27/05/2020 Code-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsA a
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,:
1. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are 1. ,d iz;ksx esa pkj jkf'k;ksa a, b, c rFkk d dks izfr'kr
measured with percentage error 2%, 3% 1% and =qfV Øe'k% 2%, 3% 1% rFkk 0.5% ds lkFk ekik
0.5% respectively. A quantity Q is defined as Q a b
a b x;k gSA ,d jkf'k Q, Q = ds vuqlkj
Q = 3/2 4 . Maximum percentage error in the c 3/2d 4
c d ifjHkkf"kr gSA Q dh x.kuk esa vfèkdre izfr'kr =qfV
calculation of Q will be gksxhA
(1) 5% (2) 6% (1) 5% (2) 6%
(3) 7% (4) 9% (3) 7% (4) 9%

2. Who among the following is not a Nobel laureate 2. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu HkkSfrdh esa ukscsy iqjLdkj
in physics fotsrk ugha gS\
(1) esjh D;wjh
(1) Marie curie (2) Wilhelm Roentgen
(2) ohygsYe jsaVxu
(3) Abdus salam (4) Ernest Rutherford
(3) vCnl lyke
3. Figure shows the acceleration time graph of a (4) vusZLV jnjQksMZ
particle moving in a straight line. Which of the
following options best represents the
3. fp= ljy js[kk esa xfreku ,d d.k ds Roj.k le;
corresponding position-time graph
vkjs[k dks n'kkZrk gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk
fodYi laxr fLFkfr≤ vkjs[k dks n'kkZrk gS\

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

4. A particle has initial velocity u = (4iˆ − 5 jˆ) m/s and 4. ,d d.k dk izkjafHkd osx u = (4iˆ − 5 jˆ) m/s gS rFkk
1 1  1 1 
it is moving with acceleration a =  i + j  m/s2 . ;g Roj.k a =  i + j  m/s2
4
ls xfreku gSA t = 2
4 5  5 
Velocity of the particle at lsd.M ij d.k dk osx gS
t = 2 second is
(1) (6i − 4 j ) m/s (2) (4.5i − 4.6 j ) m/s
(1) (6i − 4 j ) m/s (2) (4.5i − 4.6 j ) m/s
(3) (4.5i − 4.1j ) m/s (4) (6i − 4.6 j ) m/s
(3) (4.5i − 4.1j ) m/s (4) (6i − 4.6 j ) m/s 5. rhu xqVdksa A, B rFkk C dks ,d [kqjnjh {kSfrt lrg
5. Three blocks A, B and C are placed on a rough ij j[kk tkrk gSA xqVdksa rFkk lrg ds eè; ?k"kZ.k
horizontal surface. Friction coefficient between xq.kkad 0.6 gSA nh xbZ fLFkfr esa xqVds C dk Roj.k gS
blocks and surface is 0.6. Acceleration of the (g = 10 m/s2)
block C in given situation is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3.5 m/s2 (2) 0.5 m/s2

(1) 3.5 m/s2 (2) 0.5 m/s2 (3) 4.5 m/s2 (4) 'kwU;
(3) 4.5 m/s2 (4) Zero
6. nzO;eku m ds rhu xqVdksa dks vforkU; jfLl;ksa rFkk
vkn'kZ fLizax dh lgk;rk ls ÅèokZèkj :i ls
6. Three blocks each of mass m are hanged
vertically with the help of inextensible strings and dhydhr fd;k x;k gSA izkjaHk esa fudk; lkE;koLFkk
ideal spring. Initially the system was in esa Fkk fdlh {k.k ij lcls fupyh jLlh dks dkVk
equilibrium. At any instant lower most string is cut x;k gS rc jLlh dks dkVus ds Bhd ckn xqVds B
then acceleration of block B just after cutting the
string is dk Roj.k gS

g g
(1) g (2) (1) g (2)
2 2
2g 2g
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4) 'kwU;
3 3

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

7. A block P of mass m is moving with velocity v0
and collides elastically with identical block Q as
shown in the figure. If spring constant of the
spring is K, then maximum compression in the
spring in subsequent motion is
7. nzO;eku m dk xqVdk P osx v0 ls xfreku gS rFkk
fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj le:i xqVds Q ds lkFk
izR;kLFk :i ls Vdjkrk gSA ;fn fLizax dk fu;rkad
K gS] rc vuqorhZ xfr esa fLizax esa vfèkdre laihM+u
gS

v0 3m
(1) (2) v 0 v0 3m
2m 2K (1) (2) v 0
2m 2K
2m v 0 2m
(3) v 0 (4) 2m v 0 2m
3K 3K (3) v 0 (4)
3K 3K
8. Given diagram represents the potential energy
curve of particle in a field. Particle will be in
8. fn;k x;k fp= ,d {ks= esa d.k dh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ
equilibrium at position oØ dks iznf'kZr djrk gSA d.k fdl fLFkfr ij
lkE;koLFkk esa gksxk\

(1) at B and D (2) at A and C

(1) B rFkk D ij (2) A rFkk C ij
(3) A, B and C (4) at A, B, C and D
(3) A, B rFkk C ij (4) A, B, C rFkk D ij
9. Three thin rods each of mass m and length L are
9. nzO;eku m rFkk yEckbZ L dh rhu iryh NM+ks dks
joined to form as shown in the figure
fp= eas n'kkZ, vuqlkj ds :i esa tksM+k tkrk gSA
NM+ PQ ls xqtjus okys v{k xx ds lkis{k fudk;
dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS

Moment of inertia of the system about an axis xx

passing through rod PQ is
2mL2 mL2 2mL2 mL2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 2 3 2
4mL2 3mL2
4mL2 3mL2 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 3 8
3 8
10. nzO;eku m rFkk f=T;k R dk ,d csyu ,d vkur
10. A cylinder of mass m and radius R rolls purely ry ds Åij xfr djrs gq, 'kq) :i ls yq<d + rk gSA
over an inclined surface while moving up on it. bl ij dk;Zjr ?k"kZ.k ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku gS
Correct statement regarding friction acting on it is (1) ?k"kZ.k uhps dh vksj dk;Zjr gS rFkk izd`fr esa
(1) Friction is acting downward and Kinetic in xfrt gS
nature (2) ?k"kZ.k Åij dh vksj dk;Zjr gS rFkk izd`fr esa
(2) Friction is acting upward and kinetic in nature xfrt gS
(3) Friction is acting upward and static in nature (3) ?k"kZ.k Åij dh vksj dk;Zjr gS rFkk izd`fr esa
(4) Friction is acting downward and static in
LFkSfrd gS
(4) ?k"kZ.k uhps dh vksj dk;Zjr gS rFkk izd`fr esa
nature
LFkSfrd gS
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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

11. Two satellites are in the parking orbits around the 11. nks mixzg i`Foh ds ifjr% ikfd±x d{kk eas gSaA ,d
earth. Mass of one is 10 times that of the other.
The ratio of their periods of revolution is : dk nzO;eku nwljh dh vis{kk 10 xquk gSA buds ?kw.kZu
(1) 1 (2) 10
dky dk vuqikr gS
(1) 1 (2) 10
1
(3) (4) 10 10 1
10 (3) (4) 10 10
12. Four particle each of mass m move along a circle 10
of radius R under the action of their mutual 12. nzO;eku m ds pkj d.k viuh vU;ksU; fØ;k ds
gravitational attraction. The speed of each xq:Roh; vkd"kZ.k ds izHkko esa f=T;k R ds o`Ùk ds
particle is
vuqfn'k xfr djrs gSaA izR;sd d.k dh pky gS
2Gm (2 2 – 1) Gm (2 2 – 1) Gm
(1) (2) 2Gm
R R (1) (2)
R R
 1 + 3  Gm Gm  2 2 + 1  1 + 3  Gm Gm  2 2 + 1
(3)   (4)      
2  R R  4  (3)
2  R
(4)
R  4 
13. When an elastic material with young’s modulus Y 13. tc ;ax izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad Y okys izR;kLFk inkFkZ ij
is subjected to a stretching stress ‘S’. Elastic rkfur izfrcy ‘S’ vkjksfir gSA inkFkZ dk izfr bdkbZ
energy stored per unit volume of the material is
vk;ru laxzfgr izR;kLFk ÅtkZ gS
S S2 S S2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2Y 2Y 2Y 2Y
S 2Y Y 2S S 2Y Y 2S
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
14. The normal density of gold is 0 and its Bulk 14. xksYM dk izlkekU; ?kuRo 0 gS rFkk bldk vk;ru
modulus is B. The increase in density of sphere izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad B gSA tc xksys ij nkc P ,dleku
of gold when a pressure P is applied uniformly on :i ls vkjksfir gS rc xksYM ds xksys ds ?kuRo esa
it is (P << B)
o`f) gS (P << B)
BP B BP B
(1) (2) (1) (2)
0 P 0 0 P 0
0 P 0 0 P 0
(3) (4) (3) (4)
B PB B PB
15. A large tank filled with water to a height of h is to 15. Å¡pkbZ h rd ty ls Hkjk cM+k VSad isans ij ,d NksVs
be emptied through a small hole at the bottom. h
The ratio of time taken for the level of water to fall fNnz ls [kkyh gksrk gSA ty ds Lrj dks h ls rd
2
h h h
down from h to and from to zero is rFkk ls 'kwU; rd fxjus esa fy, x, le; dk
2 2 2
(1) 2 −1 (2)
1 vuqikr gS
2 −1 1
(1) 2 −1 (2)
2 −1
2 2 2
(3) (4) 2 2 2
2 −1 1− 2 (3) (4)
2 −1 1− 2
16. Specific heat S of container of mass 1 kg varies
16. nzO;eku 1 kg ds ik= dh fof'k"V Å"ek S ewykuqikrh
with temperature T according to the empirical
relation S = A + BT. Where A = 100 cal kg–1 K–1 lacèa k S = A + BT ds vuqlkj le; T ds LkkFk
and B = 2 × 10–2 cal kg–1 K–2. If container was ifjofrZr gksrh gSA tgk¡ A = 100 cal kg–1 K–1 rFkk
heated from 27°C to 227°C then heat required to B = 2 × 10–2 cal kg–1 K–2 gSA ;fn ik= dks 27°C ls
do so is 227°C rd xeZ fd;k tkrk gS rc ,slk djus ds
(1) 21600 J (2) 21600 cal fy, vko';d Å"ek gS
(1) 21600 J (2) 21600 cal
(3) 2000 cal (4) 2000 J
(3) 2000 cal (4) 2000 J

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

17. A spherical body of emissivity e = 0.7 and surface 17. mRltZdrk e = 0.7 rFkk i`"Bh; {ks=Qy A dh ,d
area A is Placed inside a perfect black body xksyh; oLrq dks rki T ij O;ofLFkr djus ds fy,
maintained at temperature T, then energy
radiated per second by black body will be iw.kZr% d`f".kdk ds vUnj j[kk tkrk gS] rc d`f".kdk
}kjk izfr lsd.M mRlftZr ÅtkZ gksxh
(1) E = 0.3 AT4 (2) E = 0.7 AT4
(1) E = 0.3 AT4 (2) E = 0.7 AT4
(3) E = 0.5 AT4 (4) E = AT4 (3) E = 0.5 AT4 (4) E = AT4
18. An ideal gas is allowed to expands from volume 18. ,d vkn'kZ xSl dks vk;ru V ls 2V rd fu;e
V to 2V according to the law VP2 = Constant. If
VP2 = fu;rkad ds vuqlkj izlkfjr gksus fn;k tkrk
initial temperature of the gas is ‘T’ then its final
temperature will be gSA ;fn xSl dk izkjafHkd rki ‘T’ gS rc bldk vafre
rki gksxk
(1) T (2) T 2
(1) T (2) T 2
T
(3) (4) 2T T
2 (3) (4) 2T
2
19. In a cyclic process ABCA V-T graph is shown in 19. ,d pØh; izØe ABCA esa] V-T vkjs[k fp= esa n'kkZ;k
the figure. P-V graph corresponding to the given
process can be best depicted by
x;k gSA fn, x, izØe ds laxr P-V vkjs[k dk lgh
izn'kZu gS

