which of the following is not one of them? 
A. Count up
B. Count out
C. Reset.
D. Count down
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61. If a sine wave has a frequency of 500 Hz, the period in seconds of the sine wave is:
A. 5000

B. 0.003
C. 0.02
D. 0.002.
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62. Standard computer control products:
A. are available off the shelf
B. are very expensive and not cost effective
C. do not exist yet
D. All of the above
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63. Skipping every other line and picking up the skipped lines on the second pass is called:
A. interlacing
B. refresh-vector
C. raster-scan
D. stroke writing
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64. Ergonomics refers to:
A. the human aspect of the environment around the workstation as well as the workstation itself
B. the cost relationship of the workstation versus productivity
C. the level of involvement the operator has with the workstation
D. the technology involved in the workstation itself
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Answer: Option A
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65. Artificial intelligence operates on the principle of using a _____ base as opposed to a data base.

A. Character
B. Knowledge
C. PROLOG
D. LISP
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66. A smart solid-state sensor is:
A. one that integrates both logic and a solid-state sensor into one unit.

B. one that has two or three substrates
C. not available today

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67. D/A (digital to analog) conversion:
A. results in a binary code as the final output
B. has to be sampled at 1/2 the highest input frequency
C. must be fed through a filter to reproduce the original signal accurately
D. both (b) and (c)
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68. Most data transmission in the future will be:
A. digital bit stream encoded data
B. analog in nature
C. carried over metallic telephone lines
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option A
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69. The integrated circuit:
A. often is called a "chip"
B. led to the development of the transistor
C. has revolutionized electronics
D. (b) and (c)
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70. What is offset error?
A. the difference between the sensor input and the absolute sensed parameter. 
B. the difference between the controller output and the setting of the manipulated variable.
C. the difference between the control setpoint value and the actual value.
D. All of the above
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1. Which of the following may be classified as an automation system?
A. automated warehouses

B. numerically controlled machine tools
C. robotics
D. All of the above
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2. The accuracy of a pick-and-place robot can be as good as:
A. + 0.0005 inches
B. + 0.05 inches
C. 0.008 inches
D. 3%
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3. The difference between CAD and CAM is that CAD software is directed at product design while CAM software is:
A. concerned with production and control of tool design
B. concerned with management programs
C. designed for communications
D. specifically for PC-board design
Answer & Solution 

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4. Localizing an object in an image and selectively analyzing the object in a series of redundant layers is referred to as
the:
A. Turing test
B. pyramid
C. Gaussian pyramid
D. Maxwell pyramid
Answer & Solution
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Answer: Option C
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5. In the operation of a programmable controller:

A. all of the logic status is maintained in memory
B. any latched data must be done using an external latching relay
C. mathematics cannot be performed
D. All of the above
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6. The concept of a general CAD system was that it should provide:
A. A system for handling user actions.


B. A system for the operation of applications programming.
C. A set of basic system functions and utilities.

D. All of the above
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7. The insect type robot Attila is a more competent version of the robot Genghis an weights 1.7 kg. What is the number of
microprocessors carried by its body?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 33
D. 15
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8. The "walk-through" method of programming a robot involves:
A. walking through your suggested procedure with your supervisor prior to programming
B. physically moving the robot through all the motions it is to repeat
C. moving the robot from one location to another



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9. Which of the following is often used as an alternative to the light pen or in association with storage tube displays?
A. Digitiser
B. Track ball
C. Mouse
D. Tablet
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Answer: Option D
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10. The general CAD system was development by considering a wide range of possible uses of such a system.
A. Mechanical engineering design
B. Animation and graphic design
C. Structural engineering design and Electronic circuit design
D. All of the above
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11. Relay ladder logic is used in a PC because:
A. it is impossible to write a control program for a machine in any other logic


B. it is the best industrial control language ever developed.
C. most industrial control personnel are familiar with relay ladder logic diagrams and this is the easiest for them to use
D. All of the above
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12. The "end-effector" of a robot:
A. can be an actual tool
B. is the robot "hand"
C. may have a gripping action
D. All of the above
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13. The program execution time:
A. must be slower than the fastest mechanical operation that is to be controlled
B. will vary depending on the language used
C. cannot be changed once the program is written
D. All of the above
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14. One advantage of a PC in industrial control is that it:
A. has a reliable long life compared to relay logic
B. is very difficult for the inexperienced programmer to understand
C. is unreliable because there are no moving parts
D. All of the above
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A. is required to run a microprocessor system 
B. provides a structure with which to develop application programs
C. is useful because standard modules can be used

D. both (b) and (c)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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16. When one must sell a project to management, the most important document he or she can produce is a:
A. method for financing the project


B. summary of the problem
C. project evaluation
D. procedure for purchase

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17. What is required to enable the PC to emulate a graphics terminal?
A. Software
B. A laser printer
C. A color monitor
D. A graphics board
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18. Which type of digitizer measures a wave traveling at the speed of sound?
A. Electrostatic
B. Sonic
C. Digitizing sr amer
D. Caparitive
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Answer: Option B
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19. An encoder:
A. is used to send telegraph signals
B. converts an input to a binary number
C. converts a binary number to a decimal number.
D. can have only four keys
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Answer: Option B
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
20. Operator interaction directly with the CRT is accomplished via:
A. a digitizing tablet
B. vector scanning
C. a stylus
D. a touch terminal
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21. What two disciplines are usually tied by a common data base?
A. Documentation and geometric modeling


B. Computer-aided design and computer-aided manufacturing
C. Testing and analysis

D. Drafting and documentation
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22. Which of the following is a graphical output device?
A. Dot-matrix Printer
B. Plotter
C. Laser Printer
D. Line Printer
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23. A display of a volume model that shows all of its edges is called a:
A. surface model
B. 3-D model
C. wire-frame
D. solid model
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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24. A sequence controller:
A. is difficult to program
B. is a mechanical only controller
C. is no longer in widespread use
D. performs on/off control functions in relation to time.
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Answer: Option D
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25. Having compatibility and commonality in and between vendors' equipment is called:

A. registration
B. standardization
C. integration
D. networking
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26. Programmable controllers:
A. are programmed using relay ladder logic
B. cannot perform functions other than relay logic
C. are widely used in many different industries 

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Answer: Option D
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27. Which of the following are kinds of instructions?
A. Input
B. Arithmetic
C. Conditional branching
D. All of the above
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Computer Graphics 2D Translation
1. A translation is applied to an object by
a) Repositioning it along with straight line path
b) Repositioning it along with circular path
c) Only b
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A translation is applied to an object by repositioning it along with straight line path from one location to
another.
2. We translate a two-dimensional point by adding

a) Translation distances
b) Translation difference
c) X and Y
d) Only a
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We can translate 2D point by adding translation distances dx and dy.
3. The translation distances (dx, dy) is called as

a) Translation vector
b) Shift vector
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The translation distances (dx, dy) from its original position is called as translation vector or shift vector.
4. In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by using the equation
a) x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx
b) x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
c) X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx
d) X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By adding translation distance dx and dy to its originsl position (x, y) we can obtain a new position (x’,
y’).
5.The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is

a) P’=P+T
b) P’=P-T
c) P’=P*T
d) P’=p
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2D translation equation is P’=P+T.
6. _________ is a rigid body transformation that moves objects without deformation.

a) Rotation
b) Scaling
c) Translation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Translation a rigid body transformation that moves objects without deformation.
7. A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation

a) P’=P+T
b) Dx and Dy
c) P’=P+P
d) Only c
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation P’=P+T to each of line
endpoints.
8. Polygons are translated by adding __________ to the coordinate position of each vertex and the current attribute
setting.
a) Straight line path
b) Translation vector
c) Differences
d) Only b
View Answer
Answer: d
9. To change the position of a circle or ellipse we translate

a) Center coordinates
b) Center coordinates and redraw the figure in new location
c) Outline coordinates
Answer: b
Explanation: By translating the center coordinates and redraw the figure in new location we can change the position
of a circle or ellipse.
10.The basic geometric transformations are

a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Scaling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These are the basic geometric transformations and other transformations are reflection and sh
2D Rotation
1. A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by
c) Only b
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by repositioning it along with circular path.
2. To generate a rotation , we must specify

a) Rotation angle ϴ
b) Distances dx and dy
c) Rotation distance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generate a rotation, we must specify rotation angle ϴ of the rotation point or pivot point which the object
is to be rotated.
3. Positive values for the rotation angle ϴ defines

a) Counterclockwise rotations about the end points
b) Counterclockwise translation about the pivot point
c) Counterclockwise rotations about the pivot point
d) Negative direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A positive value for the rotation angle ϴ defines counterclockwise rotations about the pivot point.
4. The rotation axis that is perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through the pivot point is known as
a) Rotation
b) Translation
c) Scaling
d) Shearing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rotation transformation is also described as a rotation about a rotation axis that is perpendicular to
the xy plane and passes through the pivot point.
5. The original coordinates of the point in polor coordinates are
a) X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф +ϴ)
b) X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф +ϴ)
c) X’=r cos (Ф -ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф -ϴ)
d) X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф -ϴ)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The original coordinates of the point in polor coordinates are X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф +ϴ).
6. The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is

a) P’=P+T
b) P’=R*P
c) P’=P*P
d) P’=R+P
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 2D translation equation is P’=R*P.
7. ________ is the rigid body transformation that moves object without deformation.
a) Translation
b) Scaling
c) Rotation
d) Shearing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotation is the rigid body transformation that moves object without deformation.
8. An ellipse can also be rotated about its center coordinates by rotating

a) End points
b) Major and minor axes
c) Only a
d) None
View Answer
Answer: b
2D Scaling
This section of our 1000+ Computer Graphics multiple choice questions focuses on 2D Scaling.
1. The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is
a) Scaling
b) Rotation
c) Translation
d) Reflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Scaling is used to alter the size of an object.
2. The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is

a) P’=P+T
b) P’=S*P
c) P’=P*R
d) P’=R+S
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 2d scaling equation is P’=S*P.
3. Scaling of a polygon is done by computing

a) The product of (x, y) of each vertex
b) (x, y) of end points
c) Center coordinates
d) Only a
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Scaling of a polygon is done by computing the product of (x, y) of each vertex with scaling factor sx and
sy to produce the transformation coordinates ( Xnew, Ynew).
4. If the scaling factors values sx and sy < 1 then

a) It reduces the size of object
b) It increases the size of object
c) It stunts the shape of an object
d) None
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the scaling factors values sx and sy < 1 then it reduces the size of object.
5. If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to the same value then
a) Uniform rotation is produced
b) Uniform scaling is produced
c) Scaling cannot be done
d) Scaling can be done or cannot be done
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When sx and sy are assigned the same value then uniform scaling is produced that maintains relative
object proportions.
6. If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to unequal values then
c) Differential scaling is produced
d) Scaling cannot be done
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unequal values for sx and sy results in differential scaling that is often used in design applications.
7. The objects transformed using the equation P’=S*P should be

a) Scaled
b) Repositioned
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The objects transformed using the equation P’=S*P should be scaled and repositioned.
8. We control the location of a scaled object by choosing the position is known as

a) Pivot point
b) Fixed point
c) Differential scaling
d) Uniform scaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. If the value of sx=1 and sy=1 then

a) Reduce the size of object
b) Distort the picture
c) Produce an enlargement
d) No change in the size of an object
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: sx=sx=1 does not change the size of the object.
1.The matrix representation for translation in homogeneous coordinates is

a) P’=T+P
b) P’=S*P
c) P’=R*P
d) P’=T*P
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The matrix representation for translation is P’=T*P.
2. The matrix representation for scaling in homogeneous coordinates is

a) P’=S*P
b) P’=R*P
c) P’=dx+dy
d) P’=S*S
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The matrix representation for scaling is P’=S*P.
3. The matrix representation for rotation in homogeneous coordinates is
a) P’=T+P
b) P’=S*P
c) P’=R*P
d) P’=dx+dy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The matrix representation for rotation is P’=R*P.
4. What is the use of homogeneous coordinates and matrix representation?

a) To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way
b) To scale
c) To rotate
d) To shear the object
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way, we use homogeneous coordinates and matrix
representation.
5. If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x, y) is represented as
a) (x’, y’, z’)
b) (x, y, z)
c) (x’, y’, w)
d) (x’, y’, w)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then we add 3rd coordinate to the point (x, y), that is
represented as (x’, y’, w).
6. For 2D transformation the value of third coordinate i.e. w=?

a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) Any value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For 2D we have (x, y, 1) i.e. w=1.
7. We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a single matrix representation by expanding
a) 2 by 2 matrix into 4*4 matrix
b) 2 by 2 matrix into 3*3
c) 3 by 3 matrix into 2 by 2
d) Only c
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a single matrix representation by
expanding 2 by 2 matrix representation into 3 by 3.
8. The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be written as

a) (h.x, h.y, h.z)
b) (h.x, h.y, h)
c) (x, y, h.z)
d) (x,y,z)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be written as (h.x, h.y, h).
9. A Pixel is represented dy a tuple Xw,Yw,w in______.

A. Normalised Device Coordinates
B. Homogeneous coordinates system
C. 3D coordinate system
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
10. A _______ transformation alters the size of an object.
A. Scaling
B. Rotation
C. Translation
D. Shear
ANSWER: A
11. If the angle Q is positive then the rotation direction will be _________.
A. Clockwise
B. Anticlockwise
C. Parallel
D. Perpendicular
ANSWER: B
12. A_______is a transformation that produces a mirror image of an object.

A. Scaling
B. Translation
C. Reflection
D. Both B & C
ANSWER: C
13.If we multiply any matrix A with identity matrix then we get the________matrix.
A. Identity matrix
B. Translation matrix
C. Scaling matrix
D. Original matrix
ANSWER: D
14. In homogeneous co-ordinate system a pixel is represented as ____________.
A. X,Y
B. X,Y,Z
C. X,Y,W
D. Xw,Yw,w
ANSWER: D
15. Two consecutive transformation t1 and t2 are _________.
A. Additive
B. Substractive
C. Multiplicative
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
16. Reflection about the line Y=X is equivalent to ,followed by a anticlockwise rotation .
A. Reflection about y-axis
B. Reflection about x-axisC. Reflection about origin
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
17. Two consecutive scaling transformation t1 and t2 are __________.
A. Additive
B. Substractive
C. Multiplicative
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
Unit No 3
1. The finite element method formulation of problem result in a system of
Algebraic equation
Logical equation
Arithmetic equation
Flow equation
2. FEM gives accurate representation of

Real Geometry
Complex Geometry
Real & Complex Geometry
Constant Geometry
3. Finite Element Method is also called as

Infinite Element Analysis
Frequency Element Analysis
Finite Element Analysis
Partial Element Analysis
4. To Solve the FEM Problem, It subdivides a large problem in to smaller,

simple parts that are called
Finite Element
Infinite Element
Dynamic Element
Static Element
5. The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller

elements is known as ___________ .
(A) assemblage
(B) continuum
(C) traction
(D) discretization
6. The sum of the shape function is equal to

(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
7. A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
8. Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on

___________ .
(D) nodes
9. On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by

(A) KQ=F
(B) KQ≠F
(C) K=QF
(D) K≠QF
10. The finite element method is mostly used in the field of

11. At fixed support, the displacements are equal to

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
12. In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________ .

(A) particles
(B) molecules
(C) elements
(D) none
13. The numbers of node for 1 D element are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
14. Finite element analysis deals with ___________ .

15. Stiffness matrix depends on

(A) material
(B) geometry
16. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the
(A) 2*2
(B) 3*3
(C) 4*4
(D) 6*6
17. To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are
used.
(A) shape function
(B) node function
18. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions
called
(B) traction
(C) friction
(D) surfacing
19. The truss element can resist only
(A) axial force
(B) surface force
(C) point load
20. The truss element can deform only in the

(A) axial direction
(B) vertical direction
(C) horizontal direction
(D) inclined direction
21. Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________ .

(B) brick element
(C) truss element
22. Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element

(A) 1D
(B) 2D
(C) 3D
(D) 4D
23. The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
24. The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.

(A) thermal
(C) vibration
25. Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness
matrix?
26. For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________.
(A) stress
(B) strain
(C) displacement
(D) temperature
27. In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having

(A) zero
(B) very small
(C) very large
(D) infinite
28. How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
29. In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______

computation time
(A) less
(B) more
(D) can't say
30. Elements with an aspect ratio of near to ______ generally yield best
results in FEA.
(A) 0 (B) 0.5
(C) 1 (D) 2
31. In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation
______.
(A) R=KQ+F (B) R=KQ-F
(C) R=K+QF (D) R=K-QF
32. As per the penalty approach, the equation of reaction force is _____.
(A) R = -CQ (B) R = CQ
(C) R = -C (Q-a) (D) R = -C (Q+a)

UNIT NO 4 MCQ
Which of the following would not be a typical function of production management?
a. inventory control.
b. cash flow forecasts.
c. site location & layout.
d. plant management
A computer-driven system for analyzing and projecting materials needs and then scheduling
their arrival at the workstation at the right time is called:
a. material requirement planning.
b. just in time (JIT) inventory control.
c. CAD.
d. CAM.
An approach that tries to match the output of manufacturing with market demand, in order to
minimize inventories is called:
a. JIT.
b. MRP.
c. CAD.
d. CAM.
The use of computers to draw plans for a product or service applying pre-programmed
parameters that describe the desired finished product is called:
a. computer aided engineering.
b. computer aided manufacturing.
c. computer aided design.
d. flexible manufacturing system.
The use of computers to control the operation of production process is known as:
a. CAD.
b. CAE.
c. CAM.
d. CAQ.
1. Which of the following code will give point to point movement?
a) G00
b) G01
c) G56
d) G94
2. Which of the following code will give linear interpolation movement?

a) G00
b) G01
c) G78
d) G65
3. Which of the following code will give circular interpolation in a clockwise
direction?
a) G56
b) G01
c) G02
d) G47
4. Which of the following code is used to give input of cutter offset data?
a) G30
b) G20
c) G10
d) G04
5. Which of the following code is used to select x y plane in milling?

a) G18
b) G17
c) G10
d) G04
6. Which of the following code is used to select x z plane in milling?

a) G18
b) G17
c) G10
d) G04
7. Which of the following code will change specified input values in millimeters?
a) G01
b) G00
c) G20
d) G24
8. The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position
command signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as
a. controller
b. tape
c. feedback unit
d. none of the above
9. In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is
connected between
a. control unit and programmer

b. programmer and machine tool
c. control unit and machine tool
d. programmer and process planning
10. Which of the following options is correct for the control unit and panel of NC
(Numerical Control) and CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tools?
a. The control unit of NC machine tool works in ON-line mode and the control
unit of CNC machine tool works in batch processing mode
b. The control unit of NC machine tool works in batch processing mode and the
control unit of CNC machine tool works in ON-line mode
c. The control units of both NC and CNC machines work in ON-line mode
d. The control units of both NC and CNC machines work in batch processing
mode
11. In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory
a. can be used only once

b. can be used again and again
c. can be used again but it has to be modified every time
d. cannot say
12. Several machine tools can be controlled by a central computer in
a. NC (Numerical Control) machine tool

b. CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool
c. DNC (Direct Numerical Control) machine tool
d. CCNC (Central-Computer Numerical Control) machine tool
13. Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in

c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
14. The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions
like depth of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control
system itself, is called
a. Computer Numerical Control System

b. Direct Numerical Control System
c. Machining Centre System
d. Adaptive Control System
15. Which machine tool reduces the number of set-ups in machining operation, time
spent in setting machine tools and transportation between sections of machines?
a. Computer Numerical Control machine tool

b. Direct Numerical Control machine tool
c. Adaptive Control Systems
d. Machining centre
16. In CNC systems multiple microprocessors and programmable logic

controllers work ______
a) in parallel
b) in series
c) one after the other
d) for 80% of the total machining time
17. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

a) Higher flexibility
b) Improved quality
c) Reduced scrap rate
d) Improved strength of the components
18. In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
19. Point-to-point systems are used for _____

a) reaming
b) parting
c) grooving
d) facing
20. In part programming, interpolation is used for obtaining _______ trajectory.

a) helicoidal
b) pentagonal
c) triangular
d) zig-zag
21 For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.

a) True
b) False
22. An absolute NC system is one in which all position coordinates are referred to
a) True
b) False
ubaidbahussain@gmail.com
7350715191/9420014590
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
M.Tech (Mech – PLM), Assistant Professor, Mechanical Engineering Department
JSPM’s Imperial College of Engineering & Research, Pune
Finite Element Analysis in Brief

Note: This is the Collection from my co-authored book “Finite Element Methods for Civil
Engineering” for Jawaharlal Nehru Technical University Hyderabad Students, published by
Technical Publications. The syllabus of this book is similar to that of our Pune University Syllabus.
Please consult your subject teacher about the examination pattern.
Chapter 1: Introduction to FEM
Fill in the Blank
I. The total workdone by all forces acting on a system is static equilibrium

is______________
II. FEM Models are called___________________________
III. _______________________principle states that as long as the different
approximations are statistically equivalent, the resulting solution will be valid.
IV. The analytical solution to the differential equations is generally viewed as the
sum of_________solution and a_______solution.
V. Dividing the structure into discrete elements is
called______________________________
VI. The ends of the element where deformations calculated is
called_____________________
Answers
I. Zero, II. discrete and continuous III. variational IV. homogeneous solution and a particular
solution V. Discretization Vi) Nodes
Objective Types of Questions
i) In a body, how many types of loading consists
A) Three
B) Two
C) One
D) Four
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Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
ii) Nodes are classified as
A) Noble, Global
B) Local, Non-Local
C) Local, Global
D) Total, Sub-Total
iii) What is strain displacement matrix
A) [B]
B) [Q]
C) [K]
D) [A]
iv) What is a Formula of Stress?
A) E.Bq
B) D.q
C) B.q
D) E.q
v) What is Potential Energy expression?
A) Strain Energy (SE)/Work Potential(W.P)

B) S.E+WP
C) SE*W.P
D) None
vi) What is notation of elemental Stiffness matrix?
A) [K]
B) [C]
C) [B]
D) [Q]
Answers i) B ii) C iii) A iv) A v) B vi) A
Page 2
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Two Marks Questions
What is meant by finite element?

A small units having definite shape of geometry and nodes is called finite element.
What is meant by node or joint?

Each kind of finite element has a specific structural shape and is inter- connected with the
adjacent element by nodal point or nodes. At the nodes, degrees of freedom are located. The
forces will act only at nodes at any others place in the element.
What is the basic of finite element method?

Discretization is the basis of finite element method. The art of subdividing a structure in to
convenient number of smaller components is known as discretization.
What are the types of boundary conditions?

Primary boundary conditions
Secondary boundary conditions
State the methods of engineering analysis?
Experimental methods
Analytical methods
Numerical methods or approximate methods
What are the types of element?
1D element
2D element
3D element
State the three phases of finite element method.
Preprocessing
Analysis
Post Processing
Page 3
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
What is structural problem?
Displacement at each nodal point is obtained. By these displacements solution stress and strain
in each element can be calculated.
What is non-structural problem?
Temperature or fluid pressure at each nodal point is obtained. By using these values properties
such as heat flow fluid flow for each element can be calculated.
What are the methods are generally associated with the finite element analysis?
Force method
Displacement or stiffness method.
Explain stiffness method.

Displacement or stiffness method, displacement of the nodes is considered as the unknown of
the problem. Among them two approaches, displacement method is desirable.
What is meant by post processing?
Analysis and evaluation of the solution result is referred to as post processing. Postprocessor
computer program help the user to interpret the result by displaying them in graphical form.
Name the variation methods.
Ritz method.
Ray-Leigh Ritz method.
What is meant by degrees of freedom?
When the force or reaction act at nodal point node is subjected to deformation. The deformation
includes displacement rotation, and or strains. These are collectively known as degrees of
freedom
What is meant by discretization and assemblage?
The art of subdividing a structure in to convenient number of smaller components is known as

discretization. These smaller components are then put together. The process of uniting the
various elements together is called assemblage.
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Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
What is Rayleigh-Ritz method?
It is integral approach method which is useful for solving complex structural problem,
encountered in finite element analysis. This method is possible only if a suitable function is
available.
What is Aspect ratio?
It is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to the smallest dimension. In
many cases, as the aspect ratio increases the in accuracy of the solution increases. The
conclusion of many researches is that the aspect ratio
What are the h and p versions of finite element method?
It is used to improve the accuracy of the finite element method. In h version, the order of
polynomial approximation for all elements is kept constant and the numbers of elements are
increased. In p version, the numbers of elements are maintained constant and the order of
polynomial approximation of element is increased.
Name the weighted method
Point collocation method

Sub domain collocation method
Least squares method
Galerkins method.
List the two advantages of post processing.
Required result can be obtained in graphical form. Contour diagrams can be used to understand
the solution easily and quickly.
During discretization, mention the places where it is necessary to place a node?
Concentrated load acting point

Cross-section changing point
Different material interjections
Sudden change in point load
Page 5
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Differentiate between global and local axes.
Local axes are established in an element. Since it is in the element level, they change with the
change in orientation of the element. The direction differs from element to element. Global axes
are defined for the entire system. They are same in direction for all the elements even though
the elements are differently oriented.
Distinguish between potential energy function and potential energy functional
If a system has finite number of degree of freedom (q1,q2,and q3), then the potential energy
expressed as, π = f (q1,q2,and q3)
It is known as function. If a system has infinite degrees of freedom then the potential energy is
expressed as
What are the basic steps involved in the finite element modeling.
Discretization of structure.
Numbering of nodes.
What is discretization?
The art of subdividing a structure in to a convenient number of smaller components is known

as discretization.
Chapter2: 1D Element Analysis

Fill in the blank
1. In a banded matrix all of the ________ elements are contained within a band
2. The Local and Global Coordinate system is introduced in___________
3. The number of nodes of a quadratic one dimensional elements are_________
4. The bar element has__________________DOF at each node
5. The shape functions used here are called_________ functions.
Answers
1. Nonzeroes 2. 1D Element Analysis 3. Three 4. Two 5. Quadratic Shape Functions
Page 6
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Objective Type Questions
i) In which of the following elements, the displacement of the nodes of the element always
takes place in one direction
A) 1D Elements
B) 2D Elements
C) 3D Elements
D) None of the these
ii) Shape Functions are to
A) Describe the loading condition on the element

B) Describe the physical behavior of the element
C) Describe the geometry of the element
D) Describe the displacement field within an element
iii) The Traction force of a 1D Body is
A) Force Per Unit Volume

B) Force Per Unit Area
C) Force Per Unit Length
D) Gravitational Force
iv) The linear element will have an equation of generally
A) One degree polynomial equation

B) Two Degree Polynomial equation
C) Three degree polynomial equation
D) All of these
v) How many degrees of freedom for 2D bar element
A) One degree
B) Two Degrees
C) Three degrees
D) All of these
Page 7
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Answers
i) A ii) D iii) B iv) A v) B
Two Marks Questions
State the properties of stiffness matrix

It is a symmetric matrix
The sum of elements in any column must be equal to zero
It is an unstable element. So the determinant is equal to zero.
Write down the expression of shape function N and displacement u for one dimensional bar
element.
U= N1u1+N2u2
N1= 1-X / l
N2 = X / l
Define total potential energy.

Total potential energy, π = Strain energy (U) + potential energy of the external forces (W)
State the principle of minimum potential energy.
Among all the displacement equations that satisfied internal compatibility and the boundary
condition those that also satisfy the equation of equilibrium make the potential energy a
minimum is a stable system.
Chapter 3: Beam Elements
Fill in the Blank
i) A beam element has_______________DOF
ii) Generally (u1,u2) are______________ degrees of freedom in a beam.
iii) Generally (u3,u4) are______________ degrees of freedom in a beam.
iv) Elemental Stiffness matric for a beam is__________________
v) The deformed shape of beam is specified by__________ and__________ of the beam. (2.66)
Page 8
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Answers
i) Two ii) axial displacements iii) lateral displacements iv)
v) Slope and Deflection
Objective Type of Questions
i) How many shape functions does a beam has
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
ii) N=[1/4] [(1-ξ)2(2+ ξ)+ is a shape of
A) Link
B) Bar
C) Beam
D) Truss
iii) Shape Function for beam eliminate differ from bar element because of it involves
A) Nodal Displacements
B) Nodal Rotations
C) Nodal Displacements and Nodal Rotations
D) All of above
iv) The Hermite Shape Function is defined by
A) Cubic Order
B) Quadratic Order
C) Quartic Order
D) Quadrilateral Order
Page 9
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
v) Beams are slander members that are used to support
A) Transverse Loading
B) Axial Loading
C) Longitudinal Loading
D) None of these
Answers
i) D ii) C iii) C iv) A v) A
Chapter 4: Truss Elements
Fill in the blank Questions
i) Truss element is equivalent to one dimensional bar element in………
ii) Truss element differ one dimensional bar element in …… Coordinate.
iii) Strain energy for a truss element in local coordinate is given by…………
Answers
i) local coordinates ii) global coordinates iii) ½ q’ T K’ q’
i) The Directional Cosines l and m are respectively the angles of
A) Cosθ, Cosθ,
B) Cosθ, Sinθ
C) Sinθ,Cosθ
D) Sinθ,Sinθ
ii) σ = E/L *–c –s c s ] u is a stress for
A) Link
B) Bar
C) Beam
D) Truss
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10
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iii) The Truss structure consist only of
A) Three Force Members

B) Four Force Members
C) Two Force Members
D) None
Answers: i) B ii) D iii) C
Two Marks Questions
What is truss?
A truss is defined as a structure made up of several bars, riveted or welded together.
Why Truss elements used for?
The truss elements are the part of a truss structure linked together by point joint which
transmits only axial force to the element.
Chapter 5: 2D Elements
Fill in the Blanks
i) A____________________force is distributed, load acting on the surface of the body of a

CST element.
ii) The relationship between the unit and natural coordinates is_____________________
iii) The LST Element consist of__________ number of shape function
Answers: i) Body ii) r = (1 + n)/2 iii) Four
i) The stiffness matrix for C.S.T element using potential energy approach is given by General
formula as
A) K=tATBDB
B) K=tABDTB
C) K=tABDBT
D) K=tABTDB
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11
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
ii) A thin planner body is subjected to in plane loading on its edge surface is set to be in
A) True Stress
B) True Strain
C) Plane Stress
D) Plane Strain
iii) In plane strain
A) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **α∆T, α∆T, α∆T+T

B) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **0, α∆T, α∆T+T
C) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **α∆T, α∆T, 0+T
D) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **α∆T, 0, α∆T+T
iv) A body is in equilibrium if internal virtual works equals the external virtual work for
every kinematically admissible displacement field *φ,ԑ(φ)+ is statement of
A) Principle of Virtual Work

B) Galerkian Approach
C) Weighted Residual Method
D) All of above
Answers: i) D ii) C ii) C iv) A
Two Marks Questions
What are the types of loading acting on the structure?
Body force (f)

Traction force (T)
Point load (P)
Define the body force
A body force is distributed force acting on every elemental volume of the body Unit: Force per
unit volume.
Example: Self weight due to gravity
Page
12
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Define traction force
Traction force is defined as distributed force acting on the surface of the body. Unit: Force per
unit area.
Example: Frictional resistance, viscous drag, surface shear
What is point load?
Point load is force acting at a particular point which causes displacement.
What are the classifications of coordinates? Global coordinates
Local coordinates
Natural coordinates
What is Global coordinates?
The points in the entire structure are defined using coordinates system is known as global
coordinate system.
What is natural coordinates?
A natural coordinate system is used to define any point inside the element by a set of
dimensionless number whose magnitude never exceeds unity. This system is very useful in
assembling of stiffness matrices.
Define shape function.
Approximate relation φ (x,y) = N1 (x,y) φ1 + N2 (x,y) φ2 + N3 (x,y) φ3

Where φ1, φ2, and φ3 are the values of the field variable at the nodes N1, N2, and N3 are the
interpolation functions.
N1, N2, and N3 are also called shape functions because they are used to express the geometry
or shape of the element.
What are the characteristic of shape function?
It has unit value at one nodal point and zero value at other nodal points. The sum of shape
function is equal to one.
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Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Why polynomials are generally used as shape function?
Differentiation and integration of polynomial are quit easy. The accuracy of the result can be
improved by increasing the order of the polynomial. It is easy to formulate and computerize the
finite element equations.
How do you calculate the size of the global stiffness matrix?
Global stiffness matrix size = Number of nodes X Degrees of freedom per node
How do you define two dimensional elements?

Two dimensional elements are define by three or more nodes in a two dimensional plane. The
basic element useful for two dimensional analysis is the triangular element.
What is CST element?

