You are on page 1of 62

1. In which Phase of Disaster damage Assessment is done?

A) Warning phase

B) Impact Phase

C) Rescue phase

D) Re-Habilitation Phase

ANSWER: D

1.National Institute of Disaster Management was inaugurated on

A) September 23, 2002

B) August 14, 2001

C) October 16, 2003

D) August 14, 2004

ANSWER: D

What safety measure are there in Gwalior for Earthquake?

A) Personal safety measure

B) Not in high risk zone

C) Run away

D) None of the above

ANSWER: D

10.Select the correct full form of ISDR?

A) International Sustainable Development Report

B) International Strategy for Disaster Reduction

C) International Significant Disaster Resources

D) Intergovernmental Strategy for developing Recreation

ANSWER: B

11. Which of the following will be found on a Material Safety Data Sheet?

A) Spill and leak procedures

B) Health Hazard Information

C) Special protection Information

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D
11.Which kind of wave/ waves caused by the gravitational interaction between the Sun, Moon and
the Earth?

A) Tsunami

B) Tidal waves

C) Both

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

12. In case of an emergency involving a chemical or product, an emergency telephone number can
be found in which section of the MSDS?

A) Section 1

B) Section 2

C) Section 5

D) Section 8

ANSWER: A

12.Who among these govern/ head the National Crisis Management Committee?

A) Cabinet Secretary

B) Ministry of Home Affairs

C) Prime Minister

D) Ministry of Environment

ANSWER: A

13. The yellow portion of a NFPA diamond represents:

A) Health Hazard

B) Flammability Hazard

C) Reactivity Hazard

D) Special Hazard Information

ANSWER: B

13.What year Bhopal Gas Tragedy happens and due to which gas?

A) In 1986, Ethyl isocyanate

B) In 1984, Methyl isocyanate

C) In 1984, Potassium isothiocyanate

D) In 1987, Sodium isothiocyanante

ANSWER: B
14. The ill-health effect caused by one-time, sudden, high exposures is often called:

A) Chronic effect

B) Acute effect

C) Systematic effect

ANSWER: B

14.According to WHO, the number of countries and territories affected by COVID 19

A) 255

B) 195

C) 218

D) 220

ANSWER: C

15. Monitoring the levels of exposure to toxic substances is medically done through analysis of body
fluids e.g. blood, urine, expired air etc. The process is known as:

A) Condition monitoring

B) Biological conditioning

C) Exposure monitoring

D) Biological monitoring

ANSWER: D

15.Corona virus belongs to which family of viruses?

A) Adinoviridae

B) Coronaviridae

C) Filoviridae

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

16. The ratio of Amount of toxic chemical to the IDLH value of the chemical is called:

A) Fire Load

B) Toxic Load

C) Pollution Load

D) Toxicological Load

ANSWER: B

16.How much of India's coastline is vulnerable to disasters?


A) 5000km

B) 5500km

C) 5700km

D) 6000km

ANSWER: C

17. Which of the following steps of Toxic Risk Assessment exercise considers the possible routes of
entry of chemicals into body and its reaction thereby?

A) 1st step

B) 2nd step

C) 3rd step

D) 4th step

ANSWER: C

17.How much percentage of the landmass is prone to earthquakes in India?

A) Around 58%

B) Around 60%

C) Around 63%

D) Around 65%

ANSWER: A

18. About 2 ppm of Chlorine concentration in Air causes?

A) Irritation of eyes and nose

B) Irritation of throat

C) Intense cough & fits

D) Immediate death

ANSWER: A

18.How many hectares of Indian land are prone to floods and river erosion?

A) Around 25 million hectares

B) Around 30 million hectares

C) Around 35 million hectares

D) Around 40 million hectares

ANSWER: D

19. If ‘Cash’ is a hazard, theft is the consequence, then if ‘electricity’ is the hazard, what could be the
consequence ?
A) Damage

B) Hearing loss

C) loss of water

D) shock

ANSWER: D

19.What is called for the manuals that identify the role of each officer in State for managing the
natural disasters?

A) State Relief Manuals

B) State Environmental Protection Manuals

C) State Disaster Manuals

D) State Protection Manuals

ANSWER: A

2. In relation to Disaster Preparedness, which one of the following is more serious from response
point of view?

A) 1st alert

B) 2nd alert

ANSWER: B

2.Head office of the National Institute of Disaster Management is situated in...

A) Kolkata

B) New Delhi

C) Hyderabad

D) Manipur

ANSWER: B

20. What is the purpose of hazard identification in Disaster preparedness?

A) to identify the probable causes of disasters

B) to identify the probable disaster scenarios

C) to quatify the consequences

D) to suggest mitigation measures

ANSWER: B

20.When was Asian Disaster Preparedness Center established?

A) 1980

B) 1986
C) 1990

D) 1996

ANSWER: B

21. Atmospheric Stability Class D corresponds to which of the following weather conditions?

A) Slightly Stable

B) Stable

C) Highly unstable

D) Neutral

ANSWER: D

21.Which of the following is not part of geological disaster?

A) Volcanoes

B) Earthquakes

C) Tsunami

D) Sea Surge

ANSWER: D

22. When unacceptable risk is brought under the acceptability criteria through additional risk
reduction measures, the identified risk is said to be within

A) As low as Regularly Possible (ALARP) zone

B) As low as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) zone

C) As low as Reasonably Possible (ALARP) zone

D) As low as Rationally Probable (ALARP) zone

ANSWER: B

22.What is the rank of India in the world for natural disasters after China as per UNISDR?

A) Third

B) Second

C) Seventh

D) Eighth

ANSWER: B

23. In Risk Analysis, Vulnerability Model represents:

A) How many persons will be effected due to exposure

B) How much area will be effected due to the event


C) How long the effect will last in the community

D) How probable that the community will be effected

ANSWER: A

23.What is the reason for volcanic eruption?

A) Movement and splitting of the major and minor plates of the Earth

B) Origin of magma because of lowering of melting point inside the Earth caused by reduction in the
pressure due to the splitting of plates and their movements in opposite directions.

C) Only A

D) Both A & B

ANSWER: D

24. Under damage criteria due to explosion pressure wave, 0.3 bar over pressure represents that:

A) 10% houses will get damaged

B) 90% houses will be seriously damaged

C) Windows of houses will be smashed

D) Glass of doors and windows will break

ANSWER: B

24. Which of the following types of volcanic eruptions associated with Lacroix?

A) Hawaii Eruption

B) Strombolian Eruption

C) Vulcanian

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

25. The catastrophic failure of a pressure vessel due to intense heating from a torch fire or a severe
mechanical impact is commonly known as:

A) UCVCE

B) CE

C) BLEVE

D) Cascading effect

ANSWER: C

25.The volcanic eruption in Iceland falls under which volcanic belt in the World?

A) Belts of Convergent boundaries

B) B. Divergent Plate Boundaries


C) C. Hot Spots

D) D. None of the above

ANSWER: B

26. In Risk Assessment, 20/80 principle means:

A) 80% of total risk comes from 20% of cases

B) 20% of total risk originates from 80% of cases

ANSWER: A

26.A geophysicist who studies earthquakes and the mechanical characteristics of the Earth is called
___________.

