CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION

Name:___________________________________________________________Score:_____________

I. Instruction: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.

_____1. Urine volume is influenced by these factors EXCEPT:

1. Fluid intake
2. Variation of secretion of Erythropoietin
3. Excretion of increased amount of dissolved solids
4. Secretion of amino acids in the urine
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4

_____2. Changes in unpreserved urine:

1. Decrease glucose 2. Dec ketones
3. Dec pH 4. Dec urobilinogen
A. All except 1 B. All except 2 C. All except 3 D. All except 4

_____3. In a 24- hr urine collection, which of the following substances may be present in normal urine?
1. NaCl 2. Hippuric acid 3. Creatine 4. Ammonium
A. 1 only B. 1,2 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1,2,3 and 4

_____4. Which of the following are NOT true for First Morning urine specimens?
1. It is ideal for bacterial cultures.
2. It prevents false- negative pregnancy test results.
3. It is preferred specimen in the evaluation of false albuminuria.
4. It is valuable in the quantitative determination of a substance present in the urine.
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 4

_____5. The color of urine may be due to which of the following factors?
1. Metabolic function 3. Pathologic conditions
2. Physical activity 4. Ingested materials
A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 1,2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 only

_____6. Which of the following substances when present, would render a normal turbid urine?
1. Carbonates 2. Lipids 3. Columnar epithelial cells 4. Mucus
A. 1 and 2 B. 1,2 and 3 C. 1,3 and 4 D. 1 and 4

_____7. The measurement of the specific gravity is indicative of which of the following kidney functions?
1. Glomerular filtration 3. Tubular re- absorption
2. Renal blood flow 4. Tubular secretion
A. 1 only B. 2 and 4 C. 3 only D. 3 and 4

_____8. In the determination of glucose in the urine, which of the following methods can be used?
1. Clinistix 2. Acetest 3. Clinitest 4. Ictotest
A. All except 1 and 2 B. All except 1 and 3 C. All except 2 and 3 D. All except 2 and 4

_____9. Watson- Schwartz Test is a classic test used for the differentiation of which of the following urinary
substances?
1. Hemoglobin 2. Urobilinogen 3. Bilirubin 4. Porphobilinogen
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4

_____10. Nitroprusside Tests can detect which of the following substances in the urine?
1. Ketones 2. Cystine crystals 3. Leucine crystals 4. Homocystine crystals
A. All except 4 B. All except 3 C. All except 2 D. All except 1
_____11.Stimulant of gastric secretion:
1. Insulin 2. Histamine 3. Secretin 4. Pentagastrin
A. All except 1 B. All except 2 C. All except 3 D. All except 4

_____12. Heat and Acetic acid method detects the presence of which of the following urinary protein(s)?
1. Albumin 2. Bence- Jones Protein 3. Globulin 4. Glycoprotein
A. 1 only B. !,3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1,2,3 and 4

_____13. True for Curshmann’s Spirals:

1. Coiled, mucous filaments which may be found in sputum sample.
2. Can be demonstrated by AFB stain.
3. Seen only in patients with asthma.
4. Casts of the small bronchi.
A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 1 and 3

_____14. Gastric Tube used to obtain gastric fluid?

1. Levin 2. Rehfuss 3. Ewald’s 4. Diagnex Blue
A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4

_____15. Diluent(s) used for sperm count:

1. Sodium bicarbonate 2. Formalin 3. Acetic acid 4. Cold water
A. 4 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1,2 and 4 D. 1,2,3 and 4

_____16. Viscosity of synovial fluid is determined by which of the following tet(s)?

1. Mucin Clot Test 2. Rope’s Test 3. Rivalta’s Test 4 Rothera’s Test
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4

_____17. The following abnormal sperm morphology may cause infertility due to poor ovum penetration,
EXCEPT:
1. Sperm with coiled tail 3. Sperm with double tail
2. Sperm with amorphous head 4. Sperm with double head
A. None B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4

_____18. In a hazy, turbid CSF specimen, what cellular elements may be present?
1. WBC 3. Colonies of S. aureus
2. Hyphae of C. albicans 4. RBC
A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 C. 2,3 and 4 D. 2 and 3

_____19. Sputum with a characteristic bright green yellow may suggest which of the following diseases?
1. Jaundice 3. Tuberculosis
2. P. aeruginosa infection 4. Lung cancer
A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 4

_____20. Which among the following proteins are present in both CSF and plasma?
1. Albumin 2. Fibrinogen 3. Transferrin 4. Haptoglobin
5. Pre albumin 6. Ceruloplasmin
A. All except 1 and 5 B. All except 3 and 6 C. All except 2 and 4 D. All except 2 and 5

II. True or False

_____1.Urea and creatinine are organic substances.

_____2. An amber color urine indicates the presence of urobilinogen.
_____3. A clear red urine indicates the presence of occult blood.
_____4. 1.020 would be considered a normal specific gravity.
_____5. 10% ferric chloride is used to test urine for phenylalanine.
_____6. Nitroprusside is used for detecting acetone.
_____7. One of the methods for determining porphyrines is by the use of an ultraviolet light and extraction tube.
_____8. Wine colored urine could indicate the presence of porphyrines.
_____9. Bilirubin is formed by the perpetual breakdown of RBC by the spleen.
_____10. A refractometer is used to perform specific gravity on urine.
PARASITOLOGY
QUIZ

NAME:_________________________________________________________________SCORE:_____
___________

Instruction: Match column A with columns B and C.