Three noded triangular elements are known as CST. It has six unknown displacement degrees
of freedom (u1, v1, u2, v2, u3, v3). The element is called CST because it has a constant strain
throughout it.
What is LST element?
Six nodded triangular elements are known as LST. It has twelve unknown displacement
degrees of freedom. The displacement function for the elements are quadratic instead of linear
as in the CST.
What is QST element?
Ten nodded triangular elements are known as Quadratic strain triangle. It is also called as
cubic displacement triangle.
What meant by plane stress analysis?
Plane stress is defined to be a state of stress in which the normal stress and shear stress directed
perpendicular to the plane are assumed to be zero.
What is axisymmetric element?
Many three dimensional problem in engineering exhibit symmetry about an axis of rotation
such type of problem are solved by special two dimensional element called the axisymmetric
element
Page
14
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
What are the conditions for a problem to be axisymmetric?
The problem domain must be symmetric about the axis of revolution
All boundary condition must be symmetric about the axis of revolution
All loading condition must be symmetric about the axis of revolution
Give the stiffness matrix equation for an axisymmetric triangular element. Stiffness matrix
Chapter 6: Isoperimetric Elements
Fill in the Blank
i) An isoperimetric element can have straight edge and ………
ii) If order of shape function for geometric configuration is equal to the order of shape function
then such element is called as…………….
iii) If order of shape function for geometric configuration is lesser than the order of shape
function then such element is called as…………….
iv) If order of shape function for geometric configuration is greater to the order of shape
v) ……..elements are the rectangular elements with ……….nodes
Answers: i) curved boundries ii) isoparametric element iii) sub-parametric element iv) super
parametric element
i) If shape functions are represented by Area Coordinates then
A) N1 = A1/A
B) N1 = A/A1
C) N1 = A1/N
D) N1 = N/A
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Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
ii) Aspect ratio is the ratio of
A) The largest to smallest size in an element

B) The smallest to the largest size element
C) Smaller to the smallest size element
D) None of the above
iii) Aspect ratio of the square of 1cm size will be
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
iv) Serendipity Elements are
A) Triangular Elements
B) Tetrahedron Element
C) Rectangular Elements
v) How many basic laws are there for Isoperimetric Formulations ?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
Answers: i)A ii) A iii) A iv) C v) C
Two Marks Questions
What is the purpose of Isoparametric element?
It is difficult to represent the curved boundaries by straight edges finite elements. A large
number of finite elements may be used to obtain reasonable resemblance between original body
and the assemblage.
Page
16
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Define super parametric element.
If the number of nodes used for defining the geometry is more than of nodes used for defining
the displacement is known as super parametric element
Define sub parametric element.
If the number of nodes used for defining the geometry is less than number of nodes used for
defining the displacement is known as sub parametric element.
What is meant by Isoparametric element?
If the number of nodes used for defining the geometry is same as number of nodes used for
defining the displacement is known as Isoparametric element.
Is beam element an Isoparametric element?
Beam element is not an Isoparametric element since the geometry and displacement are
defined by different order interpretation functions.
What is the difference between natural coordinate and simple natural coordinate?
L1 = 1-x/l
L2 = x/l
What is Area coordinates?
L1 = A1/A L2 = A2/A L3 = A3/A
What is simple natural coordinate?
A simple natural coordinate is one whose value between -1 and 1.
Page
17
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Chapter 7: Numerical Integration
Fill in the Blank
i) The limitations of Newton Cotes equation is overcome by …………….. Method
ii) Double Integration methods include……………..and…………………….
iii) When we calculate area integration by………………., the area is divided in number of strips.
iv) The two values of y with respect to x are y1= …….. and y2=……. in Gauss Legendre two
point formula.
Answers: i) Gauss Legendre Quadraryre Method ii) Trapezoidal Rule and Simpson (1/3rd )Rule
iii) Newton Cotes Method iv) f(x1) and f(x2)
i) Newton Cotes method does include
A) Gauss Legendre Quadrature Method

B) Gauss Legendra Two Point Formula
C) Trapezoidal Rule
ii) Area under the curve A = (y1+y2) X C is found by which method
A) Gauss Legendre Three Point Formula

C) Trapezoidal Rule
iii) Trapezoidal Rule is applied for
A) Two Degree Polynomial Equation

B) One Degree Polynomial Equation
C) Three Degree Polynomial Equation
Page
18
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iv) Simpson’s 1/3rd Rule is used for

Answers: i) C ii) B iii)B iv) A
Chapter 8: Steady State Heat Transfer
Two Marks Questions
I. There are……………modes of heat transfer.

II. Radiation heat transfer is the process by which the……………is exchanged between two surfaces.
III. A fin is …………….. Surface that is added to increase the rate of het removal.
IV. The governing differential equation for 1D Steady State Heat Transfer is derived according
to……………….
Answers: i) Three ii) Thermal Energy iii) extended iv) Fouriers Law of Conduction
Multiple Choice Questions
i) Convection is the heat transfer process by which the thermal energy is transferred between
A) Solid and Solid

B) Liquid and Liquid
C) Solid and Fluid
ii) For transfer of energy from one region to another through solid medium required
A) Pressure Difference
B) Temperature Difference
C) Pressure Rise
Page
19
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iii) Heat Transfer in fins involves
A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Both Conduction and Convection
iv) How many kind of Boundry Conditions are there in Heat Transfer problems
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
Answers: i) C ii) B ii) C iv) B
Two Marks Questions
States the assumption are made while finding the forces in a truss.
All the members are pin jointed.

The truss is loaded only at the joint
The self-weight of the members is neglected unless stated.
State the principles of virtual energy?
A body is in equilibrium if the internal virtual work equals the external virtual work for the
every kinematically admissible displacement field
What is essential boundary condition?
Primary boundary condition or EBC Boundary condition which in terms of field variable is
known as Primary boundary condition.
Natural boundary conditions?
Secondary boundary natural boundary conditions which are in the differential form of field
variable is known as secondary boundary condition
Page
20
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Chapter 9: Dynamic Analysis

Fill in the Blank
i) If a solid body is deformed elastically and suddenly released, it tends to vibrate

about……..position
ii) The periodic motion due to restoring strain energy is called………………………..
iii) The Maximum displacement from the equilibrium position is called as……………
iv)…………………….were used by Claude Shannon to determine the theoretical limit to how

much information can be transferred through communication medium.
v) The………………………of the bridge is the Eigen value of the smallest magnitude of a system
that models the bridge.
Answers: i) Equilibrium ii) Free Vibration iii) Amplitude iv) Eigen Values v) The Natural
Frequency
i) The number of cycles per unit time is called as
A) Vibration
B) Amplitude
C) Frequency
ii) The vibration which is under the influence of continuous external excitation is called as
A) Forced Vibration
B) Natural Frequency
C) Free Vibration
iii) The equation of motion for damped vibration is given by
A) mx+cx+Kx = 0
B) mx+cx = 0
C) cx+Kx = 0
Page
21
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iv) The Characteristic equation is given by
A) [K]-λ*M+=0
B) [K]- [M]=0
C) λ*M+=0
Answers: i) C ii) A iii) A iv) A
Two Marks Questions
What is the difference between static and dynamic analysis?
Static analysis: The solution of the problem does not vary with time is known as static analysis
Example: stress analysis on a beam
Dynamic analysis: The solution of the problem varies with time is known as dynamic analysis
Concentrated load acting point Cross- section changing point Different material inter junction
point

Static analysis: The solution of the problem does not vary with time is known as static analysis.
Example: stress analysis on a beam Dynamic analysis: The solution of the problem varies with
time is known as dynamic analysis
Example: vibration analysis problem.
Page
22
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Define Eigen value problem.

The problem of determining the constant is called eigen value problem.
Chapter 10: Stress Analysis in 3D Problems
Fill in the Blank
i) The First Principle stress in 3D Element is given by…………..

ii) It is now obvious that the first step in the finite element analysis is to…..
iii) The selection of tool completely depends on the ……………and rate of

accuracy.
iv) ANSYS can import all kinds of …………… from different CAD software's and
perform simulations
Answers:
i) σ1=
ii) Discretize the problem.
iii) Work requirement
iv) CAD geometries
Objective Type of Question
i) For Crash Testing which software is used ?
A) Ansys
B) Creo
C) Pamcrash
ii) For Good Meshing which software is used ?
A) Ansys
B) Creo
C) Hypermesh
Page
23
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iii) For Composite Materials which software is used ?
A) Ansys – Composite Prespost

B) Creo
C) Hypermesh
iv) For Fatigue Failure studies which tools is used ?

B) Abaqus
C) Hypermesh
Answers: i) C ii) C iii) A iv) B
Two Marks Questions
Name any four FEA softwares.

ANSYS
NASTRAN
COSMOS
NISA
Write in short advantages of Ansys Software
ANSYS can import all kinds of CAD geometries (3D and 2D) from different CAD
software's and perform simulations, and also it has the capability of creating one
effortlessly.
ANSYS has inbuilt CAD developing software's like Design Modeler and Space Claim
which makes the work flow even smoother.
ANSYS has the capability of performing advanced engineering simulations accurately

and realistic in nature by its variety of contact algorithms, time dependent simulations
and nonlinear material models.
Page
24
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Write Advantages of Nastran Software
 Multidisciplinary Structural Analysis

 Structural Assembly Modeling
 Automated Structural Optimization
 High Performance Computing
 Customer Service
How 3D Problems can be reduced to 2D Problems?
All 2D approximations like plane stress criteria, plane strain criteria, axis symmetric
criteria reduce 3D problems into 2D problems.
The main benefits of this 2D approximation is reducing the computing time, as

number of elements are less the most accurate mesh can be generated and
convergence error will be reduced therefore very accurate results will be obtained.
Classify Mesh Generation Methods
Mesh generation methods are broadly classified among

1. Semi-Automatic Method
a. Wireframe based and surface based methods
b. Solid Modeling based methods
2. Fully Automatic Method
a. Node based approach
b. Element based approach
Page
25

is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C


is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C

CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions]
UNIT No-01 Name of Unit: COMPUTER GRAPHICS

Answer D
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.3 When every entity of a geometric model remains parallel to its initial position, the
transformation is called as
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.4 In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects and therefore shapes
cannot be preserved?
D None of the above
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answer A
KKWIEER Mechanical Engineering Department nvp Page 1


A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C
B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
Q.9 If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x, y) is
represented as
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
Q.11 We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a single
D Only c
Answer B
A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector

B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
scaling and perspective projection to be represented as a matrix by which the vector is
multiplied?
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
Q.15 In Coordinates, a points in n-dimensional space is represent by
(n+1) coordinates.
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation
Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
Q.19 In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by using
the equation


Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
Q.23 Polygons are translated by adding to the coordinate position
of each vertex and the current attribute setting.
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D
Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling

Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
Q.28 The rotation axis that is perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through the pivot point
is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
Q.31 From the following, which one will require 4 matrices to multiply to get the final position?
Answer B
A Turn
B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
Q.33 A line AB with end point A (2,3) & B (7,8) is to be rotated about origin by 300 in
clockwise direction. Determine the coordinates of end points S of rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
Q.35 The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A
D Only a
Answer D
Q.37 We control the location of a scaled object by choosing the position is known
as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B



Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled
B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Q.42 If the value of Sx=1 and Sy=1 then
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
Q.45 If two pure reflections about a line passing through the origin are applied
successively the result is
A Pure rotation

B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C

A of same size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting

C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
Q.54 Two successive translations are
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A
B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
Q.58 Reflection about the line y=0, the axis, is accomplished with the transformation
A 8
B 9
C 4

D 6
Answer D
Q.59 Which transformation distorts the shape of an object such that the transformed shape
appears as if the object were composed of internal layers that had been caused to
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C
Q.61 Reversing the order in which a sequence of transformations is performed may affect the
transformed position of an object.
A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
Q.66 The window opened on the raster graphics screen in which the image will be
displayed is called
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D
Q.67 The process of mapping a world window in World Coordinates to the Viewport

A True
B False
Answer A
Q.68 Panning is a technique in which users can change the size of the area to be

A True
B False
Answer B
Q.69 Drawing of number of copies of the same image in rows and columns across
the interface window so that they cover the entire window is called
A Roaming
B Panning
C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
Q.70 By changing the dimensions of the viewport, the and of
the objects being displayed can be manipulated.
D All of these
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
Q.72 Any convenient co-ordinate system or Cartesian co-ordinates which can be used
to define the picture is called
Answer D
Q.73 The transformation of perspective projection must include, where d is the distance
between the center of projection to the projection plane.
A D
B 1/d
C -d
D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.76 A system that automates the drafting process with interactive computer graphics is
called
Answer B
Q.77 In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects and
A Orthographic

B Isometric
C Perspective
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.78 Coordinate of □ABCD is WCS are: lowermost corner A(2,2) & diagonal corner are C(8,6).
W.r.t MCS. The coordinates of origin of WCS system are (5,4). If the axes of
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Q.79 A triangle A with vertices P (50, 40), Q (100, 60) & R (70, 80) is to be scaled
by using scale factors Sx =0.5 & Sy = 0.7 about point P, Find CT Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
0 0 1
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Answer C
Q.80 A line AB with end points A (2, 1) & B (7, 6) is to be moved by 3 units in x-direction & 4
units in y-direction. Calculate new coordinates of points B.
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)
D (10, 5)
Answer C

UNIT No-02 Name of Unit: GEOMETRIC MODELING
Q.1. QFor generating Coons patch we require

Answer C
Q.2. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1 (15,10)
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
Q.3. In the following geometric modelling techniques which are not three-dimensional
modelling?
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling
Answer B
Q.4. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not require
much computer time and memory?
A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.5. In the following geometric modelling techniques. which cannot be used for finite
element analysis:
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D


A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D
A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D
Q.10. The number of tangents required to describe cubic splines is
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
Q.11. The shape of Bezier curve is controlled by
A Control points


B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A
Q.12. The curve that follows a convex hull property is:
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B
Q.13. The degree of the Bezier curve with n control points is
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A
Q.14. The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.15. The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 1
C 3


D 4
Answer B
Q.17. The tensor product technique constraints surfaces by two curves.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
Q.18. In the bezier curve, the curve is always to first and last segments of the
polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.19. The unit vector in the direction of the line is defined as .

Answer C
Q.20. From the following, which is an axisymmetric surface?
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.21. curves allow local control of the curve
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D


Q.22. To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two tangent
vectors. This statement is true for which of the following
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.23. In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields

D none of the above
Answer C
Q.24. Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such that
equal to
Answer A
Q.25. When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve is
known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B
Q.26. In Beizer Curve, the curve follows

D none of the above
Answer B


Q.27. In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with

D none of the above
Answer B
Q.28. The number of control points can be added or
subtracted in .
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
Q.29. The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in .

B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
Q.30. The is used to create a surface using curves that form closed boundaries.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
Q.31. B-rep and C-Rep are the methods of
A solid modeling
B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A
Q.32. Which kind of model can store information about geometry
A Solid model


B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.33. From the following, which method is also called as the Building Block Approach?
Answer D
Q.34. Structuring and combining the primitives of the solid model in the graphics database,
is achieved by the use of…..
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.35. The data representation of CSG objects is represented by
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.36. is an extension of the wireframe model with additional face information added.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.37. For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a preferred
technique?


Answer C
Q.38. Which of the following uses a number of two-dimensional profiles for generating a
A Tweaking
B Lofting
C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.39. To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient?
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
Q.40. The curve is defined as the locus of a point moving with _ degree of freedom
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
Q.41. Write parametric equation of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3).
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A
Q.42. Find the tangent vector of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3)
A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B


Q.43. Find coordinates of points on line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3) at u=0.25
A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C
Q.44. Two lines are parallel when
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
Q.45. Two lines L1 and L2 having Parametric equations are P1=[3 4 7]+u[2 2 -6] and P2=[1
5 -2]+u[1 4 2]. Tangent vector for line L1
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k
D 6-2j-2k
Answer A
Q.46. For Q 45, Tangent vector for line L2
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D
Q.47. For Q 45, Lines are perpendicular?
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B
Q.48. Parametric equation for circle


Answer A
Q.49. Center point of circle
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
Q.50. A circle is represented by center point [5,5] and radius 6 units. Find the parametric
equation of circle and determine the various points on circle in first quadrant if
increment in angle by 45o
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
Q.51. A circle is passing through two end points A[6,4] and B[10,10]. Find center point of
circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C
Q.52. For Q 51, find radius of circle
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5
Answer B
Q.53. For Q 51, find coordinates of point on circle at u=0
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11


C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
Q.54. Find parametric equation for X-coordinates of hermite cubic spline curve having end
points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
Q.55. Find parametric equation for Y-coordinates of Hermite cubic spline curve having end
points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A
Q.56. C0 continuity refers to
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C
Q.57. C‘ continuity refers to
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B
Q.58. C” continuity refers to
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal


Answer A
Q.59. Which of the following is not a method to describe a curve mathematically?
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B
Q.60. When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
Q.61. When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve is known
as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
Q.62. Synthetic curve pass through defined data points and thus can be represented by
Answer A
Q.63. Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such that at
any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci) is constant and
equal to



Answer A
Q.64. The parabola is defined mathematically as a curve generated by a point that moves such
that its distance from the focus is always__________the distance to the directrix
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.65. In synthetic curves, zero-order continuity yields

D none of the above
Answer A
Q.66. In synthetic curves, first-order continuity yields

D none of the above
Answer B

D none of the above
Answer C
Q.68. The B-spline curve has a
D none of the above


Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.70. The Bezier curve is smoother than the Hermite cubic spline because it has _________ order
derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.71. In the bezier curve, the curve is always________to first and last segments of the polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.72. ________curves allow local control of the curve.
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
Q.73. In Beizer Curve, the curve follows __________

D none of the above


Answer B
Q.74. In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with _______ of the polygon.

D none of the above
Answer B
Q.75. The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in _____

B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
Q.76. In modeling of a tabulated cylinder, the plane of the curve is _______
A along the curve

Answer D
Q.77. The ___________ is used to create a surface using curves that form closed boundaries
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
Q.78. ________ command gives an array of object in 3D modeling
A Extrude
B Revolve
C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C


Q.79. To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
Q.80. A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape using the ________ tool.
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
technique

Answer C

UNIT No-03 Name of Unit: FEA

D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D
Q.4 To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts that are
called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
Q.5 The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is known
as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0

B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles
B molecules
C elements
D none

Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above
Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
Q.16 For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed is
having an order of
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function

B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction
D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.20 The truss element can deform only in the
D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D


A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C
D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
Q.27 The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in space
is .
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A
A thermal


C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
Q.29 If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we need to subdivide
the structure into substructures. These substructures are termed as .
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B

Answer D
Q.31 is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the
B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.32 are used to express the geometry or shape of the
element
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.33 When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called _
.

A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
A the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the
other nodes
C both a & b
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.35 The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as
.
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
Q.37 If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is
considered in .

Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above
Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
Q.43 In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find .

D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small
C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12

Answer C
A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B

UNIT No-04 Name of Unit: CAM

Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
Q.3 The term that is used for geometric modelling like solid modelling, wire frame modelling
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
Q.4 The software that is used to control the computer’s work flow, organize its data and
perform housekeeping functions is known as
B graphics software
Answer A
Q.5 During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0
D rapid feed
Answer A

Q.6 n an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2) along
a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The G
and N codes for this motion are
A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C
A circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and incremental

dimension


Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A

B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer C

A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C

A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut
C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.28 An absolute NC system is one in which all position coordinates are referred to one fixed
origin called the zero point.
A True
B False
Answer A
Q.29 In , the coordinates are mentioned in the program with respect to one
reference point
B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
Q.30 ……… is a group of words or coded instruction for the NC/CNC system to execute a
particular movement.
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D

A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
Previous point.
B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C

Answer A

A CANCEL Subroutine
B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B

C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C
Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro

C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
Q.42 In the lathe it is the peripheral speed of the work piece cutting speed of tool is expressed in
m/min, V is
A = 𝜋𝐷𝑁/1000
B = 𝜋𝐷/1000
C = 𝐷𝑁/1000
D =𝜋𝐷𝑁/10
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.44 Repetitive CNC machine operations conveniently performing and execute with one
command instead of programming of series of individual move called …..
A Common Cycle
C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D

Q.46 ……… is the origin of the coordinate system which is defined by manufacturer they cannot
be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B
Q.47 To indicate the position of the workpiece ly & easily machine zero pint should be displaced
to another point on the workpiece called…

C Start Point
Answer A
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
Q.50 In CNC machining tool radius compensation turning the left mode ON programming contour
done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B


A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56
D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05

B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.58 The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like depth of
cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself,
is called
Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C



Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.65 In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line which
passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-axis. The
coordinates of the transformed point will be
A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B

Answer A
Answer C
Q.68 In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill
with 10 mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented
by (0, 0), (0, 30), (50, 30) and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation,
the trajectory of the cutter will be
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)

B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)
D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
C Deflection of machine tool members
D All the above
Answer A

UNIT No-05 Name of Unit: Advance Manufacturing Method
D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
Q.4. __________ is one where mechanical forces or restricting forms are applied on a material so as
to form it into the desired shape
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

A Bending
D Forging
Answer C

Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling
D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing

C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions
B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A


Answer B

Answer C

Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D

Answer B


Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B
Q.26. Which of the following advantage does not possess by the rapid prototyping process over the
traditional prototyping process?

D It's cheaper
Answer D


D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp

Answer C

B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above
Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D

A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A
Q.41. STL consists of an unordered list of _______ facets representing the outside skin of an object.
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological

D all of the above

Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths
Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B
A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above

Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data
D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D

A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt
B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D

Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C
A LOM
B SLS

C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype

Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D

D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C

Q.70. Which of the following are examples of appropriate applications of additive manufacturing in
the actual production of parts and products?

Answer B
Q.71. Which of the following are problems with the current rapid prototyping and additive
manufacturing technologies?
Answer A
Q.72. Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies, which one is the most
widely used?

D Stereolithography
Answer D
Q.73. Which one of the following is not a rapid indirect tooling method?
A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
Q.74. Which one of the following is not a direct rapid tooling method?
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D

A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B

B 3D Printing
Answer D
A 3D Modeling

B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D

Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.84. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage represents rapid growth of product sale known as_____.
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C
Q.85. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage represents a new and previously unknown product for
buyers known as_____.

A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage
C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
Q.88. The technology life cycle concerned with the time and cost of developing the technology
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B
machine etc
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

UNIT No-06 Name of Unit: Robotics and Automation
B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B
A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B KK3 system

D All of the above

Answer D
A KK3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
Q.10. Form which of the following is the objective of cellular manufacturing.


D All of the above

Answer D

B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D

D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train

B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D
A Wire guided
B Paint strip


D All of the above
Answer D

C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.18. A combination of equipment and controls which handles, stores and retrieves materials with
precision,accuracy and speed under a defined degree of automation is known as ____

D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout

B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer C
A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout

C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B



Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.32. From the following which material handling equipment is used in Robot centered layout of FMS
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.33. ____ is a general purpose, programmable machine possessing certain human like characteristics
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.34. _____ is area of engineering and science which understand the different principles, structure and
programming of robot
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement

Answer A
A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C

B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A

C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers
Answer A
Q.43. The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or any machine etc
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B
Q.44. Sensors which are come in contact with some surface to measured desired physical variable are
known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor

D Range detector
Answer A
Q.46. From which of the following is known as non-contact sensor
A Force sensor
B Tactile sensor
C Proximity sensor
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.47. From which of the following is robot programming language
A VAL
B AML
C ABD
D Both A & B
Answer D
Q.48. ____ sensors are used to indicate presence or absence of hot objects
A Vision sensors
B Infrared sensors
C Photo-metric sensors
D Range detectors
Answer B
Q.49. ____ sensors are used to identify objects for pick and place purpose
A Range detectors
B Infrared sensors
C Vision sensors
D Photo-metric sensors
Answer C
Q.50. Up and down motion along an axis known as ____ in robotics
A Pitch
B Roll
C Yaw
D None of the above
Answer A

Q.51. Circular motion along an axis is known as ____ in robotics.
A Pitch
B Roll
C Yaw
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.52. The operating range or reach capability of robot is known as ____ in robotics
A Roll
B Pitch
C Yaw
D Speed of movement
Answer C
Q.53. From which of the following is robot programming method
A Manual method
B Lead through method
C Walk through method
D All of the above
Answer D
Q.54. Which type of motion is possible in Cartesian coordinate robots?
A 3 linear motion
B 2 linear and 1 rotational motion
C 3 rotational motion
D 1 linear and 1 rotational motion
Answer A
Q.55. Which type of motion is possible in cylindrical coordinate robots?
A 3 rotational motion
C 2 linear and 1 rotational motion
D 3 linear motion
Answer C
Q.56. Which type of motion is possible in polar coordinate robots?
A 2 linear and 1 rotational motion

B 3 linear motion
D 2 rotational and 1 linear motion
Answer D
Q.57. Which type of motion is possible in jointed arm robots

B 3 rotational motion
C 3 linear motion
Answer B
Q.58. From the following which type of work envelope is made in Cartesian coordinate robot.
A Square work envelope

B Spherical work envelope
C Cylindrical work envelope
D Rectangular work envelope
Answer D
Q.59. From the following which type of work envelope is made in jointed arm robot
A Rectangular work envelope

B Cylindrical work envelope
C Spherical or hemispherical work envelope
D C
Answer B
Q.60. ____ is the bridge between design and manufacturing
A Production planning
B Process Planning
C Product design
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.61. From which of the following is the type of computer aided process planning
A Variant process planning

B Generative process planning
C Both A &B

D None of the above

Answer C
Q.62. From the following which is not the type of protocol used in CIM?
A Open standard interconnection - OSI

B Manufacturing Automation Protocol - MAP
C Technical and Industrial Protocol - TIP
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.63. ____ is defined as the set of technologies that can construct physical solid models from CAD data
A Rapid Production
B Rapid prototyping
C Lean Manufacturing
D Artificial intelligence
Answer B
Q.64. From which of the following is benefit of computer integrated manufacturing(CIM).
A Reduced lead time

B Increased production time
C Reduced productivity
D All of the above
Answer A
Q.65. Cellular manufacturing is also known as_______
A Manufacturing Technology
B Production Technology
C Group Technology
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.66. In a simple and visual method of Cell design, the priorities in classifying may be in the order
A Rotational or non rotational – Material – Size – Shape
B Material – Rotational or non rotational – Size – Shape
C Size – Rotational or non rotational – Material – Shape
D Shape – Rotational or non rotational – Material – Size
Answer A

Q.67. In Opitz system, 2nd digit indicates

A Type and Shape
B External shape and external shape elements
C External plane surface finishing
D Auxiliary hole and gear teeth
Answer B
Q.68. In cell formation using production flow analysis, the following process will be left out of the
analysis
A Grinding
B Milling
C Drilling
D Gear cutting
Answer D
Q.69. Which of the following technique of grouping does not consider the design and shape aspect?
A A simple and visual method of cell design
B Family formation by classification and codification
C Cell formation using Production Flow Analysis
D All of the above
Answer C
Q.70. The following is basically a material flow simplification technique

D All of the above
Answer C
Q.71. Which layout is mostly used for the batch type of production?
A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B

A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
Q.73. From the following in which type of GT code chain-type structure is used?
A Poly code
B Hybrid code
C Mono code
D None of the above
Answer A
Q.74. From the following in which type of GT code tree-type structure is used?
A Poly code
B Hybrid code
C Mono code
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.75. Which system uses computers at lower-level strategies
A Variant CAPP
B Generative CAPP
C Hybrid CAPP
D All of the above
Answer A
Q.76. Which system uses computers at higher level strategies
A Variant CAPP
B Generative CAPP
C Hybrid CAPP
D All of the above
Answer B
Q.77. If all the processing equipment and machines are arranged according to the sequence of
operations of a product the layout is known as
A Product layout
B Process layout
C Fixed-position layout

D GT layout
Answer A
Q.78. The following type of layout is preferred to manufacture a standard product in large quantity
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer A
Q.79. The following type of layout is preferred for low volume production of non-standard products
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer B
Q.80. In ship manufacturing, the type of layout preferred is
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer C
Q.81. Which of the following is not the method of part family formation
A Visual inspection method

B Automatic product sorting
C Parts classification & coding
D Production flow analysis
Answer B
Q.82. Choose the right sequence for Production Flow Analysis
A PFA Chart - Data Collection - Sortation of process plans

B Data collection - PFA chart - Sortation of process plans
C Sortation of process plans - Data collection - PFA chart
D Data collection - Sortation of process plans - PFA chart
Answer D
Q.83. Chain type coding structure is also known as________

A Poly code
B Mono code
C Hybrid code
D Miscellaneous code
Answer A
Q.84. The first five digits of the Opitz classification system are ______
A Form code
B Secondary code
C Supplementary code
D Stationary code
Answer A
Q.85. The middle four digits of the Opitz classification system are ______
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer C
Q.86. The last four digits of the Opitz classification system are ______
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer B
Q.87. Form code of the Opitz system is for_________
A Design attributes
B Manufacturing attributes
C Production operation type & sequence
D Maintenance flow
Answer A
Q.88. Supplementary code of the Opitz system is for_________
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow

Answer B
Q.89. Secondary code of the Opitz system is for_________
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow
Answer C
Q.90. Digit 1 in Opitz system is for_________
A Part class
B Main shape
C Rotational machining
D Plane surface machining
Answer A
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer B
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer C
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer D
A Part class
B Main shape

C Additional holes, teeth and forming

Answer C
Q.95. Use computers for storage and retrieval of the data for the process plans are?
A Lower-level strategies
B Intermediate strategies
C Higher-level strategies
D Morden-level strategies
Answer A
Q.96. A use computer to automatically generate process plans is?
Answer C
Q.97. Which automation is suited for high production quantities
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer C
Q.98. Which manufacturing system is best suited for batch production
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer B
Q.99. --------is a manufacturing system in which sequence of operation is fixed by equipment
configuration
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer C

Q.100. A company is producing 15000 mobiles annually. Determine production scale of company
A Low Production
B Medium Production
C High Production
D None
Answer C
Q.101. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A Teach pendant is used for lead-through teaching.
B Teach pendant is used for manual teaching.
C Teach pendant is used for off-line teaching of robots.
D Teach pendant is not used in robot teaching.
Answer B

CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION
[Multiple Choice
Questions]

GRAPHICS
Answe D
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r

D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answe A
r
A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C

B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
D Only c
Answer B

A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector
B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation

Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
using the equation
Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D

Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling
Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
point is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
position?
Answer B
A Turn

B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A

D Only a
Answer D

known as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B
Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled

B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False

Answer B
A Pure rotation
B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C
of same
A size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)

Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting
C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False

Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A

B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
A 8
B 9
C 4
D 6
Answer D
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D

A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Roaming
B Panning

C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
can be manipulated.
D All of these
Answer C
A True
B False
Answer A

Answer D

A D
B 1/d
C -d

D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
is called
Answer B

A Orthographic
B Isometric
C Perspective

D None of the above
Answer C
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
001
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
001
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
001
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
001
Answer C
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)

D (10, 5)
Answer C

Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling

Answer B

A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D
A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D

A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4

Answer B

.
A Control points
B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A

.
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B

.
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A

.

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

. polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C

.
Answer C

.
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C

.
A Analytical

C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

Answer A
. is known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer B
CAD/CAM &
.
D none of the above

Answer B

.
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A solid modeling

B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A

.
A Solid model
B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
.
Answer D
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C

.
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B

Answer C
A Tweaking
B Lofting

C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
.
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A

. A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B
. u=0.25
A [3.75 4.25 6.25]
B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C

.
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k

D 6-2j-2k
Answer A

.
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D

.
A True
B False
Answer B

.
Answer A

.
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
. of circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C

.
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5

Answer B

.
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11
C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer A

.
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B

.
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
. as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
.
Answer A
equal to

Answer A
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

.
D none of the above
Answer A

.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

.

D none of the above
Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
. derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above

Answer C

.
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D

.
D none of the above
Answer B
.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C

.
A along the curve
Answer D
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A Extrude
B Revolve

C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
. technique

Answer C

Name of Unit: FEA
D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D

are called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
known as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0
B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5

D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles

B molecules
C elements
D none
Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above

Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function
B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction

D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.20

D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C

D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
space is.
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A

A thermal
C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B
Answer D


B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
called _ .
A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
the other nodes
C both a & b

D None of the above
Answer C
as .
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
is considered in .
Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above

Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small

C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
Answer C

A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B

Name of Unit: CAM

Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
B graphics software

Answer A
D rapid feed
Answer A
A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A

NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C

Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A
B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis

C c-axis
Answer C
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B

A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C
A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut

C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A

B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D
A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
B Absolute System
C Datum System

Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C
Answer A
A CANCEL Subroutine

B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B
C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C

Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro
C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
A Common Cycle

C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D
cannot be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B

C Start Point
A Answer
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
contour done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B

A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56

D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05
B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C

Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C

A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B
Answer A
Answer C
cutter will be
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)

D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
D All the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C

B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

UNIT No-05
A Bending
D Forging
Answer C
Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling

D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing
C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions

B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A

Answer B
Answer C
Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D
Answer B
Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B

D It's cheaper
Answer D
D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D

A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp
Answer C
B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above

Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B

C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D
A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A

object.
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological
D all of the above
Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths

Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B

A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data

D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D
A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt

B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D
Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C

A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM

D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D
D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C
Answer B
Answer A
2. widely used?
D Stereolithography
Answer D
3.