A) Seismologist

B) Geologist

C) Geographer

D) Archaeologist

ANSWER: A

27. Which one of the following has more damaging effect after a liquefied flammable gas release?

A) Early Ignition

B) Delayed Ignition

ANSWER: B

28. In Layer of Protection (LOP) Analysis, which of protection covers an ‘onsite Emergency Plan’?

A) 1st Layer

B) 3rd Layer

C) 5th Layer

D) 4th Layer

ANSWER: D

28.What causes Tsunami?

A) Sudden vertical movement of the Earth

B) Convergence of destructive plates in the ocean floor

C) Explosive volcanic eruptions in the seas/oceans.

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

29. Which of the following is a hazard quantification method?


A) FMEA

B) Fault-tree

C) HAZOP

D) What-if Analysis

ANSWER: B

3. A physical situation which may cause human injury, damage to property or the environment, is
called

A) Hazard

B) Risk

ANSWER: A

3. When the situations of hazard arise?

A) When there is the threat of natural calamity

B) When there is a threat to the consequences of the disaster

C) When there is a threat to property and lives from calamities

D) All of the above

ANSWER: B

30. Cause-Consequence Analysis (CCA) is a combination of:

A) Fault-tree & Event tree Analyses

B) Fault-tree & HAZOP Analyses

C) MCA & Event tree Analyses

D) MCA & HAZOP Analyses

ANSWER: A

31. Out of the following which one is not the type of droughts?

A) Metrological

B) Hydrological

C) Agricultural

D) None of the above

ANSWER: D

31. The roles and responsibilities identified for disaster responses under Disaster Management Plan
is known as:

A) Incident Organogram

B) Disaster Response Structure


C) Incident Command System

ANSWER: C

32. The responsibility of press briefing during a disaster event normally rests on:

A) Incident Controller

B) Public relation Controller

C) Transport Controller

D) Security Controller

ANSWER: B

32.The following criteria has been set by IMD for the onset of drought

A) Rainfall deficiency in particular year is 25%.

B) Rainfall deficiency in particular year is less than 25%.

C) Rainfall deficiency in particular year exceeding 25%.

D) None of the above

ANSWER: C

33. Whose responsibility normally it is to declare an Onsite Emergency in an industry?

A) Incident Controller

B) Site Main Controller

C) Key person (Fire and safety)

ANSWER: B

33.Socio-economical drought is the ______ stage of long term drought.

A) Initial

B) Final

C) Middle

D) Not a type of drought

ANSWER: B

34. Which of the following techniques are not used for Oil spill response?

A) Use of booms and Skimming

B) Use of dispersants

C) Burning

D) Bio-recovery

ANSWER: B
34.Around _____ per cent of India's total area is drought prone to drought.

A) 80

B) 68

C) 15

D) 20

ANSWER: B

35. A hazardous chemical can be identified by which of the following numbers?

A) ID Number

B) NFPA Number

C) UN Number

D) Hazard index Number

ANSWER: C

35.The entire earth crust is divided into _____ Major Tectonic plates.

A) Five

B) Infinite

C) Six

D) Seven

ANSWER: D

36. Under various zones created around an incident site for effective response, which one normally
used for command, control and support mobilization purposes?

A) Cold zone

B) Hot zones

C) Warm zone

ANSWER: A

37. Within which zone “Emergency Control Center” can be situated?

A) Hot zone

B) Support zone

C) Warm zone

ANSWER: B

38. ‘THERP’ study is related to:

A) Risk Perception
B) Safety Analysis

C) Human error

D) Work study

ANSWER: C

39. Which of the following is not a technological factor used for Vulnerability assessment?

A) Process Safety

B) Individual difference

C) Communication failure

ANSWER: B

4. The likelihood of an undesired event occurring within a particular period or under specified
circumstances is known as

A) Hazard

B) Risk

ANSWER: B

4.Which one of the following is not a Natural Disaster?

A) Volcano eruption

B) Flood

C) Blow-out

D) Tsunami

ANSWER: C

40. Which of the following is a human error in Disaster Management model?

A) Error of Omission

B) Typographical errors

C) Error of Commision

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

41. Secondary fires are caused due to which of the following phenomenon?

A) Flash back

B) Burn-back

C) Fire spread

D) domino effect
ANSWER: B

42. What is the safe level of heat radiation (in Kw/m^2)for an average human being?

A) 1.75

B) 2.8

C) 6.4

D) 14.4

ANSWER: A

43. A Deep burn, characterized by destruction of all skin layers is termed as:

A) 1st degree burn

B) 2nd degree burn

C) 3rd degree burn

ANSWER: C

44. A Probit equation used for calculation of effects due to:

A) Flammability

B) Toxicity

C) both Flammability and toxicity

ANSWER: C

45. In Risk estimation, a F-N curve is referred to depict which of the following risks?

A) Individual Risk

B) Group Risk

C) Process Risk

ANSWER: B

46. The uncontrolled sudden violent escape of well fluids during oil and gas exploitation activities is
known as:

A) Blow out

B) Burn out

C) Explosion

D) Blast out

ANSWER: A

47. Which of the following classifications of blowout causes minor level of pollution?

A) Class I
B) Class II

C) Class IV

D) Class V

ANSWER: D

48. A normally directional well drilled to establish a direct communication with the well under blow
out, is known as:

A) New well

B) Rehabilitatory well

C) Relief well

D) killing well

ANSWER: C

49. Under which regulation the local authority is responsible for preparation of an offsite Emergency
plan?

A) MSIHC Rules

B) Hazardous Chemical handling Rules

C) PMP Acts & Rules

ANSWER: A

5. Seismic waves cause disaster named as

A) Nino

B) Typhoon

C) Tsunami

D) Hurricane

ANSWER: C

5. Which of the following is the main contributory cause for Pipeline Disasters in the world?

A) Third-party Activity

B) Corrosion

C) Mechanical failure

D) Operational failures

ANSWER: A

50. Which of the following crisis groups are responsible for preparation of offsite response plan at
local level?

A) State Crisis Group


B) Local Crisis Group

C) District Crisis Group

ANSWER: B

51. The purpose of Hazard maps is to identify and display the location of:

A) Hazard zones

B) Risk zones

C) Vulnerability zones

D) Decontamination zones

ANSWER: A

52. Evacuation maps are made based on concentration contours of a toxic release in:

A) Downwind direction

B) Cross-wind direction

C) both the directions

ANSWER: C

53. In Uncertainty analysis, if the uncertainties are related to the chances of an incident happening,
it is called

A) Aleatory uncertainty

B) Epistemic uncertainty

ANSWER: A

54. An area surrounding an incident site where public may be exposed to dangerous and life
threatening concentrations of toxic materials is known as:

A) Initial isolation zone

B) Protective zone

C) Decontamination zone

ANSWER: A

55. An emergency action code designed to help the fire fighters to know readily the actions to be
taken in case of fire or spillage of a particular hazardous substance is called:

A) HAZCHEM code

B) UN Number

C) CAS Number

ANSWER: A

56. How many Hazard Class Labels exist for different hazardous substances?
A) 10

B) 9

C) 7

D) 5

ANSWER: B

57. The written emergency information carries by the driver of all vehicles carrying hazardous
substances is known as:

A) HAZCHEM

B) TREMCARD

C) Emergency Information pane

ANSWER: B

58. Emergency Information Panel contains:

A) Class Lebel

B) UN Number

C) HAZCHEM code

D) All the above

ANSWER: D

59. The Plan prepared for facilitating the prompt return to the normalcy and continuity of operation
after a disaster is called:

A) Rescue Plan

B) Relief Plan

C) Recovery Plan

ANSWER: C

6. Rolling effect along the earths surface affect produces a wave of an ...

A) L wave

B) P wave

C) S wave

D) None of the above

ANSWER: C

6. Root Cause Analysis of Disasters can be done through which of the following methods?

A) HAZOP

B) Checklist
C) Consequence Analysis

D) Why-Why

ANSWER: D

60. Which of the following is not the part of Disaster Mitigation Planning?

A) Emergency Communication

B) Disaster warning system

C) Risk and vulnerability analysis

D) Insurance requirements

ANSWER: A

7. ‘Blow-Out’ is a Natural Disaster.