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

20. A refrigerator, whose coefficient of performance

is 7, extracts heat from the low temperature 20. fu"iknu xq.kkad 7 okyk ,d jsfÝtjsVj fuEu rki
compartment at the rate of 250 J/cycle. Work okys ik= ls Å"ek 250 J/pØ dh nj ls i`Fkd djrk
done per cycle required to operate the gSA jsfÝtjsVj dks lapkfyr djus ds fy, vko';d
refrigerator is nearly izfr pØ fd;k x;k dk;Z yxHkx gS
(1) 50 J (2) 36 J (1) 50 J (2) 36 J
(3) 27 J (4) 63 J (3) 27 J (4) 63 J
21. The ratio of velocity of sound in oxygen to that in 21. leku rki ij vkWDlhtu esa èofu dk osx rFkk
Argon at the same temperature is
vkxZu eas èofu ds osx dk vuqikr gS
21 20
(1) (2) 21 20
20 21 (1) (2)
20 21
21 25
(3) (4) 21 25
25 21 (3) (4)
25 21

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

22. The frequency of the second overtone of the 22. [kqys ikbi ds f}rh; vfèkLoj dh vko`fÙk cUn ikbi
open pipe is equal to the frequency of the first ds izFke vfèkLoj dh vko`fÙk ds cjkcj gSA can ikbi
overtone of the closed pipe. The ratio of lengths
of the closed pipe to that of open pipe is
rFkk [kqys ikbi dh yEckb;ksa dk vuqikr gS
3 3
(1) (2) 1 (1) (2) 1
1 1
1 2 1 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 1 2 1
23. A simple pendulum performs SHM about x = 0 23. ,d ljy is.Mqye vk;ke A rFkk vkorZdky T ds
with an amplitude A and time period T. The lkFk x = 0 ds lkis{k ljy vkorZ xfr lEiUu djrk
3A 3A
speed of the pendulum at x = will be gSA x= ij is.Mqye dh pky gksxh
4 4
A 7 3A A 7 3A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2T T 2T T
A 5 A 7 A 5 A 7
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2T 4T 2T 4T
24. A beam of light converges towards a point O, 10 24. izdk'k dk ,d iq¡t Qksdl nwjh 20 cm ds vory
cm behind a concave mirror of focal length 20 niZ.k ds ihNs 10 cm ij ,d fcUnq O dh vksj
cm. Magnification produced by the mirror is
vfHklfjr gksrk gSA niZ.k }kjk mRiUu vkoèkZu gS
3 2
(1) (2) 3 2
2 3 (1) (2)
2 3
−2 −3
(3) (4) −2 −3
3 2 (3) (4)
3 2
25. A circular beam of light having a diameter 4 cm
falls on a plane glass slab at angle of incidence 25. O;kl 4 cm okys izdk'k ds ,d o`Ùkh; iqat dks ,d
60°. If refractive index of the material of slab is lery dk¡p dh ifV~Vdk ij vk;ru dks.k 60° ij
3 fxjk;k tkrk gSA ;fn ifV~Vdk ds inkFkZ dk
 = , then diameter of the refracted beam is
2 3
viorZukad = gS] rc viofrZr iq¡t dk O;kl gS
2 2
(1) 10 cm (2) 2 cm 2
3 (1) 10 cm (2) 2 cm
3
2 3
(3) 8 cm (4) 4 cm 2 3
3 2 (3) 8 cm (4) 4 cm
26. A compound microscope has a magnifying power 3 2
30. Focal length of its eye piece is 5 cm. If the 26. ,d la;qDr lw{en'khZ dh vkoèkZu {kerk 30 gSA blds
final image formed at least distance of distinct vfHkus= dh Qksdl nwjh 5 cm gSA ;fn vafre izfrfcac
vision then magnification produced by the Li"V n`f"V dh U;wure nwjh ij fufeZr gksrk gS rc
objective is
vfHkn`';d }kjk fufeZr vkoèkZu gS
(1) 2 (2) 6
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 3 (3) 5 (4) 3
27. In young’s double slit experiment, if the
separation between the slits is halved and the
distance between the slits and screen is doubled,
27. ;ax f}fLyV iz;ksx esa ;fn fLyVksa ds eè; nwjh vkèkh
then fringe width becomes gS rFkk fLyVksa o insZ ds eè; nwjh nksxquh gS] rc
(1) Doubled (2) Quadrupled fÝat pkSM+kbZ gksxh
(3) Halved (4) Remains same (1) nksxquh (2) pkSxquh
28. A beam of light is incident on a glass plate at an (3) vkèkh (4) leku jgsxh
angle of incidence 60°. The reflected ray is 28. izdk'k dk ,d iqat ,d dk¡p dh IysV ij vkiru
completely polarized. Refractive index of the
glass plate is
dks.k 60° ij vkifrr gksrk gS ijkofrZr fdj.k iw.k±r%
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.414
èkzqfor gSA dk¡p dh IysV dk viorZukd gS
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.414
(3) 1.732 (4) 1.34
(3) 1.732 (4) 1.34

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

29. Two charges each +q are placed at the vertices
of a right angled triangle (isosceles triangle) as
shown in the figure.
29. +q okys nks vkos'kksa dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj ,d
ledks.kh; f=Hkqt (lef}ckgq f=Hkqt) ds 'kh"kks± ij j[kk
x;k gSA 'kh"kZ C ij j[ks vkos'k dk eku D;k gksuk
pkfg,] rkfd vfHkfoU;kl dh usV fLFkjoS|qr ÅtkZ
'kwU; gS\

Charge that should be placed on vertex C, so

that net electrostatic energy of the configuration
is zero, is
−q.2 −q
−q.2 −q (1) (2)
(1) (2) 1+ 2 2 −1
1+ 2 2 −1
− 2q − 2q
− 2q − 2q (3) (4)
(3) (4) 2 −1 2 +1
2 −1 2 +1
30. fHkUu&fHkUu f=T;k (Bksl ;k [kks[kyk) okys nks pkyd
30. Two conducting charged spheres having different
vkosf'kr xksyksa dks ,d pkyd rkj }kjk la;ksftr
radii (Solid or Hollow) are connected by a
fd;k x;k gSA rc fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh lgh gS \
conducting wire. Then which of the following is
true (1) var esa nksuksa oLrq,¡ vkos'k dh leku ek=k izkIr
(1) Finally both bodies will acquire equal amount djsxh
of charge (2) var esa cM+s xksys dk vkos'k NksVs xksys ds vkos'k
(2) Finally bigger sphere has more charge than ls vfèkd gksxk
smaller sphere
(3) var esa cM+s xksys dk vkos'k NksVs xksys ds vkos'k
(3) Finally bigger sphere has less charge than ls de gksxk
smaller sphere
(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ Hkh fLFkfr izrhr gks ldrh gS
(4) Any of the above situation can appear
31. Plate A of a parallel plate air filled capacitor is 31. ok;q ls Hkjs ,d lekUrj IysV laèkkfj= dh IysV A dks
connected to a spring having force constant K cy fu;rkad K okyh fLizax ls la;ksftr fd;k tkrk
and Plate B is fixed. They rest on a smooth table gS rFkk IysV B dks n`f<+r fd;k tkrk gSA ;s fp= esa
as shown in the figure. (Area of each plate is A) n'kkZ, vuqlkj fpdus est ij fojke esa gSaA (izR;sd
IysV dk {ks=Qy A gS)A ;fn vkos'k +q IysV A dks
fn;k tkrk gS rFkk –q IysV B dks fn;k tkrk gSA
lkE;koLFkk dh fLFkfr esa fLizax dk izlkj gS

It a charge +q is given to plate A and –q is given

to plate B. Extension of the spring in equilibrium
situation

q2 q2 q2 q2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
KA 0 2KA 0 KA 0 2KA 0

2q 2 2q 2
(3) (4) No extension (3) (4) izlkfjr ugha gksxh
K 0 A K 0 A

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

32. When the key is pressed at time t = 0, then 32. tc dqTth dks le; t = 0 ij nck;k tkrk gSA rc
charge on the capacitor after a very long time in fn, x, fp= esa ,d yEcs le; ds ckn laèkkfj= ij
given figure will be
vkos'k gksxk

(1) Zero (2) 16  C (1) 'kwU; (2) 16  C

(3) 8  C (4) 32  C
33. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has
a period of oscillation of 4 seconds. If the magnet
is broken in two halves (each piece has half of
original length) and one piece is made to oscillate
in same field then its time period becomes
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(3) 8 s (4) 1 s
34. Soft iron is used in many parts of electrical
machines because it exihit
(1) Low permeability and low hysteresis loss
(2) Low permeability and high hysteresis loss
(3) High permeability and high hysteresis loss
(4) High permeability and low hysteresis loss
35. The wire loop carries a current I as shown in the
figure. The magnetic field at the centre ‘O’ will be
(3) 8  C (4) 32  C
33. eqDr :Ik ls yVdk gqvk ,d iryk vk;rkdkj
pqacd dk nksyudky 4 lsd.M gSA ;fn pqacd nks
vkèks Hkkxksa esa VwV tkrk gS (izR;sd VqdM+k ewy yEckbZ
dk vkèkk gS) rFkk ,d VqdMs+ dks leku {ks= esa nksyu
djus fn;k tkrk gS rc bldk vkorZdky gksxk
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(3) 8 s (4) 1 s
34. ueZ ykSgs dk mi;ksx fo|qr e'khu ds dbZ Hkkxksa esa
gksrk gS D;ksafd blesa gksrk gS
(1) fuEu pqEcd'khyrk rFkk fuEu 'kSfFkY; gkfu
(2) fuEu pqEcd'khyrk rFkk mPp 'kSfFkY; gkfu
(3) mPp pqEcd'khyrk rFkk mPp 'kSfFkY; gkfu
(4) mPp pqEcd'khyrk rFkk fuEu 'kSfFkY; gkfu
35. rkj ywi fp= eas n'kkZ, vuqlkj èkkjk I xzg.k fd, gq,
gSA dsUnz ‘O’ ij pqEcdh; {ks= gksxk

 0I  1 1   0I  1 1   0I  1 1   0I  1 1 
+ − (1) + (2) −
(1)
4  r1 r2 
(2)
4  r1 r2  4  r1 r2  4  r1 r2 
0I
0I
(3) (r − r ) (4) Zero
(3) (r − r )
2 1 2
(4) 'kwU;
2 1 2
36. A charged particle is projected in to a region
36. ,d vkosf'kr d.k dks ml {ks= esa iz{ksfir fd;k
where there may have an electric filed E and/or
tkrk gSA tgk¡ fo|qr {ks= E rFkk@;k pqEcdh; {ks=
magnetic field B . If the charged particle goes B gks ldrk gSA ;fn vkosf'kr d.k vRofjr tkrk
un-accelerated, then it is not possible that gS] rc ;g laHko ugha gS fd
(1) E = 0, B = 0 (2) E  0, B = 0 (1) E = 0, B = 0 (2) E  0, B = 0