A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
4.
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D
A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False

C
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B
B 3D Printing
Answer D

A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D
Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage

D All of the above
Answer D
as_____.
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C
A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage

C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
technology
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B

machine etc
A True
B False
Answer B
UNIT No-06
B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B

A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B 3 system
D All of the above
Answer D
A 3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A

0.
D All of the above
Answer D
B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train
B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D

A Wire guided
B Paint strip
D All of the above
Answer D
C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C

D None of the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout
B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C
Answer C

A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout

D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B
Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
FMS
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems

D None of the above
Answer A
characteristics
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement
Answer A

A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C
B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A
C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers

Answer A
etc
A True
B False
Answer B
are known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor

CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION
[Multiple Choice
Questions]

GRAPHICS
Answe D
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r

D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answe A
r
A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C

B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
D Only c
Answer B

A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector
B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation

Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
using the equation
Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D

Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling
Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
point is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
position?
Answer B
A Turn

B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A

D Only a
Answer D

known as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B
Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled

B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False

Answer B
A Pure rotation
B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C
of same
A size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)

Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting
C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False

Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A

B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
A 8
B 9
C 4
D 6
Answer D
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D

A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Roaming
B Panning

C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
can be manipulated.
D All of these
Answer C
A True
B False
Answer A

Answer D

A D
B 1/d
C -d

D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
is called
Answer B

A Orthographic
B Isometric
C Perspective

D None of the above
Answer C
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
001
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
001
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
001
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
001
Answer C
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)

D (10, 5)
Answer C

Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling

Answer B

A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D
A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D

A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4

Answer B

.
A Control points
B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A

.
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B

.
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A

.

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

. polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C

.
Answer C

.
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C

.
A Analytical

C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

Answer A
. is known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer B
CAD/CAM &
.
D none of the above

Answer B

.
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A solid modeling

B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A

.
A Solid model
B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
.
Answer D
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C

.
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B

Answer C
A Tweaking
B Lofting

C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
.
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A

. A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B
. u=0.25
A [3.75 4.25 6.25]
B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C

.
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k

D 6-2j-2k
Answer A

.
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D

.
A True
B False
Answer B

.
Answer A

.
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
. of circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C

.
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5

Answer B

.
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11
C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer A

.
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B

.
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
. as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
.
Answer A
equal to

Answer A
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

.
D none of the above
Answer A

.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

.

D none of the above
Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
. derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above

Answer C

.
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D

.
D none of the above
Answer B
.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C

.
A along the curve
Answer D
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A Extrude
B Revolve

C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
. technique

Answer C

Name of Unit: FEA
D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D

are called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
known as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0
B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5

D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles

B molecules
C elements
D none
Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above

Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function
B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction

D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.20

D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C

D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
space is.
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A

A thermal
C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B
Answer D


B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
called _ .
A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
the other nodes
C both a & b

D None of the above
Answer C
as .
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
is considered in .
Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above

Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small

C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
Answer C

A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B

Name of Unit: CAM

Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
B graphics software

Answer A
D rapid feed
Answer A
A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A

NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C

Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A
B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis

C c-axis
Answer C
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B

A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C
A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut

C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A

B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D
A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
B Absolute System
C Datum System

Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C
Answer A
A CANCEL Subroutine

B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B
C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C

Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro
C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
A Common Cycle

C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D
cannot be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B

C Start Point
A Answer
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
contour done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B

A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56

D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05
B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C

Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C

A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B
Answer A
Answer C
cutter will be
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)

D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
D All the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C

B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

UNIT No-05
A Bending
D Forging
Answer C
Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling

D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing
C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions

B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A

Answer B
Answer C
Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D
Answer B
Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B

D It's cheaper
Answer D
D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D

A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp
Answer C
B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above

Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B

C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D
A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A

object.
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological
D all of the above
Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths

Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B

A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data

D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D
A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt

B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D
Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C

A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM

D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D
D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C
Answer B
Answer A
2. widely used?
D Stereolithography
Answer D
3.

A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
4.
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D
A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False

C
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B
B 3D Printing
Answer D

A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D
Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage

D All of the above
Answer D
as_____.
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C
A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage

C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
technology
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B

machine etc
A True
B False
Answer B
UNIT No-06
B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B

A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B 3 system
D All of the above
Answer D
A 3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A

0.
D All of the above
Answer D
B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train
B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D

A Wire guided
B Paint strip
D All of the above
Answer D
C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C

D None of the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout
B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C
Answer C

A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout

D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B
Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
FMS
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems

D None of the above
Answer A
characteristics
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement
Answer A

A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C
B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A
C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers

Answer A
etc
A True
B False
Answer B
are known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor


is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C


Answer D
D None of the above
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answer A


A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C
B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
represented as
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
D Only c
Answer B
A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector

B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
multiplied?
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation
Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
the equation


Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D
Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling

Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
Answer B
A Turn
B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A
D Only a
Answer D
as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B



Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled
B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Pure rotation

B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C

A of same size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting

C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A
B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
A 8
B 9
C 4

D 6
Answer D
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C
A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
displayed is called
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D

A True
B False
Answer A

A True
B False
Answer B
A Roaming
B Panning
C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
D All of these
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
Answer D
A D
B 1/d
C -d
D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
called
Answer B
A Orthographic

B Isometric
C Perspective
D None of the above
Answer C
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
0 0 1
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Answer C
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)
D (10, 5)
Answer C


Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
modelling?
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling
Answer B
A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
element analysis:
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D


A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D
A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
A Control points


B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 1
C 3


D 4
Answer B
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C

Answer C
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D


A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B

D none of the above
Answer C
equal to
Answer A
known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B

D none of the above
Answer B



D none of the above
Answer B
subtracted in .
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B

B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
A solid modeling
B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A
A Solid model


B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
Answer D
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B
technique?


Answer C
A Tweaking
B Lofting
C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A
A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B


A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k
D 6-2j-2k
Answer A
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B


Answer A
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5
Answer B
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11


C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal


Answer A
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
Answer A
equal to



Answer A
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

D none of the above
Answer A

D none of the above
Answer B

D none of the above
Answer C
D none of the above


Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D

D none of the above


Answer B

D none of the above
Answer B

B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
A along the curve

Answer D
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
A Extrude
B Revolve
C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C


A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
technique

Answer C


D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D
called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0

B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles
B molecules
C elements
D none

Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above
Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
having an order of
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function

B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction
D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D


A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C
D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
is .
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A
A thermal


C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B

Answer D
B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
element
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
.

A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
other nodes
C both a & b
D None of the above
Answer C
.
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
considered in .

Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above
Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D

D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small
C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12

Answer C
A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B


Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
B graphics software
Answer A
D rapid feed
Answer A

A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C

dimension


Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A

B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer C

A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C

A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut
C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
reference point
B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D

A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
Previous point.
B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C

Answer A

A CANCEL Subroutine
B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B

C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C
Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro

C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
m/min, V is
A = 𝜋𝐷𝑁/1000
B = 𝜋𝐷/1000
C = 𝐷𝑁/1000
D =𝜋𝐷𝑁/10
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
A Common Cycle
C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D

be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B

C Start Point
Answer A
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B


A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56
D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05

B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C
is called
Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C



Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C
A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B

Answer A
Answer C
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)

B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)
D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
D All the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

A Bending
D Forging
Answer C

Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling
D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing

C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions
B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A


Answer B

Answer C

Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D

Answer B


Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B

D It's cheaper
Answer D


D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp

Answer C

B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above
Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D

A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological

D all of the above

Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths
Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B
A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above

Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data
D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D

A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt
B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D

Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C
A LOM
B SLS

C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype

Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D

D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C


Answer B
Answer A
widely used?

D Stereolithography
Answer D
A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D

A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B

B 3D Printing
Answer D
A 3D Modeling

B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D

Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage
D All of the above
Answer D
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C

A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage
C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B
machine etc
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B
A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B KK3 system

D All of the above

Answer D
A KK3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A


D All of the above

Answer D

B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D

D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train

B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D
A Wire guided
B Paint strip


D All of the above
Answer D

C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C

D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout

B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer C
A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout

C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B



Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems
D None of the above
Answer A
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement

Answer A
A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C

B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A

C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B
known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor

D Range detector
Answer A
A Force sensor
B Tactile sensor
C Proximity sensor
D None of the above
Answer C
A VAL
B AML
C ABD
D Both A & B
Answer D
A Vision sensors
B Infrared sensors
D Range detectors
Answer B
A Range detectors
B Infrared sensors
C Vision sensors
Answer C
A Pitch
B Roll
C Yaw
D None of the above
Answer A

A Pitch
B Roll
C Yaw
D None of the above
Answer B
A Roll
B Pitch
C Yaw
D Speed of movement
Answer C
A Manual method
D All of the above
Answer D
A 3 linear motion
Answer A
D 3 linear motion
Answer C

B 3 linear motion
Answer D

C 3 linear motion
Answer B

Answer D

D C
Answer B
B Process Planning
C Product design
D None of the above
Answer B

C Both A &B

D None of the above

Answer C

D None of the above
Answer C
A Rapid Production
B Rapid prototyping
Answer B
A Reduced lead time

D All of the above
Answer A
C Group Technology
D None of the above
Answer C
Answer A


A Type and Shape
Answer B
analysis
A Grinding
B Milling
C Drilling
D Gear cutting
Answer D
D All of the above
Answer C

D All of the above
Answer C
A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B

A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Poly code
B Hybrid code
C Mono code
D None of the above
Answer A
A Poly code
B Hybrid code
C Mono code
D None of the above
Answer C
A Variant CAPP
B Generative CAPP
C Hybrid CAPP
D All of the above
Answer A
A Variant CAPP
B Generative CAPP
C Hybrid CAPP
D All of the above
Answer B
A Product layout
B Process layout

D GT layout
Answer A
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer A
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer B
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer C

Answer B

Answer D

A Poly code
B Mono code
C Hybrid code
Answer A
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer A
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer C
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer B
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow
Answer A
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow

Answer B
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow
Answer C
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer A
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer B
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer C
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer D
A Part class
B Main shape


Answer C
Answer A
Answer C
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer C
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer B
configuration
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer C

A Low Production
B Medium Production
C High Production
D None
Answer C
Answer B

Answer D
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.3 When every entity of a geometric model remainsparallel to itsinitial
position, the transformation is called as
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.4 In which type of projection, actual dimensionsand angles of objects and therefore
shapes
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.5 The matrix representation for translation in homogeneous coordinates
is
D None of the above
Answer B
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answer A
Q. The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is
7 A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C
Q. What is the use of homogeneous coordinates and matrix representation?
8 A To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way
B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
Q. If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x, y)
9 is
represented as
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
Q. For 2D transformation the value of third coordinate i.e. w (or h) =?
10 A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
Q. We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a
11 single
D Only c
An B
sw
er
Q.12 The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be
written as
A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
An B
sw
er
Q.13 In homogeneous coordinates value of ‘h’ is consider as 1 & it is
called…..
A Magnitude Vector
B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
An D
sw
er
Q.14 Which co-ordinates allow common vector operations such as
translation, rotation,
scaling and perspective projection to be represented as a matrix by which
the vector is multiplied?
B 3D co-ordinates
An D
sw
er
Q.15 In Coordinates, a points in n-dimensional space is
represent by
(n+1) coordinates.
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation
An B
sw
er
C Only b
An A
sw
er
C X and Y
D Only a
An D
sw
er
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
An C
sw
er
Q.19 In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’,
y’) by using
the equation
An B
sw
er
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
An A
sw
er
Q.21 -------is a rigid body transformation that moves objects without
deformation.
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answ C
er
Q.22 A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation
equation
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answ A
er
Q.23 Polygons are translated by adding to the coordinate
position
C Differences
D Only b
Answ D
er
Answ B
er
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling
Answ D
er
C Only b
Answ C
er
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
Q.28 The rotation axis that is perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through
the pivot point
is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
Q.31 From the following, which one will require 4 matrices to multiply to get the
final position?
Answer B
Q.32 Rotation is simply --- object w.r.t origin or centre point.
A Turn
B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
Q.33 A line AB with end point A (2,3) & B (7,8) is to be rotated about
origin by 300 in clockwise direction. Determine the coordinates of
end points S of rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A
D Only a
Answer D
known
as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B
Q.38 If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to the same value
then………
Answer B
Q.39 If the scaling factors values Sx and Sy are assigned to unequal values
then
Answer C
A Scaled
B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A

Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Pure rotation
B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C
A of same size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting
B Isometric
C Perspective
D None of the above
Answer C
C(8,6).W.r.t MCS. The coordinates of origin of WCS system are (5,4). If the
axes of WCSare at 600 in CCW w.r.t. the axesof MCS. Findnew verticesof
point A in MCS.
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
0 0 1
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Answer C
Q.54 A line AB withend points A (2, 1) & B (7, 6) is to be moved by 3 units in x-
direction & 4 units in y-direction. Calculate new coordinates of points B.
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)
D (10, 5)
Answer C
UNIT II: GEOMETRIC MODELLING

Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling
Answer B
A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
element analysis:
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D
Q.6. In the following geometric primitives. which is not a solid entity of CSG
modelling:
A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D
A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
A Control points
B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A
C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.15. The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface
are
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
Q.18. In the bezier curve, the curve is always to first and last
segments of the polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C
Answer C
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
Q.22. To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-pointsand the two
tangent vectors. This statement is true for which of the following
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
D none of the above
Answer C
Q.24. Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such
that at any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci) is
constant and
equal to
Answer A
Q.25. When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the
curve is known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B
D none of the above
Answer B
D none of the above
Answer B
subtracted in .
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
Q.29. The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in
.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
Q.30. The is used to create a surface using curves that form closed
boundaries.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
A solid modeling
B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A
A Solid model
B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.33. From the following, which method is also called as the Building Block
Approach?
Answer D
Q.34. Structuring and combining the primitives of the solid model in the graphics
database, is achieved by the use of…..
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
Q.36. is an extension of the wireframe model with additional face information
added.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.37. For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a
Answer C
Q.38. Which of the following uses a number of two-dimensional profiles for
A Tweaking
B Lofting
C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.39. To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most
efficient?
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
Q.41. Write parametric equationof line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2
(6,4,3).
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A
Q.42. Find the tangent vector of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2
(6,4,3)
A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B
UNIT III- FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS

D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D
Q.4 To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts
that are called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
Q.5 The art of subdividing the structure into aconvenient number of smaller elements
is known as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0
B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
B
C molecules
applied mechanics
C
D elements
engineering mechanics
D
Answer none
D
Q.11 Answer
In C domains are called as
FEA, the sub .
Q.12 The
A numbersparticles
of node for 1 D element are
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above
Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
Q.16 For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function
B node function
C element function
Answer A
Q.18 The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions
called
A friction
B traction
D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C
D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
Q.27 The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point
in space is .
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A
Q.28 The finite element methods can be applied in- areas.
A thermal
C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
subdivide the structure into substructures. These substructures are
termed as .
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B
Q.30 Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness
matrix?
Answer D
Q.31 is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of
B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.32 are used to express the geometry or shape of
the element
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.33 Whenathinplate is subjectedtoloading in itsownplane only, the condition is
called_
.
A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
A the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero
value at the other nodes
C both a & b
D None of the above
Answer C
Q.35 The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is
known as
.
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
Q.37 If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This
statement is considered in .
Answer D
B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
Q.41 Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural
frequency?
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above
Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
D all of the above
Answer C
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a) X axis
b) Y axis
c) Z axis
d) All of the above
Q18. A do ed line can be displayed by genera ng

a) Very short dashes with spacing equal to and greater than dash
size
b) Very long dashes with spacing equal to or greater than dash size
c) Very short dashes with spacing equal to and greater than dash
size
d) Dots
Q19. When using the direct entry method to create a horizontal

line exactly three inches long the dra er should ________ first
a) Pull the line from away from the star ng point very carefully
b) Insure that Ortho is on
c) Enter 3 for the length of the line
d) Read the coordinate posi on on the Dynamic Readout
Q20. Using the Rela ve Polar Coordinate System to add a 3 inch

line that is 45 degrees from the end point of the line created
above the dra er would…………..
a) Type @3 is less than 45 and enter
b) Type 3 back slash and enter
c) Type 3 forward slash and enter
d) Type 3 and try to use the Dynamic Input readout to find the end
point
Q1. Answer: d
Q2. Answer: a
Q3. Answer: d
Q4. Answer: b
Q5. Answer: a
Q6. Answer: c
Q7. Answer: b
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: b
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: d
Q12. Answer: a
Q13. Answer: a
Q14. Answer: d
Q15. Answer: d
Q16. Answer: a
Q17. Answer: d
Q18. Answer: c
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: d
Refrigeration and CAD CAM
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Q1. In order to set drawing limits for a “C” size architectural Manufacturing Technology 4
drawing the dra er should set the limits to ________
a) 0,0 and 2,9 Manufacturing Technology 3
b) 0,0 and 17,11 Manufacturing Technology 2

c) 0,0 and 18,24
d) 0,0 and 34,24 Manufacturing Technology 1
Q2. One quick way to view the en re drawing area is to use the
Zoom command by typing ________
a) Type Z enter A enter ALL PAPERS
b) Type Z enter E enter
c) Type SHOWALL enter Select Category
d) Type ALL enter
Q3. When se ng up a mechanical drawing in AutoCAD the dra er

should set the units to________
a) Frac onal
b) Decimal
c) Architectural
d) Metric
Q4. When drawing a line using the rela ve coordinate system a

line is created from
________
a) 0,0
b) The ending point of the last line
c) The beginning point of the last line
Q5. If you use the absolute coordinate system to create a line

from a star ng point of 0, 0 8 units on the X axis and 5 units on
the Y axis you enter ________ for the second point
a) 8,5
b) 5,8
c) 0,8
d) 5,0
Q6. The distor on of informa on due to low-frequency sampling

is known as
a) Sampling
b) Aliasing
c) Inquiry func on
d) An -aliasing
Q7. To avoid losing informa on from periodic objects we need

a) Sampling frequency twice
b) Nyquist sampling frequency
c) Both a or b
d) Neither a nor b
Q8. Nyquist sampling frequency formula is

a) Fs=2fmax
b) Fs=2fmin
c) Fs=fmax
d) Fs=fmin
Q9. The sampling of object characteris c at a high resolu on and

displaying the result at a lower resolu on is called?
a) Super-sampling
b) Post-filtering
c) An -aliasing
d) A or b
Q10. An -aliasing by compu ng overlap areas is referred to as

a) Area-sampling
b) Super-sampling
c) Pixel phasing
d) Only b
Q11. Area-sampling is also known as

a) Pre-filtering
b) Pixel phasing
c) Post-filtering
d) An -aliasing
Q12. Raster objects can also be an -aliased by shi ing the display
loca on of pixel areas is known as
a) Super-sampling
b) Pixel shaping
c) Pixel phasing
d) Any of these
Q13. If we want to use more intensity levels to an -alias the line,

then
a) We increase the number of sampling posi ons
b) We decrease the number of sampling posi ons
c) We increase the number of pixels
d) Only c
Q14. The procedure that increases the number of intensity levels

for each pixel to total number of sub-pixels is
a) Area-sampling
b) An -aliasing
c) Super-sampling procedure
d) Only c
Q15. For a 45% line, the line path is________ on the polygon area
a) Horizontal
b) Centered
c) Ver cal
d) Any of these
Q16. An array of values specifying the rela ve importance of sub-

pixel is referred
as________ of sub-pixel weights
a) Sub-mask
b) Mask
c) Pixel phasing
d) Pixel weigh ng
Q17. The technique that is more accurate method for an -aliasing

lines is
a) Filtering
b) Area-sampling
c) Super-sampling
d) None
Q18. Super-sampling methods can be applied by

a) Sub-dividing the total area
b) Determining the number of sub-pixels inside the area
c) Both a and b
d) Only b
Q19. Another method for determining the percentage of pixel

area within a boundary is
a) Mid-print algorithm
b) Mid-point algorithm
c) Pixel intensity
d) By using inquiry func ons
Q20. What is the use of Coherence techniques along and between

scan lines?
a) To simplify the calcula ons
b) To determine the area edges
c) To find polygon region
d) To correct interior area
Q1. Answer: c
Q2. Answer: a
Q3. Answer: b
Q4. Answer: b
Q5. Answer: a
Q6. Answer: b
Q7. Answer: b
Q8. Answer: a
Q9. Answer: d
Q10. Answer: a
Q11. Answer: a
Q12. Answer: c
Q13. Answer: a
Q14. Answer: c
Q15. Answer: b
Q16. Answer: c
Q17. Answer: a
Q18. Answer: b
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: a
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Q1. Compared to humans, machines: Manufacturing Technology 4

a) Can make more complex decisions based on unexpected
circumstances Manufacturing Technology 3
b) Can work in harsher environments Manufacturing Technology 2

c) Make fewer errors
d) (a) and (c) Manufacturing Technology 1
Q2. A solenoid:
a) Can be used only in de circuits
b) Is spring operated ALL PAPERS
c) Is widely used in industrial automa on
d) Is related to an aneroid Select Category
Q3. Most industrial control applica ons:

a) Can be solved using more than one method of control
b) Can be done more reliably using solid-state methods
c) Must have the process specified correctly to be successful
d) All of the above
Q4. When was the first successful industrial robot installed in the
General Motors Plant in
USA?
a) 1960
b) 1961
c) 1967
Q5. The physical arrangement of equipment in a network is

called:
a) Topology
b) Pairing
c) Logic
Q6. A programmable controller:

a) Can be used on more than one machine during its life me
b) Can be reprogrammed in the field
c) Requires considerable training before it can be used
d) (a) & (b) above
Q7. A LISP environment consists of a language, a programming

environment, and:
a) Random-access storage
b) A processor
c) A large address
d) A set of func ons
Q8. What is a process variable?

a) A manipulated variable
b) A controlled variable
c) A process parameter that changes value
d) All of the above
Q9. Time propor oning control:

a) Can be used on a PM550 programmable process controller
b) Is less efficient than normal PID control
c) C and b above
Q10. What is the process lag?

a) The me it takes for the sensor to respond to a changed
b) The lag in the error signal when the set point is changed
c) The me it takes for the mass of the process to respond to an
input change
d) All of the above
Q11. Which of the following may be classified as an automa on

system?
a) Automated warehouses
b) Numerically controlled machine tools
c) Robo cs
d) All of the above
Q12. The accuracy of a pick-and-place robot can be as good as:

a) + 0.0005 inches
b) + 0.05 inches
c) 0.008 inches
d) 3%
Q13. The concept of a general CAD system was that it should

provide:
a) A system for handling user ac ons
b) A system for the opera on of applica ons programming
c) A set of basic system func ons and u li es
d) All of the above
Q14. The general CAD system was development by considering a

wide range of possible
uses of such a system.
a) Mechanical engineering design
b) Anima on and graphic design
c) Structural engineering design and Electronic circuit design
d) All of the above
Q15. The “end-effector” of a robot:

a) Can be an actual tool
b) Is the robot “hand”
c) May have a gripping ac on
d) All of the above
Q16. The program execu on me:

a) Must be slower than the fastest mechanical opera on that is to
be controlled
b) Will vary depending on the language used
c) Cannot be changed once the program is wri en
d) All of the above
Q17. One advantage of a PC in industrial control is that it:

a) Has a reliable long life compared to relay logic
b) Is very difficult for the inexperienced programmer to understand
c) Is unreliable because there are no moving parts
d) All of the above
Q18. An opera ng system:

a) Is required to run a microprocessor system
b) Provides a structure with which to develop applica on programs
c) Is useful because standard modules can be used
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q19. What is required to enable the PC to emulate a graphics

terminal?
a) So ware
b) A laser printer
c) A colour monitor
d) A graphics board
Q20. Which type of digi zer measures a wave traveling at the

speed of sound?
a) Sonic
b) Digi zing
c) Capaci ve
Q1. Answer: d
Q2. Answer: c
Q3. Answer: d
Q4. Answer: b
Q5. Answer: a
Q6. Answer: a
Q7. Answer: d
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: a
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: d
Q12. Answer: a
Q13. Answer: d
Q14. Answer: d
Q15. Answer: d
Q16. Answer: c
Q17. Answer: a
Q18. Answer: d
Q19. Answer: a
Q20. Answer: a
CAD CAM Dynamics of
Automation 2 Machinery 1
Instructions:
Unit
No.

1 1 1 (B) Computer Aided Design (CAD)
1 1



coordinate system?

form is
(A) P’=P+T
1 1 5 1 1
(B) P’=S*P
(C) P’=P*R
(D) P’=R+S
Statement-
1 2 1 1
1 2 6 1 1
(A) 00
1 2 7 (B) -450 1 1
(C) 450
(D) 600
(A) (5,9,1)
1 2 8 (B) (8,4,1) 1 1
(C) (2,3,1)
(A) (12,2,1)
1 2 9 (B) (14,4,1) 1 1
(C) (12,4,1)
(D) (30,2,1)
(A) 12,1,1
(B) 4,2,1
3 2 10 1 1
(C) 6,5,1
(D) 2,3,1

(A) Elements
3 1 11 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
(A) Elements
3 1 12 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
reference for the
(A) Entire body
3 1 13 1 3
(C) Bothe A & B
(A) Shape function
coordinate
(C) Discretization
3 1 3

assembly is
(A) 2
3 2 15 1 3
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(A) 100 mm
3 2 16 (B) 200mm 1 3
(C) 250mm
(D) 400mm
(A) 400mm
3 2 17 (B) 500mm 1 3
(C) 600mm
(D) 700mm
(A) 200mm
3 2 18 (B) 250mm 1 3
(C) 300mm
(D) 400mm
(A) 150 mm
3 2 19 (B) 300mm 1 3
(C) 400mm
(D) 500mm
(A) -6000 N
3 2 20 (B) 6000 N 1 3
(C) 4000 N
(D) -4000 N
layers
(A) Time
(B) Material
5 1 22 1 5
(C) Sound
(D) Light
definition?
(A) layer by layer
(D) Production line

5 1 24 1 5

(A) .prt
5 1 25 (B) .slt 1 5
(C).stl
(D) .iges
5 1 26 1 5
time
prototyping?
prototyping
5 1 28 1 5


form?

(CAE)
(CAM) (A) GKS
(C) UNIX
memory known as
picture (B) depth
(C) printer
(C) data glove
(C) y = x.x + m
(A) CPU
(D) keyboard (A) 8
(B) 16
of color display.

___________. (B) P’=R*P
(C) rotation
(B) Isometric
(A) P’=P+T
(A) 8 (D) P’=R+S
(B) 6
(D) 16 sx and sy < 1, then ___________ .
(B) P’=P-T
then ___________ .
___________ . 33. Scaling can be
(A) 8 (B) divided
(D) 6
(B) Scaling
(A) Rotation
(A) 45 (D) Skewing
(B) 90
(A) translation
___________ . (C) mirror
(B) sorting
multiply?
(B) transformations
(D) -1/d
(D) 8

____________ results. __________.
be performed first?
(A) Translation
(B) Scaling

(A) Scaling
(B) Mirror
(C) Translation
(D) Rotation

is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C

MCQs of CAD/CAM
1. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
GATE 2013
(A) (7.5, 5)
(B) (10, 5)
(C) (7.5, -5)
(D) (10, -5)
Ans: B
2. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40…, G02 AND G91 refer to
GATE 2012
Ans: C
3. For generating Coons patch we require

GATE 2007
(C) Four bounding curves defining surface
(D) Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points
Ans: C
GATE 2006
Ans: A
performing an operation. The center of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following NC tool
GATE 2005
(a) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(b) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
(c) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
(d) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Ans: D
GATE 2004
(d) Rapid feed
Ans: A
7. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1 (15,10) to
P2 (10,15)will have its center at
GATE 2004
(a) (10, 10)
(b) (15, 10)
(c) (15, 15)
(d) (10, 15)
Ans: A
8. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5,4) to point (7,2)
along a circular path with center at (5,2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The
GATE 2001
(a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
(d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Ans: B

GATE 2000
Ans: D
10 mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30),
(50, 30) and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
GATE 2000
(a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
(b) (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
(c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)
(d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Ans: A
GATE 1993
Ans: C

GATE 1992
Ans: B

(a)True
(b)False
(c)Don’t know
(d)Can’t tell
Ans: A

(a) CPU (b) ALU (c) Monitor (d) Keyboard
Ans: A
Ans: D
16. Keyboard is a_____ input device.

Ans: D
17. Locating devices are classified as:
Ans: B
18. Mouse is a ____ type of input device.

Ans: C
19. Light pen is a:
Ans: B

Ans: C

Ans: B
22. The screen is scanned from left to right. top to bottom all the time to generate graphics
by:
Ans: A
23. Color raster display uses three electron guns. namely:

Ans: A
24. The software that is used for file manipulations. managing directories and subdirectories,
Ans: C
known as:
Ans: C
of plastic injection molding. And animation techniques. is:
Ans: C
Ans: A

(a) GKS (b) IGBS (c) UNIX (d) PHIGS
Ans: C
modelling?
Ans: B
30. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not require much
(c) Wireframe modelling (d) All of the above
Ans: C
31. In the following geometric modelling techniques. which cannot be used for finite element
analysis:
Ans: D
32. In the following geometric primitives. which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling:
(a) Box (b) Cone (c) Cylinder (d) Circle
Ans: D
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) l2 (d) I6
Ans: C
34. Which of the following is not an analytical entity?

Ans: C

(a) Hyperbola (b) Bezier curve (c) B-spline curve (d) Cubic spline curve
Ans: A
Ans: D

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: B

(a) 2" order (b) 3" order (c) 1" order (d) 4" order
Ans: C

(a) Control points (b) Knots (c) End points (d) All the above
Ans: A

Ans: B
(a) n + 1 (b) n - I (c) n (d) 2n
Ans: A

Ans: A
43. C” continuity refers to:

Ans: A
44. C‘ continuity refers to:

Ans: C
45. C0 continuity refers to:

Ans: B
46. The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are:
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
Ans: B
47. convex hull property is satisfied by the following surface:

Ans: B

(a) Adding (b) Subtraction (c) Multiplying (d) Dividing
Ans: C

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: C

(a) Linear (b) Quadratic (c) Constant (d) None of the above
Ans: A
(a) Zero (b) Infinity (c) Unity (d) None of the above
Ans:
52. Stiffness is_____ to the length of the element.