A) Yes

B) No

ANSWER: B

7. Find the following common factors of wildfire hazards.

A) Volcanic eruption

B) El-Nino

C) Volcanic Lightning and thundering

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

8. The only active volcano in India is ..

A) Volcano Baratang

B) Barren Island volcano

C) Volcano Etna

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

8. The principle which takes into account the precautions to be taken being on safer side and
avoidance of taking undue risks from hazards, the damage potential of which is not yet fully known,
is known as:

A) Guiding Principle

B) Risk Assessment Principle

C) Hazard Analysis Principle

D) Precautionary Principle
ANSWER: D

9. The agreement or understanding that has been reached among various nearby industries to help
each other during emergency is called:

A) Memorandum of Agreement

B) Agreement of Mock-exercise

C) Industrial Charter

D) Mutual-Aid Agreement

ANSWER: D

9. India's total flood-prone area is up to..

A) 30%

B) 20%

C) 12%

D) 10%

ANSWER: C

A deep burn destroys all layers of skin is termed as:-

A) First-degree burn

B) Second-degree burn

C) Third Degree Burn

D) None of these

ANSWER: C

A Deep burn, characterized by destruction of all skin layers is termed as:

A) 1st degree burn

B) 2nd degree burn

C) 3rd degree burn

D) 4t h degree burn

ANSWER: C

A hazard is a situation where there is

A) Threat of natural calamity

B) Threat to property and lives from calamities

C) Threat for consequences of disaster

D) All of the above


ANSWER: B

A hazardous chemical can be identified by which of the following numbers?

A) ID Number

B) NFPA Number

C) UN Number

D) Hazard index Number

ANSWER: C

A normally directional well drilled to establish a direct communication with the well under blow out,
is known as:

A) New well

B) Rehabilitatory well

C) Relief well

D) killing well

ANSWER: C

A Probit equation used for calculation of effects due to:

A) Flammability

B) Toxicity

C) both Flammability and toxicity

D) none of the above

ANSWER: C

About 2 ppm of Chlorine concentration in Air causes?

A) Irritation of eyes and nose

B) Irritation of throat

C) Intense cough & fits

D) Immediate death

ANSWER: A

According to Reza et al, the number of people who have lost their lives in the 25 largest violent
events of the 20th century number:

A) Almost 1 million

B) Almost 10 million

C) Almost 100 million

D) Almost 200 million


ANSWER: D

According to the United Nations between 1992 and 2000 there were approximately ____ disasters
per year throughout the world?

A) 100

B) 300

C) 500

D) 800

ANSWER: C

All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT:

A) A disaster may be domestic or international

B) A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins

C) A disaster always receives widespread media coverage.

D) A disaster may have a known and gradual onset

ANSWER: C

An area surrounding an incident site where public may be exposed to dangerous and life threatening
concentrations of toxic materials is known as:

A) Initial isolation zone

B) Protective zone

C) Decontamination zone

D) None of the above

ANSWER: A

An emergency action code designed to help the fire fighters to know readily the actions to be taken
in case of fire or spillage of a particular hazardous substance is called:

A) HAZCHEM code

B) UN Number

C) CAS Number

D) None of the above

ANSWER: A

An estimated Risk of $2 \times 10^{-4}$ per year means:

A) One chance in 100 years

B) One chance in 10000 years

C) Two chances in 10000 years


D) Two chances in every 1000 years

ANSWER: C

Area where head count are usually taken after the evacuation of the affected area is known as:

A) Shelter area

B) Head-count area

C) Mustering area

D) Rescued area

ANSWER: C

Atmospheric Stability Class D corresponds to which of the following weather conditions?

A) Slightly Stable

B) Stable

C) Highly unstable

D) Neutral

ANSWER: D

Cause-Consequence Analysis (CCA) is a combination of?

A) Fault-tree & Event tree Analyses

B) Fault-tree & HAZOP Analyses

C) MCA & Event tree Analyses

D) MCA & HAZOP Analyses

ANSWER: A

Choose the false statement among the following statements:

A) World Conference on Disaster Management in May 1994 was subsequently called the Yokohama
Strategy and Plan of Action for a Safer World.

B) The issue of Natural Disaster was raised at the U.N. General Assembly in 1992 and was finally
formalised at the world conference on Disaster management in 1994.

C) The Tropical cyclone of 1971 in India is the deadliest one till date.

D) Unscientific land use and construction activities in fragile areas are some of the disasters that are
the results of indirect human actions.

ANSWER: B

Consider the following pairs: 1. Earth Summit, 1993 : Rio de Janeiro


2. World Conference on Disaster Management, 1994 : Yokohama 3. National Institute of Disaster
Management, 1995 : Hyderabad Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1,2 and 3

ANSWER: B

Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the characteristics of tsunami waves.I.
Tsunamis are high energy sea waves caused mainly by the deep focus earthquakes of high
magnitude.II. Preparing a vulnerability map of the country and dissemination of vulnerability risk
information among the people.Code:

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Both I & II

D) Neither I nor II

ANSWER: C

Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the remedial steps to reduce the risk of life and
properties by landslides..I. Mapping of landslide prone areas a7 construction of houses, felling of
trees and grazing in landslide prone areas should be prohibited or restricted.II. Afforestation in the
vulnerable areas is an effective way of durable landslides control.Code:

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Both I & II

D) Neither I nor II

ANSWER: C

Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the strategy to combat earthquake disasters.I.
Establishing earthquake monitoring centres for regular monitoring and fast dissemination of
information among the people in the vulnerable areas.II. Modifying the house types and building
designs in the vulnerable areas and discouraging contribution of high rise buildings, large industrial
establishments and big urban centres in such areas.Code:

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Both I & II

D) Neither I nor II

ANSWER: C

Consider the following statements: 1. Natural Hazards are elements of circumstances in the
Natural environment that have the potential to cause harm to people or property or both. 2.
Natural disasters are relatively sudden and cause large scale, widespread death, loss of property and
disturbance to social systems and life over which people have a little or no control. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) None of these

ANSWER: C

Coronavirus belongs to which family of viruses?

A) Adinoviridae

B) Coronaviridae

C) Filoviridae

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

Disaster is an event arising out of

A) Result of hazard event

B) Causes of hazard event

C) Causes of disaster event

D) All of the above

ANSWER: A

Disaster management is an

A) inter disciplinary subject

B) multidisciplinary subject

C) political subject.

D) Social-economic subject

ANSWER: B

Disaster management deals with situation that occurs after the disaster.

A) True

B) False

C) depends upon the case

D) depends upon the country

ANSWER: B
Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Damage to the ecological environment

B) Displacement of populations

C) Destruction of a population"s homeland

D) Sustained public attention during the recovery phase

ANSWER: D

Emergency Information Panel contains:

A) Class Lebel

B) UN Number

C) HAZCHEM code

D) All the above

ANSWER: D

Evacuation maps are made based on concentration contours of a toxic release in:

A) Downwind direction

B) Cross-wind direction

C) both the directions

D) none of the above

ANSWER: C

Find the following common factors of wildfire hazards.