A B
C
PARASITE Common Name of Parasite or Disease Portal of
Entry/Final Site in Host Source of Infection

_____1. Loa loa a. Intestinal fluke a. Mouth;

small intestine a. Oocysts by fecal contamination
_____2. Clonorchis sinensis b. Fish or broad tapeworm b. Skin;
Bloodstream b. Bite of Ixodes ticks
_____3. Paragonimus westermani c. Trichinosis c. Lungs
c. Metacercaria on freshwater crabs
_____4. Babesia microti d. Visceral larva migrans d. Small gut
d. Metacercaria on raw freshwater
_____5. Ancylostoma braziliense e. Cutaneous larva migrans e. Skin; Adults
subcutaneous fish
_____6. Diphyllobothrium latum f. Eyeworm f. Liver, eye,
CNS and Lungs e. Poorly cooked or raw fish
_____7. Trichinella spiralis g. Liver fluke g. Mouth; Bile
ducts of liver f. Chrysops fly
_____8. Toxocara canis h. Babesiosis h. Skin;
Intradermal g. Poorly cooked pork
_____9. Isospora belli i. Lung fluke
h. Eggs from contaminated soil
_____10. Heterophyes heterophyes j. Coccidiosis
i. Soil containing dog and cat hook

worm larvae
PARASITOLOGY
SHIFTING EXAM
Aug-Sept. 2010

Name:___________________________________________________Score:_______________

I. Multiple choice: Write the LETTER of the best answer.

1. Enterobius vermicularis infection is usually diagnosed by
a. finding adult worms in feces
b. finding larvae in feces
c. finding larvae in perianal specimens
d. finding eggs in the feces
e. finding eggs in the feces
2. The best direct diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus infection in man is made by identification of
a. adult worms in the intestine
b. adult worms in tissues
c. eggs in feces
d. hydatid cysts in tissues
e. larvae in feces
3. Because of contamination a urine specimen may contain the flagellate
a. B. coli
b. E. coli
c. T. hominis
d. T. tenax
e. T. vaginalis
4. Which of the ffng. is typical in cysts of Iodamoeba butschlii?
a. a glycogen mass
b. blunt chromatoidal bars
c. four nuclei with large karyosomes
d. many ingested bacteria
e. red blood cells
5. An adult helminth parasite occasionally expelled by mouth, especially by children with fever is
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Entamoeba gingivalis
d. Enterobius vermicularis
e. Trichomonas tenax
6. Cysticercosis is caused by the disseminated larvae of
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Necator americanus
d. Taenia solium
e. Toxocara canis
7. Visceral larval migrans is associated with which of the following organisms?
a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Dracunculus medinensis
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Toxocara canis
e. Trichinella spiralis
8. A free- living amoeba that causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis is
a. Amoeba proteus
b. Entamoeba gingivalis
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Entamoeba polecki
e. Naegleria fowleri
9. Which of the following nematode parasites is acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected pork?
a. Stongyloides stercoralis
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia saginata
d. Trichinella spiralis
e. Necator americanus
10. Which of the following is the most important vector for Loa loa?
a. Fleas
b. Ticks
c. Flies
d. Mosquitoes
e. None of the above
 11. Differentiating between Taenia soliun and Taenia saginata is done through the examination of the
following:
a. ova
b. gravid segments
c. scolex
d. B and C only
e. All of the above
12. One of the following staining procedures is the choice in the identification of the intestinal coccidians:
a. Periodic acid Schiff
b. Gomori’s silver stain
c. Trichrome
d. Kinyoun’s procedure
13. Which of the following statements applies to the cellulose tape swab:
a. It is useful in the diagnosis of enterobiasis alone.
b. Indicates true negativity if no eggs are seen after 7 consecutive days.
c. Highly sensitive but poorly specific in the diagnosis of Enterobius and Taenia.
d. It is an invasive procedure that should be performed with great caution.
14. Distinguishing characteristic of the ova are the presence of flat bipolar plugs on both ends
a. Capillaria philippinensis
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Taenia spp.
d. Schistosoma japonicum
15. Taenia asiatica which is also known as Taiwan Taenia has:
a. larval scolex similar to Taenia solium
b. gravid segments similar to Taenia saginata
c. both A and B
d. Neither B nor B
16. If a liquid stool specimen cannot be examined within 30 mins. Of passage, the specimen should be:
a. placed in the refrigerator until examination
b. frozen and saved for later analysis
c. placed in preservatives for later examination
d. placed in an incubator at room temp until examination
17. Laboratory diagnosis of lung fluke infection may be done by any of the following:
a. Direct smear of bloody sputum
b. Sputum concentration with sodium hydroxide
c. Examination of pleural effusion
d. All of the above
18. Microscopic diagnosis of protozoa on a permanent satained slide should be confirmed:
a. by using the 10x objective
b. by using the 20x objective
c. by using the 40x objective
d. by using the 100x oil immersion objective
19.The cellophane tape technique may be useful to detect the following parasites EXCEPT:
a. E. vermicularis
b. T. saginata
c. A. lumbricoides
d. T. solium
20. Which of the following stains will allow optimal identification of microsporidia in stool?
a. Modified Kinyoun’s acid- fast stain
b. Iodine stain
c. Hematoxylin and eosin
d. Giemsa stain
21. From which of the following parasites is it possible to find eggs, larvae and adult worms in a single
stool specimen?
a. A. lumbricoides
b. C. philippinensis
c. T. trichiura
d. T. solium
22. The stage of Strongyloides stercoralis most commonly identified in stool is the?
a. Egg c. Rhabditiform larva
b. Filariform larva d. Adult worm
23. One of the major features that can be used to differentiate Cyclospora cayetensis from Cryptosporidium
parvum is?
a. Shape c. Size
b. Color d. Refractility
24. Which of the following kinds of stools should be processed by the formalin- ethyl acetate concentration
technique?
a. Liquid c. Stool collected from very young children
b. Formed d. All of the above
25. The following diagnostic test differentiates E. histolytica from E. dispar:
a. DFS c. stool culture
b. FECT None of the above