Ans: D

(a) NC (b) CNC (c) DNC (d) ACS
Ans: C
54. The first commercial CNC machine was developed in the year:
(a) 1970 (b) I972 (c) l976 (d) I980
Ans:

Ans: A

(c) Deflection of machine tool members (d) All the above
Ans: A
57. The axes of turning machine arc:
Ans: A

Ans: B
59. Dwell is defined by:

(a) G04 (b) G03 (c) G02 (d) G01
Ans: A
60. M30 stands for:

(c) End of tape and tape rewind (d) Coolant on/ off
Ans:
2C

(a) MPS (b) BOM
(c) Inventory file (d) All of the above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Submitted by
Abhay S. Gore
MIT (T)
Aurangabad.
Sanfoundry mcq cad cam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
a) decision process
b) analysis process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decision process is the cognitive process resulting in the selection of a belief or
a course of action among several alternative possibilities while implementation process is
b) CAD and CAM
View Answer
Answer: b
a) software package
b) operating system
View Answer
Answer: a
b) storage devices
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
a) CPU
b) Storage device
c) ALU
d) Monitor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None
b) graphic device
View Answer
Answer: b
a) track ball
b) mouse
c) joystick
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
a) impact printers
b) plotters
c) CRT terminals
View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a
functions.
specialized needs.
View Answer
Answer: b
functions.
specialized needs.
View Answer
Answer: c
functions.
specialized needs.
View Answer
Answer: d
functions.
specialized needs.
a) Windows
b) UNIX
c) VAX/VMS
d) IDEAS
View Answer
Answer: d
a) points
b) lines
c) circles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
1. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type
of tool motion will be
a) circular Interpolation – clockwise
b) circular Interpolation – counterclockwise
c) linear Interpolation
d) rapid feed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:-NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0
Here term X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 will produce circular motion because radius is consider in this
term and GO2 will produce clockwise motion of the tool.
2. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4).
The correct G and N codes for this motion are
a) N010GO3X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
b) N010GO2X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
c) N010GO1X7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
d) N010GOOX7.0Y2.0I5.0J2.0
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given : Initial point (5, 4), Final point (7, 2), Centre (5, 4)
So, the G, N codes for this motion are N010GO2X7.0Y2.0 15.0J2.0
where, GO2 ” Clockwise circular interpolation
X7.0Y2.0 ” Final point
I5.0J2.0 ” Centre point.
a) N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
b) N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
c) N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
d) N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: N010 “represent start the operation
GO2 “represent circular (clock wise) interpolation
X10Y10 “represent final coordinates
X5Y5 “represent starting coordinate
R5 “represent radius of the arc
So, NC tool path command is, N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5.
a) continuous path positioning
b) point-to-point positioning
c) absolute positioning
d) incremental positioning
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NC contouring is a continuous path positioning system. Its function is to
synchronize the axes of motion to generate a predetermined path, generally a line or a
circular arc.
5. Match the following:
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NC code Definition
P. M05 3. Spindle stop
Q. G01 4. Linear interpolation
R. G04 2. Dwell
S. G09 1. Absolute coordinate system
So, correct pairs are, P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1.
6. In a CNC program block, N002 GO2 G91 X40 Z40……,GO2 and G91 refer to
a) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and incremental dimension
b) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and absolute dimension
c) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
d) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: GO2 represent circular interpolation in clockwise direction.
G91 represent incremental dimension.
7. Numerical control ___________
a) applies only to milling machines
b) is a method for producing exact number of parts per hour
c) is a method for controlling by means of set of instructions
View Answer
Answer: c
a) NC
b) CNC
c) DNC
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Control loop unit of M.C.U is always
a) a hardware unit
b) a software unit
c) a control unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. The repeatability of NC machine depends on
a) control loop errors
b) mechanical errors
c) electrical errors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
11. Rotation about Z-axis is called
a) a-axis
b) b-axis
c) c-axis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotation about X-axis is called a-axis.
Rotation about Y-axis is called b-axis.
Rotation about Z-axis is called c-axis.
12. Rotation of spindle is designated by one of the following axis:
a) a-axis
b) b-axis
c) c-axis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
13. The linking of computer with a communication system is called
a) networking
b) pairing
c) interlocking
d) assembling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Networking is the practice of linking two or more computing devices together for
the purpose of sharing data.
Pairing is the linking of computer with a communication system.
Interlocking is to fit into each other, as parts of machinery, so that all action is synchronized.
14. The process of putting data into a storage location is called
a) reading
b) writing
c) controlling
d) hand shaking
View Answer
Answer: b
Writing is the process of putting data into a storage location.
15. The process of copying data from a memory location is called
a) reading
b) writing
c) controlling
d) hand shaking
View Answer
Answer: a
Writing is the process of putting data into a storage location
1. Designs are periodically modified to
a) improve product performance
b) strive for zero-based rejection and waste
c) make products easier and faster to manufacture
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Designs are periodically modified to
a) Improve product performance
b) Strive for zero-based rejection and waste
c) Make products easier and faster to manufacture
d) Consider new materials and processes that are continually being developed.
2. The expected qualities of a product are
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Generally, however, a high-quality product is considered to have at least the
following characteristics:
d) it is compatible with and responsive to the customer’s capabilities and working
environment
e) installation, maintenance, and future improvements are easy to perform and at low cost.
3. The life cycle of a product includes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The life cycle involves consecutive and interlinked stages of a product or a
service, from the very beginning to its disposal or recycling, and includes the following:
d) transportation and distribution of the product to the customer
e) use, maintenance, and reuse of the product
f) recovery, recycling, and reuse of the components of the product.
4. Life-cycle engineering is also called
a) green design
b) expensive design
c) easy design
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major aim of life-cycle engineering (LCE) is to consider reusing and
recycling the components of a product, beginning with the earliest stage: product design.
Life-cycle engineering is also called green design or green engineering.
5. Sustainable manufacturing is required for
a) conserving resources
b) proper maintenance
c) reuse
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The concept of sustainable manufacturing emphasizes the need for conserving
resources, particularly through proper maintenance and reuse.
6. The mechanical properties of good product material are
a) strength
b) toughness
c) ductility
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanical properties include strength, toughness, ductility, stiffness,
hardness, and resistance to fatigue, creep, and impact.
7. The physical properties of good product material are
a) density
b) melting point
c) specific heat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Physical properties include density, melting point, specific heat, thermal and
electrical conductivity, thermal expansion, and magnetic properties.
8. The chemical properties of good product material are
a) oxidation
b) corrosion
c) surface treatment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chemical properties of primary concern in manufacturing are susceptibility to
oxidation and corrosion and to the various surface-treatment processes.
9. Properties of workpiece materials are
a) geometric features of the part
b) production rate and quantity
c) process selection consideration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10. Considerations of costing systems are
a) life cycle costs
b) machine usage
c) cost of purchasing machinery
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Costing Systems, also called cost justification, typically include the following
considerations: (a) intangible benefits of quality improvements and inventory reduction, (b)
life-cycle costs, (c) machine usage, (d) cost of purchasing machinery compared with that of
leasing it, (e) financial risks involved in implementing highly automated systems, and (f) new
technologies and their impact on products
1. Thickness of tooth measured along the pitch circle is known as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tooth thickness is the thickness of tooth measured along the pitch circle.
2. Difference between space width and to thickness of tooth along the pitch circle is known
as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Backlash is the Difference between space width and to thickness of tooth along
the pitch circle.
3. Length of tooth parallel to gear axis is known as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Face width is the length of tooth parallel to gear axis.
4. Top surface of tooth is known as
a) Tooth thickness
b) Backlash
c) Face width
d) Top land
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Top land is the top surface of tooth.
5. Bottom surface of the tooth between two adjacent fillets is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bottom surface of the tooth between two adjacent fillets is known as bottom
land.
6. Surface of tooth between pitch circle and top land is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface of tooth between pitch circle and top land is known as face.
7. Tooth surface between pitch circle and the bottom land including fillet is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tooth surface between pitch circle and the bottom land including fillet is known
as flan.
8. Curved portion of the tooth flank at the root circle is known as
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Bottom Land
d) Fillet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Curved portion is called fillet.
9. Force exerted by driving tooth on the driven tooth along the line of pitch point to the point
of contact of two teeth is known as
a) Line of Action
b) Path of contact
c) Arc of contact
d) Angle of action
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Force exerted by driving tooth on the driven tooth along the line of pitch point to
the point of contact of two teeth is known as the line of action.
10. Angle between the pressure line and the common tangent to the pitch circle is known as
a) Pressure angle
b) Path of contact angle
c) Arc of contact angle
d) Angle of action
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle between the pressure line and the common tangent to the pitch circle is
known as pressure angle.
11. Backlash of gear is given by
a) Space width – Tooth Thickness*2
b) Space width / Tooth Thickness
c) Space width – Tooth Thickness
d) Space width * Tooth Thickness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Backlash = Space width – Tooth Thickness.
12. Ratio of speed of the follower to the speed of driving gear is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the Ratio of speed of the follower to the speed of driving gear.
13. Ratio of diameter of driving gear to the diameter of follower is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the ratio of diameter of driving gear to the diameter of follower.
14. Ratio of number of teeth on driving gear to the number of teeth on follower is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the ratio of number of teeth on driving gear to the number of
teeth on follower.
15. Angle subtended by circular pitch at the centre of pitch circle is known as
a) Pitch angle
b) Addendum angle
c) Module angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitch angle is the angle subtended by circular pitch at the centre of pitch circle
1. Which of the following is not a standard pressure angle in degree?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 14.5
d) 19
View Answer
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: b
teeth from the beginning of engagement to the end of engagement.
3. Path of contact from the beginning of engagement to the pitch point is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Path of approach is equal to path of contact from the beginning of the
4. Portion of path of contact from the pitch point to end of engagement is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Path of recess is the portion of path of contact from the pitch point to end of the
engagement.
5. Circumferential distance between points from the beginning to the end of engagement of
two mating gear on pitch circle is known as
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of contact is the circumferential distance between points from the beginning
to the end of engagement of two mating gear on pitch circle.
6. Portion of arc of contact from the beginning of the engagement to the pitch point is known
as
a) Contact ratio
c) Arc of recess
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Arc of approach is the portion of arc of contact from the beginning of the
7. Portion of arc of contact from the pitch point to the end of engagement is known as
a) Contact ratio
c) Arc of recess
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arc of recess is the portion of arc of contact from the pitch point to the end of
the engagement.
8. Angle subtended by arc of contact at the centre of pitch circle is known as
a) Contact ratio
b) Angle of action
c) Arc of recess
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Angle of action is the angle subtended by arc of contact at the centre of pitch
circle.
9. Number of teeth in contact is given by
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Contact ratio
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Contact ratio is the number of teeth in contact of two mating gear.
10. Contact ratio is given by
a) Angle of action/pitch angle
b) Angle of action*pitch angle
c) Angle of action-pitch angle
d) Angle of action +pitch angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Contact ratio = Angle of action/pitch angle.
a) 20
b) 21
c) 13.5
d) 19
View Answer
Answer: a
a) 24
b) 21
c) 14.5
d) 19
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 14.5 degree is a standard pressure angle.
a) 25
b) 21
c) 13.5
d) 19
View Answer
Answer: a
a) Arc of contact
b) Contact length
c) Path of approach
d) Path of recess
View Answer
Answer: b
teeth from the beginning of engagement to the end of an engagement. Path of contact is
also known as contact length.
15. For a given pair of mating gear, angle of action is 19 degree and pitch angle is 4 degree.
a) 3.20
b) 2.13
c) 4.75
d) 6.32
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Contact ratio = Angle of action/pitch angle
1. Imaginary friction cylinders which by pure rolling together transmit the same motion as
pair of gears is known as
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Imaginary friction cylinders which by pure rolling together transmit the same
motion as pair of gears is known as pitch cylinders.
2. Circle which corresponds to section of equivalents cylinder by a plane normal to wheel
axis is known as
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pitch circle is the circle which corresponds to section of equivalents cylinder by
a plane normal to wheel axis.
3. Diameter of pitch cylinder is known as
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pitch diameter is the diameter of a pitch cylinder.
4. Two different pitch circles generally meet at
a) Pitch cylinders
b) Pitch diameter
c) Pitch circle
d) Pitch point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At pitch point two different pitch circles generally meets.
5. Line passing through center of rotation of two meeting gear is known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Line of centre is the line passing through center of rotation of two meeting gear.
6. Driving gear of two mating gear which is generally small is known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pinion is the driving gear of two mating gear which is generally small.
7. Gear wheel of infinite diameter is also known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rack have infinite diameter.
8. Part of pitch circle of rack which is a straight line is also known as
a) Pitch line
b) Rack
c) Pinion
d) Line of centre
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitch line is the part of pitch circle of rack which is a straight line.
9. Ratio of circumference of pitch circle to number of teeth is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
10. Distance measured along the circumference of pitch circle from a point on tooth to the
corresponding point on adjacent tooth is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
11. Number of teeth divided by length of pitch circle diameter is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Diametral pitch is the number of teeth divided by length of pitch circle diameter.
12. Ratio of pitch diameter in mm to the number of teeth is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Module is the ratio of pitch diameter in mm to the number of teeth.
13. Module of two mating gears must be
a) Same
b) Different
c) Small
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Module of two mating gear must be same.
14. Ratio of number of teeth on gear to the number of teeth on pinion is known as
a) Circular pitch
b) Diametral pitch
c) Module
d) Gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gear ratio is the ratio of number of teeth on gear to the number of teeth on
pinion.
15. Ratio of angular velocity of the follower to the angular velocity of driving gear is known as
a) Gear ratio
b) Module
c) Velocity ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio is the ratio of angular velocity of the follower to the angular
velocity of driving gear
1. Circle passing through the top of the tips of teeth is known as
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Circle passing through the top of the tips of teeth is known as addendum circle.
2. Height of tooth above pitch circle is known as
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Addendum is the height of tooth above pitch circle.
3. Addendum of gear is generally taken equal to
a) 1 module
b) 2 module
c) 1.157 module
d) 0.157 module
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Addendum of gear is generally taken equal to 1 module.
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circle passing through the root of teeth is known as dedendum circle.
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Root circle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circle passing through the root of teeth is known as root circle.
6. Radial depth of tooth below pitch circle is known as
a) Addendum circle
b) Addendum
c) Dedendum
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dedendum is the radial depth of tooth below pitch circle.
7. Standard value of dedendum is generally taken as
a) 1 module
b) 2 module
c) 1.157 module
d) 0.157 module
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dedendum of gear is generally taken equal to 1.157 modules.
8. Radial difference between addendum and dedendum of tooth is known as
a) Clearance
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Clearance is the radial difference between addendum and dedendum of tooth.
9. Standard value of clearance is generally taken as
a) 1 module
b) 2 module
c) 1.157 module
d) 0.157 module
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Clearance of gear is generally taken equal to 0.157 modules.
10. Total radial depth of tooth space is known as
a) Clearance
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total radial depth of tooth space is known as full depth of teeth.
11. Maximum depth to which tooth can penetrate into the tooth space of mating gear is
known as
a) Clearance
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum depth to which tooth can penetrate into the tooth space of mating
gear is known as working depth of teeth.
12. Width of tooth space along the pitch circle is known as
a) Clearance
d) Space width
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Space width is the width of tooth space along the pitch circle.
13. Full depth of teeth is equal to
a) Addendum * dedendum
b) Addendum / dedendum
c) Addendum – dedendum
d) Addendum + dedendum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Full depth is the sum of addendum and dedendum.
14. Working depth of two mating gear is numerically equal to
a) Sum of addendum of two gears
b) Difference of addendum of two gears
c) Difference of dedendum of two gears
d) Sum of dedendum of two gears
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Working depth of two mating gear is numerically equal to sum of the addendum
of two gears.
15. For a given pair of mating gear, arc of contact is 6mm and a circular pitch is 4 mm.
a) 3.20
b) 1.50
c) 4.75
d) 6.32
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Contact ratio = arc of contact/circular pitch.

is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C

Instructions:
Unit
No.

1 1 1 1 1
(B) Computer Aided Design (CAD)



coordinate system?

form is
1 1 5 (A) P’=P+T 1 1
(B) P’=S*P
(C) P’=P*R
(D) P’=R+S
Statement-
1 2 1 1
1 2 6 1 1
(A) 00
1 2 7 (B) -450 1 1
(C) 450
(D) 600
(A) (5,9,1)
1 2 8 (B) (8,4,1) 1 1
(C) (2,3,1)
(A) (12,2,1)
1 2 9 (B) (14,4,1) 1 1
(C) (12,4,1)
(D) (30,2,1)
(A) 12,1,1
(B) 4,2,1
3 2 10 1 1
(C) 6,5,1
(D) 2,3,1

(A) Elements
3 1 11 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
(A) Elements
3 1 12 1 3
(B) Nodes
(C) Discretization
(D) Structure
reference for the
(A) Entire body
3 1 13 1 3
(C) Bothe A & B
(A) Shape function
coordinate
(C) Discretization
3 1 3

assembly is
(A) 2
3 2 15 1 3
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(A) 100 mm
3 2 16 (B) 200mm 1 3
(C) 250mm
(D) 400mm
(A) 400mm
3 2 17 (B) 500mm 1 3
(C) 600mm
(D) 700mm
(A) 200mm
3 2 18 (B) 250mm 1 3
(C) 300mm
(D) 400mm
(A) 150 mm
3 2 19 (B) 300mm 1 3
(C) 400mm
(D) 500mm
(A) -6000 N
3 2 20 (B) 6000 N 1 3
(C) 4000 N
(D) -4000 N
layers
(A) Time
(B) Material
5 1 22 1 5
(C) Sound
(D) Light
definition?
(A) layer by layer
(D) Production line

5 1 24 1 5

(A) .prt
5 1 25 (B) .slt 1 5
(C) .stl
(D) .iges
5 1 26 1 5
time
prototyping?
prototyping
5 1 28 1 5


form?

(CAE)
(CAM) (A) GKS
(C) UNIX
memory known as
picture (B) depth
(C) printer
(C) data glove
(C) y = x.x + m
(A) CPU
(D) keyboard (A) 8
(B) 16
of color display.

___________. (B) P’=R*P
(C) rotation
(B) Isometric
(A) P’=P+T
(A) 8 (D) P’=R+S
(B) 6
(D) 16 sx and sy < 1, then ___________ .
(B) P’=P-T
then ___________ .
___________ . 33. Scaling can be
(A) 8 (B) divided
(D) 6
(B) Scaling
(A) Rotation
(A) 45 (D) Skewing
(B) 90
(A) translation
___________ . (C) mirror
(B) sorting
multiply?
(B) transformations
(D) -1/d
(D) 8

____________ results. __________.
be performed first?
(A) Translation
(B) Scaling

(A) Scaling
(B) Mirror
(C) Translation
(D) Rotation
MCQs of CAD/CAM
1. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5. 10) is to be obtained about a line
GATE 2013
(A) (7.5.5)
(B) (10.5)
(C) (7.5.-5)
(D) (10.-5)
Ans: B
2. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 240..., GO2 AND G91 refer to
GATE 2012
Ans: C
3. For generating Coons patch we requi
GATE 2007
Ans: C (C) Four bounding curves defining surface

GATE 2006
Ans: A
5. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5.5) to (10, 10) while
performing an operation. The center of the arc is at (10.5). Which one of the following NC tool
GATE 2005
(a) N010 G02 X10 Y10 XSYS R5
(b) N010 G03 X10 Y 10 X5 Y5 RS
(c) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
(d) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Ans: D
GATE 2004
(d) Rapid feed
Ans: A
7. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5. specified from PI (15,10) to
P2 ( 10.15 ) will have its center at
GATE 2004
(a) (10. 10)
(b) (15. 10)
(c) (15. 15)
(d) (10, 15)
Ans: A
8. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5,4) to point (7.2)
along a circular path with center at (5,2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5,4). The
GATE 2001
(a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
(b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
(c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
(d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 15.0 J2.0
Ans: B
GATE 2000
Ans: D
10 mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0,0). (0,30),
(50, 30) and (50,0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
GATE 2000
(a) (-5.0). (-5, 35). (55.35). (55,-5).(-5.-5)
(b) (0-5).(55,-5). (55, 35). (-5. 35).(-5.-5)
(c) (5, 5), (5,25), (45, 25), (45.5). (5.5)
(d) (5.5). (45.5). (45.25). (5.25). (5.5)
Ans: A
GATE 1993
Ans: C
GATE 1992
Ans: B
(a) True
(b)False
(c)Don't know
(d)Can't tell
Ans: A
(a) CPU
(b) ALU
(C) Monitor
(d) Keyboard
Ans: A
Ans: D
16. Keyboard is a input device.
Ans: D
17. Locating devices are classified as:
Ans: B
18. Mouse is a ___type of input device.
Ans: C
19. Light pen is a:
Ans: B
Ans: C
Ans: B
22. The screen is scanned from left to right top to bottom all the time to generate graphics
by:
Ans: A
23. Color raster display uses three electron guns, namely:
Ans: A
24. The software that is used for file manipulations. managing directories and subdirectories.
(C) Application software (d) Programming language
Ans: C
known as:
Ans: C
of plastic injection molding. And animation techniques, is:
Ans: C
Ans: A
(a) GKS (b) IGBS
(c) UNIX (d) PHIGS
Ans: C
modelling?
Ans: B
30. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques, Which do not require much
c) Wireframe modelling (d) All of the above
Ans: C
31. In the following geometric modelling techniques, which cannot be used for finite element
analysis:
Ans: D
32. In the following geometric primitives, which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling:
(a) Box (b) Cone
(c) Cylinder (d) Circle
Ans: D
(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 12 (d) 16
Ans: C
34. Which of the following is not an analytical entity!
Ans: C
(a) Hyperbola (b) Bezier curve
(c) B-spline curve (d) Cubic spline curve
Ans: A
Ans:D
(a) 2 (b) 1
(e) 3 (d) 4
Ans: B
(a) 2" order (b) 3" order
(c) 1" order (d) 4" order
Ans: C
(a) Control points (b) Knots
(c) End points (d) All the above
Ans: A
Ans: B
(a)n + 1 (b) n – I
(C) n(d) 2n
Ans: A
Ans: A
43. C"continuity refers to:
Ans: A
44. C continuity refers to:
Ans: C
45. continuity refers to:
Ans: B
46. The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are:
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 5
Ans: B
47. convex hull property is satisfied by the following surface:
Ans: B
(a) Adding (b) Subtraction
(c) Multiplying (d) Dividing
Ans: C
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: C
(a) Linear (b) Quadratic
(c) Constant (d) None of the above
Ans: A
(a) Zero (b) Infinity
(c) Unity (d) None of the above
Ans: c unity
52. Stiffness is to the length of the element.
Ans: D
(a) NC (b) CNC
(c) DNC (d) ACS
Ans: C
54. The first commercial CNC machine was developed in the year:
(a) 1970 (b) 1972
(c) 1976 (d) 1980
Ans: a 1970
Ans: A
(c) Deflection of machine tool members (d) All the above
Ans: A
57. The axes of turning machine are:
Ans: A
Ans: B
59. Dwell is defined by:
(a) G04 (b) G03
(c) G02 (d) G01
Ans: A
60. M30 stands for:
(c) End of tape and tape rewind (d) Coolant on/off
Ans: a
(a) MPS (b) BOM
(c) Inventory file (d) All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: B
Submitted by
Abhay S. Gore

This set of Manufacturing Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Computer Aided Manufacturing”.

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
a) decision process
b) analysis process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decision process is the cognitive process resulting in the selection of a belief
or a course of action among several alternative possibilities while implementation process is
b) CAD and CAM
View Answer
Answer: b
a) software package
b) operating system
View Answer
Answer: a
b) storage devices
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
a) CPU
b) Storage device
c) ALU
d) Monitor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None
b) graphic device
View Answer
Answer: b
a) track ball
b) mouse
c) joystick
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None
a) impact printers
b) plotters
c) CRT terminals
View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: a
functions.
View Answer
Answer: b
functions.
View Answer
Answer: c
functions.
View Answer
Answer: d
functions.
a) Windows
b) UNIX
c) VAX/VMS
d) IDEAS
View Answer
Answer: d
a) points
b) lines
c) circles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None
Which of the following storage devices allows access to information in a
sequential mode?
CD-R
DVD
Hard disk
Magnetic tape
Answer
(D)
The use of specialized workstations ____________.
provides limited growth potentials for 3-D
reduces the host computer workload and allows more users
reduces the host computer workload
has a high cost-performance tradeoff
Answer
(B)
Which one is best suited for use with the paper of large size and for complex
drawings in Computer-Aided Design?
Dot-Matrix printer
Laser printer
Pen plotter
Ink-Jet printer
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is not an output device?
Monitor
Touchscreen
Printer
Plotter
Answer
(B)
Which of the following printers are known to press characters or dots against an
inked ribbon onto a paper by means of a mechanical head of retracting pins?
Dot-matrix
Ink-Jet
Laser
Thermal
Answer
(A)
Which of the following types of mouse is a battery-powered device that transmits
data using wireless technology such as radio waves or infrared light waves?
Mechanical Mouse
Optical Mouse
Cordless Mouse
Trackball
Answer
(B)
A system that automates the drafting process with interactive computer graphics is
called
Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
Computer Aided Design (CAD)
Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
Computer Aided Instruction (CAI)
Answer
(B)
A Pixel is
a computer program that draws picture
a picture stored in secondary memory
the smallest resolvable part of a picture
None of these
Answer
(C)

User Coordinate State
Using Cordinates Screen
User Coordinate Set
Answer
(C)
Which coordinate system is a device-dependent coordinate system?
Model Coordinate System
Answer
(D)
In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is defined by
two end points only
center and radius
radius and one end point
two end points and center
Answer
(D)
The heart of a computer is
CPU
ALU
monitor
keyboard
Answer
(A)
Keyboard is a ___________ input device
graphical
text
numerical
All of the above
Answer
(B)
Locating devices are classified as
text input devices
graphical input devices
Both A and B
None of the above
Answer
(B)
Mouse is a ___________ type of input device.
graphical
text
locating
All of the above
Answer
(C)
Digitizer is constructed on basis of
magnetic tablet mechanism
acoustic tablet mechanism
optical tablet mechanism
Both A and B
Answer(C)
The screen is scanned from left to right, top to bottom all the time to generate
graphics by
raster scan
random scan
vector scan
stoke writing
Answer
(A)
____________bits/pixel are needed to produce satisfactory continuous shades of
color display.
8
16
24
32
Answer
(C)
Color raster display uses three electron guns, namely:

Red, green and blue
Red, green and yellow
White, blue and black
Red, black and white
Answer
(A)
Typical resolution of dot matrix printer is ____________.
50 dpi
65 dpi
75 dpi
100 dpi
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is not a programming language?
Java
Pascal
Basic
Netscape
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is not a graphics standard?
GKS
IGBS
UNIX
PHIGS
Answer
(C)
Which algorithm gives floating point value of coordinates, when solving equation
of line?
Digital Differential Algorithm
Digital Differential Analyser
Digital Differentiable Algorithm
Digital Differentiable Analyser
Answer
(B)
DVST stands for
Digital View Storing Table
Direct Visual Storage Tube
Direct View Storage Tube
Digital View Storage Tube
Answer
(C)
The number of pixels stored in the frame buffer of a graphics system is known as
resolution
depth
vertex
All of the above
Answer
(A)
In a graphical system, the array of pixels in the picture are stored in
memory
frame buffer
processor
none of the above
Answer
(A)
The devices which convert the electrical energy into light is called
liquid-crystal displays
non-emitters
plasma panels
emitters
Answer
(D)
The process of digitizing a given picture definition into a set of pixel-intensity for
storage in the frame buffer is called
rasterization
encoding
scan conversion
true color system
Answer
(C)
The primary output device in a graphics system is

scanner
monitor
printer
All of the above
Answer
(B)
mouse
joystick
data glove
keyboard
Answer
(A)
mouse
joystick
data glove
keyboard
Answer
(A)
_________ allows screen positions to be selected with the touch of a finger.
Touch panels
Image scanner
Light pen
Mouse
Answer
(A)
Which of the following device is not the input device?
Trackball
Data glove
Printer
Mouse
Answer
(C)
The Cartesian slope-intercept equation for a straight line is
y = m.x + b
y = b.x + m
y = x.x + m
y = b + m.m
Answer
(A)
On the raster system, lines are plotted with
lines
dots
pixels
None of the above
Answer
(C)
Which algorithm is a faster method for calculating pixel positions?
Bresenham’s line algorithm
Parallel line algorithm
Mid-point algorithm
DDA line algorithm
Answer
(D)
The operation of CRT is based on concept of energizing an electron beam that
strikes the_____coating
ceramic
phosphor
bronze
None of the above
Answer
(B)
For color displays, how many bits/pixel would be needed?
8
16
24
32
Answer
(C)
Expansion of LED is
Light Energy Diode
Light Energy Die
Light Emitting Diode
Light Emitting Die
Answer
(C)
Expansion of LCD is
Light Crystal Display
Liquid Crystal Display
Light Cartesian Display
Liquid Cartesian Display
Answer
(B)
Typical resolution of laser printer is ____________.

200 dpi
300 dpi
75 dpi
100 dpi
Answer
(B)
Which language has the capacity to operate with high-level graphics and
animation?
C
C++
BASIC
JAVA
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is the default coordinate system?
None of the above
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is a two-dimensional Cartesian coordinate system?

None of the above
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is a device-dependent coordinate system?
None of the above
Answer
(C)
IGES version 1.0 was released in which year?
1975
1980
1985
1989
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is an optional section of IGES format?
Start section
Global section
Terminate section
Flag section
Answer
(D)
PDES stands for
Product Data Exchange Step
Product Data Exchange Specification
Parameter Data Exchange Step
Parameter Data Exchange Specification
Answer
(B)
The memory requirement for the 24-bit true color system for the 1024 x 1024 pixel
resolutions is ___________.
1 MB
2 MB
3 MB
4 MB
Answer
(C)
A raster system has a resolution of 1024 × 1024 and a refresh rate of 60 Hz, then
the time required to display a pixel _____ nanoseconds.
1.589
15.89
158.9
1589
Answer
(B)
A raster system has a resolution of 1280 × 1024 having a 24-bit true-color system.
The size of frame buffer will be ___________ MB.
3
3.25
3.5
3.75
Answer
(D)
Flood guns bombard the phosphor surface of the tube in which one of the
following types of CRT technology?
Direct view storage tube
Raster scan
Refresh-vector
Stroke
Answer
(A)
In the flat-bed plotter, the __________ is stationary.
paper
pen holding mechanism
crossbar
all of the above
Answer
(A)
In a Laser printer, a semiconductor laser beam scans the ________ charged drum.
electro magnetically
electro statically
either electro magnetically or electro statically
neither electro magnetically nor electro statically
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?
(A) Hyperbola
(B) Bezier curve
(C) B-spline curve
(D) Cubic spline curve
Answer
(A)
The curve is defined as the locus of a point moving with ____ degree of freedom.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer
(B)
Which one of the following does not belong to the family of conics?
(A) Hyperbola
(B) Parabola
(C) Ellipse
(D) Line
Answer
(D)
The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by _______ .
(A) control points
(B) knots
(C) end points
(D) all the above
Answer
(A)
Which of the following is not a method to describe a curve mathematically?
(A) Explicit form
(B) Laplace form
(C) Implicit form
(D) Parametric form
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is not an analytical entity?
(A) Spline
(B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola
(D) Ellipse
Answer
(A)
When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as
(A) approximation curve
(B) pitch curve
(C) data curve
(D) interpolant curve
Answer
(D)
When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve is
known as
(A) interpolant curve
(B) approximation curve
(C) pitch curve
(D) data curve
Answer
(B)
Synthetic curve pass through defined data points and thus can be represented by
(A) polynomial equations
(B) exponential equations
(D) differential equations
Answer
(A)
The slope of line segment is represented by
(A) dy/dx
(B) dx/dy
(C) x/y
(D) y/x
Answer
(A)
A circle is represented in the CAD/CAM database by storing the values of its
(A) angle and center
(B) diameter
(C) radius
(D) center and radius
Answer
(D)
Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such that
equal to
(A) the major diameter
(B) the minor diameter
(C) semi major diameter
(D) semi-minor diameter
Answer
(A)
The parabola is defined mathematically as a curve generated by a point that moves
such that its distance from the focus is always__________the distance to the directrix.
(A) larger than
(B) smaller than
(C) equal to
Answer
(C)
In synthetic curves, zero-order continuity yields
Answer
(A)
In synthetic curves, first-order continuity yields
Answer
(B)
In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields
Answer
(C)
The B-spline curve has a
(A) first-order continuity
(B) second-order continuity
(C) zero-order continuity
Answer
(B)
To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two tangent
(A) B-spline curve
(B) Hermite Cubic Spline Curve
(C) Beizer curve
Answer
(B)
The Bezier curve is smoother than the Hermite cubic spline because it has _________
order derivatives.
(A) lower
(B) higher
(C) lower and higher both
Answer
(B)
In the bezier curve, the curve is always________to first and last segments of the
polygon.
(A) normal
(B) parallel
(C) tangent
Answer
(C)
_______curves allow local control of the curve.
(A) Analytical
(B) Hermite cubic spline
(C) Beizer
(D) B-Spline
Answer
(D)
From the following, which is a type of surface entity type?
(A) Plane Surface
(B) Ruled Surface
Answer
(D)
From the following, which is an axisymmetric surface?
(A) Plane Surface
(B) Ruled Surface
Answer
(C)
The unit vector in the direction of the line is defined as _______.
(A) tangent vector+length of the line
(B) tangent vector-length of the line
(C) tangent vector/length of the line
(D) length of the line/tangent vector
Answer
(C)
In Beizer Curve, the curve follows ____________.
(A) the control points
(B) the shape of the defining polygon
(C) the defining points
Answer
(B)
In Beizer Curve, _____________ of polygon actually lie on the curve.
(A) only the first control point
(B) only the last control point
(C) only the first and last control points
(D) all the control points
Answer
(C)
In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with _______ of the
polygon.
(A) decrease in the number of vertices
(B) increase in the number of vertices
(C) decrease in control points
Answer
(B)
The number of control points can be added or subtracted in _____________.
(A) Bezier curve
(B) B-spline curve
(C) Cubic spline curve
Answer
(B)
The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in _______.
(A) Hermite cubic spline curve
(B) Bezier curve
(C) B-spline curve
(D) Hyperbola
Answer
(C)
In modeling of a tabulated cylinder, the plane of the curve is _______.
(A) along the curve
(B) normal to the curve
(C) along the axis of the cylinder
(D) perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder
Answer
(D)
The ___________ is used to create a surface using curves that form closed
boundaries.
(A) ruled Surface
(B) plane Surface
(C) coons patch
(D) surface of Revolution
Answer
(C)
In the following geometric modeling techniques which is not a three dimensional
modeling?
(B) Drafting
(D) Solid modeling
Answer
(B)
In the following three-dimensional modeling techniques, which do not require much
(B) Solid modeling
Answer
(A)
B-rep and C-Rep are the methods of ___________ .
(A) solid modeling
(B) surface modeling
(C) wireframe modeling
(D) 2D modeling
Answer
(A)
From the following, which modeler defines model without mass properties?
(A) Wireframe
(B) Primitive
(C) B-rep
(D) CSG
Answer
(A)
The model which is created by using basic entities of two dimensioning is called
___________ .
(A) surface model
(B) wireframe model
(C) solid model
(D) isometric model
Answer
(B)
What is the basic part of the surface model on which the surface is to be drawn?
(A) Ruled
(B) Ruler
(C) Size
(D) Mesh
Answer
(D)
A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape using the ________ tool.
(A) revolve
(B) sweep
(C) extrude
Answer
(A)
The time required to retrieve, edit or update is less for __________ .
(A) wireframe modeling
(B) solid modeling
(C) surface modeling
(D) can't say
Answer
(A)
__________can also serve as a means of geometric input for finite element analysis.
(A) Surface model
(B) Solid model
(C) Wireframe model
(D) 2D drafting
Answer
(B)
Which kind of model can store information about geometry and topology both?
(A) Solid model
(B) Surface model
(C) Wireframe model
Answer
(A)
Which one is the most ambiguous model from the following?
(A) Surface model
(B) Solid model
(C) Wireframe model
Answer
(C)
Which solid modeling technique is used to define numerous families of objects with a
limited set of parameter values?
(A) Generalized Sweeps
(C) Cellular Decomposition
(D) Pure Primitive Instancing
Answer
(D)
Under which technique, 3D objects are divided up into cubical cells at a particular
resolution?
(A) Pure Primitive Instancing
(B) Generalized Sweeps
(C) Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
Answer
(C)
From the following, which method is also called as the Building Block Approach?
(A) Cellular Decomposition
(C) Generalized Sweeps
(D) Constructive Solid Geometry
Answer
(D)
Structuring and combining the primitives of the solid model in the graphics database,
is achieved by the use of ____________.
(A) FEA
(B) transformations
(C) boolean operations
Answer
(C)
It is easy to construct a precise solid model out of regular solid primitives by_____.
(A) adding the components
(B) subtracting the components
(C) intersecting the components
Answer
(D)
The data representation of CSG objects is represented by_________.
(A) a binary tree
(B) a boolean operation
(C) a primitive
Answer
(A)
____________ is an extension of the wireframe model with additional face
information added.
(A) CSG
(B) B-rep
(C) Loft
Answer
(B)
For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a preferred
technique?
(A) Constructive Solid Geometry
(B) Pure Primitive Instancing
(C) Boundary Representation
(D) Spatial Occupancy Enumeration
Answer
(C)
Which of the following uses a number of two-dimensional profiles for generating a
(A) Tweaking
(B) Lofting
(C) Filleting
Answer
(B)
The ability available to the user to modify or move a vertex or a face and to see the
effect of that on the model is referred to as _______.
(A) filleting
(B) chamfering
(C) lofting
(D) tweaking
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is a file extension used for a 3D model?
(A) .dxf
(B) .dwg
(C) .prt
(D) .asm
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is a file extension used for an assembly file in solid model?
(A) .dxf
(B) .dwg
(C) .prt
(D) .asm
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is a file extension used for an AutoCAD file?
(A) .dwg
(B) .stl
(C) .prt
(D) .asm
Answer
(A)
________ command gives an array of object in 3D modeling.
(A) Extrude
(B) Revolve
(C) Pattern
Answer
(C)
To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient?
(A) Extrude
(B) Sweep
(C) Shell
(D) Revolve
Answer
(C)
When every entity of a geometric model remains parallel to its initial position, the
transformation is called as ___________ .
(A) scaling
(B) translation
(C) rotation
(D) mirror
Answer
(B)
In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects and therefore
(A) Orthographic
(B) Isometric
(C) Perspective
Answer
(C)
The number of line required to represent a cube in a wire frame model is
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 16
Answer
(C)
The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is
(A) P’=P+T
(B) P’=P-T
(C) P’=P*T
(D) P’=p
Answer
(A)
The basic geometric transformation is ___________ .
(A) translation
(B) rotation
(C) scaling
Answer
(D)
Positive values for the rotation angle ϴ defines ___________ .
(A) counterclockwise rotations about the end points
(B) counterclockwise translation about the pivot point
(C) counterclockwise rotations about the pivot point
Answer
(C)
The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is
(A) P’=P+T
(B) P’=R*P
(C) P’=P*P
(D) P’=R+P
Answer
(B)
The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is ___________ .
(A) scaling
(B) rotation
(C) translation
(D) reflection
Answer
(A)
The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is
(A) P’=P+T
(B) P’=S*P
(C) P’=P*R
(D) P’=R+S
Answer
(B)
If the values of the scaling factors sx and sy < 1, then ___________ .
(B) it increases the size of the object
Answer
(A)
If the values of the scaling factors sx and sy are assigned to the same value, then
___________ .
(C) scaling cannot be done
Answer
(B)
If the values of the scaling factors sx and sy are assigned to unequal values, then
___________ .
(C) non-uniform scaling is produced
(D) scaling cannot be done
Answer
(C)
If the value of sx=1 and sy=1, then ___________ .
(A) reduce the size of the object
(B) distort the picture
(C) produce an enlargement
(D) no change in the size of an object
Answer
(D)
Reflection about the line y=0, the axis, is accomplished with the transformation matrix
with how many elements as ‘0’?
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer
(D)
Which transformation distorts the shape of an object such that the transformed shape
appears as if the object were composed of internal layers that had been caused to slide
over each other?
(A) Rotation
(B) Scaling
(C) Shearing
(D) Reflection
Answer
(C)
In a reflection, by how much angle is the object rotated?
(A) 45
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) 360
Answer
(C)
Shearing is also termed as ___________ .
(A) selecting
(B) sorting
(C) scaling
(D) skewing
Answer
(D)
________can be defined as the creation, storage and manipulation of pictures and
drawings by means of a computer.
(A) Computer graphics
(B) FEA
(C) Raster scan
Answer
(A)
The memory of the computer is a collection of bits and a bit can take any value
in_____
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) either 0 or 1
(D) neither 0 nor 1
Answer
(C)
All changes performed on the graphic image are done by changing the database of the
original picture. These changes are called as________.
(A) boolean operations
(B) transformations
(C) scanning
Answer
(B)
Scaling can be
(A) uniform
(B) non-uniform
(C) both uniform and non-uniform
Answer
(C)
To achieve scaling, the original coordinates would be _________ by scaling factor.
(A) multiplied
(B) divided
(C) substracted
Answer
(A)
Reflection is the process of obtaining a _______ image of the original shape.
(A) smaller
(B) larger
(C) slant
(D) mirror
Answer
(D)
______________ allows the user to view the objects from different angles.
(A) Rotation
(B) Translation
(C) Reflection
(D) Skewing
Answer
(A)
Circular arrays can be obtained with the help of ____________ transformation.
(A) translation
(B) skewing
(C) mirror
(D) rotation
Answer
(D)
From the following, which one will require maximum numbers of matrices to
multiply?
Answer
(C)
position?
Answer
(B)
position?
(C) Scaling about the origin
(D) Rotation about an arbitrary line
Answer
(D)
To obtain the projection of an entity, projectors are constructed by connecting
___________ with each point of the entity.
(A) projection plane
(B) viewing plane
(C) the center of projection
Answer
(C)
Parallel projection have the center of projection at_________.
(A) many points
(B) only one point
(C) infinity
Answer
(C)
If the center of projection is at a finite distance from the plane, ____________ results.
(A) perspective projection
(B) parallel projection
(C) orthographic projection
Answer
(A)
___________ does not preserve parallelism.
(A) Parallel projection
(B) Perspective projection
(C) Orthographic projection
Answer
(B)
In perspective projection, the size of an entity is _______ proportional to its distance
from the center of projection.
(A) inversely
(B) directly
(C) either inversely or directly
(D) neither inversely nor directly
Answer
(A)
In order to define perspective projection, ______________ is required.
(A) a center of projection
(B) a projection plane
(C) a center of projection and a projection plane
Answer
(C)
The transformation of perspective projection must include__________, where d is the