A) Volcanic eruption

B) El-Nino

C) Volcanic Lightning and thundering

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

Flow of volcanic mud is called as?

A) Magma

B) Lahars

C) Lava

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

For what purpose thermal Imagers are used?


A) To record the intensity of the earthquake.

B) To take pictures of heat emitted by the volcano.

C) All of the above

D) To read and record the moment in the earth’s crust.

ANSWER: B

Hazards and Disasters are mainly classified as

A) Physical and chemical

B) Natural and Human induced

C) Physical and Human

D) Social and cultural

ANSWER: B

‘HAZID’ IS DONE TO CARRY OUT SAFETY HAZARD IDENTIFICATION, WHAT IS IT KNOWN AS WHICH IS
USED FOR IDENTIFICATION OF ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES?

A) envid

B) wbcsd

C) envdi

D) sustainability

ANSWER: A

How many percentage of fissionable U-235 occurring in uranium?

A) 0.1%

B) 0.5%

C) 0.7%

D) 1.5%

ANSWER: C

How many Safety Integrity Levels exists?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

ANSWER: D

How much of India’s coastline is vulnerable to disasters?


A) 5000km

B) 5500km

C) 5700km

D) 6000km

ANSWER: C

IF ‘CASH’ IS A HAZARD, THEFT IS THE CONSEQUENCE, THEN IF ‘ELECTRICITY’ IS THE HAZARD, WHAT
COULD BE THE CONSEQUENCE?

A) Damage

B) Hearing loss

C) loss of water

D) shock

ANSWER: D

IMMEDIATE DANGER AREA FOLLOWING A TOXIC GAS LEAK IS BASED UPON THE SUBSTANCE’S:

A) IDLH

B) STEL

C) TLV

D) Ceiling value

ANSWER: A

In a Oil and Gas Drilling rig, an area within 4.5 m of the shale shaker in open air is considered as?

A) Zone-1

B) Zone-2

C) Zone-0

D) Zone-6

ANSWER: A

In case of an emergency involving a chemical or product, an emergency telephone number can be


found in which section of the MSDS?

A) Section 1

B) Section 2

C) Section 5

D) Section 8

ANSWER: A
IN LAYER OF PROTECTION (LOP) ANALYSIS, WHICH OF PROTECTION COVERS AN ‘ONSITE
EMERGENCY PLAN’?

A) 1st Layer

B) 3rd Layer

C) 5th Layer

D) 4th Layer

ANSWER: D

In Risk Analysis, Vulnerability Model represents:

A) How many persons will be effected due to exposure

B) How much area will be effected due to the event

C) How long the effect will last in the community

D) How probable that the community will be effected

ANSWER: A

In Risk Assessment, 20/80 principle means:

A) 80% of total risk comes from 20% of cases

B) 20% of total risk originates from 80% of cases

C) 10% and 10% total risk from, two persons

D) 40% and 10% total risk from, two persons

ANSWER: A

In Risk estimation, a F-N curve is referred to depict which of the following risks?

A) Individual Risk

B) Group Risk

C) Process Risk

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

In Uncertainty analysis, if the uncertainties are related to the chances of an incident happening, it is
called

A) Aleatory uncertainty

B) Epistemic uncertainty

C) None of the above

D) Both (A) & (B)

ANSWER: A
In which direction the wind of the tropical cyclone blows in the northern hemisphere.

A) Straight forward

B) Anticlockwise direction

C) Clockwise direction

D) In any direction

ANSWER: B

In which of the following countries, hurricanes are common?

A) India

B) Sri Lanka

C) Australia

D) USA

ANSWER: D

In which year, a terrorist attack was made on the twin tower of the world trade center in the USA

A) 1999

B) 2008

C) 2001

D) 2005

ANSWER: C

Indian Coast Guard has capabilities for responding to which tier of Oil spill contingencies?

A) Tier-I

B) Tier-II

C) Tier-III

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

International Day of Natural Disaster Reduction is celebrated on……….

A) June 15

B) March 5

C) October 13

D) September 13

ANSWER: C

Lethality (Pr) can be calculated from Probit equation by:


A) Pr = a + b ln(c/t)

B) Pr = a + b ln(c.t)

C) Pr = a + b ln(c+t)

D) Pr = a + b ln(t/c)

ANSWER: B

Mass killing diseases can be referred as

A) Biological disaster

B) Industrial disaster

C) War disaster

D) Flood disaster

ANSWER: A

Monitoring the levels of exposure to toxic substances is medically done through analysis of body
fluids e.g. blood, urine, expired air etc. The process is known as:

A) Condition monitoring

B) Biological conditioning

C) Exposure monitoring

D) Biological monitoring

ANSWER: D

One of the mostly used ways to communicate risk of any hazardous material is:

A) MSDS

B) Pareto chart

C) Emergency Information panel

D) None of the above

ANSWER: A

PARETO ANALYSIS’ IS A:

A) Risk quantification technique

B) Risk analysis technique

C) Risk mitigation technique

D) Risk prioritization technique

ANSWER: D

At low frequency of the order of 1/2 HZ to 10HZ the induction motors develop
A) high starting torque with excessive starting current

B) high starting torque without excessive starting current

C) low starting torque with excessive starting current

D) low starting torque without excessive starting current

ANSWER: B

For a braking of electric trains , normally

A) regenerative braking is used to bring the speed down to zero

B) regenerative braking is used down to a speed of 4 kmph followed by mechanical brakes

C) regenerative braking is used down to a speed of 16 kmph and finally mechanical brakes

D) regenerative braking is used down to a speed of 16 kmph followed by rheostatic braking till zero
speed

ANSWER: C

In case of individual drive

A) (i) EACH OPERATOR HAS COMPLETE CONTROL OF HIS MACHINE

B) (i) no load losses are minimized

C) (i) the initial cost is less than that of group drive

D) (i) both (i) and (ii)

ANSWER: A

National Institute of Disaster Management was inaugurated on …………

A) September 23, 2002

B) August 14, 2001

C) October 16, 2003

D) August 14, 2004

ANSWER: D

The mark which is registered in the name of association is called …

A) Associated Trademark

B) Service Mark

C) Simple Trademark

D) Collective Mark

ANSWER: D

For a particular KW rating of induction motor , the kvar rating of the shunt capacitor required is
A) more for higher rared speed motor

B) more for lower rared speed motor

C) independent of speed

D) depends upon supply voltage

ANSWER: B

A three-phase slip ring induction motor is fed from the rotor side with the stator winding short-
circuited. The frequency of the current flowing in the short-circuited stator is ____________a) b) c)
d)

A) Slip frequency

B) Supply frequency

C) The frequency corresponding to rotor speed

D) Zero

ANSWER: A

SELECT THE CORRECT FULL FORM OF ISDR?

A) International Sustainable Development ReportB.

B) International Strategy for Disaster Reduction

C) International Significant Disaster Resources

D) Intergovernmental Strategy for developing Recreation

ANSWER: B

Luminous efficacy of flouroscent tube is

A) 60-65 lm/watt

B) 15-20 lm/watt

C) 100-200 lm/watt

D) 150-250 lm/watt

ANSWER: A

The leakage flux paths are ________ on the angular position of the rotor.a) b) c) d)

A) Dependent

B) Proportional

C) Independent

D) Dependent and independent

ANSWER: C
. WHICH KIND OF WAVE/ WAVES CAUSED BY THE GRAVITATIONAL INTERACTION BETWEEN THE SUN,
MOON AND THE EARTH?A. C. D. None of the above

A) TsunamiB.