(3) E = 0, B  0 (4) E  0, B  0 (3) E = 0, B  0 (4) E  0, B  0

37. The working of a dynamo is based on the 37. ,d Mkbuseks dh dk;Ziz.kkyh fdl fl)kUr ij
principle of vkèkkfjr gS\
(1) Electromagnetic induction (1) fo|qrpqEcdh; izsj.k
(2) Heating effect of current (2) èkkjk dk rkih;] izHkko
(3) Thermionic emission (3) rkik;fud mRltZu
(4) Photo electric emission (4) izdk'k fo|qr mRltZu

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

38. Power factor of the ac circuit A.C. shown in the 38. A.C. ifjiFk dk 'kfDr xq.kkad fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj gS
figure is –

(1) 0.6 (2) 0.3

(1) 0.6 (2) 0.3
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.8
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.8
39. eSDlosy
39. The Maxwell
 d 
 B.d l =  0  I + 0 dt  fdldk dFku gS\
E
 d E 
 B.d l =  0  I + 0 dt  is a statement of
(1) QSjkMs dk fo|qrpqEcdh; izsj.k
(1) Faradey’s law of EMI
(2) la'kksfèkr ,fEi;j fu;e
(2) Modified Ampere’s law
(3) xkml dk fLFkjoS|qr fu;e
(3) Gauss’ law of electrostatic
(4) Gauss’ law of magnetism (4) xkml dk pqEcdRo fu;e
40. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of an 40. leku xfrt ÅtkZ ds -d.k rFkk ,d izksVkWu dh
-particle and a proton of same kinetic energy is Mh&czkx
s yh rjaxnSè;Z dk vuqikr gS
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 :1 (4) 4 : 1 (3) 2 :1 (4) 4 : 1
41. If 10% of a material decays in 5 days, then the 41. ;fn ,d inkFkZ dk 10%, 5 fnu esa {kf;r gksrk gS]
amount of original material left after 20 days is rc 20 fnu ds ckn 'ks"k ewy inkFkZ dh ek=k yxHkx gS
approximately (1) 75% (2) 65%
(1) 75% (2) 65% (3) 55% (4) 25%
(3) 55% (4) 25% 42. fdlh ukfHkd dh fLFkjrk ds fy,
42. For the stability of any nucleus (1) izfr U;wfDyvkWu caèku ÅtkZ vfèkd gksuh pkfg,
(1) Binding energy per nucleon should be more (2) izfr U;wfDyvkWu caèku ÅtkZ de gksuh pkfg,
(2) Binding energy per nucleon should be less (3) ukfHkd ds vUnj izksVkWuksa dh la[;k vfèkd gksuh
(3) Number of protons inside the nucleus should pkfg,
be more
(4) ukfHkd ds vUnj U;wVªkWu dh la[;k vfèkd gksuh
(4) Number of neutrons inside the nucleus pkfg,
should be more
43. tc ,d P-N lafèk vxz vfHkur gksrk gS] rc lafèk esa
43. When a P-N junction is forward biased, the flow
of current across the junction is mainly due to
èkkjk dk izokg eq[;r% fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS\
(1) Drift of charges (1) vkos'kksa dk viogu
(2) Diffusion of charges (2) vkos'kksa dk folj.k
(3) Both drift and diffusion of charges (3) vkos'kksa dk viogu rFkk folj.k nksuksa
(4) Depends on the nature of material
(4) inkFkZ dh izd`fr ij fuHkZj djrk gS
44. The Boolean equation for the circuit given in
figure is 44. fp= esa fn, x, ifjiFk ds fy, cwyu lehdj.k gS

(1) y = A.B + C (2) y = A.(B + C ) (1) y = A.B + C (2) y = A.(B + C )

(3) y = A.(B + C ) (4) y = A.(B + C ) (3) y = A.(B + C ) (4) y = A.(B + C )

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

45. The peak voltage in the output of a half wave 45. fcuk fQYVj ds ,d T;koØh;] flXuy ds lkFk]
diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without flafpr ,d v)Z rjax Mk;ksM fn"Vdkjh ds fuxZr esa
filter is 10 V. The D.C. component of the output
voltage is :
f'k[kj oksYVrk 10 V gSA fuxZr oksYVrk D.C. ?kVd gS
10 10 10 10
(1) V (2) V (1) V (2) V
2  2 
20 20
(3) 10 V (4) V (3) 10 V (4) V
 

CHEMISTRY
46. The rate of reaction doubles when the 46. vfHkdkjd dh lkUnzrk esa pkj xquk o`f) djus ij
concentration of the reactant is increased four ,d vfHkfØ;k dk osx nksxquk gks tkrk gSA vfHkfØ;k
times. Order of the reaction is dh dksfV gS
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) 2 (2) 1
1 1
(3) (4) –1 (3) (4) –1
2 2
47. If EoCu2+ /Cu = + 0.34 V then reduction potential of 47. ;fn EoCu2+ /Cu = + 0.34 V gks] rks pH = 14 ij
Cu2+/Cu electrode at pH = 14 is (Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = 1 Cu2+/Cu bysDVªkWM dk vip;u foHko gS (Cu(OH)2 dk
× 10–19) Ksp = 1 × 10–19)
(1) –0.92 V (2) – 0.22 V (1) –0.92 V (2) – 0.22 V
(3) –0.65 V (4) – 0.76 V (3) –0.65 V (4) – 0.76 V
48. In CsCl structure, each Cl– is surrounded by how 48. CsCl lajpuk eas izR;sd Cl– fdrus Cs+ vk;uksa }kjk
many Cs+ ions? f?kjk gksrk gS\
(1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 12 (3) 8 (4) 12
49. The number of octahedral voids per atom in a fcc 49. fcc lajpuk esa izfr ijek.kq v"VQydh; fjfDr;ksa dh
structure is la[;k gS
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) 4 (4) 3
50. van’t Hoff factor, i, for K4[Fe(CN)6], if it is 80% 50. 300 K ij ;fn K4[Fe(CN)6], 80% fo;ksftr gksrk gS]
dissociated at 300 K, is rks K4[Fe(CN)6] ds fy, ok.V gkWQ xq.kkad i gS
(1) 5 (2) 4.2 (1) 5 (2) 4.2
(3) 4.8 (4) 3.6 (3) 4.8 (4) 3.6
51. At constant temperature for 1 mole of an ideal 51. fu;r rki ij ;fn 1 eksy vkn'kZ xSl ds nkc esa
gas, if its pressure is decreased by 20% then its 20% dh deh dh tkrh gS] rks blds vk;ru esa
volume will be increased by fdruh o`f) gksxh\
(1) 20% (2) 10% (1) 20% (2) 10%
(3) 25% (4) 50% (3) 25% (4) 50%
52. The approximate time required for a current of 52. fo|qrvi?kVuh :Ik ls 3 ,fEi;j èkkjk }kjk 18 g
3 ampere to decompose electrolytically 18 g of H2O dks vi?kfVr djus ds fy, vko';d le;
H2O is
(yxHkx) gS
(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours
(1) 6 ?kaVs (2) 12 ?kaVs
(3) 18 hours (4) 24 hours
(3) 18 ?kaVs (4) 24 ?kaVs
53. Which of the following has highest bond order?
53. fuEu esa ls fdldk caèk Øe mPpre gS\
(1) O2 (2) N2+
(1) O2 (2) N2+
(3) O 2− (4) H2+
(3) O 2− (4) H2+

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

54. Molecule having non zero dipole moment is 54. v'kwU; f}èkzqo vk?kw.kZ okyk v.kq gS
(1) XeF2 (2) SiCl4 (1) XeF2 (2) SiCl4
(3) SF6 (4) BrF3 (3) SF6 (4) BrF3
55. 10–2 M Ba(OH)2 tyh; foy;u dh pH gS
55. pH of 10–2 M Ba(OH)2 aqueous solution is
(1) 12.3 (2) 7.3
(1) 12.3 (2) 7.3
(3) 10.3 (4) 2.3
(3) 10.3 (4) 2.3 56. fuEu esa ls fdlesa le vk;u izHkko izsf{kr gksrk gS\
56. In which of the following cases common ion effect (1) HCl + HNO3 (2) NaOH + NaCl
is observed? (3) HCN + HCl (4) HCl + H2SO4
(1) HCl + HNO3 (2) NaOH + NaCl 57. ty dh LFkk;h dBksjrk dks fdlds }kjk nwj fd;k
(3) HCN + HCl (4) HCl + H2SO4 tk ldrk gS\
57. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by (1) DykdZ fofèk (2) ijE;wfVV izØe
(1) Clark’s method (2) Permutit process (3) mckydj (4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa
(3) By boiling (4) Both (2) and (3) 58. vkWFkksZ rFkk isjk gkbMªkstu fdles fHkUurk n'kkZrs gSa\
58. Ortho and para hydrogen have different (1) bysDVªkWuh; pØ.k (2) ukfHkdh; pØ.k
(1) Electronic spin (2) Nuclear spin (3) eksyj nzO;eku (4) ?kuRo
(3) Molar mass (4) Densities

59. dk IUPAC uke gS

59. IUPAC name of is
(1) QsfuyesfFky,ekbM
(1) Phenylmethylamide
(2) esfFky ,lhVksQhukWu
(2) Methyl acetophenone
(3) N-Qsfuy ,FksusekbM
(3) N-Phenyl ethanamide
(4) 2-esfFky csUtsekbM
(4) 2-methyl benzamide
60. Carius method is used to detect
60. dSfj;l fofèk dk mi;ksx fdl rRo dh igpku
djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) C (2) Br
(1) C (2) Br
(3) N (4) H
(3) N (4) H
61. Most stable carbanion is
61. vR;fèkd LFkk;h dkcZ_.kk;u gS
(1) CH3 CH2 (2) CH2 = CH (1) CH3 CH2 (2) CH2 = CH

(3) HC  C (4) CH3 – CH – CH3 (3) HC  C (4) CH3 – CH – CH3

62. Molecule having 3 centre-2 electron bond is 62. 3 dsUnz-2 bysDVªkWu cUèk okyk v.kq gS
(1) Al2Cl6 (2) B2H6 (1) Al2Cl6 (2) B2H6
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H2
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H2
63. cksfjd vEy ds lUnHkZ esa lgh dFku dk p;u
63. Select a correct statement about boric acid dhft,A
(1) It is a Bronsted acid (1) ;g ,d czkWUlVsM vEy gS
(2) It is an Arrhenius acid (2) ;g ,d vkjgsfu;l vEy gS
(3) It is a Lewis acid (3) ;g ,d ywbZl vEy gS

(4) Its basicity is three (4) bldh {kkjdrk rhu gksrh gS

64. Path independent function(s) among the following 64. fuEu esa ls dkSuls Qyu iFk ij fuHkZj ugha djrs
is/are gS@gSa\
(1) Temperature (2) Internal energy (1) rki (2) vkUrfjd ÅtkZ
(3) Pressure (4) All of these (3) nkc (4) buesa ls lHkh

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

65. Which of the following reaction’s heat is defined 65. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k dh Å"ek dks ;kSfxd
as fH of a compound? ds fH ds :Ik esa ifjHkkf"kr fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) 2CO(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) (1) 2CO(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g)
(2) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) (2) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)