distance between the center of projection to the projection plane.
(A) d
(B) 1/d
(C) -d
(D) -1/d
Answer
(D)
How many total numbers of projecting planes are required for the complete
description of the orthographic projection system?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer
(C)
A world-coordinate area selected for display is called a _________.
(A) window
(B) monitor
(C) screen
Answer
(A)
An area on a display device to which a window is mapped is called a __________.
(A) window
(B) viewport
(C) pixel
Answer
(B)
Generally, windows and viewports are _______ in the standard position.
(A) rectangles
(B) circles
(C) polygons
Answer
(A)
A rectangle is to be rotated by 30° clockwise about an arbitrary point. From the
following, which transformation will be performed first?
(A) Translation
(B) Scaling
Answer
(A)
A triangle is to be reflected about an arbitrary line. From the following, which
(A) Scaling
(B) Mirror
(C) Translation
(D) Rotation
Answer
(C)
From the following, which type of element is not two dimensional?
(A) Rectangle
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Parallelogram
(D) Tetrahedron
Answer
(D)
From the following, which type of element is not three dimensional?
(A) Hexahedron
(B) Quadrilateral
(C) Rectangular prism
(D) Tetrahedron
Answer
(B)
For truss analysis, which type of elements are used?

(A) Triangle
(B) Bar
(C) Rectangle
(D) Parallelogram
Answer
(B)
To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts
that are called
(A) finite elements
(B) infinite elements
(C) dynamic elements
(D) static elements
Answer
(A)
The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is
known as ___________ .
(A) assemblage
(B) continuum
(C) traction
(D) discretization
Answer
(D)
The sum of the shape function is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer
(C)
A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer
(D)
Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on ___________ .
(D) nodes
Answer
(C)
On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by
(A) KQ=F
(B) KQ≠F
(C) K=QF
(D) K≠QF
Answer
(A)
The finite element method is mostly used in the field of
Answer
(D)
At fixed support, the displacements are equal to
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Answer
(D)
In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________ .
(A) particles
(B) molecules
(C) elements
(D) none
Answer
(C)
The numbers of node for 1 D element are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Answer
(B)
Finite element analysis deals with ___________ .
Answer
(A)
Stiffness matrix depends on
(A) material
(B) geometry
Answer
(C)
Example of 2-D Element is ___________ .
(A) bar
(B) triangle
(C) hexahedron
(D) tetrahedron
Answer
(B)
For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix
(A) 2*2
(B) 3*3
(C) 4*4
(D) 6*6
Answer
(B)
To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used.
(A) shape function
(B) node function
Answer
(A)
The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called
(B) traction
(C) friction
(D) surfacing
Answer
(A)
The truss element can resist only
(A) axial force
(B) surface force
(C) point load
Answer
(A)
Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________ .
(B) brick element
(C) truss element
Answer
(C)
The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
Answer
(D)
How many nodes are there in a 3-D brick element?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer
(C)
From below, choose the correct condition for the axisymmetric element.
(A) Symmetric about axis
(B) Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis
(C) Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis
(D) All the above
Answer
(D)
Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element
(A) 1D
(B) 2D
(C) 3D
(D) 4D
Answer
(B)
______ is/are the phase/s of finite element method.
(A) Preprocessing
(B) Solution
(C) Post Processing
(D) A, B & C
Answer
(C)
The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in
space is _______.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer
(A)
The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.
(A) thermal
(C) vibration
Answer
(D)
If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we need to subdivide
the structure into substructures. These substructures are termed as _____.
(A) elements
(B) modules
(C) links
(D) models
Answer
(B)
Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?
Answer
(D)
_____________ is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to the
smallest dimension.
(A) Element depth ratio
(B) Mode shape ratio
(C) Aspect ratio
Answer
(C)
______ are used to express the geometry or shape of the element.
(A) Mode shapes
(B) Shape functions
(C) Natural curves
Answer
(B)
When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called
________.
(A) plane stress
(B) plane strain
(C) zero stress
(D) zero strain
Answer
(A)
The characteristic of the shape function is _______.
(A) the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at the other nodes
(B) the sum of the shape function is equal to one
(C) both a & b
Answer
(C)
The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as
______.
(A) local coordinates system
(B) natural coordinates system
(C) global coordinate system
Answer
(C)
The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are
______.
(A) stretching of plates
(B) gravity of dams
(C) axisymmetric shells
Answer
(C)
If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement is
considered in ______ .
(A) inverse matrix method
(B) weighted residual method
(C) Galerkin‟s principle
(D) the minimum potential energy principle
Answer
(D)
Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?
(A) K is a banded matrix
(B) K is un-symmetric
(C) K is an un-banded matrix
Answer
(A)
The actual thickness of plane strain element is ______.
(A) very large
(B) very small
(C) assumed by software
Answer
(A)
Which of the following is not an FEA package?
(A) ANSYS
(B) Nastran
(C) Abaqus
(D) AutoCAD
Answer
(D)
Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?
(A) Static analysis
(B) Thermal analysis
(C) Modal analysis
Answer
(C)
For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________.
(A) stress
(B) strain
(C) displacement
(D) temperature
Answer
(D)
In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find _______.
(A) stress distribution
(B) heat flux distribution
(C) pressure distribution
Answer
(C)
Crack propagation problems come under _______ category.
(A) steady-state problems
(B) eigenvalue problems
(C) transient problems
Answer
(C)
In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having _________
stiffness.
(A) zero
(B) very small
(C) very large
(D) infinite
Answer
(D)
How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer
(B)
How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer
(C)
How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron with curved sides element?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Answer
(C)
If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be ______
accurate.
(A) more
(B) less
(D) can't say
Answer
(A)
In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______ computation time
(A) less
(B) more
(D) can't say
Answer
(B)
Elements with an aspect ratio of near to ______ generally yield best results in FEA.
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer
(C)
In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation ______.
(A) R=KQ+F
(B) R=KQ-F
(C) R=K+QF
(D) R=K-QF
Answer
(B)
The total potential energy of an elastic body is defined as _______.
(A) Strain energy - Work potential
(B) Strain energy + Work potential
(C) Strain energy + Kinetic energy - Work potential
(D) Strain energy + Kinetic energy + Work potential
Answer
(B)
The strain energy per unit volume is equal to _________.
(A) (1/2) * Force * Deflection
(B) (1/4) * Force * Deflection
(C) (1/2) * Stress * Deflection
(D) (1/4) * Stress * Deflection
Answer
(A)
As per the penalty approach, the equation of reaction force is _____.
(A) R = -CQ
(B) R = CQ
(C) R = -C (Q-a)
(D) R = -C (Q+a)
Answer
(C)
In the penalty approach, the magnitude of the stiffness constant should be at least
_______ times more than the maximum value in the global stiffness matrix.
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 10000
Answer
(D)
The equation for thermal stress in each element is ________.
(A) σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
(B) σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
(C) σ = E (B + α Δt)
(D) σ = E (B - α Δt)
Answer
(B)
In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in ________
phase.
(A) preprocessing
(B) solution
(C) postprocessing
Answer
(C)
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1. A program language:
A. defines the form of the instruction
B. is always machine dependent
C. is never machine dependent
D. All of the above

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2. Which of the following symbol modes are used to input of graphics to General CAD system?
A. Live and Rectangle mode
B. Arc and Circle mode
C. Dimension and Alphanumeric mode
D. All of the above
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3. Which technique enables the designer to mold and shape, rather than construct on object using a series of lines?
A. Solid modeling
B. Wire-frame modeling
C. Surface modeling
D. FEM (Finite Element Modeling)
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C. are very flexible
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5. Flood guns bombard the phosphor surface of the tube in which one of the following types of CRT technology?
B. Raster scan CRT
C. Refresh-vector CRT
D. Stroke CRT
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6. Automation normally means:
A. a net loss of jobs.
B. a net increase in jobs.
C. no change in jobs.
D. All of the above
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7. Trend analysis:
A. is used only in financial planning
B. can improve control system response
C. requires a very expensive system to implement
D. is a brand new concept
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8. The use of specialized workstations:
A. provides limited growth potentials for 3-D
B. reduces the host computer workload and allows more users
C. reduces the host computer workload
D. has a high cost-performance tradeoff
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A. Mouse
B. Graphics workstation
C. Digitizer
D. Plotter
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10. Which of these controller types is the most accurate?
A. Proportional plus integral
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus derivative
D. Three mode
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11. Flat panel displays are based on what type of technology?

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B. Very large-scale integration (VLSI)
C. Solid state
D. RGB monitor
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12. Which of the following is a graphical input device?
A. light pen
B. keyboard
C. mouse
D. Track ball
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13. Today, programmable controllers:
A. are more powerful then the first controllers on the market
B. are relatively low cost compared with the original digital equipment available for industrial control
C. can be cost effective even when replacing just a few relays
D. All of the above
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14. Productivity is defined as:
A. number of items manufactured per day
B. output per man-hour of labour
C. cost per day
D. cost per unit
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15. The main function(s) of computer in CAD is/are
A. To serve as an extension to the memory of the designer
B. To enhance the analytical and logical power of the designer


C. To relieve the designer from routine repetitious tasks.
D. All of the above

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the parent company of the Toyota Automobile Group. When did this robot go into operation?
A. Jun-65 
B. Nov-66
C. Dec-67 Ad Universal Robots Remote Access

D. Apr-70
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17. What is the difference between integral and derivative control?
A. derivative control does not eliminate offset error
B. integral control has slower response to an error signal.
C. derivative control responds to a change in the rate of change in the error signal
D. All of the above
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18. The program counter:
A. decides which program to run
B. counts the number of instructions that have been executed
C. contains the address of the next instruction to be executed 
D. is where arithmetic is done in a computer.

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A. can have three possible levels
B. are assigned values of 1 or 0 depending on the voltage level
C. have a sinusoidal shape.
D. have a frequency measured in units of hertz
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20. There are several procedures you can implement to provide maximum security. The most important of these is:
A. do not leave training manuals unsecured
B. run regular simulated tests using TARP (testing of Applications Recovery Planes)
C. Verify the reputation of the people installing your system
D. do not allow unbonded service people to work on your equipment
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21. Semiconductor devices:
A. are less reliable than electro¬mechanical components
B. usually have a very short MTBF (mean time between failure)
C. have a very short infant mortality period

D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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22. A drum timer is a good example of:
A. an output actuator
B. an input sensor
C. a position sensor
D. a sequence controller
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Answer: Option D
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23. The formula for memory capacity is:
A. MC = N/2
B. MC = 2/N
C. MC = N squared.
D. MC -2 to the Nth power
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24. How is the integral mode implemented using analog methods?
A. Op amp and resistors
B. Op amp and a capacitor
C. Op amp and an RC network to place the error voltage across the capacitor
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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13410)
25. The general type of process found in industry is:
A. discrete parts
B. continuous
C. batch
D. All of the above

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Answer: Option D
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section=1&page=4)
section=1&page=2)
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section=1&page=4)
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section=1&page=7)
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26. Which method is frequently used, especially in the early stages of design?

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D. All of the above
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Answer: Option A
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27. In raster-scan colour monitors, colour can be intensified by:
A. grouping the phosphor dots in a circular pattern
B. having each electron gun controlled by a composite signal
C. using an in-line gun arrangement with a solid metal mesh
D. having each electron gun controlled by separate signal
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Answer: Option D
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13413)
28. Timing using a TM990 micro-computer:
A. require an external timer added by the user
B. is available on the standard CPU board
C. can be handled in software
D. both (b) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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29. A discrete parts process is:
A. the same as a continuous process except a different controller must be used
B. often encountered in manufacturing
C. normally a repetitive series of operations
D. (b) and (c)
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30. Speech recognition:
A. will never be used in industrial controls


B. is already widely used in industrial controls
C. will be used in more applications as the technology matures.
D. All of the above

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Answer: Option C
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section=1&page=5)
section=1&page=2)
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section=1&page=4)
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31. Which device does the general population associate most with automation?
A. Flexible manufacturing 

B. Robots
C. Numerical control machine

D. Computer graphics workstation
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Answer: Option B
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32. Using a microcomputer as a controller allows:
A. faster cycle time
B. simpler mechanical hardware
C. more self diagnostics of the machine operation
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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33. If the transient response is under damped:
A. steady-state will be reached faster than if the system is overdamped
B. the value of the output will exceed the value of the input at times during the transient period
C. the present overshoot is zero
D. both a and b
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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34. What should be first considered in choosing a plotter?
A. The hardware you currently own
B. The application for which it will be used
C. The type of data you will input
D. The cost
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Answer: Option B
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35. The coordinate system used to describe a workpiece:
A. is always two-dimensional
B. changes from part to part 
C. is defined with respect to a point on the machine
D. All of the above

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section=1&page=6)
section=1&page=2)
section=1&page=3)
section=1&page=4)
section=1&page=5)
section=1&page=6)
7
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A. allows faster machine checkout


B. is easier to troubleshoot than standard relay logic
C. both (a) and (b)
D. All of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
37. The SKETCHPAD system
A. consisted of an cathode-ray oscilloscope driven by a Lincoln Tx2 computer where by graphical information was displayed on the
screen.
B. is used for interactive Graphics
C. is expensive because it is sophisticated and make demands on the power and resources of the computer.
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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38. The name given to the test that determines whether a machine can think is the:
A. Gaussian test
B. McCarthy test
C. Turing test
D. Boolean test
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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can-think-is-the-13424)
39. Which of the following is a machine language instruction?
A. ADD 5
B. 10001101
C. GOTO XOUT
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
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40. The two major categories of software are: application software and
A. system software

B. UNIX software
C. high-level languages
D. CAD software
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Answer: Option A
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section=1&page=7)
section=1&page=2)
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section=1&page=5)
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section=1&page=6)
section=1&page=7)
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41. What was the name of the Japanese worker who was killed by an industrial robot at the Akashi plant of Kawasaki
Heavy Industries in Japan?
A. M. Shubhagya 
B. Harun Shimada
C. Kenji Urada Ad Universal Robots Remote Access

D. K. Miceni
Answer & Solution
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42. When of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?
A. Dot metric printers
B. Ink jet printers
C. Laser printers
D. Plotters
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Answer: Option D
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43. The three key elements for a graphics workstation include the host processor, display controller, and:
A. mouse
B. keyboard
C. CRT

D. digitizer

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44. An operational amplifier:
A. can be used to subtract two or more signals
B. can be used to sum two or more signals
C. uses the principle of feedback
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution


Answer: Option D
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45. The raster CRT eliminates:
A. flicker and slow update
B. slow update only
C. flicker only
D. has no effect
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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section=1&page=2)
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46. Who made the statement "if a robot can do a job, a person should not be doing it"?
A. Prof. F. A. Fisher of Britain


B. Ron Albo of Shugart Associates, California
C. Prof. Meredith Turing, London University

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E. None ,of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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should-not-be-doing-it-13432)
47. CAD/CAM is the inter-relationship between:
A. manufacturing and marketing
B. marketing and design
C. engineering and marketing
D. engineering and manufacturing
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Answer: Option D
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48. What prevents a robotic instrument from running into other objects?
A. negative image
B. functional manipulators
C. memory
D. sensory devices
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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49. The axis of movement of a robot may include:
A. Wrist rotation
B. X-Y coordinate motion
C. elbow rotation
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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50. Numerical control:


A. is a method for controlling the operation of a machine by means of a set of instructions
B. applies only to milling machines

C. is a method for producing an exact number of parts per hour
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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section=1&page=9)
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section=1&page=5)
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51. A flip-flop:
A. is a combinational logic device


B. is a sequential logic device
C. remembers what was previously stored in it

D. (a) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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52. A technique for displaying applications where complex 3-D geometric are required for the exteror shall of a product is
called:
A. solid modeling
B. 2-D modeling
C. 3-D modeling
D. surface modeling
Answer & Solution
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53. The user communicates directly with the computer through its peripheral devices is known as


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54. A semi-continuous operation means:
A. the operation is continuous each shift, but stops between shifts
B. coffee breaks are allowed for the operator
C. a computer is a required part of the machine
D. each operation in a sequence is continuous, but subsequent operations in the sequence may be different.
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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
55. A servo controlled robot:

A. stop only at fixed points on each axis
B. can accelerate
C. must be hydraulically driven
D. must be electrically driven
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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section=1&page=10)
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56. An aneroid barometer
A. is very unreliable

B. can measure only atmospheric pressure
C. measures pressure by sensing deflection of an evacuated chambers.

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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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57. Which of the following represents a conditional branching instruction?
A. BGT LOOPS
B. GOTO 50
C. X=5+Y
D. JMP MOTOR
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Answer & Solution
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58. The electronic component that has been the key to recent developments in automation is the:
A. improved vacuum tube
B. integrated circuit
C. diode
D. transistor
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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59. Which of the following is considered a high-level language?
A. Machine language
B. FORTRAN
C. Assembly language
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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60. Pressure sensors:
A. use the piezoresistive effect in strain gauge sensors 
B. use an aneroid chamber with a variable resistance output
C. use capacitive variations to sense pressure

D. All of the above
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section=1&page=11)
section=1&page=2)
section=1&page=3)
section=1&page=4)
section=1&page=5)
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61. Flexible manufacturing allows for:
A. factory management

B. automated design
C. tool design and tool production

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D. quick and inexpensive product changes
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Answer: Option D
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62. Three different aspects of colour are used to define specific colours. They are hue, saturation, and:
A. metamer
B. value
C. gray scale
D. shading
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63. A way to transfer programs to a central system is:
A. by setting bit switches on the central CPU
B. to copy the program into PROMs and install the PROMs in the system
C. to develop the program on the actual system only
D. All of the above
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64. The device that assembles groups of characters into complete messages prior to their entering the CPU is called:
A. a compiler
B. an interpreter
C. a communications processor
D. an editor
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65. Which industry is the leading user of robots? 
A. Chemical industry
B. Automobile industry
C. Electronic industry
D. Shipping industry
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Answer: Option B
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66. What two methods are available to build electronic continuous control?
A. Analog and mechanical


B. Pneumatic and analog
C. Analog and digital

D. All of the above
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67. If the transient response of a system is overdamped:
A. the value of the output exceeds the value of the input at times during the transient period.
B. the value of the output never exceeds the value of the input during the transient period.
C. the value of the output never stabilizes.
D. All of the above
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68. Resolution in a CRT refers to:
A. the speed at which the monitor can accept data from the computer
B. the number of phosphor dots that react when hit by the electron beam
C. the number of addressable elements on the tube
D. the number of pixels in each square centimeter
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
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Answer: Option C
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69. Actuators are used to:
A. sense an object
B. activate a chemical
C. make a mechanical movement
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C
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70. If the period of a sine wave is 0.001 second, the frequency of the sine wave is:

A. 0.001 Hz
B. 1,000 Hz
C. 10,000 Hz
D. 10 Hz
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1. Software is:
A. printer output

B. a set of instructions
C. tape input.
D. a programming language
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2. Which item best describes a CAM technology?
A. Numerical control
B. Drafting
C. Documentation
D. Geometric modeling
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Answer: Option A
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3. The linking of PCs with a communi-cations system is referred to as:
A. workstations
B. streaming
C. turnkey systems
D. networking
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Answer: Option D
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4. Two of the major processing languages are PROLOG and:
A. LISP
B. COBOL
C. BASIC
D. Pascal
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5. Vision sensors:

A. will remain very costly
B. can not improve much in the next decade

C. will more closely match the capabilities of the human eye
D. All of the above
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6. A disadvantage of Numerical Control (NC) is:
A. the computer is not reliable


B. the tape and tape reader are not reliable
C. one operator is needed for each machine.

D. the machine tool can easily overheat
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7. Digitizers can be converted from "dumb" to "smart" through the addition of:
A. a microprocessor
B. an electromagnetic coupling
C. keyboard
D. a scanner
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8. Over the last ten years, productivity has risen most rapidly in:
A. Italy
B. Japan
C. France
D. United States
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9. The difference between a high-technology and a medium-technology robot is the:
A. speed of movement
B. range of motion of the robot
C. accuracy of the robot
D. complexity of the task it can perform.
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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10. The output of a thermocouple is:
A. a capacitance 
B. a resistance
C. a current
D. a voltage
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
DC voltage
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11. Compared to humans, machines:
A. can make more complex decisions based on unexpected circumstances


B. can work in harsher environments
C. make fewer errors

D. (a) and (c)
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12. A solenoid:
A. can be used only in de circuits
B. is spring operated
C. is widely used in industrial automation
D. is related to an aneroid
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Answer: Option C
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13. Most industrial control applications:
A. can be solved using more than one method of control
B. can be done more reliably using solid-state methods
C. must have the process specified correctly to be successful
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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14. When was the first successful industrial robot installed in the General Motors Plant in USA?
A. 1960
B. 1961
C. 1963
D. 1967
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Answer: Option B
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general-motors-plant-in-usa-13470)
15. The physical arrangement of equipment in a network is called:
A. topology
B. pairing

C. queuing
D. logic

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Answer: Option A
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section=2&page=2)
section=2&page=2)
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section=2&page=7)
section=2&page=8)
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16. The computer graphics system called SKETCHPAD was demonstrated at
A. Massachusetts Institute of Technology in 1963


B. Imperial college of Science and Technology, London, 1973
C. University of Aston, Birmingham, 1960

D. Cranfield Institute of Technology, London, 1962
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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17. The new industrial revolution has been caused by:
A. social unrest
B. advances in electronics
C. the Vietnam War
D. demand for higher wages
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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18. Straight-line operations:
A. must be limited to two per workpiece
B. must be parallel to one of the axes of the coordinate system
C. can include diagonal cuts if they aren't curved
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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19. The workspace required for a robot:
A. is less than that of a human performing the same task
B. depends upon the robot used
C. is not dependent on the application.
D. must be enclosed by a fence
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20. In pen plotters, "resolution" refers to the shortest possible line, but in electrostatic plotters it refers to:

A. the number of dots per inch
B. the speed per inch
C. dual-axis tracking
D. how accurately the plotter returns to a specific point
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section=2&page=2)
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section=2&page=5)
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21. A common data base is one requisite for converting CAD and CAM to CIM. Another is that:
A. the system must make provision for new techniques.


B. there should be a common 3-D part description system.
C. the user must have access to both hardware and software

Complete ANSYS Coursework - Work on Industry Simulations
D. technical assistance must be providedOPEN
to the user.
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22. Sensors:
A. are easily developed
B. probably will not improve over the next decade
C. are not important in automation
D. will be much smarter and more sophisticated in the future
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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23. Which of the following devices could be part of a sensor?
A. thermometer
B. brake
C. relay
D. clutch.
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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24. In general, American buyers will purchase goods:
A. that offer the best quality for the least money.
B. that are made in America, even at higher costs.
C. without regard to country of manufacturer.
D. (a) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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25. The reliability life cycle of a product:

A. has three distinct rates of failure
B. cannot be predicted
C. All of the above

D. stays constant with environmental conditions
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Answer: Option A
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section=2&page=4)
section=2&page=2)
section=2&page=3)
section=2&page=4)

section=2&page=6)
section=2&page=7)
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26. Robots consist of three basic components; power supply, control (memory) console, and:
A. coaxial cable
B. microcomputer
C. mechanical unit (arm) 
D. software
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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27. Today's engineers feel that the ultimate solution to the CAD/CAM problem will be
A. Animation
B. the microprocessor
C. turnkey systems
D. development of a more efficient display controller
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28. The method of solid modeling that defines the topology of faces, edges, and vertics, as well as data that defines the
surface in which each face lies is called:
A. constructive solid geometry
B. layering
C. boundary representation
D. isometric
Answer & Solution
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Answer: Option C
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29. Programming languages currently available for robots:
A. may be point-to-point languages
B. require training
C. may allow primitive motion
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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30. A process controller:
A. can interface to digital and analog I/O
B. is useful in a continuous process control application

C. can solve a PID process control equation easily
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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section=2&page=5)
section=2&page=2)
section=2&page=3)
section=2&page=4)
section=2&page=5)
6
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31. Compared to an open-loop system, a closed-loop control system is:
A. more accurate

B. more complex
C. more stable
D. All of the above

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Answer & Solution
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32. Automation means:
A. assisting or replacing humans with machines.
B. workers controlling machines.
C. increased productivity.
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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33. The "snap" command feature in both AutoCAD and VersaCAD ensure that:
A. template lines can be removed
B. objects are entered at specific intervals.
C. identified data are automatically segmented
D. definable center markers are entered.
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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34. An intelligent robot can:
A. make decisions
B. handle only small payloads
C. walk
D. speak
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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35. What is proportional control?


A. It has a discrete output for each error value
B. The controller output varies continuously over a range

C. The gain is independent of offset error.
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
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36. The real "brain" of an artificial intelligence system is referred to as:
A. bubble memory

B. the expert system
C. recursive technology
D. natural language interfaces
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Answer: Option B
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37. Analog and digital controllers:
A. cost the same to build
B. accept the same input signals
C. can be changed with equal case
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option E
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38. Robot motion:
A. is the same for all robots
B. usually imitates human motion
C. is not dependent on the robot structure
D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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39. The digitizing technology that uses an electric field radiated from the tablet and picked up by a cursor is:
A. electromagnetic
B. raster
C. sonic
D. electrostic
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40. Advantages of robots include: 
A. increased productivity
B. ability to withstand hazardous environments

C. good return on investment and better company image
D. All of the above
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41. Light sensors:
A. cannot be used a s limit switches.