B) Tidal waves

C) Both

D) none of the above

ANSWER: B

light radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on

A) shape of the light source

B) temperature of the source

C) wavelength of light rays

D) none of the above

ANSWER: B

Among the following which one exhibits linearly rising load torque characteristics?a) b) c)d)

A) Elevators

B) Rolling Mills

C) Fan load

D) Separately excited dc generator connected to the resistive load

ANSWER: D

WHO AMONG THESE GOVERN/ HEAD THE NATIONAL CRISIS MANAGEMENT COMMITTEE?A. B.
C.

A) Cabinet Secretary

B) Ministry of Home Affairs

C) Prime Minister

D) Ministry of Environment

ANSWER: A

Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in

A) cinema projectors

B) domestic lighting

C) street lighting

D) photography

ANSWER: A
In Electric lift which type of drive is useda) b) c) d)

A) First quadrant

B) Second

C) Third or fourth

D) None of the above

ANSWER: D

Optical instruments used for the comparison of candle powers of different sources arc known as

A) Candle meters

B) Photo meter.

C) Radio meters

D) Bunsen meter

ANSWER: B

In a DC series motor, the e.m.f developed is proportional to _______a)b) c)d)

A) N×Ia

B) N×Ia2

C) N×Ia3

D) N×Ia.5

ANSWER: A

Which photometer is used for comparing the lights of different colors ?

A) Guilds Flicker Photometer

B) Lummer Brodhum photometer

C) Grease spot photometer

D) Bunson photometer

ANSWER: A

Calculate the value of the angular acceleration of the motor using the given data: J= 50 kg-m2, load
torque = 40 N-m, motor torque = 10 N-m.a) b) c) d)

A) 7 rad/s2

B) N×6 rad/s2

C) 3 rad/s2

D) 4 rad/s2

ANSWER: B
The capacitor used in auto transformer circuit for sodium vapor lamps, is for

A) for regulating discharge voltage

B) for improving the power factor of the circuit.

C) controlling illumination level of the lamp

D) protection against accidental power failure

ANSWER: B

In an (SQIM)induction motor, when the number of stator slots IS EQUAL to an integral number of
rotor slots of that motor _________a) b) c) d)

A) There may be a discontinuity in torque slip characteristics

B) A high starting torque will be available

C) The maximum torque will be high

D) The machine may fail to start

ANSWER: D

Under the influence of fluorescent lamps sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery appear to be
stationary. This is due to the

A) stroboscopic effect

B) luminescence effect

C) low power factor.

D) fluctuations

ANSWER: A

The hunting phenomenon in a SYNCHRONOUS MOTOR is also referred to as _________a) b) c) d)

A) Surging

B) Phase swinging

C) Cogging

D) Surging and phase swinging

ANSWER: D

The flicker effect of fluorescent lamp is more pronounced at

A) lower voltages

B) higher voltages

C) higher frequencies.

D) lower frequencies

ANSWER: D
A 3-phase induction motor runs at almost 1000 rpm at no load and 950 rpm at full load when
supplied with power from a 50 Hz, 3-phase supply. What is the corresponding speed of the rotor
field with RESPECT TO THE ROTOR?a) b) c) d)

A) 30 revolution per minute

B) 40 revolution per minute

C) 60 revolution per minute

D) 50 revolution per minute

ANSWER: D

Which of the following combination of gas is filled in lamp and the resulting color is incorrect?

A) Neon-red

B) Magnesium-white

C) Nitrogen-buff

D) Carbon dioxide - day light white

ANSWER: B

The slope of the V-I curve is 13.89°. Calculate the value of resistance.a) b) c)d)

A) .247 Ω

B) .345 Ω

C) .231 Ω

D) .222 Ω

ANSWER: A

The level of illumination on surface least depends on

A) ambient temperature

B) candle power of the source

C) distance of the source

D) type of reflector used

ANSWER: A

1. Regenerative braking mode can be achieved in which quadrant (V-I curve)?

A) Third

B) SECOND

C) Fourth

D) first

ANSWER: B
HEAD OFFICE OF THE NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF DISASTER MANAGEMENT IS SITUATED IN INDIA’S
CITY/ STATE?

A) Kolkata

B) New Delhi

C) Hyderabad

D) Mumbai

ANSWER: B

Copyright registrar and copyright board are ……………….. authority.

A) Non Judicial

B) Administrative

C) Judicial

D) Quasi Judicial

ANSWER: D

The electric locomotive run faster at curved routes as compared to steam locomotives, because

A) the centre of gravity of electric locomotive is higher than that of steam locomotives.

B) the centre of gravity of electric locomotive is lower than that of steam locomotives.

C) the speed of curved route is independent of centre of gravity

D) it depends upon the load of the train

ANSWER: B

A 3-phase induction motor runs at almost 1000 rpm at no load and 950 rpm at full load when
supplied with power from a 50 Hz, 3-phase supply. What is the corresponding speed of the rotor
field with RESPECT TO THE STATOR?a) b) c) d)

A) 30 revolution per minute

B) 40 revolution per minute

C) 60 revolution per minute

D) none of the above

ANSWER: D

The rate of evaporation of tungsten filament in a lamp depends on

A) exhaust tube diameter

B) vapor pressure inside

C) glass shell diameter

D) none of the above


ANSWER: B

a solid angle is the measurement of

A) solid

B) three dimentional light flow

C) velocity

D) pressure

ANSWER: B

The arc furnaces of conical shapes have the advantage(s) of

A) large surface

B) low power consumption

C) reduced radiation losses

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

The radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on

A) * The shape of the source

B) * The temperature of the source

C) * The wavelength of the light rays

D) * All of the above

ANSWER: B

In the arc furnace , energy losses that take place in the furnace are

A) losses through walls

B) looses through escape gasses

C) losses through water cooling

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

In submerged arc furnace the power is controlled by

A) varying the spacing between the electrodes

B) varying the voltage applied to the electrodes

C) either (a) or (b).

D) varying the arc length

ANSWER: C
For the power transformers employed for arc furnaces, it is desirable to arrange the furnace and the
transformer in such a way that leads are

A) shorter in length and placed close together

B) shorter in length and placed distant together

C) longer in length and placed close together

D) in any arrangement

ANSWER: A

In induction heating

A) heat is produced due to currents induced in the charge by electromagnetic action

B) the resistance of the charge must be low and voltage applied must be high in order to produce
sufficient heat

C) magnetic materials can be easily treated in comparison to non-magnetic materials

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

The advantage(s) of eddy current heating is/are

A) easy temperature control,little wastage of heat and possibility of heating in vacuum or other
special atmosphere

B) heat can be made to penetrate into metal surface to any desired path

C) the area of surface over which heat is produced can be accurately controlled

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

the supply frequency usually employed for high frequency eddy current heating is

A) 10MHz

B) 10kHz to 400kHz

C) 5kHz

D) 1kHz

ANSWER: B

in dielectric heating current flows through

A) air

B) dielectric

C) metallic conductor

D) ionic discharge between dielectric medium and metallic conductor


ANSWER: B

Furnaces used for cremation are

A) electric resistance heating

B) electric arc heating

C) dielectric heating

D) high frequency eddy current heating

ANSWER: A

1. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ONE. (* STANDS FOR MULTIPLICATION, J REPRESENTS THE MOMENT
OF INERTIA, W REPRESENTS ANGULAR SPEED).