1 1
(3) H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O(l) (3) H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O(l)
2 2
(4) 2NO2 (g) → N2O4 (g) (4) 2NO2 (g) → N2O4 (g)

66.
66.

eq[; mRikn gS
Major product is
(1) C;wV-2-vkbu (2) lei{k-C;wV-2-bZu
(1) But-2-yne (2) Cis-but-2-ene
(3) foi{k-C;wV-2-bZu (4) lkbDyksC;wVus
(3) trans-but-2-ene (4) Cyclobutane
67. A, A gS
67. A, A is

(1)
(1)

(2)
(2)

(3)
(3)

(4)
(4)

68. lkWYos izØe dk mi;ksx fdlds fojpu esa fd;k tkrk gS \

68. Solvay process is used to prepare (1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3
(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) CaSO4 (4) CaCO3
(3) CaSO4 (4) CaCO3 69. N2O3, HN3 rFkk HCN esa ukbVªkt
s u dh vkWDlhdj.k
69. Oxidation states of nitrogen in N2O3, HN3 and voLFkk,a Øe'k% gSa
HCN respectively are 1
(1) + 2, +3 rFkk – 3 (2) + 3, − rFkk – 3
1 3
(1) + 2, +3 and – 3 (2) + 3, − and – 3
3 1
(3) – 3, + 3 rFkk – 3 (4) + 3, + rFkk + 3
1 3
(3) – 3, + 3 and – 3 (4) + 3, + and + 3 70. izkis hu rFkk izkis kbu dks fdlds }kjk foHksfnr fd;k
3
70. Propene and propyne can be distinguished by tk ldrk gS\
(1) Bromine water (2) Baeyer’s reagent (1) czkes hu ty (2) cs;j vfHkdeZd
(3) Tollen’s reagent (4) Hydrogenation (3) VkWysu vfHkdeZd (4) gkbMªkstuhdj.k

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

+ +
71. CH3CH2COO−Na + NaOH ⎯⎯⎯
CaO
→ X , X is 71. CH3CH2COO−Na + NaOH ⎯⎯⎯
CaO
→ X , X gS
(Major ) ( eq[; )

(1) CH3CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH3 (1) CH3CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH3

(3) CH3CH2 – OH (4) CH2 = CH2 (3) CH3CH2 – OH (4) CH2 = CH2
72. Packing efficiency of a fcc unit cell is 72. fcc ,dd dksf"Bdk dh ladqyu {kerk gS
(1) 54% (2) 74% (1) 54% (2) 74%
(3) 68% (4) 92% (3) 68% (4) 92%
 
73. (CH3COO)2 Ca ⎯⎯→ Y (major product), product 73. (CH3COO)2 Ca ⎯⎯→ Y (eq[; mRikn)
Y in the above reaction is
mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa mRikn Y gS
(1) CH4 (2) CH3OH
(1) CH4 (2) CH3OH
(3) CH3 – O – CH3 (4) CH3 – CO – CH3
(3) CH3 – O – CH3 (4) CH3 – CO – CH3
74. Which of the following mixture(s) forms an ideal
solution? 74. fuEu esa ls dkSulk feJ.k vkn'kZ foy;u cukrk gS\
(1) Acetone + Chloroform (1) ,lhVksu + DyksjksQkWeZ
(2) Hexane + Heptane (2) gsDlsu + gsIVsu
(3) Benzene + Toluene (3) csUthu + VkWywbZu
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa
75. Fastest rate of SN1 reaction is observed in 75. SN1 vfHkfØ;k dk rhozre osx fdlesa izsf{kr gksrk gS\

(1) CH3Cl (2) (1) CH3Cl (2)

(3) (4) CH2 = CH – Cl (3) (4) CH2 = CH – Cl

76. major product 76.

formed is mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa fufeZr eq[; mRikn gS

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

77. Caprolactum is the monomer of 77. dSizky

s sDVe fdldk ,dyd gS\
(1) Teflon (2) Nylon 6 (1) Vs¶ykWu (2) uk;ykWu 6
(3) Nylon 6, 6 (4) Buna-N (3) uk;ykWu 6, 6 (4) C;wuk-N
78. D-Glucose and D-mannose are 78. D-Xywdkst rFkk D-eSukst gSa
(1) C-4 epimers (2) C-2 epimers
(1) C-4 ,fiej (2) C-2 ,fiej
(3) Anomers (4) Tautormers
(3) ,ukWej (4) pyko;o

79.
79.

Number of oxygen atom (s) present in product P

is/are mRikn P esa mifLFkr vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k
(1) 1 (2) 2 gS@gSa
(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 1 (2) 2
NaCN DIBAL −H
(3) 4 (4) 5
80. R − Br ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
→ Y, compound Y is DIBAL −H
HO 2 80. R − Br ⎯⎯⎯⎯
NaCN
→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯
HO
⎯
→ Y,
2
;kSfxd Y gS
(1) An aldehyde (2) An alcohol
(1) ,fYMgkbM (2) ,YdksgkWy
(3) An ether (4) An ester
(3) bZFkj (4) ,LVj
81. Mass of 11.2 L of NH3 gas at STP is
(1) 0.5 g (2) 4.5 g 81. STP ij 11.2 L NH3 xSl dk nzO;eku gS
(3) 6.75 g (4) 8.5 g (1) 0.5 g (2) 4.5 g
(3) 6.75g (4) 8.5 g
82. A + 2B → 3C, what is the maximum number of
moles of C formed, if 2 moles of A is heated with 82. A + 2B → 3C, ;fn 2 eksy A dks 3 eksy B ds lkFk
3 moles of B? xeZ fd;k tkrk gS] rks fufeZr C ds eksyksa dh
(1) 3 (2) 1.5 vfèkdre la[;k gS
(3) 4.5 (4) 6 (1) 3 (2) 1.5
83. Number of electrons is p subshell(s) of an atom (3) 4.5 (4) 6
with atomic number 31 is 83. ijek.kq Øekad 31 okys ,d ijek.kq ds p midks'kksa esa
(1) 13 (2) 12 bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k gS
(3) 9 (4) 10 (1) 13 (2) 12
84. Number of unpaired electron(s) in Cr3+ ion is (3) 9 (4) 10
(1) 1 (2) 2 84. Cr3+ vk;u esa v;qfXer bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k gS
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
85. ; (y) is
85. ; (y) gS

(1)
(1)

(2)
(2)

(3)
(3)

(4)
(4)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

86. Linear shape molecule is 86. js[kh; vkd`fr okyk v.kq gS

(1) SO2 (2) H2O (1) SO2 (2) H2O
(3) SCl2 (4) BeCl2 (3) SCl2 (4) BeCl2
87. Most electronegative element among the 87. fuEu esa ls vR;fèkd fo|qr_.kh rRo gS
following is
(1) K (2) B
(1) K (2) B
(3) O (4) Br
(3) O (4) Br
88. Among the following substances
88. fuEu esa ls izfr&yksgpqEcdh; inkFkZ gS
antiferromagnetic substance is (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4
(1) MnO (2) Fe3O4 (3) ZnFe2O4 (4) CrO2
(3) ZnFe2O4 (4) CrO2 89. yaMu LekWx fdldh mPp lkUnzrk ds QyLo:i
89. London smog results from a high concentration of curk gS\
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 (1) CO2 (2) SO2
(3) O3 (4) NO2 (3) O3 (4) NO2
90. Deficiency of vitamin D causes 90. foVkfeu D dh deh ds dkj.k gksrk gS
(1) Rickets (2) Night blindness (1) fjdsV~l (2) jrkSaèkh
(3) Scurvey (4) Beriberi
(3) LdohZ (4) csjhcsjh

BOTANY
91. Select the correctly matched pair w.r.t plastids
(1) Amyloplast – Stores fats and oils
(2) Aleuroplast – Stores proteins
(3) Elaioplast – Stores starch
(4) Chromoplast – Contains chlorophylls
92. The filaments of cytoskeleton mainly composed
of globular protein actin and filamentous protein
myosin are
(1) Microfilaments
(2) Microtubules
(3) Intermediate filaments
91. IykfLVM ds lanHkZ esa lqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u
dhft,A
(1) ,ekbyksIykLV – olk o rsy lafpr djrk gS
(2) ,Y;wjksIykLV – izkV s hu lafpr djrk gS
(3) bfy;ksIykLV – eaM lafpr djrk gS
(4) ØkseksIykLV – i.kZgfjr ;qDr
92. dksf'kdk iatj dk dkSuls rarq eq[; :Ik ls XyksC;wyj
izksVhu ,fDVu o rarqe; izksVhu ek;kslhu ds cus gksrs gS \
(1) lq{erarq
(2) lw{eufydk
(3) eè;orhZ rarq

(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa

93. Cellular organelle having single membrane is 93. ,dy f>Yyh okys dksf'kdkax gS
(1) DyksjksIykLV (2) dsUnzd
(1) Chloroplast (2) Nucleus
(3) ykblkslkse (4) ekbVªkd
s kWf.Mª;k
(3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondrion
94. Reduction in the number of chromosomes occurs
94. xq.klw= dh la[;k esa deh fdl nkSjku gksrh gS\
during (1) f}iV~V(fMIyksVhu)
(1) Diplotene (2) ikjxfrØe(Mk;dkbusfll)
(2) Diakinesis
(3) eè;koLFkk I
(3) Metaphase I
(4) i'pkoLFkk I
(4) Anaphase I
95. Congression of chromosomes is seen in
95. xq.klw=ksa dk dkaxzslu fdlesa gksrk gS\
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) iwokZoLFkk (2) eè;koLFkk

(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (3) i'pkoLFkk (4) vaR;koLFkk

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

96. Select the incorrectly matched pair 96. vlqesfyr ;qXe dh igpku dhft,A
(1) Herbarium – Store house of (1) gjcsfj;e – 'khV ij lq[kkdj]
dried, pressed and nckdj rFkk ifjjf{kr
preserved plants on fd, x, ikni dk
sheets. lafpr x`g
(2) Museum – Collection of (2) laxzgky; – ik= esa j[ks ifjjf{kr
preserved plants
ikniks o tUrqvksa dk
laxzg.k dks ik= esa
and animals kept in
j[kk tkrk gS
containers
(3) ouLifrd m|ku – Hkwfe ds ,d layXu
(3) Botanical garden – An institution
Hkkx esa fLFkr laLFkku
located in an tks dbZ izdkj ds
enclosed piece of ikni dks mxkrh gS
land which grows (4) izkf.k m|ku – og LFkku tgk¡ dsoy
numerous kinds of e`r oU; thoksa dks
plants ifjjf{kr fLFkfr esa
(4) Zoological parks – Places where only j[kk tkrk gS
dead wild animals 97. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d ykbdsu ds lanHkZ esa
are kept in lgh ugha gS\
preserved (1) ykbdsu nksgjk tho gS ftlesa 'kSoyka'k o
conditions. dodka'k nksuksa gksrk gSa
97. Which of the following is not correct about (2) ;s lYQj MkbvkWDlkbM dh mifLFkfr esa o`f)
lichens?
ugha dj ldrs gSa
(1) Lichens are dual organism containing
phycobiont and mycobiont (3) ;s vR;fèkd rsth ls o`f) djrs gSa
(2) They cannot grow in the presence of sulphur (4) ;s izk;% izfrdwy tSls uXu pðkuksa esa o`f) djrs
dioxide gSa
(3) They grow very fast
98. viw.kZ dod ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk p;u dhft,A
(4) They often grow in most inhospitable places
such as barren rocks (1) vYVjusfj;k (2) dksyhVksVªkbde
98. Find the odd one w.r.t. the fungi imperfecti (3) VªkbdksMekZ (4) isfuflfy;e
(1) Alternaria (2) Colletotrichum
99. fdlesa ikjn'khZ flfydk ;qDr dop ds fuekZ.k ds
(3) Trichoderma (4) Penicillium fy, fHkfÙk flfydk ds lkFk èk¡lh gksrh gS\
99. The cell wall is impregnated with silica to form
(1) Mk;uks¶ySftysV~l (2) ;wfXyukW;M~l
transparent siliceous shell in
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Euglenoids (3) Mkb,Ve (4) voiad dod
(3) Diatoms (4) Slime moulds 100. izki
s ewy o voLraHk ewy Øe'k% fdlesa ik, tkrs gSa\
100. Prop roots and stilt roots are found respectively in (1) jkbtksQksjk o 'kyxe
(1) Rhizophora and turnip
(2) cjxn o eDdk
(2) Banyan and maize
(3) vkyw o tehdan
(3) Potato and zaminkand
(4) Pistia and Eichhornia (4) fifLV;k o vkbdkWfuZ;k
101. Valvate aestivation in corolla is found in 101. dksjksyk esa dksjLi'khZ iq"inyfoU;kl fdlesa ik;k tkrk gS \
(1) Cotton (2) Calotropis (1) dkWVu (2) dSyksVªksfil
(3) Cassia (4) Gulmohur
(3) dSfl;k (4) xqyeksgj