B. come in a wide variety of mounting styles
C. work in direct sunlight

D. never use infrared light as light source
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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42. Stepping motors:
A. can run at varying speeds
B. can be built to index different amounts by changing the pole configuration
C. can run both clockwise and counterclockwise
D. do not require commutators
E. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option E
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43. Most continuous control actuators:
A. are of the time proportioning type
B. use a 4 to 20 mA current loop input
C. are used with standard continuous control loop
D. (b) and (c) above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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44. Group technology brings together and organizes:
A. automation and tool production
B. parts and simulation analysis
C. documentation and analysis
D. common parts, problems, and tasks
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Answer: Option D
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45. A venturi tube:
A. is extremely difficult to use
B. is made only of metal


C. measures the presence of a liquid

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46. The APT (automatically progra-mmed tools) language is used with:
A. large automation systems
B. drafting systems
C. programmable controllers
D. numerical controlled machines.
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47. The ideal solution is to have a system coordinator who will interface with the engineering and manufacturing
managers, as well as the:
A. finance manager
B. president
C. marketing manager
D. MIS manager
Answer & Solution
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48. Four basic elements are required for an automated machine tool or production process. They are: input interface,
memory, output interface and:
A. logic
B. software
C. NC tape programming
D. computer graphics workstation

Answer & Solution
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49. The Ziegler-Nichols method:
A. is a graphical solution method
B. can be used to determine gain factors of a PI loop
C. is a method of control
D. a and b above
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Answer: Option D
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50. A Hall effect switch is usually used to:
A. measure voltage
B. measure temperature
C. sense a vacuum
D. sense the presence of a magnetic object.
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51. The hardware device Jhat acts as both a switching and connecting unit is called a(n):
A. concentrator

B. RS-232C port
C. multiplexer
D. communications processor
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Answer: Option C
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52. The addition of _____ can reduce processing time.
A. A buffer
B. An EPROM
C. A converter
D. A co-processor
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53. Which of the following method is used the results of a design analysis as a base for redesign decisions?
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option A
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54. What kind of capability is required if one plans to interface with a plotter or printer?
A. A graphics cable
B. RGB monitor
C. A graphics board
D. A co-processor
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
55. Robots can increase productivity because:
A. they do not take a vacation

B. they do not get tired
C. production quality is uniform
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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56. Which CAD display configurability allows work without any host support?
A. Highly intelligent

B. Medium intelligence
C. Low intelligence
D. One with no secondary storage capacity.

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57. The rectangular boundary around a specific area on the display is called
A. a window
B. a conic section
C. a view point
D. a view plane
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58. In the PROLOG language system, facts are manipulated by:
A. algorithms
B. rules
C. memory
D. simulations
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Answer: Option B
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59. A favourable reason for automation is to:
A. decrease throughput
B. raises assembly cost
C. perform difficult operations
D. increase number of operations
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Answer: Option C
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60. Which method uses the design analysis as a method for effecting the design?


D. All of the above
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61. The main activity(ies) of Designer in CAD is/are:
A. Control of the design process in information distribution.


B. Application of creativity, ingenuity, and experience.
C. Organisation of design information

D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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62. The three different types of pen plotter technology are flatbed, drum, and:
A. electrostatic
B. thermal
C. pinch roller
D. impact
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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63. High-level languages:
A. are "procedure-oriented"
B. are very difficult to use
C. cannot be used with automatic systems.
D. require knowledge of the computer design
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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64. The heart of automation technology is.
A. robots
B. computers
C. control
D. sensors
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
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65. A dc servo motor:

A. uses a tachometer for speed feedback
B. uses a variable dc voltage for speed control
C. can provide precise position control

D. All of the above
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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66. Plotter accuracy is measured in terms of repeatability and:
A. intelligence

B. vertical dimension
C. resolution
D. buffer size
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Answer: Option C
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67. The basic difference between broadband and baseband is:
A. availability
B. capacity
C. reliability
D. transmission
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68. The power source that drives the manipulator can be:
A. pneumatic
B. electric
C. hydraulic
D. All of the above
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
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69. Which of the following devices would be classified as a robot by the Robot Institute of America?
A. Automobile
B. Pick-and-place manipulator
C. Artificial hand
D. All of the above
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A. can help reduce software development time


B. provides ability for other programmers to understand the software structure
C. is useless in most control applications
D. All of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
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A. can be used on more than one machine during its lifetime.


B. can be reprogrammed in the field
C. requires considerable training before it can be used
D. (a) and (b) above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
2. A LISP environment consists of a language, a programming environ-ment, and:
A. random-access storage
B. a processor
C. a large address
D. a set of functions
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Answer: Option D
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3. What Is a process variable?
A. A manipulated variable
B. A controlled variable
C. A process parameter that changes value
D. All of the above
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
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Answer: Option D
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4. Time proportioning control:
A. can be used on a PM550 programmable process controller
B. is less efficient than normal PID control
C. cannot use a TM990 micro¬computer
D. a and b above.
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5. What is the process lag?

A. The time it takes for the sensor to respond to a changed.
B. The lag in the error signal when the setpoint is changed.
C. The time it takes for the mass of the process to respond to an input change.
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C
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6. If the present value in a timer in the TI510 is 8, how many milliseconds is required from the time the timer is started
until the output is enabled?
A. 18 
B. 133.36
C. 149.88 Ad Festival Offers on Liebherr

D. 1275.41
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7. The two types of relays in a PC are:
A. an output relay and a control relay
B. a control relay and a retentive relay
C. a retentive relay and a non-retentive relay
D. All of the above
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8. A common way to take x, y coordinates off a drawing is to use a
A. light pen
B. digitiser
C. Direct view storage tube (DVST)


D. Tablet

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9. How is the integral mode implemented on a digital controller?
A. the digital controller cannot handle integral mode
B. the error is divided into discrete amounts
C. the error signal is summed over a discrete time interval and accumulated by the controller
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C 
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10. Which of the following is not critical in PC CAD software?
A. Crosshatching
B. Layering
C. Drawing/editing
D. Damping
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11. Which of the following editor(s) is(are) incorporated into general CAD system?
A. Point Editor

B. Line Editor
C. Macro and symbol Editor

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12. A microprocessor:
A. is another name for a computer
B. is a CPU in integrated circuit form
C. executes a program of instructions
D. (a) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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13. Which document sums up the general provisions of purchase, terms and agreement, warranties, and maintenance?
A. The contract
B. The project evaluation
C. The financial report.
D. The purchasing report
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14. Which of the plotters listed below eliminates media size limitations?
A. Drum
B. Flatbed
C. Electrostatic
D. Pinch roller
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Answer: Option A
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
15. In order to combat foreign competition, U.S. companies are:
A. automating
B. ignoring the situation
C. seeking import tariffs
D. decreasing the salaries
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16. Historically, central systems were used because:
A. semiconductor memory was not available


B. memory was very expensive
C. memory consumed a large amount of power

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D. All of the above
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17. Most current PC CAD systems are used for producing:
A. solids modeling
B. 2-D drawings
C. circuit simulation
D. finite element analysis
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Answer: Option B
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18. A continuous process is:
A. used only for simple tasks
B. one that never shuts down
C. self-contained in that raw materials enter the process and an identifiable products exits the process.
D. used only with analog controllers.
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Answer: Option C
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19. The rate at which scanning is repeated is called the:
A. stroke rate
B. refresh rate
C. bandwidth
D. resolution
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Answer: Option B
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20. One of the following is not considered a method of input control in a CAD system.
A. Joystick
B. Programmable function box


C. Plotter
D. Touch terminal

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21. Which part of the system performs the "housekeeping" chores?
A. operating system

B. compiler
C. interpreter
D. translator
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22. The greatest change as a result of CAD/CAM is taking place in which industry?
A. Medical
B. Aerospace
C. Electronics
D. Cartography
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23. Who are called steel collar workers?
A. Office clerks
B. Factory workers
C. Steel factory workers
D. Robots
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Answer: Option D
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D. (a) and (c)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
25. Several objectives are required to achieve a successful data base management program. These are availability of data,
quality of data, and 
A. compatibility of data
B. transmission of data
C. desirability of data
D. up-to-date data
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26. Which of the following is required for a plotter to perform specific commands?
A. Firmware

B. Software
C. Driver
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D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
28. The refresh-vector CRT uses which of the following techniques?
A. The beam constantly travels across the screen to turn on/off a series of pixels.
B. Makes changes on the image by increasing the anode voltage.
C. Uses an electron gun to continuously flood the surface of the tube.
D. Creates images on the screen by scanning straight-line vectors between selected points.
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
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Answer: Option D
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29. A set of well-defined procedures based on mathematical and geometric formulas for solving a problem in a finite
number of steps is called:
A. a permutation
B. an algorithm
C. arithmetic logic
D. a geometric model
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Answer: Option B
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
30. A flexible manufacturing system may be:

A. an automated assembly line
B. expensive to alter
C. very difficult to change when new products are introduced
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31. Which of the following elements can be used with a TI510 FC?
A. Drum timer

B. Metronome
C. Cymbal timer
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D. (a) and (c)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
33. An assembly language instruction:
A. is written in ones and zeros
B. corresponds to one computer operation
C. does not require knowledge of the computer design
D. All of the above
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
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Answer: Option B
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34. The lowest form of computer language is called:
A. FORTRAN
B. BASIC
C. machine language
D. COBOL
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Answer: Option C
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35. CAE and CAM are linked through:

A. a common data base and communications system
B. NC tape programming and automated design
C. parts production and testing

D. assembly automation and tool production.
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Answer: Option A
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36. The parallel register:
A. can store a multiple bit binary number 


B. uses R-S flip-flops
C. All of the above

D. is erased after a word is read fromit
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37. Microcomputer-based control sys-tems
A. will just keep their present capability
B. will have more standard industrial application software available in the future.
C. will tend to increase in cost.
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
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38. A thermistor:
A. is a pressure sensing device
B. has a voltage output
C. measures temperature
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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39. The steady-state error is:
A. independent of the type of input
B. a function of the transient response
C. zero for all inputs to type 1 systems
D. decreased by increasing gain.
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Answer: Option D
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40. Many things can be done to minimize downtime loss. Identify two of them.
A. establish a user forum program
B. stock critical spare parts


C. provide an extra workstation
D. both b and c

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41. A typical NC system has which of the following components?
A. Controller

B. Tape input
C. Machine tool
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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42. Which part of the system allows the user to interact with the compiler? (a) Memory
A. Translator
B. Communications processor
C. Interpreter
D. None of the above
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43. The robot:
A. is very primitive at the present
B. represents the most powerful new industrial automation tool currently on the horizon
C. will be more useful when robot vision is improved significantly
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
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44. Direct Numerical Control means:
A. using several computers to control one large machine
B. using one computer to control several machines
C. complete elimination of a need for a human operator.
D. eliminating computers from the manufacturing process
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Answer: Option B
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45. A proportional plus integral contro-ller can:


A. has no transient response
B. can compensate for lag

C. can increase the system type
D. both (b) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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46. A pick-and-place manipulator is:
A. the most flexible of all robots


B. an intelligent robot
C. capable of point-to-point operation

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47. FORTRAN is:
A. machine dependent 
B. a medium-level language
C. a mathematically oriented language
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C
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48. Which of the methods below can be used to tell a robot what it is to do?
A. Walk-through
B. Set mechanical stops
C. Software program
D. (a) and (c)
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Answer: Option D
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49. The processing, which normally consists of a small computer with one or more peripheral devices, connected via a
high-speed line to the large control computer is known as
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50. VLSI (very large scale integrated circuits) logic:

A. will not be available in this decade
B. means more costly electronic products in the future
C. will result in lower cost, higher capability electronic equipment
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option C
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51. The term used to represent the recycling of unused memory is:
A. garbage collection

B. diagnostic routine
C. memory dump
D. direct memory access
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52. In the instruction, 500 SUBA # 50 the command field is:
A. 500
B. # 50000
C. SUBA
D. (b) and (c)
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53. Use of modern control technology in automation systems:
A. reduces costs
B. improves reliability
C. increases yield
D. All of the above
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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54. One of the major benefits of using CAD in tool design is that:
A. product design represents approximately one-half the engineering costs
B. tool motions can be checked to see if there is interference between the tool and the object
C. there is better coordination in the materials-handling area
D. it simplifies the trial-and-error method
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Answer: Option B
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55. The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called:


A. bandwidth
B. response time
C. interlacing
D. scanning
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56. The chosen language for the Japanese Fifth-Generation Compu-ter Project is:
A. LISP

B. FORTRAN
C. COBOL
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D. PROLOG
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57. When a computer fetches an instruction, the binary code representing the instruction appears on the:
A. I/O address bus
B. memory data bus
C. input data bus
D. output data bus
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58. A stepping motor;
A. has a speed proportional to voltage input
B. has a commutator
C. is a good choice where continuous rotation is needed
D. can index positional movement.
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Answer: Option D
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59. A microprocessor is:
A. controlled by a program
B. an integrated circuit
C. relatively inexpensive
D. All of the above
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60. An up/down counter used in a TI510PC has three inputs. Which of the following is not one of them? 
A. Count up
B. Count out
C. Reset.
D. Count down
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61. If a sine wave has a frequency of 500 Hz, the period in seconds of the sine wave is:
A. 5000

B. 0.003
C. 0.02
D. 0.002.
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62. Standard computer control products:
A. are available off the shelf
B. are very expensive and not cost effective
C. do not exist yet
D. All of the above
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63. Skipping every other line and picking up the skipped lines on the second pass is called:
A. interlacing
B. refresh-vector
C. raster-scan
D. stroke writing
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64. Ergonomics refers to:
A. the human aspect of the environment around the workstation as well as the workstation itself
B. the cost relationship of the workstation versus productivity
C. the level of involvement the operator has with the workstation
D. the technology involved in the workstation itself
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65. Artificial intelligence operates on the principle of using a _____ base as opposed to a data base.

A. Character
B. Knowledge
C. PROLOG
D. LISP
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66. A smart solid-state sensor is:
A. one that integrates both logic and a solid-state sensor into one unit.

B. one that has two or three substrates
C. not available today

D. All of the above
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67. D/A (digital to analog) conversion:
A. results in a binary code as the final output
B. has to be sampled at 1/2 the highest input frequency
C. must be fed through a filter to reproduce the original signal accurately
D. both (b) and (c)
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68. Most data transmission in the future will be:
A. digital bit stream encoded data
B. analog in nature
C. carried over metallic telephone lines
D. All of the above
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69. The integrated circuit:
A. often is called a "chip"
B. led to the development of the transistor
C. has revolutionized electronics
D. (b) and (c)
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70. What is offset error?
A. the difference between the sensor input and the absolute sensed parameter. 
B. the difference between the controller output and the setting of the manipulated variable.
C. the difference between the control setpoint value and the actual value.
D. All of the above
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1. Which of the following may be classified as an automation system?
A. automated warehouses

B. numerically controlled machine tools
C. robotics
D. All of the above
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2. The accuracy of a pick-and-place robot can be as good as:
A. + 0.0005 inches
B. + 0.05 inches
C. 0.008 inches
D. 3%
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13598)
3. The difference between CAD and CAM is that CAD software is directed at product design while CAM software is:
A. concerned with production and control of tool design
B. concerned with management programs
C. designed for communications
D. specifically for PC-board design
Answer & Solution 

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4. Localizing an object in an image and selectively analyzing the object in a series of redundant layers is referred to as
the:
A. Turing test
B. pyramid
C. Gaussian pyramid
D. Maxwell pyramid
Answer & Solution
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Answer: Option C
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5. In the operation of a programmable controller:

A. all of the logic status is maintained in memory
B. any latched data must be done using an external latching relay
C. mathematics cannot be performed
D. All of the above
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6. The concept of a general CAD system was that it should provide:
A. A system for handling user actions.


B. A system for the operation of applications programming.
C. A set of basic system functions and utilities.

D. All of the above
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7. The insect type robot Attila is a more competent version of the robot Genghis an weights 1.7 kg. What is the number of
microprocessors carried by its body?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 33
D. 15
Answer & Solution
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8. The "walk-through" method of programming a robot involves:
A. walking through your suggested procedure with your supervisor prior to programming
B. physically moving the robot through all the motions it is to repeat
C. moving the robot from one location to another



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9. Which of the following is often used as an alternative to the light pen or in association with storage tube displays?
A. Digitiser
B. Track ball
C. Mouse
D. Tablet
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Answer: Option D
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10. The general CAD system was development by considering a wide range of possible uses of such a system.
A. Mechanical engineering design
B. Animation and graphic design
C. Structural engineering design and Electronic circuit design
D. All of the above
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11. Relay ladder logic is used in a PC because:
A. it is impossible to write a control program for a machine in any other logic


B. it is the best industrial control language ever developed.
C. most industrial control personnel are familiar with relay ladder logic diagrams and this is the easiest for them to use
D. All of the above
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12. The "end-effector" of a robot:
A. can be an actual tool
B. is the robot "hand"
C. may have a gripping action
D. All of the above
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13. The program execution time:
A. must be slower than the fastest mechanical operation that is to be controlled
B. will vary depending on the language used
C. cannot be changed once the program is written
D. All of the above
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14. One advantage of a PC in industrial control is that it:
A. has a reliable long life compared to relay logic
B. is very difficult for the inexperienced programmer to understand
C. is unreliable because there are no moving parts
D. All of the above
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A. is required to run a microprocessor system 
B. provides a structure with which to develop application programs
C. is useful because standard modules can be used

D. both (b) and (c)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D

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16. When one must sell a project to management, the most important document he or she can produce is a:
A. method for financing the project


B. summary of the problem
C. project evaluation
D. procedure for purchase

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17. What is required to enable the PC to emulate a graphics terminal?
A. Software
B. A laser printer
C. A color monitor
D. A graphics board
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18. Which type of digitizer measures a wave traveling at the speed of sound?
A. Electrostatic
B. Sonic
C. Digitizing sr amer
D. Caparitive
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19. An encoder:
A. is used to send telegraph signals
B. converts an input to a binary number
C. converts a binary number to a decimal number.
D. can have only four keys
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
20. Operator interaction directly with the CRT is accomplished via:
A. a digitizing tablet
B. vector scanning
C. a stylus
D. a touch terminal
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21. What two disciplines are usually tied by a common data base?
A. Documentation and geometric modeling


B. Computer-aided design and computer-aided manufacturing
C. Testing and analysis

D. Drafting and documentation
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22. Which of the following is a graphical output device?
A. Dot-matrix Printer
B. Plotter
C. Laser Printer
D. Line Printer
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23. A display of a volume model that shows all of its edges is called a:
A. surface model
B. 3-D model
C. wire-frame
D. solid model
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
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
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24. A sequence controller:
A. is difficult to program
B. is a mechanical only controller
C. is no longer in widespread use
D. performs on/off control functions in relation to time.
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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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25. Having compatibility and commonality in and between vendors' equipment is called:

A. registration
B. standardization
C. integration
D. networking
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26. Programmable controllers:
A. are programmed using relay ladder logic
B. cannot perform functions other than relay logic
C. are widely used in many different industries 

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Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
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27. Which of the following are kinds of instructions?
A. Input
B. Arithmetic
C. Conditional branching
D. All of the above
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Computer Graphics 2D Translation
1. A translation is applied to an object by
c) Only b
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A translation is applied to an object by repositioning it along with straight line path from one location to
another.
2. We translate a two-dimensional point by adding

a) Translation distances
b) Translation difference
c) X and Y
d) Only a
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We can translate 2D point by adding translation distances dx and dy.
3. The translation distances (dx, dy) is called as

a) Translation vector
b) Shift vector
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The translation distances (dx, dy) from its original position is called as translation vector or shift vector.
4. In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by using the equation
a) x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx
b) x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
c) X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx
d) X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By adding translation distance dx and dy to its originsl position (x, y) we can obtain a new position (x’,
y’).
5.The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is

a) P’=P+T
b) P’=P-T
c) P’=P*T
d) P’=p
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2D translation equation is P’=P+T.
6. _________ is a rigid body transformation that moves objects without deformation.

a) Rotation
b) Scaling
c) Translation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Translation a rigid body transformation that moves objects without deformation.
7. A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation

a) P’=P+T
b) Dx and Dy
c) P’=P+P
d) Only c
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation P’=P+T to each of line
endpoints.
8. Polygons are translated by adding __________ to the coordinate position of each vertex and the current attribute
setting.
a) Straight line path
b) Translation vector
c) Differences
d) Only b
View Answer
Answer: d
9. To change the position of a circle or ellipse we translate

a) Center coordinates
b) Center coordinates and redraw the figure in new location
c) Outline coordinates
Answer: b
Explanation: By translating the center coordinates and redraw the figure in new location we can change the position
of a circle or ellipse.
10.The basic geometric transformations are

a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Scaling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These are the basic geometric transformations and other transformations are reflection and sh
2D Rotation
1. A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by
c) Only b
d) Any of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by repositioning it along with circular path.
2. To generate a rotation , we must specify

a) Rotation angle ϴ
b) Distances dx and dy
c) Rotation distance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generate a rotation, we must specify rotation angle ϴ of the rotation point or pivot point which the object
is to be rotated.
3. Positive values for the rotation angle ϴ defines

a) Counterclockwise rotations about the end points
b) Counterclockwise translation about the pivot point
c) Counterclockwise rotations about the pivot point
d) Negative direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A positive value for the rotation angle ϴ defines counterclockwise rotations about the pivot point.
4. The rotation axis that is perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through the pivot point is known as
a) Rotation
b) Translation
c) Scaling
d) Shearing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rotation transformation is also described as a rotation about a rotation axis that is perpendicular to
the xy plane and passes through the pivot point.
5. The original coordinates of the point in polor coordinates are
a) X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф +ϴ)
b) X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф +ϴ)
c) X’=r cos (Ф -ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф -ϴ)
d) X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф -ϴ)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The original coordinates of the point in polor coordinates are X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф +ϴ).
6. The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is

a) P’=P+T
b) P’=R*P
c) P’=P*P
d) P’=R+P
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 2D translation equation is P’=R*P.
7. ________ is the rigid body transformation that moves object without deformation.
a) Translation
b) Scaling
c) Rotation
d) Shearing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotation is the rigid body transformation that moves object without deformation.
8. An ellipse can also be rotated about its center coordinates by rotating

a) End points
b) Major and minor axes
c) Only a
d) None
View Answer
Answer: b
2D Scaling
This section of our 1000+ Computer Graphics multiple choice questions focuses on 2D Scaling.
1. The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is
a) Scaling
b) Rotation
c) Translation
d) Reflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Scaling is used to alter the size of an object.
2. The two-dimensional scaling equation in the matrix form is

a) P’=P+T
b) P’=S*P
c) P’=P*R
d) P’=R+S
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 2d scaling equation is P’=S*P.
3. Scaling of a polygon is done by computing

a) The product of (x, y) of each vertex
b) (x, y) of end points
c) Center coordinates
d) Only a
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Scaling of a polygon is done by computing the product of (x, y) of each vertex with scaling factor sx and
sy to produce the transformation coordinates ( Xnew, Ynew).
4. If the scaling factors values sx and sy < 1 then

a) It reduces the size of object
b) It increases the size of object
c) It stunts the shape of an object
d) None
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the scaling factors values sx and sy < 1 then it reduces the size of object.
5. If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to the same value then
c) Scaling cannot be done
d) Scaling can be done or cannot be done
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When sx and sy are assigned the same value then uniform scaling is produced that maintains relative
object proportions.
6. If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to unequal values then
c) Differential scaling is produced
d) Scaling cannot be done
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unequal values for sx and sy results in differential scaling that is often used in design applications.
7. The objects transformed using the equation P’=S*P should be

a) Scaled
b) Repositioned
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The objects transformed using the equation P’=S*P should be scaled and repositioned.
8. We control the location of a scaled object by choosing the position is known as

a) Pivot point
b) Fixed point
c) Differential scaling
d) Uniform scaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. If the value of sx=1 and sy=1 then

a) Reduce the size of object
b) Distort the picture
c) Produce an enlargement
d) No change in the size of an object
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: sx=sx=1 does not change the size of the object.
1.The matrix representation for translation in homogeneous coordinates is

a) P’=T+P
b) P’=S*P
c) P’=R*P
d) P’=T*P
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The matrix representation for translation is P’=T*P.
2. The matrix representation for scaling in homogeneous coordinates is

a) P’=S*P
b) P’=R*P
c) P’=dx+dy
d) P’=S*S
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The matrix representation for scaling is P’=S*P.
3. The matrix representation for rotation in homogeneous coordinates is
a) P’=T+P
b) P’=S*P
c) P’=R*P
d) P’=dx+dy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The matrix representation for rotation is P’=R*P.
4. What is the use of homogeneous coordinates and matrix representation?

a) To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way
b) To scale
c) To rotate
d) To shear the object
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way, we use homogeneous coordinates and matrix
representation.
5. If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x, y) is represented as
a) (x’, y’, z’)
b) (x, y, z)
c) (x’, y’, w)
d) (x’, y’, w)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then we add 3rd coordinate to the point (x, y), that is
represented as (x’, y’, w).
6. For 2D transformation the value of third coordinate i.e. w=?

a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) Any value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For 2D we have (x, y, 1) i.e. w=1.
7. We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a single matrix representation by expanding
a) 2 by 2 matrix into 4*4 matrix
b) 2 by 2 matrix into 3*3
c) 3 by 3 matrix into 2 by 2
d) Only c
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a single matrix representation by
expanding 2 by 2 matrix representation into 3 by 3.
8. The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be written as

a) (h.x, h.y, h.z)
b) (h.x, h.y, h)
c) (x, y, h.z)
d) (x,y,z)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be written as (h.x, h.y, h).
9. A Pixel is represented dy a tuple Xw,Yw,w in______.

A. Normalised Device Coordinates
B. Homogeneous coordinates system
C. 3D coordinate system
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
10. A _______ transformation alters the size of an object.
A. Scaling
B. Rotation
C. Translation
D. Shear
ANSWER: A
11. If the angle Q is positive then the rotation direction will be _________.
A. Clockwise
B. Anticlockwise
C. Parallel
D. Perpendicular
ANSWER: B
12. A_______is a transformation that produces a mirror image of an object.

A. Scaling
B. Translation
C. Reflection
D. Both B & C
ANSWER: C
13.If we multiply any matrix A with identity matrix then we get the________matrix.
A. Identity matrix
B. Translation matrix
C. Scaling matrix
D. Original matrix
ANSWER: D
14. In homogeneous co-ordinate system a pixel is represented as ____________.
A. X,Y
B. X,Y,Z
C. X,Y,W
D. Xw,Yw,w
ANSWER: D
15. Two consecutive transformation t1 and t2 are _________.
A. Additive
B. Substractive
C. Multiplicative
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
16. Reflection about the line Y=X is equivalent to ,followed by a anticlockwise rotation .
A. Reflection about y-axis
B. Reflection about x-axisC. Reflection about origin
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
17. Two consecutive scaling transformation t1 and t2 are __________.
A. Additive
B. Substractive
C. Multiplicative
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
Unit No 3
1. The finite element method formulation of problem result in a system of
Algebraic equation
Logical equation
Arithmetic equation
Flow equation
2. FEM gives accurate representation of

Real Geometry
Complex Geometry
Real & Complex Geometry
Constant Geometry
3. Finite Element Method is also called as

Infinite Element Analysis
Frequency Element Analysis
Finite Element Analysis
Partial Element Analysis
4. To Solve the FEM Problem, It subdivides a large problem in to smaller,

simple parts that are called
Finite Element
Infinite Element
Dynamic Element
Static Element
5. The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller

elements is known as ___________ .
(A) assemblage
(B) continuum
(C) traction
(D) discretization
6. The sum of the shape function is equal to

(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
7. A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
8. Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on

___________ .
(D) nodes
9. On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by

(A) KQ=F
(B) KQ≠F
(C) K=QF
(D) K≠QF
10. The finite element method is mostly used in the field of

11. At fixed support, the displacements are equal to

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
12. In FEA, the sub domains are called as ___________ .

(A) particles
(B) molecules
(C) elements
(D) none
13. The numbers of node for 1 D element are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
14. Finite element analysis deals with ___________ .

15. Stiffness matrix depends on

(A) material
(B) geometry
16. For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the
(A) 2*2
(B) 3*3
(C) 4*4
(D) 6*6
17. To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are
used.
(A) shape function
(B) node function
18. The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions
called
(B) traction
(C) friction
(D) surfacing
19. The truss element can resist only
(A) axial force
(B) surface force
(C) point load
20. The truss element can deform only in the

(A) axial direction
(B) vertical direction
(C) horizontal direction
(D) inclined direction
21. Example for one – Dimensional element is ___________ .

(B) brick element
(C) truss element
22. Axis-Symmetric element is______________Element

(A) 1D
(B) 2D
(C) 3D
(D) 4D
23. The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 2
24. The finite element methods can be applied in ____________areas.

(A) thermal
(C) vibration
25. Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness
matrix?
26. For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________.
(A) stress
(B) strain
(C) displacement
(D) temperature
27. In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having

(A) zero
(B) very small
(C) very large
(D) infinite
28. How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
29. In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______

computation time
(A) less
(B) more
(D) can't say
30. Elements with an aspect ratio of near to ______ generally yield best
results in FEA.
(A) 0 (B) 0.5
(C) 1 (D) 2
31. In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation
______.
(A) R=KQ+F (B) R=KQ-F
(C) R=K+QF (D) R=K-QF
32. As per the penalty approach, the equation of reaction force is _____.
(A) R = -CQ (B) R = CQ
(C) R = -C (Q-a) (D) R = -C (Q+a)

UNIT NO 4 MCQ
Which of the following would not be a typical function of production management?
a. inventory control.
b. cash flow forecasts.
c. site location & layout.
d. plant management
A computer-driven system for analyzing and projecting materials needs and then scheduling
their arrival at the workstation at the right time is called:
a. material requirement planning.
b. just in time (JIT) inventory control.
c. CAD.
d. CAM.
An approach that tries to match the output of manufacturing with market demand, in order to
minimize inventories is called:
a. JIT.
b. MRP.
c. CAD.
d. CAM.
The use of computers to draw plans for a product or service applying pre-programmed
parameters that describe the desired finished product is called:
a. computer aided engineering.
b. computer aided manufacturing.
c. computer aided design.
d. flexible manufacturing system.
The use of computers to control the operation of production process is known as:
a. CAD.
b. CAE.
c. CAM.
d. CAQ.
1. Which of the following code will give point to point movement?
a) G00
b) G01
c) G56
d) G94
2. Which of the following code will give linear interpolation movement?

a) G00
b) G01
c) G78
d) G65
3. Which of the following code will give circular interpolation in a clockwise
direction?
a) G56
b) G01
c) G02
d) G47
4. Which of the following code is used to give input of cutter offset data?
a) G30
b) G20
c) G10
d) G04
5. Which of the following code is used to select x y plane in milling?

a) G18
b) G17
c) G10
d) G04
6. Which of the following code is used to select x z plane in milling?

a) G18
b) G17
c) G10
d) G04
7. Which of the following code will change specified input values in millimeters?
a) G01
b) G00
c) G20
d) G24
8. The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position
command signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as
a. controller
b. tape
c. feedback unit
d. none of the above
9. In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is
connected between
a. control unit and programmer

b. programmer and machine tool
c. control unit and machine tool
d. programmer and process planning
10. Which of the following options is correct for the control unit and panel of NC
(Numerical Control) and CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tools?
a. The control unit of NC machine tool works in ON-line mode and the control
unit of CNC machine tool works in batch processing mode
b. The control unit of NC machine tool works in batch processing mode and the
control unit of CNC machine tool works in ON-line mode
c. The control units of both NC and CNC machines work in ON-line mode
d. The control units of both NC and CNC machines work in batch processing
mode
11. In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory
a. can be used only once

b. can be used again and again
c. can be used again but it has to be modified every time
d. cannot say
12. Several machine tools can be controlled by a central computer in

c. DNC (Direct Numerical Control) machine tool
d. CCNC (Central-Computer Numerical Control) machine tool
13. Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in

c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
14. The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions
like depth of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control
system itself, is called
a. Computer Numerical Control System

b. Direct Numerical Control System
c. Machining Centre System
d. Adaptive Control System
15. Which machine tool reduces the number of set-ups in machining operation, time
spent in setting machine tools and transportation between sections of machines?
a. Computer Numerical Control machine tool

b. Direct Numerical Control machine tool
c. Adaptive Control Systems
d. Machining centre
16. In CNC systems multiple microprocessors and programmable logic

controllers work ______
a) in parallel
b) in series
c) one after the other
d) for 80% of the total machining time
17. Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

a) Higher flexibility
b) Improved quality
c) Reduced scrap rate
d) Improved strength of the components
18. In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
19. Point-to-point systems are used for _____

a) reaming
b) parting
c) grooving
d) facing
20. In part programming, interpolation is used for obtaining _______ trajectory.

a) helicoidal
b) pentagonal
c) triangular
d) zig-zag
21 For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.

a) True
b) False
22. An absolute NC system is one in which all position coordinates are referred to
a) True
b) False
ubaidbahussain@gmail.com
7350715191/9420014590
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Finite Element Analysis in Brief

Note: This is the Collection from my co-authored book “Finite Element Methods for Civil
Engineering” for Jawaharlal Nehru Technical University Hyderabad Students, published by
Technical Publications. The syllabus of this book is similar to that of our Pune University Syllabus.
Please consult your subject teacher about the examination pattern.
Chapter 1: Introduction to FEM
Fill in the Blank
I. The total workdone by all forces acting on a system is static equilibrium

is______________
II. FEM Models are called___________________________
III. _______________________principle states that as long as the different
approximations are statistically equivalent, the resulting solution will be valid.
IV. The analytical solution to the differential equations is generally viewed as the
sum of_________solution and a_______solution.
V. Dividing the structure into discrete elements is
called______________________________
VI. The ends of the element where deformations calculated is
called_____________________
Answers
I. Zero, II. discrete and continuous III. variational IV. homogeneous solution and a particular
solution V. Discretization Vi) Nodes
i) In a body, how many types of loading consists
A) Three
B) Two
C) One
D) Four
Page 1
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
ii) Nodes are classified as
A) Noble, Global
B) Local, Non-Local
C) Local, Global
D) Total, Sub-Total
iii) What is strain displacement matrix
A) [B]
B) [Q]
C) [K]
D) [A]
iv) What is a Formula of Stress?
A) E.Bq
B) D.q
C) B.q
D) E.q
v) What is Potential Energy expression?
A) Strain Energy (SE)/Work Potential(W.P)

B) S.E+WP
C) SE*W.P
D) None
vi) What is notation of elemental Stiffness matrix?
A) [K]
B) [C]
C) [B]
D) [Q]
Answers i) B ii) C iii) A iv) A v) B vi) A
Page 2
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Two Marks Questions
What is meant by finite element?