A) J*D(W)/DT = LOAD TORQUE – MOTOR TORQUE

B) J*D(W)/DT = LOAD TORQUE + MOTOR TORQUE

C) J*D(W)/DT = MOTOR TORQUE – LOAD TORQUE

D) J*D(W)/DT = LOAD TORQUE * MOTOR TORQUE

ANSWER: C

WHEN THE SITUATION OF HAZARD ARISE?

A) When there is the threat of natural calamity

B) When there is a threat to the consequences of the disaster

C) When there is a threat to property and lives from calamities

D) All of the above

ANSWER: B

The registered user can institute proceedings for infringement in his own name against

A) both third party and proprietor of trademark

B) third party

C) Proprietor of trademark

D) none of the above

ANSWER: B

Low frequency operation of a.c. series motor

A) Improves it commutation property but affects adversely the p.f. and efficiency

B) improves its commutation property, p.f. and efficiency

C) affects adversely commutation but improves p.f. and efficiency

D) none of the above


ANSWER: B

In electric resistance welding

A) the current required exceeds 100A

B) the voltage required ranges from 4 to 12V.

C) the amount of power supplied to the weld usually ranges from 60 watts to 80 watts for each
square mm of area

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

Diesel electric traction has comparatively limited overload capacity because

A) diesel engine is a constant output prime mover

B) diesel engine has shorter life span

C) regenerative braking cannot be employed

D) diesel electric locomotive is heavier than an ordinary electric locomotive

ANSWER: A

Electric traction in comparison to other traction systems has the advantage(s) of

A) higher acceleration and braking retardation

B) cleanest system and so ideally suitable for the underground and tube railways

C) better speed control

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

Unbalanced forces are maximum in case of

A) diesel shunters

B) diesel locomotives

C) steam locomotive

D) electric locomotives

ANSWER: C

Ordinary tramway is the most economical means of transport for

A) very dense traffic in large cities

B) rural services

C) suburban services

D) none of the above


ANSWER: A

the most vital factor against electrical traction is

A) its high maintenance cost

B) possibility of power failure

C) high initial cost

D) necessity of providing negative boster

ANSWER: C

Long distance railways operates on

A) 25 kV single phase ac

B) 25 kV three phase ac

C) 25 kV DC

D) it depends upon where the train is running

ANSWER: A

Electric traction compared with other mode of traction has drawback of

A) interference with communication lines

B) heavy initial expenditure

C) interruption of traffic, if power cut is there

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

the electric locomotive run faster in curved route, compared with steam locomotive because

A) its centre of gravity is lower

B) its centre of gravity is higher

C) the curve route speed is independent of centre of gravity

D) none of the above

ANSWER: A

low frequency operation of overhead line in traction system

A) increases the spacing between the substations

B) reduces the spacing between the substations

C) spacing is independent of frequency

D) depends upon the supply voltage

ANSWER: A
The most suitable control-motor application is __________a) b) c) d)

A) AC shunt motor

B) DC separately excited motor

C) AC one-phase induction motor

D) DC shunt motor

ANSWER: B

WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A NATURAL DISASTER?

A) Volcano eruption

B) Flood

C) Blow-out

D) Tsunami

ANSWER: C

The design can be also registered under …

A) .Copyright Act

B) patent act

C) trade mark act

D) none of the above

ANSWER: A

low frequency operation of overhead line in traction system

A) reduces the spacing between substation

B) increases the spacing between substation

C) spacing is independent of frequency of supply

D) none of the above

ANSWER: B

single phase ac system is used for main line electric traction, because

A) initial cost is less

B) no of substation required is less

C) cost of distribution is less

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

Duty cycle (D) of any machine is _______a) b) c) d)


A) duty hours in twenty four hours.

B) Ton÷(Ton+ Toff)

C) Ton÷2×(Ton+ Toff)

D) Ton÷2×Toff

ANSWER: B

. SEISMIC WAVES CAUSE DISASTER NAMED AS ………

A) Nino

B) Typhoon

C) Tsunami

D) hurricane

ANSWER: C

Who is the true and first inventor ?

A) Who publish their ideas first in the journal

B) Who communicates and ideas to registrar of the patent

C) Who communicates idea to other at first

D) Who convert the ideas in to working invention

ANSWER: A

Name the traction drive which does not require, a specific warming up time, has efficiency about 60
%, it isa) b) c)

A) electric locomotive

B) diesel locomotive

C) steam locomotive

D) tram service

ANSWER: A

Rolling effect along the earth’s surface affect produces a wave of an earthquake?

A) L wave

B) P wave

C) S wave

D) None of the above

ANSWER: C

For rheostatic braking of two series motors connected in parallel


A) equaliser connection is better

B) cross connection is better

C) both are equally good

D) none of the two is used

ANSWER: B

Major drawback of Rheostatic brakinga) b) c)

A) Wastage of energy

B) Maintenance high

C) Costly

D) Chances of electrical short circuits are more

ANSWER: A

FIND THE FOLLOWING COMMON FACTORS OF WILDFIRE HAZARDS.

A) Volcanic eruption

B) El-Nino

C) Volcanic Lightning and thundering

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

Load equalization is required toa) b) c) d)

A) Stop hunting of the drive

B) To divide the load

C) To maintain constant speed

D) To maintain constant torque

ANSWER: A

THE ONLY ACTIVE VOLCANO IN INDIA IS ……………..

A) Volcano BaratangB.

B) Barren Island volcano

C) Volcano Etna

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

For regenerative braking, the regenerated power should be

A) the same frequency as that of the main supply


B) frequency 1/3 that of the main supply

C) frequency 1/2 of that of the main supply

D) any frequency

ANSWER: A

Regenerative braking mode can be achieved in which quadrant (V-I curve)?a) b) c)d)

A) Third

B) Second

C) Fourth

D) First

ANSWER: B

INDIA’S TOTAL FLOOD-PRONE AREA IS UP TO……..

A) 30%

B) 20%

C) 12%

D) 10%

ANSWER: C

Which of the following lamps gives nearly monochromatic light ?

A) fluorescent tube

B) sodium vapour lamp

C) mercury vapour lamp

D) GLS lamp

ANSWER: B

Rashtriya Barh Ayog National Flood Commission identified ______ million hectares of land as flood-
prone in India?

A) 40

B) 80

C) 100

D) 120

ANSWER: A

Responsibility for securing the scene, preserving life and treating the wounded is the responsibility
of:

A) First responders
B) Mental health professionals

C) Social workers who specialize in crisis management

D) All citizens

ANSWER: A

Root Cause Analysis of Disasters can be done through which of the following methods?

A) HAZOP

B) Checklist

C) Consequence Analysis

D) Why-Why

ANSWER: D

Secondary fires are caused due to which of the following phenomenon?

A) Flash back

B) Burn-back

C) Fire spread

D) domino effect

ANSWER: B

Section 2 of an MSDS will have information about

A) Hazardous ingredients

B) Fire and Explosion data

C) Reactivity data

D) Manufacturers’ data

ANSWER: A

Select the correct full form of ISDR?