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

102. All of the given characteristics are related to 102. fdlds vfrfjDr fn, x, vU; lHkh vfHky{k.k
parenchyma tissue except e`nksrd Ård ls lacafèkr gS\
(1) Composed of living cells (1) thfor dksf'kdkvksa ds cus gksrs gSa
(2) lkekU;r% leO;klh; dksf'kdk,¡ gksrh gS
(2) Generally isodiametric cells
(3) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk eq[;r% lqcsfju dh cuh gksrh gS
(3) Cell wall is mainly made up of suberin
(4) varjdksf'kdh; vodk'k jfgr ;k NksVs
(4) Either closely packed cells with no varjdksf'kdh; vodk'k okyh fudV :Ik ls
intercellular spaces or have small intercellular laofs "Vr dksf'kdk,¡ gksrh gS
spaces
103. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d okfgfudk ls lacfa èkr
103. Which of the following is related to tracheids? gS\
(1) Deposition of suberin on cell wall (1) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk ij lqcsfju dk fu{ksi.k
(2) Found in gymnosperms only (2) dsoy vuko`rchft;ksa esa ik;k tkrk gS
(3) izkV
s ksIykTe jfgr e`r dksf'kdk
(3) Dead cell without protoplsm
(4) ty ds vjh; laogu esa lgk;d
(4) Helps in radial conduction of water
104. laoguh; iwy esa ty èkkj.k djus okyh xqgk fdldk
104. Water containing cavities in the vascular bundle ,d vfHkyk{kf.kd xq.k gS\
is a characteristics feature of (1) f}chti=h ewyksa (2) ,dchti=h rus
(1) Dicot roots (2) Monocot stems (3) ,dchti=h i.kksZ (4) f}chti=h rus
(3) Monocot leaves (4) Dicot stems 105. dkdZ ,èkk ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dh igpku
105. Identify the wrong statement in context of cork
dhft,A
cambium (1) dkdZ ,èkk dks dkxtu Hkh dgrs gSa
(1) Cork cambium is also called phellogen (2) dkdZ ,èkk lkekU;r% f}rh;d tkbye ls
(2) Cork cambium is usually developed from the
fodflr gksrk gS
secondary xylem (3) dkxtu dh ckg~; dksf'kdk,¡ dkx esa foHksfnr
(3) Outer cells of phellogen differentiate into cork gksrh gS
(4) dkxtu ds vkarfjd Hkkx ds dkj.k ifjpeZ dk
(4) Inner part of phellogen leads to formation of
phelloderm fuekZ.k gksrk gS
106. Which one is wrongly matched? 106. buesa ls dkSulk ,d vlqesfyr gS\
(1) vle;qXedh ySafxd – ;wMksfjuk
(1) Anisogamous – Eudorina
sexual reproduction
tuu
(2) gfjr 'kSoky – ik;fjukW;M~l
(2) Green algae – Pyrenoids
(3) yky 'kSoky – ¶yksfjMhu eaM
(3) Red algae – Floridean starch
(4) Hkwjk 'kSoky – vxkj o dSjkxhu
(4) Brown algae – Agar and carrageen
107. fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh ekWl ds mHk;fu"B mnkgj.k gSa \
107. All are common examples of mosses, except
(1) Funaria (2) Polytrichum
(1) ¶;wufs j;k (2) ikWfyVªkbde
(3) Sphagnum (4) Selaginella (3) LQSxue (4) flysftuSyk
108. Diplontic life cycle is shown by 108. f}xqf.krdh thou pØ fdlds }kjk n'kkZ;k tkrk gS\
(1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra (1) okWyokWDl (2) Likbjksxk;jk
(3) Bryophytes (4) Fucus (3) czk;ksQkbV~l (4) ¶;wdl
109. Which of the following factors increases the 109. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d dkjd ok"iksRltZu dh
transpiration rate? nj dks c<+krk gS\
(1) Low root-shoot ratio (1) fuEu ewy-izjksg vuqikr
(2) Leaves with waxy coating (2) ekse tSls vkoj.k okys i.kZ
(3) High concentration of salts in soil water
(3) e`nk ty esa yo.k dh mPp lkanzrk
(4) Lower relative humidity in atmosphere
(4) ok;qeaMy esa fuEu vkisf{kd vknzZrk

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110. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. transport in plants 110. ikniksa esa ifjogu ds lanHkZ esa vlqesfyr dh igpku
(1) Simple diffusion – Do not require dhft,A
special membrane (1) ljy folj.k – fof'k"V f>Yyh izkV s hu
protein dh vko';drk ugha
(2) Active transport – Do not show uphill gksrh gS
transport (2) lfØ; ifjogu – ÅèoZxkeh ifjogu
(3) Facilitated transport – Transport saturation ugha n'kkZrk gS
can occur (3) lqlkè; ifjogu – lar`Ir ifjogu gks
(4) Active transport – Highly selective ldrk gS
nature (4) lfØ; ifjogu – mPp :Ik ls
111. Nitrate assimilation is the process in plant in p;ukRed izd`fr
which 111. ikniksa esa ukbVªsV Lokaxhdj.k dh izfØ;k gksrh gS ftlesa
(1) N2 is converted into NH3 (1) N2, NH3 esa :ikarfjr gksrh gS
(2) NH3 is converted into N2 (2) NH3, N2 esa :ikarfjr gksrh gS
(3) NO2− is converted into NO3− (3) NO2− , NO3− esa :ikarfjr gksrh gS
(4) NO3− is converted into NH3 (4) NO3− , NH3 esa :ikarfjr gksrh gS
112. Turgidity of guard cells during opening of stomata 112. jaèkz ds [kqyus ds nkSjku }kj dksf'kdkvksa dh LQhrrk
is maintained by the help of fdldh lgk;rk ls O;ofLFkr gksrk gS\
(1) Sodium (2) Magnesium (1) lksfM;e (2) eSxuhf'k;e
(3) Potassium (4) Calcium (3) iksVSf'k;e (4) dSfYl;e
113. Cyclic photophosphorylation is different from non- 113. pØh; izdk'k QkWLQksfjyhdj.k v&pØh;
cyclic photophosphorylation as the former izdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k ls fHkUu gksrk gS D;ksafd
(1) Is performed by collaboration of both PS-II pØh; izdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k
and PS-I (1) PS-II o PS-I nksuksa ds lg;ksx }kjk n'kkZ;k tkrk gS
(2) Does not require any external source of (2) ds fy, bysDVªkWu dks fdlh ckg~;L=ksr dh
electrons
vko';drk ugha gksrh gS
(3) Is connected with photolysis of water
(3) ty ds izdk'k vi?kVu ls tqM+k gksrk gS
(4) Is connected with ATP and NADPH
(4) ATP rFkk NADPH ds mRiknu ls tqM+k gksrk gS
production
114. isidst (PEPcase) ,atkbe fdlesa fLFkr gksrk gS\
114. PEPcase enzyme is located in
(1) C4 ikniksa dh i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdvksa esa
(1) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants
(2) C4 ikniksa dh iwy vkPNn dksf'kdkvksa esa
(2) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
(3) C3 ikniksa dh lHkh dksf'kdkvksa esa
(3) All the cells of C3 plants
(4) izdk'k'olu n'kkZus okys ikni es
(4) Plant which shows photorespiration
115. EMP iFkØe dh izFke O;qRØekuqikrh vfHkfØ;k
115. The first irreversible reaction of EMP pathway is
catalyzed by fdlds }kjk mRiszsfjr gksrh gS\
(1) QkWLQksÝDVksdkbust
(1) Phosphofructokinase
(2) ikb:osV dkbust
(2) Pyruvate kinase
(3) gsDlksdkbust
(3) Hexokinase
(4) ,YMksyst
(4) Aldolase
116. dkSulk dFku ØsCl pØ ds fy, lgh ugha gS\
116. Which statement is not correct for Krebs’ cycle
(1) ØsCl pØ ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dh vkèkk=h esa gksrk gS
(1) Krebs’ cycle occurs in mitochondrial matrix
(2) flfVªd vEy ds fuekZ.k ds fy, ik;:fod vEy
(2) Pyruvic acid condense with OAA to form citric
acid OAA ds lkFk la?kfur gksrk gS
(3) 3 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 are produced during (3) 3 NADH2 o 1 FADH2 ,d ØsCl pØ ds nkSjku
one Krebs’ cycle mRiUu gksrs gS
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase is found attached (4) lfDlusV fMgkbMªkfs tust vkarfjd ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k
to inner mitochondrial membrane dh f>Yyh ls layXu ik, tkrs gS