A small units having definite shape of geometry and nodes is called finite element.
What is meant by node or joint?

Each kind of finite element has a specific structural shape and is inter- connected with the
adjacent element by nodal point or nodes. At the nodes, degrees of freedom are located. The
forces will act only at nodes at any others place in the element.
What is the basic of finite element method?

Discretization is the basis of finite element method. The art of subdividing a structure in to
convenient number of smaller components is known as discretization.
What are the types of boundary conditions?

Primary boundary conditions
Secondary boundary conditions
State the methods of engineering analysis?
Experimental methods
Analytical methods
Numerical methods or approximate methods
What are the types of element?
1D element
2D element
3D element
State the three phases of finite element method.
Preprocessing
Analysis
Post Processing
Page 3
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
What is structural problem?
Displacement at each nodal point is obtained. By these displacements solution stress and strain
in each element can be calculated.
What is non-structural problem?
Temperature or fluid pressure at each nodal point is obtained. By using these values properties
such as heat flow fluid flow for each element can be calculated.
What are the methods are generally associated with the finite element analysis?
Force method
Displacement or stiffness method.
Explain stiffness method.

Displacement or stiffness method, displacement of the nodes is considered as the unknown of
the problem. Among them two approaches, displacement method is desirable.
What is meant by post processing?
Analysis and evaluation of the solution result is referred to as post processing. Postprocessor
computer program help the user to interpret the result by displaying them in graphical form.
Name the variation methods.
Ritz method.
Ray-Leigh Ritz method.
What is meant by degrees of freedom?
When the force or reaction act at nodal point node is subjected to deformation. The deformation
includes displacement rotation, and or strains. These are collectively known as degrees of
freedom
What is meant by discretization and assemblage?
The art of subdividing a structure in to convenient number of smaller components is known as

discretization. These smaller components are then put together. The process of uniting the
various elements together is called assemblage.
Page 4
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
What is Rayleigh-Ritz method?
It is integral approach method which is useful for solving complex structural problem,
encountered in finite element analysis. This method is possible only if a suitable function is
available.
What is Aspect ratio?
It is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the element to the smallest dimension. In
many cases, as the aspect ratio increases the in accuracy of the solution increases. The
conclusion of many researches is that the aspect ratio
Name the weighted method
Point collocation method

Sub domain collocation method
Least squares method
Galerkins method.
Concentrated load acting point

Cross-section changing point
Different material interjections
Page 5
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Differentiate between global and local axes.
Local axes are established in an element. Since it is in the element level, they change with the
change in orientation of the element. The direction differs from element to element. Global axes
are defined for the entire system. They are same in direction for all the elements even though
the elements are differently oriented.
Distinguish between potential energy function and potential energy functional
If a system has finite number of degree of freedom (q1,q2,and q3), then the potential energy
expressed as, π = f (q1,q2,and q3)
It is known as function. If a system has infinite degrees of freedom then the potential energy is
expressed as
What are the basic steps involved in the finite element modeling.
Discretization of structure.
Numbering of nodes.
What is discretization?
The art of subdividing a structure in to a convenient number of smaller components is known

as discretization.
Chapter2: 1D Element Analysis

Fill in the blank
1. In a banded matrix all of the ________ elements are contained within a band
2. The Local and Global Coordinate system is introduced in___________
3. The number of nodes of a quadratic one dimensional elements are_________
4. The bar element has__________________DOF at each node
5. The shape functions used here are called_________ functions.
Answers
1. Nonzeroes 2. 1D Element Analysis 3. Three 4. Two 5. Quadratic Shape Functions
Page 6
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Objective Type Questions
i) In which of the following elements, the displacement of the nodes of the element always
takes place in one direction
A) 1D Elements
B) 2D Elements
C) 3D Elements
D) None of the these
ii) Shape Functions are to
A) Describe the loading condition on the element

B) Describe the physical behavior of the element
C) Describe the geometry of the element
D) Describe the displacement field within an element
iii) The Traction force of a 1D Body is
A) Force Per Unit Volume

B) Force Per Unit Area
C) Force Per Unit Length
D) Gravitational Force
iv) The linear element will have an equation of generally
A) One degree polynomial equation

B) Two Degree Polynomial equation
C) Three degree polynomial equation
D) All of these
v) How many degrees of freedom for 2D bar element
A) One degree
B) Two Degrees
C) Three degrees
D) All of these
Page 7
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Answers
i) A ii) D iii) B iv) A v) B
Two Marks Questions
State the properties of stiffness matrix

It is a symmetric matrix
The sum of elements in any column must be equal to zero
It is an unstable element. So the determinant is equal to zero.
Write down the expression of shape function N and displacement u for one dimensional bar
element.
U= N1u1+N2u2
N1= 1-X / l
N2 = X / l
Define total potential energy.

Total potential energy, π = Strain energy (U) + potential energy of the external forces (W)
State the principle of minimum potential energy.
Among all the displacement equations that satisfied internal compatibility and the boundary
condition those that also satisfy the equation of equilibrium make the potential energy a
minimum is a stable system.
Chapter 3: Beam Elements
Fill in the Blank
i) A beam element has_______________DOF
ii) Generally (u1,u2) are______________ degrees of freedom in a beam.
iii) Generally (u3,u4) are______________ degrees of freedom in a beam.
iv) Elemental Stiffness matric for a beam is__________________
v) The deformed shape of beam is specified by__________ and__________ of the beam. (2.66)
Page 8
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Answers
i) Two ii) axial displacements iii) lateral displacements iv)
v) Slope and Deflection
i) How many shape functions does a beam has
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
ii) N=[1/4] [(1-ξ)2(2+ ξ)+ is a shape of
A) Link
B) Bar
C) Beam
D) Truss
iii) Shape Function for beam eliminate differ from bar element because of it involves
A) Nodal Displacements
B) Nodal Rotations
C) Nodal Displacements and Nodal Rotations
D) All of above
iv) The Hermite Shape Function is defined by
A) Cubic Order
B) Quadratic Order
C) Quartic Order
D) Quadrilateral Order
Page 9
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
v) Beams are slander members that are used to support
A) Transverse Loading
B) Axial Loading
C) Longitudinal Loading
D) None of these
Answers
i) D ii) C iii) C iv) A v) A
Chapter 4: Truss Elements
Fill in the blank Questions
i) Truss element is equivalent to one dimensional bar element in………
ii) Truss element differ one dimensional bar element in …… Coordinate.
iii) Strain energy for a truss element in local coordinate is given by…………
Answers
i) local coordinates ii) global coordinates iii) ½ q’ T K’ q’
i) The Directional Cosines l and m are respectively the angles of
A) Cosθ, Cosθ,
B) Cosθ, Sinθ
C) Sinθ,Cosθ
D) Sinθ,Sinθ
ii) σ = E/L *–c –s c s ] u is a stress for
A) Link
B) Bar
C) Beam
D) Truss
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Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iii) The Truss structure consist only of
A) Three Force Members

B) Four Force Members
C) Two Force Members
D) None
Answers: i) B ii) D iii) C
Two Marks Questions
What is truss?
A truss is defined as a structure made up of several bars, riveted or welded together.
Why Truss elements used for?
The truss elements are the part of a truss structure linked together by point joint which
transmits only axial force to the element.
Chapter 5: 2D Elements
Fill in the Blanks
i) A____________________force is distributed, load acting on the surface of the body of a

CST element.
ii) The relationship between the unit and natural coordinates is_____________________
iii) The LST Element consist of__________ number of shape function
Answers: i) Body ii) r = (1 + n)/2 iii) Four
i) The stiffness matrix for C.S.T element using potential energy approach is given by General
formula as
A) K=tATBDB
B) K=tABDTB
C) K=tABDBT
D) K=tABTDB
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11
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
ii) A thin planner body is subjected to in plane loading on its edge surface is set to be in
A) True Stress
B) True Strain
C) Plane Stress
D) Plane Strain
iii) In plane strain
A) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **α∆T, α∆T, α∆T+T

B) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **0, α∆T, α∆T+T
C) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **α∆T, α∆T, 0+T
D) ԑ0 = (1+µ) **α∆T, 0, α∆T+T
iv) A body is in equilibrium if internal virtual works equals the external virtual work for
every kinematically admissible displacement field *φ,ԑ(φ)+ is statement of
A) Principle of Virtual Work

B) Galerkian Approach
C) Weighted Residual Method
D) All of above
Answers: i) D ii) C ii) C iv) A
Two Marks Questions
What are the types of loading acting on the structure?
Body force (f)

Traction force (T)
Point load (P)
Define the body force
A body force is distributed force acting on every elemental volume of the body Unit: Force per
unit volume.
Example: Self weight due to gravity
Page
12
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Define traction force
Traction force is defined as distributed force acting on the surface of the body. Unit: Force per
unit area.
Example: Frictional resistance, viscous drag, surface shear
What is point load?
Point load is force acting at a particular point which causes displacement.
What are the classifications of coordinates? Global coordinates
Local coordinates
Natural coordinates
What is Global coordinates?
The points in the entire structure are defined using coordinates system is known as global
coordinate system.
What is natural coordinates?
A natural coordinate system is used to define any point inside the element by a set of
dimensionless number whose magnitude never exceeds unity. This system is very useful in
assembling of stiffness matrices.
Define shape function.
Approximate relation φ (x,y) = N1 (x,y) φ1 + N2 (x,y) φ2 + N3 (x,y) φ3

Where φ1, φ2, and φ3 are the values of the field variable at the nodes N1, N2, and N3 are the
interpolation functions.
N1, N2, and N3 are also called shape functions because they are used to express the geometry
or shape of the element.
What are the characteristic of shape function?
It has unit value at one nodal point and zero value at other nodal points. The sum of shape
function is equal to one.
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Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Why polynomials are generally used as shape function?
Differentiation and integration of polynomial are quit easy. The accuracy of the result can be
improved by increasing the order of the polynomial. It is easy to formulate and computerize the
finite element equations.
How do you calculate the size of the global stiffness matrix?
Global stiffness matrix size = Number of nodes X Degrees of freedom per node
How do you define two dimensional elements?

Two dimensional elements are define by three or more nodes in a two dimensional plane. The
basic element useful for two dimensional analysis is the triangular element.
What is CST element?

Three noded triangular elements are known as CST. It has six unknown displacement degrees
of freedom (u1, v1, u2, v2, u3, v3). The element is called CST because it has a constant strain
throughout it.
What is LST element?
Six nodded triangular elements are known as LST. It has twelve unknown displacement
degrees of freedom. The displacement function for the elements are quadratic instead of linear
as in the CST.
What is QST element?
Ten nodded triangular elements are known as Quadratic strain triangle. It is also called as
cubic displacement triangle.
What meant by plane stress analysis?
Plane stress is defined to be a state of stress in which the normal stress and shear stress directed
perpendicular to the plane are assumed to be zero.
What is axisymmetric element?
Many three dimensional problem in engineering exhibit symmetry about an axis of rotation
such type of problem are solved by special two dimensional element called the axisymmetric
element
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14
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
What are the conditions for a problem to be axisymmetric?
The problem domain must be symmetric about the axis of revolution
All boundary condition must be symmetric about the axis of revolution
All loading condition must be symmetric about the axis of revolution
Give the stiffness matrix equation for an axisymmetric triangular element. Stiffness matrix
Chapter 6: Isoperimetric Elements
Fill in the Blank
i) An isoperimetric element can have straight edge and ………
ii) If order of shape function for geometric configuration is equal to the order of shape function
then such element is called as…………….
iii) If order of shape function for geometric configuration is lesser than the order of shape
iv) If order of shape function for geometric configuration is greater to the order of shape
v) ……..elements are the rectangular elements with ……….nodes
Answers: i) curved boundries ii) isoparametric element iii) sub-parametric element iv) super
parametric element
i) If shape functions are represented by Area Coordinates then
A) N1 = A1/A
B) N1 = A/A1
C) N1 = A1/N
D) N1 = N/A
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15
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
ii) Aspect ratio is the ratio of
A) The largest to smallest size in an element

B) The smallest to the largest size element
C) Smaller to the smallest size element
iii) Aspect ratio of the square of 1cm size will be
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
iv) Serendipity Elements are
A) Triangular Elements
B) Tetrahedron Element
C) Rectangular Elements
v) How many basic laws are there for Isoperimetric Formulations ?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
Answers: i)A ii) A iii) A iv) C v) C
Two Marks Questions
What is the purpose of Isoparametric element?
It is difficult to represent the curved boundaries by straight edges finite elements. A large
number of finite elements may be used to obtain reasonable resemblance between original body
and the assemblage.
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Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Define super parametric element.
If the number of nodes used for defining the geometry is more than of nodes used for defining
the displacement is known as super parametric element
Define sub parametric element.
If the number of nodes used for defining the geometry is less than number of nodes used for
defining the displacement is known as sub parametric element.
What is meant by Isoparametric element?
If the number of nodes used for defining the geometry is same as number of nodes used for
defining the displacement is known as Isoparametric element.
Is beam element an Isoparametric element?
Beam element is not an Isoparametric element since the geometry and displacement are
defined by different order interpretation functions.
What is the difference between natural coordinate and simple natural coordinate?
L1 = 1-x/l
L2 = x/l
What is Area coordinates?
L1 = A1/A L2 = A2/A L3 = A3/A
What is simple natural coordinate?
A simple natural coordinate is one whose value between -1 and 1.
Page
17
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Chapter 7: Numerical Integration
Fill in the Blank
i) The limitations of Newton Cotes equation is overcome by …………….. Method
ii) Double Integration methods include……………..and…………………….
iii) When we calculate area integration by………………., the area is divided in number of strips.
iv) The two values of y with respect to x are y1= …….. and y2=……. in Gauss Legendre two
point formula.
Answers: i) Gauss Legendre Quadraryre Method ii) Trapezoidal Rule and Simpson (1/3rd )Rule
iii) Newton Cotes Method iv) f(x1) and f(x2)
i) Newton Cotes method does include
A) Gauss Legendre Quadrature Method

C) Trapezoidal Rule
ii) Area under the curve A = (y1+y2) X C is found by which method
A) Gauss Legendre Three Point Formula

C) Trapezoidal Rule
iii) Trapezoidal Rule is applied for

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18
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iv) Simpson’s 1/3rd Rule is used for

Answers: i) C ii) B iii)B iv) A
Chapter 8: Steady State Heat Transfer
Two Marks Questions
I. There are……………modes of heat transfer.

II. Radiation heat transfer is the process by which the……………is exchanged between two surfaces.
III. A fin is …………….. Surface that is added to increase the rate of het removal.
IV. The governing differential equation for 1D Steady State Heat Transfer is derived according
to……………….
Answers: i) Three ii) Thermal Energy iii) extended iv) Fouriers Law of Conduction
Multiple Choice Questions
i) Convection is the heat transfer process by which the thermal energy is transferred between
A) Solid and Solid

B) Liquid and Liquid
C) Solid and Fluid
ii) For transfer of energy from one region to another through solid medium required
A) Pressure Difference
B) Temperature Difference
C) Pressure Rise
Page
19
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iii) Heat Transfer in fins involves
A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Both Conduction and Convection
iv) How many kind of Boundry Conditions are there in Heat Transfer problems
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
Answers: i) C ii) B ii) C iv) B
Two Marks Questions
States the assumption are made while finding the forces in a truss.
All the members are pin jointed.

The truss is loaded only at the joint
The self-weight of the members is neglected unless stated.
State the principles of virtual energy?
A body is in equilibrium if the internal virtual work equals the external virtual work for the
every kinematically admissible displacement field
What is essential boundary condition?
Primary boundary condition or EBC Boundary condition which in terms of field variable is
known as Primary boundary condition.
Natural boundary conditions?
Secondary boundary natural boundary conditions which are in the differential form of field
variable is known as secondary boundary condition
Page
20
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Chapter 9: Dynamic Analysis

Fill in the Blank
i) If a solid body is deformed elastically and suddenly released, it tends to vibrate

about……..position
ii) The periodic motion due to restoring strain energy is called………………………..
iii) The Maximum displacement from the equilibrium position is called as……………
iv)…………………….were used by Claude Shannon to determine the theoretical limit to how

much information can be transferred through communication medium.
v) The………………………of the bridge is the Eigen value of the smallest magnitude of a system
that models the bridge.
Answers: i) Equilibrium ii) Free Vibration iii) Amplitude iv) Eigen Values v) The Natural
Frequency
i) The number of cycles per unit time is called as
A) Vibration
B) Amplitude
C) Frequency
ii) The vibration which is under the influence of continuous external excitation is called as
A) Forced Vibration
B) Natural Frequency
C) Free Vibration
iii) The equation of motion for damped vibration is given by
A) mx+cx+Kx = 0
B) mx+cx = 0
C) cx+Kx = 0
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21
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iv) The Characteristic equation is given by
A) [K]-λ*M+=0
B) [K]- [M]=0
C) λ*M+=0
Answers: i) C ii) A iii) A iv) A
Two Marks Questions
Static analysis: The solution of the problem does not vary with time is known as static analysis
Example: stress analysis on a beam
Dynamic analysis: The solution of the problem varies with time is known as dynamic analysis
Concentrated load acting point Cross- section changing point Different material inter junction
point

Static analysis: The solution of the problem does not vary with time is known as static analysis.
Example: stress analysis on a beam Dynamic analysis: The solution of the problem varies with
time is known as dynamic analysis
Example: vibration analysis problem.
Page
22
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Define Eigen value problem.

The problem of determining the constant is called eigen value problem.
Chapter 10: Stress Analysis in 3D Problems
Fill in the Blank
i) The First Principle stress in 3D Element is given by…………..

ii) It is now obvious that the first step in the finite element analysis is to…..
iii) The selection of tool completely depends on the ……………and rate of

accuracy.
iv) ANSYS can import all kinds of …………… from different CAD software's and
perform simulations
Answers:
i) σ1=
ii) Discretize the problem.
iii) Work requirement
iv) CAD geometries
Objective Type of Question
i) For Crash Testing which software is used ?
A) Ansys
B) Creo
C) Pamcrash
ii) For Good Meshing which software is used ?
A) Ansys
B) Creo
C) Hypermesh
Page
23
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
iii) For Composite Materials which software is used ?

B) Creo
C) Hypermesh
iv) For Fatigue Failure studies which tools is used ?

B) Abaqus
C) Hypermesh
Answers: i) C ii) C iii) A iv) B
Two Marks Questions
Name any four FEA softwares.

ANSYS
NASTRAN
COSMOS
NISA
Write in short advantages of Ansys Software
ANSYS can import all kinds of CAD geometries (3D and 2D) from different CAD
software's and perform simulations, and also it has the capability of creating one
effortlessly.
ANSYS has inbuilt CAD developing software's like Design Modeler and Space Claim
which makes the work flow even smoother.
ANSYS has the capability of performing advanced engineering simulations accurately

and realistic in nature by its variety of contact algorithms, time dependent simulations
and nonlinear material models.
Page
24
Prof. Shaikh Ubaid
Write Advantages of Nastran Software
 Multidisciplinary Structural Analysis

 Structural Assembly Modeling
 Automated Structural Optimization
 High Performance Computing
 Customer Service
How 3D Problems can be reduced to 2D Problems?
All 2D approximations like plane stress criteria, plane strain criteria, axis symmetric
criteria reduce 3D problems into 2D problems.
The main benefits of this 2D approximation is reducing the computing time, as

number of elements are less the most accurate mesh can be generated and
convergence error will be reduced therefore very accurate results will be obtained.
Classify Mesh Generation Methods
Mesh generation methods are broadly classified among

1. Semi-Automatic Method
a. Wireframe based and surface based methods
b. Solid Modeling based methods
2. Fully Automatic Method
a. Node based approach
b. Element based approach
Page
25

is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C


is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C


Answer D
D None of the above
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answer A


A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C
B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
represented as
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
D Only c
Answer B
A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector

B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
multiplied?
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation
Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
the equation


Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D
Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling

Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
Answer B
A Turn
B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A
D Only a
Answer D
as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B



Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled
B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Pure rotation

B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C

A of same size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting

C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A
B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
A 8
B 9
C 4

D 6
Answer D
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C
A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
displayed is called
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D

A True
B False
Answer A

A True
B False
Answer B
A Roaming
B Panning
C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
D All of these
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
Answer D
A D
B 1/d
C -d
D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
called
Answer B
A Orthographic

B Isometric
C Perspective
D None of the above
Answer C
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
0 0 1
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Answer C
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)
D (10, 5)
Answer C


Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
modelling?
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling
Answer B
A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
element analysis:
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D


A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D
A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
A Control points


B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 1
C 3


D 4
Answer B
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B
polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C

Answer C
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D


A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B

D none of the above
Answer C
equal to
Answer A
known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B

D none of the above
Answer B



D none of the above
Answer B
subtracted in .
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B

B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
A solid modeling
B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A
A Solid model


B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
Answer D
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B
technique?


Answer C
A Tweaking
B Lofting
C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A
A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B


A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k
D 6-2j-2k
Answer A
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B


Answer A
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5
Answer B
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11


C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal


Answer A
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
Answer A
equal to



Answer A
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

D none of the above
Answer A

D none of the above
Answer B

D none of the above
Answer C
D none of the above


Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D

D none of the above


Answer B

D none of the above
Answer B

B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
A along the curve

Answer D
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C
A Extrude
B Revolve
C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C


A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
technique

Answer C


D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D
called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0

B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles
B molecules
C elements
D none

Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above
Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
having an order of
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function

B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction
D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D


A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C
D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
is .
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A
A thermal


C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B

Answer D
B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
element
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
.

A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
other nodes
C both a & b
D None of the above
Answer C
.
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
considered in .

Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above
Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D

D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small
C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12

Answer C
A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B


Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
B graphics software
Answer A
D rapid feed
Answer A

A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C

dimension


Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A

B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer C

A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C

A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut
C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
reference point
B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D

A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
Previous point.
B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C

Answer A

A CANCEL Subroutine
B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B

C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C
Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro

C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
m/min, V is
A = 𝜋𝐷𝑁/1000
B = 𝜋𝐷/1000
C = 𝐷𝑁/1000
D =𝜋𝐷𝑁/10
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
A Common Cycle
C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D

be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B

C Start Point
Answer A
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B


A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56
D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05

B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C
is called
Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C



Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C
A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B

Answer A
Answer C
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)

B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)
D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
D All the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

A Bending
D Forging
Answer C

Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling
D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing

C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions
B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A


Answer B

Answer C

Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D

Answer B


Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B

D It's cheaper
Answer D


D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp

Answer C

B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above
Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B
C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D

A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological

D all of the above

Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths
Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B
A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above

Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data
D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D

A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt
B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D

Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C
A LOM
B SLS

C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype

Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D

D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C


Answer B
Answer A
widely used?

D Stereolithography
Answer D
A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D

A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B

B 3D Printing
Answer D
A 3D Modeling

B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D

Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage
D All of the above
Answer D
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C

A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage
C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B
machine etc
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B
A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B KK3 system

D All of the above

Answer D
A KK3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer A


D All of the above

Answer D

B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D

D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train

B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D
A Wire guided
B Paint strip


D All of the above
Answer D

C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C

D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout

B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer C
A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout

C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B

Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B



Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems
D None of the above
Answer A
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement

Answer A
A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C

B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A

C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers
Answer A
A True
B False
C
D
Answer B
known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor

D Range detector
Answer A
A Force sensor
B Tactile sensor
C Proximity sensor
D None of the above
Answer C
A VAL
B AML
C ABD
D Both A & B
Answer D
A Vision sensors
B Infrared sensors
D Range detectors
Answer B
A Range detectors
B Infrared sensors
C Vision sensors
Answer C
A Pitch
B Roll
C Yaw
D None of the above
Answer A

A Pitch
B Roll
C Yaw
D None of the above
Answer B
A Roll
B Pitch
C Yaw
D Speed of movement
Answer C
A Manual method
D All of the above
Answer D
A 3 linear motion
Answer A
D 3 linear motion
Answer C

B 3 linear motion
Answer D

C 3 linear motion
Answer B

Answer D

D C
Answer B
B Process Planning
C Product design
D None of the above
Answer B

C Both A &B

D None of the above

Answer C

D None of the above
Answer C
A Rapid Production
B Rapid prototyping
Answer B
A Reduced lead time

D All of the above
Answer A
C Group Technology
D None of the above
Answer C
Answer A


A Type and Shape
Answer B
analysis
A Grinding
B Milling
C Drilling
D Gear cutting
Answer D
D All of the above
Answer C

D All of the above
Answer C
A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B

A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Poly code
B Hybrid code
C Mono code
D None of the above
Answer A
A Poly code
B Hybrid code
C Mono code
D None of the above
Answer C
A Variant CAPP
B Generative CAPP
C Hybrid CAPP
D All of the above
Answer A
A Variant CAPP
B Generative CAPP
C Hybrid CAPP
D All of the above
Answer B
A Product layout
B Process layout

D GT layout
Answer A
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer A
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer B
A Product layout
B Process layout
D GT layout
Answer C

Answer B

Answer D

A Poly code
B Mono code
C Hybrid code
Answer A
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer A
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer C
A Form code
B Secondary code
D Stationary code
Answer B
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow
Answer A
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow

Answer B
A Design attributes
D Maintenance flow
Answer C
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer A
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer B
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer C
A Part class
B Main shape
Answer D
A Part class
B Main shape


Answer C
Answer A
Answer C
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer C
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer B
configuration
A Flexible
B Programmable
C Fixed
D All of above
Answer C

A Low Production
B Medium Production
C High Production
D None
Answer C
Answer B

CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION
[Multiple Choice
Questions]

GRAPHICS
Answe D
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r

D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answe A
r
A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C

B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
D Only c
Answer B

A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector
B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation

Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
using the equation
Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D

Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling
Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
point is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
position?
Answer B
A Turn

B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A

D Only a
Answer D

known as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B
Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled

B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False

Answer B
A Pure rotation
B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C
of same
A size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)

Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting
C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False

Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A

B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
A 8
B 9
C 4
D 6
Answer D
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D

A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Roaming
B Panning

C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
can be manipulated.
D All of these
Answer C
A True
B False
Answer A

Answer D

A D
B 1/d
C -d

D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
is called
Answer B

A Orthographic
B Isometric
C Perspective

D None of the above
Answer C
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
001
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
001
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
001
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
001
Answer C
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)

D (10, 5)
Answer C

Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling

Answer B

A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D
A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D

A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4

Answer B

.
A Control points
B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A

.
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B

.
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A

.

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

. polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C

.
Answer C

.
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C

.
A Analytical

C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

Answer A
. is known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer B
CAD/CAM &
.
D none of the above

Answer B

.
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A solid modeling

B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A

.
A Solid model
B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
.
Answer D
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C

.
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B

Answer C
A Tweaking
B Lofting

C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
.
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A

. A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B
. u=0.25
A [3.75 4.25 6.25]
B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C

.
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k

D 6-2j-2k
Answer A

.
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D

.
A True
B False
Answer B

.
Answer A

.
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
. of circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C

.
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5

Answer B

.
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11
C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer A

.
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B

.
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
. as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
.
Answer A
equal to

Answer A
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

.
D none of the above
Answer A

.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

.

D none of the above
Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
. derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above

Answer C

.
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D

.
D none of the above
Answer B
.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C

.
A along the curve
Answer D
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A Extrude
B Revolve

C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
. technique

Answer C

Name of Unit: FEA
D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D

are called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
known as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0
B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5

D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles

B molecules
C elements
D none
Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above

Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function
B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction

D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.20

D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C

D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
space is.
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A

A thermal
C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B
Answer D


B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
called _ .
A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
the other nodes
C both a & b

D None of the above
Answer C
as .
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
is considered in .
Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above

Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small

C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
Answer C

A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B

Name of Unit: CAM

Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
B graphics software

Answer A
D rapid feed
Answer A
A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A

NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C

Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A
B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis

C c-axis
Answer C
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B

A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C
A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut

C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A

B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D
A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
B Absolute System
C Datum System

Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C
Answer A
A CANCEL Subroutine

B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B
C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C

Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro
C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
A Common Cycle

C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D
cannot be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B

C Start Point
A Answer
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
contour done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B

A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56

D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05
B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C

Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C

A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B
Answer A
Answer C
cutter will be
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)

D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
D All the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C

B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

UNIT No-05
A Bending
D Forging
Answer C
Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling

D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing
C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions

B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A

Answer B
Answer C
Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D
Answer B
Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B

D It's cheaper
Answer D
D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D

A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp
Answer C
B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above

Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B

C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D
A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A

object.
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological
D all of the above
Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths

Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B

A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data

D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D
A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt

B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D
Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C

A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM

D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D
D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C
Answer B
Answer A
2. widely used?
D Stereolithography
Answer D
3.

A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
4.
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D
A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False

C
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B
B 3D Printing
Answer D

A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D
Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage

D All of the above
Answer D
as_____.
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C
A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage

C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
technology
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B

machine etc
A True
B False
Answer B
UNIT No-06
B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B

A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B 3 system
D All of the above
Answer D
A 3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A

0.
D All of the above
Answer D
B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train
B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D

A Wire guided
B Paint strip
D All of the above
Answer D
C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C

D None of the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout
B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C
Answer C

A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout

D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B
Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
FMS
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems

D None of the above
Answer A
characteristics
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement
Answer A

A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C
B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A
C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers

Answer A
etc
A True
B False
Answer B
are known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor

CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION
[Multiple Choice
Questions]

GRAPHICS
Answe D
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r

D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answe A
r
A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C

B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
D Only c
Answer B

A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector
B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation

Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
using the equation
Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D

Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling
Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
point is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
position?
Answer B
A Turn

B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A

D Only a
Answer D

known as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B
Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled

B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False

Answer B
A Pure rotation
B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C
of same
A size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)

Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting
C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False

Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A

B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
A 8
B 9
C 4
D 6
Answer D
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D

A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Roaming
B Panning

C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
can be manipulated.
D All of these
Answer C
A True
B False
Answer A

Answer D

A D
B 1/d
C -d

D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
is called
Answer B

A Orthographic
B Isometric
C Perspective

D None of the above
Answer C
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
001
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
001
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
001
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
001
Answer C
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)

D (10, 5)
Answer C

Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling

Answer B

A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D
A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D

A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4

Answer B

.
A Control points
B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A

.
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B

.
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A

.

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

. polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C

.
Answer C

.
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C

.
A Analytical

C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

Answer A
. is known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer B
CAD/CAM &
.
D none of the above

Answer B

.
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A solid modeling

B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A

.
A Solid model
B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
.
Answer D
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C

.
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B

Answer C
A Tweaking
B Lofting

C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
.
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A

. A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B
. u=0.25
A [3.75 4.25 6.25]
B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C

.
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k

D 6-2j-2k
Answer A

.
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D

.
A True
B False
Answer B

.
Answer A

.
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
. of circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C

.
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5

Answer B

.
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11
C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer A

.
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B

.
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
. as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
.
Answer A
equal to

Answer A
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

.
D none of the above
Answer A

.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

.

D none of the above
Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
. derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above

Answer C

.
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D

.
D none of the above
Answer B
.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C

.
A along the curve
Answer D
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A Extrude
B Revolve

C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
. technique

Answer C

Name of Unit: FEA
D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D

are called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
known as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0
B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5

D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles

B molecules
C elements
D none
Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above

Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function
B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction

D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.20

D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C

D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
space is.
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A

A thermal
C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B
Answer D


B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
called _ .
A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
the other nodes
C both a & b

D None of the above
Answer C
as .
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
is considered in .
Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above

Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small

C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
Answer C

A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B

Name of Unit: CAM

Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
B graphics software

Answer A
D rapid feed
Answer A
A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A

NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C

Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A
B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis

C c-axis
Answer C
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B

A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C
A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut

C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A

B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D
A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
B Absolute System
C Datum System

Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C
Answer A
A CANCEL Subroutine

B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B
C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C

Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro
C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
A Common Cycle

C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D
cannot be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B

C Start Point
A Answer
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
contour done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B

A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56

D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05
B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C

Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C

A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B
Answer A
Answer C
cutter will be
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)

D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
D All the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C

B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

UNIT No-05
A Bending
D Forging
Answer C
Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling

D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing
C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions

B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A

Answer B
Answer C
Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D
Answer B
Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B

D It's cheaper
Answer D
D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D

A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp
Answer C
B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above

Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B

C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D
A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A

object.
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological
D all of the above
Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths

Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B

A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data

D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D
A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt

B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D
Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C

A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM

D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D
D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C
Answer B
Answer A
2. widely used?
D Stereolithography
Answer D
3.