A) International Sustainable Development Report

B) International Strategy for Disaster Reduction

C) International Significant Disaster Resources

D) Intergovernmental Strategy for developing Recreation

ANSWER: B

Social workers skilled in crisis management work:

A) tornado or flood

B) violent events such as child abuse, domestic abuse, crime


C) psychopathology that triggers a crisis i.e. suicide attempt, drug overdose

D) all of the above

ANSWER: D

The agreement or understanding that has been reached among various nearby industries to help
each other during emergency is called?

A) Memorandum of Agreement

B) Agreement of Mock-exercise

C) Industrial Charter

D) Mutual-Aid Agreement

ANSWER: D

The area within 3 meter from the discharge nozzle of the relief valve is considered as:

A) Zone-0

B) Zone-2

C) Zone-1

D) none of the above

ANSWER: B

The best way to audit the efficacy of the disaster preparedness is:

A) Walk-through survey

B) Table-top exercises

C) Mock drills at field none to the above

D) None of the above

ANSWER: C

The catastrophic failure of a pressure vessel due to intense heating from a torch fire or a severe
mechanical impact is commonly known as:

A) UCVCE

B) CE

C) BLEVE

D) Cascading effect

ANSWER: C

The decision to offer humanitarian aid is determined by:

A) Theories of social justice

B) Deontological reasoning
C) Teleological reasoning

D) . All of the above

ANSWER: D

The first responders who usually experience strong emotional feelings while handling emergencies is
said to be under:

A) Critical stress

B) Critical Incident Stress

C) Critical Incident Recall

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

The first step in preparedness planning is:

A) Analysis of data collected

B) Determination of objectives

C) Development of implementing device

D) Determination of strategy

ANSWER: B

The ill-health effect caused by one-time, sudden, high exposures is often called:

A) Chronic effect

B) Acute effect

C) Systematic effect

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

The information required for the preparation of a Disaster Plan is called:

A) Strategic information

B) Tactical Information

C) Operational Information

D) Statutory information

ANSWER: A

The major man made causes of floods are-

A) Deforestation

B) Siltation
C) Bursting of dam

D) All of these

ANSWER: D

THE MAXIMUM INJURY CAUSING DISTANCE FOLLOWING A TOXIC GAS RELEASE WILL BE DEPENDENT
ON THE MATERIAL’S:

A) IDLH

B) STEL

C) TLV

D) Ceiling value

ANSWER: B

The Plan prepared for facilitating the prompt return to the normalcy and continuity of operation
after a disaster is called:

A) Rescue Plan

B) Relief Plan

C) Recovery Plan

D) None of the above

ANSWER: C

The primary result of earthquakes is-

A) Building and bridge collapsed

B) Rapture of water and gas pipelines

C) Change in course of river and creation of new islands

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

The principle which takes into account the precautions to be taken being on safer side and
avoidance of taking undue risks from hazards, the damage potential of which is not yet fully known,
is known as?

A) Guiding Principle

B) Risk Assessment Principle

C) Hazard Analysis Principle

D) Precautionary Principle

ANSWER: D

The purpose of Hazard maps is to identify and display the location of:
A) Hazard zones

B) Risk zones

C) Vulnerability zones

D) Decontamination zones

ANSWER: A

The ratio of Amount of toxic chemical to the IDLH value of the chemical is called:

A) Fire Load

B) Toxic Load

C) Pollution Load

D) Toxicological Load

ANSWER: B

The responsibility of press briefing during a disaster event normally rests on:

A) Incident Controller

B) Public relation Controller

C) Transport Controller

D) Security Controller

ANSWER: B

The role of which agency is important in disaster prevention.

A) Police

B) Government officials

C) Public

D) None of these

ANSWER: A

The roles and responsibilities identified for disaster responses under Disaster Management Plan is
known as-

A) Incident Organogram

B) Disaster Response Structure

C) Incident Command System

D) None of the above

ANSWER: C

The scientific study of earthquake is called


A) Seismograph

B) Seismology

C) Both a and b

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

The term Influenza implies to

A) Groin

B) Flu

C) Both a and b

D) None of these

ANSWER: B

The type of personal protection required when the greatest potential for exposure to hazards exists
is:

A) Level-A

B) Level-B

C) Level-C

D) Level-D

ANSWER: A

The typical examples of man-made disasters are

A) Chemical explosion

B) Leakage of toxic waste

C) War and civil strife

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

The uncontrolled sudden violent escape of well fluids during oil and gas exploitation activities is
known as:

A) Blow out

B) Burn out

C) Explosion

D) Blast out

ANSWER: A

The volcanic eruption in Iceland falls under which volcanic belt in the World?
A) Belts of Convergent boundaries

B) Divergent Plate Boundaries

C) Hot Spots

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

The written emergency information carries by the driver of all vehicles carrying hazardous
substances is known as:

A) HAZCHEM

B) TREMCARD

C) Emergency Information pane

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

The yellow portion of a NFPA diamond represents:

A) Health Hazard

B) Flammability Hazard

C) Reactivity Hazard

D) Special Hazard Information

ANSWER: B

There are nine tasks in the of disaster management. All of the following are tasks of this model
except:

A) Assess secondary social problems such as health epidemics, displaced persons

B) Counsel those who have suffered trauma and bereavement

C) Control rumors, provide accurate information

D) Provide security; prevent looting, protect person and property

ANSWER: B

THERP’ study is related to:

A) Risk Perception

B) Safety Analysis

C) Human error

D) Work study

ANSWER: C

To measure flood variability, __________ is used widely.


A) FFMI

B) FI

C) FMI

D) FFI

ANSWER: A

Tropical Cyclones are intense low pressure areas confined to the area lying between

A) 30 degree north and 30 degree south

B) 50 degree north and 50 degree south

C) 50 degree north and 30 degree south

D) 5 degree north and 5 degree south

ANSWER: A

Tsunami detectors are placed in sea at ____________ kms from shore.

A) 25

B) 100

C) 50

D) 85

ANSWER: C

Under damage criteria due to explosion pressure wave, 0.3 bar over pressure represents that:

A) 10% houses will get damaged

B) 90% houses will be seriously damaged

C) Windows of houses will be smashed

D) Glass of doors and windows will break

ANSWER: B

Under various zones created around an incident site for effective response, which one normally used
for command, control and support mobilization purposes?

A) Cold zone

B) Hot zones

C) Warm zone

D) None of the above

ANSWER: A

Under which regulation the local authority is responsible for preparation of an offsite Emergency
plan?
A) MSIHC Rules

B) Hazardous Chemical handling Rules

C) PMP Acts & Rules

D) None of the above

ANSWER: A

Under which section of the Factories Act, 1948 (amended to 1987), an occupier of a factory has to
formulate an Onsite Emergency Plan?

A) Section 41-B (4)

B) None of the above

C) Section 13 – B (2)

D) Section 46 – B (5)

ANSWER: A

What are the consequences of disaster on a society?

A) Loss of life

B) Damage to property

C) Environmental Damages

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

What are the major consequences of tropical cyclones-

A) Fierce wind

B) Heavy rain

C) Storm surge

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

What could be the Primary and Secondary Protections for protection of a vessel against Over-
pressure situation?

A) PSH and PSV

B) PSL and ESS

C) LSL and ESD

D) FSL and FSV

ANSWER: A
What is called for the manuals that identify the role of each officer in State for managing the natural
disasters?

A) State Relief Manuals

B) State Environmental Protection Manuals

C) State Disaster Manuals

D) State Protection Manuals

ANSWER: A

What is the 6 minute walk test for COPD?