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

117. Read the following statements and choose the 117. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk lgh fodYi dk
correct option p;u dhft,A
A. Parthenocarpy in banana is mainly due to A. dsyk esa vfu"ksd Qyu eq[;r% vkWfDlu ds mPp
high internal production of auxins
vkarfjd mRiknu ds dkj.k gksrk gS
B. Apical dominance can be counteract by
cytokinins B. 'kh"kZ izHkkfork lkbVksdkbfuu ds }kjk jksdk tk
ldrk gS
(1) Only (A) is correct
(1) dsoy (A) lgh gS
(2) Only (B) is correct
(2) dsoy (B) lgh gS
(3) Both (A) is (B) are correct
(3) (A) o (B) nksuksa lgh gS
(4) Both (A) is (B) are incorrect
(4) (A) o (B) nksuksa xyr gS
118. Which of the following plant growth regulators is
derived from adenine but does not occur naturally 118. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ikni o`f) fu;ked
in plants. ,Msfuu ls mRiUu gksrk gS ijUrq ikniksa esa izkd`frd
(1) NAA (2) Zeatin :Ik ls ugha ik;k tkrk gS\
(3) Kinetin (4) 2, 4-D (1) NAA (2) ft,Vhu
119. Find the incorrect match (3) dkbusfVu (4) 2, 4-D
(1) Isogametes – Cladophora 119. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Isogametes – Rhizopus (1) le;qXed – DysMksQksjk
(3) Heterogametes – Ulothrix (2) le;qXed – jkbtksQksjk
(4) Heterogametes – Volvox (3) fo"ke;qXed – ;wyksfFkzDl
120. Which of the given features discourage the self- (4) fo"ke;qXed – okWyokWDl
pollination? 120. fn;k x;k dkSulk ,d xq.k Lo&ijkx.k dks jksdrk gS \
(1) Dioecy (2) Cleistogamy (1) Mkbvkslh (2) vuqUehY; ijkx.k
(3) Homogamy (4) Bisexuality (3) gkseksxseh (4) f}fyaxrk
121. Double fertilization includes 121. f}&fu"kspu esa
(1) Endosperm and embryo development (1) Hkzw.kiks"k rFkk Hkzw.k ifjoèkZu lfEefyr gksrk gS
(2) Ovules and ovary maturation (2) chtkaM o vaMk'k; dk ifjiDou lfEefyr gksrk gS
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion (3) f=d lay;u lfEefyr gksrk gS
(4) Porogamy and chalazogamy (4) iksjksxSeh o dSystksxSeh lfEefyr gksrk gS
122. Presence of more than two alleles for a gene is 122. ,d thu ds fy, nks ls vfèkd fodfYi;ksa dh
known as mifLFkfr D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Polygenic inheritence (1) cgqthuh oa'kkxfr
(2) Multiple allelism (2) cgq fodYirk
(3) Co-dominance (3) lg-izHkkfork
(4) Incomplete dominace (4) viw.kZ izHkkfork
123. ySafxd xq.klw=ksa ds v&fo;kstu }kjk mRiUu
123. An abnormality caused by non-disjunction of sex
chromosomes is vlkekU;rk D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) VuZj fl.Mªkse (2) nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Sickel cell anemia
(3) MkmUl fl.Mªkse (4) -FkSyslhfe;k
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) -Thalassemia
124. dkf;d ladj.k ds nkSjku vuko`r izkV s ksIykLV ds
124. During somatic hybridization, cell are treated with mRiknu ds fy, dksf'kdk dks A o B ds
A and B to produce the naked
protoplast.
lkFk mipkfjr fd;k tkrk gSA
Here ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are ;gk¡ ‘A’ o ‘B’ Øe'k% gSa
(1) Auxins, cytokinins (1) vkWfDlu] lkbVksdkbfuu
(2) Pectinase, cellulase (2) isfDVust] lsY;wyst
(3) Sodium nitrate, PEG (3) lsfM;e ukbVªV s , PEG
(4) BAP, gibberellins (4) BAP, ftcjsfyu

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125. Fermented beverages which are produced 125. vklou ds fcuk mRiUu fd;k x;k fdf.or is; gS
without distillation are (1) fOgLdh o je (2) czkM
a h o ch;j
(1) Whisky and rum (2) Brandy and beer (3) ch;j o okbu (4) fOgLdh o czkMa h
(3) Beer and wine (4) Whisky and brandy 126. fljdk ds fuekZ.k esa dkSulk tho iz;qDr gksrk gS\
126. Organism used in preparation of vinegar is (1) ,lhVkscSDVj ,lhVh (2) ySDVkscSflyl
(1) Acetobacter aceti (2) Lactobacillus (3) isfufly;e (4) DyksfLVªfM;e
(3) Penicillium (4) Clostridium 127. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
127. Select the incorrect statements from the (a) ,slk lk{; gS fd thou ds bfrgkl esa DNA
following
igyk vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ Fkk
(a) There are the evidences that DNA was the
(b) RNA mRizsjd dh rjg dk;Z ugha djrk gS
first gentic material in the history of life.
(b) No RNA acts as catalyst (c) DNA izfrd`rh;u dks vèkZlaj{kh dgk tkrk gS
D;ksfa d blesa ikWyhU;wfDy;ksVkbM Jà[kyk ds nks
(c) DNA replication is said to be
semiconservative as it has two strands of
jTtqd gksrs gS
polynucleotide chain. (d) ukbVªkt s uh {kkj] N-XykbdksflfMd caèk }kjk
(d) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose isUVkst 'kdZjk ls tqM+k gksrk gS
sugar through N-glycosidic linkage. (1) (a), (b) rFkk (c) (2) dsoy (b) rFkk (c)
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (c) rFkk (d) (4) (b) rFkk (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
128. Ogsy ds ihB ij o`f) djus okyk cusZdy lef"V
128. Barnacles growing on the back a whale, a type of ijLijfØ;k dk ,d izdkj gS tks _______ dk ,d
population interaction, is an example of mnkgj.k gS
(1) Competition (2) Mutualism
(1) LièkkZ (2) lgksidkfjrk
(3) Amensalism (4) Commensalism
(3) varjtkrh; ijthfork (4) lgHkksftrk
129. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option 129. dkWye-I dk dkWye-II ds lkFk feyku dhft, rFkk
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Column-I Column-II
dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. RNA polymerase I (i) hnRNA
a. RNA ikWyhejst I (i) hnRNA
b. RNA polymerase II (ii) tRNA
b. RNA ikWyhejst II (ii) tRNA
c. RNA polymerase III (iii) 28 S rRNA
c. RNA ikWyhejst III (iii) 28 S rRNA
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
130. Key industry animals are also known as 130. mPPk m|ksx tUrq _____ Hkh dgykrs gS
(1) Top carnivores (1)eq[; eklkagkjh
(2) Herbivores (2) 'kkdkgkjh
(3) f}rh;d miHkksDrk
(3) Secondary consumers
(4) r`rh;d miHkksDrk
(4) Tertiary consumers
131. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldks ikfjfLFkfrdh fijkfeM esa
131. Which of the following are not given any place in
ecological pyramids dksbZ LFkku ugha fn, x, gS\
(1) izkFkfed mRiknd (2) izkFkfed miHkksDrk
(1) Primary producers (2) Primary consumers
(3) eq[; eklkagkjh (4) e`rthoh
(3) Top carnivores (4) Saprophytes
132. vkWQ lkbV laj{k.k ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk p;u
132. Find the odd one out w.r.t. off site conservation dhft,A
(1) Botanical gardens (2) Zoological parks (1) ouLifrd m|ku (2) tUrq m|ku
(3) National parks (4) Seed banks (3) jk"Vªh; m|ku (4) cht cSad

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133. The most important cause responsible for 133. tarq rFkk ikniksa ds foyksiu ds fy, mÙkjnk;h lcls
animals and plants extinction is egRoiw.kZ dkj.k gS
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (1) vkoklh; gkfu o [kaMu
(2) Over-exploitation (2) vfr-nksgu
(3) fons'kh tkfr;ksa dk vkØe.k
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) lg&foyksiu
(4) Co-extinction
134. rktegy dk ihykiu eq[; :i ls fdlds }kjk gksrk
134. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is mainly caused by
gS\
(1) NOX (2) SO2
(1) NOX }kjk (2) SO2 }kjk
(3) O3 (4) CO (3) O3 }kjk (4) CO }kjk
135. Algal bloom in lake causes all the effects given 135. fdlds vfrfjDr uhps fn, x, lHkh izHkkoks ds dkj.k
below, except >hy esa 'kSokyh; izLQqVu mRiUu gksrk gS\
(1) Increase CO2 level (1) CO2 Lrj esa o`f)
(2) Oxygen depletion in lake (2) >hy esa vkWDlhtu dk vo{k;u
(3) Increase the fish mortality (3) eNyh dh e`R;qnj esa o`f)
(4) Increase the DO in water (4) ty esa DO dh o`f)

ZOOLOGY
136. Skeletal muscle fibres are
(1) Branched, spindle shaped and uninucleated
(2) Striped, multinucleated and unbranched
(3) Unbranched, involuntary and cylindrical in
shape
136. dadkyh; is'kh rUrq, gksrh gSA
(1) 'kkf[kr] rdqZ:ih rFkk ,ddsUnzdh
(2) iV~Vhnkj] cgqdsUnzdh rFkk v'kkf[kr
(3) v'kkf[kr] vuSfPNd rFkk csyukdkj vkdkj

(4) Voluntary, unbranched and uninucleated (4) ,SfPNd] v'kkf[kr rFkk ,ddsUnzdh
137. Select the odd one w.r.t. secretions of exocrine 137. ckg~; L=koh xzfUFk;ksa ds L=o.kksa ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke
glands. in dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Saliva (2) Mucus (1) ykj (2) 'ys"ek
(3) Insulin (4) Milk (3) bUlqfyu (4) nwèk
138. Choose the incorrect match. 138. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Arachidonic acid – 20C fatty acid (1) vjsfdMksfud vEy – 20C olk vEy esa
including dkcksZfDly dkcZu gksrk gSa
carboxyl carbon (2) yslhFkhu – dksf'kdk f>Yyh eas
(2) Lecithin – Phospholipid QkWLQksfyfiM gksrs gS
found in cell
(3) lkbVhMhu – DNA dk ukbVªkstuh
membrane
(3) Cytidine – Nitrogenous base
{kkj
of DNA (4) fouCykfLVu – f}rh; mikip;
(4) Vinblastin – Secondary ,aVh&dSalj vkS"kèkh ds
metabolite used as :Ik esa iz;qDr gksrs gS
anti-cancer drug
139. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl izdkj dk lajpukRed Lrj
139. Which of the following type of structural level is
exhibited by DNA in Watson-Crick model?
CkkWVlu&fØd ekWMy esa DNA }kjk n'kkZ;k tkrk gS\
(1) izkFkfed lajpuk
(1) Primary structure
(2) f}rh;d lajpuk
(2) Secondary structure
(3) r`rh;d lajpuk
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) prq"d lajpuk
(4) Quaternary structure