A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
4.
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D
A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False

C
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B
B 3D Printing
Answer D

A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D
Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage

D All of the above
Answer D
as_____.
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C
A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage

C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
technology
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B

machine etc
A True
B False
Answer B
UNIT No-06
B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B

A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B 3 system
D All of the above
Answer D
A 3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A

0.
D All of the above
Answer D
B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train
B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D

A Wire guided
B Paint strip
D All of the above
Answer D
C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C

D None of the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout
B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C
Answer C

A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout

D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B
Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
FMS
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems

D None of the above
Answer A
characteristics
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement
Answer A

A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C
B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A
C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers

Answer A
etc
A True
B False
Answer B
are known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor

CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION
[Multiple Choice
Questions]

GRAPHICS
Answe D
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r

D None of the above
Answe B
r
D None of the above
Answe B
r
A P’=S*P
B P’=R*P
C P’=dx+dy
D P’=S*S
Answe A
r
A P’=T+P
B P’=S*P
C P’=R*P
D P’=dx+dy
Answer C

B To scale
C To rotate
Answer A
A (x’, y’, z’)
B (x, y, z)
C (x’, y’, w’)
D (x’, y’, w)
Answer D
A 1
B 0
C -1
D Any value
Answer A
D Only c
Answer B

A (h.x, h.y, h.z)
B (h.x, h.y, h)
C (x, y, h.z)
D (x,y,z)
Answer B
A Magnitude Vector
B Unit Vector
C Non-Zero Vector
Answer D
B 3D co-ordinates
Answer D
A Scaling
B Homogeneous
D 3D Transformation

Answer B
C Only b
Answer A
C X and Y
D Only a
Answer D
B Shift vector
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
using the equation
Answer B
A P’=P+T
B P’=P-T
C P’=P*T
D P’=P
Answer A
A Rotation
B Scaling
C Translation
Answer C
A P’=P+T
B Dx and Dy
C P’=P+P
D Only c
Answer A
C Differences
D Only b
Answer D

Answer B
A Translation
B Rotation
C Scaling
Answer D
C Only b
Answer C
A Rotation angle θ
C Rotation distance
Answer A
point is known as
A Rotation
B Translation
C Scaling
D Shearing
Answer A
Answer C
Answer B
position?
Answer B
A Turn

B Shift
C Compression
D Drag element
Answer A
rotated line.
A (3.232, 2.598)
B (5.232, 3.598)
C (3.232, 1.298)
D (3.232, 1.598)
Answer D
A End points
C Only a
D None
Answer B
A Scaling
B Rotation
C Translation
D Reflection
Answer A

D Only a
Answer D

known as…………………………….
A Pivot point
B Fixed point
D Uniform scaling
Answer B
Answer B
Answer C
A Scaled

B Repositioned
C Both a and b
D Neither a nor b
Answer C
D None
Answer A
Answer D
Answer A
A True
B False

Answer B
A Pure rotation
B Quarter rotation
C Half rotation
D True reflection
Answer A
A 1
B 0
C -1
D 2
Answer C
of same
A size
B same orientation
D virtual
Answer B
B (x, y) → (ax, by)

Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer B
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 5
Answer D
A Selecting
B Sorting
C Scaling
D Skewing
Answer D
A True
B False

Answer B
A Reflection plane.
B Origin
C Reflection axis
D Co-ordinate axis.
Answer C
A Multiplicative
B Inverse
C Subtractive
D Additive
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A
Answer B
A A∙B = B∙A

B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)
D 1A=A1
Answer A
A 8
B 9
C 4
D 6
Answer D
A Rotation
B Scaling up
C Scaling down
D Shearing
Answer D
A Zero matrix
B Identity matrix
C Row matrix
D Diagonal matrix
Answer C

A True
B False
Answer A
A 4
B 3
C 5
D 6
Answer B
C World window
D Interface window
Answer A
C World window
D Interface window
Answer B

C World window
D Interface window
Answer C
C World window
D Interface window
Answer D

A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B
A Roaming
B Panning

C Zooming
D Tiling
Answer D
can be manipulated.
D All of these
Answer C
A True
B False
Answer A

Answer D

A D
B 1/d
C -d

D -1/d
Answer D
A Window
B Viewpoint
C Pixel
D None of the above
Answer B
Q.75 A Pixel is
D All of the above
Answer C
is called
Answer B

A Orthographic
B Isometric
C Perspective

D None of the above
Answer C
A (4.268, 6.732)
B (5.268, 6.732)
C (4.268, 4.732)
D (6.268, 4.732)
Answer A
Matrix.
A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
001
B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
001
C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
001
D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
001
Answer C
A (10, 2)
B (2, 10)
C (10, 10)

D (10, 5)
Answer C

Answer C
A (10, 10)
B (15, 10)
C (15, 15)
D (10, 15)
Answer A
B Drafting
C Surface modelling
D solid modelling

Answer B

A Surface modelling
B Solid modelling
D All of the above
Answer C
B Surface modelling
C Solid modeling
D none of the above
Answer D
A Box
B Cone
C Cylinder
D Circle
Answer D

A Line
B Circle
C Spline
D Parabola
Answer C
A Hyperbola
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
Answer A
A Parabola
B Ellipse
C Hyperbola
D Line
Answer D

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4

Answer B

.
A Control points
B Knots
C End points
D All the above
Answer A

.
A Cubic spline
B B-spline
C Bezier curve
D Both (b) and (c)
Answer B

.
A n+1
B n-1
C n
D 2n
Answer A

.

C Remains constant
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A 4
B 3
C 2
D 5
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

.
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
Answer B

. polygon
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above
Answer C

.
Answer C

.
A Plane Surface
B Ruled Surface
D All of the above
Answer C

.
A Analytical

C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

Answer A
. is known as
A interpolant curve
C pitch curve
D data curve
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer B
CAD/CAM &
.
D none of the above

Answer B

.
A Bezier curve
B B-spline curve
D all of the above
Answer B
.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A solid modeling

B surface modeling
D 2D modeling
Answer A

.
A Solid model
B Surface model
C Wireframe model
D none of the above
Answer A
.
Answer D
A FEA
B transformations
D none of the above
Answer C

.
A a binary tree
C a primitive
D none of the above
Answer A
.
A CSG
B B-rep
C Loft
D none of the above
Answer B

Answer C
A Tweaking
B Lofting

C Filleting
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer B
.
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]
B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Answer A

. A 3i+j-5k
B 3i-j-5k
C 3i-j+5k
D -3i-j-5k
Answer B
. u=0.25
A [3.75 4.25 6.25]
B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Answer C

.
A P1 X P2=0
B P1 . P2=0
C P1 = P2
D P1+ P2=0
Answer A
A 2i+2j-6k
B 2i+2j+6k
C 2i-2j-6k

D 6-2j-2k
Answer A

.
A i+4j-k
B 2i+4j+k
C i-4j-2k
D i+4j+2k
Answer D

.
A True
B False
Answer B

.
Answer A

.
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Answer A
A 9.24,9.24
B 9.42,9.42
C 9,9
D 11,5
Answer A
. of circle
A 7,8
B 8,8
C 8,7
D 7,7
Answer C

.
A 3
B 3.6
C 4
D 3.5

Answer B

.
A 11.6, 7
B 7, 11
C 11, 7
D 11.5, 7.5
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A -5u3+8u2+u+1
B 5u3+8u2+u+1
C 8u3-5u2-u+1
D 8u3+5u2+u+1
Answer A
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]
A 2u3-3u2+2u+4
B 3u3-2u2-2u-4
C 2u3-3u2-2u-4
D 2u3+3u2+2u+4
Answer A

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer C

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer B

.
A Common tangent
B Common curvature
C Common point
D Common normal
Answer A

.
A Explicit form
B Laplace form
C Implicit form
D Parametric form
Answer B

.
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer D
. as
B pitch curve
C data curve
D interpolant curve
Answer A
.
Answer A
equal to

Answer A
A larger than
B smaller than
C equal to
D none of the above
Answer C

.
D none of the above
Answer A

.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
D none of the above
Answer C

.

D none of the above
Answer B
A B-spline curve
C Beizer curve
D none of the above
Answer B
. derivatives.
A lower
B higher
D none of the above
Answer B
.
A normal
B parallel
C tangent
D none of the above

Answer C

.
A Analytical
C Beizer
D B-Spline
Answer D

.
D none of the above
Answer B
.
D none of the above
Answer B

.
B Bezier curve
C B-spline curve
D Hyperbola
Answer C

.
A along the curve
Answer D
.
A ruled Surface
B plane Surface
C coons patch
Answer C

.
A Extrude
B Revolve

C Pattern
D All of the above
Answer C
.
A Extrude
B Sweep
C Shell
D Revolve
Answer C
.
A revolve
B sweep
C extrude
D all of the above
Answer A
. technique

Answer C

Name of Unit: FEA
D None of the above
Answer B
A Tetrahedron
B Quadrilateral
C Parallelogram
D Rectangle
Answer A
A Triangle
B Parallelogram
C Rectangle
D Bar
Answer D

are called
A static elements
B dynamic elements
C infinite elements
D finite elements
Answer D
known as
A discretization
B assemblage
C continuum
D traction
Answer A
A 0
B 0.5
C 1
D 2
Answer C
A 3
B 4
C 5

D 6
Answer D
A nature of element
D nodes
Answer C
A KQ=F
B KQ≠F
C K=QF
D K≠QF
Answer A
C applied mechanics
Answer D
A particles

B molecules
C elements
D none
Answer C
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 0
Answer B
C Laplace equations
D All of the above
Answer A
A material
B geometry
D none of the above

Answer C
A bar
B triangle
C hexahedron
D tetrahedron
Answer B
A 2*2
B 3*3
C 4*4
D 6*6
Answer B
A shape function
B node function
C element function
Answer A
A friction
B traction

D surfacing
Answer C
A surface force
B axial force
C point load
D none of the above
Answer B
Q.20

D axial direction
Answer D
B brick element
C truss element
Answer C
A 3
B 2
C 1
D 0
Answer D
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 9
Answer C

D All the above
Answer D
A 1D
B 2D
C 3D
D 4D
Answer B
A Pre-processing
B Solution
C Post Processing
D None
Answer C
space is.
A 3
B 4
C 1
D 2
Answer A

A thermal
C vibration
D all of the above
Answer D
A elements
B modules
C links
D models
Answer B
Answer D


B Mode shape ratio
C Aspect ratio
D None of the above
Answer C
A Mode shapes
B Shape functions
C Natural curves
D None of the above
Answer B
called _ .
A plane stress
B plane strain
C zero stress
D zero strain
Answer A
the other nodes
C both a & b

D None of the above
Answer C
as .
D none of the above
Answer C
B gravity of dams
D all of the above
Answer C
is considered in .
Answer D

B K is un-symmetric
D none of the above
Answer A
A very large
B very small
D any of the above
Answer A
A ANSYS
B Nastran
C Abaqus
D AutoCAD
Answer D
A Static analysis
B Thermal analysis
C Modal analysis
D All of the above

Answer C
A stress
B strain
C displacement
D Temperature
Answer D
D all of the above
Answer C
D any of the above
Answer C
A zero
B very small

C very large
D infinite
Answer D
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer B
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 10
Answer C
A 6
B 8
C 10
D 12
Answer C

A more
B less
D can't say
Answer A
A R=KQ+F
B R=KQ-F
C R=K+QF
D R=K-QF
Answer B

Name of Unit: CAM

Answer C
B CAD and CAM
Answer B
A software package
B operating system
Answer A
B graphics software

Answer A
D rapid feed
Answer A
A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Answer B
A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer A

NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Answer C

Answer C

Answer C
A NC
B CNC
C DNC
Answer B
A a hardware unit
B a software unit
C a control unit
Answer A
B mechanical errors
C electrical errors
Answer B
A a-axis
B b-axis

C c-axis
Answer C
A a-axis
B b-axis
C c-axis
Answer D
A networking
B pairing
C interlocking
D assembling
Answer A
A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer B

A reading
B writing
C controlling
D hand shaking
Answer A
A milling
B boring
C welding
D tapping
Answer C
A length/revolution
B degree/revolution
C length
D velocity
Answer A
A feed
B depth of cut

C depth of tool
D working depth
Answer B
A in parallel
B in series
Answer A
B Improved quality
Answer D
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer B

A reaming
B parting
C grooving
D facing
Answer A
A helicoidal
B pentagonal
C triangular
D zig-zag
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A

B Absolute System
C Datum System
Answer B
A Sequence
B Address
C Code
D Block
Answer D
A Words
B Alphabet
C Numbers
D Format
Answer A
B Absolute System
C Datum System

Answer A
Answer B
A Peck Drilling
B Counter Boring
C Thread Cutting
D Grooving
Answer C
Answer A
A CANCEL Subroutine

B Call Sub-Program
C Call Subroutine
Answer B
A Depth of cut
B Pitch
D Feed
Answer B
C Both A & B
Answer D
A X
B Y
C Z
D C

Answer A
A Perpendicular
B Parallel
C Rotational
D All of the above
Answer B
A Micro
B Macro
C Sub Macro
D Sub Micro
Answer B
Answer A
A J
B I
C K
D None of the above
Answer B
A Common Cycle

C Canned Cycle
D None of the above
Answer C
A G71
B G72
C G73
D G74
Answer D
cannot be changed
A Blocking Point
C Start Point
Answer B

C Start Point
A Answer
A G16
B G17
C G18
D G19
Answer B
A Tool length
C Cutter radius
D Compensation
Answer B
contour done by
A G40
B G41
C G42
D G43
Answer B

A G90
B G91
C G92
D G93
Answer C
A G23
B G28
C G14
D G19
Answer B
A G18
B G65
C G45
D G04
Answer D
A G00
B G01
C G56

D G94
Answer A
A Left-hand rule
B Right-Hand Rule
C Thumb Rule
D None of the above
Answer B
A M05
B M06
C M07
D M09
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer C

Answer D
A Lathe machine
B NC machine
C CNC machine
D Milling machine
Answer C
A UMC
B VMC
C HMC
D DNC
Answer C

Answer A
A Open-loop system
D None of the above
Answer C
A 60
B 80
C 90
D 100
Answer B
C A & B both
D None of the above
Answer C

A (7.5, 5)
B (10, 5)
C (7.5, -5)
D (10, -5)
Answer B
Answer A
Answer C
cutter will be
A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)
B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)
C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)

D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)
Answer A
D All the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A CAM data
B CAPP data
C CAD data
D All of the above
Answer C

B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer A
B Additive process
C Formative process
D All of above
Answer C
A Milling
C Sawing
D EDM
Answer B

UNIT No-05
A Bending
D Forging
Answer C
Answer A
A Physical mockup
B 2D surface data
C Tooling

D 3D CAD data
Answer C
Answer C
A SGC
B SLA
C STL
D SLS
Answer C
A chopping
B slicing
C cutting
D trimming
Answer B
A thin portions

B thick portions
D all of the above
Answer C
A CNC machine
B VMC machine
C RP machine
D CAPP machine
Answer C
A B-rep method
B STL method
C CSG method
D PRT method
Answer B
A Polygons
B Lines
C Surfaces
D None of the above
Answer A

Answer B
Answer C
Answer B

Answer C
A Stratasys
B CAM-LEM
C Kira Corporation
Answer D
Answer B
Answer C

C Titanium alloys
D Photopolymer
Answer D
A Titanium alloys
B Photopolymer
C Various materials
D Paper
Answer A
A Photopolymer
C Titanium alloys
D Various materials
Answer B

D It's cheaper
Answer D
D lines and circles
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer D

A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer B
A ABS
B PLA
C Nylon
D INF
Answer C
A .prt
B .sld
C .dwg
D .stp
Answer C
B geometrical data
C drawing data
D all of the above

Answer B
A increase
B decrease
D remains constant
Answer A
A Machine size
B Tolerance
C Material
D CAD software
Answer B
D None of the above
Answer B

C SLS
D Injection molding
Answer D
A Time
B Material
C Sound
D Light
Answer A
A STL
B SLC
C LEAF
D RP
Answer D
A HP/GL
B ACER
C ASUS
D IBM
Answer A

object.
A linear
B triangular
C square
D hexagonal
Answer B
A ASCII
B Binary
C Both A & B
D Neither A nor B
Answer C
A geographical
B analytical
C topological
D all of the above
Answer C
preferable?
B Zigzag tool paths

Answer D
A no missing facets
D all of the above
Answer D
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer C
Prototyping?
A Model slicing
B Part orientation
Answer B

A Higher resolution
B Larger polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer A
A Higher resolution
B Smaller polygons
C Lower resolution
D None of the above
Answer C
A Start section
B Global section
C Terminate section
D Flag section
Answer D
A Layer by layer
B Physical model
C From 3D CAD data

D Production line
Answer D
A FDM
B SLA
C SLS
D LOM
Answer A
A Post-processing
C Pre-processing
D All of the above
Answer D
A Build
B Concept
C Pre-processing
Answer B
A .prt

B .slt
C .stl
D .iges
Answer C
A CREO
B CATIA
C NX Unigraphics
D Adobe Illustrator
Answer D
Answer A
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer C

A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer D
A LOM
B SLS
C FDM
D MJM
Answer B
A Paper
B Plastic
C Metal
D Glass
Answer D
A SLA
B SLS
C FDM

D MJM
Answer C
A Remove support
Answer B
C Solid Prototype
D Virtual Prototype
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B

D Stereolithography
Answer D
D Stereolithography
Answer C
C Stereolithography
Answer C

Answer C
Answer B
Answer A
2. widely used?
D Stereolithography
Answer D
3.

A Vacuum Casting
D Injection molding
Answer C
4.
A LOM Composite
C Sand Molding
D Injection molding
Answer D
A machining wax
B foam core
C powder
D rubber
Answer C
A True
B False

C
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer A
A SL
B SLS
C EBM
D FDM
Answer B
B 3D Printing
Answer D

A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer A
A 3D Modeling
B Data Conversion
C Building
D Postprocessing
Answer D
Answer C
B Growth stage
C Mature stage

D All of the above
Answer D
as_____.
A Saturation stage
B Mature stage
C Growth stage
Answer C
A Mature stage
C Decline stage
D None of the above
Answer B
A Growth stage

C Mature stage
D Decline stage
Answer D
A Mature stage
B Growth stage
C Decline stage
Answer A
technology
A True
B False
Answer A
A True
B False
Answer B

machine etc
A True
B False
Answer B
UNIT No-06
B Group technology
D None of the above
Answer B

A Product layout
B Process layout
C In line layout
D None of the above
Answer B
A GT layout
B Product layout
C Process layout
D Hybrid layout
Answer C
A Process layout
B GT layout
C Product layout
D Both A & B
Answer D

B 3 system
D All of the above
Answer D
A 3 system
Answer C
A Part family
B Mono family
C GT family
D Poly family
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer A

0.
D All of the above
Answer D
B Group technology
C Automated system
D None of the above
Answer A

D All of the above
Answer D
D None of the above
Answer C
A Driver less train
B Pallet trucks
D All of the above
Answer D

A Wire guided
B Paint strip
D All of the above
Answer D
C Material transfer
Answer B
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C

D None of the above
Answer A
D All of the above
Answer D
A In line layout
B Ladder layout
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C
Answer C

A Loop layout
B In line layout
C Ladder layout
D Open field layout
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B In line layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer C
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
D None of the above
Answer A
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout

D None of the above
Answer B
A Ladder layout
B Open field layout
C Loop layout
Answer D
A True
B False
Answer B
Answer A

C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer B
Answer C
A Conveyor systems
B AGVS
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Answer C
FMS
A Industrial Robot
B Conveyor systems

D None of the above
Answer A
characteristics
A Robot
B Manipulator
C Gripper
D None of the above
Answer A
A Mechatronics
B Robotics
C Aeronautics
D None of the above
Answer B
A Work envelope
B Speed of movement
Answer A

A Velocity of robot
B Maximum reach
C Speed of movement
Answer C
B Work envelope
C Maximum reach
D None of the above
Answer A
A End effector
B Gripper
C Sensor
D Manipulator
Answer D

B Hold the objects
C Fix the objects
D None of the above
Answer A
C Both A& B
D None of the above
Answer C
B Adhesive grippers
D Magnetic grippers
Answer B
A Magnetic grippers
C Adhesive grippers

Answer A
etc
A True
B False
Answer B
are known as____
B Proximity sensors
C Contact sensors
D None of the above
Answer C
A Tactile sensor
B Proximity sensor
C Visual sensor


is………………
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=T*P
Correct Answer D
Option A P’=S*P
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=dx+dy
Option D P’=S*S
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=T+P
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=R*P
Option D P’=dx+dy
Correct Answer C
Option B To scale
Option C To rotate
Correct Answer A
represented as
Option B (x, y, z)
Correct Answer D
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D Any value
Correct Answer A

Option D Only c
Correct Answer B
Option D (x,y,z)
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer D
(n+1) coordinates.
Option A Scaling
Correct Answer B
Option C Only b
Correct Answer A


Option C X and Y
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
the equation
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=P-T
Option C P’=P*T
Option D P’=P
Correct Answer A
deformation.
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling
Correct Answer C
Option A P’=P+T
Option B Dx and Dy
Option C P’=P+P
Option D Only c
Correct Answer A


Option D Only b
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer B
Option B Rotation
Option C Scaling
Correct Answer D
Option C Only b
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A Rotation
Option C Scaling
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer A


Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=R*P
Option C P’=P*P
Option D P’=R+P
Correct Answer B
deformation.
Option B Scaling
Option C Rotation
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer C
Option A Turn
Option B Shift
Correct Answer A
Option A (3.232, 2.598)

Option B (5.232, 3.598)
Option C (3.232, 1.298)
Option D (3.232, 1.598)
Correct Answer D

Option A End points
Option C Only a
Option D None
Correct Answer B
Option A Scaling
Option B Rotation
Option D Reflection
Correct Answer A
Option A P’=P+T
Option B P’=S*P
Option C P’=P*R
Option D P’=R+S
Correct Answer B
Option D Only a
Correct Answer D
as…………………………….
Correct Answer B
then………

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Option A Scaled
Correct Answer C
Option D None
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer A
Option A 450
Option B 900
Option C 1800
Option D 3600
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A 1
Option B 0
Option C -1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option D virtual
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 6
Option D 5
Correct Answer D


Option A Selecting
Option B Sorting
Option C Scaling
Option D Skewing
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B
Option B Origin
Correct Answer C
Option B Inverse
Option D Additive
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Option D 1A=A1
Correct Answer A

Option A 8
Option B 9
Option C 4
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
Option A Rotation
Option B Scaling up
Option D Shearing
Correct Answer D
Option C Row matrix
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
’n’ columns?
Option A m+n
Option B m–n
Option C mxn
Option D m/n
Correct Answer C
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer B

_______
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer B

Option A Roaming
Option B Panning
Option C Zooming
Option D Tiling
Correct Answer D
Correct Answer C
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D
Option A D
Option B 1/d
Option C -d
Option D -1/d
Correct Answer D
a………….
Option A Window
Option B Viewpoint
Option C Pixel
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
graphics is called
Correct Answer B
Option B Isometric
Correct Answer C
Option A (4.268, 6.732)
Option B (5.268, 6.732)
Option C (4.268, 4.732)
Option D (6.268, 4.732)
Correct Answer A
Option A 0.5 0 0
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option B 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 0]
0 0 1
Option C 0.5 0 25
[0 0.7 12]
0 0 1
Option D 0.7 0 25
[0 0.5 12]
0 0 1
Correct Answer C

Option A (10, 2)
Option B (2, 10)
Option C (10, 10)
Option D (10, 5)
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer C
Option A (10, 10)

Option B (15, 10)
Option C (15, 15)
Option D (10, 15)
Correct Answer A
modelling?

Option B Drafting
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
element analysis:

Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A Box
Option B Cone
Option C Cylinder
Option D Circle
Correct Answer D
Option A Line
Option B Circle
Option C Spline
Option D Parabola
Correct Answer C
Option A Hyperbola
Correct Answer A
Option A Parabola
Option B Ellipse
Option C Hyperbola
Option D Line
Correct Answer D
Option A 2
Option B 1
Option C 3
Option D 4
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS


Option B Knots
Option C End points
Correct Answer A

Option B B-spline
Correct Answer B
Option A n+1
Option B n-1
Option C n
Option D 2n
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
Option A 4
Option B 3
Option C 2
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A Adding
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option D Dividing
Correct Answer C
Option A normal
Option B parallel
Option C tangent
Correct Answer C

Option D
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer C
Option A Analytical
Option C Beizer
Option D B-Spline
Correct Answer D
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
curve is known as
Option D data curve
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer C
of the polygon.
Correct Answer B
_____________.
Correct Answer B
in _______.
Option D Hyperbola
Correct Answer C
closed boundaries.

Option D
Correct Answer C
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Correct Answer A
both?
Correct Answer A
Approach?
Correct Answer D
Option A FEA
Correct Answer C
Correct Answer A
Option A CSG
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option B B-rep
Option C Loft
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer C
Option A Tweaking
Option B Lofting
Option C Filleting
Correct Answer B
efficient?
Option A Extrude
Option B Sweep
Option C Shell
Option D Revolve
Correct Answer C
freedom.
Option A 0
Option B 1
Option C 2
Option D 3
Correct Answer B
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

P2(6,4,3).
Option A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

Option B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]
Option C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]
Option D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]
Correct Answer A
Option A 3i+j-5k
Option B 3i-j-5k
Option C 3i-j+5k
Option D -3i-j-5k
Correct Answer B
Option A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

Option B [3.25 4.25 6.25]
Option C [3.75 4.75 6.75]
Option D [4.25 3.75 6.25]
Correct Answer C
Option A P1 X P2=0
Option B P1 . P2=0
Option C P1 = P2
Option D P1+ P2=0
Correct Answer A
Option A 2i+2j-6k
Option B 2i+2j+6k
Option C 2i-2j-6k
Option D 6-2j-2k
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A i+4j-k
Option B 2i+4j+k
Option C i-4j-2k
Option D i+4j+2k
Correct Answer D
Option A True
Option B False
Option C
Option D
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

Option B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2
Option C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]
Option D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]
Correct Answer A
Option A 9.24,9.24
Option B 9.42,9.42
Option C 9,9
Option D 11,5
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Option A 7,8
Option B 8,8
Option C 8,7
Option D 7,7
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 3.6
Option C 4
Option D 3.5
Correct Answer B
Option A 11.6, 7
Option B 7, 11
Option C 11, 7
Option D 11.5, 7.5
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Q. 1-40: 1 MARKS & Q. 41-55: 2 MARKS

Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer B
dimensional?
Option D Rectangle
Correct Answer A
Option A Triangle
Option C Rectangle
Option D Bar
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B assemblage
Option C continuum
Option D traction
Correct Answer A
Option A 0
Option B 0.5
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Option D 6
Correct Answer D
on ___________ .

Option D nodes
Correct Answer C
Option A KQ=F
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option B KQ≠F
Option C K=QF
Option D K≠QF
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer D
Option A particles
Option B molecules
Option C elements
Option D none
Correct Answer C
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A material
Option B geometry
Correct Answer C
Option A bar
Option B triangle
Option C hexahedron
Correct Answer B
Option A 2*2
Option B 3*3
Option C 4*4
Option D 6*6
Correct Answer B
______are used.

Correct Answer A
conditions called
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A friction
Option B traction
Option D surfacing
Correct Answer C

Option C point load
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C
Option A 3
Option B 2
Option C 1
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 0
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 9
Correct Answer C
element.

Correct Answer D
Option A 1D
Option B 2D
Option C 3D
Option D 4D
Correct Answer B
Option B Solution
Option D None
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 1
Option D 2
Correct Answer A
Option A thermal
Option C vibration
Correct Answer D
termed as _____.
Option A elements
Option B modules
Option C links
Option D models
Correct Answer B
matrix?

Correct Answer D
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C
element

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
other nodes
Option C both a & b
Correct Answer C
Name of UNIT: FEA

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer D

Correct Answer A
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option A very large

Option B very small
Correct Answer A
Option A ANSYS
Option B Nastran
Option C Abaqus
Option D AutoCAD
Correct Answer D
frequency?

Correct Answer C
Option A stress
Option B strain
Name of UNIT: FEA
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A zero
Option B very small
Option C very large
Option D infinite
Correct Answer D
Option A 3
Option B 4
Option C 5
Name of UNIT: FEA
Option D 6
Correct Answer B
Option A 4
Option B 6
Option C 8
Option D 10
Correct Answer C
element?
Option A 6
Option B 8
Option C 10
Option D 12
Correct Answer C
be ______ accurate.
Option A more
Option B less
Option D can't say
Correct Answer A
______.
Option A R=KQ+F
Option B R=KQ-F
Option C R=K+QF
Option D R=K-QF
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Correct Answer A
Option D rapid feed
Correct Answer A

Option A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Option B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Option C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer A
NC code Definition
Q. G01 2. Dwell
Correct Answer C


dimension
dimension
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer C
Option A NC
Option B CNC
Option C DNC
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer C
Option A a-axis
Option B b-axis
Option C c-axis
Correct Answer D
Option A networking
Option B pairing
Option D assembling
Correct Answer A
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer B
Option A reading
Option B writing
Correct Answer A

Option A milling
Option B boring
Option C welding
Option D tapping
Correct Answer C
Option C length
Option D velocity
Correct Answer A
Option A feed
Correct Answer B
work ______
Option B in series
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer D

Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 5
Correct Answer B
Option A reaming
Option B parting
Option C grooving
Option D facing
Correct Answer A
Option A helicoidal
Option B pentagonal
Option C triangular
Option D zig-zag
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
Option A True
Option B False
Correct Answer A
reference point
Correct Answer B

Option A Sequence
Option B Address
Option C Code
Option D Block
Correct Answer D
Option A Words
Option B Alphabet
Option C Numbers
Option D Format
Correct Answer A
Previous point.
Correct Answer A
Correct Answer B

Option D Grooving
Correct Answer C


Correct Answer A

Correct Answer B

Option B Pitch
Option D Feed
Correct Answer B

Option C Both A & B
Correct Answer D
Option A X
Option B Y
Option C Z
Option D C
Correct Answer A

Option B Parallel
Option C Rotational
Correct Answer B
Option A Micro
Option B Macro
Option C Sub Macro
Option D Sub Micro
Correct Answer B
Option A =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
1000
Option B 𝜋𝐷
=1000
Option C 𝐷𝑁
=1000
Option D =
𝜋𝐷𝑁
10
Correct Answer A
Option A J
Option B I
Option C K
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C

cycle
Option A G71
Option B G72
Option C G73
Option D G74
Correct Answer D

Correct Answer B

Correct Answer A
Option A G16
Option B G17
Option C G18
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Correct Answer B

Option A G40
Option B G41
Option C G42
Option D G43
Correct Answer B
Option A G90
Option B G91
Option C G92
Option D G93
Correct Answer C
Option A G23
Option B G28
Option C G14
Option D G19
Correct Answer B
Option A G18
Option B G65
Option C G45
Option D G04
Correct Answer D
Option A G00
Option B G01
Option C G56
Option D G94
Correct Answer A


Option C Thumb Rule
Correct Answer B
Option A M05
Option B M06
Option C M07
Option D M09
Correct Answer B

Correct Answer C
is called______
Correct Answer D
Option B NC machine
Correct Answer C

Option A UMC
Option B VMC
Option C HMC
Option D DNC
Correct Answer C

Correct Answer A

Correct Answer C
Option A 60
Option B 80
Option C 90
Option D 100
Correct Answer B
Option C A & B both
Correct Answer C

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1/6/2021 https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/allqusdownloadhtml.ils?

11351_CAD CAM Automation

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following drive system is not used in Robotics

Q.no 3. RP systems are classified into ____ types

Q.no 4. for holding hollow work part ___________is required

C : magnetic gripper is required

D : notch gripper is required

Q.no 5. _________ is not a stage of PLM

Q.no 6. Which one of the following in not Rapid Prototyping Process -

Q.no 7. Which one of following is not part of FMS -

C : Both (a) and (b)

D : None of the above

Q.no 9. Computer Integrated Manufacturing is_____

D : link between CAD and CAM

Q.no 10. 6 axis milling machine is capable of

A : moving and rotating about each primary axis simultaneously

B : moving only about each primary axis simultaneously

C : rotating only about each primary axis simultaneously

D : moving and rotating about each primary axis only at a time

Q.no 11. Which of the following is the default cooridnate system?

A : User coordinate system

B : World coordinate system

C : Screen coordinate system

D : Working cooridnate system

Q.no 12. If the values of Sx and Sy are 1

A : Reduce the size of the object

B : Distort the object

C : Enlarge the object

D : No change is size of object

Q.no 13. Steriolithography uses__________ as building material

Q.no 14. ______ is most versatile automation

Q.no 15. ________ is similar to plastic injection moulding

Q.no 16. FMS stands for

A : Fixed Manufacturing Systems

B : Flexible Manufacturing System

C : Fused Manufacturing System

D : Follower Manufacturing System

Q.no 17. In two dimensional elements, DOF of a node in a triangular element is

Q.no 20. Any point in a structure can have maximum of -------------------DOF

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?

D : Cubic spline curve

Q.no 23. Typical canned drilling cycle is specified by

D : Tool length and diameter compensation

Q.no 25. The characteristic of the shape function is _______.

B : the sum of the shape function is equal to one

D : the shape function has different values at each node

A : G41 and G42 respectively

B : G42 and G41 respectively

C : G40 and G41 respectively

D : G40 and G42 respectively

Q.no 27. The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is

Q.no 29. Hard automation is used when jobs are in

A : tangent vector + length of the line

B : tangent vector - length of the line

C : tangent vector/length of line

D : length of line/tangent vector