A) The 6-min walk test (6MWT) is an exercise test that measures functional status in chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients and provides information on oxygen desaturation.

B) 6 minutes walking of the patient

C) None of the above

D) both of the above

ANSWER: A

What is the Normal Respiratory Rate of a healthy adult person?

A) Normal respiratory rates for a healthy, adult person at rest range from 12 to 16 breaths per
minute.

B) Normal respiratory rates for a healthy, adult person at rest range from 20 to 26 breaths per
minute.

C) Normal respiratory rates for a healthy, adult person at rest range from 100 to 132 breaths per
minute

D) none of the above

ANSWER: A

What is the purpose of hazard identification in Disaster preparedness?

A) to identify the probable causes of disasters

B) to identify the probable disaster scenarios

C) to quantify the consequences

D) to suggest mitigation measures

ANSWER: B

What is the rank of India in the world for natural disasters after China as per UNISDR?

A) second

B) third

C) fifth
D) tenth

ANSWER: A

What is the reason for volcanic eruption?

A) Movement and splitting of the major and minor plates of the Earth

B) Origin of magma because of lowering of melting point inside the Earth caused by reduction in the
pressure due to the splitting of plates and their movements in opposite directions.

C) Only A

D) Both A & B

ANSWER: B

What is the safe level of heat radiation (in Kw/m^2) for an average human being?

A) 1.75

B) 2.8

C) 6.4

D) 14.4

ANSWER: A

What year Bhopal Gas Tragedy happens, and due to which gas?

A) In 1986, Ethyl isocyanate

B) In 1984, Methyl isocyanate

C) In 1984, Potassium isothiocyanate

D) In 1987, Sodium isothiocyanante

ANSWER: B

When the Disaster damage assessment is done?

A) Warning phase/ mitigation phase

B) Impact Phase/loss phase

C) Rescue phase/support phase

D) Reconstruction/Re-Habilitation Phase

ANSWER: D

When unacceptable risk is brought under the acceptability criteria through additional risk reduction
measures, the identified risk is said to be within-

A) As low as Regularly Possible (ALARP) zone

B) As low as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) zone

C) As low as Reasonably Possible (ALARP) zone


D) As low as Rationally Probable (ALARP) zone

ANSWER: B

Where was the first use of nuclear bombs which cause death to the millions of lives?

A) Karachi

B) Melbourne and Sydney

C) Hiroshima and Nagasaki

D) Tokyo

ANSWER: C

Which is the main cause of cholera?

A) Poor sanitation

B) Floods

C) Air pollution

D) Poor nutrition

ANSWER: A

Which kind of wave/ waves caused by the gravitational interaction between the Sun, Moon and the
Earth?

A) Tsunami

B) Tidal waves

C) Both

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

Which of the below is an example of slow-onset disaster?

A) Earthquake

B) Tsunami

C) Cyclone

D) Draught

ANSWER: D

Which of the following classifications of blowout causes minor level of pollution?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class IV
D) Class V

ANSWER: D

Which of the following crisis groups are responsible for preparation of offsite response plan at local
level?

A) State Crisis Group

B) Local Crisis Group

C) District Crisis Group

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

Which of the following is a hazard quantification method?

A) FMEA

B) Fault-tree

C) HAZOP

D) What-if Analysis

ANSWER: B

Which of the following is a human error in Disaster Management model?

A) Error of Omission

B) Typographical errors

C) Error of Commision

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

Which of the following is an example of fixed hazard?

A) Toxic Gas release

B) Explosion

C) Pool fire

D) None of the above

ANSWER: C

Which of the following is not a technological factor used for Vulnerability assessment?

A) Process Safety

B) Individual difference

C) Communication failure
D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

Which of the following is not part of geological disaster?

A) Volcanoes

B) Earthquakes

C) Tsunami

D) Sea Surge

ANSWER: D

Which of the following is not part of geological disaster?

A) sea surge

B) tsunami

C) flood

D) Volcanoes

ANSWER: A

Which of the following is not the part of Disaster Mitigation Planning?

A) Emergency Communication

B) Disaster warning system

C) Risk and vulnerability analysis

D) Insurance requirements

ANSWER: A

Which of the following is the main contributory cause for Pipeline Disasters in the world?

A) Third-party Activity

B) Corrosion

C) Mechanical failure

D) Operational failures

ANSWER: A

Which of the following SIL levels represents catastrophic impacts of a Disaster?

A) SIL-1

B) SIL-2

C) SIL-3

D) SIL-4
ANSWER: D

Which of the following situation arises to the human body while responding to emergencies?

A) Body rapidly produces Adrenaline

B) Heart beat increases

C) Temperature increases

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

Which of the following steps of Toxic Risk Assessment exercise considers the possible routes of entry
of chemicals into body and its reaction thereby?

A) 1st step

B) 2nd step

C) 3rd step

D) 4th step

ANSWER: C

Which of the following techniques are not used for Oil spill response?

A) Use of booms and Skimming

B) Use of dispersants

C) Burning

D) Bio-recovery

ANSWER: B

Which of the following types of volcanic eruptions associated with Lacroix?

A) Hawaii Eruption

B) Strombolian Eruption

C) Vulcanian

D) All of the above

ANSWER: D

Which of the following will be found on a Material Safety Data Sheet?

A) Spill and leak procedures

B) Health Hazard Information

C) Special protection Information

D) All of the above


ANSWER: D

Which of these is/are flood prevention and mitigation strategy? 1. Construction of flood
protection embankments 2. Depopulating the flood plains 3. Afforestation 4. Decongesting
river channels Select the correct option using the codes given below

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1, 2 and 3 only

C) 2, 3 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: D

Which one among these is not an essential condition for emergence of Tropical Cyclone?

A) Peninsular landmass

B) Strong coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre.

C) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.

D) Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

ANSWER: A

Which one of the following has more damaging effect after a liquefied flammable gas release?

A) Early Ignition

B) Delayed Ignition

C) It depends upon cases

D) It depends upon, temperature

ANSWER: B

Which one of the following theories of disaster management informs organizational readiness and
response in a disaster?

A) Hobfoll"s theory of Conservation of Resources

B) The problem-solving"task model

C) Structure-functional theory

D) Theory of traumatogenic forces

ANSWER: C

Which option is the perfect answer to the Civil war?

A) Kargil war

B) World war II

C) World war I
D) Syrian War

ANSWER: D

Whose responsibility normally it is to declare an Onsite Emergency in an industry?

A) Incident Controller

B) Site Main Controller

C) Key person (Fire and safety)

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

With reference to flood consider the following statements: 1. National Programme of Flood
Management was launched in 1954. 2. Disturbances along the natural drainage channels and
colonisation of flood-plains and river-beds are some of the human activities that play an important
role in increasing the intensity, magnitude and gravity of floods. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: B

With reference to the Classification of Natural Disasters, Consider the following statements: i.
Broadly, natural disasters can be classified under four categories: Atmospheric, Terrestrial, Aquatic
and Biological.ii Bird flu, dengue are example of Aquatic Disaster. iii India has experienced all the
four kind of natural disaster. Select the correct answer using the code given below

A) i only

B) i and ii only

C) i, ii and iii

D) i and iii only

ANSWER: D

Within which zone “Emergency Control Center” can be situated?

A) Hot zone

B) Support zone

C) Warm zone

D) None of the above

ANSWER: B

You might also like