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

140. Match Column-I with Column-II 140. dkWye-I dk dkWye-II ds lkFk feyku dhft,A
Column I Column II dkWye I dkWye II
(i) Brunner’s gland a. Salivary amylase (i) czwuj xzfUFk a. ykj ,sekbyst
(ii) Rugae b. Nucleosidase (ii) :xs b. U;wfDy;kslkbMst
(iii) Succus entericus c. Mucosa layer (iii) lDdl ,sUVsjhdl c. E;wdkslk ijr
(iv) Carbohydrate d. Sub-mucosa (iv) dkcksZgkbMªV
s d. lo-E;wdkslk
splitting enzyme fLIyfVax ,Utkbe
Choose the correct option lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv,-c (1) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-b, iii-c, ii-a, iv-d
(3) i-b, iii-c, ii-a, iv-d
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
141. vXuk'k;h jl ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo"ke gSA
141. Odd one w.r.t. pancreatic juice is
(1) izkd
s kcksZDlhisIVhMstst
(1) Procarboxypeptidases
(2) ykbistst
(2) Lipases (3) ,UVsjksdkbust
(3) Enterokinase (4) U;wfDy,stst
(4) Nucleases 142. vr%'olu gksrk gS ;fn ok;qe.Myh; nkc dh vis{kk
142. Inspiration can occur if A pressure is less A nkc de gksrk gS vFkkZr ok;qe.Myh; nkc ds
than atmospheric pressure, i.e., there is B lanHkZ esa QsQM+ks esa B nkc gksrk gSA ml fodYi
pressure in the lungs w.r.t. atmosphere pressure. dk p;u dhft,A
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly. tks lgh :Ik ls fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ djrk gSA
A B A B
(1) Intra-pulmonary Positive vUr%-Qq¶Qqlh;
(1) èkukRed
(2) Intra-pulmonary Negative (2) vUr%-Qq¶Qqlh; _.kkRed
(3) Inter-pleural Positive (3) vUrjk-Qq¶Qqlkoj.kh èkukRed
(4) Intra-pleural Positive (4) vUr%-Qq¶Qqlkoj.kh èkukRed
143. The respiratory volume/capacity of air that 143. ok;q dk og 'oluh vk;ru@{kerk tks LikbjksehVj
cannot be measured by using a spirometer is ds mi;ksx ls ekik ugha tk ldrk gSA
(1) Inspiratory capacity (1) var% 'oluh {kerk
(2) Tidal volume (2) Tokjh; vk;ru
(3) Expiratory reserve volume (3) fu%'oluh lqjf{kr vk;ru
(4) Functional residual capacity (4) fØ;k'khy vof'k"V {kerk
144. Person with blood group O is considered as 144. O jDr lewg okys O;fDr dks loZnkrk ds :Ik eas
universal donor because he has ekuk tkrk gS D;ksfa d mlds]
(1) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma (1) IykTkk esa ,aVh-A rFkk ,aVh-B nksuksa izfrjf{k;k¡ gksrh
and both A and B antigens on RBC’s surface. gS rFkk RBC’s dh lrg ij A rFkk B nksuksa
izfrtu gksrs gSa
(2) No antigen and no antibodies in the blood
plasma (2) :fèkj IykTek esa izfrtu rFkk izfrjf{k;k¡ ugha
gksrh gS
(3) Neither A nor B antigens on RBCs
(3) RBCs ij uk rks A uk gh B izfrtu gksrs gS
(4) Both antigens on RBCs but no antibodies in
plasma (4) RBCs ij nksuksa izfrtu gksrs gS ijUrq IykTek esa
izfrjf{k;k¡ ugha gksrh gSa

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

145. Choose the incorrect match 145. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Cardiac arrest – Condition in which heart (1) dkfMZ,d vjsLV – og ifjfLFkfr ftlesa
stops beating ân; Lianu :d tkrk gS
(2) T-wave – Represents depolarization
(2) T-rjax – fuy;ksa ds foèkqzo.k dks
of ventricles
n'kkZrk gS
(3) SAN – Generates maximum
(3) SAN – vR;fèkd la[;k esa fØ;k
number of action
potentials
foHko mRiUu djrk gS
(4) P-wave – Represents contraction of (4) P-rajx – nksuksa vkfynksa ds ladqpu
both atria dks n'kkZrk gS
146. Read the following 146. fuEufyf[kr dks if<+,A
(a) High blood pressure (a) mPp jDr nkc
(b) Dehydration (b) futZyhadj.k
(c) Low blood volume (c) fuEUk jDr vk;ru
(d) High GFR (d) mPp GFR
(e) Release of ANF (e) ANF dk fuxZeu
How many of the above given factors are
mijksDr fn, x, dkjdks esa ls fdrus RAAS
responsible for triggering RAAS mechanism?
fØ;kfofèk dh lfØ;rk ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS?
(1) Four
(1) pkj
(2) Three
(2) rhu
(3) Two
(3) nks
(4) One
(4) ,d
147. Urea that is finally excreted in the urine enters
147. ew= esa mRlftZr gksus okyk ;wfj;k vUur% fdl
filtrate by the process called
izfØ;k }kjk fuLain eas izos'k djrk gS\
(1) Tubular secretion
(1) ufydh; L=o.k
(2) Tubular reabsorption (2) ufydh; iqujko'kks"k.k
(3) Active transport (3) lfØ; ifjogu
(4) Ultrafiltration (4) ijkfuL;anu
148. Red muscle fibres differs from white muscle 148. yky is'kh rUrq,a] 'osr is'kh rUrqvksa ls fHkUu gksrh gS
fibres in having buesa
(1) More sarcoplasmic reticulum (1) vR;fèkd lkdksZIykfTed jsfVdqye gksrk gS
(2) Less myoglobin content (2) fuEu ek;ksXyksfcu vo;o gksrs gS
(3) More number of mitochondria (3) ekbVksdkWfMª;k¡ dh vR;fèkd la[;k gksrh gS
(4) High lactic acid due to anaerobic oxidation (4) vok;oh; vkWDlhdj.k ds dkj.k mPp ysfDVd
149. Select the incorrect match vEy gksrk gS
(1) Fibrous joint – Sutures in cranium 149. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Ball and socket joint – Elbow joint (1) js'kh; lfUèk – diky esa lhou
(3) Pivot joint – Between atlas and (2) dUnqd [kfYydk lfUèk – dksguh lfUèk
axis
(3) èkqjkxz lfUèk – ,Vyl rFkk v{k ds
(4) Saddle joint – Between carpal and eè;
Metacarpal of (4) lSMy lfUèk – vaxwBs ds dkiZy rFkk
thumb esVkdkiZy ds eè;

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

150. Read the following statements 150. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+,A
(A) Depolarization of an axonal membrane is (A) raf=dk{kh; f>Yyh dk foèkzqo.k] Na+ ds fy, míhiu-
caused due to rise in stimulus-induced izsj.k ikjxE;rk esa o`f) rFkk ,DlksIykTe esa blds
permeability to Na+ and its rapid influx into
axoplasm.
rhoz varokZg ds dkj.k gksrk gS A
(B) Diffusion of K+ outside the axonal membrane (B) raf=dk{kh; f>Yyh ds ckgj K+ dk folj.k] f>Yyh
restores the resting potential of the ds foJke foHko dks iqu%LFkkfir djrk gSA
membrane.
(C) lksfM;e iksVsf'k;e iai foJke f>Yyh dh vksj
(C) Sodium potassium pump maintains active ,DlksIykTe esa 3K+ ds fy, ckgj dh vksj 2Na+
transport of 2Na+ outwards for 3K+ into ds lfØ; ifjogu dks cuk, j[krk gSA
axoplasm across resting membrane
Choose the option that represent correct
ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks dsoy lgh
statements only dFkuksa dks n'kkZrk gSA
(1) A only (1) dsoy A
(2) A and B (2) A rFkk B
(3) B and C (3) B rFkk C
(4) A and C (4) A rFkk C
151. A part of brain that lies at the base of thalamus 151. efLr"d dk og Hkkx tks Fksysel ds vkèkkj ij fLFkr
and controls body temperature, urge for eating gS rFkk 'kjhj ds rkieku] [kkus vkSj ihus dh mÙkstuk
and drinking is
dks fu;fU=r djrk gSA
(1) Amygdala
(1) ,fexMkyk
(2) Hippocampus
(2) fgIiksdSial
(3) Hypothalamus
(3) gkbiksFksysel
(4) Cerebrum
(4) lsjhcze (izefLr"d)
152. Select the incorrect match w.r.t hormones and
respective deficiency disease 152. gkeksZu rFkk lEcfUèkr U;wurk jksx ds lanHkZ eas xyr
(1) PTH – Diabetes insipidus feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Growth hormone – Dwarfism (1) PTH – Mk;fcfVt bUlhfiMl
(3) Thyroid hormone – Cretinism (2) o`f) gkeksZu – ckSukiu
(4) Adrenal cortex – Addison’s disease (3) FkkbjkWbM gkeksZu – fØVsfuTe
hormones (4) vfèko`Dd oYdqy gkWeksZu– ,Mhlu jksx
153. Glucagon and insulin hormone can be 153. XywdkxkWu rFkk bUlqfyu gkeksZu fdlds vkèkkj ij
distinguished based on
foy{kf.kr fd, tk ldrs gS\
(1) Location of receptors i.e. intracellular or
(1) xzkfg;ksa ds LFkku vFkkZr var% dksf'kdh; ;k
extracellular
ckg~kdksf'kdh;
(2) Their source gland
(2) mudh L=ksr xzfUFk
(3) Hepatocytes as target cells
(3) y{; dksf'kdkvksa ds :Ik esa ;d`rdksf'kdk,a
(4) Their role in the mechanism of maintaining
glucose homeostasis (4) Xywdkst leLFkkiu dks cuk, j[kus dh fØ;kfofèk
esa mudh Hkwfedk
154. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. total number
of following structures in cockroach 154. dkWdjksp esa fuEufyf[kr lajpukvksa dh dqy la[;k
ds lanHkZ esa xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Spiracles – 10 pairs
(1) Lokljaèkz – 10 tksM+h
(2) Gastric caecae – 6-8
(2) tBjh; vaèkuky – 6-8
(3) Malpighian tubules – 100-150
(3) eSyih?kh ufydk,a – 100-150
(4) Ommatidia – 2000
(4) us=k'kad – 2000

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

155. Read the following statements
Statement A : Reproduction enables continuity
of the species, generation after generation
Statement B : Zygote is the vital link that ensures
continuity of species between organisms of one
generation and the next.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both the statements are correct
156. If vas deferens in human male reproductive
system is blocked, then transport of sperms will
be blocked from
(1) Rete testis to epididymis
(2) Vasa efferentia to epididymis
(3) Seminiferous tubules to rete testis
(4) Epididymis to ejaculatory duct
157. LH surge induced ovulation in human females
during menstrual cycle occurs due to positive
feedback mechanism by
(1) FSH (2) Progesterone
(3) Estrogen (4) Oxytocin
158. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Morula – 8 to 16 blastomeres
155. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+,A
dFku A : tuu] ih<+h nj ih<+h iztkfr dh fujUrjrk
dks cuk, j[krk gS
dFku B : ;qXeut ,d egRoiw.kZ dM+h gS tks tho dh
,d ih<+h ls nwljh ih<+h ds eè; iztkfr dh
fujUrjrk dks lqfuf'pr djrh gS
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) nksuksa dFku xyr gS
(2) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(3) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(4) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
156. ;fn iq:"k tuu rU= esa 'kqØ okgd vo:) gks
tkrk gS rks 'kqØk.kq dk ifjogu vo:) gksxkA
(1) o`"k.k tkyd ls vfèko`"k.k ds fy,
(2) 'kqØ okfgdk ls vfèko`"k.k ds fy,
(3) 'kqØtud ufydkvks ls o`"k.k tkyd ds fy,
(4) vfèko`"k.k ls L[kyuh;okfguh ds fy,
157. vkrZo pØ ds nkSjku L=h esa LH ltZ v.MksRlxZ dks
izsfjr djrk gS ;g fdlds èkukRed QhMcSd
fØ;kfofèk ds dkj.k gksrk gS\
(1) FSH (2) izkts sLVsjkWu
(3) ,sLVªkt s u (4) vkWDlhVksflu
158. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A

(2) Blastocyst – Implantation in (1) eks:yk – 8 - 16 dksjd[k.M

Endometrium (2) dksjdiqVh – ,.MkseSfVª;e esa
(3) Second polar body – Completion of 1st vUrjksZi.k
meiotic division (3) f}rh; èkzqoh; dk; – izFke vèkZlw=h
(4) Foetal ejection reflex – Cortisol, estrogen,
foHkktu
ds iw.kZ gksus ij
oxytocin
(4) xHkZ mR{ksiu izfrorZ – dksVhZlkWy] ,sLVªkstu,
159. Odd one w.r.t barrier methods of contraception is
vkWDlhVksflu,
(1) Nirodh (2) Diaphragms
159. xHkZ fujksèkd dh jksèk fofèk;ksa dsa lanHkZ esa ,d fo"ke gSA
(3) Lippes loop (4) Cervical caps
(1) fujksèk (2) Mk;kÝkWe
160. An ART, in which embryo with more than 8 (3) fyIisl ywi (4) xHkk'kZ; xzhok Vksih
blastomeres could be transferred into the uterus is
160. ,d ART, ftlesa 8 CykLVksfe;j ls vfèkd ds Hkzw.k dks
(1) ZIFT (2) IUI xHkkZ'k; esa LFkkaukrfjr fd;k tkrk gSA
(3) IUT (4) AI (1) ZIFT (2) IUI
(3) IUT (4) AI
161. Industrial melanism is an example of
161. vkS|ksfxd vfrd`".k fdldk ,d mnkgj.k gS\
(1) Artificial selection
(1) d`f=e oj.k
(2) Drug resistance
(2) vkS"kèkh izfrjksèkdrk
(3) A pollution generated melanism
(3) ,d izn"w k.k ls mRiUu vfrd`".k
(4) Natural selection (4) izkd`frd oj.k

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

162. Structures given in the figure below represent the 162. uhps fn, x, vkjs[k esa lajpuk, fdldk mnkgj.k
example of n'kkZrh gS\

(1) Adaptive convergence (1)vuqdwyh vfHklkj.k

(2) Convergent evolution (2) vfHklkjh fodkl
(3) Analogy (3) vuq:irk
(4) Divergent evolution
(4) vilkjh fodkl
163. Hugo de Vries believed that A caused
163. g~;x
w ks Mhosjht dk fopkj Fkk fd A ls
speciation and called it B . Choose the
iztkfrdj.k gksrk gS rFkk bls B dgrs gSaA ml
option that fills the blanks correctly.
fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks lgh :Ik ls fjDr
A B
LFkku dh iwfrZ djrk gSA
(1) Variations Mutations A B
(2) Mutation Saltation (1)fofoèkrk mRifjorZu
(3) Variations Saltation (2) mRifjorZu lkYVs'ku
(4) Factors Mutations (3) fofoèkrk lkYVs'ku
164. Choose an air-borne disease (4) dkjd mRifjorZu
(1) Amoebic dysentery (2) Ascariasis 164. ok;q&okfgr jksx dk p;u dhft,A
(3) Filariasis (4) Pneumonia (1) vehch vfrlkj (2) ,Ldsfj,fll
165. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother (3) Qkbysfj,fll (4) U;weksfu;k
during initial days of lactation provides _____ to 165. nqXèkL=o.k ds izkjfEHkd fnuksa ds nkSjku ekrk }kjk
the infant. Choose the option that fills the blank ihyk nzo dksyksLVªe L=kfor gksrk gS tks f'k'kq dks
correctly _____ iznku djrk gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft,
(1) Artificial passive immunity tks lgh :i ls fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ djrk gSA
(2) Natural active immunity (1) d`f=e fuf"Ø; izfrj{kk
(3) Natural passive immunity (2) izkd`frd lfØ; izfrj{kk
(4) Artificial active immunity (3) izkd`frd fuf"Ø; izfrj{kk
166. Select the correct match (4) d`f=e lfØ; izfrj{kk
(1) AIDS – a congenital disease 166. lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Cancer – an infectious disease (1) AIDS – ,d tUetkr jksx
(2) dSalj – ,d laØked jksx
(3) Morphine – an effective sedative and pain
killer (3) ekQhZu – ,d izHkkoh 'kked rFkk nnZ
fuokjd
(4) Crack – Obtained from Cannabis sativa
(4) ØSd – dsukfcl lsVkbok ls izkIr
167. An improved breed of cattle is gksrk gS
(1) Leghorn (2) Jersey 167. eos'kh dh mUur uLy gSA
(1) yssxgkWuZ (2) tlhZ
(3) Hisardale (4) Mule
(3) fglkjMsy (4) [kPpj

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A

168. Select that option the correctly represents a 168. ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks lgh :Ik ls
palindromic sequence.
iSyhUMªksfed vuqØe dks n'kkZrk gSA
(1) 5-GGAATTCC-3 (2) 5-AATTCCGG-3 (1) 5-GGAATTCC-3 (2) 5-AATTCCGG-3
3-CCTTAAGG-5 5-TTAAGGCC-3 3-CCTTAAGG-5 5-TTAAGGCC-3
(3) 5-GGATCC-3 (4) 5-ATCGAGTC-3 (3) 5-GGATCC-3 (4) 5-ATCGAGTC-3
5-CCTAGG-3 3-TAGCTCAG-5 5-CCTAGG-3 3-TAGCTCAG-5
169. An endonuclease that produces blunt ends is 169. ,d ,.MksU;wfDy,st tks vuklath fljs mRiUu djrk gSA
(1) Hind III (2) Bam HI (1) Hind III (2) Bam HI
(3) Pst I (4) Eco RV (3) Pst I (4) Eco RV

170. DNA fragments are resolved based on their size
in gel electrophoresis through sieving effect. This
separation of fragments is based on the property
of
(1) Presence of sugar moieties
(2) Positively charged DNA fragments
(3) Negative charge on DNA molecules
(4) Double helical structure
171. If alien piece of DNA is inserted in restriction site
of Pst I in pBR322, resultant recombinants will be
(1) Ampicillin resistant
(2) Tetracycline and ampicillin resistant
(3) Tetracycline susceptible
(4) Ampicillin susceptible
172. The method of introducing alien DNA by directly
injecting it into the nucleus of an animal cell is
called
(1) Biolistics (2) Gene gun
(3) Microinjection (4) Heat shock method
170. tsy bySDVªkQ s ksjsfll esa Nyuh izHkko ds ekè;e ls
DNA [k.M vius vkdkj ds vkèkkj ij fo;ksftr gksrs
gS [k.Mks dk ;g i`FkDdj.k fdlds xq.k ij vkèkkfjr
gS\
(1) 'kdZjk vèkk±'kks dh mifLFkfr
(2) èkukosf'kr DNA [k.M
(3) DNA v.kqvksa ij _.kkRed vkos'k
(4) f}dq.Mfyr lajpuk
171. ;fn DNA ds fotkrh; [k.M] pBR322 esa Pst I ds
izfrcUèku LFky esa fuosf'kr fd, tkrs gS rks ifj.kkeh
iqu;ksZxt dSls gksaxs\
(1) ,Eihflfyu izfrjksèkh
(2) VsVªklkbfdfyu rFkk ,Eihflfyu izfrjksèkh
(3) VsVªklkbfdfyu losanh
(4) ,Eihflfyu laon s h
172. fotkrh; DNA dks lhèks tUrq dksf'kdk ds dsUnzd ds
Hkhrj vr%{ksfir djus dh fofèk dks dgrs gSa
(1) ck;ksfyLVhd (2) thu xu

173. Complete the analogy. (3) lw{evr%{ksi.k (4) rki iz?kkr fofèk
173. vuq:irk dks iw.kZ dhft,A
Lysozyme : Bacteria : : Chitinase : _______
ykblkstkbe : cSDVhfj;k : : dkbZfVust : _______
(1) Plant cell (2) Animal cell
(1) ikni dksf'kdk (2) tUrq dksf'kdk
(3) Fungus (4) Virus
(3) dod (4) fo"kk.kq
174. In RNAi, which of the following molecules binds 174. RNAi esa, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls v.kq fof'k"V
to and prevents translation of the specific mRNA?
mRNA ls cèkrs gS rFkk LFkkukarj.k dks jksdrs gSa\
(1) dsDNA (2) ssDNA (1) dsDNA (2) ssDNA
(3) ssRNA (4) dsRNA (3) ssRNA (4) dsRNA
175. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4 175. ,d 4 o"khZ; yMdh dks izFke tho fpfdRlk fdlds
year old girl with lkFk nh xbZ Fkh\
(1) Vitamin A deficiency (1) foVkfeu A dh deh
(2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (2) ,Mhukslhu fM,ehust dh deh
(3) Glucose 6- phosphate dehydrogenase
deficiency
(3) Xyqdkst 6-QkLQsV MhgkbMªksthust dh deh
(4) Insulin deficiency (4) bUlqfyu dh deh

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Test-7 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

176. Which group of animals belong to the same 176. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk tUrqvksa dk lewg leku
phylum?
la?k ls lEcfUèkr gS\
(1) Pennatula, Physalia, Planaria
(1) isuVs ;wyk, Qkblsfy;k, Iysusfj;k
(2) Ctenoplana, Culex, Cucumaria
(2) VhuksIykuk, D;wysDl, dqdqesfj;k
(3) Anopheles, Aedes, Ancylostoma
(3) ,uksQsyht, ,Mht, ,ulkbyksLVksek
(4) Locusta, Laccifer, Limulus
(4) yksdLVk, ySlhQj, fyewyl
177. Presence of radula and feather like gills are the
characteristic features of
177. jsMwyk rFkk ia[k tSls Dykse dh mifLFkfr fdldk
vfHkyk{kf.kd y{k.k gS\
(1) Pila (2) Delphinus
(1) ikbyk (2) MsyfQul
(3) Pavo (4) Rattus
178. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. genus name, its
(3) iSoks (4) jsV~l
two characters and phylum 178. oa'k uke] blds nks vfHky{k.kksa rFkk la?k ds lanHkZ esa
xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
Genus Characters Phylum
oa'k vfHky{k.k la?k
(1) Octopus Closed circulatory Mollusca
system (1) vkWDVksil can ifjlapj.k eksyLdk
Presence of mantle rU=] izkojd
cavity xqgk dh
(2) Nereis Metamerism Annelida
mifLFkfr
Possess lateral (2) usjhl fo[k.MkoLFkk] ,susfyMk
appendages ik'oZ mikxksa dh
(3) Sycon Water canal Porifera
mifLFkfr
system (3) lkbdkWu ty uky rU= iksjhQsjk
Hermaphrodite f}fyaxh
(4) Balanogloss Closed circulatory Hemichordata
us system (4) cSysuksXyks can ifjlapj.k gsehdkMZsVk
Proboscis gland for ll rU= 'olu ds
respiration
fy, 'kq.M xzfUFk
179. Chondrichthyes differ from osteichthyes as
former possess 179. dkWMªhDFkht] vksfLVDFkht ls fHkUu gksrs gS D;ksafd
(1) Operculum dkWMªhDFkhTk esa gksrk gSA
(2) Air bladder (1) izPNn
(3) Placoid scales (2) ok;q dks"k
(4) Two-chambered heart
(3) iêkHk 'kYd
180. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. group of (4) nks dks"Bh; ân;
animals and their taxon
180. tUrqvksa ds lewg rFkk mudh ofxZdh ds lanHkZ esa
(1) Ichthyophis, Bufo, Hyla – Amphibia xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, – Osteichthyes (1) bfDFk;ksfQl, cwQks, gk;yk – ,EQhfc;k
Pterophyllum (2) fgIiksdSaEil, ,DlksflVl, – vksfLVDFkht
(3) Corvus, Chelone, Calotes – Reptilia VsjksQkbye
(4) Pteropus, Equus, – Mammalia (3) dkWoZl, fdyksu, dSYkksVl – jsfIVfy;k
Delphinus
(4) VSjksil, bD;ql, MsyfQul – eSesfy;k
❑ ❑ ❑

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